As Reported by the House Finance and Appropriations Committee

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
Sub. H. B. No. 59


Representative Amstutz 



A BILL
To amend sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 1
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 103.144, 2
105.41, 107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 3
109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 4
109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 113.061, 5
117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 6
121.03, 121.11, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 7
122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 8
122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 122.657, 9
122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 10
122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 11
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 12
124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 125.05, 125.21, 13
125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 14
125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 15
126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 133.01, 16
133.06, 135.80, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 17
145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.311, 149.43, 151.11, 18
152.09, 153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 19
154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 20
164.27, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 21
169.02, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 22
173.21, 173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 23
173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 173.40, 24
173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 25
173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 26
173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 173.501, 173.99, 189.04, 27
189.06, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 28
305.23, 307.07, 307.673, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 29
317.08, 317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 30
329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 31
339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 32
340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 33
340.09, 340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 34
340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 351.021, 715.691, 718.01, 35
718.03, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 36
755.06, 901.21, 901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 37
905.06, 909.15, 924.06, 927.54, 955.201, 956.07, 38
956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 991.06, 1332.26, 1337.11, 39
1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1509.01, 1509.02, 40
1509.062, 1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1509.73, 41
1511.02, 1511.022, 1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 42
1545.071, 1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 43
1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 44
1751.11, 1751.12, 1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 45
1751.60, 1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 46
2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 47
2151.011, 2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.86, 2152.54, 48
2152.59, 2301.02, 2301.03, 2303.201, 2305.234, 49
2307.65, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2505.02, 2743.02, 50
2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.13, 2903.33, 51
2907.22, 2913.40, 2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 52
2921.13, 2921.22, 2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.125, 53
2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.13, 2929.15, 2930.01, 54
2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 55
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 2967.22, 56
2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 3107.083, 57
3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 58
3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 59
3121.898, 3123.958, 3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 60
3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.15, 3302.01, 61
3302.03, 3302.22, 3304.231, 3305.03, 3307.51, 62
3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 63
3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.22, 64
3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.78, 3312.08, 3313.372, 65
3313.376, 3313.42, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 66
3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 67
3313.6011, 3313.6013, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 68
3313.65, 3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 69
3313.843, 3313.845, 3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.978, 70
3313.98, 3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.029, 71
3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 72
3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 3314.09, 73
3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3315.40, 3315.42, 74
3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 75
3317.023, 3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 76
3317.06, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.12, 3317.14, 77
3317.141, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 3317.50, 78
3317.51, 3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 79
3318.36, 3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.17, 80
3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3321.01, 3321.05, 81
3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 82
3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 83
3323.142, 3326.11, 3326.20, 3326.31, 3326.32, 84
3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 85
3333.041, 3333.31, 3333.82, 3335.35, 3335.36, 86
3335.37, 3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.12, 3353.01, 87
3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 88
3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.07, 3365.12, 3383.01, 89
3383.07, 3501.01, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 90
3701.027, 3701.13, 3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 91
3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 3701.507, 92
3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 93
3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 94
3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 95
3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 96
3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 97
3713.06, 3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 98
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 3721.024, 99
3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 100
3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 101
3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 102
3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 103
3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 104
3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 105
3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 106
3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3742.30, 107
3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 108
3769.08, 3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.06, 109
3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.091, 3781.112, 3793.01, 110
3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 111
3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 112
3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 113
3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 114
3793.39, 3798.01, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 115
3905.483, 3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 116
3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 117
3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 118
4104.33, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 119
4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 120
4121.50, 4123.32, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4301.10, 121
4301.30, 4301.43, 4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 122
4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 4505.101, 4506.07, 123
4507.03, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 124
4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.69, 4513.60, 4513.61, 125
4513.62, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 126
4709.11, 4715.36, 4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 127
4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 128
4723.18, 4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 129
4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.80, 4729.81, 130
4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 131
4731.71, 4734.41, 4745.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 132
4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 133
4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 134
4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.481, 4758.10, 4758.11, 135
4761.01, 4906.20, 5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 136
5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 137
5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 138
5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 139
5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 140
5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 141
5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 142
5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 143
5101.571, 5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 144
5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 145
5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 146
5103.13, 5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 147
5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 148
5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 149
5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 150
5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 151
5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 152
5111.0119, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 153
5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 154
5111.0210, 5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 155
5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 156
5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 157
5111.05, 5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 158
5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 159
5111.071, 5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 160
5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 161
5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 162
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 163
5111.121, 5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 164
5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 5111.163, 165
5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 166
5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 167
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 168
5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 169
5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 170
5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 171
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 172
5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 173
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 174
5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 175
5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 176
5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 177
5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 178
5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.41, 179
5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 180
5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 181
5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 182
5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 183
5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 184
5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 185
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 186
5111.681, 5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 187
5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.71, 188
5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 189
5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 190
5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 191
5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 192
5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 193
5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 5111.88, 194
5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 195
5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 5111.891, 196
5111.892, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 5111.911, 197
5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 198
5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 199
5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 200
5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 201
5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 202
5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 203
5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 5112.331, 204
5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 205
5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 206
5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 5112.47, 207
5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 208
5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 209
5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 210
5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 5119.14, 211
5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 212
5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 213
5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 5119.33, 214
5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 215
5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 5119.52, 216
5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 217
5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 5119.622, 218
5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 219
5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 220
5120.652, 5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 221
5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 5121.37, 222
5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 223
5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 224
5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 5122.01, 5122.03, 225
5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 226
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 227
5122.23, 5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 228
5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 5122.34, 229
5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 230
5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 231
5123.03, 5123.0412, 5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 232
5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38, 233
5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.05, 234
5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5126.24, 5139.03, 235
5139.04, 5139.08, 5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 236
5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5505.12, 5507.46, 237
5511.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 238
5703.37, 5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 239
5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5705.412, 240
5709.17, 5709.212, 5709.75, 5725.18, 5725.34, 241
5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 242
5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 243
5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.98, 5735.012, 244
5735.12, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 245
5739.09, 5739.12, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 246
5741.12, 5741.17, 5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 247
5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 248
5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 249
5747.13, 5747.21, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 250
5747.98, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 251
5751.01, 5751.014, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 252
5751.20, 5751.21, 5753.01, 5753.03, 5753.07, 253
5815.28, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 254
5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 255
and 6111.037; to amend, for the purpose of 256
adopting new section numbers as indicated in 257
parentheses, sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 258
(173.52), 173.401 (173.521), 173.402 (173.524), 259
173.403 (173.53), 173.404 (173.55), 3313.847 260
(3317.30), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 261
3383.07 (123.281), 3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 262
(5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 (5168.44), 263
3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 264
(5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 (5168.49), 265
3721.533 (5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 266
(5168.52), 3721.55 (5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 267
3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 (5168.56), 3737.883 268
(3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 3793.031 269
(5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 270
(5119.161), 3793.10 (5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 271
3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 (5119.27), 3793.14 272
(5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 (5119.188), 273
3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 274
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 275
3793.34 (5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 276
(5119.95), 3793.37 (5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 277
3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 (5160.45), 5101.31 278
(5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 (5161.06), 279
5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 280
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 281
(5161.12), 5101.513 (5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 282
5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 (5161.27), 5101.52 283
(5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 (5161.17), 284
5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 285
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 286
5101.574 (5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 287
(5160.37), 5101.59 (5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 288
5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 (5163.02), 5111.013 289
(5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 (5164.07), 290
5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 291
5111.0116 (5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 292
5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 (5163.45), 5111.02 293
(5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 (5164.56), 294
5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 295
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 296
5111.029 (5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 297
(5165.48), 5111.0212 (5164.80), 5111.0213 298
(5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 299
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 300
5111.032 (5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 301
(5164.341), 5111.035 (5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 302
5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 (5164.45), 5111.051 303
(5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 304
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 305
5111.061 (5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 306
(5164.31), 5111.07 (5164.752), 5111.071 307
(5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 308
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 309
(5164.757), 5111.084 (5164.7510), 5111.085 310
(5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 (5162.13), 311
5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 312
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 313
5111.11 (5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 314
(5162.212), 5111.113 (5162.22), 5111.114 315
(5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 (5162.24), 316
5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 317
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 318
5111.16 (5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 319
(5167.20), 5111.163 (5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 320
5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.1711 321
(5167.30), 5111.172 (5167.12), 5111.173 (5167.40), 322
5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 (5167.26), 5111.177 323
(5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 (5167.13), 324
5111.18 (5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 5111.19 325
(5164.74), 5111.191 (5164.741), 5111.20 (5165.01), 326
5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 (5165.03), 5111.203 327
(5165.031), 5111.204 (5165.04), 5111.21 (5165.06), 328
5111.212 (5165.35), 5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 329
(5165.37), 5111.222 (5165.15), 5111.223 330
(5165.071), 5111.224 (5124.15), 5111.225 331
(5165.155), 5111.226 (5124.02), 5111.23 (5124.19), 332
5111.231 (5165.19), 5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 333
(5124.194), 5111.235 (5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 334
5111.241 (5124.21), 5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 335
(5165.25), 5111.245 (5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 336
5111.25 (5165.17), 5111.251 (5124.17), 5111.254 337
(5165.151), 5111.255 (5124.151), 5111.257 338
(5165.28), 5111.258 (5165.153), 5111.259 339
(5165.156), 5111.26 (5165.10), 5111.261 340
(5165.107), 5111.262 (5165.47), 5111.263 341
(5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 5111.265 (5165.29), 342
5111.266 (5165.101), 5111.27 (5165.108), 5111.271 343
(5165.1010), 5111.28 (5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 344
5111.291 (5124.155), 5111.30 (5165.073), 5111.31 345
(5165.08), 5111.32 (5165.081), 5111.33 (5124.34), 346
5111.331 (5165.34), 5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 347
(5165.61), 5111.37 (5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 348
5111.39 (5165.64), 5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 349
(5165.66), 5111.411 (5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 350
5111.43 (5165.69), 5111.44 (5165.70), 5111.45 351
(5165.71), 5111.46 (5165.72), 5111.47 (5165.73), 352
5111.48 (5165.74), 5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 353
(5165.76), 5111.51 (5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 354
5111.52 (5165.79), 5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 355
(5165.81), 5111.55 (5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 356
5111.57 (5165.84), 5111.58 (5165.85), 5111.59 357
(5165.86), 5111.60 (5165.87), 5111.61 (5165.88), 358
5111.62 (5162.66), 5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 359
(5165.50), 5111.661 (5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 360
5111.671 (5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 361
(5165.513), 5111.674 (5165.514), 5111.675 362
(5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 363
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 364
(5165.521), 5111.682 (5165.522), 5111.683 365
(5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 366
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 367
(5165.527), 5111.688 (5165.528), 5111.689 368
(5165.53), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 (5162.361), 369
5111.712 (5162.362), 5111.713 (5162.363), 5111.714 370
(5162.64), 5111.715 (5162.364), 5111.84 (5166.03), 371
5111.85 (5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 372
(5166.05), 5111.853 (5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 373
5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 (5166.10), 5111.86 374
(5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 375
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 376
(5166.14), 5111.865 (5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 377
5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 (5166.22), 5111.873 378
(5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 (5124.61), 379
5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 380
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 381
5111.881 (5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 382
(5166.303), 5111.884 (5166.304), 5111.885 383
(5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 384
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 385
(5166.309), 5111.8810 (5166.3010), 5111.89 386
(173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 (173.544), 387
5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 388
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 389
5111.912 (5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 390
(5162.11), 5111.92 (5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 391
5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 (5162.52), 5111.943 392
(5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 (5162.56), 393
5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 394
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 395
(5167.21), 5111.99 (5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 396
5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 (5168.05), 5112.05 397
(5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 (5168.07), 398
5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 399
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 400
5112.18 (5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 401
(5168.13), 5112.30 (5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 402
5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 (5168.63), 5112.331 403
(5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 (5168.66), 404
5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 405
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 406
5112.40 (5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 407
(5168.22), 5112.43 (5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 408
5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 (5168.26), 5112.47 409
(5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 (5168.99), 410
5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 411
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 412
5119.061 (5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 413
(5119.18), 5119.072 (5119.181), 5119.08 414
(5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 415
(5191.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 416
(5119.187), 5119.14 (5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 417
5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 (5119.51), 5119.18 418
(5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 (5119.331), 419
5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 420
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 421
5119.24 (5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 422
(5119.09), 5119.33 (5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 423
5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 (5119.55), 5119.36 424
(5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 (5119.06), 425
5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 426
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 427
5119.53 (5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 428
(5119.32), 5119.61 (5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 429
5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 (5119.361), 5119.62 430
(5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 (5119.25), 431
5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 432
(5119.41), and 5119.691 (5119.411); to enact new 433
sections 3313.481, 3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 434
3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.16, 3327.02, 3345.81, 435
and 3737.883, and sections 1.611, 101.392, 436
121.483, 122.681, 123.19, 125.27, 149.60, 149.63, 437
151.50, 173.51, 173.522, 173.523, 173.543, 438
173.545, 173.546, 173.56, 173.60, 191.061, 340.08, 439
353.01 to 353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 440
903.30, 991.041, 1545.23, 2329.192, 3301.80, 441
3302.26, 3310.032, 3310.035, 3313.5311, 3313.5312, 442
3313.848, 3314.042, 3314.082, 3314.086, 3314.092, 443
3314.29, 3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, 444
3317.161, 3317.40, 3319.031, 3326.112, 3327.07, 445
3328.27, 3333.049, 3333.124, 3333.342, 3333.613, 446
3345.48, 3350.15, 3365.022, 3701.033, 3701.5010, 447
3701.541, 3701.94, 3701.941, 3701.942, 3701.943, 448
3701.944, 3701.95, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 449
3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3714.074, 3721.072, 450
3735.661, 3772.092, 3772.36, 4143.01, 4143.02, 451
4143.03, 4143.04, 4143.05, 4143.06, 4143.07, 452
4143.08, 4143.09, 4143.99, 4503.524, 4503.732, 453
4507.021, 4729.542, 4751.042, 4751.14, 5101.101, 454
5101.804, 5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 455
5124.03, 5124.05, 5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 456
5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 5124.101, 457
5124.102, 5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 458
5124.107, 5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 459
5124.154, 5124.191, 5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 460
5124.28, 5124.30, 5124.31, 5124.32, 5124.33, 461
5124.35, 5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 462
5124.42, 5124.43, 5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 463
5124.50, 5124.51, 5124.511, 5124.512, 5124.513, 464
5124.514, 5124.515, 5124.516, 5124.517, 5124.52, 465
5124.521, 5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 466
5124.526, 5124.527, 5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.99, 467
5126.131, 5160.01, 5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 468
5160.03, 5160.04, 5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 469
5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 5160.13, 470
5160.16, 5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 471
5160.30, 5160.31, 5160.36, 5160.371, 5160.46, 472
5160.47, 5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 5160.52, 473
5160.99, 5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 474
5162.022, 5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 475
5162.31, 5162.60, 5162.62, 5163.01, 5163.03, 476
5163.04, 5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.07, 477
5163.08, 5164.01, 5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 478
5164.55, 5164.59, 5164.60, 5164.61, 5164.71, 479
5164.72, 5164.73, 5164.83, 5165.02, 5165.072, 480
5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 5165.105, 481
5165.106, 5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 482
5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 483
5165.43, 5165.44, 5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 484
5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 5167.02, 485
5167.032, 5167.121, 5168.41, 5703.75, 5703.76, 486
5703.90, 5705.55, 5735.013, 5739.081, 5741.032, 487
5910.08, and 5919.342; and to repeal sections 488
122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 122.152, 122.153, 489
122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 125.838, 490
166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 183.28, 184.04, 491
340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 492
1531.34, 1547.721, 1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 493
1547.725, 1547.726, 3302.043, 3313.481, 3313.482, 494
3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 3317.012, 3317.014, 495
3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 496
3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.13, 497
3317.16, 3317.62, 3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 498
3323.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 3345.81, 3353.09, 499
3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 500
3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3701.072, 501
3701.263, 3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 502
3701.903, 3701.904, 3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 503
3721.026, 3793.02, 3793.03, 3793.04, 3793.041, 504
3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 3793.08, 3793.09, 505
3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 506
5101.514, 5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 507
5101.526, 5101.528, 5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 508
5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 5111.0113, 509
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 510
5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 5111.176, 511
5111.211, 5111.236, 5111.65, 5111.70, 5111.701, 512
5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 5111.705, 5111.706, 513
5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 5111.83, 514
5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 515
5111.946, 5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 516
5119.47, 5119.623, 5119.64, 5119.65, 5119.66, 517
5119.67, 5119.68, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 518
5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, and 6111.029 of the 519
Revised Code; to amend Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. 520
H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly; to amend 521
Sections 201.80 and 509.40 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 522
129th General Assembly; to amend Section 4 of Sub. 523
S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly, as 524
subsequently amended; to amend Section 105.05 of 525
Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 128th General Assembly; to 526
repeal Section 267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 527
the 129th General Assembly; to repeal Section 528
125.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 529
Assembly as subsequently amended; to repeal 530
Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 121st 531
General Assembly as subsequently amended; to amend 532
Sections 203.90.10 and 203.90.20 of Sub. S.B. 312 533
of the 129th General Assembly; to amend the 534
versions of sections 109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 535
5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 5104.32 536
of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take 537
effect January 1, 2014, to continue the provisions 538
of this act on and after that effective date; to 539
amend the versions of sections 4501.01 and 4507.06 540
of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take 541
effect January 1, 2017, to continue the provisions 542
of this act on and after that effective date; to 543
amend section 3313.88 of the Revised Code as it 544
results from Section 101.01 of this act for the 545
purpose of adopting new section number 3313.482 on 546
July 1, 2014; to make operating appropriations for 547
the biennium beginning July 1, 2013, and ending 548
June 30, 2015; to provide authorization and 549
conditions for the operation of state programs; to 550
repeal sections 5168.20, 5168.21, 5168.22, 551
5168.23, 5168.24, 5168.25, 5168.26, 5168.27, and 552
5168.28 of the Revised Code on October 1, 2015, to 553
terminate the operation of those sections on that 554
date; and to repeal sections 5168.01, 5168.02, 555
5168.03, 5168.04, 5168.05, 5168.06, 5168.07, 556
5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 5168.11, 5168.12, 557
5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 of the Revised Code 558
on October 16, 2015, to terminate the operation of 559
those sections on that date.560


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 561
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 103.144, 105.41, 107.033, 562
107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 563
109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 113.061, 564
117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 121.11, 565
121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122.28, 566
122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 122.657, 567
122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 568
122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 569
124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 125.05, 125.21, 570
125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 571
126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 572
127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.80, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 573
145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.311, 149.43, 151.11, 152.09, 153.692, 574
154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 575
156.04, 156.05, 164.27, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 576
169.02, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 577
173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 578
173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 173.43, 579
173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 580
173.501, 173.99, 189.04, 189.06, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 581
301.28, 305.23, 307.07, 307.673, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 582
317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 583
329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 584
340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 585
340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 586
351.021, 715.691, 718.01, 718.03, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 587
742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 588
909.15, 924.06, 927.54, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 589
991.06, 1332.26, 1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1509.01, 590
1509.02, 1509.062, 1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1509.73, 1511.02, 591
1511.022, 1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.99, 1548.02, 592
1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 593
1751.11, 1751.12, 1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1923.14, 594
2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 595
2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 596
2301.02, 2301.03, 2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 2317.02, 2317.422, 597
2505.02, 2743.02, 2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.13, 2903.33, 598
2907.22, 2913.40, 2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.13, 2921.22, 599
2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.125, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.13, 2929.15, 600
2930.01, 2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 601
2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 602
3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 603
3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 604
3123.958, 3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 605
3301.0723, 3301.15, 3302.01, 3302.03, 3302.22, 3304.231, 3305.03, 606
3307.51, 3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 607
3310.08, 3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.78, 608
3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.42, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 609
3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6011, 610
3313.6013, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.714, 611
3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 3313.845, 3313.847, 612
3313.88, 3313.978, 3313.98, 3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 613
3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 614
3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 615
3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 616
3317.023, 3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.08, 617
3317.10, 3317.12, 3317.14, 3317.141, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 618
3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 619
3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 620
3321.01, 3321.05, 3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 621
3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 3323.142, 3326.11, 622
3326.20, 3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 623
3327.01, 3333.041, 3333.31, 3333.82, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 624
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 625
3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.07, 3365.12, 3383.01, 626
3383.07, 3501.01, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.13, 627
3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 628
3701.344, 3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 629
3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 630
3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 631
3709.01, 3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 632
3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 633
3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 634
3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 635
3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 636
3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 637
3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 638
3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 639
3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3769.08, 640
3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.06, 3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.091, 641
3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 642
3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 643
3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 644
3793.38, 3793.39, 3798.01, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 645
3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 646
3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 647
4104.33, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 648
4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.50, 4123.32, 4131.03, 4141.162, 649
4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.62, 650
4505.02, 4505.09, 4505.101, 4506.07, 4507.03, 4507.06, 4507.51, 651
4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.69, 4513.60, 4513.61, 652
4513.62, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4715.36, 653
4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 654
4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 655
4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 656
4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.41, 4745.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 657
4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 658
4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.481, 4758.10, 659
4758.11, 4761.01, 4906.20, 5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 660
5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 661
5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 662
5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 663
5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 664
5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 665
5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 666
5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 667
5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 668
5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 669
5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 670
5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 671
5111.018, 5111.0112, 5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 672
5111.0119, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 673
5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 5111.0211, 674
5111.0212, 5111.0213, 5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 675
5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 676
5111.05, 5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 677
5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 678
5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 679
5111.09, 5111.091, 5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 680
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 681
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 682
5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 683
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 684
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 685
5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 686
5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 687
5111.226, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 688
5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 689
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 690
5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 691
5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 692
5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 693
5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 694
5111.44, 5111.45, 5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 695
5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 5111.56, 696
5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 697
5111.66, 5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 698
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 699
5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 700
5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 701
5111.714, 5111.715, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 702
5111.853, 5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 703
5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 704
5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 705
5111.878, 5111.879, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 706
5111.886, 5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 707
5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 5111.911, 708
5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 5111.94, 5111.941, 709
5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 710
5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 5112.06, 711
5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 712
5112.19, 5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 5112.331, 713
5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.38, 5112.39, 714
5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 715
5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 5119.01, 716
5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 717
5119.072, 5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 5119.14, 718
5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 5119.201, 5119.202, 719
5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 720
5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 5119.43, 721
5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 722
5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 723
5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.07, 724
5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 725
5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 726
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 727
5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 728
5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 729
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 730
5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 731
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 732
5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 733
5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 734
5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.05, 735
5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5126.24, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 736
5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5505.12, 737
5507.46, 5511.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5703.37, 738
5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 739
5705.25, 5705.412, 5709.17, 5709.212, 5709.75, 5725.18, 5725.34, 740
5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 741
5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.98, 742
5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 743
5739.12, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.12, 5741.17, 5743.081, 744
5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 745
5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 746
5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 747
5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.014, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 748
5751.21, 5753.01, 5753.03, 5753.07, 5815.28, 5905.02, 5910.02, 749
5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 750
and 6111.037 be amended; sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 751
(173.52), 173.401 (173.521), 173.402 (173.523), 173.403 (173.53), 752
173.404 (173.55), 3313.847 (3317.30), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3383.01 753
(123.28), 3383.07 (123.281), 3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 (5168.42), 754
3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 (5168.44), 3721.513 (5168.45), 755
3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 (5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 756
(5168.49), 3721.533 (5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 757
(5168.52), 3721.55 (5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 3721.57 758
(5168.55), 3721.58 (5168.56), 3737.883 (3737.884), 3793.01 759
(5119.01), 3793.031 (5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 760
(5119.161), 3793.10 (5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 3793.12 761
(5119.61), 3793.13 (5119.27), 3793.14 (5119.26), 3793.15 762
(5119.17), 3793.16 (5119.188), 3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 763
(5119.49), 3793.31 (5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 764
(5119.92), 3793.34 (5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 765
(5119.95), 3793.37 (5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 3793.39 766
(5119.98), 5101.271 (5160.45), 5101.31 (5164.756), 5101.50 767
(5161.05), 5101.501 (5161.06), 5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 768
(5161.10), 5101.511 (5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 769
(5161.12), 5101.513 (5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 5101.517 770
(5161.24), 5101.519 (5161.27), 5101.52 (5161.15), 5101.521 771
(5161.16), 5101.522 (5161.17), 5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 772
(5161.25), 5101.571 (5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 773
(5160.40), 5101.574 (5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 774
(5160.37), 5101.59 (5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 5111.01 775
(5162.03), 5111.011 (5163.02), 5111.013 (5163.40), 5111.016 776
(5164.26), 5111.018 (5164.07), 5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 777
(5164.754), 5111.0116 (5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 5111.0118 778
(5163.32), 5111.0119 (5163.45), 5111.02 (5164.02), 5111.021 779
(5164.70), 5111.022 (5164.56), 5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 780
(5164.08), 5111.025 (5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 781
(5164.32), 5111.029 (5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 782
(5165.48), 5111.0212 (5164.80), 5111.0213 (5164.77), 5111.0214 783
(5164.82), 5111.0215 (5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 784
(5164.37), 5111.032 (5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 785
(5164.341), 5111.035 (5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 5111.042 786
(5164.25), 5111.05 (5164.45), 5111.051 (5164.48), 5111.052 787
(5164.46), 5111.053 (5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 788
(5164.38), 5111.061 (5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 789
(5164.31), 5111.07 (5164.752), 5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.08 790
(5164.759), 5111.081 (5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 791
(5164.757), 5111.084 (5164.7510), 5111.085 (5164.758), 5111.086 792
(5164.75), 5111.09 (5162.13), 5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 793
(5162.132), 5111.10 (5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 794
(5162.04), 5111.11 (5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 795
(5162.212), 5111.113 (5162.22), 5111.114 (5163.33), 5111.12 796
(5162.23), 5111.121 (5162.24), 5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 797
(5164.88), 5111.141 (5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 798
(5163.21), 5111.16 (5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 799
(5167.20), 5111.163 (5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 5111.1710 800
(5167.14), 5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.1711 (5167.30), 5111.172 801
(5167.12), 5111.173 (5167.40), 5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 802
(5167.26), 5111.177 (5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 803
(5167.13), 5111.18 (5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 5111.19 804
(5164.74), 5111.191 (5164.741), 5111.20 (5165.01), 5111.201 805
(5165.011), 5111.202 (5165.03), 5111.203 (5165.031), 5111.204 806
(5165.04), 5111.21 (5165.06), 5111.212 (5165.35), 5111.22 807
(5165.07), 5111.221 (5165.37), 5111.222 (5165.15), 5111.223 808
(5165.071), 5111.224 (5124.15), 5111.225 (5165.155), 5111.226 809
(5124.02), 5111.23 (5124.19), 5111.231 (5165.19), 5111.232 810
(5165.192), 5111.233 (5124.194), 5111.235 (5124.23), 5111.24 811
(5165.16), 5111.241 (5124.21), 5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 812
(5165.25), 5111.245 (5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 5111.25 813
(5165.17), 5111.251 (5124.17), 5111.254 (5165.151), 5111.255 814
(5124.151), 5111.257 (5165.28), 5111.258 (5165.153), 5111.259 815
(5165.156), 5111.26 (5165.10), 5111.261 (5165.107), 5111.262 816
(5165.47), 5111.263 (5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 5111.265 817
(5165.29), 5111.266 (5165.101), 5111.27 (5165.108), 5111.271 818
(5165.1010), 5111.28 (5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 5111.291 819
(5124.155), 5111.30 (5165.073), 5111.31 (5165.08), 5111.32 820
(5165.081), 5111.33 (5124.34), 5111.331 (5165.34), 5111.35 821
(5165.60), 5111.36 (5165.61), 5111.37 (5165.62), 5111.38 822
(5165.63), 5111.39 (5165.64), 5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 823
(5165.66), 5111.411 (5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 5111.43 824
(5165.69), 5111.44 (5165.70), 5111.45 (5165.71), 5111.46 825
(5165.72), 5111.47 (5165.73), 5111.48 (5165.74), 5111.49 826
(5165.75), 5111.50 (5165.76), 5111.51 (5165.77), 5111.511 827
(5165.78), 5111.52 (5165.79), 5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 828
(5165.81), 5111.55 (5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 5111.57 829
(5165.84), 5111.58 (5165.85), 5111.59 (5165.86), 5111.60 830
(5165.87), 5111.61 (5165.88), 5111.62 (5162.66), 5111.63 831
(5165.89), 5111.66 (5165.50), 5111.661 (5165.501), 5111.67 832
(5165.51), 5111.671 (5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 833
(5165.513), 5111.674 (5165.514), 5111.675 (5165.515), 5111.676 834
(5165.516), 5111.677 (5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 835
(5165.521), 5111.682 (5165.522), 5111.683 (5165.523), 5111.684 836
(5165.524), 5111.685 (5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 837
(5165.527), 5111.688 (5165.528), 5111.689 (5165.53), 5111.71 838
(5162.36), 5111.711 (5162.361), 5111.712 (5162.362), 5111.713 839
(5162.363), 5111.714 (5162.64), 5111.715 (5162.364), 5111.84 840
(5166.03), 5111.85 (5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 841
(5166.05), 5111.853 (5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 5111.855 842
(5166.08), 5111.856 (5166.10), 5111.86 (5166.11), 5111.861 843
(5166.12), 5111.862 (5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 844
(5166.14), 5111.865 (5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 5111.871 845
(5166.21), 5111.872 (5166.22), 5111.873 (5166.23), 5111.874 846
(5124.60), 5111.875 (5124.61), 5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 847
(5124.63), 5111.878 (5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 848
(5166.30), 5111.881 (5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 849
(5166.303), 5111.884 (5166.304), 5111.885 (5166.305), 5111.886 850
(5166.306), 5111.887 (5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 851
(5166.309), 5111.8810 (5166.3010), 5111.89 (173.54), 5111.891 852
(173.541), 5111.892 (173.544), 5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 853
(173.542), 5111.90 (5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 854
(5162.37), 5111.912 (5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 855
(5162.11), 5111.92 (5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 5111.94 856
(5162.54), 5111.941 (5162.52), 5111.943 (5162.50), 5111.944 857
(5162.58), 5111.945 (5162.56), 5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 858
(5166.35), 5111.98 (5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 859
(5167.21), 5111.99 (5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 5112.03 860
(5168.02), 5112.04 (5168.05), 5112.05 (5168.03), 5112.06 861
(5168.06), 5112.07 (5168.07), 5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 862
(5168.08), 5112.10 (5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 863
(5168.14), 5112.18 (5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 864
(5168.13), 5112.30 (5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 5112.32 865
(5168.62), 5112.33 (5168.63), 5112.331 (5168.64), 5112.34 866
(5168.65), 5112.341 (5168.66), 5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 867
(5168.68), 5112.371 (5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 868
(5168.71), 5112.40 (5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 869
(5168.22), 5112.43 (5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 5112.45 870
(5168.25), 5112.46 (5168.26), 5112.47 (5168.27), 5112.48 871
(5168.28), 5112.99 (5168.99), 5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 872
(5119.10), 5119.012 (5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 873
(5119.21), 5119.061 (5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 874
(5119.18), 5119.072 (5119.181), 5119.08 (5119.182), 5119.10 875
(5119.184), 5119.101 (5191.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 876
(5119.187), 5119.14 (5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 5119.161 877
(5119.45), 5119.17 (5119.51), 5119.18 (5119.46), 5119.20 878
(5119.33), 5119.201 (5119.331), 5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 879
(5119.333), 5119.22 (5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 880
(5119.31), 5119.24 (5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 881
(5119.09), 5119.33 (5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 5119.35 882
(5119.56), 5119.351 (5119.55), 5119.36 (5119.52), 5119.42 883
(5119.07), 5119.43 (5119.06), 5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 884
(5119.60), 5119.50 (5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 885
(5119.72), 5119.53 (5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 886
(5119.32), 5119.61 (5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 5119.612 887
(5119.37), 5119.613 (5119.361), 5119.62 (5119.23), 5119.621 888
(5119.24), 5119.622 (5119.25), 5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 889
(5119.421), 5119.69 (5119.41), and 5119.691 (5119.411) be amended 890
for the purpose of adopting new section numbers as indicated in 891
parentheses; new sections 3313.481, 3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 892
3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.16, 3327.02, 3345.81, and 3737.883 and 893
sections 1.611, 101.392, 121.483, 122.681, 123.19, 125.27, 149.60, 894
149.63, 151.50, 173.51, 173.522, 173.523, 173.543, 173.545, 895
173.546, 173.56, 173.60, 191.061, 340.08, 353.01, 353.02, 353.03, 896
353.04, 353.05, 353.06, 353.07, 353.08, 353.09, 353.10, 353.11, 897
353.12, 353.13, 353.14, 353.15, 353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 898
903.30, 991.041, 1545.23, 2329.192, 3301.80, 3302.26, 3310.032, 899
3310.035, 3313.5311, 3313.5312, 3313.848, 3314.042, 3314.082, 900
3314.086, 3314.092, 3314.29, 3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 901
3317.0214, 3317.161, 3317.40, 3319.031, 3326.112, 3327.07, 902
3328.27, 3333.049, 3333.124, 3333.342, 3333.613, 3345.48, 3350.15, 903
3365.022, 3701.033, 3701.5010, 3701.541, 3701.94, 3701.941, 904
3701.942, 3701.943, 3701.944, 3701.95, 3702.302, 3702.303, 905
3702.304, 3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3714.074, 3721.072, 906
3735.661, 3772.092, 3772.36, 4143.01, 4143.02, 4143.03, 4143.04, 907
4143.05, 4143.06, 4143.07, 4143.08, 4143.09, 4143.99, 4503.524, 908
4503.732, 4507.021, 4729.542, 4751.042, 4751.14, 5101.101, 909
5101.804, 5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 5124.03, 5124.05, 910
5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 911
5124.101, 5124.102, 5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 912
5124.107, 5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 5124.154, 913
5124.191, 5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 5124.28, 5124.30, 5124.31, 914
5124.32, 5124.33, 5124.35, 5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 915
5124.42, 5124.43, 5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 5124.50, 5124.51, 916
5124.511, 5124.512, 5124.513, 5124.514, 5124.515, 5124.516, 917
5124.517, 5124.52, 5124.521, 5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 918
5124.525, 5124.526, 5124.527, 5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.99, 919
5126.131, 5160.01, 5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 5160.03, 5160.04, 920
5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 921
5160.13, 5160.16, 5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 5160.30, 922
5160.31, 5160.36, 5160.371, 5160.46, 5160.47, 5160.48, 5160.481, 923
5160.50, 5160.52, 5160.99, 5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 924
5162.022, 5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 5162.31, 5162.60, 925
5162.62, 5163.01, 5163.03, 5163.04, 5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 926
5163.07, 5163.08, 5164.01, 5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 5164.55, 927
5164.59, 5164.60, 5164.61, 5164.71, 5164.72, 5164.73, 5164.83, 928
5165.02, 5165.072, 5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 929
5165.105, 5165.106, 5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 930
5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 5165.43, 5165.44, 931
5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 932
5167.02, 5167.032, 5167.121, 5168.41, 5703.75, 5703.76, 5703.90, 933
5705.55, 5735.013, 5739.081, 5741.032, 5910.08, and 5919.342 of 934
the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:935

       Sec. 1.611. As used in the Revised Code, "OSU extension" 936
means the cooperative extension service that was established by 937
the "Smith-Lever Act," 38 Stat. 372 (1914), 7 U.S.C. 341 et seq., 938
and is administered in this state by the Ohio state university.939

       Sec. 9.03.  (A) As used in this section:940

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any body corporate and 941
politic, except a municipal corporation that has adopted a charter 942
under Section 7 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, and except a 943
county that has adopted a charter under Sections 3 and 4 of 944
Article X, Ohio Constitution, to which both of the following 945
apply:946

       (a) It is responsible for governmental activities only in a 947
geographic area smaller than the state.948

       (b) It is subject to the sovereign immunity of the state.949

       (2) "Cigarettes" and "tobacco product" have the same meanings 950
as in section 5743.01 of the Revised Code.951

       (3) "Transaction" has the same meaning as in section 1315.51 952
of the Revised Code.953

       (4) "Campaign committee," "campaign fund," "candidate," 954
"legislative campaign fund," "political action committee," 955
"political committee," "political party," and "separate segregated 956
fund" have the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised 957
Code.958

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 959
section, the governing body of a political subdivision may use 960
public funds to publish and distribute newsletters, or to use any 961
other means, to communicate information about the plans, policies, 962
and operations of the political subdivision to members of the 963
public within the political subdivision and to other persons who 964
may be affected by the political subdivision.965

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 966
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 967
Revised Code, no governing body of a political subdivision shall 968
use public funds to do any of the following:969

       (1) Publish, distribute, or otherwise communicate information 970
that does any of the following:971

       (a) Contains defamatory, libelous, or obscene matter;972

       (b) Promotes alcoholic beverages, cigarettes or other tobacco 973
products, or any illegal product, service, or activity;974

       (c) Promotes illegal discrimination on the basis of race, 975
color, religion, national origin, handicap, age, or ancestry;976

       (d) Supports or opposes any labor organization or any action 977
by, on behalf of, or against any labor organization;978

       (e) Supports or opposes the nomination or election of a 979
candidate for public office, the investigation, prosecution, or 980
recall of a public official, or the passage of a levy or bond 981
issue.982

       (2) Compensate any employee of the political subdivision for 983
time spent on any activity to influence the outcome of an election 984
for any of the purposes described in division (C)(1)(e) of this 985
section. Division (C)(2) of this section does not prohibit the use 986
of public funds to compensate an employee of a political 987
subdivision for attending a public meeting to present information 988
about the political subdivision's finances, activities, and 989
governmental actions in a manner that is not designed to influence 990
the outcome of an election or the passage of a levy or bond issue, 991
even though the election, levy, or bond issue is discussed or 992
debated at the meeting.993

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 994
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 995
Revised Code or in division (E) of this section, no person shall 996
knowingly conduct a direct or indirect transaction of public funds 997
to the benefit of any of the following:998

       (1) A campaign committee;999

       (2) A political action committee;1000

       (3) A legislative campaign fund;1001

       (4) A political party;1002

       (5) A campaign fund;1003

       (6) A political committee;1004

       (7) A separate segregated fund;1005

       (8) A candidate.1006

        (E) Division (D) of this section does not prohibit the 1007
utilization of any person's own time to speak in support of or in 1008
opposition to any candidate, recall, referendum, levy, or bond 1009
issue unless prohibited by any other section of the Revised Code.1010

       (F) Nothing in this section prohibits or restricts any 1011
political subdivision from sponsoring, participating in, or doing 1012
any of the following:1013

       (1) Charitable or public service advertising that is not 1014
commercial in nature;1015

       (2) Advertising of exhibitions, performances, programs, 1016
products, or services that are provided by employees of a 1017
political subdivision or are provided at or through premises owned 1018
or operated by a political subdivision;1019

       (3) Licensing an interest in a name or mark that is owned or 1020
controlled by the political subdivision.1021

       (G) Whoever violates division (D) of this section shall be 1022
punished as provided in section 3599.40 of the Revised Code.1023

       Sec. 9.15.  When the body of a dead person is found in a 1024
township or municipal corporation, and such person was not an 1025
inmate of a correctional, benevolent, or charitable institution of 1026
this state, and the body is not claimed by any person for private 1027
interment or cremation at the person's own expense, or delivered 1028
for the purpose of medical or surgical study or dissection in 1029
accordance with section 1713.34 of the Revised Code, it shall be 1030
disposed of as follows:1031

       (A) If the person was a legal resident of the county, the 1032
proper officers of the township or municipal corporation in which 1033
the person's body was found shall cause it to be buried or 1034
cremated at the expense of the township or municipal corporation 1035
in which the person had a legal residence at the time of death.1036

       (B) If the person had a legal residence in any other county 1037
of the state at the time of death, the superintendent of the 1038
county home of the county in which such body was found shall cause 1039
it to be buried or cremated at the expense of the township or 1040
municipal corporation in which the person had a legal residence at 1041
the time of death.1042

       (C) If the person was an inmate of a correctional institution 1043
of the county or a patient or resident of a benevolent institution 1044
of the county, the person had no legal residence in the state, or 1045
the person's legal residence is unknown, the superintendent shall 1046
cause the person to be buried or cremated at the expense of the 1047
county.1048

       Such officials shall provide, at the grave of the person or, 1049
if the person's cremated remains are buried, at the grave of the 1050
person's cremated remains, a metal, stone, or concrete marker on 1051
which the person's name and age, if known, and date of death shall 1052
be inscribed.1053

       A political subdivision is not relieved of its duty to bury 1054
or cremate a person at its expense under this section when the 1055
body is claimed by an indigent person. As used in this section, 1056
"indigent person" means a person whose income does not exceed one 1057
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty line, as revised 1058
annually by the United States department of health and human 1059
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 1060
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as 1061
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the person's 1062
family.1063

       Sec. 9.231. (A)(1) Subject to divisions (A)(2) and (3) of 1064
this section, a governmental entity shall not disburse money 1065
totaling twenty-five thousand dollars or more to any person for 1066
the provision of services for the primary benefit of individuals 1067
or the public and not for the primary benefit of a governmental 1068
entity or the employees of a governmental entity, unless the 1069
contracting authority of the governmental entity first enters into 1070
a written contract with the person that is signed by the person or 1071
by an officer or agent of the person authorized to legally bind 1072
the person and that embodies all of the requirements and 1073
conditions set forth in sections 9.23 to 9.236 of the Revised 1074
Code. If the disbursement of money occurs over the course of a 1075
governmental entity's fiscal year, rather than in a lump sum, the 1076
contracting authority of the governmental entity shall enter into 1077
the written contract with the person at the point during the 1078
governmental entity's fiscal year that at least seventy-five 1079
thousand dollars has been disbursed by the governmental entity to 1080
the person. Thereafter, the contracting authority of the 1081
governmental entity shall enter into the written contract with the 1082
person at the beginning of the governmental entity's fiscal year, 1083
if, during the immediately preceding fiscal year, the governmental 1084
entity disbursed to that person an aggregate amount totaling at 1085
least seventy-five thousand dollars.1086

       (2) If the money referred to in division (A)(1) of this 1087
section is disbursed by or through more than one state agency to 1088
the person for the provision of services to the same population, 1089
the contracting authorities of those agencies shall determine 1090
which one of them will enter into the written contract with the 1091
person.1092

       (3) The requirements and conditions set forth in divisions 1093
(A), (B), (C), and (F) of section 9.232, divisions (A)(1) and (2) 1094
and (B) of section 9.234, divisions (A)(2) and (B) of section 1095
9.235, and sections 9.233 and 9.236 of the Revised Code do not 1096
apply with respect to the following:1097

       (a) Contracts to which all of the following apply: 1098

       (i) The amount received for the services is a set fee for 1099
each time the services are provided, is determined in accordance 1100
with a fixed rate per unit of time or per service, or is a 1101
capitated rate, and the fee or rate is established by competitive 1102
bidding or by a market rate survey of similar services provided in 1103
a defined market area. The market rate survey may be one conducted 1104
by or on behalf of the governmental entity or an independent 1105
survey accepted by the governmental entity as statistically valid 1106
and reliable.1107

       (ii) The services are provided in accordance with standards 1108
established by state or federal law, or by rules or regulations 1109
adopted thereunder, for their delivery, which standards are 1110
enforced by the federal government, a governmental entity, or an 1111
accrediting organization recognized by the federal government or a 1112
governmental entity.1113

       (iii) Payment for the services is made after the services are 1114
delivered and upon submission to the governmental entity of an 1115
invoice or other claim for payment as required by any applicable 1116
local, state, or federal law or, if no such law applies, by the 1117
terms of the contract. 1118

       (b) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1119
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that meets all of 1120
the following requirements:1121

       (i) The program calculates the reimbursement rate on the 1122
basis of the previous year's experience or in accordance with an 1123
alternative method set forth in rules adopted by the Ohio 1124
department of job and family services.1125

       (ii) The reimbursement rate is derived from a breakdown of 1126
direct and indirect costs.1127

       (iii) The program's guidelines describe types of expenditures 1128
that are allowable and not allowable under the program and 1129
delineate which costs are acceptable as direct costs for purposes 1130
of calculating the reimbursement rate.1131

       (iv) The program includes a uniform cost reporting system 1132
with specific audit requirements.1133

       (c) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1134
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that calculates 1135
the reimbursement rate on a fee for service basis in compliance 1136
with United States office of management and budget Circular A-87, 1137
as revised May 10, 2004. 1138

       (d) Contracts for services that are paid pursuant to the 1139
earmarking of an appropriation made by the general assembly for 1140
that purpose.1141

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the money 1142
is disbursed to a person pursuant to a contract with the United 1143
States or a governmental entity under any of the following 1144
circumstances:1145

       (1) The person receives the money directly or indirectly from 1146
the United States, and no governmental entity exercises any 1147
oversight or control over the use of the money.1148

       (2) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1149
performance of one or more of the following types of services:1150

       (a) Medical, therapeutic, or other health-related services 1151
provided by a person if the amount received is a set fee for each 1152
time the person provides the services, is determined in accordance 1153
with a fixed rate per unit of time, or is a capitated rate, and 1154
the fee or rate is reasonable and customary in the person's trade 1155
or profession;1156

       (b) Medicaid-funded services, including administrative and 1157
management services, provided pursuant to a contract or medicaid 1158
provider agreement that meets the requirements of the medicaid 1159
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 1160

       (c) Services, other than administrative or management 1161
services or any of the services described in division (B)(2)(a) or 1162
(b) of this section, that are commonly purchased by the public at 1163
an hourly rate or at a set fee for each time the services are 1164
provided, unless the services are performed for the benefit of 1165
children, persons who are eligible for the services by reason of 1166
advanced age, medical condition, or financial need, or persons who 1167
are confined in a detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 1168
of the Revised Code, and the services are intended to help promote 1169
the health, safety, or welfare of those children or persons;1170

       (d) Educational services provided by a school to children 1171
eligible to attend that school. For purposes of division (B)(2)(d) 1172
of this section, "school" means any school operated by a school 1173
district board of education, any community school established 1174
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, or any nonpublic school 1175
for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 1176
education standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.1177

       (e) Services provided by a foster home as defined in section 1178
5103.02 of the Revised Code;1179

       (f) "Routine business services other than administrative or 1180
management services," as that term is defined by the attorney 1181
general by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 1182
Revised Code;1183

       (g) Services to protect the environment or promote 1184
environmental education that are provided by a nonprofit entity or 1185
services to protect the environment that are funded with federal 1186
grants or revolving loan funds and administered in accordance with 1187
federal law.1188

       (3) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1189
performance of services intended to help preserve public health or 1190
safety under circumstances requiring immediate action as a result 1191
of a natural or man-made emergency.1192

       (C) With respect to an unincorporated nonprofit association, 1193
corporation, or organization established for the purpose of 1194
providing educational, technical, consulting, training, financial, 1195
or other services to its members in exchange for membership dues 1196
and other fees, any of the services provided to a member that is a 1197
governmental entity shall, for purposes of this section, be 1198
considered services "for the primary benefit of a governmental 1199
entity or the employees of a governmental entity."1200

       Sec. 9.239. (A) There is hereby created the government 1201
contracting advisory council. The attorney general and auditor of 1202
state shall consult with the council on the performance of their 1203
rule-making functions under sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the 1204
Revised Code and shall consider any recommendations of the 1205
council. The medicaid director of job and family services shall 1206
annually report to the council the cost methodology of the 1207
medicaid-funded services described in division (A)(3)(d) of 1208
section 9.231 of the Revised Code. The council shall consist of 1209
the following members or their designees:1210

       (1) The attorney general;1211

       (2) The auditor of state;1212

       (3) The director of administrative services;1213

        (4) The director of aging;1214

       (5) The director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesThe 1215
medicaid director;1216

       (6) The director of budget and management;1217

       (7) The director of development services;1218

       (8) The director of job and family services;1219

       (9) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 1220
services;1221

       (10) The director of developmental disabilities;1222

       (11) The director of rehabilitation and correction;1223

       (12) The administrator of workers' compensation;1224

       (13) The executive director of the county commissioners' 1225
association of Ohio;1226

       (14) The president of the Ohio grantmakers forum;1227

       (15) The president of the Ohio chamber of commerce;1228

       (16) The president of the Ohio state bar association;1229

       (17) The president of the Ohio society of certified public 1230
accountants;1231

       (18) The executive director of the Ohio association of 1232
nonprofit organizations;1233

       (19) The president of the Ohio united way;1234

       (20) One additional member appointed by the attorney general;1235

       (21) One additional member appointed by the auditor of state.1236

       (B) If an agency or organization represented on the council 1237
ceases to exist in the form it has on September 29, 2005, the 1238
successor agency or organization shall be represented in its 1239
place. If there is no successor agency or organization, or if it 1240
is not clear what agency or organization is the successor, the 1241
attorney general shall designate an agency or organization to be 1242
represented in place of the agency or organization originally 1243
represented on the council.1244

       (C) The two members appointed to the council shall serve 1245
three-year terms. Original appointments shall be made not later 1246
than sixty days after September 29, 2005. Vacancies on the council 1247
shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.1248

       (D) The attorney general or the attorney general's designee 1249
shall be the chairperson of the council. The council shall meet at 1250
least once every two years to review the rules adopted under 1251
sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the Revised Code and to make 1252
recommendations to the attorney general and auditor of state 1253
regarding the adoption, amendment, or repeal of those rules. The 1254
council shall also meet at other times as requested by the 1255
attorney general or auditor of state.1256

       (E) Members of the council shall serve without compensation 1257
or reimbursement.1258

       (F) The office of the attorney general shall provide 1259
necessary staff, facilities, supplies, and services to the 1260
council.1261

       (G) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 1262
apply to the council.1263

       Sec. 9.24. (A) Except as may be allowed under division (F) of 1264
this section, no state agency and no political subdivision shall 1265
award a contract as described in division (G)(1) of this section 1266
for goods, services, or construction, paid for in whole or in part 1267
with state funds, to a person against whom a finding for recovery 1268
has been issued by the auditor of state on and after January 1, 1269
2001, if the finding for recovery is unresolved.1270

       A contract is considered to be awarded when it is entered 1271
into or executed, irrespective of whether the parties to the 1272
contract have exchanged any money.1273

        (B) For purposes of this section, a finding for recovery is 1274
unresolved unless one of the following criteria applies:1275

        (1) The money identified in the finding for recovery is paid 1276
in full to the state agency or political subdivision to whom the 1277
money was owed;1278

        (2) The debtor has entered into a repayment plan that is 1279
approved by the attorney general and the state agency or political 1280
subdivision to whom the money identified in the finding for 1281
recovery is owed. A repayment plan may include a provision 1282
permitting a state agency or political subdivision to withhold 1283
payment to a debtor for goods, services, or construction provided 1284
to or for the state agency or political subdivision pursuant to a 1285
contract that is entered into with the debtor after the date the 1286
finding for recovery was issued.1287

        (3) The attorney general waives a repayment plan described in 1288
division (B)(2) of this section for good cause;1289

        (4) The debtor and state agency or political subdivision to 1290
whom the money identified in the finding for recovery is owed have 1291
agreed to a payment plan established through an enforceable 1292
settlement agreement.1293

        (5) The state agency or political subdivision desiring to 1294
enter into a contract with a debtor certifies, and the attorney 1295
general concurs, that all of the following are true:1296

        (a) Essential services the state agency or political 1297
subdivision is seeking to obtain from the debtor cannot be 1298
provided by any other person besides the debtor;1299

        (b) Awarding a contract to the debtor for the essential 1300
services described in division (B)(5)(a) of this section is in the 1301
best interest of the state;1302

        (c) Good faith efforts have been made to collect the money 1303
identified in the finding of recovery.1304

       (6) The debtor has commenced an action to contest the finding 1305
for recovery and a final determination on the action has not yet 1306
been reached.1307

        (C) The attorney general shall submit an initial report to 1308
the auditor of state, not later than December 1, 2003, indicating 1309
the status of collection for all findings for recovery issued by 1310
the auditor of state for calendar years 2001, 2002, and 2003. 1311
Beginning on January 1, 2004, the attorney general shall submit to 1312
the auditor of state, on the first day of every January, April, 1313
July, and October, a list of all findings for recovery that have 1314
been resolved in accordance with division (B) of this section 1315
during the calendar quarter preceding the submission of the list 1316
and a description of the means of resolution. The attorney general 1317
shall notify the auditor of state when a judgment is issued 1318
against an entity described in division (F)(1) of this section.1319

       (D) The auditor of state shall maintain a database, 1320
accessible to the public, listing persons against whom an 1321
unresolved finding for recovery has been issued, and the amount of 1322
the money identified in the unresolved finding for recovery. The 1323
auditor of state shall have this database operational on or before 1324
January 1, 2004. The initial database shall contain the 1325
information required under this division for calendar years 2001, 1326
2002, and 2003.1327

       Beginning January 15, 2004, the auditor of state shall update 1328
the database by the fifteenth day of every January, April, July, 1329
and October to reflect resolved findings for recovery that are 1330
reported to the auditor of state by the attorney general on the 1331
first day of the same month pursuant to division (C) of this 1332
section.1333

        (E) Before awarding a contract as described in division 1334
(G)(1) of this section for goods, services, or construction, paid 1335
for in whole or in part with state funds, a state agency or 1336
political subdivision shall verify that the person to whom the 1337
state agency or political subdivision plans to award the contract 1338
has no unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person. 1339
A state agency or political subdivision shall verify that the 1340
person does not appear in the database described in division (D) 1341
of this section or shall obtain other proof that the person has no 1342
unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person.1343

        (F) The prohibition of division (A) of this section and the 1344
requirement of division (E) of this section do not apply with 1345
respect to the companies, payments, or agreements described in 1346
divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, or in the circumstance 1347
described in division (F)(3) of this section.1348

       (1) A bonding company or a company authorized to transact the 1349
business of insurance in this state, a self-insurance pool, joint 1350
self-insurance pool, risk management program, or joint risk 1351
management program, unless a court has entered a final judgment 1352
against the company and the company has not yet satisfied the 1353
final judgment.1354

       (2) To medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of1355
the Revised Codemedicaid program.1356

       (3) When federal law dictates that a specified entity provide 1357
the goods, services, or construction for which a contract is being 1358
awarded, regardless of whether that entity would otherwise be 1359
prohibited from entering into the contract pursuant to this 1360
section.1361

       (G)(1) This section applies only to contracts for goods, 1362
services, or construction that satisfy the criteria in either 1363
division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section. This section may apply 1364
to contracts for goods, services, or construction that satisfy the 1365
criteria in division (G)(1)(c) of this section, provided that the 1366
contracts also satisfy the criteria in either division (G)(1)(a) 1367
or (b) of this section.1368

       (a) The cost for the goods, services, or construction 1369
provided under the contract is estimated to exceed twenty-five 1370
thousand dollars.1371

       (b) The aggregate cost for the goods, services, or 1372
construction provided under multiple contracts entered into by the 1373
particular state agency and a single person or the particular 1374
political subdivision and a single person within the fiscal year 1375
preceding the fiscal year within which a contract is being entered 1376
into by that same state agency and the same single person or the 1377
same political subdivision and the same single person, exceeded 1378
fifty thousand dollars.1379

       (c) The contract is a renewal of a contract previously 1380
entered into and renewed pursuant to that preceding contract.1381

       (2) This section does not apply to employment contracts.1382

       (H) As used in this section:1383

       (1) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.66 of 1384
the Revised Code.1385

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a political subdivision as 1386
defined in section 9.82 of the Revised Code that has received more 1387
than fifty thousand dollars of state money in the current fiscal 1388
year or the preceding fiscal year.1389

       (3) "Finding for recovery" means a determination issued by 1390
the auditor of state, contained in a report the auditor of state 1391
gives to the attorney general pursuant to section 117.28 of the 1392
Revised Code, that public money has been illegally expended, 1393
public money has been collected but not been accounted for, public 1394
money is due but has not been collected, or public property has 1395
been converted or misappropriated.1396

        (4) "Debtor" means a person against whom a finding for 1397
recovery has been issued.1398

       (5) "Person" means the person named in the finding for 1399
recovery.1400

       (6) "State money" does not include funds the state receives 1401
from another source and passes through to a political subdivision.1402

       Sec. 9.833.  (A) As used in this section, "political 1403
subdivision" has the meaning defined in sections 2744.01 and 1404
3905.36 of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section, 1405
"political subdivision" includes municipal corporations as defined 1406
in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code. 1407

       (B) Political subdivisions that provide health care benefits 1408
for their officers or employees may do any of the following:1409

       (1) Establish and maintain an individual self-insurance 1410
program with public moneys to provide authorized health care 1411
benefits, including but not limited to, health care, prescription 1412
drugs, dental care, and vision care, in accordance with division 1413
(C) of this section;1414

       (2) Establish and maintain a health savings account program 1415
whereby employees or officers may establish and maintain health 1416
savings accounts in accordance with section 223 of the Internal 1417
Revenue Code. Public moneys may be used to pay for or fund 1418
federally qualified high deductible health plans that are linked 1419
to health savings accounts or to make contributions to health 1420
savings accounts. A health savings account program may be a part 1421
of a self-insurance program.1422

       (3) After establishing an individual self-insurance program, 1423
agree with other political subdivisions that have established 1424
individual self-insurance programs for health care benefits, that 1425
their programs will be jointly administered in a manner specified 1426
in the agreement;1427

       (4) Pursuant to a written agreement and in accordance with 1428
division (C) of this section, join in any combination with other 1429
political subdivisions to establish and maintain a joint 1430
self-insurance program to provide health care benefits;1431

       (5) Pursuant to a written agreement, join in any combination 1432
with other political subdivisions to procure or contract for 1433
policies, contracts, or plans of insurance to provide health care 1434
benefits, which may include a health savings account program for 1435
their officers and employees subject to the agreement;1436

       (6) Use in any combination any of the policies, contracts, 1437
plans, or programs authorized under this division.1438

       (7) Any agreement made under division (B)(3), (4), (5), or 1439
(6) of this section shall be in writing, comply with division (C) 1440
of this section, and contain best practices established in 1441
consultation with and approved by the department of administrative 1442
services. The best practices may be reviewed and amended at the 1443
discretion of the political subdivisions in consultation with the 1444
department. Detailed information regarding the best practices 1445
shall be made available to any employee upon that employee's 1446
request.1447

       (8) Purchase plans approvedcontaining best practices 1448
established by the department of administrative services under 1449
section 9.901 of the Revised Code.1450

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (E) of this 1451
section, the following apply to individual or joint self-insurance 1452
programs established pursuant to this section:1453

       (1) Such funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the 1454
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 1455
potential cost of health care benefits for the officers and 1456
employees of the political subdivision. A certified audited 1457
financial statement and a report of aggregate amounts so reserved 1458
and aggregate disbursements made from such funds, together with a 1459
written report of a member of the American academy of actuaries 1460
certifying whether the amounts reserved conform to the 1461
requirements of this division, are computed in accordance with 1462
accepted loss reserving standards, and are fairly stated in 1463
accordance with sound loss reserving principles, shall be prepared 1464
and maintained, within ninety days after the last day of the 1465
fiscal year of the entity for which the report is provided for 1466
that fiscal year, in the office of the program administrator 1467
described in division (C)(3) of this section.1468

       The report required by division (C)(1) of this section shall 1469
include, but not be limited to, the aggregate of disbursements 1470
made for the administration of the program, including claims paid, 1471
costs of the legal representation of political subdivisions and 1472
employees, and fees paid to consultants. 1473

       The program administrator described in division (C)(3) of 1474
this section shall make the report required by this division 1475
available for inspection by any person at all reasonable times 1476
during regular business hours, and, upon the request of such 1477
person, shall make copies of the report available at cost within a 1478
reasonable period of time. The program administrator shall further 1479
provide the report to the auditor of state under Chapter 117. of 1480
the Revised Code. The report required by this division is in lieu 1481
of the records required by division (A) of section 149.431 of the 1482
Revised Code.1483

       (2) Each political subdivision shall reserve funds necessary 1484
for an individual or joint self-insurance program in a special 1485
fund that may be established for political subdivisions other than 1486
an agency or instrumentality pursuant to an ordinance or 1487
resolution of the political subdivision and not subject to section 1488
5705.12 of the Revised Code. An agency or instrumentality shall 1489
reserve the funds necessary for an individual or joint 1490
self-insurance program in a special fund established pursuant to a 1491
resolution duly adopted by the agency's or instrumentality's 1492
governing board. The political subdivision may allocate the costs 1493
of insurance or any self-insurance program, or both, among the 1494
funds or accounts established under this division on the basis of 1495
relative exposure and loss experience.1496

       (3) A contract may be awarded, without the necessity of 1497
competitive bidding, to any person, political subdivision, 1498
nonprofit corporation organized under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 1499
Code, or regional council of governments created under Chapter 1500
167. of the Revised Code for purposes of administration of an 1501
individual or joint self-insurance program. No such contract shall 1502
be entered into without full, prior, public disclosure of all 1503
terms and conditions. The disclosure shall include, at a minimum, 1504
a statement listing all representations made in connection with 1505
any possible savings and losses resulting from the contract, and 1506
potential liability of any political subdivision or employee. The 1507
proposed contract and statement shall be disclosed and presented 1508
at a meeting of the political subdivision not less than one week 1509
prior to the meeting at which the political subdivision authorizes 1510
the contract.1511

       A contract awarded to a nonprofit corporation or a regional 1512
council of governments under this division may provide that all 1513
employees of the nonprofit corporation or regional council of 1514
governments, the employees of all entities related to the 1515
nonprofit corporation or regional council of governments, and the 1516
employees of other nonprofit corporations that have fifty or fewer 1517
employees and have been organized for the primary purpose of 1518
representing the interests of political subdivisions, may be 1519
covered by the individual or joint self-insurance program under 1520
the terms and conditions set forth in the contract.1521

       (4) The individual or joint self-insurance program shall 1522
include a contract with a certified public accountant and a member 1523
of the American academy of actuaries for the preparation of the 1524
written evaluations required under division (C)(1) of this 1525
section.1526

       (5) A joint self-insurance program may allocate the costs of 1527
funding the program among the funds or accounts established under 1528
this division to the participating political subdivisions on the 1529
basis of their relative exposure and loss experience.1530

       (6) An individual self-insurance program may allocate the 1531
costs of funding the program among the funds or accounts 1532
established under this division to the political subdivision that 1533
established the program.1534

       (7) Two or more political subdivisions may also authorize the 1535
establishment and maintenance of a joint health care cost 1536
containment program, including, but not limited to, the employment 1537
of risk managers, health care cost containment specialists, and 1538
consultants, for the purpose of preventing and reducing health 1539
care costs covered by insurance, individual self-insurance, or 1540
joint self-insurance programs.1541

       (8) A political subdivision is not liable under a joint 1542
self-insurance program for any amount in excess of amounts payable 1543
pursuant to the written agreement for the participation of the 1544
political subdivision in the joint self-insurance program. Under a 1545
joint self-insurance program agreement, a political subdivision 1546
may, to the extent permitted under the written agreement, assume 1547
the risks of any other political subdivision. A joint 1548
self-insurance program established under this section is deemed a 1549
separate legal entity for the public purpose of enabling the 1550
members of the joint self-insurance program to obtain insurance or 1551
to provide for a formalized, jointly administered self-insurance 1552
fund for its members. An entity created pursuant to this section 1553
is exempt from all state and local taxes.1554

       (9) Any political subdivision, other than an agency or 1555
instrumentality, may issue general obligation bonds, or special 1556
obligation bonds that are not payable from real or personal 1557
property taxes, and may also issue notes in anticipation of such 1558
bonds, pursuant to an ordinance or resolution of its legislative 1559
authority or other governing body for the purpose of providing 1560
funds to pay expenses associated with the settlement of claims, 1561
whether by way of a reserve or otherwise, and to pay the political 1562
subdivision's portion of the cost of establishing and maintaining 1563
an individual or joint self-insurance program or to provide for 1564
the reserve in the special fund authorized by division (C)(2) of 1565
this section.1566

       In its ordinance or resolution authorizing bonds or notes 1567
under this section, a political subdivision may elect to issue 1568
such bonds or notes under the procedures set forth in Chapter 133. 1569
of the Revised Code. In the event of such an election, 1570
notwithstanding Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, the maturity of 1571
the bonds may be for any period authorized in the ordinance or 1572
resolution not exceeding twenty years, which period shall be the 1573
maximum maturity of the bonds for purposes of section 133.22 of 1574
the Revised Code.1575

       Bonds and notes issued under this section shall not be 1576
considered in calculating the net indebtedness of the political 1577
subdivision under sections 133.04, 133.05, 133.06, and 133.07 of 1578
the Revised Code. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code are 1579
hereby made applicable to bonds or notes authorized under this 1580
section.1581

       (10) A joint self-insurance program is not an insurance 1582
company. Its operation does not constitute doing an insurance 1583
business and is not subject to the insurance laws of this state.1584

       (D) A political subdivision may procure group life insurance 1585
for its employees in conjunction with an individual or joint 1586
self-insurance program authorized by this section, provided that 1587
the policy of group life insurance is not self-insured.1588

       (E) This section does not apply to individual self-insurance 1589
programs created solely by municipal corporations as defined in 1590
section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.1591

       (F) A public official or employee of a political subdivision 1592
who is or becomes a member of the governing body of the program 1593
administrator of a joint self-insurance program in which the 1594
political subdivision participates is not in violation of division 1595
(D) or (E) of section 102.03, division (C) of section 102.04, or 1596
section 2921.42 of the Revised Code as a result of either of the 1597
following:1598

       (1) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1599
into the written agreement to participate in the joint 1600
self-insurance program;1601

       (2) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1602
into any other contract with the joint self-insurance program.1603

       Sec. 9.90.  (A) The following applies until the department of 1604
administrative services implements healthcare plans designed under 1605
section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans do not include 1606
or address any benefits listed in this section, or if the board of 1607
trustees or other governing body of a state institution of higher 1608
education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 1609
board of education of a school district, or governing board of an 1610
educational service center do not elect to be covered under a plan 1611
offered by the department of administrative services under section 1612
9.901 of the Revised Code, the following provisions continue in 1613
effect for those benefits. The board of trustees or other 1614
governing body of a state institution of higher education, as 1615
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, board of 1616
education of a school district, or governing board of an 1617
educational service center may, in addition to all other powers 1618
provided in the Revised Code:1619

       (1) Contract for, purchase, or otherwise procure from an 1620
insurer or insurers licensed to do business by the state of Ohio 1621
for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, 1622
life insurance, or sickness, accident, annuity, endowment, health, 1623
medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage and benefits, or 1624
any combination thereof, by means of insurance plans or other 1625
types of coverage, family, group or otherwise, and may pay from 1626
funds under its control and available for such purpose all or any 1627
portion of the cost, premium, or charge for such insurance, 1628
coverage, or benefits. However, the governing board, in addition 1629
to or as an alternative to the authority otherwise granted by 1630
division (A)(1) of this section, may elect to procure coverage for 1631
health care services, for or on behalf of such of its employees as 1632
it may determine, by means of policies, contracts, certificates, 1633
or agreements issued by at least two health insuring corporations 1634
holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the 1635
Revised Code and may pay from funds under the governing board's 1636
control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the 1637
cost of such coverage.1638

       (2) Make payments to a custodial account for investment in 1639
regulated investment company stock for the purpose of providing 1640
retirement benefits as described in section 403(b)(7) of the 1641
Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended. Such stock shall be 1642
purchased only from persons authorized to sell such stock in this 1643
state.1644

       Any income of an employee deferred under divisions (A)(1) and 1645
(2) of this section in a deferred compensation program eligible 1646
for favorable tax treatment under the Internal Revenue Code of 1647
1954, as amended, shall continue to be included as regular 1648
compensation for the purpose of computing the contributions to and 1649
benefits from the retirement system of such employee. Any sum so 1650
deferred shall not be included in the computation of any federal 1651
and state income taxes withheld on behalf of any such employee.1652

       (B) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge 1653
therefor may be paid in such other manner or combination of 1654
manners as the board or governing body may determine, including 1655
direct payment by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) of 1656
this section, and, if authorized in writing by the employee in 1657
cases under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by the board 1658
or governing body with moneys made available by deduction from or 1659
reduction in salary or wages or by the foregoing of a salary or 1660
wage increase. Nothing in section 3917.01 or section 3917.06 of 1661
the Revised Code shall prohibit the issuance or purchase of group 1662
life insurance authorized by this section by reason of payment of 1663
premiums therefor by the board or governing body from its funds, 1664
and such group life insurance may be so issued and purchased if 1665
otherwise consistent with the provisions of sections 3917.01 to 1666
3917.07 of the Revised Code.1667

       (C) The board of education of any school district may 1668
exercise any of the powers granted to the governing boards of 1669
public institutions of higher education under divisions (A) and 1670
(B) of this section. All health care benefits provided to persons 1671
employed by the public schools of this state shall be through 1672
health care plans that contain best practices established by the 1673
department of administrative services pursuant to section 9.901 of 1674
the Revised Code.1675

       (D) Once the department of administrative services releases 1676
in final form health care plans designed under section 9.901 of 1677
the Revised Code, all health care benefits provided to persons 1678
employed by state institutions of higher education, school 1679
districts, or educational service centers may be through those 1680
plans.1681

       Sec. 9.901.  (A)(1) All health care benefits provided to 1682
persons employed by the political subdivisions and public school 1683
districts ofemployers as defined by this statesection shall be 1684
provided by health care plans that contain best practices 1685
established pursuant to this section by the former school 1686
employees health care board or the department of administrative 1687
services. Twelve months after the release of best practices by the 1688
board allAll policies or contracts for health care benefits 1689
provided to public school district employees that are issued or 1690
renewed after the expiration of any applicable collective 1691
bargaining agreement must contain all best practices established 1692
pursuant to this section by the boardat the time of renewal. Any 1693
or all of the healthHealth care plans that contain the best 1694
practices specified by the board may be self-insured. 1695

       (2) Upon completion of the consultant's report under division 1696
(E) of this section and once the plans are released in final form 1697
by the department, all health care benefits provided to persons 1698
employed by political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1699
state institutions of higher education may be provided by health 1700
care plans designed under this section by the department. The 1701
department, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, 1702
may negotiate with and, in accordance with the competitive 1703
selection procedures of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, contract 1704
with one or more insurance companies authorized to do business in 1705
this state for the issuance of the plans. Any or all of the health 1706
care plans designed by the department may be self-insured. All 1707
self-insured plans adopted shall be administered by the department 1708
in accordance with this section. The plans shall incorporate the 1709
best practices adopted by the department under division (C)(3) of 1710
this sectionconsulting with the department of administrative 1711
services, a political subdivision may adopt a delivery system of 1712
benefits that is not in accordance with the department's adopted 1713
best practices if it is considered by the department to be most 1714
financially advantageous to the political subdivision.1715

       (3) Before soliciting proposals from insurance companies for 1716
the issuance of health care plans, the department, in consultation 1717
with the superintendent of insurance, shall determine what 1718
geographic regions exist in the state based on the availability of 1719
providers, networks, costs, and other factors relating to 1720
providing health care benefits. The department shall then 1721
determine what health care plans offered by political 1722
subdivisions, public school districts, state institutions, and 1723
existing consortiums in the region offer the most cost-effective 1724
plan.1725

       (4) The department, in consultation with the superintendent 1726
of insurance, shall develop a request for proposals and solicit 1727
bids for health care plans for political subdivisions, public 1728
school districts, and state institutions in a region similar to 1729
the existing plans. The department shall also determine the 1730
benefits offered by existing health care plans, the employees' 1731
costs, and the cost-sharing arrangements used by political 1732
subdivisions, schools, and institutions participating in a 1733
consortium. The department shall determine what strategies are 1734
used by the existing plans to manage health care costs and shall 1735
study the potential benefits of state or regional consortiums 1736
offering multiple health care plans. When options exist in a 1737
defined regional service area that meet the benchmarks or best 1738
practices prescribed by the department, public employees shall be 1739
given the option of selecting from two or more health plans.1740

       (5) No political subdivision, public school district, or 1741
state institution may be required to offer the health care plans 1742
designed under this section until action is taken under division 1743
(E) of this section.1744

       In addition, political subdivisions, public school districts, 1745
or state institutions offering employee health care benefits 1746
through a plan offered by a consortium of two or more political 1747
subdivisions, districts, or state institutions, or a consortium of 1748
one or more political subdivisions, districts, or state 1749
institutions and one or more other political subdivisions may 1750
continue offering consortium plans to the political subdivisions', 1751
districts', or institutions' employees if plans contain best 1752
practices required under this section.1753

       (6) As used in this section:1754

       (a) "Public employer" means political subdivisions, public 1755
school districts, or state institutions of higher education.1756

       (b) "Public school district" means a city, local, exempted 1757
village, or joint vocational school district; a STEM school 1758
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or an 1759
educational service center. "Public school district" does not mean 1760
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 1761
Code.1762

       (b)(c) "State institution of higher education" or "state 1763
institution" means a state institution of higher education as 1764
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.1765

       (c)(d) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as 1766
defined in section 9.833 of the Revised Code.1767

       (d)(e) A "health care plan" includes group policies, 1768
contracts, and agreements that provide hospital, surgical, or 1769
medical expense coverage, including self-insured plans. A "health 1770
care plan" does not include an individual plan offered to the 1771
employees of a political subdivision, public school district, or 1772
state institution, or a plan that provides coverage only for 1773
specific disease or accidents, or a hospital indemnity, medicare 1774
supplement, or other plan that provides only supplemental 1775
benefits, paid for by the employees of a political subdivision, 1776
public school district, or state institution.1777

       (e)(f) A "health plan sponsor" means a political subdivision, 1778
public school district, a state institution of higher education, a 1779
consortium of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1780
state institutions, or a council of governments.1781

       (B)(4) The political subdivisions and public employees health 1782
care fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The department 1783
shall use all funds in the political subdivisions and public 1784
employees health care fund solely to carry out the provisions of 1785
this section and related administrative costs. 1786

       (C)(B) The department of administrative services shall do all 1787
of the following:1788

       (1) Include disease management and consumer education 1789
programs, which programs shall include, but are not limited to, 1790
wellness programs and other measures designed to encourage the 1791
wise use of medical plan coverage. These programs are not services 1792
or treatments for purposes of section 3901.71 of the Revised Code.1793

       (2) After action is taken under division (E) of this section, 1794
design health care plans for political subdivisions, public school 1795
districts, and state institutions of higher education in 1796
accordance with division (A) of this section separate from the 1797
plans for state agencies;1798

       (3) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 1799
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 1800
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1801
state institutions.1802

       (4) Require that the plans the health plan sponsors 1803
administer make readily available to the public all cost and 1804
design elements of the plan;1805

       (5) Set employee and employer health care plan premiums for 1806
the plans designed under division (C)(2) of this section;1807

       (6) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 1808
this section in identifying the elements for the successful 1809
implementation of this section;1810

       (7) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 1811
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 1812
managing health care plans;1813

       (8) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 1814
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in making 1815
progress to reduce the rate of increase in insurance premiums and 1816
employee out of pocket expenses, as well as progress in improving 1817
the health status of political subdivision, public school 1818
district, and state institution employees and their families.1819

       (D) The sections in Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code 1820
regulating public employee benefit plans are not applicable to the 1821
health care plans designed pursuant to this section.1822

        (E) Before the department's release of the initial health 1823
care plans, the department shall contract with an independent 1824
consultant to analyze costs related to employee health care 1825
benefits provided by existing political subdivision, public school 1826
district, and state institution plans. All political subdivisions 1827
shall provide information requested by the department that the 1828
department determines is needed to complete this study. The 1829
information requested shall be held confidentially by the 1830
department and shall not be considered a public record under 1831
Chapter 149. of the Revised Code. The department may release the 1832
information after redacting all personally identifiable 1833
information. The consultant shall determine the benefits offered 1834
by existing plans, the employees' costs, and the cost-sharing 1835
arrangements used by political subdivisions, schools, and 1836
institutions participating in a consortium. The consultant shall 1837
determine what strategies are used by the existing plans to manage 1838
health care costs and shall study the potential benefits of state 1839
or regional consortiums of political subdivisions, public schools, 1840
and institutions offering multiple health care plans. Based on the 1841
findings of the analysis, the consultant shall submit written 1842
recommendations to the department for the development and 1843
implementation of a successful program for pooling purchasing 1844
power for the acquisition of employee health care plans. The 1845
consultant's recommendations shall address, at a minimum, all of 1846
the following issues:1847

       (1) The development of a plan for regional coordination of 1848
the health care plans;1849

       (2) The establishment of regions for the provision of health 1850
care plans, based on the availability of providers and plans in 1851
the state at the time;1852

       (3) The viability of voluntary and mandatory participation by 1853
political subdivisions, public schools, and institutions of higher 1854
education;1855

       (4) The use of regional preferred provider and closed panel 1856
plans, health savings accounts, and alternative health care plans, 1857
to stabilize both costs and the premiums charged to political 1858
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions and 1859
their employees;1860

       (5) The use of the competitive bidding process for regional 1861
health care plans;1862

       (6) The use of information on claims and costs and of 1863
information reported by political subdivisions, public school 1864
districts, and state institutions pursuant to the Consolidated 1865
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) 100 Stat. 227, 29 U.S.C. 1866
1161, as amended in analyzing administrative and premium costs;1867

       (7) The experience of states that have statewide health care 1868
plans for political subdivision, public school district, and state 1869
institution employees, including the implementation strategies 1870
used by those states;1871

       (8) Recommended strategies for the use of first-year roll-in 1872
premiums in the transition from political subdivision, district, 1873
and state institution health care plans to department plans;1874

       (9) The option of allowing political subdivisions, public 1875
school districts, and state institutions to join an existing 1876
regional consortium as an alternative to department plans;1877

       (10) Mandatory and optional coverages to be offered by the 1878
department's plans;1879

       (11) Potential risks to the state from the use of plans 1880
developed under this section;1881

       (12) Any legislation needed to ensure the long-term financial 1882
solvency and stability of a health care purchasing system;1883

       (13) The potential impacts of any changes to the existing 1884
purchasing structure on all of the following:1885

       (a) Existing health care pooling and consortiums;1886

       (b) Political subdivision, school district, and state 1887
institution employees;1888

       (c) Individual political subdivisions, school districts, and 1889
state institutions.1890

       (14) Issues that could arise when political subdivisions, 1891
school districts, and state institutions transition from the 1892
existing purchasing structure to a new purchasing structure;1893

       (15) Strategies available to the department in the creation 1894
of fund reserves and the need for stop-loss insurance coverage for 1895
catastrophic losses;1896

       (16) Impact on eliminating the premium tax or excise 1897
currently received on behalf of a public employer under division 1898
(A) of section 5725.18 and division (A) of 5729.03 of the Revised 1899
Code;1900

       (17) How development of the federal health exchange in Ohio 1901
may impact public employees;1902

       (18) Impact of joint health insurance regional program on 1903
insurance carriers and agents;1904

       (19) The benefits, including any cost savings to the state of 1905
establishing a benchmark for public employers to meet in lieu of 1906
establishing new plans administered by the department.1907

       (F) TheIdentify strategies to manage health care costs;1908

       (2) Study the potential benefits of state or regional 1909
consortiums of public employers' health care plans;1910

       (3) Publish information regarding the health care plans 1911
offered by political subdivisions, public school districts, state 1912
institutions, and existing consortiums;1913

       (4) Assist in the design of health care plans for political 1914
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions of 1915
higher education in accordance with division (A) of this section 1916
separate from the plans for state agencies;1917

       (5) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 1918
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 1919
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1920
state institutions;1921

       (6) Require that plans the health plan sponsors administer 1922
make readily available to the public all cost and design elements 1923
of the plan;1924

       (7) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 1925
this section in identifying the elements for successful 1926
implementation of this section;1927

       (8) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 1928
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 1929
managing health care plans; and1930

       (9) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 1931
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in complying 1932
with best practices and making progress to reduce the rate of 1933
increase in insurance premiums and employee out-of-pocket 1934
expenses, as well as progress in improving the health status of 1935
employees and their families. 1936

       (C) The director of administrative services may convene a1937
public health care advisory committee is hereby created under the 1938
department of administrative services. The committee shall make 1939
recommendations to the director of administrative services or the 1940
director's designee on the development and adoption of best 1941
practices under this section. The committee shall consist of 1942
fifteen members: five members appointed by the speaker of the 1943
house of representatives,; five members appointed by the president 1944
of the senate,; and five members appointed by the governor and 1945
shall include representatives from state and local government 1946
employers, state and local government employees, insurance agents, 1947
health insurance companies, and joint purchasing arrangements 1948
currently in existence. Nothing in this section prohibits a 1949
political subdivision from adopting a delivery system of benefits 1950
that is not in accordance with the department's adopted best 1951
practices if it is considered to be most financially advantageous 1952
to the political subdivision. Members shall serve without 1953
compensation.1954

       (G)(D) The department may adopt rules for the enforcement of 1955
health plan sponsors' compliance with the best practices standards 1956
adopted by the department pursuant to this section.1957

        (H)(E) Any health care plan providing coverage for the 1958
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1959
state institutions of higher education, or that have provided 1960
coverage within two years before the effective date of this 1961
amendment, shall provide nonidentifiable aggregate claims and 1962
administrative data for the coverage provided as required by the 1963
department, without charge, within thirty days after receiving a 1964
written request from the department. The claims data shall include 1965
data relating to employee group benefit sets, demographics, and 1966
claims experience.1967

       (I)(1)(F) The department may contractwork with other state 1968
agencies forto obtain services as the department deems necessary 1969
for the implementation and operation of this section, based on 1970
demonstrated experience and expertise in administration, 1971
management, data handling, actuarial studies, quality assurance, 1972
or for other needed services. 1973

       (2)(G) The department shall hire staff as necessary to 1974
provide administrative support to the department and the public 1975
employee health care plan program established by this section.1976

       (J) Not more than ninety days before coverage begins for 1977
political subdivision, public school district, and state 1978
institution employees under health care plans designed by the 1979
department, a political subdivision's governing body, public 1980
school district's board of education, and a state institution's 1981
board of trustees or managing authority shall provide detailed 1982
information about the health care plans to the employees.1983

       (K)(H) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 1984
prohibiting political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1985
state institutions from consulting with and compensating insurance 1986
agents and brokers for professional services or from establishing 1987
a self-insurance program.1988

       (L)(I) Pursuant to Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, the 1989
auditor of state shall conduct all necessary and required audits 1990
of the department. The auditor of state, upon request, also shall 1991
furnish to the department copies of audits of political 1992
subdivisions, public school districts, or consortia performed by 1993
the auditor of state.1994

       Sec. 101.39.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 1995
legislative committee on health care oversight. The committee may 1996
review or study any matter related to the provision of health care 1997
services that it considers of significance to the citizens of this 1998
state, including the availability of health care, the quality of 1999
health care, the effectiveness and efficiency of managed care 2000
systems, and the operation of the medical assistancemedicaid2001
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or 2002
other government health programs.2003

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 2004
department of health, department of aging, department of mental 2005
healthmental health and addiction services, department of 2006
developmental disabilities, department of alcohol and drug 2007
addiction services, and other state agencies shall cooperate with 2008
the committee in its study and review of health care issues. On 2009
request, the departments shall provide the committee with reports 2010
and other information sufficient for the committee to fulfill its 2011
duties.2012

       The committee may issue recommendations as it determines 2013
appropriate. The recommendations may be made to the general 2014
assembly, state agencies, private industry, or any other entity.2015

       (B) The committee shall consist of the following members of 2016
the general assembly: the chairperson of the senate's standing 2017
committee with primary responsibility for health legislation, the 2018
chairperson of the house of representatives' standing committee 2019
with primary responsibility for health legislation, four members 2020
of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the 2021
house of representatives, and four members of the senate appointed 2022
by the president of the senate. Not more than two members 2023
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and not 2024
more than two members appointed by the president of the senate may 2025
be of the same political party. Except in 1995, appointments shall 2026
be made not later than fifteen days after the commencement of the 2027
first regular session of each general assembly. The chairpersons 2028
of the standing committees with primary responsibility for health 2029
legislation shall serve as co-chairpersons of the committee.2030

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2031
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2032
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2033
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2034
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2035
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2036
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2037
appointment.2038

       The committee shall meet at least quarterly and at the call 2039
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons shall determine the 2040
time, place, and agenda for each meeting of the committee.2041

       The committee has the same powers as other standing or select 2042
committees of the general assembly. The committee may request 2043
assistance from the legislative service commission.2044

       Sec. 101.391.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2045
legislative committee on medicaid technology and reform. The 2046
committee may review or study any matter that it considers 2047
relevant to the operation of the medicaid program established 2048
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, with priority given to 2049
the study or review of mechanisms to enhance the program's 2050
effectiveness through improved technology systems and program 2051
reform.2052

       (B) The committee shall consist of five members of the house 2053
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2054
representatives and five members of the senate appointed by the 2055
president of the senate. Not more than three members appointed by 2056
the speaker of the house of representatives and not more than 2057
three members appointed by the president of the senate may be of 2058
the same political party.2059

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2060
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2061
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2062
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2063
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2064
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2065
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2066
appointment.2067

       (C) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2068
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2069
employ an executive director.2070

       Sec. 101.392.  (A) As used in this section, "Affordable Care 2071
Act" means the federal "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2072
of 2010," Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119, as amended by the 2073
federal "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 2074
Pub. L. 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029, and any amendments to those acts, 2075
or any regulations or guidance issued under those acts.2076

       (B) There is hereby created the joint legislative committee 2077
on the Affordable Care Act. The committee may review or study any 2078
matter that it considers relevant to the operation and impact of 2079
the Affordable Care Act in this state.2080

       (C) The committee shall consist of three members of the house 2081
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2082
representatives, and three members of the senate appointed by the 2083
president of the senate. Two members appointed by the speaker of 2084
the house of representatives shall be from the majority party and 2085
one member shall be from the minority party, and two members 2086
appointed by the president of the senate shall be from the 2087
majority party and one member shall be from the minority party.2088

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2089
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2090
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2091
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2092
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2093
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2094
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2095
appointment.2096

       (D) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2097
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2098
request assistance from the legislative service commission.2099

       Sec. 103.144.  As used in sections 103.144 to 103.146 of the 2100
Revised Code:2101

       (A) "Mandated benefit" means the following, when considered 2102
in the context of a sickness and accident insurance policy or a 2103
health insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement:2104

       (1) Any required coverage for a specific medical or 2105
health-related service, treatment, medication, or practice;2106

       (2) Any required coverage for the services of specific health 2107
care providers;2108

       (3) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2109
corporation offer coverage to specific individuals or groups;2110

       (4) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2111
corporation offer specific medical or health-related services, 2112
treatments, medications, or practices to existing insureds or 2113
enrollees;2114

       (5) Any required expansion of, or addition to, existing 2115
coverage;2116

       (6) Any mandated reimbursement amount to specific health care 2117
providers.2118

       (B) "Mandated benefit" does not include any required coverage 2119
or offer of coverage, any required expansion of, or addition to, 2120
existing coverage, or any mandated reimbursement amount to 2121
specific providers, as described in division (A) of this section, 2122
within the context of any public health benefits arrangement, 2123
including but not limited to, the coverage of beneficiaries 2124
enrolled in Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 2125
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,medicare pursuant to a 2126
medicare risk contract or medicare cost contract, or to the 2127
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social 2128
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 2129
known as the medical assistance program or medicaid, provided by 2130
the Ohio department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. 2131
of the Revised Code.2132

       Sec. 105.41.  (A) There is hereby created in the legislative 2133
branch of government the capitol square review and advisory board, 2134
consisting of twelve members as follows:2135

       (1) Two members of the senate, appointed by the president of 2136
the senate, both of whom shall not be members of the same 2137
political party;2138

       (2) Two members of the house of representatives, appointed by 2139
the speaker of the house of representatives, both of whom shall 2140
not be members of the same political party;2141

       (3) Four members appointed by the governor, with the advice 2142
and consent of the senate, not more than three of whom shall be 2143
members of the same political party, one of whom shall be the 2144
chief of staff of the governor's office, one of whom shall 2145
represent the Ohio arts council, one of whom shall represent the 2146
Ohio historical society, and one of whom shall represent the 2147
public at large;2148

       (4) One member, who shall be a former president of the 2149
senate, appointed by the current president of the senate. If the 2150
current president of the senate, in the current president's 2151
discretion, decides for any reason not to make the appointment or 2152
if no person is eligible or available to serve, the seat shall 2153
remain vacant.2154

       (5) One member, who shall be a former speaker of the house of 2155
representatives, appointed by the current speaker of the house of 2156
representatives. If the current speaker of the house of 2157
representatives, in the current speaker's discretion, decides for 2158
any reason not to make the appointment or if no person is eligible 2159
or available to serve, the seat shall remain vacant.2160

       (6) The clerk of the senate and the clerk of the house of 2161
representatives.2162

       (B) Terms of office of each appointed member of the board 2163
shall be for three years, except that members of the general 2164
assembly appointed to the board shall be members of the board only 2165
so long as they are members of the general assembly and the chief 2166
of staff of the governor's office shall be a member of the board 2167
only so long as the appointing governor remains in office. Each 2168
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 2169
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. In 2170
case of a vacancy occurring on the board, the president of the 2171
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, or the 2172
governor, as the case may be, shall in the same manner prescribed 2173
for the regular appointment to the commission, fill the vacancy by 2174
appointing a member. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 2175
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 2176
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 2177
remainder of the term. Any appointed member shall continue in 2178
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 2179
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 2180
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.2181

       (C) The board shall hold meetings in a manner and at times 2182
prescribed by the rules adopted by the board. A majority of the 2183
board constitutes a quorum, and no action shall be taken by the 2184
board unless approved by at least six members or by at least seven 2185
members if a person is appointed under division (A)(4) or (5) of 2186
this section. At its first meeting, the board shall adopt rules 2187
for the conduct of its business and the election of its officers, 2188
and shall organize by selecting a chairperson and other officers 2189
as it considers necessary. Board members shall serve without 2190
compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 2191
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.2192

       (D) The board may do any of the following:2193

       (1) Employ or hire on a consulting basis professional, 2194
technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for the 2195
performance of its duties. All employees of the board are in the 2196
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the board. For 2197
purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, employees of the 2198
board shall be considered employees of the general assembly, 2199
except that employees who are covered by a collective bargaining 2200
agreement on September 29, 2011, shall remain subject to the 2201
agreement until the agreement expires on its terms, and the 2202
agreement shall not be extended or renewed. Upon expiration of the 2203
agreement, the employees are considered employees of the general 2204
assembly for purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code and 2205
are in the unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the 2206
board.2207

       (2) Hold public hearings at times and places as determined by 2208
the board;2209

       (3) Adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to accomplish 2210
the duties of the board as set forth in this section;2211

       (4) Sponsor, conduct, and support such social events as the 2212
board may authorize and consider appropriate for the employees of 2213
the board, employees and members of the general assembly, 2214
employees of persons under contract with the board or otherwise 2215
engaged to perform services on the premises of capitol square, or 2216
other persons as the board may consider appropriate. Subject to 2217
the requirements of Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, the board 2218
may provide beer, wine, and intoxicating liquor, with or without 2219
charge, for those events and may use funds only from the sale of 2220
goods and services fund to purchase the beer, wine, and 2221
intoxicating liquor the board provides;2222

       (5) Purchase a warehouse in which to store items of the 2223
capitol collection trust and, whenever necessary, equipment or 2224
other property of the board.2225

       (E) The board shall do all of the following:2226

       (1) Have sole authority to coordinate and approve any 2227
improvements, additions, and renovations that are made to the 2228
capitol square. The improvements shall include, but not be limited 2229
to, the placement of monuments and sculpture on the capitol 2230
grounds.2231

       (2) Subject to section 3353.07 of the Revised Code, operate 2232
the capitol square, and have sole authority to regulate all uses 2233
of the capitol square. The uses shall include, but not be limited 2234
to, the casual and recreational use of the capitol square.2235

       (3) Employ, fix the compensation of, and prescribe the duties 2236
of the executive director of the board and other employees the 2237
board considers necessary for the performance of its powers and 2238
duties;2239

       (4) Establish and maintain the capitol collection trust. The 2240
capitol collection trust shall consist of furniture, antiques, and 2241
other items of personal property that the board shall store in 2242
suitable facilities until they are ready to be displayed in the 2243
capitol square.2244

       (5) Perform repair, construction, contracting, purchasing, 2245
maintenance, supervisory, and operating activities the board 2246
determines are necessary for the operation and maintenance of the 2247
capitol square;2248

       (6) Maintain and preserve the capitol square, in accordance 2249
with guidelines issued by the United States secretary of the 2250
interior for application of the secretary's standards for 2251
rehabilitation adopted in 36 C.F.R. part 67;2252

       (7) Plan and develop a center at the capitol building for the 2253
purpose of educating visitors about the history of Ohio, including 2254
its political, economic, and social development and the design and 2255
erection of the capitol building and its grounds.2256

       (F)(1) The board shall lease capital facilities improved or 2257
financed by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. 2258
of the Revised Code for the use of the board, and may enter into 2259
any other agreements with the authority ancillary to improvement, 2260
financing, or leasing of those capital facilities, including, but 2261
not limited to, any agreement required by the applicable bond 2262
proceedings authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. Any 2263
lease of capital facilities authorized by this section shall be 2264
governed by division (D) of section 152.24 of the Revised Code.2265

       (2) Fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board from 2266
the state underground parking garage constitute available receipts 2267
as defined in section 152.09 of the Revised Code, and may be 2268
pledged to the payment of bond service charges on obligations 2269
issued by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. of 2270
the Revised Code to improve, finance, or purchase capital 2271
facilities useful to the board. The authority may, with the 2272
consent of the board, provide in the bond proceedings for a pledge 2273
of all or a portion of those fees, receipts, and revenues as the 2274
authority determines. The authority may provide in the bond 2275
proceedings or by separate agreement with the board for the 2276
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues to the appropriate 2277
bond service fund or bond service reserve fund as required to pay 2278
the bond service charges when due, and any such provision for the 2279
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues shall be 2280
controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law pertaining 2281
to those fees, receipts, and revenues.2282

       (3) All moneys received by the treasurer of state on account 2283
of the board and required by the applicable bond proceedings or by 2284
separate agreement with the board to be deposited, transferred, or 2285
credited to the bond service fund or bond service reserve fund 2286
established by the bond proceedings shall be transferred by the 2287
treasurer of state to such fund, whether or not it is in the 2288
custody of the treasurer of state, without necessity for further 2289
appropriation, upon receipt of notice from the Ohio building 2290
authority as prescribed in the bond proceedings.2291

       (G)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) of 2292
this section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the 2293
board from the state underground parking garage shall be deposited 2294
into the state treasury to the credit of the underground parking 2295
garage operating fund, which is hereby created, to be used for the 2296
purposes specified in division (F) of this section and for the 2297
operation and maintenance of the garage. All investment earnings 2298
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.2299

       (2) There is hereby created the parking garage automated 2300
equipment fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 2301
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. Money in the 2302
fund shall be used to purchase the automated teller machine 2303
quality dollar bills needed for operation of the parking garage 2304
automated equipment. The fund shall consist of fees, receipts, or 2305
revenues received by the board from the state underground parking 2306
garage; provided, however, that the total amount deposited into 2307
the fund at any one time shall not exceed ten thousand dollars. 2308
All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.2309

       (H) All donations received by the board shall be deposited 2310
into the state treasury to the credit of the capitol square 2311
renovation gift fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be 2312
used by the board as follows:2313

       (1) To provide part or all of the funding related to 2314
construction, goods, or services for the renovation of the capitol 2315
square;2316

       (2) To purchase art, antiques, and artifacts for display at 2317
the capitol square;2318

       (3) To award contracts or make grants to organizations for 2319
educating the public regarding the historical background and 2320
governmental functions of the capitol square. Chapters 125., 127., 2321
and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 2322
purchases made exclusively from the fund, notwithstanding anything 2323
to the contrary in those chapters or that section. All investment 2324
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.2325

       (I) Except as provided in divisions (G), (H), and (J) of this 2326
section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board 2327
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 2328
sale of goods and services fund, which is hereby created. Money 2329
credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay costs of the 2330
board other than those specified in divisions (F) and (G) of this 2331
section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 2332
the fund.2333

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the capitol 2334
square improvement fund, to be used by the board to pay 2335
construction, renovation, and other costs related to the capitol 2336
square for which money is not otherwise available to the board. 2337
Whenever the board determines that there is a need to incur those 2338
costs and that the unencumbered, unobligated balance to the credit 2339
of the underground parking garage operating fund exceeds the 2340
amount needed for the purposes specified in division (F) of this 2341
section and for the operation and maintenance of the garage, the 2342
board may request the director of budget and management to 2343
transfer from the underground parking garage operating fund to the 2344
capitol square improvement fund the amount needed to pay such 2345
construction, renovation, or other costs. The director then shall 2346
transfer the amount needed from the excess balance of the 2347
underground parking garage operating fund.2348

       (K) As the operation and maintenance of the capitol square 2349
constitute essential government functions of a public purpose, the 2350
board shall not be required to pay taxes or assessments upon the 2351
square, upon any property acquired or used by the board under this 2352
section, or upon any income generated by the operation of the 2353
square.2354

       (L) As used in this section, "capitol square" means the 2355
capitol building, senate building, capitol atrium, capitol 2356
grounds, the state underground parking garage, and the warehouse 2357
owned by the board.2358

       (M) The capitol annex shall be known as the senate building.2359

       (N) Any person may possess a firearm in a motor vehicle in 2360
the state underground parking garage at the state capitol 2361
building, if the person's possession of the firearm in the motor 2362
vehicle is not in violation of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code 2363
or any other provision of the Revised Code. Any person may store 2364
or leave a firearm in a locked motor vehicle that is parked in the 2365
state underground parking garage at the state capitol building, if 2366
the person's transportation and possession of the firearm in the 2367
motor vehicle while traveling to the garage was not in violation 2368
of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code or any other provision of 2369
the Revised Code.2370

       Sec. 107.033. As part of the state budget the governor 2371
submits to the general assembly under section 107.03 of the 2372
Revised Code, the governor shall include the state appropriation 2373
limitations the general assembly shall not exceed when making 2374
aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for each respective 2375
fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget. The aggregate 2376
general revenue fund appropriations the governor proposes in the 2377
state budget also shall not exceed those limitations for each 2378
respective fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget.2379

        (A) For fiscal year 2008, the state appropriation limitation 2380
is the sum of the following:2381

        (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2382
fiscal year 2007; plus2383

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2384
fiscal year 2007 multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, 2385
or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2386
change, whichever is greater.2387

       (B) For each fiscal year thereafter that is not a recast 2388
fiscal year, the state appropriation limitation is the sum of the 2389
following:2390

       (1) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2391
fiscal year; plus2392

       (2) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2393
fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, or 2394
the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2395
change, whichever is greater.2396

       (C) For each recast fiscal year, the state appropriation 2397
limitation is the sum of the following:2398

       (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2399
previous fiscal year; plus2400

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2401
previous fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per 2402
cent, or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of 2403
population change, whichever is greater.2404

       (D) The state appropriation limitation for a fiscal year 2405
shall be increased by the amount of a nongeneral revenue fund 2406
appropriation made in the immediately preceding fiscal year, if 2407
all of the following apply to the nongeneral revenue fund 2408
appropriation:2409

       (1) It was made on or after July 1, 2013.2410

       (2) It is included in the aggregate general revenue fund 2411
appropriations proposed for that fiscal year.2412

       (3) It is being made for the first time from the general 2413
revenue fund.2414

       Sec. 107.12. (A) As used in this section, "organization" 2415
means a faith-based or other organization that is exempt from 2416
federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 2417
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, 2418
and provides charitable services to needy residents of this state.2419

       (B) There is hereby established within the office of the 2420
governor the governor's office of faith-based and community 2421
initiatives. The office shall:2422

       (1) Serve as a clearinghouse of information on federal, 2423
state, and local funding for charitable services performed by 2424
organizations;2425

       (2) Encourage organizations to seek public funding for their 2426
charitable services;2427

       (3) Assist local, state, and federal agencies in coordinating 2428
their activities to secure maximum use of funds and efforts that 2429
benefit people receiving charitable services from organizations;2430

       (4) Advise the governor, general assembly, and the advisory 2431
board of the governor's office of faith-based and community 2432
initiatives on the barriers that exist to collaboration between 2433
organizations and governmental entities and on ways to remove the 2434
barriers.2435

       (C) The governor shall appoint an executive director and such 2436
other staff as may be necessary to manage the office and perform 2437
or oversee the performance of the duties of the office. Within 2438
sixty days after being appointed, and every twelve months 2439
thereafter, the executive director shall distribute to the 2440
advisory board and review with the board a strategic plan. The 2441
executive director shall report to the board at least quarterly on 2442
proposed initiatives and policies. A report shall include the 2443
condition of the budget and the finances of the office.2444

       (D)(1) There is hereby created the advisory board of the 2445
governor's office of faith-based and community initiatives. The 2446
board shall consist of the following members:2447

       (a) The directors of aging, alcohol and drug addiction 2448
services, rehabilitation and correction, health, job and family 2449
services, developmental disabilities, mental healthmental health 2450
and addiction services, and youth services, or their designees;2451

       (b) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 2452
to the board two members of the house of representatives, not more 2453
than one of whom shall be from the same political party and at 2454
least one of whom shall be from the legislative black caucus. The 2455
president of the senate shall appoint to the board two members of 2456
the senate, not more than one of whom shall be from the same 2457
political party.2458

       (c) The governor, the speaker of the house of 2459
representatives, and the president of the senate shall each 2460
appoint to the board three representatives of the nonprofit, 2461
faith-based and other nonprofit community.2462

       (2) Terms of the office shall be one year. Any vacancy that 2463
occurs on the board shall be filled in the same manner as the 2464
original appointment. 2465

       (3) Members of the board are not entitled to compensation, 2466
but the members appointed by the governor, the speaker of the 2467
house of representatives, and the president of the senate who are 2468
representatives of the nonprofit, faith-based and other nonprofit 2469
community shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary 2470
expenses that are incurred in relation to board meetings.2471

       (4) The board shall be presided over by a chairperson and a 2472
vice-chairperson, who shall be the members of the board who are 2473
also members of the house of representatives or the senate. 2474
Annually on the first day of January, the chairpersonship and 2475
vice-chairpersonship shall alternate between the members of the 2476
house of representatives and the senate.2477

       (E) The board shall have the following duties:2478

       (1) Provide direction, guidance, and oversight to the office;2479

       (2) Assist in the dissemination of information about, and in 2480
the stimulation of public awareness of, the service programs 2481
supported by the office;2482

       (3) Review the budget and finances of the office, proposed 2483
initiatives and policies, and the executive director's annual 2484
strategic plan at board meetings;2485

       (4) Provide feedback for and proposed modifications of the 2486
executive director's strategic plan. Within forty-five days after 2487
submitting a strategic plan, the executive director shall contact 2488
each advisory board member to obtain feedback. With the approval 2489
of the advisory board chairperson, the executive director shall 2490
lead a strategic plan discussion at the first board meeting 2491
following the distribution of the strategic plan.2492

       (5) Publish a report of its activities and accomplishments on 2493
or before the first day of August of each year, and deliver copies 2494
of the report to the governor, the speaker and minority leader of 2495
the house of representatives, and the president and minority 2496
leader of the senate.2497

       (F) No member of the board or organization that the member is 2498
affiliated or involved with is eligible to receive any grant that 2499
the office administers or assists in administering.2500

       Sec. 109.06.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 2501
duties of his office, the attorney general shall give a bond to 2502
the state in the sum of five thousand dollars, with two or more 2503
sureties approved by the governora surety authorized to do 2504
business in the state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of 2505
the duties of histhe office of attorney general. Such bond, with 2506
the approval of the governor and the oath of office indorsed 2507
thereon, shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2508
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2509

       The first assistant attorney general shall give a bond to the 2510
state in the sum of five thousand dollars, and such other 2511
employees as are designated by the attorney general shall give a 2512
bond to the state in such amounts as the attorney general 2513
determines. Such bonds shall be approved by the attorney general, 2514
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of their 2515
offices, and shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2516
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2517

       Sec. 109.36.  As used in this section and sections 109.361 to 2518
109.366 of the Revised Code:2519

       (A)(1) "Officer or employee" means any of the following:2520

       (a) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2521
person arises, is serving in an elected or appointed office or 2522
position with the state or is employed by the state.2523

       (b) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2524
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering medical, 2525
nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, physical therapeutic, 2526
psychiatric, or psychological services pursuant to a personal 2527
services contract or purchased service contract with a department, 2528
agency, or institution of the state.2529

       (c) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2530
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering peer 2531
review, utilization review, or drug utilization review services in 2532
relation to medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, 2533
physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological services 2534
pursuant to a personal services contract or purchased service 2535
contract with a department, agency, or institution of the state.2536

       (d) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2537
person arises, is rendering medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, 2538
optometric, physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological 2539
services to patients in a state institution operated by the 2540
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services2541
pursuant to an agreement with the department.2542

       (2) "Officer or employee" does not include any person 2543
elected, appointed, or employed by any political subdivision of 2544
the state.2545

       (B) "State" means the state of Ohio, including but not 2546
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, courts of 2547
appeals, the offices of all elected state officers, and all 2548
departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, 2549
and other instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not 2550
include political subdivisions.2551

       (C) "Political subdivisions" of the state means municipal 2552
corporations, townships, counties, school districts, and all other 2553
bodies corporate and politic responsible for governmental 2554
activities only in geographical areas smaller than that of the 2555
state.2556

       (D) "Employer" means the general assembly, the supreme court, 2557
courts of appeals, any office of an elected state officer, or any 2558
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 2559
other instrumentality of the state of Ohio that employs or 2560
contracts with an officer or employee or to which an officer or 2561
employee is elected or appointed.2562

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 2563
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 2564
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 2565
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 2566
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 2567
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 2568
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2569
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2570
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 2571
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 2572
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 2573
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 2574
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 2575
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 2576
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 2577
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 2578
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 2579
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 2580
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 2581
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 2582
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 2583
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2584
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2585
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 2586
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 2587
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 2588
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2589
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 2590
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 2591
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 2592
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 2593
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2594
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 2595
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 2596
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 2597
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 2598
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 2599
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 2600
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 2601
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 2602
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 2603
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 2604
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 2605
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 2606
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2607
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 2608
Revised Code. 2609

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 2610
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 2611
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 2612
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 2613
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2614
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2615
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 2616
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 2617
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 2618
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2619
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 2620
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 2621
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 2622
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 2623
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 2624
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 2625
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 2626
information: 2627

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 2628
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 2629
this section; 2630

       (b) The style and number of the case; 2631

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 2632

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 2633
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 2634
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 2635
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 2636
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 2637
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 2638
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 2639
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 2640
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 2641
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 2642
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 2643
of the case; 2644

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 2645
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 2646

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 2647
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 2648
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 2649
delinquent child. 2650

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 2651
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 2652
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 2653
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 2654
placed in the bureau's records. 2655

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 2656
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 2657
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 2658
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 2659
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 2660
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 2661
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 2662
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 2663
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 2664
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 2665
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 2666
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 2667
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 2668
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 2669
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 2670
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2671
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 2672
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 2673
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 2674
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 2675
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2676
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 2677
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2678
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 2679
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 2680
state and its political subdivisions. 2681

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 2682
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 2683
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 2684
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 2685
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 2686

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 2687
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 2688
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 2689
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 2690
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 2691
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 2692
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 2693
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 2694
compact officer specified in that compact. 2695

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 2696
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 2697
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 2698
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 2699
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 2700
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 2701
standard forms for reporting the information required under 2702
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 2703
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 2704
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 2705
formats and electronic formats. 2706

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 2707
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 2708
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 2709
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 2710
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 2711
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 2712
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 2713
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 2714
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 2715
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 2716
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 2717
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 2718
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 2719
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 2720
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 2721
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 2722
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 2723

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 2724
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 2725
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 2726
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 2727
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 2728
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 2729
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 2730
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 2731
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 2732
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 2733
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 2734
section. 2735

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 2736
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 2737
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 2738
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 2739
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 2740
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 2741

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 2742
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 2743
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 2744
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 2745
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 2746
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 2747
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 2748
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 2749
enforcement gateway.2750

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 2751
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 2752
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 2753
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 2754
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 2755
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.2756

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 2757
149.43 of the Revised Code:2758

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 2759
pursuant to division (A) of this section;2760

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 2761
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 2762
division (C)(1) of this section;2763

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 2764
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.2765

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 2766
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 2767
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 2768
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 2769
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 2770
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 2771
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 2772

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 2773
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 2774
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 2775
person may receive or release information gathered by the 2776
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 2777
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 2778
employment service submits a request for a determination of 2779
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 2780
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 2781
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 2782
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 2783
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 2784

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 2785
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 2786
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 2787
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 2788
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 2789
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 2790
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 2791
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 2792
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 2793
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 2794
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 2795
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 2796
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 2797
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 2798
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 2799
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:2800

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 2801
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.2802

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 2803
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 2804
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 2805
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 2806
classification has not been removed.2807

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 2808
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 2809
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 2810
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 2811
as amended. 2812

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 2813
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 2814
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 2815
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 2816
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 2817
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 2818
board of education of any school district; the director of 2819
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 2820
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 2821
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 2822
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 2823
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 2824
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 2825
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 2826
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 2827
home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the Revised 2828
Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care home 2829
certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 2830
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 2831
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 2832
agency; the executive director of a public children services 2833
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 2834
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 2835
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 2836
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 2837
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 2838
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 2839
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 2840
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 2841
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 2842
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 2843
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 2844
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 2845
and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting 2846
information, also shall request from the federal bureau of 2847
investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that 2848
individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee 2849
also may request criminal history records from other states or the 2850
federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and 2851
privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code. 2852
Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent receives a 2853
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 2854
superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or person a report 2855
of any information that the superintendent determines exists, 2856
including information contained in records that have been sealed 2857
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 2858
of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, shall 2859
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 2860
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 2861
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 2862
law. 2863

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 2864
provider is required to receive information under this section as 2865
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 2866
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 2867
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 2868
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 2869
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 2870
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 2871
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 2872
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 2873
employment application documents and shall return the certified 2874
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 2875
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 2876
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 2877
bureau. 2878

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 2879
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 2880
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 2881
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 2882
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 2883
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.2884

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 2885
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 2886
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 2887
education, any information that a school district board of 2888
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 2889
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 2890
the request has been received from a school district board of 2891
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 2892

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 2893
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 2894
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 2895
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 2896
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 2897

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 2898
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 2899
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 2900
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 2901
the information that a school district board of education is 2902
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 2903
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 2904
has been received from a school district board of education under 2905
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 2906

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2907
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 2908
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 2909
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 2910
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 2911
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 2912
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 2913
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 2914
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 2915
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 2916
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 2917
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 2918
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 2919
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 2920

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2921
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 2922
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 2923
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 2924
residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 2925
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 2926
ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director of health2927
aging, a regional long-term care ombudsperson, or the designee of 2928
the ombudsperson, director, or program may request that the 2929
superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to any 2930
individual who has applied for employment in a position that does 2931
not involve providing such ombudsperson services, whether the 2932
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 2933
section that pertains to that applicant. 2934

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2935
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 2936
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 2937
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 2938
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 2939
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 2940
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 2941
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 2942
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 2943
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 2944
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 2945
pertains to that applicant. 2946

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2947
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 2948
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 2949
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 2950
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 2951
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 2952
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 2953
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 2954
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 2955
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 2956
section that pertains to that individual.2957

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 2958
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 2959
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 2960
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 2961
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 2962
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 2963
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 2964
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 2965
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 2966
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 2967
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 2968
of any information determined to exist, including information 2969
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 2970
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 2971
send the requester a report of any information received from the 2972
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 2973
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 2974

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 2975
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 2976
disseminated. 2977

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 2978
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 2979
(G) of this section. 2980

       (J) As used in this section:2981

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric respite 2982
care patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 2983
Revised Code.2984

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 2985
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 2986
Revised Code.2987

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 2988
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 2989
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 2990
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 2991
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 2992
program.2993

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 2994
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 2995
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 2996
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2997
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2998
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2999
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3000
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3001
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3002
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3003
guilty to any of the following:3004

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3005
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3006
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3007
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3008
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 3009
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 3010
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 3011
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 3012
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 3013
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3014
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 3015
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 3016
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 3017
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 3018
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3019
minor drug possession offense;3020

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3021
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3022
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 3023
this section;3024

       (c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the 3025
Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense 3026
specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.3027

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3028
3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3029
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3030
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3031
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3032
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3033
check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in 3034
a position for which a criminal records check is required by those 3035
sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3036
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3037
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3038
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3039
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3040

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3041
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3042
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3043
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3044
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3045
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3046
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3047
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3048
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3049

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3050
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3051
the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.3052

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 3053
173.394173.38, 3701.881, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 3054
5111.0345164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a 3055
completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3056
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3057
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3058
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3059
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person 3060
for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the 3061
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3062
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3063
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3064
previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or 3065
(except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 3066
5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible 3067
for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, 3068
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 3069
guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to 3070
section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the 3071
date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 3072
conviction:3073

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 3074
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 3075
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 3076
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 3077
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3078
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 3079
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 3080
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 3081
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3082
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3083
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 3084
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 3085
2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 3086
2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 3087
2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3088
2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 3089
2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 3090
2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 3091
2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3092

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3093
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3094

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3095
existed prior to July 1, 1996;3096

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 3097
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 3098
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 3099
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;3100

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 3101
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 3102
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 3103
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.3104

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 3105
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3106
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3107
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3108
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3109
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3110
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3111
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3112
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3113
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3114

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3115
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 3116
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 3117
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3118
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 3119
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 3120
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 3121
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3122
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 3123
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 3124
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 3125
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 3126
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 3127
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 3128
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3129
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 3130
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 3131
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 3132
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3133
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3134

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3135
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3136
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of 3137
this section.3138

       (5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 3139
5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3140
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3141
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3142
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3143
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3144
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3145
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3146
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 3147
pleaded guilty to any of the following:3148

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3149
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 3150
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 3151
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 3152
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 3153
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 3154
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 3155
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3156
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 3157
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 3158
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3159
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 3160
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 3161
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3162
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 3163
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 3164
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 3165
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 3166
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 3167
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 3168
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 3169
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 3170
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 3171
certification.3172

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3173
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3174
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 3175
division (A)(5)(a) of this section.3176

       (6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of 3177
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3178
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3179
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3180
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3181
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3182
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3183
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3184
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3185
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3186

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3187
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3188
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3189
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3190
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 3191
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 3192
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 3193
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 3194
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 3195
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 3196
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 3197
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 3198
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3199
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 3200
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 3201
that is not a minor drug possession offense;3202

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3203
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3204
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of 3205
this section.3206

       (7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3207
an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 3208
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 3209
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 3210
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 3211
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 3212
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 3213
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 3214
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 3215
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 3216
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 3217
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 3218
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 3219
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 3220
described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division 3221
(F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings 3222
of the criminal records check and any information the federal 3223
bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.3224

       (8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 3225
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 3226
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3227
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3228
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3229
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3230
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 3231
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 3232
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 3233
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3234
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3235
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3236
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3237
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 3238
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 3239
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 3240
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 3241
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 3242
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 3243
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 3244
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 3245
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 3246
to those offenses.3247

       (9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3248
the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code 3249
or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 3250
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 3251
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 3252
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 3253
4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 3254
4762.06, 4776.021, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by 3255
a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section 3256
and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner 3257
described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent 3258
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall 3259
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in 3260
division (B) of this section to determine whether any information 3261
exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the 3262
request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal 3263
offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) 3264
of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a 3265
check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the 3266
treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested 3267
under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board 3268
specified by the individual in the request.3269

       (10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 3270
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 3271
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3272
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3273
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3274
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3275
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3276
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3277
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3278
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3279
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 3280
this state, any other state, or the United States.3281

       (11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 3282
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 3283
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 3284
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3285
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 3286
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3287
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3288
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3289
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3290
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3291
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 3292
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 3293
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 3294
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 3295
such an offense.3296

       (12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 3297
2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3298
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3299
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3300
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3301
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3302
check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check 3303
is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the 3304
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3305
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3306
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3307
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 3308
following:3309

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3310
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3311
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3312
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3313
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3314
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3315
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3316
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3317
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3318

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3319
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3320
the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.3321

       (B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the 3322
superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be 3323
conducted under this section as follows:3324

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 3325
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 3326
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 3327
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, 3328
including, if the criminal records check was requested under 3329
section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394173.38, 1121.23, 1155.03, 3330
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 3331
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3332
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 3333
5104.013, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 5111.0345164.342, 3334
5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant 3335
information contained in records that have been sealed under 3336
section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;3337

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 3338
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3339
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 3340
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 3341
who is the subject of the criminal records check, including 3342
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 3343
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to 3344
section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if 3345
any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks 3346
of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any 3347
information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a 3348
request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for 3349
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3350
superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division 3351
(B)(1) of this section.3352

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 3353
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 3354
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 3355
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.3356

       (4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the 3357
criminal records check a list or description of the offenses 3358
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), 3359
(7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever 3360
division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal 3361
records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results 3362
any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 3363
federal law.3364

       (5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal 3365
records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later 3366
than the following number of days after the date the 3367
superintendent receives the request for the criminal records 3368
check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this 3369
section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3370
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:3371

       (a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this 3372
section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct 3373
the criminal records check, thirty;3374

       (b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of 3375
this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.3376

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 3377
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 3378
any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted 3379
under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes 3380
pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an 3381
electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.3382

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 3383
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 3384
whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this 3385
section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted 3386
under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a 3387
county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other 3388
entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the 3389
standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The 3390
office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable 3391
fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the 3392
superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a 3393
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and 3394
electronic formats.3395

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 3396
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 3397
providing a criminal records check under this section. The person 3398
requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed 3399
pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 3400
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 3401
2151.412, or 5111.0325164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall 3402
be paid in the manner specified in that section.3403

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3404
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 3405
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 3406
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 3407
not be limited to, an electronic method.3408

       (D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under 3409
this section, other than a criminal records check specified in 3410
division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is 3411
the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year 3412
from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal 3413
records check. If during that period the superintendent receives 3414
another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under 3415
this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the 3416
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 3417
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 3418
records check.3419

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 3420
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 3421
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 3422
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 3423
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this 3424
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.3425

       (F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal 3426
records check conducted under this section that the superintendent 3427
reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to 3428
the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the 3429
person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal 3430
records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject 3431
person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal 3432
offense.3433

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, 3434
or preclude the superintendent's release of information that 3435
relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or 3436
that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen 3437
years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a 3438
juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of 3439
the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or 3440
serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either 3441
division, if either of the following applies with respect to the 3442
adjudication or conviction:3443

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 3444
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.3445

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 3446
oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised 3447
Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a 3448
juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 3449
2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 3450
classification has not been removed.3451

       (G) As used in this section:3452

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 3453
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3454
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 3455
of this section.3456

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 3457
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.3458

       (3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 3459
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 3460
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 3461
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 3462
Code.3463

       (4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 3464
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 3465
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 3466
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 3467
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 3468
program.3469

       Sec. 109.71.  There is hereby created in the office of the 3470
attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The 3471
commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor 3472
with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as follows: 3473
one member representing the public; two members who are incumbent 3474
sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of police; one 3475
member from the bureau of criminal identification and 3476
investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one 3477
member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of the 3478
federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member from 3479
the department of education, trade and industrial education 3480
services, law enforcement training.3481

       This section does not confer any arrest authority or any 3482
ability or authority to detain a person, write or issue any 3483
citation, or provide any disposition alternative, as granted under 3484
Chapter 2935. of the Revised Code.3485

       As used in sections 109.71 to 109.801 of the Revised Code:3486

       (A) "Peace officer" means:3487

       (1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the 3488
organized police department of a township or municipal 3489
corporation, member of a township police district or joint police 3490
district police force, member of a police force employed by a 3491
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3492
3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable, who is 3493
commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a political 3494
subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing authority, 3495
and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect 3496
life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state, 3497
ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township, 3498
or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of 3499
township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances, resolutions, 3500
or regulations;3501

       (2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company 3502
and appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant 3503
to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;3504

       (3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the 3505
enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code and designated by 3506
the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes of 3507
the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 of 3508
the Revised Code;3509

       (4) An undercover drug agent;3510

       (5) Enforcement agents of the department of public safety 3511
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3512
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3513

       (6) An employee of the department of natural resources who is 3514
a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 3515
pursuant to section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant 3516
to section 1541.10, a forest officer designated pursuant to 3517
section 1503.29, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 3518
1517.10, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 3519
1531.13, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to 3520
section 1547.521 of the Revised Code;3521

       (7) An employee of a park district who is designated pursuant 3522
to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;3523

       (8) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3524
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3525

       (9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that 3526
employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or 3527
security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the 3528
secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the 3529
Revised Code;3530

       (10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under section 3531
5907.02 of the Revised Code;3532

       (11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified 3533
nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 3534
1702.80 of the Revised Code;3535

       (12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed 3536
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3537
state university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3538
June 19, 1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3539
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3540
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3541
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3542
officer basic training program;3543

       (13) A special police officer employed by the department of 3544
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3545
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3546
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3547
Revised Code;3548

       (14) A member of a campus police department appointed under 3549
section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;3550

       (15) A member of a police force employed by a regional 3551
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the 3552
Revised Code;3553

       (16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state pursuant 3554
to section 117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the 3555
enforcement of Chapter 117. of the Revised Code;3556

       (17) A special police officer designated by the 3557
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 3558
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person who was serving as a 3559
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 3560
basis on October 21, 1997, and who has been awarded a certificate 3561
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3562
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3563
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 3564
resources peace officer basic training program;3565

       (18) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3566
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code or a person 3567
serving as a special police officer employed by a port authority 3568
on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, who has been awarded a 3569
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 3570
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 3571
completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department 3572
of natural resources peace officer basic training program;3573

       (19) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3574
corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3575
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for 3576
satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic 3577
training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or 3578
after March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport, or other municipal 3579
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 3580
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 3581
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3582
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3583
transportation security administration of the United States 3584
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3585
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;3586

       (20) A police officer who is employed by an owner or operator 3587
of an amusement park that has an average yearly attendance in 3588
excess of six hundred thousand guests and that employs and 3589
maintains its own proprietary police department or security 3590
department, and who is appointed and commissioned by a judge of 3591
the appropriate municipal court or county court pursuant to 3592
section 4973.17 of the Revised Code;3593

        (21) A police officer who is employed by a bank, savings and 3594
loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of 3595
banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit 3596
unions, who has been appointed and commissioned by the secretary 3597
of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised 3598
Code, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3599
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3600
to the person's satisfactory completion of a state, county, 3601
municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic 3602
training program;3603

       (22) An investigator, as defined in section 109.541 of the 3604
Revised Code, of the bureau of criminal identification and 3605
investigation who is commissioned by the superintendent of the 3606
bureau as a special agent for the purpose of assisting law 3607
enforcement officers or providing emergency assistance to peace 3608
officers pursuant to authority granted under that section;3609

       (23) A state fire marshal law enforcement officer appointed 3610
under section 3737.22 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3611
state fire marshal law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3612
or after July 1, 1982, who has been awarded a certificate by the 3613
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission 3614
attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved 3615
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3616
officer basic training program;3617

       (24) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 3618
Revised Code.3619

       (25) A deputy inspector general appointed under section 3620
121.48 of the Revised Code who has been awarded a certificate by 3621
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3622
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3623
approved state, county, or municipal peace officer basic training 3624
program.3625

       (B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in 3626
division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.3627

       (C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the use 3628
of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively and 3629
sensitively interview victims of rape.3630

       (D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 3631
2901.30 of the Revised Code.3632

       Sec. 109.746.  (A) The attorney general may prepare public 3633
awareness programs that are designed to educate potential victims 3634
of violations of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code and their 3635
families of the risks of becoming a victim of a violation of that 3636
section. The attorney general may prepare these programs with 3637
assistance from the department of health, the department of mental 3638
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of job 3639
and family services, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 3640
services, and the department of education.3641

       (B) Any organization, person, or other governmental agency 3642
with an interest and expertise in trafficking in persons may 3643
submit information or materials to the attorney general regarding 3644
the preparation of the programs and materials permitted under this 3645
section. The attorney general, in developing the programs and 3646
materials permitted by this section, shall consider any 3647
information submitted pursuant to this division.3648

       Sec. 109.77.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" has the 3649
same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.3650

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding any general, special, or local law or 3651
charter to the contrary, and except as otherwise provided in this 3652
section, no person shall receive an original appointment on a 3653
permanent basis as any of the following unless the person 3654
previously has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3655
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3656
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3657
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3658
officer basic training program:3659

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 3660
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 3661
authority;3662

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 3663
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 3664
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;3665

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 3666
1545.13 of the Revised Code;3667

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3668
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3669

       (e) A state university law enforcement officer;3670

       (f) A special police officer employed by the department of 3671
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3672
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3673
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3674
Revised Code;3675

       (g) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 3676
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3677
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3678

       (h) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3679
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;3680

       (i) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3681
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 3682
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 3683
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 3684
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3685
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3686
transportation security administration of the United States 3687
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3688
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;3689

       (j) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 3690
Revised Code.3691

       (2) Every person who is appointed on a temporary basis or for 3692
a probationary term or on other than a permanent basis as any of 3693
the following shall forfeit the appointed position unless the 3694
person previously has completed satisfactorily or, within the time 3695
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 3696
section 109.74 of the Revised Code, satisfactorily completes a 3697
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3698
officer basic training program for temporary or probationary 3699
officers and is awarded a certificate by the director attesting to 3700
the satisfactory completion of the program:3701

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 3702
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 3703
authority;3704

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 3705
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 3706
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;3707

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 3708
1545.13 of the Revised Code;3709

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3710
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3711

       (e) A special police officer employed by the department of 3712
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3713
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3714
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3715
Revised Code;3716

       (f) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 3717
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3718
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3719

       (g) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3720
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;3721

       (h) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3722
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 3723
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 3724
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 3725
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3726
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3727
transportation security administration of the United States 3728
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3729
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.3730

       (3) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a state, 3731
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3732
officer basic training program, regardless of whether the program 3733
is to be completed by peace officers appointed on a permanent or 3734
temporary, probationary, or other nonpermanent basis, shall 3735
include training in the handling of the offense of domestic 3736
violence, other types of domestic violence-related offenses and 3737
incidents, and protection orders and consent agreements issued or 3738
approved under section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code and 3739
crisis intervention training. The requirement to complete training 3740
in the handling of the offense of domestic violence, other types 3741
of domestic violence-related offenses and incidents, and 3742
protection orders and consent agreements issued or approved under 3743
section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code does not apply to 3744
any person serving as a peace officer on March 27, 1979, and the 3745
requirement to complete training in crisis intervention does not 3746
apply to any person serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985. 3747
Any person who is serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985, who 3748
terminates that employment after that date, and who subsequently 3749
is hired as a peace officer by the same or another law enforcement 3750
agency shall complete training in crisis intervention as 3751
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 3752
section 109.742 of the Revised Code. No peace officer shall have 3753
employment as a peace officer terminated and then be reinstated 3754
with intent to circumvent this section.3755

       (4) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 3756
serving on a permanent basis on March 28, 1985, as a park officer, 3757
forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state 3758
watercraft officer of the department of natural resources or as an 3759
employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of 3760
the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on 3761
March 6, 1986, as an employee of a conservancy district designated 3762
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code, to any person 3763
serving on a permanent basis on January 10, 1991, as a preserve 3764
officer of the department of natural resources, to any person 3765
employed on a permanent basis on July 2, 1992, as a special police 3766
officer by the department of mental healthmental health and 3767
addiction services pursuant to section 5119.145119.08 of the 3768
Revised Code or by the department of developmental disabilities 3769
pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code, to any person 3770
serving on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, as a special police 3771
officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 3772
4582.28 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 3773
basis on March 19, 2003, as a special police officer employed by a 3774
municipal corporation at a municipal airport or other municipal 3775
air navigation facility described in division (A)(19) of section 3776
109.71 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 3777
basis on June 19, 1978, as a state university law enforcement 3778
officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised Code and who, 3779
immediately prior to June 19, 1978, was serving as a special 3780
police officer designated under authority of that section, or to 3781
any person serving on a permanent basis on September 20, 1984, as 3782
a liquor control investigator, known after June 30, 1999, as an 3783
enforcement agent of the department of public safety, engaged in 3784
the enforcement of Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code.3785

       (5) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 3786
who is appointed as a regional transit authority police officer 3787
pursuant to division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code if, 3788
on or before July 1, 1996, the person has completed satisfactorily 3789
an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 3790
resources peace officer basic training program and has been 3791
awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace 3792
officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 3793
completion of such an approved program and if, on July 1, 1996, 3794
the person is performing peace officer functions for a regional 3795
transit authority.3796

       (C) No person, after September 20, 1984, shall receive an 3797
original appointment on a permanent basis as a veterans' home 3798
police officer designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised 3799
Code unless the person previously has been awarded a certificate 3800
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3801
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3802
approved police officer basic training program. Every person who 3803
is appointed on a temporary basis or for a probationary term or on 3804
other than a permanent basis as a veterans' home police officer 3805
designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code shall forfeit 3806
that position unless the person previously has completed 3807
satisfactorily or, within one year from the time of appointment, 3808
satisfactorily completes an approved police officer basic training 3809
program.3810

       (D) No bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record of this 3811
state and no criminal investigator who is employed by the state 3812
public defender shall carry a firearm, as defined in section 3813
2923.11 of the Revised Code, while on duty unless the bailiff, 3814
deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator has done or received one 3815
of the following:3816

       (1) Has been awarded a certificate by the executive director 3817
of the Ohio peace officer training commission, which certificate 3818
attests to satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, 3819
or municipal basic training program for bailiffs and deputy 3820
bailiffs of courts of record and for criminal investigators 3821
employed by the state public defender that has been recommended by 3822
the Ohio peace officer training commission;3823

       (2) Has successfully completed a firearms training program 3824
approved by the Ohio peace officer training commission prior to 3825
employment as a bailiff, deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator;3826

       (3) Prior to June 6, 1986, was authorized to carry a firearm 3827
by the court that employed the bailiff or deputy bailiff or, in 3828
the case of a criminal investigator, by the state public defender 3829
and has received training in the use of firearms that the Ohio 3830
peace officer training commission determines is equivalent to the 3831
training that otherwise is required by division (D) of this 3832
section.3833

       (E)(1) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 3834
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 3835
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission shall 3836
request the person to disclose, and the person shall disclose, any 3837
previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty of that person 3838
to a felony.3839

       (2) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 3840
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 3841
director shall request a criminal history records check on the 3842
person. The executive director shall submit the person's 3843
fingerprints to the bureau of criminal identification and 3844
investigation, which shall submit the fingerprints to the federal 3845
bureau of investigation for a national criminal history records 3846
check.3847

       Upon receipt of the executive director's request, the bureau 3848
of criminal identification and investigation and the federal 3849
bureau of investigation shall conduct a criminal history records 3850
check on the person and, upon completion of the check, shall 3851
provide a copy of the criminal history records check to the 3852
executive director. The executive director shall not award any 3853
certificate prescribed in this section unless the executive 3854
director has received a copy of the criminal history records check 3855
on the person to whom the certificate is to be awarded.3856

       (3) The executive director of the commission shall not award 3857
a certificate prescribed in this section to a person who has been 3858
convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony or who fails to 3859
disclose any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty to 3860
a felony as required under division (E)(1) of this section.3861

       (4) The executive director of the commission shall revoke the 3862
certificate awarded to a person as prescribed in this section, and 3863
that person shall forfeit all of the benefits derived from being 3864
certified as a peace officer under this section, if the person, 3865
before completion of an approved peace officer basic training 3866
program, failed to disclose any previous criminal conviction of or 3867
plea of guilty to a felony as required under division (E)(1) of 3868
this section.3869

       (F)(1) Regardless of whether the person has been awarded the 3870
certificate or has been classified as a peace officer prior to, 3871
on, or after October 16, 1996, the executive director of the Ohio 3872
peace officer training commission shall revoke any certificate 3873
that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in this section if 3874
the person does either of the following:3875

       (a) Pleads guilty to a felony committed on or after January 3876
1, 1997;3877

       (b) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor committed on or after 3878
January 1, 1997, pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as 3879
provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of the Revised Code in 3880
which the person agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to 3881
the person under this section.3882

       (2) The executive director of the commission shall suspend 3883
any certificate that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in 3884
this section if the person is convicted, after trial, of a felony 3885
committed on or after January 1, 1997. The executive director 3886
shall suspend the certificate pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 3887
section pending the outcome of an appeal by the person from that 3888
conviction to the highest court to which the appeal is taken or 3889
until the expiration of the period in which an appeal is required 3890
to be filed. If the person files an appeal that results in that 3891
person's acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, 3892
or in the dismissal of the felony charge against that person, the 3893
executive director shall reinstate the certificate awarded to the 3894
person under this section. If the person files an appeal from that 3895
person's conviction of the felony and the conviction is upheld by 3896
the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the person 3897
does not file a timely appeal, the executive director shall revoke 3898
the certificate awarded to the person under this section.3899

       (G)(1) If a person is awarded a certificate under this 3900
section and the certificate is revoked pursuant to division (E)(4) 3901
or (F) of this section, the person shall not be eligible to 3902
receive, at any time, a certificate attesting to the person's 3903
satisfactory completion of a peace officer basic training program.3904

       (2) The revocation or suspension of a certificate under 3905
division (E)(4) or (F) of this section shall be in accordance with 3906
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.3907

       (H)(1) A person who was employed as a peace officer of a 3908
county, township, or municipal corporation of the state on January 3909
1, 1966, and who has completed at least sixteen years of full-time 3910
active service as such a peace officer, or equivalent service as 3911
determined by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 3912
training commission, may receive an original appointment on a 3913
permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 3914
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 3915
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 3916
division (B) of this section.3917

       (2) Any person who held an appointment as a state highway 3918
trooper on January 1, 1966, may receive an original appointment on 3919
a permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 3920
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 3921
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 3922
division (B) of this section.3923

       (I) No person who is appointed as a peace officer of a 3924
county, township, or municipal corporation on or after April 9, 3925
1985, shall serve as a peace officer of that county, township, or 3926
municipal corporation unless the person has received training in 3927
the handling of missing children and child abuse and neglect cases 3928
from an approved state, county, township, or municipal police 3929
officer basic training program or receives the training within the 3930
time prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant 3931
to section 109.741 of the Revised Code.3932

       (J) No part of any approved state, county, or municipal basic 3933
training program for bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of courts of 3934
record and no part of any approved state, county, or municipal 3935
basic training program for criminal investigators employed by the 3936
state public defender shall be used as credit toward the 3937
completion by a peace officer of any part of the approved state, 3938
county, or municipal peace officer basic training program that the 3939
peace officer is required by this section to complete 3940
satisfactorily.3941

       (K) This section does not apply to any member of the police 3942
department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state 3943
serving in this state under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 3944
of the Revised Code.3945

       Sec. 109.85.  (A) Upon the written request of the governor, 3946
the general assembly, the auditor of state, the medicaid director 3947
of job and family services, the director of health, or the 3948
director of budget and management, or upon the attorney general's 3949
becoming aware of criminal or improper activity related to Chapter 3950
3721. and the medical assistancemedicaid program established 3951
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the attorney general 3952
shall investigate any criminal or civil violation of law related 3953
to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the medical assistance3954
medicaid program.3955

       (B) When it appears to the attorney general, as a result of 3956
an investigation under division (A) of this section, that there is 3957
cause to prosecute for the commission of a crime or to pursue a 3958
civil remedy, the attorney general may refer the evidence to the 3959
prosecuting attorney having jurisdiction of the matter, or to a 3960
regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to sections 3961
2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special grand jury 3962
drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the Revised 3963
Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute any 3964
necessary criminal or civil actions in any court or tribunal of 3965
competent jurisdiction in this state. When proceeding under this 3966
section, the attorney general, and any assistant or special 3967
counsel designated by the attorney general for that purpose, have 3968
all rights, privileges, and powers of prosecuting attorneys. The 3969
attorney general shall have exclusive supervision and control of 3970
all investigations and prosecutions initiated by the attorney 3971
general under this section. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 3972
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any such criminal 3973
action initiated and prosecuted by the attorney general.3974

       (C) Nothing in this section shall prevent a county 3975
prosecuting attorney from investigating and prosecuting criminal 3976
activity related to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and the 3977
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 3978
5111.01 of the Revised Code. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 3979
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any prosecution of 3980
criminal activity related to the medical assistancemedicaid3981
program undertaken by the prosecuting attorney.3982

       Sec. 109.86.  (A) The attorney general shall investigate any 3983
activity the attorney general has reasonable cause to believe is 3984
in violation of section 2903.34 of the Revised Code. Upon written 3985
request of the governor, the general assembly, the auditor of 3986
state, or the director of health, job and family services, aging,3987
mental healthmental health and addiction services, or 3988
developmental disabilities, the attorney general shall investigate 3989
any activity these persons believe is in violation of section 3990
2903.34 of the Revised Code. If after an investigation the 3991
attorney general has probable cause to prosecute for the 3992
commission of a crime, the attorney general shall refer the 3993
evidence to the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 3994
similar chief legal officer having jurisdiction over the matter. 3995
If the prosecuting attorney decides to present the evidence to a 3996
grand jury, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the attorney 3997
general in writing of the decision within thirty days after 3998
referral of the matter and shall present the evidence prior to the 3999
discharge of the next regular grand jury. If the director of law 4000
or other chief legal officer decides to prosecute the case, the 4001
director or officer shall notify the attorney general in writing 4002
of the decision within thirty days and shall initiate prosecution 4003
within sixty days after the matter was referred to the director or 4004
officer.4005

       (B) If the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 4006
chief legal officer fails to notify the attorney general or to 4007
present evidence or initiate prosecution in accordance with 4008
division (A) of this section, the attorney general may present the 4009
evidence to a regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to 4010
sections 2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special 4011
grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the 4012
Revised Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute 4013
any action in any court or tribunal of competent jurisdiction in 4014
this state. The attorney general, and any assistant or special 4015
counsel designated by the attorney general, have all the powers of 4016
a prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other chief legal 4017
officer when proceeding under this section. Nothing in this 4018
section shall limit or prevent a prosecuting attorney, director of 4019
law, or other chief legal officer from investigating and 4020
prosecuting criminal activity committed against a resident or 4021
patient of a care facility.4022

       Sec. 109.90. (A) The attorney general shall collaborate with 4023
the state board of pharmacy and director of alcohol and drug 4024
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services in the 4025
establishment and administration of a drug take-back program, as 4026
provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code. The office of 4027
the attorney general is solely responsible for the costs incurred 4028
in the establishment and administration of the program.4029

        (B) The attorney general may accept grants, gifts, or 4030
donations for purposes of the program. Money received under this 4031
division or section 3793.225119.49 or 4729.69 of the Revised Code 4032
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 4033
drug take-back program fund, which is hereby created. Money 4034
credited to the fund shall be used solely for purposes of the 4035
program.4036

       Sec. 111.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4037
duties of his office, the secretary of state shall give a bond to 4038
the state in the sum of one hundred thousand dollars, with two or 4039
more sureties approved by the governor, auditor of state, and 4040
attorney generala surety authorized to do business in the state, 4041
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4042
office of secretary of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4043
proper officials and the oath of office indorsed thereon, shall be 4044
deposited with and kept by the director of administrative services 4045
and kept in histhe director's office.4046

       Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:4047

       (1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard 4048
having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under 4049
the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a 4050
rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include 4051
any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised 4052
Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, 4053
any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter 4054
presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to 4055
Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 4056
5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes 4057
any amendment or rescission of a rule.4058

       (2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and 4059
includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, 4060
commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college 4061
or university, community college district, technical college 4062
district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include 4063
the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant 4064
general's department, or any court.4065

       (3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, 4066
bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and 4067
operations within an agency.4068

       (4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in 4069
division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.4070

       (B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, 4071
adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective 4072
on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and 4073
in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as 4074
follows:4075

       (a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the 4076
secretary of state and the director of the legislative service 4077
commission;4078

       (b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint 4079
committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this 4080
section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this 4081
section does not apply.4082

       An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to 4083
division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the 4084
rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. 4085
If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date 4086
assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date 4087
for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a 4088
review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the 4089
Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state 4090
college or university, community college district, technical 4091
college district, or state community college.4092

       If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule 4093
shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the 4094
latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule 4095
designates an effective date that is later than the effective date 4096
provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed 4097
as required by such division shall become effective on the later 4098
date designated by the agency.4099

       Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) 4100
of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if 4101
not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or 4102
(8) of this section.4103

       If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, 4104
the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the 4105
Revised Code.4106

       (2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate 4107
preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state 4108
the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form 4109
and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be 4110
filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director 4111
of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on 4112
agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately 4113
upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in 4114
adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date 4115
and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time 4116
provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency 4117
rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective 4118
at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by 4119
the agency.4120

       An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth 4121
day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the 4122
emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division 4123
(B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency 4124
rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, 4125
upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the 4126
emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for 4127
another ninety-day period.4128

       (3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) 4129
of this section in compliance with the following standards and 4130
procedures:4131

       (a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the 4132
numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio 4133
administrative code.4134

       (b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance 4135
with the rules of the legislative service commission.4136

       (c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to 4137
be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.4138

       (d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall 4139
clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each 4140
amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.4141

       If the director of the legislative service commission or the 4142
director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 4143
103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not 4144
in compliance with the rules of the legislative service 4145
commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of 4146
the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as 4147
directed in the notice.4148

       (C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) 4149
of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and 4150
the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and 4151
shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the 4152
director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve 4153
the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a 4154
public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to 4155
any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.4156

       (D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, 4157
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4158
files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file 4159
the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the 4160
joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is 4161
subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) 4162
of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, 4163
commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive 4164
revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint 4165
committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or 4166
bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in 4167
its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The 4168
latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint 4169
committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same 4170
proposed rule. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 4171
aA state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall 4172
also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under 4173
section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a 4174
proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, 4175
that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an 4176
adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, 4177
department, division, or bureau also shall file the business 4178
impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common 4179
sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of 4180
response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, 4181
or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this 4182
division.4183

       As used in this division, "commission" includes the public 4184
utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state 4185
statute.4186

       This division does not apply to any of the following:4187

       (1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;4188

       (2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 4189
1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4190
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised 4191
Code;4192

       (3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, 4193
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4194
the state;4195

       (4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, 4196
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4197
the state;4198

       (5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an 4199
agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within 4200
sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a 4201
federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the 4202
proposed rule contains both of the following:4203

       (a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of 4204
complying with a federal law or rule;4205

       (b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires 4206
verbatim compliance.4207

       (6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to 4208
impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect 4209
to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 4210
Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose 4211
quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of 4212
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the 4213
Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;4214

       (7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to 4215
instant game rules.4216

       If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division 4217
(D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to 4218
which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or 4219
otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to 4220
legislative review under division (D) of this section.4221

       (E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, 4222
or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form 4223
under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full 4224
text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in 4225
electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of 4226
the legislative service commission. Except as provided in division 4227
(F) of this section, aA state board, commission, department, 4228
division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal 4229
analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in 4230
electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in 4231
revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the 4232
director of the legislative service commission.4233

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 4234
auditor of state or the auditor of state's designee is not 4235
required to file a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with a 4236
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that the auditor 4237
of state proposes under section 117.12, 117.19, 117.38, or 117.43 4238
of the Revised Code and files under division (D) or (E) of this 4239
section.4240

       Sec. 111.28.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 4241
treasury the help America vote act (HAVA) fund. All moneys 4242
received by the secretary of state from the United States election 4243
assistance commission shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4244
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for activities 4245
conducted pursuant to the "Help America Vote Act of 2002," Pub. L. 4246
No. 107-252, 116 Stat. 1666. All investment earnings of the fund 4247
shall be credited to the fund.4248

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4249
election reform/health and human services fund. All moneys 4250
received by the secretary of state from the United States 4251
department of health and human services shall be credited to the 4252
fund. The secretary of state shall use the moneys credited to the 4253
fund for activities conducted pursuant to grants awarded to the 4254
state under Title II, Subtitle D, Sections 261 to 265 of the Help 4255
America Vote Act of 2002 to assure access for individuals with 4256
disabilities. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 4257
credited to the fund.4258

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4259
miscellaneous federal grants fund. All moneys the secretary of 4260
state receives as grants from federal sources that are not 4261
otherwise designated shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4262
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for the 4263
purposes and activities required by the applicable federal grant 4264
agreements. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited 4265
to the fund.4266

       Sec. 113.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4267
duties of his office, the treasurer of state shall give a bond to 4268
the state in the sum of one million dollars, with sureties 4269
approved by the governora surety authorized to do business in the 4270
state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of his4271
the office of treasurer of state. The bond, with the approval of 4272
the governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4273
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4274
the secretary of state's office.4275

       Sec. 113.061.  The treasurer of state shall adopt rules in 4276
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 4277
remittance of taxes by electronic funds transfer as required under 4278
sections 5726.03, 5727.311, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5739.032, 4279
5745.04, and 5747.072, 5749.06, and 5751.07 of the Revised Code 4280
and any other section of the Revised Code under which a person is 4281
required to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer. The rules 4282
shall govern the modes of electronic funds transfer acceptable to 4283
the treasurer of state and under what circumstances each mode is 4284
acceptable, the content and format of electronic funds transfers, 4285
the coordination of payment by electronic funds transfer and 4286
filing of associated tax reports and returns, the remittance of 4287
taxes by means other than electronic funds transfer by persons 4288
otherwise required to do so but relieved of the requirement by the 4289
treasurer of state, and any other matter that in the opinion of 4290
the treasurer of state facilitates payment by electronic funds 4291
transfer in a manner consistent with those sections.4292

       Upon failure by a person, if so required, to remit taxes by 4293
electronic funds transfer in the manner prescribed under section4294
5726.03, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5739.032, 5745.04, or4295
5747.072, 5749.06, or 5751.07 of the Revised Code and rules 4296
adopted under this section, the treasurer of state shall notify 4297
the tax commissioner of such failure if the treasurer of state 4298
determines that such failure was not due to reasonable cause or 4299
was due to willful neglect, and shall provide the tax commissioner 4300
with any information used in making that determination. The tax 4301
commissioner may assess an additional charge as specified in the 4302
respective section of the Revised Code governing the requirement 4303
to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer.4304

       The treasurer of state may implement means of acknowledging, 4305
upon the request of a taxpayer, receipt of tax remittances made by 4306
electronic funds transfer, and may adopt rules governing 4307
acknowledgments. The cost of acknowledging receipt of electronic 4308
remittances shall be paid by the person requesting acknowledgment.4309

       The treasurer of state, not the tax commissioner, is 4310
responsible for resolving any problems involving electronic funds 4311
transfer transmissions.4312

       Sec. 117.03.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4313
duties of his office, the auditor of state shall give a bond to 4314
the state in the sum of twenty thousand dollars, with a surety 4315
approved by the governorauthorized to do business in the state, 4316
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4317
office of auditor of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4318
governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4319
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4320
the secretary of state's office.4321

       Sec. 117.10.  The auditor of state shall audit all public 4322
offices as provided in this chapter. The auditor of state also may 4323
audit the accounts of private institutions, associations, boards, 4324
and corporations receiving public money for their use and may 4325
require of them annual reports in such form as the auditor of 4326
state prescribes.4327

       If the auditor of state performs or contracts for the 4328
performance of an audit, including a special audit, of the public 4329
employees retirement system, school employees retirement system, 4330
state teachers retirement system, state highway patrol retirement 4331
system, or Ohio police and fire pension fund, the auditor of state 4332
shall make a timely report of the results of the audit to the Ohio 4333
retirement study council.4334

       The auditor of state may audit the accounts of any medicaid4335
provider, as defined in section 5111.065164.01 of the Revised 4336
Code.4337

       If a public office has been audited by an agency of the 4338
United States government, the auditor of state may, if satisfied 4339
that the federal audit has been conducted according to principles 4340
and procedures not contrary to those of the auditor of state, use 4341
and adopt the federal audit and report in lieu of an audit by the 4342
auditor of state's own office.4343

       Within thirty days after the creation or dissolution or the 4344
winding up of the affairs of any public office, that public office 4345
shall notify the auditor of state in writing that this action has 4346
occurred.4347

       Sec. 117.20.  (A) In adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 117. 4348
of the Revised Code, the auditor of state or the auditor of 4349
state's designee shall do both of the following:4350

       (1) Before adopting any such rule, except a rule of an 4351
emergency nature, do each of the following:4352

       (a) At least thirty-five days before any public hearing on 4353
the proposed rule-making action, mail or send by electronic mail4354
notice of the hearing to each public office and to each statewide 4355
organization that the auditor of state or designee determines will 4356
be affected or represents persons who will be affected by the 4357
proposed rule-making action;4358

       (b) Mail or send by electronic mail a copy of the proposed 4359
rule to any person or organization that requests a copy within 4360
five days after receipt of the request;4361

       (c) Consult with appropriate state and local government 4362
agencies, or with persons representative of their interests, 4363
including statewide organizations of local government officials, 4364
and consult with accounting professionals and other interested 4365
persons;4366

       (d) Conduct, on the date and at the time and place designated 4367
in the notice, a public hearing at which any person affected by 4368
the proposed rule, including statewide organizations of local 4369
government officials, may appear and be heard in person, by 4370
attorney, or both, and may present the person's or organization's 4371
position or contentions orally or in writing.4372

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 4373
section, complyComply with divisions (B) to (E) of section 111.15 4374
of the Revised Code. The auditor of state is not required to file 4375
a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with any copy of a 4376
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that is filed 4377
with the joint committee on agency rule review, the secretary of 4378
state, or the director of the legislative service commission under 4379
division (D) or (E) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code.4380

       (B) The auditor of state shall diligently discharge the 4381
duties imposed by divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (c) of this 4382
section, but failure to mail or send by electronic mail any notice 4383
or copy of a proposed rule, or to consult with any person or 4384
organization, shall not invalidate any rule.4385

       (C) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the Revised 4386
Code, the auditor of state may prepare and disseminate, to public 4387
offices and other interested persons and organizations, advisory 4388
bulletins, directives, and instructions relating to accounting and 4389
financial reporting systems, budgeting procedures, fiscal 4390
controls, and the constructions by the auditor of state of 4391
constitutional and statutory provisions, court decisions, and 4392
opinions of the attorney general. The bulletins, directives, and 4393
instructions shall be of an advisory nature only.4394

       (D) As used in this section, "rule" includes the adoption, 4395
amendment, or rescission of a rule.4396

       Sec. 119.01.  As used in sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4397
Revised Code:4398

       (A)(1) "Agency" means, except as limited by this division, 4399
any official, board, or commission having authority to promulgate 4400
rules or make adjudications in the civil service commission, the 4401
division of liquor control, the department of taxation, the 4402
industrial commission, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 4403
functions of any administrative or executive officer, department, 4404
division, bureau, board, or commission of the government of the 4405
state specifically made subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of 4406
the Revised Code, and the licensing functions of any 4407
administrative or executive officer, department, division, bureau, 4408
board, or commission of the government of the state having the 4409
authority or responsibility of issuing, suspending, revoking, or 4410
canceling licenses.4411

       Except as otherwise provided in division (I) of this section, 4412
sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to the 4413
public utilities commission. Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4414
Revised Code do not apply to the utility radiological safety 4415
board; to the controlling board; to actions of the superintendent 4416
of financial institutions and the superintendent of insurance in 4417
the taking possession of, and rehabilitation or liquidation of, 4418
the business and property of banks, savings and loan associations, 4419
savings banks, credit unions, insurance companies, associations, 4420
reciprocal fraternal benefit societies, and bond investment 4421
companies; to any action taken by the division of securities under 4422
section 1707.201 of the Revised Code; or to any action that may be 4423
taken by the superintendent of financial institutions under 4424
section 1113.03, 1121.06, 1121.10, 1125.09, 1125.12, 1125.18, 4425
1157.09, 1157.12, 1157.18, 1165.09, 1165.12, 1165.18, 1349.33, 4426
1733.35, 1733.361, 1733.37, or 1761.03 of the Revised Code.4427

       Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 4428
actions of the industrial commission or the bureau of workers' 4429
compensation under sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code 4430
with respect to all matters of adjudication, or to the actions of 4431
the industrial commission, bureau of workers' compensation board 4432
of directors, and bureau of workers' compensation under division 4433
(D) of section 4121.32, sections 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4434
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, 4123.442, 4127.07, divisions 4435
(B), (C), and (E) of section 4131.04, and divisions (B), (C), and 4436
(E) of section 4131.14 of the Revised Code with respect to all 4437
matters concerning the establishment of premium, contribution, and 4438
assessment rates.4439

       (2) "Agency" also means any official or work unit having 4440
authority to promulgate rules or make adjudications in the 4441
department of job and family services, but only with respect to 4442
both of the following:4443

       (a) The adoption, amendment, or rescission of rules that 4444
section 5101.09 of the Revised Code requires be adopted in 4445
accordance with this chapter;4446

       (b) The issuance, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of 4447
licenses.4448

       (B) "License" means any license, permit, certificate, 4449
commission, or charter issued by any agency. "License" does not 4450
include any arrangement whereby a person, institution, or 4451
government entity furnishes medicaid services under a provider 4452
agreement with the department of job and family services pursuant 4453
to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 4454
U.S.C. 301, as amendedmedicaid.4455

       (C) "Rule" means any rule, regulation, or standard, having a 4456
general and uniform operation, adopted, promulgated, and enforced 4457
by any agency under the authority of the laws governing such 4458
agency, and includes any appendix to a rule. "Rule" does not 4459
include any internal management rule of an agency unless the 4460
internal management rule affects private rights and does not 4461
include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the 4462
Revised Code.4463

       (D) "Adjudication" means the determination by the highest or 4464
ultimate authority of an agency of the rights, duties, privileges, 4465
benefits, or legal relationships of a specified person, but does 4466
not include the issuance of a license in response to an 4467
application with respect to which no question is raised, nor other 4468
acts of a ministerial nature.4469

       (E) "Hearing" means a public hearing by any agency in 4470
compliance with procedural safeguards afforded by sections 119.01 4471
to 119.13 of the Revised Code.4472

       (F) "Person" means a person, firm, corporation, association, 4473
or partnership.4474

       (G) "Party" means the person whose interests are the subject 4475
of an adjudication by an agency.4476

       (H) "Appeal" means the procedure by which a person, aggrieved 4477
by a finding, decision, order, or adjudication of any agency, 4478
invokes the jurisdiction of a court.4479

       (I) "Rule-making agency" means any board, commission, 4480
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4481
that is required to file proposed rules, amendments, or 4482
rescissions under division (D) of section 111.15 of the Revised 4483
Code and any agency that is required to file proposed rules, 4484
amendments, or rescissions under divisions (B) and (H) of section 4485
119.03 of the Revised Code. "Rule-making agency" includes the 4486
public utilities commission. "Rule-making agency" does not include 4487
any state-supported college or university.4488

       (J) "Substantive revision" means any addition to, elimination 4489
from, or other change in a rule, an amendment of a rule, or a 4490
rescission of a rule, whether of a substantive or procedural 4491
nature, that changes any of the following:4492

       (1) That which the rule, amendment, or rescission permits, 4493
authorizes, regulates, requires, prohibits, penalizes, rewards, or 4494
otherwise affects;4495

       (2) The scope or application of the rule, amendment, or 4496
rescission.4497

       (K) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, or 4498
standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations 4499
within an agency.4500

       Sec. 120.06.  (A)(1) The state public defender, when 4501
designated by the court or requested by a county public defender 4502
or joint county public defender, may provide legal representation 4503
in all courts throughout the state to indigent adults and 4504
juveniles who are charged with the commission of an offense or act 4505
for which the penalty or any possible adjudication includes the 4506
potential loss of liberty.4507

       (2) The state public defender may provide legal 4508
representation to any indigent person who, while incarcerated in 4509
any state correctional institution, is charged with a felony 4510
offense, for which the penalty or any possible adjudication that 4511
may be imposed by a court upon conviction includes the potential 4512
loss of liberty.4513

       (3) The state public defender may provide legal 4514
representation to any person incarcerated in any correctional 4515
institution of the state, in any matter in which the person 4516
asserts the person is unlawfully imprisoned or detained.4517

       (4) The state public defender, in any case in which the state 4518
public defender has provided legal representation or is requested 4519
to do so by a county public defender or joint county public 4520
defender, may provide legal representation on appeal.4521

       (5) The state public defender, when designated by the court 4522
or requested by a county public defender, joint county public 4523
defender, or the director of rehabilitation and correction, shall 4524
provide legal representation in parole and probation revocation 4525
matters or matters relating to the revocation of community control 4526
or post-release control under a community control sanction or 4527
post-release control sanction, unless the state public defender 4528
finds that the alleged parole or probation violator or alleged 4529
violator of a community control sanction or post-release control 4530
sanction has the financial capacity to retain the alleged 4531
violator's own counsel.4532

       (6) If the state public defender contracts with a county 4533
public defender commission, a joint county public defender 4534
commission, or a board of county commissioners for the provision 4535
of services, under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 4536
of the Revised Code, the state public defender shall provide legal 4537
representation in accordance with the contract.4538

       (B) The state public defender shall not be required to 4539
prosecute any appeal, postconviction remedy, or other proceeding 4540
pursuant to division (A)(3), (4), or (5) of this section, unless 4541
the state public defender first is satisfied that there is 4542
arguable merit to the proceeding.4543

       (C) A court may appoint counsel or allow an indigent person 4544
to select the indigent's own personal counsel to assist the state 4545
public defender as co-counsel when the interests of justice so 4546
require. When co-counsel is appointed to assist the state public 4547
defender, the co-counsel shall receive any compensation that the 4548
court may approve, not to exceed the amounts provided for in 4549
section 2941.51 of the Revised Code.4550

       (D)(1) When the state public defender is designated by the 4551
court or requested by a county public defender or joint county 4552
public defender to provide legal representation for an indigent 4553
person in any case, other than pursuant to a contract entered into 4554
under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the 4555
Revised Code, the state public defender shall send to the county 4556
in which the case is filed a bill detailing the actual cost of the 4557
representation that separately itemizes legal fees and expenses. 4558
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4559
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay the state public 4560
defender each of the following amounts:4561

       (a) For the amount identified as legal fees in the itemized 4562
bill, one hundred per cent of the amount identified as legal fees 4563
less the state reimbursement rate as calculated by the state 4564
public defender pursuant to section 120.34 of the Revised Code for 4565
the month the case terminated, as set forth in the itemized bill;4566

       (b) For the amount identified as expenses in the itemized 4567
bill, one hundred per cent.4568

       (2) Upon payment of the itemized bill under division (D)(1) 4569
of this section, the county may submit the cost of the expenses, 4570
excluding legal fees, to the state public defender for 4571
reimbursement pursuant to section 120.33 of the Revised Code.4572

       (3) When the state public defender provides investigation or 4573
mitigation services to private appointed counsel or to a county or 4574
joint county public defender as approved by the appointing court, 4575
other than pursuant to a contract entered into under authority of 4576
division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the Revised Code, the state 4577
public defender shall send to the county in which the case is 4578
filed a bill itemizing the actual cost of the services provided. 4579
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4580
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay one hundred per cent 4581
of the amount as set forth in the itemized bill. Upon payment of 4582
the itemized bill received pursuant to this division, the county 4583
may submit the cost of the investigation and mitigation services 4584
to the state public defender for reimbursement pursuant to section 4585
120.33 of the Revised Code.4586

       (4) There is hereby created in the state treasury the county 4587
representation fund for the deposit of moneys received from 4588
counties under this division. All moneys credited to the fund 4589
shall be used by the state public defender to provide legal 4590
representation for indigent persons when designated by the court 4591
or requested by a county or joint county public defender or to 4592
provide investigation or mitigation services, including 4593
investigation or mitigation services to private appointed counsel 4594
or a county or joint county public defender, as approved by the 4595
court.4596

       (E)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 4597
109.02, 109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code 4598
that pertains to representation by the attorney general, an 4599
assistant attorney general, or special counsel of an officer or 4600
employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, or of 4601
an entity of state government, the state public defender may elect 4602
to contract with, and to have the state pay pursuant to division 4603
(E)(2) of this section for the services of, private legal counsel 4604
to represent the Ohio public defender commission, the state public 4605
defender, assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 4606
commission or the state public defender, and attorneys described 4607
in division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in a 4608
malpractice or other civil action or proceeding that arises from 4609
alleged actions or omissions related to responsibilities derived 4610
pursuant to this chapter, or in a civil action that is based upon 4611
alleged violations of the constitution or statutes of the United 4612
States, including section 1983 of Title 42 of the United States 4613
Code, 93 Stat. 1284 (1979), 42 U.S.C.A. 1983, as amended, and that 4614
arises from alleged actions or omissions related to 4615
responsibilities derived pursuant to this chapter, if the state 4616
public defender determines, in good faith, that the defendant in 4617
the civil action or proceeding did not act manifestly outside the 4618
scope of the defendant's employment or official responsibilities, 4619
with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 4620
manner. If the state public defender elects not to contract 4621
pursuant to this division for private legal counsel in a civil 4622
action or proceeding, then, in accordance with sections 109.02, 4623
109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code, the 4624
attorney general shall represent or provide for the representation 4625
of the Ohio public defender commission, the state public defender, 4626
assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 4627
commission or the state public defender, or attorneys described in 4628
division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in the civil 4629
action or proceeding.4630

       (2)(a) Subject to division (E)(2)(b) of this section, payment 4631
from the state treasury for the services of private legal counsel 4632
with whom the state public defender has contracted pursuant to 4633
division (E)(1) of this section shall be accomplished only through 4634
the following procedure:4635

       (i) The private legal counsel shall file with the attorney 4636
general a copy of the contract; a request for an award of legal 4637
fees, court costs, and expenses earned or incurred in connection 4638
with the defense of the Ohio public defender commission, the state 4639
public defender, an assistant state public defender, an employee, 4640
or an attorney in a specified civil action or proceeding; a 4641
written itemization of those fees, costs, and expenses, including 4642
the signature of the state public defender and the state public 4643
defender's attestation that the fees, costs, and expenses were 4644
earned or incurred pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section to 4645
the best of the state public defender's knowledge and information; 4646
a written statement whether the fees, costs, and expenses are for 4647
all legal services to be rendered in connection with that defense, 4648
are only for legal services rendered to the date of the request 4649
and additional legal services likely will have to be provided in 4650
connection with that defense, or are for the final legal services 4651
rendered in connection with that defense; a written statement 4652
indicating whether the private legal counsel previously submitted 4653
a request for an award under division (E)(2) of this section in 4654
connection with that defense and, if so, the date and the amount 4655
of each award granted; and, if the fees, costs, and expenses are 4656
for all legal services to be rendered in connection with that 4657
defense or are for the final legal services rendered in connection 4658
with that defense, a certified copy of any judgment entry in the 4659
civil action or proceeding or a signed copy of any settlement 4660
agreement entered into between the parties to the civil action or 4661
proceeding.4662

       (ii) Upon receipt of a request for an award of legal fees, 4663
court costs, and expenses and the requisite supportive 4664
documentation described in division (E)(2)(a)(i) of this section, 4665
the attorney general shall review the request and documentation; 4666
determine whether any of the limitations specified in division 4667
(E)(2)(b) of this section apply to the request; and, if an award 4668
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses is permissible after 4669
applying the limitations, prepare a document awarding legal fees, 4670
court costs, or expenses to the private legal counsel. The 4671
document shall name the private legal counsel as the recipient of 4672
the award; specify the total amount of the award as determined by 4673
the attorney general; itemize the portions of the award that 4674
represent legal fees, court costs, and expenses; specify any 4675
limitation applied pursuant to division (E)(2)(b) of this section 4676
to reduce the amount of the award sought by the private legal 4677
counsel; state that the award is payable from the state treasury 4678
pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(iii) of this section; and be 4679
approved by the inclusion of the signatures of the attorney 4680
general, the state public defender, and the private legal counsel.4681

       (iii) The attorney general shall forward a copy of the 4682
document prepared pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this 4683
section to the director of budget and management. The award of 4684
legal fees, court costs, or expenses shall be paid out of the 4685
state public defender's appropriations, to the extent there is a 4686
sufficient available balance in those appropriations. If the state 4687
public defender does not have a sufficient available balance in 4688
the state public defender's appropriations to pay the entire award 4689
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses, the director shall make 4690
application for a transfer of appropriations out of the emergency 4691
purposes account or any other appropriation for emergencies or 4692
contingencies in an amount equal to the portion of the award that 4693
exceeds the sufficient available balance in the state public 4694
defender's appropriations. A transfer of appropriations out of the 4695
emergency purposes account or any other appropriation for 4696
emergencies or contingencies shall be authorized if there are 4697
sufficient moneys greater than the sum total of then pending 4698
emergency purposes account requests, or requests for releases from 4699
the other appropriation. If a transfer of appropriations out of 4700
the emergency purposes account or other appropriation for 4701
emergencies or contingencies is made to pay an amount equal to the 4702
portion of the award that exceeds the sufficient available balance 4703
in the state public defender's appropriations, the director shall 4704
cause the payment to be made to the private legal counsel. If 4705
sufficient moneys do not exist in the emergency purposes account 4706
or other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies to pay an 4707
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 4708
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 4709
appropriations, the private legal counsel shall request the 4710
general assembly to make an appropriation sufficient to pay an 4711
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 4712
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 4713
appropriations, and no payment in that amount shall be made until 4714
the appropriation has been made. The private legal counsel shall 4715
make the request during the current biennium and during each 4716
succeeding biennium until a sufficient appropriation is made.4717

       (b) An award of legal fees, court costs, and expenses 4718
pursuant to division (E) of this section is subject to the 4719
following limitations:4720

       (i) The maximum award or maximum aggregate of a series of 4721
awards of legal fees, court costs, and expenses to the private 4722
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 4723
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 4724
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 4725
action or proceeding shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars.4726

       (ii) The private legal counsel shall not be awarded legal 4727
fees, court costs, or expenses to the extent the fees, costs, or 4728
expenses are covered by a policy of malpractice or other 4729
insurance.4730

       (iii) The private legal counsel shall be awarded legal fees 4731
and expenses only to the extent that the fees and expenses are 4732
reasonable in light of the legal services rendered by the private 4733
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 4734
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 4735
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 4736
action or proceeding.4737

       (c) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, the 4738
attorney general denies a request for an award of legal fees, 4739
court costs, or expenses to private legal counsel because of the 4740
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 4741
this section, the attorney general shall notify the private legal 4742
counsel in writing of the denial and of the limitation applied.4743

       (d) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(c) of this section, a 4744
private legal counsel receives a denial of an award notification 4745
or if a private legal counsel refuses to approve a document under 4746
division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed 4747
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 4748
this section, the private legal counsel may commence a civil 4749
action against the attorney general in the court of claims to 4750
prove the private legal counsel's entitlement to the award sought, 4751
to prove that division (E)(2)(b) of this section does not prohibit 4752
or otherwise limit the award sought, and to recover a judgment for 4753
the amount of the award sought. A civil action under division 4754
(E)(2)(d) of this section shall be commenced no later than two 4755
years after receipt of a denial of award notification or, if the 4756
private legal counsel refused to approve a document under division 4757
(E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed application 4758
of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of this section, 4759
no later than two years after the refusal. Any judgment of the 4760
court of claims in favor of the private legal counsel shall be 4761
paid from the state treasury in accordance with division (E)(2)(a) 4762
of this section.4763

       (F) If a court appoints the office of the state public 4764
defender to represent a petitioner in a postconviction relief 4765
proceeding under section 2953.21 of the Revised Code, the 4766
petitioner has received a sentence of death, and the proceeding 4767
relates to that sentence, all of the attorneys who represent the 4768
petitioner in the proceeding pursuant to the appointment, whether 4769
an assistant state public defender, the state public defender, or 4770
another attorney, shall be certified under Rule 20 of the Rules of 4771
Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio to represent indigent 4772
defendants charged with or convicted of an offense for which the 4773
death penalty can be or has been imposed.4774

       (G)(1) The state public defender may provide legal 4775
representation and services to a child committed to the department 4776
of youth services relative to either of the following:4777

        (a) The fact or duration of the child's confinement, 4778
including, but not limited to, appeals, post-conviction relief, 4779
petitions for habeas corpus, and administrative issues that may 4780
extend the period of confinement;4781

        (b) Conditions of the child's confinement.4782

        (2) Division (G)(1) of this section does not authorize the 4783
state public defender to represent a child committed to the 4784
department of youth services in general civil matters arising 4785
solely out of state law. 4786

       (H) A child's right to representation or services under this 4787
section is not affected by the child, or another person on behalf 4788
of the child, previously having paid for similar representation or 4789
services or having waived legal representation.4790

        (I) The state public defender shall have access to any child 4791
committed to the department of youth services, department of youth 4792
services institution, and department of youth services record as 4793
needed to implement this section.4794

        (J) As used in this section:4795

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 4796
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.4797

       (2) "Conditions of confinement" means any issue involving a 4798
constitutional right or other civil right related to a child's 4799
incarceration, including, but not limited to, actions cognizable 4800
under 42 U.S.C. 1983.4801

        (3) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 4802
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.4803

       Sec. 121.02.  The following administrative departments and 4804
their respective directors are hereby created:4805

       (A) The office of budget and management, which shall be 4806
administered by the director of budget and management;4807

       (B) The department of commerce, which shall be administered 4808
by the director of commerce;4809

       (C) The department of administrative services, which shall be 4810
administered by the director of administrative services;4811

       (D) The department of transportation, which shall be 4812
administered by the director of transportation;4813

       (E) The department of agriculture, which shall be 4814
administered by the director of agriculture;4815

       (F) The department of natural resources, which shall be 4816
administered by the director of natural resources;4817

       (G) The department of health, which shall be administered by 4818
the director of health;4819

       (H) The department of job and family services, which shall be 4820
administered by the director of job and family services;4821

       (I) Until July 1, 1997, the department of liquor control, 4822
which shall be administered by the director of liquor control;4823

       (J) The department of public safety, which shall be 4824
administered by the director of public safety;4825

       (K) The department of mental healthmental health and 4826
addiction services, which shall be administered by the director of 4827
mental healthmental health and addiction services;4828

       (L) The department of developmental disabilities, which shall 4829
be administered by the director of developmental disabilities;4830

       (M) The department of insurance, which shall be administered 4831
by the superintendent of insurance as director thereof;4832

       (N) The development services agency, which shall be 4833
administered by the director of development services;4834

       (O) The department of youth services, which shall be 4835
administered by the director of youth services;4836

       (P) The department of rehabilitation and correction, which 4837
shall be administered by the director of rehabilitation and 4838
correction;4839

       (Q) The environmental protection agency, which shall be 4840
administered by the director of environmental protection;4841

       (R) The department of aging, which shall be administered by 4842
the director of aging;4843

       (S) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services, 4844
which shall be administered by the director of alcohol and drug 4845
addiction services;4846

       (T) The department of veterans services, which shall be 4847
administered by the director of veterans services;4848

       (T) The department of medicaid, which shall be administered 4849
by the medicaid director.4850

       The director of each department shall exercise the powers and 4851
perform the duties vested by law in such department.4852

       Sec. 121.03.  The following administrative department heads 4853
shall be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of 4854
the senate, and shall hold their offices during the term of the 4855
appointing governor, and are subject to removal at the pleasure of 4856
the governor.4857

       (A) The director of budget and management;4858

       (B) The director of commerce;4859

       (C) The director of transportation;4860

       (D) The director of agriculture;4861

       (E) The director of job and family services;4862

       (F) Until July 1, 1997, the director of liquor control;4863

       (G) The director of public safety;4864

       (H) The superintendent of insurance;4865

       (I) The director of development services;4866

       (J) The tax commissioner;4867

       (K) The director of administrative services;4868

       (L) The director of natural resources;4869

       (M) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 4870
services;4871

       (N) The director of developmental disabilities;4872

       (O) The director of health;4873

       (P) The director of youth services;4874

       (Q) The director of rehabilitation and correction;4875

       (R) The director of environmental protection;4876

       (S) The director of aging;4877

       (T) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;4878

       (U) The administrator of workers' compensation who meets the 4879
qualifications required under division (A) of section 4121.121 of 4880
the Revised Code;4881

       (V)(U) The director of veterans services who meets the 4882
qualifications required under section 5902.01 of the Revised Code;4883

       (W)(V) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;4884

       (W) The medicaid director.4885

       Sec. 121.11.  (A) Each officer whose office is created by 4886
sections 121.02, 121.04, and 121.05 of the Revised Code, before 4887
entering upon the duties of office, shall take and subscribe an 4888
oath of office as provided by law and give bond, conditioned 4889
according to law, with security to be approved by the governor in 4890
the penal sum, not less than ten thousand dollars, fixed by the 4891
governor. The department of administrative services may procure 4892
from any duly authorized corporate surety authorized to do 4893
business in the state a schedule or blanket bond covering the 4894
officers described in those sections and any other officers the 4895
governor designates. The bond and oath of the officers described 4896
in those sections shall be filed in the office of the secretary of 4897
state.4898

       (B) The director of each department, with the approval of the 4899
governor, may require any chief of a division, or any officer or 4900
employee in the director's department, to give bond in the amount 4901
the governor prescribes. The bond or bonds may, in the discretion 4902
of the director, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.4903

       (C) The premium on any bond required or authorized by this 4904
section may be paid from the state treasury.4905

       Sec. 121.22.  (A) This section shall be liberally construed 4906
to require public officials to take official action and to conduct 4907
all deliberations upon official business only in open meetings 4908
unless the subject matter is specifically excepted by law.4909

       (B) As used in this section:4910

       (1) "Public body" means any of the following:4911

       (a) Any board, commission, committee, council, or similar 4912
decision-making body of a state agency, institution, or authority, 4913
and any legislative authority or board, commission, committee, 4914
council, agency, authority, or similar decision-making body of any 4915
county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other 4916
political subdivision or local public institution;4917

       (b) Any committee or subcommittee of a body described in 4918
division (B)(1)(a) of this section;4919

       (c) A court of jurisdiction of a sanitary district organized 4920
wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, 4921
municipal, and public use when meeting for the purpose of the 4922
appointment, removal, or reappointment of a member of the board of 4923
directors of such a district pursuant to section 6115.10 of the 4924
Revised Code, if applicable, or for any other matter related to 4925
such a district other than litigation involving the district. As 4926
used in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, "court of 4927
jurisdiction" has the same meaning as "court" in section 6115.01 4928
of the Revised Code.4929

       (2) "Meeting" means any prearranged discussion of the public 4930
business of the public body by a majority of its members.4931

       (3) "Regulated individual" means either of the following:4932

       (a) A student in a state or local public educational 4933
institution;4934

       (b) A person who is, voluntarily or involuntarily, an inmate, 4935
patient, or resident of a state or local institution because of 4936
criminal behavior, mental illness or retardation, disease, 4937
disability, age, or other condition requiring custodial care.4938

       (4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 4939
149.011 of the Revised Code.4940

       (C) All meetings of any public body are declared to be public 4941
meetings open to the public at all times. A member of a public 4942
body shall be present in person at a meeting open to the public to 4943
be considered present or to vote at the meeting and for purposes 4944
of determining whether a quorum is present at the meeting.4945

       The minutes of a regular or special meeting of any public 4946
body shall be promptly prepared, filed, and maintained and shall 4947
be open to public inspection. The minutes need only reflect the 4948
general subject matter of discussions in executive sessions 4949
authorized under division (G) or (J) of this section.4950

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:4951

       (1) A grand jury;4952

       (2) An audit conference conducted by the auditor of state or 4953
independent certified public accountants with officials of the 4954
public office that is the subject of the audit;4955

       (3) The adult parole authority when its hearings are 4956
conducted at a correctional institution for the sole purpose of 4957
interviewing inmates to determine parole or pardon;4958

       (4) The organized crime investigations commission established 4959
under section 177.01 of the Revised Code;4960

       (5) Meetings of a child fatality review board established 4961
under section 307.621 of the Revised Code and meetings conducted 4962
pursuant to sections 5153.171 to 5153.173 of the Revised Code;4963

       (6) The state medical board when determining whether to 4964
suspend a certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to division 4965
(G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code;4966

       (7) The board of nursing when determining whether to suspend 4967
a license or certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to 4968
division (B) of section 4723.281 of the Revised Code;4969

       (8) The state board of pharmacy when determining whether to 4970
suspend a license without a prior hearing pursuant to division (D) 4971
of section 4729.16 of the Revised Code;4972

       (9) The state chiropractic board when determining whether to 4973
suspend a license without a hearing pursuant to section 4734.37 of 4974
the Revised Code;4975

       (10) The executive committee of the emergency response 4976
commission when determining whether to issue an enforcement order 4977
or request that a civil action, civil penalty action, or criminal 4978
action be brought to enforce Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code;4979

       (11) The board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 4980
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code or any committee 4981
thereof, and the board of directors of any subsidiary of that 4982
corporation or a committee thereof;4983

       (12) An audit conference conducted by the audit staff of the 4984
department of job and family services with officials of the public 4985
office that is the subject of that audit under section 5101.37 of 4986
the Revised Code.4987

       (E) The controlling board, the industrial technology and 4988
enterprise advisory council, the tax credit authority, or the 4989
minority development financing advisory board, when meeting to 4990
consider granting assistance pursuant to Chapter 122. or 166. of 4991
the Revised Code, in order to protect the interest of the 4992
applicant or the possible investment of public funds, by unanimous 4993
vote of all board, council, or authority members present, may 4994
close the meeting during consideration of the following 4995
information confidentially received by the authority, council, or 4996
board from the applicant:4997

       (1) Marketing plans;4998

       (2) Specific business strategy;4999

       (3) Production techniques and trade secrets;5000

       (4) Financial projections;5001

       (5) Personal financial statements of the applicant or members 5002
of the applicant's immediate family, including, but not limited 5003
to, tax records or other similar information not open to public 5004
inspection.5005

       The vote by the authority, council, or board to accept or 5006
reject the application, as well as all proceedings of the 5007
authority, council, or board not subject to this division, shall 5008
be open to the public and governed by this section.5009

       (F) Every public body, by rule, shall establish a reasonable 5010
method whereby any person may determine the time and place of all 5011
regularly scheduled meetings and the time, place, and purpose of 5012
all special meetings. A public body shall not hold a special 5013
meeting unless it gives at least twenty-four hours' advance notice 5014
to the news media that have requested notification, except in the 5015
event of an emergency requiring immediate official action. In the 5016
event of an emergency, the member or members calling the meeting 5017
shall notify the news media that have requested notification 5018
immediately of the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.5019

       The rule shall provide that any person, upon request and 5020
payment of a reasonable fee, may obtain reasonable advance 5021
notification of all meetings at which any specific type of public 5022
business is to be discussed. Provisions for advance notification 5023
may include, but are not limited to, mailing the agenda of 5024
meetings to all subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices 5025
in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.5026

       (G) Except as provided in division (J) of this section, the 5027
members of a public body may hold an executive session only after 5028
a majority of a quorum of the public body determines, by a roll 5029
call vote, to hold an executive session and only at a regular or 5030
special meeting for the sole purpose of the consideration of any 5031
of the following matters:5032

       (1) To consider the appointment, employment, dismissal, 5033
discipline, promotion, demotion, or compensation of a public 5034
employee or official, or the investigation of charges or 5035
complaints against a public employee, official, licensee, or 5036
regulated individual, unless the public employee, official, 5037
licensee, or regulated individual requests a public hearing. 5038
Except as otherwise provided by law, no public body shall hold an 5039
executive session for the discipline of an elected official for 5040
conduct related to the performance of the elected official's 5041
official duties or for the elected official's removal from office. 5042
If a public body holds an executive session pursuant to division 5043
(G)(1) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive 5044
session shall state which one or more of the approved purposes 5045
listed in division (G)(1) of this section are the purposes for 5046
which the executive session is to be held, but need not include 5047
the name of any person to be considered at the meeting.5048

       (2) To consider the purchase of property for public purposes, 5049
or for the sale of property at competitive bidding, if premature 5050
disclosure of information would give an unfair competitive or 5051
bargaining advantage to a person whose personal, private interest 5052
is adverse to the general public interest. No member of a public 5053
body shall use division (G)(2) of this section as a subterfuge for 5054
providing covert information to prospective buyers or sellers. A 5055
purchase or sale of public property is void if the seller or buyer 5056
of the public property has received covert information from a 5057
member of a public body that has not been disclosed to the general 5058
public in sufficient time for other prospective buyers and sellers 5059
to prepare and submit offers.5060

       If the minutes of the public body show that all meetings and 5061
deliberations of the public body have been conducted in compliance 5062
with this section, any instrument executed by the public body 5063
purporting to convey, lease, or otherwise dispose of any right, 5064
title, or interest in any public property shall be conclusively 5065
presumed to have been executed in compliance with this section 5066
insofar as title or other interest of any bona fide purchasers, 5067
lessees, or transferees of the property is concerned.5068

       (3) Conferences with an attorney for the public body 5069
concerning disputes involving the public body that are the subject 5070
of pending or imminent court action;5071

       (4) Preparing for, conducting, or reviewing negotiations or 5072
bargaining sessions with public employees concerning their 5073
compensation or other terms and conditions of their employment;5074

       (5) Matters required to be kept confidential by federal law 5075
or regulations or state statutes;5076

       (6) Details relative to the security arrangements and 5077
emergency response protocols for a public body or a public office, 5078
if disclosure of the matters discussed could reasonably be 5079
expected to jeopardize the security of the public body or public 5080
office;5081

       (7) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 5082
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code, a joint township hospital 5083
operated pursuant to Chapter 513. of the Revised Code, or a 5084
municipal hospital operated pursuant to Chapter 749. of the 5085
Revised Code, to consider trade secrets, as defined in section 5086
1333.61 of the Revised Code.5087

       If a public body holds an executive session to consider any 5088
of the matters listed in divisions (G)(2) to (7) of this section, 5089
the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall state 5090
which one or more of the approved matters listed in those 5091
divisions are to be considered at the executive session.5092

       A public body specified in division (B)(1)(c) of this section 5093
shall not hold an executive session when meeting for the purposes 5094
specified in that division.5095

       (H) A resolution, rule, or formal action of any kind is 5096
invalid unless adopted in an open meeting of the public body. A 5097
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting that 5098
results from deliberations in a meeting not open to the public is 5099
invalid unless the deliberations were for a purpose specifically 5100
authorized in division (G) or (J) of this section and conducted at 5101
an executive session held in compliance with this section. A 5102
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting is 5103
invalid if the public body that adopted the resolution, rule, or 5104
formal action violated division (F) of this section.5105

       (I)(1) Any person may bring an action to enforce this 5106
section. An action under division (I)(1) of this section shall be 5107
brought within two years after the date of the alleged violation 5108
or threatened violation. Upon proof of a violation or threatened 5109
violation of this section in an action brought by any person, the 5110
court of common pleas shall issue an injunction to compel the 5111
members of the public body to comply with its provisions.5112

       (2)(a) If the court of common pleas issues an injunction 5113
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, the court shall order 5114
the public body that it enjoins to pay a civil forfeiture of five 5115
hundred dollars to the party that sought the injunction and shall 5116
award to that party all court costs and, subject to reduction as 5117
described in division (I)(2) of this section, reasonable 5118
attorney's fees. The court, in its discretion, may reduce an award 5119
of attorney's fees to the party that sought the injunction or not 5120
award attorney's fees to that party if the court determines both 5121
of the following:5122

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 5123
and case law as it existed at the time of violation or threatened 5124
violation that was the basis of the injunction, a well-informed 5125
public body reasonably would believe that the public body was not 5126
violating or threatening to violate this section;5127

       (ii) That a well-informed public body reasonably would 5128
believe that the conduct or threatened conduct that was the basis 5129
of the injunction would serve the public policy that underlies the 5130
authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or 5131
threatened conduct.5132

       (b) If the court of common pleas does not issue an injunction 5133
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and the court 5134
determines at that time that the bringing of the action was 5135
frivolous conduct, as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51 5136
of the Revised Code, the court shall award to the public body all 5137
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the 5138
court.5139

       (3) Irreparable harm and prejudice to the party that sought 5140
the injunction shall be conclusively and irrebuttably presumed 5141
upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section.5142

       (4) A member of a public body who knowingly violates an 5143
injunction issued pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section may 5144
be removed from office by an action brought in the court of common 5145
pleas for that purpose by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney 5146
general.5147

       (J)(1) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5901.09 of the 5148
Revised Code, a veterans service commission shall hold an 5149
executive session for one or more of the following purposes unless 5150
an applicant requests a public hearing:5151

       (a) Interviewing an applicant for financial assistance under 5152
sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code;5153

       (b) Discussing applications, statements, and other documents 5154
described in division (B) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code;5155

       (c) Reviewing matters relating to an applicant's request for 5156
financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the 5157
Revised Code.5158

       (2) A veterans service commission shall not exclude an 5159
applicant for, recipient of, or former recipient of financial 5160
assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code, 5161
and shall not exclude representatives selected by the applicant, 5162
recipient, or former recipient, from a meeting that the commission 5163
conducts as an executive session that pertains to the applicant's, 5164
recipient's, or former recipient's application for financial 5165
assistance.5166

       (3) A veterans service commission shall vote on the grant or 5167
denial of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 5168
of the Revised Code only in an open meeting of the commission. The 5169
minutes of the meeting shall indicate the name, address, and 5170
occupation of the applicant, whether the assistance was granted or 5171
denied, the amount of the assistance if assistance is granted, and 5172
the votes for and against the granting of assistance.5173

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 5174
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 5175
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 5176
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 5177
administer:5178

       (1) The department of aging; 5179

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;5180

       (3) The department of development services agency;5181

       (4)(3) The department of developmental disabilities;5182

       (5)(4) The department of education;5183

       (6)(5) The department of health;5184

       (7)(6) The department of job and family services;5185

       (8)(7) The department of medicaid;5186

       (8) The department of mental healthmental health and 5187
addiction services;5188

       (9) The rehabilitation services commission.5189

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 5190
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 5191
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 5192
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 5193
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 5194
the state agencies to share administrative operations.5195

       Sec. 121.37.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the Ohio family 5196
and children first cabinet council. The council shall be composed 5197
of the superintendent of public instruction, the administrator of 5198
the rehabilitation services commission, the medicaid director, and 5199
the directors of youth services, job and family services, mental 5200
healthmental health and addiction services, health, alcohol and 5201
drug addiction services, developmental disabilities, aging, 5202
rehabilitation and correction, and budget and management. The 5203
chairperson of the council shall be the governor or the governor's 5204
designee and shall establish procedures for the council's internal 5205
control and management.5206

        The purpose of the cabinet council is to help families 5207
seeking government services. This section shall not be interpreted 5208
or applied to usurp the role of parents, but solely to streamline 5209
and coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5210
assistance for their children.5211

       (2) In seeking to fulfill its purpose, the council may do any 5212
of the following:5213

       (a) Advise and make recommendations to the governor and 5214
general assembly regarding the provision of services to children;5215

       (b) Advise and assess local governments on the coordination 5216
of service delivery to children;5217

       (c) Hold meetings at such times and places as may be 5218
prescribed by the council's procedures and maintain records of the 5219
meetings, except that records identifying individual children are 5220
confidential and shall be disclosed only as provided by law;5221

       (d) Develop programs and projects, including pilot projects, 5222
to encourage coordinated efforts at the state and local level to 5223
improve the state's social service delivery system;5224

       (e) Enter into contracts with and administer grants to county 5225
family and children first councils, as well as other county or 5226
multicounty organizations to plan and coordinate service delivery 5227
between state agencies and local service providers for families 5228
and children;5229

       (f) Enter into contracts with and apply for grants from 5230
federal agencies or private organizations;5231

       (g) Enter into interagency agreements to encourage 5232
coordinated efforts at the state and local level to improve the 5233
state's social service delivery system. The agreements may include 5234
provisions regarding the receipt, transfer, and expenditure of 5235
funds;5236

       (h) Identify public and private funding sources for services 5237
provided to alleged or adjudicated unruly children and children 5238
who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children, 5239
including regulations governing access to and use of the services;5240

       (i) Collect information provided by local communities 5241
regarding successful programs for prevention, intervention, and 5242
treatment of unruly behavior, including evaluations of the 5243
programs;5244

       (j) Identify and disseminate publications regarding alleged 5245
or adjudicated unruly children and children who are at risk of 5246
being alleged or adjudicated unruly children and regarding 5247
programs serving those types of children;5248

       (k) Maintain an inventory of strategic planning facilitators 5249
for use by government or nonprofit entities that serve alleged or 5250
adjudicated unruly children or children who are at risk of being 5251
alleged or adjudicated unruly children.5252

       (3) The cabinet council shall provide for the following:5253

       (a) Reviews of service and treatment plans for children for 5254
which such reviews are requested;5255

       (b) Assistance as the council determines to be necessary to 5256
meet the needs of children referred by county family and children 5257
first councils;5258

       (c) Monitoring and supervision of a statewide, comprehensive, 5259
coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system for infants 5260
and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays and their 5261
families, as established pursuant to federal grants received and 5262
administered by the department of health for early intervention 5263
services under the "Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 5264
2004," 118 Stat. 2744, 20 U.S.C.A. 1400, as amended.5265

       (4) The cabinet council shall develop and implement the 5266
following:5267

       (a) An interagency process to select the indicators that will 5268
be used to measure progress toward increasing child well-being in 5269
the state and to update the indicators on an annual basis. The 5270
indicators shall focus on expectant parents and newborns thriving; 5271
infants and toddlers thriving; children being ready for school; 5272
children and youth succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy 5273
behaviors; and youth successfully transitioning into adulthood.5274

       (b) An interagency system to offer guidance and monitor 5275
progress toward increasing child well-being in the state and in 5276
each county;5277

       (c) An annual plan that identifies state-level agency efforts 5278
taken to ensure progress towards increasing child well-being in 5279
the state.5280

       On an annual basis, the cabinet council shall submit to the 5281
governor and the general assembly a report on the status of 5282
efforts to increase child well-being in the state. This report 5283
shall be made available to any other person on request.5284

       (B)(1) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 5285
county family and children first council. The board may invite any 5286
local public or private agency or group that funds, advocates, or 5287
provides services to children and families to have a 5288
representative become a permanent or temporary member of its 5289
county council. Each county council must include the following 5290
individuals:5291

       (a) At least three individuals who are not employed by an 5292
agency represented on the council and whose families are or have 5293
received services from an agency represented on the council or 5294
another county's council. Where possible, the number of members 5295
representing families shall be equal to twenty per cent of the 5296
council's membership.5297

       (b) The director of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 5298
mental health services that serves the county, or, in the case of 5299
a county that has a board of alcohol and drug addiction services 5300
and a community mental health board, the directors of both boards. 5301
If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 5302
covers more than one county, the director may designate a person 5303
to participate on the county's council.5304

       (c) The health commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, 5305
of the board of health of each city and general health district in 5306
the county. If the county has two or more health districts, the 5307
health commissioner membership may be limited to the commissioners 5308
of the two districts with the largest populations.5309

       (d) The director of the county department of job and family 5310
services;5311

       (e) The executive director of the public children services 5312
agency;5313

       (f) The superintendent of the county board of developmental 5314
disabilities or, if the superintendent serves as superintendent of 5315
more than one county board of developmental disabilities, the 5316
superintendent's designee;5317

       (g) The superintendent of the city, exempted village, or 5318
local school district with the largest number of pupils residing 5319
in the county, as determined by the department of education, which 5320
shall notify each board of county commissioners of its 5321
determination at least biennially;5322

       (h) A school superintendent representing all other school 5323
districts with territory in the county, as designated at a 5324
biennial meeting of the superintendents of those districts;5325

       (i) A representative of the municipal corporation with the 5326
largest population in the county;5327

       (j) The president of the board of county commissioners or an 5328
individual designated by the board;5329

       (k) A representative of the regional office of the department 5330
of youth services;5331

       (l) A representative of the county's head start agencies, as 5332
defined in section 3301.32 of the Revised Code;5333

       (m) A representative of the county's early intervention 5334
collaborative established pursuant to the federal early 5335
intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5336
Disabilities Education Act of 2004";5337

       (n) A representative of a local nonprofit entity that funds, 5338
advocates, or provides services to children and families.5339

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the public 5340
members of a county council are not prohibited from serving on the 5341
council and making decisions regarding the duties of the council, 5342
including those involving the funding of joint projects and those 5343
outlined in the county's service coordination mechanism 5344
implemented pursuant to division (C) of this section.5345

       The cabinet council shall establish a state appeals process 5346
to resolve disputes among the members of a county council 5347
concerning whether reasonable responsibilities as members are 5348
being shared. The appeals process may be accessed only by a 5349
majority vote of the council members who are required to serve on 5350
the council. Upon appeal, the cabinet council may order that state 5351
funds for services to children and families be redirected to a 5352
county's board of county commissioners.5353

       The county's juvenile court judge senior in service or 5354
another judge of the juvenile court designated by the 5355
administrative judge or, where there is no administrative judge, 5356
by the judge senior in service shall serve as the judicial advisor 5357
to the county family and children first council. The judge may 5358
advise the county council on the court's utilization of resources, 5359
services, or programs provided by the entities represented by the 5360
members of the county council and how those resources, services, 5361
or programs assist the court in its administration of justice. 5362
Service of a judge as a judicial advisor pursuant to this section 5363
is a judicial function.5364

       (2) The purpose of the county council is to streamline and 5365
coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5366
services for their children. In seeking to fulfill its purpose, a 5367
county council shall provide for the following:5368

       (a) Referrals to the cabinet council of those children for 5369
whom the county council cannot provide adequate services;5370

       (b) Development and implementation of a process that annually 5371
evaluates and prioritizes services, fills service gaps where 5372
possible, and invents new approaches to achieve better results for 5373
families and children;5374

       (c) Participation in the development of a countywide, 5375
comprehensive, coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system 5376
for infants and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays 5377
and their families, as established pursuant to federal grants 5378
received and administered by the department of health for early 5379
intervention services under the "Individuals with Disabilities 5380
Education Act of 2004";5381

       (d) Maintenance of an accountability system to monitor the 5382
county council's progress in achieving results for families and 5383
children;5384

       (e) Establishment of a mechanism to ensure ongoing input from 5385
a broad representation of families who are receiving services 5386
within the county system.5387

       (3) A county council shall develop and implement the 5388
following:5389

       (a) An interagency process to establish local indicators and 5390
monitor the county's progress toward increasing child well-being 5391
in the county;5392

       (b) An interagency process to identify local priorities to 5393
increase child well-being. The local priorities shall focus on 5394
expectant parents and newborns thriving; infants and toddlers 5395
thriving; children being ready for school; children and youth 5396
succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy behaviors; and youth 5397
successfully transitioning into adulthood and take into account 5398
the indicators established by the cabinet council under division 5399
(A)(4)(a) of this section.5400

       (c) An annual plan that identifies the county's interagency 5401
efforts to increase child well-being in the county.5402

       On an annual basis, the county council shall submit a report 5403
on the status of efforts by the county to increase child 5404
well-being in the county to the county's board of county 5405
commissioners and the cabinet council. This report shall be made 5406
available to any other person on request.5407

       (4)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(b) of this 5408
section, a county council shall comply with the policies, 5409
procedures, and activities prescribed by the rules or interagency 5410
agreements of a state department participating on the cabinet 5411
council whenever the county council performs a function subject to 5412
those rules or agreements.5413

       (b) On application of a county council, the cabinet council 5414
may grant an exemption from any rules or interagency agreements of 5415
a state department participating on the council if an exemption is 5416
necessary for the council to implement an alternative program or 5417
approach for service delivery to families and children. The 5418
application shall describe the proposed program or approach and 5419
specify the rules or interagency agreements from which an 5420
exemption is necessary. The cabinet council shall approve or 5421
disapprove the application in accordance with standards and 5422
procedures it shall adopt. If an application is approved, the 5423
exemption is effective only while the program or approach is being 5424
implemented, including a reasonable period during which the 5425
program or approach is being evaluated for effectiveness.5426

       (5)(a) Each county council shall designate an administrative 5427
agent for the council from among the following public entities: 5428
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 5429
including a board of alcohol and drug addiction or a community 5430
mental health board if the county is served by separate boards; 5431
the board of county commissioners; any board of health of the 5432
county's city and general health districts; the county department 5433
of job and family services; the county agency responsible for the 5434
administration of children services pursuant to section 5153.15 of 5435
the Revised Code; the county board of developmental disabilities; 5436
any of the county's boards of education or governing boards of 5437
educational service centers; or the county's juvenile court. Any 5438
of the foregoing public entities, other than the board of county 5439
commissioners, may decline to serve as the council's 5440
administrative agent.5441

       A county council's administrative agent shall serve as the 5442
council's appointing authority for any employees of the council. 5443
The council shall file an annual budget with its administrative 5444
agent, with copies filed with the county auditor and with the 5445
board of county commissioners, unless the board is serving as the 5446
council's administrative agent. The council's administrative agent 5447
shall ensure that all expenditures are handled in accordance with 5448
policies, procedures, and activities prescribed by state 5449
departments in rules or interagency agreements that are applicable 5450
to the council's functions.5451

       The administrative agent of a county council shall send 5452
notice of a member's absence if a member listed in division (B)(1) 5453
of this section has been absent from either three consecutive 5454
meetings of the county council or a county council subcommittee, 5455
or from one-quarter of such meetings in a calendar year, whichever 5456
is less. The notice shall be sent to the board of county 5457
commissioners that establishes the county council and, for the 5458
members listed in divisions (B)(1)(b), (c), (e), and (l) of this 5459
section, to the governing board overseeing the respective entity; 5460
for the member listed in division (B)(1)(f) of this section, to 5461
the county board of developmental disabilities that employs the 5462
superintendent; for a member listed in division (B)(1)(g) or (h) 5463
of this section, to the school board that employs the 5464
superintendent; for the member listed in division (B)(1)(i) of 5465
this section, to the mayor of the municipal corporation; for the 5466
member listed in division (B)(1)(k) of this section, to the 5467
director of youth services; and for the member listed in division 5468
(B)(1)(n) of this section, to that member's board of trustees.5469

       The administrative agent for a county council may do any of 5470
the following on behalf of the council:5471

       (i) Enter into agreements or administer contracts with public 5472
or private entities to fulfill specific council business. Such 5473
agreements and contracts are exempt from the competitive bidding 5474
requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code if they have 5475
been approved by the county council and they are for the purchase 5476
of family and child welfare or child protection services or other 5477
social or job and family services for families and children. The 5478
approval of the county council is not required to exempt 5479
agreements or contracts entered into under section 5139.34, 5480
5139.41, or 5139.43 of the Revised Code from the competitive 5481
bidding requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code.5482

       (ii) As determined by the council, provide financial 5483
stipends, reimbursements, or both, to family representatives for 5484
expenses related to council activity;5485

       (iii) Receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, 5486
lands, or other property for the purposes for which the council is 5487
established. The agent shall hold, apply, and dispose of the 5488
moneys, lands, or other property according to the terms of the 5489
gift, grant, devise, or bequest. Any interest or earnings shall be 5490
treated in the same manner and are subject to the same terms as 5491
the gift, grant, devise, or bequest from which it accrues.5492

       (b)(i) If the county council designates the board of county 5493
commissioners as its administrative agent, the board may, by 5494
resolution, delegate any of its powers and duties as 5495
administrative agent to an executive committee the board 5496
establishes from the membership of the county council. The board 5497
shall name to the executive committee at least the individuals 5498
described in divisions (B)(1)(b) to (h) of this section and may 5499
appoint the president of the board or another individual as the 5500
chair of the executive committee. The executive committee must 5501
include at least one family county council representative who does 5502
not have a family member employed by an agency represented on the 5503
council.5504

       (ii) The executive committee may, with the approval of the 5505
board, hire an executive director to assist the county council in 5506
administering its powers and duties. The executive director shall 5507
serve in the unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the 5508
executive committee. The executive director may, with the approval 5509
of the executive committee, hire other employees as necessary to 5510
properly conduct the county council's business.5511

       (iii) The board may require the executive committee to submit 5512
an annual budget to the board for approval and may amend or repeal 5513
the resolution that delegated to the executive committee its 5514
authority as the county council's administrative agent.5515

       (6) Two or more county councils may enter into an agreement 5516
to administer their county councils jointly by creating a regional 5517
family and children first council. A regional council possesses 5518
the same duties and authority possessed by a county council, 5519
except that the duties and authority apply regionally rather than 5520
to individual counties. Prior to entering into an agreement to 5521
create a regional council, the members of each county council to 5522
be part of the regional council shall meet to determine whether 5523
all or part of the members of each county council will serve as 5524
members of the regional council.5525

       (7) A board of county commissioners may approve a resolution 5526
by a majority vote of the board's members that requires the county 5527
council to submit a statement to the board each time the council 5528
proposes to enter into an agreement, adopt a plan, or make a 5529
decision, other than a decision pursuant to section 121.38 of the 5530
Revised Code, that requires the expenditure of funds for two or 5531
more families. The statement shall describe the proposed 5532
agreement, plan, or decision.5533

       Not later than fifteen days after the board receives the 5534
statement, it shall, by resolution approved by a majority of its 5535
members, approve or disapprove the agreement, plan, or decision. 5536
Failure of the board to pass a resolution during that time period 5537
shall be considered approval of the agreement, plan, or decision.5538

       An agreement, plan, or decision for which a statement is 5539
required to be submitted to the board shall be implemented only if 5540
it is approved by the board.5541

       (C) Each county shall develop a county service coordination 5542
mechanism. The county service coordination mechanism shall serve 5543
as the guiding document for coordination of services in the 5544
county. For children who also receive services under the help me 5545
grow program, the service coordination mechanism shall be 5546
consistent with rules adopted by the department of health under 5547
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. All family service 5548
coordination plans shall be developed in accordance with the 5549
county service coordination mechanism. The mechanism shall be 5550
developed and approved with the participation of the county 5551
entities representing child welfare; mental retardation and 5552
developmental disabilities; alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 5553
health services; health; juvenile judges; education; the county 5554
family and children first council; and the county early 5555
intervention collaborative established pursuant to the federal 5556
early intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5557
Disabilities Education Act of 2004." The county shall establish an 5558
implementation schedule for the mechanism. The cabinet council may 5559
monitor the implementation and administration of each county's 5560
service coordination mechanism.5561

       Each mechanism shall include all of the following:5562

       (1) A procedure for an agency, including a juvenile court, or 5563
a family voluntarily seeking service coordination, to refer the 5564
child and family to the county council for service coordination in 5565
accordance with the mechanism;5566

       (2) A procedure ensuring that a family and all appropriate 5567
staff from involved agencies, including a representative from the 5568
appropriate school district, are notified of and invited to 5569
participate in all family service coordination plan meetings;5570

        (3) A procedure that permits a family to initiate a meeting 5571
to develop or review the family's service coordination plan and 5572
allows the family to invite a family advocate, mentor, or support 5573
person of the family's choice to participate in any such meeting;5574

        (4) A procedure for ensuring that a family service 5575
coordination plan meeting is conducted for each child who receives 5576
service coordination under the mechanism and for whom an emergency 5577
out-of-home placement has been made or for whom a nonemergency 5578
out-of-home placement is being considered. The meeting shall be 5579
conducted within ten days of an emergency out-of-home placement. 5580
The meeting shall be conducted before a nonemergency out-of-home 5581
placement. The family service coordination plan shall outline how 5582
the county council members will jointly pay for services, where 5583
applicable, and provide services in the least restrictive 5584
environment.5585

        (5) A procedure for monitoring the progress and tracking the 5586
outcomes of each service coordination plan requested in the county 5587
including monitoring and tracking children in out-of-home 5588
placements to assure continued progress, appropriateness of 5589
placement, and continuity of care after discharge from placement 5590
with appropriate arrangements for housing, treatment, and 5591
education.;5592

        (6) A procedure for protecting the confidentiality of all 5593
personal family information disclosed during service coordination 5594
meetings or contained in the comprehensive family service 5595
coordination plan.5596

        (7) A procedure for assessing the needs and strengths of any 5597
child or family that has been referred to the council for service 5598
coordination, including a child whose parent or custodian is 5599
voluntarily seeking services, and for ensuring that parents and 5600
custodians are afforded the opportunity to participate;5601

       (8) A procedure for development of a family service 5602
coordination plan described in division (D) of this section;5603

       (9) A local dispute resolution process to serve as the 5604
process that must be used first to resolve disputes among the 5605
agencies represented on the county council concerning the 5606
provision of services to children, including children who are 5607
abused, neglected, dependent, unruly, alleged unruly, or 5608
delinquent children and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile 5609
court and children whose parents or custodians are voluntarily 5610
seeking services. The local dispute resolution process shall 5611
comply with sections 121.38, 121.381, and 121.382 of the Revised 5612
Code. The local dispute resolution process shall be used to 5613
resolve disputes between a child's parents or custodians and the 5614
county council regarding service coordination. The county council 5615
shall inform the parents or custodians of their right to use the 5616
dispute resolution process. Parents or custodians shall use 5617
existing local agency grievance procedures to address disputes not 5618
involving service coordination. The dispute resolution process is 5619
in addition to and does not replace other rights or procedures 5620
that parents or custodians may have under other sections of the 5621
Revised Code.5622

       The cabinet council shall adopt rules in accordance with 5623
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing an administrative 5624
review process to address problems that arise concerning the 5625
operation of a local dispute resolution process.5626

        Nothing in division (C)(4) of this section shall be 5627
interpreted as overriding or affecting decisions of a juvenile 5628
court regarding an out-of-home placement, long-term placement, or 5629
emergency out-of-home placement.5630

       (D) Each county shall develop a family service coordination 5631
plan that does all of the following:5632

       (1) Designates service responsibilities among the various 5633
state and local agencies that provide services to children and 5634
their families, including children who are abused, neglected, 5635
dependent, unruly, or delinquent children and under the 5636
jurisdiction of the juvenile court and children whose parents or 5637
custodians are voluntarily seeking services;5638

       (2) Designates an individual, approved by the family, to 5639
track the progress of the family service coordination plan, 5640
schedule reviews as necessary, and facilitate the family service 5641
coordination plan meeting process;5642

        (3) Ensures that assistance and services to be provided are 5643
responsive to the strengths and needs of the family, as well as 5644
the family's culture, race, and ethnic group, by allowing the 5645
family to offer information and suggestions and participate in 5646
decisions. Identified assistance and services shall be provided in 5647
the least restrictive environment possible.5648

        (4) Includes a process for dealing with a child who is 5649
alleged to be an unruly child. The process shall include methods 5650
to divert the child from the juvenile court system;5651

       (5) Includes timelines for completion of goals specified in 5652
the plan with regular reviews scheduled to monitor progress toward 5653
those goals;5654

        (6) Includes a plan for dealing with short-term crisis 5655
situations and safety concerns.5656

       (E)(1) The process provided for under division (D)(4) of this 5657
section may include, but is not limited to, the following:5658

        (a) Designation of the person or agency to conduct the 5659
assessment of the child and the child's family as described in 5660
division (C)(7) of this section and designation of the instrument 5661
or instruments to be used to conduct the assessment;5662

       (b) An emphasis on the personal responsibilities of the child 5663
and the parental responsibilities of the parents, guardian, or 5664
custodian of the child;5665

       (c) Involvement of local law enforcement agencies and 5666
officials.5667

       (2) The method to divert a child from the juvenile court 5668
system that must be included in the service coordination process 5669
may include, but is not limited to, the following:5670

       (a) The preparation of a complaint under section 2151.27 of 5671
the Revised Code alleging that the child is an unruly child and 5672
notifying the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian that 5673
the complaint has been prepared to encourage the child and the 5674
parents, guardian, or custodian to comply with other methods to 5675
divert the child from the juvenile court system;5676

       (b) Conducting a meeting with the child, the parents, 5677
guardian, or custodian, and other interested parties to determine 5678
the appropriate methods to divert the child from the juvenile 5679
court system;5680

        (c) A method to provide to the child and the child's family a 5681
short-term respite from a short-term crisis situation involving a 5682
confrontation between the child and the parents, guardian, or 5683
custodian;5684

       (d) A program to provide a mentor to the child or the 5685
parents, guardian, or custodian;5686

       (e) A program to provide parenting education to the parents, 5687
guardian, or custodian;5688

       (f) An alternative school program for children who are truant 5689
from school, repeatedly disruptive in school, or suspended or 5690
expelled from school;5691

       (g) Other appropriate measures, including, but not limited 5692
to, any alternative methods to divert a child from the juvenile 5693
court system that are identified by the Ohio family and children 5694
first cabinet council.5695

       (F) Each county may review and revise the service 5696
coordination process described in division (D) of this section 5697
based on the availability of funds under Title IV-A of the "Social 5698
Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C.A. 601, as amended, 5699
or to the extent resources are available from any other federal, 5700
state, or local funds.5701

       Sec. 121.372.  (A) As used in this section, "substitute care 5702
provider" means any of the following:5703

       (1) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program5704
services provider subject to certification under section 3793.065705
5119.36 of the Revised Code;5706

       (2) An institution or association subject to certification 5707
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;5708

       (3) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 5709
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code;5710

       (4) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 5711
5123.19 of the Revised Code.5712

       (B) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 5713
this sectionMarch 18, 1999, the members of the Ohio family and 5714
children first cabinet council, other than the director of budget 5715
and management, shall enter into an agreement to establish an 5716
office to perform the duties prescribed by division (C) of this 5717
section. The agreement shall specify one of the departments 5718
represented on the council as the department responsible for 5719
housing and supervising the office. The agreement shall include 5720
the recommendation of the council for funding the office.5721

       (C) The office established pursuant to the agreement entered 5722
into under this section shall review rules governing the 5723
certification and licensure of substitute care providers and 5724
determine which of the rules can be made substantively identical 5725
or more similar in order to minimize the number of differing 5726
certification and licensure standards and simplify the 5727
certification or licensure process for substitute care providers 5728
seeking certification or licensure from two or more of the 5729
departments represented on the council. The office shall provide 5730
county family and children first councils, substitute care 5731
providers, and persons interested in substitute care providers the 5732
opportunity to help the office with the review and determination. 5733
The office shall report its findings to the council. Each of the 5734
departments represented on the council that has adopted rules 5735
governing the certification or licensure of substitute care 5736
providers shall review the report and amend the rules as that 5737
department considers appropriate, except that no rule shall be 5738
amended so as to make it inconsistent with substitute care 5739
provider certification or licensure procedures and standards 5740
established by federal or state law. A department shall give 5741
priority to amendments that will not increase the department's 5742
administrative costs. In amending a rule, a department shall 5743
comply with Chapter 119. or section 111.15 of the Revised Code, as 5744
required by the Revised Code section governing the adoption of the 5745
particular rule. 5746

       (D) In accordance with section 124.27 of the Revised Code, 5747
the council shall select a coordinator to oversee the office 5748
established pursuant to the agreement entered into under this 5749
section. The coordinator shall be in the classified service. In 5750
addition to overseeing the office, the coordinator shall perform 5751
any other duties the council assigns to the coordinator. The 5752
duties the council assigns to the coordinator shall be related to 5753
the duties of the office under division (C) of this section.5754

       Sec. 121.483. A deputy inspector general appointed under 5755
section 121.48 of the Revised Code, who has been awarded a 5756
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 5757
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 5758
completion of an approved state, county, or municipal peace 5759
officer basic training program, shall have the power and authority 5760
of a peace officer under the laws of this state while engaged in 5761
the scope of the deputy inspector general's duties.5762

       Sec. 122.075. (A) As used in this section:5763

       (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 5764
125.831 of the Revised Code.5765

       (2) "Biodiesel" means a mono-alkyl ester combustible liquid 5766
fuel that is derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, or any 5767
combination of those reagents, and that meets American society for 5768
testing and materials specification D6751-03a for biodiesel fuel 5769
(B100) blend stock distillate fuels.5770

       (3) "Diesel fuel" and "gasoline" have the same meanings as in 5771
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.5772

       (4) "Ethanol" has the same meaning as in section 5733.46 of 5773
the Revised Code.5774

       (5) "Blended biodiesel" means diesel fuel containing at least 5775
twenty per cent biodiesel by volume.5776

       (6) "Blended gasoline" means gasoline containing at least 5777
eighty-five per cent ethanol by volume.5778

       (7) "Incremental cost" means either of the following:5779

       (a) The difference in cost between blended gasoline and 5780
gasoline containing ten per cent or less ethanol at the time that 5781
the blended gasoline is purchased;5782

       (b) The difference in cost between blended biodiesel and 5783
diesel fuel containing two per cent or less biodiesel at the time 5784
that the blended biodiesel is purchased.5785

       (B) For the purpose of improving the air quality in this 5786
state, the director of development services shall establish an 5787
alternative fuel transportation program under which the director 5788
may make grants and loans to businesses, nonprofit organizations, 5789
public school systems, or local governments for the purchase and 5790
installation of alternative fuel refueling or distribution 5791
facilities and terminals, for the purchase and use of alternative 5792
fuel, to pay the cost of fleet conversion, and to pay the costs of 5793
educational and promotional materials and activities intended for 5794
prospective alternative fuel consumers, fuel marketers, and others 5795
in order to increase the availability and use of alternative fuel.5796

       (C) The director, in consultation with the director of 5797
agriculture, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 5798
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration of the 5799
alternative fuel transportation program. The rules shall establish 5800
at least all of the following:5801

       (1) An application form and procedures governing the 5802
application process for receiving funds under the program;5803

       (2) A procedure for prioritizing the award of grants and 5804
loans under the program. The procedures shall give preference to 5805
all of the following:5806

       (a) Publicly accessible refueling facilities;5807

       (b) Entities applying to the program that have secured 5808
funding from other sources, including, but not limited to, private 5809
or federal incentives;5810

       (c) Entities that have presented compelling evidence of 5811
demand in the market in which the facilities or terminals will be 5812
located;5813

       (d) Entities that have committed to utilizing purchased or 5814
installed facilities or terminals for the greatest number of 5815
years;5816

       (e) Entities that will be purchasing or installing facilities 5817
or terminals for any type of alternative fuel.5818

       (3) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 5819
and installation of an alternative fuel refueling or distribution 5820
facility or terminal be eighty per cent of the cost of the 5821
facility or terminal, except that at least twenty per cent of the 5822
total net cost of the facility or terminal shall be incurred by 5823
the recipient and not compensated for by any other source;5824

       (4) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 5825
of alternative fuel be eighty per cent of the cost of the fuel or, 5826
in the case of blended biodiesel or blended gasoline, eighty per 5827
cent of the incremental cost of the blended biodiesel or blended 5828
gasoline;5829

       (5) Any other criteria, procedures, or guidelines that the 5830
director determines are necessary to administer the program, 5831
including fees, charges, interest rates, and payment schedules.5832

       (D) An applicant for a grant or loan under this section that 5833
sells motor vehicle fuel at retail shall agree that if the 5834
applicant receives funding, the applicant will report to the 5835
director the gallon or gallon equivalent amounts of alternative 5836
fuel the applicant sells at retail in this state for a period of 5837
three years after the project is completed.5838

       The director shall enter into a written confidentiality 5839
agreement with the applicant regarding the gallon or gallon 5840
equivalent amounts sold as described in this division, and upon 5841
execution of the agreement this information is not a public 5842
record.5843

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 5844
alternative fuel transportation fund. The fund shall consist of 5845
money transferred to the fund under division (C)(B) of section 5846
125.836 and under division (B)(2) of section 3706.27 of the 5847
Revised Code, money that is appropriated to it by the general 5848
assembly, and money as may be specified by the general assembly 5849
from the advanced energy fund created by section 4928.61 of the 5850
Revised Code, and all money received from the repayment of loans 5851
made from the fund or in the event of a default on any such loan. 5852
Money in the fund shall be used to make grants and loans under the 5853
alternative fuel transportation program and by the director in the 5854
administration of that program.5855

       Sec. 122.083. (A) The director of development shall 5856
administer a shovel ready sites program to provide grants for 5857
projects to port authorities and development entities approved by 5858
the director. Grants may be used to pay the costs of any or all of 5859
the following:5860

        (1) Acquisition of property, including options;5861

        (2) Preparation of sites, including brownfield clean-up 5862
activities;5863

        (3) Construction of road, water, telecommunication, and 5864
utility infrastructure;5865

        (4) Payment of professional fees the amount of which shall 5866
not exceed twenty per cent of the grant amount for a project.5867

        (B) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 5868
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures and 5869
requirements necessary for the administration of the program, 5870
including a requirement that a recipient of a grant enter into an 5871
agreement with the director governing the use of the grant.5872

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the shovel 5873
ready sites fund consisting of money appropriated to it. Money in 5874
the fund shall be used solely for the purposes of this section.5875

       Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:5876

       (1) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld 5877
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during 5878
the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the 5879
tax period, from the compensation of each employee or each 5880
home-based employee employed in the project to the extent the 5881
employee's withholdings are not used to determine the credit under 5882
section 122.171 of the Revised Code. "Income tax revenue" excludes 5883
amounts withheld before the day the taxpayer becomes eligible for 5884
the credit.5885

       (2) "Baseline income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 5886
except that the applicable withholding period is the twelve months 5887
immediately preceding the date the tax credit authority approves 5888
the taxpayer's application or the date the tax credit authority 5889
receives the recommendation described in division (C)(2)(a) of 5890
this section, whichever occurs first, multiplied by the sum of one 5891
plus an annual pay increase factor to be determined by the tax 5892
credit authority. If the taxpayer becomes eligible for the credit 5893
after the first day of the taxpayer's taxable year or after the 5894
first day of the calendar year that includes the tax period, the 5895
taxpayer's baseline income tax revenue for the first such taxable 5896
or calendar year of credit eligibility shall be reduced in 5897
proportion to the number of days during the taxable or calendar 5898
year for which the taxpayer was not eligible for the credit. For 5899
subsequent taxable or calendar years, "baseline income tax 5900
revenue" equals the unreduced baseline income tax revenue for the 5901
preceding taxable or calendar year multiplied by the sum of one 5902
plus the pay increase factor.5903

       (3) "Excess income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 5904
minus baseline income tax revenue.5905

       (4) "Home-based employee" means an employee whose services 5906
are performed primarily from the employee's residence in this 5907
state exclusively for the benefit of the project and whose rate of 5908
pay is at least one hundred thirty-one per cent of the federal 5909
minimum wage under 29 U.S.C. 206. 5910

       (B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this 5911
section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall 5912
take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax 5913
imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, or 5747.02 5914
or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code. The credit 5915
shall be claimed for the taxable years or tax periods specified in 5916
the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under 5917
division (D) of this section. With respect to taxes imposed under 5918
section 5726.02, 5733.06, or 5747.02 or Chapter 5751. of the 5919
Revised Code, the credit shall be claimed in the order required 5920
under section 5726.98, 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised 5921
Code. The amount of the credit available for a taxable year or for 5922
a calendar year that includes a tax period equals the excess 5923
income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage 5924
specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. Any 5925
credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by 5926
section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not 5927
fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 5928
2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by 5929
the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under 5930
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or 5931
after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit 5932
was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall 5933
apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years 5934
specified in the agreement end.5935

       (C)(1) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a 5936
project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax 5937
credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under 5938
this section. 5939

       An application shall not propose to include both home-based 5940
employees and employees who are not home-based employees in the 5941
computation of income tax revenue for the purposes of the same tax 5942
credit agreement. If a taxpayer or potential taxpayer employs both 5943
home-based employees and employees who are not home-based 5944
employees in a project, the taxpayer shall submit separate 5945
applications for separate tax credit agreements for the project, 5946
one of which shall include home-based employees in the computation 5947
of income tax revenue and one of which shall include all other 5948
employees in the computation of income tax revenue.5949

       The director of development services shall prescribe the form 5950
of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority 5951
may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under 5952
this section if it determines all of the following:5953

       (a) The taxpayer's project will increase payroll and income 5954
tax revenue;5955

       (b) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will 5956
benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for 5957
employment and strengthening the economy of this state;5958

       (c) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the 5959
taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.5960

       (2)(a) A taxpayer that chooses to begin the project prior to 5961
receiving the determination of the authority may, upon submitting 5962
the taxpayer's application to the authority, request that the 5963
chief investment officer of the nonprofit corporation formed under 5964
section 187.01 of the Revised Code and the director review the 5965
taxpayer's application and recommend to the authority that the 5966
taxpayer's application be considered. As soon as possible after 5967
receiving such a request, the chief investment officer and the 5968
director shall review the taxpayer's application and, if they 5969
determine that the application warrants consideration by the 5970
authority, make that recommendation to the authority not later 5971
than six months after the application is received by the 5972
authority.5973

       (b) The authority shall consider any taxpayer's application 5974
for which it receives a recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of 5975
this section. If the authority determines that the taxpayer does 5976
not meet all of the criteria set forth in division (C)(1) of this 5977
section, the authority and the development services agency shall 5978
proceed in accordance with rules adopted by the director pursuant 5979
to division (I) of this section.5980

       (D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the 5981
following:5982

       (1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject 5983
of the agreement;5984

       (2)(a) The term of the tax credit, which, except as provided 5985
in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, shall not exceed fifteen 5986
years, and the first taxable year, or first calendar year that 5987
includes a tax period, for which the credit may be claimed;5988

       (b) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 5989
employees, the term of the credit shall expire on or before the 5990
last day of the taxable or calendar year ending before the 5991
beginning of the seventh year after September 6, 2012, the 5992
effective date of H.B. 327 of the 129th general assembly;.5993

       (3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations 5994
at the project location for at least the greater of seven years or 5995
the term of the credit plus three years;5996

       (4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit 5997
authority, of excess income tax revenue that will be allowed as 5998
the amount of the credit for each taxable year or for each 5999
calendar year that includes a tax period;6000

       (5) The pay increase factor to be applied to the taxpayer's 6001
baseline income tax revenue;6002

       (6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to 6003
the director of development services employment, tax withholding, 6004
investment, the provision of health care benefits and tuition 6005
reimbursement if required in the agreement, and other information 6006
the director needs to perform the director's duties under this 6007
section;6008

       (7) A requirement that the director of development services 6009
annually review the information reported under division (D)(6) of 6010
this section and verify compliance with the agreement; if the 6011
taxpayer is in compliance, a requirement that the director issue a 6012
certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been 6013
verified and identifying the amount of the credit that may be 6014
claimed for the taxable or calendar year;6015

       (8) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate 6016
a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in 6017
this state to the project location unless the director of 6018
development services determines that the legislative authority of 6019
the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the 6020
employment positions would be relocated has been notified by the 6021
taxpayer of the relocation.6022

       For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment 6023
position from one political subdivision to another political 6024
subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment 6025
position unless the employment position in the first political 6026
subdivision is replaced.6027

       (9) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 6028
employees, that the tax credit may not be claimed by the taxpayer 6029
until the taxable year or tax period in which the taxpayer employs 6030
at least two hundred employees more than the number of employees 6031
the taxpayer employed on June 30, 2011.6032

       (E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition 6033
or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit 6034
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term 6035
of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may 6036
take effect in the current taxable or calendar year.6037

       (F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase 6038
retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this 6039
section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase 6040
retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of 6041
the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for 6042
a tax credit and only the excess income tax revenue from the 6043
nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount 6044
of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a 6045
point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that 6046
facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. 6047
Catalog distribution centers are not considered 6048
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this 6049
division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.6050

       (G) Financial statements and other information submitted to 6051
the development services agency or the tax credit authority by an 6052
applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any 6053
information taken for any purpose from such statements or 6054
information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of 6055
the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may 6056
make use of the statements and other information for purposes of 6057
issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings 6058
concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the 6059
request of the tax commissioner or, if the applicant or recipient 6060
is an insurance company, upon the request of the superintendent of 6061
insurance, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the 6062
commissioner or superintendent any statement or information 6063
submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in 6064
connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent 6065
shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or 6066
information.6067

       (H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 6068
submit to the tax commissioner or, if the taxpayer is an insurance 6069
company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the 6070
director of development services' certificate of verification 6071
under division (D)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax 6072
report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year 6073
that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the 6074
certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim 6075
for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to 6076
the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the 6077
commissioner or superintendent requests it.6078

       (I) The director of development services, after consultation 6079
with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and 6080
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 6081
rules necessary to implement this section, including rules that 6082
establish a procedure to be followed by the tax credit authority 6083
and the development services agency in the event the authority 6084
considers a taxpayer's application for which it receives a 6085
recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of this section but does 6086
not approve it. The rules may provide for recipients of tax 6087
credits under this section to be charged fees to cover 6088
administrative costs of the tax credit program. The fees collected 6089
shall be credited to the business assistance fund created in 6090
section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the director 6091
gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the 6092
Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall 6093
submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the 6094
standing committees on economic development in the senate and the 6095
house of representatives.6096

       (J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include 6097
a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under 6098
subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue 6099
Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a 6100
distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or 6101
other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received 6102
under this section through to the persons to whom the income or 6103
profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is 6104
distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report 6105
required under division (D)(6) of this section. The election 6106
applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report 6107
is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be 6108
apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those 6109
in which the income or profit is distributed.6110

       (K) If the director of development services determines that a 6111
taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not 6112
complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this 6113
section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the 6114
noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the 6115
taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax 6116
credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state 6117
a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:6118

       (1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6119
location for a period less than or equal to the term of the 6120
credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of 6121
any credits allowed and received under this section;6122

       (2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6123
location for a period longer than the term of the credit, but less 6124
than the greater of seven years or the term of the credit plus 6125
three years, an amount not exceeding seventy-five per cent of the 6126
sum of any credits allowed and received under this section.6127

       In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded 6128
to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect 6129
of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the 6130
taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. 6131
After making the determination, the authority shall certify the 6132
amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or superintendent of 6133
insurance, as appropriate. If the amount is certified to the 6134
commissioner, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that 6135
amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 5747., or 6136
5751. of the Revised Code. If the amount is certified to the 6137
superintendent, the superintendent shall make an assessment for 6138
that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5725. or 5729. of 6139
the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those 6140
chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but 6141
the commissioner or superintendent, as appropriate, shall make the 6142
assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies 6143
to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.6144

       (L) On or before the first day of August each year, the 6145
director of development services shall submit a report to the 6146
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 6147
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this 6148
section. The report shall include information on the number of 6149
agreements that were entered into under this section during the 6150
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the 6151
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of 6152
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding 6153
calendar year.6154

       (M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which 6155
consists of the director of development services and four other 6156
members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the 6157
senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall 6158
appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic 6159
development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a 6160
specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members 6161
appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the 6162
members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker 6163
of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. 6164
Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial 6165
appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days 6166
after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority 6167
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 6168
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 6169
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 6170
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 6171
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 6172
that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of 6173
the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses 6174
while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of 6175
development services shall serve as chairperson of the authority, 6176
and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among 6177
themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to 6178
transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority 6179
vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve 6180
any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.6181

       The director of development services may appoint a 6182
professional employee of the development services agency to serve 6183
as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The 6184
director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of 6185
the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed 6186
substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the 6187
director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the 6188
vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.6189

       (N) For purposes of the credits granted by this section 6190
against the taxes imposed under sections 5725.18 and 5729.03 of 6191
the Revised Code, "taxable year" means the period covered by the 6192
taxpayer's annual statement to the superintendent of insurance.6193

       (O) On or before the first day of JanuaryMarch of each of 6194
the sixfive calendar years following the year in which H.B. 327 6195
of the 129th general assembly becomeseffectivebeginning with 6196
2014, each taxpayer subject to an agreement with the tax credit 6197
authority under this section on the basis of home-based employees 6198
shall report the number of home-based employees and other 6199
employees employed by the taxpayer in this state to the department 6200
of development services agency.6201

       (P) On or before the first day of January of the seventh 6202
calendar year following the year in which H.B. 327 of the 129th 6203
general assembly became effective2019, the director of 6204
development services shall submit a report to the governor, the 6205
president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of 6206
representatives on the effect of agreements entered into under 6207
this section in which the taxpayer included home-based employees 6208
in the computation of income tax revenue. The report shall include 6209
information on the number of such agreements that were entered 6210
into in the preceding six years, a description of the projects 6211
that were the subjects of such agreements, and an analysis of 6212
nationwide home-based employment trends, including the number of 6213
home-based jobs created from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2017, 6214
and a description of any home-based employment tax incentives 6215
provided by other states during that time.6216

       (Q) The director of development services may require any 6217
agreement entered into under this section for a tax credit 6218
computed on the basis of home-based employees to contain a 6219
provision that the taxpayer makes available health care benefits 6220
and tuition reimbursement to all employees.6221

       Sec. 122.28.  As used in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 6222
of the Revised Code:6223

       (A) "New technology" means the development through science or 6224
research of methods, processes, and procedures, including but not 6225
limited to those involving the processing and utilization of coal, 6226
for practical application in industrial or agribusiness 6227
situations.6228

       (B) "Industrial research" means study and investigation in 6229
giving new shapes, new qualities or new combinations to matter or 6230
material products by the application of labor thereto or the 6231
rehabilitation of an existing matter or material product.6232

       (C) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 6233
business in this state or which proposes to be engaged in this 6234
state in research and development or in the provision of products 6235
or services involving a significant amount of new technology.6236

       (D) "Educational institutions" means nonprofit public and 6237
private colleges and universities, incorporated or unincorporated, 6238
in the state.6239

       (E) "Small business" means an enterprise with less than four 6240
hundred employees, including corporations, partnerships, 6241
unincorporated entities, proprietorships, and joint enterprises.6242

       (F) "Applied research" means the application of basic 6243
research for the development of new technology.6244

       Sec. 122.30.  The industrial technology and enterprise 6245
advisory council and the director of development areservices is6246
vested with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.28 and 6247
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, to promote the welfare of 6248
the people of the state through the interaction of the business 6249
and industrial community and educational institutions in the 6250
development of new technology and enterprise.6251

       (A) It is necessary for the state to establish the industrial 6252
technology and enterprise advisory council and the programs 6253
created pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the 6254
Revised Code to accomplish the following purposes which are 6255
determined to be essential:6256

       (1) Improve the existing industrial and agricultural base of 6257
the state;6258

       (2) Improve the economy of the state by providing employment, 6259
increasing productivity, and slowing the rate of inflation;6260

       (3) Develop markets worldwide for the products of the state's 6261
natural resources and agricultural and manufacturing industries;6262

       (4) Maintain a high standard of living for the people of the 6263
state.6264

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise advisory council 6265
shall do all of the following:6266

       (1) Make recommendations to the director of development as to 6267
applications for assistance pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.36 6268
of the Revised Code. The council may revise its recommendations to 6269
reflect any changes in the proposed assistance made by the 6270
director.6271

       (2) Advise the director in the administration of sections 6272
122.28 to 122.36 of the Revised Code;6273

       (3) Adopt bylaws to govern the conduct of the council's 6274
business.6275

       (C) The director of development shall do all of the 6276
following:6277

       (1) Receive applications for assistance under sections 122.28 6278
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and, after processing, 6279
forward them to the council together with necessary supporting 6280
information;6281

       (2) Receive the recommendations of the council and makeMake6282
a final determination whether to approve the application for 6283
assistance;6284

       (3) Transmit determinations to approve assistance exceeding 6285
forty thousand dollars to the controlling board, together with any 6286
information the controlling board requires, for the board's review 6287
and decision as to whether to approve the assistance;6288

       (4) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 6289
conferences, seminars, investigations, and special studies on 6290
problems and programs concerning industrial research and new 6291
technology and their commercial applications in the state;6292

       (5) Establish an annual program to recognize the 6293
accomplishments and contributions of individuals and organizations 6294
in the development of industrial research and new technology in 6295
the state;6296

       (6) Stimulate both public and industrial awareness and 6297
interest in industrial research and development of new technology 6298
primarily in the areas of industrial processes, implementation, 6299
energy, agribusiness, medical technology, avionics, and food 6300
processing;6301

       (7) Develop and implement comprehensive and coordinated 6302
policies, programs, and procedures promoting industrial research 6303
and new technology;6304

       (8) Propose appropriate legislation or executive actions to 6305
stimulate the development of industrial research and new 6306
technology by enterprises and individuals;6307

       (9) Encourage and facilitate contracts between industry, 6308
agriculture, educational institutions, federal agencies, and state 6309
agencies, with special emphasis on industrial research and new 6310
technology by small businesses and agribusiness;6311

       (10) Participate with any state agency in developing specific 6312
programs and goals to assist in the development of industrial 6313
research and new technology and monitor performance;6314

       (11) Assist enterprises in obtaining alternative forms of 6315
governmental or commercial financing for industrial research and 6316
new technology;6317

       (12) Assist enterprises or individuals in the implementation 6318
of new programs and policies and the expansion of existing 6319
programs to provide an atmosphere conducive to increased 6320
cooperation among and participation by individuals, enterprises, 6321
and educational institutions engaged in industrial research and 6322
the development of new technology;6323

       (13) Advertise, prepare, print, and distribute books, maps, 6324
pamphlets, and other information which in the judgment of the 6325
director will further its purposes;6326

       (14) Include in the director's annual report to the governor 6327
and the general assembly a report on the activities for the 6328
preceding calendar year under sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 6329
of the Revised Code;6330

       (15) Approve the expenditure of money appropriated by the 6331
general assembly for the purpose of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 6332
122.36 of the Revised Code;6333

       (16) Identify and implement federal research and development 6334
programs which would link Ohio's industrial base, research 6335
facilities, and natural resources;6336

       (17) Employ and fix the compensation of technical and 6337
professional personnel, who shall be in the unclassified civil 6338
service, and employ other personnel, who shall be in the 6339
classified civil service, as necessary to carry out the provisions 6340
of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code.6341

       Sec. 122.31.  All expenses and obligations incurred by the 6342
director of development and the industrial technology and 6343
enterprise advisory councilservices in carrying out theirthe 6344
director's powers and in exercising their duties under sections 6345
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, are payable from 6346
revenues or other receipts or income from grants, gifts, 6347
contributions, compensation, reimbursement, and funds established 6348
in accordance with those sections or general revenue funds 6349
appropriated by the general assembly for operating expenses of the 6350
director or council.6351

       Sec. 122.32.  The director of development services, on behalf 6352
of the programs authorized pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.306353
to 122.36 of the Revised Code, may receive and accept grants, 6354
gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and other 6355
things of value to be held, used, and applied only for the purpose 6356
for which the grants, gifts, and contributions are made, from 6357
individuals, private and public corporations, from the United 6358
States or any agency of the United States, and from any political 6359
subdivision of the state. The director may agree to repay any 6360
contribution of money or to return any property contributed or its 6361
value at times, in amounts, and on terms and conditions excluding 6362
the payment of interest as the director determines at the time the 6363
contribution is made. The director may evidence the obligation by 6364
written contracts, subject to section 122.31 of the Revised Code, 6365
provided that the director shall not thereby incur indebtedness of 6366
or impose liability upon the state or any political subdivision.6367

       Sec. 122.33.  The director of development services shall 6368
administer the following programs:6369

       (A) The industrial technology and enterprise development 6370
grant program, to provide capital to acquire, construct, enlarge, 6371
improve, or equip and to sell, lease, exchange, and otherwise 6372
dispose of property, structures, equipment, and facilities within 6373
the state.6374

       Such funding may be made to enterprises that propose to 6375
develop new products or technologies when the director finds all 6376
of the following factors to be present:6377

       (1) The undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 6378
creating or preserving jobs and employment opportunities or 6379
improving the economic welfare of the people of the state, and 6380
promoting the development of new technology.6381

       (2) There is reasonable assurance that the potential 6382
royalties to be derived from the sale of the product or process 6383
described in the proposal will be sufficient to repay the funding 6384
pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised 6385
Code and that, in making the agreement, as it relates to patents, 6386
copyrights, and other ownership rights, there is reasonable 6387
assurance that the resulting new technology will be utilized to 6388
the maximum extent possible in facilities located in Ohio.6389

       (3) The technology and research to be undertaken will allow 6390
enterprises to compete more effectively in the marketplace. Grants 6391
of capital may be in such form and conditioned upon such terms as 6392
the boarddirector deems appropriate.6393

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise resources 6394
program to provide for the collection, dissemination, and exchange 6395
of information regarding equipment, facilities, and business 6396
planning consultation resources available in business, industry, 6397
and educational institutions and to establish methods by which 6398
small businesses may use available facilities and resources. The 6399
methods may include, but need not be limited to, leases 6400
reimbursing the educational institutions for their actual costs 6401
incurred in maintaining the facilities and agreements assigning 6402
royalties from development of successful products or processes 6403
through the use of the facilities and resources. The director 6404
shall operate this program in conjunction with the board of 6405
regents.6406

       (C) The Thomas Alva Edison grant program to provide grants to 6407
foster research, development, or technology transfer efforts 6408
involving enterprises and educational institutions that will lead 6409
to the creation of jobs. The director shall utilize the Edison 6410
center network in carrying out the goals and objectives of this 6411
program. For the purposes of this division, "Edison center 6412
network" means the six cooperative research and development 6413
facilities in this state that receive funding under this division, 6414
are nonprofit organizations, have been in existence at least 6415
eighteen years as of the effective date of this amendment, and 6416
have experience in delivering manufacturing extension partnership 6417
program services to companies in this state.6418

       (1) Grants may be made to a nonprofit organization or a 6419
public or private educational institution, department, college, 6420
institute, faculty member, or other administrative subdivision or 6421
related entity of an educational institution when the director 6422
finds that the undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 6423
supporting research in advanced technology areas likely to improve 6424
the economic welfare of the people of the state through promoting 6425
the development of new commercial technology.6426

       (2) Grants may be made in a form and conditioned upon terms 6427
as the director considers appropriate.6428

       (3) Grants made under this program shall in all instances be 6429
in conjunction with a contribution to the project by a cooperating 6430
enterprise which maintains or proposes to maintain a relevant 6431
research, development, or manufacturing facility in the state, by 6432
a nonprofit organization, or by an educational institution or 6433
related entity; however, funding provided by an educational 6434
institution or related entity shall not be from general revenue 6435
funds appropriated by the Ohio general assembly. No grant made 6436
under this program shall exceed the contribution made by the 6437
cooperating enterprise, nonprofit organization, or educational 6438
institution or related entity. The director may consider 6439
cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art new 6440
equipment or in other forms provided the director determines that 6441
the contribution is essential to the successful implementation of 6442
the project. The director may adopt rules or guidelines for the 6443
valuation of contributions of equipment or other property.6444

       (4) The director may determine fields of research from which 6445
grant applications will be accepted under this program.6446

       Sec. 122.34.  The exercise of the powers granted by sections 6447
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code will be in all 6448
respects for the benefit of the people of the state, for the 6449
improvement of commerce and prosperity, improvement of employment 6450
conditions, and will constitute the performance of essential 6451
governmental functions.6452

       Sec. 122.35.  All moneys received under sections 122.28 and 6453
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code are trust funds to be held 6454
and applied solely as provided in those sections and section 6455
166.03 of the Revised Code. All moneys, except when deposited with 6456
the treasurer of the state, shall be kept and secured in 6457
depositories as selected by the director of development services6458
in the manner provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised 6459
Code, insofar as those sections are applicable. All moneys held by 6460
the director in trust to carry out the purposes of sections 122.28 6461
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code shall be used as provided 6462
in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and at 6463
no time be part of other public funds.6464

       Sec. 122.36.  Any materials or data submitted to, made 6465
available to, or received by the director of development, the 6466
industrial technology and enterprise advisory council,services or 6467
the controlling board, to the extent that the material or data 6468
consist of trade secrets, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 6469
Revised Code, or commercial or financial information, regarding 6470
projects are not public records for the purposes of section 149.43 6471
of the Revised Code.6472

       Sec. 122.657.  For the purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 6473
of the Revised Code, the director of development shall establish 6474
policies and requirements regarding all of the following:6475

       (A) The form and content of applications for grants or loans 6476
from the clean Ohio revitalization fund under section 122.652 of 6477
the Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require that 6478
each application include, at a minimum, all of the following:6479

       (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;6480

       (2) The legal description of the property for which the grant 6481
or loan is requested;6482

       (3) A summary description of the hazardous substances or 6483
petroleum present at the brownfield and a certified copy of the 6484
results of an assessment;6485

       (4) A detailed explanation of the proposed cleanup or 6486
remediation of the brownfield, including an identification of the 6487
applicable cleanup standards, and a detailed description of the 6488
proposed use of the brownfield after completion of the cleanup or 6489
remediation;6490

       (5) An estimate of the total cost to clean up or remediate 6491
the brownfield in order to comply with the applicable cleanup 6492
standards. The total cost shall include the cost of employing a 6493
certified professional under section 122.654 of the Revised Code.6494

       (6) A detailed explanation of the portion of the estimated 6495
total cost of the cleanup or remediation of the brownfield that 6496
the applicant proposes to provide as required under sections 6497
122.653 and 122.658 of the Revised Code and financial records 6498
supporting the proposal;6499

       (7) A certified copy of a resolution or ordinance approving 6500
the project that the applicant shall obtain from the board of 6501
township trustees of the township or the legislative authority of 6502
the municipal corporation in which the property is located, 6503
whichever is applicable;6504

       (8) A description of the estimated economic benefit that will 6505
result from a cleanup or remediation of the brownfield;6506

       (9) An application summary for purposes of review by an 6507
integrating committee or, if applicable, the executive committee 6508
of an integrating committee under division (B) of section 122.652 6509
of the Revised Code;6510

       (10) With respect to applications for loans, information 6511
demonstrating that the applicant will implement a financial 6512
management plan that includes, without limitation, provisions for 6513
the satisfactory repayment of the loan;6514

       (11) Any other provisions that the director determines should 6515
be included in an application.6516

       (B) Procedures for conducting public meetings and providing 6517
public notice under division (A) of section 122.652 of the Revised 6518
Code;6519

       (C) Criteria to be used by integrating committees or, if 6520
required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised 6521
Code, executive committees of integrating committees when 6522
prioritizing projects under division (B) of section 122.652 of the 6523
Revised Code. The policies and requirements also shall establish 6524
procedures that integrating committees or, if required under 6525
division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code, executive 6526
committees of integrating committees shall use in applying the 6527
criteria.6528

       (D) A selection process that provides for the prioritization 6529
of brownfield cleanup or remediation projects for which grant or 6530
loan applications are submitted under section 122.652 of the 6531
Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require the 6532
selection process to give priority to projects in which the 6533
post-cleanup or remediation use will be for a combination of 6534
residential, commercial, or industrial purposes, which may include 6535
the conversion of a portion of a brownfield to a recreation, park, 6536
or natural area that is integrated with the residential, 6537
commercial, or industrial use of the brownfield after cleanup or 6538
remediation, or will incorporate projects that are funded by 6539
grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised 6540
Code. The policies and requirements shall require the selection 6541
process to incorporate and emphasize all of the following factors:6542

       (1) The potential economic benefit that will result from the 6543
cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;6544

       (2) The potential environmental improvement that will result 6545
from the cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;6546

       (3) The amount and nature of the match provided by an 6547
applicant as required under sections 122.653 and 122.658 of the 6548
Revised Code;6549

       (4) Funding priorities recommended by integrating committees 6550
or, if required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the 6551
Revised Code, executive committees of integrating committees under 6552
division (B) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code;6553

       (5) The potential benefit to low-income communities, 6554
including minority communities, that will result from the cleanup 6555
or remediation of a brownfield;6556

       (6) Any other factors that the director considers 6557
appropriate.6558

       (E) The development of criteria that the director shall use 6559
when awarding grants under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. 6560
The criteria shall give priority to public health projects. In 6561
addition, the director, in consultation with the director of 6562
environmental protection, shall establish policies and 6563
requirements that require the criteria to include a public health 6564
project selection process that incorporates and emphasizes all of 6565
the following factors:6566

       (1) The potential environmental improvement that will result 6567
from the cleanup or remediation;6568

       (2) The ability of an applicant to access the property for 6569
purposes of the cleanup or remediation;6570

       (3) The name and qualifications of the cleanup or remediation 6571
contractor;6572

       (4) Any other factors that the director of development 6573
considers appropriate.6574

       The director of development may develop any other policies 6575
and requirements that the director determines are necessary for 6576
the administration of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6577

       (F) The development of a brownfield cleanup and remediation 6578
oversight program to ensure compliance with sections 122.65 to 6579
122.658 of the Revised Code and policies and requirements 6580
established under this section. The policies and requirements 6581
shall require the program to include, at a minimum, both of the 6582
following:6583

       (1) Procedures for the accounting of invoices and receipts 6584
and any other documents that are necessary to demonstrate that a 6585
cleanup or remediation was properly performed;6586

       (2) Procedures that are necessary to provide a detailed 6587
explanation of the status of the property five years after the 6588
completed cleanup or remediation.6589

       (G) A delineation of what constitutes administrative costs 6590
for purposes of divisions (D) and (F) of section 122.658 of the 6591
Revised Code;6592

       (H) Procedures and requirements for making loans and loan 6593
agreements that include at least all of the following:6594

       (1) Not more than fifteen per cent of moneys annually 6595
allocated to the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used for 6596
loans.6597

       (2) The loans shall be made at or below market rates of 6598
interest, including, without limitation, interest-free loans.6599

       (3) The recipient of a loan shall identify a source of 6600
security and a source of repayment of the loan.6601

       (4) All payments of principal and interest on a loan shall be 6602
deposited in the state treasury and credited to the clean Ohio 6603
revitalization revolving loan fund.6604

       (5) The clean Ohio council may accept notes and other forms 6605
of obligation to evidence indebtedness, accept mortgages, liens, 6606
pledges, assignments, and other security interests to secure such 6607
indebtedness, and take any actions that are considered by the 6608
council to be appropriate to protect such security and safeguard 6609
against losses, including, without limitation, foreclosure and 6610
bidding on the purchase of property upon foreclosure or other 6611
sale.6612

       (I) Any other policies and requirements that the director 6613
determines are necessary for the administration of sections 122.65 6614
to 122.658 of the Revised Code.6615

       Sec. 122.658. (A) The clean Ohio revitalization fund is 6616
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 6617
moneys credited to it pursuant to section 151.40 of the Revised 6618
Code. Moneys in the fund shall be used to make grants or loans for 6619
projects that have been approved by the clean Ohio council in 6620
accordance with section 122.653 of the Revised Code, except that 6621
the council annually shall devote twenty per cent of the net 6622
proceeds of obligations deposited in the clean Ohio revitalization 6623
fund for the purposes of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6624

       Moneys in the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to 6625
pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development and 6626
the environmental protection agency in administering sections 6627
122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of 6628
the fund shall be credited to the fund. Investment earnings 6629
credited to the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to pay 6630
costs incurred by the department of development and the 6631
environmental protection agency pursuant to sections 122.65 to 6632
122.658 of the Revised Code.6633

       The department of development shall administer the clean Ohio 6634
revitalization fund in accordance with this section, policies and 6635
requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised 6636
Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the council 6637
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.6638

       (B) Grants awarded and loans made under section 122.653 of 6639
the Revised Code shall provide not more than seventy-five per cent 6640
of the estimated total cost of a project. A grant or loan to any 6641
one project shall not exceed three million dollars. An applicant 6642
shall provide at least twenty-five per cent of the estimated total 6643
cost of a project. The applicant's share may consist of one or a 6644
combination of any of the following:6645

       (1) Payment of the cost of acquiring the property for the 6646
purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code;6647

       (2) Payment of the reasonable cost of an assessment at the 6648
property;6649

       (3) The reasonable value, as determined by the council, of 6650
labor and materials that will be contributed by the applicant in 6651
performing the cleanup or remediation;6652

       (4) Moneys received by the applicant in any form for use in 6653
performing the cleanup or remediation;6654

       (5) Loans secured by the applicant for the purpose of the 6655
cleanup or remediation of the brownfield.6656

       Costs that were incurred more than two years prior to the 6657
submission of an application to the clean Ohio council for the 6658
acquisition of property, assessments, and labor and materials 6659
shall not be used as part of the applicant's matching share.6660

       (C) The department of development shall not make any payment 6661
to an applicant from the clean Ohio revitalization fund to pay 6662
costs of the applicant that were not included in an application 6663
for a grant or loan under section 122.653 of the Revised Code or 6664
that exceed the amount of the estimated total cost of the project 6665
included in the application. If, upon completion of a project, the 6666
costs of the project are less than the amounts included in the 6667
application, the amounts included in the application less the 6668
amounts of the actual costs of the project shall be credited to 6669
the clean Ohio revitalization fund. However, the amounts credited 6670
shall be equivalent in percentage to the percentage of the costs 6671
of the project that were to be funded by the grant or loan from 6672
the fund.6673

       (D) Grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of the 6674
Revised Code from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used 6675
by an applicant only to pay the costs of the actual cleanup or 6676
remediation of a brownfield and shall not be used by an applicant 6677
to pay any administrative costs incurred by the applicant. Costs 6678
related to the use of a certified professional for purposes of 6679
section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not administrative costs 6680
and may be paid with moneys from grants awarded or loans made 6681
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.6682

       (E) The portion of net proceeds of obligations devoted under 6683
division (A) of this section for the purposes of section 122.656 6684
of the Revised Code shall be used to make grants for assessments, 6685
cleanup or remediation of brownfields, and public health projects 6686
that have been approved by the director of development under that 6687
section. The department of development shall administer section 6688
122.656 of the Revised Code in accordance with this section, 6689
policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the 6690
Revised Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the 6691
director under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. The director 6692
shall not grant more than twenty-five million dollars for public 6693
health projects under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6694

       (F) Grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code 6695
shall be used by an applicant only to pay the costs of actually 6696
conducting an assessment, a cleanup or remediation of a 6697
brownfield, or a public health project and shall not be used by an 6698
applicant to pay any administrative costs incurred by the 6699
applicant. Costs related to the use of a certified professional 6700
for purposes of section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not 6701
administrative costs and may be paid with moneys from grants 6702
awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6703

       (G)(1) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund is 6704
hereby created in the state treasury. Payments of principal and 6705
interest on loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund 6706
shall be credited to this revolving loan fund, as shall payments 6707
of principal and interest on loans made from the revolving loan 6708
fund itself. The revolving loan fund's investment earnings shall 6709
be credited to it.6710

       (2) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund shall 6711
be used to make loans for the same purposes and subject to the 6712
same policies, requirements, criteria, and application procedures 6713
as loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund.6714

       Sec. 122.66.  As used in sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the 6715
Revised Code:6716

       (A) "Poverty line" means the official poverty line 6717
established by the director of the United States office of 6718
management and budget and as revised by the directorsecretary of 6719
the office of communityhealth and human services in accordance 6720
with section 673(2) of the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 6721
95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902.6722

       (B) "Low-income person" means a person whose adjusted gross 6723
income as defined in division (A) of section 5747.01 of the 6724
Revised Code is below the poverty line as defined in division (A) 6725
of this section.6726

       (C) "Advocacy" means the act of pleading for, supporting, or 6727
recommending actions on behalf of low-income persons.6728

       (D) "Community action agency" means a community-based and 6729
operated private nonprofit agency or organization that includes or 6730
is designed to include a sufficient number of projects or 6731
components to provide a range of services and activities having a 6732
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 6733
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 6734
a particularly acute problem and is designated as a community 6735
action agency by the office of community services division6736
pursuant to sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code.6737

       (E) "Community" means a city, village, county, multicity or 6738
multicounty unit, a neighborhood or other area, disregarding 6739
boundaries or political subdivisions, which provides a suitable 6740
organizational base and possesses a commonality of needs and 6741
interests for a community action program suitable to be served by 6742
a community action agency.6743

       (F) "Service area" means the geographical area served by a 6744
community action agency.6745

       Sec. 122.67.  There is hereby created in the department of6746
development services agency the office of community services 6747
division. The director of development services shall employ and 6748
fix the compensation of professional and technical unclassified 6749
personnel as necessary to carry out the provisions of sections 6750
122.66 to 122.701 of the Revised Code.6751

       Sec. 122.68.  The office of community services division6752
shall:6753

       (A) Administer all federal funds appropriated to the state 6754
from the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511, 42 6755
U.S.C.A. 9901, and comply with requirements imposed by that act in 6756
its application for, and administration of, the funds;6757

       (B) Designate community action agencies to receive community 6758
services block grant funds;6759

       (C) Disburse at least ninety-five per cent or such other 6760
higher maximum amount as may from time to time be designated by 6761
congress of the funds received in the state from the "Community 6762
Services Block Grant Act" to community action agencies that comply 6763
with the requirements of section 122.69 of the Revised Code and 6764
migrant and seasonal farm worker organizations that are not 6765
designated community action agencies but which provide the 6766
services described in division (B)(1) of section 122.69 of the 6767
Revised Code.6768

       (D) Provide technical assistance to community action agencies 6769
to improve program planning, development, and administration;6770

       (E) Conduct yearly performance assessments, according to 6771
criteria determined by department of development services agency6772
rule, to determine whether community action agencies are in 6773
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;6774

       (F) Annually prepare and submit to the United States 6775
secretary of health and human services, the governor, the 6776
president of the Ohio senate, and the speaker of the Ohio house of 6777
representatives, a comprehensive report that includes:6778

       (1) Certification that all community action agencies 6779
designated to receive funds from the "Community Services Block 6780
Grant Act" are in compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised 6781
Code;6782

       (2) A program plan for the next federal fiscal year that has 6783
been made available for public inspection and that details how 6784
community services block grant funds will be disbursed and used 6785
during that fiscal year;6786

       (3) Information detailing how funds were expended for the 6787
current fiscal year;6788

       (4) An audit of community services block grant expenditures 6789
for the preceding federal fiscal year that is conducted in 6790
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles by an 6791
independent auditing firm that has no connection with any 6792
community action agency receiving community services block grant 6793
funds or with any employee of the officedivision.6794

       (G) Serve as a statewide advocate for social and economic 6795
opportunities for low-income persons.6796

       Sec. 122.681.  (A) Except as permitted by this section, or 6797
when required by federal law, no person or government entity shall 6798
solicit, release, disclose, receive, use, or knowingly permit or 6799
participate in the use of any information regarding an individual 6800
receiving assistance pursuant to a community services division 6801
program under sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the Revised Code for 6802
any purpose not directly related to the administration of a 6803
division assistance program.6804

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 6805
any entity that receives division funds to administer a division 6806
program to assist individuals, shall release information regarding 6807
an individual assistance recipient to the following: 6808

       (1) A government entity responsible for administering the 6809
assistance program for purposes directly related to the 6810
administration of the program;6811

       (2) A law enforcement agency for the purpose of any 6812
investigation, prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding 6813
relating to the administration of the assistance program;6814

       (3) A government entity responsible for administering a 6815
children's protective services program, for the purpose of 6816
protecting children.6817

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law and section 6818
1347.08 of the Revised Code, the division, and any entity 6819
administering a division program, shall provide access to 6820
information regarding an individual assistance recipient to all of 6821
the following:6822

       (1) The individual assistance recipient;6823

       (2) The authorized representative of the individual 6824
assistance recipient;6825

       (3) The legal guardian of the individual assistance 6826
recipient;6827

       (4) The attorney of the individual assistance recipient.6828

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 6829
any entity administering a division program, may do either of the 6830
following:6831

       (1) Release information about an individual assistance 6832
recipient if the recipient gives voluntary, written authorization;6833

       (2) Release information regarding an individual assistance 6834
recipient to a state, federal, or federally assisted program that 6835
provides cash or in-kind assistance or services directly to 6836
individuals based on need.6837

       (E) The community services division, or an entity 6838
administering a division program, shall provide, at no cost, a 6839
copy of each written authorization to the individual who signed 6840
it.6841

       (F) The development services agency may adopt rules defining 6842
who may serve as an individual assistance recipient's authorized 6843
representative for purposes of division (C)(2) of this section.6844

       Sec. 122.69.  (A) Any nonprofit agency or organization 6845
seeking designation as a community action agency by the office of6846
community services division shall obtain the endorsement of the 6847
chief elected officials of at least two-thirds of the municipal 6848
corporations and the counties within the community to be served by 6849
the agency or organization.6850

       (B) Any nonprofit agency or organization that receives the 6851
endorsement provided for in division (A) of this section shall be 6852
designated by the officedivision as the community action agency 6853
for the community it serves and shall receive community services 6854
block grant funds for any period of time that the nonprofit agency 6855
or organization:6856

       (1) Provides a range of services and opportunities having a 6857
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 6858
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 6859
a particularly acute problem. These activities may include but 6860
shall not be limited to:6861

       (a) Providing activities designed to assist low-income 6862
persons, including elderly and handicapped low-income persons, to:6863

       (i) Secure and maintain meaningful employment, training, work 6864
experience, and unsubsidized employment;6865

       (ii) Attain an adequate education;6866

       (iii) Make better use of available income;6867

       (iv) Obtain and maintain adequate housing and a suitable 6868
living environment;6869

       (v) Obtain emergency assistance through loans or grants to 6870
meet immediate and urgent individual and family needs, including 6871
the need for health services, nutritious food, housing, and 6872
employment-related assistance;6873

       (vi) Remove obstacles and solve personal and family problems 6874
that block the achievement of self-sufficiency;6875

       (vii) Achieve greater participation in the affairs of the 6876
community;6877

       (viii) Undertake family planning, consistent with personal 6878
and family goals and religious and moral convictions;6879

       (ix) Obtain energy assistance, conservation, and 6880
weatherization services.6881

       (b) Providing, on an emergency basis, supplies and services, 6882
nutritious foodstuffs, and related services necessary to 6883
counteract conditions of starvation and malnutrition among 6884
low-income persons;6885

       (c) Coordinating and establishing links between government 6886
and other social services programs to assure the effective 6887
delivery of services to low-income individuals;6888

       (d) Providing child care services, nutrition and health 6889
services, transportation services, alcoholism and narcotic 6890
addiction prevention and rehabilitation services, youth 6891
development services, and community services to elderly and 6892
handicapped persons;6893

       (e) Encouraging entities in the private sector to participate 6894
in efforts to ameliorate poverty in the community.6895

       (2) Annually submits to the office of community services6896
division a program plan and budget for use of community services 6897
block grant funds for the next federal fiscal year. At least ten 6898
days prior to its submission to the office of community services6899
division, a copy of the program plan and budget shall be made 6900
available to the chief elected officials of the municipal 6901
corporations and counties within the service area in order to 6902
provide them the opportunity to review and comment upon such plan 6903
and budget.6904

       (3) Composes its board of directors in compliance with 6905
section (c)(3) of section 675 of the the "Community Services Block 6906
Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9904, except that the board 6907
shall consist of not less than fifteen nor more than thirty-three 6908
members;6909

       (4) Complies with the prohibitions against discrimination and 6910
political activity, as provided in the "Community Services Block 6911
Grant Act";6912

       (5) Complies with fiscal and program requirements established 6913
by department of development services agency rule.6914

       Sec. 122.70.  The board of directors of a community action 6915
agency shall:6916

       (A) Select, appoint, and may remove the executive director of 6917
the community action agency;6918

       (B) Approve contracts, annual program budgets, and policies 6919
of the community action agency;6920

       (C) Advise the elected officials of any political subdivision 6921
located within its service area, and state and federal elected 6922
officials who represent its service area, of the nature and extent 6923
of poverty within its community, and advise them of any needed 6924
changes;6925

       (D) Convene public meetings to provide community members the 6926
opportunity to comment on public policies and programs to reduce 6927
poverty;6928

       (E) Annually evaluate the policies and programs of the 6929
community action agency according to criteria determined by 6930
department of development services agency rule;6931

       (F) Submit the results of the evaluation required by division 6932
(E) of this section, along with recommendations for improved 6933
administration of the community action agency, to the office of6934
community services division;6935

       (G) Adopt a code of ethics for the board of directors and the 6936
employees of the community action agency;6937

       (H) Adopt written policies describing all of the following:6938

       (1) How the community action agency is to expend and 6939
distribute the community services block grant funds that it 6940
receives from the office of community servicesdivision under 6941
sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code;6942

       (2) The salary, benefits, travel expenses, and any other 6943
compensation that persons are to receive for serving on the 6944
community action agency's board of directors;6945

       (3) The operating procedures to be used by the board to 6946
conduct its meetings, to vote on all official business it 6947
considers, and to provide notice of its meetings.6948

       (I) Provide for the posting of notices in a conspicuous place 6949
indicating that the code of ethics described in division (G) of 6950
this section and the policies described in division (H) of this 6951
section are available for public inspection at the community 6952
action agency during normal business hours.6953

       Sec. 122.701.  (A) Prior to designating a new community 6954
action agency or rescinding a community action agency's 6955
designation, the office of community services division shall:6956

       (1) Determine whether a community action agency is in 6957
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;6958

       (2) Consult with the chief elected officials of political 6959
subdivisions located within a community action agency's service 6960
area, and, in designating a new community action agency, obtain 6961
their endorsement of the agency in accordance with division (A) of 6962
section 122.69 of the Revised Code;6963

       (3) Hold at least one public meeting within a community 6964
action agency's service area for the purpose of allowing citizens 6965
to comment on the community action agency's delivery of services;6966

       (4) Evaluate the proposed service area of the community 6967
action agency, and, as may be necessary, modify the boundaries of 6968
the service area so that low-income persons in the area are 6969
adequately and efficiently served.6970

       (B) After providing notice and hearing pursuant to sections 6971
119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, the director of development 6972
services:6973

       (1) May rescind the designation of a community action agency 6974
if he findsafter finding that the agency is not in compliance 6975
with any or all of the provisions of section 122.69 of the Revised 6976
Code;6977

       (2) Shall rescind the designation of a community action 6978
agency upon notification from the chief elected officials of more 6979
than one-half of the municipal corporations and the counties 6980
within a community currently served by a community action agency 6981
that such agency is not endorsed by them and upon aafter finding 6982
by him that the agency is not in compliance with section 122.69 of 6983
the Revised Code.6984

       Any agency whose designation is rescinded pursuant to this 6985
section may appeal from an order rescinding such designation 6986
pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code.6987

       Sec. 122.76.  (A) The director of development services, with 6988
controlling board approval, may lend funds to minority business 6989
enterprises and to community improvement corporations, Ohio 6990
development corporations, minority contractors business assistance 6991
organizations, and minority business supplier development councils 6992
for the purpose of loaning funds to minority business enterprises 6993
and, for the purpose of procuring or improving real or personal 6994
property, or both, for the establishment, location, or expansion 6995
of industrial, distribution, commercial, or research facilities in 6996
the state, and for the purpose of contract financing, and to 6997
community development corporations that predominantly benefit 6998
minority business enterprises or are located in a census tract 6999
that has a population that is sixty per cent or more minority, if 7000
the director determines, in the director's sole discretion, that 7001
all of the following apply:7002

       (1) The project is economically sound and will benefit the 7003
people of the state by increasing opportunities for employment, by 7004
strengthening the economy of the state, or expanding minority 7005
business enterprises.7006

       (2) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower is 7007
unable to finance the proposed project through ordinary financial 7008
channels at comparable terms.7009

       (3) The value of the project is or, upon completion, will be 7010
at least equal to the total amount of the money expended in the 7011
procurement or improvement of the project.7012

       (4) The amount to be loaned by the director will not exceed 7013
seventy-five per cent of the total amount expended in the 7014
procurement or improvement of the project.7015

       (5) The amount to be loaned by the director will be 7016
adequately secured by a first or second mortgage upon the project 7017
or by mortgages, leases, liens, assignments, or pledges on or of 7018
other property or contracts as the director requires, and such 7019
mortgage will not be subordinate to any other liens or mortgages 7020
except the liens securing loans or investments made by financial 7021
institutions referred to in division (A)(3) of this section, and 7022
the liens securing loans previously made by any financial 7023
institution in connection with the procurement or expansion of all 7024
or part of a project.7025

       (B) Any proposed minority business enterprise borrower 7026
submitting an application for assistance under this section shall 7027
not have defaulted on a previous loan from the director, and no 7028
full or limited partner, major shareholder, or holder of an equity 7029
interest of the proposed minority business enterprise borrower 7030
shall have defaulted on a loan from the director.7031

       (C) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower shall 7032
demonstrate to the satisfaction of the director that it is able to 7033
successfully compete in the private sector if it obtains the 7034
necessary financial, technical, or managerial support and that 7035
support is available through the director, the minority business 7036
development office of the department of development services 7037
agency, or other identified and acceptable sources. In determining 7038
whether a minority business enterprise borrower will be able to 7039
successfully compete, the director may give consideration to such 7040
factors as the successful completion of or participation in 7041
courses of study, recognized by the board of regents as providing 7042
financial, technical, or managerial skills related to the 7043
operation of the business, by the economically disadvantaged 7044
individual, owner, or partner, and the prior success of the 7045
individual, owner, or partner in personal, career, or business 7046
activities, as well as to other factors identified by the 7047
director.7048

       (D) The director shall not lend funds for the purpose of 7049
procuring or improving motor vehicles or accounts receivable.7050

       Sec. 122.861.  (A) As used in this section:7051

        (1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or 7052
remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions 7053
(A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this 7054
section:7055

        (a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United 7056
States environmental protection agency or the California air 7057
resources board.7058

        (b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more 7059
stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally 7060
manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of 7061
the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, 7062
et seq.7063

        (c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving 7064
the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration 7065
that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and 7066
returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent 7067
set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.7068

        (2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act 7069
of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.7070

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 7071
technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop 7072
electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been 7073
verified by the administrator of the United States environmental 7074
protection agency or the California air resources board.7075

        (B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel 7076
engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer 7077
a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a diesel emissions 7078
reduction revolving loan program. The programs shall provide for 7079
the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall 7080
otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of 7081
section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.7082

        The director shall apply to the administrator of the United 7083
States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds 7084
available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions 7085
reduction grant program and the diesel emissions reduction 7086
revolving loan program. 7087

        (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 7088
emissions grant fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the 7089
general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government 7090
under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other 7091
contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in 7092
the fund shall be used for the purpose of making grants for 7093
projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified 7094
technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of 7095
section 793 and any regulations issued under that section. 7096
Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to 7097
administer the diesel emissions reduction grant program.7098

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 7099
emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money 7100
appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained 7101
from the federal government under section 793, and any other 7102
grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit 7103
of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of 7104
making loans for projects relating to certified engine 7105
configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent 7106
with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued 7107
pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund 7108
shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction 7109
revolving loan program.7110

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 7111
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 7112
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 7113
the following powers:7114

       (1) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 7115
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 7116
agency;7117

       (2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or grant, 7118
all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise of 7119
which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 7120
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 7121
Revised Code;7122

       (3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 7123
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 7124
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;7125

       (4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a state 7126
agency;7127

       (5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for unproductive 7128
and unused lands or other property under the control of a state 7129
agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses may be granted to any 7130
person or entity, shall be for a period not to exceed fifteen 7131
years, and shall be executed for the state by the director of 7132
administrative services, provided that the director shall grant 7133
leases, easements, or licenses of university land for periods not 7134
to exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the 7135
respective university's board of trustees wherein the uses are 7136
compatible with the uses and needs of the university and may grant 7137
leases of university land for periods not to exceed forty years 7138
for purposes approved by the respective university's board of 7139
trustees pursuant to section 123.17 of the Revised Code.7140

       (6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;7141

       (7) To have general supervision and care of the storerooms, 7142
offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state agency;7143

       (8) To exercise general custodial care of all real property 7144
of the state;7145

       (9) To assign and group together state offices in any city in 7146
the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state agencies 7147
involved, rules governing space requirements for office or storage 7148
use;7149

       (10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 7150
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 7151
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 7152
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 7153
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 7154
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 7155
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 7156
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 7157
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 7158
shall become the property of the state without cost.7159

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 7160
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 7161
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 7162
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 7163
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 7164
details, bills of materials, and specifications:7165

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 7166
and other builders in the improvement;7167

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 7168
represented as to be easily understood;7169

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 7170
kinds of material necessary to the construction;7171

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 7172
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 7173
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 7174
bidders all needed information;7175

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 7176
of the aggregate cost thereof.7177

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 7178
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 7179
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 7180
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 7181
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 7182
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 7183
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 7184
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 7185
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 7186
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 7187
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 7188
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 7189
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 7190
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.7191

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 7192
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 7193
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 7194
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 7195
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 7196
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 7197
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 7198
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 7199
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 7200
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 7201
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 7202
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 7203
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 7204
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 7205
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 7206
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 7207
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 7208
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 7209
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 7210
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 7211
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 7212
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 7213
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 7214
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 7215
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 7216
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 7217
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 7218
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 7219
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 7220
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 7221
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 7222
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 7223
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 7224
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 7225
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 7226
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 7227
concerned therein shall be rejected.7228

       (11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to 7229
transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 7230
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 7231
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 7232
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 7233
the 125th general assembly;7234

       (12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 7235
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 7236
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 7237
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 7238
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 7239
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 7240
Revised Code.7241

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 7242
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 7243
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 7244
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 7245
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 7246
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 7247
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 7248
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 7249
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 7250
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 7251
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.7252

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 7253
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 7254
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 7255
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 7256
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 7257
the following:7258

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 7259
entering into a lease with the developer;7260

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;7261

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 7262
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 7263
development.7264

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 7265
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 7266
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 7267
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 7268
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 7269
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 7270
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 7271
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 7272
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 7273
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 7274
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 7275
property of the state without cost.7276

       (13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by the 7277
department, including space in property under the jurisdiction of 7278
the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:7279

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 7280
census of agency employees assigned space;7281

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 7282
administrative services:7283

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 7284
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 7285
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 7286
department;7287

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 7288
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 7289
incorporate space utilization metrics.7290

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 7291
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;7292

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 7293
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.7294

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 7295
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 7296
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 7297
agencies into a new state-owned facility.7298

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 7299
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 7300
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 7301
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 7302
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 7303
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 7304
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 7305
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 7306
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 7307
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 7308
Revised Code.7309

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 7310
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:7311

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 7312
opportunities;7313

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 7314
agencies;7315

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 7316
should be modified;7317

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 7318
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 7319
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 7320
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 7321
government;7322

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 7323
employees involved in the purchasing process;7324

       (f) Working with the department of development services 7325
agency to make recommendations regarding planning and 7326
implementation of purchasing policies and procedures that are 7327
supportive of energy efficiency and conservation.7328

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 7329
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 7330
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 7331
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 7332
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 7333
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 7334
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 7335
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 7336
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 7337
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 7338
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 7339
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 7340
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.7341

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 7342
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 7343
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 7344
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 7345
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 7346
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 7347
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 7348
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 7349
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 7350
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 7351
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 7352
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 7353
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 7354
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 7355
driving.7356

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 7357
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 7358
purchased.7359

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 7360
not interfere with any of the following:7361

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 7362
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 7363
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 7364
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 7365
as director of state armories;7366

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 7367
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 7368
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 7369
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 7370
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 7371
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 7372
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 7373
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 7374
department;7375

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 7376
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 7377
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 7378
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 7379
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 7380
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 7381
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 7382
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 7383
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 7384
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 7385
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 7386
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 7387
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 7388
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 7389
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;7390

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 7391
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 7392
for the use of the division;7393

       (5) The power of the director of development services to 7394
enter into leases of real property, buildings, and office space to 7395
be used solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to 7396
carry out the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;7397

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 7398
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 7399
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 7400
the Revised Code.7401

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 7402
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 7403
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau 7404
of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 7405
and family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 7406
services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and 7407
correction; buildings of educational and benevolent institutions 7408
under the management and control of boards of trustees; and 7409
purchases or leases for, and the custody and repair of, office 7410
space used for the purposes of the joint legislative ethics 7411
committee are not subject to the control and jurisdiction of the 7412
department of administrative services.7413

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 7414
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 7415
into a contract under which the department of administrative 7416
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 7417
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.7418

       (D) Unless the house of representatives notifies the 7419
department of administrative services that the house of 7420
representatives opts out, purchases for the maintenance, care, 7421
custodial care, utility costs, and repair of office space used by 7422
the house of representatives are subject to the control and 7423
jurisdiction of the department. If the house of representatives 7424
opts out, the house of representatives may enter into a contract 7425
for the purchase of any such services as is permitted under 7426
sections 125.02 and 125.04 of the Revised Code and the department 7427
shall pay the costs of the purchase and shall not charge the house 7428
of representatives service fees related to the purchase.7429

       (E) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 7430
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 7431
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 7432
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.7433

       Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 123.11 7434
of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an injury or 7435
obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 7436
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 7437
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 7438
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 7439
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 7440
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs in any public works of 7441
the state maintained by the director of administrative services 7442
and that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 7443
jeopardy property adjacent to it.7444

       (B) When a declaration of public exigency is issued pursuant 7445
to division (C) of this section, the director of administrative 7446
services may request the Ohio facilities construction commission 7447
toshall enter into contracts with proper persons for the 7448
performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 7449
construction of any structures and buildings necessary to the 7450
maintenance, control, and management of the public works of the 7451
state or any part of those public works. Any contracts awarded for 7452
the work performed pursuant to the declaration of a public 7453
exigency may be awarded without competitive bidding or selection 7454
as set forth in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.7455

       (C) The executive director of administrative servicesthe 7456
Ohio facilities construction commission may issue a declaration of 7457
a public exigency on the executive director's own initiative or 7458
upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 7459
executive director's declaration shall identify the specific 7460
injury, obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the 7461
declaration and shall set forth a dollar limitation for the 7462
repair, removal, or prevention of that exigency under the 7463
declaration.7464

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 7465
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 7466
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 7467
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 7468
controlling board. That notice shall detail the project to be 7469
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 7470
of the executive director's declaration that establishes the 7471
monetary limitations on that project.7472

       Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in division 7473
(A) of section 123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, the executive7474
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 7475
construction commission may take possession of lands and use them, 7476
or materials and other property necessary for the maintenance, 7477
protection, or repair of the public works, in accordance with 7478
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.7479

       Sec. 123.19. There is hereby established in the state 7480
treasury the theater equipment maintenance fund. All appropriate 7481
theater-related revenues of the department of administrative 7482
services, as determined by the department, shall be credited to 7483
that fund and to any accounts created in that fund with the 7484
department's approval. All appropriate theater-related expenses of 7485
the department, as determined by the department, including 7486
reimbursement of, or payment to, any other fund or any 7487
governmental agency for advances made or services rendered to or 7488
on behalf of the department, shall be paid from that fund as 7489
determined by or pursuant to directions of the department. All 7490
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 7491
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 7492
determined by the department.7493

       Sec. 123.201. (A) There is hereby created in the state 7494
treasury the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, 7495
consisting of transfers of moneys authorized by the general 7496
assembly and revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction 7497
commission under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment 7498
earnings on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. 7499
Moneys in the fund may be used by the commission, in performing 7500
its duties under this chapter, to pay personnel and other 7501
administrative expenses, to pay the cost of preparing building 7502
design specifications, to pay the cost of providing project 7503
management services, and for other purposes determined by the 7504
commission to be necessary to fulfill its duties under this 7505
chapter.7506

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 7507
cultural and sports facilities building fund, consisting of 7508
proceeds of obligations authorized to pay costs of Ohio cultural 7509
facilities and Ohio sports facilities for which appropriations are 7510
made by the general assembly. All investment earnings of the fund 7511
shall be credited to the fund.7512

       (2) Upon the request of the executive director of the Ohio 7513
facilities construction commission and subject to applicable tax 7514
law limitations, the director of budget and management may 7515
transfer to the Ohio cultural facilities administration fund 7516
moneys credited to the cultural and sports facilities building 7517
fund to pay the costs of administering projects funded through the 7518
cultural and sports facilities building fund.7519

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Ohio 7520
cultural facilities administration fund, consisting of transfers 7521
of money authorized by the general assembly and revenues received 7522
by the commission under division (A)(9) of section 123.21 of the 7523
Revised Code. Moneys in the fund may be used by the Ohio 7524
facilities construction commission in administering projects 7525
funded through the cultural and sports facilities building fund 7526
pursuant to sections 123.28 and 128.281 of the Revised Code. All 7527
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 7528
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 7529
determined by the commission.7530

       (D)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 7531
capital donations fund, which shall be administered by the Ohio 7532
facilities construction commission. The fund consists of gifts, 7533
grants, devises, bequests, and other financial contributions made 7534
to the commission for the construction or improvement of cultural 7535
and sports facilities and shall be used in accordance with the 7536
specific purposes for which the gifts, grants, devises, bequests, 7537
or other financial contributions are made. All investment earnings 7538
of the fund shall be credited to the fund. Chapters 123., 125., 7539
127., and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not 7540
apply to contract obligations paid from the fund, notwithstanding 7541
anything to the contrary in those chapters or that section.7542

       (2) Not later than one month following the end of each 7543
quarter of the fiscal year, the commission shall allocate the 7544
amounts credited to the fund from investment earnings during that 7545
preceding quarter of the fiscal year among the specific projects 7546
for which they are to be used and shall certify this information 7547
to the director of budget and management.7548

       (3) If the amounts credited to the fund for a particular 7549
project exceed what is required to complete that project, the 7550
commission may refund any of those excess amounts, including 7551
unexpended investment earnings attributable to those amounts, to 7552
the entity from which they were received.7553

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 7554
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 7555
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 7556
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 7557
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:7558

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 7559
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 7560
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 7561
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 7562
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 7563
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 7564
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 7565
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 7566
section does not require the independent employment of an 7567
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 7568
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 7569
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 7570
of the director of transportation.7571

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 7572
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 7573
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 7574
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.7575

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 7576
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 7577
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 7578
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 7579
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 7580
actual quantities or units.7581

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 7582
administration of the construction of the public works of the 7583
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 7584
Revised Code.7585

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 7586
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 7587
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 7588
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 7589
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 7590
duties.7591

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 7592
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 7593
authorized under this chapter.7594

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 7595
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 7596
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 7597
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 7598
to perform such powers and duties.7599

        (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 7600
Revised Code.7601

       (9) Enter into and administer cooperative agreements for 7602
cultural projects, as provided in sections 123.28 and 123.281 of 7603
the Revised Code.7604

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 7605
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 7606
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 7607
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 7608
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 7609
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 7610
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 7611
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 7612
the executive director. The employees of the commission are exempt 7613
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and are not considered 7614
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 7615
Code. Any agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between 7616
the office of collective bargaining and the exclusive 7617
representative for employees of the commission is binding and 7618
shall continue to have effect.7619

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 7620
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 7621
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 7622
the Revised Code.7623

       Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:7624

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 7625
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 7626
a building by a public entity.7627

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 7628
institution of higher education. 7629

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 7630
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.7631

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 7632
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 7633
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 7634
report about the project to the executive director of the Ohio 7635
facilities construction commission. The report shall be submitted 7636
in Ohio administrative knowledge system capital improvement format 7637
or in a manner determined by the executive director and not later 7638
than thirty days after the project is complete. The report shall 7639
provide the total original contract bid, total cost of change 7640
orders, total actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for 7641
mediation and litigation services, and any other data requested by 7642
the executive director. The first report submitted pursuant to 7643
this division shall include information about any capital 7644
facilities project completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital 7645
facilities project that is funded wholly or in part through 7646
appropriations made to the Ohio school facilities commission,or7647
the Ohio public works commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities 7648
commission, or for which a joint use agreement has been entered 7649
into with any public entity, is exempt from the reporting 7650
requirement prescribed under this division.7651

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 7652
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive 7653
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 7654
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 7655
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 7656
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 7657
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 7658
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 7659
costs.7660

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 7661
available, the executive director of the Ohio facilities 7662
construction commission shall incorporate the information reported 7663
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this section into the Ohio 7664
administrative knowledge system.7665

       Sec. 3383.01.        Sec. 123.28.  As used in this chaptersection and in 7666
section 123.281 of the Revised Code:7667

       (A) "Culture" means any of the following:7668

       (1) Visual, musical, dramatic, graphic, design, and other 7669
arts, including, but not limited to, architecture, dance, 7670
literature, motion pictures, music, painting, photography, 7671
sculpture, and theater, and the provision of training or education 7672
in these arts;7673

       (2) The presentation or making available, in museums or other 7674
indoor or outdoor facilities, of principles of science and their 7675
development, use, or application in business, industry, or 7676
commerce or of the history, heritage, development, presentation, 7677
and uses of the arts described in division (A)(1) of this section 7678
and of transportation;7679

       (3) The preservation, presentation, or making available of 7680
features of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or 7681
historical interest or significance in a state historical facility 7682
or a local historical facility.7683

       (B) "Cultural organization" means either of the following:7684

       (1) A governmental agency or Ohio nonprofit corporation, 7685
including the Ohio historical society, that provides programs or 7686
activities in areas directly concerned with culture;7687

       (2) A regional arts and cultural district as defined in 7688
section 3381.01 of the Revised Code.7689

       (C) "Cultural project" means all or any portion of an Ohio 7690
cultural facility for which the general assembly has specifically 7691
authorized the spending of money, or made an appropriation, 7692
pursuant to division (D)(3) or (E) of section 3383.07 of the 7693
Revised Codeor has specifically authorized the spending of money 7694
or the making of rental payments relating to the financing of 7695
construction.7696

       (D) "Cooperative contract" means a contract between the Ohio 7697
cultural facilities construction commission and a cultural 7698
organization providing the terms and conditions of the cooperative 7699
use of an Ohio cultural facility.7700

       (E) "Costs of operation" means amounts required to manage an 7701
Ohio cultural facility that are incurred following the completion 7702
of construction of its cultural project, provided that both of the 7703
following apply:7704

       (1) Those amounts either:7705

       (a) Have been committed to a fund dedicated to that purpose;7706

       (b) Equal the principal of any endowment fund, the income 7707
from which is dedicated to that purpose.7708

       (2) The commission and the cultural organization have 7709
executed an agreement with respect to either of those funds.7710

       (F) "General building services" means general building 7711
services for an Ohio cultural facility or an Ohio sports facility, 7712
including, but not limited to, general custodial care, security, 7713
maintenance, repair, painting, decoration, cleaning, utilities, 7714
fire safety, grounds and site maintenance and upkeep, and 7715
plumbing.7716

       (G) "Governmental agency" means a state agency, a 7717
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education,7718
a municipal corporation, county, township, or school district, a 7719
port authority created under Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, 7720
any other political subdivision or special district in this state 7721
established by or pursuant to law, or any combination of these 7722
entities; except where otherwise indicated, the United States or 7723
any department, division, or agency of the United States, or any 7724
agency, commission, or authority established pursuant to an 7725
interstate compact or agreement.7726

       (H)(G) "Local contributions" means the value of an asset 7727
provided by or on behalf of a cultural organization from sources 7728
other than the state, the value and nature of which shall be 7729
approved by the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission, 7730
in its sole discretion. "Local contributions" may include the 7731
value of the site where a cultural project is to be constructed. 7732
All "local contributions," except a contribution attributable to 7733
such a site, shall be for the costs of construction of a cultural 7734
project or the creation or expansion of an endowment for the costs 7735
of operation of a cultural facility.7736

       (I)(H) "Local historical facility" means a site or facility, 7737
other than a state historical facility, of archaeological, 7738
architectural, environmental, or historical interest or 7739
significance, or a facility, including a storage facility, 7740
appurtenant to the operations of such a site or facility, that is 7741
owned by a cultural organization, provided the facility meets the 7742
requirements of division (K)(2)(b) of this section, is managed by 7743
or pursuant to a contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 7744
commission, and is used for or in connection with thecultural7745
activities of the commission, including the presentation or making 7746
available of culture to the public.7747

       (J)(I) "Manage," "operate," or "management" means the 7748
provision of, or the exercise of control over the provision of, 7749
activities:7750

       (1) Relating to culture for an Ohio cultural facility, 7751
including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for 7752
displays, exhibitions, specimens, and models; booking of artists, 7753
performances, or presentations; scheduling; and hiring or 7754
contracting for directors, curators, technical and scientific 7755
staff, ushers, stage managers, and others directly related to the 7756
cultural activities in the facility; but not including general 7757
building services;7758

       (2) Relating to sports and athletic events for an Ohio sports 7759
facility, including as applicable, but not limited to, providing 7760
for booking of athletes, teams, and events; scheduling; and hiring 7761
or contracting for staff, ushers, managers, and others directly 7762
related to the sports and athletic events in the facility; but not 7763
including general building services.7764

       (K)(J) "Ohio cultural facility" means any of the following:7765

       (1) The theaters located in the state office tower at 77 7766
South High street in Columbus;7767

       (2) Any capitalcultural facility in this state to which both 7768
of the following apply:7769

       (a) The construction of a cultural project related to the 7770
facility was authorized or funded by the general assembly pursuant 7771
to division (D)(3) of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code and 7772
proceeds of state bonds are used for costs of the cultural 7773
project.7774

       (b) The facilitythat is managed directly by, or is subject 7775
to a cooperative or management contract with, the Ohio cultural7776
facilities construction commission, and is used for or in 7777
connection with the activities of the commission, including the 7778
presentation or making available of culture to the public and the 7779
provision of training or education in culture.7780

       (3) A state historical facility or a local historical 7781
facility.7782

       (L) "State agency" means the state or any of its branches, 7783
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 7784
divisions, or other units or agencies.7785

       (M)(K) "Construction" includes acquisition, including 7786
acquisition by lease-purchase, demolition, reconstruction, 7787
alteration, renovation, remodeling, enlargement, improvement, site 7788
improvements, and related equipping and furnishing.7789

       (N)(L) "State historical facility" means a site or facility 7790
that has all of the following characteristics:7791

       (1) It is created, supervised, operated, protected, 7792
maintained, and promoted by the Ohio historical society pursuant 7793
to the society's performance of public functions under sections 7794
149.30 and 149.302 of the Revised Code.7795

       (2) Its title must reside wholly or in part with the state, 7796
the society, or both the state and the society.7797

       (3) It is managed directly by or is subject to a cooperative 7798
or management contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 7799
construction commission and is used for or in connection with the7800
cultural activities of the commission, including the presentation 7801
or making available of culture to the public.7802

       (O)(M) "Ohio sports facility" means all or a portion of a 7803
stadium, arena, tennis facility, motorsports complex, or other 7804
capital facility in this state. A primary purpose of the facility 7805
shall be to provide a site or venue for the presentation to the 7806
public of motorsports events, professional tennis tournaments, or 7807
events of one or more major or minor league professional athletic 7808
or sports teams that are associated with the state or with a city 7809
or region of the state. The facility shall be, in the case of a 7810
motorsports complex, owned by the state or governmental agency, or 7811
in all other instances, owned by or located on real property owned 7812
by the state or a governmental agency, and includes all parking 7813
facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary facilities, equipment, 7814
furnishings, and real and personal property and interests and 7815
rights therein, that may be appropriate for or used for or in 7816
connection with the facility or its operation, for capital costs 7817
of which state funds are spent pursuant to this chapterthis 7818
section and section 123.281 of the Revised Code. A facility 7819
constructed as an Ohio sports facility may be both an Ohio 7820
cultural facility and an Ohio sports facility.7821

       (P)(N) "Motorsports" means sporting events in which motor 7822
vehicles are driven on a clearly demarcated tracked surface.7823

       Sec. 3383.07.        Sec. 123.281.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction 7824
commission shall provide for the construction of a cultural 7825
project in conformity with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, 7826
except as follows:7827

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 7828
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 7829
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or byfor 7830
construction services provided on behalf of the state by a 7831
governmental agency or a cultural organization in accordance with 7832
divisions (B) and (C) of this section.7833

       (B) In order for a governmental agency or a cultural 7834
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 7835
Ohio cultural facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 7836
facilities commission. For a project receiving a state 7837
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 7838
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 7839
authority to approve the provision of construction services by 7840
such an agency or organization, but not the authority to 7841
disapprove that provision. Construction services to be provided by 7842
a governmental agency or a cultural organization shall be 7843
specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 7844
commission and the governmental agency or cultural organization. 7845
The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are not subject to 7846
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 7847
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 7848
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.7849

       (2) For a cultural project that isto provide construction 7850
services on behalf of the state for a cultural project, other than 7851
a state historical facility, for which the general assembly has 7852
made an appropriation or specifically authorized the spending of 7853
money or the making of rental payments relating to the financing 7854
of the construction, the governmental agency or cultural 7855
organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities construction 7856
commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but is not 7857
limited to, provisions that:7858

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 7859
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;7860

       (2) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 7861
organization has local contributions amounting to not less than 7862
fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 7863
project;7864

       (3) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 7865
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;7866

       (4) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 7867
remodeled, or improved;7868

       (5) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 7869
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 7870
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 7871
appropriated funds;7872

       (6) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 7873
organization shall hold the Ohio facilities construction 7874
commission harmless from all liability for the operation and 7875
maintenance costs of the facility;7876

       (7) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 7877
are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, 7878
except for section 153.011 of the Revised Code, and are subject to 7879
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code; and7880

       (8) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 7881
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.7882

       (C) In order for a cultural organization to provide 7883
construction services on behalf of the state for a state 7884
historical facility, construction services may be provided by the 7885
Ohio cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization 7886
that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 7887
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 7888
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 7889
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 7890
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 7891
construction services by such an organization, but not the 7892
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 7893
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 7894
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 7895
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 7896
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 7897
Revised Code.7898

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 7899
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 7900
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 7901
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 7902
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 7903
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 7904
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 7905
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 7906
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 7907
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 7908
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 7909
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 7910
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 7911
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 7912
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 7913
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 7914
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 7915
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 7916
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.7917

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 7918
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 7919
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 7920
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 7921
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 7922
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 7923
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 7924
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 7925
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 7926
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 7927
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 7928
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 7929
management and general building services shall be paid by the 7930
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 7931
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 7932
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 7933
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 7934
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 7935
state-owned land.7936

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 7937
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 7938
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 7939
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 7940
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 7941
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 7942
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 7943
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 7944
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 7945
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 7946
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 7947
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 7948
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 7949
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 7950
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 7951
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 7952
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 7953
Code.7954

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 7955
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 7956
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 7957
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 7958
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 7959
following apply:7960

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 7961
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 7962
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 7963
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 7964
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 7965
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 7966
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 7967
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.7968

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 7969
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 7970
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 7971
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 7972
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 7973
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 7974
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 7975
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 7976
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 7977
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.7978

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 7979
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 7980
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 7981
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 7982
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 7983
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 7984
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 7985
cultural project.7986

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 7987
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 7988
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 7989
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 7990
the construction of the state historical project related to the 7991
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 7992
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 7993
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 7994
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 7995
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 7996
historical project.7997

       (F)for which the general assembly has made an appropriation 7998
or specifically authorized the spending of money or the making of 7999
rental payments relating to the financing of the construction, the 8000
cultural organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities 8001
construction commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but 8002
is not limited to, provisions that:8003

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 8004
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;8005

       (2) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 8006
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;8007

       (3) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 8008
remodeled, or improved;8009

       (4) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 8010
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 8011
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 8012
appropriated funds;8013

       (5) Specify that the cultural organization shall hold the 8014
Ohio facilities construction commission harmless from all 8015
liability for the operation and maintenance costs of the facility;8016

       (6) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 8017
are not subject to Chapters 123., 153., or 4115. of the Revised 8018
Code; and8019

       (7) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 8020
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.8021

       (D) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 8022
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 8023
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 8024
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 8025
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 8026
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:8027

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities construction commission has 8028
determined that there is a need for the facility in the region of 8029
the state for which the facility is proposed to provide the 8030
function of an Ohio sports facility as provided for in this 8031
chapter. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty 8032
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 8033
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 8034
need but only in the affirmative.8035

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 8036
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 8037
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 8038
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 8039
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 8040
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 8041
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 8042
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 8043
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 8044
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 8045
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 8046
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 8047
in the affirmative.8048

       (3)(2) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 8049
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 8050
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 8051
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 8052
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 8053
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 8054
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 8055
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.8056

       (4)(3) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio 8057
sports facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 8058
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 8059
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 8060
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 8061
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 8062
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 8063
public at the facility.8064

       (G)(E) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 8065
this section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, 8066
shall be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 8067
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 8068
following apply:8069

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 8070
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 8071
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 8072
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 8073
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 8074
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 8075
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 8076
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 8077
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 8078
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 8079
by the executive director toof the Ohio cultural facilities 8080
construction commission and to the treasurer of state. 8081

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 8082
facility for an established period of time shall give the 8083
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 8084
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 8085
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 8086
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 8087
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 8088
costs of the facility.8089

       (H)(F) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 8090
this section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio 8091
sports facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or 8092
manager of the facility provides contractual commitments from a 8093
national or international professional tennis organization in a 8094
form acceptable to the culturalOhio facilities construction8095
commission that assures that one or more sanctioned professional 8096
tennis events will be presented at the facility during each year 8097
that the bonds remain outstanding.8098

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 8099
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 8100
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 8101
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 8102
service.8103

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 8104
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 8105
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 8106
chapter:8107

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 8108
to fill vacancies in those offices;8109

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 8110
the Revised Code;8111

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 8112
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 8113
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 8114

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 8115
county commissioners;8116

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 8117
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 8118
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 8119
school district;8120

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 8121
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 8122
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 8123
service townships from the competitive classified service.8124

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 8125
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 8126
county auditors;8127

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 8128
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 8129
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;8130

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 8131
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 8132
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;8133

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 8134
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 8135
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 8136
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 8137
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 8138
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 8139
colleges, and universities;8140

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 8141
wholly or in part at public expense.8142

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 8143
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 8144
administrative support employees for each board of county 8145
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 8146
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 8147
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 8148
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 8149
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 8150
administrative support employees;8151

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 8152
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 8153
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 8154
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 8155
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 8156
relationship to such elected county officials or county 8157
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 8158
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 8159
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 8160
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 8161
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 8162
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 8163
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 8164
Revised Code.8165

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 8166
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 8167
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 8168
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 8169
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 8170
as the appointing authority finds it impracticable to determine 8171
their fitness by competitive examination;8172

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 8173
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 8174
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 8175
law;8176

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 8177
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 8178
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 8179
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 8180
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 8181
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 8182
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 8183
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 8184
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 8185
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 8186
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 8187
exemption;8188

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 8189
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 8190
services, the department of developmental disabilities, or an 8191
institution under the jurisdiction of either department; and 8192
physicians who are in residency programs at the institutions;8193

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 8194
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 8195
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 8196
that the department director determines to be primarily 8197
administrative or managerial; and up to fifteen positions in any 8198
division of either department, excluding administrative assistants 8199
to the director and division chiefs, which are within the 8200
immediate staff of a division chief and which the director 8201
determines to be primarily and distinctively administrative and 8202
managerial;8203

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 8204
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 8205
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 8206
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 8207
hospitals, or institutions;8208

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;8209

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 8210
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 8211
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;8212

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 8213
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 8214
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 8215
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 8216
program directors;8217

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 8218
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 8219
developmental disabilities;8220

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 8221
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 8222
of the Revised Code;8223

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 8224
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 8225
Revised Code;8226

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 8227
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 8228
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;8229

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 8230
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;8231

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 8232
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 8233
certification in the division of industrial compliance in the 8234
department of commerce;8235

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 8236
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 8237
Code;8238

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 8239
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 8240
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 8241
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 8242
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, and 8243
public utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that 8244
administrative department or of that other state agency determines 8245
to be involved in policy development and implementation. The head 8246
of the administrative department or other state agency shall set 8247
the compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that 8248
is not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 8249
41 but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay 8250
range 4447 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the 8251
Revised Code. The authority to establish positions in the 8252
unclassified service under division (A)(26) of this section is in 8253
addition to and does not limit any other authority that an 8254
administrative department or state agency has under the Revised 8255
Code to establish positions, appoint employees, or set 8256
compensation.8257

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 8258
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;8259

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 8260
health districts, general health districts, and city school 8261
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 8262
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 8263
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;8264

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 8265
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 8266
Code;8267

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 8268
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 8269
authority to set compensation;8270

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 8271
patrol cadet candidate classifications;8272

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 8273
section of the Revised Code.8274

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 8275
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 8276
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 8277
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 8278
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 8279
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 8280
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 8281
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 8282
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 8283
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 8284
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 8285
unskilled labor class.8286

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 8287
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 8288
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 8289
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 8290
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 8291
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 8292
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 8293
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 8294
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 8295
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 8296
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 8297
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 8298
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 8299
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 8300
chapter.8301

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 8302
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 8303
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 8304
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 8305
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 8306
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 8307
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 8308
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 8309
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 8310
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 8311
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 8312
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 8313
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 8314
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 8315
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 8316
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 8317
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 8318
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 8319
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 8320
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 8321
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 8322
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 8323
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 8324
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 8325
be certified for appointment.8326

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 8327
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 8328
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 8329
civil service.8330

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 8331
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 8332
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.0715119.18, 8333
5120.38, 5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the 8334
Revised Code or to cities, counties, or political subdivisions of 8335
the state.8336

        (2) A person who holds a position in the classified service 8337
of the state and who is appointed to a position in the 8338
unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position 8339
and status held by the person in the classified service 8340
immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in 8341
the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions 8342
the person held in the unclassified service. An employee's right 8343
to resume a position in the classified service may only be 8344
exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a 8345
pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes 8346
the employee's appointment to the unclassified service and:8347

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 8348
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 8349
agency; or8350

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 8351
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 8352
agency.8353

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 8354
the classified service when:8355

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 8356
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 8357
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 8358
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 8359
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 8360
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 8361
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 8362
of a felony; or8363

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.8364

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 8365
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 8366
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 8367
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 8368
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 8369
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 8370
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 8371
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 8372
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 8373
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 8374
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 8375
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 8376
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 8377
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 8378
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 8379
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 8380
position in the classified service during the person's time of 8381
service in the position in the unclassified service.8382

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 8383
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 8384
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 8385
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part byin the 8386
service of the state. The director shall group jobs within a 8387
classification so that the positions are similar enough in duties 8388
and responsibilities to be described by the same title, to have 8389
the same pay assigned with equity, and to have the same 8390
qualifications for selection applied. The director shall, by rule, 8391
assign a classification title to each classification within the 8392
classification plan. However, the director shall consider in 8393
establishing classifications, including classifications with 8394
parenthetical titles, and assigning pay ranges such factors as 8395
duties performed only on one shift, special skills in short supply 8396
in the labor market, recruitment problems, separation rates, 8397
comparative salary rates, the amount of training required, and 8398
other conditions affecting employment. The director shall describe 8399
the duties and responsibilities of the class, establish the 8400
qualifications for being employed in each position in the class, 8401
and file with the secretary of state a copy of specifications for 8402
all of the classifications. The director shall file new, 8403
additional, or revised specifications with the secretary of state 8404
before they are used. 8405

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 8406
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 8407
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 8408
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 8409
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 8410
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 8411
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 8412
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 8413
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 8414
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 8415
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 8416
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 8417
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 8418
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.8419

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 8420
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 8421
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 8422
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 8423
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 8424
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 8425
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 8426
compensation.8427

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 8428
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 8429
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 8430
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 8431
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 8432
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 8433
director's discretion.8434

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 8435
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 8436
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 8437
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 8438
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 8439
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 8440
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 8441
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 8442
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 8443
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 8444
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 8445
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 8446
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 8447
series.8448

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 8449
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 8450
positions, offices, and employments:8451

       (1) Elected officials;8452

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 8453
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 8454
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 8455
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 8456
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 8457
general, and employees of the supreme court;8458

       (3) Any position for which the authority to determine 8459
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;8460

       (4) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 8461
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 8462
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 8463
Code.8464

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 8465
assist the director in carrying out this section.8466

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 8467
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 8468
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 8469
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 8470
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 8471
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 8472
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 8473
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.8474

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee in 8475
the service of the state so that the employee is adversely 8476
affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to 8477
the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth 8478
the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the 8479
request of any classified employee in the service of the state who 8480
is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall 8481
perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's 8482
position to determine whether the position is properly classified. 8483
The director shall give to the employee affected and to the 8484
employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's 8485
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 8486
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 8487
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 8488
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 8489
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 8490
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 8491
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 8492
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 8493
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 8494
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 8495
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 8496
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 8497
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 8498
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 8499
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 8500
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 8501
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 8502
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 8503
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 8504
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 8505
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.8506

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 8507
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 8508
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 8509
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 8510
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 8511
county commissioners may do either of the following:8512

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 8513
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 8514
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 8515
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 8516
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 8517
supplement;8518

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 8519
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 8520
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 8521
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 8522
the affected employees.8523

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 8524
employees for whom the state employment relations board 8525
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 8526
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 8527
situations:8528

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 8529
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 8530
representative in a board-conducted representation election.8531

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 8532
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 8533
organizations withdraw from a representation election.8534

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 8535
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 8536
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 8537
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 8538
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 8539
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 8540
of the department of administrative services and the director of 8541
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 8542
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 8543
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 8544
chapter.8545

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 8546
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 8547
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 8548
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 8549
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 8550
the director of administrative services under this chapter.8551

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 8552
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 8553
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 8554
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 8555
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 8556
a county personnel department established by a board of county 8557
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.8558

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 8559
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 8560
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 8561
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 8562
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 8563
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 8564
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 8565
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 8566
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 8567
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 8568
or co-appointing authority. 8569

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 8570
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 8571
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 8572
to possess that right of appeal.8573

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 8574
county personnel department may contract with the department of 8575
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 8576
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 8577
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 8578
appropriate services.8579

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 8580
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 8581
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 8582
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 8583
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 8584
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 8585
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 8586
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 8587
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 8588
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 8589
authority. 8590

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 8591
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 8592
personnel department. 8593

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 8594
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 8595
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 8596
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 8597
no longer participate.8598

       (6) A county personnel department, in carrying out its 8599
duties, shall adhere to merit system principles with regard to 8600
employees of county departments of job and family services, child 8601
support enforcement agencies, and public child welfare agencies so 8602
that there is no threatened loss of federal funding for these 8603
agencies, and the county is financially liable to the state for 8604
any loss of federal funds due to the action or inaction of the 8605
county personnel department. 8606

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 8607
administrative services for any human resources services, 8608
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 8609
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 8610
periodic audits and reviews of the county's uniform application of 8611
the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 8612
124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with regard to 8613
employees in the service of the county. Nothing in this division 8614
modifies the powers and duties of the state personnel board of 8615
review with respect to employees in the service of the county. 8616
Nothing in this division limits the right of any employee who 8617
possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of 8618
review to continue to possess that right of appeal.8619

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 8620
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 8621
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 8622
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 8623
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 8624
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 8625
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 8626
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 8627
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 8628
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 8629
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 8630
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 8631
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 8632
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 8633
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 8634
those employees.8635

       (J) The director of administrative services shall set the 8636
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 8637
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 8638
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 8639
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 8640
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 8641
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 8642
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 8643
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 8644
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 8645
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 8646
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 8647
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 8648
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 8649
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 8650
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 8651
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.8652

       Sec. 124.18.  (A) Forty hours shall be the standard work week 8653
for all employees whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part 8654
by the state or by any state-supported college or university. When 8655
any employee whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by 8656
the state or by any state-supported college or university is 8657
required by an authorized administrative authority to be in an 8658
active pay status more than forty hours in any calendar week, the 8659
employee shall be compensated for such time over forty hours, 8660
except as otherwise provided in this section, at one and one-half 8661
times the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of sick leave or 8662
any leave used in lieu of sick leave shall not be considered to be 8663
active pay status for the purposes of earning overtime or 8664
compensatory time by employees whose wages are paid directly by 8665
warrant of the director of budget and management. A flexible-hours 8666
employee is not entitled to compensation for overtime work unless 8667
the employee's authorized administrative authority required the 8668
employee to be in active pay status for more than forty hours in a 8669
calendar week, regardless of the number of hours the employee 8670
works on any day in the same calendar week.8671

       Such compensation for overtime work shall be paid no later 8672
than at the conclusion of the next succeeding pay period.8673

       If the employee elects to take compensatory time off in lieu 8674
of overtime pay for any overtime worked, such compensatory time 8675
shall be granted by the employee's administrative superior, on a 8676
time and one-half basis, at a time mutually convenient to the 8677
employee and the administrative superior. Compensatory time is not 8678
available for use until it appears on the employee's earning 8679
statement and the compensation described in the earning statement 8680
is available to the employee.8681

       An employee may accrue compensatory time to a maximum of two 8682
hundred forty hours, except that public safety employees and other 8683
employees who meet the criteria established in the "Federal Fair 8684
Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, 8685
as amended, may accrue a maximum of four hundred eighty hours of 8686
compensatory time. An employee shall be paid at the employee's 8687
regular rate of pay for any hours of compensatory time accrued in 8688
excess of these maximum amounts if the employee has not used the 8689
compensatory time within three hundred sixty-five days after it is 8690
granted, if the employee transfers to another agency of the state, 8691
or if a change in the employee's status exempts the employee from 8692
the payment of overtime compensation. Upon the termination of 8693
employment, any employee with accrued but unused compensatory time 8694
shall be paid for that time at a rate that is the greater of the 8695
employee's final regular rate of pay or the employee's average 8696
regular rate of pay during the employee's last three years of 8697
employment with the state.8698

       No overtime, as described in this section, can be paid unless 8699
it has been authorized by the authorized administrative authority. 8700
Employees may be exempted from the payment of compensation as 8701
required by this section only under the criteria for exemption 8702
from the payment of overtime compensation established in the 8703
"Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 8704
U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended. With the approval of the director 8705
of administrative services, the appointing authority may establish 8706
a policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 8707
state employees in the service of the state who are exempt from 8708
overtime compensation. With the approval of the board of county 8709
commissioners, a county human services department may establish a 8710
policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 8711
employees of the department who are exempt from overtime 8712
compensation.8713

       (B)(1) An employee, whose salary or wage is paid in whole or 8714
in part by the state, shall be paid for the holidays declared in 8715
section 124.19 of the Revised Code and shall not be required to 8716
work on those holidays, unless, in the opinion of the employee's 8717
responsible administrative authority, failure to work on those 8718
holidays would impair the public service. 8719

       (2) An employee paid directly by warrant of the director of 8720
budget and management who is scheduled to work on the first day of 8721
January, the commemoration of memorial day, the fourth day of 8722
July, the fourth Thursday in November, or the twenty-fifth day of 8723
December and who does not report to work the day before, the day 8724
of, or the day after the holiday due to an illness of the employee 8725
or of a member of the employee's immediate family shall not 8726
receive holiday pay as provided by this division, unless the 8727
employee can provide documentation of extenuating circumstances 8728
that prohibited the employee from so reporting to work. If the 8729
employee works a shift between the employee's scheduled shift and 8730
the holiday, the employee shall be paid for the holiday.8731

       (3) An employee also shall not be paid for a holiday unless 8732
the employee was in active pay status on the scheduled work day 8733
immediately preceding the holiday, except that an employee need 8734
not be in active pay status on that work day in order to be paid 8735
for the holiday if the employee is participating in a mandatory or 8736
voluntary cost savings day under section 124.392 of the Revised 8737
Code. 8738

       (4) If any of the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the 8739
Revised Code falls on Saturday, the Friday immediately preceding 8740
shall be observed as the holiday. If any of the holidays declared 8741
in section 124.19 of the Revised Code falls on Sunday, the Monday 8742
immediately succeeding shall be observed as the holiday. Employees 8743
whose work schedules are based on the requirements of a 8744
seven-days-a-week work operation shall observe holidays on the 8745
actual days specified in section 124.19 of the Revised Code.8746

       (5) If an employee's work schedule is other than Monday 8747
through Friday, the employee shall be entitled to eight hours of 8748
holiday pay for holidays observed on the employee's day off 8749
regardless of the day of the week on which they are observed. 8750

       (6) A full-time permanent employee is entitled to a minimum 8751
of eight hours of pay for each holiday regardless of the 8752
employee's work shift and work schedule. A flexible-hours 8753
employee, who is normally scheduled to work in excess of eight 8754
hours on a day on which a holiday falls, either shall be required 8755
to work an alternate schedule for that week or shall receive 8756
additional holiday pay for the hours the employee is normally 8757
scheduled to work. Such an alternate schedule may require a 8758
flexible-hours employee to work five shifts consisting of eight 8759
hours each during the week including the holiday, and, in that 8760
case, the employee shall receive eight hours of holiday pay for 8761
the day the holiday is observed. 8762

        (7) Except as provided under section 124.392 of the Revised 8763
Code, part-time permanent employees shall receive four hours of 8764
holiday pay regardless of the employee's work shift and work 8765
schedule. 8766

       (8) When an employee who is eligible for overtime pay under 8767
this section is required by the employee's responsible 8768
administrative authority to work on the day observed as a holiday, 8769
the employee shall be entitled to pay for such time worked at one 8770
and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay in addition 8771
to the employee's regular pay, or to be granted compensatory time 8772
off at time and one-half thereafter, at the employee's option. 8773
Payment at such rate shall be excluded in the calculation of hours 8774
in active pay status.8775

       (C) Each appointing authority may designate the number of 8776
employees in an agency who are flexible-hours employees. The 8777
appointing authority may establish for each flexible-hours 8778
employee a specified minimum number of hours to be worked each day 8779
that is consistent with the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 8780
1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended.8781

       (D) This section shall be uniformly administered for 8782
employees as defined in section 124.01 of the Revised Code and by 8783
the personnel departments of state-supported colleges and 8784
universities for employees of state-supported colleges and 8785
universities. If employees are not paid directly by warrant of the 8786
director of budget and management, the political subdivision shall 8787
determine whether the use of sick leave shall be considered to be 8788
active pay status for purposes of those employees earning overtime 8789
or compensatory time.8790

       (E) Policies relating to the payment of overtime pay or the 8791
granting of compensatory time off shall be adopted by the chief 8792
administrative officer of the house of representatives for 8793
employees of the house of representatives, by the clerk of the 8794
senate for employees of the senate, and by the director of the 8795
legislative service commission for all other legislative 8796
employees.8797

       (F) As used in this section, "regular rate of pay" means the 8798
base rate of pay an employee receives plus any pay supplements 8799
received pursuant to section 124.181 of the Revised Code.8800

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) Classified positions in the civil service 8801
may be filled without competition as follows:8802

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 8803
in any position in the classified civil service and the director 8804
of administrative services is unable to certify to the appointing 8805
authority, upon its request, a list of persons eligible for 8806
appointment to the position after a competitive examination, the 8807
appointing authority may fill the position by noncompetitive 8808
examination.8809

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 8810
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 8811
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 8812
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 8813
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 8814
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 8815
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 8816
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 8817
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 8818
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 8819
director.8820

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 8821
civil service where peculiar and exceptional qualifications of a 8822
scientific, managerial, professional, or educational character are 8823
required, and upon satisfactory evidence that for specified 8824
reasons competition in this special case is impracticable and that 8825
the position can best be filled by a selection of some designated 8826
person of high and recognized attainments in those qualities, the 8827
director may suspend the provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 8828
of the Revised Code that require competition in this special case, 8829
but no suspension shall be general in its application. All such 8830
cases of suspension shall be reported in the annual report of the 8831
director with the reasons for each suspension. The director shall 8832
suspend the provisions when theeither of the following applies:8833

       (a) The director of job and family services provides the 8834
certification under section 5101.051 of the Revised Code that a 8835
position with the department of job and family services can best 8836
be filled if the provisions are suspended;8837

       (b) The medicaid director provides the certification under 8838
section 5160.051 of the Revised Code that a position with the 8839
department of medicaid can best be filled if the provisions are 8840
suspended.8841

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 8842
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 8843
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 8844
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 8845
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.8846

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 8847
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 8848
the pleasure of their appointing authority.8849

       Sec. 124.341.  (A) If an employee in the classified or 8850
unclassified civil service becomes aware in the course of 8851
employment of a violation of state or federal statutes, rules, or 8852
regulations or the misuse of public resources, and the employee's 8853
supervisor or appointing authority has authority to correct the 8854
violation or misuse, the employee may file a written report 8855
identifying the violation or misuse with the supervisor or 8856
appointing authority. In addition to or instead of filing a 8857
written report with the supervisor or appointing authority, the 8858
employee may file a written report with the office of internal 8859
auditingaudit created under section 126.45 of the Revised Code or 8860
file a complaint with the auditor of state's fraud-reporting 8861
system under section 117.103 of the Revised Code.8862

       If the employee reasonably believes that a violation or 8863
misuse of public resources is a criminal offense, the employee, in 8864
addition to or instead of filing a written report or complaint 8865
with the supervisor, appointing authority, the office of internal 8866
auditingaudit, or the auditor of state's fraud-reporting system, 8867
may report it to a prosecuting attorney, director of law, village 8868
solicitor, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 8869
corporation, to a peace officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of 8870
the Revised Code, or, if the violation or misuse of public 8871
resources is within the jurisdiction of the inspector general, to 8872
the inspector general in accordance with section 121.46 of the 8873
Revised Code. In addition to that report, if the employee 8874
reasonably believes the violation or misuse is also a violation of 8875
Chapter 102., section 2921.42, or section 2921.43 of the Revised 8876
Code, the employee may report it to the appropriate ethics 8877
commission.8878

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 8879
section, no officer or employee in the classified or unclassified 8880
civil service shall take any disciplinary action against an 8881
employee in the classified or unclassified civil service for 8882
making any report or filing a complaint as authorized by division 8883
(A) of this section, including, without limitation, doing any of 8884
the following:8885

       (1) Removing or suspending the employee from employment;8886

       (2) Withholding from the employee salary increases or 8887
employee benefits to which the employee is otherwise entitled;8888

       (3) Transferring or reassigning the employee;8889

       (4) Denying the employee promotion that otherwise would have 8890
been received;8891

       (5) Reducing the employee in pay or position.8892

       (C) An employee in the classified or unclassified civil 8893
service shall make a reasonable effort to determine the accuracy 8894
of any information reported under division (A) of this section. 8895
The employee is subject to disciplinary action, including 8896
suspension or removal, as determined by the employee's appointing 8897
authority, for purposely, knowingly, or recklessly reporting false 8898
information under division (A) of this section.8899

       (D) If an appointing authority takes any disciplinary or 8900
retaliatory action against a classified or unclassified employee 8901
as a result of the employee's having filed a report or complaint 8902
under division (A) of this section, the employee's sole and 8903
exclusive remedy, notwithstanding any other provision of law, is 8904
to file an appeal with the state personnel board of review within 8905
thirty days after receiving actual notice of the appointing 8906
authority's action. If the employee files such an appeal, the 8907
board shall immediately notify the employee's appointing authority 8908
and shall hear the appeal. The board may affirm or disaffirm the 8909
action of the appointing authority or may issue any other order as 8910
is appropriate. The order of the board is appealable in accordance 8911
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.8912

       (E) As used in this section:8913

       (1) "Purposely," "knowingly," and "recklessly" have the same 8914
meanings as in section 2901.22 of the Revised Code.8915

       (2) "Appropriate ethics commission" has the same meaning as 8916
in section 102.01 of the Revised Code.8917

       (3) "Inspector general" means the inspector general appointed 8918
under section 121.48 of the Revised Code.8919

       Sec. 124.381.  (A)(1)(a) An employee in the service of the 8920
state may be eligible to receive salary continuation not to exceed 8921
four hundred eighty hours at the employee's total rate of pay for 8922
absence as a result of injury incurred during the performance of, 8923
or arising out of, state employment. When an eligible employee's 8924
absence as a result of such an injury extends beyond four hundred 8925
eighty hours, the employee immediately becomes subject to sections 8926
124.382 and 124.385 of the Revised Code regarding sick leave and 8927
disability leave benefits.8928

       An employee is ineligible to receive salary continuation 8929
until the date of implementation is established in the rules 8930
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.8931

       (b) Employees of the secretary of state, auditor of state, 8932
treasurer of state, attorney general, supreme court, general 8933
assembly, or legislative service commission are not subject to 8934
division (A)(1)(a) of this section unless the relevant appointing 8935
authority notifies the director of administrative services in 8936
writing of the intent to have all of the appointing authority's 8937
employees participate in salary continuation. The relevant 8938
appointing authority also may discontinue salary continuation for 8939
all of its employees by providing written notice of the 8940
discontinuation to the director.8941

       Participation in salary continuation is subject to rules 8942
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.8943

        (2) Each employee of the department of rehabilitation and 8944
correction, the department of mental healthmental health and 8945
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 8946
the department of veterans services, or the Ohio schools for the 8947
deaf and blind, and each employee of the department of youth 8948
services as established in division (A) of section 124.14 of the 8949
Revised Code who sustains a qualifying physical condition 8950
inflicted by a ward of these agencies during the time the employee 8951
is lawfully carrying out the assigned duties of the employee's 8952
position shall be paid occupational injury leave at the employee's 8953
total rate of pay during the period the employee is disabled as a 8954
result of that qualifying physical condition, but in no case to 8955
exceed nine hundred sixty hours, in lieu of workers' compensation. 8956
Pay made according to this division shall not be charged to the 8957
employee's accumulation of sick leave credit. In any case when an 8958
employee's disability as a result of such a qualifying physical 8959
condition extends beyond nine hundred sixty hours, the employee 8960
immediately becomes subject to sections 124.382 and 124.385 of the 8961
Revised Code regarding sick leave and disability leave benefits.8962

        (B) An employee who is receiving salary continuation or 8963
occupational injury leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this 8964
section is not eligible for other paid leave, including holiday 8965
pay, while receiving benefits under either division. While an 8966
employee is receiving salary continuation or occupational injury 8967
leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, vacation leave 8968
credit ceases to accrue to the employee under section 124.134 of 8969
the Revised Code, but sick leave credit and personal leave credit 8970
continue to accrue to the employee under sections 124.382 and 8971
124.386 of the Revised Code.8972

       (C)(1) The director of administrative services shall adopt 8973
rules for the administration of both the salary continuation 8974
program and the occupational injury leave program. The rules shall 8975
include, but not be limited to, provisions for determining a 8976
disability, for filing a claim for leave under this section, and 8977
for allowing or denying claims for the leave.8978

       (2) The director also may adopt rules for the payment of 8979
health benefits while an employee is on workers' compensation 8980
leave.8981

       (D) An appointing authority may apply to the director of 8982
administrative services to grant salary continuation under 8983
division (A)(1) of this section or occupational injury leave under 8984
division (A)(2) of this section to law enforcement personnel 8985
employed by the agency.8986

       Sec. 124.57.  (A) No officer or employee in the classified 8987
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 8988
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 8989
the state shall directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, 8990
solicit or receive, or be in any manner concerned in soliciting or 8991
receiving, any assessment, subscription, or contribution for any 8992
political party or for any candidate for public office; nor shall 8993
any person solicit directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, or 8994
be in any manner concerned in soliciting, any such assessment, 8995
contribution, or payment from any officer or employee in the 8996
classified service of the state, the several counties, cities, or 8997
city school districts of the state, or the civil service townships 8998
of the state; nor shall any officer or employee in the classified 8999
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 9000
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 9001
the state be an officer in any political organization or take part 9002
in politics other than to vote as the officer or employee pleases 9003
and to express freely political opinions.9004

       (B)(1) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 9005
officer or employee described in that division from serving as a 9006
precinct election official under section 3501.22 of the Revised 9007
Code.9008

       (2) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 9009
employee of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service whose 9010
position is transferred from the unclassified civil service to the 9011
classified civil service and who also holds the office of 9012
president of a city legislative authority from completing the 9013
existing term of office as president.9014

       Sec. 125.05.  Except as provided in division (F) of this 9015
section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or services 9016
except as provided in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.9017

       (A) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 9018
may, without competitive selection, make any purchase of supplies 9019
or services that cost twenty-five thousand dollars or less. The 9020
agency may make the purchase directly or may make the purchase 9021
from or through the department of administrative services, 9022
whichever the agency determines. The agency shall adopt written 9023
procedures consistent with the department's purchasing procedures 9024
and shall use those procedures when making purchases under this 9025
division.9026

       (B) Subject to division (E) of this section and in accordance 9027
with section 125.051 of the Revised Code, a state agency may make 9028
purchases of supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five 9029
thousand dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars if the 9030
purchases are made under the direction of an employee of the 9031
agency who is certified by the department to make purchases and if 9032
the purchases comply with the department's purchasing procedures. 9033
Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to purchases 9034
made under this division. Until the certification effective date 9035
established by the department in rules adopted under section 9036
125.051 of the Revised Code, state agencies may make purchases of 9037
supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five thousand 9038
dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars in the same manner as 9039
provided in division (A) of this section.9040

       (C) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 9041
wanting to purchase supplies or services that cost more than 9042
twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by 9043
law, make the purchase from or through the department. The 9044
department shall make the purchase by competitive selection. If 9045
the director of administrative services determines that it is not 9046
possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to 9047
make the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release 9048
and permit under section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the 9049
purchase. Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to 9050
purchases the department makes under this section.9051

       (D) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to 9052
make a purchase may make the purchase without competitive 9053
selection if after making the purchase the cumulative purchase 9054
threshold as computed under division (E) of section 127.16 of the 9055
Revised Code would:9056

       (1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the 9057
purchase;9058

       (2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative 9059
services approves the purchase.9060

       (E) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 9061
even-numbered year, the directors of administrative services and 9062
budget and management shall review and recommend to the general 9063
assembly, if necessary, adjustments to the amounts specified in 9064
divisions (A) to (C) of this section and division (B) of section 9065
127.16 of the Revised Code.9066

       (F) If the eTech Ohio commission, the department of 9067
education, or the Ohio education computer network determines that 9068
it can purchase software services or supplies for specified school 9069
districts at a price less than the price for which the districts 9070
could purchase the same software services or supplies for 9071
themselves, the commission, department, or network shall certify 9072
that fact to the department of administrative services and, acting 9073
as an agent for the specified school districts, shall make that 9074
purchase without following the provisions in divisions (A) to (D) 9075
of this section.9076

       Sec. 125.21.  The director of administrative services shall 9077
process payroll information for the purpose of payment for 9078
personal services of state officials and employees on the basis of 9079
rates of pay determined by pertinent law, the director, or other 9080
competent authority.9081

       Calculation of payrolls may be made after the conclusion of 9082
each pay period based upon the amount of time served as certified 9083
by the appropriate appointing authority. Payment for personal 9084
service rendered by an official or employee during any pay period 9085
shall be made no later than at the conclusion of the official's or 9086
employee's next succeeding pay period.9087

       The director of administrative services shall furnish to the 9088
director of budget and management all necessary data for drawing 9089
state official and employee pay warrants and preparing earning 9090
statements. These data shall include the rate at which paid; the 9091
time for which paid, including overtime and any other adjustments 9092
affecting the official's or employee's gross pay; all taxes 9093
withheld, including, whenever practicable, year-to-date figures on 9094
all taxes withheld; the amount of contribution to the appropriate 9095
retirement system; any voluntary deductions made in accordance 9096
with authorizations filed by the official or employee; and whether 9097
a direct deposit is to be made in accordance with an authorization 9098
filed by the official or employee.9099

       Amounts deducted from the salaries or wages of all officials 9100
and employees shall be transferred to the payroll withholding9101
deduction fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for 9102
the purpose of consolidating all such deductions made in any 9103
month. Payments from this fund shall be made at intervals for the 9104
intended purpose of the deduction or for refund where it is 9105
determined that deductions were made in error.9106

       Sec. 125.212.  The life insurance investment fund is hereby 9107
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of amounts 9108
from the payroll withholding fund created by section 125.21 of 9109
the Revised Codestate agencies, life insurance premium refunds 9110
received by the state, and other receipts related to the state's 9111
life insurance benefit program. The fund shall be used to pay the 9112
costs of the state's life insurance benefit program. All 9113
investment earnings of the life insurance investment fund shall be 9114
credited to the fund.9115

       Sec. 125.27. (A) There is hereby created in the state 9116
treasury the building improvement fund. The fund shall retain the 9117
interest earned.9118

       (B) The fund shall consist of any payments made by intrastate 9119
transfer voucher from the appropriation item for office building 9120
operating payments.9121

       (C) The fund shall be used for major maintenance or 9122
improvements required in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche 9123
state office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. 9124
Ocasek government office building, and Vern Riffe center for 9125
government and the arts.9126

       Sec. 125.28. (A)(1) Each state agency that is supported in 9127
whole or in part by nongeneral revenue fund money and that 9128
occupies space in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche state 9129
office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. Ocasek 9130
government office building, Vern Riffe center for government and 9131
the arts, capitol square, or governor's mansion shall reimburse 9132
the general revenue fund for the cost of occupying the space in 9133
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 9134
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 9135
occupied by the state agency in the facility.9136

       (2) All agencies that occupy space in the old blind school or 9137
that occupy warehouse space in the general services facility shall 9138
reimburse the department of administrative services for the cost 9139
of occupying the space. The director of administrative services 9140
shall determine the amount of debt service, if any, to be charged 9141
to building tenants and shall collect reimbursements for it.9142

       (3) Each agency that is supported in whole or in part by 9143
nongeneral revenue fund money and that occupies space in any other 9144
facility or facilities owned and maintained by the department of 9145
administrative services or space in the general services facility 9146
other than warehouse space shall reimburse the department for the 9147
cost of occupying the space, including debt service, if any, in 9148
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 9149
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 9150
occupied by the state agency in the facility.9151

       (B) The director of administrative services may provide 9152
building maintenance services and skilled tradesminor 9153
construction project management services to any state agency 9154
occupying space in a facility that is not owned by the department 9155
of administrative services and may collect reimbursements for the 9156
cost of providing those services.9157

       (C) All money collected by the department of administrative 9158
services for operating expenses of facilities owned or maintained 9159
by the department shall be deposited into the state treasury to 9160
the credit of the building management fund, which is hereby 9161
created, or to the credit of the building operation fund, which is 9162
hereby created. All money collected by the department for skilled 9163
tradesminor construction project management services shall be 9164
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the skilled 9165
tradesminor construction project management fund, which is hereby 9166
created. All money collected for debt service shall be deposited 9167
into the general revenue fund.9168

       (D) The director of administrative services shall determine 9169
the reimbursable cost of space in state-owned or state-leased 9170
facilities and shall collect reimbursements for that cost.9171

       Sec. 125.602. (A) The department of developmental 9172
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 9173
addiction services, the department of job and family services, the 9174
rehabilitation services commission, and any other state or 9175
governmental agency or community rehabilitation program 9176
responsible for the provision of rehabilitation and vocational 9177
educational services to persons with work-limiting disabilities 9178
may, through written agreement, cooperate in providing resources 9179
to the department of administrative services for the operation of 9180
the office of procurement from community rehabilitation programs. 9181
These resources may include, but are not limited to, leadership 9182
and assistance in dealing with the societal aspects of meeting the 9183
needs of persons with work-limiting disabilities.9184

       (B) The office and all governmental entities that administer 9185
socioeconomic programs may enter into contractual agreements, 9186
cooperative working relationships, or other arrangements that are 9187
necessary for effective coordination and realization of the 9188
objectives of these entities.9189

       Sec. 125.603. (A) The office of procurement from community 9190
rehabilitation programs shall do the following in addition to 9191
other duties specified in sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of the 9192
Revised Code:9193

       (1) Establish, maintain, and periodically update a 9194
procurement list of approved supplies and services available from 9195
qualified nonprofit agencies;9196

       (2) Monitor the procurement practices of government ordering 9197
offices to ensure compliance with sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of 9198
the Revised Code;9199

       (3) In cooperation with qualified nonprofit agencies, 9200
government ordering offices, the department of developmental 9201
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 9202
addiction services, the department of job and family services, and 9203
the rehabilitation services commission, develop and recommend to 9204
the director of administrative services rules the director shall 9205
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 9206
effective and efficient administration of sections 125.60 to 9207
125.6012 of the Revised Code;9208

       (4) Prepare a report of its activities by the last day of 9209
December of each year. The report shall be posted electronically 9210
on the office's web site.9211

       (B) The office of procurement from community rehabilitation 9212
programs may enter into contractual agreements and establish pilot 9213
programs to further the objectives of sections 125.60 to 125.6012 9214
of the Revised Code.9215

       Sec. 125.832. (A) The department of administrative services 9216
is granted exclusive authority over the acquisition and management 9217
of all motor vehicles used by state agencies. In carrying out this 9218
authority, the department shall do both of the following:9219

       (1) Approve the purchase or lease of each motor vehicle for 9220
use by a state agency. The department shall decide if a motor 9221
vehicle shall be leased or purchased for that use.9222

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of this 9223
section, on and after July 1, 2005, each state agency shall 9224
acquire all passenger motor vehicles under the department's master 9225
leasing program. If the department determines that acquisition 9226
under that program is not the most economical method and if the 9227
department and the state agency acquiring the passenger motor 9228
vehicle can provide economic justification for doing so, the 9229
department may approve the purchase, rather than the lease, of a 9230
passenger motor vehicle for the acquiring state agency.9231

       (2) Direct and approve all funds that are expended for the 9232
purchase, lease, repair, maintenance, registration, insuring, and 9233
other costs related to the possession and operation of motor 9234
vehicles for the use of state agencies.9235

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish 9236
and operate a fleet management program. The director shall operate 9237
the program for purposes including, but not limited to, 9238
cost-effective acquisition, maintenance, management, analysis, and 9239
disposal of all motor vehicles owned or leased by the state. All 9240
state agencies shall comply with statewide fleet management 9241
policies and procedures established by the director for the 9242
program, including, but not limited to, motor vehicle assignments, 9243
additions of motor vehicles to fleets or motor vehicle 9244
replacements, motor vehicle fueling, and motor vehicle repairs.9245

       (C) The director shall establish and maintain a fleet 9246
reporting system and shall require state agencies to submit to the 9247
department information relative to state motor vehicles, including 9248
motor vehicles described in division (G)(2) of section 125.831 of 9249
the Revised Code, to be used in operating the fleet management 9250
program. State agencies shall provide to the department fleet data 9251
and other information, including, but not limited to, mileage and 9252
costs. The data and other information shall be submitted in 9253
formats and in a manner determined by the department.9254

       (D) All state agency purchases or leases of motor vehicles 9255
are subject to the prior approval of the director under division 9256
(A)(1) of this section.9257

       (E) State agencies that utilize state motor vehicles or pay 9258
mileage reimbursements to employees shall provide a fleet plan to 9259
the department as directed by the department.9260

       (F)(1) The fleets of state agencies that consist of one 9261
hundred or less vehicles on July 1, 2004, shall be managed by the 9262
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 9263
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 9264
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.9265

       (2) The fleets of state agencies that consist of greater than 9266
one hundred motor vehicles, but less than five hundred motor 9267
vehicles, on July 1, 2005, also shall be managed by the 9268
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 9269
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 9270
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.9271

       (G)(1) The department may delegate any or all of its duties 9272
regarding fleet management to a state agency, if the state agency 9273
demonstrates to the satisfaction of the department both of the 9274
following:9275

       (a) Capabilities to institute and manage a fleet management 9276
program, including, but not limited to, the presence of a 9277
certified fleet manager;9278

       (b) Fleet management performance, as demonstrated by fleet 9279
data and other information submitted pursuant to annual reporting 9280
requirements and any other criteria the department considers 9281
necessary in evaluating the performance.9282

       (2) The department may determine that a state agency is not 9283
in compliance with this section and direct that the agency's fleet 9284
management duties be transferred to the department.9285

       (H) The proceeds derived from the disposition of any motor 9286
vehicles under this section shall be paid to whichever of the 9287
following applies:9288

       (1) The fund that originally provided moneys for the purchase 9289
or lease of the motor vehicles;9290

       (2) If the motor vehicles were originally purchased with 9291
moneys derived from the general revenue fund, the proceeds shall 9292
be deposited, in the director's discretion, into the state 9293
treasury to the credit of either the fleet management fund created 9294
by section 125.83 of the Revised Code or the investment recovery 9295
fund created by section 125.14 of the Revised Code.9296

       (I)(1) The department shall create and maintain a certified 9297
fleet manager program.9298

       (2) State agencies that have received delegated authority as 9299
described in division (G) of this section shall have a certified 9300
fleet manager.9301

       (J) The department annually shall prepare and submit a 9302
statewide fleet report to the governor, the speaker of the house 9303
of representatives, and the president of the senate. The report 9304
shall be submitted not later than the thirty-first day of January 9305
following the end of each fiscal year. It may include, but is not 9306
limited to, the numbers and types of motor vehicles, their 9307
mileage, miles per gallon, and cost per mile, mileage 9308
reimbursements, accident and insurance data, and information 9309
regarding compliance by state agencies having delegated authority 9310
under division (G) of this section with applicable fleet 9311
management requirements.9312

       (K) The director shall adopt rules for implementing the fleet 9313
management program that are consistent with recognized best 9314
practices. The program shall be supported by reasonable fee 9315
charges for the services provided. The director shall collect 9316
these fees and deposit them into the state treasury to the credit 9317
for the fleet management fund created by section 125.83 of the 9318
Revised Code. The setting and collection of fees under this 9319
division is not subject to any restriction imposed by law upon the 9320
director's or the department's authority to set or collect fees.9321

       (L) The director also shall adopt rules that prohibit, except 9322
in very limited circumstances, the exclusive assignment of 9323
state-owned, leased, or pooled motor vehicles to state employees 9324
and that prohibit the reimbursement under section 126.31 of the 9325
Revised Code of state employees who use their own motor vehicles 9326
for any mileage they incur above an amount that the department 9327
shall determine annually unless reimbursement for the excess 9328
mileage is approved by the department in accordance with standards 9329
for that approval the director shall establish in those rules. 9330
Beginning on September 26, 2003, no state-owned, leased, or pooled 9331
motor vehicle shall be personally assigned as any form of 9332
compensation or benefit of state employment, and no state-owned, 9333
leased, or pooled motor vehicle shall be assigned to an employee 9334
solely for commuting to and from home and work.9335

       (M) The director shall do both of the following:9336

       (1) Implement to the greatest extent possible the 9337
recommendations from the 2002 report entitled "Administrative 9338
Analysis of the Ohio Fleet Management Program" in connection with 9339
the authority granted to the department by this section;9340

       (2) Attempt to reduce the number of passenger vehicles used 9341
by state agencies during the fiscal years ending on June 30, 2004, 9342
and June 30, 2005.9343

       (N) Each state agency shall reimburse the department for all 9344
costs incurred in the assignment of motor vehicles to the state 9345
agency.9346

       (O) The director shall do all of the following in managing 9347
the fleet management program:9348

       (1) Determine how motor vehicles will be maintained, insured, 9349
operated, financed, and licensed;9350

       (2) Pursuant to the formula in division (O)(3) of this 9351
section, annually establish the minimum number of business miles 9352
per year an employee of a state agency must drive in order to 9353
qualify for approval by the department to receive a motor vehicle 9354
for business use;9355

       (3) Establish the minimum number of business miles per year 9356
at an amount that results when the annual motor vehicle cost is 9357
divided by the amount that is the reimbursement rate per mile 9358
minus the amount that is the sum of the fuel cost, the operating 9359
cost, and the insurance cost. As used in this division:9360

       (a) "Annual motor vehicle cost" means the price of a motor 9361
vehicle divided by the number of years an average motor vehicle is 9362
used.9363

       (b) "Fuel cost" means the average price per gallon of motor 9364
fuel divided by the miles per gallon fuel efficiency of a motor 9365
vehicle.9366

       (c) "Insurance cost" means the cost of insuring a motor 9367
vehicle per year divided by the number of miles an average motor 9368
vehicle is driven per year.9369

       (d) "Operating cost" means the maintenance cost of a motor 9370
vehicle per year divided by the product resulting when the number 9371
of miles an average motor vehicle is driven per year is multiplied 9372
by the number of years an average motor vehicle is used.9373

       (e) "Reimbursement rate per mile" means the reimbursement per 9374
mile rate for travel expenses as provided by rule of the director 9375
of budget and management adopted under division (B) of section 9376
126.31 of the Revised Code.9377

       (P)(1) Not later than the fifteenth day of September of each 9378
year, each state institution of higher education shall report to 9379
the department on all of the following topics relating to motor 9380
vehicles that the institution acquires and manages:9381

       (a) The methods it uses to track the motor vehicles;9382

       (b) Whether or not it uses a fuel card program to purchase 9383
fuel for, or to pay for the maintenance of, the motor vehicles;9384

       (c) Whether or not it makes bulk purchases of fuel for the 9385
motor vehicles.9386

       (2) Assuming it does not use the fleet management tracking, 9387
fuel card program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that 9388
the department provides, the report of a state institution of 9389
higher education required by division (P)(1) of this section also 9390
shall include both of the following:9391

       (a) An analysis of the amount the institution would save, if 9392
any, if it were to use the fleet management tracking, fuel card 9393
program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that the 9394
department provides instead of the fleet management system the 9395
institution regularly uses;9396

       (b) A rationale for either continuing with the fleet 9397
management system that the institution regularly uses or changing 9398
to the use of those tools and services that the department 9399
provides.9400

       (3) The department shall certify within ninety days after 9401
receipt of all reports under division (P)(1) of this section a 9402
list of those state institutions of higher education that the 9403
department determines would save amounts if they were to use the 9404
fleet management tracking, fuel card program, and bulk fuel 9405
purchases tools and services that the department provides. The 9406
institutions so certified then shall use those tools and services 9407
that the department provides until the department next certifies 9408
institutions under division (P)(3) of this section.9409

       Sec. 125.836.  (A) As used in this section:9410

       (1) "Biodiesel," "blended biodiesel," and "diesel fuel" have 9411
the same meanings as in section 125.831 of the Revised Code.9412

       (2) "Credit" means a credit generated by the acquisition of 9413
alternative fueled vehicles in accordance with the "Energy Policy 9414
Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 2897, 42 U.S.C. 13257.9415

       (3) "Incremental cost" means the difference in cost between 9416
blended biodiesel and conventional petroleum-based diesel fuel at 9417
the time the blended biodiesel is purchased.9418

       (B) The department of administrative services shall establish 9419
and administer a credit banking and selling program. The 9420
department may sell or trade credits in accordance with procedures 9421
established pursuant to the "Energy Policy Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 9422
2897, 42 U.S.C. 13258.9423

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 9424
"biodiesel revolving fund," to which shall be credited moneys 9425
received from the sale of credits under this section, any moneys 9426
appropriated to the fund by the general assembly, and any other 9427
moneys obtained or accepted by the departmentdevelopment services 9428
agency for crediting to the fund. Moneys credited to the fund 9429
shall be used to pay for the incremental cost of biodiesel for use 9430
in vehicles owned or leased by the state that use diesel fuel. The 9431
director of administrative services, after consultation with the 9432
director of development,services may direct the director of 9433
budget and management to transfer available moneys in the 9434
biodiesel revolving fund to the alternative fuel transportation 9435
fund created in section 122.075 of the Revised Code to be used by 9436
the department of development services agency for the purposes 9437
specified in that section.9438

        (D) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 9439
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are necessary for the 9440
administration of the credit banking and selling program. 9441

       Sec. 126.07.  Except as provided in division (B) of section 9442
126.21 of the Revised Code, no contract, agreement, or obligation 9443
involving the expenditure of money chargeable to an appropriation, 9444
nor any resolution or order for the expenditure of money 9445
chargeable to an appropriation, shall be valid and enforceable 9446
unless the director of budget and management first certifies that 9447
there is a balance in the appropriation not already obligated to 9448
pay existing obligations, in an amount at least equal to the 9449
portion of the contract, agreement, obligation, resolution, or 9450
order to be performed in the current fiscal year. Any written 9451
contract or agreement entered into by the state shall contain a 9452
clause stating that the obligations of the state are subject to 9453
this section.9454

       The chief administrative officer of a state agency is 9455
responsible for the preaudit and approval of expenditures and 9456
other transactions of the agency. In order to initiate the making 9457
of a payment from the state treasury, the person in a state agency 9458
who requests that the payment be made shall first submit to the 9459
chief administrative officer of the agency all invoices, claims, 9460
vouchers, and other documentation related to the payment. The 9461
chief administrative officer shall examine each voucher and all 9462
other documentation required to support the voucher and determine 9463
whether they meet all the requirements established by the director 9464
of budget and management for making the payment. If they do meet 9465
those requirements, the chief administrative officer shall certify 9466
to the director the approval of the chief administrative officer 9467
for payment.9468

        Prior to drawing a warrant or processing an electronic funds 9469
transfer as provided in section 126.35 of the Revised Code, the 9470
director may review and audit the voucher, any documentation 9471
accompanying the voucher, and any other documentation related to 9472
the transaction that the director may require to determine if the 9473
transaction is in accordance with law. The director shall not 9474
approve payment to be made if the director finds that there is not 9475
an unobligated balance in the appropriation for the payment, that 9476
the payment is not for a valid claim against the state that is 9477
legally due, or that insufficient documentation has been 9478
submitted. If the director does not approve payment, the director 9479
shall notify the agency of the reasons the director has not given 9480
approval.9481

       In approving payments to be made under this section, the 9482
director, upon receipt of certification from the director of job 9483
and family services pursuant to section 4141.231 of the Revised 9484
Code, shall withhold from amounts otherwise payable to a person 9485
who is the subject of the director of jobs and family services' 9486
certification, the amount certified to be due and unpaid to the 9487
director of job and family services, and shall approve for payment 9488
to the director of job and family services, the amount withheld.9489

       As used in this section and in section 126.21 of the Revised 9490
Code, "chief administrative officer" means either of the 9491
following:9492

       (A) The director of the agency or, in the case of a state 9493
agency without a director, the equivalent officer of that agency;9494

       (B) The designee of the chief administrative officer for the 9495
purposes of such sections.9496

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 9497
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 9498
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 9499
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 9500
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 9501
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 9502
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 9503
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 9504
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 9505
public exigency declared to exist by the executive director of 9506
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 9507
commission under section 123.10 of the Revised Code, or by the 9508
executive director of the Ohio facilities construction commission 9509
under section 123.23 of the Revised Code, in the amount designated 9510
in that declaration.9511

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 9512
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 9513
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 9514
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 9515
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 9516
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 9517
or the higher education improvement taxable fund created in 9518
section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining which 9519
projects are general and which are specific, the director shall 9520
submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 9521
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 9522
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 9523
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 9524
from the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 9525
improvement taxable fund but that are not included on the list, 9526
and the release of money for any specific higher education 9527
projects included on the list that will exceed the estimated 9528
expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject to the 9529
approval of the controlling board. 9530

       The director may create new appropriation items and make 9531
transfers of appropriations to them for specific higher education 9532
projects included on the list that are to be funded from general 9533
purpose appropriations for basic renovations that are made from 9534
the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 9535
improvement taxable fund.9536

       Sec. 126.32.  (A) Any officer of any state agency may 9537
authorize reimbursement for travel, including the costs of 9538
transportation, for lodging, and for meals to any person who is 9539
interviewing for a position that is classified in pay range 13 or 9540
above in schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only, or is 9541
classified in schedule E-2, of section 124.152 of the Revised 9542
Code.9543

       (B) If a person is appointed to a position listed in section 9544
121.03 of the Revised Code, to the position of chairperson of the 9545
industrial commission, adjutant general, chancellor of the Ohio 9546
board of regents, superintendent of public instruction, 9547
chairperson of the public utilities commission of Ohio, or 9548
director of the state lottery commission, to a position holding a 9549
fiduciary relationship to the governor, to a position of an 9550
appointing authority of the department of mental healthmental 9551
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, or 9552
rehabilitation and correction, to a position of superintendent in 9553
the department of youth services, or to a position under section 9554
122.05 of the Revised Code, and if that appointment requires a 9555
permanent change of residence, the appropriate state agency may 9556
reimburse the person for the person's actual and necessary 9557
expenses, including the cost of in-transit storage of household 9558
goods and personal effects, of moving the person and members of 9559
the person's immediate family residing in the person's household, 9560
and of moving their household goods and personal effects, to the 9561
person's new location.9562

       Until that person moves the person's permanent residence to 9563
the new location, but not for a period that exceeds thirty 9564
consecutive days, the state agency may reimburse the person for 9565
the person's temporary living expenses at the new location that 9566
the person has incurred on behalf of the person and members of the 9567
person's immediate family residing in the person's household. In 9568
addition, the state agency may reimburse that person for the 9569
person's travel expenses between the new location and the person's 9570
former residence during this period for a maximum number of trips 9571
specified by rule of the director of budget and management, but 9572
the state agency shall not reimburse the person for travel 9573
expenses incurred for those trips by members of the person's 9574
immediate family. With the prior written approval of the director, 9575
the maximum thirty-day period for temporary living expenses may be 9576
extended for a person appointed to a position under section 122.05 9577
of the Revised Code.9578

       The director of development services may reimburse a person 9579
appointed to a position under section 122.05 of the Revised Code 9580
for the person's actual and necessary expenses of moving the 9581
person and members of the person's immediate family residing in 9582
the person's household back to the United States and may reimburse 9583
a person appointed to such a position for the cost of storage of 9584
household goods and personal effects of the person and the 9585
person's immediate family while the person is serving outside the 9586
United States, if the person's office outside the United States is 9587
the person's primary job location.9588

       (C) All reimbursement under division (A) or (B) of this 9589
section shall be made in the manner, and at rates that do not 9590
exceed those, provided by rule of the director of budget and 9591
management in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 9592
Reimbursements may be made under division (B) of this section 9593
directly to the persons who incurred the expenses or directly to 9594
the providers of goods or services the persons receive, as 9595
determined by the director of budget and management.9596

       Sec. 126.35.  (A) The director of budget and management shall 9597
draw warrants or process electronic funds transfers against the 9598
treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for payment that the 9599
director has approved under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.9600

       (B) Unless a cash assistance payment is to be made by 9601
electronic benefit transfer, payment by the director of budget and 9602
management to a participant in the Ohio works first program 9603
pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, a recipient of 9604
disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115. of the 9605
Revised Code, or a recipient of cash assistance provided under the 9606
refugee assistance program established under section 5101.49 of 9607
the Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of 9608
the participant or recipient in the financial institution 9609
designated under section 329.03 of the Revised Code. Payment by 9610
the director of budget and management to a recipient of benefits 9611
distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer 9612
pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by 9613
electronic benefit transfer. Payment by the director of budget and 9614
management as compensation to an employee of the state who has, 9615
pursuant to section 124.151 of the Revised Code, designated a 9616
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 9617
payments shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the 9618
employee. Payment to any other payee who has designated a 9619
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 9620
payment may be made by direct deposit to the account of the payee 9621
in the financial institution as provided in section 9.37 of the 9622
Revised Code. Accounts maintained by the director of budget and 9623
management or the director's agent in a financial institution for 9624
the purpose of effectuating payment by direct deposit or 9625
electronic benefit transfer shall be maintained in accordance with 9626
section 135.18 of the Revised Code.9627

       (C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be made 9628
by paper warrants, electronic funds transfers, or by direct 9629
deposit payable to the respective payees. The director of budget 9630
and management may mail the paper warrants to the respective 9631
payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever 9632
the director determines to be the better procedure.9633

       (D) If the average per transaction cost the director of 9634
budget and management incurs in making direct deposits for a state 9635
agency exceeds the average per transaction cost the director 9636
incurs in drawing paper warrants for all public offices during the 9637
same period of time, the director may certify the difference in 9638
cost and the number of direct deposits for the agency to the 9639
director of administrative services. The director of 9640
administrative services shall reimburse the director of budget and 9641
management for such additional costs and add the amount to the 9642
processing charge assessed upon the state agency.9643

       Sec. 126.45.  (A) As used in sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 9644
Revised Code, "state agency" means the administrative departments 9645
listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, the department of 9646
taxation, the bureau of workers' compensation, and the Ohio board 9647
of regents, the rehabilitation services commission, the public 9648
utilities commission of Ohio, the adjutant general, and the state 9649
lottery commission.9650

       (B) The office of internal auditingaudit is hereby created 9651
in the office of budget and management to conductdirect internal 9652
audits of state agencies or divisions of state agencies to improve 9653
their operations in the areas of risk management, internal 9654
controls, and governance. The director of budget and management, 9655
with the approval of the governor, shall appoint for the office of 9656
internal auditingaudit a chief internal auditor who meets the 9657
qualifications specified in division (C)(E) of this section. The 9658
chief internal auditor shall serve at the director's pleasure and 9659
be responsible for the administration of the office of internal 9660
auditingaudit consistent with sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 9661
Revised Code.9662

       (C) The office of internal auditingaudit shall conduct 9663
programs for the internal auditing of state agencies. The programs 9664
shall include an annual internal audit plan, reviewed by the state 9665
audit committee, that utilizes risk assessment techniques and 9666
identifies the specific audits to be conducteddirected during the 9667
year. The programs also shall include periodic audits of each 9668
state agency's major systems and controls, including those systems 9669
and controls pertaining to accounting, administration, and 9670
electronic data processinginformation technology. Upon the 9671
request of the office of internal auditingaudit, each state 9672
agency shall provide office employees access to all records and 9673
documents necessary for the performance of an internal audit.9674

       The director of budget and management shall assess a charge 9675
against each state agency for which the office of internal 9676
auditingaudit conducts internal auditing programs under sections 9677
126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code so that the total amount of 9678
these charges is sufficient to cover the costs of the operation of 9679
the office of internal auditingaudit.9680

       (D) At the request of any other organized body, office, or 9681
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 9682
any function of state government that is not described in division 9683
(A) of this section, the office of internal audit may direct an 9684
internal audit of all or part of that body, office, or agency. The 9685
office of internal audit shall charge an amount sufficient to 9686
cover the costs it incurs in relation to the requested audit.9687

       (C)(E) The chief internal auditor of the office of internal 9688
auditingaudit shall hold at least a bachelor's degree and be one 9689
of the following:9690

       (1) A certified internal auditor, a certified government 9691
auditing professional, or a certified public accountant, who also 9692
has held a PA registration or a CPA certificate authorized by 9693
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at least four years and has 9694
at least six years of auditing experience; 9695

       (2) An auditor who has held a PA registration or a CPA 9696
certificate authorized by Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at 9697
least four years and has at least ten years of auditing 9698
experience.9699

       (D)(F) The chief internal auditor, subject to the direction 9700
and control of the director of budget and management, may appoint 9701
and maintain any staff necessary to carry out the duties assigned 9702
by sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code to the office of 9703
internal auditingaudit or to the chief internal auditor.9704

       Sec. 126.46.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the state audit 9705
committee, consisting of the following five members: one public 9706
member appointed by the governor; two public members appointed by 9707
the speaker of the house of representatives, one of which may be a 9708
person who is recommended by the minority leader of the house of 9709
representatives; and two public members appointed by the president 9710
of the senate, one of which may be a person who is recommended by 9711
the minority leader of the senate. Not more than two of the four 9712
members appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives 9713
and the president of the senate shall belong to or be affiliated 9714
with the same political party. The member appointed by the 9715
governor shall have the program and management expertise required 9716
to perform the duties of the committee's chairperson.9717

       Each member of the committee shall be external to the 9718
management structure of state government and shall serve a 9719
three-year term. Each term shall commence on the first day of July 9720
and end on the thirtieth day of June. Any member may continue in 9721
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 9722
until the member's successor takes office or until a period of 9723
ninety days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members may be 9724
reappointed to serve one additional term.9725

       On the effective date of the amendment of this section by 9726
H.B. 153 of the 129th general assemblySeptember 29, 2011, the 9727
terms of the members shall be altered as follows: 9728

       (a) The terms of the members appointed by the president shall 9729
expire on June 30, 2012.9730

        (b) The term of the member appointed by the speaker scheduled 9731
to expire on November 17, 2012, shall expire on June 30, 2013.9732

        (c) The term of the other member appointed by the speaker 9733
shall expire on June 30, 2014.9734

        (d) The term of the member appointed by the governor shall 9735
expire on June 30, 2014.9736

       The committee shall include at least one member who is a 9737
financial expert; at least one member who is an active, inactive, 9738
or retired certified public accountant; at least one member who is 9739
familiar with governmental financial accounting; at least one 9740
member who is familiar with information technology systems and 9741
services; and at least one member who is a representative of the 9742
public.9743

       Any vacancy on the committee shall be filled in the same 9744
manner as provided in this division, and, when applicable, the 9745
person appointed to fill a vacancy shall serve the remainder of 9746
the predecessor's term.9747

       (2) Members of the committee shall receive reimbursement for 9748
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their 9749
duties.9750

       (3) The member of the committee appointed by the governor 9751
shall serve as the committee's chairperson.9752

       (4) Members of the committee shall be subject to the 9753
disclosure statement requirements of section 102.02 of the Revised 9754
Code.9755

       (B) The state audit committee shall do all of the following:9756

       (1) Ensure thatEvaluate whether the internal audits 9757
conducteddirected by the office of internal auditingaudit in the 9758
office of budget and management conform to the institute of 9759
internal auditors' international standards for the professional 9760
practice ofpractices framework for internal auditing and to the 9761
institute of internal auditors' code of ethics;9762

       (2) Review and comment on the process used by the office of 9763
budget and management to prepare its annual budgetary financial 9764
report and the state's comprehensive annual financial report 9765
required under division (A)(9) of section 126.21 of the Revised 9766
Code; 9767

       (3) Review and comment on unaudited financial statements 9768
submitted to the auditor of state and communicate with external 9769
auditors as required by government auditing standards;9770

       (4) Perform the additional functions imposed upon it by 9771
section 126.47 of the Revised Code.9772

       (C) As used in this section, "financial expert" means a 9773
person who has all of the following:9774

        (1) An understanding of generally accepted accounting 9775
principles and financial statements;9776

        (2) The ability to assess the general application of those 9777
principles in connection with accounting for estimates, accruals, 9778
and reserves;9779

        (3) Experience preparing, auditing, analyzing, or evaluating 9780
financial statements presenting accounting issues that generally 9781
are of comparable breadth and level of complexity to those likely 9782
to be presented by a state agency's financial statements, or 9783
experience actively supervising one or more persons engaged in 9784
those activities;9785

        (4) An understanding of internal controls and procedures for 9786
financial reporting; and9787

        (5) An understanding of audit committee functions.9788

       Sec. 126.47.  (A) The state audit committee created by 9789
section 126.46 of the Revised Code shall ensure that the office of 9790
internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and management has 9791
an annual internal audit plan that identifies the internal audits 9792
of state agencies or divisions of state agencies scheduled for the 9793
next fiscal year. The chief internal auditor of the office of 9794
internal auditingaudit shall submit the plan to the state audit 9795
committee for review and comment before the beginning of each 9796
fiscal year. The chief internal auditor may submit a revised 9797
internal audit plan for review and comment at any time the 9798
director of budget and management believes there is reason to 9799
modify the previously submitted plan for a fiscal year.9800

       (B) To determine the state agencies or divisions of state 9801
agencies that are to be internally audited, the office of internal 9802
auditingaudit, in the formulation of an annual or revised 9803
internal audit plan, and the state audit committee, in reviewing a 9804
submitted annual or revised internal audit plan, shall consider 9805
the following factors:9806

       (1) The risk for fraud, waste, or abuse of public money 9807
within an agency or division;9808

       (2) The length of time since an agency or division was last 9809
subject to an internal audit;9810

       (3) The size of an agency or division, and the amount of time 9811
and resources necessary to audit it;9812

       (4) Any other factor the state audit committee determines to 9813
be relevant.9814

       (C) All internal audits shall be conducted onlydirected by 9815
employees of the office of internal auditingaudit.9816

       (D) After the conclusion of an internal audit, the chief 9817
internal auditor shall submit a preliminary report of the internal 9818
audit's findings and recommendations to the state audit committee 9819
and to the director of the state agency involved. The state agency 9820
or division of the state agency covered by the preliminary report 9821
shall be provided an opportunity to respond within thirty days 9822
after receipt of the preliminary report. The response shall 9823
include a corrective action plan for any recommendations in the 9824
preliminary report that are not disputed by the agency or 9825
division. Any response received by the office of internal auditing9826
audit within that thirty-day period shall be included in the 9827
office's final report of the internal audit's findings and 9828
recommendations. The final report shall be issued by the office of 9829
internal auditingaudit within thirty days after the termination 9830
of the thirty-day response period. Copies of the final report 9831
shall be submitted to the state audit committee, the governor, and 9832
the director of the state agency involved. The state audit 9833
committee shall determine an appropriate method for making the 9834
preliminary and final reports available for public inspection in a 9835
timely manner.9836

       Any suspected fraud or other illegal activity discovered by 9837
the office of internal auditingaudit during the conduct of an 9838
internal audit shall be reported immediately to the state audit 9839
committee, the director of the state agency in which the fraud or 9840
illegal activity is suspected to have occurred, and the auditor of 9841
state.9842

       (E) The chief internal auditor shall prepare an annual report 9843
and submit the report to the governor, the president of the 9844
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 9845
auditor of state. The office of budget and management shall make 9846
the report available to the public by posting it on the office's 9847
web site before the first of JulyAugust of each year.9848

       Sec. 126.48. Any(A) Except as provided in division (B) of 9849
this section, any preliminary or final report of an internal 9850
audit's findings and recommendations which is produced by the 9851
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 9852
management and all work papers of the internal audit are 9853
confidential and are not public records under section 149.43 of 9854
the Revised Code until the final report of an internal audit's 9855
findings and recommendations is submitted to the state audit 9856
committee, the governor, and the director of the state agency 9857
involved.9858

       (B) The following are not public records under section 149.43 9859
of the Revised Code:9860

        (1) An internal audit report that meets the definition of a 9861
security record under section 149.433 of the Revised Code;9862

        (2) Any information derived from a state tax return or state 9863
tax return information as permitted to be used by the office of 9864
internal audit under section 5703.21 of the Revised Code. 9865

       Sec. 127.14.  The controlling board may, at the request of 9866
any state agency or the director of budget and management, 9867
authorize, with respect to the provisions of any appropriation 9868
act:9869

       (A) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within but 9870
not between state agencies, except such transfers as the director 9871
of budget and management is authorized by law to make, provided 9872
that no transfer shall be made by the director for the purpose of 9873
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 9874
by the general assembly;9875

       (B) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation from one 9876
fiscal year to another;9877

       (C) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within or 9878
between state agencies made necessary by administrative 9879
reorganization or by the abolition of an agency or part of an 9880
agency;9881

       (D) Transfers of all or part of cash balances in excess of 9882
needs from any fund of the state to the general revenue fund or to 9883
such other fund of the state to which the money would have been 9884
credited in the absence of the fund from which the transfers are 9885
authorized to be made, except that the controlling board may not 9886
authorize such transfers from the accrued leave liability fund, 9887
auto registration distribution fund, local motor vehicle license 9888
tax fund, budget stabilization fund, building improvement fund,9889
development bond retirement fund, facilities establishment fund, 9890
gasoline excise tax fund, general revenue fund, higher education 9891
improvement fund, highway improvement bond retirement fund, 9892
highway obligations bond retirement fund, highway capital 9893
improvement fund, highway operating fund, horse racing tax fund, 9894
improvements bond retirement fund, public library fund, liquor 9895
control fund, local government fund, local transportation 9896
improvement program fund, mental health facilities improvement 9897
fund, Ohio fairs fund, parks and recreation improvement fund, 9898
public improvements bond retirement fund, school district income 9899
tax fund, state agency facilities improvement fund, state and 9900
local government highway distribution fund, state highway safety 9901
fund, state lottery fund, undivided liquor permit fund, Vietnam 9902
conflict compensation bond retirement fund, volunteer fire 9903
fighters' dependents fund, waterways safety fund, wildlife fund, 9904
workers' compensation fund, or any fund not specified in this 9905
division that the director of budget and management determines to 9906
be a bond fund or bond retirement fund;9907

       (E) Transfers of all or part of those appropriations included 9908
in the emergency purposes account of the controlling board;9909

       (F) Temporary transfers of all or part of an appropriation or 9910
other moneys into and between existing funds, or new funds, as may 9911
be established by law when needed for capital outlays for which 9912
notes or bonds will be issued;9913

       (G) Transfer or release of all or part of an appropriation to 9914
a state agency requiring controlling board approval of such 9915
transfer or release as provided by law;9916

       (H) Temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency 9917
purposes appropriation of the controlling board. Such temporary 9918
transfers may be made subject to conditions specified by the 9919
controlling board at the time temporary transfers are authorized. 9920
No transfers shall be made under this division for the purpose of 9921
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 9922
by the general assembly.9923

       As used in this section, "request" means an application by a 9924
state agency or the director of budget and management seeking some 9925
action by the controlling board.9926

       When authorizing the transfer of all or part of an 9927
appropriation under this section, the controlling board may 9928
authorize the transfer to an existing appropriation item and the 9929
creation of and transfer to a new appropriation item.9930

       Whenever there is a transfer of all or part of funds included 9931
in the emergency purposes appropriation by the controlling board, 9932
pursuant to division (E) of this section, the state agency or the 9933
director of budget and management receiving such transfer shall 9934
keep a detailed record of the use of the transferred funds. At the 9935
earliest scheduled meeting of the controlling board following the 9936
accomplishment of the purposes specified in the request originally 9937
seeking the transfer, or following the total expenditure of the 9938
transferred funds for the specified purposes, the state agency or 9939
the director of budget and management shall submit a report on the 9940
expenditure of such funds to the board. The portion of any 9941
appropriation so transferred which is not required to accomplish 9942
the purposes designated in the original request to the controlling 9943
board shall be returned to the proper appropriation of the 9944
controlling board at this time.9945

       Notwithstanding any provisions of law providing for the 9946
deposit of revenues received by a state agency to the credit of a 9947
particular fund in the state treasury, whenever there is a 9948
temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency purposes 9949
appropriation of the controlling board pursuant to division (H) of 9950
this section, revenues received by any state agency receiving such 9951
a temporary transfer of funds shall, as directed by the 9952
controlling board, be transferred back to the emergency purposes 9953
appropriation.9954

       The board may delegate to the director of budget and 9955
management authority to approve transfers among items of 9956
appropriation under division (A) of this section.9957

       Sec. 127.16.  (A) Upon the request of either a state agency 9958
or the director of budget and management and after the controlling 9959
board determines that an emergency or a sufficient economic reason 9960
exists, the controlling board may approve the making of a purchase 9961
without competitive selection as provided in division (B) of this 9962
section.9963

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no state 9964
agency, using money that has been appropriated to it directly, 9965
shall:9966

       (1) Make any purchase from a particular supplier, that would 9967
amount to fifty thousand dollars or more when combined with both 9968
the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the fiscal 9969
year for purchases made by the agency and the amount of all 9970
outstanding encumbrances for purchases made by the agency from the 9971
supplier, unless the purchase is made by competitive selection or 9972
with the approval of the controlling board;9973

       (2) Lease real estate from a particular supplier, if the 9974
lease would amount to seventy-five thousand dollars or more when 9975
combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the supplier 9976
during the fiscal year for real estate leases made by the agency 9977
and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for real estate 9978
leases made by the agency from the supplier, unless the lease is 9979
made by competitive selection or with the approval of the 9980
controlling board.9981

       (C) Any person who authorizes a purchase in violation of 9982
division (B) of this section shall be liable to the state for any 9983
state funds spent on the purchase, and the attorney general shall 9984
collect the amount from the person.9985

       (D) Nothing in division (B) of this section shall be 9986
construed as:9987

       (1) A limitation upon the authority of the director of 9988
transportation as granted in sections 5501.17, 5517.02, and 9989
5525.14 of the Revised Code;9990

       (2) Applying to medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 9991
5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid program;9992

       (3) Applying to the purchase of examinations from a sole 9993
supplier by a state licensing board under Title XLVII of the 9994
Revised Code;9995

       (4) Applying to entertainment contracts for the Ohio state 9996
fair entered into by the Ohio expositions commission, provided 9997
that the controlling board has given its approval to the 9998
commission to enter into such contracts and has approved a total 9999
budget amount for such contracts as agreed upon by commission 10000
action, and that the commission causes to be kept itemized records 10001
of the amounts of money spent under each contract and annually 10002
files those records with the clerk of the house of representatives 10003
and the clerk of the senate following the close of the fair;10004

       (5) Limiting the authority of the chief of the division of 10005
mineral resources management to contract for reclamation work with 10006
an operator mining adjacent land as provided in section 1513.27 of 10007
the Revised Code;10008

       (6) Applying to investment transactions and procedures of any 10009
state agency, except that the agency shall file with the board the 10010
name of any person with whom the agency contracts to make, broker, 10011
service, or otherwise manage its investments, as well as the 10012
commission, rate, or schedule of charges of such person with 10013
respect to any investment transactions to be undertaken on behalf 10014
of the agency. The filing shall be in a form and at such times as 10015
the board considers appropriate.10016

       (7) Applying to purchases made with money for the per cent 10017
for arts program established by section 3379.10 of the Revised 10018
Code;10019

       (8) Applying to purchases made by the rehabilitation services 10020
commission of services, or supplies, that are provided to persons 10021
with disabilities, or to purchases made by the commission in 10022
connection with the eligibility determinations it makes for 10023
applicants of programs administered by the social security 10024
administration;10025

       (9) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 10026
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.135164.85 of the Revised 10027
Code for group health plan premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and 10028
other cost-sharing expenses;10029

       (10) Applying to any agency of the legislative branch of the 10030
state government;10031

       (11) Applying to agreements or contracts entered into under 10032
section 5101.11, 5101.20, 5101.201, 5101.21, or 5101.214 of the 10033
Revised Code;10034

       (12) Applying to purchases of services by the adult parole 10035
authority under section 2967.14 of the Revised Code or by the 10036
department of youth services under section 5139.08 of the Revised 10037
Code;10038

       (13) Applying to dues or fees paid for membership in an 10039
organization or association;10040

       (14) Applying to purchases of utility services pursuant to 10041
section 9.30 of the Revised Code;10042

       (15) Applying to purchases made in accordance with rules 10043
adopted by the department of administrative services of motor 10044
vehicle, aviation, or watercraft fuel, or emergency repairs of 10045
such vehicles;10046

       (16) Applying to purchases of tickets for passenger air 10047
transportation;10048

       (17) Applying to purchases necessary to provide public 10049
notifications required by law or to provide notifications of job 10050
openings;10051

       (18) Applying to the judicial branch of state government;10052

       (19) Applying to purchases of liquor for resale by the 10053
division of liquor control;10054

       (20) Applying to purchases of motor courier and freight 10055
services made in accordance with department of administrative 10056
services rules;10057

       (21) Applying to purchases from the United States postal 10058
service and purchases of stamps and postal meter replenishment 10059
from vendors at rates established by the United States postal 10060
service;10061

       (22) Applying to purchases of books, periodicals, pamphlets, 10062
newspapers, maintenance subscriptions, and other published 10063
materials;10064

       (23) Applying to purchases from other state agencies, 10065
including state-assisted institutions of higher education;10066

       (24) Limiting the authority of the director of environmental 10067
protection to enter into contracts under division (D) of section 10068
3745.14 of the Revised Code to conduct compliance reviews, as 10069
defined in division (A) of that section;10070

       (25) Applying to purchases from a qualified nonprofit agency 10071
pursuant to sections 125.60 to 125.6012 or 4115.31 to 4115.35 of 10072
the Revised Code;10073

       (26) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 10074
services to the United States department of health and human 10075
services for printing and mailing notices pertaining to the tax 10076
refund offset program of the internal revenue service of the 10077
United States department of the treasury;10078

       (27) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 10079
developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of the Revised 10080
Code;10081

       (28) Applying to payments made by the department of mental 10082
healthmental health and addiction services under a physician 10083
recruitment program authorized by section 5119.1015119.185 of 10084
the Revised Code;10085

       (29) Applying to contracts entered into with persons by the 10086
director of commerce for unclaimed funds collection and remittance 10087
efforts as provided in division (F) of section 169.03 of the 10088
Revised Code. The director shall keep an itemized accounting of 10089
unclaimed funds collected by those persons and amounts paid to 10090
them for their services.10091

       (30) Applying to purchases made by a state institution of 10092
higher education in accordance with the terms of a contract 10093
between the vendor and an inter-university purchasing group 10094
comprised of purchasing officers of state institutions of higher 10095
education;10096

       (31) Applying to the department of job and family services'10097
medicaid's purchases of health assistance services under the 10098
children's health insurance program part I provided for under 10099
section 5101.50 of the Revised Code, the children's health 10100
insurance program part II provided for under section 5101.51 of 10101
the Revised Code, or the children's health insurance program part 10102
III provided for under section 5101.52 of the Revised Code;10103

       (32) Applying to payments by the attorney general from the 10104
reparations fund to hospitals and other emergency medical 10105
facilities for performing medical examinations to collect physical 10106
evidence pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;10107

       (33) Applying to contracts with a contracting authority or 10108
administrative receiver under division (B) of section 5126.056 of 10109
the Revised Code;10110

       (34) Applying to purchases of goods and services by the 10111
department of veterans services in accordance with the terms of 10112
contracts entered into by the United States department of veterans 10113
affairs;10114

       (35) Applying to payments by the superintendent of the bureau 10115
of criminal identification and investigation to the federal bureau 10116
of investigation for criminal records checks pursuant to section 10117
109.572 of the Revised Code;10118

       (36) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 10119
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.0545164.47 of 10120
the Revised Code;10121

       (37) Applying to contracts entered into under section 5160.12 10122
of the Revised Code.10123

       (E) When determining whether a state agency has reached the 10124
cumulative purchase thresholds established in divisions (B)(1) and 10125
(2) of this section, all of the following purchases by such agency 10126
shall not be considered:10127

       (1) Purchases made through competitive selection or with 10128
controlling board approval;10129

       (2) Purchases listed in division (D) of this section;10130

       (3) For the purposes of the threshold of division (B)(1) of 10131
this section only, leases of real estate.10132

       (F) As used in this section, "competitive selection," 10133
"purchase," "supplies," and "services" have the same meanings as 10134
in section 125.01 of the Revised Code.10135

       Sec. 133.01.  As used in this chapter, in sections 9.95, 10136
9.96, and 2151.655 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 10137
Revised Code that make reference to this chapter unless the 10138
context does not permit, and in related proceedings, unless 10139
otherwise expressly provided:10140

       (A) "Acquisition" as applied to real or personal property 10141
includes, among other forms of acquisition, acquisition by 10142
exercise of a purchase option, and acquisition of interests in 10143
property, including, without limitation, easements and 10144
rights-of-way, and leasehold and other lease interests initially 10145
extending or extendable for a period of at least sixty months.10146

       (B) "Anticipatory securities" means securities, including 10147
notes, issued in anticipation of the issuance of other securities.10148

       (C) "Board of elections" means the county board of elections 10149
of the county in which the subdivision is located. If the 10150
subdivision is located in more than one county, "board of 10151
elections" means the county board of elections of the county that 10152
contains the largest portion of the population of the subdivision 10153
or that otherwise has jurisdiction in practice over and 10154
customarily handles election matters relating to the subdivision.10155

       (D) "Bond retirement fund" means the bond retirement fund 10156
provided for in section 5705.09 of the Revised Code, and also 10157
means a sinking fund or any other special fund, regardless of the 10158
name applied to it, established by or pursuant to law or the 10159
proceedings for the payment of debt charges. Provision may be made 10160
in the applicable proceedings for the establishment in a bond 10161
retirement fund of separate accounts relating to debt charges on 10162
particular securities, or on securities payable from the same or 10163
common sources, and for the application of moneys in those 10164
accounts only to specified debt charges on specified securities or 10165
categories of securities. Subject to law and any provisions in the 10166
applicable proceedings, moneys in a bond retirement fund or 10167
separate account in a bond retirement fund may be transferred to 10168
other funds and accounts.10169

       (E) "Capitalized interest" means all or a portion of the 10170
interest payable on securities from their date to a date stated or 10171
provided for in the applicable legislation, which interest is to 10172
be paid from the proceeds of the securities.10173

       (F) "Chapter 133. securities" means securities authorized by 10174
or issued pursuant to or in accordance with this chapter.10175

       (G) "County auditor" means the county auditor of the county 10176
in which the subdivision is located. If the subdivision is located 10177
in more than one county, "county auditor" means the county auditor 10178
of the county that contains the highest amount of the tax 10179
valuation of the subdivision or that otherwise has jurisdiction in 10180
practice over and customarily handles property tax matters 10181
relating to the subdivision. In the case of a county that has 10182
adopted a charter, "county auditor" means the officer who 10183
generally has the duties and functions provided in the Revised 10184
Code for a county auditor.10185

       (H) "Credit enhancement facilities" means letters of credit, 10186
lines of credit, stand-by, contingent, or firm securities purchase 10187
agreements, insurance, or surety arrangements, guarantees, and 10188
other arrangements that provide for direct or contingent payment 10189
of debt charges, for security or additional security in the event 10190
of nonpayment or default in respect of securities, or for making 10191
payment of debt charges to and at the option and on demand of 10192
securities holders or at the option of the issuer or upon certain 10193
conditions occurring under put or similar arrangements, or for 10194
otherwise supporting the credit or liquidity of the securities, 10195
and includes credit, reimbursement, marketing, remarketing, 10196
indexing, carrying, interest rate hedge, and subrogation 10197
agreements, and other agreements and arrangements for payment and 10198
reimbursement of the person providing the credit enhancement 10199
facility and the security for that payment and reimbursement.10200

       (I) "Current operating expenses" or "current expenses" means 10201
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 10202
permanent improvements and for payments of debt charges of the 10203
subdivision.10204

       (J) "Debt charges" means the principal, including any 10205
mandatory sinking fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, 10206
interest, and any redemption premium, payable on securities as 10207
those payments come due and are payable. The use of "debt charges" 10208
for this purpose does not imply that any particular securities 10209
constitute debt within the meaning of the Ohio Constitution or 10210
other laws.10211

       (K) "Financing costs" means all costs and expenses relating 10212
to the authorization, including any required election, issuance, 10213
sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, 10214
registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, 10215
payment, and servicing of securities, including, without 10216
limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and 10217
printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official 10218
statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, 10219
travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, 10220
investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating 10221
agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or 10222
corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory 10223
services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory 10224
agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and 10225
obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, 10226
credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement 10227
facilities. Financing costs may be paid from any moneys available 10228
for the purpose, including, unless otherwise provided in the 10229
proceedings, from the proceeds of the securities to which they 10230
relate and, as to future financing costs, from the same sources 10231
from which debt charges on the securities are paid and as though 10232
debt charges.10233

       (L) "Fiscal officer" means the following, or, in the case of 10234
absence or vacancy in the office, a deputy or assistant authorized 10235
by law or charter to act in the place of the named officer, or if 10236
there is no such authorization then the deputy or assistant 10237
authorized by legislation to act in the place of the named officer 10238
for purposes of this chapter, in the case of the following 10239
subdivisions:10240

       (1) A county, the county auditor;10241

       (2) A municipal corporation, the city auditor or village 10242
clerk or clerk-treasurer, or the officer who, by virtue of a 10243
charter, has the duties and functions provided in the Revised Code 10244
for the city auditor or village clerk or clerk-treasurer;10245

       (3) A school district, the treasurer of the board of 10246
education;10247

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, the secretary of the 10248
board of trustees;10249

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the treasurer of the 10250
district;10251

       (6) A joint ambulance district, the clerk of the board of 10252
trustees;10253

       (7) A joint recreation district, the person designated 10254
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code;10255

       (8) A detention facility district or a district organized 10256
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code or a combined district 10257
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 10258
the county auditor of the county designated by law to act as the 10259
auditor of the district;10260

       (9) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 10261
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 10262
district, the fiscal officer of the township;10263

       (10) A joint fire district, the clerk of the board of 10264
trustees of that district;10265

       (11) A regional or county library district, the person 10266
responsible for the financial affairs of that district;10267

       (12) A joint solid waste management district, the fiscal 10268
officer appointed by the board of directors of the district under 10269
section 343.01 of the Revised Code;10270

       (13) A joint emergency medical services district, the person 10271
appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of section 10272
307.053 of the Revised Code;10273

       (14) A fire and ambulance district, the person appointed as 10274
fiscal officer under division (B) of section 505.375 of the 10275
Revised Code;10276

       (15) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 10277
section, the officer who is designated by law as or performs the 10278
functions of its chief fiscal officer;10279

       (16) A joint police district, the treasurer of the district;10280

       (17) A lake facilities authority, the fiscal officer 10281
designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code.10282

       (M) "Fiscal year" has the same meaning as in section 9.34 of 10283
the Revised Code.10284

       (N) "Fractionalized interests in public obligations" means 10285
participations, certificates of participation, shares, or other 10286
instruments or agreements, separate from the public obligations 10287
themselves, evidencing ownership of interests in public 10288
obligations or of rights to receive payments of, or on account of, 10289
principal or interest or their equivalents payable by or on behalf 10290
of an obligor pursuant to public obligations.10291

       (O) "Fully registered securities" means securities in 10292
certificated or uncertificated form, registered as to both 10293
principal and interest in the name of the owner.10294

       (P) "Fund" means to provide for the payment of debt charges 10295
and expenses related to that payment at or prior to retirement by 10296
purchase, call for redemption, payment at maturity, or otherwise.10297

       (Q) "General obligation" means securities to the payment of 10298
debt charges on which the full faith and credit and the general 10299
property taxing power, including taxes within the tax limitation 10300
if available to the subdivision, of the subdivision are pledged.10301

       (R) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" means those payments 10302
or portions of payments, however denominated, that constitute or 10303
represent consideration for forbearing the collection of money, or 10304
for deferring the receipt of payment of money to a future time.10305

       (S) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 10306
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1 et seq., as amended, and 10307
includes any laws of the United States providing for application 10308
of that code.10309

       (T) "Issuer" means any public issuer and any nonprofit 10310
corporation authorized to issue securities for or on behalf of any 10311
public issuer.10312

       (U) "Legislation" means an ordinance or resolution passed by 10313
a majority affirmative vote of the then members of the taxing 10314
authority unless a different vote is required by charter 10315
provisions governing the passage of the particular legislation by 10316
the taxing authority.10317

       (V) "Mandatory sinking fund redemption requirements" means 10318
amounts required by proceedings to be deposited in a bond 10319
retirement fund for the purpose of paying in any year or fiscal 10320
year by mandatory redemption prior to stated maturity the 10321
principal of securities that is due and payable, except for 10322
mandatory prior redemption requirements as provided in those 10323
proceedings, in a subsequent year or fiscal year.10324

       (W) "Mandatory sinking fund requirements" means amounts 10325
required by proceedings to be deposited in a year or fiscal year 10326
in a bond retirement fund for the purpose of paying the principal 10327
of securities that is due and payable in a subsequent year or 10328
fiscal year.10329

       (X) "Net indebtedness" has the same meaning as in division 10330
(A) of section 133.04 of the Revised Code.10331

       (Y) "Obligor," in the case of securities or fractionalized 10332
interests in public obligations issued by another person the debt 10333
charges or their equivalents on which are payable from payments 10334
made by a public issuer, means that public issuer.10335

       (Z) "One purpose" relating to permanent improvements means 10336
any one permanent improvement or group or category of permanent 10337
improvements for the same utility, enterprise, system, or project, 10338
development or redevelopment project, or for or devoted to the 10339
same general purpose, function, or use or for which 10340
self-supporting securities, based on the same or different sources 10341
of revenues, may be issued or for which special assessments may be 10342
levied by a single ordinance or resolution. "One purpose" 10343
includes, but is not limited to, in any case any off-street 10344
parking facilities relating to another permanent improvement, and:10345

       (1) Any number of roads, highways, streets, bridges, 10346
sidewalks, and viaducts;10347

       (2) Any number of off-street parking facilities;10348

       (3) In the case of a county, any number of permanent 10349
improvements for courthouse, jail, county offices, and other 10350
county buildings, and related facilities;10351

       (4) In the case of a school district, any number of 10352
facilities and buildings for school district purposes, and related 10353
facilities.10354

       (AA) "Outstanding," referring to securities, means securities 10355
that have been issued, delivered, and paid for, except any of the 10356
following:10357

       (1) Securities canceled upon surrender, exchange, or 10358
transfer, or upon payment or redemption;10359

       (2) Securities in replacement of which or in exchange for 10360
which other securities have been issued;10361

       (3) Securities for the payment, or redemption or purchase for 10362
cancellation prior to maturity, of which sufficient moneys or 10363
investments, in accordance with the applicable legislation or 10364
other proceedings or any applicable law, by mandatory sinking fund 10365
redemption requirements, mandatory sinking fund requirements, or 10366
otherwise, have been deposited, and credited for the purpose in a 10367
bond retirement fund or with a trustee or paying or escrow agent, 10368
whether at or prior to their maturity or redemption, and, in the 10369
case of securities to be redeemed prior to their stated maturity, 10370
notice of redemption has been given or satisfactory arrangements 10371
have been made for giving notice of that redemption, or waiver of 10372
that notice by or on behalf of the affected security holders has 10373
been filed with the subdivision or its agent for the purpose.10374

       (BB) "Paying agent" means the one or more banks, trust 10375
companies, or other financial institutions or qualified persons, 10376
including an appropriate office or officer of the subdivision, 10377
designated as a paying agent or place of payment of debt charges 10378
on the particular securities.10379

       (CC) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 10380
property, asset, or improvement certified by the fiscal officer, 10381
which certification is conclusive, as having an estimated life or 10382
period of usefulness of five years or more, and includes, but is 10383
not limited to, real estate, buildings, and personal property and 10384
interests in real estate, buildings, and personal property, 10385
equipment, furnishings, and site improvements, and reconstruction, 10386
rehabilitation, renovation, installation, improvement, 10387
enlargement, and extension of property, assets, or improvements so 10388
certified as having an estimated life or period of usefulness of 10389
five years or more. The acquisition of all the stock ownership of 10390
a corporation is the acquisition of a permanent improvement to the 10391
extent that the value of that stock is represented by permanent 10392
improvements. A permanent improvement for parking, highway, road, 10393
and street purposes includes resurfacing, but does not include 10394
ordinary repair.10395

       (DD) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 10396
Revised Code and also includes any federal, state, interstate, 10397
regional, or local governmental agency, any subdivision, and any 10398
combination of those persons.10399

       (EE) "Proceedings" means the legislation, certifications, 10400
notices, orders, sale proceedings, trust agreement or indenture, 10401
mortgage, lease, lease-purchase agreement, assignment, credit 10402
enhancement facility agreements, and other agreements, 10403
instruments, and documents, as amended and supplemented, and any 10404
election proceedings, authorizing, or providing for the terms and 10405
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security or sale or 10406
award of, public obligations, and includes the provisions set 10407
forth or incorporated in those public obligations and proceedings.10408

       (FF) "Public issuer" means any of the following that is 10409
authorized by law to issue securities or enter into public 10410
obligations:10411

       (1) The state, including an agency, commission, officer, 10412
institution, board, authority, or other instrumentality of the 10413
state;10414

       (2) A taxing authority, subdivision, district, or other local 10415
public or governmental entity, and any combination or consortium, 10416
or public division, district, commission, authority, department, 10417
board, officer, or institution, thereof;10418

       (3) Any other body corporate and politic, or other public 10419
entity.10420

       (GG) "Public obligations" means both of the following:10421

       (1) Securities;10422

       (2) Obligations of a public issuer to make payments under 10423
installment sale, lease, lease purchase, or similar agreements, 10424
which obligations may bear interest or interest equivalent.10425

       (HH) "Refund" means to fund and retire outstanding 10426
securities, including advance refunding with or without payment or 10427
redemption prior to maturity.10428

       (II) "Register" means the books kept and maintained by the 10429
registrar for registration, exchange, and transfer of registered 10430
securities.10431

       (JJ) "Registrar" means the person responsible for keeping the 10432
register for the particular registered securities, designated by 10433
or pursuant to the proceedings.10434

       (KK) "Securities" means bonds, notes, certificates of 10435
indebtedness, commercial paper, and other instruments in writing, 10436
including, unless the context does not admit, anticipatory 10437
securities, issued by an issuer to evidence its obligation to 10438
repay money borrowed, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any 10439
future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the 10440
securities, but not including public obligations described in 10441
division (GG)(2) of this section.10442

       (LL) "Self-supporting securities" means securities or 10443
portions of securities issued for the purpose of paying costs of 10444
permanent improvements to the extent that receipts of the 10445
subdivision, other than the proceeds of taxes levied by that 10446
subdivision, derived from or with respect to the improvements or 10447
the operation of the improvements being financed, or the 10448
enterprise, system, project, or category of improvements of which 10449
the improvements being financed are part, are estimated by the 10450
fiscal officer to be sufficient to pay the current expenses of 10451
that operation or of those improvements or enterprise, system, 10452
project, or categories of improvements and the debt charges 10453
payable from those receipts on securities issued for the purpose. 10454
Until such time as the improvements or increases in rates and 10455
charges have been in operation or effect for a period of at least 10456
six months, the receipts therefrom, for purposes of this 10457
definition, shall be those estimated by the fiscal officer, except 10458
that those receipts may include, without limitation, payments made 10459
and to be made to the subdivision under leases or agreements in 10460
effect at the time the estimate is made. In the case of an 10461
operation, improvements, or enterprise, system, project, or 10462
category of improvements without at least a six-month history of 10463
receipts, the estimate of receipts by the fiscal officer, other 10464
than those to be derived under leases and agreements then in 10465
effect, shall be confirmed by the taxing authority.10466

       (MM) "Subdivision" means any of the following:10467

       (1) A county, including a county that has adopted a charter 10468
under Article X, Ohio Constitution;10469

       (2) A municipal corporation, including a municipal 10470
corporation that has adopted a charter under Article XVIII, Ohio 10471
Constitution;10472

       (3) A school district;10473

       (4) A regional water and sewer district organized under 10474
Chapter 6119. of the Revised Code;10475

       (5) A joint township hospital district organized under 10476
section 513.07 of the Revised Code;10477

       (6) A joint ambulance district organized under section 505.71 10478
of the Revised Code;10479

       (7) A joint recreation district organized under division (C) 10480
of section 755.14 of the Revised Code;10481

       (8) A detention facility district organized under section 10482
2152.41, a district organized under section 2151.65, or a combined 10483
district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the 10484
Revised Code;10485

       (9) A township police district organized under section 505.48 10486
of the Revised Code;10487

       (10) A township;10488

       (11) A joint fire district organized under section 505.371 of 10489
the Revised Code;10490

       (12) A county library district created under section 3375.19 10491
or a regional library district created under section 3375.28 of 10492
the Revised Code;10493

       (13) A joint solid waste management district organized under 10494
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code;10495

       (14) A joint emergency medical services district organized 10496
under section 307.052 of the Revised Code;10497

       (15) A fire and ambulance district organized under section 10498
505.375 of the Revised Code;10499

       (16) A fire district organized under division (C) of section 10500
505.37 of the Revised Code;10501

       (17) A joint police district organized under section 505.482 10502
of the Revised Code;10503

       (18) A lake facilities authority created under Chapter 353. 10504
of the Revised Code;10505

       (19) Any other political subdivision or taxing district or 10506
other local public body or agency authorized by this chapter or 10507
other laws to issue Chapter 133. securities.10508

       (NN) "Taxing authority" means in the case of the following 10509
subdivisions:10510

       (1) A county, a county library district, or a regional 10511
library district, the board or boards of county commissioners, or 10512
other legislative authority of a county that has adopted a charter 10513
under Article X, Ohio Constitution, but with respect to such a 10514
library district acting solely as agent for the board of trustees 10515
of that district;10516

       (2) A municipal corporation, the legislative authority;10517

       (3) A school district, the board of education;10518

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, a joint ambulance 10519
district, a joint recreation district, a fire and ambulance 10520
district, or a joint fire district, the board of trustees of the 10521
district;10522

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the joint township 10523
hospital board;10524

       (6) A detention facility district or a district organized 10525
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, a combined district 10526
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 10527
or a joint emergency medical services district, the joint board of 10528
county commissioners;10529

       (7) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 10530
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 10531
district, the board of township trustees;10532

       (8) A joint solid waste management district organized under 10533
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code, the board of 10534
directors of the district;10535

       (9) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 10536
section, the legislative or governing body or official;10537

       (10) A joint police district, the joint police district 10538
board;10539

       (11) A lake facilities authority, the board of directors.10540

       (OO) "Tax limitation" means the "ten-mill limitation" as 10541
defined in section 5705.02 of the Revised Code without diminution 10542
by reason of section 5705.313 of the Revised Code or otherwise, 10543
or, in the case of a municipal corporation or county with a 10544
different charter limitation on property taxes levied to pay debt 10545
charges on unvoted securities, that charter limitation. Those 10546
limitations shall be respectively referred to as the "ten-mill 10547
limitation" and the "charter tax limitation."10548

       (PP) "Tax valuation" means the aggregate of the valuations of 10549
property subject to ad valorem property taxation by the 10550
subdivision on the real property, personal property, and public 10551
utility property tax lists and duplicates most recently certified 10552
for collection, and shall be calculated without deductions of the 10553
valuations of otherwise taxable property exempt in whole or in 10554
part from taxation by reason of exemptions of certain amounts of 10555
taxable value under division (C) of section 5709.01, tax 10556
reductions under section 323.152 of the Revised Code, or similar 10557
laws now or in the future in effect.10558

       For purposes of section 133.06 of the Revised Code, "tax 10559
valuation" shall not include the valuation of tangible personal 10560
property used in business, telephone or telegraph property, 10561
interexchange telecommunications company property, or personal 10562
property owned or leased by a railroad company and used in 10563
railroad operations listed under or described in section 5711.22, 10564
division (B) or (F) of section 5727.111, or section 5727.12 of the 10565
Revised Code.10566

       (QQ) "Year" means the calendar year.10567

       (RR) "Administrative agent," "agent," "commercial paper," 10568
"floating rate interest structure," "indexing agent," "interest 10569
rate hedge," "interest rate period," "put arrangement," and 10570
"remarketing agent" have the same meanings as in section 9.98 of 10571
the Revised Code.10572

       (SS) "Sales tax supported" means obligations to the payment 10573
of debt charges on which an additional sales tax or additional 10574
sales taxes have been pledged by the taxing authority of a county 10575
pursuant to section 133.081 of the Revised Code.10576

       Sec. 133.06.  (A) A school district shall not incur, without 10577
a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount 10578
equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as 10579
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division 10580
(C) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in 10581
section 3318.052 or 3318.44 of the Revised Code, or as provided in 10582
division (J) of this section.10583

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this 10584
section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that 10585
exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.10586

       (C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the 10587
electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount 10588
that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance 10589
of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its 10590
tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, 10591
acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and 10592
the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the 10593
commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the 10594
consents shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to 10595
the election at which the question is to be submitted.10596

       The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the 10597
district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions 10598
within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.10599

       If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at 10600
the election for which the superintendent of public instruction 10601
and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, 10602
the school district may submit the same question to the electors 10603
on the date that the next special election may be held under 10604
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new 10605
request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the 10606
same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall 10607
first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this 10608
division.10609

       (D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, 10610
none of the following shall be considered:10611

       (1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other 10612
equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to 10613
division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;10614

       (2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, 10615
under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in 10616
excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, 10617
under division (E) of this section;10618

       (3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint 10619
vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised 10620
Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational 10621
school district;10622

       (4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under 10623
sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, and 3317.0211, and 3317.64 of the 10624
Revised Code;10625

       (5) Debt incurred under section 3313.374 of the Revised Code;10626

       (6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 10627
3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related 10628
hardware;10629

       (7) Debt incurred under section 3318.042 of the Revised Code.10630

       (E) A school district may become a special needs district as 10631
to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.10632

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its 10633
school district to be a special needs district by determining both 10634
of the following:10635

       (a) The student population is not being adequately serviced 10636
by the existing permanent improvements of the district.10637

       (b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the 10638
issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of 10639
this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent 10640
improvements in time to meet the needs.10641

       (2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that 10642
resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a 10643
statistical report showing all of the following:10644

       (a) The history of and a projection of the growth of the tax 10645
valuation;10646

       (b) The projected needs;10647

       (c) The estimated cost of permanent improvements proposed to 10648
meet such projected needs.10649

       (3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify 10650
the district as an approved special needs district if the 10651
superintendent finds both of the following:10652

       (a) The district does not have available sufficient 10653
additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the 10654
projected needs.10655

       (b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax 10656
valuation during the next five years, according to the information 10657
certified to the superintendent and any other information the 10658
superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential 10659
average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next 10660
five years of an average of not less than one and one-half per 10661
cent per year. The findings and certification of the 10662
superintendent shall be conclusive.10663

       (4) An approved special needs district may incur net 10664
indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the 10665
provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an 10666
amount equal to the greater of the following:10667

       (a) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 10668
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 10669
the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the 10670
tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the 10671
month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the 10672
question of issuing the proposed securities;10673

       (b) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 10674
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 10675
the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public 10676
instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase 10677
during the next ten years.10678

       (F) A school district may issue securities for emergency 10679
purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount 10680
equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this 10681
division.10682

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an 10683
emergency if it determines both of the following:10684

       (a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in 10685
the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned 10686
by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or 10687
facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned 10688
as to require additions and improvements to them before the 10689
buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or 10690
that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove 10691
or prevent health or safety hazards.10692

       (b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make 10693
adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.10694

       (2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of 10695
education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the 10696
district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the 10697
question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, 10698
in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by 10699
the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the 10700
emergency need.10701

       (3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in 10702
section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:10703

       (a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency 10704
existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the 10705
emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed 10706
securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of 10707
this section;10708

       (b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 10709
of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and 10710
the board of elections at least one hundred days prior to the 10711
election;10712

       (c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than 10713
ninety-five days before the election, confirm that advice by 10714
certification to, the board of education of the information 10715
required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;10716

       (d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution 10717
and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of 10718
the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than ninety 10719
days prior to the election.10720

       (4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the 10721
Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued 10722
under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty 10723
months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise 10724
provided for in that division.10725

       (G)(1) The board of education may contract with an architect, 10726
professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design 10727
and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis 10728
and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of 10729
installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce 10730
energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report 10731
shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, 10732
modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, 10733
engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, 10734
forgone residual value of materials or equipment replaced by the 10735
energy conservation measure, as defined by the Ohio school 10736
facilities commission, a baseline analysis of actual energy 10737
consumption data for the preceding three years with the utility 10738
baseline based on only the actual energy consumption data for the 10739
preceding twelve months, and estimates of the amounts by which 10740
energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance 10741
costs, as defined by the commission, would be reduced.10742

       If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount 10743
of money the district would spend on such installations, 10744
modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of 10745
money it would save in energy and resultant operational and 10746
maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may 10747
submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for 10748
approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or 10749
modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for 10750
the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.10751

       If the commission determines that the board's findings are 10752
reasonable, itThe school facilities commission, in consultation 10753
with the auditor of state, may deny a request under this division 10754
by the board of education any school district is in a state of 10755
fiscal watch pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the 10756
Revised Code, if it determines that the expenditure of funds is 10757
not in the best interest of the school district.10758

       No district board of education of a school district that is 10759
in a state of fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 10760
3316.03 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without 10761
submitting evidence that the installations, modifications, or 10762
remodeling have been approved by the district's financial planning 10763
and supervision commission established under section 3316.05 of 10764
the Revised Code.10765

       No board of education of a school district that, for three or 10766
more consecutive years, has been declared to be in a state of 10767
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as 10768
that section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and has failed to 10769
meet adequate yearly progress, or has met any condition set forth 10770
in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of section 3302.10 of the Revised 10771
Code shall submit a request without first receiving approval to 10772
incur indebtedness from the district's academic distress 10773
commission established under that section, for so long as such 10774
commission continues to be required for the district.10775

       (2) The school facilities commission shall approve the 10776
board's request. Uponprovided that the following conditions are 10777
satisfied:10778

       (a) The commission determines that the board's findings are 10779
reasonable.10780

       (b) The request for approval is complete.10781

       (c) The installations, modifications, or remodeling are 10782
consistent with any project to construct or acquire classroom 10783
facilities, or to reconstruct or make additions to existing 10784
classroom facilities under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or sections 10785
3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code.10786

       Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may 10787
issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal 10788
amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax 10789
valuation for the purpose of making such installations, 10790
modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of 10791
the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this 10792
and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 10793
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the 10794
district's tax valuation.10795

       (3) So long as any securities issued under division (G) of10796
this sectiondivision remain outstanding, the board of education 10797
shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and 10798
maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or 10799
modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant 10800
to division (G) of this sectiondivision and shall maintain and 10801
annually update a report documenting the reductions in energy 10802
consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings 10803
attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. 10804
The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer 10805
independent of any person that provided goods or services to the 10806
board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are 10807
the subject of the report. The resultant operational and 10808
maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district 10809
treasurer. The report shall be submitted annually to the 10810
commission.10811

       (H) With the consent of the superintendent of public 10812
instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the 10813
electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in 10814
divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying 10815
costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of 10816
the following conditions are satisfied:10817

       (1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that 10818
receipts of the school district from payments made under or 10819
pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 10820
1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 10821
5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised 10822
Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of 10823
the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after 10824
accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient 10825
in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay 10826
the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that 10827
indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing 10828
authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, 10829
which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public 10830
instruction;10831

       (2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and 10832
the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, 10833
at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably 10834
expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of 10835
operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose 10836
upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of 10837
public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.10838

       The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) 10839
of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum 10840
maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.10841

       (I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the 10842
issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this 10843
chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of 10844
this section when necessary to raise the school district portion 10845
of the basic project cost and any additional funds necessary to 10846
participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, 10847
including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school 10848
facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives, the 10849
cost of other locally funded initiatives in an amount that does 10850
not exceed fifty per cent of the district's portion of the basic 10851
project cost, and the cost for site acquisition. The school 10852
facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public 10853
instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit 10854
pursuant to this division.10855

       (J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost 10856
of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 10857
3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one 10858
hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors 10859
net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax 10860
valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in 10861
order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the 10862
basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the 10863
school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project 10864
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district 10865
board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the 10866
dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement 10867
entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state 10868
moneys shall be released for a project to which this section 10869
applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section 10870
that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion 10871
of the project are first deposited into the school district's 10872
project construction fund.10873

       Sec. 135.80.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 10874
corporation, by ordinance; the board of directors of a port 10875
authority or a lake facilities authority, by resolution; or the 10876
board of county commissioners, by resolution, may establish a 10877
linked deposit program authorizing the treasurer or governing 10878
board of the municipal corporation, the board of directors of the 10879
port authority or lake facilities authority, or the investing 10880
authority of the county, as created or designated by the ordinance 10881
or resolution, to place certificates of deposit at up to three per 10882
cent below market rates with an eligible lending institution 10883
applying for interim moneys as provided in section 135.08 of the 10884
Revised Code, selected to invest port authority or lake facilities 10885
authority moneys in linked deposit programs pursuant to section 10886
4582.54 or 353.15 of the Revised Code, or applying for inactive 10887
moneys as provided in section 135.32 of the Revised Code, provided 10888
the institution agrees to lend the value of such deposit to 10889
eligible borrowers at up to three per cent below the present 10890
borrowing rate applicable to each borrower. The ordinance or 10891
resolution shall include requirements and provisions that are 10892
necessary to establish the program, including, but not limited to:10893

       (1) Eligibility requirements for borrowers who may receive 10894
reduced rate loans under the program;10895

       (2) Application procedures for borrowers and institutions 10896
wishing to participate in the program;10897

       (3) Review procedures for applications and criteria for 10898
acceptance or rejection of applications for reduced rate loans;10899

       (4) Necessary agreements between the eligible lending 10900
institution and the treasurer or governing board of the municipal 10901
corporation, the board of directors of the port authority or lake 10902
facilities authority, or the investing authority of the county to 10903
carry out the purposes of the linked deposit program;10904

       (5) Annual reports regarding the operation of the program to 10905
be made by the treasurer or governing board to the legislative 10906
authority, the eligible lending institution to the board of 10907
directors of the port authority or lake facilities authority, or 10908
the investing authority to the board of county commissioners.10909

       (B) The municipal corporation and the treasurer or governing 10910
board, the port authority or lake facilities authority and the 10911
board of directors, and the county and the investing authority or 10912
the board of county commissioners, are not liable to any eligible 10913
lending institution in any manner for the payment of the principal 10914
or interest on any reduced rate loan made under the program, and 10915
any delay in payment or default on the part of any borrower does 10916
not in any manner affect the deposit agreement between the 10917
eligible lending institution and the treasurer or governing board, 10918
the board of directors, or the investing authority or board of 10919
county commissioners.10920

       (C) For purposes of this section, both of the following 10921
apply:10922

       (1) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 10923
135.31 of the Revised Code.10924

       (2) "Port authority" means a port authority created in 10925
accordance with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.10926

       (3) "Lake facilities authority" means a lake facilities 10927
authority created in accordance with section 353.02 of the Revised 10928
Code.10929

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:10930

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 10931
nonprofit hospital agency.10932

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 10933
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 10934
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 10935
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 10936
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 10937
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 10938
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 10939
hospital facility, or the state.10940

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 10941
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 10942
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 10943
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 10944
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 10945
more other hospital agencies.10946

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 10947
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 10948
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 10949
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 10950
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 10951
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 10952
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 10953
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 10954
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 10955
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 10956
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 10957
and, in the case of the state, the director of development 10958
services or the Ohio higher educational facility commission.10959

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 10960
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 10961
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 10962
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 10963
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 10964
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 10965
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 10966
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 10967
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 10968
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 10969
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 10970
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 10971
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 10972
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 10973
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 10974
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 10975
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 10976
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 10977
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 10978
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 10979
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 10980
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 10981
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.10982

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 10983
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 10984
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 10985
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 10986
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 10987
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 10988
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 10989
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 10990
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 10991
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 10992
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 10993
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 10994
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 10995
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 10996
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 10997
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 10998
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 10999
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 11000
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 11001
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 11002
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 11003
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 11004
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 11005
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 11006
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 11007
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 11008
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 11009
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 11010
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 11011
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 11012
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 11013
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 11014
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 11015
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 11016
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 11017
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 11018
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 11019
construction of additional hospital facilities.11020

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 11021
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 11022
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 11023
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 11024
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 11025
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 11026
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 11027
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 11028
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 11029
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 11030
costs of hospital facilities.11031

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 11032
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 11033
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 11034
costs of hospital facilities.11035

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 11036
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.11037

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 11038
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 11039
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 11040
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 11041
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 11042
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 11043
provisions contained in such obligations.11044

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 11045
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.11046

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 11047
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.11048

       (M) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 11049
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 11050
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 11051
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 11052
facility, that is any of the following:11053

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 11054
the Revised Code;11055

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;11056

       (3) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 11057
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 11058
program's hospice patients;11059

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 11060
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 11061
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 11062
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 11063
unrelated adults;11064

       (5) A residential facility licensed by the department of 11065
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 11066
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that is not a residential 11067
facility described in division (M)(4) of this section;11068

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 11069
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;11070

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and druga community11071
addiction programservices provider under section 3793.065119.3611072
of the Revised Code;11073

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 11074
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 11075
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 11076
5123.18 of the Revised Code;11077

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 11078
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 11079
course of study at the hospital.11080

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 11081
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 11082
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 11083
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 11084
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 11085
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 11086
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 11087
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 11088
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 11089
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 11090
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 11091
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 11092
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 11093
developmental disabilities; the department of mental healthmental 11094
health and addiction services; the department of developmental 11095
disabilities; or any public body engaged in the education or 11096
training of health professions personnel may join in any such 11097
agreement for purposes related to its authority under laws 11098
applicable to it, and as such a participant shall be considered a 11099
public hospital agency or hospital agency for the purposes of this 11100
section.11101

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 11102
shall, where appropriate, provide for:11103

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 11104
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 11105
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;11106

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 11107
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 11108
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 11109
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 11110
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 11111
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 11112
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 11113
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;11114

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 11115
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 11116
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 11117
agency thereof;11118

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 11119
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 11120
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 11121
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 11122
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 11123
agreement;11124

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 11125
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 11126
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 11127
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 11128
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 11129
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 11130
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 11131
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 11132
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 11133
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 11134
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 11135
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 11136
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 11137
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 11138
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 11139
determined under such agreement.11140

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 11141
may provide for:11142

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 11143
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 11144
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 11145
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 11146
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 11147
otherwise be provided;11148

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 11149
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;11150

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 11151
participation of patients and physicians;11152

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 11153
participation under the agreement;11154

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 11155
to be made for particular services;11156

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 11157
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 11158
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;11159

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 11160
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 11161
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;11162

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 11163
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 11164
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 11165
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;11166

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 11167
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 11168
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 11169
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 11170
purpose of this chapter;11171

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 11172
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.11173

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 11174
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 11175
may:11176

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 11177
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 11178
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 11179
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 11180
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 11181
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 11182
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 11183
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 11184
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 11185
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;11186

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 11187
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 11188
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 11189
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 11190
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 11191
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 11192
hospital facilities;11193

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 11194
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 11195
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 11196
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 11197
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 11198
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 11199
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 11200
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 11201
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 11202
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 11203
for permanent improvements;11204

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 11205
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 11206
disposition of such property.11207

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 11208
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 11209
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 11210
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 11211
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 11212
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 11213
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 11214
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 11215
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 11216
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 11217
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 11218
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 11219
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 11220
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 11221
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 11222
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 11223
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.11224

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 11225
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 11226
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 11227
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 11228
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 11229
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 11230
Code.11231

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 11232
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11233
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 11234
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 11235
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 11236
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 11237
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 11238
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 11239
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 11240
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 11241
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 11242
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 11243
hospitals by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the 11244
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 11245
hospital.11246

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 11247
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 11248
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 11249
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 11250
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 11251
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services; 11252
or the department of developmental disabilities, for uses which 11253
they are authorized to make thereof under the laws applicable to 11254
them, or any combination of them, and they may lease such 11255
facilities to or from a hospital agency for such uses, upon such 11256
terms and conditions as are agreed upon by the parties. Such lease 11257
may be for a term of fifty years or less and may provide for an 11258
option of the lessee to renew for a term of fifty years or less, 11259
as therein set forth. Prior to entering into such lease, the 11260
governing body of any public hospital agency granting such lease 11261
must determine, and set forth in a resolution or ordinance, that 11262
such lease will promote the public purpose stated in section 11263
140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor public hospital 11264
agency will be duly benefited thereby.11265

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 11266
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11267
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 11268
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 11269
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 11270
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 11271
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 11272
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 11273
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 11274
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 11275
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 11276
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 11277
by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the Revised 11278
Code are operating in the same county as the county hospital.11279

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 11280
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 11281
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 11282
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 11283
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 11284
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 11285
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 11286
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 11287
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 11288
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 11289
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 11290
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 11291
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 11292
the governing body of the lessor.11293

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 11294
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 11295
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 11296
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 11297
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 11298
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 11299
reason.11300

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 11301
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 11302
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 11303
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 11304
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 11305
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 11306
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.11307

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 11308
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 11309
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 11310
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 11311
leased pursuant to this section.11312

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 11313
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 11314
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 11315
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 11316
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 11317
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 11318
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 11319
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 11320
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 11321
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 11322
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 11323
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 11324
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 11325
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 11326
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 11327
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 11328
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 11329
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 11330
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 11331
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 11332
or public auction.11333

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:11334

       (A) "Public employee" means:11335

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 11336
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 11337
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 11338
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 11339
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 11340
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 11341
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 11342
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 11343
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 11344
authority of any of the units of local government named in 11345
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 11346
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 11347
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 11348
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.11349

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 11350
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 11351
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 11352
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 11353
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 11354
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 11355
administering this chapter.11356

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 11357
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 11358
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 11359
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 11360
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 11361
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 11362
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.11363

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 11364
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 11365
employees retirement system.11366

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 11367
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 11368
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 11369
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 11370
employer for the purpose of this chapter.11371

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 11372
shall determine under section 145.036, 145.037, or 145.038 of the 11373
Revised Code whether any person is a public employee, and its 11374
decision is final.11375

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 11376
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 11377
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 11378
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 11379
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 11380
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 11381
recipient.11382

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 11383
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 11384
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 11385
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 11386
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 11387
charter.11388

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 11389
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 11390
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 11391
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 11392
historical society, public library, county law library, union 11393
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 11394
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 11395
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 11396
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 11397
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 11398
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 11399
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 11400
means the employer of any public employee.11401

       (E) "Prior military service" also means all service credited 11402
for active duty with the armed forces of the United States as 11403
provided in section 145.30 of the Revised Code.11404

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 11405
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 11406
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 11407
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 11408
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.11409

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 11410
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 11411
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 11412
or benefit under this chapter.11413

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 11414
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 11415
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 11416
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 11417
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 11418
of the Revised Code; all the member's military service credit 11419
computed as provided in this chapter; all service credit 11420
established pursuant to section 145.297 of the Revised Code; and 11421
any other service credited under this chapter. For the exclusive 11422
purpose of satisfying the service credit requirement and of 11423
determining eligibility for benefits under sections 145.32, 11424
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.35, 145.36, and 145.361 of the 11425
Revised Code, "five or more years of total service credit" means 11426
sixty or more calendar months of contributing service in this 11427
system.11428

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 11429
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 11430
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 11431
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 11432
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 11433
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 11434
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 11435
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 11436
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 11437
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 11438
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 11439
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 11440
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 11441
corporation as the employer of the employees.11442

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 11443
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 11444
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 11445
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 11446
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 11447
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 11448
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 11449
all state retirement systems.11450

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 11451
period of twelve months.11452

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 11453
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 11454
employer.11455

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 11456
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 11457
board may determine from time to time.11458

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 11459
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 11460
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 11461
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 11462
Revised Code.11463

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the greater of the 11464
following:11465

       (a) The sum of the member's earnable salaries for the 11466
appropriate number of calendar years of contributing service, 11467
determined under section 145.017 of the Revised Code, in which the 11468
member's earnable salary was highest, divided by the same number 11469
of calendar years or, if the member has fewer than the appropriate 11470
number of calendar years of contributing service, the total of the 11471
member's earnable salary for all years of contributing service 11472
divided by the number of calendar years of the member's 11473
contributing service;11474

       (b) The sum of a member's earnable salaries for the 11475
appropriate number of consecutive months, determined under section 11476
145.017 of the Revised Code, that were the member's last months of 11477
service, up to and including the last month, divided by the 11478
appropriate number of years or, if the time between the first and 11479
final months of service is less than the appropriate number of 11480
consecutive months, the total of the member's earnable salary for 11481
all months of contributing service divided by the number of years 11482
between the first and final months of contributing service, 11483
including any fraction of a year, except that the member's final 11484
average salary shall not exceed the member's highest earnable 11485
salary for any twelve consecutive months.11486

        (2) If contributions were made in only one calendar year, 11487
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.11488

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 11489
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 11490
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 11491
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.11492

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 11493
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 11494
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 11495
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 11496
chapter.11497

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 11498
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.11499

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 11500
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.11501

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 11502
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 11503
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 11504
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.11505

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 11506
receiving a disability benefit.11507

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 11508
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.37, and 145.46 11509
and former section 145.34 of the Revised Code.11510

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 11511
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 11512
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 11513
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 11514
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 11515
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.11516

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 11517
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 11518
member.11519

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 11520
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 11521
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 11522
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 11523
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 11524
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 11525
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 11526
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 11527
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 11528
includes the following:11529

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 11530
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 11531
by the contributor;11532

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 11533
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 11534
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 11535
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 11536
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;11537

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for maintenance, 11538
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 11539
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 11540
that employs the contributor;11541

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 11542
Revised Code;11543

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 11544
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 11545
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 11546
and employee contributions;11547

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to former division (K)(3) and 11548
former division (Y) of this section and section 145.2916 of the 11549
Revised Code.11550

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:11551

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 11552
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 11553
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 11554
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;11555

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 11556
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 11557
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 11558
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 11559
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;11560

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 11561
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 11562
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 11563
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;11564

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 11565
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 11566
related to professional development;11567

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 11568
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 11569
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 11570
accrued;11571

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 11572
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 11573
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 11574
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 11575
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;11576

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 11577
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 11578
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 11579
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 11580
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 11581
assembly;11582

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 11583
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 11584
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 11585
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 11586
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:11587

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 11588
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;11589

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 11590
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 11591
liability resulting from the payments.11592

       (i) The portion of any amount included in section 145.2916 of 11593
the Revised Code that represents employer contributions.11594

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 11595
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 11596
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.11597

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 11598
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 11599
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 11600
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 11601
member or beneficiary under this chapter.11602

       (T) "Contributing service" means both of the following:11603

       (1) All service credited to a member of the system since 11604
January 1, 1935, for which contributions are made as required by 11605
sections 145.47, 145.48, and 145.483 of the Revised Code. In any 11606
year subsequent to 1934, credit for any service shall be allowed 11607
in accordance with section 145.016 of the Revised Code.11608

       (2) Service credit received by election of the member under 11609
section 145.814 of the Revised Code.11610

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 11611
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 11612
state teachers retirement board.11613

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 11614
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 11615
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, and 145.46 and former section 145.34 of 11616
the Revised Code.11617

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 11618
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.11619

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 11620
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 11621
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 11622
first.11623

       (Y) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 11624
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 11625
eligibility under section 145.33 or 145.332 of the Revised Code, 11626
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 11627
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 11628
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 11629
coverage.11630

       (Z) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned and 11631
employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 11632
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 11633
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 11634
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 11635
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 11636
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 11637
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 11638
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 11639
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 11640
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 11641
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 11642
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11643

       (AA) "Township constable or police officer in a township 11644
police department or district" means any person who is 11645
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 11646
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 11647
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 11648
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 11649
the Revised Code.11650

       (BB) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 11651
following:11652

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 11653
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 11654
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 11655
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 11656
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;11657

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 11658
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11659
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11660

       (CC) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 11661
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 11662
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 11663
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 11664
the Revised Code.11665

       (DD) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 11666
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 11667
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 11668
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11669
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11670

       (EE) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 11671
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 11672
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 11673
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11674

       (FF) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 11675
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 11676
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 11677
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11678

       (GG) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 11679
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 11680
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 11681
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11682

       (HH) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 11683
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 11684
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 11685
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11686

       (II) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 11687
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 11688
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 11689
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11690

       (JJ) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 11691
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 11692
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11693
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11694

       (KK) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 11695
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 11696
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11697
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11698

       (LL) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 11699
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 11700
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 11701
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 11702
pension fund.11703

       (MM) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 11704
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 11705
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11706
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11707

       (NN) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 11708
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 11709
5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11710
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11711

       (OO) "Special police officer for an institution for the 11712
developmentally disabled" means any person who is designated as 11713
such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code and is in 11714
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11715

       (PP) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 11716
person who is employed full time as a state university law 11717
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 11718
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 11719
Code.11720

       (QQ) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 11721
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 11722
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 11723
under division (E)(1) of that section.11724

       (RR) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 11725
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 11726
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.11727

       (SS) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 11728
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 11729
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 11730
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11731

       (TT) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 11732
police officer employed full time and designated by the 11733
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 11734
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 11735
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 11736
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 11737
109.77 of the Revised Code.11738

       (UU) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 11739
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 11740
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 11741
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.11742

        (VV) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 11743
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 11744
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 11745
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 11746
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 11747
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 11748
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 11749
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 11750
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 11751
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 11752
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 11753
police officer for an institution for the developmentally 11754
disabled, state university law enforcement officer, municipal 11755
police officer, house sergeant at arms, assistant house sergeant 11756
at arms, regional transit authority police officer, or state 11757
highway patrol police officer. "PERS law enforcement officer" also 11758
includes a person serving as a municipal public safety director at 11759
any time during the period from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 11760
2009, if the duties of that service were to preserve the peace, 11761
protect life and property, and enforce the laws of this state.11762

       (WW) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 11763
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 11764
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 11765
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 11766
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 11767
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 11768
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11769

       (XX) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 11770
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 11771
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 11772
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 11773
township constable or police officer in a township police 11774
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 11775
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 11776
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 11777
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 11778
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 11779
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 11780
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and11781
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 11782
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 11783
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 11784
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 11785
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 11786
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 11787
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 11788
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 11789
property, and enforce the laws of this state.11790

       (YY) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 11791
following:11792

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 11793
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 11794
management or disposition of its assets;11795

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 11796
with respect to money or property of the system;11797

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 11798
administration of the system.11799

       (ZZ) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 11800
following requirements:11801

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;11802

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;11803

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 11804
actuarial services to public retirement plans.11805

       (AAA) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 11806
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.11807

       (BBB) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 11808
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.11809

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 11810
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 11811
person:11812

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 11813
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 11814
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 11815
a personal service contract with a public employer;11816

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 11817
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 11818
emergency;11819

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 11820
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 11821
1501;11822

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 11823
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 11824
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 11825
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;11826

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 11827
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;11828

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 11829
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 11830
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 11831
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 11832
for the following:11833

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 11834
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 11835
employees retirement system;11836

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 11837
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 11838
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 11839
and did not elect to transfer;11840

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 11841
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 11842
fund to the public employees retirement system.11843

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 11844
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 11845
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 11846
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 11847
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 11848
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;11849

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 11850
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;11851

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 11852
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;11853

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 11854
advisory council;11855

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 11856
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 11857
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;11858

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 11859
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 11860
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 11861
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 11862
after October 1, 2012.11863

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 11864
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 11865
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 11866
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 11867
no resident in an institution for the mentally retarded operated 11868
by the department of developmental disabilities, no resident 11869
admitted as a patient of a veterans' home operated under Chapter 11870
5907. of the Revised Code, and no resident of a county home shall 11871
be considered as a public employee for the purpose of establishing 11872
membership or calculating service credit or benefits under this 11873
chapter. Nothing in this division shall be construed to affect any 11874
service credit attained by any person who was a public employee 11875
before becoming an inmate, patient, or resident at any institution 11876
listed in this division, or the payment of any benefit for which 11877
such a person or such a person's beneficiaries otherwise would be 11878
eligible.11879

       Sec. 145.22.  (A) The public employees retirement board shall 11880
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 11881
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 11882
funding requirements of the public employees retirement system as 11883
established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall complete 11884
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 11885
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 11886
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 11887
report shall include all of the following:11888

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;11889

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 11890
used in the valuation;11891

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 11892
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 11893
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 11894
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 11895
contributing to the retirement system;11896

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 11897
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 11898
accrued pension liabilities;11899

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 11900
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 11901
the last annual actuarial valuation;11902

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 11903
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 11904
objectives established by the board.11905

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 11906
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 11907
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 11908
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 11909
upon its availability and not later than the first day of 11910
September following the year for which the valuation was made.11911

       (B) At such time as the public employees retirement board 11912
determines, and at least once in each five-year period, the board 11913
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 11914
actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and other 11915
experience of the members, retirants, contributors, and 11916
beneficiaries of the system to update the actuarial assumptions 11917
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 11918
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 11919
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 11920
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 11921
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 11922
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 11923
shall include all of the following:11924

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 11925
experience observed over the period of the investigation;11926

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 11927
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 11928
this section;11929

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 11930
changes in actuarial assumptions.11931

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 11932
study council and the standing committees of the house of 11933
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 11934
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 11935
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.11936

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 11937
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 11938
contribution rate determined under section 145.48 of the Revised 11939
Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as recommended 11940
by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year thereafter.11941

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 11942
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 11943
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 11944
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 11945
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 11946
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 11947
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 11948
which shall include all of the following:11949

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 11950
evaluated;11951

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 11952
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;11953

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 11954
in the report;11955

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 11956
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 11957
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 11958
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 11959
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 11960
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 11961
not to exceed thirty years;11962

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 11963
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 11964
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 11965
board.11966

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 11967
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 11968
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 11969
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 11970
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 11971
retirement study council.11972

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 11973
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 11974
provision of benefits under sections 145.58 and 145.584 of the 11975
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, 11976
and the thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The 11977
report shall include the following:11978

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 11979
provided;11980

       (2) A summary of the benefits;11981

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 11982
benefits;11983

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 11984
the benefits;11985

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 11986
funding method used to provide the benefits;11987

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 11988
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;11989

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 11990
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 11991
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 11992
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 11993
fiscal year;11994

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 11995
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 11996
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 11997
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;11998

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 11999
comparability of the report required under this division;12000

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (C) of 12001
section 145.58 of the Revised Code.12002

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 12003
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 12004
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 12005
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 12006
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 12007
following the year for which the report was made.12008

       Sec. 149.01.  Each elective state officer, the adjutant 12009
general, the adult parole authority, the department of 12010
agriculture, the director of administrative services, the public 12011
utilities commission, the superintendent of insurance, the 12012
superintendent of financial institutions, the superintendent of 12013
purchases and printing, the fire marshal, the industrial 12014
commission, the administrator of workers' compensation, the state 12015
department of transportation, the department of health, the state 12016
medical board, the state dental board, the board of embalmers and 12017
funeral directors, the Ohio commission for the blind, the 12018
accountancy board of Ohio, the state council of uniform state 12019
laws, the board of commissioners of the sinking fund, the 12020
department of taxation, the board of tax appeals, the division of 12021
liquor control, the director of state armories, the trustees of 12022
the Ohio state university, and every private or quasi-public 12023
institution, association, board, or corporation receiving state 12024
money for its use and purpose shall make annually, at the end of 12025
each fiscal year, in quadruplicate, a report of the transactions 12026
and proceedings of that office or department for that fiscal year, 12027
excepting receipts and disbursements unless otherwise specifically 12028
required by law. The report shall contain a summary of the 12029
official acts of the officer, board, council, commission, 12030
institution, association, or corporation and any suggestions and 12031
recommendations that are proper. On the first day of August of 12032
each year, one12033

       One of the reports shall be filed with the governor, one with 12034
the secretary of state, and one with the state library, and one 12035
shall be kept on file in the office of the officer, board, 12036
council, commission, institution, association, or corporation. The 12037
reports shall be so filed by the first day of August, except that 12038
the report of the treasurer of state shall be so filed by the 12039
thirty-first day of December.12040

       Sec. 149.311.  (A) As used in this section:12041

       (1) "Historic building" means a building, including its 12042
structural components, that is located in this state and that is 12043
either individually listed on the national register of historic 12044
places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, located in a registered historic 12045
district, and certified by the state historic preservation officer 12046
as being of historic significance to the district, or is 12047
individually listed as an historic landmark designated by a local 12048
government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c).12049

       (2) "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" means 12050
expenditures paid or incurred during the rehabilitation period, 12051
and before and after that period as determined under 26 U.S.C. 47, 12052
by an owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to 12053
rehabilitate the building. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" 12054
includes architectural or engineering fees paid or incurred in 12055
connection with the rehabilitation, and expenses incurred in the 12056
preparation of nomination forms for listing on the national 12057
register of historic places. "Qualified rehabilitation 12058
expenditures" does not include any of the following:12059

       (a) The cost of acquiring, expanding, or enlarging an 12060
historic building;12061

       (b) Expenditures attributable to work done to facilities 12062
related to the building, such as parking lots, sidewalks, and 12063
landscaping;12064

       (c) New building construction costs.12065

       (3) "Owner" of an historic building means a person holding 12066
the fee simple interest in the building. "Owner" does not include 12067
the state or a state agency, or any political subdivision as 12068
defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.12069

       (4) "Qualified lessee" means a person subject to a lease 12070
agreement for aan historic building and eligible for the federal 12071
rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47. "Qualified lessee" 12072
does not include the state or a state agency or political 12073
subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.12074

       (5) "Certificate owner" means the owner or qualified lessee 12075
of an historic building to which a rehabilitation tax credit 12076
certificate was issued under this section.12077

       (6) "Registered historic district" means an historic district 12078
listed in the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 12079
470a, an historic district designated by a local government 12080
certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c), or a local historic district 12081
certified under 36 C.F.R. 67.8 and 67.9.12082

       (7) "Rehabilitation" means the process of repairing or 12083
altering an historic building or buildings, making possible an 12084
efficient use while preserving those portions and features of the 12085
building and its site and environment that are significant to its 12086
historic, architectural, and cultural values.12087

       (8) "Rehabilitation period" means one of the following:12088

       (a) If the rehabilitation initially was not planned to be 12089
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 12090
lessee not to exceed twenty-four months during which 12091
rehabilitation occurs;12092

       (b) If the rehabilitation initially was planned to be 12093
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 12094
lessee not to exceed sixty months during which rehabilitation 12095
occurs. Each stage shall be reviewed as a phase of a 12096
rehabilitation as determined under 26 C.F.R. 1.48-12 or a 12097
successor to that section.12098

       (9) "State historic preservation officer" or "officer" means 12099
the state historic preservation officer appointed by the governor 12100
under 16 U.S.C. 470a.12101

       (B) The owner or qualified lessee of an historic building may 12102
apply to the director of development services for a rehabilitation 12103
tax credit certificate for qualified rehabilitation expenditures 12104
paid or incurred by such owner or qualified lessee after April 4, 12105
2007, for rehabilitation of an historic building. If the owner of 12106
aan historic building enters a pass-through agreement with a 12107
qualified lessee for the purposes of the federal rehabilitation 12108
tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47, the qualified rehabilitation 12109
expenditures paid or incurred by the owner after April 4, 2007, 12110
shallmay be attributed to the qualified lessee.12111

       The form and manner of filing such applications shall be 12112
prescribed by rule of the director. Each application shall state 12113
the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures the applicant 12114
estimates will be paid or incurred. The director may require 12115
applicants to furnish documentation of such estimates.12116

       The director, after consultation with the tax commissioner 12117
and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 12118
adopt rules that establish all of the following:12119

        (1) Forms and procedures by which applicants may apply for 12120
rehabilitation tax credit certificates;12121

        (2) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and approving 12122
applications for certificates within the limitations under 12123
division (D) of this section, criteria for assuring that the 12124
certificates issued encompass a mixture of high and low qualified 12125
rehabilitation expenditures, and criteria for issuing certificates 12126
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section;12127

        (3) Eligibility requirements for obtaining a certificate 12128
under this section;12129

        (4) The form of rehabilitation tax credit certificates;12130

        (5) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;12131

        (6) Procedures and criteria for conducting cost-benefit 12132
analyses of historic buildings that are the subjects of 12133
applications filed under this section. The purpose of a 12134
cost-benefit analysis shall be to determine whether rehabilitation 12135
of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in 12136
state and local taxes once the building is used.12137

       (7) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer 12138
this section.12139

       (C) The director of development services shall review the 12140
applications with the assistance of the state historic 12141
preservation officer and determine whether all of the following 12142
criteria are met:12143

       (1) That the building that is the subject of the application 12144
is an historic building and the applicant is the owner or 12145
qualified lessee of the building;12146

       (2) That the rehabilitation will satisfy standards prescribed 12147
by the United States secretary of the interior under 16 U.S.C. 12148
470, et seq., as amended, and 36 C.F.R. 67.7 or a successor to 12149
that section;12150

       (3) That receiving a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 12151
under this section is a major factor in:12152

       (a) The applicant's decision to rehabilitate the historic 12153
building; or12154

       (b) To increase the level of investment in such 12155
rehabilitation.12156

       An applicant shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the 12157
state historic preservation officer and director of development 12158
services that the rehabilitation will satisfy the standards 12159
described in division (C)(2) of this section before the applicant 12160
begins the physical rehabilitation of the historic building.12161

       (D)(1) If the director of development services determines 12162
that an application meets the criteria in divisions (C)(1), (2), 12163
and (3) of this section, the director shall conduct a cost-benefit 12164
analysis for the historic building that is the subject of the 12165
application to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic 12166
building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local 12167
taxes once the building is used. The director shall consider the 12168
results of the cost-benefit analysis in determining whether to 12169
approve the application. The director shall also consider the 12170
potential economic impact and the regional distributive balance of 12171
the credits throughout the state. The director may approve an 12172
application only after completion of the cost-benefit analysis.12173

       (2) A rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 12174
issued for an amount greater than the estimated amount furnished 12175
by the applicant on the application for such certificate and 12176
approved by the director. The director shall not approve more than 12177
a total of sixty million dollars of rehabilitation tax credits per 12178
fiscal year but the director may reallocate unused tax credits 12179
from a prior fiscal year for new applicants and such reallocated 12180
credits shall not apply toward the dollar limit of this division.12181

       (3) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 12182
exceeding twenty-four months as provided in division (A)(7)(a) of 12183
this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 12184
issued before the rehabilitation of the historic building is 12185
completed.12186

       (4) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 12187
exceeding sixty months as provided in division (A)(7)(b) of this 12188
section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 12189
issued before a stage of rehabilitation is completed. After all 12190
stages of rehabilitation are completed, if the director cannot 12191
determine that the criteria in division (C) of this section are 12192
satisfied for all stages of rehabilitations, the director shall 12193
certify this finding to the tax commissioner, and any 12194
rehabilitation tax credits received by the applicant shall be 12195
repaid by the applicant and may be collected by assessment as 12196
unpaid tax by the commissioner.12197

        (5) The director of development services shall require the 12198
applicant to provide a third-party cost certification by a 12199
certified public accountant of the actual costs attributed to the 12200
rehabilitation of the historic building when qualified 12201
rehabilitation expenditures exceed two hundred thousand dollars.12202

        If an applicant whose application is approved for receipt of 12203
a rehabilitation tax credit certificate fails to provide to the 12204
director sufficient evidence of reviewable progress, including a 12205
viable financial plan, copies of final construction drawings, and 12206
evidence that the applicant has obtained all historic approvals 12207
within twelve months after the date the applicant received 12208
notification of approval, and if the applicant fails to provide 12209
evidence to the director that the applicant has secured and closed 12210
on financing for the rehabilitation within eighteen months after 12211
receiving notification of approval, the director may rescind the 12212
approval of the application. The director shall notify the 12213
applicant if the approval has been rescinded. Credits that would 12214
have been available to an applicant whose approval was rescinded 12215
shall be available for other qualified applicants. Nothing in this 12216
division prohibits an applicant whose approval has been rescinded 12217
from submitting a new application for a rehabilitation tax credit 12218
certificate.12219

        (E) Issuance of a certificate represents a finding by the 12220
director of development services of the matters described in 12221
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section only; issuance of a 12222
certificate does not represent a verification or certification by 12223
the director of the amount of qualified rehabilitation 12224
expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed under section 12225
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76 of the 12226
Revised Code. The amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures 12227
for which a tax credit may be claimed is subject to inspection and 12228
examination by the tax commissioner or employees of the 12229
commissioner under section 5703.19 of the Revised Code and any 12230
other applicable law. Upon the issuance of a certificate, the 12231
director shall certify to the tax commissioner, in the form and 12232
manner requested by the tax commissioner, the name of the 12233
applicant, the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures 12234
shown on the certificate, and any other information required by 12235
the rules adopted under this section.12236

       (F)(1) On or before the first day of April each year, the 12237
director of development services and tax commissioner jointly 12238
shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the 12239
house of representatives a report on the tax credit program 12240
established under this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 12241
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The 12242
report shall present an overview of the program and shall include 12243
information on the number of rehabilitation tax credit 12244
certificates issued under this section during the preceding fiscal 12245
year, an update on the status of each historic building for which 12246
an application was approved under this section, the dollar amount 12247
of the tax credits granted under sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 12248
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code, and 12249
any other information the director and commissioner consider 12250
relevant to the topics addressed in the report.12251

        (2) On or before December 1, 2015, the director of 12252
development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to 12253
the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 12254
representatives a comprehensive report that includes the 12255
information required by division (F)(1) of this section and a 12256
detailed analysis of the effectiveness of issuing tax credits for 12257
rehabilitating historic buildings. The report shall be prepared 12258
with the assistance of an economic research organization jointly 12259
chosen by the director and commissioner.12260

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 12261
historic rehabilitation tax credit operating fund. The director of 12262
development services is authorized to charge reasonable 12263
application and other fees in connection with the administration 12264
of tax credits authorized by this section and sections 5725.151, 12265
5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76 of the Revised 12266
Code. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and 12267
used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of 12268
development services in administering this section and sections 12269
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76 of the 12270
Revised Code.12271

       The Ohio historic preservation office is authorized to charge 12272
reasonable fees in connection with its review and approval of 12273
applications under this section. Any such fees collected shall be 12274
credited to the fund and used to pay administrative costs incurred 12275
by the Ohio historic preservation office pursuant to this section.12276

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:12277

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 12278
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 12279
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 12280
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 12281
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 12282
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 12283
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:12284

       (a) Medical records;12285

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 12286
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 12287
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;12288

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 12289
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 12290
appeals of actions arising under those sections;12291

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 12292
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 12293
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;12294

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 12295
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 12296
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 12297
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 12298
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 12299
child support enforcement agency;12300

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 12301
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 12302
the Revised Code;12303

       (g) Trial preparation records;12304

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;12305

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 12306
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;12307

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 12308
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;12309

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 12310
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 12311
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 12312
of the Revised Code;12313

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 12314
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 12315
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 12316
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;12317

       (m) Intellectual property records;12318

       (n) Donor profile records;12319

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 12320
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;12321

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 12322
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 12323
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 12324
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 12325
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12326
investigation residential and familial information;12327

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 12328
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 12329
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 12330
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 12331
Revised Code;12332

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 12333
a person under the age of eighteen;12334

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 12335
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 12336
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 12337
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 12338
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 12339
national child death review database, other than the report 12340
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 12341
Revised Code;12342

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 12343
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 12344
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 12345
other than the information released under that section;12346

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 12347
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 12348
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators12349
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 12350
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 12351
or government entity to administer;12352

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 12353
federal law;12354

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 12355
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 12356
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;12357

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 12358
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;12359

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 12360
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 12361
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 12362
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 12363
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 12364
financial assistance from the agency;12365

       (z)(y) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;12366

       (aa)(z) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under 12367
section 317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division 12368
(B)(2) of that section;12369

       (bb)(aa) Usage information including names and addresses of 12370
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 12371
owned or operated public utility;12372

       (cc)(bb) Records described in division (C) of section 187.04 12373
of the Revised Code that are not designated to be made available 12374
to the public as provided in that division.12375

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 12376
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 12377
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 12378
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 12379
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:12380

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 12381
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 12382
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 12383
promised;12384

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 12385
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 12386
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 12387
witness's identity;12388

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 12389
procedures or specific investigatory work product;12390

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 12391
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 12392
a confidential information source.12393

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 12394
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 12395
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 12396
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 12397
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.12398

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 12399
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 12400
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 12401
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 12402
personal trial preparation of an attorney.12403

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 12404
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 12405
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 12406
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 12407
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 12408
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 12409
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 12410
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 12411
publicly released, published, or patented.12412

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 12413
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 12414
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 12415
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.12416

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 12417
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 12418
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 12419
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 12420
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12421
investigation residential and familial information" means any 12422
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 12423
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 12424
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 12425
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 12426
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 12427
criminal identification and investigation:12428

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 12429
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 12430
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 12431
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 12432
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 12433
identification and investigation, except for the state or 12434
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 12435
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 12436
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 12437
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 12438
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12439
investigation resides;12440

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 12441
an employee assistance program;12442

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 12443
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 12444
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 12445
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 12446
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 12447
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 12448
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 12449
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 12450
identification and investigation;12451

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 12452
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 12453
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 12454
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 12455
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 12456
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 12457
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 12458
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12459
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12460
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12461
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12462
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12463
investigation's employer;12464

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 12465
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 12466
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 12467
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 12468
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 12469
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 12470
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 12471
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12472
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12473
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12474
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12475
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12476
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 12477
required by state or federal law;12478

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 12479
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 12480
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 12481
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 12482
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 12483
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 12484
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 12485
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 12486
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 12487
criminal identification and investigation;12488

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 12489
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 12490
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 12491
appointing authority.12492

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 12493
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 12494
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 12495
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 12496
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 12497
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 12498
and perform the duties of the sheriff.12499

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 12500
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 12501
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 12502
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 12503
persons under supervision.12504

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 12505
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 12506
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 12507
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 12508
custody of the department of youth services.12509

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 12510
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 12511
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 12512
township, fire district, or village.12513

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 12514
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 12515
medical services for a public emergency medical service 12516
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 12517
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 12518
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.12519

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 12520
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12521
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 12522
Revised Code.12523

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 12524
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 12525
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 12526
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 12527
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:12528

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 12529
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 12530
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;12531

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 12532
image of a person under the age of eighteen;12533

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 12534
a person under the age of eighteen;12535

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 12536
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 12537
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 12538
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 12539
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 12540
public office.12541

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 12542
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.12543

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 12544
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.12545

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 12546
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 12547
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 12548
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.12549

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 12550
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.12551

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 12552
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 12553
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 12554
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 12555
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 12556
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 12557
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 12558
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 12559
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 12560
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 12561
public record shall make available all of the information within 12562
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 12563
record available for public inspection or copying that public 12564
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 12565
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 12566
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 12567
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 12568
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 12569
make the redaction.12570

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 12571
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 12572
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 12573
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 12574
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 12575
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 12576
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 12577
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 12578
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 12579
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 12580
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 12581
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 12582
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 12583
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 12584
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 12585
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 12586
course of the public office's or person's duties.12587

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 12588
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 12589
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 12590
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 12591
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 12592
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 12593
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 12594
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 12595
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 12596
commenced under division (C) of this section.12597

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 12598
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 12599
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 12600
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 12601
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 12602
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 12603
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 12604
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.12605

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 12606
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 12607
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 12608
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 12609
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 12610
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 12611
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 12612
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 12613
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 12614
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 12615
by the requester.12616

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 12617
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 12618
or person responsible for the public record may require that 12619
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 12620
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 12621
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 12622
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 12623
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 12624
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 12625
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 12626
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 12627
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 12628
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 12629
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 12630
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 12631
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 12632
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 12633
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 12634
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 12635
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.12636

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 12637
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 12638
public office or person responsible for public records shall 12639
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 12640
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 12641
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 12642
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 12643
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 12644
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 12645
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 12646
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 12647
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.12648

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 12649
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 12650
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 12651
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 12652
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 12653
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 12654
performing its duties under this division.12655

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 12656
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 12657
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 12658
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 12659
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 12660
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 12661
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 12662
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 12663
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 12664
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 12665
government, or nonprofit educational research.12666

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 12667
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 12668
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 12669
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 12670
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 12671
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 12672
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 12673
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 12674
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 12675
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 12676
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 12677
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 12678
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 12679
justiciable claim of the person.12680

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 12681
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 12682
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 12683
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 12684
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 12685
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 12686
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 12687
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 12688
identification and investigation shall disclose to the journalist 12689
the address of the actual personal residence of the peace officer, 12690
parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, 12691
assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 12692
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 12693
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 12694
criminal identification and investigation and, if the peace 12695
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12696
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12697
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12698
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12699
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12700
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a 12701
public office, the name and address of the employer of the peace 12702
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12703
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12704
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12705
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12706
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12707
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child. The request shall 12708
include the journalist's name and title and the name and address 12709
of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of 12710
the information sought would be in the public interest.12711

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 12712
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 12713
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 12714
security numbers and any private financial information such as 12715
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 12716
account information.12717

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 12718
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 12719
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 12720
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 12721
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 12722
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 12723
the general public.12724

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 12725
public office or the person responsible for public records to 12726
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 12727
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 12728
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 12729
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 12730
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 12731
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 12732
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 12733
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 12734
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 12735
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 12736
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 12737
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 12738
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 12739
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 12740
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 12741
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 12742
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 12743
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 12744
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.12745

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 12746
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 12747
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 12748
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 12749
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 12750
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 12751
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 12752
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 12753
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 12754
with division (B) of this section.12755

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 12756
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 12757
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 12758
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 12759
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 12760
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 12761
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 12762
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 12763
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 12764
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 12765
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 12766
this section.12767

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 12768
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 12769
following:12770

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 12771
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 12772
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 12773
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 12774
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 12775
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 12776
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 12777
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 12778
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 12779
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 12780
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 12781
section;12782

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 12783
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 12784
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 12785
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 12786
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 12787
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.12788

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 12789
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 12790
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 12791
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 12792
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 12793
costs.12794

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 12795
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 12796
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 12797
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 12798
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 12799
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 12800
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:12801

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 12802
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 12803
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 12804
under division (B) of this section.12805

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 12806
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 12807
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 12808
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 12809
specified period of time.12810

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 12811
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 12812
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 12813
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 12814
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 12815
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 12816
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 12817
following:12818

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 12819
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 12820
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 12821
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 12822
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 12823
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 12824
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 12825
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 12826
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 12827
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 12828
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 12829
section;12830

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 12831
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 12832
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 12833
responsible for the requested public records as described in 12834
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 12835
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 12836
that conduct or threatened conduct.12837

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 12838
provisions of this section.12839

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 12840
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 12841
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 12842
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 12843
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 12844
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 12845
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 12846
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 12847
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 12848
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 12849
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 12850
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 12851
limit the number of public records that the public office will 12852
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 12853
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 12854
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 12855
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 12856
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.12857

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 12858
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 12859
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 12860
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 12861
records of that office. The public office shall require that 12862
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 12863
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 12864
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 12865
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 12866
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 12867
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 12868
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 12869
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 12870
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 12871
include the public records policy of the public office in the 12872
manual or handbook.12873

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 12874
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 12875
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 12876
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 12877
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 12878
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 12879
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 12880
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 12881
release of which is prohibited by law.12882

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:12883

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 12884
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 12885
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 12886
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 12887
paid to private contractors for copying services.12888

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 12889
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 12890
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 12891
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 12892
class of records, or data basedatabase by a person who intends to 12893
use or forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or 12894
resale for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special 12895
extraction request" does not include a request by a person who 12896
gives assurance to the bureau that the person making the request 12897
does not intend to use or forward the requested copies for 12898
surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 12899
purposes.12900

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 12901
selling of any good, service, or other product.12902

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 12903
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 12904
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 12905
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 12906
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 12907
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 12908
records services.12909

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 12910
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 12911
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 12912
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 12913
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 12914
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.12915

       Sec. 149.60. (A) There is the local government information 12916
exchange grant program in the department of administrative 12917
services. The program shall be administered by the director of 12918
administrative services. The director shall adopt rules under 12919
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary to administer 12920
the program. The rules shall include all of the following:12921

       (1) Grant eligibility criteria;12922

       (2) A requirement that exchange-related electronic data be 12923
posted on the internet in an open format in such a manner that the 12924
data is searchable and downloadable through the internet by the 12925
public;12926

       (3) Specifications for consistent formatting of, and 12927
specifications for accounting and technology standards for, 12928
information provided by participating local governments for 12929
inclusion in the exchange; and12930

       (4) Specifications for data that must be included by 12931
participating local governments in the information they provide, 12932
which must include budgetary data, revenues, expenditures, 12933
staffing information, and employee compensation.12934

       (B) The director shall disburse a grant of ten thousand 12935
dollars to each local government that meets the grant eligibility 12936
criteria established by the director. Grants shall be awarded to 12937
local governments in the order in which the local governments have 12938
met the grant eligibility criteria. The total amount of grants 12939
awarded shall not exceed the amount that can be funded with 12940
appropriations made by the general assembly for this purpose.12941

       (C) Not later than July 1, 2014, the director shall prepare 12942
and issue to members of the general assembly a demonstration 12943
report that does all of the following:12944

       (1) Demonstrates how the information exchange may provide 12945
local governments with insights regarding efficiency and 12946
productivity;12947

       (2) Demonstrates how the information exchange may help local 12948
governments improve services to vulnerable populations by 12949
providing insights regarding programs that benefit the poor, 12950
including general welfare support programs; and12951

       (3) Demonstrates how information exchange data may create 12952
opportunities for private sector and research institutions to 12953
provide value-added products or services that may be 12954
commercialized or create jobs, and thereby contribute to the state 12955
economy.12956

       Sec. 149.63. A public office that posts a public record on 12957
its web site, or on a public web site maintained by the state, 12958
shall post the record in such a way that the public record, or the 12959
data contained in the public record, is capable of being searched 12960
and downloaded by the public, and is in a format that is machine 12961
readable.12962

       This section does not apply to public records that were 12963
posted on a public web site prior to the effective date of this 12964
section.12965

       Sec. 151.11.  (A) As used in this section:12966

       (1) "Costs of sites and facilities" includes related direct 12967
administrative expenses and allocable portions of the direct costs 12968
of those projects. "Costs of sites and facilities" includes 12969
"allowable costs" as defined in section 122.085 of the Revised 12970
Code.12971

       (2) "Obligations" means obligations as defined in section 12972
151.01 of the Revised Code issued to pay costs of sites and 12973
facilities in Ohio for and in support of industry, commerce, 12974
distribution, and research and development purposes as referred to 12975
in division (A)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 12976
Constitution.12977

       (B) The issuing authority shall issue general obligations of 12978
the state to pay costs of sites and facilities pursuant to 12979
division (B)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 12980
section 151.01 of the Revised Code, and this section. The issuing 12981
authority shall issue obligations in the amount determined by the 12982
issuing authority to be required for those purposes. The total 12983
principal amount of obligations issued under this section shall 12984
not exceed one hundred fifty million dollars.12985

       (C) Net proceeds of obligations shall be deposited into the 12986
job ready site development fund created by section 122.0820 of the 12987
Revised Code.12988

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the job 12989
ready site development bond service fund. All moneys received by 12990
the state and required by the bond proceedings, consistent with 12991
section 151.01 of the Revised Code and this section, to be 12992
deposited, transferred, or credited to the bond service fund, and 12993
all other moneys transferred or allocated to or received for the 12994
purposes of that fund, shall be deposited and credited to the bond 12995
service fund, subject to any applicable provisions of the bond 12996
proceedings, but without necessity for any act of appropriation. 12997
During the period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 12998
obligations and continuing during the time that any obligations 12999
are outstanding in accordance with their terms, so long as moneys 13000
in the bond service fund are insufficient to pay debt service when 13001
due on those obligations payable from that fund, except the 13002
principal amounts of bond anticipation notes payable from the 13003
proceeds of renewal notes or bonds anticipated, and due in the 13004
particular fiscal year, a sufficient amount of revenues of the 13005
state is committed and, without necessity for further act of 13006
appropriation, shall be paid to the bond service fund for the 13007
purpose of paying that debt service when due. All investment 13008
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 13009
fund.13010

       Sec. 151.50.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 13011
treasury the clean Ohio distribution fund. The fund shall consist 13012
of money credited to it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code.13013

       (B) Not later than the fifth day of October each year, the 13014
director of budget and management shall determine the balance of 13015
the fund. If the balance of the fund is twenty-five million 13016
dollars or more, the director shall transfer the total balance of 13017
the fund as follows:13018

       (1) Seventy-five per cent of the money shall be credited to 13019
the clean Ohio conservation fund created in section 164.27 of the 13020
Revised Code.13021

       (2) Twelve and one-half per cent of the money shall be 13022
credited to the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in 13023
section 901.21 of the Revised Code.13024

       (3) Twelve and one-half per cent of the money shall be 13025
credited to the clean Ohio trail fund created in section 1519.05 13026
of the Revised Code.13027

       Sec. 152.09.  (A) As used in sections 152.06 and 152.09 to 13028
152.33 of the Revised Code:13029

       (1) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 13030
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 13031
pursuant to sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.13032

       (2) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and branches, 13033
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 13034
divisions, courts, general assembly, or other units or agencies of 13035
the state. "State agency" also includes counties, municipal 13036
corporations, and governmental entities of this state that enter 13037
into leases with the Ohio building authority pursuant to section 13038
152.31 of the Revised Code or that are designated by law as state 13039
agencies for the purpose of performing a state function that is to 13040
be housed by a capital facility for which the Ohio building 13041
authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations pursuant to 13042
sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.13043

       (3) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 13044
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 13045
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 13046
by the Ohio building authority on obligations.13047

       (4) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 13048
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 13049
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 13050
combination of the foregoing, for housing of branches and agencies 13051
of state government, including capital facilities for the purpose 13052
of housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 13053
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, for 13054
which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 13055
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 13056
includes storage and parking facilities related to such capital 13057
facilities. For purposes of sections 152.10 to 152.15 of the 13058
Revised Code, "capital facilities" includes community or technical 13059
college capital facilities.13060

       (5) "Cost of capital facilities" means the costs of 13061
assessing, planning, acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 13062
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 13063
altering, maintaining, equipping, furnishing, repairing, painting, 13064
decorating, managing, or operating capital facilities, and the 13065
financing thereof, including the cost of clearance and preparation 13066
of the site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 13067
facilities, the cost of participating in capital facilities 13068
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, the cost of any 13069
indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related 13070
direct administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct 13071
costs of the authority and lessee state agencies, cost of 13072
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 13073
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 13074
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 13075
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 13076
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 13077
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations from 13078
the date thereof to the time when interest is to be covered from 13079
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts that represent 13080
the portion of investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to 13081
the federal government in order to maintain the exclusion from 13082
gross income for federal income tax purposes of interest on those 13083
obligations pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue 13084
Code, amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the 13085
resolutions or the obligations, trust agreements, or indentures, 13086
costs of audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 13087
applied by or borrowed from any governmental entity, whether to or 13088
by the authority or others, from whatever source provided, for the 13089
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 13090
any share of the cost undertaken by the authority pursuant to 13091
arrangements made with governmental entities under division (J) of 13092
section 152.21 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 13093
necessary or incident to assessing, planning, or determining the 13094
feasibility or practicability with respect to capital facilities, 13095
and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 13096
assessment, planning, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 13097
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 13098
alteration, maintenance, equipment, furnishing, repair, painting, 13099
decoration, management, or operation of capital facilities, the 13100
financing thereof and the placing of the same in use and 13101
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 13102
classes of costs and expenses.13103

       (6) "Governmental entity" means any state agency, municipal 13104
corporation, county, township, school district, and any other 13105
political subdivision or special district in this state 13106
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 13107
indicated, also means the United States or any of the states or 13108
any department, division, or agency thereof, and any agency, 13109
commission, or authority established pursuant to an interstate 13110
compact or agreement.13111

       (7) "Governing body" means:13112

       (a) In the case of a county, the board of county 13113
commissioners or other legislative authority; in the case of a 13114
municipal corporation, the legislative authority; in the case of a 13115
township, the board of township trustees; in the case of a school 13116
district, the board of education;13117

       (b) In the case of any other governmental entity, the 13118
officer, board, commission, authority, or other body having the 13119
general management of the entity or having jurisdiction or 13120
authority in the particular circumstances.13121

       (8) "Available receipts" means fees, charges, revenues, 13122
grants, subsidies, income from the investment of moneys, proceeds 13123
from the sale of goods or services, and all other revenues or 13124
receipts received by or on behalf of any state agency for which 13125
capital facilities are financed with obligations issued under 13126
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, any state agency participating 13127
in capital facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised 13128
Code, or any state agency by which the capital facilities are 13129
constructed or financed; revenues or receipts derived by the 13130
authority from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 13131
capital facilities, and the proceeds of obligations issued under 13132
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code; and also any moneys appropriated 13133
by a governmental entity, gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, 13134
and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of bond service 13135
charges on such obligations.13136

       (9) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 13137
all money received by a community or technical college or 13138
community or technical college district, including income, 13139
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 13140
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 13141
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 13142
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 13143
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 13144
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 13145
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 13146
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 13147
the Revised Code.13148

        (10) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 13149
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 13150
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.13151

       (11) "Community or technical college capital facilities" 13152
means auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and 13153
dining facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 13154
of the Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 13155
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 13156
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 13157
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 13158
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 13159
and for which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 13160
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 13161
includes any one, part of, or any combination of the foregoing, 13162
and further includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, 13163
furnishings, and any separate or connected buildings, structures, 13164
improvements, sites, open space and green space areas, utilities, 13165
or equipment to be used in, or in connection with the operation or 13166
maintenance of, or supplementing or otherwise related to the 13167
services or facilities to be provided by, such facilities.13168

        (12) "Cost of community or technical college capital 13169
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 13170
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 13171
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 13172
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 13173
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 13174
used in connection with community or technical college capital 13175
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 13176
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 13177
and allocable portions of direct costs of the authority, community 13178
or technical college or community or technical college district, 13179
cost of engineering, architectural services, design, plans, 13180
specifications and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 13181
and expenses of trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and 13182
paying agents for the obligations, cost of issuance of the 13183
obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses of financial 13184
advisers and consultants in connection therewith, interest on the 13185
obligations from the date thereof to the time when interest is to 13186
be covered by available receipts or other sources other than 13187
proceeds of the obligations, amounts that represent the portion of 13188
investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to the federal 13189
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 13190
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those obligations 13191
pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, amounts 13192
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 13193
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 13194
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the community or technical 13195
college, community or technical college district, or others, from 13196
whatever source provided, including any temporary advances from 13197
state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost 13198
of community or technical college facilities, and all other 13199
expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 13200
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 13201
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 13202
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 13203
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 13204
furnishing of community or technical college capital facilities, 13205
the financing thereof and the placing of them in use and 13206
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 13207
classes of costs and expenses.13208

       (B) Pursuant to the powers granted to the general assembly 13209
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, to authorize 13210
the issuance of revenue obligations and other obligations, the 13211
owners or holders of which are not given the right to have excises 13212
or taxes levied by the general assembly for the payment of 13213
principal thereof or interest thereon, the Ohio building authority 13214
may issue obligations, in accordance with Chapter 152. of the 13215
Revised Code, and shall cause the net proceeds thereof, after any 13216
deposits of accrued interest for the payment of bond service 13217
charges and after any deposit of all or such lesser portion as the 13218
authority may direct of the premium received upon the sale of 13219
those obligations for the payment of the bond service charges, to 13220
be applied to the costs of capital facilities designated by or 13221
pursuant to act of the general assembly for housing state agencies 13222
as authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. The authority 13223
shall provide by resolution for the issuance of such obligations. 13224
The bond service charges and all other payments required to be 13225
made by the trust agreement or indenture securing such obligations 13226
shall be payable solely from available receipts of the authority 13227
pledged thereto as provided in such resolution. The available 13228
receipts pledged and thereafter received by the authority are 13229
immediately subject to the lien of such pledge without any 13230
physical delivery thereof or further act, and the lien of any such 13231
pledge is valid and binding against all parties having claims of 13232
any kind against the authority, irrespective of whether those 13233
parties have notice thereof, and creates a perfected security 13234
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and 13235
a perfected lien for purposes of any real property interest, all 13236
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 13237
the filing or recording of the resolution, trust agreement, 13238
indenture, or other agreement by which such pledge is created or 13239
any certificate, statement, or other document with respect 13240
thereto; and the pledge of such available receipts is effective 13241
and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to the purposes 13242
for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant and agreement 13243
made with respect to the pledge, made in the resolution may 13244
therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders of 13245
obligations authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, the 13246
net proceeds of which are to be applied to the costs of capital 13247
facilities, and to any trustee therefor, for the further securing 13248
of the payment of the bond service charges, and all or any rights 13249
under any agreement or lease made under this section may be 13250
assigned for such purpose. Obligations may be issued at one time 13251
or from time to time, and each issue shall be dated, shall mature 13252
at such time or times as determined by the authority not exceeding 13253
forty years from the date of issue, and may be redeemable before 13254
maturity at the option of the authority at such price or prices 13255
and under such terms and conditions as are fixed by the authority 13256
prior to the issuance of the obligations. The authority shall 13257
determine the form of the obligations, fix their denominations, 13258
establish their interest rate or rates, which may be a variable 13259
rate or rates, or the maximum interest rate, and establish within 13260
or without this state a place or places of payment of bond service 13261
charges.13262

       (C) The obligations shall be signed by the authority 13263
chairperson, vice-chairperson, and secretary-treasurer, and the 13264
authority seal shall be affixed. The signatures may be facsimile 13265
signatures and the seal affixed may be a facsimile seal, as 13266
provided by resolution of the authority. Any coupons attached may 13267
bear the facsimile signature of the chairperson. In case any 13268
officer who has signed any obligations, or caused the officer's 13269
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto, ceases to be such 13270
officer before such obligations have been delivered, such 13271
obligations may, nevertheless, be issued and delivered as though 13272
the person who had signed the obligations or caused the person's 13273
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto had not ceased to be 13274
such officer.13275

       Any obligations may be executed on behalf of the authority by 13276
an officer who, on the date of execution, is the proper officer 13277
although on the date of such obligations such person was not the 13278
proper officer.13279

       (D) All obligations issued by the authority shall have all 13280
the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments and may be 13281
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the authority 13282
determines. Provision may be made for the registration of any 13283
obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal alone or 13284
as to both principal and interest, their exchange for obligations 13285
so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 13286
obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 13287
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 13288
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 13289
reconversion. The authority may sell its obligations in any manner 13290
and for such prices as it determines, except that the authority 13291
shall sell obligations sold at public or private sale in 13292
accordance with section 152.091 of the Revised Code.13293

       (E) The obligations of the authority, principal, interest, 13294
and any proceeds from their sale or transfer, are exempt from all 13295
taxation within this state.13296

       (F) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 13297
and other obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 13298
Constitution, for the purpose of paying the cost of capital 13299
facilities for housing of branches and agencies of state 13300
government, including capital facilities for the purpose of 13301
housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 13302
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, as 13303
are authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and that are 13304
authorized by the general assembly by the appropriation of lease 13305
payments or other moneys for such capital facilities or by any 13306
other act of the general assembly, but not including the 13307
appropriation of moneys for feasibility studies for such capital 13308
facilities. This division does not authorize the authority to 13309
issue obligations pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 13310
Constitution, to pay the cost of capital facilities for mental 13311
hygiene and retardation, parks and recreation, or state-supported 13312
or state-assisted institutions of higher education.13313

       (G) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 13314
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, on behalf of 13315
a community or technical college district and shall cause the net 13316
proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued interest for the 13317
payment of bond service charges and after any deposit of all or 13318
such lesser portion as the authority may direct of the premium 13319
received upon the sale of those obligations for the payment of the 13320
bond service charges, to be applied to the cost of community or 13321
technical college capital facilities, provided that the issuance 13322
of such obligations is subject to the execution of a written 13323
agreement in accordance with division (C) of section 3333.9013324
3333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding and depositing of 13325
funds otherwise due the district, or the college it operates, in 13326
respect of its allocated state share of instruction.13327

        The authority shall provide by resolution for the issuance of 13328
such obligations. The bond service charges and all other payments 13329
required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing 13330
the obligations shall be payable solely from available community 13331
or technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 13332
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 13333
pledged and thereafter received by the authority are immediately 13334
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 13335
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 13336
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 13337
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 13338
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 13339
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 13340
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 13341
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 13342
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 13343
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 13344
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 13345
of such available community or technical college receipts is 13346
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 13347
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 13348
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 13349
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 13350
and holders of obligations authorized by this division, and to any 13351
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 13352
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 13353
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose. 13354
Obligations may be issued at one time or from time to time, and 13355
each issue shall be dated, shall mature at such time or times as 13356
determined by the authority not exceeding forty years from the 13357
date of issue, and may be redeemable before maturity at the option 13358
of the authority at such price or prices and under such terms and 13359
conditions as are fixed by the authority prior to the issuance of 13360
the obligations. The authority shall determine the form of the 13361
obligations, fix their denominations, establish their interest 13362
rate or rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the 13363
maximum interest rate, and establish within or without this state 13364
a place or places of payment of bond service charges.13365

       Sec. 153.692. For every design-build contract, the public 13366
authority planning to contract for design-build services shall 13367
first obtain the services of a criteria architect or engineer by 13368
doing either of the following: 13369

       (A) Contracting for the services consistent with sections 13370
153.65 to 153.70 of the Revised Code;13371

       (B) Obtaining the services through an architect or engineer 13372
who is an employee of the public authority and notifying the 13373
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 13374
commission before the services are performed.13375

       Sec. 154.01.  As used in this chapter:13376

       (A) "Commission" means the Ohio public facilities commission 13377
created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code.13378

       (B) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 13379
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 13380
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.13381

       (C) "Bond proceedings" means the order or orders, resolution 13382
or resolutions, trust agreement, indenture, lease, and other 13383
agreements, amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 13384
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and 13385
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security of, 13386
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 13387
and the provisions contained in such obligations.13388

       (D) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and officers, 13389
boards, commissions, departments, divisions, or other units or 13390
agencies of the state.13391

       (E) "Governmental agency" means state agencies, state 13392
supported and assisted institutions of higher education, municipal 13393
corporations, counties, townships, school districts, and any other 13394
political subdivision or special district in this state 13395
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 13396
indicated, also means the United States or any department, 13397
division, or agency thereof, and any agency, commission, or 13398
authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or 13399
agreement.13400

       (F) "Institutions of higher education" and "state supported 13401
or state assisted institutions of higher education" means the 13402
state universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised 13403
Code, the northeast Ohio medical university, state universities or 13404
colleges at any time created, community college districts, 13405
university branch districts, and technical college districts at 13406
any time established or operating under Chapter 3354., 3355., or 13407
3357. of the Revised Code, and other institutions for education, 13408
including technical education, beyond the high school, receiving 13409
state support or assistance for their expenses of operation.13410

       (G) "Governing body" means:13411

       (1) In the case of institutions of higher education, the 13412
board of trustees, board of directors, commission, or other body 13413
vested by law with the general management, conduct, and control of 13414
one or more institutions of higher education;13415

       (2) In the case of a county, the board of county 13416
commissioners or other legislative body; in the case of a 13417
municipal corporation, the council or other legislative body; in 13418
the case of a township, the board of township trustees; in the 13419
case of a school district, the board of education;13420

       (3) In the case of any other governmental agency, the 13421
officer, board, commission, authority or other body having the 13422
general management thereof or having jurisdiction or authority in 13423
the particular circumstances.13424

       (H) "Person" means any person, firm, partnership, 13425
association, or corporation.13426

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 13427
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 13428
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 13429
by the state on obligations. If not prohibited by the applicable 13430
bond proceedings, bond service charges may include costs relating 13431
to credit enhancement facilities that are related to and 13432
represent, or are intended to provide a source of payment of or 13433
limitation on, other bond service charges.13434

       (J) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 13435
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 13436
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 13437
combination of the foregoing, to serve the general purposes for 13438
which the issuing authority is authorized to issue obligations 13439
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, including, but not 13440
limited to, drives, roadways, parking facilities, walks, lighting, 13441
machinery, furnishings, utilities, landscaping, wharves, docks, 13442
piers, reservoirs, dams, tunnels, bridges, retaining walls, 13443
riprap, culverts, ditches, channels, watercourses, retention 13444
basins, standpipes and water storage facilities, waste treatment 13445
and disposal facilities, heating, air conditioning and 13446
communications facilities, inns, lodges, cabins, camping sites, 13447
golf courses, boat and bathing facilities, athletic and 13448
recreational facilities, and site improvements.13449

       (K) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 13450
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 13451
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 13452
furnishing capital facilities, and the financing thereof, 13453
including the cost of clearance and preparation of the site and of 13454
any land to be used in connection with capital facilities, the 13455
cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, 13456
all related direct administrative expenses and allocable portions 13457
of direct costs of the commission or issuing authority and 13458
department of administrative services, or other designees of the 13459
commission under section 154.17 of the Revised Code, cost of 13460
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 13461
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 13462
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 13463
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 13464
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 13465
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations, 13466
including but not limited to, interest from the date of their 13467
issuance to the time when interest is to be covered from sources 13468
other than proceeds of obligations, amounts necessary to establish 13469
reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of audits, the 13470
reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied by or borrowed 13471
from any governmental agency, whether to or by the commission or 13472
others, from whatever source provided, for the payment of any item 13473
or items of cost of the capital facilities, any share of the cost 13474
undertaken by the commission pursuant to arrangements made with 13475
governmental agencies under division (H) of section 154.06 of the 13476
Revised Code, and all other expenses necessary or incident to 13477
planning or determining feasibility or practicability with respect 13478
to capital facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 13479
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 13480
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 13481
equipment, and furnishing of capital facilities, the financing 13482
thereof and the placing of the same in use and operation, 13483
including any one, part of, or combination of such classes of 13484
costs and expenses.13485

       (L) "Public service facilities" means inns, lodges, hotels, 13486
cabins, camping sites, scenic trails, picnic sites, restaurants, 13487
commissaries, golf courses, boating and bathing facilities and 13488
other similar facilities in state parks.13489

       (M) "State parks" means:13490

       (1) State reservoirs described and identified in section 13491
1541.06 of the Revised Code;13492

       (2) All lands or interests therein of the state identified as 13493
administered by the division of parks and recreation in the 13494
"inventory of state owned lands administered by the department of 13495
natural resources as of June 1, 1963," as recorded in the journal 13496
of the director, which inventory was prepared by the real estate 13497
section of the department and is supported by maps now on file in 13498
said real estate section;13499

       (3) All lands or interests in lands of the state designated 13500
after June 1, 1963, as state parks in the journal of the director 13501
with the approval of the recreation and resources council.13502

       State parks do not include any lands or interest in lands of 13503
the state administered jointly by two or more divisions of the 13504
department of natural resources. The designation of lands as state 13505
parks under divisions (M)(1) to (3) of this section is conclusive 13506
and such lands shall be under the control of and administered by 13507
the division of parks and recreation. No order or proceeding 13508
designating lands as state parks or park purchase areas is subject 13509
to any appeal or review by any officer, board, commission, or 13510
court.13511

       (N) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created for 13512
and pledged to the payment of bond service charges under section 13513
154.20, 154.21, 154.22, or 154.23 of the Revised Code, including 13514
all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, 13515
credited and to be credited thereto.13516

       (O) "Improvement fund" means the applicable fund created for 13517
the payment of costs of capital facilities under section 123.201,13518
154.20, 154.21, or 154.22, or 3383.09 of the Revised Code, 13519
including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 13520
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.13521

       (P) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 13522
context does not permit, the bond service funds, the improvements 13523
funds, and any other funds for similar or different purposes 13524
created under bond proceedings, including all moneys and 13525
investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be 13526
credited thereto.13527

       (Q) "Year" unless the context indicates a different meaning 13528
or intent, means a calendar year beginning on the first day of 13529
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December.13530

       (R) "Fiscal year" means the period of twelve months beginning 13531
on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.13532

       (S) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state or the 13533
officer or employee who by law performs the functions of that 13534
office.13535

       (T) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 13536
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.13537

       (U) "Ohio cultural facility" and "Ohio sports facility" have 13538
the same meanings as in section 3383.01123.28 of the Revised 13539
Code.13540

       Sec. 154.17.  The departments of administrative services,13541
mental healthmental health and addiction services, developmental 13542
disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, and natural 13543
resources, the Ohio board of regents, institutions of higher 13544
education, and other state officers and state agencies shall 13545
cooperate with the commission in providing services and 13546
information requested by the commission for purposes of Chapter 13547
154. of the Revised Code, and the commission may make mutually 13548
satisfactory arrangements therefor and may thereunder designate 13549
any governmental agency for the management or performance of 13550
particular functions of the commission, other than the 13551
authorization and issuance of obligations provided for in Chapter 13552
154. of the Revised Code, pursuant to which designation, upon 13553
acceptance thereof by that governmental agency, that function may 13554
be carried out with the full force and effect as if performed by 13555
the commission. Any such designation shall be made only by formal 13556
action or written agreement of the commission. In the management 13557
of capital facilities or performance of other functions with 13558
respect thereto, a governmental agency may exercise all powers 13559
which it has under law with respect to other similar facilities 13560
under its jurisdiction.13561

       Contracts relating to capital facilities shall be made in 13562
accordance with the law pertaining to the governmental agency 13563
designated under authority of this section to perform such 13564
contracting function, and in any other case shall be made in 13565
accordance with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, for which 13566
purpose the commission shall be considered the owner, provided 13567
that the commission may assign the function of owner to the 13568
department of administrative services or other governmental agency 13569
as it determines. The commission may acquire by assignment from 13570
any governmental agency contracts which are not completed and 13571
which involve acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 13572
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 13573
equipping, or furnishing capital facilities, provided that such 13574
governmental agency has complied with the procedures prescribed by 13575
laws for its letting of such contract.13576

       No contract shall be let or assignment thereof accepted under 13577
this section involving performance in accordance with plans and 13578
specifications until such plans and specifications have been 13579
submitted to and approved by the governmental agency to have 13580
responsibility for the management of the capital facilities 13581
provided for in such plans and specifications, which approval 13582
shall be considered to be given if no approval or disapproval is 13583
communicated in writing to the commission or its designee for such 13584
purpose within sixty days following such submission of plans and 13585
specifications. Approval by such governmental agency of changes in 13586
plans and specifications is not required if the director of 13587
administrative services or the designee of the commission for such 13588
purpose shall certify that such changes do not substantially 13589
change the location, character, or extent of such capital 13590
facilities.13591

       Sec. 154.20.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 13592
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 13593
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 13594
costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and retardation, 13595
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients.13596

       (B) Any capital facilities for mental hygiene or retardation, 13597
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients, may 13598
be leased by the commission to the department of mental health,13599
mental health and addiction services or the department of 13600
developmental disabilities, or the department of alcohol and drug 13601
addiction services, and other agreements may be made by the 13602
commission and any one or more of these departments with respect 13603
to the use or purchase of such capital facilities or, subject to 13604
the approval of the director of the department, the commission may 13605
lease such capital facilities to, and make or provide for other 13606
agreements with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any 13607
governmental agency having authority under law to operate such 13608
capital facilities, and the director of the department may 13609
sublease such capital facilities to, and make other agreements 13610
with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any such 13611
governmental agency, which may include provisions for transmittal 13612
to the mental health bond service trust fund created under 13613
division (E) of this section, by such governmental agency or by a 13614
nonprofit corporation providing mental hygiene and retardation 13615
services for or under contract with or the supervision of that 13616
governmental agency, of receipts of that agency or nonprofit 13617
corporation from charges for the treatment or care of mental 13618
hygiene and retardation patients, all upon such terms and 13619
conditions as the parties may agree upon and pursuant to this 13620
chapter, notwithstanding any other provision of law affecting the 13621
leasing, acquisition, or disposition of capital facilities by the 13622
parties.13623

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 13624
all receipts of the state from charges for the treatment or care 13625
of mental hygiene and retardation patients, including support 13626
payments received under Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code and 13627
moneys required to be transmitted to the mental health bond 13628
service trust fund pursuant to subleases and other agreements 13629
between any of the departments and another governmental agency 13630
pursuant to division (B) of this section as the subleases and 13631
other agreements may be further implemented for internal planning, 13632
budgeting, and accounting purposes pursuant to rules adopted by 13633
the director of mental health,mental health and addiction 13634
services or director of developmental disabilities, or director of 13635
alcohol and drug addiction services, any revenues or receipts 13636
derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or other 13637
disposition of capital facilities financed under this section, the 13638
proceeds of obligations issued under this section and sections 13639
154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, 13640
grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available 13641
for the payment of bond service charges on such obligations. The 13642
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as that 13643
authority determines, of the available receipts to the payment of 13644
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section and 13645
under sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 13646
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 13647
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 13648
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 13649
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 13650
provision of law pertaining thereto.13651

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 13652
proceedings that the state and state agencies shall, so long as 13653
any obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause 13654
to be charged and collected charges for the treatment or care of 13655
mental hygiene and retardation patients sufficient in amount to 13656
provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 13657
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 13658
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 13659
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 13660
pertaining to such charges.13661

       (E) There is hereby created the mental health bond service 13662
trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 13663
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 13664
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 13665
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 13666
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 13667
credited to the fund, and all other moneys transferred or 13668
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 13669
deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such fund, 13670
subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, but 13671
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The mental health 13672
bond service trust fund is a trust fund and is hereby pledged to 13673
the payment of bond service charges on the obligations issued 13674
pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the 13675
Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 13676
proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund shall be made or 13677
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with such 13678
bond proceedings without necessity for any act of appropriation.13679

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the mental 13680
health facilities improvement fund. Subject to the bond 13681
proceedings therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of 13682
obligations pursuant to this section shall be credited to the 13683
fund, except that any accrued interest shall be credited to the 13684
mental health bond service fund. The mental health facilities 13685
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 13686
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 13687
credit of such fund. All investment earnings on the cash balance 13688
in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The fund shall be 13689
applied only to the following purposes:13690

       (1) Paying costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and 13691
retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and retardation 13692
patients, under the jurisdiction of the department of mental 13693
health,mental health and addiction services or department of 13694
developmental disabilities, or department of alcohol and drug 13695
addiction services;13696

       (2) Participating in capital facilities for mental hygiene 13697
and retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and 13698
retardation patients, with the federal government, municipal 13699
corporations, counties, or other governmental agencies, or a 13700
nonprofit corporation specifically chartered to provide a mental 13701
health or mental retardation service when such service fulfills a 13702
public purpose, which participation may be by grants or 13703
contributions to them for such capital facilities. Except as 13704
provided in division (G) of this section, the nonprofit 13705
corporation may act in concert with a limited partnership or a 13706
limited liability company eligible to participate in the nonprofit 13707
set-aside described in section 42(h)(5) of the "Internal Revenue 13708
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2198, 26 U.S.C. 42, and the Ohio housing 13709
finance agency's housing tax credit program for the purpose of 13710
making use of low-income housing tax credits in support of housing 13711
for mental hygiene and retardation patients.13712

       (G) A nonprofit corporation providing a mental retardation 13713
service must obtain written approval from the director of 13714
developmental disabilities before acting in concert with a limited 13715
partnership or limited liability company as described in division 13716
(F)(2) of this section. However, the director may issue one 13717
blanket approval for all such nonprofit corporations.13718

       (H) This section is to be applied with other applicable 13719
provisions of this chapter.13720

       Sec. 154.22.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 13721
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 13722
authority may authorize and issue obligations pursuant to this 13723
chapter to pay costs of capital facilities for parks and 13724
recreation.13725

       (B) Any capital facilities for parks and recreation may be 13726
leased by the commission to the department of natural resources 13727
and other agreements may be made by the commission and such 13728
department with respect to the use or purchase of such capital 13729
facilities or, subject to the approval of the director of such 13730
department, the commission may lease such capital facilities to, 13731
and make other agreements with respect to their use or purchase 13732
with, any governmental agency having authority under law to 13733
operate such capital facilities, and the director of such 13734
department may sublease such capital facilities to, and make other 13735
agreements with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any 13736
such governmental agency, or such director may sublease or 13737
contract for the operation of such capital facilities in 13738
accordance with the applicable provisions of sections 1501.09, 13739
1501.091, and 1501.10 of the Revised Code, all upon such terms and 13740
conditions as the parties may agree upon and pursuant to this 13741
chapter, notwithstanding any other provisions of law affecting the 13742
leasing, acquisition, or disposition of capital facilities by such 13743
parties.13744

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 13745
all receipts, including fees, charges, and rentals, derived or to 13746
be derived from state parks and public service facilities in any 13747
state park or parks, any other receipts of state agencies with 13748
respect to parks and recreational facilities, any revenues or 13749
receipts derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or 13750
other disposition of capital facilities financed under this 13751
section, the proceeds of obligations issued under this section and 13752
sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any 13753
gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts thereon, 13754
available for the payment of bond service charges on obligations 13755
issued under this section. The issuing authority may pledge all, 13756
or such portion as it determines, of the available receipts to the 13757
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 13758
section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for 13759
the establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in 13760
the bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with 13761
respect to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, 13762
which provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 13763
provision of law pertaining thereto.13764

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond proceeding 13765
that the state and state agencies shall, so long as any 13766
obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause to be 13767
charged and collected fees, charges, and rentals for the use of 13768
state parks and public service facilities and other fees and 13769
charges with respect to parks and recreation sufficient in amount 13770
to provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 13771
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 13772
reserves as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 13773
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 13774
pertaining to such charges except any provision of law prohibiting 13775
or limiting charges for the use of swimming facilities of state 13776
parks and public service facilities by persons under sixteen years 13777
of age.13778

       (E) There is hereby created the parks and recreation bond 13779
service trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 13780
of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of 13781
the state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 13782
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 13783
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 13784
allocated to or received for the purposes of the trust fund shall 13785
be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such 13786
fund, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings but 13787
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The trust fund is 13788
hereby pledged to the payment of bond service charges on the 13789
obligations issued pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 13790
and 154.12 of the Revised Code to the extent provided in the 13791
applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund 13792
shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of state in 13793
accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity for any 13794
act of appropriation.13795

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the parks 13796
and recreation improvement fund. Subject to the bond proceedings 13797
therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of obligations issued 13798
pursuant to this section shall be credited to such fund, except 13799
that any accrued interest received shall be credited to the parks 13800
and recreation bond service trust fund. The parks and recreation 13801
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 13802
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 13803
credit of such fund. Such fund shall be applied only to the 13804
purpose of paying costs of capital facilities for parks and 13805
recreation under the jurisdiction of the department of natural 13806
resources or for participation in capital facilities for parks and 13807
recreation with the federal government, municipal corporations, 13808
counties, or other governmental agencies, or any one or more of 13809
them, which participation may be by grants or contributions to 13810
them for such capital facilities. All investment earnings on the 13811
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.13812

       (G) All state parks shall be exclusively under the control 13813
and administration of the division of parks and recreation. With 13814
the approval of the recreation and resources council, the director 13815
of natural resources may by order remove from the classification 13816
as state parks any of the lands or interests therein referred to 13817
in divisions (M)(2) and (3) of section 154.01 of the Revised Code, 13818
subject to the limitations, provisions, and conditions in any 13819
order authorizing state park revenue bonds, in any trust agreement 13820
securing such bonds, or in bond proceedings with respect to 13821
obligations issued pursuant to this section. Lands or interests 13822
therein so removed shall be transferred to other divisions of the 13823
department for administration or may be sold as provided by law. 13824
Proceeds of any sale shall be used or transferred as provided in 13825
the order authorizing state park revenue bonds or in such trust 13826
agreement, or in bond proceedings with respect to obligations 13827
issued pursuant to this section, and if no such provision is made 13828
shall be transferred to the state park fund created by section 13829
1541.22 of the Revised Code.13830

       (H) This section shall be applied with other applicable 13831
provisions of this chapter.13832

       (I) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 13833
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 13834
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 13835
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.13836

       Sec. 154.23.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 13837
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 13838
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 13839
costs of capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio 13840
sports facilities.13841

       (B) The Ohio public facilities commission may lease any 13842
capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities or Ohio sports 13843
facilities to, and make or provide for other agreements with 13844
respect to the use or purchase of such capital facilities with, 13845
the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission and, with the 13846
Ohio cultural facilities construction commission's approval, any 13847
governmental agency having authority under law to operate such 13848
capital facilities. Any lease or agreement shall be subject to 13849
Chapter 3383. of the Revised Code.13850

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 13851
any revenues or receipts derived by the Ohio public facilities 13852
commission from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 13853
capital facilities financed under this section, the proceeds of 13854
obligations issued under this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 13855
of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, grants, donations, 13856
and pledges, and receipts thereon, available for the payment of 13857
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section. The 13858
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as it 13859
determines, of the available receipts to the payment of bond 13860
service charges on obligations issued under this section and 13861
section 154.11 or 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 13862
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 13863
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 13864
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 13865
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 13866
provision of law pertaining thereto.13867

       (D) There is hereby created one or more funds, as determined 13868
by the issuing authority in the bond proceedings, designated as 13869
the "Ohio cultural facilities commission bond service fund" with, 13870
if more than one such fund, such further identifying name as the 13871
issuing authority determines, which shall be in the custody of the 13872
treasurer of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a 13873
part of the state treasury. All money received by or on account of 13874
the issuing authority or the Ohio cultural facilities construction13875
commission and required by the applicable bond proceedings to be 13876
deposited, transferred, or credited to the Ohio cultural 13877
facilities commission bond service fund, and all other money 13878
transferred or allocated to or received for the purposes of that 13879
fund shall be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited 13880
to the applicable fund, subject to applicable provisions of the 13881
bond proceedings, but without necessity of any act or 13882
appropriation. The Ohio cultural facilities commission bond 13883
service funds are trust funds and are hereby pledged to the 13884
payment of bond service charges on the applicable obligations 13885
issued pursuant to this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 of 13886
the Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 13887
proceedings, and payment thereof from such funds shall be made or 13888
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with the 13889
applicable bond proceedings without necessity for any act or 13890
appropriation.13891

       (E) This section is to be applied with other applicable 13892
provisions of this chapter.13893

       Sec. 154.25. (A) As used in this section:13894

       (1) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 13895
all money received by a community or technical college or 13896
community or technical college district, including income, 13897
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 13898
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 13899
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 13900
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 13901
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 13902
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 13903
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 13904
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 13905
the Revised Code.13906

       (2) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 13907
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 13908
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.13909

       (3) "Community or technical college capital facilities" means 13910
auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and dining 13911
facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 of the 13912
Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 13913
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 13914
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 13915
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 13916
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 13917
and for which the issuing authority is authorized to issue 13918
obligations pursuant to this section, and includes any one, part 13919
of, or any combination of the foregoing, and further includes site 13920
improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and any separate 13921
or connected buildings, structures, improvements, sites, open 13922
space and green space areas, utilities, or equipment to be used 13923
in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, or 13924
supplementing or otherwise related to the services or facilities 13925
to be provided by, such facilities.13926

       (4) "Cost of community or technical college capital 13927
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 13928
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 13929
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 13930
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 13931
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 13932
used in connection with community or technical college capital 13933
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 13934
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 13935
and allocable portions of direct costs of the commission and the 13936
issuing authority, community or technical college or community or 13937
technical college district, cost of engineering, architectural 13938
services, design, plans, specifications and surveys, estimates of 13939
cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of trustees, depositories, 13940
bond registrars, and paying agents for obligations, cost of 13941
issuance of obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses 13942
of financial advisers and consultants in connection therewith, 13943
interest on obligations from the date thereof to the time when 13944
interest is to be covered by available receipts or other sources 13945
other than proceeds of those obligations, amounts necessary to 13946
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 13947
audits, the reimbursements of all moneys advanced or applied by or 13948
borrowed from the community or technical college, community or 13949
technical college district, or others, from whatever source 13950
provided, including any temporary advances from state 13951
appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost of 13952
community or technical college facilities, and all other expenses 13953
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 13954
practicability with respect to such facilities, and such other 13955
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 13956
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 13957
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 13958
community or technical college capital facilities, the financing 13959
thereof and the placing of them in use and operation, including 13960
any one, part of, or combination of such classes of costs and 13961
expenses.13962

       (5) "Capital facilities" includes community or technical 13963
college capital facilities.13964

       (6) "Obligations" has the same meaning as in section 154.01 13965
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.13966

       (B) The issuing authority is authorized to issue revenue 13967
obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 13968
on behalf of a community or technical college district and shall 13969
cause the net proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued 13970
interest for the payment of bond service charges and after any 13971
deposit of all or such lesser portion as the issuing authority may 13972
direct of the premium received upon the sale of those obligations 13973
for the payment of the bond service charges, to be applied to the 13974
cost of community or technical college capital facilities, 13975
provided that the issuance of such obligations is subject to the 13976
execution of a written agreement in accordance with division (C) 13977
of section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding 13978
and depositing of funds otherwise due the district, or the college 13979
it operates, in respect of its allocated state share of 13980
instruction.13981

       (C) The bond service charges and all other payments required 13982
to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing the 13983
obligations shall be payable solely from available community or 13984
technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 13985
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 13986
pledged and thereafter received by the commission are immediately 13987
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 13988
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 13989
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 13990
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 13991
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 13992
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 13993
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 13994
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 13995
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 13996
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 13997
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 13998
of such available community or technical college receipts is 13999
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 14000
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 14001
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 14002
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 14003
and holders of obligations authorized by this section, and to any 14004
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 14005
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 14006
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose.14007

       (D) This section is to be applied with other applicable 14008
provisions of this chapter.14009

       Sec. 156.02.  The executive director of administrative 14010
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission may contract 14011
with an energy or a water services company, architect, 14012
professional engineer, contractor, or other person experienced in 14013
the design and implementation of energy or water conservation 14014
measures for a report containing an analysis and recommendations 14015
pertaining to the implementation of energy or water conservation 14016
measures that result in energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 14017
operating cost savings, or avoided capital costs for the 14018
institution. The report shall include estimates of all costs of 14019
such installations, including the costs of design, engineering, 14020
installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, and 14021
estimates of the energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 14022
operating cost savings, and avoided capital costs created.14023

       Sec. 156.03.  (A) If the executive director of administrative 14024
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission wishes to 14025
enter into an installment payment contract pursuant to section 14026
156.04 of the Revised Code or any other contract to implement one 14027
or more energy or water saving measures, the executive director 14028
may proceed under Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, or, 14029
alternatively, the executive director may request the controlling 14030
board to exempt the contract from Chapter 153. of the Revised 14031
Code.14032

       If the controlling board by a majority vote approves an 14033
exemption, that chapter shall not apply to the contract and 14034
instead the executive director shall request proposals from at 14035
least three parties for the implementation of the energy or water 14036
saving measures. Prior to providing any interested party a copy of 14037
any such request, the executive director shall advertise, in a 14038
newspaper of general circulation in the county where the contract 14039
is to be performed, and may advertise by electronic means pursuant 14040
to rules adopted by the executive director, the executive14041
director's intent to request proposals for the implementation of 14042
the energy or water saving measures. The notice shall invite 14043
interested parties to submit proposals for consideration and shall 14044
be published at least thirty days prior to the date for accepting 14045
proposals.14046

       (B) Upon receiving the proposals, the executive director 14047
shall analyze them and, after considering the cost estimates of 14048
each proposal and the availability of funds to pay for each with 14049
current appropriations or by financing the cost of each through an 14050
installment payment contract under section 156.04 of the Revised 14051
Code, may select one or more proposals or reject all proposals. In 14052
selecting proposals, the executive director shall select the one 14053
or more proposals most likely to result in the greatest energy, 14054
water, or wastewater savings, operating costs savings, and avoided 14055
capital costs created.14056

       (C) No contract shall be awarded to implement energy or water 14057
saving measures under this section, unless the executive director 14058
finds that both of the following circumstances exists:14059

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs of the contract 14060
shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase;14061

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 14062
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 14063
Code, the remaining balance of the cost of the contract shall be 14064
paid within twenty years from the date of purchase, and, in the 14065
case of all other contracts, fifteen years.14066

       Sec. 156.04.  (A) In accordance with this section and section 14067
156.03 of the Revised Code, the executive director of 14068
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 14069
commission may enter into an installment payment contract for the 14070
implementation of one or more energy or water saving measures. If 14071
the executive director wishes an installment payment contract to 14072
be exempted from Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, the executive14073
director shall proceed pursuant to section 156.03 of the Revised 14074
Code.14075

       (B) Any installment payment contract under this section shall 14076
provide that all payments, except payments for repairs and 14077
obligations on termination of the contract prior to its 14078
expiration, are to be a stated percentage of calculated energy, 14079
water, or wastewater cost savings, operating costs, and avoided 14080
capital costs attributable to the one or more measures over a 14081
defined period of time and are to be made only to the extent that 14082
those calculated amounts actually occur. No such contract shall 14083
contain either of the following:14084

       (1) A requirement of any additional capital investment or 14085
contribution of funds, other than funds available from state or 14086
federal grants;14087

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 14088
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 14089
Code, a payment term longer than twenty years, and, in the case of 14090
all other contracts, a payment term longer than fifteen years.14091

       (C) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 14092
section shall terminate no later than the last day of the fiscal 14093
biennium for which funds have been appropriated to the department 14094
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission14095
by the general assembly and shall be renewed in each succeeding 14096
fiscal biennium in which any balance of the contract remains 14097
unpaid, provided that both an appropriation for that succeeding 14098
fiscal biennium and the certification required by section 126.07 14099
of the Revised Code are made.14100

       (D) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 14101
section shall be eligible for financing provided through the Ohio 14102
air quality development authority under Chapter 3706. of the 14103
Revised Code.14104

       Sec. 156.05.  In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 14105
Code, the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 14106
facilities construction commission shall adopt, and enforce rules 14107
necessary to administer sections 156.01 to 156.04 of the Revised 14108
Code. Rules adopted under this section shall establish procedures 14109
by which the executive director may authorize in histhe executive 14110
director's stead the manager of any building owned by the state to 14111
enter into contracts authorized under sections 156.01 to 156.04 of 14112
the Revised Code.14113

       Sec. 164.27. (A) The clean Ohio conservation fund is hereby 14114
created in the state treasury. Seventy-five per cent of the net 14115
proceeds of obligations issued and sold by the issuing authority 14116
pursuant to sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall 14117
be deposited into the fund. The fund also shall consist of money 14118
credited to it under section 151.50 of the Revised Code.14119
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund and 14120
may be used to pay costs incurred by the Ohio public works 14121
commission in administering sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the 14122
Revised Code. Moneys in the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be 14123
used to make grants to local political subdivisions and nonprofit 14124
organizations for projects that have been approved for grants 14125
under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.14126

       The clean Ohio conservation fund shall be administered by the 14127
Ohio public works commission.14128

       (B) For the purpose of grants issued under sections 164.20 to 14129
164.27 of the Revised Code, moneys shall be allocated on an annual 14130
basis from the clean Ohio conservation fund to districts 14131
represented by natural resources assistance councils as follows:14132

       (1) Each district shall receive an amount that is equal to 14133
one-fourth of one per cent of the total annual amount allocated to 14134
all districts each year for each county that is represented by the 14135
district.14136

       (2) The remaining moneys shall be allocated to each district 14137
annually on a per capita basis.14138

       (C) A grant that is awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 14139
of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent of the 14140
estimated cost of a project. Matching funds from a grant recipient 14141
may consist of contributions of money by any person, any local 14142
political subdivision, or the federal government or of 14143
contributions in-kind by such entities through the purchase or 14144
donation of equipment, land, easements, interest in land, labor, 14145
or materials necessary to complete the project.14146

       (D) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall 14147
notify the director of budget and management of the amounts 14148
allocated pursuant to this section, and that information shall be 14149
entered in the state accounting system. The director of budget and 14150
management may establish appropriate line items or other 14151
mechanisms that are needed to track the allocations.14152

       (E) Grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the 14153
Revised Code from the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be used 14154
by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization only to 14155
pay the costs related to the purposes for which grants may be 14156
issued under section 164.22 of the Revised Code and shall not be 14157
used by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization to 14158
pay any administrative costs incurred by the local political 14159
subdivision or nonprofit organization.14160

       Sec. 166.02.  (A) The general assembly finds that many local 14161
areas throughout the state are experiencing economic stagnation or 14162
decline, and that the economic development programs provided for 14163
in this chapter will constitute deserved, necessary reinvestment 14164
by the state in those areas, materially contribute to their 14165
economic revitalization, and result in improving the economic 14166
welfare of all the people of the state. Accordingly, it is 14167
declared to be the public policy of the state, through the 14168
operations of this chapter and other applicable laws adopted 14169
pursuant to Section 2p or 13 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 14170
and other authority vested in the general assembly, to assist in 14171
and facilitate the establishment or development of eligible 14172
projects or assist and cooperate with any governmental agency in 14173
achieving such purpose.14174

       (B) In furtherance of such public policy and to implement 14175
such purpose, the director of development may:14176

       (1) After consultation with appropriate governmental 14177
agencies, enter into agreements with persons engaged in industry, 14178
commerce, distribution, or research and with governmental agencies 14179
to induce such persons to acquire, construct, reconstruct, 14180
rehabilitate, renovate, enlarge, improve, equip, or furnish, or 14181
otherwise develop, eligible projects and make provision therein 14182
for project facilities and governmental actions, as authorized by 14183
this chapter and other applicable laws, subject to any required 14184
actions by the general assembly or the controlling board and 14185
subject to applicable local government laws and regulations;14186

       (2) Provide for the guarantees and loans as provided for in 14187
sections 166.06 and 166.07 of the Revised Code;14188

       (3) Subject to release of such moneys by the controlling 14189
board, contract for labor and materials needed for, or contract 14190
with others, including governmental agencies, to provide, project 14191
facilities the allowable costs of which are to be paid for or 14192
reimbursed from moneys in the facilities establishment fund, and 14193
contract for the operation of such project facilities;14194

       (4) Subject to release thereof by the controlling board, from 14195
moneys in the facilities establishment fund acquire or contract to 14196
acquire by gift, exchange, or purchase, including the obtaining 14197
and exercise of purchase options, property, and convey or 14198
otherwise dispose of, or provide for the conveyance or disposition 14199
of, property so acquired or contracted to be acquired by sale, 14200
exchange, lease, lease purchase, conditional or installment sale, 14201
transfer, or other disposition, including the grant of an option 14202
to purchase, to any governmental agency or to any other person 14203
without necessity for competitive bidding and upon such terms and 14204
conditions and manner of consideration pursuant to and as the 14205
director determines to be appropriate to satisfy the objectives of 14206
sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code;14207

       (5) Retain the services of or employ financial consultants, 14208
appraisers, consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, 14209
construction and accounting experts, attorneys, and employees, 14210
agents, and independent contractors as are necessary in the 14211
director's judgment and fix the compensation for their services;14212

       (6) Receive and accept from any person grants, gifts, and 14213
contributions of money, property, labor, and other things of 14214
value, to be held, used and applied only for the purpose for which 14215
such grants, gifts, and contributions are made;14216

       (7) Enter into appropriate arrangements and agreements with 14217
any governmental agency for the taking or provision by that 14218
governmental agency of any governmental action;14219

       (8) Do all other acts and enter into contracts and execute 14220
all instruments necessary or appropriate to carry out the 14221
provisions of this chapter;14222

       (9) Adopt rules to implement any of the provisions of this 14223
chapter applicable to the director.14224

       (C) The determinations by the director that facilities 14225
constitute eligible projects, that facilities are project 14226
facilities, that costs of such facilities are allowable costs, and 14227
all other determinations relevant thereto or to an action taken or 14228
agreement entered into shall be conclusive for purposes of the 14229
validity and enforceability of rights of parties arising from 14230
actions taken and agreements entered into under this chapter.14231

       (D) Except as otherwise prescribed in this chapter, all 14232
expenses and obligations incurred by the director in carrying out 14233
the director's powers and in exercising the director's duties 14234
under this chapter, shall be payable solely from, as appropriate, 14235
moneys in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 14236
fund, the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio 14237
loan fund, the research and development loan fund, the logistics 14238
and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 14239
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or moneys 14240
appropriated for such purpose by the general assembly. This 14241
chapter does not authorize the director or the issuing authority 14242
under section 166.08 of the Revised Code to incur bonded 14243
indebtedness of the state or any political subdivision thereof, or 14244
to obligate or pledge moneys raised by taxation for the payment of 14245
any bonds or notes issued or guarantees made pursuant to this 14246
chapter.14247

       (E) Any governmental agency may enter into an agreement with 14248
the director, any other governmental agency, or a person to be 14249
assisted under this chapter, to take or provide for the purposes 14250
of this chapter any governmental action it is authorized to take 14251
or provide, and to undertake on behalf and at the request of the 14252
director any action which the director is authorized to undertake 14253
pursuant to divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of this section or 14254
divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 166.12 of the Revised 14255
Code. Governmental agencies of the state shall cooperate with and 14256
provide assistance to the director of development and the 14257
controlling board in the exercise of their respective functions 14258
under this chapter.14259

       Sec. 166.03.  (A) There is hereby created the facilities 14260
establishment fund within the state treasury, consisting of 14261
proceeds from the issuance of obligations as specified under 14262
section 166.08 of the Revised Code; the moneys received by the 14263
state from the sources specified in section 166.09 of the Revised 14264
Code; service charges imposed under sections 166.06 and 166.07 of 14265
the Revised Code; any grants, gifts, or contributions of moneys 14266
received by the director of development services to be used for 14267
loans made under section 166.07 of the Revised Code or for the 14268
payment of the allowable costs of project facilities; and all 14269
other moneys appropriated or transferred to the fund. Moneys in 14270
the loan guarantee fund in excess of the loan guarantee reserve 14271
requirement, but subject to the provisions and requirements of any 14272
guarantee contracts, may be transferred to the facilities 14273
establishment fund by the treasurer of state upon the order of the 14274
director of development services. Moneys received by the state 14275
under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, to the extent allocable to 14276
the utilization of moneys derived from proceeds of the sale of 14277
obligations pursuant to section 166.08 of the Revised Code, shall 14278
be credited to the facilities establishment fund. All investment 14279
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 14280
fund.14281

       (B) All moneys appropriated or transferred to the facilities 14282
establishment fund may be released at the request of the director 14283
of development services for payment of allowable costs or the 14284
making of loans under section 166.07 of the Revised Code, for 14285
transfer to the loan guarantee fund established in section 166.06 14286
of the Revised Code, or for use for the purpose of or transfer to 14287
the funds established by sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 14288
122.56, 122.561, 122.57, 122.601, and 122.80 of the Revised Code 14289
and, until July 1, 2003, the fund established by section 166.031 14290
of the Revised Code, and, until July 1, 2007, the fund established 14291
by section 122.26 of the Revised Code, but only for such of those 14292
purposes as are within the authorization of Section 13 of Article 14293
VIII, Ohio Constitution, in all cases subject to the approval of 14294
the controlling board.14295

       (C) The department of development services agency, in the 14296
administration of the facilities establishment fund, is encouraged 14297
to utilize and promote the utilization of, to the maximum 14298
practicable extent, the other existing programs, business 14299
incentives, and tax incentives that department is required or 14300
authorized to administer or supervise.14301

       Sec. 166.04.  (A) Prior to entering into each agreement to 14302
provide assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of 14303
the Revised Code, the director of development services shall 14304
determine whether the assistance will conform to the requirements 14305
of sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code. Such 14306
determination, and the facts upon which it is based, shall be set 14307
forth, where required, by the director in submissions made to the 14308
controlling board when the director seeks a release of moneys 14309
under section 166.02 of the Revised Code. An agreement to provide 14310
assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the 14311
Revised Code shall set forth such determination, which shall be 14312
conclusive for purposes of the validity and enforceability of such 14313
agreement and any loan guarantees, loans, or other agreements 14314
entered into pursuant to such agreement to provide assistance.14315

       (B) Whenever a person applies for financial assistance under 14316
sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the Revised Code and the 14317
project for which assistance is requested is to relocate 14318
facilities that are currently being operated by the person and 14319
that are located in another county, municipal corporation, or 14320
township, the directorperson shall provide written notification 14321
of the relocation to the appropriate local governmental bodies and 14322
state officials. ThePrior to entering into an agreement to 14323
provide the assistance, the director shall verify that such14324
notification shall contain the following information: 14325

       (1) The name of the person applying for financial assistance; 14326

       (2) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 14327
which the project for which assistance is requested is located; 14328
and 14329

       (3) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 14330
which the facility to be replaced is locatedhas been provided.14331

       (C) As used in division (B) of this section:14332

       (1), "Appropriateappropriate local governmental bodies" 14333
means:14334

       (a)(1) The boardsboard of county commissioners or 14335
legislative authoritiesauthority of the county in which the 14336
project for which assistance is requested is located and of the 14337
county in which the facility to be replaced is located;14338

       (b)(2) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation 14339
or the board of township trustees of the township in which the 14340
project for which assistance is requested is located; and 14341

       (c) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 14342
the board of township trustees of the township in which the14343
facility to be replaced is located.14344

       (2) "State officials" means: 14345

       (a) The state representative and state senator in whose 14346
districts the project for which assistance is requested is 14347
located;14348

       (b) The state representative and state senator in whose 14349
districts the facility to be replaced is located. 14350

       Sec. 166.08.  (A) As used in this chapter:14351

       (1) "Bond proceedings" means the resolution, order, trust 14352
agreement, indenture, lease, and other agreements, amendments and 14353
supplements to the foregoing, or any one or more or combination 14354
thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and conditions 14355
applicable to, or providing for the security or liquidity of, 14356
obligations issued pursuant to this section, and the provisions 14357
contained in such obligations.14358

       (2) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 14359
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 14360
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 14361
by the state on obligations.14362

       (3) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund and 14363
accounts therein created for and pledged to the payment of bond 14364
service charges, which may be, or may be part of, the economic 14365
development bond service fund created by division (S) of this 14366
section including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 14367
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.14368

       (4) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state, or the 14369
officer who by law performs the functions of such officer.14370

       (5) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 14371
obligation including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 14372
pursuant to this section.14373

       (6) "Pledged receipts" means all receipts of the state 14374
representing the gross profit on the sale of spirituous liquor, as 14375
referred to in division (B)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 14376
Code, after paying all costs and expenses of the division of 14377
liquor control and providing an adequate working capital reserve 14378
for the division of liquor control as provided in that division, 14379
but excluding the sum required by the second paragraph of section 14380
4301.12 of the Revised Code, as in effect on May 2, 1980, to be 14381
paid into the state treasury; moneys accruing to the state from 14382
the lease, sale, or other disposition, or use, of project 14383
facilities, and from the repayment, including interest, of loans 14384
made from proceeds received from the sale of obligations; accrued 14385
interest received from the sale of obligations; income from the 14386
investment of the special funds; and any gifts, grants, donations, 14387
and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of 14388
bond service charges.14389

       (7) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 14390
context does not permit, the bond service fund, and any other 14391
funds, including reserve funds, created under the bond 14392
proceedings, and the economic development bond service fund 14393
created by division (S) of this section to the extent provided in 14394
the bond proceedings, including all moneys and investments, and 14395
earnings from investment, credited and to be credited thereto.14396

       (B) Subject to the limitations provided in section 166.11 of 14397
the Revised Code, the issuing authority, upon the certification by 14398
the director of development or, with respect to eligible advanced 14399
energy projects, the Ohio air quality development authority to the 14400
issuing authority of the amount of moneys or additional moneys 14401
needed in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 14402
fund, the innovation Ohio loan fund, the innovation Ohio loan 14403
guarantee fund, the research and development loan fund, the 14404
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 14405
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, the advanced energy 14406
research and development fund, or the advanced energy research and 14407
development taxable fund, as applicable, for the purpose of 14408
paying, or making loans for, allowable costs from the facilities 14409
establishment fund, allowable innovation costs from the innovation 14410
Ohio loan fund, allowable costs from the research and development 14411
loan fund, allowable costs from the logistics and distribution 14412
infrastructure fund, allowable costs from the logistics and 14413
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, allowable costs 14414
from the advanced energy research and development fund, or 14415
allowable costs from the advanced energy research and development 14416
taxable fund, as applicable, or needed for capitalized interest, 14417
for funding reserves, and for paying costs and expenses incurred 14418
in connection with the issuance, carrying, securing, paying, 14419
redeeming, or retirement of the obligations or any obligations 14420
refunded thereby, including payment of costs and expenses relating 14421
to letters of credit, lines of credit, insurance, put agreements, 14422
standby purchase agreements, indexing, marketing, remarketing and 14423
administrative arrangements, interest swap or hedging agreements, 14424
and any other credit enhancement, liquidity, remarketing, renewal, 14425
or refunding arrangements, all of which are authorized by this 14426
section, or providing moneys for the loan guarantee fund or the 14427
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, as provided in this chapter 14428
or needed for the purposes of funds established in accordance with 14429
or pursuant to sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 122.56, 14430
122.561, 122.57, and 122.80 of the Revised Code which are within 14431
the authorization of Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio 14432
Constitution, or, with respect to certain eligible advanced energy 14433
projects, Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, shall 14434
issue obligations of the state under this section in the required 14435
amount; provided that such obligations may be issued to satisfy 14436
the covenants in contracts of guarantee made under section 166.06 14437
or 166.15 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding limitations 14438
otherwise applicable to the issuance of obligations under this 14439
section. The proceeds of such obligations, except for the portion 14440
to be deposited in special funds, including reserve funds, as may 14441
be provided in the bond proceedings, shall as provided in the bond 14442
proceedings be deposited by the director of development to the 14443
facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee fund, the 14444
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio loan 14445
fund, the research and development loan fund, or the logistics and 14446
distribution infrastructure fund, or the logistics and 14447
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or be deposited by 14448
the Ohio air quality development authority to the advanced energy 14449
research and development fund or the advanced energy research and 14450
development taxable fund. Bond proceedings for project financing 14451
obligations may provide that the proceeds derived from the 14452
issuance of such obligations shall be deposited into such fund or 14453
funds provided for in the bond proceedings and, to the extent 14454
provided for in the bond proceedings, such proceeds shall be 14455
deemed to have been deposited into the facilities establishment 14456
fund and transferred to such fund or funds. The issuing authority 14457
may appoint trustees, paying agents, and transfer agents and may 14458
retain the services of financial advisors, accounting experts, and 14459
attorneys, and retain or contract for the services of marketing, 14460
remarketing, indexing, and administrative agents, other 14461
consultants, and independent contractors, including printing 14462
services, as are necessary in the issuing authority's judgment to 14463
carry out this section. The costs of such services are allowable 14464
costs payable from the facilities establishment fund or the 14465
research and development loan fund, allowable innovation costs 14466
payable from the innovation Ohio loan fund, or allowable costs 14467
payable from the logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, 14468
the logistics and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund,14469
the advanced energy research and development fund, or the advanced 14470
energy research and development taxable fund, as applicable.14471

       (C) The holders or owners of such obligations shall have no 14472
right to have moneys raised by taxation obligated or pledged, and 14473
moneys raised by taxation shall not be obligated or pledged, for 14474
the payment of bond service charges. Such holders or owners shall 14475
have no rights to payment of bond service charges from any moneys 14476
accruing to the state from the lease, sale, or other disposition, 14477
or use, of project facilities, or from payment of the principal of 14478
or interest on loans made, or fees charged for guarantees made, or 14479
from any money or property received by the director, treasurer of 14480
state, or the state under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, or 14481
from any other use of the proceeds of the sale of the obligations, 14482
and no such moneys may be used for the payment of bond service 14483
charges, except for accrued interest, capitalized interest, and 14484
reserves funded from proceeds received upon the sale of the 14485
obligations and except as otherwise expressly provided in the 14486
applicable bond proceedings pursuant to written directions by the 14487
director. The right of such holders and owners to payment of bond 14488
service charges is limited to all or that portion of the pledged 14489
receipts and those special funds pledged thereto pursuant to the 14490
bond proceedings in accordance with this section, and each such 14491
obligation shall bear on its face a statement to that effect.14492

       (D) Obligations shall be authorized by resolution or order of 14493
the issuing authority and the bond proceedings shall provide for 14494
the purpose thereof and the principal amount or amounts, and shall 14495
provide for or authorize the manner or agency for determining the 14496
principal maturity or maturities, not exceeding twenty-five years 14497
from the date of issuance, the interest rate or rates or the 14498
maximum interest rate, the date of the obligations and the dates 14499
of payment of interest thereon, their denomination, and the 14500
establishment within or without the state of a place or places of 14501
payment of bond service charges. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the 14502
Revised Code are applicable to obligations issued under this 14503
section, subject to any applicable limitation under section 166.11 14504
of the Revised Code. The purpose of such obligations may be stated 14505
in the bond proceedings in terms describing the general purpose or 14506
purposes to be served. The bond proceedings also shall provide, 14507
subject to the provisions of any other applicable bond 14508
proceedings, for the pledge of all, or such part as the issuing 14509
authority may determine, of the pledged receipts and the 14510
applicable special fund or funds to the payment of bond service 14511
charges, which pledges may be made either prior or subordinate to 14512
other expenses, claims, or payments, and may be made to secure the 14513
obligations on a parity with obligations theretofore or thereafter 14514
issued, if and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings. The 14515
pledged receipts and special funds so pledged and thereafter 14516
received by the state are immediately subject to the lien of such 14517
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 14518
the lien of any such pledges is valid and binding against all 14519
parties having claims of any kind against the state or any 14520
governmental agency of the state, irrespective of whether such 14521
parties have notice thereof, and shall create a perfected security 14522
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, 14523
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 14524
the filing or recording of the bond proceedings by which such 14525
pledge is created or any certificate, statement or other document 14526
with respect thereto; and the pledge of such pledged receipts and 14527
special funds is effective and the money therefrom and thereof may 14528
be applied to the purposes for which pledged without necessity for 14529
any act of appropriation. Every pledge, and every covenant and 14530
agreement made with respect thereto, made in the bond proceedings 14531
may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders 14532
of obligations authorized by this section, and to any trustee 14533
therefor, for the further security of the payment of the bond 14534
service charges.14535

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions as 14536
to:14537

       (1) The redemption of obligations prior to maturity at the 14538
option of the issuing authority at such price or prices and under 14539
such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond proceedings;14540

       (2) Other terms of the obligations;14541

       (3) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations;14542

       (4) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 14543
the obligations or under which the same may be issued;14544

       (5) The deposit, investment and application of special funds, 14545
and the safeguarding of moneys on hand or on deposit, without 14546
regard to Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, but subject to 14547
any special provisions of this chapter, with respect to particular 14548
funds or moneys, provided that any bank or trust company which 14549
acts as depository of any moneys in the special funds may furnish 14550
such indemnifying bonds or may pledge such securities as required 14551
by the issuing authority;14552

       (6) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being 14553
binding upon such officer, board, commission, authority, agency, 14554
department, or other person or body as may from time to time have 14555
the authority under law to take such actions as may be necessary 14556
to perform all or any part of the duty required by such provision;14557

       (7) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 14558
indenture;14559

       (8) Any other or additional agreements with the holders of 14560
the obligations, or the trustee therefor, relating to the 14561
obligations or the security therefor, including the assignment of 14562
mortgages or other security obtained or to be obtained for loans 14563
under section 122.43, 166.07, or 166.16 of the Revised Code.14564

       (F) The obligations may have the great seal of the state or a 14565
facsimile thereof affixed thereto or printed thereon. The 14566
obligations and any coupons pertaining to obligations shall be 14567
signed or bear the facsimile signature of the issuing authority. 14568
Any obligations or coupons may be executed by the person who, on 14569
the date of execution, is the proper issuing authority although on 14570
the date of such bonds or coupons such person was not the issuing 14571
authority. If the issuing authority whose signature or a facsimile 14572
of whose signature appears on any such obligation or coupon ceases 14573
to be the issuing authority before delivery thereof, such 14574
signature or facsimile is nevertheless valid and sufficient for 14575
all purposes as if the former issuing authority had remained the 14576
issuing authority until such delivery; and if the seal to be 14577
affixed to obligations has been changed after a facsimile of the 14578
seal has been imprinted on such obligations, such facsimile seal 14579
shall continue to be sufficient as to such obligations and 14580
obligations issued in substitution or exchange therefor.14581

       (G) All obligations are negotiable instruments and securities 14582
under Chapter 1308. of the Revised Code, subject to the provisions 14583
of the bond proceedings as to registration. The obligations may be 14584
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the issuing 14585
authority determines. Provision may be made for the registration 14586
of any obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal 14587
alone or as to both principal and interest, their exchange for 14588
obligations so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion 14589
into obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 14590
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 14591
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 14592
reconversion.14593

       (H) Obligations may be sold at public sale or at private 14594
sale, as determined in the bond proceedings.14595

       Obligations issued to provide moneys for the loan guarantee 14596
fund or the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund may, as determined 14597
by the issuing authority, be sold at private sale, and without 14598
publication of a notice of sale.14599

       (I) Pending preparation of definitive obligations, the 14600
issuing authority may issue interim receipts or certificates which 14601
shall be exchanged for such definitive obligations.14602

       (J) In the discretion of the issuing authority, obligations 14603
may be secured additionally by a trust agreement or indenture 14604
between the issuing authority and a corporate trustee which may be 14605
any trust company or bank having a place of business within the 14606
state. Any such agreement or indenture may contain the resolution 14607
or order authorizing the issuance of the obligations, any 14608
provisions that may be contained in any bond proceedings, and 14609
other provisions which are customary or appropriate in an 14610
agreement or indenture of such type, including, but not limited 14611
to:14612

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, indenture, 14613
or other instrument comprising part of the bond proceedings until 14614
the state has fully paid the bond service charges on the 14615
obligations secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;14616

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 14617
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 14618
issuing authority made as a part of the contract under which the 14619
obligations were issued, enforcement of such payments or agreement 14620
by mandamus, the appointment of a receiver, suit in equity, action 14621
at law, or any combination of the foregoing;14622

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations and 14623
of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and enforcing them, 14624
including limitations on rights of individual holders of 14625
obligations;14626

       (4) The replacement of any obligations that become mutilated 14627
or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;14628

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the issuing 14629
authority agree upon, including limitations, conditions, or 14630
qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.14631

       (K) Any holders of obligations or trustees under the bond 14632
proceedings, except to the extent that their rights are restricted 14633
by the bond proceedings, may by any suitable form of legal 14634
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this 14635
state or granted by such bond proceedings. Such rights include the 14636
right to compel the performance of all duties of the issuing 14637
authority, the director of development, the Ohio air quality 14638
development authority, or the division of liquor control required 14639
by this chapter or the bond proceedings; to enjoin unlawful 14640
activities; and in the event of default with respect to the 14641
payment of any bond service charges on any obligations or in the 14642
performance of any covenant or agreement on the part of the 14643
issuing authority, the director of development, the Ohio air 14644
quality development authority, or the division of liquor control 14645
in the bond proceedings, to apply to a court having jurisdiction 14646
of the cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the 14647
pledged receipts and special funds, other than those in the 14648
custody of the treasurer of state, which are pledged to the 14649
payment of the bond service charges on such obligations or which 14650
are the subject of the covenant or agreement, with full power to 14651
pay, and to provide for payment of bond service charges on, such 14652
obligations, and with such powers, subject to the direction of the 14653
court, as are accorded receivers in general equity cases, 14654
excluding any power to pledge additional revenues or receipts or 14655
other income or moneys of the issuing authority or the state or 14656
governmental agencies of the state to the payment of such 14657
principal and interest and excluding the power to take possession 14658
of, mortgage, or cause the sale or otherwise dispose of any 14659
project facilities.14660

       Each duty of the issuing authority and the issuing 14661
authority's officers and employees, and of each governmental 14662
agency and its officers, members, or employees, undertaken 14663
pursuant to the bond proceedings or any agreement or lease, 14664
lease-purchase agreement, or loan made under authority of this 14665
chapter, and in every agreement by or with the issuing authority, 14666
is hereby established as a duty of the issuing authority, and of 14667
each such officer, member, or employee having authority to perform 14668
such duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an 14669
office, trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of 14670
the Revised Code.14671

       The person who is at the time the issuing authority, or the 14672
issuing authority's officers or employees, are not liable in their 14673
personal capacities on any obligations issued by the issuing 14674
authority or any agreements of or with the issuing authority.14675

       (L) The issuing authority may authorize and issue obligations 14676
for the refunding, including funding and retirement, and advance 14677
refunding with or without payment or redemption prior to maturity, 14678
of any obligations previously issued by the issuing authority. 14679
Such obligations may be issued in amounts sufficient for payment 14680
of the principal amount of the prior obligations, any redemption 14681
premiums thereon, principal maturities of any such obligations 14682
maturing prior to the redemption of the remaining obligations on a 14683
parity therewith, interest accrued or to accrue to the maturity 14684
dates or dates of redemption of such obligations, and any 14685
allowable costs including expenses incurred or to be incurred in 14686
connection with such issuance and such refunding, funding, and 14687
retirement. Subject to the bond proceedings therefor, the portion 14688
of proceeds of the sale of obligations issued under this division 14689
to be applied to bond service charges on the prior obligations 14690
shall be credited to an appropriate account held by the trustee 14691
for such prior or new obligations or to the appropriate account in 14692
the bond service fund for such obligations. Obligations authorized 14693
under this division shall be deemed to be issued for those 14694
purposes for which such prior obligations were issued and are 14695
subject to the provisions of this section pertaining to other 14696
obligations, except as otherwise provided in this section; 14697
provided that, unless otherwise authorized by the general 14698
assembly, any limitations imposed by the general assembly pursuant 14699
to this section with respect to bond service charges applicable to 14700
the prior obligations shall be applicable to the obligations 14701
issued under this division to refund, fund, advance refund or 14702
retire such prior obligations.14703

       (M) The authority to issue obligations under this section 14704
includes authority to issue obligations in the form of bond 14705
anticipation notes and to renew the same from time to time by the 14706
issuance of new notes. The holders of such notes or interest 14707
coupons pertaining thereto shall have a right to be paid solely 14708
from the pledged receipts and special funds that may be pledged to 14709
the payment of the bonds anticipated, or from the proceeds of such 14710
bonds or renewal notes, or both, as the issuing authority provides 14711
in the resolution or order authorizing such notes. Such notes may 14712
be additionally secured by covenants of the issuing authority to 14713
the effect that the issuing authority and the state will do such 14714
or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or renewal 14715
notes in appropriate amount, and apply the proceeds thereof to the 14716
extent necessary, to make full payment of the principal of and 14717
interest on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 14718
provided in such resolution or order. For such purpose, the 14719
issuing authority may issue bonds or renewal notes in such 14720
principal amount and upon such terms as may be necessary to 14721
provide funds to pay when required the principal of and interest 14722
on such notes, notwithstanding any limitations prescribed by or 14723
for purposes of this section. Subject to this division, all 14724
provisions for and references to obligations in this section are 14725
applicable to notes authorized under this division.14726

       The issuing authority in the bond proceedings authorizing the 14727
issuance of bond anticipation notes shall set forth for such bonds 14728
an estimated interest rate and a schedule of principal payments 14729
for such bonds and the annual maturity dates thereof, and for 14730
purposes of any limitation on bond service charges prescribed 14731
under division (A) of section 166.11 of the Revised Code, the 14732
amount of bond service charges on such bond anticipation notes is 14733
deemed to be the bond service charges for the bonds anticipated 14734
thereby as set forth in the bond proceedings applicable to such 14735
notes, but this provision does not modify any authority in this 14736
section to pledge receipts and special funds to, and covenant to 14737
issue bonds to fund, the payment of principal of and interest and 14738
any premium on such notes.14739

       (N) Obligations issued under this section are lawful 14740
investments for banks, societies for savings, savings and loan 14741
associations, deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, 14742
trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for 14743
life and domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having 14744
charge of sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of 14745
political subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the 14746
commissioners of the sinking fund of the state, the administrator 14747
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 14748
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 14749
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 14750
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 14751
adopted pursuant thereto by any governmental agency of the state 14752
with respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as 14753
security for the deposit of public moneys.14754

       (O) Unless otherwise provided in any applicable bond 14755
proceedings, moneys to the credit of or in the special funds 14756
established by or pursuant to this section may be invested by or 14757
on behalf of the issuing authority only in notes, bonds, or other 14758
obligations of the United States, or of any agency or 14759
instrumentality of the United States, obligations guaranteed as to 14760
principal and interest by the United States, obligations of this 14761
state or any political subdivision of this state, and certificates 14762
of deposit of any national bank located in this state and any 14763
bank, as defined in section 1101.01 of the Revised Code, subject 14764
to inspection by the superintendent of banks. If the law or the 14765
instrument creating a trust pursuant to division (J) of this 14766
section expressly permits investment in direct obligations of the 14767
United States or an agency of the United States, unless expressly 14768
prohibited by the instrument, such moneys also may be invested in 14769
no-front-end-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 14770
of obligations of the United States or an agency of the United 14771
States and in repurchase agreements, including those issued by the 14772
fiduciary itself, secured by obligations of the United States or 14773
an agency of the United States; and in common trust funds 14774
established in accordance with section 1111.20 of the Revised Code 14775
and consisting exclusively of any such securities, notwithstanding 14776
division (A)(4) of that section. The income from such investments 14777
shall be credited to such funds as the issuing authority 14778
determines, and such investments may be sold at such times as the 14779
issuing authority determines or authorizes.14780

       (P) Provision may be made in the applicable bond proceedings 14781
for the establishment of separate accounts in the bond service 14782
fund and for the application of such accounts only to the 14783
specified bond service charges on obligations pertinent to such 14784
accounts and bond service fund and for other accounts therein 14785
within the general purposes of such fund. Unless otherwise 14786
provided in any applicable bond proceedings, moneys to the credit 14787
of or in the several special funds established pursuant to this 14788
section shall be disbursed on the order of the treasurer of state, 14789
provided that no such order is required for the payment from the 14790
bond service fund when due of bond service charges on obligations.14791

       (Q) The issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as 14792
the issuing authority determines, of the pledged receipts to the 14793
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 14794
section, and for the establishment and maintenance of any 14795
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and make other 14796
provisions therein with respect to pledged receipts as authorized 14797
by this chapter, which provisions are controlling notwithstanding 14798
any other provisions of law pertaining thereto.14799

       (R) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 14800
proceedings, and any such covenants are controlling 14801
notwithstanding any other provision of law, that the state and 14802
applicable officers and governmental agencies of the state, 14803
including the general assembly, so long as any obligations are 14804
outstanding, shall:14805

       (1) Maintain statutory authority for and cause to be charged 14806
and collected wholesale and retail prices for spirituous liquor 14807
sold by the state or its agents so that the pledged receipts are 14808
sufficient in amount to meet bond service charges, and the 14809
establishment and maintenance of any reserves and other 14810
requirements provided for in the bond proceedings, and, as 14811
necessary, to meet covenants contained in contracts of guarantee 14812
made under section 166.06 of the Revised Code;14813

       (2) Take or permit no action, by statute or otherwise, that 14814
would impair the exemption from federal income taxation of the 14815
interest on the obligations.14816

       (S) There is hereby created the economic development bond 14817
service fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 14818
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 14819
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 14820
issuing authority or state agencies and required by the applicable 14821
bond proceedings, consistent with this section, to be deposited, 14822
transferred, or credited to a bond service fund or the economic 14823
development bond service fund, and all other moneys transferred or 14824
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 14825
deposited and credited to such fund and to any separate accounts 14826
therein, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, 14827
but without necessity for any act of appropriation. During the 14828
period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 14829
obligations and continuing during such time as any such 14830
obligations are outstanding, and so long as moneys in the 14831
pertinent bond service funds are insufficient to pay all bond 14832
services charges on such obligations becoming due in each year, a 14833
sufficient amount of the gross profit on the sale of spirituous 14834
liquor included in pledged receipts are committed and shall be 14835
paid to the bond service fund or economic development bond service 14836
fund in each year for the purpose of paying the bond service 14837
charges becoming due in that year without necessity for further 14838
act of appropriation for such purpose and notwithstanding anything 14839
to the contrary in Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code. The economic 14840
development bond service fund is a trust fund and is hereby 14841
pledged to the payment of bond service charges to the extent 14842
provided in the applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof 14843
from such fund shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of 14844
state in accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity 14845
for any act of appropriation.14846

       (T) The obligations, the transfer thereof, and the income 14847
therefrom, including any profit made on the sale thereof, shall at 14848
all times be free from taxation within the state.14849

       Sec. 166.25. (A) The director of development services, with 14850
the approval of the controlling board and subject to the other 14851
applicable provisions of this chapter, may lend money in the 14852
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund and the logistics 14853
and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund to persons for 14854
the purpose of paying allowable costs of eligible logistics and 14855
distribution projects.14856

       (B) In determining the eligible logistics and distribution 14857
projects to be assisted and the nature, amount, and terms of 14858
assistance to be provided for an eligible logistics and 14859
distribution project, the director shall consult with appropriate 14860
governmental agencies, including the department of transportation 14861
and the Ohio rail development commission.14862

       (C) Any loan made pursuant to this section shall be evidenced 14863
by a loan agreement, which shall contain such terms as the 14864
director determines necessary or appropriate, including 14865
performance measures and reporting requirements. The director may 14866
take actions necessary or appropriate to collect or otherwise deal 14867
with any loan made under this section, including requiring a loan 14868
recipient to repay the amount of the loan plus interest at a rate 14869
of three per cent above the federal short term interest rate or 14870
any other rate determined by the director.14871

       Sec. 169.02.  Subject to division (B) of section 169.01 of 14872
the Revised Code, the following constitute unclaimed funds:14873

       (A) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 14874
demand, savings, or matured time deposit account, or matured 14875
certificate of deposit, together with any interest or dividend on 14876
it, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by a holder which 14877
is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period of five years;14878

       (B) Any funds paid toward the purchase of withdrawable shares 14879
or other interest in a financial organization, and any interest or 14880
dividends on them, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by 14881
a holder which is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period 14882
of five years;14883

       (C) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 14884
the Revised Code, moneys held or owed by a holder, including a 14885
fraternal association, providing life insurance, including annuity 14886
or endowment coverage, unclaimed for three years after becoming 14887
payable as established from the records of such holder under any 14888
life or endowment insurance policy or annuity contract that has 14889
matured or terminated. An insurance policy, the proceeds of which 14890
are payable on the death of the insured, not matured by proof of 14891
death of the insured is deemed matured and the proceeds payable if 14892
such policy was in force when the insured attained the limiting 14893
age under the mortality table on which the reserve is based.14894

       Moneys otherwise payable according to the records of such 14895
holder are deemed payable although the policy or contract has not 14896
been surrendered as required.14897

       (D) Any deposit made to secure payment or any sum paid in 14898
advance for utility services of a public utility and any amount 14899
refundable from rates or charges collected by a public utility for 14900
utility services held or owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, 14901
that has remained unclaimed for one year after the termination of 14902
the services for which the deposit or advance payment was made or 14903
one year from the date the refund was payable, whichever is 14904
earlier;14905

       (E) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 14906
certificates, securities as defined in section 1707.01 of the 14907
Revised Code, nonwithdrawable shares, other instruments evidencing 14908
ownership, or rights to them or funds paid toward the purchase of 14909
them, or any dividend, capital credit, profit, distribution, 14910
interest, or payment on principal or other sum, held or owed by a 14911
holder, including funds deposited with a fiscal agent or fiduciary 14912
for payment of them, and instruments representing an ownership 14913
interest, unclaimed for five years. Any underlying share or other 14914
intangible instrument representing an ownership interest in a 14915
business association, in which the issuer has recorded on its 14916
books the issuance of the share but has been unable to deliver the 14917
certificate to the shareholder, constitutes unclaimed funds if 14918
such underlying share is unclaimed for five years. In addition, an 14919
underlying share constitutes unclaimed funds if a dividend, 14920
distribution, or other sum payable as a result of the underlying 14921
share has remained unclaimed by the owner for five years.14922

       This division shall not prejudice the rights of fiscal agents 14923
or fiduciaries for payment to return the items described in this 14924
division to their principals, according to the terms of an agency 14925
or fiduciary agreement, but such a return shall constitute the 14926
principal as the holder of the items and shall not interrupt the 14927
period for computing the time for which the items have remained 14928
unclaimed.14929

       In the case of any such funds accruing and held or owed by a 14930
corporation under division (E) of section 1701.24 of the Revised 14931
Code, such corporation shall comply with this chapter, subject to 14932
the limitation contained in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code. 14933
The period of time for which such funds have gone unclaimed 14934
specified in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code shall be 14935
computed, with respect to dividends or distributions, commencing 14936
as of the dates when such dividends or distributions would have 14937
been payable to the shareholder had such shareholder surrendered 14938
the certificates for cancellation and exchange by the date 14939
specified in the order relating to them.14940

       Capital credits of a cooperative which after January 1, 1972, 14941
have been allocated to members and which by agreement are 14942
expressly required to be paid if claimed after death of the owner 14943
are deemed payable, for the purpose of this chapter, fifteen years 14944
after either the termination of service by the cooperative to the 14945
owner or upon the nonactivity as provided in division (B) of 14946
section 169.01 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs later, 14947
provided that this provision does not apply if the payment is not 14948
mandatory.14949

       (F) Any sum payable on certified checks or other written 14950
instruments certified or issued and representing funds held or 14951
owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed for 14952
five years from the date payable or from the date of issuance if 14953
payable on demand; except that the unclaimed period for money 14954
orders that are not third party bank checks is seven years, and 14955
the unclaimed period for traveler's checks is fifteen years, from 14956
the date payable or from the date of issuance if payable on 14957
demand.14958

       As used in this division, "written instruments" include, but 14959
are not limited to, certified checks, cashier's checks, bills of 14960
exchange, letters of credit, drafts, money orders, and traveler's 14961
checks.14962

       If there is no address of record for the owner or other 14963
person entitled to the funds, such address is presumed to be the 14964
address where the instrument was certified or issued.14965

       (G) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, all 14966
moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible property, arising 14967
out of the business of engaging in the purchase or sale of 14968
securities, or otherwise dealing in intangibles, less any lawful 14969
claims, that are held or owed by a holder and are unclaimed for 14970
five years from the date of transaction.14971

       (H) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 14972
the Revised Code, all moneys, rights to moneys, and other 14973
intangible property distributable in the course of dissolution or 14974
liquidation of a holder that are unclaimed for one year after the 14975
date set by the holder for distribution;14976

       (I) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 14977
property removed from a safe-deposit box or other safekeeping 14978
repository located in this state or removed from a safe-deposit 14979
box or other safekeeping repository of a holder, on which the 14980
lease or rental period has expired, or any amount arising from the 14981
sale of such property, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed 14982
for three years from the date on which the lease or rental period 14983
expired;14984

       (J) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, all moneys, 14985
rights to moneys, or other intangible property, and any income or 14986
increment on them, held or owed by a holder which is a fiduciary 14987
for the benefit of another, or a fiduciary or custodian of a 14988
qualified retirement plan or individual retirement arrangement 14989
under section 401 or 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, unclaimed 14990
for three years after the final date for distribution;14991

       (K) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 14992
property held or owed in this state or held for or owed to an 14993
owner whose last known address is within this state, by the United 14994
States government or any state, as those terms are described in 14995
division (E) of section 169.01 of the Revised Code, unclaimed by 14996
the owner for three years, excluding any property in the control 14997
of any court in a proceeding in which a final adjudication has not 14998
been made;14999

       (L) Amounts payable pursuant to the terms of any policy of 15000
insurance, other than life insurance, or any refund available 15001
under such a policy, held or owed by any holder, unclaimed for 15002
three years from the date payable or distributable;15003

       (M)(1) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, any funds 15004
constituting rents or lease payments due, any deposit made to 15005
secure payment of rents or leases, or any sum paid in advance for 15006
rents, leases, possible damage to property, unused services, 15007
performance requirements, or any other purpose, held or owed by a 15008
holder unclaimed for one year;15009

       (2) Any escrow funds, security deposits, or other moneys that 15010
are received by a licensed broker in a fiduciary capacity and 15011
that, pursuant to division (A)(26) of section 4735.18 of the 15012
Revised Code, are required to be deposited into and maintained in 15013
a special or trust, noninterest-bearing bank account separate and 15014
distinct from any personal or other account of the licensed 15015
broker, held or owed by the licensed broker unclaimed for two 15016
years.15017

       (N) Any sum greater than fifty dollars payable as wages, any 15018
sum payable as salaries or commissions, any sum payable for 15019
services rendered, funds owed or held as royalties, oil and 15020
mineral proceeds, funds held for or owed to suppliers, and moneys 15021
owed under pension and profit-sharing plans, held or owed by any 15022
holder unclaimed for one year from date payable or distributable, 15023
and all other credits held or owed, or to be refunded to a retail 15024
customer, by any holder unclaimed for three years from date 15025
payable or distributable;15026

       (O) Amounts held in respect of or represented by lay-aways 15027
sold after January 1, 1972, less any lawful claims, when such 15028
lay-aways are unclaimed for three years after the sale of them;15029

       (P) All moneys, rights to moneys, and other intangible 15030
property not otherwise constituted as unclaimed funds by this 15031
section, including any income or increment on them, less any 15032
lawful claims, which are held or owed by any holder, other than a 15033
holder which holds a permit issued pursuant to Chapter 3769. of 15034
the Revised Code, and which have remained unclaimed for three 15035
years after becoming payable or distributable;15036

       (Q) All moneys that arise out of a sale held pursuant to 15037
section 5322.03 of the Revised Code, that are held by a holder for 15038
delivery on demand to the appropriate person pursuant to division 15039
(I) of that section, and that are unclaimed for two years after 15040
the date of the sale.15041

       (R)(1) Any funds that are subject to an agreement between the 15042
holder and owner providing for automatic reinvestment and that 15043
constitute dividends, distributions, or other sums held or owed by 15044
a holder in connection with a security as defined in section 15045
1707.01 of the Revised Code, an ownership interest in an 15046
investment company registered under the "Investment Company Act of 15047
1940," 54 Stat. 789, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1, as amended, or a certificate 15048
of deposit, unclaimed for a period of five years.15049

       (2) The five-year period under division (R)(1) of this 15050
section commences from the date a second shareholder notification 15051
or communication mailing to the owner of the funds is returned to 15052
the holder as undeliverable by the United States postal service or 15053
other carrier. The notification or communication mailing by the 15054
holder shall be no less frequent than quarterly.15055

       All moneys in a personal allowance account, as defined by 15056
rules adopted by the medicaid director of job and family services, 15057
up to and including the maximum resource limitation, of a medicaid 15058
patientrecipient who has died after receiving care in a long-term 15059
care facility, and for whom there is no identifiable heir or 15060
sponsor, are not subject to this chapter.15061

       Sec. 173.03.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio advisory 15062
council for the aging, which shall consist of twelve members to be 15063
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 15064
senate. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 15065
the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house 15066
of representatives and shall be members of two different political 15067
parties. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 15068
the senate appointed by the president of the senate and shall be 15069
members of two different political parties. The medicaid director 15070
and directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 15071
services, developmental disabilities, health, and job and family 15072
services, or their designees, shall serve as ex officio members of 15073
the council. The council shall carry out its role as defined under 15074
the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 42 U.S.C. 3001, 15075
as amended.15076

       At the first meeting of the council, and annually thereafter, 15077
the members shall select one of their members to serve as 15078
chairperson and one of their members to serve as vice-chairperson.15079

       (B) Members of the council shall be appointed for a term of 15080
three years, except that for the first appointment members of the 15081
Ohio commission on aging who were serving on the commission 15082
immediately prior to July 26, 1984, shall become members of the 15083
council for the remainder of their unexpired terms. Thereafter, 15084
appointment to the council shall be for a three-year term by the 15085
governor. Each member shall hold office from the date of 15086
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 15087
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 15088
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 15089
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term. No 15090
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date 15091
of the member's term unless reappointed under the provisions of 15092
this section, and no member shall serve more than three 15093
consecutive terms on the council.15094

       (C) Membership of the council shall represent all areas of 15095
Ohio and shall be as follows:15096

       (1) A majority of members of the council shall have attained 15097
the age of sixtyfifty and have a knowledge of and continuing 15098
interest in the affairs and welfare of the older citizens of Ohio. 15099
The fields of business, labor, health, law, and human services 15100
shall be represented in the membership.15101

       (2) No more than seven members shall be of the same political 15102
party.15103

       (D) Any member of the council may be removed from office by 15104
the governor for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in 15105
office after being informed in writing of the charges and afforded 15106
an opportunity for a hearing. Two consecutive unexcused absences 15107
from regularly scheduled meetings constitute neglect of duty.15108

       (E) The director of aging may reimburse a member for actual 15109
and necessary traveling and other expenses incurred in the 15110
discharge of official duties. But reimbursement shall be made in 15111
the manner and at rates that do not exceed those prescribed by the 15112
director of budget and management for any officer, member, or 15113
employee of, or consultant to, any state agency.15114

       (F) Council members are not limited as to the number of terms 15115
they may serve.15116

       (G)(1) The department of aging may award grants to or enter 15117
into contracts with a member of the advisory council or an entity 15118
that the member represents if any of the following apply:15119

       (a) The department determines that the member or the entity 15120
the member represents is capable of providing the goods or 15121
services specified under the terms of the grant or contract.15122

       (b) The member has not taken part in any discussion or vote 15123
of the council related to whether the council should recommend 15124
that the department of aging award the grant to or enter into the 15125
contract with the member of the advisory council or the entity 15126
that the member represents.15127

       (2) A member of the advisory council is not in violation of 15128
Chapter 102. or section 2921.42 of the Revised Code with regard to 15129
receiving a grant or entering into a contract under this section 15130
if the conditions of division (G)(1)(a) and (b) of this section 15131
have been met.15132

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 15133
Revised Code:15134

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 15135
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 15136
facility that provides personal care services for more than 15137
twenty-four hours for one or more unrelated adults, including all 15138
of the following:15139

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 15140
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;15141

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 15142
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 15143
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 15144
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 15145
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 15146
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 15147
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 15148
C.F.R. 412.23(e);15149

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 15150
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;15151

       (d) A residential facility licensed under section 5119.2215152
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 15153
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 15154
unrelated adults or accommodations and personal care services for 15155
only one or two adults who are recipients under thereceiving15156
residential state supplement program;15157

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 15158
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 15159
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 15160
the placement and care of veterans.15161

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a residential 15162
facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.15163

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 15164
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 15165
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.15166

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 15167
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 15168
community care settings, and includes any of the following:15169

       (1) Case management;15170

       (2) Home health care;15171

       (3) Homemaker services;15172

       (4) Chore services;15173

       (5) Respite care;15174

       (6) Adult day care;15175

       (7) Home-delivered meals;15176

       (8) Personal care;15177

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;15178

       (10) Transportation;15179

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 15180
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 15181
in community care settings.15182

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 15183
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 15184
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 15185
long-term care services.15186

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 15187
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 15188
resident or a recipient.15189

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 15190
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.15191

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an 15192
entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a 15193
regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state 15194
long-term care ombudsperson.15195

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 15196
ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson 15197
or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as 15198
a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised 15199
Code.15200

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 15201
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 15202
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.15203

       Sec. 173.17.  (A) The state long-term care ombudsperson15204
ombudsman shall do all of the following:15205

       (1) Appoint a staff and direct and administer the work of the 15206
staff;15207

       (2) Supervise the nursing home investigative unit established 15208
under division (I) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code;15209

       (3) Oversee the performance and operation of the office of 15210
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program, including 15211
the operation of regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15212
programs;15213

       (4) Establish and maintain a statewide uniform reporting 15214
system to collect and analyze information relating to complaints 15215
and conditions in long-term care facilities and complaints 15216
regarding the provision of community-based long-term care services 15217
for the purpose of identifying and resolving significant problems;15218

       (5) Provide for public forums to discuss concerns and 15219
problems relating to action, inaction, or decisions that may 15220
adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of 15221
residents and recipients of services by providers of long-term 15222
care and their representatives, public agencies and entities, and 15223
social service agencies. This may include any of the following: 15224
conducting public hearings; sponsoring workshops and conferences; 15225
holding meetings for the purpose of obtaining information about 15226
residents and recipients, discussing and publicizing their needs, 15227
and advocating solutions to their problems; and promoting the 15228
development of citizen organizations.15229

       (6) Encourage, cooperate with, and assist in the development 15230
and operation of services to provide current, objective, and 15231
verified information about long-term care;15232

       (7) Develop and implement, with the assistance of regional 15233
programs, a continuing program to publicize, through the media and 15234
civic organizations, the office, its purposes, and its methods of 15235
operation;15236

       (8) Maintain written descriptions of the duties and 15237
qualifications of representatives of the office;15238

       (9) Evaluate and make known concerns and issues regarding 15239
long-term care by doing all of the following:15240

       (a) Preparing an annual report containing information and 15241
findings regarding the types of problems experienced by residents 15242
and recipients and the complaints made by or on behalf of 15243
residents and recipients. The report shall include recommendations 15244
for policy, regulatory, and legislative changes to solve problems, 15245
resolve complaints, and improve the quality of care and life for 15246
residents and recipients and shall be submitted to the governor, 15247
the speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 15248
senate, the directors of health and of job and family services, 15249
and the commissioner of the administration on aging of the United 15250
States department of health and human services.15251

       (b) Monitoring and analyzing the development and 15252
implementation of federal, state, and local laws, rules, and 15253
policies regarding long-term care services in this state and 15254
recommending to officials changes the office considers appropriate 15255
in these laws, rules, and policies;15256

       (c) Providing information and making recommendations to 15257
public agencies, members of the general assembly, and others 15258
regarding problems and concerns of residents and recipients.15259

       (10) Conduct training for employees and volunteers on15260
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff and for representatives of the 15261
office employed by regional programs;15262

       (11) Monitor the training of representatives of the office 15263
who provide volunteer services to regional programs, and provide 15264
technical assistance to the regional programs in conducting the 15265
training;15266

       (12) Issue certificates attesting to the successful 15267
completion of training and specifying the level of responsibility 15268
for which a representative of the office who has completed 15269
training is qualified;15270

       (13) Register as a residents' rights advocate with the 15271
department of health under division (B) of section 3701.07 of the 15272
Revised Code;15273

       (14) Perform other duties specified by the department of 15274
aging.15275

       (B) The state ombudspersonombudsman may delegate any of the 15276
ombudsperson'sombudsman's authority or duties under sections 15277
173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code to any member of the 15278
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff. The state ombudspersonombudsman15279
is responsible for any authority or duties the ombudsperson15280
ombudsman delegates.15281

       Sec. 173.19.  (A) The office of the state long-term care15282
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care15283
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 15284
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall receive, investigate, and 15285
attempt to resolve complaints made by residents, recipients, 15286
sponsors, providers of long-term care, or any person acting on 15287
behalf of a resident or recipient, relating to either of the 15288
following:15289

       (1) The health, safety, welfare, or civil rights of a 15290
resident or recipient or any violation of a resident's rights 15291
described in sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;15292

       (2) Any action or inaction or decision by a provider of 15293
long-term care or representative of a provider, a governmental 15294
entity, or a private social service agency that may adversely 15295
affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of a resident or 15296
recipient.15297

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 15298
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the handling of 15299
complaints received under this section, including procedures for 15300
conducting investigations of complaints. The rules shall include 15301
procedures to ensure that no representative of the office 15302
investigates any complaint involving a provider of long-term care 15303
with which the representative was once employed or associated.15304

       The state ombudspersonombudsman and regional programs shall 15305
establish procedures for handling complaints consistent with the 15306
department's rules. Complaints shall be dealt with in accordance 15307
with the procedures established under this division.15308

       (C) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson15309
ombudsman program may decline to investigate any complaint if it 15310
determines any of the following:15311

       (1) That the complaint is frivolous, vexatious, or not made 15312
in good faith;15313

       (2) That the complaint was made so long after the occurrence 15314
of the incident on which it is based that it is no longer 15315
reasonable to conduct an investigation;15316

       (3) That an adequate investigation cannot be conducted 15317
because of insufficient funds, insufficient staff, lack of staff 15318
expertise, or any other reasonable factor that would result in an 15319
inadequate investigation despite a good faith effort;15320

       (4) That an investigation by the office would create a real 15321
or apparent conflict of interest.15322

       (D) If a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15323
program declines to investigate a complaint, it shall refer the 15324
complaint to the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman.15325

       (E) Each complaint to be investigated by a regional program 15326
shall be assigned to a representative of the office of the state 15327
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. If the 15328
representative determines that the complaint is valid, the 15329
representative shall assist the parties in attempting to resolve 15330
it. If the representative is unable to resolve it, the 15331
representative shall refer the complaint to the state ombudsperson15332
ombudsman.15333

       In order to carry out the duties of sections 173.14 to 173.26 15334
of the Revised Code, a representative has the right to private 15335
communication with residents and their sponsors and access to 15336
long-term care facilities, including the right to tour resident 15337
areas unescorted and the right to tour facilities unescorted as 15338
reasonably necessary to the investigation of a complaint. Access 15339
to facilities shall be during reasonable hours or, during 15340
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 15341
complaint.15342

       When community-based long-term care services are provided at 15343
a location other than the recipient's home, a representative has 15344
the right to private communication with the recipient and the 15345
recipient's sponsors and access to the community-based long-term 15346
care site, including the right to tour the site unescorted. Access 15347
to the site shall be during reasonable hours or, during the 15348
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 15349
complaint.15350

       (F) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall determine whether 15351
complaints referred to the ombudspersonombudsman under division 15352
(D) or (E) of this section warrant investigation. The 15353
ombudsperson'sombudsman's determination in this matter is final.15354

       Sec. 173.20.  (A) If consent is given and unless otherwise 15355
prohibited by law, a representative of the office of the state 15356
long-term care ombudsman program shall have access to any records, 15357
including medical records, of a resident or a recipient that are 15358
reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint. Consent may 15359
be given in any of the following ways:15360

       (1) In writing by the resident or recipient;15361

       (2) Orally by the resident or recipient, witnessed in writing 15362
at the time it is given by one other person, and, if the records 15363
involved are being maintained by a long-term care provider, also 15364
by an employee of the long-term care provider designated under 15365
division (E)(1) of this section;15366

       (3) In writing by the guardian of the resident or recipient;15367

       (4) In writing by the attorney in fact of the resident or 15368
recipient, if the resident or recipient has authorized the 15369
attorney in fact to give such consent;15370

       (5) In writing by the executor or administrator of the estate 15371
of a deceased resident or recipient.15372

       (B) If consent to access to records is not refused by a 15373
resident or recipient or histhe resident's or recipient's legal 15374
representative but cannot be obtained and any of the following 15375
circumstances exist, a representative of the office of the state 15376
long-term care ombudsman program, on approval of the state 15377
long-term care ombudsman, may inspect the records of a resident or 15378
a recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably 15379
necessary for investigation of a complaint:15380

       (1) The resident or recipient is unable to express written or 15381
oral consent and there is no guardian or attorney in fact;15382

       (2) There is a guardian or attorney in fact, but hethe 15383
guardian or attorney in fact cannot be contacted within three 15384
working days;15385

       (3) There is a guardianship or durable power of attorney, but 15386
its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and the 15387
representative of the office at the time of the investigation;15388

       (4) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of a 15389
deceased resident or recipient.15390

       (C) If a representative of the office of the state long-term 15391
care ombudsman program has been refused access to records by a 15392
guardian or attorney in fact, but has reasonable cause to believe 15393
that the guardian or attorney in fact is not acting in the best 15394
interests of the resident or recipient, the representative may, on 15395
approval of the state long-term care ombudsman, inspect the 15396
records of the resident or recipient, including medical records, 15397
that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint.15398

       (D) A representative of the office of the state long-term 15399
care ombudsman program shall have access to any records of a 15400
long-term care provider reasonably necessary to an investigation 15401
conducted under this section, including but not limited to: 15402
incident reports, dietary records, policies and procedures of a 15403
facility required to be maintained under section 5111.215165.0615404
of the Revised Code, admission agreements, staffing schedules, any 15405
document depicting the actual staffing pattern of the provider, 15406
any financial records that are matters of public record, resident 15407
council and grievance committee minutes, and any waiting list 15408
maintained by a facility in accordance with section 5111.3115409
5165.08 of the Revised Code, or any similar records or lists 15410
maintained by a provider of community-based long-term care 15411
services. Pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, a 15412
representative shall be permitted to make or obtain copies of any 15413
of these records after giving the long-term care provider 15414
twenty-four hours' notice. A long-term care provider may impose a 15415
charge for providing copies of records under this division that 15416
does not exceed the actual and necessary expense of making the 15417
copies.15418

       The state ombudsman shall take whatever action is necessary 15419
to ensure that any copy of a record made or obtained under this 15420
division is returned to the long-term care provider no later than 15421
three years after the date the investigation for which the copy 15422
was made or obtained is completed.15423

       (E)(1) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or 15424
more of its employees to be responsible for witnessing the giving 15425
of oral consent under division (A) of this section. In the event 15426
that a designated employee is not available when a resident or 15427
recipient attempts to give oral consent, the provider shall 15428
designate another employee to witness the consent.15429

       (2) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or more 15430
of its employees to be responsible for releasing records for 15431
copying to representatives of the office of the long-term care 15432
ombudsman program who request permission to make or obtain copies 15433
of records specified in division (D) of this section. In the event 15434
that a designated employee is not available when a representative 15435
of the office makes the request, the long-term care provider shall 15436
designate another employee to release the records for copying.15437

       (F) A long-term care provider or any employee of such a 15438
provider is immune from civil or criminal liability or action 15439
taken pursuant to a professional disciplinary procedure for the 15440
release or disclosure of records to a representative of the office 15441
pursuant to this section.15442

       (G) A state or local government agency or entity with records 15443
relevant to a complaint or investigation being conducted by a 15444
representative of the office shall provide the representative 15445
access to the records.15446

       (H) The state ombudsman, with the approval of the director of 15447
aging, may issue a subpoena to compel any person hethe ombudsman15448
reasonably believes may be able to provide information to appear 15449
before himthe ombudsman or histhe ombudsman's designee and give 15450
sworn testimony and to produce documents, books, records, papers, 15451
or other evidence the state ombudsman believes is relevant to the 15452
investigation. On the refusal of a witness to be sworn or to 15453
answer any question put to himthe witness, or if a person 15454
disobeys a subpoena, the ombudsman shall apply to the Franklin 15455
county court of common pleas for a contempt order, as in the case 15456
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the 15457
court, or a refusal to testify in the court.15458

       (I) The state ombudsman may petition the court of common 15459
pleas in the county in which a long-term care facility is located 15460
to issue an injunction against any long-term care facility in 15461
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.15462

       (J) Any suspected violation of Chapter 3721. of the Revised 15463
Code discovered during the course of an investigation may be 15464
reported to the department of health. Any suspected criminal 15465
violation discovered during the course of an investigation shall 15466
be reported to the attorney general or other appropriate law 15467
enforcement authorities.15468

       (K) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 15469
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for referral by the state 15470
ombudsman and regional long-term care ombudsman programs of 15471
complaints to other public agencies or entities. A public agency 15472
or entity to which a complaint is referred shall keep the state 15473
ombudsman or regional program handling the complaint advised and 15474
notified in writing in a timely manner of the disposition of the 15475
complaint to the extent permitted by law.15476

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 15477
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care 15478
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 15479
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall require each representative 15480
of the office to complete a training and certification program in 15481
accordance with this section and to meet the continuing education 15482
requirements established under this section.15483

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 15484
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 15485
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 15486
care ombudspersonombudsman program. Training for representatives 15487
other than those who are volunteers providing services through 15488
regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman programs shall 15489
include instruction regarding federal, state, and local laws, 15490
rules, and policies on long-term care facilities and 15491
community-based long-term care services; investigative techniques; 15492
and other topics considered relevant by the department and shall 15493
consist of the following:15494

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 15495
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 15496
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 15497
office certified under this section;15498

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 15499
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;15500

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 15501
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 15502
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 15503
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 15504
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 15505
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson15506
ombudsman.15507

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 15508
first twenty-four months of employment:15509

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 15510
health to certify a nursing facility to receive funds under 15511
sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Codeparticipate in the 15512
medicaid program;15513

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 15514
mental healthmental health and addiction services to license a 15515
residential facility under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 15516
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 15517
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults.15518

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 15519
department.15520

       (C) PersonsAny person who for a period of at least six 15521
months prior to June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmenan ombudsman15522
through the long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 15523
established by the department of aging under division (M) of 15524
section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be required to 15525
complete a training program. These personsSuch a person and 15526
persons who complete a training program shall take an examination 15527
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 15528
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 15529
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 15530
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 15531
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 15532
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 15533
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 15534
office.15535

       (D) The state ombudspersonombudsman and each regional 15536
program shall conduct training programs for volunteers on their 15537
respective staffs in accordance with the rules of the department 15538
of aging adopted under division (B) of this section. Training 15539
programs may be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, 15540
but not all, of the duties of a representative of the office. Each 15541
regional office shall bear the cost of training its 15542
representatives who are volunteers. On completion of a training 15543
program, the representative shall take an examination administered 15544
by the department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a 15545
volunteer shall be certified by the department as a representative 15546
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 15547
department shall issue an identification card, which the 15548
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 15549
the representative deals while performing the representative's 15550
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 15551
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 15552
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 15553
unless he is certified as a representative having received 15554
appropriate training for that duty.15555

       (E) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall provide technical 15556
assistance to regional programs conducting training programs for 15557
volunteers and shall monitor the training programs.15558

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 15559
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 15560
this section, the state ombudspersonombudsman shall obtain 15561
permission to have the survey or inspection observed from both the 15562
director of health and the long-term care facility at which the 15563
survey or inspection is to take place.15564

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 15565
education requirements for representatives of the office.15566

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 15567
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program are immune from 15568
civil or criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 15569
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 15570
173.26 of the Revised Code. 15571

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 15572
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 15573
information to the office, participating in registration of a 15574
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 15575
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 15576
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.15577

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 15578
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 15579
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 15580
purpose to incriminate another.15581

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 15582
office of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 15583
and to the regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15584
programs. The attorney general shall represent any representative 15585
of the office and any representative of a regional program against 15586
whom any legal action is brought in connection with the 15587
representative's official duties under sections 173.14 to 173.26 15588
of the Revised Code.15589

       Sec. 173.25.  The office of the state long-term care15590
ombudspersonombudsman program shall, in carrying out the 15591
provisions and purposes of sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the 15592
Revised Code, advise, consult, and cooperate with any agency, 15593
program, or other entity related to the purposes of the office. 15594
Any agency, program, or other entity related to the purposes of 15595
the office shall advise, consult, and cooperate with the office.15596

       The office shall attempt to establish effective coordination 15597
with government-sponsored programs that provide legal services to 15598
the elderly and with protective and advocacy programs for 15599
individuals with developmental disabilities, mental retardation, 15600
or mental illness.15601

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 15602
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 15603
maintained by the facility for use by a residentwas licensed or 15604
otherwise authorized to maintain during any part of the previous 15605
year:15606

       (1) Nursing homes,and residential care facilities, and homes 15607
for the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;15608

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 15609
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 15610
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 15611
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 15612
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 15613
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 15614
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 15615
C.F.R. 412.23(e);15616

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 15617
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;15618

       (4) Residential facilities licensed under section 5119.2215619
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provide accommodations, 15620
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 15621
unrelated adults;15622

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 15623
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 15624
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 15625
the placement and care of veterans.15626

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 15627
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 15628
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 15629
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 15630
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 15631
payment.15632

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 15633
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 15634
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program fund, which is 15635
hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to 15636
pay the costs of operating the regional long-term care 15637
ombudspersonombudsman programs.15638

       (C) The state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and the 15639
regional programs may solicit and receive contributions to support 15640
the operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 15641
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 15642
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.15643

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:15644

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 15645
consideration for employment with the office of the state 15646
long-term care ombudsperson programby a responsible party in a 15647
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 15648
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15649
recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final 15650
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 15651
ombudspersonombudsman or the head of a regional long-term care 15652
ombudspersonombudsman program. "Applicant" does not include a 15653
person seeking to provide ombudspersonombudsman services to 15654
residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or 15655
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 15656
reimbursement for actual expenses.15657

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 15658
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.15659

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 15660
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 15661
the Revised Code.15662

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 15663
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party in a 15664
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 15665
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15666
recipients. "Employee" includes the person employed as the state 15667
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and a person employed as the 15668
head of a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. 15669
"Employee" does not include a person who provides ombudsperson15670
ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer 15671
without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration 15672
other than reimbursement for actual expenses.15673

       (5) "Responsible entityparty" means the following:15674

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 15675
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 15676
ombudspersonombudsman or the person employed as the state 15677
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman, the director of aging;15678

       (b) In the case of any other applicant who is under final 15679
consideration for employment with the state long-term care 15680
ombudsman program or any other employee of the state long-term 15681
care ombudsman program, the state long-term care ombudsperson or 15682
the ombudsperson's designeeombudsman;15683

        (c) In the case of an applicant who is under final 15684
consideration for employment with a regional long-term care 15685
ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) 15686
or an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program 15687
(including the head of a regional program), the regional long-term 15688
care ombudsman program.15689

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15690
programA responsible party may not employ an applicant or 15691
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 15692
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15693
recipients if any of the following apply:15694

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 15695
section reveals any of the following:15696

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 15697
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 15698
section;15699

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 15700
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 15701
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 15702
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 15703
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 15704
such a resident;15705

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 15706
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 15707
section and the rules prohibit the officeresponsible party from 15708
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 15709
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 15710
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients.15711

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 15712
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 15713
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 15714
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 15715
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 15716
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 15717
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.15718

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 15719
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 15720
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 15721
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 15722
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 15723
for a disqualifying offense.15724

       (C) TheA responsible entityparty or a responsible party's 15725
designee shall inform each applicant of both of the following at 15726
the time of the applicant's initial application for employment in 15727
a position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 15728
to residents and recipients:15729

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 15730
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 15731
the state long-term care ombudsperson programresponsible party is 15732
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 15733
applicant in the position;15734

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 15735
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 15736
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 15737
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 15738
impressions as part of the criminal records check.15739

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 15740
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 15741
responsible party in a position that involves providing 15742
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 15743
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 15744
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 15745
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 15746
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 15747
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 15748
of the office'sresponsible party continuing to employ the 15749
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson15750
ombudsman services to residents and recipients. A database review 15751
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 15752
any of the following:15753

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 15754
the United States general services administration pursuant to 15755
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 15756
the federal web site known as the system for award management;15757

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 15758
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 15759
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 15760
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 15761
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 15762
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;15763

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 15764
5123.52 of the Revised Code;15765

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 15766
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 15767
the Revised Code;15768

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 15769
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;15770

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 15771
3721.32 of the Revised Code;15772

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 15773
under this section.15774

       (E)(1) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by 15775
the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 15776
responsible party in a position that involves providing 15777
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 15778
responsible entityparty or designee shall request that the 15779
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 15780
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 15781
If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible 15782
entityparty or designee shall request that the superintendent 15783
conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified 15784
in the rules as a condition of the office'sresponsible party15785
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 15786
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15787
recipients. However, the responsible entityparty or designee is 15788
not required to request the criminal records check of the 15789
applicant or employee if the officeresponsible party is 15790
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 15791
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 15792
involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents 15793
and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 15794
records check request is required by this section does not present 15795
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 15796
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 15797
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 15798
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 15799
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 15800
records check, the responsible entityparty or designee shall 15801
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 15802
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 15803
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 15804
records check request is required by this section presents proof 15805
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 15806
the responsible entityparty or designee may request that the 15807
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 15808
investigation in the criminal records check.15809

       (2) TheA responsible entityparty or designee shall do all 15810
of the following:15811

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 15812
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 15813
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 15814
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 15815
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;15816

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 15817
from the applicant or employee;15818

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 15819
to the superintendent. 15820

       (3) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15821
programA responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal 15822
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 15823
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 15824
criminal records check the responsible entityparty or the 15825
responsible party's designee requests under this section. The 15826
officeresponsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 15827
exceeding the amount the officeresponsible party pays to the 15828
bureau under this section if the responsible entityparty or 15829
designee notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 15830
for employment of the amount of the fee.15831

        (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15832
programA responsible party may employ conditionally an applicant 15833
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 15834
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 15835
both of the officefollowing apply:15836

       (a) The responsible party is not prohibited by division 15837
(B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a position 15838
that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to 15839
residents and recipients and the;15840

       (b) The responsible entityparty or designee requests the 15841
criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this 15842
section not later than five business days after the applicant 15843
begins conditional employment.15844

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15845
programA responsible party shall terminate the employment of an 15846
applicant employed conditionally under division (F)(1) of this 15847
section if the results of the criminal records check, other than 15848
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 15849
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 15850
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 15851
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 15852
are obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 15853
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 15854
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 15855
the officeresponsible party shall terminate the applicant's 15856
employment unless circumstancesthe applicant meets standards15857
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 15858
officeresponsible party to employ the applicant exist and the 15859
officeresponsible party chooses to employ the applicant. 15860
Termination of employment under this division shall be considered 15861
just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of 15862
section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any 15863
attempt to deceive the officeresponsible party or designee about 15864
the applicant's criminal record.15865

       (G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 15866
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 15867
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 15868
shall not be made available to any person other than the 15869
following:15870

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 15871
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 15872
representative;15873

       (2) The responsible entityparty or the responsible entity's 15874
representativedesignee;15875

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 15876
head or other employee ofIn the case of a criminal records check 15877
conducted for an applicant who is under final consideration for 15878
employment with a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15879
program to request a criminal records check under this section15880
(including as the head of the regional program) or an employee of 15881
a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of 15882
a regional program), the state long-term care ombudsman or a 15883
representative of the office of the state long-term care 15884
ombudspersonombudsman program who is responsible for monitoring 15885
the regional program's compliance with this section;15886

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 15887
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:15888

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;15889

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 15890
employee;15891

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 15892
or a program the department of aging administers.15893

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 15894
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 15895
property caused by an applicant or employee who the office of the 15896
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party15897
employs in a position that involves providing ombudsperson15898
ombudsman services to residents and recipients, all of the 15899
following shall apply:15900

       (1) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant or 15901
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 15902
criminal records check requested under this section, the office15903
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 15904
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 15905
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.15906

       (2) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant in 15907
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (F) of this 15908
section, the officeresponsible party shall not be found 15909
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 15910
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 15911
this section.15912

       (3) If the officeresponsible party in good faith employed 15913
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 15914
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established15915
specified in rules adopted under this section, the office15916
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 15917
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 15918
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 15919
disqualifying offense.15920

       (I) The state long-term care ombudsman may not act as the 15921
director of aging's designee for the purpose of this section. The 15922
head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program may not act as 15923
the regional program's designee for the purpose of this section if 15924
the head is the employee for whom a database review or criminal 15925
records check is being conducted.15926

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 15927
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 15928

       (1) The rules may do the following:15929

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 15930
criminal records checks under this section;15931

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 15932
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 15933
or more classes of employees from the requirements;15934

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 15935
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 15936
database review conducted under this section.15937

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:15938

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 15939
section;15940

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 15941
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 15942
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 15943
be conducted;15944

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 15945
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 15946
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 15947
responsible party is prohibited from employing an applicant or 15948
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 15949
to be included in one or more of those databases;15950

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 15951
long-term care ombudsperson program may employStandards that an 15952
applicant or employee whomust meet for a responsible party to be 15953
permitted to employ the applicant or continue to employ the 15954
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services 15955
to residents and recipients if the applicant or employee is found 15956
by a criminal records check required by this section to have been 15957
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 15958
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense 15959
but meets personal character standards.15960

       Sec. 173.28. (A)(1) As used in this division, "incident" 15961
means the occurrence of a violation with respect to a resident or 15962
recipient, as those terms are defined in section 173.14 of the 15963
Revised Code. A violation is a separate incident for each day it 15964
occurs and for each resident who is subject to it.15965

        In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division (A) of 15966
section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may, 15967
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care 15968
provider or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care 15969
provider or other entity, for a violation of division (C) of 15970
section 173.24 of the Revised Code. The fine shall not exceed one 15971
thousand dollars per incident.15972

        (2) In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division 15973
(C) of section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director may, under 15974
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care provider 15975
or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care provider 15976
or other entity, for violating division (E) of section 173.19 of 15977
the Revised Code by denying a representative of the office of the 15978
state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program the access 15979
required by that division. The fine shall not exceed five hundred 15980
dollars for each day the violation continued.15981

        (B) On request of the director, the attorney general shall 15982
bring and prosecute to judgment a civil action to collect any fine 15983
imposed under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section that remains 15984
unpaid thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.15985

        (C) All fines collected under this section shall be deposited 15986
into the state treasury to the credit of the state long-term care 15987
ombudspersonombudsman program fund created under section 173.26 15988
of the Revised Code.15989

       Sec. 173.394.        Sec. 173.38.  (A) As used in this section:15990

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 15991
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 15992
agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 15993
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 15994
individual or is referred to a community-based long-term care 15995
agencyresponsible party by an employment service for such a 15996
position. "Applicant" does not include a person who provides 15997
direct care to an individualbeing considered for a direct-care 15998
position as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive 15999
any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual 16000
expenses.16001

       (2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 16002
173.14 of the Revised Code.16003

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services" means 16004
community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 16005
173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the 16006
department of aging administers.16007

       (4) "Consumer" means an individual who receives 16008
community-based long-term care services.16009

       (5) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 16010
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.16011

       (6) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in 16012
which an employee has either or both of the following:16013

       (i) In-person contact with one or more consumers;16014

       (ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or 16015
records.16016

       (7) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 16017
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 16018
the Revised Code.16019

       (8) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 16020
long-term care agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, 16021
or temporary direct-care position that involves providing direct 16022
care to an individual and a person who works in such a position 16023
due to being referred to a community-based long-term care agency16024
responsible party by an employment service. "Employee" does not 16025
include a person who provides direct care to an individualworks 16026
in a direct-care position as a volunteer without receiving or 16027
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 16028
reimbursement for actual expenses.16029

       (9) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as 16030
in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.16031

       (10) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of 16032
the Revised Code.16033

       (11) "Responsible party" means the following:16034

       (a) An area agency on aging in the case of either of the 16035
following:16036

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16037
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 16038
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 16039
agency by an employment service for such a position;16040

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16041
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 16042
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 16043
referred to the agency by an employment service.16044

       (b) A PASSPORT administrative agency in the case of either of 16045
the following:16046

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16047
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 16048
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 16049
agency by an employment service for such a position;16050

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16051
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 16052
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 16053
referred to the agency by an employment service.16054

       (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:16055

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16056
final consideration for employment with the provider in a 16057
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 16058
referred to the provider by an employment service for such a 16059
position;16060

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16061
employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 16062
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 16063
referred to the provider by an employment service.16064

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:16065

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16066
final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in a 16067
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 16068
referred to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a 16069
position;16070

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16071
employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or 16072
temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to 16073
being referred to the subcontractor by an employment service.16074

       (12) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules 16075
adopted under this section.16076

       (13) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care 16077
position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of 16078
remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.16079

       (14) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 16080
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.16081

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 16082
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 16083
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is 16084
subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the 16085
Revised Code. If a community-based long-term care agencyprovider 16086
or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the agencyprovider or 16087
subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo 16088
database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with 16089
section 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this 16090
section.16091

       (C) No community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 16092
party shall employ an applicant or continue to employ an employee 16093
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 16094
an individual if any of the following apply:16095

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 16096
section reveals any of the following:16097

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 16098
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 16099
section;16100

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 16101
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 16102
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 16103
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 16104
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 16105
such a resident;16106

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 16107
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 16108
section and the rules prohibit the agencyresponsible party from 16109
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 16110
included in such a database in a direct-care position that 16111
involves providing direct care to an individual.16112

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 16113
division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 16114
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 16115
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 16116
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 16117
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 16118
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.16119

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 16120
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 16121
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 16122
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 16123
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 16124
for a disqualifying offense.16125

       (D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the 16126
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency16127
responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the 16128
following at the time of the applicant's initial application for 16129
employment or referral to the agencyresponsible party by an 16130
employment service for a direct-care position that involves 16131
providing direct care to an individual:16132

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 16133
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency16134
responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section 16135
from employing the applicant in the direct-care position;16136

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 16137
applicant may not be employed in the direct-care position, a 16138
criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the 16139
applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's 16140
fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.16141

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 16142
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16143
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 16144
care agencyresponsible party shall conduct a database review of 16145
the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. 16146
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 16147
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency16148
responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee 16149
in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to 16150
employ the employee in a direct-care position that involves 16151
providing direct care to an individual. However, a chief 16152
administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an 16153
applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A 16154
database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee 16155
is included in any of the following:16156

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 16157
the United States general services administration pursuant to 16158
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 16159
the federal web site known as the system for award management;16160

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 16161
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 16162
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 16163
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 16164
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 16165
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 16166
amended;16167

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 16168
5123.52 of the Revised Code;16169

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 16170
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 16171
the Revised Code;16172

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 16173
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;16174

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 16175
3721.32 of the Revised Code;16176

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 16177
under this section.16178

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 16179
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16180
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 16181
care agencyresponsible party shall request that the 16182
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 16183
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 16184
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 16185
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency16186
responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a 16187
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 16188
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 16189
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16190
individual. However, the chief administrator is not required to 16191
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 16192
division (G) of this section applies or the agencyresponsible 16193
party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 16194
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 16195
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16196
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 16197
records check request is required by this section does not present 16198
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 16199
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 16200
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 16201
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 16202
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 16203
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 16204
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 16205
investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an 16206
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 16207
required by this section presents proof of having been a resident 16208
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 16209
may request that the superintendent include information from the 16210
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.16211

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:16212

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 16213
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 16214
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 16215
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 16216
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;16217

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 16218
from the applicant or employee;16219

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 16220
to the superintendent. 16221

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party16222
shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 16223
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 16224
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 16225
check the agencyresponsible party requests under this section. An 16226
agencyA responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 16227
exceeding the amount the agencyresponsible party pays to the 16228
bureau under this section if both of the following apply:16229

       (a) The agencyresponsible party notifies the applicant at 16230
the time of initial application for employment of the amount of 16231
the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not 16232
be considered for employment.16233

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 16234
the Revised Code does not reimbursepay the agencyresponsible 16235
party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.16236

       (G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with 16237
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 16238
referred to a community-based long-term agencyresponsible party16239
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 16240
temporary staff for direct-care positions that involve providing 16241
direct care to an individual and both of the following apply:16242

       (1) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party16243
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 16244
the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted 16245
of the applicant or employee.16246

       (2) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party16247
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 16248
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 16249
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 16250
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:16251

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 16252
referral by the employment service to the agencyresponsible 16253
party;16254

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency16255
responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal 16256
records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.16257

       (H)(1) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 16258
party may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 16259
records check request is required by this section prior to 16260
obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the agency16261
responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this 16262
section from employing the applicant in a direct-care position 16263
that involves providing direct care to an individual and either of 16264
the following applies:16265

       (a) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party16266
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 16267
(F) of this section not later than five business days after the 16268
applicant begins conditional employment.16269

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agencyresponsible party16270
by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant 16271
provides the chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party a 16272
letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the 16273
letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated 16274
official of the employment service, and the letter states all of 16275
the following:16276

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 16277
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 16278
applicant;16279

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 16280
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 16281
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 16282
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;16283

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 16284
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 16285
the letter;16286

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 16287
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 16288
administrator of the agencyresponsible party when the employment 16289
service receives the results. 16290

       (2) If a community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 16291
party employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 16292
(H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt 16293
of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send 16294
a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the agency16295
responsible party.16296

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party16297
that employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 16298
(H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's 16299
employment if the results of the criminal records check, other 16300
than the results of any request for information from the federal 16301
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 16302
sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records 16303
check is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal 16304
records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the 16305
applicant has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 16306
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 16307
disqualifying offense, the agencyresponsible party shall 16308
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstancesthe 16309
applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this 16310
section that permit the agencyresponsible party to employ the 16311
applicant exist and the agencyresponsible party chooses to employ 16312
the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall 16313
be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 16314
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant 16315
makes any attempt to deceive the agencyresponsible party about 16316
the applicant's criminal record.16317

       (I) The report of any criminal records check conducted 16318
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 16319
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 16320
shall not be made available to any person other than the 16321
following:16322

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 16323
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 16324
representative;16325

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 16326
care agencyresponsible party requesting the criminal records 16327
check or the administrator's representative;16328

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 16329
program that provides direct care to individualscommunity-based 16330
long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same 16331
entity that owns or operates the community-based long-term care 16332
agencyresponsible party that requested the criminal records 16333
check;16334

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 16335
records check;16336

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 16337
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's16338
responsible party's compliance with this section;16339

       (6) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 16340
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 16341
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 16342
either of the following apply:16343

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 16344
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor, 16345
the agencyprovider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;16346

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 16347
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 16348
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a 16349
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor16350
that also is a waiver agency.16351

       (7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 16352
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:16353

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;16354

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 16355
employee;16356

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 16357
or a program the department of aging administers.16358

       (J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 16359
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 16360
property caused by an applicant or employee who a community-based 16361
long-term care agencyresponsible party employs in a direct-care16362
position that involves providing direct care to individuals, all 16363
of the following shall apply:16364

       (1) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant or 16365
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 16366
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency16367
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 16368
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 16369
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.16370

       (2) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant in 16371
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this 16372
section, the agencyresponsible party shall not be found 16373
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 16374
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 16375
this section.16376

       (3) If the agencyresponsible party in good faith employed 16377
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 16378
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established16379
specified in rules adopted under this section, the agency16380
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 16381
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 16382
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 16383
disqualifying offense.16384

       (K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 16385
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.16386

       (1) The rules may do the following:16387

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 16388
criminal records checks under this section;16389

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 16390
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 16391
or more classes of employees from the requirements;16392

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 16393
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 16394
database review conducted under this section.16395

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:16396

       (a) The meaning of the term "subcontractor";16397

       (b) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 16398
section;16399

       (b)(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database 16400
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 16401
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 16402
be conducted;16403

       (c)(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 16404
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 16405
community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party is 16406
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 16407
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 16408
or more of those databases;16409

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 16410
care agency may employ(e) Standards that an applicant or employee 16411
whomust meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ 16412
the applicant or continue to employ the employee in a direct-care 16413
position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 16414
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 16415
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 16416
of conviction for a disqualifying offense but meets personal 16417
character standards.16418

       Sec. 173.39. (A) As used in sections 173.39 to 173.39416419
173.393 of the Revised Code:16420

       (1) "Community-based long-term care agencyProvider" means a 16421
person or governmentgovernmental entity that provides 16422
community-based long-term care services under a program the 16423
department of aging administers, regardless of whether the person 16424
or government entity is certified under section 173.391 or 16425
authorized to receive payment for the services from the department 16426
under section 173.392 of the Revised Code. "Community-based 16427
long-term care agencyProvider" includes a person or government16428
governmental entity that provides home and community-based 16429
services to older adults through the PASSPORT program created 16430
underas defined in section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.16431

       (2) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 16432
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.16433

        (B) Except as provided in section 173.392 of the Revised 16434
Code, the department of aging may not pay a person or government 16435
entityprovider for providing community-based long-term care 16436
services under a program the department administers unless the 16437
person or government entityprovider is certified under section 16438
173.391 of the Revised Code and provides the services.16439

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 16440
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 16441
the Revised Code:16442

        (1) Certify a person or government entityprovider to provide 16443
community-based long-term care services under a program the 16444
department administers if the person or government entityprovider16445
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 16446
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 16447
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 16448
section;16449

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 16450
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 16451
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity16452
provider certified under division (A)(1) of this section:16453

        (a) Issue a written warning;16454

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 16455
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 16456
department;16457

        (c) Suspend referrals;16458

        (d) Remove clients;16459

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 16460
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;16461

        (f) Suspend the certification;16462

       (g) Revoke the certification;16463

        (h) Impose another sanction.16464

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 16465
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 16466
designee and a person or government entityprovider concerning 16467
actions the department or its designee takes regarding a decision 16468
not to certify the person or government entityprovider under 16469
division (A)(1) of this section or a disciplinary action under 16470
divisions (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.16471

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 16472
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 16473
requirements and standards for determining which type of 16474
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 16475
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 16476
all of the following:16477

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies16478
providers comply with section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code;16479

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies16480
providers to ensure that the services are provided in a quality 16481
manner advantageous to the individual receiving the services;16482

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 16483
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 16484
take;16485

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 16486
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.16487

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 16488
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 16489
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 16490
division (B)(2) of this section:16491

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency'sprovider's16492
experience and financial responsibility;16493

        (2) The agency'sprovider's ability to comply with standards 16494
for the community-based long-term care services that the agency16495
provider provides under a program the department administers;16496

        (3) The agency'sprovider's ability to meet the needs of the 16497
individuals served;16498

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.16499

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 16500
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 16501
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 16502
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 16503
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 16504
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 16505
or safety of individuals being served.16506

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 16507
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 16508
section if any of the following conditions apply:16509

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 16510
chapter require the community-based long-term care agencyprovider16511
to be a party to a provider agreement; hold a license, 16512
certificate, or permit; or maintain a certification, any of which 16513
is required or issued by a state or federal government entity 16514
other than the department of aging, and either of the following is 16515
the case:16516

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 16517
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 16518
obtained or maintained.16519

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 16520
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 16521
or has been otherwise restricted.16522

        (2) The agency'sprovider's certification under this section 16523
has been denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following 16524
reasons:16525

       (a) A governmentgovernmental entity of this state, other 16526
than the department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew 16527
any of the following held by, or has denied any of the following 16528
sought by, a community-based long-term care agencyprovider: a 16529
provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 16530
certification. Division (E)(2)(a) of this section applies 16531
regardless of whether the agencyprovider has entered into a 16532
provider agreement in, or holds a license, certificate, permit, or 16533
certification issued by, another state.16534

       (b) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 16535
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 16536
plea for, or has been convicted of, an offense materially related 16537
to the medicaid program.16538

        (c) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 16539
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 16540
plea for, been convicted of, or been found eligible for 16541
intervention in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or 16542
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 16543
Revised Code, but only if none of the personal characterthe 16544
provider, principal owner, or manager does not meet standards 16545
establishedspecified by the director in rules adopted under 16546
section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code apply.16547

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 16548
has taken adverse action against the agencyprovider and that 16549
action impacts the agency'sprovider's participation in the 16550
medicaid program.16551

        (e) The agencyprovider has failed to enter into or renew a 16552
provider agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as 16553
that term is defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that 16554
administers programs on behalf of the department of aging in the 16555
region of the state in which the agencyprovider is certified to 16556
provide services.16557

        (f) The agencyprovider has not billed or otherwise submitted 16558
a claim to the department for payment under the medicaid program 16559
in at least two years.16560

        (g) The agencyprovider denied or failed to provide the 16561
department or its designee access to the agency'sprovider's16562
facilities during the agency'sprovider's normal business hours 16563
for purposes of conducting an audit or structural compliance 16564
review.16565

        (h) The agencyprovider has ceased doing business.16566

        (i) The agencyprovider has voluntarily relinquished its 16567
certification for any reason.16568

        (3) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 16569
department of job and family servicesmedicaid has been suspended 16570
under division (C) of section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised 16571
Code.16572

        (4) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 16573
department of job and family servicesmedicaid is denied or 16574
revoked because the agencyprovider or its owner, officer, 16575
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee has been 16576
convicted of an offense that caused the provider agreement to be 16577
suspended under section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised Code.16578

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 16579
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 16580
department may send a notice to the agencyprovider describing a 16581
decision not to certify the agencyprovider under division (A)(1) 16582
of this section or the disciplinary action the department proposes 16583
to take under division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The 16584
notice shall be sent to the agency'sprovider's address that is on 16585
record with the department and may be sent by regular mail.16586

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 16587
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 16588
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 16589
issued under this section.16590

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 16591
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 16592
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 16593
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 16594
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 16595
associated with community-based long-term care agencyprovider16596
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 16597
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.16598

       Sec. 173.392. (A) The department of aging may pay a person or 16599
government entityprovider for providing community-based long-term 16600
care services under a program the department administers, even 16601
though the person or government entityprovider is not certified 16602
under section 173.391 of the Revised Code, if all of the following 16603
are the case:16604

        (1) The person or government entityprovider has a contract 16605
with the department of aging or the department's designee to 16606
provide the services in accordance with the contract or has 16607
received a grant from the department or its designee to provide 16608
the services in accordance with a grant agreement;16609

        (2) The contract or grant agreement includes detailed 16610
conditions of participation for providers of services under a 16611
program the department administersthe provider and service 16612
standards that the person or government entityprovider is 16613
required to satisfy;16614

        (3) The person or government entityprovider complies with 16615
the contract or grant agreement;16616

       (4) The contract or grant is not for medicaid-funded 16617
services, other than services provided under the PACE program 16618
administered by the department of aging under section 173.50 of 16619
the Revised Code.16620

       (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 16621
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing both of the 16622
following:16623

        (1) Contracts and grant agreements between the department of 16624
aging or its designee and persons and government entities 16625
regarding community-based long-term care services provided under a 16626
program the department administersproviders;16627

        (2) The department's payment for community-based long-term 16628
care services under this section.16629

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 16630
the Revised Code:16631

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 16632
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 16633
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.16634

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 16635
component" means each of the following:16636

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 16637
created under section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code;16638

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403173.5316639
of the Revised Code;16640

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 16641
program created under section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code;16642

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 16643
section 5111.855166.01 of the Revised Code, that the department 16644
of aging administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 16645
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 16646
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.16647

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 16648
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 16649
following:16650

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 16651
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;16652

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 16653
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 16654
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0216655
5164.02 of the Revised Code:16656

       (i) Home health services;16657

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;16658

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;16659

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;16660

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.16661

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.16662

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 16663
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 16664
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 16665
program established pursuant to this section.16666

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 16667
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.16668

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 16669
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.16670

       (7)(6) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 16671
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 16672
173.50 of the Revised Code.16673

       (8)(7) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 16674
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 16675
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 16676

       (9)(8) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging 16677
or other entity under contract with the department of aging to 16678
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 16679
region specified in the contract.16680

       (10)(9) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of 16681
an individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 16682
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 16683
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 16684
individual.16685

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 16686
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 16687
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 16688
these professional consultations information about options 16689
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 16690
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 16691
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 16692
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 16693
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 16694
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 16695
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 16696
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 16697
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.16698

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 16699
administered by the department of aging, except that the 16700
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 16701
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 16702
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 16703
manner that all of the following are included:16704

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 16705
available funding sources for long-term care services;16706

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 16707
service needs;16708

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 16709
eligibility for long-term care services;16710

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 16711
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 16712
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;16713

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 16714
effectively.16715

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 16716
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 16717
173.422 of the Revised Code.16718

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 16719
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 16720
situation and shall address all of the following:16721

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 16722
the individual;16723

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 16724
for long-term care services;16725

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 16726
programs, services, and benefits;16727

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 16728
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 16729
individual's family, friends, and community.16730

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 16731
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 16732
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 16733
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.0615119.40, and 5123.021, 16734
and 5165.03 of the Revised Code and may be provided concurrently 16735
with the assessment required under section 5111.204173.546 or 16736
5165.04 of the Revised Code.16737

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 16738
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 16739
with a long-term care consultation:16740

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 16741
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 16742
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 16743
nursing facility;16744

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;16745

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 16746
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 16747
consultation.16748

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 16749
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 16750
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 16751
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 16752
facility. 16753

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 16754
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 16755
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:16756

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 16757
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 16758
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 16759
5111.2045165.04 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be 16760
completed in accordance with the applicable time frames specified 16761
in that section for providing a level of care determination based 16762
on the assessment.16763

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 16764
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 16765
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 16766
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 16767
section.16768

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 16769
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 16770
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 16771
(b) of this section.16772

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 16773
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 16774
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 16775
of the following:16776

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 16777
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 16778
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 16779
section;16780

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 16781
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 16782
admitted to the nursing facility;16783

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 16784
the consultation as soon as practicable.16785

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 16786
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 16787
the following apply:16788

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 16789
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 16790
representative refuses to cooperate;16791

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 16792
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 16793
of the Revised Code;16794

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 16795
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 16796
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 16797
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 16798
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a residential 16799
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 16800
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 16801
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or an independent 16802
living arrangement;16803

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 16804
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 16805
Code;16806

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 16807
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 16808
5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 5111.6725165.512 of the 16809
Revised Code;16810

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 16811
consultation requirement by the department or the program 16812
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 16813
(L) of this section.16814

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 16815
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 16816
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 16817
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 16818
individual is eligible, including all available home and 16819
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 16820
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 16821
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 16822
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 16823
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.16824

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 16825
agreement under section 5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 16826
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code shall admit any individual 16827
as a resident, unless the nursing facility has received evidence 16828
that a long-term care consultation has been completed for the 16829
individual or division (I) of this section is applicable to the 16830
individual.16831

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 16832
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 16833
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 16834
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 16835
following:16836

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 16837
pursuant to this section;16838

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 16839
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 16840
available;16841

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 16842
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 16843
a long-term care consultation;16844

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 16845
care consultation requirement;16846

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 16847
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 16848
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 16849
admission;16850

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 16851
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;16852

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 16853
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 16854
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;16855

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 16856
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 16857
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 16858
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;16859

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 16860
hearing under division (N) of this section.16861

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 16862
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 16863
long-term care consultation, the department and program 16864
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 16865
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 16866
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted underauthorized 16867
by section 5111.025165.191 of the Revised Code for purposes of 16868
the medicaid program. Except when prohibited by state or federal 16869
law, the department of health, department of job and family 16870
servicesmedicaid, or nursing facility holding the data shall 16871
grant access to the data on receipt of the request from the 16872
department of aging or program administrator.16873

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 16874
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 16875
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 16876
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:16877

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 16878
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 16879
required by this section;16880

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 16881
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 16882
resident of the facility;16883

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 16884
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 16885
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 16886
to administer the program.16887

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.625162.66 of the Revised 16888
Code, all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section 16889
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 16890
residents protection fund.16891

       Sec. 173.43. (A) Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 16892
Code, theThe department of aging shall enter into an interagency 16893
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid16894
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code under which the 16895
department of aging is required to establish for each biennium a 16896
unified long-term care budget for home and community-based 16897
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 16898
administers. The interagency agreement shall require the 16899
department of aging to do all of the following:16900

       (1) Administer the unified long-term care budget in 16901
accordance with sections 173.43 to 173.434 of the Revised Code and 16902
the general assembly's appropriations for home and community-based 16903
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 16904
administers for the applicable biennium;16905

       (2) Contract with each PASSPORT administrative agency for 16906
assistance in the administration of the unified long-term care 16907
budget;16908

       (3) Provide individuals who are eligible for home and 16909
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 16910
department of aging administers a choice of services that meet the 16911
individuals' needs and improve their quality of life;16912

       (4) Provide a continuum of services that meet the life-long 16913
needs of individuals who are eligible for home and community-based 16914
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 16915
administers.16916

       (B) The director of budget and management shall create new 16917
appropriation items as necessary for establishment of the unified 16918
long-term care budget.16919

       Sec. 173.431. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 16920
Code, theThe department of aging shall ensure that the unified 16921
long-term care budget established under section 173.43 of the 16922
Revised Code is administered in a manner that provides medicaid 16923
coverage of and expands access to all of the following as 16924
necessary to meet the needs of individuals receiving home and 16925
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 16926
department of aging administers:16927

       (A) To the extent permitted by the medicaid waivers 16928
authorizing department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 16929
components, all of the following medicaid waiver services provided 16930
under department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components:16931

       (1) Personal care services;16932

       (2) Home-delivered meals;16933

       (3) Adult day-care;16934

       (4) Homemaker services;16935

       (5) Emergency response services;16936

       (6) Medical equipment and supplies;16937

       (7) Chore services;16938

       (8) Social work counseling;16939

       (9) Nutritional counseling;16940

       (10) Independent living assistance;16941

       (11) Medical transportation;16942

       (12) Nonmedical transportation;16943

       (13) Home care attendant services;16944

       (14) Assisted living services;16945

       (15) Community transition services;16946

       (16) Enhanced community living services;16947

       (17) All other medicaid waiver services provided under 16948
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components.16949

       (B) All of the following state medicaid plan services as 16950
specified in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of the 16951
Revised Code:16952

       (1) Home health services;16953

       (2) Private duty nursing services;16954

       (3) Durable medical equipment;16955

       (4) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;16956

       (5) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.16957

       (C) The services that the PACE program provides.16958

       Sec. 173.432. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised Code, 16959
theThe department of aging or its designee shall provide care 16960
management and authorization services with regard to the state 16961
plan services specified in division (B) of section 173.431 of the 16962
Revised Code that are provided to participants of department of 16963
aging-administered medicaid waiver components. The department or 16964
its designee shall ensure that no person providing the care 16965
management and authorization services performs an activity that 16966
may not be performed without a valid certificate or license issued 16967
by an agency of this state unless the person holds the valid 16968
certificate or license.16969

       Sec. 173.434. The director of job and family services shall 16970
adoptTo the extent authorized by rules underauthorized by16971
section 5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code to authorize, the 16972
director of aging toshall adopt rules that are needed to 16973
implement sections 173.43 to 173.432 of the Revised Code. The 16974
director of aging's rules shall be adopted in accordance with 16975
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.16976

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 16977
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:16978

        (A) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 16979
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 16980
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 16981
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.16982

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 16983
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.16984

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 16985
residential care facility.16986

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 16987
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.16988

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 16989
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.16990

       Sec. 173.47. (A) For purposes of publishing the Ohio 16991
long-term care consumer guide, the department of aging shall 16992
conduct or provide for the conduct of an annual customer 16993
satisfaction survey of each long-term care facility. The results 16994
of the surveys may include information obtained from long-term 16995
care facility residents, their families, or both. A survey that is 16996
to include information obtained from nursing facility residents 16997
shall include the questions specified in divisions (C)(7)(a) and 16998
(b) and (18) and (D)(7)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of 16999
the Revised Code. A survey that is to include information obtained 17000
from the families of nursing facility residents shall include the 17001
questions specified in divisions (C)(8)(a) and (b) and (19) and 17002
(D)(8)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code.17003

        (B) Each long-term care facility shall cooperate in the 17004
conduct of its annual customer satisfaction survey.17005

       Sec. 173.48. (A)(1) The department of aging may charge annual 17006
fees to long-term care facilities for the publication of the Ohio 17007
long-term care consumer guide. The department may contract with 17008
any person or government entity to collect the fees on its behalf. 17009
All fees collected under this section shall be deposited in 17010
accordance with division (B) of this section.17011

        (2) The annual fees charged under this section shall not 17012
exceed the following amounts:17013

       (a) Six hundred fifty dollars for each long-term care 17014
facility that is a nursing home;17015

        (b) Three hundred dollars for each long-term care facility 17016
that is a residential care facility.17017

       (3) Fees paid by a long-term care facility that is a nursing 17018
facility shall be reimbursed through the medicaid program operated 17019
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.17020

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 17021
long-term care consumer guide fund. Money collected from the fees 17022
charged for the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer 17023
guide under division (A) of this section shall be credited to the 17024
fund. The department shall use money in the fund for costs 17025
associated with publishing the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, 17026
including, but not limited to, costs incurred in conducting or 17027
providing for the conduct of customer satisfaction surveys.17028

       Sec. 173.50. (A) Pursuant to a contract entered into with the 17029
department of job and family servicesmedicaid as an interagency 17030
agreement under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the 17031
department of aging shall carry out the day-to-day administration 17032
of the component of the medicaid program established under Chapter 17033
5111. of the Revised Code known as the program of all-inclusive 17034
care for the elderly or PACE. The department of aging shall carry 17035
out its PACE administrative duties in accordance with the 17036
provisions of the interagency agreement and all applicable federal 17037
laws, including the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)17038
section 1934, 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4, as amended.17039

       (B) The departmentTo the extent authorized by rules 17040
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director17041
of aging may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 17042
Revised Code regarding the PACE program, including rules 17043
establishing priorities for enrolling in the program pursuant to 17044
section 173.501 of the Revised Code. The department's rules are 17045
subject to both of the following:17046

       (1) The rules shall be authorized by rules adopted by the 17047
department of job and family services.17048

       (2) The rules shall address only those issues that are not 17049
addressed in rules adopted by the department of job and family 17050
servicesmedicaid director for the PACE program.17051

       Sec. 173.501.  (A) As used in this section:17052

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.2017053
5165.01 of the Revised Code.17054

       "PACE provider" has the same meaning as in the "Social 17055
Security Act," section 1934(a)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4(a)(3).17056

       (B) The department of aging shall establish a home first 17057
component of the PACE program under which eligible individuals may 17058
be enrolled in the PACE program in accordance with this section. 17059
An individual is eligible for the PACE program's home first 17060
component if both of the following apply:17061

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 17062
PACE program.17063

       (2) At least one of the following applies:17064

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.17065

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 17066
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 17067
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 17068
program, will require the individual to be admitted to a nursing 17069
facility within thirty days of the physician's determination.17070

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 17071
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 17072
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 17073
program, the individual is to be transported directly from the 17074
hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.17075

       (d) Both of the following apply:17076

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 17077
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 17078
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 17079
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 17080
or has made a request to a county department for protective 17081
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.17082

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 17083
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 17084
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 17085
services such as the PACE program, the individual should be 17086
admitted to a nursing facility.17087

       (C) Each month, the department of aging shall identify 17088
individuals who are eligible for the home first component of the 17089
PACE program. When the department identifies such an individual, 17090
the department shall notify the PACE provider serving the area in 17091
which the individual resides. The PACE provider shall determine 17092
whether the PACE program is appropriate for the individual and 17093
whether the individual would rather participate in the PACE 17094
program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility. If 17095
the PACE provider determines that the PACE program is appropriate 17096
for the individual and the individual would rather participate in 17097
the PACE program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 17098
facility, the PACE provider shall so notify the department of 17099
aging. On receipt of the notice from the PACE provider, the 17100
department of aging shall approve the individual's enrollment in 17101
the PACE program in accordance with priorities established in 17102
rules adopted under section 173.50 of the Revised Code. 17103

       Sec. 173.51.  As used in sections 173.51 to 173.56 of the 17104
Revised Code:17105

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 17106
173.14 of the Revised Code.17107

       "Assisted living program" means the program that consists of 17108
a medicaid-funded component created under section 173.54 of the 17109
Revised Code and a state-funded component created under section 17110
173.543 of the Revised Code and provides assisted living services 17111
to individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 17112
requirements.17113

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 17114
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 17115
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 17116
social and recreational programming.17117

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 17118
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 17119
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 17120
assisted living program.17121

       "Choices program" means the program created under section 17122
173.53 of the Revised Code.17123

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 17124
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.17125

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 17126
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 17127
the Revised Code.17128

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 17129
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 17130
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 17131
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 17132
particular area, that agency or entity.17133

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17134
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.17135

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 17136
of the Revised Code.17137

       "PASSPORT program" means the preadmission screening system 17138
providing options and resources today program (PASSPORT) that 17139
consists of a medicaid-funded component created under section 17140
173.52 of the Revised Code and a state-funded component created 17141
under section 173.522 of the Revised Code and provides home and 17142
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 17143
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 17144
program's applicable eligibility requirements.17145

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 17146
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 17147
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.17148

       "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 17149
applicant for the medicaid-funded component or state-funded 17150
component of the assisted living program. A representative may be 17151
a family member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other 17152
person chosen to act on behalf of an applicant.17153

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 17154
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.17155

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17156
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17157
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.17158

       Sec. 173.40.        Sec. 173.52.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 17159
173.402 of the Revised Code:17160

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17161
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.17162

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 17163
section.17164

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 17165
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 17166
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.17167

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17168
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17169
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.17170

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 17171
create the medicaid-funded component of the preadmission screening 17172
system providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT 17173
program. The PASSPORT program shall provide home and 17174
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 17175
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 17176
program's applicable eligibility requirements. Subject to division 17177
(C) of this section, the program shall have a medicaid-funded 17178
component and a state-funded component.In creating the 17179
medicaid-funded component, the department of medicaid shall 17180
collaborate with the department of aging.17181

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 17182
PASSPORT program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this 17183
section, all of the following apply:17184

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 17185
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 17186
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 17187
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.17188

       (b)(2) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 17189
separate medicaid waiver component. 17190

       (c)(3) For an individual to be eligible for the 17191
medicaid-funded component, the individual must be a medicaid 17192
recipient and meet the additional eligibility requirements 17193
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 17194
division (C)(1)(d)(B)(4) of this section.17195

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt(4) 17196
To the extent authorized by rules underauthorization by section 17197
5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code and, the director of aging 17198
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 17199
Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.17200

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17201
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 17202
family servicesmedicaid shall work together to determine whether 17203
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should 17204
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 17205
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 17206
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 17207
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 17208
departments shall specify.17209

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 17210
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 17211
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 17212
program.17213

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 17214
component, the individual must meet one of the following 17215
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 17216
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 17217
division (D)(4) of this section:17218

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 17219
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 17220
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 17221
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 17222
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17223
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 17224
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.17225

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 17226
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 17227
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 17228
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 17229
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 17230
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 17231
protect the individual's health and safety.17232

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 17233
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17234
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 17235
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 17236
and the department or the department's designee must have 17237
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 17238
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 17239
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 17240
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17241
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 17242
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 17243
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17244
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 17245
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).17246

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 17247
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 17248
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 17249
basis for not more than ninety days.17250

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 17251
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 17252
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 17253
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 17254
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 17255
section.17256

       Sec. 173.401.        Sec. 173.521.  (A) As used in this section:17257

        "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 17258
173.14 of the Revised Code.17259

        "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 17260
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 17261
the Revised Code.17262

        "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 17263
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 17264
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 17265
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 17266
particular area, that agency or entity.17267

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 17268
of the Revised Code.17269

       (B) SubjectUnless the medicaid-funded component of the 17270
PASSPORT program is terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of 17271
section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code, the department shall 17272
establish a home first component of the PASSPORT program under 17273
which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 17274
component of the PASSPORT program in accordance with this section. 17275
An individual is eligible for the PASSPORT program's home first 17276
component if both of the following apply:17277

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 17278
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.17279

       (2) At least one of the following applies:17280

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.17281

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 17282
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 17283
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17284
PASSPORT program, will require the individual to be admitted to a 17285
nursing facility within thirty days of the physician's 17286
determination.17287

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 17288
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 17289
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17290
PASSPORT program, the individual is to be transported directly 17291
from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.17292

       (d) Both of the following apply:17293

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 17294
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 17295
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 17296
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 17297
or has made a request to a county department for protective 17298
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.17299

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 17300
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 17301
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 17302
services such as the PASSPORT program, the individual should be 17303
admitted to a nursing facility.17304

       (C)(B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 17305
individuals residing in the area that the agency serves who are 17306
eligible for the home first component of the PASSPORT program. 17307
When an area agency on aging identifies such an individual, the 17308
agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 17309
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides. 17310
The administrator shall determine whether the PASSPORT program is 17311
appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 17312
rather participate in the PASSPORT program than continue or begin 17313
to reside in a nursing facility. If the administrator determines 17314
that the PASSPORT program is appropriate for the individual and 17315
the individual would rather participate in the PASSPORT program 17316
than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility, the 17317
administrator shall so notify the department of aging. On receipt 17318
of the notice from the administrator, the department shall approve 17319
the individual's enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of 17320
the PASSPORT program regardless of the unified waiting list 17321
established under section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, 17322
unless the enrollment would cause the component to exceed any 17323
limit on the number of individuals who may be enrolled in the 17324
component as set by the United States secretary of health and 17325
human services in the PASSPORT waiver.17326

       Sec. 173.522.  (A) The department of aging shall create and 17327
administer the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The 17328
state-funded component shall not be administered as part of the 17329
medicaid program.17330

       (B) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 17331
component of the PASSPORT program, the individual must meet one of 17332
the following requirements and meet the additional eligibility 17333
requirements applicable to the individual established in rules 17334
adopted under division (D) of this section:17335

       (1) The individual must have been enrolled in the 17336
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 17337
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 17338
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 17339
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 17340
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 17341
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 17342
and support medicaid waiver component) denied.17343

       (2) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 17344
in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if 17345
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 17346
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 17347
and support medicaid waiver component) terminated and the 17348
individual must still need the home and community-based services 17349
provided under the PASSPORT program to protect the individual's 17350
health and safety.17351

       (3) The individual must have an application for the 17352
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 17353
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 17354
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 17355
and support medicaid waiver component) pending and the department 17356
or the department's designee must have determined that the 17357
individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility requirements of the 17358
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17359
terminated under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised 17360
Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17361
component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual meets 17362
the financial eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded 17363
component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is terminated 17364
under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the 17365
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).17366

       (C) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 17367
component of the PASSPORT program because the individual meets the 17368
requirement of division (B)(3) of this section may participate in 17369
the component on that basis for not more than ninety days.17370

       (D) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 17371
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 17372
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The additional 17373
eligibility requirements established in the rules may vary for the 17374
different groups of individuals specified in divisions (B)(1), 17375
(2), and (3) of this section.17376

       Sec. 173.523. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 17377
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 17378
the PASSPORT program may appeal an adverse action taken or 17379
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 17380
designated by the department concerning participation in or 17381
services provided under the component if the action will result in 17382
any of the following:17383

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 17384
component;17385

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 17386
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;17387

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 17388
rules adopted by the department under this section.17389

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 17390
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.17391

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 17392
former participant in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT 17393
program may not bring an appeal under this or any other section of 17394
the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:17395

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 17396
for enrollment in the component;17397

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 17398
the component;17399

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 17400
proposed;17401

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 17402
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 17403
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;17404

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 17405
for the maximum time permitted by this section. 17406

       Sec. 173.402.        Sec. 173.524. An individual enrolled in the PASSPORT 17407
program may request that home-delivered meals provided to the 17408
individual under the PASSPORT program be kosher. If such a request 17409
is made, the department of aging or the department's designee 17410
shall ensure that each home-delivered meal provided to the 17411
individual under the PASSPORT program is kosher. In complying with 17412
this requirement, the department or department's designee shall 17413
require each entity that provides home-delivered meals to the 17414
individual to provide the individual with meals that meet, as much 17415
as possible, the requirements established in rules adopted under 17416
section 173.40sections 173.52 and 173.522 of the Revised Code 17417
governing the home-delivered meal service while complying with 17418
kosher practices for meal preparation and dietary restrictions.17419

       An entity that provides a kosher home-delivered meal to a 17420
PASSPORT program enrollee pursuant to this section shall be 17421
reimbursed for the meal at a rate equal to the rate for 17422
home-delivered meals furnished to PASSPORT program enrollees 17423
requiring a therapeutic diet.17424

       Sec. 173.403.        Sec. 173.53.  (A) As used in this section:17425

       "Choices program" means the program created under this 17426
section.17427

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17428
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.17429

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17430
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17431
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.17432

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 17433
createdThe department of medicaid shall create the choices 17434
program. In creating the choices program, the department of 17435
medicaid shall collaborate with the department of aging. Subject 17436
to division (B) of this section:17437

       (1) The choices program shall provide home and 17438
community-based services. The;17439

       (2) The department of aging shall administer the choices17440
program through a contract entered into with the department of 17441
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of 17442
the Revised Code. Subject to federal approval, the;17443

       (3) The choices program shall be available statewide.17444

       (C)(B) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17445
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 17446
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 17447
determine whether the choices program should continue to operate 17448
as a separate medicaid waiver component or be terminated. If the 17449
departments determine that the choices program should be 17450
terminated, the program shall cease to exist on a date the 17451
departments shall specify.17452

       (C) If the choices program is terminated pursuant to division 17453
(B) of this section or for another reason, not sooner than six 17454
months before the date on which the program ceases to exist, the 17455
director of aging may do both of the following:17456

       (1) Suspend new enrollments in the choices program;17457

       (2) Transfer participants of the choices program to the 17458
following:17459

       (a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, 17460
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created 17461
under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;17462

       (b) If the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 17463
is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 17464
Revised Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17465
waiver component.17466

       Sec. 5111.89.        Sec. 173.54.  (A) As used in sections 5111.89 to 17467
5111.894 of the Revised Code:17468

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 17469
173.14 of the Revised Code.17470

       "Assisted living program" means the program created under 17471
this section.17472

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 17473
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 17474
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 17475
social and recreational programming.17476

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 17477
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 17478
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 17479
assisted living program.17480

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 17481
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.17482

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 17483
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 17484
the Revised Code.17485

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 17486
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 17487
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 17488
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 17489
particular area, that agency or entity.17490

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17491
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.17492

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 17493
of the Revised Code.17494

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 17495
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.17496

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17497
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17498
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.17499

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 17500
create the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 17501
program. The program shall provide assisted living services to 17502
individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 17503
requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, the program 17504
shall have a medicaid-funded component and a state-funded 17505
componentIn creating the medicaid-funded component, the 17506
department of medicaid shall collaborate with the department of 17507
aging.17508

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 17509
assisted living program is terminated under division (C)(2) of 17510
this section, all of the following apply:17511

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 17512
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 17513
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 17514
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.17515

       (b)(2) The contract shall include an estimate of the 17516
medicaid-funded component's costs. 17517

       (c)(3) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 17518
separate medicaid waiver component. 17519

       (d)(4) The medicaid-funded component may not serve more 17520
individuals than is set by the United States secretary of health 17521
and human services in the assisted living waiver.17522

       (e) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 17523
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code regarding the 17524
medicaid-funded component.17525

       (f) The(5) To the extent authorized by rules authorized by 17526
section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may 17527
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 17528
medicaid-funded component that the rules adopted by the director 17529
of job and family services under division (C)(1)(e) of this 17530
section authorize the director of aging to adopt.17531

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17532
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 17533
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 17534
determine whether the medicaid-funded component of the assisted 17535
living program should continue to operate as a separate medicaid 17536
waiver component or be terminated. If the departments determine 17537
that the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program 17538
should be terminated, the medicaid-funded component shall cease to 17539
exist on a date the departments shall specify.17540

       (D) The department of aging shall administer the state-funded 17541
component of the assisted living program. The state-funded 17542
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 17543
program.17544

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 17545
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.17546

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 17547
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 17548
component.17549

       Sec. 5111.891.        Sec. 173.541.  To be eligible for the 17550
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, an 17551
individual must meet all of the following requirements:17552

       (A) Need an intermediate level of care as determined under 17553
rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under section 173.54617554
of the AdministrativeRevised Code;17555

       (B) While receiving assisted living services under the 17556
medicaid-funded component, reside in a residential care facility 17557
that is authorized by a valid medicaid provider agreement to 17558
participate in the component, including both of the following: 17559

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 17560
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 17561
United States department of housing and urban development to 17562
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 17563
residents of the facility;17564

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 17565
facility. 17566

       (C) Meet all other eligibility requirements for the 17567
medicaid-funded component established in rules adopted pursuant to 17568
division (C) ofunder section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code.17569

       Sec. 5111.894.        Sec. 173.542.  (A) SubjectUnless the 17570
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is 17571
terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5111.89173.5417572
of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall establish a 17573
home first component of the assisted living program under which 17574
eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 17575
component of the assisted living program in accordance with this 17576
section. An individual is eligible for the assisted living 17577
program's home first component if both of the following apply:17578

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 17579
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.17580

       (2) At least one of the following applies:17581

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.17582

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 17583
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 17584
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17585
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 17586
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 17587
physician's determination.17588

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 17589
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 17590
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17591
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 17592
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.17593

       (d) Both of the following apply:17594

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 17595
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 17596
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 17597
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 17598
or has made a request to a county department for protective 17599
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.17600

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 17601
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 17602
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 17603
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 17604
should be admitted to a nursing facility.17605

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 17606
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 17607
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 17608
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 17609
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 17610
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 17611
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 17612
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 17613
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 17614
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 17615
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 17616
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 17617
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 17618
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 17619
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 17620
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 17621
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 17622
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 17623
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 17624
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 17625
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 17626
section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment 17627
would cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 17628
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 17629
United States secretary of health and human services in the 17630
assisted living waiver. 17631

       Sec. 173.543.  The department of aging shall create and 17632
administer the state-funded component of the assisted living 17633
program. The state-funded component shall not be administered as 17634
part of the medicaid program.17635

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 17636
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.17637

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 17638
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 17639
component.17640

       Sec. 5111.892.        Sec. 173.544. To be eligible for the state-funded 17641
component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet 17642
all of the following requirements:17643

       (A) The individual must need an intermediate level of care as 17644
determined under rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under 17645
section 173.546 of the AdministrativeRevised Code;.17646

       (B) The individual must have an application for the 17647
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program (or, if 17648
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)17649
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 17650
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 17651
and the department or the department's designee must have 17652
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 17653
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 17654
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 17655
section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term 17656
services and support medicaid waiver component) and not have 17657
reason to doubt that the individual meets the financial 17658
eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if 17659
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)17660
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 17661
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).17662

       (C) While receiving assisted living services under the17663
state-funded component, the individual must reside in a 17664
residential care facility that is authorized by a valid provider 17665
agreement to participate in the component, including both of the 17666
following:17667

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 17668
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 17669
United States department of housing and urban development to 17670
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 17671
residents of the facility;17672

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 17673
facility.17674

       (D) The individual must meet all other eligibility 17675
requirements for the state-funded component established in rules 17676
adopted under division (D) of section 5111.89173.54 of the 17677
Revised Code.17678

       Sec. 173.545. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 17679
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 17680
the assisted living program may appeal an adverse action taken or 17681
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 17682
designated by the department concerning participation in or 17683
services provided under the component if the action will result in 17684
any of the following:17685

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 17686
component; 17687

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 17688
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;17689

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 17690
rules adopted by the department under this section.17691

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 17692
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.17693

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 17694
former participant in the state-funded component of the assisted 17695
living program may not bring an appeal under this or any other 17696
section of the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:17697

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 17698
for enrollment in the component;17699

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 17700
the component;17701

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 17702
proposed; 17703

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 17704
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 17705
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;17706

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 17707
for the maximum time permitted by this section.17708

       Sec. 173.546.  (A) Each applicant for the assisted living 17709
program shall undergo an assessment to determine whether the 17710
applicant needs an intermediate level of care. The department of 17711
medicaid or an agency under contract pursuant to division (C) of 17712
this section shall conduct the assessment. The assessment may be 17713
performed concurrently with a long-term care consultation provided 17714
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code.17715

       (B) An applicant or applicant's representative has the right 17716
to appeal an assessment's findings. Section 5160.31 of the Revised 17717
Code applies to appeals regarding the medicaid-funded component of 17718
the assisted living program. The department or an agency under 17719
contract to conduct the assessment shall provide written notice of 17720
this right to the applicant or applicant's representative and the 17721
residential care facility in which the applicant intends to reside 17722
if enrolled in the assisted living program. The notice shall 17723
include an explanation of the appeal procedures. The department or 17724
agency under contract to conduct the assessment shall represent 17725
the state in any appeal of an assessment's findings.17726

       (C) The department may contract with one or more agencies to 17727
perform assessments under this section. A contract shall specify 17728
the agency's responsibilities regarding the assessments.17729

       Sec. 5111.893.        Sec. 173.547.  A residential care facility providing 17730
services covered by the assisted living program to an individual 17731
enrolled in the program shall have staff on-site twenty-four hours 17732
each day who are able to do all of the following:17733

       (A) Meet the scheduled and unpredicted needs of the 17734
individuals enrolled in the assisted living program in a manner 17735
that promotes the individuals' dignity and independence;17736

       (B) Provide supervision services for those individuals;17737

       (C) Help keep the individuals safe and secure.17738

       Sec. 173.404.        Sec. 173.55.  (A) As used in this section:17739

       (1) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 17740
component" means each of the following:17741

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 17742
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;17743

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 17744
Revised Code;17745

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 17746
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code.17747

       (2) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 17748
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 17749
173.50 of the Revised Code.17750

       (B) If the department of aging determines that there are 17751
insufficient funds to enroll all individuals who have applied and 17752
been determined eligible for department of aging-administered 17753
medicaid waiver components and the PACE program, the department 17754
shall establish a unified waiting list for the components and 17755
program. Only individuals eligible for a department of 17756
aging-administered medicaid waiver component or the PACE program 17757
may be placed on the unified waiting list. An individual who may 17758
be enrolled in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 17759
component or the PACE program through a home first component 17760
established under section 173.401, 173.501, 173.521 or 5111.89417761
173.542 of the Revised Code may be so enrolled without being 17762
placed on the unified waiting list.17763

       Sec. 173.56.  (A) The department of aging shall adopt rules 17764
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing 17765
appeals brought under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised 17766
Code. The rules shall require notice and the opportunity for a 17767
hearing. The rules may allow an appeal hearing to be conducted by 17768
telephone and permit the department to record hearings conducted 17769
by telephone. Chapter 119. of the Revised Code applies to a 17770
hearing under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised Code only 17771
to the extent provided in rules the department adopts under this 17772
section.17773

       (B) An appeal shall be commenced by submission of a written 17774
request for a hearing to the director of aging within the time 17775
specified in the rules adopted under this section. The hearing may 17776
be recorded, but neither the recording nor a transcript of the 17777
recording is part of the official record of the proceeding. The 17778
director shall notify the individual bringing the appeal of the 17779
director's decision and of the procedure for appealing the 17780
decision.17781

       (C) The director's decision may be appealed to a court of 17782
common pleas pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The 17783
appeal shall be governed by that section except as follows:17784

       (1) The appeal shall be in the court of common pleas of the 17785
county in which the individual who brings the appeal resides or, 17786
if the individual does not reside in this state, to the Franklin 17787
county court of common pleas.17788

       (2) The notice of appeal must be mailed to the department and 17789
filed with the court not later than thirty days after the 17790
department mails notice of the director's decision. For good cause 17791
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing the 17792
notice of appeal, but the time cannot exceed six months from the 17793
date the department mails the notice of the director's decision.17794

       (3) If an individual applies to the court for designation as 17795
an indigent and the court grants the application, the individual 17796
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.17797

       (4) The department is required to file a transcript of the 17798
testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the court 17799
orders that the transcript be filed. The court shall make such an 17800
order only if it finds that the department and the individual 17801
bringing the appeal are unable to stipulate to the facts of the 17802
case and that the transcript is essential to a determination of 17803
the appeal. The department shall file the transcript not later 17804
than thirty days after such an order is issued.17805

       Sec. 173.60. (A) As used in this section:17806

       (1) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 17807
of the Revised Code.17808

       (2) "Person-centered care" means a relationship-based 17809
approach to care that honors and respects the opinions of 17810
individuals receiving care and those working closely with them.17811

       (B) The department of aging shall implement a nursing home 17812
quality initiative to improve person-centered care that nursing 17813
homes provide. The office of the state long-term care ombudsman 17814
program shall assist the department with the initiative. The 17815
initiative shall include quality improvement projects that provide 17816
nursing homes with resources and on-site education promoting 17817
person-centered strategies and positive resident outcomes, as well 17818
as other assistance designed to improve the quality of nursing 17819
home services.17820

       (C) The department shall make available a list of quality 17821
improvement projects offered by the following entities that may be 17822
used by nursing homes in meeting the requirements of section 17823
3721.072 of the Revised Code:17824

       (1) The department;17825

       (2) A quality improvement organization under contract with 17826
the United States secretary of health and human services to carry 17827
out the state functions described in section 1154 of the "Social 17828
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1320c-3;17829

       (3) Other state agencies;17830

       (4) The Ohio person-centered care coalition;17831

       (5) Any other academic, research, or health care entity 17832
identified by the department.17833

       (D) The department shall consult with representatives of 17834
nursing homes when developing the list of quality improvement 17835
projects under division (C) of this section and include projects 17836
that the department and representatives agree should be on the 17837
list.17838

       (E) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 17839
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 17840
section.17841

       Sec. 173.99.  (A) A long-term care provider, person employed 17842
by a long-term care provider, other entity, or employee of such 17843
other entity that violates division (C) of section 173.24 of the 17844
Revised Code is subject to a fine not to exceed one thousand 17845
dollars for each violation.17846

       (B) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.23 of the 17847
Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 17848
misdemeanor of the first degree.17849

       (C) A long-term care provider, other entity, or person 17850
employed by a long-term care provider or other entity that 17851
violates division (E) of section 173.19 of the Revised Code by 17852
denying a representative of the office of the state long-term care 17853
ombudspersonombudsman program the access required by that 17854
division is subject to a fine not to exceed five hundred dollars 17855
for each violation.17856

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.44 of the 17857
Revised Code is subject to a fine of one hundred dollars.17858

       Sec. 189.04.  (A) The local government innovation council 17859
shall award loans to a qualified political subdivision or a 17860
qualified group of political subdivisions to be used for the 17861
purchase of equipment, facilities, or systems or for 17862
implementation costs.17863

       Loans made under division (A) of this section shall be repaid 17864
by recipients using savings achieved from the innovation project. 17865

       (B) Up to twenty per cent of the funds in the local 17866
government innovation fund, established in section 189.05 of the 17867
Revised Code, may be awarded by the council as grants to political 17868
subdivisions for use in process improvement or implementation of 17869
innovation project awards. 17870

       (C) The council shall award not more than one hundred 17871
thousand dollars in total grants and not more than one hundred 17872
thousand dollars in total loans to an individual political 17873
subdivision per innovation project under this section. For an 17874
innovation project involving a qualified group of political 17875
subdivisions, the council shall award, in total grants and loans, 17876
not more than five hundred thousand dollars, and the average 17877
amount per political subdivision shall not exceed one hundred 17878
thousand dollars.17879

       (D)(1) On and after July 1, 2013, the council shall not award 17880
grants from the local government innovation fund to any political 17881
subdivision described in division (A) of Section 263.325 of H.B. 17882
59 of the 130th General Assembly.17883

       (2) On and after July 1, 2014, the council shall not award 17884
loans from the local government innovation fund to any political 17885
subdivision described in division (A) of Section 263.325 of H.B. 17886
59 of the 130th General Assembly.17887

       Sec. 189.06.  (A) All political subdivisions of the state are 17888
eligible to apply for awards under the local government innovation 17889
program, except as provided in division (D) of section 189.04 of 17890
the Revised Code. Applications shall be submitted to the 17891
department of development on a form specified by the director of 17892
development. The department shall provide the application to the 17893
local government innovation council for evaluation and selection.17894

       The local government innovation council shall award loans and 17895
grants under the program in accordance with a competitive process 17896
to be developed by the council. 17897

       (B) Not later than December 31, 2011, the council shall 17898
establish criteria for evaluating proposals and making awards to 17899
political subdivisions. The criteria shall be developed in 17900
consultation with nonpublic entities involved in local government 17901
issues, state institutions of higher education, and the department 17902
of development, as determined by the council. The criteria shall 17903
include a requirement that at least one of the political 17904
subdivisions that is a party to the proposal provide matching 17905
funds. The matching funds may be provided by a nonpublic entity. 17906
The criteria for evaluating proposals may include the following 17907
provisions:17908

       (1) The expected return on investment, based on the ratio of 17909
expected savings;17910

       (2) The number of participating entities in the proposal;17911

       (3) The probability of the proposal's success;17912

       (4) The percentage of local matching funds available;17913

       (5) The ability to replicate the proposal in other political 17914
subdivisions;17915

       (6) Whether the proposal is part of a larger consolidation 17916
effort by the applicant or applicants;17917

       (7) Whether the proposal is to implement performance audit or 17918
other audit recommendations under Chapter 117. of the Revised 17919
Code;17920

       (8) Whether the applicant has successfully completed an 17921
innovation project in the past.17922

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:17923

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," 17924
"confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and 17925
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 17926
164.304.17927

        (B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 17928
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 17929
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 17930
160.103.17931

       (C) "Executive director of the office of health 17932
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 17933
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 17934
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 17935
responsible for health system oversight in this state.17936

       (D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 17937
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 17938
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 17939
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 17940
with the individuals specified in that section. 17941

       (E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 17942
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.17943

       (F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 17944
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 17945
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 17946
of the Revised Code.17947

       (G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 17948
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 17949
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 17950
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.17951

       (H) "Personally identifiable information" means information 17952
that meets both of the following criteria: 17953

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 17954
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;17955

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 17956
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 17957
program providing public benefits.17958

       (I) "State agency" means each of the following:17959

       (1) The department of aging;17960

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;17961

       (3) The department of development services agency;17962

       (4)(3) The department of developmental disabilities;17963

       (5)(4) The department of education;17964

       (6)(5) The department of health;17965

       (7)(6) The department of insurance;17966

       (8)(7) The department of job and family services;17967

       (9)(8) The department of medicaid;17968

       (9) The department of mental healthmental health and 17969
addiction services;17970

       (10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;17971

       (11) The department of taxation;17972

       (12) The department of veterans services;17973

       (13) The department of youth services.17974

       (J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.17975

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 17976
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 17977
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 17978
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 17979
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 17980
Revised Code:17981

       (A) The director of aging;17982

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;17983

       (C) The director of development services;17984

       (D)(C) The director of developmental disabilities;17985

       (E)(D) The director of health;17986

       (F)(E) The director of job and family services;17987

       (G)(F) The director of medicaid;17988

       (G) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 17989
services;17990

       (H) The director of rehabilitation and correction;17991

       (I) The director of veterans services;17992

       (J) The director of youth services;17993

       (K) The administrator of the rehabilitation services 17994
commission;17995

       (L) The administrator of workers' compensation;17996

       (M) The superintendent of insurance;17997

       (N) The superintendent of public instruction;17998

       (O) The tax commissioner.17999

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 18000
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 18001
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 18002
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 18003
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 18004
by the United States department of health and human services to 18005
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 18006
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 18007
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 18008
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 18009
information is necessary for either or both of the following:18010

       (1) Operating a health plan;18011

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 18012
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 18013
government program providing public benefits.18014

       (B) For fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015 only, a state 18015
agency also may exchange personally identifiable information with 18016
another state agency for purposes related to and in support of a 18017
health transformation initiative identified by the executive 18018
director of the office of health transformation pursuant to 18019
division (C) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 18020

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 18021
personally identifiable information, all of the following 18022
conditions apply:18023

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 18024
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 18025
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013 18026
from an exchange of personally identifiable information permitted 18027
under division (B) of this section, the agency shall also use or 18028
disclose the information in accordance with all operating 18029
protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 18030

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 18031
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and it uses or 18032
discloses protected health information that is related to a 18033
medicaid recipient and obtained from the department of job and 18034
family servicesmedicaid or another agency operating a component 18035
of the medicaid program, the state agency shall comply with all 18036
state and federal laws that apply to the department of job and 18037
family servicesmedicaid when that department, as the state's 18038
single state agency to supervise the medicaid program as specified 18039
in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, uses or discloses 18040
protected health information. 18041

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 18042
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 18043
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 18044
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 18045
transmittal of which is affected or governed by this section. 18046

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 18047
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 18048
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 18049
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 18050
all of the following:18051

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 18052
protected health information or individually identifiable health 18053
information;18054

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 18055
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 18056
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 18057
health transformation or the executive director's designee;18058

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 18059
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.18060

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 18061
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 18062
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 18063
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 18064
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 18065
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 18066
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by this 18067
section.18068

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 18069
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 18070
identifiable information received directly from or received on 18071
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 18072
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 18073
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 18074
in this section for as long as it is maintained.18075

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 18076
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 18077
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 18078
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 18079
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 18080
associate were a state agency.18081

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 18082
only for fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015.18083

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 18084
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 18085
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 18086
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 18087
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 18088
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 18089
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 18090
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 18091
of health care and health care support systems in this state.18092

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 18093
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 18094
section, the executive director or the executive director's 18095
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 18096
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 18097
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 18098
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 18099
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 18100
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 18101
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 18102
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 18103
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 18104
transformation.18105

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 18106
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 18107
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 18108
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 18109
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 18110
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 18111
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 18112
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 18113
section 5101.10 or 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, that 18114
differ from the provisions of the protocol.18115

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 18116
this section shall include both of the following:18117

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 18118
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 18119
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);18120

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 18121
or expire.18122

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 18123
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 18124
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 18125
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 18126
of the initiative: 18127

       (a) Workflow;18128

       (b) Funding;18129

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 18130
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 18131

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 18132
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 18133
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 18134
shall comply with it.18135

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 18136
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 18137
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 18138
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 18139
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 18140
United States secretary of health and human services for the 18141
waiver or amendment.18142

       Sec. 191.061. (A) As used in this section:18143

       (1) "Core competencies" means the minimum standards a direct 18144
care worker must meet when providing direct care services and 18145
engaging in any one or more of the following activities associated 18146
with care for a medicaid recipient: maintaining a clean and safe 18147
environment, ensuring recipient-centered care, promoting the 18148
recipient's development, assisting the recipient with activities 18149
of daily living, communicating with the recipient, completing 18150
administrative tasks, and participating in professional 18151
development activities.18152

       (2) "Direct care services" means health care services, 18153
ancillary services, or services related to or in support of the 18154
provision of health care or ancillary services.18155

       (3) "Direct care worker" means an individual who, for direct 18156
or indirect payment, provides direct care services to a medicaid 18157
recipient in the recipient's home, place of residence, or other 18158
setting as specified in rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the 18159
Revised Code. 18160

       (B) Not later than June 30, 2014, the executive director of 18161
the office of health transformation or the executive director's 18162
designee, in consultation with the medicaid director and the 18163
directors of aging, developmental disabilities, health, and mental 18164
health and addiction services, shall execute an operating protocol 18165
in accordance with division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised 18166
Code documenting the manner in which each of the directors' 18167
departments determine that direct care workers associated with 18168
programs administered by the departments demonstrate core 18169
competencies. The executive director or the executive director's 18170
designee and any one or more of the directors may decide that core 18171
competencies are demonstrated by a direct care worker attaining 18172
certification through the direct care worker certification program 18173
established by the director of health under section 3701.95 of the 18174
Revised Code. A decision to this effect does not preclude a 18175
director from specifying additional requirements a direct care 18176
worker must meet to participate in a program administered by the 18177
director's department.18178

       Sec. 301.28.  (A) As used in this section:18179

       (1) "Financial transaction device" includes a credit card, 18180
debit card, charge card, or prepaid or stored value card, or 18181
automated clearinghouse network credit, debit, or e-check entry 18182
that includes, but is not limited to, accounts receivable and 18183
internet-initiated, point of purchase, and telephone-initiated 18184
applications or any other device or method for making an 18185
electronic payment or transfer of funds.18186

       (2) "County expenses" includes fees, costs, taxes, 18187
assessments, fines, penalties, payments, or any other expense a 18188
person owes or otherwise pays to a county office under the 18189
authority of a county official, other than dog registration and 18190
kennel fees required to be paid under Chapter 955. of the Revised 18191
Code. "County expenses" includes payment to a county office of 18192
money confiscated during the commitment of an individual to a 18193
county jail, of bail, of money for a prisoner's inmate account, 18194
and of money for goods and services obtained by or for the use of 18195
an individual incarcerated by a county sheriff.18196

       (3) "County official" includes the county auditor, county 18197
treasurer, county engineer, county recorder, county prosecuting 18198
attorney, county sheriff, county coroner, county park district and 18199
board of county commissioners, the clerk of the probate court, the 18200
clerk of the juvenile court, the clerks of court for all divisions 18201
of the courts of common pleas, and the clerk of the court of 18202
common pleas, the clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 18203
the clerk of a county court.18204

       The term "county expenses" includes county expenses owed to 18205
the board of health of the general health district or a combined 18206
health district in the county. If the board of county 18207
commissioners authorizes county expenses to be paid by financial 18208
transaction devices under this section, then the board of health 18209
and the general health district and the combined health district 18210
may accept payments by financial transaction devices under this 18211
section as if the board were a "county official" and the district 18212
were a county office. However, in the case of a general health 18213
district formed by unification of general health districts under 18214
section 3709.10 of the Revised Code, this entitlement applies only 18215
if all the boards of county commissioners of all counties in the 18216
district have authorized payments to be accepted by financial 18217
transaction devices.18218

       (B) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code and 18219
except as provided in division (D) of this section, a board of 18220
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the 18221
acceptance of payments by financial transaction devices for county 18222
expenses. The resolution shall include the following:18223

       (1) A specification of those county officials who, and of the 18224
county offices under those county officials that, are authorized 18225
to accept payments by financial transaction devices;18226

       (2) A list of county expenses that may be paid for through 18227
the use of a financial transaction device;18228

       (3) Specific identification of financial transaction devices 18229
that the board authorizes as acceptable means of payment for 18230
county expenses. Uniform acceptance of financial transaction 18231
devices among different types of county expenses is not required.18232

       (4) The amount, if any, authorized as a surcharge or 18233
convenience fee under division (E) of this section for persons 18234
using a financial transaction device. Uniform application of 18235
surcharges or convenience fees among different types of county 18236
expenses is not required.18237

       (5) A specific provision as provided in division (G) of this 18238
section requiring the payment of a penalty if a payment made by 18239
means of a financial transaction device is returned or dishonored 18240
for any reason.18241

       The board's resolution shall also designate the county 18242
treasurer as an administrative agent to solicit proposals, within 18243
guidelines established by the board in the resolution and in 18244
compliance with the procedures provided in division (C) of this 18245
section, from financial institutions, issuers of financial 18246
transaction devices, and processors of financial transaction 18247
devices, to make recommendations about those proposals to the 18248
board, and to assist county offices in implementing the county's 18249
financial transaction devices program. The county treasurer may 18250
decline this responsibility within thirty days after receiving a 18251
copy of the board's resolution by notifying the board in writing 18252
within that period. If the treasurer so notifies the board, the 18253
board shall perform the duties of the administrative agent.18254

       If the county treasurer is the administrative agent and fails 18255
to administer the county financial transaction devices program in 18256
accordance with the guidelines in the board's resolution, the 18257
board shall notify the treasurer in writing of the board's 18258
findings, explain the failures, and give the treasurer six months 18259
to correct the failures. If the treasurer fails to make the 18260
appropriate corrections within that six-month period, the board 18261
may pass a resolution declaring the board to be the administrative 18262
agent. The board may later rescind that resolution at its 18263
discretion.18264

       (C) The county shall follow the procedures provided in this 18265
division whenever it plans to contract with financial 18266
institutions, issuers of financial transaction devices, or 18267
processors of financial transaction devices for the purposes of 18268
this section. The administrative agent shall request proposals 18269
from at least three financial institutions, issuers of financial 18270
transaction devices, or processors of financial transaction 18271
devices, as appropriate in accordance with the resolution adopted 18272
under division (B) of this section. Prior to sending any financial 18273
institution, issuer, or processor a copy of any such request, the 18274
county shall advertise its intent to request proposals in a 18275
newspaper of general circulation in the county once a week for two 18276
consecutive weeks or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised 18277
Code. The notice shall state that the county intends to request 18278
proposals; specify the purpose of the request; indicate the date, 18279
which shall be at least ten days after the second publication, on 18280
which the request for proposals will be mailed to financial 18281
institutions, issuers, or processors; and require that any 18282
financial institution, issuer, or processor, whichever is 18283
appropriate, interested in receiving the request for proposals 18284
submit written notice of this interest to the county not later 18285
than noon of the day on which the request for proposals will be 18286
mailed.18287

       Upon receiving the proposals, the administrative agent shall 18288
review them and make a recommendation to the board of county 18289
commissioners on which proposals to accept. The board of county 18290
commissioners shall consider the agent's recommendation and review 18291
all proposals submitted, and then may choose to contract with any 18292
or all of the entities submitting proposals, as appropriate. The 18293
board shall provide any financial institution, issuer, or 18294
processor that submitted a proposal, but with which the board does 18295
not enter into a contract, notice that its proposal is rejected. 18296
The notice shall state the reasons for the rejection, indicate 18297
whose proposals were accepted, and provide a copy of the terms and 18298
conditions of the successful bids.18299

       (D) A board of county commissioners adopting a resolution 18300
under this section shall send a copy of the resolution to each 18301
county official in the county who is authorized by the resolution 18302
to accept payments by financial transaction devices. After 18303
receiving the resolution and before accepting payments by 18304
financial transaction devices, a county official shall provide 18305
written notification to the board of county commissioners of the 18306
official's intent to implement the resolution within the 18307
official's office. Each county office subject to the board's 18308
resolution adopted under division (B) of this section may use only 18309
the financial institutions, issuers of financial transaction 18310
devices, and processors of financial transaction devices with 18311
which the board of county commissioners contracts, and each such 18312
office is subject to the terms of those contracts.18313

       If a county office under the authority of a county official 18314
is directly responsible for collecting one or more county expenses 18315
and the county official determines not to accept payments by 18316
financial transaction devices for one or more of those expenses, 18317
the office shall not be required to accept payments by financial 18318
transaction devices, notwithstanding the adoption of a resolution 18319
by the board of county commissioners under this section.18320

       Any office of a clerk of the court of common pleas that 18321
accepts financial transaction devices on or before July 1, 1999, 18322
and any other county office that accepted such devices before 18323
January 1, 1998, may continue to accept such devices without being 18324
subject to any resolution passed by the board of county 18325
commissioners under division (B) of this section, or any other 18326
oversight by the board of the office's financial transaction 18327
devices program. Any such office may use surcharges or convenience 18328
fees in any manner the county official in charge of the office 18329
determines to be appropriate, and, if the county treasurer 18330
consents, may appoint the county treasurer to be the office's 18331
administrative agent for purposes of accepting financial 18332
transaction devices. In order not to be subject to the resolution 18333
of the board of county commissioners adopted under division (B) of 18334
this section, a county office shall notify the board in writing 18335
within thirty days after March 30, 1999, that it accepted 18336
financial transaction devices prior to January 1, 1998, or, in the 18337
case of the office of a clerk of the court of common pleas, the 18338
clerk has accepted or will accept such devices on or before July 18339
1, 1999. Each such notification shall explain how processing costs 18340
associated with financial transaction devices are being paid and 18341
shall indicate whether surcharge or convenience fees are being 18342
passed on to consumers.18343

       (E) A board of county commissioners may establish a surcharge 18344
or convenience fee that may be imposed upon a person making 18345
payment by a financial transaction device. The surcharge or 18346
convenience fee shall not be imposed unless authorized or 18347
otherwise permitted by the rules prescribed by an agreement 18348
governing the use and acceptance of the financial transaction 18349
device.18350

       If a surcharge or convenience fee is imposed, every county 18351
office accepting payment by a financial transaction device, 18352
regardless of whether that office is subject to a resolution 18353
adopted by a board of county commissioners, shall clearly post a 18354
notice in that office and shall notify each person making a 18355
payment by such a device about the surcharge or fee. Notice to 18356
each person making a payment shall be provided regardless of the 18357
medium used to make the payment and in a manner appropriate to 18358
that medium. Each notice shall include all of the following:18359

       (1) A statement that there is a surcharge or convenience fee 18360
for using a financial transaction device;18361

       (2) The total amount of the charge or fee expressed in 18362
dollars and cents for each transaction, or the rate of the charge 18363
or fee expressed as a percentage of the total amount of the 18364
transaction, whichever is applicable;18365

       (3) A clear statement that the surcharge or convenience fee 18366
is nonrefundable.18367

       (F) If a person elects to make a payment to the county by a 18368
financial transaction device and a surcharge or convenience fee is 18369
imposed, the payment of the surcharge or fee shall be considered 18370
voluntary and the surcharge or fee is not refundable.18371

       (G) If a person makes payment by financial transaction device 18372
and the payment is returned or dishonored for any reason, the 18373
person is liable to the county for payment of a penalty over and 18374
above the amount of the expense due. The board of county 18375
commissioners shall determine the amount of the penalty, which may 18376
be either a fee not to exceed twenty dollars or payment of the 18377
amount necessary to reimburse the county for banking charges, 18378
legal fees, or other expenses incurred by the county in collecting 18379
the returned or dishonored payment. The remedies and procedures 18380
provided in this section are in addition to any other available 18381
civil or criminal remedies provided by law.18382

       (H) No person making any payment by financial transaction 18383
device to a county office shall be relieved from liability for the 18384
underlying obligation except to the extent that the county 18385
realizes final payment of the underlying obligation in cash or its 18386
equivalent. If final payment is not made by the financial 18387
transaction device issuer or other guarantor of payment in the 18388
transaction, the underlying obligation shall survive and the 18389
county shall retain all remedies for enforcement that would have 18390
applied if the transaction had not occurred.18391

       (I) A county official or employee who accepts a financial 18392
transaction device payment in accordance with this section and any 18393
applicable state or local policies or rules is immune from 18394
personal liability for the final collection of such payments.18395

       Sec. 305.23.  (A) As used in this section:18396

       (1) "County office" means the offices of the county 18397
commissioner, county auditor, county treasurer, county engineer, 18398
county recorder, county prosecuting attorney, county sheriff, 18399
county coroner, county park district, veterans service commission, 18400
clerk of the juvenile court, clerks of court for all divisions of 18401
the courts of common pleas, including the clerk of the court of 18402
common pleas, clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 18403
clerk of a county court, and any agency, department, or division 18404
under the authority of, or receiving funding in whole or in part 18405
from, any of those county offices.18406

       (2) "Human resources" means any and all functions relating to 18407
human resource management, including civil service, employee 18408
benefits administration, collective bargaining, labor relations, 18409
risk management, workers' compensation, unemployment compensation, 18410
and any human resource management function required by state or 18411
federal law, but "human resources" does not authorize a board of 18412
county commissioners to adopt a resolution establishing a 18413
centralized human resource service that requires any county office 18414
to conform to any classification and compensation plan, position 18415
descriptions, or organizational structure; to determine the rate 18416
of compensation of any employee appointed by the appointing 18417
authority of a county office or the salary ranges for positions of 18418
a county office within the aggregate limits set in the 18419
appropriation resolution of the board of county commissioners; to 18420
determine the number of or the terms of employment of any employee 18421
appointed by the appointing authority of a county office within 18422
the aggregate limits set in the board's appropriation resolution; 18423
or to exercise powers relating to the hiring, qualifications, 18424
evaluation, suspension, demotion, disciplinary action, layoff, 18425
furloughing, establishment of a modified work-week schedule, or 18426
the termination of any employee appointed by the appointing 18427
authority of any county office.18428

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, a board of 18429
county commissioners may adopt a resolution establishing 18430
centralized purchasing, printing, transportation, vehicle 18431
maintenance, human resources, revenue collection, and mail 18432
operation services for a county office. Before adopting a 18433
resolution under this section, the board of county commissioners, 18434
in a written notice, shall inform any other county office that 18435
will be impacted by the resolution of the board's desire to 18436
establish a centralized service or services. The written notice 18437
shall include a statement that provides the rationale and the 18438
estimated savings anticipated for centralizing a service or 18439
services. In addition, the board may request any other county 18440
office to serve as the agent and responsible party for 18441
administering a centralized service or services. That county 18442
office may enter into an agreement with the board of county 18443
commissioners to administer the centralized service or services 18444
under such terms and conditions as are included in the agreement, 18445
but nothing in this section authorizes the board of county 18446
commissioners to require a county office to serve as the agent and 18447
responsible party for administering a centralized service or 18448
services at the board's request.18449

       A resolution establishing a centralized service or services 18450
shall specify all of the following:18451

       (1) The name of the county office that will be the agent and 18452
responsible party for administering a centralized service or 18453
services, and if the agent and responsible party is not the board 18454
of county commissioners, the designation of the county office that 18455
has entered into an agreement under division (B) of this section 18456
with the board to be the agent and responsible party;18457

       (2) Which county offices are required to use the centralized 18458
services;18459

       (3) If not all of the centralized services, which centralized 18460
service each county office must use;18461

       (4) A list of rates and charges the county office shall pay 18462
for the centralized services;18463

       (5) The date upon which each county office specified in the 18464
resolution shall begin using the centralized services.18465

       Not later than ten days after a resolution is adopted under 18466
this section, the clerk of the board of county commissioners shall 18467
send a copy of the resolution to each county office that is 18468
specified in the resolution.18469

       (C) A board of county commissioners shall not adopt a 18470
resolution that establishes a centralized service or services 18471
regarding any of the following:18472

       (1) Purchases made for contract services with moneys from the 18473
special fund designated as "general fund moneys to supplement the 18474
equipmenttechnology needs of the county recorder" under section 18475
317.321 of the Revised Code or from the funds that are paid out of 18476
the general fund of the county under sections 325.071 and 325.12 18477
of the Revised Code;18478

       (2) Purchases made with moneys from the real estate 18479
assessment fund established under section 325.31 of the Revised 18480
Code;18481

       (3) Purchases of financial software used by the county 18482
auditor;18483

       (4) The printing of county property tax bills;18484

       (5) The collection of any taxes, assessments, and fees the 18485
county treasurer is required by law to collect;18486

       (6) Purchases of software used by the county recorder.18487

       (D) Nothing in this section authorizes the board of county 18488
commissioners to have control or authority over funds that are 18489
received directly by a county office under another section of the 18490
Revised Code, or to control, or have authority regarding, the 18491
expenditure or use of such funds.18492

       Sec. 307.07.  (A) The board of county commissioners, by 18493
resolution, may create an office of economic development, to 18494
develop and promote plans and programs designed to assure that 18495
county resources are efficiently used, economic growth is properly 18496
balanced, and that county economic development is coordinated with 18497
that of the state and other local governments. For this purpose, 18498
the board may appropriate moneys from the county general fund, or, 18499
pursuant to section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived 18500
from a tax levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of 18501
the Revised Code, for the creation and operation of the office 18502
for, any economic development purpose of the office, and to 18503
provide for the establishment and operation of a program of 18504
economic development, including in support of a county land 18505
reutilization corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the 18506
Revised Code. The board may hire a director of economic 18507
development, who shall be a member of the unclassified civil 18508
service, and fix the director's compensation; or may do any of the 18509
following:18510

       (1) Enter into an agreement with a county planning commission 18511
within the county, created under section 713.22 of the Revised 18512
Code, or a regional planning commission, created under section 18513
713.21 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the county is a 18514
member of the commission, to carry out all of the functions and 18515
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 18516
this section. Any agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 18517
the county or regional planning commission shall gain the approval 18518
of the board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, 18519
and duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 18520
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 18521
renewed with the consent of all parties. The civil service status 18522
of planning commission staff shall not be affected by any 18523
agreement under this division.18524

       (2) Enter into an agreement with the Ohio cooperativeOSU18525
extension service, providing for the use of employees hired by the 18526
Ohio state university under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code to 18527
carry out all of the functions and duties of a director of 18528
economic development under division (B) of this section. Any 18529
agreement shall set forth the procedure by which the Ohio 18530
cooperativeOSU extension service shall gain the approval of the 18531
board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, and 18532
duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 18533
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 18534
renewed with the consent of all parties. The employment 18535
classification of Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service employees 18536
shall not be affected by any agreement under this division.18537

       Any moneys appropriated by the board of county commissioners 18538
to execute an agreement for the provision of services pursuant to 18539
this section by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service shall 18540
be paid to the Ohio state university to the credit of the Ohio 18541
cooperativeOSU extension service fund created under section 18542
3335.35 of the Revised Code.18543

       (3) Enter into an agreement with a public or private 18544
nonprofit organization to carry out all of the functions and 18545
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 18546
this section. The agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 18547
the nonprofit organization shall gain the approval of the board of 18548
county commissioners for any actions, functions, and duties under 18549
that division. The agreement may continue in effect for a period 18550
of one to three years and may be renewed with the consent of all 18551
parties. The employment classification of the nonprofit 18552
organization's employees shall not be affected by an agreement 18553
under this division.18554

       (B) The director of economic development may:18555

       (1) With the approval of the board, hire such staff and 18556
employ such technical and advisory personnel as the director sees 18557
fit to enable the director to carry out the functions and duties 18558
of the office;18559

       (2) With the approval of the board, contract for services 18560
necessary to enable the director to carry out the functions and 18561
duties of the office;18562

       (3) With the approval of the board, enter into agreements 18563
with federal, state, and local governments and agencies thereof, 18564
and with public, private, or nonprofit organizations to carry out 18565
the functions and duties of the office;18566

       (4) Maintain membership in development organizations;18567

       (5) With the approval of the board, make loans or grants and 18568
provide other forms of financial assistance for the purpose of 18569
economic development, including financial assistance for permanent 18570
public improvements, in compliance with applicable laws of this 18571
state, and fix the rate of interest and charges to be made for 18572
such financial assistance;18573

       (6) With the approval of the board, receive and accept 18574
grants, gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and 18575
other things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the 18576
purpose for which they are made, from individuals, private and 18577
public corporations, the United States government or any agency 18578
thereof, from the state or any agency thereof, or from any 18579
political subdivision or any agency thereof, and may agree to 18580
repay any contribution of money or return any property contributed 18581
or the value thereof in amounts, and on terms and conditions, 18582
excluding the payment of interest, as the director determines, and 18583
may evidence the obligations by written evidence;18584

       (7) Establish with the board any funds that are necessary for 18585
the deposit and disbursement of gifts or contributions of money 18586
accepted for economic development purposes;18587

       (8) With the approval of the board, design, implement, 18588
monitor, oversee, and evaluate economic development plans, 18589
programs, strategies, and policies;18590

       (9) Purchase real property to convey to a county land 18591
reutilization corporation to be used in accordance with its public 18592
purposes;18593

       (10) Perform all acts necessary to fulfill the functions and 18594
duties of the office.18595

       (C) The boards of county commissioners of two or more 18596
counties, by resolution, may create a joint office of economic 18597
development for the purposes set forth in division (A) of this 18598
section. The counties participating in a joint office of economic 18599
development shall enter into an agreement that sets forth the 18600
contribution of funds, services, and property to the joint office 18601
from each participating county; establishes the person, public 18602
agency, or nonprofit organization that shall carry out the 18603
functions and duties of the office; and discloses any other terms 18604
by which the joint office shall operate.18605

       The boards of county commissioners of counties participating 18606
in a joint office of economic development may appropriate moneys 18607
from their respective county general funds, or, pursuant to 18608
section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived from a tax 18609
levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of the Revised 18610
Code, for the creation and operation of the joint office, for any 18611
economic development purpose of the office, and to provide for the 18612
establishment and operation of a program of economic development. 18613
The participating counties may hire a director of economic 18614
development for the joint office or enter into an agreement with a 18615
public agency or nonprofit organization in a manner set forth in 18616
division (A) of this section to carry out the functions and duties 18617
set forth in division (B) of this section.18618

       Any agreement establishing a joint office of economic 18619
development shall set forth the procedure by which the person, 18620
public agency, or nonprofit organization carrying out the 18621
functions and duties of the office shall gain the approval of the 18622
participating boards of county commissioners for any actions, 18623
functions, and duties under division (B) of this section.18624

       (D) As used in this section, "economic development" has the 18625
same meaning as in section 307.64 of the Revised Code.18626

       Sec. 307.673.  This section applies only in a county in which 18627
a tax is levied under section 307.697, 4301.421, 5743.024, or 18628
5743.323 of the Revised Code on the effective date of this 18629
amendmentJuly 19, 1995.18630

       (A) As used in this section:18631

       (1) "County taxes" means taxes levied by a board of county 18632
commissioners or legislative authority of a charter county under 18633
division (D) of section 307.697, division (B) of section 4301.421, 18634
division (C) of section 5743.024, and section 5743.323 of the 18635
Revised Code.18636

       (2) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation organized 18637
under the laws of this state and that includes among the purposes 18638
for which it is incorporated the authority to acquire, construct, 18639
renovate, equip, lease, manage, or operate a sports facility.18640

       (3) "Cooperative agreement" means an agreement entered into 18641
pursuant to this section.18642

       (4) "Cost of a sports facility" means the cost of acquiring, 18643
constructing, renovating, equipping, or improving one or more 18644
sports facilities, including reconstructing, rehabilitating, 18645
remodeling, and enlarging; the cost of equipping and furnishing 18646
such a facility; and all financing costs pertaining thereto, 18647
including the cost of engineering, architectural, and other 18648
professional services, designs, plans, specifications and surveys, 18649
and estimates of costs; the costs of refinancing obligations 18650
issued by, or reimbursement of money advanced by, the parties to 18651
the cooperative agreement or other persons, the proceeds of which 18652
obligations were used to pay the costs of the sports facility; the 18653
cost of tests and inspections; the cost of any indemnity or surety 18654
bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct and 18655
administrative costs pertaining thereto, fees and expenses of 18656
trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the obligations, 18657
capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts necessary to 18658
establish reserves as required by the obligation proceedings, the 18659
reimbursement of money advanced or applied by the parties to the 18660
cooperative agreement or other persons for the payment of any item 18661
of costs of the sports facility, and all other expenses necessary 18662
or incident to planning or determining the feasibility or 18663
practicability with respect to the sports facility; and any other 18664
such expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 18665
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 18666
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipping, and furnishing of 18667
the sports facility, the financing of the sports facility, placing 18668
the sports facility in use and operation, including any one, part 18669
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.18670

       (5) "Financing costs" has the same meaning as in section 18671
133.01 of the Revised Code.18672

       (6) "Obligations" means obligations issued or incurred to pay 18673
the cost of a sports facility, including bonds, notes, 18674
certificates of indebtedness, commercial paper, and other 18675
instruments in writing, anticipatory securities as defined in 18676
section 133.01 of the Revised Code, issued or incurred by an 18677
issuer pursuant to Chapter 133. or 4582. of the Revised Code or 18678
this section, or otherwise, to evidence the issuer's obligation to 18679
repay borrowed money, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any 18680
future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the 18681
obligations, including obligations of an issuer or lessee to make 18682
payments under an installment sale, lease, lease-purchase, or 18683
similar agreement.18684

       (7) "Owner" means any person that owns or operates a 18685
professional athletic or sports team, that is party to a 18686
cooperative agreement, or that has a lease or other agreement with 18687
a party to a cooperative agreement, and that commits to use the 18688
sports facility that is the subject of the cooperative agreement 18689
for all of the team's home games for the period specified in that 18690
agreement.18691

       (8) "Payments," when used with reference to obligations, 18692
means payments of the principal, including any mandatory sinking 18693
fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, interest and any 18694
redemption premium, and lease rentals, lease-purchase payments and 18695
other amounts payable under obligations in the form of installment 18696
sale, lease, lease-purchase, or similar agreements.18697

       (9) "Person" has the same meaning as defined in section 18698
133.01 of the Revised Code.18699

       (10) "Port authority" means a port authority created under 18700
Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.18701

       (11) "Sports facility" means a facility, including a stadium, 18702
that is intended to house or provide a site for one or more major 18703
league professional athletic or sports teams or activities, 18704
together with all spectator facilities, parking facilities, 18705
walkways, and auxiliary facilities, real and personal property, 18706
property rights, easements, leasehold estates, and interests that 18707
may be appropriate for, or used in connection with, the operation 18708
of the sports facility.18709

       (B) The board of county commissioners of a county, the 18710
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, a port 18711
authority, a corporation, and an owner, or any combination 18712
thereof, may enter into one or more cooperative agreements under 18713
which the parties enter into one or more of the agreements 18714
described in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section.18715

       (1) The board of county commissioners agrees to do one or 18716
more of the following:18717

       (a) Levy a tax under division (D) of section 307.697, 18718
division (B) of section 4301.421, division (C) of section 18719
5743.024, and section 5743.323 of the Revised Code and make 18720
available all or a portion of the revenue from those taxes for the 18721
payment of the cost of the sports facility or to make payments on 18722
obligations;18723

       (b) Issue or incur obligations of the county pursuant to 18724
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or this section;18725

       (c) Make available all or a portion of the revenue from those 18726
taxes or of the proceeds from the issuance of those obligations to 18727
the municipal corporation, port authority, corporation, or 18728
otherwise for the payment of the cost of a sports facility or the 18729
payment of obligations;18730

       (d) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18731
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18732
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18733

       (e) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18734
lease with respect to a sports facility, authorize the municipal 18735
corporation, port authority, corporation, or owner to administer 18736
contracts for designing, planning, acquiring, constructing, 18737
renovating, or equipping a sports facility.18738

       (2) The port authority agrees to do one or more of the 18739
following:18740

       (a) Issue or incur obligations of the port authority pursuant 18741
to Chapter 133. or 4582. of the Revised Code or this section;18742

       (b) Make available all or a portion of the proceeds from the 18743
issuance of those obligations to the municipal corporation, 18744
county, or corporation for the payment of the cost of a sports 18745
facility or the payment of obligations;18746

       (c) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18747
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18748
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18749

       (d) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18750
lease with respect to a sports facility, authorize the municipal 18751
corporation, county, corporation, or owner to administer contracts 18752
for designing, planning, acquiring, constructing, renovating, or 18753
equipping a sports facility.18754

       (3) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation 18755
agrees to do one or more of the following:18756

       (a) Make available the revenue from taxes levied by the 18757
legislative authority for the payment of the cost of a sports 18758
facility or to make payments on obligations;18759

       (b) Issue or incur obligations of the municipal corporation 18760
pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or otherwise;18761

       (c) Make available all or a portion of the proceeds from the 18762
issuance of those obligations to the county, port authority, 18763
corporation, or otherwise for the payment of the cost of a sports 18764
facility or the payment of obligations;18765

       (d) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18766
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18767
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18768

       (e) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18769
lease with respect to a sports facility, authorize the county, 18770
port authority, corporation, or owner to administer contracts for 18771
designing, planning, acquiring, constructing, renovating, or 18772
equipping a sports facility.18773

       (4) The corporation agrees to do one or more of the 18774
following:18775

       (a) Issue or incur obligations;18776

       (b) Make available all or a portion of the proceeds from the 18777
issuance of those obligations to the county, port authority, 18778
municipal corporation, or otherwise for the payment of the cost of 18779
a sports facility or the payment of obligations;18780

       (c) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18781
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18782
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18783

       (d) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18784
lease with respect to a sports facility, agree that the 18785
corporation will administer contracts for designing, planning, 18786
acquiring, constructing, renovating, or equipping a sports 18787
facility.18788

       (5) The owner agrees to do one or more of the following:18789

       (a) Use the sports facility that is the subject of the 18790
cooperative agreement for all of the home games of the owner's 18791
professional athletic or sports team for a specified period;18792

       (b) Administer contracts for designing, planning, acquiring, 18793
constructing, renovating, or equipping a sports facility.18794

       (C) Any obligations may be secured by a trust agreement 18795
between the issuer of obligations and a corporate trustee that is 18796
a trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company in or 18797
outside this state and authorized to exercise corporate trust 18798
powers in this state. Proceeds from the issuance of any 18799
obligations or the taxes levied and collected by any party to the 18800
cooperative agreement may be deposited with and administered by a 18801
trustee pursuant to the trust agreement.18802

       (D) Any contract for the acquisition, construction, 18803
renovation, or equipping of a sports facility entered into, 18804
assigned, or assumed under this section shall provide that all 18805
laborers and mechanics employed in the acquisition, construction, 18806
renovation, or equipping of the sports facility shall be paid at 18807
the prevailing rates of wages of laborers and mechanics for the 18808
class of work called for, as those wages are determined in 18809
accordance with Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.18810

       Sec. 307.674.  (A) As used in this section:18811

       (1) "Bonds" means:18812

       (a) Revenue bonds of the port authority described in division 18813
(B)(2)(a) of this section;18814

       (b) Securities as defined in division (KK) of section 133.01 18815
of the Revised Code issued by the host municipal corporation, 18816
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section;18817

       (c) Any bonds issued to refund any of those revenue bonds or 18818
securities.18819

       (2) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation that is 18820
organized under the laws of this state and that includes within 18821
the purposes for which it is incorporated the authorization to 18822
lease and operate facilities such as a port authority educational 18823
and cultural performing arts facility.18824

       (3) "Cost," as applied to a port authority educational and 18825
cultural performing arts facility, means the cost of acquiring, 18826
constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving 18827
the facility, or any combination of those purposes, collectively 18828
referred to in this section as "construction," and the cost of 18829
acquisition of all land, rights of way, property rights, 18830
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for those 18831
purposes, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 18832
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 18833
any land to which those buildings or structures may be moved, the 18834
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 18835
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 18836
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 18837
construction and for not more than three years after completion of 18838
construction, costs arising under guaranty agreements, 18839
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 18840
relating to bonds, engineering, expenses of research and 18841
development with respect to such facility, legal expenses, plans, 18842
specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of costs and revenues, 18843
other expenses necessary or incident to determining the 18844
feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 18845
facility, administrative expense, and other expenses as may be 18846
necessary or incident to that acquisition or construction and the 18847
financing of such acquisition or construction, including, with 18848
respect to the revenue bonds of a port authority, amounts to be 18849
paid into any special funds from the proceeds of those bonds, and 18850
repayments to the port authority, host county, host municipal 18851
corporation, or corporation of any amounts advanced for the 18852
foregoing purposes.18853

       (4) "Debt service charges" means, for any period or payable 18854
at any time, the principal of and interest and any premium due on 18855
bonds for that period or payable at that time whether due at 18856
maturity or upon mandatory redemption, together with any required 18857
deposits to reserves for the payment of principal of and interest 18858
on those bonds, and includes any payments required by the port 18859
authority to satisfy any of its obligations under or arising from 18860
any guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 18861
enhancement agreements described in division (C) of this section.18862

       (5) "Host county" means the county within the boundaries of 18863
which the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18864
facility is or will be located.18865

       (6) "Host municipal corporation" means the municipal 18866
corporation within the boundaries of which the port authority 18867
educational and cultural performing arts facility is or will be 18868
located.18869

       (7) "Port authority" means a port authority created pursuant 18870
to section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.18871

       (8) "Port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18872
facility" means a facility that consists of a center for music or 18873
other performing arts, a theater or other facilities to provide 18874
programs of an educational, recreational, or cultural nature, or 18875
any combination of those purposes as determined by the parties to 18876
the cooperative agreement for which provision is made in division 18877
(B) of this section to fulfill the public educational, 18878
recreational, and cultural purposes set forth therein, together 18879
with all parking facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary 18880
facilities, real and personal property, property rights, 18881
easements, and interests that may be appropriate for, or used in 18882
connection with, the operation of the facility.18883

       (B) A host county, a host municipal corporation, and a port 18884
authority may enter into a cooperative agreement with a 18885
corporation under which, as further provided for in that 18886
agreement:18887

       (1) The host county may agree to do any or all of the 18888
following:18889

       (a) Levy and collect a tax under division (E) and division 18890
(F) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code for the purposes, and 18891
in an amount sufficient for those purposes, described in divisions 18892
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;18893

       (b) Pay to the port authority all or such portion as provided 18894
for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the tax, 18895
together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be used 18896
to pay a portion of the costs of acquiring, constructing, 18897
renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving the port 18898
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility;18899

       (c) Pledge and pay to the corporation all or such portion as 18900
provided for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the 18901
tax, together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be 18902
used to pay a portion of the costs to the corporation of leasing 18903
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18904
facility from the port authority.18905

       (2) The port authority may agree to do any or all of the 18906
following:18907

       (a) Issue its revenue bonds pursuant to section 4582.48 of 18908
the Revised Code for the purpose of paying all or a portion of the 18909
costs of the port authority educational and cultural performing 18910
arts facility;18911

       (b) Acquire, construct, renovate, rehabilitate, equip, and 18912
improve the port authority educational and cultural performing 18913
arts facility;18914

       (c) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 18915
performing arts facility to the corporation;18916

       (d) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 18917
or the lease to the corporation, authorize the corporation to 18918
administer on behalf of the port authority the contracts for 18919
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping 18920
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18921
facility;18922

       (e) Use the revenue derived from the lease of the port 18923
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility to the 18924
corporation solely to pay debt service charges on revenue bonds of 18925
the port authority issued pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this 18926
section and to pay its obligations under or arising from any 18927
guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 18928
enhancement agreements provided for in this section.18929

       (3) The host municipal corporation may agree to do either or 18930
both of the following:18931

       (a) Issue its bonds for the purpose of paying all or a 18932
portion of the costs of the port authority educational and 18933
cultural performing arts facility, and pay the proceeds from the 18934
issuance to the port authority for that purpose;18935

       (b) Enter into a guaranty agreement, a reimbursement 18936
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement with the port 18937
authority to provide a guaranty or other credit enhancement of the 18938
port authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of 18939
this section pledging taxes, other than ad valorem property taxes, 18940
or other revenues for the purpose of providing the funds required 18941
to satisfy the host municipal corporation's obligations under that 18942
agreement.18943

       The cooperative agreement may provide that the proceeds of 18944
such securities or of such guaranty agreement, reimbursement 18945
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement be deposited with 18946
and administered by the trustee pursuant to the trust agreement 18947
authorized in division (C) of this section.18948

       (4) The corporation may agree to do any or all of the 18949
following:18950

       (a) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 18951
performing arts facility from the port authority;18952

       (b) Operate and maintain the port authority educational and 18953
cultural performing arts facility pursuant to the lease;18954

       (c) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 18955
or the lease from the port authority, administer on behalf of the 18956
port authority the contracts for acquiring, constructing, 18957
renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping the port authority 18958
educational and cultural performing arts facility.18959

       (C) The pledge and payments referred to in divisions 18960
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section and provided for in the 18961
cooperative agreement shall be for the period stated in the 18962
cooperative agreement but shall not extend longer than the period 18963
necessary to provide for the final retirement of the port 18964
authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this 18965
section, and for the satisfaction by the port authority of any of 18966
its obligations under or arising from any guaranty agreements, 18967
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 18968
relating to those bonds or to the revenues pledged to them. The 18969
cooperative agreement shall provide for the termination of the 18970
cooperative agreement, including the pledge and payment referred 18971
to in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, if the port authority 18972
revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this section 18973
have not been issued, sold, and delivered within five years of the 18974
effective date of the cooperative agreement.18975

       The cooperative agreement shall provide that any port 18976
authority revenue bonds shall be secured by a trust agreement 18977
between the port authority and a corporate trustee that is a trust 18978
company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or 18979
outside the state but authorized to exercise trust powers within 18980
the state. The host county may be a party to that trust agreement 18981
for the purpose of better securing the pledge by the host county 18982
of its payment to the corporation pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) 18983
of this section. A tax levied pursuant to section 5739.09 of the 18984
Revised Code for the purposes specified in division (B)(1)(b) or 18985
(c) of this section is not subject to diminution by initiative or 18986
referendum or diminution by statute, unless provision is made for 18987
an adequate substitute reasonably satisfactory to the trustee 18988
under the trust agreement that secures the port authority revenue 18989
bonds.18990

       (D) A pledge of money by a host county under this section 18991
shall not be net indebtedness of the host county for purposes of 18992
section 133.07 of the Revised Code. A guaranty or other credit 18993
enhancement by a host municipal corporation under this section 18994
shall not be net indebtedness of the host municipal corporation 18995
for purposes of section 133.05 of the Revised Code.18996

       (E) If the terms of the cooperative agreement so provide, any 18997
contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 18998
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 18999
educational and cultural performing arts facility shall be made in 19000
such manner as is determined by the board of directors of the port 19001
authority, and unless the cooperative agreement provides 19002
otherwise, such a contract is not subject to division (R)(2) of 19003
section 4582.31 of the Revised Code. The port authority may take 19004
the assignment of and assume any contracts for the acquisition, 19005
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 19006
of a port authority educational and cultural performing arts 19007
facility that had previously been authorized by any of the host 19008
county, the host municipality, or the corporation. Such contracts 19009
are not subject to division (R)(2) of section 4582.31 of the 19010
Revised Code.19011

       Any contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 19012
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 19013
educational and cultural performing arts facility entered into, 19014
assigned, or assumed pursuant to this division shall provide that 19015
all laborers and mechanics employed for the acquisition, 19016
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 19017
of that facility shall be paid at the prevailing rates of wages of 19018
laborers and mechanics for the class of work called for by the 19019
port authority educational and cultural performing arts facility, 19020
which wages shall be determined in accordance with the 19021
requirements of Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code for the 19022
determination of prevailing wage rates.19023

       Notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in section19024
3383.07123.281 of the Revised Code, construction services and 19025
general building services for a port authority educational and 19026
cultural performing arts facility funded completely or in part 19027
with money appropriated by the state to the Ohio cultural19028
facilities construction commission may be provided by a port 19029
authority or a corporation that occupies, will occupy, or is 19030
responsible for that facility, as determined by the commission. 19031
The construction services and general building services to be 19032
provided by the port authority or the corporation shall be 19033
specified in an agreement between the commission and the port 19034
authority or corporation. That agreement, or any actions taken 19035
under it, are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised 19036
Code, but are subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.19037

       Sec. 307.86.  Anything to be purchased, leased, leased with 19038
an option or agreement to purchase, or constructed, including, but 19039
not limited to, any product, structure, construction, 19040
reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, repair, or service, 19041
except the services of an accountant, architect, attorney at law, 19042
physician, professional engineer, construction project manager, 19043
consultant, surveyor, or appraiser, by or on behalf of the county 19044
or contracting authority, as defined in section 307.92 of the 19045
Revised Code, at a cost in excess of fifty thousand dollars, 19046
except as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 713.23 and 19047
in sections 9.48, 125.04, 125.60 to 125.6012, 307.022, 307.041, 19048
307.861, 339.05, 340.03, 340.033, 4115.31 to 4115.35, 5119.1619049
5119.44, 5513.01, 5543.19, 5713.01, and 6137.05 of the Revised 19050
Code, shall be obtained through competitive bidding. However, 19051
competitive bidding is not required when any of the following 19052
applies:19053

       (A) The board of county commissioners, by a unanimous vote of 19054
its members, makes a determination that a real and present 19055
emergency exists, and that determination and the reasons for it 19056
are entered in the minutes of the proceedings of the board, when 19057
either of the following applies:19058

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 19059
dollars.19060

       (2) There is actual physical disaster to structures, radio 19061
communications equipment, or computers.19062

       For purposes of this division, "unanimous vote" means all 19063
three members of a board of county commissioners when all three 19064
members are present, or two members of the board if only two 19065
members, constituting a quorum, are present.19066

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 19067
exempted from competitive bidding under division (A)(1) of this 19068
section because the estimated cost is less than one hundred 19069
thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is fifty thousand dollars 19070
or more, the county or contracting authority shall solicit 19071
informal estimates from no fewer than three persons who could 19072
perform the contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to 19073
each such contract, the county or contracting authority shall 19074
maintain a record of such estimates, including the name of each 19075
person from whom an estimate is solicited. The county or 19076
contracting authority shall maintain the record for the longer of 19077
at least one year after the contract is awarded or the amount of 19078
time the federal government requires.19079

       (B)(1) The purchase consists of supplies or a replacement or 19080
supplemental part or parts for a product or equipment owned or 19081
leased by the county, and the only source of supply for the 19082
supplies, part, or parts is limited to a single supplier.19083

       (2) The purchase consists of services related to information 19084
technology, such as programming services, that are proprietary or 19085
limited to a single source.19086

       (C) The purchase is from the federal government, the state, 19087
another county or contracting authority of another county, or a 19088
board of education, educational service center, township, or 19089
municipal corporation.19090

       (D) The purchase is made by a county department of job and 19091
family services under section 329.04 of the Revised Code and 19092
consists of family services duties or workforce development 19093
activities or is made by a county board of developmental 19094
disabilities under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code and 19095
consists of program services, such as direct and ancillary client 19096
services, child care, case management services, residential 19097
services, and family resource services.19098

       (E) The purchase consists of criminal justice services, 19099
social services programs, family services, or workforce 19100
development activities by the board of county commissioners from 19101
nonprofit corporations or associations under programs funded by 19102
the federal government or by state grants.19103

       (F) The purchase consists of any form of an insurance policy 19104
or contract authorized to be issued under Title XXXIX of the 19105
Revised Code or any form of health care plan authorized to be 19106
issued under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any combination 19107
of such policies, contracts, plans, or services that the 19108
contracting authority is authorized to purchase, and the 19109
contracting authority does all of the following:19110

       (1) Determines that compliance with the requirements of this 19111
section would increase, rather than decrease, the cost of the 19112
purchase;19113

       (2) Requests issuers of the policies, contracts, plans, or 19114
services to submit proposals to the contracting authority, in a 19115
form prescribed by the contracting authority, setting forth the 19116
coverage and cost of the policies, contracts, plans, or services 19117
as the contracting authority desires to purchase;19118

       (3) Negotiates with the issuers for the purpose of purchasing 19119
the policies, contracts, plans, or services at the best and lowest 19120
price reasonably possible.19121

       (G) The purchase consists of computer hardware, software, or 19122
consulting services that are necessary to implement a computerized 19123
case management automation project administered by the Ohio 19124
prosecuting attorneys association and funded by a grant from the 19125
federal government.19126

       (H) Child care services are purchased for provision to county 19127
employees.19128

       (I)(1) Property, including land, buildings, and other real 19129
property, is leased for offices, storage, parking, or other 19130
purposes, and all of the following apply:19131

       (a) The contracting authority is authorized by the Revised 19132
Code to lease the property.19133

       (b) The contracting authority develops requests for proposals 19134
for leasing the property, specifying the criteria that will be 19135
considered prior to leasing the property, including the desired 19136
size and geographic location of the property.19137

       (c) The contracting authority receives responses from 19138
prospective lessors with property meeting the criteria specified 19139
in the requests for proposals by giving notice in a manner 19140
substantially similar to the procedures established for giving 19141
notice under section 307.87 of the Revised Code.19142

       (d) The contracting authority negotiates with the prospective 19143
lessors to obtain a lease at the best and lowest price reasonably 19144
possible considering the fair market value of the property and any 19145
relocation and operational costs that may be incurred during the 19146
period the lease is in effect.19147

       (2) The contracting authority may use the services of a real 19148
estate appraiser to obtain advice, consultations, or other 19149
recommendations regarding the lease of property under this 19150
division.19151

       (J) The purchase is made pursuant to section 5139.34 or 19152
sections 5139.41 to 5139.46 of the Revised Code and is of programs 19153
or services that provide case management, treatment, or prevention 19154
services to any felony or misdemeanant delinquent, unruly youth, 19155
or status offender under the supervision of the juvenile court, 19156
including, but not limited to, community residential care, day 19157
treatment, services to children in their home, or electronic 19158
monitoring.19159

       (K) The purchase is made by a public children services agency 19160
pursuant to section 307.92 or 5153.16 of the Revised Code and 19161
consists of family services, programs, or ancillary services that 19162
provide case management, prevention, or treatment services for 19163
children at risk of being or alleged to be abused, neglected, or 19164
dependent children.19165

       (L) The purchase is to obtain the services of emergency 19166
medical service organizations under a contract made by the board 19167
of county commissioners pursuant to section 307.05 of the Revised 19168
Code with a joint emergency medical services district.19169

       (M) The county contracting authority determines that the use 19170
of competitive sealed proposals would be advantageous to the 19171
county and the contracting authority complies with section 307.862 19172
of the Revised Code.19173

       Any issuer of policies, contracts, plans, or services listed 19174
in division (F) of this section and any prospective lessor under 19175
division (I) of this section may have the issuer's or prospective 19176
lessor's name and address, or the name and address of an agent, 19177
placed on a special notification list to be kept by the 19178
contracting authority, by sending the contracting authority that 19179
name and address. The contracting authority shall send notice to 19180
all persons listed on the special notification list. Notices shall 19181
state the deadline and place for submitting proposals. The 19182
contracting authority shall mail the notices at least six weeks 19183
prior to the deadline set by the contracting authority for 19184
submitting proposals. Every five years the contracting authority 19185
may review this list and remove any person from the list after 19186
mailing the person notification of that action.19187

       Any contracting authority that negotiates a contract under 19188
division (F) of this section shall request proposals and negotiate 19189
with issuers in accordance with that division at least every three 19190
years from the date of the signing of such a contract, unless the 19191
parties agree upon terms for extensions or renewals of the 19192
contract. Such extension or renewal periods shall not exceed six 19193
years from the date the initial contract is signed.19194

       Any real estate appraiser employed pursuant to division (I) 19195
of this section shall disclose any fees or compensation received 19196
from any source in connection with that employment.19197

       Sec. 309.09.  (A) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal 19198
adviser of the board of county commissioners, board of elections, 19199
all other county officers and boards, and all tax-supported public 19200
libraries, and any of them may require written opinions or 19201
instructions from the prosecuting attorney in matters connected 19202
with their official duties. The prosecuting attorney shall 19203
prosecute and defend all suits and actions that any such officer, 19204
board, or tax-supported public library directs or to which it is a 19205
party, and no county officer may employ any other counsel or 19206
attorney at the expense of the county, except as provided in 19207
section 305.14 of the Revised Code.19208

       (B)(1) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal adviser 19209
for all township officers, boards, and commissions, unless, 19210
subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township has 19211
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 19212
the Revised Code and has not entered into a contract to have the 19213
prosecuting attorney serve as the township law director, in which 19214
case, subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township law 19215
director, whether serving full-time or part-time, shall be the 19216
legal adviser for all township officers, boards, and commissions. 19217
When the board of township trustees finds it advisable or 19218
necessary to have additional legal counsel, it may employ an 19219
attorney other than the township law director or the prosecuting 19220
attorney of the county, either for a particular matter or on an 19221
annual basis, to represent the township and its officers, boards, 19222
and commissions in their official capacities and to advise them on 19223
legal matters. No such legal counsel may be employed, except on 19224
the order of the board of township trustees, duly entered upon its 19225
journal, in which the compensation to be paid for the legal 19226
services shall be fixed. The compensation shall be paid from the 19227
township fund.19228

       Nothing in this division confers any of the powers or duties 19229
of a prosecuting attorney under section 309.08 of the Revised Code 19230
upon a township law director.19231

       (2)(a) If any township in the county served by the 19232
prosecuting attorney has adopted any resolution regarding the 19233
operation of adult entertainment establishments pursuant to the 19234
authority that is granted under section 503.52 of the Revised Code 19235
or if a resolution of that nature has been adopted under section 19236
503.53 of the Revised Code in a township in the county served by 19237
the prosecuting attorney, all of the following apply:19238

       (i) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 19239
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 19240
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of section 503.52 of 19241
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 19242
defend on behalf of the township in the trial and argument in any 19243
court or tribunal of any challenge to the validity of the 19244
resolution. If the challenge to the validity of the resolution is 19245
before a federal court, the prosecuting attorney may request the 19246
attorney general to assist the prosecuting attorney in prosecuting 19247
and defending the challenge and, upon the prosecuting attorney's 19248
making of such a request, the attorney general shall assist the 19249
prosecuting attorney in performing that service if the resolution 19250
was drafted in accordance with legal guidance provided by the 19251
attorney general as described in division (B)(2) of section 503.52 19252
of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall provide this 19253
assistance without charge to the township for which the service is 19254
performed. If a township adopts a resolution without the legal 19255
guidance of the attorney general, the attorney general is not 19256
required to provide assistance as described in this division to a 19257
prosecuting attorney.19258

       (ii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 19259
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 19260
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) of section 503.52 of 19261
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 19262
defend on behalf of the township a civil action to enjoin the 19263
violation of the resolution in question.19264

       (iii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 19265
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 19266
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of section 503.52 of 19267
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 19268
defend on behalf of the township a civil action under Chapter 19269
3767. of the Revised Code to abate as a nuisance the place in the 19270
unincorporated area of the township at which the resolution is 19271
being or has been violated. Proceeds from the sale of personal 19272
property or contents seized pursuant to the action shall be 19273
applied and deposited in accordance with division (E)(1)(b) of 19274
section 503.52 of the Revised Code.19275

        (b) The provisions of division (B)(2)(a) of this section 19276
apply regarding all townships, including townships that have 19277
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 19278
the Revised Code, and regardless of whether a township that has so 19279
adopted a limited home rule government has entered into a contract 19280
with the prosecuting attorney as described in division (B) of 19281
section 504.15 of the Revised Code or has appointed a law director 19282
as described in division (A) of that section.19283

       The prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and defend in the 19284
actions and proceedings described in division (B)(2)(a) of this 19285
section without charge to the township for which the services are 19286
performed.19287

       (C) Whenever the board of county commissioners employs an 19288
attorney other than the prosecuting attorney of the county, 19289
without the authorization of the court of common pleas as provided 19290
in section 305.14 of the Revised Code, either for a particular 19291
matter or on an annual basis, to represent the board in its 19292
official capacity and to advise it on legal matters, the board 19293
shall enter upon its journal an order of the board in which the 19294
compensation to be paid for the legal services shall be fixed. The 19295
compensation shall be paid from the county general fund. The total 19296
compensation paid, in any year, by the board for legal services 19297
under this division shall not exceed the total annual compensation 19298
of the prosecuting attorney for that county.19299

       (D) The prosecuting attorney and the board of county 19300
commissioners jointly may contract with a board of park 19301
commissioners under section 1545.07 of the Revised Code for the 19302
prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to the park 19303
district the board of park commissioners operates.19304

       (E) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19305
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19306
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint fire district created 19307
under section 505.371 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 19308
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 19309
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 19310
into, and that the board of county commissionercommissioners19311
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 19312
services to the district.19313

       (F) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19314
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19315
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint ambulance district 19316
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 19317
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 19318
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 19319
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 19320
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 19321
the district.19322

       (G) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19323
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19324
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint emergency medical 19325
services district created under section 307.052 of the Revised 19326
Code at no cost to the district or may be the legal adviser to the 19327
district under a contract that the prosecuting attorney and the 19328
district enter into, and that the board of county commissioners 19329
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 19330
services to the district.19331

       (H) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19332
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19333
commissioners, the legal adviser of a fire and ambulance district 19334
created under section 505.375 of the Revised Code at no cost to 19335
the district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 19336
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 19337
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 19338
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 19339
the district.19340

       (I) All money received pursuant to a contract entered into 19341
under division (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) of this section shall be 19342
deposited into the prosecuting attorney's legal services fund, 19343
which shall be established in the county treasury of each county 19344
in which such a contract exists. Moneys in that fund may be 19345
appropriated only to the prosecuting attorney for the purpose of 19346
providing legal services to a park district, joint fire district, 19347
joint ambulance district, joint emergency medical services 19348
district, or a fire and ambulance district, as applicable, under a 19349
contract entered into under the applicable division.19350

       (J) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal advisor of a 19351
lake facilities authority as provided in section 353.02 of the 19352
Revised Code.19353

       Sec. 317.08. (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 19354
and (E) of this section, the county recorder shall keep six 19355
separate sets of records as follows:19356

       (1) A record of deeds, in which shall be recorded all deeds 19357
and other instruments of writing for the absolute and 19358
unconditional sale or conveyance of lands, tenements, and 19359
hereditaments; all notices as provided in sections 5301.47 to 19360
5301.56 of the Revised Code; all judgments or decrees in actions 19361
brought under section 5303.01 of the Revised Code; all 19362
declarations and bylaws, and all amendments to declarations and 19363
bylaws, as provided in Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code; 19364
affidavits as provided in sections 5301.252 and 5301.56 of the 19365
Revised Code; all certificates as provided in section 5311.17 of 19366
the Revised Code; all articles dedicating archaeological preserves 19367
accepted by the director of the Ohio historical society under 19368
section 149.52 of the Revised Code; all articles dedicating nature 19369
preserves accepted by the director of natural resources under 19370
section 1517.05 of the Revised Code; all agreements for the 19371
registration of lands as archaeological or historic landmarks 19372
under section 149.51 or 149.55 of the Revised Code; all 19373
conveyances of conservation easements and agricultural easements 19374
under section 5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments 19375
extinguishing agricultural easements under section 901.21 or 19376
5301.691 of the Revised Code or pursuant to terms of such an 19377
easement granted to a charitable organization under section 19378
5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments or orders described 19379
in division (B)(2)(b) of section 5301.56 of the Revised Code; all 19380
no further action letters issued under section 122.654 or 3746.11 19381
of the Revised Code; all covenants not to sue issued under section 19382
3746.12 of the Revised Code, including all covenants not to sue 19383
issued pursuant to section 122.654 of the Revised Code; any 19384
restrictions on the use of property contained in a no further 19385
action letter issued under section 122.654 of the Revised Code, 19386
any restrictions on the use of property identified pursuant to 19387
division (C)(3)(a) of section 3746.10 of the Revised Code, and any 19388
restrictions on the use of property contained in a deed or other 19389
instrument as provided in division (E) or (F) of section 3737.882 19390
of the Revised Code; any easement executed or granted under 19391
section 3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code; 19392
any environmental covenant entered into in accordance with 19393
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code; all memoranda of 19394
trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 19395
Revised Code, that describe specific real property; and all 19396
agreements entered into under division (A) of section 1506.44 of 19397
the Revised Code;19398

       (2) A record of mortgages, in which shall be recorded all of 19399
the following:19400

       (a) All mortgages, including amendments, supplements, 19401
modifications, and extensions of mortgages, or other instruments 19402
of writing by which lands, tenements, or hereditaments are or may 19403
be mortgaged or otherwise conditionally sold, conveyed, affected, 19404
or encumbered;19405

       (b) All executory installment contracts for the sale of land 19406
executed after September 29, 1961, that by their terms are not 19407
required to be fully performed by one or more of the parties to 19408
them within one year of the date of the contracts;19409

       (c) All options to purchase real estate, including 19410
supplements, modifications, and amendments of the options, but no 19411
option of that nature shall be recorded if it does not state a 19412
specific day and year of expiration of its validity;19413

       (d) Any tax certificate sold under section 5721.33 of the 19414
Revised Code, or memorandum of it, that is presented for filing of 19415
record.19416

       (3) A record of powers of attorney, including all memoranda 19417
of trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 19418
Revised Code, that do not describe specific real property;19419

       (4) A record of plats, in which shall be recorded all plats 19420
and maps of town lots, of the subdivision of town lots, and of 19421
other divisions or surveys of lands, any center line survey of a 19422
highway located within the county, the plat of which shall be 19423
furnished by the director of transportation or county engineer, 19424
and all drawings and amendments to drawings, as provided in 19425
Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code;19426

       (5) A record of leases, in which shall be recorded all 19427
leases, memoranda of leases, and supplements, modifications, and 19428
amendments of leases and memoranda of leases;19429

       (6) A record of declarations executed pursuant to section 19430
2133.02 of the Revised Code and durable powers of attorney for 19431
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 19432
Code.19433

       (B) All instruments or memoranda of instruments entitled to 19434
record shall be recorded in the proper record in the order in 19435
which they are presented for record. The recorder may index, keep, 19436
and record in one volume unemployment compensation liens, internal 19437
revenue tax liens and other liens in favor of the United States as 19438
described in division (A) of section 317.09 of the Revised Code, 19439
personal tax liens, mechanic's liens, agricultural product liens, 19440
notices of liens, certificates of satisfaction or partial release 19441
of estate tax liens, discharges of recognizances, excise and 19442
franchise tax liens on corporations, broker's liens, and liens 19443
provided for in sections 1513.33, 1513.37, 3752.13, 5111.02219444
5164.56, and 5311.18 of the Revised Code.19445

       The recording of an option to purchase real estate, including 19446
any supplement, modification, and amendment of the option, under 19447
this section shall serve as notice to any purchaser of an interest 19448
in the real estate covered by the option only during the period of 19449
the validity of the option as stated in the option.19450

       (C) In lieu of keeping the six separate sets of records 19451
required in divisions (A)(1) to (6) of this section and the 19452
records required in divisions (D) and (E) of this section, a 19453
county recorder may record all the instruments required to be 19454
recorded by this section in two separate sets of record books. One 19455
set shall be called the "official records" and shall contain the 19456
instruments listed in divisions (A)(1), (2), (3), (5), and (6) and 19457
(D) and (E) of this section. The second set of records shall 19458
contain the instruments listed in division (A)(4) of this section.19459

       (D) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 19460
county recorder shall keep a separate set of records containing 19461
all corrupt activity lien notices filed with the recorder pursuant 19462
to section 2923.36 of the Revised Code and a separate set of 19463
records containing all medicaid fraud lien notices filed with the 19464
recorder pursuant to section 2933.75 of the Revised Code.19465

       (E)(1) The county recorder shall keep a separate set of 19466
records containing all transfers, conveyances, or assignments of 19467
any type of tangible or intangible personal property or any rights 19468
or interests in that property if and to the extent that any person 19469
wishes to record that personal property transaction and if the 19470
applicable instrument is acknowledged before a notary public. If 19471
the transferor is a natural person, the notice of personal 19472
property transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state in 19473
which the transferor maintains the transferor's principal 19474
residence. If the transferor is not a natural person, the notice 19475
of personal property transfer shall be recorded in the county in 19476
this state in which the transferor maintains its principal place 19477
of business. If the transferor does not maintain a principal 19478
residence or a principal place of business in this state and the 19479
transfer is to a trustee of a legacy trust formed pursuant to 19480
Chapter 5816. of the Revised Code, the notice of personal property 19481
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where that 19482
trustee maintains a principal residence or principal place of 19483
business. In all other instances, the notice of personal property 19484
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where the 19485
property described in the notice is located.19486

       (2) The records described in division (E)(1) of this section 19487
shall be maintained in or as part of the "official records" under 19488
division (C) of this section.19489

       Sec. 317.32.  The county recorder shall charge and collect 19490
the following fees, to include, except as otherwise provided in 19491
division (A)(2) of this section, base fees for the recorder's 19492
services and housing trust fund fees collected pursuant to section 19493
317.36 of the Revised Code:19494

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 19495
this section, for recording and indexing an instrument if the 19496
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a base fee of 19497
fourteen dollars for the first two pages and a housing trust fund 19498
fee of fourteen dollars, and a base fee of four dollars and a 19499
housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each subsequent page, 19500
size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction of 19501
a page, including the caption page, of such instrument;19502

       (2) For recording and indexing an instrument described in 19503
division (E)(1) of section 317.08 of the Revised Code if the 19504
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a fee of 19505
twenty-eight dollars for the first two pages to be deposited into 19506
the county treasury to the credit of the special fund designated 19507
as "general fund moneys to supplement the equipmenttechnology19508
needs of the county recorder" under section 317.321 of the Revised 19509
Code, and a fee of eight dollars to be deposited in the same 19510
manner for each subsequent page, size eight and one-half inches by 19511
fourteen inches, or fraction of a page, including the caption 19512
page, of that instrument;19513

       (B) For certifying a photocopy from the record previously 19514
recorded, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of 19515
one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen 19516
inches, or fraction of a page; for each certification if the 19517
recorder's seal is required, except as to instruments issued by 19518
the armed forces of the United States, a base fee of fifty cents 19519
and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents;19520

       (C) For manual or typewritten recording of assignment or 19521
satisfaction of mortgage or lease or any other marginal entry, a 19522
base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four 19523
dollars;19524

       (D) For entering any marginal reference by separate recorded 19525
instrument, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee 19526
of two dollars for each marginal reference set out in that 19527
instrument, in addition to the fees set forth in division (A)(1) 19528
of this section;19529

       (E) For indexing in the real estate mortgage records, 19530
pursuant to section 1309.519 of the Revised Code, financing 19531
statements covering crops growing or to be grown, timber to be 19532
cut, minerals or the like, including oil and gas, accounts subject 19533
to section 1309.301 of the Revised Code, or fixture filings made 19534
pursuant to section 1309.334 of the Revised Code, a base fee of 19535
two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for each 19536
name indexed;19537

       (F) For recording manually any plat not exceeding six lines, 19538
a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two 19539
dollars, and for each additional line, a base fee of ten cents and 19540
a housing trust fund fee of ten cents;19541

       (G) For filing zoning resolutions, including text and maps, 19542
in the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.11 19543
and 519.11 of the Revised Code, a base fee of twenty-five dollars 19544
and a housing trust fund fee of twenty-five dollars, regardless of 19545
the size or length of the resolutions;19546

       (H) For filing zoning amendments, including text and maps, in 19547
the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.12 and 19548
519.12 of the Revised Code, a base fee of ten dollars and a 19549
housing trust fund fee of ten dollars regardless of the size or 19550
length of the amendments;19551

       (I) For photocopying a document, other than at the time of 19552
recording and indexing as provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) 19553
of this section, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund 19554
fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by 19555
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;19556

       (J) For local facsimile transmission of a document, a base 19557
fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per 19558
page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or 19559
fraction thereof; for long distance facsimile transmission of a 19560
document, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee 19561
of two dollars per page, size eight and one-half inches by 19562
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;19563

       (K) For recording a declaration executed pursuant to section 19564
2133.02 of the Revised Code or a durable power of attorney for 19565
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 19566
Code, or both a declaration and a durable power of attorney for 19567
health care, a base fee of at least fourteen dollars but not more 19568
than twenty dollars and a housing trust fund fee of at least 19569
fourteen dollars but not more than twenty dollars.19570

       In any county in which the recorder employs the photostatic 19571
or any similar process for recording maps, plats, or prints the 19572
recorder shall determine, charge, and collect for the recording or 19573
rerecording of any map, plat, or print, a base fee of five cents 19574
and a housing trust fund fee of five cents per square inch, for 19575
each square inch of the map, plat, or print filed for that 19576
recording or rerecording, with a minimum base fee of twenty 19577
dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of twenty dollars; 19578
for certifying a copy from the record, a base fee of two cents and 19579
a housing trust fund fee of two cents per square inch of the 19580
record, with a minimum base fee of two dollars and a minimum 19581
housing trust fund fee of two dollars.19582

       The fees provided in this section shall be paid upon the 19583
presentation of the instruments for record or upon the application 19584
for any certified copy of the record, except that the payment of 19585
fees associated with the filing and recording of, or the copying 19586
of, notices of internal revenue tax liens and notices of other 19587
liens in favor of the United States as described in division (A) 19588
of section 317.09 of the Revised Code and certificates of 19589
discharge or release of those liens, shall be governed by section 19590
317.09 of the Revised Code, and the payment of fees for providing 19591
copies of instruments conveying or extinguishing agricultural 19592
easements to the office of farmland preservation in the department 19593
of agriculture under division (H) of section 5301.691 of the 19594
Revised Code shall be governed by that division.19595

       Sec. 317.321.  (A) Not later than the first day of October of 19596
anyeach year, the county recorder may submit to the board of 19597
county commissioners a proposal for thefunding either or both of 19598
the following:19599

       (1) The acquisition orand maintenance of micrographic or19600
imaging and other technological equipment or for, and associated 19601
expenses and contract services or a proposal totherefor;19602

       (2) To reserve funds for the office's future equipment19603
technology needs if the county recorder has no immediate plans for 19604
the acquisition of imaging and other technological equipment or 19605
services. Either19606

       (B) The proposal shall be in writing and shall include at 19607
least the following:19608

       (1) A request that an amount not to exceed seveneight19609
dollars of the feetotal base fees or total fees collected for 19610
filing or recording a document for which a fee is charged as 19611
required by division (A)(1) of section 317.32 of the Revised Code19612
or by section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised Code, and the 19613
total amount of the fees collected under division (A)(2) of 19614
section 317.32 of the Revised Code, be placed in the county 19615
treasury andto the credit of the special fund designated as 19616
"general fund moneys to supplement the equipmenttechnology needs 19617
of the county recorder" for a period of one year from the date the 19618
proposal is approved;19619

       (2) The number of years, not to exceed five, for which the 19620
county recorder requests that the amount requested under division 19621
(A)(1) of this section be given the designation specified in that 19622
division;19623

       (3) An estimate of the total amount of fees that will be 19624
generated for filing or recording a document for which a fee is 19625
charged as required by division (A)(1) or (2) of section 317.32 of 19626
the Revised Code or by section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised 19627
Code;19628

       (4)(3) An estimate of the total amount of fees for filing or 19629
recording a document for which a fee is charged as required by 19630
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 317.32 of the Revised Code or by 19631
section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised Code that will be 19632
credited to the special fund designated as "general fund moneys to 19633
supplement the equipmenttechnology needs of the county recorder." 19634
if the request submitted under division (A)(1) of this section is 19635
approved by the board of county commissioners.19636

        A proposal for the acquisition or maintenance of micrographic 19637
or other equipment or for contract services mayshall include a 19638
description or summary of the micrographic orimaging and other 19639
technological equipment, or maintenance of the micrographic or 19640
other equipment, that the county recorder proposes to acquire and 19641
maintain, and the associated expenses therefor, or the nature of 19642
the contract services that the county recorder proposes to 19643
utilize, if the proposal is for those purposes. A proposal to 19644
reserve funds for the office's future equipmenttechnology needs 19645
if the county recorder has no immediate plans for the acquisition 19646
of imaging and other technological equipment or services shall 19647
explain the general needs of the office for equipment or services, 19648
if the proposal is for that purpose.19649

       (B)(C) The board of county commissioners shall receive either19650
the proposal and the clerk shall enter it on the journal. At the 19651
same time, the board shall establish a date, not sooner than 19652
fifteen or later than thirty days after the board's receipt of19653
board receives the proposal, on which to meet with the recorder to 19654
review the proposal.19655

       (C)(1)(D) Not later than the fifteenth day of December of any 19656
year in which a proposal for the acquisition or maintenance of 19657
micrographic or other equipment or for contract services is 19658
submitted under division (A) of this section, the board of county 19659
commissioners shall approve, reject, or modify the proposal and, 19660
if the proposal includes the estimates required by divisions 19661
(B)(2) and (3) of this section. Once the board approves the 19662
proposal, the board shall notify the county recorder of its action 19663
on the proposal. If the board rejects or modifies the proposal, it 19664
shall make a written finding that the request is for a purpose 19665
other than for acquiring, leasing, or otherwise obtaining 19666
micrographic or other equipment or contracts for use by the county 19667
recorder or that the amount requested for the acquisition or 19668
maintenance of micrographic or other equipment or for contract 19669
services is excessive as determined by the board. If the board 19670
approves the proposal, itand shall request the establishment of a 19671
special fund under section 5705.12 of the Revised Code for any 19672
fees designated as "general fund moneys to supplement the 19673
equipmenttechnology needs of the county recorder," in which the 19674
fees shall be deposited."19675

       (2) Not later than the fifteenth day of December of any year 19676
in which a proposal to reserve funds for the office's future 19677
equipment needs is submitted under division (A) of this section, 19678
the board of county commissioners shall approve the proposal, 19679
notify the county recorder of its action on the proposal, and 19680
request the establishment of a special fund under section 5705.12 19681
of the Revised Code for any fees designated as "general fund 19682
moneys to supplement the equipment needs of the county recorder."19683

       (D)(E) The acquisition orand maintenance of micrographic or19684
imaging and other technological equipment, and the acquisition of19685
associated expenses and contract services therefor, shall be 19686
specifically governed by sections 307.80 to 307.806, 307.84 to 19687
307.846, 307.86 to 307.92, and 5705.38, and by division (D) of 19688
section 5705.41 of the Revised Code.19689

       (F) Funding provided under this section does not diminish the 19690
duty of the board of county commissioners to provide funding for 19691
the expenses incurred by, and the personnel necessary for, the 19692
county recorder to perform the duties of office set forth in the 19693
Revised Code.19694

       Sec. 317.36. (A) The county recorder shall collect the low- 19695
and moderate-income housing trust fund fee as specified in 19696
sections 317.114, 317.32, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2505.13, 4141.23, 19697
4509.60, 5111.0225164.56, 5310.15, 5719.07, 5727.56, 5733.18, 19698
5733.22, 6101.09, and 6115.09 of the Revised Code. The amount of 19699
any housing trust fund fee the recorder is authorized to collect 19700
is equal to the amount of any base fee the recorder is authorized 19701
to collect for services. The housing trust fund fee shall be 19702
collected in addition to the base fee.19703

       (B) The recorder shall certify the amounts collected as 19704
housing trust fund fees pursuant to division (A) of this section 19705
into the county treasury as housing trust fund fees to be paid to 19706
the treasurer of state pursuant to section 319.63 of the Revised 19707
Code.19708

       Sec. 321.35.  Upon demand of the treasurer of state while 19709
holding a school district, county, township, or municipal 19710
corporation obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 19711
135.143 of the Revised Code, in making any payment under section 19712
321.31 or 321.34 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall 19713
withhold funds of the school district, county, township, or 19714
municipal corporation in an amount sufficient to pay debt service 19715
charges on that obligation and any of the fee for the agreement to 19716
purchase that obligation, less any amount deposited for that 19717
purpose under division (D) of section 3317.18 of the Revised Code. 19718
The county auditor shall promptly pay to the treasurer of state 19719
the amount withheld.19720

       Sec. 321.44.  (A)(1) A county probation services fund shall 19721
be established in the county treasury of each county. The fund a 19722
county establishes under this division shall contain all moneys 19723
paid to the treasurer of the county under section 2951.021 of the 19724
Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The moneys paid into the 19725
fund shall be deposited by the treasurer of the county into the 19726
appropriate account established under divisions (A)(1)(a) to (d) 19727
of this section. Separate accounts shall be maintained in 19728
accordance with the following criteria in the fund a county 19729
establishes under this division:19730

       (a) If a county department of probation is established in the 19731
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 19732
county department of probation.19733

       (b) If the judges of the court of common pleas of the county 19734
have affiliated with the judges of the court of common pleas of 19735
one or more other counties and have established a multicounty 19736
department of probation, a separate account shall be maintained in 19737
the fund for the multicounty department of probation.19738

       (c) If a department of probation is established in a 19739
county-operated municipal court that has jurisdiction within the 19740
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 19741
municipal court department of probation.19742

       (d) If a county department of probation has not been 19743
established in the county and if the court of common pleas of the 19744
county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 19745
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 19746
which the court may place defendants under a community control 19747
sanction in charge of the authority, a separate account shall be 19748
maintained in the fund for the court of common pleas.19749

       (2) For any county, if a county department of probation is 19750
established in the county or if a department of probation is 19751
established in a county-operated municipal court that has 19752
jurisdiction within the county, the board of county commissioners 19753
of the county shall appropriate to the county department of 19754
probation or municipal court department of probation all money 19755
that is contained in the department's account in the county 19756
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 19757
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 19758
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 19759
programs, including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs19760
services providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the 19761
Revised Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation 19762
officer of the department of probation, and other similar expenses 19763
related to placing offenders under a community control sanction.19764

       For any county, if the judges of the court of common pleas of 19765
the county have affiliated with the judges of the court of common 19766
pleas of one or more other counties and have established a 19767
multicounty department of probation to serve the counties, the 19768
board of county commissioners of the county shall appropriate and 19769
the county treasurer shall transfer to the multicounty probation 19770
services fund established for the multicounty department of 19771
probation under division (B) of this section all money that is 19772
contained in the multicounty department of probation account in 19773
the county probation services fund established in the county for 19774
use in accordance with that division.19775

       For any county, if a county department of probation has not 19776
been established in the county and if the court of common pleas of 19777
the county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 19778
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 19779
which the court may place defendants under a community control 19780
sanction in charge of the authority, the board of county 19781
commissioners of the county shall appropriate to the court all 19782
money that is contained in the court's account in the county 19783
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 19784
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 19785
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 19786
and recovery support services, including properly credentialed 19787
treatment and recovery support services program providers or those 19788
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, 19789
determined to be appropriate by the authority, and other similar 19790
uses related to placing offenders under a community control 19791
sanction.19792

       (B) If the judges of the courts of common pleas of two or 19793
more counties have established a multicounty department of 19794
probation, a multicounty probation services fund shall be 19795
established in the county treasury of the county whose treasurer, 19796
in accordance with section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, is 19797
designated by the judges of the courts of common pleas as the 19798
treasurer to whom monthly supervision fees are to be appropriated 19799
and transferred under division (A)(2) of this section for deposit 19800
into the fund. The fund shall contain all moneys that are paid to 19801
the treasurer of any member county under section 2951.021 of the 19802
Revised Code for deposit into the county's probation services fund 19803
and that subsequently are appropriated and transferred to the 19804
multicounty probation services fund under division (A)(2) of this 19805
section. The board of county commissioners of the county in which 19806
the multicounty probation services fund is established shall 19807
appropriate the money contained in that fund to the multicounty 19808
department of probation, for use only for specialized staff, 19809
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 19810
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 19811
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 19812
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 19813
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 19814
and for other similar expenses related to placing offenders under 19815
a community control sanction.19816

       (C) Any money in a county or multicounty probation services 19817
fund at the end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the general 19818
fund of the county but shall be retained in the fund.19819

       (D) As used in this section:19820

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 19821
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.19822

       (2) "Multicounty department of probation" means a probation 19823
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code 19824
to serve more than one county.19825

       (3) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 19826
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.19827

       Sec. 329.04.  (A) The county department of job and family 19828
services shall have, exercise, and perform the following powers 19829
and duties:19830

       (1) Perform any duties assigned by the state department of 19831
job and family services or department of medicaid regarding the 19832
provision of public family services, including the provision of 19833
the following services to prevent or reduce economic or personal 19834
dependency and to strengthen family life:19835

       (a) Services authorized by a Title IV-A program, as defined 19836
in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code;19837

       (b) Social services authorized by Title XX of the "Social 19838
Security Act" and provided for by section 5101.46 or 5101.461 of 19839
the Revised Code;19840

       (c) If the county department is designated as the child 19841
support enforcement agency, services authorized by Title IV-D of 19842
the "Social Security Act" and provided for by Chapter 3125. of the 19843
Revised Code. The county department may perform the services 19844
itself or contract with other government entities, and, pursuant 19845
to division (C) of section 2301.35 and section 2301.42 of the 19846
Revised Code, private entities, to perform the Title IV-D 19847
services.19848

       (d) Duties assigned under section 5111.985162.031 of the 19849
Revised Code.19850

       (2) Administer disability financial assistance, as required 19851
by the state department of job and family services under section 19852
5115.03 of the Revised Code;19853

       (3) Administer burials insofar as the administration of 19854
burials was, prior to September 12, 1947, imposed upon the board 19855
of county commissioners and if otherwise required by state law;19856

       (4) Cooperate with state and federal authorities in any 19857
matter relating to family services and to act as the agent of such 19858
authorities;19859

       (5) Submit an annual account of its work and expenses to the 19860
board of county commissioners and to the state department of job 19861
and family services and department of medicaid at the close of 19862
each fiscal year;19863

       (6) Exercise any powers and duties relating to family 19864
services duties or workforce development activities imposed upon 19865
the county department of job and family services by law, by 19866
resolution of the board of county commissioners, or by order of 19867
the governor, when authorized by law, to meet emergencies during 19868
war or peace;19869

       (7) Determine the eligibility for medical assistance of 19870
recipients of aid under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act";19871

       (8) If assigned by the state director of job and family 19872
services under section 5101.515 or 5101.525 of the Revised Code, 19873
determine applicants' eligibility for health assistance under the 19874
children's health insurance program part II or part III;19875

       (9) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of county 19876
commissioners under section 307.983, consult with the board in the 19877
development of the transportation work plan developed under 19878
section 307.985, establish with the board procedures under section 19879
307.986 for providing services to children whose families relocate 19880
frequently, and comply with the contracts the board enters into 19881
under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect 19882
the county department;19883

       (10)(8) For the purpose of complying with a grant agreement 19884
the board of county commissioners enters into under sections 19885
307.98 and 5101.21 of the Revised Code, exercise the powers and 19886
perform the duties the grant agreement assigns to the county 19887
department;19888

       (11)(9) If the county department is designated as the 19889
workforce development agency, provide the workforce development 19890
activities specified in the contract required by section 330.05 of 19891
the Revised Code.19892

       (B) The powers and duties of a county department of job and 19893
family services are, and shall be exercised and performed, under 19894
the control and direction of the board of county commissioners. 19895
The board may assign to the county department any power or duty of 19896
the board regarding family services duties and workforce 19897
development activities. If the new power or duty necessitates the 19898
state department of job and family services or department of 19899
medicaid changing its federal cost allocation plan, the county 19900
department may not implement the power or duty unless the United 19901
States department of health and human services approves the 19902
changes.19903

       Sec. 329.051.  The county department of job and family 19904
services shall make voter registration applications as prescribed 19905
by the secretary of state under section 3503.10 of the Revised 19906
Code available to persons who are applying for, receiving 19907
assistance from, or participating in any of the following:19908

       (A) The disability financial assistance program established 19909
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;19910

       (B) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 19911
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;19912

       (C) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 19913
5107. of the Revised Code;19914

       (D) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 19915
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.19916

       Sec. 329.06.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 19917
section and section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, the board of 19918
county commissioners shall establish a county family services 19919
planning committee. The board shall appoint a member to represent 19920
the county department of job and family services; an employee in 19921
the classified civil service of the county department of job and 19922
family services, if there are any such employees; and a member to 19923
represent the public. The board shall appoint other individuals to 19924
the committee in such a manner that the committee's membership is 19925
broadly representative of the groups of individuals and the public 19926
and private entities that have an interest in the family services 19927
provided in the county. The board shall make appointments in a 19928
manner that reflects the ethnic and racial composition of the 19929
county. The following groups and entities may be represented on 19930
the committee:19931

       (1) Consumers of family services;19932

       (2) The public children services agency;19933

       (3) The child support enforcement agency;19934

       (4) The county family and children first council;19935

       (5) Public and private colleges and universities;19936

       (6) Public entities that provide family services, including 19937
boards of health, boards of education, the county board of 19938
developmental disabilities, and the board of alcohol, drug 19939
addiction, and mental health services that serves the county;19940

       (7) Private nonprofit and for-profit entities that provide 19941
family services in the county or that advocate for consumers of 19942
family services in the county, including entities that provide 19943
services to or advocate for victims of domestic violence;19944

       (8) Labor organizations;19945

       (9) Any other group or entity that has an interest in the 19946
family services provided in the county, including groups or 19947
entities that represent any of the county's business, urban, and 19948
rural sectors.19949

       (B) The county family services planning committee shall do 19950
all of the following:19951

       (1) Serve as an advisory body to the board of county 19952
commissioners with regard to the family services provided in the 19953
county, including assistance under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the 19954
Revised Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of 19955
the Revised Code, and social services provided under section 19956
5101.46 of the Revised Code;19957

       (2) At least once a year, review and analyze the county 19958
department of job and family services' implementation of the 19959
programs established under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised 19960
Code. In its review, the committee shall use information available 19961
to it to examine all of the following:19962

       (a) Return of assistance groups to participation in either 19963
program after ceasing to participate;19964

       (b) Teen pregnancy rates among the programs' participants;19965

       (c) The other types of assistance the programs' participants 19966
receive, including medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 19967
Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of the 19968
Revised Code, supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits 19969
under section 5101.54 of the Revised Code, and energy assistance 19970
under Chapter 5117. of the Revised Code;19971

       (d) Other issues the committee considers appropriate.19972

       The committee shall make recommendations to the board of 19973
county commissioners and county department of job and family 19974
services regarding the committee's findings.19975

       (3) Conduct public hearings on proposed county profiles for 19976
the provision of social services under section 5101.46 of the 19977
Revised Code;19978

       (4) At the request of the board, make recommendations and 19979
provide assistance regarding the family services provided in the 19980
county;19981

       (5) At any other time the committee considers appropriate, 19982
consult with the board and make recommendations regarding the 19983
family services provided in the county. The committee's 19984
recommendations may address the following:19985

       (a) Implementation and administration of family service 19986
programs;19987

       (b) Use of federal, state, and local funds available for 19988
family service programs;19989

       (c) Establishment of goals to be achieved by family service 19990
programs;19991

       (d) Evaluation of the outcomes of family service programs;19992

       (e) Any other matter the board considers relevant to the 19993
provision of family services.19994

       (C) If there is a committee in existence in a county on 19995
October 1, 1997, that the board of county commissioners determines 19996
is capable of fulfilling the responsibilities of a county family 19997
services planning committee, the board may designate the committee 19998
as the county's family services planning committee and the 19999
committee shall serve in that capacity.20000

       Sec. 329.14.  (A) An individual whose household income does 20001
not exceed two hundred per cent of the federal poverty line is 20002
eligible to participate in an individual development account 20003
program established by the county department of job and family 20004
services of the county in which the individual resides. An 20005
eligible individual seeking to be a participant in the program 20006
shall enter into an agreement with the fiduciary organization 20007
administering the program. The agreement shall specify the terms 20008
and conditions of uses of funds deposited, financial documentation 20009
required to be maintained by the participant, expectations and 20010
responsibilities of the participant, and services to be provided 20011
by the fiduciary organization.20012

       (B) A participant may deposit earned income, as defined in 26 20013
U.S.C. 911(d)(2), as amended, into the account. The fiduciary 20014
organization may deposit into the account an amount not exceeding 20015
four times the amount deposited by the participant except that a 20016
fiduciary organization may not, pursuant to an agreement with an 20017
employer, deposit an amount into an account held by a participant 20018
who is employed by the employer. An account may have no more than 20019
ten thousand dollars in it at any time.20020

       (C) Notwithstanding eligibility requirements established in 20021
or pursuant to Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 20022
Code, to the extent permitted by federal statutes and regulations, 20023
money in an individual development account, including interest, is 20024
exempt from consideration in determining whether the participant 20025
or a member of the participant's assistance group is eligible for 20026
assistance under Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 20027
Code and the amount of assistance the participant or assistance 20028
group is eligible to receive.20029

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 20030
an individual development account program participant may use 20031
money in the account only for the following purposes:20032

       (a) Postsecondary educational expenses paid directly from the 20033
account to an eligible education institution or vendor;20034

       (b) Qualified acquisition expenses of a principal residence, 20035
as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1034, as amended, paid directly from the 20036
account to the person or government entity to which the expenses 20037
are due;20038

       (c) Qualified business capitalization expenses made in 20039
accordance with a qualified business plan that has been approved 20040
by a financial institution or by a nonprofit microenterprise 20041
program having demonstrated business expertise and paid directly 20042
from the account to the person to whom the expenses are due.20043

       (2) A fiduciary organization shall permit a participant to 20044
withdraw money deposited by the participant if it is needed to 20045
deal with a personal emergency of the participant or a member of 20046
the participant's family or household. Withdrawal shall result in 20047
the loss of any matching funds in an amount equal to the amount of 20048
the withdrawal.20049

       (3) Regardless of the reason for the withdrawal, a withdrawal 20050
from an individual development account may be made only with the 20051
approval of the fiduciary organization.20052

       Sec. 339.02.  (A) As used in this section, "area served by 20053
the hospital" means the geographic area, whether or not included 20054
within the county, from which a county hospital regularly draws 20055
patients.20056

       (B) Unless a board of county hospital trustees for the county 20057
is in existence in accordance with this section, such board shall 20058
be created pursuant to this section after the board of county 20059
commissioners first determines by resolution to establish a county 20060
hospital. Copies of such resolution shall be certified to the 20061
probate judge of the county senior in point of service and to the 20062
judge, other than a probate judge, of the court of common pleas of 20063
the county senior in point of service. The board of county 20064
commissioners together with the probate judge of the county senior 20065
in point of service and the judge of the court of common pleas of 20066
the county senior in point of service shall, within ten days after 20067
such certification, appoint a board of county hospital trustees.20068

        (C) In making appointments to a board of county hospital 20069
trustees, allboth of the following apply with respect to the 20070
individuals who may be appointed:20071

       (1) Members shall be electors and representative of the area 20072
served by the hospital, except that not more than two members may 20073
be electors of the area served by the hospital that is outside the 20074
county in which the hospital is located.20075

       (2) In no case shall more than one-half of the members be 20076
independents or be members of any one political party.20077

       (3) A physician may serve as a member, including a physician 20078
who is authorized to admit and treat patients at the hospital, 20079
except as follows:20080

       (a) Not more than two physicians may serve as members at the 20081
same time;20082

       (b) No physician who is employed by the hospital may serve as 20083
a member.20084

       (D) A board of county hospital trustees shall be composed of 20085
six members, unless the board of county commissioners determines 20086
that the board of trustees can more effectively function with 20087
eight or ten members in which case there may be eight or ten 20088
members, as designated by the board of county commissioners.20089

       (E) With respect to the initial appointment of members to a 20090
board of county hospital trustees, all of the following apply:20091

       (1) When the board is composed of six members, their terms of 20092
office shall be one for one year, one for two years, one for three 20093
years, one for four years, one for five years, and one for six 20094
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.20095

       (2) When the board is composed of eight members, their terms 20096
of office shall be one for one year, one for two years, two for 20097
three years, one for four years, one for five years, and two for 20098
six years from the first Monday of March thereafter.20099

       (3) When the board is composed of ten members, their terms of 20100
office shall be two for one year, one for two years, two for three 20101
years, two for four years, one for five years, and two for six 20102
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.20103

       (F) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 20104
all of the following apply with respect to vacancies on a board of 20105
county hospital trustees:20106

       (1) Annually, on the first Monday of March, the board of 20107
county commissioners together with the probate judge of the county 20108
senior in point of service and the judge of the court of common 20109
pleas of the county senior in point of service shall appoint or 20110
reappoint for a term of six years a sufficient number of members 20111
to replace those members whose terms have expired.20112

       (2) The appointing authority shall fill a vacancy not later 20113
than six months after the vacancy occurs. If the vacancy remains 20114
unfilled on that date, the remaining members of the board, by 20115
majority vote, shall appoint an individual to fill the vacancy.20116

       (3) The appointing authority may fill a vacancy by seeking 20117
nominations from a selection committee consisting of one county 20118
commissioner designated by the board of county commissioners, the 20119
chair of the board of county hospital trustees, and the county 20120
hospital administrator. If nominations for filling a vacancy are 20121
sought from a selection committee, the committee shall nominate at 20122
least three individuals for the vacancy. The appointing authority 20123
may fill the vacancy by appointing one of the nominated 20124
individuals or by appointing another individual selected by the 20125
appointing authority.20126

       (4) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 20127
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 20128
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 20129
that term.20130

       (G)(1) The board of county commissioners together with the 20131
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 20132
court of common pleas senior in point of service in any county in 20133
which a board of county hospital trustees has been appointed may 20134
expand the number of members to eight or to ten. When the number 20135
of members is increased to eight, one shall be appointed for a 20136
three-year and one for a six-year term from the first Monday of 20137
March thereafter. When the number of members is increased from six 20138
to ten, the term for additional members shall be: one for one 20139
year, one for three years, one for four years, and one for six 20140
years from the first Monday of March thereafter. When the number 20141
of members is increased from eight to ten, the term for additional 20142
members shall be: one for one year and one for four years from the 20143
first Monday of March thereafter. Thereafter except as provided in 20144
division (G)(2) of this section, upon the expiration of the term 20145
of office of each member, the vacancy shall be filled in the 20146
manner specified in division (F) of this section.20147

       (2) The board of county commissioners together with the 20148
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 20149
court of common pleas senior in point of service may reduce the 20150
number of members of a board of county hospital trustees to eight 20151
or to six. The reduction shall occur on expiration of a member's 20152
term of office, at which time no appointment shall be made. While 20153
the board of county commissioners and the judges are in the 20154
process of reducing the number of members, the board of county 20155
hospital trustees may consist of nine or seven members for one 20156
year.20157

       (H) Any member of a board of county hospital trustees may be 20158
removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of 20159
duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office. The member shall be 20160
informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for 20161
a hearing before the appointing authority. The appointing 20162
authority shall not remove a member from office for political 20163
reasons.20164

       (I) The board of county commissioners may provide members of 20165
a board of county hospital trustees shalla stipend for their 20166
service or require the members to serve without compensation, but. 20167
The members shall be allowed their necessary and reasonable 20168
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties, including 20169
the cost of their participation in any continuing education 20170
programs or developmental programs that the members consider 20171
necessary. Allowable stipends and expenses shall be paid out of 20172
the funds provided for the county hospital.20173

        (J) The persons selected to be members of a board of county 20174
hospital trustees shall forthwith be notified, by mail, of their 20175
appointment. When a board is initially appointed, the notice shall 20176
state a time, not more than ten days later, when such board shall 20177
meet at the county seat of such county to organize. On the date 20178
stated, the board shall meet and organize.20179

       (K) A board of county hospital trustees shall organize by 20180
electing one of its number as chairperson and such other officers 20181
as specified in the board's rules. Four members of a six-member 20182
board constitute a quorum, five members constitute a quorum of an 20183
eight-member board, and six members constitute a quorum of a 20184
ten-member board.20185

        A board of county hospital trustees shall hold meetings at 20186
least once a monthquarterly, shall adopt necessary rules of 20187
procedure, and shall keep a record of its proceedings and a strict 20188
account of all its receipts, disbursements, and expenditures. On 20189
completion of the construction and equipping of a county hospital, 20190
the board shall file such account with the board of county 20191
commissioners and make final settlement with the board of county 20192
commissioners for the construction and equipping of the hospital.20193

       Sec. 339.05. (A) A board of county hospital trustees may 20194
adopt, annually, bidding procedures and purchasing or leasing20195
policies for services provided through a joint purchasing 20196
arrangement sponsored by a nonprofit organization, and for 20197
services, supplies, and equipment, that are routinely used in the 20198
operation of the hospital and that cost in excess of the amount 20199
specified in section 307.86 of the Revised Code as the amount 20200
above which purchases must be competitively bid. If a board of 20201
county hospital trustees adopts those policies and procedures, and 20202
if the board of county commissioners approves them, the board of 20203
county hospital trustees may follow those policies and procedures 20204
in lieu of following the competitive bidding procedures of 20205
sections 307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.20206

       (B) Notwithstanding section 307.86 of the Revised Code, the 20207
board of county hospital trustees is exempt from competitive 20208
bidding as required under that section if the board, by a 20209
unanimous vote of its members, makes a determination that a real 20210
and present emergency exists, and either of the following applies:20211

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 20212
dollars.20213

       (2) There is actual physical damage to structures or 20214
equipment.20215

       The board shall enter the determination of emergency and the 20216
reasons for it in the minutes of its proceedings.20217

       For purposes of this section, a vote is unanimous if all 20218
members of a board of county hospital trustees are present, or a 20219
lesser number of members of the board if not all members are 20220
present, provided that the number of members present constitutes a 20221
quorum.20222

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 20223
exempted from competitive bidding because the estimated cost is 20224
less than one hundred thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is 20225
fifty thousand dollars or more, the board shall solicit informal 20226
estimates from not fewer than three persons who could perform the 20227
contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to each such 20228
contract, the board shall maintain a record of the informal 20229
estimates, including the name of each person from whom an informal 20230
estimate was solicited. The board shall maintain the record for 20231
the longer of at least one year after the contract is awarded or 20232
an amount of time required by the federal government.20233

       Sec. 339.06.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees, upon 20234
completion of construction or leasing and equipping of a county 20235
hospital, shall assume and continue the operation of the hospital. 20236

       (B) The board of county hospital trustees shall have the 20237
entire management and control of the county hospital. The board 20238
may in writing delegate its management and control of the county 20239
hospital to the administrator of the county hospital employed 20240
under section 339.07 of the Revised Code. The board shall 20241
establish such rules for the hospital's government, management, 20242
control, and the admission of persons as are expedient.20243

        (C) The board of county hospital trustees has control of the 20244
property of the county hospital, including management and disposal 20245
of surplus property other than real estate or an interest in real 20246
estate.20247

       (D) With respect to the use of funds by the board of county 20248
hospital trustees and its accounting for the use of funds, all of 20249
the following apply:20250

       (1) The board of county hospital trustees has control of all 20251
funds used in the county hospital's operation, including moneys 20252
received from the operation of the hospital, moneys appropriated 20253
for its operation by the board of county commissioners, and moneys 20254
resulting from special levies submitted by the board of county 20255
commissioners as provided for in section 5705.22 of the Revised 20256
Code. 20257

       (2) Of the funds used in the county hospital's operation, all 20258
or part of any amount determined not to be necessary to meet 20259
current demands on the hospital may be invested by the board of 20260
county hospital trustees or its designee in any classifications of 20261
securities and obligations eligible for deposit or investment of 20262
county moneys pursuant to section 135.35 of the Revised Code, 20263
subject to the approval of the board's written investment policy 20264
by the county investment advisory committee established pursuant 20265
to section 135.341 of the Revised Code.20266

       (3) Annually, not later than sixty days before the end of the 20267
fiscal year used by the county hospital, the board of county 20268
hospital trustees shall submit its proposed budget for the ensuing 20269
fiscal year to the board of county commissioners for that board's 20270
review. The board of county commissioners shall review and approve 20271
the proposed budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 20272
the budget applies. If the board of county commissioners has not 20273
approved the budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 20274
the budget applies, the budget is deemed to have been approved by 20275
the board on the first day of that fiscal year.20276

       (4) The board of county hospital trustees shall not expend 20277
funds received from taxes collected pursuant to any tax levied 20278
under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code or the amount 20279
appropriated to the county hospital by the board of county 20280
commissioners in the annual appropriation measure for the county 20281
until its budget for the applicable fiscal year is approved in 20282
accordance with division (C)(3) of this section. At any time the 20283
amount received from those sources differs from the amount shown 20284
in the approved budget, the board of county commissioners may 20285
require the board of county hospital trustees to revise the county 20286
hospital budget accordingly. 20287

       (5) Funds under the control of the board of county hospital 20288
trustees may be disbursed by the board, consistent with the 20289
approved budget, for the uses and purposes of the county hospital; 20290
for the replacement of necessary equipment; for the acquisition, 20291
leasing, or construction of permanent improvements to county 20292
hospital property; or for making a donation authorized by division 20293
(E) of this section. Each disbursement of funds shall be made on a 20294
voucher signed by signatories designated and approved by the board 20295
of county hospital trustees.20296

       (6) The head of a board of county hospital trustees is not 20297
required to file an estimate of contemplated revenue and 20298
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year under section 5705.28 of 20299
the Revised Code unless the board of county commissioners levies a 20300
tax for the county hospital, or such a tax is proposed, or the 20301
board of county hospital trustees desires that the board of county 20302
commissioners make an appropriation to the county hospital for the 20303
ensuing fiscal year.20304

       (7) All moneys appropriated by the board of county 20305
commissioners or from special levies by the board of county 20306
commissioners for the operation of the hospital, when collected 20307
shall be paid to the board of county hospital trustees on a 20308
warrant of the county auditor and approved by the board of county 20309
commissioners. 20310

       (8) The board of county hospital trustees shall provide for 20311
the conduct of an annual financial audit of the county hospital. 20312
Not later than thirty days after it receives the final report of 20313
an annual financial audit, the board shall file a copy of the 20314
report with the board of county commissioners.20315

       (E) For the public purpose of improving the health, safety, 20316
and general welfare of the community, the board of county hospital 20317
trustees may donate to a nonprofit entity any of the following:20318

       (1) Moneys and other financial assets determined not to be 20319
necessary to meet current demands on the hospital;20320

       (2) Surplus hospital property, including supplies, equipment, 20321
office facilities, and other property that is not real estate or 20322
an interest in real estate;20323

       (3) Services rendered by the hospital.20324

       (F)(1) For purposes of division (F)(2) of this section:20325

       (a) "Bank" has the same meaning as in section 1101.01 of the 20326
Revised Code.20327

       (b) "Savings and loan association" has the same meaning as in 20328
section 1151.01 of the Revised Code.20329

       (c) "Savings bank" has the same meaning as in section 1161.01 20330
of the Revised Code.20331

       (2) The board of county hospital trustees may enter into a 20332
contract for a secured line of credit with a bank, savings and 20333
loan association, or savings bank if the contract meets all of the 20334
following requirements:20335

       (a) The term of the contract does not exceed one year, except 20336
that the contract may provide for the automatic renewal of the 20337
contract for up to four additional one-year periods if, on the 20338
date of automatic renewal, the aggregate outstanding draws 20339
remaining unpaid under the secured line of credit do not exceed 20340
fifty per cent of the maximum amount that can be drawn under the 20341
secured line of credit.20342

       (b) The contract provides that the bank, savings and loan 20343
association, or savings bank shall not commence a civil action 20344
against the board of county commissioners, any member of the 20345
board, or the county to recover the principal, interest, or any 20346
charges or other amounts that remain outstanding on the secured 20347
line of credit at the time of any default by the board of county 20348
hospital trustees.20349

       (c) The contract provides that no assets other than those of 20350
the county hospital can be used to secure the line of credit.20351

       (d) The terms and conditions of the contract comply with all 20352
state and federal statutes and rules governing the extension of a 20353
secured line of credit.20354

       (3) Any obligation incurred by a board of county hospital 20355
trustees under division (F)(2) of this section is an obligation of 20356
that board only and not a general obligation of the board of 20357
county commissioners or the county within the meaning of division 20358
(Q) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.20359

       (4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the Revised 20360
Code, the board of county hospital trustees may secure the line of 20361
credit authorized under division (F)(2) of this section by the 20362
grant of a security interest in any part or all of its tangible 20363
personal property and intangible personal property, including its 20364
deposit accounts, accounts receivable, or both.20365

       (5) No board of county hospital trustees shall at any time 20366
have more than one secured line of credit under division (F)(2) of 20367
this section.20368

       (G) The board of county hospital trustees shall establish a 20369
schedule of charges for all services and treatment rendered by the 20370
county hospital. It may provide for the free treatment in the 20371
hospital of soldiers, sailors, and marines of the county, under 20372
such conditions and rules as it prescribes.20373

       (H) The board of county hospital trustees may designate the 20374
amounts and forms of insurance protection to be provided, and the 20375
board of county commissioners shall assist in obtaining such 20376
protection. The expense of providing the protection shall be paid 20377
from hospital operating funds.20378

       (I) The board of county hospital trustees may authorize a 20379
county hospital and each of its units, hospital board members, 20380
designated hospital employees, and medical staff members to be a 20381
member of and maintain membership in any local, state, or national 20382
group or association organized and operated for the promotion of 20383
the public health and welfare or advancement of the efficiency of 20384
hospital administration and in connection therewith to use tax 20385
funds for the payment of dues and fees and related expenses but 20386
nothing in this section prohibits the board from using receipts 20387
from hospital operation, other than tax funds, for the payment of 20388
such dues and fees.20389

       (J) The following apply to the board of county hospital 20390
trustees in relation to its employees and the employees of the 20391
county hospital:20392

       (1) The board shall adopt the wage and salary schedule for 20393
employees.20394

       (2) The board may employ the hospital's administrator 20395
pursuant to section 339.07 of the Revised Code, and the 20396
administrator may employ individuals for the hospital in 20397
accordance with that section.20398

       (3) The board may employ assistants as necessary to perform 20399
its clerical work, superintend properly the construction of the 20400
county hospital, and pay the hospital's expenses. Such employees 20401
may be paid from funds provided for the county hospital.20402

       (4) The board may hire, by contract or as salaried employees, 20403
such management consultants, accountants, attorneys, engineers, 20404
architects, construction managers, and other professional advisors 20405
as it determines are necessary and desirable to assist in the 20406
management of the programs and operation of the county hospital. 20407
Such professional advisors may be paid from county hospital 20408
operating funds.20409

       (5) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 20410
board may grant to employees any fringe benefits the board 20411
determines to be customary and usual in the nonprofit hospital 20412
field in its community, including, but not limited to:20413

       (a) Additional vacation leave with full pay for full-time 20414
employees, including full-time hourly rate employees, after 20415
service of one year;20416

       (b) Vacation leave and holiday pay for part-time employees on 20417
a pro rata basis;20418

       (c) Leave with full pay due to death in the employee's 20419
immediate family, which shall not be deducted from the employee's 20420
accumulated sick leave;20421

       (d) Premium pay for working on holidays listed in section 20422
325.19 of the Revised Code;20423

       (e) Moving expenses for new employees;20424

       (f) Discounts on hospital supplies and services.20425

       (6) The board may provide holiday leave by observing Martin 20426
Luther King day, Washington-Lincoln day, Columbus day, and 20427
Veterans' day on days other than those specified in section 1.14 20428
of the Revised Code.20429

       (7) The board may grant to employees the insurance benefits 20430
authorized by section 339.16 of the Revised Code.20431

       (8) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 20432
board may grant to employees, including hourly rate employees, 20433
such personal holidays as the board determines to be customary and 20434
usual in the hospital field in its community.20435

       (9) The board may provide employee recognition awards and 20436
hold employee recognition dinners.20437

       (10) The board may grant to employees the recruitment and 20438
retention benefits specified under division (K) of this section.20439

       (K) Notwithstanding sections 325.191 and 325.20 of the 20440
Revised Code, the board of county hospital trustees may provide, 20441
without the prior authorization of the board of county 20442
commissioners, scholarships for education in the health care 20443
professions, tuition reimbursement, and other staff development 20444
programs to enhance the skills of health care professionals for 20445
the purpose of recruiting or retaining qualified employees.20446

       The board of county hospital trustees may pay reasonable 20447
expenses for recruiting or retaining physicians and other 20448
appropriate health care practitioners.20449

       (L) The board of county hospital trustees may retain counsel 20450
and institute legal action in its own name for the collection of 20451
delinquent accounts. The board may also employ any other lawful 20452
means for the collection of delinquent accounts.20453

       Sec. 339.07.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees shall 20454
provide for the administration of the county hospital by directly 20455
employing a hospital administrator or by entering into a contract 20456
for the management of the hospital under which an administrator is 20457
provided. When an administrator is employed directly, the board 20458
shall adopt a job description delineating the administrator's 20459
powers and duties and the board may pay the administrator's salary 20460
and other benefits from funds provided for the hospital. 20461

       (B) During the construction and equipping of the hospital, 20462
the administrator shall act in an advisory capacity to the board 20463
of county hospital trustees. After the hospital is completed, the 20464
administrator shall serve as the chief executive officer and shall 20465
carry out the administration of the county hospital according to 20466
the policies set forth by the board and any written delegation.20467

       The administrator shall administer the county hospital, make 20468
reports, and take any other action that the administrator 20469
determines is necessary for the operation of the hospital.20470

       At the end of each fiscal year, the administrator shall 20471
submit to the board a complete financial statement showing the 20472
receipts, revenues, and expenditures in detail for the entire 20473
fiscal year.20474

       The administrator shall ensure that the hospital has such 20475
physicians, nurses, and other employees as are necessary for the 20476
proper care, control, and management of the county hospital and 20477
its patients. The physicians, nurses, and other employees may be 20478
suspended or removed by the administrator at any time the welfare 20479
of the hospital warrants suspension or removal. The administrator 20480
may obtain physicians, nurses, and other employees by direct 20481
employment, entering into contracts, or granting authority to 20482
practice in the hospital. Persons employed directly shall be in 20483
the unclassified civil service, pursuant to section 124.11 of the 20484
Revised Code.20485

       Sec. 340.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "addiction," 20486
"addiction services," "alcohol and drug addiction services," and20487
"community addiction services provider," "community mental health 20488
services provider," "alcohol and drug addiction programsgambling 20489
addiction services," "mental health services," and "mental 20490
illness" have the same meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of 20491
the Revised Code.20492

       (B) An alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 20493
district shall be established in any county or combination of 20494
counties having a population of at least fifty thousand to provide 20495
alcohol and drug addiction services and mental health services. 20496
With the approval of the directorsdirector of mental health and 20497
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 20498
services, any county or combination of counties having a 20499
population of less than fifty thousand may establish such a 20500
district. Districts comprising more than one county shall be known 20501
as joint-county districts.20502

       The board of county commissioners of any county participating 20503
in a joint-county district may submit a resolution requesting 20504
withdrawal from the district together with a comprehensive plan or 20505
plans that are in compliance with rules adopted by the director of 20506
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 20507
5119.61section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by 20508
the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under 20509
section 3793.05 of the Revised Code, and that provide for the 20510
equitable adjustment and division of all services, assets, 20511
property, debts, and obligations, if any, of the joint-county 20512
district to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20513
health services, to the boards of county commissioners of each 20514
county in the district, and to the directors. No county 20515
participating in a joint-county service district may withdraw from 20516
the district without the consent of the directorsdirector of 20517
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 20518
health and addiction services nor earlier than one year after the 20519
submission of such resolution unless all of the participating 20520
counties agree to an earlier withdrawal. Any county withdrawing 20521
from a joint-county district shall continue to have levied against 20522
its tax list and duplicate any tax levied by the district during 20523
the period in which the county was a member of the district until 20524
such time as the levy expires or is renewed or replaced.20525

       Sec. 340.011.  (A) This chapter shall be interpreted to 20526
accomplish all of the following:20527

       (1) Establish a unified system of treatment for mentally ill 20528
persons and persons with addictions;20529

       (2) Establish a community support system available for every 20530
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;20531

       (3) Protect the personal liberty of mentally ill persons so 20532
that they may be treated in the least restrictive environment;20533

       (4) Encourage the development of high quality, cost 20534
effective, and comprehensive services, including culturally 20535
sensitive services;20536

       (5) Foster the development of comprehensive community mental 20537
health services, based on recognized local needs, especially for 20538
severely mentally disabled children, adolescents, and adults;20539

       (6) Ensure that services provided meet minimum standards 20540
established by the director of mental health or the department of 20541
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 20542
services;20543

       (7) Promote the delivery of high quality and cost-effective 20544
alcohol and drug addiction and mental health services;20545

       (8) Promote the participation of consumers ofpersons 20546
receiving mental health services and alcohol and drug addiction 20547
services in the planning, delivery, and evaluation of these 20548
services.20549

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 340., 3793., 5119., or 5122. of the 20550
Revised Code shall be construed as requiring a board of county 20551
commissioners to provide resources beyond the total amount set 20552
forth in a communitybudget and statement of services to be 20553
provided by the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health plan20554
services board, as developed and submitted under section 340.0320555
340.08 of the Revised Code, to provide the services listed in 20556
section 340.09 of the Revised Code, and nothing in those chapters 20557
shall be construed as requiring a board of county commissioners to 20558
provide resources beyond the total amount set forth in a plan for 20559
alcohol and drug addiction services, prepared and submitted in 20560
accordance with sections 340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code, 20561
to provide alcohol and drug addiction services.20562

       Sec. 340.02. As used in this section, "mental health 20563
professional" means a person who is qualified to work with 20564
mentally ill persons, pursuant to standards established by the 20565
director of mental health under section 5119.611 of the Revised 20566
Code.20567

       (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20568
service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, 20569
drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen 20570
members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not 20571
later than January 1, 2014, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, 20572
and mental health services shall notify the department of mental 20573
health and addiction services of its election to continue to 20574
operate as an eighteen-member board or to transition to operation 20575
as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure 20576
to provide notice of its election to the department on or before 20577
January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to 20578
operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides 20579
timely notice of its election to transition to operate as a 20580
fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline 20581
from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms 20582
expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the 20583
requirements set forth in this section for fourteen-member boards. 20584
NineFor all boards, half of the members shall be interested in 20585
mental health programs and facilitiesservices and nine other20586
half of the members shall be interested in alcohol or, drug, or 20587
gambling addiction programsservices. All members shall be 20588
residents of the service district. The membership shall, as nearly 20589
as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the 20590
service district as to race and sex.20591

       The(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the20592
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services20593
shall appoint foureight members of the board, the director of 20594
alcohol and drug addiction services shall appoint four members,20595
and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. 20596
For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of 20597
mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of 20598
the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint 20599
eight members. In a joint-county district, the county 20600
commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members 20601
in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's 20602
population bears to the total population of the district, except 20603
that at least one member shall be appointed from each 20604
participating county.20605

       (C) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 20606
services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a 20607
psychiatrist and one member of the board is a mental health 20608
professional. If the appointment of a psychiatrist is not 20609
possible, as determined under rules adopted by the director, a 20610
licensed physician may be appointed in place of the psychiatrist. 20611
If the appointment of a licensed physician is not possible, the 20612
director of mental health may waive the requirement that the 20613
psychiatrist or licensed physician be a resident of the service 20614
district and appoint a psychiatrist or licensed physician from a 20615
contiguous county. The director of mental health shall ensure that20616
clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health 20617
services, at least one member of the board is a person who has 20618
received or is receiving mental health services paid for by public 20619
funds and, at least one member of the board is a parent or other 20620
relative of such a person.20621

       The director of alcohol and drug addiction services shall 20622
ensure that at least one member of the board is a professional in 20623
the field of alcohol or drug addiction services and one member of 20624
the board is an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 20625
alcohol or drug addiction. Of the members appointed by the 20626
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, at least one 20627
member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery 20628
of addiction services, at least one shall bemember of the board 20629
is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol 20630
or drug addiction services paid for by public funds, and at least 20631
one shall bemember of the board is a parent or other relative of 20632
such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may 20633
fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the 20634
delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience 20635
in the delivery of addiction services.20636

       (D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 20637
addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of 20638
the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of alcohol, 20639
drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a 20640
contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of 20641
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 20642
shall be an employee of any agencyprovider with which the board 20643
has entered into a contract for the provision of services or 20644
facilities, unless the board member's employment duties with the 20645
agency consist of providing, only outside the district the board 20646
serves, services for which the medicaid program pays. No person 20647
shall be an employee of a board and such an agencya provider20648
unless the board and agencyprovider both agree in writing.20649

       (E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of 20650
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, 20651
child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, 20652
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 20653
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 20654
member of the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of 20655
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered 20656
into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No 20657
person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose 20658
spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, 20659
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 20660
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 20661
county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug 20662
addiction, and mental health service district.20663

       (F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one 20664
inservice training session provided or approved by the department 20665
of mental health or the department of alcohol and drug addiction 20666
servicesmental health and addiction services. Such training 20667
sessions shall not be considered to be regularly scheduled 20668
meetings of the board.20669

       Each(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each20670
member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the 20671
first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments 20672
to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to 20673
expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of 20674
initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and 20675
one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four 20676
years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member 20677
shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first 20678
day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a 20679
newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded 20680
boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments 20681
shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments 20682
shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than 20683
two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing 20684
authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under 20685
the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less 20686
than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year 20687
terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is 20688
eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one 20689
year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.20690

       When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or 20691
unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original 20692
appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by 20693
certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within 20694
sixty days following that notice.20695

       Any member of the board may be removed from office by the 20696
appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or 20697
malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing 20698
authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as 20699
a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the 20700
charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the 20701
absence of a member within one year from either four board 20702
meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the 20703
board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the 20704
appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's 20705
term.20706

       Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but 20707
shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in 20708
the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of 20709
the departmentsdepartment of mental health and alcohol and drug 20710
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.20711

       Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20712
health service district comprised of a county with a population of 20713
two hundred fifty thousand or more on October 10, 1989, the board 20714
of county commissioners shall, within thirty days of October 10, 20715
1989, establish an alcohol and drug addiction services board as 20716
the entity responsible for providing alcohol and drug addiction 20717
services in the county, unless, prior to that date, the board 20718
adopts a resolution providing that the entity responsible for 20719
providing the services is a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 20720
mental health services. Ifwhere the board of county commissioners 20721
establisheshas established an alcohol and drug addiction services 20722
board, the community mental health board established under former 20723
section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity 20724
responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A 20725
community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and 20726
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20727
health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol 20728
and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and 20729
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20730
health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction 20731
services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board 20732
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard 20733
to mental health services also refers to a community mental health 20734
board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug 20735
addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and 20736
drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug 20737
addiction services board.20738

       An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of 20739
eighteen members or fourteen members, six of whomat the election 20740
of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and 20741
drug addiction services board shall notify the department of 20742
mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as 20743
an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. 20744
The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its 20745
election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall 20746
constitute an election to continue to operate as an 20747
eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice 20748
of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number 20749
of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by 20750
attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the 20751
composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth 20752
in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of 20753
the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating 20754
as eighteen-member boards, eight members shall be appointed by the 20755
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 20756
addiction services and twelve of whomten members shall be 20757
appointed by the board of county commissioners. Of the members 20758
appointed by theThe director, one shall beof mental health and 20759
addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the 20760
board is a person who has received or is receiving services for 20761
alcohol or, drug, or gambling addiction, at least one shall be20762
member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one 20763
shall bemember is a professional in the field of alcohol or drug20764
clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, 20765
and one shall be an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 20766
alcohol or drug addiction. The membership of the board shall, as 20767
nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of 20768
the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be 20769
residents of the service district and shall be interested in 20770
alcohol and, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements 20771
for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and 20772
business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as 20773
those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20774
health services.20775

        A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen 20776
members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not 20777
later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board 20778
shall notify the department of mental health and addiction 20779
services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or 20780
to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be 20781
final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department 20782
on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to 20783
continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing 20784
board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a 20785
fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline 20786
from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms 20787
expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the 20788
requirements set forth in this section and in applicable 20789
provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for 20790
fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member 20791
boards, six of whomeight members shall be appointed by the 20792
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services and 20793
twelve of whomten members shall be appointed by the board of 20794
county commissioners. Of the members appointed by theThe20795
director, one shall beof mental health and addiction services 20796
shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who 20797
has received or is receiving mental health services, at least one 20798
shall bemember is a parent or relative of such a person, and at 20799
least one shall bemember is a psychiatrist or a physician, and 20800
one shall be aclinician with experience in the delivery of20801
mental health professionalservices. The membership of the board 20802
as nearly as possible shall reflect the composition of the 20803
population of the service district as to race and sex. Members 20804
shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested 20805
in mental health services. Requirements for membership, including 20806
prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, 20807
and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of 20808
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.20809

       (B) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 20810
(A) of this section did not adopt a resolution providing for a 20811
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 20812
board of county commissioners may establish such a board in 20813
accordance with the following procedures:20814

       (1) Not later than January 1, 2007, the board of county 20815
commissioners shall adopt a resolution expressing its intent to 20816
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20817
services.20818

       (2) After adopting a resolution under division (B)(1) of this 20819
section, the board of county commissioners shall instruct the 20820
county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug 20821
addiction services board to prepare a report on the feasibility, 20822
process, and proposed plan to establish a board of alcohol, drug 20823
addiction, and mental health services. The board of county 20824
commissioners shall specify the date by which the report must be 20825
submitted to the board for its review.20826

       (3) After reviewing the report prepared under division (B)(2) 20827
of this section, the board may adopt a final resolution 20828
establishing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20829
services. A final resolution establishing such a board shall be 20830
adopted not later than July 1, 2007.20831

       (C)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 20832
(A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for 20833
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 20834
did not establish such a board under division (B) of this section20835
on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may 20836
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20837
services on or after the effective date of this amendment. To 20838
establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt 20839
a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The 20840
composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, 20841
and all other matters related to the board and its members are 20842
subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following 20843
exceptions:20844

       (a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's 20845
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 20846
services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for 20847
reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of 20848
county commissioners, director of mental health, and the director 20849
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 20850
services.20851

       (b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing 20852
authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the 20853
members jointly recommended under division (C)(B)(1)(a) of this 20854
section.20855

       (2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20856
services is established pursuant to division (C)(B)(1) of this 20857
section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, 20858
powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community 20859
mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. 20860
When the board is established, all property and obligations of the 20861
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 20862
services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug 20863
addiction, and mental health services.20864

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 20865
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 20866
consultation with relevant constituencies as required by division 20867
(L)(A)(10) of section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code, with 20868
regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 20869
addiction, and mental health services shall:20870

       (1) Serve as the community addiction and mental health 20871
services planning agency for the county or counties under its 20872
jurisdiction, and in so doing it shall:20873

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community addiction 20874
and mental health services;20875

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 20876
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 20877
community addiction and mental health needs, evaluate strengths 20878
and challenges, and set priorities, and develop plans for the 20879
operation of facilities and community addiction and mental health 20880
services, including treatment and prevention. When the board sets 20881
priorities for the operation of addiction services, the board 20882
shall consult with the county commissioners of the counties in the 20883
board's service district regarding the services described in 20884
section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall give priority to 20885
those services, except that those services shall not have a 20886
priority over services provided to pregnant women under programs 20887
developed in relation to the mandate established in section 20888
5119.17 of the Revised Code;20889

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 20890
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 20891
consultation with board representatives, annually develop and 20892
submit to the department of mental healthmental health and 20893
addiction services a community addiction and mental health 20894
services plan listing community addiction and mental health 20895
services needs, including the needs of all residents of the 20896
district now residing in state mental institutions and severely 20897
mentally disabled adults, children, and adolescents;currently 20898
receiving inpatient services in state-operated hospitals, the 20899
needs of other populations as required by state or federal law or 20900
programs, the needs of all children subject to a determination 20901
made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code;, and all the20902
priorities for facilities and community addiction and mental 20903
health services that are or will be in operation or provided20904
during the period for which the plan will be in operation in the 20905
service district to meet such needseffect.20906

       In alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 20907
districts that have separate alcohol and drug addiction services 20908
and community mental health boards, the alcohol and drug addiction 20909
services board shall submit a community addiction services plan 20910
and the community mental health board shall submit a community 20911
mental health services plan. Each board shall consult with its 20912
counterpart in developing its plan and address the interaction 20913
between the local addiction services and mental health services 20914
systems and populations with regard to needs and priorities in 20915
developing its plan.20916

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 20917
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 20918
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 20919
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 20920
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 20921
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 20922
and community-based services the board proposes that the 20923
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 20924
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 20925
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 20926
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 20927
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 20928
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code. The department's 20929
statement of approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient 20930
and the community-based services that the department will operate 20931
for the board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 20932
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 20933

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 20934
an allocation request that has been approved under this division 20935
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 20936
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 20937
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 20938
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 20939
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 20940
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 20941
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 20942
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 20943
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 20944
criteria.20945

       The board shall implementoperate in accordance with the plan 20946
approved by the department.20947

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 20948
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 20949
agencies.20950

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 20951
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 20952
services from a community addiction or mental health agency as 20953
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Codeservices provider 20954
certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code or alleging 20955
abuse or neglect of a personresident receiving addiction services 20956
or with mental illness or severe mental disability residing in a 20957
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 20958
Revised Code. If the investigation substantiates the charge of 20959
abuse or neglect, the board shall take whatever action it 20960
determines is necessary to correct the situation, including 20961
notification of the appropriate authorities. Upon request, the 20962
board shall provide information about such investigations to the 20963
department.20964

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.6115119.36 of the 20965
Revised Code, cooperate with the director of mental healthmental 20966
health and addiction services in visiting and evaluating whether 20967
the services of a community addiction or mental health agency20968
services provider satisfy the certification standards established 20969
by rules adopted under that section;20970

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 20971
(E) of section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code, conduct 20972
program audits that review and evaluate the quality, 20973
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through its 20974
community addiction and mental health plancontracted services and 20975
submit its findings and recommendations to the department of 20976
mental healthmental health and addiction services;20977

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 20978
Code, review an application for a residential facility license and 20979
provide to the department of mental healthmental health and 20980
addiction services any information about the applicant or facility 20981
that the board would like the department to consider in reviewing 20982
the application;20983

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 20984
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 20985
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 20986
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 20987
services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report 20988
shall be provided to the director of mental healthmental health 20989
and addiction services, the auditor of state, and the county 20990
auditor of each county in the board's district.20991

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for addiction 20992
and mental health programsservices from private and public 20993
sources;20994

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 20995
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 20996
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 20997
public and private community addiction and mental health agencies20998
service providers for the provision of community addiction and20999
mental health services that are listed in section 340.09 of the 21000
Revised Code and included in the board's community mental health 21001
plan. The board may not contract with a residential facility 21002
subject to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code unless the facility 21003
is licensed by the director of mental health and addiction 21004
services and may not contract with a community addiction or mental 21005
health agencyservices provider to provide community addiction or21006
mental health services included in the board's community mental 21007
health plan unless the services are certified by the director of 21008
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 21009
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 21010
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 21011
division. In contracting with a community addiction or mental 21012
health agencyservices provider, a board shall consider the cost 21013
effectiveness of services provided by that agencyprovider and 21014
the quality and continuity of care, and may review cost elements, 21015
including salary costs, of the services to be provided. A 21016
utilization review process shallmay be established as part of the 21017
contract for services entered into between a board and a community 21018
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. The board 21019
may establish this process in a way that is most effective and 21020
efficient in meeting local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract 21021
with a community mental health agency or facility, as defined in 21022
section 5111.023 of the Revised Code, to provide services listed 21023
in division (B) of that section shall provide for the agency or 21024
facility to be paid in accordance with the contract entered into 21025
between the departments of job and family services and mental 21026
health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules 21027
adopted under division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.21028

       If either the board or a facility or community addiction or21029
mental health agencyservices provider with which the board 21030
contracts under this division (A)(8)(a) of this section proposes 21031
not to renew the contract or proposes substantial changes in 21032
contract terms, the other party shall be given written notice at 21033
least one hundred twenty days before the expiration date of the 21034
contract. During the first sixty days of this one hundred 21035
twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to resolve any 21036
dispute through good faith collaboration and negotiation in order 21037
to continue to provide services to persons in need. If the dispute 21038
has not been resolved sixty days before the expiration date of the 21039
contract, either party may notify the department of mental health21040
mental health and addiction services of the unresolved dispute. 21041
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 21042
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 21043
facility or community mental health agencyprovider. The third 21044
party shall issue to the board, the facility or agencyprovider, 21045
and the department recommendations on how the dispute may be 21046
resolved twenty days prior to the expiration date of the contract, 21047
unless both parties agree to a time extension. The director shall 21048
adopt rules establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution 21049
process.21050

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health21051
mental health and addiction services, a board may operate a 21052
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21053
as follows, if there is no other qualified private or public 21054
facility or community addiction or mental health agencyservices 21055
provider that is immediately available and willing to operate such 21056
a facility or provide the service:21057

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 21058
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21059
in order to provide essential services for the duration of the 21060
emergency;21061

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 21062
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 21063
operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental 21064
health service for no longer than one year;21065

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 21066
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 21067
community addiction or mental health service for no longer than 21068
one year, except that such a board may operate a facility or 21069
provide a community addiction or mental health service for more 21070
than one year with the prior approval of the director and the 21071
prior approval of the board of county commissioners, or of a 21072
majority of the boards of county commissioners if the district is 21073
a joint-county district.21074

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 21075
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21076
under division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 21077
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 21078
operate the facility or provide the service.21079

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 21080
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21081
under division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 21082
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 21083
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 21084
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 21085
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider.21086

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 21087
facility previously operated by a person or other government 21088
entity unless the board has established to the director's 21089
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 21090
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 21091
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 21092
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 21093
provide a community addiction or mental health service previously 21094
provided by a community addiction or mental health agencyservices 21095
provider unless the board has established to the director's 21096
satisfaction that the agencyprovider cannot effectively provide 21097
the service or that the agencyprovider has requested the board 21098
take over providing the service.21099

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 21100
a facility and provision of community addiction or mental health 21101
service under division (A)(8)(b) of this section.21102

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 21103
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 21104
or community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider, 21105
but a facility or agencyprovider may contract with a board to 21106
receive administrative services or staff direction from the board 21107
under the direction of the governing body of the facility or 21108
agencyprovider.21109

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 21110
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 21111
provided by community addiction or mental health agenciesservices 21112
providers in accordance with guidelines issued by the department 21113
as necessary to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to 21114
financial assistance;21115

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 21116
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 21117
the public, an annual report of the programsservices under the 21118
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;21119

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 21120
community support systemcontinuum of care, which provides for 21121
prevention, treatment, support, and rehabilitation services and 21122
opportunities. The essential elements of the systemcontinuum21123
include, but are not limited to, the following components in 21124
accordance with section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code:21125

       (a) To locate persons in need of addiction or mental health 21126
services to inform them of available services and benefits 21127
mechanisms;21128

       (b) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 21129
obtain services necessary to meet basic human needs for food, 21130
clothing, shelter, medical care, personal safety, and income;21131

       (c) MentalAddiction and mental health careservices, 21132
including, but not limited to, outpatient, residential, partial 21133
hospitalization, and, where appropriate, inpatient care;21134

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;21135

       (e) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 21136
obtain vocational services and opportunities for jobs;21137

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 21138
community, and personal living skills;21139

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 21140
residential treatment and support;21141

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 21142
families, friends, consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or21143
mental health services, and others;21144

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 21145
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 21146
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 21147
meaningfulcommunity employment as natural supports for consumers 21148
ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health services;21149

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 21150
consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health 21151
services;21152

       (k) Case managementCommunity psychiatric supportive 21153
treatment services, which includes continual individualized 21154
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 21155
and procured.21156

       (12) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 21157
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 21158
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 21159
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 21160
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 21161
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 21162
appropriate, if any;21163

       (13) Designate the treatment programservices, agency21164
provider, or facility, or other placement for each person 21165
involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to Chapter 5122. of 21166
the Revised Code and authorize payment for such treatment. The 21167
board shall provide the least restrictive and most appropriate 21168
alternative that is available for any person involuntarily 21169
committed to it and shall assure that the listed services listed 21170
insubmitted and approved in accordance with division (B) of21171
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to 21172
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 21173
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 21174
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 21175
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 21176
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 21177
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency21178
services provider is available to provide the service.21179

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 21180
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 21181
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 21182
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 21183
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 21184
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 21185
appropriate, if any;21186

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 21187
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 21188
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider have been 21189
approved as meeting minimum fire safety standards and that persons 21190
residing in the rooms or apartments are receiving appropriate and 21191
necessary services, including culturally relevant services, from a 21192
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. 21193
This division does not apply to residential facilities licensed 21194
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code.21195

       (15) Establish a mechanism for obtaining advice and21196
involvement of consumer recommendation and advicepersons 21197
receiving publicly funded addiction or mental health services on 21198
matters pertaining to addiction and mental health services in the 21199
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;21200

       (16) Perform the duties required by rules adopted under 21201
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code regarding referrals by 21202
the board or mental health agenciesservices providers under 21203
contract with the board of individuals with mental illness or 21204
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 21205
division (A)(9)(b)(iii) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 21206
Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services 21207
for the individuals. The board is accountable in the manner 21208
specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health 21209
services are effectively arranged for the individuals.21210

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 21211
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 21212
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 21213
chapter.21214

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 21215
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 21216
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 21217
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 21218
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 21219
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 21220
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 21221
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21222
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 21223
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 21224
grantor.21225

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 21226
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 21227
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 21228
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 21229
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 21230
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 21231
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 21232
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 21233
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 21234
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 21235
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 21236
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 21237
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 21238
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 21239
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 21240
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 21241
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 21242
conduct was unlawful.21243

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 21244
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 21245
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 21246
121.22 of the Revised Code.21247

       Sec. 340.031.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21248
health services may:21249

       (A) Inspect any residential facility licensed under section 21250
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and located in its district, 21251
pursuant to a contract with the department of mental health;21252

       (B) Acquire, convey, lease, or enter into a contract to 21253
purchase, lease, or sell property for community addiction and21254
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction services and related 21255
purposes, and enter into loan agreements, including mortgages, for 21256
the acquisition of such property.21257

       Sec. 340.032.  The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21258
mental health services shall employ a qualified mental health or 21259
alcohol or drug addiction services professional with experience in 21260
administration or a professional administrator with experience in 21261
mental health or alcohol or drug addiction services to serve as 21262
executive director of the board and shall prescribe the director's 21263
duties.21264

       The board shall fix the compensation of the executive 21265
director. In addition to such compensation, the director shall be 21266
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 21267
performance of histhe director's official duties. The board, by 21268
majority vote of the full membership, may remove the director for 21269
cause, upon written charges, after an opportunity has been 21270
afforded himthe director for a hearing before the board on 21271
request.21272

       The board may delegate to its executive director the 21273
authority to act in its behalf in the performance of its 21274
administrative duties.21275

       As used in this section, "mental health professional" and 21276
"addiction services professional" mean an individual who is 21277
qualified to work with mentally ill persons or persons receiving 21278
addiction services, pursuant to standards established by the 21279
director of mental health and addiction services under Chapter 21280
5119. of the Revised Code.21281

       Sec. 340.04.  In addition to such other duties as may be 21282
lawfully imposed, the executive director of a board of alcohol, 21283
drug addiction, and mental health services shall:21284

       (A) Serve as executive officer of the board and subject to 21285
the prior approval of the board for each contract, execute 21286
contracts on its behalf;21287

       (B) Supervise services and facilities provided, operated, 21288
contracted, or supported by the board to the extent of determining 21289
that programsservices and facilities are being administered in 21290
conformity with this chapter and rules of the director of mental 21291
health and the department of alcohol and drug addiction services21292
mental health and addiction services;21293

       (C) Provide consultation to agencies, associations, or 21294
individualsaddiction and mental health services providers21295
providing services supported by the board;21296

       (D) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to increase 21297
the effectiveness of addiction and mental health services and 21298
alcohol and drug addiction services and other matters necessary or 21299
desirable to carry out this chapter;21300

       (E) Employ and remove from office such employees and 21301
consultants in the classified civil service and, subject to the 21302
approval of the board, employ and remove from office such other 21303
employees and consultants as may be necessary for the work of the 21304
board, and fix their compensation and reimbursement within the 21305
limits set by the salary schedule and the budget approved by the 21306
board;21307

       (F) Encourage the development and expansion of preventive, 21308
treatment, rehabilitative, and consultative programsservices in 21309
the field of addiction and mental health services with emphasis on 21310
continuity of care;21311

       (G) Prepare for board approval an annual report of the 21312
programsservices and facilities under the jurisdiction of the 21313
board, including a fiscal accounting of all services;21314

       (H) Conduct such studies as may be necessary and practicable 21315
for the promotion of mental health, promotion of addiction 21316
services, and the prevention of mental illness, emotional 21317
disorders, and addiction to alcohol and drugs;21318

       (I) Authorize the county auditor, or in a joint-county 21319
district the county auditor designated as the auditor for the 21320
district, to issue warrants for the payment of board obligations 21321
approved by the board, provided that all payments are in 21322
accordance with the comprehensive community mental health plan21323
budget submitted pursuant to section 340.08 of the Revised Code, 21324
as approved by the department of mental health, or with the 21325
alcohol and drug addiction services plan as approved by the 21326
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 21327
and addiction services.21328

       Sec. 340.05.  A community addiction or mental health agency21329
services provider that receives a complaint alleging abuse or 21330
neglect of an individual with mental illness or severe mental 21331
disability, or an individual receiving addiction services, who 21332
resides in a residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 21333
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code shall report the 21334
complaint to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21335
health services serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21336
health service district in which the residential facility is 21337
located. A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 21338
services that receives such a complaint or a report from a 21339
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider of 21340
such a complaint shall report the complaint to the director of 21341
mental healthmental health and addiction services for the 21342
purpose of the director conducting an investigation under section 21343
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board may enter the 21344
facility with or without the director and, if the health and 21345
safety of a resident is in immediate danger, take any necessary 21346
action to protect the resident. The board's action shall not 21347
violate any resident's rights specified in rules adopted by the 21348
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services21349
under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board shall 21350
immediately report to the director regarding the board's actions 21351
under this section.21352

       Sec. 340.07.  The board of county commissioners of any county 21353
participating in an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 21354
service district or joint-county district, upon receipt from the 21355
board of alcohol, drug addition, and mental health services of a 21356
resolution so requesting, may appropriate money to such board for 21357
the operation, lease, acquisition, construction, renovation, and 21358
maintenance of addiction or mental health services, programs,21359
providers and facilities for mentally ill and emotionally 21360
disturbed persons in accordance with the comprehensive community 21361
addiction and mental health plan or for alcohol and drug addiction 21362
programs in accordance with the alcohol and drug addiction 21363
services planservices budget approved by the department of mental 21364
health and addiction services pursuant to section 340.08 of the 21365
Revised Code.21366

       Sec. 340.08.  In accordance with rules or guidelines issued 21367
by the director of mental health and addiction services, each 21368
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall 21369
do all of the following:21370

       (A) Submit to the department a report of receipts and 21371
expenditures for all federal, state, and local moneys the board 21372
expects to receive;21373

       (1) The report shall identify funds the board and public 21374
children services agencies in the board's service district have 21375
available to fund jointly the services described in section 340.15 21376
of the Revised Code.21377

       (2) The board's proposed budget for expenditures of state and 21378
federal funds distributed to the board by the department shall be 21379
deemed an application for funds, and the department shall approve 21380
or disapprove the budget for these expenditures. The department 21381
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 21382
budget for the expenditure of state and federal funds and of the 21383
criteria that must be met before the budget may be approved. The 21384
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 21385
case on behalf of the submitted budget. The director shall give 21386
the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and 21387
shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 21388
criteria.21389

        If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a budget 21390
that has been approved under this section, the board shall submit 21391
a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or 21392
disapprove all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform 21393
the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of the 21394
amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the 21395
amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an 21396
opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The 21397
director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet 21398
the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to 21399
help it meet the criteria.21400

       (3) The director of mental health and addiction services, in 21401
whole or in part, may withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to 21402
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 21403
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code if the board's use of 21404
state and federal funds fails to comply with the approved budget, 21405
as it may be amended with the approval of the department.21406

       (B) Submit to the department a statement identifying the 21407
services described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code the board 21408
intends to make available. The board shall include crisis 21409
intervention services for individuals in emergency situations and 21410
services required pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code, 21411
and the board shall explain the manner in which the board intends 21412
to make such services available. The list of services shall be 21413
compatible with the budget submitted pursuant to division (A) of 21414
this section. The department shall approve or disapprove the 21415
proposed listing of services to be made available. The department 21416
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 21417
listing of proposed services and of the criteria that must be met 21418
before listing of proposed services may be approved. The director 21419
shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on 21420
behalf of the submitted listing of proposed services. The director 21421
shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the 21422
criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it 21423
meet the criteria.21424

       (C) Enter into a continuity of care agreement with the state 21425
institution operated by the department of mental health and 21426
addiction services and designated as the institution serving the 21427
district encompassing the board's service district. The continuity 21428
of care agreement shall outline the department's and the board's 21429
responsibilities to plan for and coordinate with each other to 21430
address the needs of board residents who are patients in the 21431
institution, with an emphasis on managing appropriate hospital bed 21432
day use and discharge planning.21433

       (D) In conjunction with the department of mental health and 21434
addiction services, operate a coordinated system for tracking and 21435
monitoring persons found not guilty by reason of insanity and 21436
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code who have 21437
been granted a conditional release and persons found incompetent 21438
to stand trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the 21439
Revised Code who have been granted a conditional release. The 21440
system shall do all of the following:21441

       (1) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 21442
persons;21443

       (2) Provide for uniformity in monitoring those persons;21444

       (3) Provide a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 21445
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 21446
conditional release or decompensation occurs.21447

       (E) Submit to the department a report summarizing complaints 21448
and grievances received by the board concerning the rights of 21449
persons seeking or receiving services, investigations of 21450
complaints and grievances, and outcomes of the investigations.21451

       (F) Provide to the department information to be submitted to 21452
the community addiction and mental health information system or 21453
systems established by the department under Chapter 5119. of the 21454
Revised Code.21455

       (G) Annually, and upon any change in membership, submit to 21456
the department a list of all current members of the board of 21457
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including the 21458
appointing authority for each member, and the member's specific 21459
qualification for appointment pursuant to section 340.02 or 21460
340.021 of the Revised Code, if applicable.21461

       (H) Submit to the department other information as is 21462
reasonably required for purposes of the department's operations, 21463
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 21464
administration, and oversight.21465

       Sec. 340.09. (A) The department of mental healthmental 21466
health and addiction services shall provide assistance to any 21467
county for the operation of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21468
mental health services and, the provision of the following21469
services approved by the department within the continuum of care, 21470
and the provision of approved support functions from funds 21471
appropriated for that purpose by the general assembly:.21472

       (A) Outpatient;21473

       (B) Categories in the continuum of care may include all of 21474
the following:21475

       (1) Inpatient;21476

       (C) Partial hospitalization(2) Residential;21477

       (D) Rehabilitation(3) Outpatient treatment;21478

       (E)(4) Intensive and other supports;21479

       (5) Recovery support;21480

       (6) Prevention and wellness management.21481

       (C) Support functions may include all of the following:21482

       (1) Consultation;21483

       (F) Mental health education and other preventive services;21484

       (G) Emergency;21485

       (H) Crisis intervention;21486

       (I)(2) Research;21487

       (J)(3) Administrative;21488

       (K)(4) Referral and information;21489

       (L) Residential;21490

       (M)(5) Training;21491

       (N) Substance abuse;21492

       (O)(6) Service and program evaluation;21493

       (P) Community support system;21494

       (Q) Case management;21495

       (R) Residential housing;21496

       (S) Other services approved by the board and the director of 21497
mental health.21498

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21499
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 21500
health agencyservices provider under division (A)(7)(8)(a) of 21501
section 340.03 of the Revised Code for the agencyprovider to do 21502
all of the following in accordance with rules adopted under 21503
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code for an individual 21504
referred to the agencyprovider under division (D)(2) of section 21505
5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code:21506

       (A) Assess the individual and, if the agencyprovider21507
determines that the environment in which the individual will be 21508
living while receiving residential state supplement payments is 21509
appropriate for the individual's needs, issue a recommendation to 21510
the referring residential state supplement administrative agency 21511
that the referring agency should conclude that the living 21512
environment is appropriate when it makes its determination 21513
regarding the appropriateness of the environment;21514

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that listed services 21515
provided undersubmitted and approved under division (B) of21516
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to the 21517
individual;21518

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 21519
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.21520

       Sec. 340.10.  The county auditor or, in a joint-county 21521
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, the 21522
auditor of the county, the treasurer of which has been designated 21523
in the agreement between the counties of the district as custodian 21524
of the community addiction and mental health services funds and 21525
alcohol and drug addiction services funds, is hereby designated as 21526
the auditor and fiscal officer of an alcohol, drug addiction, and 21527
mental health service district or joint-county district. State 21528
funds allocated for the support of a service district shall be 21529
paid to the county treasurer or, in a joint-county district, to 21530
the treasurer of that county designated in the agreement as 21531
custodian of the community addiction and mental health services21532
funds and authorized to make payments from such funds on order of 21533
the county auditor and on recommendation of the board of alcohol, 21534
drug addiction, and mental health services, or the executive 21535
director of the board when authorized by the board. The auditor 21536
shall submit to the board a detailed monthly statement of all 21537
receipts, disbursements, and ending balances for the community 21538
addiction and mental health services funds.21539

       Sec. 340.11.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21540
health services may procure a policy or policies of insurance 21541
insuring board members or employees of the board or agencies21542
providers with which the board contracts against liability arising 21543
from the performance of their official duties. If the liability 21544
insurance is unavailable or the amount a board has procured or is 21545
able to procure is insufficient to cover the amount of a claim, 21546
the board may indemnify a board member or employee as follows:21547

       (A) For any action or inaction in the capacity of board 21548
member or employee or at the request of the board, whether or not 21549
the action or inaction is expressly authorized by this or any 21550
other section of the Revised Code, if both of the following apply:21551

       (1) The board member or employee acted in good faith and in a 21552
manner that the board member or employee reasonably believed was 21553
in or was not opposed to the best interests of the board; and21554

       (2) With respect to any criminal action or proceeding, the 21555
board member or employee had no reason to believe the board 21556
member's or employee's conduct was unlawful.21557

       (B) Against any expenses, including attorneys' fees, the 21558
board member or employee actually and reasonably incurs as a 21559
result of a suit or other proceeding involving the defense of any 21560
action or inaction in the capacity of board member or employee or 21561
at the request of the board, or in defense of any claim, issue, or 21562
matter raised in connection with the defense of such an action or 21563
inaction, to the extent that the board member or employee is 21564
successful on the merits or otherwise.21565

       Sec. 340.12.  No board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21566
health services or any agency, corporation, or association21567
addiction or mental health services provider under contract with 21568
such a board shall discriminate in the provision of services under 21569
its authority, in employment, or contract on the basis of race, 21570
color, religion, sex, creedage, ancestry, national origin,21571
disability, or national originsexual orientation, military 21572
status, or genetic information.21573

       Each board,and each community addiction or mental health 21574
agency, and each alcohol and drug addiction programservices 21575
provider shall have a written affirmative action program. The 21576
affirmative action program shall include goals for the employment 21577
and effective utilization of, including contracts with, members of 21578
economically disadvantaged groups as defined in division (E)(1) of 21579
section 122.71 of the Revised Code in percentages reflecting as 21580
nearly as possible the composition of the alcohol, drug addiction, 21581
and mental health service district served by the board. Each 21582
board, agency, and programprovider shall file a description of 21583
the affirmative action program and a progress report on its 21584
implementation with the department of mental health or the 21585
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 21586
and addiction services.21587

       Sec. 340.13.  (A) As used in this section, "minority:21588

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 21589
division (E)(1) of section 122.71 of the Revised Code.21590

       (2) "EDGE business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 21591
section 123.152 of the Revised Code.21592

       (B) Any minority business enterprise that desires to bid on a 21593
contract under division (C) or (D) of this section shall first 21594
apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator in the 21595
department of administrative services for certification as a 21596
minority business enterprise. Any EDGE business enterprise that 21597
desires to bid on a contract under division (D) of this section 21598
shall first apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator 21599
of the department of administrative services for certification as 21600
an EDGE business enterprise. The coordinator shall approve the 21601
application of any minority business enterprise or EDGE business 21602
enterprise that complies with the rules adopted under section 21603
122.71 or 123.152 of the Revised Code, respectively. The 21604
coordinator shall prepare and maintain a list of minority business 21605
enterprises and EDGE business enterprises certified under this 21606
sectionthose sections.21607

       (C) From the contracts to be awarded for the purchases of 21608
equipment, materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts 21609
entered into under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised Code, 21610
each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 21611
shall select a number of contracts with an aggregate value of 21612
approximately fifteen per cent of the total estimated value of 21613
contracts to be awarded in the current fiscal year. The board 21614
shall set aside the contracts so selected for bidding by minority 21615
business enterprises only. The bidding procedures for such 21616
contracts shall be the same as for all other contracts awarded 21617
under section 307.86 of the Revised Code, except that only 21618
minority business enterprises certified and listed underpursuant 21619
to division (B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.21620

       (D) To the extent that a board is authorized to enter into 21621
contracts for construction, the board shall set aside a number of 21622
contractsstrive to attain a yearly contract dollar procurement 21623
goal the aggregate value of which equals approximately five per 21624
cent of the aggregate value of construction contracts for the 21625
current fiscal year for bidding by minorityEDGE business 21626
enterprises only. The bidding procedures for the contracts set 21627
aside for minority business enterprises shall be the same as for 21628
all other contracts awarded by the board, except that only 21629
minority business enterprises certified and listed under division 21630
(B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.21631

       (E)(1) In the case of contracts set aside under divisions21632
division (C) and (D) of this section, if no bid is submitted by a 21633
minority business enterprise, the contract shall be awarded 21634
according to normal bidding procedures. The board shall from time 21635
to time set aside such additional contracts as are necessary to 21636
replace those contracts previously set aside on which no minority 21637
business enterprise bid.21638

       (2) If a board, after having made a good faith effort, is 21639
unable to comply with the goal of procurement for contracting with 21640
EDGE business enterprises pursuant to division (D) of this 21641
section, the board may apply in writing, on a form prescribed by 21642
the department of administrative services, to the director of 21643
mental health and addiction services for a waiver or modification 21644
of the goal.21645

       (F) This section does not preclude any minority business 21646
enterprise or EDGE business enterprise from bidding on any other 21647
contract not specifically set aside for minority business 21648
enterprises or subject to procurement goals for EDGE business 21649
enterprises.21650

       (G) Within ninety days after the beginning of each fiscal 21651
year, each board shall file a report with the department of mental 21652
healthmental health and addiction services that shows for that 21653
fiscal year the name of each minority business enterprise and EDGE 21654
business enterprise with which the board entered into a contract, 21655
the value and type of each such contract, the total value of 21656
contracts awarded under divisions (C) and (D) of this section, the 21657
total value of contracts awarded for the purchases of equipment, 21658
materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts entered 21659
into under section 340.03 of the Revised Code, and the total value 21660
of contracts entered into for construction.21661

       (H) Any person who intentionally misrepresents himselfself21662
as owning, controlling, operating, or participating in a minority 21663
business enterprise or an EDGE business enterprise for the purpose 21664
of obtaining contracts or any other benefits under this section 21665
shall be guilty of theft by deception as provided for in section 21666
2913.02 of the Revised Code.21667

       Sec. 340.15.  (A) A public children services agency that 21668
identifies a child by a risk assessment conducted pursuant to 21669
section 5153.16 of the Revised Code as being at imminent risk of 21670
being abused or neglected because of an addiction of a parent, 21671
guardian, or custodian of the child to a drug of abuse or alcohol 21672
shall refer the child's addicted parent, guardian, or custodian 21673
and, if the agency determines that the child needs alcohol or 21674
other drug addiction services, the child to an alcohol and druga 21675
community addiction programservices provider certified by the 21676
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 21677
and addiction services under section 3793.065119.36 of the 21678
Revised Code. A public children services agency that is sent a 21679
court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 21680
of the Revised Code shall refer the addicted parent or other 21681
caregiver of the child identified in the court order to an alcohol 21682
and druga community addiction programservices provider21683
certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services21684
mental health and addiction services under section 3793.065119.3621685
of the Revised Code. On receipt of a referral under this division 21686
and to the extent funding identified under division (A)(1) of 21687
section 340.033340.08 of the Revised Code is available, the 21688
programprovider shall provide the following services to the 21689
addicted parent, guardian, custodian, or caregiver and child in 21690
need of alcohol or other drugaddiction services:21691

       (1) If it is determined pursuant to an initial screening to 21692
be needed, assessment and appropriate treatment; 21693

       (2) Documentation of progress in accordance with a treatment 21694
plan developed for the addicted parent, guardian, custodian, 21695
caregiver, or child;21696

       (3) If the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant 21697
to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code and the 21698
order requires the specified parent or other caregiver of the 21699
child to submit to alcohol or other drug testing during, after, or 21700
both during and after, treatment, testing in accordance with the 21701
court order.21702

       (B) The services described in division (A) of this section 21703
shall have a priority as provided in the alcohol and drug21704
addiction and mental health services plan and budget established 21705
pursuant to section 340.033sections 340.03 and 340.08 of the 21706
Revised Code. Once a referral has been received pursuant to this 21707
section, the public children services agency and the alcohol or 21708
drug addiction programservices provider shall, in accordance with 21709
42 C.F.R. Part 2, share with each other any information concerning 21710
the persons and services described in that division that the 21711
agency and programprovider determine are necessary to share. If 21712
the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant to division 21713
(B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code, the results and 21714
recommendations of the alcohol and drug addiction program21715
services provider also shall be provided and used as described in 21716
division (D) of that section. Information obtained or maintained 21717
by the agency or programprovider pursuant to this section that 21718
could enable the identification of any person described in 21719
division (A) of this section is not a public record subject to 21720
inspection or copying under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.21721

       Sec. 340.16. Not later than ninety days after September 5, 21722
2001, theThe department of mental healthmental health and 21723
addiction services and the department of job and family services21724
medicaid shall adopt rules that establish requirements and 21725
procedures for prior notification and service coordination between 21726
public children services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug 21727
addiction, and mental health services when a public children 21728
services agency refers a child in its custody to a board for 21729
services funded by the board. The rules shall be adopted in 21730
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.21731

       The department of mental health and department of job and 21732
family services shall collaborate in formulating a plan that 21733
delineates the funding responsibilities of public children 21734
services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21735
mental health services for services provided under section 21736
5111.023 of the Revised Code to children in the custody of public 21737
children services agencies. The departments shall complete the 21738
plan not later than ninety days after September 5, 2001.21739

       Sec. 341.192. (A) As used in this section:21740

        (1) "Jail" means a county jail, or a multicounty, 21741
municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal correctional center.21742

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 21743
section 2913.40 of the Revised Code.21744

       (3) "Medical provider" means a physician, hospital, 21745
laboratory, pharmacy, or other health care provider that is not 21746
employed by or under contract to a county, municipal corporation, 21747
township, the department of youth services, or the department of 21748
rehabilitation and correction to provide medical services to 21749
persons confined in a jail or state correctional institution, or 21750
is in the custody of a law enforcement officer.21751

       (4)(3) "Necessary care" means medical care of a nonelective 21752
nature that cannot be postponed until after the period of 21753
confinement of a person who is confined in a jail or state 21754
correctional institution, or is in the custody of a law 21755
enforcement officer without endangering the life or health of the 21756
person.21757

        (B) If a physician employed by or under contract to a county, 21758
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 21759
or the department of rehabilitation and correction to provide 21760
medical services to persons confined in a jail or state 21761
correctional institution determines that a person who is confined 21762
in the jail or state correctional institution or who is in the 21763
custody of a law enforcement officer prior to the person's 21764
confinement in a jail or state correctional institution requires 21765
necessary care that the physician cannot provide, the necessary 21766
care shall be provided by a medical provider. The county, 21767
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 21768
or the department of rehabilitation and correction shall pay a 21769
medical provider for necessary care an amount not exceeding the 21770
authorized reimbursement rate for the same service established by 21771
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under the 21772
medical assistancemedicaid program.21773

       Sec. 351.021.  (A) The resolution of the county commissioners 21774
creating a convention facilities authority, or any amendment or 21775
supplement to that resolution, may authorize the authority to levy 21776
one or both of the excise taxes authorized by division (B) of this 21777
section to pay the cost of one or more facilities; to pay 21778
principal, interest, and premium on convention facilities 21779
authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those costs; to pay 21780
the operating costs of the authority; to pay operating and 21781
maintenance costs of those facilities; and to pay the costs of 21782
administering the excise tax.21783

       (B) The board of directors of a convention facilities 21784
authority that has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, 21785
amended, or supplemented by the board of county commissioners 21786
pursuant to division (A) of this section may levy, by resolution 21787
adopted on or before December 31, 1988, either or both of the 21788
following:21789

       (1) Within the territory of the authority, an additional 21790
excise tax not to exceed four per cent on each transaction. The 21791
excise tax authorized by division (B)(1) of this section shall be 21792
in addition to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 21793
or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(2) of this 21794
section.21795

       (2) Within that portion of any municipal corporation that is 21796
located within the territory of the authority or within the 21797
boundaries of any township that is located within the territory of 21798
the authority, which municipal corporation or township is levying 21799
any portion of the excise tax authorized by division (A) of 21800
section 5739.08 of the Revised Code, and with the approval, by 21801
ordinance or resolution, of the legislative authority of that 21802
municipal corporation or township, an additional excise tax not to 21803
exceed nine-tenths of one per cent on each transaction. The excise 21804
tax authorized by division (B)(2) of this section may be levied 21805
only if, on the effective date of the levy specified in the 21806
resolution making the levy, the amount being levied pursuant to 21807
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code by each 21808
municipal corporation or township in which the tax authorized by 21809
division (B)(2) of this section will be levied, when added to the 21810
amount levied under division (B)(2) of this section, does not 21811
exceed three per cent on each transaction. The excise tax 21812
authorized by division (B)(2) of this section shall be in addition 21813
to any excise tax that is levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 21814
5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(1) of this section.21815

       (C)(1) The board of directors of a convention facilities 21816
authority that is located in an eligible Appalachian county; that 21817
has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, amended, or 21818
supplemented by the board of county commissioners pursuant to 21819
division (A) of this section; and that is not levying a tax under 21820
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section may levy within the 21821
territory of the authority, by resolution adopted on or before 21822
December 31, 2005, an additional excise tax not to exceed three 21823
per cent on each transaction. The excise tax authorized under 21824
division (C)(1) of this section shall be in addition to any excise 21825
tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 5739.09 of the Revised 21826
Code.21827

        As used in division (C)(1) of this section, "eligible 21828
Appalachian county" means a county in this state designated as 21829
being in the "Appalachian region" under the "Appalachian Regional 21830
Development Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 4, 40 U.S.C. App. 403, and 21831
having a population less than eighty thousand according to the 21832
most recent federal decennial census.21833

       (2) Division (B)(C)(2) of this section applies only to a 21834
convention facilities authority located in a county with a 21835
population, according to the 2000 federal decennial census, of at 21836
least one hundred thirty-five thousand and not more than one 21837
hundred fifty thousand and containing entirely within its 21838
boundaries the territory of a municipal corporation with a 21839
population according to that census of more than fifty thousand. 21840
The board of directors of such a convention facilities authority, 21841
by resolution adopted on or before November 1, 2009, may levy 21842
within the territory of the authority an excise tax on 21843
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 21844
to transient guests at a rate not to exceed three per cent on such 21845
transactions for the same purposes for which a tax may be levied 21846
under division (B) of this section. The resolution may be adopted 21847
only if the board of county commissioners of the county, by 21848
resolution, authorizes the levy of the tax. The resolution of the 21849
board of county commissioners is subject to referendum as 21850
prescribed by sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised Code. If, 21851
pursuant to those procedures, a referendum is to be held, the 21852
board's resolution does not take effect until approved by a 21853
majority of electors voting on the question. The convention 21854
facilities authority may adopt the resolution authorized by 21855
division (C)(2) of this section before the election, but the 21856
authority's resolution shall not take effect if the board of 21857
commissioners' resolution is not approved at the election. A tax 21858
levied under division (C)(2) of this section is in addition to any 21859
tax levied under section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.21860

       (D) The authority shall provide for the administration and 21861
allocation of an excise tax levied pursuant to division (B) or (C) 21862
of this section. All receipts arising from those excise taxes 21863
shall be expended for the purposes provided in, and in accordance 21864
with this section and section 351.141 of the Revised Code. An 21865
excise tax levied under division (B) or (C) of this section shall 21866
remain in effect at the rate at which it is levied for at least 21867
the duration of the period for which the receipts from the tax 21868
have been anticipated and pledged pursuant to section 351.141 of 21869
the Revised Code.21870

       (E) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 21871
the levy of an excise tax on each transaction pursuant to sections 21872
5739.08 and 5739.09 of the Revised Code does not prevent a 21873
convention facilities authority from levying an excise tax 21874
pursuant to division (B) or (C) of this section.21875

       (F) A convention facilities authority located in a county 21876
with a population greater than eighty thousand but less than 21877
ninety thousand according to the 2010 federal decennial census 21878
that levies a tax under division (B) of this section may amend the 21879
resolution levying the tax to allocate a portion of the revenue 21880
from the tax for support of tourism-related sites or facilities 21881
and programs operated by the county or a municipal corporation 21882
within the county in which the authority is located or for the 21883
purpose of leasing lands for county fairs, erecting buildings for 21884
county fair purposes, making improvements on a county fairground, 21885
or for any purpose connected with the use of a county fairground 21886
or with the management thereof by the county in which the 21887
authority is located. The revenue allocated by the authority for 21888
such purposes in a calendar year shall not exceed fifteen per cent 21889
of the total revenue from the tax in the preceding calendar year.21890

       Sec. 353.01.  For purposes of this chapter:21891

       (A) "Lake facilities authority" means a body corporate and 21892
politic created pursuant to section 353.02 of the Revised Code.21893

       (B) "Watershed" means a watershed as determined by the United 21894
States geological survey.21895

       (C) "Impacted watershed" means a watershed meeting both of 21896
the following conditions:21897

       (1) The watershed contains a natural or man-made lake of at 21898
least one-half square mile that has experienced levels of 21899
microcystin toxins in excess of eighty parts-per-billion, as 21900
measured by the Ohio environmental protection agency, during the 21901
twenty-four month period immediately preceding the date the last 21902
resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 21903
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.21904

       (2) The watershed is partially or completely located within a 21905
state park, as defined in section 154.01 of the Revised Code, that 21906
has averaged at least four hundred thousand visitors per year for 21907
the four calendar years preceding the calendar year in which the 21908
last resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 21909
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.21910

       (D) "Impacted lake district" means the territory of all 21911
townships and municipal corporations having territory in an 21912
impacted watershed.21913

       (E) "Cost" as applied to a lake facilities authority facility 21914
means the cost of acquisition or construction of the facility; the 21915
cost of acquisition of all land, rights-of-way, property rights, 21916
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for such 21917
acquisition; the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 21918
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 21919
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved; the 21920
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 21921
of the lake facilities authority; the cost of diverting highways, 21922
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 21923
including the cost of land or easements for the access roads, the 21924
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 21925
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 21926
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during any 21927
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 21928
of any construction; engineering; expenses of research and 21929
development with respect to an impacted lake district; legal 21930
expenses; expenses of developing or obtaining plans, 21931
specifications, engineering surveys, studies, and estimates of 21932
cost and revenues; expenses necessary or incident to determining 21933
the feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 21934
facility or remediating the impacted lake district; administrative 21935
expense; and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident 21936
to the acquisition or construction of the facility, the 21937
remediation of the impacted lake district and other activities 21938
authorized by this chapter, the financing of such acquisition, 21939
construction or remediation, including the amount authorized in 21940
the resolution of the lake facilities authority providing for the 21941
issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds to be paid 21942
into any special funds from the proceeds of such bonds and the 21943
financing of the placing of the facility in operation, the cost of 21944
issuing the bonds, and the financing of remediation and other 21945
purposes authorized by this chapter.21946

       (F) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 21947
by the lake facilities authority with respect to an impacted 21948
watershed; any gift or grant received with respect to any impacted 21949
watershed; money received in repayment of, and for interest on, 21950
any loans made by the authority to a person or governmental 21951
agency, whether from the United States or any department, 21952
administration, or agency thereof, or otherwise; proceeds of lake 21953
facilities authority revenue bonds to the extent the use thereof 21954
for payment of principal or of premium, if any, or interest on the 21955
bonds is authorized by the authority; proceeds from any insurance, 21956
appropriation, or guaranty pertaining to an impacted watershed or 21957
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 21958
of any activities authorized under this chapter; income and profit 21959
from the investment of the proceeds of lake facilities authority 21960
revenue bonds or of any revenues; and contributions of service 21961
payments in lieu of taxes generated pursuant to section 5709.40, 21962
5709.41, 5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code, and all other 21963
nontax revenues paid or payable to the lake facilities authority.21964

       (G) "Lake facilities revenue bonds," unless the context 21965
indicates a different meaning or intent, includes revenue notes, 21966
revenue renewal notes, and revenue refunding bonds.21967

       (H) "Authorized purpose" means activities that remediate, 21968
rehabilitate, enhance, foster, aid, improve, provide, or promote 21969
an impacted watershed within the jurisdiction of the lake 21970
facilities authority, including, without limitation, research and 21971
development efforts related thereto.21972

       (I) "Lake facilities authority facility" or "facility" means 21973
real or personal property, or any combination thereof owned, 21974
leased, or otherwise controlled or financed by a lake facilities 21975
authority and directly related to an authorized purpose.21976

       Sec. 353.02.  A lake facilities authority may be created by 21977
the board of county commissioners of a county that contains all of 21978
the territory of an impacted watershed. If the territory of an 21979
impacted watershed is contained within more than one county, a 21980
joint facilities lake authority may be created by resolution of 21981
the board of commissioners of each county in which the impacted 21982
watershed is located. A resolution creating a lake facilities 21983
authority must include a finding that the watershed sought to be 21984
improved or remediated pursuant to this chapter is an impacted 21985
watershed.21986

       A lake facilities authority created pursuant to this section 21987
is a body corporate and politic which may sue and be sued, plead 21988
and be impleaded, and has the powers and jurisdiction enumerated 21989
in this chapter. The exercise by an authority of the powers 21990
conferred upon it shall be deemed to be essential governmental 21991
functions of this state.21992

       Within sixty days after the creation of a lake facilities 21993
authority, the county engineer of each county with territory in 21994
the impacted watershed shall prepare a survey denoting the 21995
boundaries of the impacted watershed in the county. The survey 21996
shall include references to the county auditor's permanent parcel 21997
number designations as those parcel number designations correspond 21998
to the boundaries of the impacted watershed. If requested by the 21999
county engineer of each county with territory in the impacted 22000
watershed, the cost of such surveys shall be paid from the funds 22001
of the lake facilities authority pursuant to an agreement between 22002
the lake facilities authority and the county engineer of each 22003
county. Such funds may be advanced by the board of county 22004
commissioners of any county with territory in the impacted 22005
watershed. 22006

       The county auditor of the county with the greatest amount of 22007
territory in the impacted watershed shall be the fiscal officer 22008
for the lake facilities authority. The county prosecutor of the 22009
county with the greatest amount of territory in the impacted 22010
watershed shall be the legal advisor of the lake facilities 22011
authority and shall prosecute and defend all suits and actions 22012
that the lake facilities authority directs or to which it is a 22013
party. 22014

       Upon the creation of a lake facilities authority, no 22015
authority that is granted by law any powers or duties that are 22016
substantially the same as the powers and duties of a lake 22017
facilities authority may be created if its territorial 22018
jurisdiction includes any territory within the impacted lake 22019
district.22020

       Sec. 353.03.  A lake facilities authority may do all of the 22021
following:22022

       (A) Acquire by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise, on such 22023
terms and in such manner as it considers proper, real and personal 22024
property necessary for an authorized purpose or any estate, 22025
interest, or right therein, within or without the impacted lake 22026
district;22027

       (B) Improve, remediate, maintain, sell, lease, or otherwise 22028
dispose of real and personal property on such terms and in such 22029
manner as it considers proper;22030

       (C) Adopt, modify, and enforce reasonable rules and 22031
regulations governing impacted watersheds;22032

       (D) Employ such managers, administrative officers, agents, 22033
engineers, architects, attorneys, contractors, subcontractors, and 22034
employees as may be appropriate in the exercise of the rights, 22035
powers, and duties conferred on it, prescribe the duties and 22036
compensation for such persons, require bonds to be given by any 22037
such persons and by officers of the authority for the faithful 22038
performance of their duties, and fix the amount and surety 22039
therefor, and pay the surety;22040

       (E) Sue and be sued in its corporate name;22041

       (F)(1) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements and 22042
execute all instruments relating to the provisions of this 22043
chapter;22044

       (2) Except as provided otherwise under divisions (F)(2) and 22045
(3) of this section, when the cost of a contract for the 22046
construction of any building, structure, or other improvement 22047
undertaken by a lake facilities authority involves an expenditure 22048
exceeding twenty-five thousand dollars, and the lake facilities 22049
authority is the contracting authority, the lake facilities 22050
authority shall make a written contract after notice calling for 22051
bids for the award of the contract has been given by publication 22052
twice, with at least seven days between publications, in a 22053
newspaper of general circulation in the impacted lake district. 22054
Each such contract shall be awarded to the lowest responsive and 22055
responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised 22056
Code. The board of directors by rule may provide criteria for the 22057
negotiation and award without competitive bidding of any contract 22058
as to which the lake facilities authority is the contracting 22059
authority for the construction of any building or structure or 22060
other improvement under any of the following circumstances:22061

       (a) There exists a real and present emergency that threatens 22062
damage to property or injury to persons of the lake facilities 22063
authority or other persons, provided that a statement specifying 22064
the nature of the emergency that is the basis for the negotiation 22065
and award of a contract without competitive bidding shall be 22066
signed at the time of the contract's execution by the officer of 22067
the lake facilities authority that executes the contract and shall 22068
be attached to the contract.22069

       (b) A commonly recognized industry or other standard or 22070
specification does not exist and cannot objectively be articulated 22071
for the improvement.22072

       (c) The contract is for any energy conservation measure as 22073
defined in section 307.041 of the Revised Code.22074

       (d) With respect to material to be incorporated into the 22075
improvement, only a single source or supplier exists for the 22076
material.22077

       (e) A single bid is received by the lake facilities authority 22078
after complying with the above provisions.22079

       (3) In addition to the exceptions to competitive bidding 22080
requirements under division (F)(2) of this section, a lake 22081
facilities authority may contract for the acquisition or 22082
construction of any property for an authorized purpose and for the 22083
leasing, subleasing, sale, or other disposition of the property in 22084
a manner determined by the lake facilities authority in its sole 22085
discretion, without necessity for competitive bidding or 22086
performance bonds. 22087

       (4) With respect to any public improvement undertaken by, or 22088
under contract for, the lake facilities authority, the authority 22089
may elect to apply sections 4115.03 to 4115.21 of the Revised 22090
Code.22091

       (G) Accept aid or contributions from any source of money, 22092
property, labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and 22093
applied only for the purposes for which the grants and 22094
contributions are made;22095

       (H) Apply for and accept grants, loans, or commitments of 22096
guarantee or insurance, including any guarantees of lake 22097
facilities authority bonds and notes, from the United States, the 22098
state, or other public body or other sources, and provide any 22099
consideration which may be required in order to obtain such 22100
grants, loans, or contracts of guarantee or insurance; 22101

       (I) Procure insurance against loss to the lake facilities 22102
authority by reason of damage to its properties resulting from 22103
fire, theft, accident, or other casualties, or by reason of its 22104
liability for any damages to persons or property occurring in the 22105
construction or operation of facilities or areas under its 22106
jurisdiction or the conduct of its activities;22107

       (J) Maintain such funds or reserves as it considers necessary 22108
for the efficient performance of its duties;22109

       (K) Enforce any covenants, of which the lake facilities 22110
authority is the beneficiary, running with the land.22111

       (L) Appropriate for its use, under sections 163.01 to 163.22 22112
of the Revised Code, any land, easement, rights, rights-of-way, 22113
franchises, or other property in the impacted watershed necessary 22114
for an authorized purpose;22115

       (M) Issue securities for the remediation of an impacted 22116
watershed and directly related permanent improvements in 22117
compliance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, except that such 22118
bonds or notes may be issued only pursuant to a vote of the 22119
electors residing within the impacted lake district. The net 22120
indebtedness incurred by a lake facilities authority pursuant to 22121
this division may not exceed one-tenth of one per cent of the 22122
total value of all property within the territory comprising the 22123
impacted lake district as listed and assessed for taxation.22124

       (N) Issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds beyond the 22125
limit of bonded indebtedness provided by law, payable solely from 22126
revenues as provided in section 353.09 of the Revised Code for the 22127
purpose of providing funds to pay costs of any facility or 22128
facilities or parts thereof;22129

       (O) Advise and provide input to political subdivisions within 22130
the impacted lake district with respect to zoning and land use 22131
planning within the impacted lake district;22132

       (P) Enter into agreements for the management, ownership, 22133
possession, or control of lands or property to be used for wetland 22134
mitigation banking.22135

       Sec. 353.04.  (A) Upon the creation of a lake facilities 22136
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code, a board of 22137
directors consisting of the county commissioners of each county 22138
with territory in the impacted lake district shall be created. 22139
Membership on the board is not a direct or indirect interest in a 22140
contract or expenditure of money by the county. Notwithstanding 22141
any provision of law to the contrary, no member of the board shall 22142
be disqualified from holding any public office or employment by 22143
reason of membership on the board. The board is a public body for 22144
the purposes of section 121.22 of the Revised Code and a public 22145
office for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 22146
Notwithstanding those sections, the board may hold closed meetings 22147
and protect the confidentiality of information under the same 22148
circumstances as authorized for a community improvement 22149
corporation under section 1724.11 of the Revised Code. Chapter 22150
2744. of the Revised Code applies to the board. Each year, the 22151
board shall prepare an annual report of its activities and make it 22152
available to the public.22153

       (B) A board of directors shall consult with the advisory 22154
council created under this division in performing the remediation 22155
and other activities authorized by this chapter. 22156

       Not later than sixty days after the creation of the board of 22157
directors, the board shall provide written notice of its creation 22158
to the legislative authority of each political subdivision with 22159
territory in the impacted lake district. The notice shall describe 22160
the process for the appointment of an advisory council. Upon 22161
receipt of such notice, the legislative authority of each 22162
political subdivision with territory in the impacted lake district 22163
shall appoint one representative each to serve on the advisory 22164
council. The representative need not be an elected or appointed 22165
official of the political subdivision. 22166

       Sec. 353.05. The board of directors of a lake facilities 22167
authority, by resolution, may propose the levy of a tax upon the 22168
taxable property in the impacted lake district pursuant to section 22169
5705.55 of the Revised Code.22170

       Sec. 353.06. As used in this section, "hotel" and "transient 22171
guests" have the same meanings as in section 5739.01 of the 22172
Revised Code.22173

        A resolution creating a lake facilities authority under 22174
section 353.02 of the Revised Code, or any amendments or 22175
supplements thereto, may authorize the authority to levy an excise 22176
tax on transactions by which lodging in a hotel is or is to be 22177
furnished to transient guests to pay any costs authorized under 22178
this chapter; to pay principal, interest, and premium on lake 22179
facilities authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those 22180
costs; to pay the operating costs of the authority; and to pay the 22181
costs of administering the tax.22182

       Upon the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the 22183
qualified electors in a primary or general election within the 22184
impacted lake district voting at an election held for the purpose 22185
of authorizing the tax, the board of directors of a lake 22186
facilities authority authorized to levy a tax under this section 22187
may, by resolution, levy an additional excise tax within the 22188
territory of the impacted lake district on all transactions by 22189
which lodging in a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 22190
guests. The rate of the tax, when added to the aggregate rate of 22191
excise taxes levied in the impacted lake district pursuant to 22192
section 351.021, 5739.08, or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, shall 22193
not cause the total aggregate rate to exceed five per cent on any 22194
such transaction.22195

       The lake facilities authority shall provide for the 22196
administration and allocation of a tax levied pursuant to this 22197
section. All receipts arising from the tax shall be expended for 22198
the purposes provided in, and in accordance with, this section. An 22199
excise tax levied under this section shall remain in effect at the 22200
rate at which it is levied for at least the duration of the period 22201
for which the receipts from the tax have been anticipated and 22202
pledged pursuant to section 353.08 of the Revised Code.22203

       The form of the ballot in an election held on the question of 22204
levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall be as 22205
follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of state:22206

       "An excise tax on all transactions by which lodging in a 22207
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests within the 22208
territory of the (name of impacted lake district) ........... for 22209
the purpose of .......... at a rate of ......... for ............ 22210
(number of years the tax is to be levied).22211

        22212

 For the Excise Tax 22213
 Against the Excise Tax  " 22214

       Sec. 353.07. The director of natural resources may transfer 22215
real property owned by the state to a lake facilities authority 22216
for the purpose of promoting wetland banking, wildlife, or 22217
sporting activities. The division of wildlife within the 22218
department of natural resources may enter into an agreement with a 22219
lake facilities authority to establish wetland or natural areas to 22220
benefit wildlife or sporting activities. The agreement may be 22221
entered as part of, or in conjunction with, a mitigation banking 22222
program.22223

       Sec. 353.08.  A lake facilities authority that levies a tax 22224
authorized by sections 353.05 and 5705.55 or section 353.06 of the 22225
Revised Code may, by resolution, anticipate the proceeds of the 22226
tax and issue lake facilities authority anticipation bonds, and 22227
notes anticipating the proceeds or the bonds, in the principal 22228
amount that, in the opinion of the authority, are necessary for 22229
the purpose of paying the cost of an authorized purpose, and that 22230
the authority is able to pay over the term of the issue with the 22231
interest on the bonds or notes, or in the case of notes 22232
anticipating bonds over the term of the bonds, by the estimated 22233
amount of the taxes anticipated. The taxes are determined by the 22234
general assembly to satisfy any applicable requirement of Section 22235
11 of Article XII, Ohio Constitution.22236

       Every issue of outstanding anticipation bonds shall be 22237
payable out of the proceeds of the taxes anticipated and other 22238
revenues of the authority that are pledged for such payment. The 22239
pledge shall be valid and binding from the time the pledge is 22240
made, and the anticipated excise taxes and revenues so pledged and 22241
thereafter received by the authority immediately shall be subject 22242
to the lien of that pledge without any physical delivery of those 22243
taxes and revenues or further act. The lien of any pledge is valid 22244
and binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in 22245
tort, contract, or otherwise against the authority, whether or not 22246
such parties have notice of the lien. Neither the resolution nor 22247
any trust agreement by which a pledge is created need be filed or 22248
recorded except in the authority's records.22249

       The anticipation bonds shall bear such date or dates, and 22250
shall mature at such time or times, in the case of any such notes 22251
or any renewals of such notes not exceeding twenty years from the 22252
date of issue of such original notes and in the case of any such 22253
bonds or any refunding bonds not exceeding forty years from the 22254
date of the original issue of notes or bonds for the purpose, and 22255
shall be executed in the manner that the resolution authorizing 22256
the bonds may provide. The anticipation bonds shall bear interest 22257
at such rates, or at a variable rate or rates changing from time 22258
to time, in accordance with provisions provided in the authorizing 22259
resolution, be in such denominations and form, either coupon or 22260
registered, carry such registration privileges, be payable in such 22261
medium of payment and at such place or places, and be subject to 22262
such terms of redemption, as the authority may authorize or 22263
provide.22264

       Sec. 353.09.  A lake facilities authority at any time may 22265
issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds in such principal 22266
amounts as, in the opinion of the lake facilities authority, are 22267
necessary for the purpose of paying the cost of one or more lake 22268
facilities authority facilities or parts thereof. A lake 22269
facilities authority at any time may issue renewal notes, issue 22270
bonds to retire its notes and, whenever it considers refunding 22271
expedient, refund any bonds by the issuance of lake facilities 22272
authority revenue refunding bonds, whether the bonds to be 22273
refunded have or have not matured, and issue lake facilities 22274
authority revenue bonds partly to refund outstanding bonds and 22275
partly for any other authorized purpose. The lake facilities 22276
authority revenue refunding bonds shall be sold and the proceeds 22277
applied to the purchase, redemption, or payment of the bonds to be 22278
refunded. Lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be special 22279
obligations of the lake facilities authority payable out of the 22280
revenues of the lake facilities authority that are pledged for 22281
such payment. The pledge shall be valid and binding from the time 22282
the pledge is made and the revenues so pledged and thereafter 22283
received by the lake facilities authority immediately shall be 22284
subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery 22285
thereof or further act, and the lien of the pledge is valid and 22286
binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in tort, 22287
contract, or otherwise against the lake facilities authority, 22288
irrespective of whether those parties have notice thereof. Neither 22289
the resolution nor any trust agreement by which a pledge is 22290
created need be filed or recorded except in the records of the 22291
lake facilities authority.22292

       Whether or not the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 22293
are of such form and character as to be negotiable instruments, 22294
the lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall have all the 22295
qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments, subject only to 22296
the provisions of the bonds for registration.22297

       The lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be 22298
authorized by resolution of the lake facilities authority, and 22299
shall bear interest at such rate or rates, shall bear such date or 22300
dates, and shall mature at such time or times, and in such number 22301
of installments as may be provided in or pursuant to that 22302
resolution. The final maturity of any lake facilities authority 22303
revenue bond in the form of a note and any renewals thereof shall 22304
not exceed five years from the date of issue of the original note. 22305
The final maturity of any issue of lake facilities authority 22306
revenue bonds shall not be later than forty-five years from the 22307
date of issue of the original issue of bonds. Any such bonds or 22308
notes shall be executed in a manner as the resolution or 22309
resolutions may provide. The lake facilities authority revenue 22310
bonds shall be in such denominations, be in such form, either 22311
coupon or registered, carry such registration privileges, be 22312
payable in such medium of payment, at such place or places, and be 22313
subject to such terms of redemption as may be provided in or 22314
pursuant to the resolution authorizing their issuance. Lake 22315
facilities authority revenue bonds of the lake facilities 22316
authority may be sold by the lake facilities authority, at public 22317
or private sale, at or at not less than a price or prices as the 22318
lake facilities authority determines. In case any officer whose 22319
signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears on any bonds, 22320
notes, or coupons, ceases to be such officer before delivery of 22321
bonds or notes, the signature or facsimile shall nevertheless be 22322
sufficient for all purposes the same as if the officer had 22323
remained in office until such delivery, and in case the seal of 22324
the lake facilities authority has been changed after a facsimile 22325
has been imprinted on such bonds or notes, the facsimile seal will 22326
continue to be sufficient for all purposes.22327

       Any resolution or resolutions authorizing any lake facilities 22328
authority revenue bonds or any issue of bonds may contain 22329
provisions, subject to any agreements with bondholders as may then 22330
exist, which provisions shall be a part of the contract with the 22331
holders of bonds, as to the pledging of all or any part of the 22332
revenues of the lake facilities authority to secure the payment of 22333
the lake facilities authority bonds or of any issue of the bonds; 22334
the use and disposition of revenues of the lake facilities 22335
authority; a covenant to fix, alter, and collect rentals and other 22336
charges so that pledged revenues will be sufficient to pay costs 22337
of operation, maintenance, and repairs, pay principal of and 22338
interest on bonds secured by the pledge of such revenues, and 22339
provide any reserves that may be required by the applicable 22340
resolution or trust agreement; the setting aside of reserve funds, 22341
sinking funds, or replacement and improvement funds and the 22342
regulation and disposition thereof; the crediting of the proceeds 22343
of the sale of bonds to and among the funds referred to or 22344
provided for in or pursuant to the resolution authorizing the 22345
issuance of the bonds or notes; the use, lease, sale, or other 22346
disposition of any lake facilities authority facility or any other 22347
assets of the lake facilities authority; limitations on the 22348
purpose to which the proceeds of sale of bonds may be applied and 22349
the pledging of those proceeds to secure the payment of the bonds 22350
or of any issue of the bonds; as to notes issued in anticipation 22351
of the issuance of bonds, the agreement of the lake facilities 22352
authority to do all things necessary for the authorization, 22353
issuance, and sale of the bonds in amounts that may be necessary 22354
for the timely retirement of the notes; limitations on the 22355
issuance of additional bonds; the terms upon which additional 22356
bonds may be issued and secured; the refunding of outstanding 22357
bonds; the procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract 22358
with bondholders may be amended or abrogated, the amount of bonds 22359
the holders of which must consent thereto, and the manner in which 22360
such consent may be given; limitations on the amount of moneys to 22361
be expended by the lake facilities authority for operating, 22362
administrative, or other expenses of the lake facilities 22363
authority; securing any bonds or notes by a trust agreement; and 22364
any other matters, of like or different character, that in any way 22365
affect the security or protection of the bonds or notes.22366

       Neither the board of directors of the lake facilities 22367
authority nor any person executing the bonds shall be liable 22368
personally on the bonds or be subject to any personal liability or 22369
accountability by reason of the issuance thereof.22370

       The issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds under 22371
this section need not comply with any other law applicable to the 22372
issuance of bonds or notes.22373

       Sec. 353.10.  (A) With respect to facilities, and their 22374
financing, for an authorized purpose, under agreements whereby the 22375
person to whom the facility is to be leased, subleased, or sold, 22376
or to whom a loan is to be made for the facility, is to make 22377
payments sufficient to pay all of the principal of, premium, if 22378
any, and interest on the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 22379
issued for the facility, the lake facilities authority, in 22380
addition to other powers under this chapter, may do any of the 22381
following:22382

       (1) Make loans for the acquisition or construction of the 22383
facility to such person upon such terms as the lake facilities 22384
authority may determine or authorize including secured or 22385
unsecured loans, and, in connection therewith, enter into loan 22386
agreements and other agreements, accept notes and other forms of 22387
obligation to evidence such indebtedness and mortgages, liens, 22388
pledges, assignments, or other security interests to secure such 22389
indebtedness, which may be prior or subordinate to or on a parity 22390
with other indebtedness, obligations, mortgages, pledges, 22391
assignments, other security interests, or liens or encumbrances, 22392
and take actions it considers appropriate to protect such security 22393
and safeguard against losses, including, without limitation, 22394
foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of property upon 22395
foreclosure or other sale;22396

       (2) Sell the facility under such terms as it may determine, 22397
including, without limitation, sale by conditional sale or 22398
installment sale, under which title may pass prior to or after 22399
completion of the facility or payment or provisions for payment of 22400
all principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the bonds, or 22401
at any other time provided in the agreement pertaining to the 22402
sale, and including sale under an option to purchase at a price 22403
which may be a nominal amount or less than true value at the time 22404
of purchase;22405

       (3) Grant a mortgage, lien, or other encumbrance on, or 22406
pledge or assignment of, or other security interest with respect 22407
to, all or any part of the facility, revenues, reserve funds, or 22408
other funds established in connection with the bonds, or on, of, 22409
or with respect to any lease, sublease, sale, conditional sale or 22410
installment sale agreement, loan agreement, or other agreement 22411
pertaining to the lease, sublease, sale, or other disposition of a 22412
facility or pertaining to a loan made for a facility, or any 22413
guaranty or insurance agreement made with respect thereto, or any 22414
interest of the lake facilities authority therein, or any other 22415
interest granted, assigned, or released to secure payments of the 22416
principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the bonds or to 22417
secure any other payments to be made by the lake facilities 22418
authority, which mortgage, lien, encumbrance, pledge, assignment, 22419
or other security interest may be prior or subordinate to or on a 22420
parity with any other mortgage, assignment, or other security 22421
interest, or lien or encumbrance;22422

       (4) Provide that the interest on the bonds may be at a 22423
variable rate or rates changing from time to time in accordance 22424
with a base or formula as authorized by the lake facilities 22425
authority;22426

       (5) Contract for the acquisition or construction of the 22427
facility or any part thereof and for the leasing, subleasing, 22428
sale, or other disposition of the facility in a manner determined 22429
by the lake facilities authority in its sole discretion, without 22430
necessity for competitive bidding or performance bonds;22431

       (6) Make appropriate provision for adequate maintenance of 22432
the facility.22433

       (B) With respect to the facilities referred to in this 22434
section, the authority granted by this section is cumulative and 22435
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 22436
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 22437
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter for or with 22438
respect to other facilities.22439

       Sec. 353.11.  In the discretion of the lake facilities 22440
authority, any lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 22441
under this chapter may be secured by a trust agreement between the 22442
lake facilities authority and a corporate trustee that may be any 22443
trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within 22444
or without the state.22445

       The trust agreement may pledge or assign revenues of the lake 22446
facilities authority to be received and may convey or mortgage any 22447
facility or any part thereof. The trust agreement or any 22448
resolution providing for the issuance of such bonds may contain 22449
any provisions for protecting and enforcing the rights and 22450
remedies of the bondholders as are reasonable and proper and not 22451
in violation of law, including covenants setting forth the duties 22452
of the lake facilities authority in relation to the acquisition of 22453
property, the construction, improvement, maintenance, repair, 22454
operation, and insurance of the facility in connection with which 22455
the bonds are authorized, the rentals or other charges to be 22456
imposed for the use or services of any facility, the custody, 22457
safeguarding, and application of all moneys, and provisions for 22458
the employment of consulting engineers in connection with the 22459
construction or operation of the facility.22460

        Any bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of this 22461
state that may act as depository of the proceeds of bonds or of 22462
revenues may furnish any indemnifying bonds or may pledge any 22463
securities that are required by the lake facilities authority. The 22464
trust agreement may set forth the rights and remedies of the 22465
bondholders and of the trustee, and may restrict the individual 22466
right of action by bondholders as is customary in trust agreements 22467
or trust indentures securing similar bonds. The trust agreement 22468
may contain any other provisions that the lake facilities 22469
authority determines reasonable and proper for the security of the 22470
bondholders. All expenses incurred in carrying out the provisions 22471
of the trust agreement may be treated as a part of the cost of the 22472
operation of the facility.22473

       Sec. 353.12.  Any holder of lake facilities authority revenue 22474
bonds issued under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code, 22475
or any of the coupons pertaining to those bonds, and the trustee 22476
under any trust agreement, except to the extent the rights given 22477
by those sections may be restricted by the applicable resolution 22478
or that trust agreement, may by suit, action, mandamus, or other 22479
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of the 22480
state or granted under those sections, the trust agreement, or the 22481
resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds, and may enforce 22482
and compel the performance of all duties required by those 22483
sections, or by the trust agreement or resolution, to be performed 22484
by the lake facilities authority or any officer of the lake 22485
facilities authority, including the fixing, charging, and 22486
collecting of rentals or other charges.22487

       Sec. 353.13.  Lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 22488
under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code do not 22489
constitute a debt, or a pledge of the faith and credit, of the 22490
state or any political subdivision of the state. The holders or 22491
owners of the bonds have no right to have taxes levied by the 22492
general assembly or taxing authority of any political subdivision 22493
of the state for the payment of the principal of or interest on 22494
the bonds. The bonds are payable solely from the revenues and 22495
funds pledged for their payment as authorized by this chapter, 22496
unless the revenue bonds are notes issued in anticipation of the 22497
issuance of the bonds, or the revenue bonds are refunded by 22498
refunding bonds issued under section 353.09 of the Revised Code, 22499
provided that the refunding bonds shall be payable solely from 22500
revenues and funds pledged for their payment as authorized by that 22501
section. All bonds shall contain on the face thereof a statement 22502
to the effect that the bonds, as to both principal and interest, 22503
are not debts of the state or any political subdivision of the 22504
state, but are payable solely from revenues and funds pledged for 22505
their payment.22506

       Sec. 353.14.  All moneys, funds, properties, and assets 22507
acquired by the lake facilities authority under this chapter, 22508
whether as proceeds from the sale of lake facilities authority 22509
revenue bonds or as revenues, or otherwise, shall be held by it in 22510
trust for the purposes of carrying out its powers and duties, 22511
shall be used and reused as provided in this chapter, and shall at 22512
no time be part of other public funds. Such funds, except as 22513
otherwise provided in any resolution authorizing its lake 22514
facilities authority revenue bonds or in any trust agreement 22515
securing those bonds, or except when invested pursuant to section 22516
353.15 of the Revised Code, shall be kept in depositories selected 22517
by the lake facilities authority in the manner provided in Chapter 22518
135. of the Revised Code for the selection of eligible public 22519
depositories, and the deposits shall be secured as provided in 22520
that chapter. The resolution authorizing the issuance of such 22521
bonds or the trust agreement securing the bonds shall provide that 22522
any officer to whom, or any bank or trust company to which, such 22523
money is paid shall act as trustee of the money and hold and apply 22524
the money for the purposes for which the bonds are issued, subject 22525
to such conditions as Chapter 135. of the Revised Code and such 22526
resolutions or trust agreement provide.22527

       Sec. 353.15.  Except as otherwise provided in any resolution 22528
authorizing the issuance of its lake facilities authority revenue 22529
bonds or in any trust agreement securing the bonds, moneys in the 22530
funds of the lake facilities authority in excess of current needs 22531
may be invested as permitted by sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the 22532
Revised Code or invested in linked deposit programs established by 22533
resolution of the board of directors in accordance with section 22534
135.80 of the Revised Code. Income from all investments of moneys 22535
in any fund shall be credited to funds as the lake facilities 22536
authority determines, subject to the provisions of any such 22537
resolution or trust agreement, and the investments may be sold at 22538
any time the lake facilities authority determines.22539

       Sec. 353.16.  Bonds of a lake facilities authority and lake 22540
facilities authority revenue bonds are lawful investments of 22541
banks, societies for savings, trust companies, savings and loan 22542
associations, deposit guaranty associations, trustees, 22543
fiduciaries, trustees or other officers having charge of the bond 22544
retirement funds or sinking funds of port authorities and 22545
political subdivisions, and taxing districts of this state, the 22546
commissioners of the sinking fund of this state, the administrator 22547
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 22548
the school employees retirement system, the public employees 22549
retirement system, the Ohio police and fire pension fund, and 22550
insurance companies, including domestic life insurance companies 22551
and domestic insurance companies other than life, and are 22552
acceptable as security for the deposit of public moneys.22553

       Sec. 511.261.  If a township park district enters into an 22554
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park 22555
within the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from 22556
the sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 22557
board of park commissioners shall establish under division (F) of 22558
section 5705.09 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be used 22559
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 22560
the acquisition of new park lands.22561

       Sec. 517.271.  Notwithstanding section 517.22 of the Revised 22562
Code, the company, association, or religious society that most 22563
recently owned and operated a cemetery currently owned by a board 22564
of township trustees may petition the probate court of the county 22565
in which the cemetery is located to transfer the ownership of the 22566
cemetery to the petitioner.22567

       If the court determines that the petitioner has met all of 22568
the following conditions, the court shall transfer the ownership 22569
of the cemetery to the petitioner and shall order the board to 22570
give the petitioner all necessary records and documents concerning 22571
the cemetery, including records of the board's sale of any lots 22572
pursuant to section 517.07 of the Revised Code:22573

       (A) The petitioner has the financial resources necessary to 22574
operate and maintain the cemetery;22575

       (B) The petitioner is in compliance with all applicable laws 22576
and administrative rules concerning the owners and operators of 22577
cemeteries, including registration under section 4767.02 of the 22578
Revised Code; and22579

       (C) The petitioner owes no delinquent taxes.22580

       Sec. 715.691.  (A) As used in this section:22581

       (1) "Contracting party" means a municipal corporation that 22582
has entered into a joint economic development zone contract or any 22583
party succeeding to the municipal corporation, or a township that 22584
entered into a joint economic development zone contract with a 22585
municipal corporation.22586

       (2) "Zone" means a joint economic development zone designated 22587
under this section.22588

       (B) This section provides alternative procedures and 22589
requirements for creating and operating a joint economic 22590
development zone to those set forth in section 715.69 of the 22591
Revised Code. This section applies only if one of the contracting 22592
parties to the zone does not levy a municipal income tax under 22593
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code. A municipal corporation that 22594
does not levy a municipal income tax may enter into an agreement 22595
to create and operate a joint economic development zone under this 22596
section or under section 715.69 of the Revised Code.22597

       Two or more municipal corporations or one or more townships 22598
and one or more municipal corporations may enter into a contract 22599
whereby they agree to share in the costs of improvements for an 22600
area or areas located in one or more of the contracting parties 22601
that they designate as a joint economic development zone for the 22602
purpose of facilitating new or expanded growth for commercial or 22603
economic development in the state. The contract and zone shall 22604
meet the requirements of divisions (B) to (J) of this section.22605

       (C) The contract shall set forth each contracting party's 22606
contribution to the joint economic development zone. The 22607
contributions may be in any form that the contracting parties 22608
agree to, and may include, but are not limited to, the provision 22609
of services, money, or equipment. The contract may be amended, 22610
renewed, or terminated with the consent of the contracting 22611
parties. The contract shall continue in existence throughout the 22612
term it specifies and shall be binding on the contracting parties 22613
and on any entities succeeding to the contracting parties.22614

       (D) Before the legislative authority of any of the 22615
contracting parties enacts an ordinance or resolution approving a 22616
contract to designate a joint economic development zone, the 22617
legislative authority of each of the contracting parties shall 22618
hold a public hearing concerning the contract and zone. Each 22619
legislative authority shall provide at least thirty days' public 22620
notice of the time and place of the public hearing in a newspaper 22621
of general circulation in the municipal corporation or township. 22622
During the thirty-day period prior to the public hearing, all of 22623
the following documents shall be available for public inspection 22624
in the office of the clerk of the legislative authority of a 22625
municipal corporation that is a contracting party and in the 22626
office of the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting 22627
party:22628

       (1) A copy of the contract designating the zone;22629

       (2) A description of the area or areas to be included in the 22630
zone, including a map in sufficient detail to denote the specific 22631
boundaries of the area or areas;22632

       (3) An economic development plan for the zone that includes a 22633
schedule for the provision of any new, expanded, or additional 22634
services, facilities, or improvements.22635

       A public hearing held under division (D) of this section 22636
shall allow for public comment and recommendations on the contract 22637
and zone. The contracting parties may include in the contract any 22638
of those recommendations prior to approval of the contract.22639

       (E) After the public hearings required under division (D) of 22640
this section have been held, each contracting party may enact an 22641
ordinance or resolution approving the contract to designate a 22642
joint economic development zone. After each contracting party has 22643
enacted an ordinance or resolution, the clerk of the legislative 22644
authority of a municipal corporation that is a contracting party 22645
and the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting party 22646
shall file with the board of elections of each county within which 22647
a contracting party is located a copy of the ordinance or 22648
resolution approving the contract and shall direct the board of 22649
elections to submit the ordinance or resolution to the electors of 22650
the contracting party on the day of the next general, primary, or 22651
special election occurring at least ninety days after the 22652
ordinance or resolution is filed with the board of elections. If 22653
any of the contracting parties is a township, however, then only 22654
the township or townships shall submit the resolution to the 22655
electors.22656

       (F)(1) If a vote is required to approve a municipal 22657
corporation as a contracting party to a joint economic development 22658
zone under this section, the ballot shall be in the following 22659
form:22660

       "Shall the ordinance of the legislative authority of the 22661
(city or village) of (name of contracting party) approving the 22662
contract with (name of each other contracting party) for the 22663
designation of a joint economic development zone be approved?22664

        22665

 FOR THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT 22666
 AGAINST THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT  " 22667

        22668

       (2) If a vote is required to approve a township as a 22669
contracting party to a joint economic development zone under this 22670
section, the ballot shall be in the following form:22671

       "Shall the resolution of the board of township trustees of 22672
the township of (name of contracting party) approving the contract 22673
with (name of each other contracting party) for the designation of 22674
a joint economic development zone be approved?22675

        22676

 FOR THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT 22677
 AGAINST THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT  " 22678

        22679

       If a majority of the electors of each contracting party 22680
voting on the issue vote for the ordinance or resolution and 22681
contract, the ordinance or resolution shall become effective 22682
immediately and the contract shall go into effect immediately or 22683
in accordance with its terms.22684

       (G)(1) A board of directors shall govern each joint economic 22685
development zone created under section 715.691 of the Revised 22686
Code. The members of the board shall be appointed as provided in 22687
the contract. Each of the contracting parties shall appoint three 22688
members to the board. Terms for each member shall be for two 22689
years, each term ending on the same day of the month of the year 22690
as did the term that it succeeds. A member may be reappointed to 22691
the board.22692

       (2) Membership on the board is not the holding of a public 22693
office or employment within the meaning of any section of the 22694
Revised Code or any charter provision prohibiting the holding of 22695
other public office or employment. Membership on the board is not 22696
a direct or indirect interest in a contract or expenditure of 22697
money by a municipal corporation, township, county, or other 22698
political subdivision with which a member may be affiliated. 22699
Notwithstanding any provision of law or a charter to the contrary, 22700
no member of the board shall forfeit or be disqualified from 22701
holding any public office or employment by reason of membership on 22702
the board.22703

       (3) The board is a public body for the purposes of section 22704
121.22 of the Revised Code. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 22705
applies to the board and the zone.22706

       (H) The contract may grant to the board of directors 22707
appointed under division (G) of this section the power to adopt a 22708
resolution to levy an income tax within the zone. The income tax 22709
shall be used for the purposes of the zone and for the purposes of 22710
the contracting municipal corporationsparties pursuant to the 22711
contract. The income tax may be levied in the zone based on income 22712
earned by persons working within the zone and on the net profits 22713
of businesses located in the zone. The income tax is subject to 22714
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code, except that a vote shall be 22715
required by the electors residing in the zone to approve the rate 22716
of income tax unless a majority of the electors residing within 22717
the zone, as determined by the total number of votes cast in the 22718
zone for the office of governor at the most recent general 22719
election for that office, submit a petition to the board 22720
requesting that the election provided for in division (H)(1) of 22721
this section not be held. If no electors reside within the zone, 22722
then division (H)(3) of this section applies. The rate of the 22723
income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate being levied 22724
by a municipal corporation that is a party to the contract.22725

       (1) The board of directors may levy an income tax at a rate 22726
that is not higher than the highest rate being levied by a 22727
municipal corporation that is a party to the contract, provided 22728
that the rate of the income tax is first submitted to and approved 22729
by the electors of the zone at the succeeding regular or primary 22730
election, or a special election called by the board, occurring 22731
subsequent to ninety days after a certified copy of the resolution 22732
levying the income tax and calling for the election is filed with 22733
the board of elections. If the voters approve the levy of the 22734
income tax, the income tax shall be in force for the full period 22735
of the contract establishing the zone. No election shall be held 22736
under this section if a majority of the electors residing within 22737
the zone, determined as specified in division (H) of this section, 22738
submit a petition to that effect to the board of directors. Any 22739
increase in the rate of an income tax by the board of directors 22740
shall be approved by a vote of the electors of the zone and shall 22741
be in force for the remaining period of the contract establishing 22742
the zone.22743

       (2) Whenever a zone is located in the territory of more than 22744
one contracting party, a majority vote of the electors in each of 22745
the several portions of the territory of the contracting parties 22746
constituting the zone approving the levy of the tax is required 22747
before it may be imposed under division (H) of this section.22748

       (3) If no electors reside in the zone, no election for the 22749
approval or rejection of an income tax shall be held under this 22750
section, provided that where no electors reside in the zone, the 22751
rate of the income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate 22752
being levied by a municipal corporation that is a party to the 22753
contract.22754

       (4) The board of directors of a zone levying an income tax 22755
shall enter into an agreement with one of the municipal 22756
corporations that is a party to the contract to administer, 22757
collect, and enforce the income tax on behalf of the zone.22758

       (5) The board of directors of a zone shall publish or post 22759
public notice within the zone of any resolution adopted levying an 22760
income tax in the same manner required of municipal corporations 22761
under sections 731.21 and 731.25 of the Revised Code.22762

       (I)(1) If for any reason a contracting party reverts to or 22763
has its boundaries changed so that it is classified as a township 22764
that is the entity succeeding to that contracting party, the 22765
township is considered to be a municipal corporation for the 22766
purposes of the contract for the full period of the contract 22767
establishing the joint economic development zone, except that if 22768
that contracting party is administering, collecting, and enforcing 22769
the income tax on behalf of the district as provided in division 22770
(H)(4) of this section, the contract shall be amended to allow one 22771
of the other contracting parties to administer, collect, and 22772
enforce that tax.22773

       (2) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, if 22774
there is any change in the boundaries of a township so that a 22775
municipal corporation once located within the township is no 22776
longer so located, the township shall remain in existence even 22777
though its remaining unincorporated area contains less than 22778
twenty-two square miles, if the township has been or becomes a 22779
party to a contract creating a joint economic development zone 22780
under this section or the contract creating that joint economic 22781
development zone under this section is terminated or repudiated 22782
for any reason by any party or person. The township shall continue 22783
its existing status in all respects, including having the same 22784
form of government and the same elected board of trustees as its 22785
governing body. The township shall continue to receive all of its 22786
tax levies and sources of income as a township in accordance with 22787
any section of the Revised Code, whether the levies and sources of 22788
income generate millage within the ten-mill limitation or in 22789
excess of the ten-mill limitation. The name of the township may be 22790
changed to the name of the contracting party appearing in the 22791
contract creating a joint economic development zone under this 22792
section, so long as the name does not conflict with any other name 22793
in the state that has been certified by the secretary of state. 22794
The township shall have all of the powers set out in sections 22795
715.79, 715.80, and 715.81 of the Revised Code.22796

       (J) If, after creating and operating a joint economic 22797
development zone under this section, a contracting party that did 22798
not levy a municipal income tax under Chapter 718. of the Revised 22799
Code levies such a tax, the tax shall not apply to the zone for 22800
the full period of the contract establishing the zone, if the 22801
board of directors of the zone has levied an income tax as 22802
provided in division (H) of this section.22803

       Sec. 718.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:22804

       (1) "Adjusted federal taxable income" means a C corporation's 22805
federal taxable income before net operating losses and special 22806
deductions as determined under the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted 22807
as follows:22808

       (a) Deduct intangible income to the extent included in 22809
federal taxable income. The deduction shall be allowed regardless 22810
of whether the intangible income relates to assets used in a trade 22811
or business or assets held for the production of income.22812

       (b) Add an amount equal to five per cent of intangible income 22813
deducted under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, but excluding 22814
that portion of intangible income directly related to the sale, 22815
exchange, or other disposition of property described in section 22816
1221 of the Internal Revenue Code;22817

       (c) Add any losses allowed as a deduction in the computation 22818
of federal taxable income if the losses directly relate to the 22819
sale, exchange, or other disposition of an asset described in 22820
section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue Code;22821

       (d)(i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(d)(ii) of this 22822
section, deduct income and gain included in federal taxable income 22823
to the extent the income and gain directly relate to the sale, 22824
exchange, or other disposition of an asset described in section 22825
1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue Code;22826

        (ii) Division (A)(1)(d)(i) of this section does not apply to 22827
the extent the income or gain is income or gain described in 22828
section 1245 or 1250 of the Internal Revenue Code.22829

        (e) Add taxes on or measured by net income allowed as a 22830
deduction in the computation of federal taxable income;22831

        (f) In the case of a real estate investment trust and 22832
regulated investment company, add all amounts with respect to 22833
dividends to, distributions to, or amounts set aside for or 22834
credited to the benefit of investors and allowed as a deduction in 22835
the computation of federal taxable income;22836

        (g) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 22837
in computing federal taxable income, any income derived from 22838
providing public services under a contract through a project owned 22839
by the state, as described in section 126.604 of the Revised Code 22840
or derived from a transfer agreement or from the enterprise 22841
transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 of the 22842
Revised Code.22843

       If the taxpayer is not a C corporation and is not an 22844
individual, the taxpayer shall compute adjusted federal taxable 22845
income as if the taxpayer were a C corporation, except guaranteed 22846
payments and other similar amounts paid or accrued to a partner, 22847
former partner, member, or former member shall not be allowed as a 22848
deductible expense; amounts paid or accrued to a qualified 22849
self-employed retirement plan with respect to an owner or 22850
owner-employee of the taxpayer, amounts paid or accrued to or for 22851
health insurance for an owner or owner-employee, and amounts paid 22852
or accrued to or for life insurance for an owner or owner-employee 22853
shall not be allowed as a deduction.22854

        Nothing in division (A)(1) of this section shall be construed 22855
as allowing the taxpayer to add or deduct any amount more than 22856
once or shall be construed as allowing any taxpayer to deduct any 22857
amount paid to or accrued for purposes of federal self-employment 22858
tax.22859

        Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as limiting or 22860
removing the ability of any municipal corporation to administer, 22861
audit, and enforce the provisions of its municipal income tax.22862

       (2) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code 22863
of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended.22864

       (3) "Schedule C" means internal revenue service schedule C 22865
filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.22866

       (4) "Form 2106" means internal revenue service form 2106 22867
filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.22868

       (5) "Intangible income" means income of any of the following 22869
types: income yield, interest, capital gains, dividends, or other 22870
income arising from the ownership, sale, exchange, or other 22871
disposition of intangible property including, but not limited to, 22872
investments, deposits, money, or credits as those terms are 22873
defined in Chapter 5701. of the Revised Code, and patents, 22874
copyrights, trademarks, tradenames, investments in real estate 22875
investment trusts, investments in regulated investment companies, 22876
and appreciation on deferred compensation. "Intangible income" 22877
does not include prizes, awards, or other income associated with 22878
any lottery winnings or other similar games of chance.22879

       (6) "S corporation" means a corporation that has made an 22880
election under subchapter S of Chapter 1 of Subtitle A of the 22881
Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year.22882

       (7) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2004, 22883
"net profit" for a taxpayer other than an individual means 22884
adjusted federal taxable income and "net profit" for a taxpayer 22885
who is an individual means the individual's profit required to be 22886
reported on schedule C, schedule E, or schedule F, other than any 22887
amount allowed as a deduction under division (E)(2) or (3) of this 22888
section or amounts described in division (H) of this section.22889

       (8) "Taxpayer" means a person subject to a tax on income 22890
levied by a municipal corporation. Except as provided in division 22891
(L) of this section, "taxpayer" does not include any person that 22892
is a disregarded entity or a qualifying subchapter S subsidiary 22893
for federal income tax purposes, but "taxpayer" includes any other 22894
person who owns the disregarded entity or qualifying subchapter S 22895
subsidiary.22896

       (9) "Taxable year" means the corresponding tax reporting 22897
period as prescribed for the taxpayer under the Internal Revenue 22898
Code.22899

       (10) "Tax administrator" means the individual charged with 22900
direct responsibility for administration of a tax on income levied 22901
by a municipal corporation and includes:22902

        (a) The central collection agency and the regional income tax 22903
agency and their successors in interest, and other entities 22904
organized to perform functions similar to those performed by the 22905
central collection agency and the regional income tax agency;22906

        (b) A municipal corporation acting as the agent of another 22907
municipal corporation; and22908

        (c) Persons retained by a municipal corporation to administer 22909
a tax levied by the municipal corporation, but only if the 22910
municipal corporation does not compensate the person in whole or 22911
in part on a contingency basis.22912

        (11) "Person" includes individuals, firms, companies, 22913
business trusts, estates, trusts, partnerships, limited liability 22914
companies, associations, corporations, governmental entities, and 22915
any other entity.22916

        (12) "Schedule E" means internal revenue service schedule E 22917
filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.22918

        (13) "Schedule F" means internal revenue service schedule F 22919
filed by a taxpayer pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code.22920

       (14) "Supplemental executive retirement plan" means a 22921
nonqualified deferred compensation plan maintained by an employer 22922
to provide retirement income for certain employees, including 22923
excess benefit plans. "Supplemental executive retirement plan" 22924
does not include any portion of a nonqualified deferred 22925
compensation plan that is funded by a salary reduction agreement.22926

       (B) No municipal corporation shall tax income at other than a 22927
uniform rate.22928

       (C) No municipal corporation shall levy a tax on income at a 22929
rate in excess of one per cent without having obtained the 22930
approval of the excess by a majority of the electors of the 22931
municipality voting on the question at a general, primary, or 22932
special election. The legislative authority of the municipal 22933
corporation shall file with the board of elections at least ninety 22934
days before the day of the election a copy of the ordinance 22935
together with a resolution specifying the date the election is to 22936
be held and directing the board of elections to conduct the 22937
election. The ballot shall be in the following form: "Shall the 22938
Ordinance providing for a ... per cent levy on income for (Brief 22939
description of the purpose of the proposed levy) be passed?22940

        22941

 FOR THE INCOME TAX 22942
 AGAINST THE INCOME TAX  " 22943

        22944

       In the event of an affirmative vote, the proceeds of the levy 22945
may be used only for the specified purpose.22946

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no 22947
municipal corporation shall exempt from a tax on income 22948
compensation for personal services of individuals over eighteen 22949
years of age or the net profit from a business or profession.22950

       (2)(a) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 22951
2004, no municipal corporation shall tax the net profit from a 22952
business or profession using any base other than the taxpayer's 22953
adjusted federal taxable income.22954

       (b) Division (D)(2)(a) of this section does not apply to any 22955
taxpayer required to file a return under section 5745.03 of the 22956
Revised Code or to the net profit from a sole proprietorship.22957

       (E)(1) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 22958
may, by ordinance or resolution, exempt from withholding and from 22959
a tax on income the following:22960

       (a) Compensation arising from the sale, exchange, or other 22961
disposition of a stock option, the exercise of a stock option, or 22962
the sale, exchange, or other disposition of stock purchased under 22963
a stock option; or22964

       (b) Compensation attributable to a nonqualified deferred 22965
compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of 22966
the Internal Revenue Code.22967

       (2) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation may 22968
adopt an ordinance or resolution that allows a taxpayer who is an 22969
individual to deduct, in computing the taxpayer's municipal income 22970
tax liability, an amount equal to the aggregate amount the 22971
taxpayer paid in cash during the taxable year to a health savings 22972
account of the taxpayer, to the extent the taxpayer is entitled to 22973
deduct that amount on internal revenue service form 1040.22974

       (3) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation may 22975
adopt an ordinance or resolution that allows a taxpayer who has a 22976
net profit from a business or profession that is operated as a 22977
sole proprietorship to deduct from that net profit the amount that 22978
the taxpayer paid during the taxable year for medical care 22979
insurance premiums for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and 22980
dependents as defined in section 5747.01 of the Revised Code. The 22981
deduction shall be allowed to the same extent the taxpayer is 22982
entitled to deduct the premiums on internal revenue service form 22983
1040. The deduction allowed under this division shall be net of 22984
any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or 22985
related insurance premium dividends received by the taxpayer 22986
during the taxable year.22987

       (F) If an individual's taxable income includes income against 22988
which the taxpayer has taken a deduction for federal income tax 22989
purposes as reportable on the taxpayer's form 2106, and against 22990
which a like deduction has not been allowed by the municipal 22991
corporation, the municipal corporation shall deduct from the 22992
taxpayer's taxable income an amount equal to the deduction shown 22993
on such form allowable against such income, to the extent not 22994
otherwise so allowed as a deduction by the municipal corporation.22995

       (G)(1) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net profit from a 22996
business or profession that is operated as a sole proprietorship, 22997
no municipal corporation may tax or use as the base for 22998
determining the amount of the net profit that shall be considered 22999
as having a taxable situs in the municipal corporation, an amount 23000
other than the net profit required to be reported by the taxpayer 23001
on schedule C or F from such sole proprietorship for the taxable 23002
year.23003

        (2) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net profit from 23004
rental activity required to be reported on schedule E, no 23005
municipal corporation may tax or use as the base for determining 23006
the amount of the net profit that shall be considered as having a 23007
taxable situs in the municipal corporation, an amount other than 23008
the net profit from rental activities required to be reported by 23009
the taxpayer on schedule E for the taxable year.23010

       (H) A municipal corporation shall not tax any of the 23011
following:23012

       (1) The military pay or allowances of members of the armed 23013
forces of the United States and of members of their reserve 23014
components, including the Ohio national guard;23015

       (2) The income of religious, fraternal, charitable, 23016
scientific, literary, or educational institutions to the extent 23017
that such income is derived from tax-exempt real estate, 23018
tax-exempt tangible or intangible property, or tax-exempt 23019
activities;23020

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in division (I) of this 23021
section, intangible income;23022

       (4) Compensation paid under section 3501.28 or 3501.36 of the 23023
Revised Code to a person serving as a precinct election official, 23024
to the extent that such compensation does not exceed one thousand 23025
dollars annually. Such compensation in excess of one thousand 23026
dollars may be subjected to taxation by a municipal corporation. A 23027
municipal corporation shall not require the payer of such 23028
compensation to withhold any tax from that compensation.23029

       (5) Compensation paid to an employee of a transit authority, 23030
regional transit authority, or regional transit commission created 23031
under Chapter 306. of the Revised Code for operating a transit bus 23032
or other motor vehicle for the authority or commission in or 23033
through the municipal corporation, unless the bus or vehicle is 23034
operated on a regularly scheduled route, the operator is subject 23035
to such a tax by reason of residence or domicile in the municipal 23036
corporation, or the headquarters of the authority or commission is 23037
located within the municipal corporation;23038

       (6) The income of a public utility, when that public utility 23039
is subject to the tax levied under section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of 23040
the Revised Code, except a municipal corporation may tax the 23041
following, subject to Chapter 5745. of the Revised Code:23042

       (a) Beginning January 1, 2002, the income of an electric 23043
company or combined company;23044

        (b) Beginning January 1, 2004, the income of a telephone 23045
company.23046

       As used in division (H)(6) of this section, "combined 23047
company," "electric company," and "telephone company" have the 23048
same meanings as in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.23049

       (7) On and after January 1, 2003, items excluded from federal 23050
gross income pursuant to section 107 of the Internal Revenue Code;23051

       (8) On and after January 1, 2001, compensation paid to a 23052
nonresident individual to the extent prohibited under section 23053
718.011 of the Revised Code;23054

       (9)(a) Except as provided in divisiondivisions (H)(9)(b) and 23055
(c) of this section, an S corporation shareholder's distributive 23056
share of net profits of the S corporation, other than any part of 23057
the distributive share of net profits that represents wages as 23058
defined in section 3121(a) of the Internal Revenue Code or net 23059
earnings from self-employment as defined in section 1402(a) of the 23060
Internal Revenue Code.23061

       (b) If, pursuant to division (H) of former section 718.01 of 23062
the Revised Code as it existed before March 11, 2004, a majority 23063
of the electors of a municipal corporation voted in favor of the 23064
question at an election held on November 4, 2003, the municipal 23065
corporation may continue after 2002 to tax an S corporation 23066
shareholder's distributive share of net profits of an S 23067
corporation.23068

        (c) If, on December 6, 2002, a municipal corporation was 23069
imposing, assessing, and collecting a tax on an S corporation 23070
shareholder's distributive share of net profits of the S 23071
corporation to the extent the distributive share would be 23072
allocated or apportioned to this state under divisions (B)(1) and 23073
(2) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code if the S corporation 23074
were a corporation subject to taxes imposed under Chapter 5733. of 23075
the Revised Code, the municipal corporation may continue to impose 23076
the tax on such distributive shares to the extent such shares 23077
would be so allocated or apportioned to this state only until 23078
December 31, 2004, unless a majority of the electors of the 23079
municipal corporation voting on the question of continuing to tax 23080
such shares after that date vote in favor of that question at an 23081
election held November 2, 2004. If a majority of those electors 23082
vote in favor of the question, the municipal corporation may 23083
continue after December 31, 2004, to impose the tax on such 23084
distributive shares only to the extent such shares would be so 23085
allocated or apportioned to this state.23086

       (d) For the purposes of division (D) of section 718.14 of the 23087
Revised Code, a municipal corporation shall be deemed to have 23088
elected to tax S corporation shareholders' distributive shares of 23089
net profits of the S corporation in the hands of the shareholders 23090
if a majority of the electors of a municipal corporation vote in 23091
favor of a question at an election held under division (H)(9)(b) 23092
or (c) of this section. The municipal corporation shall specify by 23093
ordinance or rule that the tax applies to the distributive share 23094
of a shareholder of an S corporation in the hands of the 23095
shareholder of the S corporation.23096

       (10) Employee compensation that is not "qualifying wages" as 23097
defined in section 718.03 of the Revised Code;23098

        (11) Beginning August 1, 2007, compensation paid to a person 23099
employed within the boundaries of a United States air force base 23100
under the jurisdiction of the United States air force that is used 23101
for the housing of members of the United States air force and is a 23102
center for air force operations, unless the person is subject to 23103
taxation because of residence or domicile. If the compensation is 23104
subject to taxation because of residence or domicile, municipal 23105
income tax shall be payable only to the municipal corporation of 23106
residence or domicile.23107

       (12) Compensation paid to a person for personal services 23108
performed for a political subdivision on property owned by the 23109
political subdivision, regardless of whether the compensation is 23110
received by an employee of the subdivision or another person 23111
performing services for the subdivision under a contract with the 23112
subdivision, if the property on which services are performed is 23113
annexed to a municipal corporation pursuant to section 709.023 of 23114
the Revised Code on or after the effective date of the amendment 23115
of this sectionMarch 27, 2013, unless the person is subject to 23116
such taxation because of residence or domicile. If the 23117
compensation is subject to taxation because of residence or 23118
domicile, municipal income tax shall be payable only to the 23119
municipal corporation of residence or domicile.23120

       (I) Any municipal corporation that taxes any type of 23121
intangible income on March 29, 1988, pursuant to Section 3 of 23122
Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 238 of the 116th general 23123
assembly, may continue to tax that type of income after 1988 if a 23124
majority of the electors of the municipal corporation voting on 23125
the question of whether to permit the taxation of that type of 23126
intangible income after 1988 vote in favor thereof at an election 23127
held on November 8, 1988.23128

       (J) Nothing in this section or section 718.02 of the Revised 23129
Code shall authorize the levy of any tax on income that a 23130
municipal corporation is not authorized to levy under existing 23131
laws or shall require a municipal corporation to allow a deduction 23132
from taxable income for losses incurred from a sole proprietorship 23133
or partnership.23134

       (K)(1) Nothing in this chapter prohibits a municipal 23135
corporation from allowing, by resolution or ordinance, a net 23136
operating loss carryforward.23137

        (2) Nothing in this chapter requires a municipal corporation 23138
to allow a net operating loss carryforward.23139

       (L)(1) A single member limited liability company that is a 23140
disregarded entity for federal tax purposes may elect to be a 23141
separate taxpayer from its single member in all Ohio municipal 23142
corporations in which it either filed as a separate taxpayer or 23143
did not file for its taxable year ending in 2003, if all of the 23144
following conditions are met:23145

       (a) The limited liability company's single member is also a 23146
limited liability company;23147

       (b) The limited liability company and its single member were 23148
formed and doing business in one or more Ohio municipal 23149
corporations for at least five years before January 1, 2004;23150

       (c) Not later than December 31, 2004, the limited liability 23151
company and its single member each make an election to be treated 23152
as a separate taxpayer under division (L) of this section;23153

       (d) The limited liability company was not formed for the 23154
purpose of evading or reducing Ohio municipal corporation income 23155
tax liability of the limited liability company or its single 23156
member;23157

       (e) The Ohio municipal corporation that is the primary place 23158
of business of the sole member of the limited liability company 23159
consents to the election.23160

       (2) For purposes of division (L)(1)(e) of this section, a 23161
municipal corporation is the primary place of business of a 23162
limited liability company if, for the limited liability company's 23163
taxable year ending in 2003, its income tax liability is greater 23164
in that municipal corporation than in any other municipal 23165
corporation in Ohio, and that tax liability to that municipal 23166
corporation for its taxable year ending in 2003 is at least four 23167
hundred thousand dollars.23168

       Sec. 718.03. (A) As used in this section:23169

       (1) "Other payer" means any person, other than an 23170
individual's employer or the employer's agent, that pays an 23171
individual any amount included in the federal gross income of the 23172
individual.23173

       (2) "Qualifying wages" means wages, as defined in section 23174
3121(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to any wage 23175
limitations, adjusted as follows:23176

        (a) Deduct the following amounts:23177

       (i) Any amount included in wages if the amount constitutes 23178
compensation attributable to a plan or program described in 23179
section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code;23180

       (ii) For purposes of division (B) of this section, any amount 23181
included in wages if the amount constitutes payment on account of 23182
sickness or accident disability;23183

       (iii) Any amount included in wages that is attributable to a 23184
supplemental executive retirement plan.23185

        (b) Add the following amounts:23186

        (i) Any amount not included in wages solely because the 23187
employee was employed by the employer prior to April 1, 1986;23188

        (ii) Any amount not included in wages because the amount 23189
arises from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of a stock 23190
option, the exercise of a stock option, or the sale, exchange, or 23191
other disposition of stock purchased under a stock option and the 23192
municipal corporation has not, by resolution or ordinance, 23193
exempted the amount from withholding and tax. Division 23194
(A)(2)(b)(ii) of this section applies only to those amounts 23195
constituting ordinary income.23196

        (iii) Any amount not included in wages if the amount is an 23197
amount described in section 401(k) or 457 of the Internal Revenue 23198
Code. Division (A)(2)(b)(iii) of this section applies only to 23199
employee contributions and employee deferrals.23200

        (iv) Any amount that is supplemental unemployment 23201
compensation benefits described in section 3402(o)(2) of the 23202
Internal Revenue Code and not included in wages.23203

        (c) Deduct any amount attributable to a nonqualified deferred 23204
compensation plan or program described in section 3121(v)(2)(C) of 23205
the Internal Revenue Code if the compensation is included in wages 23206
and has, by resolution or ordinance, been exempted from taxation 23207
by the municipal corporation.23208

        (d) Deduct any amount included in wages if the amount arises 23209
from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of a stock option, 23210
the exercise of a stock option, or the sale, exchange, or other 23211
disposition of stock purchased under a stock option and the 23212
municipal corporation has, by resolution or ordinance, exempted 23213
the amount from withholding and tax.23214

        (B) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, for 23215
taxable years beginning after 2003, no municipal corporation shall 23216
require any employer or any agent of any employer or any other 23217
payer, to withhold tax with respect to any amount other than 23218
qualifying wages. Nothing in this section prohibits an employer 23219
from withholding tax on a basis greater than qualifying wages.23220

       (C) An employer is not required to make any withholding with 23221
respect to an individual's disqualifying disposition of an 23222
incentive stock option if, at the time of the disqualifying 23223
disposition, the individual is not an employee of the corporation 23224
with respect to whose stock the option has been issued.23225

        (D)(1) An employee is not relieved from liability for a tax 23226
by the failure of the employer to withhold the tax as required by 23227
a municipal corporation or by the employer's exemption from the 23228
requirement to withhold the tax.23229

       (2) The failure of an employer to remit to the municipal 23230
corporation the tax withheld relieves the employee from liability 23231
for that tax unless the employee colluded with the employer in 23232
connection with the failure to remit the tax withheld.23233

       (E) Compensation deferred before June 26, 2003, is not 23234
subject to any municipal corporation income tax or municipal 23235
income tax withholding requirement to the extent the deferred 23236
compensation does not constitute qualifying wages at the time the 23237
deferred compensation is paid or distributed.23238

       (F) A municipal corporation may require a casino facility or 23239
a casino operator, as defined in Section 6(C)(9) of Article XV, 23240
Ohio Constitution, and section 3772.01 of the Revised Code, 23241
respectively, or a lottery sales agent conducting video lottery 23242
terminals on behalf of the state to withhold and remit tax with 23243
respect to amounts other than qualifying wages.23244

       Sec. 721.01.  Municipal corporations have special power to 23245
sell or lease real estate or to sell personal property belonging 23246
to the municipal corporation, when such real estate or personal 23247
property is not needed for any municipal purpose. Such power shall 23248
be exercised in the manner provided by sections 721.01 to 721.26, 23249
inclusive, of the Revised Codethis chapter.23250

       Sec. 721.03.  No contract, except as provided in section 23251
721.28 of the Revised Code, for the sale or lease of real estate 23252
belonging to a municipal corporation shall be made unless 23253
authorized by an ordinance, approved by a two-thirds vote of the 23254
members of the legislative authority of such municipal 23255
corporation, and by the board or officer having supervision or 23256
management of such real estate. When the contract is so 23257
authorized, it shall be made in writing by such board or officer, 23258
and, except as provided in section 721.27 or 721.29 of the Revised 23259
Code, only with the highest bidder, after advertisement once a 23260
week for five consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 23261
circulation within the municipal corporation or as provided in 23262
section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Such board or officer may reject 23263
any bids and readvertise until all such real estate is sold or 23264
leased.23265

       Sec. 721.29. The legislative authority of a city may sell to 23266
a board of county commissioners real estate belonging to the city 23267
that is no longer needed for city purposes upon such lawful terms 23268
as are agreed upon between the city and the board of county 23269
commissioners, without competitive bidding as required by section 23270
721.03 of the Revised Code. No such sale shall be made unless the 23271
contract for the sale is authorized by ordinance, approved by a 23272
two-thirds vote of the members of the legislative authority of the 23273
city, and by the board or officer having supervision or management 23274
of the real estate.23275

       Sec. 731.091. (A) The legislative authority of a village may, 23276
by the adoption of an ordinance or resolution to eliminate 23277
staggered terms of office, determine that all members of the 23278
legislative authority shall be elected at the same municipal 23279
election as provided for in this section.23280

       (B) At the regular municipal election occurring not less than 23281
ninety days after the certification of the ordinance or resolution 23282
to the board of elections eliminating staggered terms of office, 23283
the following apply:23284

        (1) If there are six members of the legislative authority, 23285
threethe number of members eligible for election at that regular 23286
municipal election shall be elected at the next regular municipal 23287
election forto two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members of 23288
the legislative authority shall be elected to four-year 23289
nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.23290

        (2) If there are five members of the legislative authority, 23291
threea number of members that is one less than the number of 23292
members that would otherwise be eligible for election at that 23293
regular municipal election but for the first-time implementation 23294
of the new membership of five, or, in the case of a village that 23295
has previously reduced its number of members to five, then the 23296
number of members eligible for election at that regular municipal 23297
election shall be elected at the next municipal election forto23298
two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members shall be elected to 23299
four-year nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.23300

       Sec. 737.41.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 23301
corporation in which is established a municipal court, other than 23302
a county-operated municipal court, that has a department of 23303
probation shall establish in the municipal treasury a municipal 23304
probation services fund. The fund shall contain all moneys paid to 23305
the treasurer of the municipal corporation under section 2951.021 23306
of the Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The treasurer of 23307
the municipal corporation shall disburse the money contained in 23308
the fund at the request of the municipal court department of 23309
probation, for use only by that department for specialized staff, 23310
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 23311
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 23312
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 23313
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 23314
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 23315
and other similar expenses related to placing offenders under a 23316
community control sanction.23317

       (B) Any money in a municipal probation services fund at the 23318
end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the treasury of the 23319
municipal corporation but shall be retained in the fund.23320

       (C) As used in this section:23321

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 23322
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.23323

       (2) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 23324
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.23325

       Sec. 742.14.  (A) The board of trustees of the Ohio police 23326
and fire pension fund shall have prepared triennially by or under 23327
the supervision of an actuary an actuarial valuation of the 23328
pension assets, liabilities, and funding requirements of the Ohio 23329
police and fire pension fund as established pursuant to sections 23330
742.01 to 742.61 of the Revised Code. The actuary shall complete 23331
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 23332
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 23333
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 23334
report shall include all of the following:23335

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;23336

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 23337
used in the valuation;23338

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 23339
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 23340
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 23341
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members of the 23342
fund contributing to the pension fund;23343

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 23344
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 23345
accrued pension liabilities;23346

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 23347
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 23348
the last triennial actuarial valuation;23349

       (6) A statement of whether employee and employer 23350
contributions to the pension fund are expected to be sufficient to 23351
satisfy the funding objectives established by the board.23352

       The first triennial report shall be made not later than 23353
November 1, 2013, to the Ohio retirement study council, the 23354
director of budget and management, and the standing committees of 23355
the house of representatives and the senate with primary 23356
responsibility for retirement legislation immediately upon its 23357
availability and thereafter triennially, not later than the first 23358
day of November.23359

       (B) At such times as the board determines, and at least once 23360
in each quinquennial period, the board shall have prepared by or 23361
under the supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of 23362
the mortality, service, and other experience of the members of the 23363
fund and of other system retirants, as defined in section 742.26 23364
of the Revised Code, who are members of a police department or a 23365
fire department to update the actuarial assumptions used in the 23366
actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this section. The 23367
actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The 23368
report shall be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial 23369
assumptions shall be made in accordance with the actuarial 23370
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 23371
of the American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all 23372
of the following:23373

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 23374
experience observed over the period of the investigation;23375

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 23376
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 23377
this section;23378

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 23379
changes in actuarial assumptions;23380

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 23381
the investigation required by division (E) of this section, a 23382
report of the result of that investigation.23383

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 23384
study council and the standing committees of the house of 23385
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 23386
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 23387
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.23388

       (C) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 23389
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 23390
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the pension 23391
fund. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance with 23392
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 23393
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The actuary 23394
shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, which shall 23395
include all of the following:23396

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 23397
evaluated;23398

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 23399
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;23400

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 23401
in the report;23402

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 23403
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 23404
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 23405
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 23406
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 23407
per cent of covered payroll for all active members of the fund 23408
over a period not to exceed thirty years;23409

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 23410
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 23411
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 23412
board.23413

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 23414
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 23415
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 23416
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 23417
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 23418
retirement study council.23419

       (D) The board shall have prepared triennially a report giving 23420
a full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 23421
provision of benefits under section 742.45 of the Revised Code. 23422
The first triennial report shall be made as of December 31, 2013, 23423
and the thirty-first day of December triennially thereafter. The 23424
report shall include the following:23425

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 23426
provided;23427

       (2) A summary of the benefits;23428

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 23429
benefits;23430

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 23431
the benefits;23432

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 23433
funding method used to provide the benefits;23434

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 23435
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;23436

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 23437
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 23438
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 23439
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 23440
fiscal year;23441

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 23442
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 23443
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 23444
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;23445

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 23446
comparability of the report required under this division;23447

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 23448
section 742.45 of the Revised Code.23449

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 23450
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 23451
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 23452
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 23453
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 23454
following the year for which the report was made.23455

       (E) At least once in each quinquennial period, the board 23456
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 23457
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 23458
established under section 742.43 of the Revised Code. The 23459
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 23460
impact, if any, on the fund of offering the plan to members.23461

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 23462
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 23463
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 23464
impact on the fund and, if so, recommendations on how to modify 23465
the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If the 23466
actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative financial 23467
impact on the fund, the board may modify the plan or cease to 23468
allow members who have not already done so to elect to participate 23469
in the plan. The firefighter and police officers employers' 23470
contributions shall not be increased to offset any negative 23471
financial impact of the plan.23472

       If the board ceases to allow members to elect to participate 23473
in the plan, the rights and obligations of members who have 23474
already elected to participate shall not be altered.23475

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 23476
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 23477
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 23478
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 23479
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 23480
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 23481
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 23482
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 23483
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 23484
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.23485

       Sec. 755.06. (A) The board of park commissioners shall have 23486
the expenditures of all moneys appropriated by the legislative 23487
authority of the city or received from any other source for the 23488
purchase, acquisition, improvement, maintenance, equipment, or 23489
enjoyment of all property mentioned in section 755.05 of the 23490
Revised Code, but no liability shall be incurred or expenditure 23491
made unless the money required therefor is in the treasury to the 23492
credit of the park fund and not appropriated for any other 23493
purpose.23494

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the 23495
legislative authority of a municipal corporation enters into an 23496
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding lands 23497
that the board of park commissioners manages or controls, any 23498
royalties or other moneys resulting from the sale or lease shall 23499
be deposited into a special fund that the legislative authority 23500
shall establish under division (F) of section 5705.09 of the 23501
Revised Code. The board of park commissioners shall use the fund 23502
exclusively for maintenance of lands that the board manages or 23503
controls and for the acquisition of new park lands.23504

       Sec. 901.21.  (A) As used in this section and section 901.22 23505
of the Revised Code:23506

       (1) "Agricultural easement" has the same meaning as in 23507
section 5301.67 of the Revised Code.23508

       (2) "Agriculture" means those activities occurring on land 23509
devoted exclusively to agricultural use, as defined in section 23510
5713.30 of the Revised Code, or on land that constitutes a 23511
homestead.23512

       (3) "Homestead" means the portion of a farm on which is 23513
located a dwelling house, yard, or outbuildings such as a barn or 23514
garage.23515

       (B) The director of agriculture may acquire real property 23516
used predominantly in agriculture and agricultural easements by 23517
gift, devise, or bequest if, at the time an easement is granted, 23518
such an easement is on land that is valued for purposes of real 23519
property taxation at its current value for agricultural use under 23520
section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that constitutes a 23521
homestead. Any terms may be included in an agricultural easement 23522
so acquired that are necessary or appropriate to preserve on 23523
behalf of the grantor of the easement the favorable tax 23524
consequences of the gift, devise, or bequest under the "Internal 23525
Revenue Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended. 23526
The director, by any such means or by purchase or lease, may 23527
acquire, or acquire the use of, stationary personal property or 23528
equipment that is located on land acquired in fee by the director 23529
under this section and that is necessary or appropriate for the 23530
use of the land predominantly in agriculture.23531

       (C) The director may include, in an agricultural easement 23532
acquired under division (B) of this section, a provision to 23533
preserve a unique natural or physical feature on the land so long 23534
as the use of the land remains predominantly agricultural.23535

       (D) The director may do all things necessary or appropriate 23536
to retain the use of real property acquired in fee under division 23537
(B) of this section predominantly in agriculture, including, 23538
without limitation, performing any of the activities described in 23539
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 5713.30 of the Revised Code or 23540
entering into contracts to lease or rent the real property so 23541
acquired to persons or governmental entities that will use the 23542
land predominantly in agriculture.23543

       (D)(E)(1) When the director considers it to be necessary or 23544
appropriate, the director may sell real property acquired in fee, 23545
and stationary personal property or equipment acquired by gift, 23546
devise, bequest, or purchase, under division (B) of this section 23547
on such terms as the director considers to be advantageous to this 23548
state.23549

       (2) An agricultural easement acquired under division (B) of 23550
this section may be extinguished under the circumstances 23551
prescribed, and in accordance with the terms and conditions set 23552
forth, in the instrument conveying the agricultural easement.23553

       (E)(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 23554
agricultural easement purchase fund. The fund shall consist of the 23555
proceeds received from the sale of real and personal property 23556
under division (D)(E) of this section; moneys received due to the 23557
extinguishment of agricultural easements acquired by the director 23558
under division (B) of this section or section 5301.691 of the 23559
Revised Code; moneys received due to the extinguishment of 23560
agricultural easements purchased with the assistance of matching 23561
grants made under section 901.22 of the Revised Code; gifts, 23562
bequests, devises, and contributions received by the director for 23563
the purpose of acquiring agricultural easements; and grants 23564
received from public or private sources for the purpose of 23565
purchasing agricultural easements. The fund shall be administered 23566
by the director, and moneys in the fund shall be used by the 23567
director exclusively to purchase agricultural easements under 23568
division (A) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code and provide 23569
matching grants under section 901.22 of the Revised Code to 23570
municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water 23571
conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the 23572
Revised Code, and charitable organizations described in division 23573
(B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the purchase of 23574
agricultural easements. Money in the fund shall be used only to 23575
purchase agricultural easements on land that is valued for 23576
purposes of real property taxation at its current value for 23577
agricultural use under section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that 23578
constitutes a homestead when the easement is purchased.23579

       (F)(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 23580
clean Ohio agricultural easement fund. Twelve and one-half per 23581
cent of net proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to 23582
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited 23583
into the fund. The fund also shall consist of money credited to it 23584
under section 151.50 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be used 23585
by the director for the purposes of this section, section 901.22 23586
of the Revised Code, and the provisions of sections 5301.67 to 23587
5301.70 of the Revised Code governing agricultural easements. 23588
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund and 23589
may be used to pay costs incurred by the director in administering 23590
those sections and provisions.23591

       (G)(H) The term of an agricultural easement purchased wholly 23592
or in part with money from the clean Ohio agricultural easement 23593
fund or the agricultural easement purchase fund shall be perpetual 23594
and shall run with the land.23595

       Sec. 901.22.  (A) The director of agriculture, in accordance 23596
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that do 23597
all of the following:23598

       (1) Establish procedures and eligibility criteria for making 23599
matching grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, 23600
soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 23601
1515. of the Revised Code, and charitable organizations described 23602
in division (B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the 23603
purchase of agricultural easements. With respect to agricultural 23604
easements that are purchased or proposed to be purchased with such 23605
matching grants that consist in whole or in part of moneys from 23606
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 23607
901.21 of the Revised Code, the rules shall establish all of the 23608
following:23609

       (a) Procedures for all of the following:23610

       (i) Soliciting and accepting applications for matching 23611
grants;23612

       (ii) Participation by local governments and by the public in 23613
the process of making matching grants to charitable organizations;23614

       (iii) Notifying local governments, charitable organizations, 23615
and organizations that represent the interests of farmers of the 23616
ranking system established in rules adopted under division 23617
(A)(1)(b) of this section.23618

       (b) A ranking system for applications for the matching grants 23619
that is based on the soil type, proximity of the land or other 23620
land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted 23621
under this section and that is the subject of an application to 23622
other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 23623
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 23624
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 23625
protected from development, farm stewardship, development 23626
pressure, and, if applicable, a local comprehensive land use plan 23627
involved with a proposed agricultural easement. The rules shall 23628
require that preference be given to proposed agricultural 23629
easements that involve the greatest proportion of all of the 23630
following:23631

       (i) Prime soils, unique or locally important soils, 23632
microclimates, or similar features;23633

       (ii) Land that is adjacent to or that is in close proximity 23634
to other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 23635
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 23636
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 23637
protected from development, by agricultural easement or otherwise, 23638
so that a buffer would exist between the land involving the 23639
proposed agricultural easement and areas that have been developed 23640
or likely will be developed for purposes other than agriculture;23641

       (iii) The use of best management practices, including 23642
federally or state approved conservation plans, and a history of 23643
substantial compliance with applicable federal and state laws;23644

       (iv) Development pressure that is imminent, but not a result 23645
of current location in the direct path of urban development;23646

       (v) Areas identified for agricultural protection in local 23647
comprehensive land use plans.23648

       (c) Any other criteria that the director determines are 23649
necessary for selecting applications for matching grants;23650

       (d) Requirements regarding the information that must be 23651
included in the annual monitoring report that must be prepared for 23652
an agricultural easement under division (E)(2) of section 5301.691 23653
of the Revised Code, procedures for submitting a copy of the 23654
report to the office of farmland preservation in the department of 23655
agriculture, and requirements and procedures governing corrective 23656
actions that may be necessary to enforce the terms of the 23657
agricultural easement.23658

       (2) Establish provisions that shall be included in the 23659
instrument conveying to a municipal corporation, county, township, 23660
soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization 23661
any agricultural easement purchased with matching grant funds 23662
provided by the director under this section, including, without 23663
limitation, all of the following provisions:23664

       (a) A provision stating that an easement so purchased may be 23665
extinguished only if an unexpected change in the conditions of or 23666
surrounding the land that is subject to the easement makes 23667
impossible or impractical the continued use of the land for the 23668
purposes described in the easement, or if the requirements of the 23669
easement are extinguished by judicial proceedings;23670

       (b) A provision requiring that, upon the sale, exchange, or 23671
involuntary conversion of the land subject to the easement, the 23672
holder of the easement shall be paid an amount of money that is at 23673
least equal to the proportionate value of the easement compared to 23674
the total value of the land at the time the easement was acquired;23675

       (c) A provision requiring that, upon receipt of the portion 23676
of the proceeds of a sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion 23677
described in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the municipal 23678
corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation 23679
district, or charitable organization remit to the director an 23680
amount of money equal to the percentage of the cost of purchasing 23681
the easement it received as a matching grant under this section.23682

       Moneys received by the director pursuant to rules adopted 23683
under division (A)(2)(c) of this section shall be credited to the 23684
agricultural easement purchase fund created in section 901.21 of 23685
the Revised Code.23686

       (3) Establish a provision that provides a charitable 23687
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 23688
water conservation district with the option of purchasing 23689
agricultural easements either in installments or with a lump sum 23690
payment. The rules shall include a requirement that a charitable 23691
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 23692
water conservation district negotiate with the seller of the 23693
agricultural easement concerning any installment payment terms, 23694
including the dates and amounts of payments and the interest rate 23695
on the outstanding balance. The rules also shall require the 23696
director to approve any method of payment that is undertaken in 23697
accordance with the rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this 23698
section.23699

       (4) Establish any other requirements that the director 23700
considers to be necessary or appropriate to implement or 23701
administer a program to make matching grants under this section 23702
and monitor those grants.23703

       (B) The director may develop guidelines regarding the 23704
acquisition of agricultural easements by the department of 23705
agriculture and the provisions of instruments conveying those 23706
easements. The director may make the guidelines available to 23707
public and private entities authorized to acquire and hold 23708
agricultural easements.23709

       (C) The director may provide technical assistance in 23710
developing a program for the acquisition and monitoring of 23711
agricultural easements to public and private entities authorized 23712
to hold agricultural easements. The technical assistance may 23713
include, without limitation, reviewing and providing advisory 23714
recommendations regarding draft instruments conveying agricultural 23715
easements.23716

       (D)(1) The director may make matching grants from the 23717
agricultural easement purchase fund and the clean Ohio 23718
agricultural easement fund to municipal corporations, counties, 23719
townships, soil and water conservation districts, and charitable 23720
organizations to assist those political subdivisions and 23721
charitable organizations in purchasing agricultural easements. 23722
Application for a matching grant shall be made on forms prescribed 23723
and provided by the director. The matching grants shall be made in 23724
compliance with the criteria and procedures established in rules 23725
adopted under this section. Instruments conveying agricultural 23726
easements purchased with matching grant funds provided under this 23727
section, at a minimum, shall include the mandatory provisions set 23728
forth in those rules.23729

       Matching grants made under this division using moneys from 23730
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 23731
901.21 of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent 23732
of the value of an agricultural easement as determined by a 23733
general real estate appraiser who is certified under Chapter 4763. 23734
of the Revised Code or as determined through a points-based 23735
appraisal system established under division (D)(2) of this 23736
section. Not less than twenty-five per cent of the value of the 23737
agricultural easement shall be provided by the recipient of the 23738
matching grant or donated by the person who is transferring the 23739
easement to the grant recipient. The amount of such a matching 23740
grant used for the purchase of a single agricultural easement 23741
shall not exceed one million dollars.23742

       (2) The director shall establish a points-based appraisal 23743
system for the purposes of division (D)(1) of this section. The 23744
director may include any or all of the following factors in the 23745
system:23746

       (a) Whether the applicable county auditor has determined that 23747
the land is land that is devoted exclusively to agriculture for 23748
the purposes of sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code;23749

       (b) Changes in land values following the completion of the 23750
applicable county auditor's reappraisal or triennial update;23751

       (c) Soil types and productivity;23752

       (d) Proximity of the land to land that is already subject to 23753
an agricultural easement, conservation easement created under 23754
sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code, or similar 23755
land-use limitation;23756

       (e) Proximity of the land to water and sewer lines, road 23757
interchanges, and nonagricultural development;23758

       (f) Parcel size and roadway frontage of the land;23759

       (g) Existence of an agreement entered into under division (D) 23760
of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code or of an operation and 23761
management plan developed under division (A) of section 1511.021 23762
of the Revised Code;23763

       (h) Existence of a comprehensive plan that is adopted under 23764
section 303.02 or 519.02 of the Revised Code or that is adopted by 23765
the planning commission of a municipal corporation under section 23766
713.06 of the Revised Code;23767

       (i) Any other factors that the director determines are 23768
necessary for inclusion in the system.23769

       (E) An agricultural easement acquired as a result of a 23770
matching grant awarded under division (D) of this section may 23771
include a provision to preserve a unique natural or physical 23772
feature on the land so long as the use of the land remains 23773
predominantly agricultural.23774

       (F) For any agricultural easement purchased with a matching 23775
grant that consists in whole or in part of moneys from the clean 23776
Ohio agricultural easement fund, the director shall be named as a 23777
grantee on the instrument conveying the easement, as shall the 23778
municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water 23779
conservation district, or charitable organization that receives 23780
the grant.23781

       (F)(G)(1) The director shall monitor and evaluate the 23782
effectiveness and efficiency of the agricultural easement program 23783
as a farmland preservation tool. On or before July 1, 1999, and 23784
the first day of July of each year thereafter, the director shall 23785
prepare and submit a report to the chairpersons of the standing 23786
committees of the senate and the house of representatives that 23787
consider legislation regarding agriculture. The report shall 23788
consider and address the following criteria to determine the 23789
program's effectiveness:23790

       (a) The number of agricultural easements purchased during the 23791
preceding year;23792

       (b) The location of those easements;23793

       (c) The number of acres of land preserved for agricultural 23794
use;23795

       (d) The amount of money used by a municipal corporation, 23796
township, county, or soil and water conservation district from any 23797
fund to purchase the agricultural easements;23798

       (e) The number of state matching grants given to purchase the 23799
agricultural easements;23800

       (f) The amount of state matching grant moneys used to 23801
purchase the agricultural easements.23802

       (2) The report also shall consider and include, at a minimum, 23803
the following information for each county to determine the 23804
program's efficiency:23805

       (a) The total number of acres in the county;23806

       (b) The total number of acres in current agricultural use;23807

       (c) The total number of acres preserved for agricultural use 23808
in the preceding year;23809

       (d) The average cost, per acre, of land preserved for 23810
agricultural use in the preceding year.23811

       Sec. 901.23. (A) There is hereby created the farmland 23812
preservation advisory board consisting of twelve voting members 23813
appointed by the director of agriculture as follows:23814

       (1) One member who is a county commissioner or a 23815
representative of a statewide organization that represents county 23816
commissioners;23817

       (2) One member who is a township trustee or a representative 23818
of a statewide organization that represents township trustees;23819

       (3) One representative of the Ohio state university;23820

       (4) One representative of a national nonprofit organization 23821
dedicated to the preservation of farmland;23822

       (5) One representative each of development, environmental, 23823
planning, and soil and water conservation interests;23824

       (6) One farmer from each of the state's four quadrants.23825

        Terms of office shall be staggered and shall be for three 23826
years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as 23827
did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from 23828
the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the 23829
member was appointed, except that the term of any member who is a 23830
county commissioner or township trustee shall end when the member 23831
ceases to serve as a county commissioner or township trustee.23832

       Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 23833
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 23834
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 23835
for which the member was appointed shall serve for the remainder 23836
of that term. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the 23837
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 23838
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 23839
whichever occurs first. Members shall serve at the pleasure of the 23840
director.23841

       The executive director of the office of farmland preservation 23842
in the department of agriculture or another employee of the 23843
department who is designated by the director shall serve as the 23844
nonvoting chairperson of the board. The director annually shall 23845
designate one member of the board to serve as its 23846
vice-chairperson. The board may adopt bylaws governing its 23847
operation and shall meet at a time when the director, or the 23848
director's designee, considers it appropriate in order for the 23849
board to provide advice as required under division (B) of this 23850
section.23851

       (B) The board shall provide advice to the director regarding 23852
all of the following:23853

       (1) The design and implementation of an agricultural easement 23854
purchase program;23855

       (2) The selection of applications that will be awarded 23856
matching grants under division (D) of section 901.22 of the 23857
Revised Code for the purchase of agricultural easements;23858

       (3) The design and implementation of any other statewide 23859
farmland protection measures that the director considers 23860
appropriate.23861

       (C) Serving as a member of the board does not constitute 23862
holding a public office or position of employment under the laws 23863
of this state and does not constitute grounds for removal of 23864
public officers or employees from their offices or positions of 23865
employment.23866

       (D) A board member shall be reimbursed for actual and 23867
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of duties as a board 23868
member.23869

       Sec. 903.11.  (A) The director of agriculture may enter into 23870
contracts or agreements to carry out the purposes of this chapter 23871
with any public or private person, including the Ohio state 23872
universityOSU extension service, the natural resources 23873
conservation service in the United States department of 23874
agriculture, the environmental protection agency, the division of 23875
soil and water resources in the department of natural resources, 23876
and soil and water conservation districts established under 23877
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code. However, the director shall not 23878
enter into a contract or agreement with a private person for the 23879
review of applications for permits to install, permits to operate, 23880
NPDES permits, or review compliance certificates that are issued 23881
under this chapter or for the inspection of a facility regulated 23882
under this chapter or with any person for the issuance of any of 23883
those permits or certificates or for the enforcement of this 23884
chapter and rules adopted under it.23885

       (B) The director may administer grants and loans using moneys 23886
from the federal government and other sources, public or private, 23887
for carrying out any of the director's functions. Nothing in this 23888
chapter shall be construed to limit the eligibility of owners or 23889
operators of animal feeding facilities or other agricultural 23890
enterprises to receive moneys from the water pollution control 23891
loan fund established under section 6111.036 of the Revised Code 23892
and the nonpoint source pollution management fund established 23893
under section 6111.037 of the Revised Code.23894

       The director of agriculture shall provide the director of 23895
environmental protection with written recommendations for 23896
providing financial assistance from those funds to agricultural 23897
enterprises. The director of environmental protection shall 23898
consider the recommendations in developing priorities for 23899
providing financial assistance from the funds.23900

       Sec. 903.30. (A) No person shall violate division (B)(1), 23901
(C)(1), (K), or (M)(1) or (2) of section 903.08 of the Revised 23902
Code or the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate.23903

        (B) No person shall violate or fail to perform any duty 23904
required by sections 903.01 to 903.07 and 903.12 of the Revised 23905
Code, violate a rule, or violate an order or term or condition of 23906
a permit issued by the director of agriculture under those 23907
sections or rules.23908

        (C) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 23909
director, shall prosecute any person who violates division (A) or 23910
(B) of this section. 23911

       Sec. 903.99.  (A) Whoever negligently violates division 23912
(A)(2) of section 903.02 or division (A)(2) of section 903.0323913
903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third 23914
degree on a first offense, a misdemeanor of the second degree on a 23915
second offense, and a misdemeanor of the first degree on a third 23916
or subsequent offense. Each ten-day period that the offense 23917
continuesshall be fined not more than ten thousand dollars or 23918
imprisoned for not more than ninety days, or both. Each day of 23919
violation constitutes a separate offense. For purposes of this 23920
division, notwithstanding division (D) of section 2901.22 of the 23921
Revised Code, a person acts negligently when, because of a lapse 23922
from due care, the person fails to perceive or avoid a risk that 23923
the person's conduct may cause a certain result or may be of a 23924
certain nature. A person is negligent with respect to 23925
circumstances when, because of a lapse from due care, the person 23926
fails to perceive or avoid a risk that such circumstances may 23927
exist.23928

       (B) Whoever recklessly violates the terms and conditions of a 23929
permit to install issued under section 903.02 of the Revised Code 23930
or of a permit to operate issued under section 903.03 of the 23931
Revised Code, division (A) or (B)(1), (C)(1), or (M)(1) or (2) of 23932
section 903.08 of the Revised Code, or the NPDES provisions of a 23933
permit to operate shall be fined not more than twenty-five 23934
thousand dollars.of section 903.30 of the Revised Code shall be 23935
fined not more than ten thousand dollars or imprisoned for not 23936
more than one year, or both. Each day of violation constitutes a 23937
separate offense.23938

       (C) Whoever knowingly violates division (K)(A) or (B) of 23939
section 903.08903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony 23940
and shall be fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars or 23941
imprisoned for not more than three years, or both. Each day of 23942
violation constitutes a separate offense.23943

       Sec. 905.06.  The director of agriculture shall:23944

       (A) Gather information on the performance of various 23945
agricultural additives, including distributors' and manufacturers' 23946
claims, the results of investigation or research on additives, and 23947
the conditions when they are useful, and make the information 23948
available to the public;23949

       (B) Provide and distribute, in cooperation with the 23950
agriculturalOSU extension service, information on the use of 23951
agricultural additives;23952

       (C) Provide for the prompt and thorough investigation of 23953
written complaints received concerning agricultural additives.23954

       Sec. 909.15.  All moneys from registration fees and from 23955
fines imposed and recovered under sections 909.01 to 909.18 of the 23956
Revised Code, shall be paid to the director of agriculture, who 23957
shall deposit such moneys in the state treasury to the credit of 23958
the general revenueplant pest program fund created in section 23959
927.54 of the Revised Code.23960

       Sec. 924.06.  (A) Within ninety days after he has approved a 23961
proposed amendment to an agricultural commodity marketing program 23962
established before April 10, 1985, the director of agriculture 23963
shall determine by a referendum whether the eligible producers 23964
favor the proposed amendment to the program. Any proposed 23965
amendment to a marketing program established before April 10, 23966
1985, is favored by the producers of the agricultural commodity 23967
which would be affected by the proposed amendment if either of the 23968
following occurs:23969

       (1) Sixty-six and two-thirds per cent or more, by number, of 23970
the producers who vote in the referendum, vote in favor of the 23971
amendment, and represent a majority of the volume of the affected 23972
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 23973
producers who voted in the referendum;23974

       (2) A majority of the producers who vote in the referendum, 23975
vote in favor of the amendment and represent sixty-six and 23976
two-thirds per cent, or more, of the volume of the affected 23977
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 23978
the producers who voted in the referendum.23979

       (B) Within ninety days after he has approvedapproving an 23980
agricultural commodity marketing program proposed on or after23981
April 10, 1985the effective date of this amendment, or a proposed 23982
amendment to such aan agricultural commodity marketing program, 23983
the director of agriculture shall determine by a referendum 23984
whether the eligible producers favor the proposed marketing 23985
program or amendment. Any such marketing program or amendment to 23986
such a marketing program is favored by the producers of the 23987
agricultural commodity that would be affected by the proposed 23988
program or amendment if a majority of the producers who vote in 23989
the referendum vote in favor of the program or amendment.23990

       (C)(B) If the producers who vote in any referendum held 23991
pursuant to this section do not favor a proposed marketing 23992
program, or proposed amendment to a program, the director shall 23993
hold no additional referendum on that proposed program or proposed 23994
amendment during the ten months following the close of the 23995
referendum at which the producers did not favor that proposed 23996
program or amendment.23997

       (D)(C) In any referendum held pursuant to this section, each 23998
eligible producer of the Ohio agricultural commodity whichthat23999
would be affected by the proposed marketing program, or amendment 24000
to a program, is entitled to one vote.24001

       (E)(D) In any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 24002
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, 24003
votes may be cast in person or by mailing a ballot to a polling 24004
place designated by the director. The director shall establish a 24005
three-day period during which eligible producers may vote in 24006
person during normal business hours at polling places designated 24007
by the director. The director or other appropriate person shall 24008
send a mail-in ballot by ordinary first-class mail to any eligible 24009
producer who requests one by calling the toll-free telephone 24010
number or sending in the ballot request form provided for in 24011
division (F)(E) of this section, by calling one of the polling 24012
places designated by the director, or by any additional method 24013
that the director or operating committee may provide. No ballot 24014
returned by mail shall be valid if it is postmarked later than the 24015
third day of the election period established by the director.24016

       (F)(E) For any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 24017
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, the 24018
director or operating committee shall cause a ballot request form 24019
to be published at least thirty days before the beginning of the 24020
election period established under division (E)(D) of this section 24021
in at least two appropriate periodicals designated by the 24022
director, and shall make the form available for reproduction to 24023
any interested group or association. The director shall provide a 24024
toll-free telephone number that producers may call to request a 24025
ballot.24026

       Sec. 927.54. The plant pest program fund is hereby created in 24027
the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money credited to it 24028
under section 909.15 of the Revised Code and under this chapter 24029
and any rules adopted under it. The director of agriculture shall 24030
use money in the fund to administer this chapter and Chapter 909. 24031
of the Revised Code.24032

        The director shall keep accurate records of all receipts into 24033
and disbursements from the fund and shall prepare, and provide 24034
upon request, an annual report classifying the receipts and 24035
disbursements that pertain to plant pests.24036

       Sec. 955.201. (A) As used in this section and in section 24037
955.202 of the Revised Code, "Ohio pet fund" means a nonprofit 24038
corporation organized by that name under Chapter 1702. of the 24039
Revised Code that consists of humane societies, veterinarians, 24040
animal shelters, companion animal breeders, dog wardens, or 24041
similar individuals and entities.24042

        (B) The Ohio pet fund shall do all of the following:24043

       (1) Establish eligibility criteria for organizations that may 24044
receive financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Those 24045
organizations may include any of the following:24046

        (a) An animal shelter as defined in section 4729.01 of the 24047
Revised Code;24048

       (b) A local nonprofit veterinary association that operates a 24049
program for the sterilization of dogs and cats;24050

       (c) A charitable organization that is exempt from federal 24051
income taxation under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue 24052
Code and a purpose of which is to support programs for the 24053
sterilization of dogs and cats and educational programs concerning 24054
the proper veterinary care of those animals.24055

       (2) Establish procedures for applying for financial 24056
assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Application procedures shall 24057
require eligible organizations to submit detailed proposals that 24058
outline the intended uses of the moneys sought.24059

       (3) Establish eligibility criteria for sterilization and 24060
educational programs for which moneys from the Ohio pet fund may 24061
be used and, consistent with division (C) of this section, 24062
establish eligibility criteria for individuals who seek 24063
sterilization for their dogs and cats from eligible organizations;24064

       (4) Establish procedures for the disbursement of moneys the 24065
Ohio pet fund receives from license plate contributions pursuant 24066
to division (C) of section 4503.551 of the Revised Code;24067

       (5) Advertise or otherwise provide notification of the 24068
availability of financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund for 24069
eligible organizations;24070

       (6) Design markings to be inscribed on "pets" license plates 24071
under section 4503.551 of the Revised Code.24072

       (C)(1) The owner of a dog or cat is eligible for dog or cat 24073
sterilization services from an eligible organization when those 24074
services are subsidized in whole or in part by money from the Ohio 24075
pet fund if any of the following applies:24076

       (a) The income of the owner's family does not exceed one 24077
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.24078

       (b) The owner, or any member of the owner's family who 24079
resides with the owner, is a recipient or beneficiary of one of 24080
the following government assistance programs:24081

       (i) Low-income housing assistance under the "United States 24082
Housing Act of 1937," 42 U.S.C.A. 1437f, as amended, known as the 24083
federal section 8 housing program;24084

       (ii) The Ohio works first program established by Chapter 24085
5107. of the Revised Code;24086

       (iii) Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 24087
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 24088
assistanceThe medicaid program or medicaid, provided by the 24089
department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the 24090
Revised Code;24091

       (iv) A program or law administered by the United States 24092
department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration for 24093
any service-connected disability;24094

       (v) The supplemental nutrition assistance program established 24095
under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.), 24096
administered by the department of job and family services under 24097
section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;24098

       (vi) The "special supplemental nutrition program for women, 24099
infants, and children" established under the "Child Nutrition Act 24100
of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1786, as amended, administered 24101
by the department of health under section 3701.132 of the Revised 24102
Code;24103

       (vii) Supplemental security income under Title XVI of the 24104
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as 24105
amended;24106

       (viii) Social security disability insurance benefits provided 24107
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 24108
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended.24109

       (c) The owner of the dog or cat submits to the eligible 24110
organization operating the sterilization program either of the 24111
following:24112

       (i) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat was 24113
adopted from a licensed animal shelter, a municipal, county, or 24114
regional pound, or a holding and impoundment facility that 24115
contracts with a municipal corporation;24116

       (ii) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat 24117
was adopted through a nonprofit corporation operating an animal 24118
adoption referral service whose holding facility, if any, is 24119
licensed in accordance with state law or a municipal ordinance.24120

       (2) The Ohio pet fund shall determine the type of documentary 24121
evidence that must be presented by the owner of a dog or cat to 24122
show that the income of the owner's family does not exceed one 24123
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline or that 24124
the owner is eligible under division (C)(1)(b) of this section.24125

       (D) As used in division (C) of this section, "federal poverty 24126
guideline" means the official poverty guideline as revised 24127
annually by the United States department of health and human 24128
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 24129
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 24130
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family of the 24131
person whose income is being determined.24132

       Sec. 956.07. (A) A person who is applying for a license to 24133
operate a high volume breeder or to act as or perform the 24134
functions of a dog retailer under section 956.04 or 956.05 of the 24135
Revised Code, as applicable, shall include with the application 24136
for a license a nonrefundable license application fee. For the 24137
purpose of calculating the application fee for a high volume 24138
breeder, the sale of one dog from a litter constitutes the sale of 24139
a litter. The application fees are as follows:24140

       (1) For a high volume breeder:24141

       (a) One hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 24142
annually sells at least nine, but not more than fifteen litters;24143

       (b) Two hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 24144
annually sells at least sixteen, but not more than twenty-five 24145
litters;24146

       (c) Three hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 24147
annually sells at least twenty-six, but not more than thirty-five 24148
litters;24149

       (d) Five hundred dollars if the high volume breeder annually 24150
sells at least thirty-six, but not more than forty-five litters;24151

       (e) Seven hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 24152
annually sells forty-six or more litters.24153

       (2) For a dog retailer, five hundred dollars.24154

       (B) Money collected by the director of agriculture from each 24155
application fee submitted under this section shall be transmitted 24156
by the director to the treasurer ofdeposited in the state 24157
treasury to be credited tothe credit of the high volume breeder 24158
kennel control license fund created in section 956.18 of the 24159
Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall transfer to the county 24160
auditor of the county in which a high volume breeder is located or 24161
will be locateddirector shall use fifty dollars of the 24162
application fee submitted by thea high volume breeder under this 24163
section or an amount equal to the fee charged in that county for 24164
the registration of a kennel under section 955.14 of the Revised 24165
Code in the county in which the high volume breeder is located or 24166
will be located, whichever is greater, to reimburse that county. 24167
The county auditor shall deposit the transferred money into that 24168
county's dog and kennel fund created under section 955.20 of the 24169
Revised Code.24170

       Sec. 956.18. (A) All money collected by the director of 24171
agriculture from license fees under section 956.08956.07 and 24172
civil penalties assessed under section 956.13 of the Revised Code 24173
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the high 24174
volume breeder kennel control license fund, which is hereby 24175
created. The fund shall also consist of money appropriated to it.24176

       (B) No money may be released from the fund without 24177
controlling board approval. The director shall request the 24178
controlling board to release money in an amount not to exceed two 24179
million five hundred thousand dollars per biennium.24180

        (C) The director shall use the money in the fund for the 24181
purpose of administering this chapter and rules adopted under it.24182

       Sec. 991.03.  (A) The Ohio expositions commission shall:24183

       (1) Conduct at least one fair or exposition annually;24184

       (2) Maintain and manage property held by the state for the 24185
purpose of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits;24186

       (3) As provided in section 109.122 of the Revised Code, 24187
provide notice of or copies of any proposed entertainment or 24188
sponsorship contracts to the attorney general.24189

       (B) The commission may:24190

       (1) Conduct such additional fairs, expositions, or 24191
exhibitions as the commission determines are in the general public 24192
interest;24193

       (2) Accept on behalf of the state conveyances of property for 24194
the purposes of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits, 24195
subject to any terms and conditions agreed to by the commission 24196
and approved by the controlling board;24197

       (3) Accept gifts, devises, and bequests of money, lands, and 24198
other property and apply the money, lands, or other property 24199
according to the terms of the gift, devise, or bequest. A 24200
political subdivision as authorized by law may make gifts and 24201
devises to the commission, and the commission shall apply such a 24202
gift or devise according to the terms of the gift or devise. All 24203
gifts and bequests of money accepted under this division shall be 24204
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the Ohio 24205
expositions support fund.24206

       (4) Enter into contracts that the commission considers 24207
necessary or worthwhile in the conduct of its purposes, provided 24208
that contracts made for a term exceeding two years, other than 24209
those described in division (B)(4) of this section, shall be 24210
subject to the approval of the controlling board and provided that 24211
the attorney general, pursuant to the attorney general's authority 24212
under section 109.122 of the Revised Code, has not disapproved the 24213
proposed contract;24214

       (4)(5) Enter into contracts for the mutual exchange of goods 24215
or services;24216

       (5)(6) Sell or convey all or a portion of the property, land, 24217
or buildings under its management subject to the approval of the 24218
legislature;24219

       (6)(7) Grant leases on all or any part of the property, land, 24220
or buildings under the management of the commission to private or 24221
public organizations, which appear to be in the best interests of 24222
the state, with the approval of the controlling board and director 24223
of administrative services, subject to the following conditions:24224

       (a) The lessees shall make or construct improvements on such 24225
lands or buildings at no cost to the commission or to the state, 24226
subject to prior approval by the director of administrative 24227
services of detailed plans and specifications of such 24228
improvements.24229

       (b) No person, firm, or corporation shall cause a lien to be 24230
filed against any funds or property of the state or of the 24231
commission as a result of a lessee's activities pursuant to 24232
division (B)(6)(7)(a) of this section.24233

       (c) Leases shall be entered into subject to the sale of such 24234
property, lands, or buildings during the term of the lease.24235

       (d) No leases shall be made which interfere with a fair, 24236
exposition, or exhibition on such lands.24237

       (7)(8) Encumber appropriations for the entire amount of a 24238
contract at the time the contract is made, even though the 24239
contract will not be performed in the fiscal year for which the 24240
appropriations were made.24241

       (8)(9) Implement a credit card payment program permitting 24242
payment by means of a credit card of any fees, charges, and 24243
rentals associated with conducting fairs, expositions, and 24244
exhibits. The commission may open an account outside the state 24245
treasury in a financial institution for the purpose of depositing 24246
credit card receipts. By the end of the business day following the 24247
deposit of the receipts, the financial institution shall make 24248
available to the commission funds in the amount of the receipts. 24249
The commission shall then pay these funds into the state treasury 24250
to the credit of the Ohio expositions fund.24251

       The commission shall adopt rules as necessary to carry out 24252
the purposes of division (B)(8)(9) of this section. The rules 24253
shall include standards for determining eligible financial 24254
institutions and the manner in which funds shall be made available 24255
and shall be consistent with the standards contained in sections 24256
135.03, 135.18, and 135.181 of the Revised Code.24257

       The commission shall not adopt or enforce any rules which 24258
will prohibit livestock exhibited at the Ohio state fair from 24259
participating in county and independent fairs in the state.24260

       Sec. 991.04.  There is hereby established in the state 24261
treasury the Ohio expositions fund. AllExcept for gifts and 24262
bequests of money accepted under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 24263
of the Revised Code, all moneys collected by the Ohio expositions 24264
commission pursuant to sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 24265
Code and any income generated from the investment of those moneys 24266
shall be paid into the fund and may be used to defray the costs of 24267
administration and carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 to 24268
991.07 of the Revised Code.24269

       With the approval of the director of budget and management, 24270
provisions may be made for a cash fund to be established on the 24271
state fairgrounds during the period of activities related to the 24272
holding of the annual state fair. The purpose of such fund is to 24273
provide for payment of premiums and entertainers and for immediate 24274
payment of small amounts for obligations, including ticket 24275
refunds, of such nature as to require immediate payment.24276

       The expositions commission shall cause to be kept an accurate 24277
record of all transactions, contracts, and proceedings. The 24278
director of budget and management shall prescribe a system of 24279
accounting and reporting. Such system shall include methods and 24280
forms showing the sources from which all revenues of the 24281
expositions commission are received, the amount collected from 24282
each source, and the amount expended for each purpose.24283

       Sec. 991.041. There is in the state treasury the Ohio 24284
expositions support fund. All gifts and bequests of money accepted 24285
under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 of the Revised Code shall 24286
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the fund. 24287
Investment earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. 24288
The Ohio expositions commission may use the fund, consistent with 24289
the terms of the gift or bequest, to defray the cost of 24290
administration and of carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 24291
to 991.07 of the Revised Code.24292

       Sec. 991.06.  Annually on or before the thirtieth day of 24293
September the Ohio expositions commission, through its general 24294
manager, shall prepare and file with the auditor of state a 24295
statement showing the total amount received from each source of 24296
revenue, the total amount disbursed for each class of 24297
expenditures, and the aggregate of all receipts and expenditures 24298
of the commission. This statement shall also include a summary of 24299
each contract for the mutual exchange of goods or services entered 24300
into by the commission under division (B)(4) of section 991.03 of 24301
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of such statement, the auditor of 24302
state shall have it verified and make a report of histhe auditor 24303
of state's findings thereon to the governor.24304

       Assistant auditors of state shall conduct an audit of 24305
activities of the annual Ohio state fair on the Ohio exposition 24306
center during the period when the fair is in progress.24307

       The cost of such audit shall be included in the annual 24308
expenses of the Ohio expositions commission.24309

       Sec. 1332.26. (A) No political subdivision shall require a 24310
video service provider to obtain from it any authority to provide 24311
video service within its boundaries.24312

       (B) Except as authorized under division (C) of this section 24313
and under sections 1332.30 and 1332.32 of the Revised Code, no 24314
political subdivision shall request anything of value from a video 24315
service provider for providing video service; impose any fee, 24316
license, or gross receipt tax on the provision of video service by 24317
such a provider; or impose any franchise or other requirement on 24318
the provision of video service by a video service provider, 24319
including, but not limited to, any provision regulating rates 24320
charged by a video service provider or establishing any build-out 24321
requirement or requirement to deploy any facility or equipment.24322

       (C) When requested to do so, a video service provider shall 24323
assist a municipal corporation or township in addressing video 24324
service subscriber complaints, in a manner consistent with the 24325
provider's complaint handling process set forth in its application 24326
pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 1332.24 of the Revised 24327
Code. Nothing in sections 1332.21 to 1332.34 of the Revised Code 24328
affects any authority granted under sections 1345.01 to 1345.13 of 24329
the Revised Code.24330

       (D) A video service provider shall meet all of the following 24331
customer service standards:24332

       (1) The provider shall restore video service within 24333
seventy-two hours after a subscriber reports a service 24334
interruption or other problem if the cause was not a natural 24335
disaster.24336

       (2) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 24337
and if the interruption is caused by the video service provider 24338
and lasts for more than fours hours in a given day, the provider 24339
shall give the subscriber a credit in the amount of the cost of 24340
each such day's video service as would be billed to the 24341
subscriber.24342

       (3) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 24343
and if the interruption is not caused by the video service 24344
provider and lasts for more than twenty-four consecutive hours, 24345
the provider shall give the subscriber, for each hour of service 24346
interruption, a credit in the amount of the cost of per hour video 24347
service as would be billed to the subscriber.24348

       (4) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 24349
days' advance, written notice before removing a channel from the 24350
provider's video service, but no such notice is required if the 24351
provider must remove the channel because of circumstances beyond 24352
its control.24353

       (5) The provider shall give a subscriber at least ten days' 24354
advance, written notice of a disconnection of all or part of the 24355
subscriber's video service, except if the disconnectionany of the 24356
following apply:24357

       (a) Disconnection has been requested by the subscriber,.24358

       (b) Disconnection is necessary to prevent theft of video 24359
service, or.24360

       (c) Disconnection is necessary to prevent the use of video 24361
service through fraud.24362

       (d) Disconnection is necessary to reduce or prevent signal 24363
leakage as described in 47 C.F.R. 76.611. 24364

       (6) The provider shall not establish a due date earlier than 24365
fourteen days after a video service bill is issued.24366

       (7) The provider shall not disconnect all or part of a 24367
subscriber's video service for failure of the subscriber to pay 24368
any amount of its video service bill, until the billamount is at 24369
least forty-fivefourteen days past due.24370

       (7)(8) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 24371
days' advance, written notice before instituting an increase in 24372
video service rates.24373

       Sec. 1337.11.  As used in sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 24374
Revised Code:24375

       (A) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 24376
older.24377

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 24378
principal or the family of a principal has assigned primary 24379
responsibility for the treatment or care of the principal or, if 24380
the responsibility has not been assigned, the physician who has 24381
accepted that responsibility.24382

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:24383

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 24384
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;24385

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 24386
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;24387

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 24388
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 24389
or discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death.24390

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 24391
conjunction with the attending physician of a principal, makes one 24392
or more determinations that are required to be made by the 24393
attending physician, or to be made by the attending physician and 24394
one other physician, by an applicable provision of sections 24395
1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code, to a reasonable degree of 24396
medical certainty and in accordance with reasonable medical 24397
standards.24398

       (E) "Declaration for mental health treatment" has the same 24399
meaning as in section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.24400

       (F) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 24401
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 24402
management of the person of an incompetent.24403

       (G) "Health care" means any care, treatment, service, or 24404
procedure to maintain, diagnose, or treat an individual's physical 24405
or mental condition or physical or mental health.24406

       (H) "Health care decision" means informed consent, refusal to 24407
give informed consent, or withdrawal of informed consent to health 24408
care.24409

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:24410

       (1) A hospital;24411

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 24412
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 24413
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;24414

       (3) A nursing home;24415

       (4) A home health agency;24416

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded;24417

       (6) A regulated community mental health organization.24418

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 24419
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 24420
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 24421
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 24422
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 24423
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.24424

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 24425
3701.881 of the Revised Code.24426

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 24427
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 24428
Revised Code.24429

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 24430
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.24431

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 24432
technologically administered.24433

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 24434
of the Revised Code.24435

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 24436
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 24437
Code.24438

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 24439
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 24440
to a principal, will serve principally to prolong the process of 24441
dying.24442

       (R) "Medical claim" has the same meaning as in section 24443
2305.113 of the Revised Code.24444

       (S) "Mental health treatment" has the same meaning as in 24445
section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.24446

       (T) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 24447
of the Revised Code.24448

       (U) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 24449
technologically administered.24450

       (V) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 24451
permanent unconsciousness in a principal that, to a reasonable 24452
degree of medical certainty as determined in accordance with 24453
reasonable medical standards by the principal's attending 24454
physician and one other physician who has examined the principal, 24455
is characterized by both of the following:24456

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.24457

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 24458
the principal having no capacity to experience pain or suffering.24459

       (W) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 24460
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 24461
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 24462
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.24463

       (X) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 24464
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 24465
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.24466

       (Y) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 24467
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.24468

       (Z) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 24469
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 24470
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 24471
the board of nursing.24472

       (AA) "Regulated community mental health organization" means a 24473
residential facility as defined and licensed under section 5119.2224474
5119.34 of the Revised Code or a community mental health agency24475
services provider as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 24476
Code.24477

        (BB) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 24478
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 24479
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 24480
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 24481
principal's attending physician and one other physician who has 24482
examined the principal, both of the following apply:24483

       (1) There can be no recovery.24484

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 24485
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.24486

       (CC) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 24487
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 24488
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 24489
between persons.24490

       Sec. 1347.08.  (A) Every state or local agency that maintains 24491
a personal information system, upon the request and the proper 24492
identification of any person who is the subject of personal 24493
information in the system, shall:24494

       (1) Inform the person of the existence of any personal 24495
information in the system of which the person is the subject;24496

       (2) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E)(2) of this 24497
section, permit the person, the person's legal guardian, or an 24498
attorney who presents a signed written authorization made by the 24499
person, to inspect all personal information in the system of which 24500
the person is the subject;24501

       (3) Inform the person about the types of uses made of the 24502
personal information, including the identity of any users usually 24503
granted access to the system.24504

       (B) Any person who wishes to exercise a right provided by 24505
this section may be accompanied by another individual of the 24506
person's choice.24507

       (C)(1) A state or local agency, upon request, shall disclose 24508
medical, psychiatric, or psychological information to a person who 24509
is the subject of the information or to the person's legal 24510
guardian, unless a physician, psychiatrist, or psychologist 24511
determines for the agency that the disclosure of the information 24512
is likely to have an adverse effect on the person, in which case 24513
the information shall be released to a physician, psychiatrist, or 24514
psychologist who is designated by the person or by the person's 24515
legal guardian.24516

       (2) Upon the signed written request of either a licensed 24517
attorney at law or a licensed physician designated by the inmate, 24518
together with the signed written request of an inmate of a 24519
correctional institution under the administration of the 24520
department of rehabilitation and correction, the department shall 24521
disclose medical information to the designated attorney or 24522
physician as provided in division (C) of section 5120.21 of the 24523
Revised Code.24524

       (D) If an individual who is authorized to inspect personal 24525
information that is maintained in a personal information system 24526
requests the state or local agency that maintains the system to 24527
provide a copy of any personal information that the individual is 24528
authorized to inspect, the agency shall provide a copy of the 24529
personal information to the individual. Each state and local 24530
agency may establish reasonable fees for the service of copying, 24531
upon request, personal information that is maintained by the 24532
agency.24533

       (E)(1) This section regulates access to personal information 24534
that is maintained in a personal information system by persons who 24535
are the subject of the information, but does not limit the 24536
authority of any person, including a person who is the subject of 24537
personal information maintained in a personal information system, 24538
to inspect or have copied, pursuant to section 149.43 of the 24539
Revised Code, a public record as defined in that section.24540

       (2) This section does not provide a person who is the subject 24541
of personal information maintained in a personal information 24542
system, the person's legal guardian, or an attorney authorized by 24543
the person, with a right to inspect or have copied, or require an 24544
agency that maintains a personal information system to permit the 24545
inspection of or to copy, a confidential law enforcement 24546
investigatory record or trial preparation record, as defined in 24547
divisions (A)(2) and (4) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.24548

       (F) This section does not apply to any of the following:24549

       (1) The contents of an adoption file maintained by the 24550
department of health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;24551

       (2) Information contained in the putative father registry 24552
established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, regardless of 24553
whether the information is held by the department of job and 24554
family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the Revised 24555
Code, the office of child support in the department or a child 24556
support enforcement agency;24557

       (3) Papers, records, and books that pertain to an adoption 24558
and that are subject to inspection in accordance with section 24559
3107.17 of the Revised Code;24560

       (4) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 24561
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 24562
the Revised Code;24563

       (5) Records that identify an individual described in division 24564
(A)(1) of section 3721.031 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 24565
to identify such an individual;24566

       (6) Files and records that have been expunged under division 24567
(D)(1) or (2) of section 3721.23 of the Revised Code;24568

       (7) Records that identify an individual described in division 24569
(A)(1) of section 3721.25 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 24570
to identify such an individual;24571

       (8) Records that identify an individual described in division 24572
(A)(1) of section 5111.615165.88 of the Revised Code, or that 24573
would tend to identify such an individual;24574

       (9) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 24575
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 24576
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators24577
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 24578
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 24579
or government entity to administer;24580

       (10) Information contained in a database established and 24581
maintained pursuant to section 5101.13 of the Revised Code.24582

       Sec. 1501.011. (A) TheExcept as provided in divisions (B), 24583
(C), and (D) of this section, the Ohio facilities construction 24584
commission shall supervise the design and construction of, and 24585
make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 24586
enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, any projects or 24587
improvements for the department of natural resources has the 24588
following powers in addition to its other powers: to prepare, or 24589
contract to be prepared, surveys, general and detailed plans, 24590
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for, to 24591
enter into contracts for, and to supervise the performance of 24592
labor, the furnishing of materials, or the construction, repair, 24593
or maintenance of any projects, improvements, or buildings, on 24594
lands and waters under the control of the department, asthat may 24595
be authorized by legislative appropriations or any other funds 24596
available therefor, the estimated cost of which amounts to two 24597
hundred thousand dollars or more or the amount determined pursuant 24598
to section 153.53 of the Revised Code or more.24599

       (B) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, the 24600
director of natural resources shall publish notice in a newspaper 24601
of general circulation in the region where the activity for which 24602
bids are submitted is to occur and in any other newspapers that 24603
the director determines are appropriate, at least once each week 24604
for four consecutive weeks, the last publication to be at least 24605
eight days preceding the day for opening bids, seeking proposals 24606
on each contract for the performance of labor, the furnishing of 24607
materials, or the construction, repair, or maintenance of 24608
projects, improvements, or buildings, as necessary for compliance 24609
with provisions of the act to make appropriations for capital 24610
improvements or the act to make general appropriations, and the 24611
director may also advertise in such trade journals as will afford 24612
adequate information to the public of the terms of the contract 24613
and the nature of the work to be performed, together with the time 24614
of the letting and place and manner of receiving proposals, and 24615
the places where plans and specifications are on file. A proposal 24616
is invalid and shall not be considered by the department unless 24617
the form for proposals specified by the department is used without 24618
change, alteration, or additionThe department of natural 24619
resources shall administer the construction of improvements under 24620
an agreement with the supervisors of a soil and water conservation 24621
district pursuant to division (I) of section 1515.08 of the 24622
Revised Code.24623

       (C) Each bidder for a contract for the performance of labor, 24624
the furnishing of materials, or the maintenance, construction, 24625
demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an 24626
improvement shall meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the 24627
Revised Code. The director may require each bidder to furnish 24628
under oath, upon such printed forms as the director may prescribe, 24629
detailed information with respect to the bidder's financial 24630
resources, equipment, past performance record, organization 24631
personnel, and experience, together with such other information as 24632
the director considers necessary.24633

       (D) The director shall award the contract to the lowest 24634
responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 24635
of the Revised Code. The award shall be made within a reasonable 24636
time after the date on which the bids were opened, and the 24637
successful bidder shall enter into a contract within ten days from 24638
the date the successful bidder is notified that the contract has 24639
been awarded, or within any longer period that the director 24640
considers necessary. Nothing in this section shall preclude the 24641
rejection of any bid the acceptance of which is not in the best 24642
interests of the state. No contract shall be entered into until 24643
the bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the 24644
corporation, partnership, or person awarded the contract has 24645
complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code and until, if the 24646
bidder awarded the contract is a foreign corporation, the 24647
secretary of state has certified that the corporation is 24648
authorized to do business in this state, and until, if the bidder 24649
so awarded the contract is a person or partnership nonresident of 24650
this state, the person or partnership has filed with the secretary 24651
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 24652
its agency for the purpose of accepting service of process.24653

       (E) With respect to the director's entering into a contract 24654
for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 24655
construction, repair, or maintenance of any projects, 24656
improvements, or buildings on lands and waters under the control 24657
of the department, both of the following apply:24658

       (1) The director is not required to advertise for and receive 24659
bids if the total estimated cost of the contract is less than 24660
twenty-five thousand dollars.24661

       (2) The director is not required to advertise for bids, 24662
regardless of the cost of the contract, if the(1) The department 24663
of natural resources shall supervise the design and construction 24664
of, and make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, 24665
improvement, enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, 24666
any of the following activities, projects, or improvements:24667

       (a) Dam repairs administered by the division of engineering 24668
under Chapter 1507. of the Revised Code;24669

       (b) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 24670
watercraft and funded through the waterways safety fund 24671
established in section 1547.75 of the Revised Code;24672

       (c) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 24673
wildlife under Chapter 1531. or 1533. of the Revised Code;24674

       (d) Activities conducted by the department pursuant to 24675
section 5511.05 of the Revised Code in order to maintain the 24676
department's roadway inventory.24677

       (2) If a contract to be let under division (C)(1) of this 24678
section involves an exigency that concerns the public health, 24679
safety, or welfare or addresses an emergency situation in which 24680
timeliness is crucial in preventing the cost of the contract from 24681
increasing significantly. Regarding such a contract, the director 24682
may solicit bids by sending a letter to a minimum of three 24683
contractors in the region where the contract is to be let or by 24684
any other means that the director considers appropriate.24685

       (F) The director may insert in any contract awarded under 24686
this section a clause providing for value engineering change 24687
proposals, under which a contractor who has been awarded a 24688
contract may propose a change in the plans and specifications of 24689
the project that saves the department time or money on the project 24690
without impairing any of the essential functions and 24691
characteristics of the project such as service life, reliability, 24692
economy of operation, ease of maintenance, safety, and necessary 24693
standardized features. If the director adopts the value 24694
engineering proposal, the savings from the proposal shall be 24695
divided between the department and the contractor according to 24696
guidelines established by the director, provided that the 24697
contractor shall receive at least fifty per cent of the savings 24698
from the proposal. The adoption of a value engineering proposal 24699
does not invalidate the award of the contract or require the 24700
director to rebid the project.24701

       (G) When in the opinion of the department the work under any 24702
contract made under this section or any law of the state is 24703
neglected by the contractor, the work completed is deficient in 24704
quality or materials, or the work is not prosecuted with the 24705
diligence and force specified or intended in the contract, the 24706
department may require the contractor to provide, at no additional 24707
expense to the department, any additional labor and materials that 24708
are necessary to complete the improvements at the level of quality 24709
and within the time of performance specified in the contract. 24710
Procedures concerning such a requirement together with its format 24711
shall be specified in the contract. If the contractor fails to 24712
comply with the requirement within the period specified in the 24713
contract, the department may take action to complete the work 24714
through other means, up to and including termination of the 24715
contract.24716

       (H) When an exigency occurs or there is immediate danger of 24717
an exigency that would materially impair the successful bidding, 24718
construction, or completion of a project, improvement, or 24719
building, the director may revise related plans and specifications 24720
as necessary to address the exigency through the issuance of an 24721
addendum prior to the opening of bids or, in accordance with 24722
procedures established in section 153.62 of the Revised Code, 24723
through the issuance of a change order after the contract has been 24724
awarded, pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency, the 24725
department may award the contract without competitive bidding or 24726
selection as otherwise required by Chapter 153. of the Revised 24727
Code.24728

       (D) The executive director of the Ohio facilities 24729
construction commission may authorize the department of natural 24730
resources to administer any other project or improvement, the 24731
estimated cost of which, including design fees, construction, 24732
equipment, and contingency amounts, is not more than one million 24733
five hundred thousand dollars.24734

       Sec. 1501.45.  (A) As used in this section:24735

       (1) "Forfeiture laws" means provisions that are established 24736
in Title XXIX of the Revised Code and that govern the forfeiture 24737
and disposition of certain property that is seized pursuant to a 24738
law enforcement investigation.24739

       (2) "Law enforcement division" means the division of 24740
forestry, the division of natural areas and preserves, the 24741
division of wildlife, the division of parks and recreation, or the 24742
division of watercraft in the department of natural resources.24743

       (3) "Law enforcement fund" means a fund created in this 24744
section.24745

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section and 24746
notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code that is not in 24747
Title XV of the Revised Code to the contrary, the forfeiture laws 24748
apply to a law enforcement division that substantially conducts an 24749
investigation that results in the ordered forfeiture of property 24750
and also apply to the involved forfeiture of property, and the law 24751
enforcement division shall comply with those forfeiture laws. 24752
Accordingly, the portion of the forfeiture laws that authorizes 24753
certain proceeds from forfeited property to be distributed to the 24754
law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 24755
investigation that resulted in the seizure of the subsequently 24756
forfeited property apply to the law enforcement divisions except 24757
as provided in division (C)(2)(a) of this section. If a law 24758
enforcement division is eligible to receive such proceeds, the 24759
proceeds shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 24760
of the applicable law enforcement fund.24761

       (C)(1) There are hereby created in the state treasury the 24762
division of forestry law enforcement fund, the division of natural 24763
areas and preserves law enforcement fund, the division of wildlife 24764
law enforcement fund, the division of parks and recreation law 24765
enforcement fund, and the division of watercraft law enforcement 24766
fund. The24767

       (2) The funds shall consist of proceeds from forfeited 24768
property that are deposited in accordance with this section. The24769
as follows:24770

       (a) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 24771
investigation conducted by the division of forestry, the division 24772
of natural areas and preserves, or the division of parks and 24773
recreation shall be deposited in the division of parks and 24774
recreation law enforcement fund.24775

       (b) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 24776
investigation conducted by the division of wildlife shall be 24777
deposited in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund.24778

       (c) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 24779
investigation conducted by the division of watercraft shall be 24780
deposited in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund.24781

       (3) The funds shall be used by the applicable law enforcement 24782
division for law enforcement purposes specified in the forfeiture 24783
laws; however, aas follows:24784

       (a) Money in the division of parks and recreation law 24785
enforcement fund shall be used by the division of parks and 24786
recreation.24787

       (b) Money in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund 24788
shall be used by the division of wildlife.24789

       (c) Money in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund 24790
shall be used by the division of watercraft.24791

       (4) A law enforcement division shall not use such fundsits 24792
fund to pay the salaries of its employees or to provide for any 24793
other remuneration of personnel.24794

       (D) If the forfeiture laws conflict with any provisions that 24795
govern forfeitures and that are established in another section of 24796
Title XV of the Revised Code, the provisions established in the 24797
other section of Title XV apply.24798

       Sec. 1509.01.  As used in this chapter:24799

       (A) "Well" means any borehole, whether drilled or bored, 24800
within the state for production, extraction, or injection of any 24801
gas or liquid mineral, excluding potable water to be used as such, 24802
but including natural or artificial brines and oil field waters.24803

       (B) "Oil" means crude petroleum oil and all other 24804
hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, that are produced in liquid 24805
form by ordinary production methods, but does not include 24806
hydrocarbons that were originally in a gaseous phase in the 24807
reservoir.24808

       (C) "Gas" means all natural gas and all other fluid 24809
hydrocarbons that are not oil, including condensate.24810

       (D) "Condensate" means liquid hydrocarbons separated at or 24811
near the well pad or along the gas production or gathering system 24812
prior to gas processing.24813

       (E) "Pool" means an underground reservoir containing a common 24814
accumulation of oil or gas, or both, but does not include a gas 24815
storage reservoir. Each zone of a geological structure that is 24816
completely separated from any other zone in the same structure may 24817
contain a separate pool.24818

       (F) "Field" means the general area underlaid by one or more 24819
pools.24820

       (G) "Drilling unit" means the minimum acreage on which one 24821
well may be drilled, but does not apply to a well for injecting 24822
gas into or removing gas from a gas storage reservoir.24823

       (H) "Waste" includes all of the following:24824

       (1) Physical waste, as that term generally is understood in 24825
the oil and gas industry;24826

       (2) Inefficient, excessive, or improper use, or the 24827
unnecessary dissipation, of reservoir energy;24828

       (3) Inefficient storing of oil or gas;24829

       (4) Locating, drilling, equipping, operating, or producing an 24830
oil or gas well in a manner that reduces or tends to reduce the 24831
quantity of oil or gas ultimately recoverable under prudent and 24832
proper operations from the pool into which it is drilled or that 24833
causes or tends to cause unnecessary or excessive surface loss or 24834
destruction of oil or gas;24835

       (5) Other underground or surface waste in the production or 24836
storage of oil, gas, or condensate, however caused.24837

       (I) "Correlative rights" means the reasonable opportunity to 24838
every person entitled thereto to recover and receive the oil and 24839
gas in and under the person's tract or tracts, or the equivalent 24840
thereof, without having to drill unnecessary wells or incur other 24841
unnecessary expense.24842

       (J) "Tract" means a single, individually taxed parcel of land 24843
appearing on the tax list.24844

       (K) "Owner," unless referring to a mine, means the person who 24845
has the right to drill on a tract or drilling unit, to drill into 24846
and produce from a pool, and to appropriate the oil or gas 24847
produced therefrom either for the person or for others, except 24848
that a person ceases to be an owner with respect to a well when 24849
the well has been plugged in accordance with applicable rules 24850
adopted and orders issued under this chapter. "Owner" does not 24851
include a person who obtains a lease of the mineral rights for oil 24852
and gas on a parcel of land if the person does not attempt to 24853
produce or produce oil or gas from a well or obtain a permit under 24854
this chapter for a well or if the entire interest of a well is 24855
transferred to the person in accordance with division (B) of 24856
section 1509.31 of the Revised Code.24857

       (L) "Royalty interest" means the fee holder's share in the 24858
production from a well.24859

       (M) "Discovery well" means the first well capable of 24860
producing oil or gas in commercial quantities from a pool.24861

       (N) "Prepared clay" means a clay that is plastic and is 24862
thoroughly saturated with fresh water to a weight and consistency 24863
great enough to settle through saltwater in the well in which it 24864
is to be used, except as otherwise approved by the chief of the 24865
division of oil and gas resources management.24866

       (O) "Rock sediment" means the combined cutting and residue 24867
from drilling sedimentary rocks and formation.24868

       (P) "Excavations and workings," "mine," and "pillar" have the 24869
same meanings as in section 1561.01 of the Revised Code.24870

       (Q) "Coal bearing township" means a township designated as 24871
such by the chief of the division of mineral resources management 24872
under section 1561.06 of the Revised Code.24873

       (R) "Gas storage reservoir" means a continuous area of a 24874
subterranean porous sand or rock stratum or strata into which gas 24875
is or may be injected for the purpose of storing it therein and 24876
removing it therefrom and includes a gas storage reservoir as 24877
defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code.24878

       (S) "Safe Drinking Water Act" means the "Safe Drinking Water 24879
Act," 88 Stat. 1661 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), as amended by the 24880
"Safe Drinking Water Amendments of 1977," 91 Stat. 1393, 42 24881
U.S.C.A. 300(f), the "Safe Drinking Water Act Amendments of 1986," 24882
100 Stat. 642, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and the "Safe Drinking Water 24883
Act Amendments of 1996," 110 Stat. 1613, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and 24884
regulations adopted under those acts.24885

       (T) "Person" includes any political subdivision, department, 24886
agency, or instrumentality of this state; the United States and 24887
any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof; and any legal 24888
entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.24889

       (U) "Brine" means all saline geological formation water 24890
resulting from, obtained from, or produced in connection with 24891
exploration, drilling, well stimulation, production of oil or gas, 24892
or plugging of a well.24893

       (V) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, 24894
marshes, watercourses, waterways, springs, irrigation systems, 24895
drainage systems, and other bodies of water, surface or 24896
underground, natural or artificial, that are situated wholly or 24897
partially within this state or within its jurisdiction, except 24898
those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with 24899
natural surface or underground waters.24900

       (W) "Exempt Mississippian well" means a well that meets all 24901
of the following criteria:24902

       (1) Was drilled and completed before January 1, 1980;24903

       (2) Is located in an unglaciated part of the state;24904

       (3) Was completed in a reservoir no deeper than the 24905
Mississippian Big Injun sandstone in areas underlain by 24906
Pennsylvanian or Permian stratigraphy, or the Mississippian Berea 24907
sandstone in areas directly underlain by Permian stratigraphy;24908

       (4) Is used primarily to provide oil or gas for domestic use.24909

       (X) "Exempt domestic well" means a well that meets all of the 24910
following criteria:24911

       (1) Is owned by the owner of the surface estate of the tract 24912
on which the well is located;24913

       (2) Is used primarily to provide gas for the owner's domestic 24914
use;24915

       (3) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 24916
from any inhabited private dwelling house other than an inhabited 24917
private dwelling house located on the tract on which the well is 24918
located;24919

       (4) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 24920
from any public building that may be used as a place of resort, 24921
assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, trade, manufacture, 24922
repair, storage, traffic, or occupancy by the public.24923

       (Y) "Urbanized area" means an area where a well or production 24924
facilities of a well are located within a municipal corporation or 24925
within a township that has an unincorporated population of more 24926
than five thousand in the most recent federal decennial census 24927
prior to the issuance of the permit for the well or production 24928
facilities.24929

       (Z) "Well stimulation" or "stimulation of a well" means the 24930
process of enhancing well productivity, including hydraulic 24931
fracturing operations.24932

       (AA) "Production operation" means all operations and 24933
activities and all related equipment, facilities, and other 24934
structures that may be used in or associated with the exploration 24935
and production of oil, gas, or other mineral resources that are 24936
regulated under this chapter, including operations and activities 24937
associated with site preparation, site construction, access road 24938
construction, well drilling, well completion, well stimulation, 24939
well site activities, reclamation, and plugging. "Production 24940
operation" also includes all of the following:24941

       (1) The piping, equipment, and facilities used for the 24942
production and preparation of hydrocarbon gas or liquids for 24943
transportation or delivery;24944

       (2) The processes of extraction and recovery, lifting, 24945
stabilization, treatment, separation, production processing, 24946
storage, waste disposal, and measurement of hydrocarbon gas and 24947
liquids, including related equipment and facilities;24948

       (3) The processes and related equipment and facilities 24949
associated with production compression, gas lift, gas injection, 24950
fuel gas supply, well drilling, well stimulation, and well 24951
completion activities, including dikes, pits, and earthen and 24952
other impoundments used for the temporary storage of fluids and 24953
waste substances associated with well drilling, well stimulation, 24954
and well completion activities;24955

       (4) Equipment and facilities at a wellpad or other location 24956
that are used for the transportation, handling, recycling, 24957
temporary storage, management, processing, or treatment of any 24958
equipment, material, and by-products or other substances from an 24959
operation at a wellpad that may be used or reused at the same or 24960
another operation at a wellpad or that will be disposed of in 24961
accordance with applicable laws and rules adopted under them.24962

       (BB) "Annular overpressurization" means the accumulation of 24963
fluids within an annulus with sufficient pressure to allow 24964
migration of annular fluids into underground sources of drinking 24965
water.24966

       (CC) "Idle and orphaned well" means a well for which a bond 24967
has been forfeited or an abandoned well for which no money is 24968
available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter and 24969
rules adopted under it.24970

       (DD) "Temporarily inactive well" means a well that has been 24971
granted temporary inactive status under section 1509.062 of the 24972
Revised Code.24973

       (EE) "Material and substantial violation" means any of the 24974
following:24975

       (1) Failure to obtain a permit to drill, reopen, convert, 24976
plugback, or plug a well under this chapter;24977

       (2) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of 24978
insurance coverage that is required under this chapter;24979

       (3) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of a 24980
surety bond that is required under this chapter;24981

       (4) Failure to plug an abandoned well or idle and orphaned 24982
well unless the well has been granted temporary inactive status 24983
under section 1509.062 of the Revised Code or the chief of the 24984
division of oil and gas resources management has approved another 24985
option concerning the abandoned well or idle and orphaned well;24986

       (5) Failure to restore a disturbed land surface as required 24987
by section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;24988

       (6) Failure to reimburse the oil and gas well fund pursuant 24989
to a final order issued under section 1509.071 of the Revised 24990
Code;24991

       (7) Failure to comply with a final nonappealable order of the 24992
chief issued under section 1509.04 of the Revised Code;24993

       (8) Failure to submit a report, test result, fee, or document 24994
that is required in this chapter or rules adopted under it.24995

       (FF) "Severer" has the same meaning as in section 5749.01 of 24996
the Revised Code.24997

       (GG) "Horizontal well" means a well that is drilled for the 24998
production of oil or gas in which the wellbore reaches a 24999
horizontal or near horizontal position in the Point Pleasant, 25000
Utica, or Marcellus formation and the well is stimulated.25001

       (HH) "Well pad" means the area that is cleared or prepared 25002
for the drilling of one or more horizontal wells.25003

       Sec. 1509.02.  There is hereby created in the department of 25004
natural resources the division of oil and gas resources 25005
management, which shall be administered by the chief of the 25006
division of oil and gas resources management. The division has 25007
sole and exclusive authority to regulate the permitting, location, 25008
and spacing of oil and gas wells and production operations within 25009
the state, excepting only those activities regulated under federal 25010
laws for which oversight has been delegated to the environmental 25011
protection agency and activities regulated under sections 6111.02 25012
to 6111.0296111.028 of the Revised Code. The regulation of oil 25013
and gas activities is a matter of general statewide interest that 25014
requires uniform statewide regulation, and this chapter and rules 25015
adopted under it constitute a comprehensive plan with respect to 25016
all aspects of the locating, drilling, well stimulation, 25017
completing, and operating of oil and gas wells within this state, 25018
including site construction and restoration, permitting related to 25019
those activities, and the disposal of wastes from those wells. In 25020
order to assist the division in the furtherance of its sole and 25021
exclusive authority as established in this section, the chief may 25022
enter into cooperative agreements with other state agencies for 25023
advice and consultation, including visitations at the surface 25024
location of a well on behalf of the division. Such cooperative 25025
agreements do not confer on other state agencies any authority to 25026
administer or enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. In 25027
addition, such cooperative agreements shall not be construed to 25028
dilute or diminish the division's sole and exclusive authority as 25029
established in this section. Nothing in this section affects the 25030
authority granted to the director of transportation and local 25031
authorities in section 723.01 or 4513.34 of the Revised Code, 25032
provided that the authority granted under those sections shall not 25033
be exercised in a manner that discriminates against, unfairly 25034
impedes, or obstructs oil and gas activities and operations 25035
regulated under this chapter.25036

       The chief shall not hold any other public office, nor shall 25037
the chief be engaged in any occupation or business that might 25038
interfere with or be inconsistent with the duties as chief.25039

       All moneys collected by the chief pursuant to sections 25040
1509.06, 1509.061, 1509.062, 1509.071, 1509.13, 1509.22, 1509.222, 25041
1509.28, 1509.34, and 1509.50 of the Revised Code, ninety per cent 25042
of moneys received by the treasurer of state from the tax levied 25043
in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 5749.02 of the Revised 25044
Code, all civil penalties paid under section 1509.33 of the 25045
Revised Code, and, notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code 25046
relating to the distribution or crediting of fines for violations 25047
of the Revised Code, all fines imposed under divisions (A) and (B) 25048
of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code and fines imposed under 25049
divisions (C) and (D) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for 25050
all violations prosecuted by the attorney general and for 25051
violations prosecuted by prosecuting attorneys that do not involve 25052
the transportation of brine by vehicle shall be deposited into the 25053
state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund, which 25054
is hereby created. Fines imposed under divisions (C) and (D) of 25055
section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for violations prosecuted by 25056
prosecuting attorneys that involve the transportation of brine by 25057
vehicle and penalties associated with a compliance agreement 25058
entered into pursuant to this chapter shall be paid to the county 25059
treasury of the county where the violation occurred.25060

       The fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the 25061
purposes enumerated in division (B) of section 1509.071 of the 25062
Revised Code, for the expenses of the division associated with the 25063
administration of this chapter and Chapter 1571. of the Revised 25064
Code and rules adopted under them, and for expenses that are 25065
critical and necessary for the protection of human health and 25066
safety and the environment related to oil and gas production in 25067
this state. The expenses of the division in excess of the moneys 25068
available in the fund shall be paid from general revenue fund 25069
appropriations to the department.25070

       Sec. 1509.062. (A)(1) The owner of a well that has not been 25071
completed, a well that has not produced within one year after 25072
completion, or an existing well that is not a horizontal well and25073
that has no reported production for two consecutive reporting 25074
periods as reported in accordance with section 1509.11 of the 25075
Revised Code, or an existing horizontal well that has no reported 25076
production for eight consecutive reporting periods as reported in 25077
accordance with section 1509.11 of the Revised Code shall plug the 25078
well in accordance with section 1509.12 of the Revised Code, 25079
obtain temporary inactive well status for the well in accordance 25080
with this section, or perform another activity regarding the well 25081
that is approved by the chief of the division of oil and gas 25082
resources management.25083

       (2) If a well has a reported annual production that is less 25084
than one hundred thousand cubic feet of natural gas or fifteen 25085
barrels of crude oil, or a combination thereof, the chief may 25086
require the owner of the well to submit an application for 25087
temporary inactive well status under this section for the well.25088

       (B) In order for the owner of a well to submit an application 25089
for temporary inactive well status for the well under this 25090
division, the owner and the well shall be in compliance with this 25091
chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and conditions of 25092
the permit for the well, and applicable orders issued by the 25093
chief. An application for temporary inactive status for a well 25094
shall be submitted to the chief on a form prescribed and provided 25095
by the chief and shall contain all of the following:25096

       (1) The owner's name and address and, if the owner is a 25097
corporation, the name and address of the corporation's statutory 25098
agent;25099

       (2) The signature of the owner or of the owner's authorized 25100
agent. When an authorized agent signs an application, the 25101
application shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the 25102
appointment as such agent.25103

       (3) The permit number assigned to the well. If the well has 25104
not been assigned a permit number, the chief shall assign a permit 25105
number to the well.25106

       (4) A map, on a scale not smaller than four hundred feet to 25107
the inch, that shows the location of the well and the tank 25108
battery, that includes the latitude and longitude of the well, and 25109
that contains all other data that are required by the chief;25110

       (5) A demonstration that the well is of future utility and 25111
that the applicant has a viable plan to utilize the well within a 25112
reasonable period of time;25113

       (6) A demonstration that the well poses no threat to the 25114
health or safety of persons, property, or the environment;25115

       (7) Any other relevant information that the chief prescribes 25116
by rule.25117

       The chief may waive any of the requirements established in 25118
divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section if the division of oil and 25119
gas resources management possesses a current copy of the 25120
information or document that is required in the applicable 25121
division.25122

       (C) Upon receipt of an application for temporary inactive 25123
well status, the chief shall review the application and shall 25124
either deny the application by issuing an order or approve the 25125
application. The chief shall approve the application only if the 25126
chief determines that the well that is the subject of the 25127
application poses no threat to the health or safety of persons, 25128
property, or the environment. If the chief approves the 25129
application, the chief shall notify the applicant of the chief's 25130
approval. Upon receipt of the chief's approval, the owner shall 25131
shut in the well and empty all liquids and gases from all storage 25132
tanks, pipelines, and other equipment associated with the well. In 25133
addition, the owner shall maintain the well, other equipment 25134
associated with the well, and the surface location of the well in 25135
a manner that prevents hazards to the health and safety of people 25136
and the environment. The owner shall inspect the well at least 25137
every six months and submit to the chief within fourteen days 25138
after the inspection a record of inspection on a form prescribed 25139
and provided by the chief.25140

       (D) Not later than thirty days prior to the expiration of 25141
temporary inactive well status or a renewal of temporary inactive 25142
well status approved by the chief for a well, the owner of the 25143
well may submit to the chief an application for renewal of the 25144
temporary inactive well status on a form prescribed and provided 25145
by the chief. The application shall include a detailed plan that 25146
describes the ultimate disposition of the well, the time frames 25147
for that disposition, and any other information that the chief 25148
determines is necessary. The chief shall either deny an 25149
application by order or approve the application. If the chief 25150
approves the application, the chief shall notify the owner of the 25151
well of the chief's approval.25152

       (E) An application for temporary inactive well status shall 25153
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars. An 25154
application for a renewal of temporary inactive well status shall 25155
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred fifty dollars 25156
for the first renewal and five hundred dollars for each subsequent 25157
renewal.25158

       (F) After a third renewal, the chief may require an owner to 25159
provide a surety bond in an amount not to exceed ten thousand 25160
dollars for each of the owner's wells that has been approved by 25161
the chief for temporary inactive well status.25162

       (G) Temporary inactive well status approved by the chief 25163
expires one year after the date of approval of the application for 25164
temporary inactive well status or production from the well 25165
commences, whichever occurs sooner. In addition, a renewal of a 25166
temporary inactive well status expires one year after the 25167
expiration date of the initial temporary inactive well status or 25168
one year after the expiration date of the previous renewal of the 25169
temporary inactive well status, as applicable, or production from 25170
the well commences, whichever occurs sooner.25171

       (H) The owner of a well that has been approved by the chief 25172
for temporary inactive well status may commence production from 25173
the well at any time. Not later than sixty days after the 25174
commencement of production from such a well, the owner shall 25175
notify the chief of the commencement of production.25176

       (I) This chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and 25177
conditions of the permit for a well, and applicable orders issued 25178
by the chief apply to a well that has been approved by the chief 25179
for temporary inactive well status or renewal of that status.25180

       Sec. 1509.10.  (A) Any person drilling within the state 25181
shall, within sixty days after the completion of drilling 25182
operations to the proposed total depth or after a determination 25183
that a well is a dry or lost hole, file with the division of oil 25184
and gas resources management all wireline electric logs and an 25185
accurate well completion record on a form that is prescribed by 25186
the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management that 25187
designates:25188

       (1) The purpose for which the well was drilled;25189

       (2) The character, depth, and thickness of geological units 25190
encountered, including coal seams, mineral beds, associated fluids 25191
such as fresh water, brine, and crude oil, natural gas, and sour 25192
gas, if such seams, beds, fluids, or gases are known;25193

       (3) The dates on which drilling operations were commenced and 25194
completed;25195

       (4) The types of drilling tools used and the name of the 25196
person that drilled the well;25197

       (5) The length in feet of the various sizes of casing and 25198
tubing used in drilling the well, the amount removed after 25199
completion, the type and setting depth of each packer, all other 25200
data relating to cementing in the annular space behind such casing 25201
or tubing, and data indicating completion as a dry, gas, oil, 25202
combination oil and gas, brine injection, or artificial brine well 25203
or a stratigraphic test;25204

       (6) The number of perforations in the casing and the 25205
intervals of the perforations;25206

       (7) The elevation above mean sea level of the point from 25207
which the depth measurements were made, stating also the height of 25208
the point above ground level at the well, the total depth of the 25209
well, and the deepest geological unit that was penetrated in the 25210
drilling of the well;25211

       (8) If applicable, the type, volume, and concentration of 25212
acid, and the date on which acid was used in acidizing the well;25213

       (9)(a) If applicable, the trade name and the total amount of 25214
all products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 25215
product, fluid, or substance, not including cement and its 25216
constituents and lost circulation materials, intentionally added 25217
to facilitate the drilling of any portion of the well until the 25218
surface casing is set and properly sealed. The owner shall 25219
identify each additive used and provide a brief description of the 25220
purpose for which the additive is used. In addition, the owner 25221
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 25222
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 25223
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 25224
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 25225
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 25226
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 25227
chemical information, not including any information that is 25228
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 25229
section, from the company that drilled the well, provided service 25230
at the well, or supplied the chemicals. If the company that 25231
drilled the well, provided service at the well, or supplied the 25232
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 25233
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 25234
information from the company or supplier.25235

       (b) For purposes of division (A)(9)(a) of this section, if 25236
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 25237
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 25238
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.25239

       (10)(a) If applicable, the type and volume of fluid, not 25240
including cement and its constituents or information that is 25241
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 25242
section, used to stimulate the reservoir of the well, the 25243
reservoir breakdown pressure, the method used for the containment 25244
of fluids recovered from the fracturing of the well, the methods 25245
used for the containment of fluids when pulled from the wellbore 25246
from swabbing the well, the average pumping rate of the well, and 25247
the name of the person that performed the well stimulation. In 25248
addition, the owner shall include a copy of the log from the 25249
stimulation of the well, a copy of the invoice for each of the 25250
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 25251
section that were used on a well, and a copy of the pumping 25252
pressure and rate graphs. However, the owner may redact from the 25253
copy of each invoice that is required to be included under 25254
division (A)(10) of this section the costs of and charges for the 25255
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 25256
section that were used on a well.25257

       (b) If applicable, the trade name and the total volume of all 25258
products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 25259
product, fluid, or substance used to stimulate the well. The owner 25260
shall identify each additive used, provide a brief description of 25261
the purpose for which the additive is used, and include the 25262
maximum concentration of the additive used. In addition, the owner 25263
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 25264
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 25265
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 25266
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 25267
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 25268
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 25269
chemical information, not including any information that is 25270
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 25271
section, from the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 25272
chemicals. If the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 25273
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 25274
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 25275
information from the company or supplier.25276

       (c) For purposes of division (A)(10)(b) of this section, if 25277
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 25278
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 25279
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.25280

       (11) The name of the company that performed the logging of 25281
the well and the types of wireline electric logs performed on the 25282
well.25283

       The well completion record shall be submitted in duplicate. 25284
The first copy shall be retained as a permanent record in the 25285
files of the division, and the second copy shall be transmitted by 25286
the chief to the division of geological survey.25287

        (B)(1) Not later than sixty days after the completion of the 25288
drilling operations to the proposed total depth, the owner shall 25289
file all wireline electric logs with the division of oil and gas 25290
resources management and the chief shall transmit such logs 25291
electronically, if available, to the division of geological 25292
survey. Such logs may be retained by the owner for a period of not 25293
more than six months, or such additional time as may be granted by 25294
the chief in writing, after the completion of the well 25295
substantially to the depth shown in the application required by 25296
section 1509.06 of the Revised Code.25297

       (2) If a well is not completed within sixty days after the 25298
completion of drilling operations, the owner shall file with the 25299
division of oil and gas resources management a supplemental well 25300
completion record that includes all of the information required 25301
under this section within sixty days after the completion of the 25302
well.25303

       (3) After a well is initially completed and stimulated and 25304
until the well is plugged, the owner shall report, on a form 25305
prescribed by the chief, all materials placed into the formation 25306
to refracture, restimulate, or newly complete the well. The owner 25307
shall submit the information within sixty days after completing 25308
the refracturing, restimulation, or new completion. In addition, 25309
the owner shall report the information required in divisions 25310
(A)(10)(a) to (c) of this section, as applicable, in a manner 25311
consistent with the requirements established in this section.25312

       (C) Upon request in writing by the chief of the division of 25313
geological survey prior to the beginning of drilling of the well, 25314
the person drilling the well shall make available a complete set 25315
of cuttings accurately identified as to depth.25316

       (D) The form of the well completion record required by this 25317
section shall be one that has been prescribed by the chief of the 25318
division of oil and gas resources management and the chief of the 25319
division of geological survey. The filing of a log as required by 25320
this section fulfills the requirement of filing a log with the 25321
chief of the division of geological survey in section 1505.04 of 25322
the Revised Code.25323

       (E) If a material listed or designated under division (A)(9) 25324
or (10) or (B)(3) of this section is a material for which the 25325
division of oil and gas resources management does not have a 25326
material safety data sheet, the owner shall provide a copy of the 25327
material safety data sheet for the material to the chief.25328

       (F) An owner shall submit to the chief the information that 25329
is required in divisions (A)(10)(b) and (c) and (B)(3) of this 25330
section consistent with the requirements established in this 25331
section using one of the following methods:25332

       (1) On a form prescribed by the chief;25333

       (2) Through the chemical disclosure registry that is 25334
maintained by the ground water protection council and the 25335
interstate oil and gas compact commission;25336

       (3) Any other means approved by the chief.25337

       (G) The chief shall post on the division's web site each 25338
material safety data sheet obtained under division (E) of this 25339
section. In addition, the chief shall make available through the 25340
division's web site the chemical information that is required by 25341
divisions (A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section.25342

       (H)(1) If a medical professional, in order to assist in the 25343
diagnosis or treatment of an individual who was affected by an 25344
incident associated with the production operations of a well, 25345
requests the exact chemical composition of each product, fluid, or 25346
substance and of each chemical component in a product, fluid, or 25347
substance that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 25348
division (I) of this section, the person claiming the trade secret 25349
protection pursuant to that division shall provide to the medical 25350
professional the exact chemical composition of the product, fluid, 25351
or substance and of the chemical component in a product, fluid, or 25352
substance that is requested.25353

       (2) A medical professional who receives information pursuant 25354
to division (H)(1) of this section shall keep the information 25355
confidential and shall not disclose the information for any 25356
purpose that is not related to the diagnosis or treatment of an 25357
individual who was affected by an incident associated with the 25358
production operations of a well. Nothing in division (H)(2) of 25359
this section precludes a medical professional from making any 25360
report required by law or professional ethical standards.25361

       (I)(1) The owner of a well who is required to submit a well 25362
completion record under division (A) of this section or a report 25363
under division (B)(3) of this section or a person that provides 25364
information to the owner as described in and for purposes of 25365
division (A)(9) or (10) or (B)(3) of this section may designate 25366
without disclosing on a form prescribed by the chief and withhold 25367
from disclosure to the chief the identity, amount, concentration, 25368
or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of a chemical 25369
component in a product, fluid, or substance as a trade secret. The 25370
owner or person may pursue enforcement of any rights or remedies 25371
established in sections 1333.61 to 1333.69 of the Revised Code for 25372
misappropriation, as defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised 25373
Code, with respect to the identity, amount, concentration, or 25374
purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or a chemical component 25375
in a product, fluid, or substance designated as a trade secret 25376
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section. The division shall 25377
not disclose information regarding the identity, amount, 25378
concentration, or purpose of any product, fluid, or substance or 25379
of any chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance 25380
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 25381
section.25382

       (2) A property owner, an adjacent property owner, or any 25383
person or agency of this state having an interest that is or may 25384
be adversely affected by a product, fluid, or substance or by a 25385
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance may commence 25386
a civil action in the court of common pleas of Franklin county 25387
against an owner or person described in division (I)(1) of this 25388
section challenging the owner's or person's claim to entitlement 25389
to trade secret protection for the specific identity, amount, 25390
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 25391
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 25392
division (I)(1) of this section. A person who commences a civil 25393
action pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section shall provide 25394
notice to the chief in a manner prescribed by the chief. In the 25395
civil action, the court shall conduct an in camera review of 25396
information submitted by an owner or person described in division 25397
(I)(1) of this section to determine if the identity, amount, 25398
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 25399
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 25400
division (I)(1) of this section is entitled to trade secret 25401
protection.25402

       (J)(1) Except for any information that is designated as a 25403
trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and 25404
except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, the owner 25405
of a well shall maintain records of all chemicals placed in a well 25406
for a period of not less than two years after the date on which 25407
each such chemical was placed in the well. The chief may inspect 25408
the records at any time concerning any such chemical.25409

       (2) An owner or person who has designated the identity, 25410
amount, concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or 25411
substance or of a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 25412
substance as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 25413
section shall maintain the records for such a product, fluid, or 25414
substance or for a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 25415
substance for a period of not less than two years after the date 25416
on which each such product, fluid, or substance or each such 25417
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance was placed in 25418
the well. Upon the request of the chief, the owner or person, as 25419
applicable, shall disclose the records to the chief if the 25420
information is necessary to respond to a spill, release, or 25421
investigation. However, the chief shall not disclose the 25422
information that is designated as a trade secret.25423

       (K)(1) For purposes of correcting inaccuracies and 25424
incompleteness in chemical information required by divisions 25425
(A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section, an owner shall be 25426
considered in substantial compliance if the owner has made 25427
reasonable efforts to obtain the required information from the 25428
supplier.25429

       (2) For purposes of reporting under this section, an owner is 25430
not required to report chemicals that occur incidentally or in 25431
trace amounts.25432

       (L) As used in this section, the term "material safety data 25433
sheet" shall conform to any revision of or change in the term by 25434
the occupational safety and health administration in the United 25435
States department of labor.25436

       Sec. 1509.11. (A)(1) The owner of any well, includingexcept25437
a horizontal well, that is producing or capable of producing oil 25438
or gas shall file with the chief of the division of oil and gas 25439
resources management, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 25440
a statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the last 25441
preceding calendar year in such form as the chief may prescribe. 25442
An owner that has more than one hundred such wells in this state 25443
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 25444
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 25445
the form, at the minimum, a request for the submittal of the 25446
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 25447
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 25448
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C.A. 11001, and 25449
regulations adopted under it, and that the division of oil and gas 25450
resources management does not obtain through other reporting 25451
mechanisms.25452

       (2) The owner of any horizontal well that is producing or 25453
capable of producing oil or gas shall file with the chief, on the 25454
forty-fifth day following the close of each calendar quarter, a 25455
statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the preceding 25456
calendar quarter in a form that the chief prescribes. An owner 25457
that has more than one hundred horizontal wells in this state 25458
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 25459
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 25460
the form, at a minimum, a request for the submittal of the 25461
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 25462
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 25463
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C. 11001, and 25464
regulations adopted under it, and that the division does not 25465
obtain through other reporting mechanisms.25466

       (B) The chief shall not disclose information received from 25467
the department of taxation under division (C)(12) of section 25468
5703.21 of the Revised Code until the related statement of 25469
production required by division (A) of this section is filed with 25470
the chief.25471

       Sec. 1509.50.  (A) An oil and gas regulatory cost recovery 25472
assessment is hereby imposed by this section on an owner. An owner 25473
shall pay the assessment in the same manner as a severer who is 25474
required to file a return under section 5749.06 of the Revised 25475
Code. However, an owner may designate a severer who shall pay the 25476
owner's assessment on behalf of the owner on the return that the 25477
severer is required to file under that section. If a severer so 25478
pays an owner's assessment, the severer may recoup from the owner 25479
the amount of the assessment. Except for an exempt domestic well, 25480
the assessment imposed shall be in addition to the taxes levied on 25481
the severance of oil and gas under section 5749.02 of the Revised 25482
Code.25483

       (B)(1) Except for an exempt domestic well, the oil and gas 25484
regulatory cost recovery assessment shall be calculated on a 25485
quarterly basis and shall be one of the following:25486

       (a) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 25487
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 25488
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 25489
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 25490
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 25491
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is greater than the 25492
sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the 25493
amount of the assessment is the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil 25494
for all of the wells of the owner and one-half of one cent per one 25495
thousand cubic feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the 25496
owner.25497

       (b) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 25498
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 25499
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 25500
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 25501
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 25502
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is less than the sum 25503
of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the amount of 25504
the assessment is the sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned 25505
by the owner less the amount of the tax levied on each severer for 25506
all of the wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of 25507
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable.25508

       (2) The oil and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment for a 25509
well that becomes an exempt domestic well on and after June 30, 25510
2010, shall be sixty dollars to be paid to the division of oil and 25511
gas resources management on the first day of July of each year.25512

       (C) All money collected pursuant to this section shall be 25513
deposited in the state treasury to the credit ofcredited to the 25514
severance tax receipts fund. After the director of budget and 25515
management transfers money from the severance tax receipts fund as 25516
required in division (H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, 25517
money in the severance tax receipts fund from amounts collected 25518
pursuant to this section shall be credited to the oil and gas well 25519
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.25520

       (D) Except for purposes of revenue distribution as specified 25521
in division (B) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, the oil 25522
and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment imposed by this 25523
section shall be treated the same and equivalent for all purposes 25524
as the taxes levied on the severance of oil and gas under that 25525
section. However, the assessment imposed by this section is not a 25526
tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code.25527

       Sec. 1509.73. (A)(1) Beginning on the effective date of this 25528
sectionSeptember 30, 2011, and ending on the effective date of 25529
the rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code, a 25530
state agency, in consultation with the oil and gas leasing 25531
commission, may lease a formation within a parcel of land that is 25532
owned or controlled by the state agency for the exploration for 25533
and development and production of oil or natural gas. The state 25534
agency shall establish bid fees, signing fees, rentals, and at 25535
least a one-eighth landowner royalty. On and after the effective 25536
date of the rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised 25537
Code, a formation within a parcel of land that is owned or 25538
controlled by a state agency may be leased for the exploration for 25539
and development and production of oil or natural gas only in 25540
accordance with divisions (A)(2) to (H) of this section and those 25541
rules.25542

       (2) Not earlier than two hundred seventy days after the 25543
effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 2011, a person that 25544
is an owner and that is interested in leasing a formation within a 25545
parcel of land that is owned or controlled by a state agency for 25546
the exploration for and the development and production of oil or 25547
natural gas may submit to the oil and gas leasing commission a 25548
nomination that identifies the parcel of land. A person submitting 25549
a nomination shall submit it in the manner and form established in 25550
rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code and shall 25551
include with the nomination both of the following:25552

       (a) The information required by those rules;25553

       (b) The nomination fee established in those rules.25554

       (B)(1) Not less than thirty days, but not more than one 25555
hundred twenty days following the receipt of a nomination of a 25556
parcel of land, the commission shall conduct a meeting for the 25557
purpose of determining whether to approve or disapprove the 25558
nomination for the purpose of leasing a formation within the 25559
parcel of land that is identified in the nomination. The 25560
commission also shall review the nomination of the parcel of land 25561
and determine if the parcel of land has been classified under 25562
section 1509.72 of the Revised Code. If the parcel of land that is 25563
the subject of the nomination has not been classified, the 25564
commission immediately shall send a copy of the nomination to the 25565
state agency that owns or controls the parcel that is the subject 25566
of the nomination. Not later than fifteen days after receipt of a 25567
copy of the nomination, the state agency shall classify the parcel 25568
of land as a class 1, class 2, class 3, or class 4 property and 25569
submit the classification to the commission. On receipt of the 25570
state agency's classification of the parcel of land, the 25571
commission shall provide the department of natural resources the 25572
information necessary for the department to comply with divisions 25573
(C) and (D) of section 1509.72 of the Revised Code.25574

       After a parcel of land that is the subject of a nomination 25575
has been classified under section 1509.72 of the Revised Code or 25576
division (B)(1) of this section, as applicable, the commission 25577
shall approve or disapprove the nomination. In making its decision 25578
to approve or disapprove the nomination of the parcel of land, the 25579
commission shall consider all of the following:25580

       (a) The economic benefits, including the potential income 25581
from an oil or natural gas operation, that would result if the 25582
lease of a formation that is the subject of the nomination were 25583
approved;25584

       (b) Whether the proposed oil or gas operation is compatible 25585
with the current uses of the parcel of land that is the subject of 25586
the nomination;25587

       (c) The environmental impact that would result if the lease 25588
of a formation that is the subject of the nomination were 25589
approved;25590

       (d) Any potential adverse geological impact that would result 25591
if the lease of a formation that is the subject of the nomination 25592
were approved;25593

       (e) Any potential impact to visitors or users of a parcel of 25594
land that is the subject of the nomination;25595

       (f) Any potential impact to the operations or equipment of a 25596
state agency that is a state university or college if the lease of 25597
a formation within a parcel of land owned or controlled by the 25598
university or college that is the subject of the nomination were 25599
executed;25600

        (g) Any objections to the nomination submitted to the 25601
commission by the state agency that owns or controls the land on 25602
which the proposed oil or natural gas operation would take place;25603

       (h) Any comments or objections to the nomination submitted to 25604
the commission by residents of this state or other users of the 25605
parcel of land that is the subject of the nomination;25606

        (i) Any other factors that the commission establishes in 25607
rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code.25608

       (2) The commission shall disapprove a nomination of a parcel 25609
of land that is a class 3 property. The commission shall send 25610
notice of the disapproval by certified mail to the person that 25611
submitted the nomination.25612

       (3) Prior to making its decision to approve or disapprove a 25613
nomination, the commission shall notify the state agency that owns 25614
or controls the land on which the oil or gas operation would take 25615
place.25616

       (4) The commission shall approve or disapprove a nomination 25617
not later than two calendar quarters following the receipt of the 25618
nomination. Notice of the decision of the commission shall be sent 25619
by certified mail to the person that submitted the nomination. 25620

       (5) If the commission approves a nomination, the commission 25621
shall notify the state agency that owns or controls the parcel of 25622
land that is the subject of a nomination of the commission's 25623
approval of the nomination. The notification shall request the 25624
state agency to submit to the commission special terms and 25625
conditions that will apply to the lease of a formation within the 25626
parcel of land because of specific conditions related to the 25627
parcel of land. The state agency shall submit the special terms 25628
and conditions not later than sixty days after receipt of a notice 25629
from the commission.25630

       (6) If the commission approves a nomination for a parcel of 25631
land that is a class 1 property, the commission shall offer for 25632
lease each formation that is within the parcel of land. If the 25633
commission approves a nomination for a parcel of land that is a 25634
class 2 or class 4 property, the commission shall not offer for 25635
lease any formation that is within the parcel of land unless the 25636
state agency that owns or controls the parcel of land notifies the 25637
commission that a formation or formations that are within the 25638
parcel of land may be offered for lease.25639

       (C) Each calendar quarter, the commission shall proceed to 25640
advertise for bids for a lease for a formation within a parcel of 25641
land that was the subject of a nomination approved during the 25642
previous calendar quarter that is a class 1 property or that is a 25643
class 2 or class 4 property for which the commission has received 25644
notice from the state agency that owns or controls the parcel of 25645
land under division (B)(6) of this section that a formation or 25646
formations that are within the parcel of land may be offered for 25647
lease. The advertisement shall be provided to the department of 25648
natural resources, and the department shall publish the 25649
advertisement on its web site for a period of time established by 25650
the commission. The advertisement shall include all of the 25651
following:25652

       (1) The procedure for the submission of a bid to enter into a 25653
lease for a formation within a parcel of land;25654

       (2) A statement that a standard lease form that is consistent 25655
with the practices of the oil and natural gas industries will be 25656
used for the lease of a formation within the parcel of land;25657

       (3) A copy of the standard lease form that will be used for 25658
the lease of a formation within the parcel of land;25659

       (4) Special terms and conditions, if applicable, that apply 25660
to the lease because of specific conditions related to the parcel 25661
of land;25662

       (5) The amount of the bid fee that is required to be 25663
submitted with a bid;25664

       (6) Any other information that the commission considers 25665
pertinent to the advertisement for bids.25666

       (D) A person submitting a bid to enter into a lease under 25667
this section shall pay a bid fee established in rules adopted 25668
under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code.25669

       (E) In order to encourage the submission of bids and the 25670
responsible and reasonable development of the state's natural 25671
resources, the information that is contained in a bid submitted to 25672
the commission under this section shall be confidential and shall 25673
not be disclosed before a person is selected under division (F) of 25674
this section unless the commission determines otherwise.25675

       (F) The commission shall establish a deadline for the 25676
submission of bids for each lease regarding a particular parcel of 25677
land and shall notify the department of the deadline. The 25678
department shall post the deadline for the submission of bids for 25679
each lease on the department's web site. A person shall submit a 25680
bid in accordance with the procedures and requirements established 25681
by the commission in rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the 25682
Revised Code.25683

       The commission shall select the person who submits the 25684
highest and best bid for each formation within that parcel of 25685
land, taking into account the financial responsibility of the 25686
prospective lessee and the ability of the prospective lessee to 25687
perform its obligations under the lease. After the commission 25688
selects a person, the commission shall notify the applicable state 25689
agency and send the person's bid to the agency. The state agency 25690
shall enter into a lease with the person selected by the 25691
commission.25692

       (G)(1) Except as otherwise provided in divisiondivisions25693
(G)(2) and (3) of this section, all money received by a state 25694
agency from signing fees, rentals, and royalty payments for leases 25695
entered into under this section shall be paid by the state agency 25696
into the state treasury to the credit of the state land royalty 25697
fund created in section 131.50 of the Revised Code.25698

       (2) Money received by a state agency from signing fees, 25699
rentals, and royalty payments for leases entered into under this 25700
section on land owned or controlled by the division of forestry,25701
or wildlife, or parks and recreation in the department of natural 25702
resources shall be deposited into one of the following funds, as 25703
applicable:25704

       (a) The forestry mineral royalties fund created in section 25705
1503.012 of the Revised Code if the lease pertains to land owned 25706
or controlled by the division of forestry;25707

       (b) The wildlife habitat fund created in section 1531.33 of 25708
the Revised Code if the lease pertains to land owned or controlled 25709
by the division of wildlife;25710

       (c) The parks mineral royalties fund created in section 25711
1541.26 of the Revised Code if the lease pertains to land owned or 25712
controlled by the division of parks and recreation.25713

       (3) Money received by a state agency from signing fees, 25714
rentals, and royalty payments for leases entered into under this 25715
section on land owned or controlled by the division of parks and 25716
recreation in the department of natural resources shall be 25717
deposited in the state treasury and credited as follows:25718

       (a) Fifty per cent of the money shall be credited to the 25719
parks mineral royalties fund created in section 1541.26 of the 25720
Revised Code.25721

       (b) Fifty per cent of the money shall be credited to the 25722
clean Ohio distribution fund created in section 151.50 of the 25723
Revised Code.25724

       (H) All money received from nomination fees and bid fees 25725
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the oil and 25726
gas leasing commission administration fund created in section 25727
1509.75 of the Revised Code.25728

       (I) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section to 25729
the contrary, a nature preserve as defined in section 1517.01 of 25730
the Revised Code that is owned or controlled by a state agency 25731
shall not be nominated or leased under this section for the 25732
purpose of exploring for and developing and producing oil and 25733
natural gas resources.25734

       Sec. 1511.02.  The chief of the division of soil and water 25735
resources, subject to the approval of the director of natural 25736
resources, shall do all of the following:25737

       (A) Provide administrative leadership to local soil and water 25738
conservation districts in planning, budgeting, staffing, and 25739
administering district programs and the training of district 25740
supervisors and personnel in their duties, responsibilities, and 25741
authorities as prescribed in this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the 25742
Revised Code;25743

       (B) Administer this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the Revised 25744
Code pertaining to state responsibilities and provide staff 25745
assistance to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission in 25746
exercising its statutory responsibilities;25747

       (C) Assist in expediting state responsibilities for watershed 25748
development and other natural resource conservation works of 25749
improvement;25750

       (D) Coordinate the development and implementation of 25751
cooperative programs and working agreements between local soil and 25752
water conservation districts and divisions or sections of the 25753
department of natural resources, or other agencies of local, 25754
state, and federal government;25755

       (E) Subject to the approval of the Ohio soil and water 25756
conservation commission, adopt, amend, or rescind rules pursuant 25757
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Rules adopted pursuant to 25758
this section:25759

       (1) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 25760
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 25761
conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations that 25762
will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the 25763
degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or by soil 25764
sediment including substances attached thereto, and establish 25765
criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management 25766
and conservation practices;25767

       (2) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 25768
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 25769
conservation practices that will abate wind or water erosion of 25770
the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by 25771
soil sediment in conjunction with land grading, excavating, 25772
filling, or other soil-disturbing activities on land used or being 25773
developed for nonfarm commercial, industrial, residential, or 25774
other nonfarm purposes, and establish criteria for determination 25775
of the acceptability of such management and conservation 25776
practices. The standards shall be designed to implement applicable 25777
areawide waste treatment management plans prepared under section 25778
208 of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," 86 Stat. 816 25779
(1972), 33 U.S.C.A. 1288, as amended. The standards and criteria 25780
shall not apply in any municipal corporation or county that adopts 25781
ordinances or rules pertaining to sediment control, nor to lands 25782
being used in a strip mine operation as defined in section 1513.01 25783
of the Revised Code, nor to lands being used in a surface mining 25784
operation as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.25785

       (3) May recommend criteria and procedures for the approval of 25786
urban sediment pollution abatement plans and issuance of permits 25787
prior to any grading, excavating, filling, or other whole or 25788
partial disturbance of five or more contiguous acres of land owned 25789
by one person or operated as one development unit and require 25790
implementation of such a plan. Areas of less than five contiguous 25791
acres are not exempt from compliance with other provisions of this 25792
chapter and rules adopted under them.25793

       (4) Shall establish procedures for administration of rules 25794
for agricultural pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution 25795
abatement and for enforcement of rules for agricultural pollution 25796
abatement;25797

       (5) Shall specify the pollution abatement practices eligible 25798
for state cost sharing and determine the conditions for 25799
eligibility, the construction standards and specifications, the 25800
useful life, the maintenance requirements, and the limits of cost 25801
sharing for those practices. Eligible practices shall be limited 25802
to practices that address agricultural or silvicultural operations 25803
and that require expenditures that are likely to exceed the 25804
economic returns to the owner or operator and that abate soil 25805
erosion or degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste 25806
or soil sediment including pollutants attached thereto.25807

       (6) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 25808
owners or operators of agricultural land or concentrated animal 25809
feeding operations for the implementation of operation and 25810
management plans;25811

       (7) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 25812
soil and water conservation districts for urban sediment pollution 25813
abatement programs, specify the types of projects eligible for 25814
grants, establish limits on the availability of grants, and 25815
establish requirements governing the execution of projects to 25816
encourage the reduction of erosion and sedimentation associated 25817
with soil-disturbing activities;25818

       (8) Shall do all of the following with regard to composting 25819
conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations:25820

       (a) Provide for the distribution of educational material 25821
concerning composting to the offices of the Ohio cooperativeOSU25822
extension service for the purposes of section 1511.022 of the 25823
Revised Code;25824

       (b) Establish methods, techniques, or practices for 25825
composting dead animals, or particular types of dead animals, that 25826
are to be used at such operations, as the chief considers to be 25827
necessary or appropriate;25828

       (c) Establish requirements and procedures governing the 25829
review and approval or disapproval of composting plans by the 25830
supervisors of soil and water conservation districts under 25831
division (Q) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.25832

       (9) Shall be adopted, amended, or rescinded after the chief 25833
does all of the following:25834

       (a) Mails notice to each statewide organization that the 25835
chief determines represents persons or local governmental agencies 25836
who would be affected by the proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 25837
rescission thereof at least thirty-five days before any public 25838
hearing thereon;25839

       (b) Mails a copy of each proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 25840
rescission thereof to any person who requests a copy, within five 25841
days after receipt of the request;25842

       (c) Consults with appropriate state and local governmental 25843
agencies or their representatives, including statewide 25844
organizations of local governmental officials, industrial 25845
representatives, and other interested persons;25846

       (d) If the rule relates to agricultural pollution abatement, 25847
develops an economic impact statement concerning the effect of the 25848
proposed rule or amendment.25849

       (10) Shall not conflict with air or water quality standards 25850
adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised 25851
Code. Compliance with rules adopted pursuant to this section does 25852
not affect liability for noncompliance with air or water quality 25853
standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the 25854
Revised Code. The application of a level of management and 25855
conservation practices recommended under this section to control 25856
windblown soil from farming operations creates a presumption of 25857
compliance with section 3704.03 of the Revised Code as that 25858
section applies to windblown soil.25859

       (11) Insofar as the rules relate to urban sediment pollution, 25860
shall not be applicable in a municipal corporation or county that 25861
adopts ordinances or rules for urban sediment control, except that 25862
a municipal corporation or county that adopts such ordinances or 25863
rules may receive moneys for urban sediment control that are 25864
disbursed by the board of supervisors of the applicable soil and 25865
water conservation district under division (N) of section 1515.08 25866
of the Revised Code. The rules shall not exempt any person from 25867
compliance with municipal ordinances enacted pursuant to Section 3 25868
of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.25869

       (F) Cost share with landowners on practices established 25870
pursuant to division (E)(5) of this section as moneys are 25871
appropriated and available for that purpose. Any practice for 25872
which cost share is provided shall be maintained for its useful 25873
life. Failure to maintain a cost share practice for its useful 25874
life shall subject the landowner to full repayment to the 25875
division.25876

       (G) Issue orders requiring compliance with any rule adopted 25877
under division (E)(1) of this section or with section 1511.022 of 25878
the Revised Code. Before the chief issues an order, the chief 25879
shall afford each person allegedly liable an adjudication hearing 25880
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The chief may require in 25881
an order that a person who has caused agricultural pollution by 25882
failure to comply with the standards established under division 25883
(E)(1) of this section operate under an operation and management 25884
plan approved by the chief under this section. The chief shall 25885
require in an order that a person who has failed to comply with 25886
division (A) of section 1511.022 of the Revised Code prepare a 25887
composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division 25888
(E)(10)(c) of this section and operate in accordance with that 25889
plan or that a person who has failed to operate in accordance with 25890
such a plan begin to operate in accordance with it. Each order 25891
shall be issued in writing and contain a finding by the chief of 25892
the facts upon which the order is based and the standard that is 25893
not being met.25894

       (H) Employ field assistants and such other employees as are 25895
necessary for the performance of the work prescribed by Chapter 25896
1515. of the Revised Code, for performance of work of the 25897
division, and as agreed to under working agreements or contractual 25898
arrangements with local soil and water conservation districts, 25899
prescribe their duties, and fix their compensation in accordance 25900
with such schedules as are provided by law for the compensation of 25901
state employees.25902

       All employees of the division, unless specifically exempted 25903
by law, shall be employed subject to the classified civil service 25904
laws in force at the time of employment.25905

       (I) In connection with new or relocated projects involving 25906
highways, underground cables, pipelines, railroads, and other 25907
improvements affecting soil and water resources, including surface 25908
and subsurface drainage:25909

       (1) Provide engineering service as is mutually agreeable to 25910
the Ohio soil and water conservation commission and the director 25911
to aid in the design and installation of soil and water 25912
conservation practices as a necessary component of such projects;25913

       (2) Maintain close liaison between the owners of lands on 25914
which the projects are executed, local soil and water conservation 25915
districts, and authorities responsible for such projects;25916

       (3) Review plans for such projects to ensure their compliance 25917
with standards developed under division (E) of this section in 25918
cooperation with the department of transportation or with any 25919
other interested agency that is engaged in soil or water 25920
conservation projects in the state in order to minimize adverse 25921
impacts on soil and water resources adjacent to or otherwise 25922
affected by these projects;25923

       (4) Recommend measures to retard erosion and protect soil and 25924
water resources through the installation of water impoundment or 25925
other soil and water conservation practices;25926

       (5) Cooperate with other agencies and subdivisions of the 25927
state to protect the agricultural status of rural lands adjacent 25928
to such projects and control adverse impacts on soil and water 25929
resources.25930

       (J) Collect, analyze, inventory, and interpret all available 25931
information pertaining to the origin, distribution, extent, use, 25932
and conservation of the soil resources of the state;25933

       (K) Prepare and maintain up-to-date reports, maps, and other 25934
materials pertaining to the soil resources of the state and their 25935
use and make that information available to governmental agencies, 25936
public officials, conservation entities, and the public;25937

       (L) Provide soil and water conservation districts with 25938
technical assistance including on-site soil investigations and 25939
soil interpretation reports on the suitability or limitations of 25940
soil to support a particular use or to plan soil conservation 25941
measures. The assistance shall be upon such terms as are mutually 25942
agreeable to the districts and the department of natural 25943
resources.25944

       (M) Assist local government officials in utilizing land use 25945
planning and zoning, current agricultural use value assessment, 25946
development reviews, and land management activities;25947

       (N) When necessary for the purposes of this chapter or 25948
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, develop or approve operation 25949
and management plans.25950

       This section does not restrict the excrement of domestic or 25951
farm animals defecated on land outside a concentrated animal 25952
feeding operation or runoff therefrom into the waters of the 25953
state.25954

       Sec. 1511.022.  (A) Any person who owns or operates an 25955
agricultural operation, or owns the animals raised by the owner or 25956
operator of an agricultural operation, and who wishes to conduct 25957
composting of dead animals resulting from the agricultural 25958
operation shall do both of the following:25959

       (1) Participate in an educational course concerning 25960
composting conducted by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service25961
and obtain a certificate of completion for the course;25962

       (2) Use the appropriate method, technique, or practice of 25963
composting established in rules adopted under division (E)(8) of 25964
section 1511.02 of the Revised Code.25965

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with division (A) of this 25966
section shall prepare and operate under a composting plan in 25967
accordance with an order issued by the chief of the division of 25968
soil and water resources under division (G) of section 1511.02 of 25969
the Revised Code. If the person's proposed composting plan is 25970
disapproved by the board of supervisors of the appropriate soil 25971
and water conservation district under division (Q)(3) of section 25972
1515.08 of the Revised Code, the person may appeal the plan 25973
disapproval to the chief, who shall afford the person a hearing. 25974
Following the hearing, the chief shall uphold the plan disapproval 25975
or reverse it. If the chief reverses the disapproval, the plan 25976
shall be deemed approved.25977

       Sec. 1519.05. (A) As used in this section, "local political 25978
subdivision" and "nonprofit organization" have the same meanings 25979
as in section 164.20 of the Revised Code.25980

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the clean 25981
Ohio trail fund. Twelve and one-half per cent of the net proceeds 25982
of obligations issued and sold pursuant to sections 151.01 and 25983
151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The 25984
fund also shall consist of money credited to it under section 25985
151.50 of the Revised Code.25986

       Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund 25987
and may be used to pay costs incurred by the director of natural 25988
resources in administering this section.25989

       Money in the clean Ohio trail fund shall not be used for the 25990
appropriation of land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, 25991
easements, or other property through the exercise of the right of 25992
eminent domain.25993

       The director shall use moneys in the fund exclusively to 25994
provide matching grants to nonprofit organizations and to local 25995
political subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or 25996
interests in land for recreational trails and for the construction 25997
of such trails. A matching grant may provide up to seventy-five 25998
per cent of the cost of a recreational trail project, and the 25999
recipient of the matching grant shall provide not less than 26000
twenty-five per cent of that cost.26001

       (C) The director shall establish policies for the purposes of 26002
this section. The policies shall establish all of the following:26003

       (1) Procedures for providing matching grants to nonprofit 26004
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purposes of 26005
purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and 26006
for the construction of such trails, including, without 26007
limitation, procedures for both of the following:26008

       (a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, 26009
accepting, and approving grant applications;26010

       (b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local 26011
political subdivisions in the application process.26012

       (2) A requirement that an application for a matching grant 26013
for a recreational trail project include a copy of a resolution 26014
supporting the project from each county in which the proposed 26015
project is to be conducted and whichever of the following is 26016
applicable:26017

       (a) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 26018
the geographical boundaries of one township, a copy of a 26019
resolution supporting the project from the township;26020

       (b) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 26021
the geographical boundaries of one municipal corporation, a copy 26022
of a resolution supporting the project from the municipal 26023
corporation;26024

       (c) If the proposed project is to be conducted in more than 26025
one, but fewer than five townships or municipal corporations, a 26026
copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least one-half 26027
of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in 26028
which the proposed project is to be conducted;26029

       (d) If the proposed project is to be conducted in five or 26030
more municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the 26031
project from at least three-fifths of the total number of 26032
townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project 26033
is to be conducted.26034

       (3) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an 26035
applicant in order to receive a matching grant and that emphasize 26036
the following:26037

       (a) Synchronization with the statewide trail plan;26038

       (b) Complete regional systems and links to the statewide 26039
trail system;26040

       (c) A combination of funds from various state agencies;26041

       (d) The provision of links in urban areas that support 26042
commuter access and show economic impact on local communities;26043

       (e) The linkage of population centers with public outdoor 26044
recreation areas and facilities;26045

       (f) The purchase of rail lines that are linked to the 26046
statewide trail plan;26047

       (g) The preservation of natural corridors.26048

       (4) Items of value, such as in-kind contributions of land, 26049
easements or other interests in land, labor, or materials, that 26050
may be considered as contributing toward the percentage of the 26051
cost of a recreational trails project that must be provided by a 26052
matching grant recipient.26053

       Sec. 1531.06.  (A) The chief of the division of wildlife, 26054
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may 26055
acquire by gift, lease, purchase, or otherwise lands or surface 26056
rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon waters for 26057
wild animals, fish or game management, preservation, propagation, 26058
and protection, outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and 26059
hunting grounds, and flora and fauna preservation. The chief, with 26060
the approval of the director, may receive by grant, devise, 26061
bequest, donation, or assignment evidences of indebtedness, the 26062
proceeds of which are to be used for the purchase of such lands or 26063
surface rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon 26064
waters.26065

       (B)(1) The chief shall adopt rules for the protection of 26066
state-owned or leased lands and waters and property under the 26067
control of the division of wildlife against wrongful use or 26068
occupancy that will ensure the carrying out of the intent of this 26069
section, protect those lands, waters, and property from 26070
depredations, and preserve them from molestation, spoilation, 26071
destruction, or any improper use or occupancy thereof, including 26072
rules with respect to recreational activities and for the 26073
government and use of such lands, waters, and property.26074

       (2) The chief may adopt rules benefiting wild animals, fish 26075
or game management, preservation, propagation, and protection, 26076
outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and hunting grounds, 26077
and flora and fauna preservation, and regulating the taking and 26078
possession of wild animals on any lands or waters owned or leased 26079
or under the division's supervision and control and, for a 26080
specified period of years, may prohibit or recall the taking and 26081
possession of any wild animal on any portion of such lands or 26082
waters. The division clearly shall define and mark the boundaries 26083
of the lands and waters owned or leased or under its supervision 26084
and control upon which the taking of any wild animal is 26085
prohibited.26086

       (C) The chief, with the approval of the director, may acquire 26087
by gift, lease, or purchase land for the purpose of establishing 26088
state fish hatcheries and game farms and may erect on it buildings 26089
or structures that are necessary.26090

       The title to or lease of such lands and waters shall be taken 26091
by the chief in the name of the state. The lease or purchase price 26092
of all such lands and waters may be paid from hunting and trapping 26093
and fishing licenses and any other funds.26094

       (D) To provide more public recreation, stream and lake 26095
agreements for public fishing only may be obtained under rules 26096
adopted by the chief.26097

       (E) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 26098
establish user fees for the use of special public facilities or 26099
participation in special activities on lands and waters 26100
administered by the division. The special facilities and 26101
activities may include hunting or fishing on special designated 26102
public lands and waters intensively managed or stocked with 26103
artificially propagated game birds or fish, field trial 26104
facilities, wildlife nature centers, firearm ranges, boat mooring 26105
facilities, camping sites, and other similar special facilities 26106
and activities. The chief shall determine whether the user fees 26107
are refundable and shall ensure that that information is provided 26108
at the time the user fees are paid.26109

       (F) The chief, with the approval of the director, may enter 26110
into lease agreements for rental of concessions or other special 26111
projects situated on state-owned or leased lands or waters or 26112
other property under the division's control. The chief shall set 26113
and collect the fees for concession rentals or other special 26114
projects; regulate through contracts between the division and 26115
concessionaires the sale of tangible objects at concessions or 26116
other special projects; and keep a record of all such fee payments 26117
showing the amount received, from whom received, and for what 26118
purpose the fee was collected.26119

       (G) The chief may sell or donate conservation-related items 26120
or items that promote wildlife conservation, including, but not 26121
limited to, stamps, pins, badges, books, bulletins, maps, 26122
publications, calendars, and any other educational article or 26123
artifact pertaining to wild animals; sell confiscated or forfeited 26124
items; and sell surplus structures and equipment, and timber or 26125
crops from lands owned, administered, leased, or controlled by the 26126
division. The chief, with the approval of the director, also may 26127
engage in campaigns and special events that promote wildlife 26128
conservation by selling or donating wildlife-related materials, 26129
memberships, and other items of promotional value.26130

       (H) The chief may sell, lease, or transfer minerals or 26131
mineral rights, with the approval of the director, when the chief 26132
and the director determine it to be in the best interest of the 26133
state. Upon approval of the director, the chief may make, execute, 26134
and deliver contracts, including leases, to mine, drill, or 26135
excavate iron ore, stone, coal, salt, and other minerals, other 26136
than oil or gas, upon and under lands owned by the state and 26137
administered by the division to any person who complies with the 26138
terms of such a contract. No such contract shall be valid for more 26139
than fifty years from its effective date. Consideration for 26140
minerals and mineral rights shall be by rental or royalty basis as 26141
prescribed by the chief and payable as prescribed by contract. 26142
Moneys collected under this division shall be paid into the state 26143
treasury to the credit of the wildlife habitat fund created in 26144
section 1531.33 of the Revised Code. Contracts entered into under 26145
this division also may provide for consideration for minerals or 26146
mineral rights in the form of acquisition of lands as provided 26147
under divisions (A) and (C) of this section.26148

       (I) All moneys received under divisions (E), (F), and (G) of 26149
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 26150
of a fund that shall be used for the purposes outlined in section 26151
1533.15 of the Revised Code and for the management of other wild 26152
animals for their ecological and nonconsumptive recreational value 26153
or benefit.26154

       (J) The chief, with the approval of the director, may barter 26155
or sell wild animals to other states, state or federal agencies, 26156
and conservation or zoological organizations. Moneys received from 26157
the sale of wild animals shall be deposited into the wild animal26158
wildlife fund created in section 1531.341531.17 of the Revised 26159
Code.26160

       (K) The chief shall adopt rules establishing standards and 26161
guidelines for the administration of contraceptive chemicals to 26162
noncaptive wild animals. The rules may specify chemical delivery 26163
methods and devices and monitoring requirements.26164

       The chief shall establish criteria for the issuance of and 26165
shall issue permits for the administration of contraceptive 26166
chemicals to noncaptive wild animals. No person shall administer 26167
contraceptive chemicals to noncaptive wild animals without a 26168
permit issued by the chief.26169

       (L) All fees set by the chief under this section shall be 26170
approved by the wildlife council.26171

       (M) Information contained in the wildlife diversity database 26172
that is established pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 26173
and section 1531.25 of the Revised Code may be made available to 26174
any individual or public or private agency for research, 26175
educational, environmental, land management, or other similar 26176
purposes that are not detrimental to the conservation of a species 26177
or feature. Information regarding sensitive site locations of 26178
species that are listed pursuant to section 1531.25 of the Revised 26179
Code and of features that are included in the wildlife diversity 26180
database is not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code if 26181
the chief determines that the release of the information could be 26182
detrimental to the conservation of a species or feature.26183

       Sec. 1531.17.  All fines, penalties, and forfeitures arising 26184
from prosecutions, convictions, confiscations, or otherwise under 26185
this chapter and Chapters 1517. and 1533. of the Revised Code, 26186
unless otherwise directed by the director of natural resources, 26187
shall be paid by the officer by whom collected to the director and 26188
by himthe director paid into the state treasury to the credit of 26189
the wildlife fund, which is hereby created, for the use of the 26190
division of wildlife. All moneys received from the sale of wild 26191
animals under division (J) of section 1531.06 shall be paid into 26192
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for the use 26193
of the division. All moneys collected as license fees on nets in 26194
the Lake Erie fishing district shall be paid by the director into 26195
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for use only 26196
in the betterment and the propagation of fish therein or in 26197
otherwise propagating fish in such district. All investment 26198
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. The wildlife 26199
fund shall not be used for compensation of personnel employed by 26200
other divisions of the department of natural resources who are 26201
assigned to law enforcement duties in aid of the division of 26202
wildlife or for compensation of division of wildlife personnel for 26203
activities related to the instruction of personnel of other 26204
divisions.26205

       Sec. 1545.071. The following applies until the department of 26206
administrative services implements for park districts the health 26207
care plans under section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans 26208
do not include or address any benefits listed in this section, the 26209
following provisions continue in effect for those benefits.26210

       The board of park commissioners of any park district may 26211
procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group insurance 26212
policies that may provide benefits for hospitalization, surgical 26213
care, major medical care, disability, dental care, eye care, 26214
medical care, hearing aids, or prescription drugs, or sickness and 26215
accident insurance or a combination of any of the foregoing types 26216
of insurance or coverage for park district officers and employees 26217
and their immediate dependents issued by an insurance company duly 26218
authorized to do business in this state.26219

       The board may procure and pay all or any part of the cost of 26220
group life insurance to insure the lives of park district 26221
employees.26222

       The board also may contract for group health care services 26223
with health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 26224
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code provided that 26225
each officer or employee is permitted to:26226

       (A) Choose between a plan offered by an insurance company and 26227
a plan offered by a health insuring corporation and provided 26228
further that the officer or employee pays any amount by which the 26229
cost of the plan chosen by the officer or employee exceeds the 26230
cost of the plan offered by the board under this section;26231

       (B) Change the choice made under division (A) of this section 26232
at a time each year as determined in advance by the board.26233

       Any appointed member of the board of park commissioners and 26234
the spouse and dependent children of the member may be covered, at 26235
the option and expense of the member, as a noncompensated employee 26236
of the park district under any benefit plan described in division 26237
(A) of this section. The member shall pay to the park district the 26238
amount certified to it by the benefit provider as the provider's 26239
charge for the coverage the member has chosen under division (A) 26240
of this section. Payments for coverage shall be made, in advance, 26241
in a manner prescribed by the board. The member's exercise of an 26242
option to be covered under this section shall be in writing, 26243
announced at a regular public meeting of the board, and recorded 26244
as a public record in the minutes of the board.26245

       The board may provide the benefits authorized in this section 26246
by contributing to a health and welfare trust fund administered 26247
through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining 26248
representative of the park district employees.26249

       The board may provide the benefits described in this section 26250
through an individual self-insurance program or a joint 26251
self-insurance program as provided in section 9.833 of the Revised 26252
Code.26253

       Sec. 1545.23.  If a park district enters into an agreement 26254
for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park within 26255
the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from the 26256
sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 26257
board of park commissioners shall create. The fund shall be used 26258
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 26259
the acquisition of new park lands.26260

       Sec. 1547.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 1547.91 of the 26261
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree.26262

       (B) Whoever violates division (F) of section 1547.08, section 26263
1547.10, division (I) of section 1547.111, section 1547.13, or 26264
section 1547.66 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 26265
the first degree.26266

       (C) Whoever violates a provision of this chapter or a rule 26267
adopted thereunder, for which no penalty is otherwise provided, is 26268
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.26269

       (D) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 26270
the Revised Code without causing injury to persons or damage to 26271
property is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.26272

       (E) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 26273
the Revised Code causing injury to persons or damage to property 26274
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.26275

       (F) Whoever violates division (N) of section 1547.54, 26276
division (G) of section 1547.30, or section 1547.131, 1547.25, 26277
1547.33, 1547.38, 1547.39, 1547.40, 1547.65, 1547.69, or 1547.92 26278
of the Revised Code or a rule adopted under division (A)(2) of 26279
section 1547.52 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 26280
the fourth degree.26281

       (G) Whoever violates section 1547.11 of the Revised Code is 26282
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be punished 26283
as provided in division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.26284

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) or (3) of 26285
this section, the court shall sentence the offender to a jail term 26286
of three consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant 26287
to section 2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In 26288
addition, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not 26289
less than one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.26290

       The court may suspend the execution of the mandatory jail 26291
term of three consecutive days that it is required to impose by 26292
division (G)(1) of this section if the court, in lieu of the 26293
suspended jail term, places the offender under a community control 26294
sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and 26295
requires the offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a 26296
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 26297
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. The court also may 26298
suspend the execution of any part of the mandatory jail term of 26299
three consecutive days that it is required to impose by division 26300
(G)(1) of this section if the court places the offender under a 26301
community control sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the 26302
Revised Code for part of the three consecutive days; requires the 26303
offender to attend, for that part of the three consecutive days, a 26304
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 26305
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code; and sentences the 26306
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 26307
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 26308
drivers' intervention program. The court may require the offender, 26309
as a condition of community control, to attend and satisfactorily 26310
complete any treatment or education programs, in addition to the 26311
required attendance at a drivers' intervention program, that the 26312
operators of the drivers' intervention program determine that the 26313
offender should attend and to report periodically to the court on 26314
the offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose 26315
any other conditions of community control on the offender that it 26316
considers necessary.26317

       (2) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 26318
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of section 26319
1547.11 of the Revised Code or one other equivalent offense, the 26320
court shall sentence the offender to a jail term of ten 26321
consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant to section 26322
2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In addition, 26323
the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not less than 26324
one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.26325

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 26326
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 26327
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1026328
5119.38 of the Revised Code.26329

       (3) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 26330
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than one violation or 26331
offense identified in division (G)(2) of this section, the court 26332
shall sentence the offender to a jail term of thirty consecutive 26333
days and may sentence the offender to a longer jail term of not 26334
more than one year. In addition, the court shall impose upon the 26335
offender a fine of not less than one hundred fifty nor more than 26336
one thousand dollars.26337

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 26338
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 26339
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1026340
5119.38 of the Revised Code.26341

       (4) Upon a showing that serving a jail term would seriously 26342
affect the ability of an offender sentenced pursuant to division 26343
(G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to continue the offender's 26344
employment, the court may authorize that the offender be granted 26345
work release after the offender has served the mandatory jail term 26346
of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court is 26347
required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 26348
impose. No court shall authorize work release during the mandatory 26349
jail term of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court 26350
is required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 26351
impose. The duration of the work release shall not exceed the time 26352
necessary each day for the offender to commute to and from the 26353
place of employment and the place in which the jail term is served 26354
and the time actually spent under employment.26355

       (5) Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 26356
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 26357
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 26358
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court shall 26359
suspend the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 26360
required to be imposed by division (G)(2) or (3) of this section 26361
or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division (G)(2) 26362
or (3) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of being 26363
imprisoned or serving a jail term until after the offender has 26364
served the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 26365
required to be imposed pursuant to division (G)(2) or (3) of this 26366
section. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 26367
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 26368
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 26369
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court, 26370
except as specifically authorized by division (G)(1) of this 26371
section, shall suspend the mandatory jail term of three 26372
consecutive days required to be imposed by division (G)(1) of this 26373
section or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division 26374
(G)(1) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of 26375
imprisonment until after the offender has served the mandatory 26376
jail term of three consecutive days required to be imposed 26377
pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section.26378

       (6) As used in division (G) of this section:26379

       (a) "Equivalent offense" has the same meaning as in section 26380
4511.181 of the Revised Code.26381

       (b) "Jail term" and "mandatory jail term" have the same 26382
meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.26383

       (H) Whoever violates section 1547.304 of the Revised Code is 26384
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree and also shall be 26385
assessed any costs incurred by the state or a county, township, 26386
municipal corporation, or other political subdivision in disposing 26387
of an abandoned junk vessel or outboard motor, less any money 26388
accruing to the state, county, township, municipal corporation, or 26389
other political subdivision from that disposal.26390

       (I) Whoever violates division (B) or (C) of section 1547.49 26391
of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.26392

       (J) Whoever violates section 1547.31 of the Revised Code is 26393
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense. 26394
On each subsequent offense, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor 26395
of the third degree.26396

       (K) Whoever violates section 1547.05 or 1547.051 of the 26397
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if 26398
the violation is not related to a collision, injury to a person, 26399
or damage to property and a misdemeanor of the third degree if the 26400
violation is related to a collision, injury to a person, or damage 26401
to property.26402

       (L) The sentencing court, in addition to the penalty provided 26403
under this section for a violation of this chapter or a rule 26404
adopted under it that involves a powercraft powered by more than 26405
ten horsepower and that, in the opinion of the court, involves a 26406
threat to the safety of persons or property, shall order the 26407
offender to complete successfully a boating course approved by the 26408
national association of state boating law administrators before 26409
the offender is allowed to operate a powercraft powered by more 26410
than ten horsepower on the waters in this state. Violation of a 26411
court order entered under this division is punishable as contempt 26412
under Chapter 2705. of the Revised Code.26413

       Sec. 1548.02.  The chief of the division of watercraft shall 26414
adopt such rules as the chief considers necessary to ensure 26415
uniform and orderly operation of this chapter, and the clerks of 26416
the courts of common pleas shall conform to those rules. The chief 26417
shall receive and file in the chief's office all information 26418
forwarded to the chief by the clerks under this chapter and shall 26419
maintain indexes covering the state at large for that information. 26420
These indexes shall be for the state at large and not for 26421
individual counties.26422

       The chief shall check with the chief's record all duplicate 26423
certificates of title received in the chief's office from the 26424
clerks.26425

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 26426
improperly issued or is no longer required, the chief shall cancel 26427
the certificate. Upon the cancellation of any certificate of 26428
title, the chief shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the 26429
clerk shall enter the cancellation in the clerk's records. The 26430
chief also shall notify the person to whom the certificate of 26431
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing on it, of 26432
the cancellation and, if it is a physical certificate of title, 26433
shall demand the surrender of the certificate of title, but the 26434
cancellation shall not affect the validity of any lien noted on 26435
it. The holder of a physical certificate of title shall return it 26436
to the chief immediately.26437

       The clerks shall keep on hand a sufficient supply of blank 26438
forms that, except certificate of title and memorandum certificate 26439
forms, shall be furnished and distributed without charge to 26440
registered manufacturers or dealers or to other persons residing 26441
within the county. The clerks shall provide the certificates of 26442
title, theand ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for 26443
datathe operation of the certificate of title processing, and 26444
removable backup mediaequipment as determined by the automated 26445
title processing board pursuant to division (C) of section 4505.09 26446
of the Revised Code from moneys provided to the clerks from the 26447
automated title processing fund in accordance with division 26448
(B)(3)(b) of section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. The clerks shall 26449
furnish all other supplies from other moneys available to the 26450
clerks.26451

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development services shall 26452
appoint and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 26453
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 26454
the director of development services.26455

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:26456

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 26457
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;26458

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 26459
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 26460
implement the agenda;26461

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 26462
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 26463
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 26464
development agenda;26465

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 26466
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 26467
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 26468
public or private interests, or any other person;26469

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 26470
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 26471
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 26472
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 26473
director of development services.26474

       (6) Appoint specified members of and conveneConvene the 26475
technical advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of 26476
the Revised Code;26477

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 26478
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 26479
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 26480
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 26481
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 26482
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 26483
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 26484
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 26485
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 26486
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 26487
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 26488
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 26489
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 26490
the reasons for the recommendation.26491

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 26492
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.26493

       (C) With the approval of the director of development 26494
services, the director of the office may exercise any of the 26495
powers and duties that the director of development services26496
considers appropriate or desirable to achieve the office's 26497
purposes, including, but not limited to, the powers and duties 26498
enumerated in sections 1551.11, 1551.12, and 1551.15 of the 26499
Revised Code.26500

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 26501
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 26502
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 26503
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 26504
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 26505
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 26506
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 26507
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 26508
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 26509
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 26510
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 26511
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 26512
the office.26513

       Sec. 1551.35.  (A) There is hereby established a technical 26514
advisory committee to assist the director of the Ohio coal 26515
development office in achieving the office's purposes. The 26516
director of development services shall appoint to the committee 26517
one member of the public utilities commission and one 26518
representative each of coal production companies, the united mine 26519
workers of America, electric utilities, manufacturers that use 26520
Ohio coal, and environmental organizations, as well as two people 26521
with a background in coal research and development technology, one 26522
of whom is employed at the time of the member's appointment by a 26523
state university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised 26524
Code. In addition, the committee shall include four legislative 26525
members. The speaker and minority leader of the house of 26526
representatives each shall appoint one member of the house of 26527
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 26528
senate each shall appoint one member of the senate, to the 26529
committee. The director of environmental protection shall serve on 26530
the committee as an ex officio member. Any member of the committee 26531
may designate in writing a substitute to serve in the member's 26532
absence on the committee. The director of environmental protection 26533
may designate in writing the chief of the air pollution control 26534
division of the agency to represent the agency. Members shall 26535
serve on the committee at the pleasure of their appointing 26536
authority. Members of the committee appointed by the director of 26537
the officedevelopment services and, notwithstanding section 26538
101.26 of the Revised Code, legislative members of the committee, 26539
when engaged in their official duties as members of the committee, 26540
shall be compensated on a per diem basis in accordance with 26541
division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, except that 26542
the member of the public utilities commission and, while employed 26543
by a state university, the member with a background in coal 26544
research, shall not be so compensated. Members shall receive their 26545
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their 26546
duties.26547

       (B) The technical advisory committee shall review and make 26548
recommendations concerning the Ohio coal development agenda 26549
required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code, project 26550
proposals, research and development projects submitted to the 26551
office by public utilities for the purpose of section 4905.304 of 26552
the Revised Code, proposals for grants, loans, and loan guarantees 26553
for purposes of sections 1555.01 to 1555.06 of the Revised Code, 26554
and such other topics as the director of the office considers 26555
appropriate.26556

       (C) The technical advisory committee may hold an executive 26557
session at any regular or special meeting for the purpose of 26558
considering research and development project proposals or 26559
applications for assistance submitted to the Ohio coal development 26560
office under section 1551.33, or sections 1555.01 to 1555.06, of 26561
the Revised Code, to the extent that the proposals or applications 26562
consist of trade secrets or other proprietary information.26563

       Any materials or data submitted to, made available to, or 26564
received by the department of development services agency or the 26565
director of the Ohio coal development office in connection with 26566
agreements for assistance entered into under this chapter or 26567
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code, or any information taken from 26568
those materials or data for any purpose, to the extent that the 26569
materials or data consist of trade secrets or other proprietary 26570
information, are not public records for the purposes of section 26571
149.43 of the Revised Code.26572

       As used in this division, "trade secrets" has the same 26573
meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code.26574

       Sec. 1555.15.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 26575
the coal research and development fund. Moneys obtained for coal 26576
research and development projects from federal grants or loans, 26577
private grants, and other sources, and moneys paid into the fund 26578
pursuant to section 151.07 or 1555.08 of the Revised Code, shall 26579
be expended for the purpose of making grants and making or 26580
guaranteeing loans for coal research and development projects that 26581
will encourage the use of Ohio coal, to any individual, 26582
association, or corporation doing business in this state, or to 26583
any educational or scientific institution located in this state as 26584
provided for in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution and 26585
section 1555.08 of the Revised Code, when appropriated for such 26586
purposes by the general assembly. All investment earnings on the 26587
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.26588

       The director of budget and management shall establish and 26589
maintain records or accounts for or within the coal research and 26590
development fund in such manner as to show the amounts credited to 26591
such fund pursuant to section 1555.08 of the Revised Code and that 26592
the amounts so credited have been expended for the purposes set 26593
forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 26594
section 151.07 of the Revised Code. The director of budget and 26595
management may otherwise manage the fund to comply with any 26596
requirements established by federal grants or loans, private 26597
grants, or moneys from other sources.26598

       Sec. 1711.07.  The board of directors of a county or 26599
independent agricultural society shall consist of at least eight 26600
members. An employee of the Ohio state universityOSU extension 26601
service and the county school superintendent shall be members ex 26602
officio. Their terms of office shall be determined by the rules of 26603
the department of agriculture. Any vacancy in the board caused by 26604
death, resignation, refusal to qualify, removal from county, or 26605
other cause may be filled by the board until the society's next 26606
annual election, when a director shall be elected for the 26607
unexpired term. There shall be an annual election of directors by 26608
ballot at a time and a place fixed by the board, but this election 26609
shall not be held later than the first Saturday in December 1994, 26610
and not later than the fifteenth day of November each year 26611
thereafter, beginning in 1995. The secretary of the society shall 26612
give notice of suchthe election, for three weeks prior to the 26613
holding thereof, in a newspaper of general circulation in the 26614
county or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, or by 26615
letter mailed to each member of the society. Only persons holding 26616
membership certificates at the close of the annual county fair, or 26617
at least fifteen calendar days before the date of election, as may 26618
be fixed by the board, may vote, unless suchthe election is held 26619
on the fairground during the fair, in which case all persons 26620
holding membership certificates on the date and hour of the 26621
election may vote. When the election is to be held during the 26622
fair, notice of suchthe election mustshall be prominently 26623
mentioned in the premium list, in addition to the notice required 26624
in a newspaper. The terms of office of the retiring directors 26625
shall expire, and those of the directors-elect shall begin, not 26626
later than the first Saturday in January 1995, and not later than 26627
the thirtieth day of November each year thereafter, beginning in 26628
1995.26629

       The secretary of suchthe society shall send the name and 26630
address of each member of its board to the director of agriculture 26631
within ten days after the election.26632

       Sec. 1724.03. (A) After the articles of incorporation have 26633
been filed, and at the first meeting of the board of directors of 26634
a county land reutilization corporation, the board shall adopt 26635
regulations for the government of the corporation, the conduct of 26636
its affairs, and the management of its property, consistent with 26637
law and the articles. The content of the regulations shall be 26638
governed by section 1702.11 of the Revised Code to the extent not 26639
inconsistent with this chapter. 26640

       (B) The board of directors of a county land reutilization 26641
corporation shall be composed of five, seven, or nine members, 26642
including the county treasurer, at least two of the members of the 26643
board of county commissioners, one representative of the largest 26644
municipal corporation, based on the population according to the 26645
most recent federal decennial census, that is located in the 26646
county, one representative of a township with a population of at 26647
least ten thousand in the unincorporated area of the township 26648
according to the most recent federal decennial census, if at least 26649
two such townships exist in the county, and any remaining members 26650
selected by the treasurer and the county commissioners who are 26651
members of the corporation's board. The township representative 26652
shall be chosen by a majority of the boards of township trustees 26653
of townships with a population of at least ten thousand in the 26654
unincorporated area of the township according to the most recent 26655
federal decennial census. At least one board member shall have 26656
private sector or nonprofit experience in rehabilitation or real 26657
estate acquisitions. A county treasurer and the county 26658
commissioners each may appoint a representative, as a director of 26659
the corporation, to act for the officer at any of the meetings of 26660
the corporation. Except as may otherwise be authorized by the 26661
regulations of the corporation, all members of the board of 26662
directors shall serve without compensation, but shall be 26663
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses. 26664

       Sec. 1739.061. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 26665
following:26666

       (a) A multiple employer welfare arrangement that issues or 26667
requires the use of a standardized identification card or an 26668
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 26669
drug claims;26670

        (b) A person or entity that a multiple employer welfare 26671
arrangement contracts with to issue a standardized identification 26672
card or an electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) 26673
of this section.26674

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 26675
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 26676
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 26677
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 26678
connection with any of the following:26679

       (a) Any program or arrangement covering only accident, 26680
credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, hospital 26681
indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, specified 26682
disease, or vision care; coverage under a 26683
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 26684
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 26685
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 26686
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 26687
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 26688
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 26689
equivalent self-insurance.26690

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 26691
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.26692

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 26693
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 26694
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 26695
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 26696
this section to the plan and its administrators.26697

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 26698
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 26699
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 26700
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 26701
this section.26702

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 26703
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 26704
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 26705
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 26706
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 26707
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 26708
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 26709
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.26710

        (2) If the multiple employer welfare arrangement or person 26711
under contract with it to issue a standardized identification card 26712
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 26713
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 26714
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 26715
following information:26716

        (a) The name of the multiple employer welfare arrangement;26717

        (b) The individual's name, group number, and identification 26718
number;26719

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 26720
issues;26721

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 26722
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";26723

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";26724

        (f) The individual's pharmacy benefits group number if 26725
different from the insured's medical group number, labeled as 26726
"RxGrp."26727

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 26728
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 26729
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 26730
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 26731
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 26732
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 26733
identification number or the processor's control number is 26734
different for medical and pharmacy claims.26735

        (D) Each multiple employer welfare arrangement described in 26736
division (A) of this section shall annually file a certificate 26737
with the superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any 26738
person it contracts with to issue a standardized identification 26739
card or electronic technology for submission and routing of 26740
prescription drug claims complies with this section.26741

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 26742
if there is a change in the information contained in the 26743
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 26744
issued to an individual, the multiple employer welfare arrangement 26745
or person under contract with it to issue a standardized 26746
identification card or an electronic technology shall issue a new 26747
card or electronic technology to the individual.26748

        (2) A multiple employer welfare arrangement or person under 26749
contract with it is not required under division (E)(1) of this 26750
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an 26751
individual more than once during a twelve-month period.26752

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a 26753
multiple employer welfare arrangement to produce more than one 26754
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 26755
use by individuals accessing health care benefits provided under a 26756
multiple employer welfare arrangement.26757

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:26758

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 26759
services when medically necessary:26760

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 26761
supplemental under division (B) of this section;26762

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;26763

       (c) Outpatient medical services;26764

       (d) Emergency health services;26765

       (e) Urgent care services;26766

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 26767
therapeutic radiologic services;26768

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 26769
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 26770
illnesses;26771

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 26772
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 26773
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 26774
care, and well-child care;26775

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 26776
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 26777
Code.26778

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 26779
procedures.26780

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 26781
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 26782
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 26783
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 26784
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 26785
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 26786
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 26787
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 26788
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 26789
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 26790
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 26791
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 26792
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 26793
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 26794
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 26795
administrative services.26796

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 26797
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 26798
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 26799
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 26800
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 26801
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 26802
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 26803
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 26804
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 26805
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 26806
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.26807

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 26808
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 26809
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 26810
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 26811
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:26812

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 26813
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 26814
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 26815
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 26816
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 26817
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 26818
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 26819
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 26820
year. 26821

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 26822
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 26823
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 26824
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 26825
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 26826
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 26827
the coverage of basic health care services.26828

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 26829
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 26830
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:26831

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 26832
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 26833
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 26834
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 26835
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 26836
per year.26837

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 26838
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 26839
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 26840
health care services. 26841

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 26842
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.26843

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 26844
care services other than basic health care services that a health 26845
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 26846
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 26847
care services, and includes:26848

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 26849
care, or both;26850

       (b) Dental care services;26851

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 26852
frames;26853

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;26854

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 26855
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;26856

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 26857
mental health services;26858

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 26859
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;26860

       (h) Home health services;26861

       (i) Prescription drug services;26862

       (j) Nursing services;26863

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 26864
the Revised Code;26865

       (l) Physical therapy services;26866

       (m) Chiropractic services;26867

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 26868
superintendent of insurance.26869

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 26870
services under this division, the coverage shall include 26871
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 26872
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 26873
physical diseases and disorders.26874

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 26875
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 26876
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 26877
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 26878
supplemental health care services.26879

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 26880
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 26881
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 26882
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 26883
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 26884
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 26885
the American psychiatric association.26886

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 26887
requires enrollees to use participating providers.26888

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 26889
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 26890
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.26891

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 26892
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 26893
insuring corporation.26894

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 26895
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 26896
state.26897

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 26898
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 26899
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 26900
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 26901
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 26902
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 26903
agreements for out-of-area coverage.26904

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 26905
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 26906
corporation.26907

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 26908
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 26909
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 26910
health care plan.26911

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 26912
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 26913
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 26914
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 26915
nursing services.26916

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 26917
specialty health care services.26918

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 26919
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 26920
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 26921
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.26922

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 26923
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 26924
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 26925
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 26926
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 26927
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 26928
care services and either supplemental health care services or 26929
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 26930
or a closed panel plan.26931

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 26932
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 26933
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 26934
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 26935
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 26936
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 26937
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 26938
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 26939
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 26940
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 26941
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 26942
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 26943
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 26944
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 26945
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 26946
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 26947
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 26948
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 26949
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 26950
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 26951
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.26952

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 26953
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 26954
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 26955
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 26956
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 26957
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 26958
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.26959

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 26960
level of room and board for patients who require personal 26961
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 26962
skilled nursing care.26963

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 26964
the Revised Code.26965

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 26966
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 26967
history, or medical treatment.26968

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 26969
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 26970
1395, as amended.26971

       (U)(S)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 26972
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 26973
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 26974
participating providers.26975

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 26976
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 26977
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 26978
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 26979
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 26980
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 26981
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 26982
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 26983
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 26984
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.26985

       (V)(T) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered 26986
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates 26987
osteopathic principles and the practice and perpetuation of 26988
osteopathic medicine by doing any of the following:26989

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 26990
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 26991
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 26992
physician;26993

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 26994
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;26995

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 26996
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.26997

       (W)(U) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 26998
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 26999
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 27000
corporation, employer group, or other payor.27001

       (X)(V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 27002
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 27003
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 27004
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 27005
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.27006

       (Y)(W) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 27007
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 27008
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 27009
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 27010
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 27011
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 27012
provider or health care facility.27013

       (Z)(X) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 27014
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 27015
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 27016
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 27017
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 27018
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 27019
enrollee.27020

       (AA)(Y) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 27021
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 27022
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 27023
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 27024
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 27025
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 27026
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 27027
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 27028
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 27029
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 27030
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 27031
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 27032
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 27033
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.27034

       (BB)(Z) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 27035
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 27036
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 27037
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 27038
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 27039
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 27040
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 27041
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 27042
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 27043
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 27044
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 27045
described in this division.27046

       (CC)(AA) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 27047
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 27048
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 27049
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.27050

       (DD)(BB) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 27051
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 27052
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 27053
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 27054
insuring corporation.27055

       (EE)(CC) "Urgent care services" means those health care 27056
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 27057
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 27058
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 27059
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 27060
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 27061
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 27062
or service agreements.27063

       Sec. 1751.11.  (A) Every subscriber of a health insuring 27064
corporation is entitled to an evidence of coverage for the health 27065
care plan under which health care benefits are provided.27066

       (B) Every subscriber of a health insuring corporation that 27067
offers basic health care services is entitled to an identification 27068
card or similar document that specifies the health insuring 27069
corporation's name as stated in its articles of incorporation, and 27070
any trade or fictitious names used by the health insuring 27071
corporation. The identification card or document shall list at 27072
least one toll-free telephone number that provides the subscriber 27073
with access, to information on a twenty-four-hours-per-day, 27074
seven-days-per-week basis, as to how health care services may be 27075
obtained. The identification card or document shall also list at 27076
least one toll-free number that, during normal business hours, 27077
provides the subscriber with access to information on the coverage 27078
available under the subscriber's health care plan and information 27079
on the health care plan's internal and external review processes.27080

       (C) No evidence of coverage, or amendment to the evidence of 27081
coverage, shall be delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or 27082
used, until the form of the evidence of coverage or amendment has 27083
been filed by the health insuring corporation with the 27084
superintendent of insurance. If the superintendent does not 27085
disapprove the evidence of coverage or amendment within sixty days 27086
after it is filed it shall be deemed approved, unless the 27087
superintendent sooner gives approval for the evidence of coverage 27088
or amendment. With respect to an amendment to an approved evidence 27089
of coverage, the superintendent only may disapprove provisions 27090
amended or added to the evidence of coverage. If the 27091
superintendent determines within the sixty-day period that any 27092
evidence of coverage or amendment fails to meet the requirements 27093
of this section, the superintendent shall so notify the health 27094
insuring corporation and it shall be unlawful for the health 27095
insuring corporation to use such evidence of coverage or 27096
amendment. At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 27097
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 27098
withdraw an approval, deemed or actual, of any evidence of 27099
coverage or amendment on any of the grounds stated in this 27100
section. Such disapproval shall be effected by a written order, 27101
which shall state the grounds for disapproval and shall be issued 27102
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.27103

       (D) No evidence of coverage or amendment shall be delivered, 27104
issued for delivery, renewed, or used:27105

       (1) If it contains provisions or statements that are 27106
inequitable, untrue, misleading, or deceptive;27107

       (2) Unless it contains a clear, concise, and complete 27108
statement of the following:27109

       (a) The health care services and insurance or other benefits, 27110
if any, to which an enrollee is entitled under the health care 27111
plan;27112

       (b) Any exclusions or limitations on the health care 27113
services, type of health care services, benefits, or type of 27114
benefits to be provided, including copayments and deductibles;27115

       (c) An enrollee's personal financial obligation for 27116
noncovered services;27117

       (d) Where and in what manner general information and 27118
information as to how health care services may be obtained is 27119
available, including a toll-free telephone number;27120

       (e) The premium rate with respect to individual and 27121
conversion contracts, and relevant copayment and deductible 27122
provisions with respect to all contracts. The statement of the 27123
premium rate, however, may be contained in a separate insert.27124

       (f) The method utilized by the health insuring corporation 27125
for resolving enrollee complaints;27126

       (g) The utilization review, internal review, and external 27127
review procedures established under sections 1751.77 to 1751.83 27128
and Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code.27129

       (3) Unless it provides for the continuation of an enrollee's 27130
coverage, in the event that the enrollee's coverage under the 27131
group policy, contract, certificate, or agreement terminates while 27132
the enrollee is receiving inpatient care in a hospital. This 27133
continuation of coverage shall terminate at the earliest 27134
occurrence of any of the following:27135

       (a) The enrollee's discharge from the hospital;27136

       (b) The determination by the enrollee's attending physician 27137
that inpatient care is no longer medically indicated for the 27138
enrollee; however, nothing in division (D)(3)(b) of this section 27139
precludes a health insuring corporation from engaging in 27140
utilization review as described in the evidence of coverage.27141

       (c) The enrollee's reaching the limit for contractual 27142
benefits;27143

       (d) The effective date of any new coverage.27144

       (4) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 27145
that the health insuring corporation is not a member of any 27146
guaranty fund, and that in the event of the health insuring 27147
corporation's insolvency, an enrollee is protected only to the 27148
extent that the hold harmless provision required by section 27149
1751.13 of the Revised Code applies to the health care services 27150
rendered;27151

       (5) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 27152
that in the event of the insolvency of the health insuring 27153
corporation, an enrollee may be financially responsible for health 27154
care services rendered by a provider or health care facility that 27155
is not under contract to the health insuring corporation, whether 27156
or not the health insuring corporation authorized the use of the 27157
provider or health care facility.27158

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) of this section, a 27159
health insuring corporation may use an evidence of coverage that 27160
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare 27161
pursuant to a medicare contract, or an evidence of coverage that 27162
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in the federal 27163
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 27164
an evidence of coverage that provides for the coverage of medicaid 27165
recipients, or an evidence of coverage that provides for the 27166
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 27167
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or an evidence of 27168
coverage that provides for the coverage of beneficiaries under any 27169
contract covering officers or employees of the state that has been 27170
entered into by the department of administrative services, if both 27171
of the following apply:27172

       (1) The evidence of coverage has been approved by the United 27173
States department of health and human services, the United States 27174
office of personnel management, the Ohio department of job and 27175
family servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative 27176
services.27177

       (2) The evidence of coverage is filed with the superintendent 27178
of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by documentation of 27179
approval from the United States department of health and human 27180
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 27181
Ohio department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the 27182
department of administrative services.27183

       Sec. 1751.12.  (A)(1) No contractual periodic prepayment and 27184
no premium rate for nongroup and conversion policies for health 27185
care services, or any amendment to them, may be used by any health 27186
insuring corporation at any time until the contractual periodic 27187
prepayment and premium rate, or amendment, have been filed with 27188
the superintendent of insurance, and shall not be effective until 27189
the expiration of sixty days after their filing unless the 27190
superintendent sooner gives approval. The filing shall be 27191
accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form prescribed 27192
by the superintendent. The superintendent shall disapprove the 27193
filing, if the superintendent determines within the sixty-day 27194
period that the contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, 27195
or amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles 27196
or is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage and 27197
characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees. The 27198
superintendent shall notify the health insuring corporation of the 27199
disapproval, and it shall thereafter be unlawful for the health 27200
insuring corporation to use the contractual periodic prepayment or 27201
premium rate, or amendment.27202

       (2) No contractual periodic prepayment for group policies for 27203
health care services shall be used until the contractual periodic 27204
prepayment has been filed with the superintendent. The filing 27205
shall be accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form 27206
prescribed by the superintendent. The superintendent may reject a 27207
filing made under division (A)(2) of this section at any time, 27208
with at least thirty days' written notice to a health insuring 27209
corporation, if the contractual periodic prepayment is not in 27210
accordance with sound actuarial principles or is not reasonably 27211
related to the applicable coverage and characteristics of the 27212
applicable class of enrollees.27213

       (3) At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 27214
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 27215
withdraw the approval given under division (A)(1) of this section, 27216
deemed or actual, of any contractual periodic prepayment or 27217
premium rate, or amendment, based on information that either of 27218
the following applies:27219

       (a) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 27220
amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles.27221

       (b) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 27222
amendment, is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage 27223
and characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees.27224

       (4) Any disapproval under division (A)(1) of this section, 27225
any rejection of a filing made under division (A)(2) of this 27226
section, or any withdrawal of approval under division (A)(3) of 27227
this section, shall be effected by a written notice, which shall 27228
state the specific basis for the disapproval, rejection, or 27229
withdrawal and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 27230
the Revised Code.27231

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 27232
insuring corporation may use a contractual periodic prepayment or 27233
premium rate for policies used for the coverage of beneficiaries 27234
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 27235
medicare cost contract, or for policies used for the coverage of 27236
beneficiaries enrolled in the federal employees health benefits 27237
program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or for policies used for the 27238
coverage of medicaid recipients, or for policies used for the 27239
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 27240
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or for policies 27241
used for the coverage of beneficiaries under any contract covering 27242
officers or employees of the state that has been entered into by 27243
the department of administrative services, if both of the 27244
following apply:27245

       (1) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate has 27246
been approved by the United States department of health and human 27247
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 27248
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the department 27249
of administrative services.27250

       (2) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate is 27251
filed with the superintendent prior to use and is accompanied by 27252
documentation of approval from the United States department of 27253
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 27254
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 27255
the department of administrative services.27256

       (C) The administrative expense portion of all contractual 27257
periodic prepayment or premium rate filings submitted to the 27258
superintendent for review must reflect the actual cost of 27259
administering the product. The superintendent may require that the 27260
administrative expense portion of the filings be itemized and 27261
supported.27262

       (D)(1) Copayments must be reasonable and must not be a 27263
barrier to the necessary utilization of services by enrollees.27264

       (2) A health insuring corporation, in order to ensure that 27265
copayments are reasonable and not a barrier to the necessary 27266
utilization of basic health care services by enrollees, may do one 27267
of the following:27268

       (a) Impose copayment charges on any single covered basic 27269
health care service that does not exceed forty per cent of the 27270
average cost to the health insuring corporation of providing the 27271
service;27272

       (b) Impose copayment charges that annually do not exceed 27273
twenty per cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring 27274
corporation of providing all covered basic health care services, 27275
including physician office visits, urgent care services, and 27276
emergency health services, when aggregated as to all persons 27277
covered under the filed product in question. In addition, annual 27278
copayment charges as to each enrollee shall not exceed twenty per 27279
cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring corporation 27280
of providing all covered basic health care services, including 27281
physician office visits, urgent care services, and emergency 27282
health services, as to such enrollee. The total annual cost of 27283
providing a health care service is the cost to the health insuring 27284
corporation of providing the health care service to its enrollees 27285
as reduced by any applicable provider discount.27286

       (3) To ensure that copayments are reasonable and not a 27287
barrier to the utilization of basic health care services, a health 27288
insuring corporation may not impose, in any contract year, on any 27289
subscriber or enrollee, copayments that exceed two hundred per 27290
cent of the average annual premium rate to subscribers or 27291
enrollees.27292

       (4) For purposes of division (D) of this section, both of the 27293
following apply:27294

        (a) Copayments imposed by health insuring corporations in 27295
connection with a high deductible health plan that is linked to a 27296
health savings account are reasonable and are not a barrier to the 27297
necessary utilization of services by enrollees.27298

        (b) Divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to 27299
a high deductible health plan that is linked to a health savings 27300
account.27301

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall not impose lifetime 27302
maximums on basic health care services. However, a health insuring 27303
corporation may establish a benefit limit for inpatient hospital 27304
services that are provided pursuant to a policy, contract, 27305
certificate, or agreement for supplemental health care services.27306

       (F) A health insuring corporation may require that an 27307
enrollee pay an annual deductible that does not exceed one 27308
thousand dollars per enrollee or two thousand dollars per family, 27309
except that:27310

       (1) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 27311
deductibles for high deductible health plans that are linked to 27312
health savings accounts;27313

       (2) The superintendent may adopt rules allowing different 27314
annual deductible amounts for plans with a medical savings 27315
account, health reimbursement arrangement, flexible spending 27316
account, or similar account;27317

       (3) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 27318
deductibles under health plans if requested by the group contract, 27319
policy, certificate, or agreement holder, or an individual seeking 27320
coverage under an individual health plan. This shall not be 27321
construed as requiring the health insuring corporation to create 27322
customized health plans for group contract holders or individuals.27323

        (G) As used in this section, "health savings account" and 27324
"high deductible health plan" have the same meanings as in the 27325
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 223, as 27326
amended.27327

       Sec. 1751.14.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 27328
Revised Code, any policy, contract, or agreement for health care 27329
services authorized by this chapter that is issued, delivered, or 27330
renewed in this state and that provides that coverage of an 27331
unmarried dependent child will terminate upon attainment of the 27332
limiting age for dependent children specified in the policy, 27333
contract, or agreement, shall also provide in substance both of 27334
the following:27335

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 27336
dependent children, as provided in the policy, contract, or 27337
agreement, upon the request of the subscriber, the health insuring 27338
corporation shall offer to cover the unmarried child until the 27339
child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the following 27340
are true:27341

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 27342
child of the subscriber.27343

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 27344
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 27345
education.27346

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 27347
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 27348
coverage.27349

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 27350
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 27351
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 27352
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.27353

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 27354
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 27355
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 27356
following:27357

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 27358
mental retardation or physical handicap;27359

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the subscriber for support and 27360
maintenance.27361

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 27362
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the health 27363
insuring corporation within thirty-one days of the child's 27364
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 27365
frequently than annually, the health insuring corporation may 27366
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 27367
incapacity and dependency.27368

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:27369

       (1) Require that any policy, contract, or agreement offer 27370
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 27371
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the policy, 27372
contract, or agreement;27373

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 27374
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 27375
age for dependents, as provided in the policy, contract, or 27376
agreement;27377

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 27378
the dependents of any employee.27379

        (D) This section does not apply to any health insuring 27380
corporation policy, contract, or agreement offering only 27381
supplemental health care services or specialty health care 27382
services.27383

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 27384
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 27385
includes both of the following:27386

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;27387

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 27388
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.27389

       Sec. 1751.271.  (A) Each health insuring corporation that 27390
provides coverage to medicaid recipients shall post a performance 27391
bond in the amount of three million dollars as security to fulfill 27392
the obligations of the health insuring corporation to pay claims 27393
of contracted providers for covered health care services provided 27394
to medicaid recipients. The bond shall be payable to the 27395
department of insurance in the event that the health insuring 27396
corporation is placed in rehabilitation or liquidation proceedings 27397
under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code, and shall become a 27398
special deposit subject to section 3903.14 or 3903.421 of the 27399
Revised Code, as applicable. In lieu of the performance bond, a 27400
medicaid health insuring corporation may deposit securities with 27401
the superintendent of insurance, acceptable to the superintendent, 27402
in the amount of three million dollars, to satisfy the bonding 27403
requirements of this section. Upon rehabilitation or liquidation, 27404
the securities shall become a special deposit subject to sections 27405
3903.14 and 3903.421 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The 27406
health insuring corporation shall receive the interest on the 27407
deposited securities as long as the health insuring corporation 27408
remains solvent.27409

        (B) The bond shall be issued by a surety company licensed 27410
with the department of insurance. The bond or deposit, or any 27411
replacement bond or deposit, shall be in a form acceptable to the 27412
superintendent, and shall remain in effect during the duration of 27413
the medicaid health insuring corporation's license and thereafter 27414
until all claims against the medicaid health insuring corporation 27415
have been paid in full.27416

        (C) Documentation of the bond acceptable to the 27417
superintendent of insurance shall be filed with the superintendent 27418
prior to the issuance of a certificate of authority. Annually, 27419
thirty days prior to the renewal of its certificate of authority, 27420
every medicaid health insuring corporation shall furnish the 27421
superintendent of insurance with evidence that the required bond 27422
is still in effect.27423

        (D) As used in this section:27424

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider that has a 27425
contract with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide 27426
covered health care services to medicaid recipients.27427

        (2) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 27428
insuring corporation that provides health insurance coverage or 27429
otherwise assumes claims liabilities for medicaid recipients.27430

        (3) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 27431
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 27432
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.27433

       Sec. 1751.31.  (A) Any changes in a health insuring 27434
corporation's solicitation document shall be filed with the 27435
superintendent of insurance. The superintendent, within sixty days 27436
of filing, may disapprove any solicitation document or amendment 27437
to it on any of the grounds stated in this section. Such 27438
disapproval shall be effected by written notice to the health 27439
insuring corporation. The notice shall state the grounds for 27440
disapproval and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 27441
the Revised Code.27442

       (B) The solicitation document shall contain all information 27443
necessary to enable a consumer to make an informed choice as to 27444
whether or not to enroll in the health insuring corporation. The 27445
information shall include a specific description of the health 27446
care services to be available and the approximate number and type 27447
of full-time equivalent medical practitioners. The information 27448
shall be presented in the solicitation document in a manner that 27449
is clear, concise, and intelligible to prospective applicants in 27450
the proposed service area.27451

       (C) Every potential applicant whose subscription to a health 27452
care plan is solicited shall receive, at or before the time of 27453
solicitation, a solicitation document approved by the 27454
superintendent.27455

       (D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 27456
insuring corporation may use a solicitation document that the 27457
corporation uses in connection with policies for medicare 27458
beneficiaries pursuant to a medicare risk contract or medicare 27459
cost contract, or for policies for beneficiaries of the federal 27460
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 27461
for policies for medicaid recipients, or for policies for 27462
beneficiaries of any other federal health care program regulated 27463
by a federal regulatory body, or for policies for beneficiaries of 27464
contracts covering officers or employees of the state entered into 27465
by the department of administrative services, if both of the 27466
following apply:27467

       (1) The solicitation document has been approved by the United 27468
States department of health and human services, the United States 27469
office of personnel management, the department of job and family 27470
servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative services.27471

       (2) The solicitation document is filed with the 27472
superintendent of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by 27473
documentation of approval from the United States department of 27474
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 27475
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 27476
the department of administrative services.27477

       (E) No health insuring corporation, or its agents or 27478
representatives, shall use monetary or other valuable 27479
consideration, engage in misleading or deceptive practices, or 27480
make untrue, misleading, or deceptive representations to induce 27481
enrollment. Nothing in this division shall prohibit incentive 27482
forms of remuneration such as commission sales programs for the 27483
health insuring corporation's employees and agents.27484

       (F) Any person obligated for any part of a premium rate in 27485
connection with an enrollment agreement, in addition to any right 27486
otherwise available to revoke an offer, may cancel such agreement 27487
within seventy-two hours after having signed the agreement or 27488
offer to enroll. Cancellation occurs when written notice of the 27489
cancellation is given to the health insuring corporation or its 27490
agents or other representatives. A notice of cancellation mailed 27491
to the health insuring corporation shall be considered to have 27492
been filed on its postmark date.27493

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit healthy lifestyle 27494
programs.27495

       Sec. 1751.60.  (A) Except as provided for in divisions (E) 27496
and (F) of this section, every provider or health care facility 27497
that contracts with a health insuring corporation to provide 27498
health care services to the health insuring corporation's 27499
enrollees or subscribers shall seek compensation for covered 27500
services solely from the health insuring corporation and not, 27501
under any circumstances, from the enrollees or subscribers, except 27502
for approved copayments and deductibles.27503

       (B) No subscriber or enrollee of a health insuring 27504
corporation is liable to any contracting provider or health care 27505
facility for the cost of any covered health care services, if the 27506
subscriber or enrollee has acted in accordance with the evidence 27507
of coverage.27508

       (C) Except as provided for in divisions (E) and (F) of this 27509
section, every contract between a health insuring corporation and 27510
provider or health care facility shall contain a provision 27511
approved by the superintendent of insurance requiring the provider 27512
or health care facility to seek compensation solely from the 27513
health insuring corporation and not, under any circumstances, from 27514
the subscriber or enrollee, except for approved copayments and 27515
deductibles.27516

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 27517
a provider or health care facility from billing the enrollee or 27518
subscriber of a health insuring corporation for noncovered 27519
services.27520

       (E) Upon application by a health insuring corporation and a 27521
provider or health care facility, the superintendent may waive the 27522
requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this section when, in 27523
addition to the reserve requirements contained in section 1751.28 27524
of the Revised Code, the health insuring corporation provides 27525
sufficient assurances to the superintendent that the provider or 27526
health care facility has been provided with financial guarantees. 27527
No waiver of the requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this 27528
section is effective as to enrollees or subscribers for whom the 27529
health insuring corporation is compensated under a provider 27530
agreement or risk contract entered into pursuant to Chapter 5111. 27531
or 5115. of the Revised Codeunder the medicaid program.27532

       (F) The requirements of divisions (A) to (C) of this section 27533
apply only to health care services provided to an enrollee or 27534
subscriber prior to the effective date of a termination of a 27535
contract between the health insuring corporation and the provider 27536
or health care facility.27537

       Sec. 1923.14. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 27538
section, within ten days after receiving a writ of execution 27539
described in division (A) or (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised 27540
Code, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 27541
execute it by restoring the plaintiff to the possession of the 27542
premises, and shall levy and collect the costs and make return, as 27543
upon other executions. If an appeal from the judgment of 27544
restitution is filed and if, following the filing of the appeal, a 27545
stay of execution is obtained and any required bond is filed with 27546
the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court, the 27547
judge of that court immediately shall issue an order to the 27548
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff commanding the 27549
delay of all further proceedings upon the execution. If the 27550
premises have been restored to the plaintiff, the sheriff, police 27551
officer, constable, or bailiff shall forthwith place the defendant 27552
in possession of them, and return the writ with the sheriff's, 27553
police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's proceedings and the 27554
costs taxed on it.27555

       (B)(1) After a court of common pleas, municipal court, or 27556
county court issues a writ of execution described in division (B) 27557
of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court 27558
shall send by regular mail, to the last known address of the 27559
titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27560
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ and to the 27561
last known address of each other person who is listed on the writ 27562
as having any outstanding right, title, or interest in the home, 27563
vehicle, or personal property and to the auditor and treasurer of 27564
the county in which the court is located, a written notice that 27565
the home or vehicle potentially may be sold, destroyed, or have 27566
its title transferred under the circumstances described in 27567
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section.27568

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, after 27569
receiving a writ of execution described in division (B) of section 27570
1923.13 of the Revised Code, and after causing the defendant to be 27571
removed from the residential premises of the manufactured home 27572
park, if necessary, in accordance with the writ, the sheriff, 27573
police officer, constable, or bailiff may cause the manufactured 27574
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of 27575
the writ, and all personal property on the residential premises, 27576
at the sheriff's, police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's 27577
option, either to be removed from the manufactured home park and, 27578
if necessary, moved to a storage facility of the sheriff's, police 27579
officer's, constable's, or bailiff's choice, or to be retained at 27580
their current location on the residential premises, until they are 27581
claimed by the defendant or they are disposed of in a manner 27582
authorized by division (B)(3), (4), or (6) of this section or by 27583
another section of the Revised Code. The sheriff, police officer, 27584
constable, or bailiff shall not cause the manufactured home, 27585
mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of the 27586
writ, or the personal property, to be removed from the 27587
manufactured home park or moved to a storage facility if the 27588
holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in the 27589
home or vehicle, other than the titled owner of the home or 27590
vehicle, meets the conditions set forth in division (B)(6) or (7) 27591
of this section.27592

       The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff who 27593
removes the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 27594
vehicle, or the abandoned personal property, from the residential 27595
premises shall be immune from civil liability pursuant to section 27596
2744.03 of the Revised Code for any damage caused to the home, 27597
vehicle, or any personal property during the removal. The park 27598
operator shall not be liable for any damage caused by the park 27599
operator's removal of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27600
recreational vehicle or the removal of the personal property from 27601
the residential premises, or for any damage to the home, vehicle, 27602
or personal property during the time the home, vehicle, or 27603
property remains abandoned or stored in the manufactured home 27604
park, unless the damage is the result of acts that the park 27605
operator or the park operator's agents or employees performed with 27606
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 27607
manner. The reasonable costs for a removal of the manufactured 27608
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle and personal property 27609
and, as applicable, the reasonable costs for its storage shall 27610
constitute a lien upon the home or vehicle payable by the titled 27611
owner of the home or vehicle or payable pursuant to division 27612
(B)(3) of this section.27613

       (3) Except as provided in divisions (B)(4), (5), and (6) of 27614
this section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised 27615
Code, within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution 27616
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 27617
the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall commence 27618
proceedings for the sale of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27619
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ, and the 27620
abandoned personal property on the residential premises, if the 27621
home or vehicle is determined to be abandoned in accordance with 27622
the procedures for the sale of goods on execution under Chapter 27623
2329. of the Revised Code. In addition to all notices required to 27624
be given under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code, the sheriff, 27625
police officer, constable, or bailiff shall serve at their 27626
respective last known addresses a written notice of the date, 27627
time, and place of the sale upon all persons who are listed on the 27628
writ of execution as having any outstanding right, title, or 27629
interest in the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27630
recreational vehicle and the personal property and shall provide 27631
written notice to the auditor and the treasurer of the county in 27632
which the court issuing the writ is located.27633

        Unless the proceedings are governed by division (D) of 27634
section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding any statutory 27635
provision to the contrary, including, but not limited to, section 27636
2329.66 of the Revised Code, there shall be no stay of execution 27637
or exemption from levy or sale on execution available to the 27638
titled owner of the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27639
recreational vehicle in relation to a sale under this division. 27640
Except as otherwise provided in sections 2113.031, 2117.25, and 27641
5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code in a case involving a deceased 27642
resident or resident's estate, the sheriff, police officer, 27643
constable, or bailiff shall distribute the proceeds from the sale 27644
of an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 27645
vehicle and any personal property under this division in the 27646
following manner:27647

       (a) The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 27648
first pay the costs for any moving of and any storage outside the 27649
manufactured home park of the home or vehicle and any personal 27650
property pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, the costs of 27651
the sale, including reimbursing the park operator for the deposit 27652
that the park operator paid to the clerk of court under division 27653
(C) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, and any unpaid court 27654
costs assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.27655

       (b) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(a) of 27656
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27657
shall pay all outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle.27658

       (c) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(b) of 27659
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27660
shall pay all other outstanding security interests, liens, or 27661
encumbrances on the home or vehicle by priority of filing or other 27662
priority.27663

       (d) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(c) of 27664
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27665
shall pay any outstanding monetary judgment rendered under section 27666
1923.09 or 1923.11 of the Revised Code in favor of the plaintiff 27667
and any costs associated with retaining the home or vehicle prior 27668
to the sale at its location on the residential premises within the 27669
manufactured home park pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 27670
section.27671

       (e) After complying with divisions (B)(3)(a) to (d) of this 27672
section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 27673
report any remaining money as unclaimed funds pursuant to Chapter 27674
169. of the Revised Code.27675

       Upon the return of any writ of execution for the satisfaction 27676
of which an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27677
recreational vehicle has been sold under this division, on careful 27678
examination of the proceedings of the sheriff, police officer, 27679
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale, if the court that 27680
issued the writ finds that the sale was made, in all respects, in 27681
conformity with the relevant provisions of Chapter 2329. of the 27682
Revised Code and with this division, it shall direct the clerk of 27683
the court to make an entry on the journal that the court is 27684
satisfied with the legality of the sale and the court shall direct 27685
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 27686
writ was issued to issue a certificate of title, free and clear of 27687
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances, to the purchaser 27688
of the home or vehicle. The clerk of the court of common pleas 27689
shall issue the new certificate of title to the purchaser of the 27690
home or vehicle regardless of whether the writ was issued by the 27691
court of common pleas or another court duly authorized to issue 27692
the writ. If the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 27693
vehicle sold under this division is located in a manufactured home 27694
park, the purchaser of the home or vehicle shall have no right to 27695
maintain the home or vehicle in the manufactured home park without 27696
the park operator's consent and the sheriff, police officer, 27697
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale shall notify all 27698
prospective purchasers of this fact prior to the commencement of 27699
the sale.27700

       If, after it is offered for sale on two occasions under this 27701
division, the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27702
recreational vehicle cannot be sold due to a want of bidders, the 27703
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall present the 27704
writ of execution unsatisfied to the clerk of the court of common 27705
pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the issuance 27706
by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 of the 27707
Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the title of 27708
the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of all 27709
security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 27710
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 27711
transferring the title of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27712
recreational vehicle to the plaintiff regardless of whether the 27713
writ was issued by the court of common pleas or another court duly 27714
authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are owed on the home or 27715
vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall remove the 27716
delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list and the 27717
delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any penalties for 27718
late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance of the 27719
certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all further 27720
proceedings under this section.27721

       (4) Except as provided in division (B)(5) or (6) of this 27722
section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, 27723
within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution described in 27724
division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, if the 27725
manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle is 27726
determined to be abandoned and to have a value of less than three 27727
thousand dollars, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or 27728
bailiff shall serve at their respective last known addresses a 27729
written notice of potential action as described in this division 27730
upon all persons who are listed on the writ as having any 27731
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle. This 27732
notice shall be in addition to all notices required to be given 27733
under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code. Subject to the 27734
fulfillment of these notice requirements, the sheriff, police 27735
officer, constable, or bailiff shall take one of the following 27736
actions with respect to the abandoned manufactured home, mobile 27737
home, or recreational vehicle:27738

       (a) Cause its destruction if there is no person having an 27739
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle, 27740
other than the titled owner of the home or vehicle;27741

       (b) Proceed with its sale under division (B)(3) of this 27742
section;27743

       (c) If there is no person having an outstanding right, title, 27744
or interest in the home or vehicle other than the titled owner of 27745
the home or vehicle, or if there is an outstanding right, title, 27746
or interest in the home or vehicle and the lienholder consents in 27747
writing, present the writ of execution to the clerk of the court 27748
of common pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the 27749
issuance by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 27750
of the Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the 27751
title of the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of 27752
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 27753
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 27754
transferring the title of the home or vehicle regardless of 27755
whether the writ was issued by the court of common pleas or 27756
another court duly authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are 27757
owed on the home or vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall 27758
remove the delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list 27759
and the delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any 27760
penalties for late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance 27761
of the certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all 27762
further proceedings under this section.27763

       (5) At any time prior to the issuance of the writ of 27764
execution described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the 27765
Revised Code, the titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile 27766
home, or recreational vehicle that would be the subject of the 27767
writ may remove the abandoned home or vehicle from the 27768
manufactured home park or other place of storage upon payment to 27769
the county auditor of all outstanding tax liens on the home or 27770
vehicle and, unless the owner is indigent, payment to the clerk of 27771
court of all unpaid court costs assessed against the defendant in 27772
the underlying action. After the issuance of the writ of 27773
execution, the titled owner of the home or vehicle may remove the 27774
abandoned home or vehicle from the manufactured home park or other 27775
place of storage at any time up to the day before the scheduled 27776
sale, destruction, or transfer of the home or vehicle pursuant to 27777
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section upon payment of all of the 27778
following:27779

        (a) All costs for moving and storage of the home or vehicle 27780
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and all costs incurred 27781
by the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff up to and 27782
including the date of the removal of the home or vehicle;27783

       (b) All outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle;27784

       (c) Unless the owner is indigent, all unpaid court costs 27785
assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.27786

       (6) At any time after the issuance of the writ of execution 27787
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 27788
the holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in 27789
the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle, other 27790
than the titled owner of the home or vehicle, may stop the 27791
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff from proceeding 27792
with the sale under this division by doing both of the following:27793

        (a) Commencing a proceeding to repossess the home or vehicle 27794
pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of the Revised Code;27795

        (b) Paying to the park operator all monthly rental payments 27796
for the lot on which the home or vehicle is located from the time 27797
of the issuance of the writ of execution until the time that the 27798
home or vehicle is sold pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of 27799
the Revised Code.27800

       (7)(a) At any time prior to the day before the scheduled sale 27801
of the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section, the 27802
defendant may remove any personal property of the defendant from 27803
the abandoned home or vehicle or other place of storage.27804

       (b) If personal property owned by a person other than the 27805
defendant is abandoned on the residential premises and has not 27806
previously been removed, the owner of the personal property may 27807
remove the personal property from the abandoned home or vehicle or 27808
other place of storage up to the day before the scheduled sale of 27809
the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section upon 27810
presentation of proof of ownership of the property that is 27811
satisfactory to the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27812
conducting the sale.27813

       Sec. 2101.24.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided by law, 27814
the probate court has exclusive jurisdiction:27815

       (a) To take the proof of wills and to admit to record 27816
authenticated copies of wills executed, proved, and allowed in the 27817
courts of any other state, territory, or country. If the probate 27818
judge is unavoidably absent, any judge of the court of common 27819
pleas may take proof of wills and approve bonds to be given, but 27820
the record of these acts shall be preserved in the usual records 27821
of the probate court.27822

       (b) To grant and revoke letters testamentary and of 27823
administration;27824

       (c) To direct and control the conduct and settle the accounts 27825
of executors and administrators and order the distribution of 27826
estates;27827

       (d) To appoint the attorney general to serve as the 27828
administrator of an estate pursuant to section 2113.06 of the 27829
Revised Code;27830

       (e) To appoint and remove guardians, conservators, and 27831
testamentary trustees, direct and control their conduct, and 27832
settle their accounts;27833

       (f) To grant marriage licenses;27834

       (g) To make inquests respecting persons who are so mentally 27835
impaired as a result of a mental or physical illness or 27836
disability, or mental retardation, or as a result of chronic 27837
substance abuse, that they are unable to manage their property and 27838
affairs effectively, subject to guardianship;27839

       (h) To qualify assignees, appoint and qualify trustees and 27840
commissioners of insolvents, control their conduct, and settle 27841
their accounts;27842

       (i) To authorize the sale of lands, equitable estates, or 27843
interests in lands or equitable estates, and the assignments of 27844
inchoate dower in such cases of sale, on petition by executors, 27845
administrators, and guardians;27846

       (j) To authorize the completion of real property contracts on 27847
petition of executors and administrators;27848

       (k) To construe wills;27849

       (l) To render declaratory judgments, including, but not 27850
limited to, those rendered pursuant to section 2107.084 of the 27851
Revised Code;27852

       (m) To direct and control the conduct of fiduciaries and 27853
settle their accounts;27854

       (n) To authorize the sale or lease of any estate created by 27855
will if the estate is held in trust, on petition by the trustee;27856

       (o) To terminate a testamentary trust in any case in which a 27857
court of equity may do so;27858

       (p) To hear and determine actions to contest the validity of 27859
wills;27860

       (q) To make a determination of the presumption of death of 27861
missing persons and to adjudicate the property rights and 27862
obligations of all parties affected by the presumption;27863

       (r) To hear and determine an action commenced pursuant to 27864
section 3107.41 of the Revised Code to obtain the release of 27865
information pertaining to the birth name of the adopted person and 27866
the identity of the adopted person's biological parents and 27867
biological siblings;27868

       (s) To act for and issue orders regarding wards pursuant to 27869
section 2111.50 of the Revised Code;27870

       (t) To hear and determine actions against sureties on the 27871
bonds of fiduciaries appointed by the probate court;27872

       (u) To hear and determine actions involving informed consent 27873
for medication of persons hospitalized pursuant to section 27874
5122.141 or 5122.15 of the Revised Code;27875

       (v) To hear and determine actions relating to durable powers 27876
of attorney for health care as described in division (D) of 27877
section 1337.16 of the Revised Code;27878

       (w) To hear and determine actions commenced by objecting 27879
individuals, in accordance with section 2133.05 of the Revised 27880
Code;27881

       (x) To hear and determine complaints that pertain to the use 27882
or continuation, or the withholding or withdrawal, of 27883
life-sustaining treatment in connection with certain patients 27884
allegedly in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious 27885
state pursuant to division (E) of section 2133.08 of the Revised 27886
Code, in accordance with that division;27887

       (y) To hear and determine applications that pertain to the 27888
withholding or withdrawal of nutrition and hydration from certain 27889
patients allegedly in a permanently unconscious state pursuant to 27890
section 2133.09 of the Revised Code, in accordance with that 27891
section;27892

       (z) To hear and determine applications of attending 27893
physicians in accordance with division (B) of section 2133.15 of 27894
the Revised Code;27895

       (aa) To hear and determine actions relative to the use or 27896
continuation of comfort care in connection with certain principals 27897
under durable powers of attorney for health care, declarants under 27898
declarations, or patients in accordance with division (E) of 27899
either section 1337.16 or 2133.12 of the Revised Code;27900

       (bb) To hear and determine applications for an order 27901
relieving an estate from administration under section 2113.03 of 27902
the Revised Code;27903

       (cc) To hear and determine applications for an order granting 27904
a summary release from administration under section 2113.031 of 27905
the Revised Code;27906

       (dd) To hear and determine actions relating to the exercise 27907
of the right of disposition, in accordance with section 2108.90 of 27908
the Revised Code;27909

       (ee) To hear and determine actions relating to the 27910
disinterment and reinterment of human remains under section 517.23 27911
of the Revised Code;27912

       (ff) To hear and determine petitions for an order for 27913
treatment of a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 27914
filed under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and to 27915
order treatment of that nature in accordance with, and take other 27916
actions afforded to the court under, sections 3793.315119.90 to 27917
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.27918

       (2) In addition to the exclusive jurisdiction conferred upon 27919
the probate court by division (A)(1) of this section, the probate 27920
court shall have exclusive jurisdiction over a particular subject 27921
matter if both of the following apply:27922

       (a) Another section of the Revised Code expressly confers 27923
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon the probate court.27924

       (b) No section of the Revised Code expressly confers 27925
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon any other court or 27926
agency.27927

       (B)(1) The probate court has concurrent jurisdiction with, 27928
and the same powers at law and in equity as, the general division 27929
of the court of common pleas to issue writs and orders, and to 27930
hear and determine actions as follows:27931

       (a) If jurisdiction relative to a particular subject matter 27932
is stated to be concurrent in a section of the Revised Code or has 27933
been construed by judicial decision to be concurrent, any action 27934
that involves that subject matter;27935

       (b) Any action that involves an inter vivos trust; a trust 27936
created pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code; a 27937
charitable trust or foundation; subject to divisions (A)(1)(u) and 27938
(z) of this section, a power of attorney, including, but not 27939
limited to, a durable power of attorney; the medical treatment of 27940
a competent adult; or a writ of habeas corpus;27941

       (c) Subject to section 2101.31 of the Revised Code, any 27942
action with respect to a probate estate, guardianship, trust, or 27943
post-death dispute that involves any of the following:27944

        (i) A designation or removal of a beneficiary of a life 27945
insurance policy, annuity contract, retirement plan, brokerage 27946
account, security account, bank account, real property, or 27947
tangible personal property;27948

        (ii) A designation or removal of a payable-on-death 27949
beneficiary or transfer-on-death beneficiary;27950

        (iii) A change in the title to any asset involving a joint 27951
and survivorship interest;27952

        (iv) An alleged gift;27953

        (v) The passing of assets upon the death of an individual 27954
otherwise than by will, intestate succession, or trust.27955

       (2) Any action that involves a concurrent jurisdiction 27956
subject matter and that is before the probate court may be 27957
transferred by the probate court, on its order, to the general 27958
division of the court of common pleas.27959

       (C) The probate court has plenary power at law and in equity 27960
to dispose fully of any matter that is properly before the court, 27961
unless the power is expressly otherwise limited or denied by a 27962
section of the Revised Code.27963

       (D) The jurisdiction acquired by a probate court over a 27964
matter or proceeding is exclusive of that of any other probate 27965
court, except when otherwise provided by law.27966

       Sec. 2108.05.  (A) A donor may make an anatomical gift by 27967
doing any of the following:27968

       (1) Authorizing a statement or symbol to be imprinted on the 27969
donor's driver's license or identification card indicating that 27970
the donor has certified a willingness to make an anatomical gift;27971

       (2) Specifying in the donor's will an intent to make an 27972
anatomical gift;27973

       (3) Specifying an intent to make an anatomical gift in the 27974
donor's declaration as described in section 2133.16 of the Revised 27975
Code;27976

       (4) During a terminal illness or injury of the donor, 27977
communicating in any manner to a minimum of two adults, at least 27978
one of whom is a disinterested witness, that the donor intends to 27979
make an anatomical gift;27980

       (5) Following the procedure in division (B) of this section.27981

       (B) A donor or other person authorized to make an anatomical 27982
gift under section 2108.04 of the Revised Code may make a gift by 27983
a donor card or other record signed by the donor or other person 27984
making the gift or by authorizing that a statement or symbol 27985
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 27986
anatomical gift be included in a donor registry. If the donor or 27987
other person is physically unable to sign a record, the record may 27988
be signed by another individual at the direction of the donor or 27989
other person and shall do both of the following:27990

       (1) Be witnessed by at least two adults, at least one of whom 27991
is a disinterested witness, who have signed at the request of the 27992
donor or the other person;27993

       (2) State that it has been signed and witnessed as provided 27994
in division (B)(1) of this section.27995

       (C) Once a donor has authorized a statement or symbol to be 27996
imprinted on the donor's driver's license or identification card 27997
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 27998
anatomical gift, the donor does not need to recertify the donor's 27999
willingness to make an anatomical gift upon renewal of the 28000
driver's license or identification card. The authorization shall 28001
remain in effect until the donor withdraws that authorization.28002

       (D) Revocation, suspension, expiration, or cancellation of a 28003
driver's license or identification card upon which an anatomical 28004
gift is indicated does not invalidate the gift.28005

       (D)(E) An anatomical gift made by will takes effect on the 28006
donor's death whether or not the will is probated. Invalidation of 28007
the will after the donor's death does not invalidate the gift.28008

       Sec. 2113.041. (A) The administrator of the medicaid estate 28009
recovery program established pursuant to section 5111.115162.2128010
of the Revised Code may present an affidavit to a financial 28011
institution requesting that the financial institution release 28012
account proceeds to recover the cost of services correctly 28013
provided to a medicaid recipient who is subject to the medicaid 28014
estate recovery program. The affidavit shall include all of the 28015
following information:28016

        (1) The name of the decedent;28017

        (2) The name of any person who gave notice that the decedent 28018
was a medicaid recipient and that person's relationship to the 28019
decedent;28020

        (3) The name of the financial institution;28021

        (4) The account number;28022

        (5) A description of the claim for estate recovery;28023

        (6) The amount of funds to be recovered.28024

        (B) A financial institution may release account proceeds to 28025
the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program if all 28026
of the following apply:28027

        (1) The decedent held an account at the financial institution 28028
that was in the decedent's name only.28029

        (2) No estate has been, and it is reasonable to assume that 28030
no estate will be, opened for the decedent.28031

        (3) The decedent has no outstanding debts known to the 28032
administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program.28033

        (4) The financial institution has received no objections or 28034
has determined that no valid objections to release of proceeds 28035
have been received.28036

        (C) If proceeds have been released pursuant to division (B) 28037
of this section and the department of job and family services28038
medicaid receives notice of a valid claim to the proceeds that has 28039
a higher priority under section 2117.25 of the Revised Code than 28040
the claim of the medicaid estate recovery program, the department 28041
may refund the proceeds to the financial institution or pay them 28042
to the person or government entity with the claim.28043

       Sec. 2113.06. (A) Administration of the estate of an 28044
intestate shall be granted to persons mentioned in this division, 28045
in the following order:28046

       (1) To the surviving spouse of the deceased, if resident of 28047
the state;28048

       (2) To one of the next of kin of the deceased, resident of 28049
the state.28050

       (B) If the persons entitled to administer the estate under 28051
division (A) of this section fail to take or renounce 28052
administration voluntarily, the matter shall be set for hearing 28053
and notice given to the persons.28054

       (C) If there are no persons entitled to administration, if 28055
they are for any reason unsuitable for the discharge of the trust, 28056
or if without sufficient cause they neglect to apply within a 28057
reasonable time for the administration of the estate, their right 28058
to priority shall be lost, and the court shall commit the 28059
administration to some suitable person who is a resident of the 28060
state, or to the attorney general or the attorney general's 28061
designee, if the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 28062
seeking to recover medical assistancethe costs of medicaid 28063
services from the deceased pursuant to section 5111.115162.21 or 28064
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code. The person granted 28065
administration may be a creditor of the estate.28066

       (D) This section applies to the appointment of an 28067
administrator de bonis non.28068

       Sec. 2117.061. (A) As used in this section:28069

       (1) "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 28070
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.28071

        (2) "Person responsible for the estate" means the executor, 28072
administrator, commissioner, or person who filed pursuant to 28073
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code for release from 28074
administration of an estate.28075

        (B) The person responsible for the estate of a decedent 28076
subject to the medicaid estate recovery program or the estate of a 28077
decedent who was the spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid 28078
estate recovery program shall submit a properly completed medicaid 28079
estate recovery notice form to the administrator of the medicaid 28080
estate recovery program not later than thirty days after the 28081
occurrence of any of the following:28082

        (1) The granting of letters of administration or letters 28083
testamentary;28084

        (2) The filing of an application for release from 28085
administration or summary release from administration.28086

        (C) The person responsible for the estate shall mark the 28087
appropriate box on the appropriate probate form that gives notice 28088
to the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program to 28089
indicate compliance with the requirements of division (B) of this 28090
section.28091

       (D) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 28092
shall present a claim for estate recovery to the person 28093
responsible for the estate of the decedent or the person's legal 28094
representative not later than ninety days after the date on which 28095
the medicaid estate recovery notice form is received under 28096
division (B) of this section or one year after the decedent's 28097
death, whichever is later.28098

       Sec. 2117.25. (A) Every executor or administrator shall 28099
proceed with diligence to pay the debts of the decedent and shall 28100
apply the assets in the following order:28101

       (1) Costs and expenses of administration;28102

       (2) An amount, not exceeding four thousand dollars, for 28103
funeral expenses that are included in the bill of a funeral 28104
director, funeral expenses other than those in the bill of a 28105
funeral director that are approved by the probate court, and an 28106
amount, not exceeding three thousand dollars, for burial and 28107
cemetery expenses, including that portion of the funeral 28108
director's bill allocated to cemetery expenses that have been paid 28109
to the cemetery by the funeral director.28110

       For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, burial and 28111
cemetery expenses shall be limited to the following:28112

       (a) The purchase of a right of interment;28113

       (b) Monuments or other markers;28114

       (c) The outer burial container;28115

       (d) The cost of opening and closing the place of interment;28116

       (e) The urn.28117

       (3) The allowance for support made to the surviving spouse, 28118
minor children, or both under section 2106.13 of the Revised Code;28119

       (4) Debts entitled to a preference under the laws of the 28120
United States;28121

       (5) Expenses of the last sickness of the decedent;28122

       (6) If the total bill of a funeral director for funeral 28123
expenses exceeds four thousand dollars, then, in addition to the 28124
amount described in division (A)(2) of this section, an amount, 28125
not exceeding two thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are 28126
included in the bill and that exceed four thousand dollars;28127

       (7) Expenses of the decedent's last continuous stay in a 28128
nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, 28129
residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised 28130
Code, or hospital long-term care unit as defined in section 28131
3721.505168.40 of the Revised Code.28132

       For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, a decedent's 28133
last continuancecontinuous stay includes up to thirty consecutive 28134
days during which the decedent was temporarily absent from the 28135
nursing home, residential facility, or hospital long-term care 28136
unit.28137

       (8) Personal property taxes, claims made under the medicaid 28138
estate recovery program instituted pursuant to section 5111.1128139
5162.21 of the Revised Code, and obligations for which the 28140
decedent was personally liable to the state or any of its 28141
subdivisions;28142

       (9) Debts for manual labor performed for the decedent within 28143
twelve months preceding the decedent's death, not exceeding three 28144
hundred dollars to any one person;28145

       (10) Other debts for which claims have been presented and 28146
finally allowed.28147

       (B) The part of the bill of a funeral director that exceeds 28148
the total of six thousand dollars as described in divisions (A)(2) 28149
and (6) of this section, and the part of a claim included in 28150
division (A)(9) of this section that exceeds three hundred dollars 28151
shall be included as a debt under division (A)(10) of this 28152
section, depending upon the time when the claim for the additional 28153
amount is presented.28154

       (C) Any natural person or fiduciary who pays a claim of any 28155
creditor described in division (A) of this section shall be 28156
subrogated to the rights of that creditor proportionate to the 28157
amount of the payment and shall be entitled to reimbursement for 28158
that amount in accordance with the priority of payments set forth 28159
in that division.28160

       (D)(1) Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code, relating 28161
to the manner in which and the time within which claims shall be 28162
presented, shall apply to claims set forth in divisions (A)(2), 28163
(6), and (9) of this section. Claims for an expense of 28164
administration or for the allowance for support need not be 28165
presented. The executor or administrator shall pay debts included 28166
in divisions (A)(4) and (8) of this section, of which the executor 28167
or administrator has knowledge, regardless of presentation.28168

       (2) The giving of written notice to an executor or 28169
administrator of a motion or application to revive an action 28170
pending against the decedent at the date of death shall be 28171
equivalent to the presentation of a claim to the executor or 28172
administrator for the purpose of determining the order of payment 28173
of any judgment rendered or decree entered in such an action.28174

       (E) No payments shall be made to creditors of one class until 28175
all those of the preceding class are fully paid or provided for. 28176
If the assets are insufficient to pay all the claims of one class, 28177
the creditors of that class shall be paid ratably.28178

       (F) If it appears at any time that the assets have been 28179
exhausted in paying prior or preferred charges, allowances, or 28180
claims, those payments shall be a bar to an action on any claim 28181
not entitled to that priority or preference.28182

       Sec. 2133.01.  Unless the context otherwise requires, as used 28183
in sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code:28184

       (A) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 28185
or older.28186

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 28187
declarant or other patient, or the family of a declarant or other 28188
patient, has assigned primary responsibility for the treatment or 28189
care of the declarant or other patient, or, if the responsibility 28190
has not been assigned, the physician who has accepted that 28191
responsibility.28192

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:28193

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 28194
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 28195
the declarant's or other patient's death;28196

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 28197
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 28198
the declarant's or other patient's death;28199

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 28200
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 28201
or discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 28202
the declarant's or other patient's death.28203

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 28204
conjunction with the attending physician of a declarant or other 28205
patient, makes one or more determinations that are required to be 28206
made by the attending physician, or to be made by the attending 28207
physician and one other physician, by an applicable provision of 28208
this chapter, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty and in 28209
accordance with reasonable medical standards.28210

       (E) "Declarant" means any adult who has executed a 28211
declaration in accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised 28212
Code.28213

       (F) "Declaration" means a written document executed in 28214
accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised Code.28215

       (G) "Durable power of attorney for health care" means a 28216
document created pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 28217
Revised Code.28218

       (H) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 28219
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 28220
management of the person of an incompetent.28221

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:28222

       (1) A hospital;28223

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 28224
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 28225
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;28226

       (3) A nursing home or residential care facility, as defined 28227
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;28228

       (4) A home health agency and any residential facility where a 28229
person is receiving care under the direction of a home health 28230
agency;28231

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded.28232

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 28233
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 28234
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 28235
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 28236
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 28237
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.28238

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 28239
3701.881 of the Revised Code.28240

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 28241
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 28242
Revised Code.28243

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 28244
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.28245

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 28246
technologically administered.28247

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 28248
of the Revised Code.28249

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 28250
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 28251
Code.28252

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 28253
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 28254
to a qualified patient or other patient, will serve principally to 28255
prolong the process of dying.28256

       (R) "Nurse" means a person who is licensed to practice 28257
nursing as a registered nurse or to practice practical nursing as 28258
a licensed practical nurse pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the 28259
Revised Code.28260

       (S) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 28261
of the Revised Code.28262

       (T) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 28263
technologically administered.28264

       (U) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 28265
permanent unconsciousness in a declarant or other patient that, to 28266
a reasonable degree of medical certainty as determined in 28267
accordance with reasonable medical standards by the declarant's or 28268
other patient's attending physician and one other physician who 28269
has examined the declarant or other patient, is characterized by 28270
both of the following:28271

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.28272

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 28273
the declarant or other patient having no capacity to experience 28274
pain or suffering.28275

       (V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 28276
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 28277
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 28278
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.28279

       (W) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 28280
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 28281
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.28282

       (X) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 28283
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.28284

       (Y) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 28285
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 28286
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 28287
the board of nursing.28288

       (Z) "Qualified patient" means an adult who has executed a 28289
declaration and has been determined to be in a terminal condition 28290
or in a permanently unconscious state.28291

       (AA) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 28292
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 28293
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 28294
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 28295
declarant's or other patient's attending physician and one other 28296
physician who has examined the declarant or other patient, both of 28297
the following apply:28298

       (1) There can be no recovery.28299

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 28300
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.28301

       (BB) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 28302
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 28303
action for damages for breach of a contract or another agreement 28304
between persons.28305

       Sec. 2133.25.  (A) The department of health, by rule adopted 28306
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt a 28307
standardized method of procedure for the withholding of CPR by 28308
physicians, emergency medical services personnel, and health care 28309
facilities in accordance with sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the 28310
Revised Code. The standardized method shall specify criteria for 28311
determining when a do-not-resuscitate order issued by a physician 28312
is current. The standardized method so adopted shall be the 28313
"do-not-resuscitate protocol" for purposes of sections 2133.21 to 28314
2133.26 of the Revised Code. The department also shall approve one 28315
or more standard forms of DNR identification to be used throughout 28316
this state.28317

       (B) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 28318
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration of 28319
sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the Revised Code.28320

       (C) The department of health shall appoint an advisory 28321
committee to advise the department in the development of rules 28322
under this section. The advisory committee shall include, but 28323
shall not be limited to, representatives of each of the following 28324
organizations:28325

       (1) The association for hospitals and health systems (OHA);28326

       (2) The Ohio state medical association;28327

       (3) The Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency 28328
physicians;28329

       (4) The Ohio hospice organization;28330

       (5) The Ohio council for home care;28331

       (6) The Ohio health care association;28332

       (7) The Ohio ambulance association;28333

       (8) The Ohio medical directors association;28334

       (9) The Ohio association of emergency medical services;28335

       (10) The bioethics network of Ohio;28336

       (11) The Ohio nurses association;28337

       (12) The Ohio academy of nursing homes;28338

       (13) The Ohio association of professional firefighters;28339

       (14) The department of developmental disabilities;28340

       (15) The Ohio osteopathic association;28341

       (16) The association of Ohio philanthropic homes, housing and 28342
services for the aging;28343

       (17) The catholic conference of Ohio;28344

       (18) The department of aging;28345

       (19) The department of mental healthmental health and 28346
addiction services;28347

       (20) The Ohio private residential association;28348

       (21) The northern Ohio fire fighters association.28349

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:28350

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 28351
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 28352
2152. of the Revised Code:28353

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 28354
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 28355
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 28356
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 28357
combined with one or more other divisions;28358

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 28359
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 28360
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 28361
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;28362

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 28363
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.28364

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 28365
jurisdiction under this chapter.28366

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 28367
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 28368
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 28369
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 28370
either foster care or adoption.28371

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 28372
organization, association, or society certified by the department 28373
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 28374
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 28375
this state, and that does one or more of the following:28376

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 28377
consecutive weeks;28378

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 28379
foster homes;28380

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 28381
children services agency or private child placing agency.28382

       (B) As used in this chapter:28383

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 28384
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 28385
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 28386
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 28387
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 28388
needs.28389

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 28390
or older.28391

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 28392
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 28393
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 28394
services agency or a private child placing agency.28395

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 28396
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 28397
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 28398
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 28399
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 28400
neglect occurred.28401

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 28402
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 28403
5103.03 of the Revised Code.28404

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 28405
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 28406
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 28407
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 28408
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 28409
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 28410
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 28411
age.28412

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 28413
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 28414
"certified type B family day-care home," "type B home," 28415
"administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator of a 28416
type A family day-care home," "in-home aide," and "authorized 28417
provider" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the 28418
Revised Code.28419

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 28420
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 28421
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 28422
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 28423
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 28424
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 28425
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 28426
childhood programs of the department of education.28427

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 28428
2152.02 of the Revised Code.28429

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.28430

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:28431

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 28432
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 28433
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 28434
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 28435
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.28436

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 28437
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 28438
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 28439
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 28440
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 28441
counseling.28442

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 28443
child or a public children services agency or private child 28444
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 28445
a child.28446

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 28447
2152.02 of the Revised Code.28448

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 28449
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 28450
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 28451
the movement and activities of children.28452

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 28453
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.28454

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 28455
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 28456
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 28457
response or a traditional response.28458

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 28459
5103.02 of the Revised Code.28460

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 28461
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 28462
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 28463
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 28464
residual parental rights of the child's parents.28465

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 28466
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 28467
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 28468
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 28469
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.28470

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 28471
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.28472

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 28473
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 28474
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 28475
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 28476
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 28477
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 28478
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 28479
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 28480
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 28481
court.28482

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 28483
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 28484
any of the following:28485

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 28486
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 28487
state;28488

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 28489
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 28490
3321.04 of the Revised Code;28491

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 28492
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 28493
the Revised Code.28494

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 28495
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 28496
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.28497

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 28498
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 28499
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 28500
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 28501
child's care.28502

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 28503
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.28504

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 28505
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 28506
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 28507
from the facility.28508

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 28509
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.28510

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 28511
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 28512
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 28513
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 28514
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 28515
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.28516

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 28517
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 28518
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 28519
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 28520
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 28521
day-care homes, child care provided by type B family day-care home 28522
providers and by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, 28523
institutions, state institutions, residential facilities, 28524
residential care facilities, residential camps, day camps, public 28525
schools, chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 28526
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 28527
physical custody, or control of children.28528

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 28529
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 28530
child in out-of-home care:28531

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 28532
care;28533

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 28534
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 28535
necessary for a child's health;28536

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 28537
or pain;28538

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 28539
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 28540
supervision of a licensed physician;28541

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 28542
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 28543
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 28544
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 28545
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.28546

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 28547
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 28548
child in out-of-home care:28549

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 28550
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 28551
condition, or other special needs of the child;28552

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 28553
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 28554
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 28555
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;28556

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:28557

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 28558
drugs for the child;28559

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 28560
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;28561

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 28562
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 28563
drug.28564

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 28565
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 28566
for the health or well-being of the child;28567

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 28568
monitoring by staff;28569

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 28570
and nonprescription medication;28571

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 28572
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 28573
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.28574

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 28575
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 28576
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 28577
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 28578
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 28579
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.28580

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 28581
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 28582
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 28583
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 28584
children services agency or a private child placing agency.28585

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 28586
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 28587
departments, or agencies.28588

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 28589
care" means any of the following:28590

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;28591

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 28592
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 28593
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 28594
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 28595
day-care home; certified type B family day-care home; group home; 28596
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 28597
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 28598
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 28599
center; hospital; or medical clinic;28600

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 28601
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 28602
school, or chartered nonpublic school;28603

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 28604
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.28605

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 28606
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 28607
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 28608
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:28609

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;28610

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;28611

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 28612
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 28613
amputation or another similar cause.28614

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 28615
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 28616
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 28617
of whom the agency has permanent custody.28618

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 28619
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 28620
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 28621
temporary custody or permanent custody.28622

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 28623
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:28624

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 28625
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 28626
the termination of parental rights.28627

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 28628
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 28629
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 28630
the child is placed.28631

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 28632
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 28633
Revised Code.28634

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 28635
service, or condition created by court order following an 28636
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 28637
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.28638

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 28639
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 28640
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 28641
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 28642
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 28643
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 28644
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 28645
court for the protection of the child.28646

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 28647
5122.01 of the Revised Code.28648

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 28649
4732.01 of the Revised Code.28650

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 28651
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 28652
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.28653

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 28654
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 28655
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 28656
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 28657
child.28658

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 28659
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 28660
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 28661
developmental disability resides.28662

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 28663
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 28664
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 28665
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 28666
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 28667
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 28668
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.28669

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 28670
state board of education pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 28671
Revised Code.28672

       (50) "School month" and "school year" have the same meanings 28673
as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.28674

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 28675
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 28676
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 28677
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 28678
disposition.28679

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 28680
2907.01 of the Revised Code.28681

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 28682
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 28683
disposition.28684

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 28685
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.28686

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 28687
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 28688
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 28689
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 28690
person who executed the agreement.28691

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 28692
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 28693
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 28694
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 28695
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 28696
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.28697

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 28698
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 28699
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 28700
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 28701
child after that period of ninety days.28702

       Sec. 2151.3514.  (A) As used in this section:28703

       (1) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 28704
provider" has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of 28705
the Revised Code;28706

       (2) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:28707

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 28708
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 28709
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 28710
others;28711

       (b) The use of a drug of abuse to the extent that the user 28712
becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the drug or 28713
endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of others.28714

       (3) "Drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 28715
3719.011 of the Revised Code.28716

       (4) "Medicaid" means the program established under Chapter 28717
5111. of the Revised Code.28718

       (B) If the juvenile court issues an order of temporary 28719
custody or protective supervision under division (A) of section 28720
2151.353 of the Revised Code with respect to a child adjudicated 28721
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child and the alcohol or 28722
other drug addiction of a parent or other caregiver of the child 28723
was the basis for the adjudication of abuse, neglect, or 28724
dependency, the court shall issue an order requiring the parent or 28725
other caregiver to submit to an assessment and, if needed, 28726
treatment from an alcohol and druga community addiction program28727
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 28728
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. The court 28729
may order the parent or other caregiver to submit to alcohol or 28730
other drug testing during, after, or both during and after, the 28731
treatment. The court shall send any order issued pursuant to this 28732
division to the public children services agency that serves the 28733
county in which the court is located for use as described in 28734
section 340.15 of the Revised Code.28735

       (C) Any order requiring alcohol or other drug testing that is 28736
issued pursuant to division (B) of this section shall require one 28737
alcohol or other drug test to be conducted each month during a 28738
period of twelve consecutive months beginning the month 28739
immediately following the month in which the order for alcohol or 28740
other drug testing is issued. Arrangements for administering the 28741
alcohol or other drug tests, as well as funding the costs of the 28742
tests, shall be locally determined in accordance with sections 28743
340.033340.03 and 340.15 of the Revised Code. If a parent or 28744
other caregiver required to submit to alcohol or other drug tests 28745
under this section is not a recipient of medicaid, the agency that 28746
refers the parent or caregiver for the tests may require the 28747
parent or caregiver to reimburse the agency for the cost of 28748
conducting the tests.28749

       (D) The certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 28750
programservices provider that conducts any alcohol or other drug 28751
tests ordered in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 28752
section shall send the results of the tests, along with the 28753
program'sprovider's recommendations as to the benefits of 28754
continued treatment, to the court and to the public children 28755
services agency providing services to the involved family, 28756
according to federal regulations set forth in 42 C.F.R. Part 2, 28757
and division (B) of section 340.15 of the Revised Code. The court 28758
shall consider the results and the recommendations sent to it 28759
under this division in any adjudication or review by the court, 28760
according to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.419 of the 28761
Revised Code.28762

       Sec. 2151.362. (A)(1) In the manner prescribed by division 28763
(C)(1) or (2) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, as 28764
applicable, the court, at the time of making any order that 28765
removes a child from the child's own home or that vests legal or 28766
permanent custody of the child in a person other than the child's 28767
parent or a government agency, shall determine the school district 28768
that is to bear the cost of educating the child. The court shall 28769
make the determination a part of the order that provides for the 28770
child's placement or commitment. That school district shall bear 28771
the cost of educating the child unless and until the department of 28772
education determines that a different district shall be 28773
responsible for bearing that cost pursuant to division (A)(2) of 28774
this section. The court's order shall state that the determination 28775
of which school district is responsible to bear the cost of 28776
educating the child is subject to re-determination by the 28777
department pursuant to that division.28778

        (2) If, while the child is in the custody of a person other 28779
than the child's parent or a government agency, the department of 28780
education determines that the place of residence of the child's 28781
parent has changed since the court issued its initial order, the 28782
department may name a different school district to bear the cost 28783
of educating the child. The department shall make this new 28784
determination, and any future determinations, based on evidence 28785
received from the school district currently responsible to bear 28786
the cost of educating the child. If the department finds that the 28787
evidence demonstrates to its satisfaction that the residence of 28788
the child's parent has changed since the court issued its initial 28789
order under division (A)(1) of this section, or since the 28790
department last made a determination under division (A)(2) of this 28791
section, the department shall name the district in which the 28792
child's parent currently resides or, if the parent's residence is 28793
not known, the district in which the parent's last known residence 28794
is located. If the department cannot determine any Ohio district 28795
in which the parent currently resides or has resided, the school 28796
district designated in the initial court order under division 28797
(A)(1) of this section, or in the most recent determination made 28798
by the department under division (A)(2) of this section, shall 28799
continue to bear the cost of educating the child.28800

       (B) Whenever a child is placed in a detention facility 28801
established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code or a 28802
juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the Revised 28803
Code, the facility shall be responsible for coordinating the 28804
education of the child. The facility may take any of the following 28805
measures in coordinating the education of the child:28806

        (1) If applicable, use the chartered nonpublic school that 28807
the facility operates;28808

        (2) Arrange with the school district responsible for bearing 28809
the cost of educating the child determined under division (A) of 28810
this section, for the facility to educate the child on its own;28811

        (3) Contract with an educational service center for the 28812
service center to educate the child;28813

        (4) Contract with the school district in which the facility 28814
is located for that school district to educate the child;28815

       (5) If the child is enrolled in an internet- or 28816
computer-based community school established under Chapter 3314. of 28817
the Revised Code, and provided that the facility possesses the 28818
necessary hardware, software, and internet connectivity, permit 28819
continued instruction of the child by the internet- or 28820
computer-based community school. 28821

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 28822
pursuant to division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section,28823
child's school district as determined by the court or the 28824
department, in the same manner as prescribed in division (A) of 28825
this section, shall pay the cost of educating the child based on 28826
the per capita cost of the educational facility within the 28827
detention home or juvenile facility.28828

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 28829
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, payment for the cost 28830
of educating the child shall be made only as provided in division 28831
(C) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.28832

       (C) Whenever a child is placed by the court in a private 28833
institution, school, or residential treatment center or any other 28834
private facility, the state shall pay to the court a subsidy to 28835
help defray the expense of educating the child in an amount equal 28836
to the product of the daily per capita educational cost of the 28837
private facility, as determined pursuant to this section, and the 28838
number of days the child resides at the private facility, provided 28839
that the subsidy shall not exceed twenty-five hundred dollars per 28840
year per child. The daily per capita educational cost of a private 28841
facility shall be determined by dividing the actual program cost 28842
of the private facility or twenty-five hundred dollars, whichever 28843
is less, by three hundred sixty-five days or by three hundred 28844
sixty-six days for years that include February twenty-ninth. The 28845
state shall pay seventy-five per cent of the total subsidy for 28846
each year quarterly to the court. The state may adjust the 28847
remaining twenty-five per cent of the total subsidy to be paid to 28848
the court for each year to an amount that is less than twenty-five 28849
per cent of the total subsidy for that year based upon the 28850
availability of funds appropriated to the department of education 28851
for the purpose of subsidizing courts that place a child in a 28852
private institution, school, or residential treatment center or 28853
any other private facility and shall pay that adjusted amount to 28854
the court at the end of the year.28855

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 28856
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 28857
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 28858
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 28859
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 28860
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 28861
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 28862
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 28863
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 28864
nonpublic school.28865

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 28866
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 28867
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 28868
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 28869
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 28870
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 28871
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 28872
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 28873
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 28874
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 28875
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 28876
completed as a new home study.28877

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 28878
the department of job and family services on whether the 28879
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 28880
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 28881
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 28882
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 28883
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 28884
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 28885
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 28886
older who reside with the foster caregiver.28887

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 28888
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 28889
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 28890
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 28891
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 28892
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 28893
information about the person from the federal bureau of 28894
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 28895
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 28896
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 28897
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 28898
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 28899
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 28900
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 28901
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 28902
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 28903
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 28904
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 28905
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 28906
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.28907

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 28908
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 28909
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 28910
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 28911
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 28912
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 28913
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 28914
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 28915
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 28916
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 28917
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 28918
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 28919
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 28920
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 28921
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 28922
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 28923
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 28924
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.28925

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 28926
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 28927
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 28928
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 28929
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 28930
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 28931
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 28932
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 28933
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 28934
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 28935
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 28936
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 28937
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 28938
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 28939
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 28940
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 28941
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 28942
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.28943

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 28944
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 28945
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 28946
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 28947
the probate court either of the following:28948

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 28949
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 28950
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 28951
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 28952
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 28953
the criminal records check;28954

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 28955
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 28956
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 28957
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 28958
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 28959

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 28960
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 28961
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 28962
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 28963
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 28964
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 28965
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 28966
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 28967
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 28968
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 28969
is requested.28970

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 28971
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 28972
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 28973
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 28974
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 28975
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 28976
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 28977
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 28978
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 28979
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 28980
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 28981
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 28982
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 28983
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 28984
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 28985
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 28986
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 28987
caregiver to operate a foster home.28988

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 28989
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 28990
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 28991
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 28992
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 28993
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 28994
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 28995
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 28996
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 28997
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 28998
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 28999
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 29000
in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, unless 29001
the person meets rehabilitation standards established in rules 29002
adopted under division (F) of this section.29003

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 29004
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 29005
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 29006
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 29007
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 29008
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 29009
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 29010
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 29011
person from appointment or employment.29012

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 29013
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 29014
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 29015
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 29016
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 29017
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 29018
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 29019
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 29020
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 29021
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 29022
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 29023
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 29024
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 29025
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 29026
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 29027
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.29028

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 29029
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 29030
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 29031
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 29032
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 29033
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 29034
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 29035
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 29036
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 29037
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 29038
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 29039
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 29040
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 29041
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 29042
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 29043
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 29044
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 29045
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 29046
parent or foster caregiver.29047

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 29048
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 29049
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 29050
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 29051
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 29052
be made available to any person other than the following:29053

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 29054
check or the person's representative;29055

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 29056
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 29057
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;29058

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 29059
department of job and family services, or a public children 29060
services agency;29061

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 29062
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 29063
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 29064
home certificate.29065

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 29066
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 29067
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 29068
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 29069
listed in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 29070
must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or employ 29071
the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 29072
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 29073
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 29074
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 29075
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 29076
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 29077
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.29078

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 29079
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 29080
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 29081
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 29082
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 29083
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 29084
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 29085
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 29086
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 29087
109.572 of the Revised Code.29088

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 29089
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 29090
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 29091
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 29092
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 29093
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 29094
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 29095
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 29096
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 29097
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 29098
records check using the person's name and social security number.29099

        (I) As used in this section:29100

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:29101

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 29102
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 29103
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 29104
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 29105
individuals less than eighteen years of age;29106

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 29107
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 29108
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 29109
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 29110
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 29111
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 29112
individuals less than eighteen years of age;29113

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 29114
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 29115
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 29116
requirements of division (I)(H)(1)(a) of this section.29117

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 29118
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.29119

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 29120
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 29121
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 29122
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 29123
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 29124
children's hospital.29125

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 29126
following:29127

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 29128
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 29129
out-of-home care;29130

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;29131

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;29132

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 29133
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.29134

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 29135
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 29136
agency to which the department of job and family services has 29137
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.29138

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 29139
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.29140

       Sec. 2152.54.  (A) An evaluation of a child who does not 29141
appear to the court to be a person who is at least moderately 29142
intellectually disabled shall be made by an evaluator who is one 29143
of the following: 29144

       (1) A professional employed by a psychiatric facility or 29145
center certified by the department of mental healthmental health 29146
and addiction services to provide forensic services and appointed 29147
by the director of the facility or center to conduct the 29148
evaluation; 29149

       (2) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 29150
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 29151
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 29152
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents.29153

       (B) An evaluation of a child who appears to the court to be a 29154
person who is at least moderately intellectually disabled shall be 29155
made by a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist who 29156
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 29157
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 29158
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents who 29159
have intellectual disability.29160

       (C) If an evaluation is conducted by an evaluator of the type 29161
described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section and the 29162
evaluator concludes that the child is a person who is at least 29163
moderately intellectually disabled, the evaluator shall 29164
discontinue the evaluation and notify the court within one 29165
business day after reaching the conclusion. Within two business 29166
days after receiving notification, the court shall order the child 29167
to undergo an evaluation by an evaluator of the type described in 29168
division (B) of this section. Within two business days after the 29169
appointment of the new evaluator, the original evaluator shall 29170
deliver to the new evaluator all information relating to the child 29171
obtained during the original evaluation. 29172

       Sec. 2152.59.  (A) If after a hearing held pursuant to 29173
section 2152.58 of the Revised Code the court determines that a 29174
child is competent, the court shall proceed with the delinquent 29175
child's proceeding as provided by law. No statement that a child 29176
makes during an evaluation or hearing conducted under sections 29177
2152.51 through 2152.59 of the Revised Code shall be used against 29178
the child on the issue of responsibility or guilt in any child or 29179
adult proceeding. 29180

       (B) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 29181
the Revised Code the court determines that the child is not 29182
competent and cannot attain competency within the period of time 29183
applicable under division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall 29184
dismiss the charges without prejudice, except that the court may 29185
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 29186
the following:29187

       (1) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 29188
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 29189
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 29190
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;29191

       (2) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 29192
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 29193
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 29194
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 29195
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 29196
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquent child or 29197
other criminal charges.29198

       (C) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 29199
the Revised Code the court determines that a child is not 29200
competent but could likely attain competency by participating in 29201
services specifically designed to help the child develop 29202
competency, the court may order the child to participate in 29203
services specifically designed to help the child develop 29204
competency at county expense. The court shall name a reliable 29205
provider to deliver the competency attainment services and shall 29206
order the child's parent, guardian, or custodian to contact that 29207
provider by a specified date to arrange for services. 29208

       (D) The competency attainment services provided to a child 29209
shall be based on a competency attainment plan described in 29210
division (E)(2) of this section and approved by the court. 29211
Services are subject to the following conditions and time periods 29212
measured from the date the court approves the plan:29213

       (1) Services shall be provided in the least restrictive 29214
setting that is consistent with the child's ability to attain 29215
competency and the safety of both the child and the community. If 29216
the child has been released on temporary or interim orders and 29217
refuses or fails to cooperate with the service provider, the court 29218
may reassess the orders and amend them to require a more 29219
appropriate setting. 29220

       (2) No child shall be required to participate in competency 29221
attainment services for longer than is required for the child to 29222
attain competency. The following maximum periods of participation 29223
apply:29224

       (a) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 29225
attainment services that are provided outside of a residential 29226
setting, the child shall not participate in those services for a 29227
period exceeding three months if the child is charged with an act 29228
that would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult, six months 29229
if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of the 29230
third, fourth, or fifth degree if committed by an adult, or one 29231
year if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of 29232
the first or second degree, aggravated murder, or murder if 29233
committed by an adult.29234

       (b) If a child is ordered to receive competency attainment 29235
services that are provided in a residential setting that is 29236
operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing competency 29237
attainment services, the child shall not participate in those 29238
services for a period exceeding forty-five calendar days if the 29239
child is charged with an act that would be a misdemeanor if 29240
committed by an adult, three months if the child is charged with 29241
an act that would be a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth 29242
degree if committed by an adult, six months if the child is 29243
charged with an act that would be a felony of the first or second 29244
degree if committed by an adult, or one year if the child is 29245
charged with an act that would be aggravated murder or murder if 29246
committed by an adult. 29247

       (c) If a child is ordered into a residential, detention, or 29248
other secured setting for reasons other than to participate in 29249
competency attainment services and is also ordered to participate 29250
in competency attainment services concurrently, the child shall 29251
participate in the competency attainment services for not longer 29252
than the relevant period set forth in division (D)(2)(a) of this 29253
section.29254

       (d) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 29255
attainment services that require the child to live for some but 29256
not all of the duration of the services in a residential setting 29257
that is operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing 29258
competency attainment services, the child shall participate in the 29259
competency attainment services for not longer than the relevant 29260
period set forth in division (D)(2)(b) of this section. For the 29261
purpose of calculating a time period under division (D)(2)(d) of 29262
this section, two days of participation in a nonresidential 29263
setting shall equal one day of participation in a residential 29264
setting. 29265

       (3) A child who receives competency attainment services in a 29266
residential setting that is operated solely or partly for the 29267
purpose of providing competency attainment services is in 29268
detention for purposes of section 2921.34 and division (B) of 29269
section 2152.18 of the Revised Code during the time that the child 29270
resides in the residential setting.29271

       (E)(1) Within ten business days after the court names the 29272
provider responsible for the child's competency attainment 29273
services under division (D) of this section, the court shall 29274
deliver to that provider a copy of each competency assessment 29275
report it has received for review. The provider shall return the 29276
copies of the reports to the court upon the termination of the 29277
services.29278

       (2) Not later than thirty calendar days after the child 29279
contacts the competency attainment services provider under 29280
division (C) of this section, the provider shall submit to the 29281
court a plan for the child to attain competency. The court shall 29282
provide copies of the plan to the prosecuting attorney, the 29283
child's attorney, the child's guardian ad litem, if any, and the 29284
child's parents, guardian, or custodian.29285

       (F) The provider that provides the child's competency 29286
attainment services pursuant to the competency attainment plan 29287
shall submit reports to the court on the following schedule:29288

       (1) A report on the child's progress every thirty calendar 29289
days and on the termination of services. The report shall not 29290
include any details of the alleged offense as reported by the 29291
child.29292

       (2) If the provider determines that the child is not 29293
cooperating to a degree that would allow the services to be 29294
effective to help the child attain competency, a report informing 29295
the court of the determination within three business days after 29296
making the determination;29297

       (3) If the provider determines that the current setting is no 29298
longer the least restrictive setting that is consistent with the 29299
child's ability to attain competency and the safety of both the 29300
child and the community, a report informing the court of the 29301
determination within three business days after making the 29302
determination;29303

       (4) If the provider determines that the child has achieved 29304
the goals of the plan and would be able to understand the nature 29305
and objectives of the proceeding against the child and to assist 29306
in the child's defense, with or without reasonable accommodations 29307
to meet the criteria set forth in division (B) of section 2152.56 29308
of the Revised Code, a report informing the court of that 29309
determination within three business days after making the 29310
determination. If the provider believes that accommodations would 29311
be necessary or desirable, the report shall include 29312
recommendations for accommodations.29313

       (5) If the provider determines that the child will not 29314
achieve the goals of the plan within the applicable period of time 29315
under division (D)(2) of this section, a report informing the 29316
court of the determination within three business days after making 29317
the determination. The report shall include recommendations for 29318
services for the child that would support the safety of the child 29319
or the community.29320

       (G) The court shall provide copies of any report made under 29321
division (F) of this section to the prosecuting attorney, the 29322
child's attorney, and the child's guardian ad litem, if any. The 29323
court shall provide copies of any report made under division (F) 29324
of this section to the child's parents, guardian, or custodian 29325
unless the court finds that doing so is not in the best interest 29326
of the child.29327

       (H)(1) Within fifteen business days after receiving a report 29328
under division (F) of this section, the court may hold a hearing 29329
to determine if a new order is necessary. To assist in making a 29330
determination under division (H) of this section, the court may 29331
order a new competency evaluation in accordance with section 29332
2152.53 of the Revised Code. Until a new order is issued or the 29333
required period of participation expires, the child shall continue 29334
to participate in competency attainment services.29335

       (2) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 29336
section the court determines that the child is not making progress 29337
toward competency or is so uncooperative that attainment services 29338
cannot be effective, the court may order a change in setting or 29339
services that would help the child attain competency within the 29340
relevant period of time under division (D)(2) of this section.29341

       (3) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 29342
section the court determines that the child has not or will not 29343
attain competency within the relevant period of time under 29344
division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall dismiss the 29345
delinquency complaint without prejudice, except that the court may 29346
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 29347
the following:29348

       (a) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 29349
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 29350
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 29351
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;29352

       (b) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 29353
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 29354
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 29355
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 29356
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 29357
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquency or other 29358
criminal charges.29359

       (4) A dismissal under division (H)(3) of this section does 29360
not preclude a future delinquent child proceeding or criminal 29361
prosecution as provided under section 2151.23 of the Revised Code 29362
if the child eventually attains competency.29363

       (5) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 29364
section the court determines that the child has attained 29365
competency, the court shall proceed with the delinquent child's 29366
proceeding in accordance with division (A) of this section.29367

       (6) A dismissal under this section does not bar a civil 29368
action based on the acts or omissions that formed the basis of the 29369
complaint.29370

       Sec. 2301.02.  The number of judges of the court of common 29371
pleas for each county, the time for the next election of the 29372
judges in the several counties, and the beginning of their terms 29373
shall be as follows:29374

       (A) In Adams, Ashland, Fayette, and Pike counties, one judge, 29375
elected in 1956, term to begin February 9, 1957;29376

       In Brown, Crawford, Defiance, Highland, Holmes, Morgan, 29377
Ottawa, and Union counties, one judge, to be elected in 1954, term 29378
to begin February 9, 1955;29379

       In Auglaize county, one judge, to be elected in 1956, term to 29380
begin January 9, 1957;29381

       In Coshocton, Darke, Fulton, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 29382
Jackson, Knox, Madison, Mercer, Monroe, Paulding, Vinton, and 29383
Wyandot counties, one judge, to be elected in 1956, term to begin 29384
January 1, 1957;29385

       In Morrow county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29386
to begin January 1, 1957, and one to be elected in 2006, term to 29387
begin January 1, 2007;29388

       In Logan county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29389
to begin January 1, 1957, and one to be elected in 2004, term to 29390
begin January 2, 2005;29391

       In Carroll, Clinton, Hocking, Meigs, Pickaway, Preble, 29392
Shelby, Van Wert, and Williams counties, one judge, to be elected 29393
in 1952, term to begin January 1, 1953;29394

       In Champaign county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29395
term to begin January 1, 1953, and one to be elected in 2008, term 29396
to begin February 10, 2009.;29397

       In Harrison and Noble counties, one judge, to be elected in 29398
1954, term to begin April 18, 1955;29399

       In Henry county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29400
to begin May 9, 1957, and one to be elected in 2004, term to begin 29401
January 1, 2005;29402

       In Putnam county, one judge, to be elected in 1956, term to 29403
begin May 9, 1957;29404

       In Huron county, one judge, to be elected in 1952, term to 29405
begin May 14, 1953;29406

       In Perry county, one judge, to be elected in 1954, term to 29407
begin July 6, 1956;29408

       In Sandusky county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29409
term to begin February 10, 1955, and one to be elected in 1978, 29410
term to begin January 1, 1979;.29411

       (B) In Allen county, three judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29412
term to begin February 9, 1957, the second to be elected in 1958, 29413
term to begin January 1, 1959, and the third to be elected in 29414
1992, term to begin January 1, 1993;29415

       In Ashtabula county, three judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29416
term to begin February 9, 1955, one to be elected in 1960, term to 29417
begin January 1, 1961, and one to be elected in 1978, term to 29418
begin January 2, 1979;29419

       In Athens county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, term 29420
to begin February 9, 1955, and one to be elected in 1990, term to 29421
begin July 1, 1991;29422

       In Erie county, four judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29423
to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1970, term 29424
to begin January 2, 1971, the third to be elected in 2004, term to 29425
begin January 2, 2005, and the fourth to be elected in 2008, term 29426
to begin February 9, 2009;29427

       In Fairfield county, three judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29428
term to begin February 9, 1955, the second to be elected in 1970, 29429
term to begin January 1, 1971, and the third to be elected in 29430
1994, term to begin January 2, 1995;29431

       In Geauga county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29432
to begin January 1, 1957, and the second to be elected in 1976, 29433
term to begin January 6, 1977;29434

       In Greene county, four judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29435
term to begin February 9, 1957, the second to be elected in 1960, 29436
term to begin January 1, 1961, the third to be elected in 1978, 29437
term to begin January 2, 1979, and the fourth to be elected in 29438
1994, term to begin January 1, 1995;29439

       In Hancock county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29440
term to begin January 1, 1953, and the second to be elected in 29441
1978, term to begin January 1, 1979;29442

       In Lawrence county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29443
term to begin February 9, 1955, and the second to be elected in 29444
1976, term to begin January 1, 1977;29445

       In Marion county, three judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29446
term to begin January 1, 1953, the second to be elected in 1976, 29447
term to begin January 2, 1977, and the third to be elected in 29448
1998, term to begin February 9, 1999;29449

       In Medina county, three judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29450
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1966, 29451
term to begin January 1, 1967, and the third to be elected in 29452
1994, term to begin January 1, 1995;29453

       In Miami county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, term 29454
to begin February 9, 1955, and one to be elected in 1970, term to 29455
begin on January 1, 1971;29456

       In Muskingum county, three judges, one to be elected in 1968, 29457
term to begin August 9, 1969, one to be elected in 1978, term to 29458
begin January 1, 1979, and one to be elected in 2002, term to 29459
begin January 2, 2003;29460

       In Portage county, three judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29461
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1960, 29462
term to begin January 1, 1961, and the third to be elected in 29463
1986, term to begin January 2, 1987;29464

       In Ross county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29465
to begin February 9, 1957, and the second to be elected in 1976, 29466
term to begin January 1, 1977;29467

       In Scioto county, three judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29468
term to begin February 10, 1955, the second to be elected in 1960, 29469
term to begin January 1, 1961, and the third to be elected in 29470
1994, term to begin January 2, 1995;29471

       In Seneca county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29472
to begin January 1, 1957, and the second to be elected in 1986, 29473
term to begin January 2, 1987;29474

       In Warren county, four judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29475
term to begin February 9, 1955, the second to be elected in 1970, 29476
term to begin January 1, 1971, the third to be elected in 1986, 29477
term to begin January 1, 1987, and the fourth to be elected in 29478
2004, term to begin January 2, 2005;29479

       In Washington county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29480
term to begin January 1, 1953, and one to be elected in 1986, term 29481
to begin January 1, 1987;29482

       In Wood county, three judges, one to be elected in 1968, term 29483
beginning January 1, 1969, the second to be elected in 1970, term 29484
to begin January 2, 1971, and the third to be elected in 1990, 29485
term to begin January 1, 1991;29486

       In Belmont and Jefferson counties, two judges, to be elected 29487
in 1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29488
respectively;29489

       In Clark county, four judges, one to be elected in 1952, term 29490
to begin January 1, 1953, the second to be elected in 1956, term 29491
to begin January 2, 1957, the third to be elected in 1986, term to 29492
begin January 3, 1987, and the fourth to be elected in 1994, term 29493
to begin January 2, 1995.;29494

       In Clermont county, five judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29495
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1964, 29496
term to begin January 1, 1965, the third to be elected in 1982, 29497
term to begin January 2, 1983, the fourth to be elected in 1986, 29498
term to begin January 2, 1987;, and the fifth to be elected in 29499
2006, term to begin January 3, 2007;29500

       In Columbiana county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29501
term to begin January 1, 1953, and the second to be elected in 29502
1956, term to begin January 1, 1957;29503

       In Delaware county, two judges, one to be elected in 1990, 29504
term to begin February 9, 1991, the second to be elected in 1994, 29505
term to begin January 1, 1995;29506

       In Lake county, six judges, one to be elected in 1958, term 29507
to begin January 1, 1959, the second to be elected in 1960, term 29508
to begin January 2, 1961, the third to be elected in 1964, term to 29509
begin January 3, 1965, the fourth and fifth to be elected in 1978, 29510
terms to begin January 4, 1979, and January 5, 1979, respectively, 29511
and the sixth to be elected in 2000, term to begin January 6, 29512
2001;29513

       In Licking county, four judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29514
term to begin February 9, 1955, one to be elected in 1964, term to 29515
begin January 1, 1965, one to be elected in 1990, term to begin 29516
January 1, 1991, and one to be elected in 2004, term to begin 29517
January 1, 2005;29518

       In Lorain county, nine judges, two to be elected in 1952, 29519
terms to begin January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1953, respectively, 29520
one to be elected in 1958, term to begin January 3, 1959, one to 29521
be elected in 1968, term to begin January 1, 1969, two to be 29522
elected in 1988, terms to begin January 4, 1989, and January 5, 29523
1989, respectively, two to be elected in 1998, terms to begin 29524
January 2, 1999, and January 3, 1999, respectively; and one to be 29525
elected in 2006, term to begin January 6, 2007; 29526

       In Butler county, eleven judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29527
term to begin January 1, 1957; two to be elected in 1954, terms to 29528
begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, respectively; one to 29529
be elected in 1968, term to begin January 2, 1969; one to be 29530
elected in 1986, term to begin January 3, 1987; two to be elected 29531
in 1988, terms to begin January 1, 1989, and January 2, 1989, 29532
respectively; one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 4, 29533
1993; two to be elected in 2002, terms to begin January 2, 2003, 29534
and January 3, 2003, respectively; and one to be elected in 2006, 29535
term to begin January 3, 2007;29536

       In Richland county, four judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29537
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1960, 29538
term to begin February 9, 1961, the third to be elected in 1968, 29539
term to begin January 2, 1969, and the fourth to be elected in 29540
2004, term to begin January 3, 2005;29541

       In Tuscarawas county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29542
term to begin January 1, 1957, and the second to be elected in 29543
1960, term to begin January 2, 1961;29544

       In Wayne county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29545
beginning January 1, 1957, and one to be elected in 1968, term to 29546
begin January 2, 1969;29547

       In Trumbull county, six judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29548
term to begin January 1, 1953, the second to be elected in 1954, 29549
term to begin January 1, 1955, the third to be elected in 1956, 29550
term to begin January 1, 1957, the fourth to be elected in 1964, 29551
term to begin January 1, 1965, the fifth to be elected in 1976, 29552
term to begin January 2, 1977, and the sixth to be elected in 29553
1994, term to begin January 3, 1995;29554

       (C) In Cuyahoga county, thirty-nine judges; eight to be 29555
elected in 1954, terms to begin on successive days beginning from 29556
January 1, 1955, to January 7, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29557
respectively; eight to be elected in 1956, terms to begin on 29558
successive days beginning from January 1, 1957, to January 8, 29559
1957; three to be elected in 1952, terms to begin from January 1, 29560
1953, to January 3, 1953; two to be elected in 1960, terms to 29561
begin on January 8, 1961, and January 9, 1961, respectively; two 29562
to be elected in 1964, terms to begin January 4, 1965, and January 29563
5, 1965, respectively; one to be elected in 1966, term to begin on 29564
January 10, 1967; four to be elected in 1968, terms to begin on 29565
successive days beginning from January 9, 1969, to January 12, 29566
1969; two to be elected in 1974, terms to begin on January 18, 29567
1975, and January 19, 1975, respectively; five to be elected in 29568
1976, terms to begin on successive days beginning January 6, 1977, 29569
to January 10, 1977; two to be elected in 1982, terms to begin 29570
January 11, 1983, and January 12, 1983, respectively; and two to 29571
be elected in 1986, terms to begin January 13, 1987, and January 29572
14, 1987, respectively;29573

       In Franklin county, twenty-two judges; two to be elected in 29574
1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29575
respectively; four to be elected in 1956, terms to begin January 29576
1, 1957, to January 4, 1957; four to be elected in 1958, terms to 29577
begin January 1, 1959, to January 4, 1959; three to be elected in 29578
1968, terms to begin January 5, 1969, to January 7, 1969; three to 29579
be elected in 1976, terms to begin on successive days beginning 29580
January 5, 1977, to January 7, 1977; one to be elected in 1982, 29581
term to begin January 8, 1983; one to be elected in 1986, term to 29582
begin January 9, 1987; two to be elected in 1990, terms to begin 29583
July 1, 1991, and July 2, 1991, respectively; one to be elected in 29584
1996, term to begin January 2, 1997; and one to be elected in 29585
2004, term to begin July 1, 2005;29586

       In Hamilton county, twenty-one judges; eight to be elected in 29587
1966, terms to begin January 1, 1967, January 2, 1967, and from 29588
February 9, 1967, to February 14, 1967, respectively; five to be 29589
elected in 1956, terms to begin from January 1, 1957, to January 29590
5, 1957; one to be elected in 1964, term to begin January 1, 1965; 29591
one to be elected in 1974, term to begin January 15, 1975; one to 29592
be elected in 1980, term to begin January 16, 1981; two to be 29593
elected at large in the general election in 1982, terms to begin 29594
April 1, 1983; one to be elected in 1990, term to begin July 1, 29595
1991; and two to be elected in 1996, terms to begin January 3, 29596
1997, and January 4, 1997, respectively;29597

       In Lucas county, fourteen judges; two to be elected in 1954, 29598
terms to begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29599
respectively; two to be elected in 1956, terms to begin January 1, 29600
1957, and October 29, 1957, respectively; two to be elected in 29601
1952, terms to begin January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1953, 29602
respectively; one to be elected in 1964, term to begin January 3, 29603
1965; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin January 4, 1969; 29604
two to be elected in 1976, terms to begin January 4, 1977, and 29605
January 5, 1977, respectively; one to be elected in 1982, term to 29606
begin January 6, 1983; one to be elected in 1988, term to begin 29607
January 7, 1989; one to be elected in 1990, term to begin January 29608
2, 1991; and one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 2, 29609
1993;29610

       In Mahoning county, seven judges; three to be elected in 29611
1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, January 2, 1955, and 29612
February 9, 1955, respectively; one to be elected in 1956, term to 29613
begin January 1, 1957; one to be elected in 1952, term to begin 29614
January 1, 1953; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin January 29615
2, 1969; and one to be elected in 1990, term to begin July 1, 29616
1991;29617

       In Montgomery county, fifteen judges; three to be elected in 29618
1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, January 2, 1955, and January 29619
3, 1955, respectively; four to be elected in 1952, terms to begin 29620
January 1, 1953, January 2, 1953, July 1, 1953, and July 2, 1953, 29621
respectively; one to be elected in 1964, term to begin January 3, 29622
1965; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin January 3, 1969; 29623
three to be elected in 1976, terms to begin on successive days 29624
beginning January 4, 1977, to January 6, 1977; two to be elected 29625
in 1990, terms to begin July 1, 1991, and July 2, 1991, 29626
respectively; and one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 29627
1, 1993.;29628

       In Stark county, eight judges; one to be elected in 1958, 29629
term to begin on January 2, 1959; two to be elected in 1954, terms 29630
to begin on January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, respectively; 29631
two to be elected in 1952, terms to begin January 1, 1953, and 29632
April 16, 1953, respectively; one to be elected in 1966, term to 29633
begin on January 4, 1967; and two to be elected in 1992, terms to 29634
begin January 1, 1993, and January 2, 1993, respectively;29635

       In Summit county, thirteenfourteen judges; four to be 29636
elected in 1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, January 2, 1955, 29637
January 3, 1955, and February 9, 1955, respectively; three to be 29638
elected in 1958, terms to begin January 1, 1959, January 2, 1959, 29639
and May 17, 1959, respectively; one to be elected in 1966, term to 29640
begin January 4, 1967; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin 29641
January 5, 1969; one to be elected in 1990, term to begin May 1, 29642
1991; one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 6, 1993; 29643
and two to be elected in 2008, terms to begin January 5, 2009, and 29644
January 6, 2009, respectively; and one to be elected in 2014, term 29645
to begin January 1, 2015.29646

       Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions, in any county 29647
having two or more judges of the court of common pleas, in which 29648
more than one-third of the judges plus one were previously elected 29649
at the same election, if the office of one of those judges so 29650
elected becomes vacant more than fifty-six days prior to the 29651
second general election preceding the expiration of that judge's 29652
term, the office that that judge had filled shall be abolished as 29653
of the date of the next general election, and a new office of 29654
judge of the court of common pleas shall be created. The judge who 29655
is to fill that new office shall be elected for a six-year term at 29656
the next general election, and the term of that judge shall 29657
commence on the first day of the year following that general 29658
election, on which day no other judge's term begins, so that the 29659
number of judges that the county shall elect shall not be reduced.29660

       Judges of the probate division of the court of common pleas 29661
are judges of the court of common pleas but shall be elected 29662
pursuant to sections 2101.02 and 2101.021 of the Revised Code, 29663
except in Adams, Harrison, Henry, Morgan, Noble, and Wyandot 29664
counties in which the judge of the court of common pleas elected 29665
pursuant to this section also shall serve as judge of the probate 29666
division, except in Lorain county in which the judges of the 29667
domestic relations division of the Lorain county court of common 29668
pleas elected pursuant to this section also shall perform the 29669
duties and functions of the judge of the probate division from 29670
February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, and except in Morrow 29671
county in which the judges of the court of common pleas elected 29672
pursuant to this section also shall perform the duties and 29673
functions of the judge of the probate division.29674

       Sec. 2301.03.  (A) In Franklin county, the judges of the 29675
court of common pleas whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, 29676
January 2, 1953, January 5, 1969, January 5, 1977, and January 2, 29677
1997, and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise 29678
the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 29679
compensation as other judges of the court of common pleas of 29680
Franklin county and shall be elected and designated as judges of 29681
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. They 29682
shall have all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all 29683
cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all 29684
parentage proceedings under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code over 29685
which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and all divorce, 29686
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 29687
shall be assigned to them. In addition to the judge's regular 29688
duties, the judge who is senior in point of service shall serve on 29689
the children services board and the county advisory board and 29690
shall be the administrator of the domestic relations division and 29691
its subdivisions and departments.29692

       (B) In Hamilton county:29693

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas, whose term begins 29694
on January 1, 1957, and successors, and the judge of the court of 29695
common pleas, whose term begins on February 14, 1967, and 29696
successors, shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 29697
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and 29698
jurisdiction conferred by those chapters.29699

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29700
on January 5, 1957, January 16, 1981, and July 1, 1991, and 29701
successors, shall be elected and designated as judges of the court 29702
of common pleas, division of domestic relations, and shall have 29703
assigned to them all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29704
separation, and annulment cases coming before the court. On or 29705
after the first day of July and before the first day of August of 29706
1991 and each year thereafter, a majority of the judges of the 29707
division of domestic relations shall elect one of the judges of 29708
the division as administrative judge of that division. If a 29709
majority of the judges of the division of domestic relations are 29710
unable for any reason to elect an administrative judge for the 29711
division before the first day of August, a majority of the judges 29712
of the Hamilton county court of common pleas, as soon as possible 29713
after that date, shall elect one of the judges of the division of 29714
domestic relations as administrative judge of that division. The 29715
term of the administrative judge shall begin on the earlier of the 29716
first day of August of the year in which the administrative judge 29717
is elected or the date on which the administrative judge is 29718
elected by a majority of the judges of the Hamilton county court 29719
of common pleas and shall terminate on the date on which the 29720
administrative judge's successor is elected in the following year.29721

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the administrative 29722
judge of the division of domestic relations shall be the 29723
administrator of the domestic relations division and its 29724
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29725
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29726
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 29727
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 29728
including any referees considered necessary by the judges in the 29729
discharge of their various duties.29730

       The administrative judge of the division of domestic 29731
relations also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 29732
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 29733
personnel of the division, and shall fix the duties of its 29734
personnel. The duties of the personnel, in addition to those 29735
provided for in other sections of the Revised Code, shall include 29736
the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution 29737
of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and counseling 29738
and conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29739
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29740
action pending in the division.29741

       The board of county commissioners shall appropriate the sum 29742
of money each year as will meet all the administrative expenses of 29743
the division of domestic relations, including reasonable expenses 29744
of the domestic relations judges and the division counselors and 29745
other employees designated to conduct the handling, servicing, and 29746
investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29747
separation, and annulment cases, conciliation and counseling, and 29748
all matters relating to those cases and counseling, and the 29749
expenses involved in the attendance of division personnel at 29750
domestic relations and welfare conferences designated by the 29751
division, and the further sum each year as will provide for the 29752
adequate operation of the division of domestic relations.29753

       The compensation and expenses of all employees and the salary 29754
and expenses of the judges shall be paid by the county treasurer 29755
from the money appropriated for the operation of the division, 29756
upon the warrant of the county auditor, certified to by the 29757
administrative judge of the division of domestic relations.29758

       The summonses, warrants, citations, subpoenas, and other 29759
writs of the division may issue to a bailiff, constable, or staff 29760
investigator of the division or to the sheriff of any county or 29761
any marshal, constable, or police officer, and the provisions of 29762
law relating to the subpoenaing of witnesses in other cases shall 29763
apply insofar as they are applicable. When a summons, warrant, 29764
citation, subpoena, or other writ is issued to an officer, other 29765
than a bailiff, constable, or staff investigator of the division, 29766
the expense of serving it shall be assessed as a part of the costs 29767
in the case involved.29768

       (3) The judge of the court of common pleas of Hamilton county 29769
whose term begins on January 3, 1997, and the successors to that 29770
judge shall each be elected and designated as the drug court judge 29771
of the court of common pleas of Hamilton county. The drug court 29772
judge may accept or reject any case referred to the drug court 29773
judge under division (B)(3) of this section. After the drug court 29774
judge accepts a referred case, the drug court judge has full 29775
authority over the case, including the authority to conduct 29776
arraignment, accept pleas, enter findings and dispositions, 29777
conduct trials, order treatment, and if treatment is not 29778
successfully completed pronounce and enter sentence.29779

       A judge of the general division of the court of common pleas 29780
of Hamilton county and a judge of the Hamilton county municipal 29781
court may refer to the drug court judge any case, and any 29782
companion cases, the judge determines meet the criteria described 29783
under divisions (B)(3)(a) and (b) of this section. If the drug 29784
court judge accepts referral of a referred case, the case, and any 29785
companion cases, shall be transferred to the drug court judge. A 29786
judge may refer a case meeting the criteria described in divisions 29787
(B)(3)(a) and (b) of this section that involves a violation of a 29788
condition of a community control sanction to the drug court judge, 29789
and, if the drug court judge accepts the referral, the referring 29790
judge and the drug court judge have concurrent jurisdiction over 29791
the case.29792

       A judge of the general division of the court of common pleas 29793
of Hamilton county and a judge of the Hamilton county municipal 29794
court may refer a case to the drug court judge under division 29795
(B)(3) of this section if the judge determines that both of the 29796
following apply:29797

       (a) One of the following applies:29798

       (i) The case involves a drug abuse offense, as defined in 29799
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, that is a felony of the third 29800
or fourth degree if the offense is committed prior to July 1, 29801
1996, a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree if the 29802
offense is committed on or after July 1, 1996, or a misdemeanor.29803

       (ii) The case involves a theft offense, as defined in section 29804
2913.01 of the Revised Code, that is a felony of the third or 29805
fourth degree if the offense is committed prior to July 1, 1996, a 29806
felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree if the offense is 29807
committed on or after July 1, 1996, or a misdemeanor, and the 29808
defendant is drug or alcohol dependent or in danger of becoming 29809
drug or alcohol dependent and would benefit from treatment.29810

       (b) All of the following apply:29811

       (i) The case involves an offense for which a community 29812
control sanction may be imposed or is a case in which a mandatory 29813
prison term or a mandatory jail term is not required to be 29814
imposed.29815

       (ii) The defendant has no history of violent behavior.29816

       (iii) The defendant has no history of mental illness.29817

       (iv) The defendant's current or past behavior, or both, is 29818
drug or alcohol driven.29819

       (v) The defendant demonstrates a sincere willingness to 29820
participate in a fifteen-month treatment process.29821

       (vi) The defendant has no acute health condition.29822

       (vii) If the defendant is incarcerated, the county prosecutor 29823
approves of the referral.29824

       (4) If the administrative judge of the court of common pleas 29825
of Hamilton county determines that the volume of cases pending 29826
before the drug court judge does not constitute a sufficient 29827
caseload for the drug court judge, the administrative judge, in 29828
accordance with the Rules of Superintendence for Courts of Common 29829
Pleas, shall assign individual cases to the drug court judge from 29830
the general docket of the court. If the assignments so occur, the 29831
administrative judge shall cease the assignments when the 29832
administrative judge determines that the volume of cases pending 29833
before the drug court judge constitutes a sufficient caseload for 29834
the drug court judge.29835

       (5) As used in division (B) of this section, "community 29836
control sanction," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory jail 29837
term" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised 29838
Code.29839

       (C)(1) In Lorain county:29840

       (a) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29841
on January 3, 1959, January 4, 1989, and January 2, 1999, and 29842
successors, and the judge of the court of common pleas whose term 29843
begins on February 9, 2009, shall have the same qualifications, 29844
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 29845
compensation as the other judges of the court of common pleas of 29846
Lorain county and shall be elected and designated as the judges of 29847
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. The 29848
judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin on January 29849
3, 1959, January 4, 1989, and January 2, 1999, and successors, 29850
shall have all of the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all 29851
cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all 29852
parentage proceedings over which the juvenile court has 29853
jurisdiction, and all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29854
separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned to them, except 29855
cases that for some special reason are assigned to some other 29856
judge of the court of common pleas. From February 9, 2009, through 29857
September 28, 2009, the judge of the court of common pleas whose 29858
term begins on February 9, 2009, shall have all the powers 29859
relating to juvenile courts, and cases under Chapters 2151. and 29860
2152. of the Revised Code, parentage proceedings over which the 29861
juvenile court has jurisdiction, and divorce, dissolution of 29862
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned 29863
to that judge, except cases that for some special reason are 29864
assigned to some other judge of the court of common pleas.29865

       (b) From January 1, 2006, through September 28, 2009, the 29866
judges of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29867
relations, in addition to the powers and jurisdiction set forth in 29868
division (C)(1)(a) of this section, shall have jurisdiction over 29869
matters that are within the jurisdiction of the probate court 29870
under Chapter 2101. and other provisions of the Revised Code. 29871

        (c) The judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29872
domestic relations, whose term begins on February 9, 2009, is the 29873
successor to the probate judge who was elected in 2002 for a term 29874
that began on February 9, 2003. After September 28, 2009, the 29875
judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29876
relations, whose term begins on February 9, 2009, shall be the 29877
probate judge.29878

        (2)(a) From February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, 29879
with respect to Lorain county, all references in law to the 29880
probate court shall be construed as references to the court of 29881
common pleas, division of domestic relations, and all references 29882
to the probate judge shall be construed as references to the 29883
judges of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29884
relations.29885

        (b) From February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, with 29886
respect to Lorain county, all references in law to the clerk of 29887
the probate court shall be construed as references to the judge 29888
who is serving pursuant to Rule 4 of the Rules of Superintendence 29889
for the Courts of Ohio as the administrative judge of the court of 29890
common pleas, division of domestic relations.29891

       (D) In Lucas county:29892

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29893
on January 1, 1955, and January 3, 1965, and successors, shall 29894
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29895
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29896
the court of common pleas of Lucas county and shall be elected and 29897
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 29898
domestic relations. All divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29899
separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned to them.29900

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 29901
point of service, shall be considered as the presiding judge of 29902
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, and 29903
shall be charged exclusively with the assignment and division of 29904
the work of the division and the employment and supervision of all 29905
other personnel of the domestic relations division.29906

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29907
on January 5, 1977, and January 2, 1991, and successors shall have 29908
the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29909
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29910
the court of common pleas of Lucas county, shall be elected and 29911
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 29912
division, and shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 29913
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the powers and 29914
jurisdictions conferred by those chapters. In addition to the 29915
judge's regular duties, the judge of the court of common pleas, 29916
juvenile division, senior in point of service, shall be the 29917
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 29918
departments and shall have charge of the employment, assignment, 29919
and supervision of the personnel of the division engaged in 29920
handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including 29921
any referees considered necessary by the judges of the division in 29922
the discharge of their various duties.29923

       The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, 29924
senior in point of service, also shall designate the title, 29925
compensation, expense allowance, hours, leaves of absence, and 29926
vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix the duties 29927
of the personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 29928
addition to other statutory duties include the handling, 29929
servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and counseling and 29930
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29931
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29932
action pending in the division.29933

       (3) If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, 29934
division of domestic relations, or one of the judges of the 29935
juvenile division is sick, absent, or unable to perform that 29936
judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in that 29937
judge's division necessitates it, the duties shall be performed by 29938
the judges of the other of those divisions.29939

       (E) In Mahoning county:29940

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term began 29941
on January 1, 1955, and successors, shall have the same 29942
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29943
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 29944
common pleas of Mahoning county, shall be elected and designated 29945
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29946
relations, and shall be assigned all the divorce, dissolution of 29947
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 29948
court. In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 29949
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, shall be 29950
the administrator of the domestic relations division and its 29951
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29952
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29953
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 29954
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 29955
including any referees considered necessary in the discharge of 29956
the various duties of the judge's office.29957

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 29958
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 29959
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 29960
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 29961
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 29962
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 29963
legal separation, and annulment cases and counseling and 29964
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29965
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29966
action pending in the division.29967

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term began 29968
on January 2, 1969, and successors, shall have the same 29969
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29970
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 29971
common pleas of Mahoning county, shall be elected and designated 29972
as judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and 29973
shall be the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 29974
2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and jurisdictions 29975
conferred by those chapters. In addition to the judge's regular 29976
duties, the judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, 29977
shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and its 29978
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29979
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29980
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile 29981
cases, including any referees considered necessary by the judge in 29982
the discharge of the judge's various duties.29983

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 29984
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 29985
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 29986
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 29987
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 29988
servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and counseling and 29989
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29990
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29991
action pending in the division.29992

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29993
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 29994
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties, or the volume of 29995
cases pending in that judge's division necessitates it, that 29996
judge's duties shall be performed by another judge of the court of 29997
common pleas.29998

       (F) In Montgomery county:29999

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 30000
on January 2, 1953, and January 4, 1977, and successors, shall 30001
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30002
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30003
the court of common pleas of Montgomery county and shall be 30004
elected and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, 30005
division of domestic relations. These judges shall have assigned 30006
to them all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, 30007
and annulment cases.30008

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 30009
point of service, shall be charged exclusively with the assignment 30010
and division of the work of the division and shall have charge of 30011
the employment and supervision of the personnel of the division 30012
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 30013
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 30014
including any necessary referees, except those employees who may 30015
be appointed by the judge, junior in point of service, under this 30016
section and sections 2301.12 and 2301.18 of the Revised Code. The 30017
judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in point of 30018
service, also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30019
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 30020
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties.30021

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 30022
on January 1, 1953, and January 1, 1993, and successors, shall 30023
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30024
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30025
the court of common pleas of Montgomery county, shall be elected 30026
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 30027
division, and shall be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, 30028
the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the 30029
Revised Code.30030

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 30031
court of common pleas, juvenile division, senior in point of 30032
service, shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and 30033
its subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 30034
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 30035
juvenile division, including any necessary referees, who are 30036
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases. 30037
The judge, senior in point of service, also shall designate the 30038
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 30039
and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 30040
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 30041
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 30042
investigation of juvenile cases and of any counseling and 30043
conciliation services that are available upon request to persons, 30044
whether or not they are parties to an action pending in the 30045
division.30046

       If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, division 30047
of domestic relations, or one of the judges of the court of common 30048
pleas, juvenile division, is sick, absent, or unable to perform 30049
that judge's duties or the volume of cases pending in that judge's 30050
division necessitates it, the duties of that judge may be 30051
performed by the judge or judges of the other of those divisions.30052

       (G) In Richland county:30053

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30054
on January 1, 1957, and successors, shall have the same 30055
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30056
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 30057
common pleas of Richland county and shall be elected and 30058
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30059
domestic relations. That judge shall be assigned and hear all 30060
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30061
cases, all domestic violence cases arising under section 3113.31 30062
of the Revised Code, and all post-decree proceedings arising from 30063
any case pertaining to any of those matters. The division of 30064
domestic relations has concurrent jurisdiction with the juvenile 30065
division of the court of common pleas of Richland county to 30066
determine the care, custody, or control of any child not a ward of 30067
another court of this state, and to hear and determine a request 30068
for an order for the support of any child if the request is not 30069
ancillary to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, 30070
annulment, or legal separation, a criminal or civil action 30071
involving an allegation of domestic violence, or an action for 30072
support brought under Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code. Except in 30073
cases that are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of 30074
the juvenile court, the judge of the division of domestic 30075
relations shall be assigned and hear all cases pertaining to 30076
paternity or parentage, the care, custody, or control of children, 30077
parenting time or visitation, child support, or the allocation of 30078
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, all 30079
proceedings arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all 30080
proceedings arising under the uniform interstate family support 30081
act contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, and all 30082
post-decree proceedings arising from any case pertaining to any of 30083
those matters.30084

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 30085
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, shall be 30086
the administrator of the domestic relations division and its 30087
subdivisions and departments. The judge shall have charge of the 30088
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 30089
domestic relations division, including any magistrates the judge 30090
considers necessary for the discharge of the judge's duties. The 30091
judge shall also designate the title, compensation, expense 30092
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, vacation, and other 30093
employment-related matters of the personnel of the division and 30094
shall fix their duties.30095

        (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30096
on January 3, 2005, and successors, shall have the same 30097
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30098
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 30099
common pleas of Richland county, shall be elected and designated 30100
as judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and 30101
shall be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, the juvenile 30102
judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code. 30103
Except in cases that are subject to the exclusive original 30104
jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the judge of the juvenile 30105
division shall not have jurisdiction or the power to hear, and 30106
shall not be assigned, any case pertaining to paternity or 30107
parentage, the care, custody, or control of children, parenting 30108
time or visitation, child support, or the allocation of parental 30109
rights and responsibilities for the care of children or any 30110
post-decree proceeding arising from any case pertaining to any of 30111
those matters. The judge of the juvenile division shall not have 30112
jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be assigned, any 30113
proceeding under the uniform interstate family support act 30114
contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code.30115

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 30116
juvenile division shall be the administrator of the juvenile 30117
division and its subdivisions and departments. The judge shall 30118
have charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 30119
personnel of the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, 30120
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including any 30121
magistrates whom the judge considers necessary for the discharge 30122
of the judge's various duties.30123

       The judge of the juvenile division also shall designate the 30124
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 30125
and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 30126
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 30127
statutory duties, include the handling, servicing, and 30128
investigation of juvenile cases and providing any counseling, 30129
conciliation, and mediation services that the court makes 30130
available to persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an 30131
action pending in the court, who request the services.30132

       (H) In Stark county, the judges of the court of common pleas 30133
whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, January 2, 1959, and January 30134
1, 1993, and successors, shall have the same qualifications, 30135
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 30136
compensation as other judges of the court of common pleas of Stark 30137
county and shall be elected and designated as judges of the court 30138
of common pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have 30139
all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under 30140
Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage 30141
proceedings over which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and 30142
all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and 30143
annulment cases, except cases that are assigned to some other 30144
judge of the court of common pleas for some special reason, shall 30145
be assigned to the judges.30146

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, second most 30147
senior in point of service, shall have charge of the employment 30148
and supervision of the personnel of the division engaged in 30149
handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, dissolution of 30150
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, and necessary 30151
referees required for the judge's respective court.30152

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 30153
point of service, shall be charged exclusively with the 30154
administration of sections 2151.13, 2151.16, 2151.17, and 2152.71 30155
of the Revised Code and with the assignment and division of the 30156
work of the division and the employment and supervision of all 30157
other personnel of the division, including, but not limited to, 30158
that judge's necessary referees, but excepting those employees who 30159
may be appointed by the judge second most senior in point of 30160
service. The senior judge further shall serve in every other 30161
position in which the statutes permit or require a juvenile judge 30162
to serve.30163

       (I) In Summit county:30164

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 30165
on January 4, 1967, and January 6, 1993, and successors, shall 30166
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30167
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30168
the court of common pleas of Summit county and shall be elected 30169
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 30170
domestic relations. The judges of the division of domestic 30171
relations shall have assigned to them and hear all divorce, 30172
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 30173
that come before the court. Except in cases that are subject to 30174
the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the 30175
judges of the division of domestic relations shall have assigned 30176
to them and hear all cases pertaining to paternity, custody, 30177
visitation, child support, or the allocation of parental rights 30178
and responsibilities for the care of children and all post-decree 30179
proceedings arising from any case pertaining to any of those 30180
matters. The judges of the division of domestic relations shall 30181
have assigned to them and hear all proceedings under the uniform 30182
interstate family support act contained in Chapter 3115. of the 30183
Revised Code.30184

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 30185
point of service, shall be the administrator of the domestic 30186
relations division and its subdivisions and departments and shall 30187
have charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 30188
personnel of the division, including any necessary referees, who 30189
are engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 30190
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases. 30191
That judge also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30192
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30193
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30194
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30195
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30196
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30197
of any counseling and conciliation services that are available 30198
upon request to all persons, whether or not they are parties to an 30199
action pending in the division.30200

       (2) The judgejudges of the court of common pleas whose term 30201
beginsterms begin on January 1, 1955, and January 1, 2015, and 30202
successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 30203
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 30204
other judges of the court of common pleas of Summit county, shall 30205
be elected and designated as judgejudges of the court of common 30206
pleas, juvenile division, and shall be, and have the powers and 30207
jurisdiction of, the juvenile judgejudges as provided in Chapters 30208
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code. Except in cases that are 30209
subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile 30210
court, the judgejudges of the juvenile division shall not have 30211
jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be assigned, any 30212
case pertaining to paternity, custody, visitation, child support, 30213
or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the 30214
care of children or any post-decree proceeding arising from any 30215
case pertaining to any of those matters. The judgejudges of the 30216
juvenile division shall not have jurisdiction or the power to 30217
hear, and shall not be assigned, any proceeding under the uniform 30218
interstate family support act contained in Chapter 3115. of the 30219
Revised Code.30220

       The juvenile judge, senior in point of service, shall be the 30221
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 30222
departments and shall have charge of the employment, assignment, 30223
and supervision of the personnel of the juvenile division, 30224
including any necessary referees, who are engaged in handling, 30225
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases. The judge senior in 30226
point of service also shall designate the title, compensation, 30227
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 30228
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30229
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30230
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile 30231
cases and of any counseling and conciliation services that are 30232
available upon request to persons, whether or not they are parties 30233
to an action pending in the division.30234

       (J) In Trumbull county, the judges of the court of common 30235
pleas whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1977, 30236
and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the 30237
same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 30238
other judges of the court of common pleas of Trumbull county and 30239
shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of common 30240
pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have all the 30241
powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 30242
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage proceedings 30243
over which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and all divorce, 30244
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 30245
shall be assigned to them, except cases that for some special 30246
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 30247
pleas.30248

       (K) In Butler county:30249

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 30250
on January 1, 1957, and January 4, 1993, and successors, shall 30251
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30252
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30253
the court of common pleas of Butler county and shall be elected 30254
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 30255
domestic relations. The judges of the division of domestic 30256
relations shall have assigned to them all divorce, dissolution of 30257
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 30258
court, except in cases that for some special reason are assigned 30259
to some other judge of the court of common pleas. The judges of 30260
the division of domestic relations also have concurrent 30261
jurisdiction with judges of the juvenile division of the court of 30262
common pleas of Butler county with respect to and may hear cases 30263
to determine the custody, support, or custody and support of a 30264
child who is born of issue of a marriage and who is not the ward 30265
of another court of this state, cases commenced by a party of the 30266
marriage to obtain an order requiring support of any child when 30267
the request for that order is not ancillary to an action for 30268
divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, 30269
a criminal or civil action involving an allegation of domestic 30270
violence, an action for support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised 30271
Code, or an action that is within the exclusive original 30272
jurisdiction of the juvenile division of the court of common pleas 30273
of Butler county and that involves an allegation that the child is 30274
an abused, neglected, or dependent child, and post-decree 30275
proceedings and matters arising from those types of cases. The 30276
judge senior in point of service shall be charged with the 30277
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 30278
employment and supervision of all other personnel of the domestic 30279
relations division.30280

       The judge senior in point of service also shall designate the 30281
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 30282
and vacations of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 30283
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 30284
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 30285
investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30286
separation, and annulment cases and providing any counseling and 30287
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30288
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30289
pending in the division, who request the services.30290

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 30291
on January 3, 1987, and January 2, 2003, and successors, shall 30292
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30293
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30294
the court of common pleas of Butler county, shall be elected and 30295
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 30296
division, and shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 30297
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and 30298
jurisdictions conferred by those chapters. Except in cases that 30299
are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile 30300
court, the judges of the juvenile division shall not have 30301
jurisdiction or the power to hear and shall not be assigned, but 30302
shall have the limited ability and authority to certify, any case 30303
commenced by a party of a marriage to determine the custody, 30304
support, or custody and support of a child who is born of issue of 30305
the marriage and who is not the ward of another court of this 30306
state when the request for the order in the case is not ancillary 30307
to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, or 30308
legal separation. The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile 30309
division, who is senior in point of service, shall be the 30310
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 30311
departments. The judge, senior in point of service, shall have 30312
charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 30313
personnel of the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, 30314
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including any referees 30315
whom the judge considers necessary for the discharge of the 30316
judge's various duties.30317

       The judge, senior in point of service, also shall designate 30318
the title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of 30319
absence, and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall 30320
fix their duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to 30321
other statutory duties, include the handling, servicing, and 30322
investigation of juvenile cases and providing any counseling and 30323
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30324
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30325
pending in the division, who request the services.30326

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30327
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 30328
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties or the volume of 30329
cases pending in the judge's division necessitates it, the duties 30330
of that judge shall be performed by the other judges of the 30331
domestic relations and juvenile divisions.30332

       (L)(1) In Cuyahoga county, the judges of the court of common 30333
pleas whose terms begin on January 8, 1961, January 9, 1961, 30334
January 18, 1975, January 19, 1975, and January 13, 1987, and 30335
successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 30336
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 30337
other judges of the court of common pleas of Cuyahoga county and 30338
shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of common 30339
pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have all the 30340
powers relating to all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30341
separation, and annulment cases, except in cases that are assigned 30342
to some other judge of the court of common pleas for some special 30343
reason.30344

       (2) The administrative judge is administrator of the domestic 30345
relations division and its subdivisions and departments and has 30346
the following powers concerning division personnel:30347

       (a) Full charge of the employment, assignment, and 30348
supervision;30349

       (b) Sole determination of compensation, duties, expenses, 30350
allowances, hours, leaves, and vacations.30351

       (3) "Division personnel" include persons employed or referees 30352
engaged in hearing, servicing, investigating, counseling, or 30353
conciliating divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation 30354
and annulment matters.30355

       (M) In Lake county:30356

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30357
on January 2, 1961, and successors, shall have the same 30358
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30359
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 30360
common pleas of Lake county and shall be elected and designated as 30361
judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30362
relations. The judge shall be assigned all the divorce, 30363
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 30364
coming before the court, except in cases that for some special 30365
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 30366
pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 30367
of the work of the division and with the employment and 30368
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30369
division.30370

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30371
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30372
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30373
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30374
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30375
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30376
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30377
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30378
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30379
services.30380

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30381
on January 4, 1979, and successors, shall have the same 30382
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30383
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 30384
common pleas of Lake county, shall be elected and designated as 30385
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and shall 30386
be the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 30387
the Revised Code, with the powers and jurisdictions conferred by 30388
those chapters. The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile 30389
division, shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and 30390
its subdivisions and departments. The judge shall have charge of 30391
the employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of 30392
the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, servicing, or 30393
investigating juvenile cases, including any referees whom the 30394
judge considers necessary for the discharge of the judge's various 30395
duties.30396

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30397
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 30398
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30399
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, include 30400
the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and 30401
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30402
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30403
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30404
services.30405

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30406
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 30407
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties or the volume of 30408
cases pending in the judge's division necessitates it, the duties 30409
of that judge shall be performed by the other judges of the 30410
domestic relations and juvenile divisions.30411

       (N) In Erie county:30412

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30413
on January 2, 1971, and the successors to that judge whose terms 30414
begin before January 2, 2007, shall have the same qualifications, 30415
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 30416
compensation as the other judge of the court of common pleas of 30417
Erie county and shall be elected and designated as judge of the 30418
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. The judge 30419
shall have all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and shall 30420
be assigned all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the 30421
Revised Code, parentage proceedings over which the juvenile court 30422
has jurisdiction, and divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30423
separation, and annulment cases, except cases that for some 30424
special reason are assigned to some other judge.30425

        On or after January 2, 2007, the judge of the court of common 30426
pleas who is elected in 2006 shall be the successor to the judge 30427
of the domestic relations division whose term expires on January 30428
1, 2007, shall be designated as judge of the court of common 30429
pleas, juvenile division, and shall be the juvenile judge as 30430
provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the 30431
powers and jurisdictions conferred by those chapters.30432

        (2) The judge of the court of common pleas, general division, 30433
whose term begins on January 1, 2005, and successors, the judge of 30434
the court of common pleas, general division whose term begins on 30435
January 2, 2005, and successors, and the judge of the court of 30436
common pleas, general division, whose term begins February 9, 30437
2009, and successors, shall have assigned to them, in addition to 30438
all matters that are within the jurisdiction of the general 30439
division of the court of common pleas, all divorce, dissolution of 30440
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 30441
court, and all matters that are within the jurisdiction of the 30442
probate court under Chapter 2101., and other provisions, of the 30443
Revised Code.30444

       (O) In Greene county:30445

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30446
on January 1, 1961, and successors, shall have the same 30447
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30448
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 30449
common pleas of Greene county and shall be elected and designated 30450
as the judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30451
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30452
marriage, legal separation, annulment, uniform reciprocal support 30453
enforcement, and domestic violence cases and all other cases 30454
related to domestic relations, except cases that for some special 30455
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 30456
pleas.30457

       The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 30458
of the work of the division and with the employment and 30459
supervision of all other personnel of the division. The judge also 30460
shall designate the title, compensation, hours, leaves of absence, 30461
and vacations of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 30462
duties. The duties of the personnel of the division, in addition 30463
to other statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, 30464
and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30465
separation, and annulment cases and the provision of counseling 30466
and conciliation services that the division considers necessary 30467
and makes available to persons who request the services, whether 30468
or not the persons are parties in an action pending in the 30469
division. The compensation for the personnel shall be paid from 30470
the overall court budget and shall be included in the 30471
appropriations for the existing judges of the general division of 30472
the court of common pleas.30473

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30474
on January 1, 1995, and successors, shall have the same 30475
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30476
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 30477
common pleas of Greene county, shall be elected and designated as 30478
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and, on or 30479
after January 1, 1995, shall be the juvenile judge as provided in 30480
Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the powers and 30481
jurisdiction conferred by those chapters. The judge of the court 30482
of common pleas, juvenile division, shall be the administrator of 30483
the juvenile division and its subdivisions and departments. The 30484
judge shall have charge of the employment, assignment, and 30485
supervision of the personnel of the juvenile division who are 30486
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, 30487
including any referees whom the judge considers necessary for the 30488
discharge of the judge's various duties.30489

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30490
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 30491
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30492
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, include 30493
the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and 30494
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the court 30495
makes available to persons, whether or not the persons are parties 30496
to an action pending in the court, who request the services.30497

       (3) If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, 30498
general division, is sick, absent, or unable to perform that 30499
judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in the 30500
general division necessitates it, the duties of that judge of the 30501
general division shall be performed by the judge of the division 30502
of domestic relations and the judge of the juvenile division.30503

       (P) In Portage county, the judge of the court of common 30504
pleas, whose term begins January 2, 1987, and successors, shall 30505
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30506
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30507
judges of the court of common pleas of Portage county and shall be 30508
elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 30509
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 30510
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30511
cases coming before the court, except in cases that for some 30512
special reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of 30513
common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and 30514
division of the work of the division and with the employment and 30515
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30516
division.30517

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30518
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30519
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30520
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30521
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30522
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30523
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30524
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30525
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30526
services.30527

       (Q) In Clermont county, the judge of the court of common 30528
pleas, whose term begins January 2, 1987, and successors, shall 30529
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30530
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30531
judges of the court of common pleas of Clermont county and shall 30532
be elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 30533
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 30534
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30535
cases coming before the court, except in cases that for some 30536
special reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of 30537
common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and 30538
division of the work of the division and with the employment and 30539
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30540
division.30541

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30542
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30543
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30544
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30545
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30546
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30547
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30548
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30549
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30550
services.30551

       (R) In Warren county, the judge of the court of common pleas, 30552
whose term begins January 1, 1987, and successors, shall have the 30553
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30554
and receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court 30555
of common pleas of Warren county and shall be elected and 30556
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30557
domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, 30558
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 30559
coming before the court, except in cases that for some special 30560
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 30561
pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 30562
of the work of the division and with the employment and 30563
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30564
division.30565

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30566
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30567
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30568
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30569
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30570
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30571
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30572
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30573
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30574
services.30575

       (S) In Licking county, the judges of the court of common 30576
pleas, whose terms begin on January 1, 1991, and January 1, 2005, 30577
and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the 30578
same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 30579
the other judges of the court of common pleas of Licking county 30580
and shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of 30581
common pleas, division of domestic relations. The judges shall be 30582
assigned all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, 30583
and annulment cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30584
Revised Code, all proceedings involving child support, the 30585
allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of 30586
children and the designation for the children of a place of 30587
residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and 30588
all post-decree proceedings and matters arising from those cases 30589
and proceedings, except in cases that for some special reason are 30590
assigned to another judge of the court of common pleas. The 30591
administrative judge of the division of domestic relations shall 30592
be charged with the assignment and division of the work of the 30593
division and with the employment and supervision of the personnel 30594
of the division.30595

       The administrative judge of the division of domestic 30596
relations shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30597
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30598
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30599
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30600
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30601
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30602
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30603
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30604
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30605
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30606
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30607
parenting time, and visitation and providing any counseling and 30608
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30609
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30610
pending in the division, who request the services.30611

       (T) In Allen county, the judge of the court of common pleas, 30612
whose term begins January 1, 1993, and successors, shall have the 30613
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30614
and receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court 30615
of common pleas of Allen county and shall be elected and 30616
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30617
domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, 30618
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 30619
all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all 30620
proceedings involving child support, the allocation of parental 30621
rights and responsibilities for the care of children and the 30622
designation for the children of a place of residence and legal 30623
custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree 30624
proceedings and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, 30625
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to 30626
another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge shall be 30627
charged with the assignment and division of the work of the 30628
division and with the employment and supervision of the personnel 30629
of the division.30630

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30631
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30632
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30633
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30634
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30635
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30636
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30637
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30638
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30639
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30640
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30641
parenting time, and visitation, and providing any counseling and 30642
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30643
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30644
pending in the division, who request the services.30645

       (U) In Medina county, the judge of the court of common pleas 30646
whose term begins January 1, 1995, and successors, shall have the 30647
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30648
and receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 30649
common pleas of Medina county and shall be elected and designated 30650
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30651
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30652
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all cases arising 30653
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all proceedings involving 30654
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30655
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30656
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30657
parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree proceedings 30658
and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, except in 30659
cases that for some special reason are assigned to another judge 30660
of the court of common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the 30661
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 30662
employment and supervision of the personnel of the division.30663

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30664
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30665
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30666
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 30667
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 30668
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 30669
legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising under Chapter 30670
3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving child 30671
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30672
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30673
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30674
visitation, and providing counseling and conciliation services 30675
that the division makes available to persons, whether or not the 30676
persons are parties to an action pending in the division, who 30677
request the services.30678

       (V) In Fairfield county, the judge of the court of common 30679
pleas whose term begins January 2, 1995, and successors, shall 30680
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30681
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30682
judges of the court of common pleas of Fairfield county and shall 30683
be elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 30684
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 30685
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30686
cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, 30687
all proceedings involving child support, the allocation of 30688
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children and 30689
the designation for the children of a place of residence and legal 30690
custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree 30691
proceedings and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, 30692
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to 30693
another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge also has 30694
concurrent jurisdiction with the probate-juvenile division of the 30695
court of common pleas of Fairfield county with respect to and may 30696
hear cases to determine the custody of a child, as defined in 30697
section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, who is not the ward of 30698
another court of this state, cases that are commenced by a parent, 30699
guardian, or custodian of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 30700
of the Revised Code, to obtain an order requiring a parent of the 30701
child to pay child support for that child when the request for 30702
that order is not ancillary to an action for divorce, dissolution 30703
of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, a criminal or civil 30704
action involving an allegation of domestic violence, an action for 30705
support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, or an action that 30706
is within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the 30707
probate-juvenile division of the court of common pleas of 30708
Fairfield county and that involves an allegation that the child is 30709
an abused, neglected, or dependent child, and post-decree 30710
proceedings and matters arising from those types of cases.30711

       The judge of the domestic relations division shall be charged 30712
with the assignment and division of the work of the division and 30713
with the employment and supervision of the personnel of the 30714
division.30715

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30716
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30717
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30718
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30719
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30720
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30721
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30722
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30723
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30724
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30725
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30726
parenting time, and visitation, and providing any counseling and 30727
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30728
persons, regardless of whether the persons are parties to an 30729
action pending in the division, who request the services. When the 30730
judge hears a case to determine the custody of a child, as defined 30731
in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, who is not the ward of 30732
another court of this state or a case that is commenced by a 30733
parent, guardian, or custodian of a child, as defined in section 30734
2151.011 of the Revised Code, to obtain an order requiring a 30735
parent of the child to pay child support for that child when the 30736
request for that order is not ancillary to an action for divorce, 30737
dissolution of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, a 30738
criminal or civil action involving an allegation of domestic 30739
violence, an action for support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised 30740
Code, or an action that is within the exclusive original 30741
jurisdiction of the probate-juvenile division of the court of 30742
common pleas of Fairfield county and that involves an allegation 30743
that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent child, the 30744
duties of the personnel of the domestic relations division also 30745
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of those types 30746
of cases.30747

       (W)(1) In Clark county, the judge of the court of common 30748
pleas whose term begins on January 2, 1995, and successors, shall 30749
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30750
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30751
the court of common pleas of Clark county and shall be elected and 30752
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, domestic 30753
relations division. The judge shall have all the powers relating 30754
to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. 30755
of the Revised Code and all parentage proceedings under Chapter 30756
3111. of the Revised Code over which the juvenile court has 30757
jurisdiction shall be assigned to the judge of the division of 30758
domestic relations. All divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30759
separation, annulment, uniform reciprocal support enforcement, and 30760
other cases related to domestic relations shall be assigned to the 30761
domestic relations division, and the presiding judge of the court 30762
of common pleas shall assign the cases to the judge of the 30763
domestic relations division and the judges of the general 30764
division.30765

       (2) In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of 30766
the division of domestic relations shall serve on the children 30767
services board and the county advisory board.30768

       (3) If the judge of the court of common pleas of Clark 30769
county, division of domestic relations, is sick, absent, or unable 30770
to perform that judge's judicial duties or if the presiding judge 30771
of the court of common pleas of Clark county determines that the 30772
volume of cases pending in the division of domestic relations 30773
necessitates it, the duties of the judge of the division of 30774
domestic relations shall be performed by the judges of the general 30775
division or probate division of the court of common pleas of Clark 30776
county, as assigned for that purpose by the presiding judge of 30777
that court, and the judges so assigned shall act in conjunction 30778
with the judge of the division of domestic relations of that 30779
court.30780

       (X) In Scioto county, the judge of the court of common pleas 30781
whose term begins January 2, 1995, and successors, shall have the 30782
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30783
and receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 30784
common pleas of Scioto county and shall be elected and designated 30785
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30786
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30787
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all cases arising 30788
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all proceedings involving 30789
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30790
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30791
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30792
parenting time, visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and 30793
matters arising from those cases and proceedings, except in cases 30794
that for some special reason are assigned to another judge of the 30795
court of common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the 30796
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 30797
employment and supervision of the personnel of the division.30798

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30799
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30800
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30801
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 30802
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 30803
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 30804
legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising under Chapter 30805
3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving child 30806
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30807
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30808
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30809
visitation, and providing counseling and conciliation services 30810
that the division makes available to persons, whether or not the 30811
persons are parties to an action pending in the division, who 30812
request the services.30813

       (Y) In Auglaize county, the judge of the probate and juvenile 30814
divisions of the Auglaize county court of common pleas also shall 30815
be the administrative judge of the domestic relations division of 30816
the court and shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30817
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 30818
court. The judge shall have all powers as administrator of the 30819
domestic relations division and shall have charge of the personnel 30820
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 30821
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 30822
including any referees considered necessary for the discharge of 30823
the judge's various duties.30824

       (Z)(1) In Marion county, the judge of the court of common 30825
pleas whose term begins on February 9, 1999, and the successors to 30826
that judge, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 30827
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the 30828
other judges of the court of common pleas of Marion county and 30829
shall be elected and designated as judge of the court of common 30830
pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division. Except as 30831
otherwise specified in this division, that judge, and the 30832
successors to that judge, shall have all the powers relating to 30833
juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 30834
the Revised Code, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30835
Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30836
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 30837
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30838
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30839
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30840
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 30841
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge 30842
and the successors to that judge. Except as provided in division 30843
(Z)(2) of this section and notwithstanding any other provision of 30844
any section of the Revised Code, on and after February 9, 2003, 30845
the judge of the court of common pleas of Marion county whose term 30846
begins on February 9, 1999, and the successors to that judge, 30847
shall have all the powers relating to the probate division of the 30848
court of common pleas of Marion county in addition to the powers 30849
previously specified in this division, and shall exercise 30850
concurrent jurisdiction with the judge of the probate division of 30851
that court over all matters that are within the jurisdiction of 30852
the probate division of that court under Chapter 2101., and other 30853
provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to the jurisdiction of 30854
the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division of that court 30855
otherwise specified in division (Z)(1) of this section.30856

       (2) The judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30857
division of the court of common pleas of Marion county or the 30858
judge of the probate division of the court of common pleas of 30859
Marion county, whichever of those judges is senior in total length 30860
of service on the court of common pleas of Marion county, 30861
regardless of the division or divisions of service, shall serve as 30862
the clerk of the probate division of the court of common pleas of 30863
Marion county.30864

       (3) On and after February 9, 2003, all references in law to 30865
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 30866
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed, with respect 30867
to Marion county, as being references to both "the probate 30868
division" and "the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division" 30869
and as being references to both "the judge of the probate 30870
division" and "the judge of the domestic relations- 30871
juvenile-probate division." On and after February 9, 2003, all 30872
references in law to "the clerk of the probate court" shall be 30873
construed, with respect to Marion county, as being references to 30874
the judge who is serving pursuant to division (Z)(2) of this 30875
section as the clerk of the probate division of the court of 30876
common pleas of Marion county.30877

       (AA) In Muskingum county, the judge of the court of common 30878
pleas whose term begins on January 2, 2003, and successors, shall 30879
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30880
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30881
judges of the court of common pleas of Muskingum county and shall 30882
be elected and designated as the judge of the court of common 30883
pleas, division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned 30884
all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and 30885
annulment cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30886
Revised Code, all proceedings involving child support, the 30887
allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of 30888
children and the designation for the children of a place of 30889
residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and 30890
all post-decree proceedings and matters arising from those cases 30891
and proceedings, except in cases that for some special reason are 30892
assigned to another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge 30893
shall be charged with the assignment and division of the work of 30894
the division and with the employment and supervision of the 30895
personnel of the division.30896

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30897
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30898
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30899
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30900
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30901
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30902
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30903
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30904
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30905
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30906
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30907
parenting time, and visitation and providing any counseling and 30908
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30909
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30910
pending in the division, who request the services.30911

       (BB) In Henry county, the judge of the court of common pleas 30912
whose term begins on January 1, 2005, and successors, shall have 30913
the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30914
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other judge 30915
of the court of common pleas of Henry county and shall be elected 30916
and designated as the judge of the court of common pleas, division 30917
of domestic relations. The judge shall have all of the powers 30918
relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapter 2151. or 30919
2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage proceedings arising under 30920
Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code over which the juvenile court 30921
has jurisdiction, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30922
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 30923
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30924
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30925
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30926
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 30927
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge, 30928
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to the 30929
other judge of the court of common pleas.30930

       (CC)(1) In Logan county, the judge of the court of common 30931
pleas whose term begins January 2, 2005, and the successors to 30932
that judge, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 30933
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the 30934
other judges of the court of common pleas of Logan county and 30935
shall be elected and designated as judge of the court of common 30936
pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division. Except as 30937
otherwise specified in this division, that judge, and the 30938
successors to that judge, shall have all the powers relating to 30939
juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 30940
the Revised Code, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30941
Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30942
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 30943
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30944
for the care of children and designation for the children of a 30945
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30946
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 30947
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge 30948
and the successors to that judge. Notwithstanding any other 30949
provision of any section of the Revised Code, on and after January 30950
2, 2005, the judge of the court of common pleas of Logan county 30951
whose term begins on January 2, 2005, and the successors to that 30952
judge, shall have all the powers relating to the probate division 30953
of the court of common pleas of Logan county in addition to the 30954
powers previously specified in this division and shall exercise 30955
concurrent jurisdiction with the judge of the probate division of 30956
that court over all matters that are within the jurisdiction of 30957
the probate division of that court under Chapter 2101., and other 30958
provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to the jurisdiction of 30959
the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division of that court 30960
otherwise specified in division (CC)(1) of this section.30961

        (2) The judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30962
division of the court of common pleas of Logan county or the 30963
probate judge of the court of common pleas of Logan county who is 30964
elected as the administrative judge of the probate division of the 30965
court of common pleas of Logan county pursuant to Rule 4 of the 30966
Rules of Superintendence shall be the clerk of the probate 30967
division and juvenile division of the court of common pleas of 30968
Logan county. The clerk of the court of common pleas who is 30969
elected pursuant to section 2303.01 of the Revised Code shall keep 30970
all of the journals, records, books, papers, and files pertaining 30971
to the domestic relations cases.30972

        (3) On and after January 2, 2005, all references in law to 30973
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 30974
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed, with respect 30975
to Logan county, as being references to both "the probate 30976
division" and the "domestic relations-juvenile-probate division" 30977
and as being references to both "the judge of the probate 30978
division" and the "judge of the domestic 30979
relations-juvenile-probate division." On and after January 2, 30980
2005, all references in law to "the clerk of the probate court" 30981
shall be construed, with respect to Logan county, as being 30982
references to the judge who is serving pursuant to division 30983
(CC)(2) of this section as the clerk of the probate division of 30984
the court of common pleas of Logan county.30985

       (DD)(1) In Champaign county, the judge of the court of common 30986
pleas whose term begins February 9, 2003, and the judge of the 30987
court of common pleas whose term begins February 10, 2009, and the 30988
successors to those judges, shall have the same qualifications, 30989
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 30990
compensation as the other judges of the court of common pleas of 30991
Champaign county and shall be elected and designated as judges of 30992
the court of common pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30993
division. Except as otherwise specified in this division, those 30994
judges, and the successors to those judges, shall have all the 30995
powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 30996
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all cases arising under 30997
Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of 30998
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings 30999
involving child support, the allocation of parental rights and 31000
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 31001
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 31002
parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree proceedings 31003
and matters arising from those cases and proceedings shall be 31004
assigned to those judges and the successors to those judges. 31005
Notwithstanding any other provision of any section of the Revised 31006
Code, on and after February 9, 2009, the judges designated by this 31007
division as judges of the court of common pleas of Champaign 31008
county, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division, and the 31009
successors to those judges, shall have all the powers relating to 31010
probate courts in addition to the powers previously specified in 31011
this division and shall exercise jurisdiction over all matters 31012
that are within the jurisdiction of probate courts under Chapter 31013
2101., and other provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to 31014
the jurisdiction of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 31015
division otherwise specified in division (DD)(1) of this section.31016

       (2) On and after February 9, 2009, all references in law to 31017
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 31018
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed with respect 31019
to Champaign county as being references to the "domestic 31020
relations-juvenile-probate division" and as being references to 31021
the "judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division." 31022
On and after February 9, 2009, all references in law to "the clerk 31023
of the probate court" shall be construed with respect to Champaign 31024
county as being references to the judge who is serving pursuant to 31025
Rule 4 of the Rules of Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio as 31026
the administrative judge of the court of common pleas, domestic 31027
relations-juvenile-probate division.31028

       (EE) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 31029
domestic relations, or juvenile judge, of any of the counties 31030
mentioned in this section is sick, absent, or unable to perform 31031
that judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in the 31032
judge's division necessitates it, the duties of that judge shall 31033
be performed by another judge of the court of common pleas of that 31034
county, assigned for that purpose by the presiding judge of the 31035
court of common pleas of that county to act in place of or in 31036
conjunction with that judge, as the case may require.31037

       Sec. 2303.201.  (A)(1) The court of common pleas of any 31038
county may determine that for the efficient operation of the court 31039
additional funds are required to computerize the court, to make 31040
available computerized legal research services, or to do both. 31041
Upon making a determination that additional funds are required for 31042
either or both of those purposes, the court shall authorize and 31043
direct the clerk of the court of common pleas to charge one 31044
additional fee, not to exceed six dollars, on the filing of each 31045
cause of action or appeal under divisions (A), (Q), and (U) of 31046
section 2303.20 of the Revised Code.31047

       (2) All fees collected under division (A)(1) of this section 31048
shall be paid to the county treasurer. The treasurer shall place 31049
the funds from the fees in a separate fund to be disbursed either 31050
upon an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the 31051
board of county commissioners, or upon an order of the court, 31052
subject to the court making an annual report available to the 31053
public listing the use of all such funds, in an amount not greater 31054
than the actual cost to the court of procuring and maintaining 31055
computerization of the court, computerized legal research 31056
services, or both.31057

       (3) If the court determines that the funds in the fund 31058
described in division (A)(2) of this section are more than 31059
sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which the additional fee 31060
described in division (A)(1) of this section was imposed, the 31061
court may declare a surplus in the fund and, subject to an 31062
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, expend those 31063
surplus funds, or upon an order of the court, subject to the court 31064
making an annual report available to the public listing the use of 31065
all such funds, expend those surplus funds, for other appropriate 31066
technological expenses of the court.31067

       (B)(1) The court of common pleas of any county may determine 31068
that, for the efficient operation of the court, additional funds 31069
are required to make technological advances in or to computerize 31070
the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas and, upon 31071
that determination, authorize and direct the clerk of the court of 31072
common pleas to charge an additional fee, not to exceed twenty 31073
dollars, on the filing of each cause of action or appeal, on the 31074
filing, docketing, and endorsing of each certificate of judgment, 31075
or on the docketing and indexing of each aid in execution or 31076
petition to vacate, revive, or modify a judgment under divisions 31077
(A), (P), (Q), (T), and (U) of section 2303.20 of the Revised Code 31078
and not to exceed one dollar each for the services described in 31079
divisions (B), (C), (D), (F), (H), and (L) of section 2303.20 of 31080
the Revised Code. Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, all 31081
moneys collected under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 31082
paid to the county treasurer to be disbursed, upon an order of the 31083
court of common pleas and subject to appropriation by the board of 31084
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 31085
to the court of procuring and maintaining technology and computer 31086
systems for the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas.31087

       (2) If the court of common pleas of a county makes the 31088
determination described in division (B)(1) of this section, the 31089
board of county commissioners of that county may issue one or more 31090
general obligation bonds for the purpose of procuring and 31091
maintaining the technology and computer systems for the office of 31092
the clerk of the court of common pleas. In addition to the 31093
purposes stated in division (B)(1) of this section for which the 31094
moneys collected under that division may be expended, the moneys 31095
additionally may be expended to pay debt charges on and financing 31096
costs related to any general obligation bonds issued pursuant to 31097
division (B)(2) of this section as they become due. General 31098
obligation bonds issued pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 31099
section are Chapter 133. securities.31100

       (C) The court of common pleas shall collect the sum of 31101
twenty-six dollars as additional filing fees in each new civil 31102
action or proceeding for the charitable public purpose of 31103
providing financial assistance to legal aid societies that operate 31104
within the state and to support the office of the state public 31105
defender. This division does not apply to proceedings concerning 31106
annulments, dissolutions of marriage, divorces, legal separation, 31107
spousal support, marital property or separate property 31108
distribution, support, or other domestic relations matters; to a 31109
juvenile division of a court of common pleas; to a probate 31110
division of a court of common pleas, except that the additional 31111
filing fees shall apply to name change, guardianship, adoption, 31112
and decedents' estate proceedings; or to an execution on a 31113
judgment, proceeding in aid of execution, or other post-judgment 31114
proceeding arising out of a civil action. The filing fees required 31115
to be collected under this division shall be in addition to any 31116
other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and shall be 31117
collected at the time of the filing of the action or proceeding. 31118
The court shall not waive the payment of the additional filing 31119
fees in a new civil action or proceeding unless the court waives 31120
the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 31121
proceeding. All such moneys collected during a month except for an 31122
amount equal to up to one per cent of those moneys retained to 31123
cover administrative costs shall be transmitted on or before the 31124
twentieth day of the following month by the clerk of the court to 31125
the treasurer of state in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of 31126
state or by the Ohio legal assistance foundation. The treasurer of 31127
state shall deposit four per cent of the funds collected under 31128
this division to the credit of the civil case filing fee fund 31129
established under section 120.07 of the Revised Code and 31130
ninety-six per cent of the funds collected under this division to 31131
the credit of the legal aid fund established under section 120.52 31132
of the Revised Code.31133

       The court may retain up to one per cent of the moneys it 31134
collects under this division to cover administrative costs, 31135
including the hiring of any additional personnel necessary to 31136
implement this division. If the court fails to transmit to the 31137
treasurer of state the moneys the court collects under this 31138
division in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of state or by 31139
the Ohio legal assistance foundation, the court shall forfeit the 31140
moneys the court retains under this division to cover 31141
administrative costs, including the hiring of any additional 31142
personnel necessary to implement this division, and shall transmit 31143
to the treasurer of state all moneys collected under this 31144
division, including the forfeited amount retained for 31145
administrative costs, for deposit in the legal aid fund.31146

       (D) On and after the thirtieth day after December 9, 1994, 31147
the court of common pleas shall collect the sum of thirty-two 31148
dollars as additional filing fees in each new action or proceeding 31149
for annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage for the purpose 31150
of funding shelters for victims of domestic violence pursuant to 31151
sections 3113.35 to 3113.39 of the Revised Code. The filing fees 31152
required to be collected under this division shall be in addition 31153
to any other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and 31154
shall be collected at the time of the filing of the action or 31155
proceeding. The court shall not waive the payment of the 31156
additional filing fees in a new action or proceeding for 31157
annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage unless the court 31158
waives the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 31159
proceeding. On or before the twentieth day of each month, all 31160
moneys collected during the immediately preceding month pursuant 31161
to this division shall be deposited by the clerk of the court into 31162
the county treasury in the special fund used for deposit of 31163
additional marriage license fees as described in section 3113.34 31164
of the Revised Code. Upon their deposit into the fund, the moneys 31165
shall be retained in the fund and expended only as described in 31166
section 3113.34 of the Revised Code.31167

       (E)(1) The court of common pleas may determine that, for the 31168
efficient operation of the court, additional funds are necessary 31169
to acquire and pay for special projects of the court, including, 31170
but not limited to, the acquisition of additional facilities or 31171
the rehabilitation of existing facilities, the acquisition of 31172
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, community service 31173
programs, mediation or dispute resolution services, the employment 31174
of magistrates, the training and education of judges, acting 31175
judges, and magistrates, and other related services. Upon that 31176
determination, the court by rule may charge a fee, in addition to 31177
all other court costs, on the filing of each criminal cause, civil 31178
action or proceeding, or judgment by confession.31179

       If the court of common pleas offers or requires a special 31180
program or serviceadditional services in cases of a specific 31181
type, the court by rule may assess an additional charge in a case 31182
of that type, over and above court costs, to cover the special 31183
program or service. The court shall adjust the special assessment 31184
periodically, but not retroactively, so that the amount assessed 31185
in those cases does not exceed the actual cost of providing the 31186
service or program.31187

       All moneys collected under division (E) of this section shall 31188
be paid to the county treasurer for deposit into either a general 31189
special projects fund or a fund established for a specific special 31190
project. Moneys from a fund of that nature shall be disbursed upon 31191
an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the board of 31192
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 31193
to the court of a project. If a specific fund is terminated 31194
because of the discontinuance of a program or service established 31195
under division (E) of this section, the court may order, subject 31196
to an appropriation by the board of county commissioners, that 31197
moneys remaining in the fund be transferred to an account 31198
established under this division for a similar purpose.31199

       (2) As used in division (E) of this section:31200

       (a) "Criminal cause" means a charge alleging the violation of 31201
a statute or ordinance, or subsection of a statute or ordinance, 31202
that requires a separate finding of fact or a separate plea before 31203
disposition and of which the defendant may be found guilty, 31204
whether filed as part of a multiple charge on a single summons, 31205
citation, or complaint or as a separate charge on a single 31206
summons, citation, or complaint. "Criminal cause" does not include 31207
separate violations of the same statute or ordinance, or 31208
subsection of the same statute or ordinance, unless each charge is 31209
filed on a separate summons, citation, or complaint.31210

       (b) "Civil action or proceeding" means any civil litigation 31211
that must be determined by judgment entry.31212

       Sec. 2305.234.  (A) As used in this section:31213

       (1) "Chiropractic claim," "medical claim," and "optometric 31214
claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the 31215
Revised Code.31216

       (2) "Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section 31217
2305.113 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include any 31218
claim arising out of a dental operation or any derivative claim 31219
for relief that arises out of a dental operation.31220

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 31221
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.31222

       (4) "Health care facility or location" means a hospital, 31223
clinic, ambulatory surgical facility, office of a health care 31224
professional or associated group of health care professionals, 31225
training institution for health care professionals, or any other 31226
place where medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 31227
care, or treatment is provided to a person.31228

       (5) "Health care professional" means any of the following who 31229
provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, 31230
or treatment:31231

       (a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 31232
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 31233
surgery;31234

       (b) Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed 31235
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and individuals who hold a 31236
certificate of authority issued under that chapter that authorizes 31237
the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse 31238
anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 31239
or certified nurse practitioner;31240

       (c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under Chapter 31241
4730. of the Revised Code;31242

       (d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter 31243
4715. of the Revised Code;31244

       (e) Physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, 31245
occupational therapists, and occupational therapy assistants 31246
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;31247

       (f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised 31248
Code;31249

       (g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 31250
Code;31251

       (h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 31252
Code to practice podiatry;31253

       (i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 31254
Code;31255

       (j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 31256
Code;31257

       (k) Emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 31258
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 31259
technicians-paramedic, certified under Chapter 4765. of the 31260
Revised Code;31261

       (l) Respiratory care professionals licensed under Chapter 31262
4761. of the Revised Code;31263

       (m) Speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed 31264
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;31265

       (n) Professional clinical counselors, professional 31266
counselors, independent social workers, social workers, 31267
independent marriage and family therapists, and marriage and 31268
family therapists, licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised 31269
Code;31270

       (o) Psychologists licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised 31271
Code;31272

       (p) Independent chemical dependency counselors, chemical 31273
dependency counselors III, chemical dependency counselors II, and 31274
chemical dependency counselors I, licensed under Chapter 4758. of 31275
the Revised Code.31276

       (6) "Health care worker" means a person other than a health 31277
care professional who provides medical, dental, or other 31278
health-related care or treatment under the direction of a health 31279
care professional with the authority to direct that individual's 31280
activities, including medical technicians, medical assistants, 31281
dental assistants, orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in 31282
similar capacities.31283

       (7) "Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets 31284
all of the following requirements:31285

       (a) The person's income is not greater than two hundred per 31286
cent of the current poverty line as defined by the United States 31287
office of management and budget and revised in accordance with 31288
section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 31289
95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended.31290

       (b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance 31291
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or assistance underfor 31292
the medicaid program or any other governmental health care 31293
program.31294

       (c) Either of the following applies:31295

       (i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate holder, 31296
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 31297
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 31298
or health care policy, contract, or plan.31299

       (ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder, 31300
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 31301
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 31302
or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer, policy, 31303
contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of insolvency 31304
or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.31305

       (8) "Nonprofit health care referral organization" means an 31306
entity that is not operated for profit and refers patients to, or 31307
arranges for the provision of, health-related diagnosis, care, or 31308
treatment by a health care professional or health care worker.31309

       (9) "Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or 31310
otherwise infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including 31311
surgery, laser surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic 31312
ultrasound, or the removal of intraocular foreign bodies. 31313
"Operation" does not include the administration of medication by 31314
injection, unless the injection is administered in conjunction 31315
with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means 31316
other than the administration of medicine by injection. 31317
"Operation" does not include routine dental restorative 31318
procedures, the scaling of teeth, or extractions of teeth that are 31319
not impacted.31320

       (10) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 31321
injury, death, or loss to person or property other than a civil 31322
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 31323
between persons or government entities.31324

       (11) "Volunteer" means an individual who provides any 31325
medical, dental, or other health-care related diagnosis, care, or 31326
treatment without the expectation of receiving and without receipt 31327
of any compensation or other form of remuneration from an indigent 31328
and uninsured person, another person on behalf of an indigent and 31329
uninsured person, any health care facility or location, any 31330
nonprofit health care referral organization, or any other person 31331
or government entity.31332

       (12) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 31333
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.31334

       (13) "Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of 31335
consciousness during which a patient cannot be easily aroused but 31336
responds purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation, a 31337
patient's ability to independently maintain ventilatory function 31338
may be impaired, a patient may require assistance in maintaining a 31339
patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate, and 31340
cardiovascular function is usually maintained.31341

       (14) "General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of 31342
consciousness during which a patient is not arousable, even by 31343
painful stimulation, the ability to independently maintain 31344
ventilatory function is often impaired, a patient often requires 31345
assistance in maintaining a patent airway, positive pressure 31346
ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous 31347
ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function, 31348
and cardiovascular function may be impaired.31349

       (B)(1) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 31350
health care professional who is a volunteer and complies with 31351
division (B)(2) of this section is not liable in damages to any 31352
person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, 31353
including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, 31354
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 31355
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 31356
omission of the volunteer in the provision to an indigent and 31357
uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 31358
diagnosis, care, or treatment, including the provision of samples 31359
of medicine and other medical products, unless the action or 31360
omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.31361

       (2) To qualify for the immunity described in division (B)(1) 31362
of this section, a health care professional shall do all of the 31363
following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:31364

       (a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and uninsured 31365
person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to the 31366
provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is not subject 31367
to duress or under undue influence;31368

       (b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section, 31369
including notifying the person that, by giving informed consent to 31370
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 31371
cannot hold the health care professional liable for damages in a 31372
tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, 31373
dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, 31374
unless the action or omission of the health care professional 31375
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;31376

       (c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written 31377
waiver, signed by the person or by another individual on behalf of 31378
and in the presence of the person, that states that the person is 31379
mentally competent to give informed consent and, without being 31380
subject to duress or under undue influence, gives informed consent 31381
to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment subject to 31382
the provisions of this section. A written waiver under division 31383
(B)(2)(c) of this section shall state clearly and in conspicuous 31384
type that the person or other individual who signs the waiver is 31385
signing it with full knowledge that, by giving informed consent to 31386
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 31387
cannot bring a tort or other civil action, including an action on 31388
a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other 31389
health-related claim, against the health care professional unless 31390
the action or omission of the health care professional constitutes 31391
willful or wanton misconduct.31392

       (3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered by medical 31393
malpractice insurance, but complies with division (B)(2) of this 31394
section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section 31395
4731.143 of the Revised Code.31396

       (C) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, 31397
health care workers who are volunteers are not liable in damages 31398
to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil 31399
action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, 31400
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 31401
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 31402
omission of the health care worker in the provision to an indigent 31403
and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 31404
diagnosis, care, or treatment, unless the action or omission 31405
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.31406

       (D) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 31407
nonprofit health care referral organization is not liable in 31408
damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other 31409
civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 31410
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 31411
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 31412
from an action or omission of the nonprofit health care referral 31413
organization in referring indigent and uninsured persons to, or 31414
arranging for the provision of, medical, dental, or other 31415
health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment by a health care 31416
professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or a 31417
health care worker described in division (C) of this section, 31418
unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton 31419
misconduct.31420

       (E) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section and 31421
to the extent that the registration requirements of section 31422
3701.071 of the Revised Code apply, a health care facility or 31423
location associated with a health care professional described in 31424
division (B)(1) of this section, a health care worker described in 31425
division (C) of this section, or a nonprofit health care referral 31426
organization described in division (D) of this section is not 31427
liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or 31428
other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 31429
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 31430
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 31431
from an action or omission of the health care professional or 31432
worker or nonprofit health care referral organization relative to 31433
the medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or 31434
treatment provided to an indigent and uninsured person on behalf 31435
of or at the health care facility or location, unless the action 31436
or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.31437

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 31438
the immunities provided by divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of 31439
this section are not available to a health care professional, 31440
health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, 31441
or health care facility or location if, at the time of an alleged 31442
injury, death, or loss to person or property, the health care 31443
professionals or health care workers involved are providing one of 31444
the following:31445

       (a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 31446
care, or treatment pursuant to a community service work order 31447
entered by a court under division (B) of section 2951.02 of the 31448
Revised Code or imposed by a court as a community control 31449
sanction;31450

       (b) Performance of an operation to which any one of the 31451
following applies:31452

        (i) The operation requires the administration of deep 31453
sedation or general anesthesia.31454

        (ii) The operation is a procedure that is not typically 31455
performed in an office.31456

       (iii) The individual involved is a health care professional, 31457
and the operation is beyond the scope of practice or the 31458
education, training, and competence, as applicable, of the health 31459
care professional.31460

       (c) Delivery of a baby or any other purposeful termination of 31461
a human pregnancy.31462

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply when a 31463
health care professional or health care worker provides medical, 31464
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment that 31465
is necessary to preserve the life of a person in a medical 31466
emergency.31467

       (G)(1) This section does not create a new cause of action or 31468
substantive legal right against a health care professional, health 31469
care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or 31470
health care facility or location.31471

       (2) This section does not affect any immunities from civil 31472
liability or defenses established by another section of the 31473
Revised Code or available at common law to which a health care 31474
professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral 31475
organization, or health care facility or location may be entitled 31476
in connection with the provision of emergency or other medical, 31477
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment.31478

       (3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort or 31479
other civil liability to a health care professional, health care 31480
worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health 31481
care facility or location for actions that are outside the scope 31482
of authority of health care professionals or health care workers.31483

       (4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 31484
a health care professional, health care worker, or nonprofit 31485
health care referral organization to comply with any applicable 31486
law of this state or rule of an agency of this state.31487

       (5) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 31488
a health care facility or location to comply with any applicable 31489
law of this state, rule of an agency of this state, or local code, 31490
ordinance, or regulation that pertains to or regulates building, 31491
housing, air pollution, water pollution, sanitation, health, fire, 31492
zoning, or safety.31493

       Sec. 2307.65. (A) The attorney general may bring a civil 31494
action in the Franklin county court of common pleas on behalf of 31495
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, and the 31496
prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of 31497
division (B) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code occurs may 31498
bring a civil action in the court of common pleas of that county 31499
on behalf of the county department of job and family services, 31500
against a person who violates division (B) of section 2913.401 of 31501
the Revised Code for the recovery of the amount of benefits paid 31502
on behalf of a person that either department would not have paid 31503
but for the violation minus any amounts paid in restitution under 31504
division (C)(2) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code and for 31505
reasonable attorney's fees and all other fees and costs of 31506
litigation.31507

        (B) In a civil action brought under division (A) of this 31508
section, if the defendant failed to disclose a transfer of 31509
property in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 31510
the Revised Code, the court may also grant any of the following 31511
relief to the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 31512
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p:31513

        (1) Avoidance of the transfer of property that was not 31514
disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 31515
the Revised Code to the extent of the amount of benefits the 31516
department would not have paid but for the violation;31517

        (2) An order of attachment or garnishment against the 31518
property in accordance with Chapter 2715. or 2716. of the Revised 31519
Code;31520

        (3) An injunction against any further disposition by the 31521
transferor or transferee, or both, of the property the transfer of 31522
which was not disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 31523
2913.401 of the Revised Code or against the disposition of other 31524
property by the transferor or transferee;31525

        (4) Appointment of a receiver to take charge of the property 31526
transferred or of other property of the transferee;31527

        (5) Any other relief that the court considers just and 31528
equitable.31529

        (C) To the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 31530
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p, the department of job and family 31531
servicesmedicaid or the county department of job and family 31532
services may enforce a judgment obtained under this section by 31533
levying on property the transfer of which was not disclosed in 31534
violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised 31535
Code or on the proceeds of the transfer of that property in 31536
accordance with Chapter 2329. of the Revised Code.31537

        (D) The remedies provided in divisions (B) and (C) of this 31538
section do not apply if the transferee of the property the 31539
transfer of which was not disclosed in violation of division 31540
(B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code acquired the 31541
property in good faith and for fair market value.31542

        (E) The remedies provided in this section are not exclusive 31543
and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy 31544
for any act that is in violation of section 2913.401 of the 31545
Revised Code.31546

        (F) Amounts of medicaid benefitsservices paid and recovered 31547
in an action brought under this section shall be credited to the 31548
general revenue fund, and any applicable federal share shall be 31549
returned to the appropriate agency or department of the United 31550
States.31551

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 31552
certain respects:31553

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 31554
attorney by a client in that relation or concerning the attorney's 31555
advice to a client, except that the attorney may testify by 31556
express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased, by 31557
the express consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or 31558
administrator of the estate of the deceased client. However, if 31559
the client voluntarily reveals the substance of attorney-client 31560
communications in a nonprivileged context or is deemed by section 31561
2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial 31562
privilege under this division, the attorney may be compelled to 31563
testify on the same subject.31564

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 31565
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 31566
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 31567
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 31568
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 31569
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 31570
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 31571
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 31572
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 31573
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 31574
document that is the basis of the dispute.31575

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 31576
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 31577
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 31578
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 31579
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 31580
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 31581
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 31582
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 31583
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 31584
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.31585

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 31586
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 31587
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 31588
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 31589
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 31590
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 31591
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 31592
compelled to testify on the same subject.31593

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 31594
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 31595
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:31596

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 31597
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 31598
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 31599
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:31600

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 31601
representative of the patient gives express consent;31602

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 31603
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 31604
express consent;31605

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 31606
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 31607
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 31608
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 31609
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 31610
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 31611
representative.31612

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 31613
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 31614
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 31615
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 31616
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 31617
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 31618
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.31619

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 31620
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 31621
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 31622
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 31623
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 31624
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 31625
offense in question.31626

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 31627
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 31628
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 31629
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 31630
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 31631
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 31632
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 31633
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 31634
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 31635
records or other communications in such an action shall require 31636
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 31637
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 31638
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 31639
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 31640
specific information from its records.31641

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 31642
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 31643
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 31644
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 31645
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 31646
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 31647
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 31648
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 31649
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 31650
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 31651
dispute.31652

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 31653
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 31654
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 31655
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 31656
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 31657
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 31658
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 31659
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.31660

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 31661
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 31662
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.31663

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 31664
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 31665
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.31666

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 31667
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 31668
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 31669
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 31670
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 31671
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 31672
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 31673
proceeding.31674

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 31675
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 31676
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 31677
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 31678
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 31679
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 31680
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 31681
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 31682
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 31683
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 31684
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 31685
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 31686
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 31687
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 31688
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 31689
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 31690
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 31691
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 31692
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 31693
requested records.31694

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 31695
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 31696
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 31697
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 31698
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 31699
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 31700
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 31701
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 31702
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 31703
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 31704
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 31705
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 31706
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 31707
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 31708
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 31709
under whose supervision the records were made.31710

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 31711
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 31712
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 31713
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 31714
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 31715
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 31716
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 31717
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 31718
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 31719
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 31720
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 31721
Revised Code.31722

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 31723
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 31724
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 31725
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 31726
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 31727
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 31728
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 31729
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 31730
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 31731
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 31732
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 31733
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 31734
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 31735
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 31736
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 31737
the results were compiled.31738

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 31739
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 31740
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 31741
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 31742
relation.31743

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 31744
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 31745
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 31746
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 31747
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 31748
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 31749
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 31750
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 31751
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.31752

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 31753
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 31754
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 31755
practitioner.31756

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:31757

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 31758
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 31759
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 31760
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 31761
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 31762
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 31763
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 31764
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 31765
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 31766
individual or group practice.31767

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 31768
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 31769
services.31770

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 31771
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.31772

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 31773
the Revised Code.31774

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 31775
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 31776
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 31777
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 31778
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 31779
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 31780
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 31781
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 31782
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled 31783
nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 31784
49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in 31785
section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care 31786
facility for the mentally retarded, as defined in section 5124.01 31787
of the Revised Code.31788

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 31789
the Revised Code.31790

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 31791
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 31792
Revised Code.31793

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 31794
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 31795
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.31796

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 31797
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 31798
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 31799
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 31800
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 31801
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 31802
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 31803
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 31804
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 31805
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 31806
Revised Code.31807

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 31808
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 31809
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 31810
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 31811
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 31812
express consent of the person making the communication, except 31813
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 31814
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 31815
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 31816
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 31817
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 31818
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 31819
trust.31820

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:31821

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 31822
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 31823
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 31824
church, denomination, or sect.31825

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 31826
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 31827
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 31828
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 31829
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:31830

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 31831
directly to the cleric.31832

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 31833
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 31834
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 31835
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.31836

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 31837
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 31838
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 31839
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 31840
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 31841
has ceased to exist;31842

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 31843
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 31844
permitted to testify;31845

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 31846
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 31847
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 31848
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 31849
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 31850
thing.31851

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 31852
license from the state board of education as provided for in 31853
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 31854
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 31855
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 31856
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 31857
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 31858
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 31859
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 31860
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 31861
applies:31862

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 31863
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 31864
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 31865
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 31866
present danger.31867

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.31868

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 31869
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 31870
gives express consent.31871

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 31872
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 31873
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 31874
the same subject.31875

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 31876
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 31877
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 31878
relationship.31879

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 31880
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 31881
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 31882
counselor is relevant to that action.31883

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 31884
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 31885
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 31886
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 31887
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 31888
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 31889
Code.31890

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 31891
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 31892
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 31893
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 31894
2151.421 of the Revised Code.31895

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 31896
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 31897
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 31898
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 31899
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 31900
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 31901
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 31902
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 31903
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 31904
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 31905
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 31906
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 31907
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;31908

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 31909
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 31910
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 31911
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 31912
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 31913
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 31914
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 31915
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 31916
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.31917

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 31918
granted under federal law or regulation.31919

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 31920
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 31921
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 31922
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 31923
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 31924
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 31925
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 31926
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 31927
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 31928
following circumstances:31929

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 31930
representative of the patient gives express consent.31931

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 31932
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 31933
express consent.31934

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 31935
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 31936
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 31937
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 31938
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 31939
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 31940
representative.31941

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 31942
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 31943
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 31944
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 31945
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 31946
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 31947
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 31948
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 31949
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 31950
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 31951
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.31952

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 31953
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 31954
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.31955

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 31956
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 31957
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 31958
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 31959
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 31960
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 31961
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 31962
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.31963

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 31964
section, a critical incident stress management team member 31965
concerning a communication received from an individual who 31966
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 31967
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 31968
session.31969

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 31970
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 31971
true:31972

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 31973
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 31974
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 31975
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 31976
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.31977

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 31978
gives express consent to the testimony.31979

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 31980
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 31981
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.31982

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 31983
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 31984
compelled to testify on the same subject.31985

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 31986
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 31987
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 31988
and the team member.31989

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 31990
criminal act.31991

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:31992

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 31993
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 31994
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 31995
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.31996

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 31997
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 31998
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 31999
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 32000
critical incident stress management network.32001

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 32002
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 32003
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.32004

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 32005
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 32006
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 32007
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 32008
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 32009
assistance professional.32010

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 32011
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 32012
requirements:32013

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 32014
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;32015

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 32016
following:32017

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 32018
employer and employee productivity issues;32019

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 32020
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 32021
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 32022
performance;32023

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 32024
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 32025
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 32026
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;32027

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;32028

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;32029

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;32030

        (vii) Client confidentiality.32031

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 32032
the following:32033

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 32034
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 32035
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 32036
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;32037

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 32038
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 32039
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;32040

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 32041
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 32042
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;32043

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 32044
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 32045
reason of insanity is entered;32046

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 32047
the employee assistance professional;32048

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 32049
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 32050
the client's legal representative;32051

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 32052
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.32053

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 32054
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 32055
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 32056
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 32057
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and residential facilities licensed 32058
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 32059
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 32060
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in lieu of the testimony in 32061
open court of their custodian, person who made them, or person 32062
under whose supervision they were made, may be qualified as 32063
authentic evidence if any such person endorses thereon the 32064
person's verified certification identifying such records, giving 32065
the mode and time of their preparation, and stating that they were 32066
prepared in the usual course of the business of the institution. 32067
Such records, copies, or photographs may not be qualified by 32068
certification as provided in this section unless the party 32069
intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, or of their 32070
relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each adverse 32071
party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in this 32072
section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call 32073
the custodian, person who made such records, or person under whose 32074
supervision they were made, as a witness.32075

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 32076
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 32077
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 32078
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 32079
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 32080
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 32081
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 32082
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 32083
of the Revised Code.32084

       Sec. 2329.192. (A) As used in this section:32085

        (1) "State lien" means a lien upon real estate, including 32086
lands and tenements, of persons indebted to the state for debt, 32087
taxes, or in any other manner recorded by a state agency in any 32088
office of the clerk of a county court or the county recorder.32089

        (2) "State lienholder" means the department, agency, or other 32090
division of the state in whose name a state lien has been filed or 32091
recorded.32092

        (B) In every action seeking the judicial sale of real estate 32093
that is subject to a state lien, all of the following apply:32094

        (1) The party seeking a judicial sale shall include the state 32095
lienholder as a party defendant and shall serve that state 32096
lienholder with a copy of the preliminary judicial report or 32097
commitment for an owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in 32098
accordance with section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.32099

        (2) A state lienholder shall not be made a party defendant if 32100
no state lien has been recorded against the owner of the real 32101
estate for which the judicial sale is sought.32102

        (3) The appearance of the state lienholder shall be presumed 32103
for purposes of jurisdiction, and the court shall take judicial 32104
notice that the state has a lien against the real estate.32105

        (4) A state lienholder may, but is not required to, file an 32106
answer to the complaint or any other pleading in the action if the 32107
amount, validity, or priority of the state lien is not identified 32108
in the pleadings as disputed and shall file an answer to the 32109
complaint or any other pleading in the action if the amount, 32110
validity, or priority of the state lien is identified in the 32111
pleadings as disputed. If a state lien is not identified as 32112
disputed, unless the state files an answer or other responsive 32113
pleading, the party seeking the judicial sale is not required to 32114
serve the state lienholder with any answer or subsequent pleadings 32115
in the action for judicial sale.32116

        (5) As part of any order confirming the sale of the real 32117
estate that is subject to any undisputed state lien or 32118
distributing the proceeds of any judicial sale of real estate, the 32119
undisputed state lien shall be protected as if the state had 32120
appeared in the action and filed an answer asserting the validity 32121
of the state lien as recorded in the office of the clerk of the 32122
county court or the office of the county recorder.32123

        (6) Any party asserting a dispute as to the amount, validity, 32124
or priority of the state lien or of any lien or other interest 32125
that has priority over the state lien shall serve the state 32126
lienholder and the attorney general with notice of the dispute, 32127
and the state lienholder shall be permitted to file a responsive 32128
pleading and participate in the proceedings as if the state 32129
lienholder had been served with a summons on the date the state 32130
lienholder received notice of the dispute.32131

        (C) Upon the judicial sale of the real estate that is the 32132
subject of an action under division (B) of this section, the 32133
interest of any undisputed state lien shall transfer to the 32134
proceeds of the sale of the real estate, and the state lienholder 32135
shall be entitled to payment from the proceeds of the sale of the 32136
real estate in accordance with the state lienholder's priority as 32137
set forth in the final judicial report or commitment for an 32138
owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in accordance with 32139
section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.32140

       Sec. 2505.02.  (A) As used in this section:32141

       (1) "Substantial right" means a right that the United States 32142
Constitution, the Ohio Constitution, a statute, the common law, or 32143
a rule of procedure entitles a person to enforce or protect.32144

       (2) "Special proceeding" means an action or proceeding that 32145
is specially created by statute and that prior to 1853 was not 32146
denoted as an action at law or a suit in equity.32147

       (3) "Provisional remedy" means a proceeding ancillary to an 32148
action, including, but not limited to, a proceeding for a 32149
preliminary injunction, attachment, discovery of privileged 32150
matter, suppression of evidence, a prima-facie showing pursuant to 32151
section 2307.85 or 2307.86 of the Revised Code, a prima-facie 32152
showing pursuant to section 2307.92 of the Revised Code, or a 32153
finding made pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2307.93 of the 32154
Revised Code.32155

       (B) An order is a final order that may be reviewed, affirmed, 32156
modified, or reversed, with or without retrial, when it is one of 32157
the following:32158

       (1) An order that affects a substantial right in an action 32159
that in effect determines the action and prevents a judgment;32160

       (2) An order that affects a substantial right made in a 32161
special proceeding or upon a summary application in an action 32162
after judgment;32163

       (3) An order that vacates or sets aside a judgment or grants 32164
a new trial;32165

       (4) An order that grants or denies a provisional remedy and 32166
to which both of the following apply:32167

       (a) The order in effect determines the action with respect to 32168
the provisional remedy and prevents a judgment in the action in 32169
favor of the appealing party with respect to the provisional 32170
remedy.32171

       (b) The appealing party would not be afforded a meaningful or 32172
effective remedy by an appeal following final judgment as to all 32173
proceedings, issues, claims, and parties in the action.32174

       (5) An order that determines that an action may or may not be 32175
maintained as a class action;32176

       (6) An order determining the constitutionality of any changes 32177
to the Revised Code made by Am. Sub. S.B. 281 of the 124th general 32178
assembly, including the amendment of sections 1751.67, 2117.06, 32179
2305.11, 2305.15, 2305.234, 2317.02, 2317.54, 2323.56, 2711.21, 32180
2711.22, 2711.23, 2711.24, 2743.02, 2743.43, 2919.16, 3923.63, 32181
3923.64, 4705.15, and 5111.018 (renumbered as 5164.07 by H.B. 59 32182
of the 130th general assembly), and the enactment of sections 32183
2305.113, 2323.41, 2323.43, and 2323.55 of the Revised Code or any 32184
changes made by Sub. S.B. 80 of the 125th general assembly, 32185
including the amendment of sections 2125.02, 2305.10, 2305.131, 32186
2315.18, 2315.19, and 2315.21 of the Revised Code;32187

       (7) An order in an appropriation proceeding that may be 32188
appealed pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 163.09 of the 32189
Revised Code.32190

       (C) When a court issues an order that vacates or sets aside a 32191
judgment or grants a new trial, the court, upon the request of 32192
either party, shall state in the order the grounds upon which the 32193
new trial is granted or the judgment vacated or set aside.32194

       (D) This section applies to and governs any action, including 32195
an appeal, that is pending in any court on July 22, 1998, and all 32196
claims filed or actions commenced on or after July 22, 1998, 32197
notwithstanding any provision of any prior statute or rule of law 32198
of this state.32199

       Sec. 2743.02.  (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity 32200
from liability, except as provided for the office of the state 32201
fire marshal in division (G)(1) of section 9.60 and division (B) 32202
of section 3737.221 of the Revised Code and subject to division 32203
(H) of this section, and consents to be sued, and have its 32204
liability determined, in the court of claims created in this 32205
chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to 32206
suits between private parties, except that the determination of 32207
liability is subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter 32208
and, in the case of state universities or colleges, in section 32209
3345.40 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division 32210
(A)(2) or (3) of this section. To the extent that the state has 32211
previously consented to be sued, this chapter has no 32212
applicability.32213

       Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state, 32214
filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a complete 32215
waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or omission, 32216
that the filing party has against any officer or employee, as 32217
defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The waiver shall be 32218
void if the court determines that the act or omission was 32219
manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's office 32220
or employment or that the officer or employee acted with malicious 32221
purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.32222

       (2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an 32223
officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised 32224
Code, would have personal liability for the officer's or 32225
employee's acts or omissions but for the fact that the officer or 32226
employee has personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised 32227
Code, the state shall be held liable in the court of claims in any 32228
action that is timely filed pursuant to section 2743.16 of the 32229
Revised Code and that is based upon the acts or omissions.32230

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this 32231
section, the state is immune from liability in any civil action or 32232
proceeding involving the performance or nonperformance of a public 32233
duty, including the performance or nonperformance of a public duty 32234
that is owed by the state in relation to any action of an 32235
individual who is committed to the custody of the state.32236

       (b) The state immunity provided in division (A)(3)(a) of this 32237
section does not apply to any action of the state under 32238
circumstances in which a special relationship can be established 32239
between the state and an injured party. A special relationship 32240
under this division is demonstrated if all of the following 32241
elements exist:32242

       (i) An assumption by the state, by means of promises or 32243
actions, of an affirmative duty to act on behalf of the party who 32244
was allegedly injured;32245

       (ii) Knowledge on the part of the state's agents that 32246
inaction of the state could lead to harm;32247

       (iii) Some form of direct contact between the state's agents 32248
and the injured party;32249

       (iv) The injured party's justifiable reliance on the state's 32250
affirmative undertaking.32251

       (B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of 32252
all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political 32253
subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their 32254
liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance 32255
with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private 32256
parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter. 32257
This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated by 32258
political subdivisions that have been determined by the supreme 32259
court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.32260

       (C) Any hospital, as defined in section 2305.113 of the 32261
Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its 32262
operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses, 32263
interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and 32264
committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may, 32265
to the extent that its governing board considers appropriate, 32266
indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any such person 32267
against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, loss, or other 32268
liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen out of, the 32269
death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of the 32270
negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the 32271
indemnified person while acting within the scope of the 32272
indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the 32273
request or direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any 32274
hospital electing to indemnify those persons, or to agree to so 32275
indemnify, shall reserve any funds that are necessary, in the 32276
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover the 32277
potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The 32278
superintendent of insurance may recommend, or, if the hospital 32279
requests the superintendent to do so, the superintendent shall 32280
recommend, a specific amount for any period that, in the 32281
superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment. This 32282
authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise provided 32283
or permitted by law.32284

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised 32285
Code or rules of a court to the contrary, in an action against the 32286
state to recover damages for injury, death, or loss to person or 32287
property caused by an act or omission of the state itself, by an 32288
act or omission of any officer or employee of the state while 32289
acting within the scope of employment or official 32290
responsibilities, or by an act or omission of any other person 32291
authorized to act on behalf of the state that occurred while 32292
engaged in activities at the request or direction, or for the 32293
benefit, of the state, the following apply:32294

        (a) Punitive or exemplary damages shall not be awarded.32295

        (b)(i) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the 32296
aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award,benefits or 32297
other collateral recovery received by the claimant for the injury, 32298
death, or loss allegedly incurred. This divisionIf a claimant 32299
receives or is entitled to receive benefits or other collateral 32300
recovery, the claimant or the claimant's attorney shall disclose 32301
the benefits or other collateral recovery to the court, and the 32302
court shall deduct the amount of the benefits or other collateral 32303
recovery from any award against the state recovered by the 32304
claimant. No insurer or other person is entitled to bring a civil 32305
action under a subrogation provision in an insurance or other 32306
contract against the state with respect to those benefits or other 32307
collateral recovery. Nothing in this division affects or shall be 32308
construed to limit the rights of a beneficiary under a life 32309
insurance policy or the rights of sureties under fidelity or 32310
surety bonds.32311

        (ii) Division (D)(1)(b)(i) of this section does not apply to 32312
civil actions in the court of claims against a state university or 32313
college under the circumstances described in section 3345.40 of 32314
the Revised Code. The collateral benefits provisions of division 32315
(B)(2) of that section apply under those circumstances.32316

       (c) There shall not be any limitation on compensatory damages 32317
that represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the 32318
damages. However, except in wrongful death actions brought 32319
pursuant to Chapter 2125. of the Revised Code, damages that arise 32320
from the same cause of action, transaction or occurrence, or 32321
series of transactions or occurrences and that do not represent 32322
the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages shall not 32323
exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars in favor of any one 32324
person. The limitation on damages that do not represent the actual 32325
loss of the person who is awarded the damages provided in this 32326
division does not apply to court costs that are awarded to a 32327
claimant, or to interest on a judgment rendered in favor of a 32328
claimant, in an action against the state.32329

        (2) As used in division (D) of this section:32330

        (a) "Benefits" includes, but is not limited to, proceeds from 32331
a policy or policies of insurance, social security benefits, 32332
veterans' benefits, unemployment compensation, workers' 32333
compensation, medicaid benefits, medicare benefits, and disability 32334
awards.32335

        (b) "Collateral recovery" includes, but is not limited to, 32336
any settlements with and judgments against third parties that 32337
arise out of the same operative facts involved in, and the injury, 32338
death, or loss allegedly incurred, in the action against the 32339
state, or any other source of recovery for any injury, death, or 32340
loss allegedly incurred in that action.32341

        (c) Except as provided in division (D)(2)(d) of this section, 32342
"the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages" 32343
includes all of the following:32344

        (i) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost by the 32345
person injured as a result of the injury, including wages, 32346
salaries, or other compensation lost as of the date of a judgment 32347
and future expected lost earnings of the injured person;32348

        (ii) All expenditures of the injured person or of another 32349
person on behalf of the injured person for medical care or 32350
treatment, rehabilitation services, or other care, treatment, 32351
services, products, or accommodations that were necessary because 32352
of the injury;32353

        (iii) All expenditures to be incurred in the future, as 32354
determined by the court, by the injured person or by another 32355
person on behalf of the injured person for medical care or 32356
treatment, rehabilitation services, or other care, treatment, 32357
services, products, or accommodations that will be necessary 32358
because of the injury;32359

        (iv) All expenditures of a person whose property was injured 32360
or destroyed or of another person on behalf of the person whose 32361
property was injured or destroyed in order to repair or replace 32362
the property that was injured or destroyed;32363

        (v) All expenditures of the injured person, of the person 32364
whose property was injured or destroyed, or of another person on 32365
behalf of the injured person or the person whose property was 32366
injured or destroyed in relation to the actual preparation or 32367
presentation of the claim involved;32368

        (vi) Any other expenditures of the injured person, of the 32369
person whose property was injured or destroyed, or of another 32370
person on behalf of the injured person or the person whose 32371
property was injured or destroyed that the court determines 32372
represent an actual loss experienced because of the personal or 32373
property injury or property loss.32374

        (d) "The actual loss of the person who is awarded the 32375
damages" does not include either of the following:32376

        (i) Any fees paid or owed to an attorney for any services 32377
rendered in relation to the personal or property injury or 32378
property loss;32379

        (ii) Any damages awarded for pain and suffering, for the loss 32380
of society, consortium, companionship, care, assistance, 32381
attention, protection, advice, guidance, counsel, instruction, 32382
training, or education of the injured person, for mental anguish, 32383
or for any other intangible loss. 32384

       (E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of 32385
claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint or 32386
counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for ten 32387
thousand dollars or less, that is filed in the court of claims.32388

       (F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as defined 32389
in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that the 32390
officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the scope 32391
of the officer's or employee's employment or official 32392
responsibilities, or that the officer or employee acted with 32393
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner 32394
shall first be filed against the state in the court of claims that 32395
has exclusive, original jurisdiction to determine, initially, 32396
whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity 32397
under section 9.86 of the Revised Code and whether the courts of 32398
common pleas have jurisdiction over the civil action. The officer 32399
or employee may participate in the immunity determination 32400
proceeding before the court of claims to determine whether the 32401
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 32402
9.86 of the Revised Code.32403

       The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under 32404
this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of 32405
limitations until the court of claims determines whether the 32406
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 32407
9.86 of the Revised Code.32408

       (G) If a claim lies against an officer or employee who is a 32409
member of the Ohio national guard, and the officer or employee 32410
was, at the time of the act or omission complained of, subject to 32411
the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60 Stat. 842 (1946), 28 U.S.C. 32412
2671, et seq., the Federal Tort Claims Act is the exclusive remedy 32413
of the claimant and the state has no liability under this section.32414

       (H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a 32415
claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and 32416
the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before 32417
commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the 32418
inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules 32419
adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant 32420
to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time 32421
allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 32422
of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, 32423
the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the 32424
director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does 32425
not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration 32426
of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon 32427
the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the 32428
inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this 32429
chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.32430

       The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt 32431
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 32432
this division.32433

       Sec. 2744.05.  Notwithstanding any other provisions of the 32434
Revised Code or rules of a court to the contrary, in an action 32435
against a political subdivision to recover damages for injury, 32436
death, or loss to person or property caused by an act or omission 32437
in connection with a governmental or proprietary function:32438

       (A) Punitive or exemplary damages shall not be awarded.32439

       (B)(1) If a claimant receives or is entitled to receive 32440
benefits for injuries or loss allegedly incurred from a policy or 32441
policies of insurance or any other source, the benefits shall be 32442
disclosed to the court, and the amount of the benefits shall be 32443
deducted from any award against a political subdivision recovered 32444
by that claimant. No insurer or other person is entitled to bring 32445
an action under a subrogation provision in an insurance or other 32446
contract against a political subdivision with respect to those 32447
benefits.32448

       The amount of the benefits shall be deducted from an award 32449
against a political subdivision under division (B)(1) of this 32450
section regardless of whether the claimant may be under an 32451
obligation to pay back the benefits upon recovery, in whole or in 32452
part, for the claim. A claimant whose benefits have been deducted 32453
from an award under division (B)(1) of this section is not 32454
considered fully compensated and shall not be required to 32455
reimburse a subrogated claim for benefits deducted from an award 32456
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.32457

       (2) Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section shall be 32458
construed to do either of the following:32459

       (a) Limit the rights of a beneficiary under a life insurance 32460
policy or the rights of sureties under fidelity or surety bonds;32461

       (b) Prohibit the department of job and family services32462
medicaid from recovering from the political subdivision, pursuant 32463
to section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code, the cost of 32464
medical assistance benefits provided under Chapter 5107. or 5111. 32465
of the Revised Codeprovided under a medical assistance program.32466

       (C)(1) There shall not be any limitation on compensatory 32467
damages that represent the actual loss of the person who is 32468
awarded the damages. However, except in wrongful death actions 32469
brought pursuant to Chapter 2125. of the Revised Code, damages 32470
that arise from the same cause of action, transaction or 32471
occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences and that do 32472
not represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the 32473
damages shall not exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars in 32474
favor of any one person. The limitation on damages that do not 32475
represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages 32476
provided in this division does not apply to court costs that are 32477
awarded to a plaintiff, or to interest on a judgment rendered in 32478
favor of a plaintiff, in an action against a political 32479
subdivision.32480

       (2) As used in this division, "the actual loss of the person 32481
who is awarded the damages" includes all of the following:32482

       (a) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost by the 32483
person injured as a result of the injury, including wages, 32484
salaries, or other compensation lost as of the date of a judgment 32485
and future expected lost earnings of the person injured;32486

       (b) All expenditures of the person injured or another person 32487
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 32488
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 32489
products, or accommodations that were necessary because of the 32490
injury;32491

       (c) All expenditures to be incurred in the future, as 32492
determined by the court, by the person injured or another person 32493
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 32494
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 32495
products, or accommodations that will be necessary because of the 32496
injury;32497

       (d) All expenditures of a person whose property was injured 32498
or destroyed or of another person on behalf of the person whose 32499
property was injured or destroyed in order to repair or replace 32500
the property that was injured or destroyed;32501

       (e) All expenditures of the person injured or of the person 32502
whose property was injured or destroyed or of another person on 32503
behalf of the person injured or of the person whose property was 32504
injured or destroyed in relation to the actual preparation or 32505
presentation of the claim involved;32506

       (f) Any other expenditures of the person injured or of the 32507
person whose property was injured or destroyed or of another 32508
person on behalf of the person injured or of the person whose 32509
property was injured or destroyed that the court determines 32510
represent an actual loss experienced because of the personal or 32511
property injury or property loss.32512

       "The actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages" 32513
does not include any fees paid or owed to an attorney for any 32514
services rendered in relation to a personal or property injury or 32515
property loss, and does not include any damages awarded for pain 32516
and suffering, for the loss of society, consortium, companionship, 32517
care, assistance, attention, protection, advice, guidance, 32518
counsel, instruction, training, or education of the person 32519
injured, for mental anguish, or for any other intangible loss.32520

       Sec. 2901.13.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 32521
or (3) of this section or as otherwise provided in this section, a 32522
prosecution shall be barred unless it is commenced within the 32523
following periods after an offense is committed:32524

       (a) For a felony, six years;32525

       (b) For a misdemeanor other than a minor misdemeanor, two 32526
years;32527

       (c) For a minor misdemeanor, six months.32528

       (2) There is no period of limitation for the prosecution of a 32529
violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.32530

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) to (H) of 32531
this section, a prosecution of any of the following offenses shall 32532
be barred unless it is commenced within twenty years after the 32533
offense is committed:32534

       (a) A violation of section 2903.03, 2903.04, 2905.01, 32535
2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.21, 2909.02, 32536
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 32537
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, or 2917.02 of the Revised 32538
Code, a violation of section 2903.11 or 2903.12 of the Revised 32539
Code if the victim is a peace officer, a violation of section 32540
2903.13 of the Revised Code that is a felony, or a violation of 32541
former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;32542

       (b) A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity 32543
in committing a violation set forth in division (A)(3)(a) of this 32544
section.32545

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 32546
this section, if the period of limitation provided in division 32547
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 32548
commenced for an offense of which an element is fraud or breach of 32549
a fiduciary duty, within one year after discovery of the offense 32550
either by an aggrieved person, or by the aggrieved person's legal 32551
representative who is not a party to the offense.32552

       (2) If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) 32553
or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution for a violation of 32554
section 2913.49 of the Revised Code shall be commenced within five 32555
years after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person 32556
or the aggrieved person's legal representative who is not a party 32557
to the offense.32558

       (C)(1) If the period of limitation provided in division 32559
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 32560
commenced for the following offenses during the following 32561
specified periods of time:32562

       (a) For an offense involving misconduct in office by a public 32563
servant, at any time while the accused remains a public servant, 32564
or within two years thereafter;32565

       (b) For an offense by a person who is not a public servant 32566
but whose offense is directly related to the misconduct in office 32567
of a public servant, at any time while that public servant remains 32568
a public servant, or within two years thereafter.32569

       (2) As used in this division:32570

       (a) An "offense is directly related to the misconduct in 32571
office of a public servant" includes, but is not limited to, a 32572
violation of section 101.71, 101.91, 121.61 or 2921.13, division 32573
(F) or (H) of section 102.03, division (A) of section 2921.02, 32574
division (A) or (B) of section 2921.43, or division (F) or (G) of 32575
section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, that is directly related to 32576
an offense involving misconduct in office of a public servant.32577

       (b) "Public servant" has the same meaning as in section 32578
2921.01 of the Revised Code.32579

       (D) An offense is committed when every element of the offense 32580
occurs. In the case of an offense of which an element is a 32581
continuing course of conduct, the period of limitation does not 32582
begin to run until such course of conduct or the accused's 32583
accountability for it terminates, whichever occurs first.32584

       (E) A prosecution is commenced on the date an indictment is 32585
returned or an information filed, or on the date a lawful arrest 32586
without a warrant is made, or on the date a warrant, summons, 32587
citation, or other process is issued, whichever occurs first. A 32588
prosecution is not commenced by the return of an indictment or the 32589
filing of an information unless reasonable diligence is exercised 32590
to issue and execute process on the same. A prosecution is not 32591
commenced upon issuance of a warrant, summons, citation, or other 32592
process, unless reasonable diligence is exercised to execute the 32593
same.32594

       (F) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 32595
when the corpus delicti remains undiscovered.32596

       (G) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 32597
when the accused purposely avoids prosecution. Proof that the 32598
accused departed this state or concealed the accused's identity or 32599
whereabouts is prima-facie evidence of the accused's purpose to 32600
avoid prosecution.32601

       (H) The period of limitation shall not run during any time a 32602
prosecution against the accused based on the same conduct is 32603
pending in this state, even though the indictment, information, or 32604
process that commenced the prosecution is quashed or the 32605
proceedings on the indictment, information, or process are set 32606
aside or reversed on appeal.32607

       (I) The period of limitation for a violation of any provision 32608
of Title XXIX of the Revised Code that involves a physical or 32609
mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that 32610
reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of a child under eighteen 32611
years of age or of a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, 32612
or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age shall 32613
not begin to run until either of the following occurs:32614

       (1) The victim of the offense reaches the age of majority.32615

       (2) A public children services agency, or a municipal or 32616
county peace officer that is not the parent or guardian of the 32617
child, in the county in which the child resides or in which the 32618
abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred has been notified 32619
that abuse or neglect is known, suspected, or believed to have 32620
occurred.32621

       (J) As used in this section, "peace officer" has the same 32622
meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.32623

       Sec. 2901.30.  (A) As used in sections 2901.30 to 2901.32 of 32624
the Revised Code:32625

       (1) "Information" means information that can be integrated 32626
into the computer system and that relates to the physical or 32627
mental description of a minor including, but not limited to, 32628
height, weight, color of hair and eyes, use of eyeglasses or 32629
contact lenses, skin coloring, physical or mental handicaps, 32630
special medical conditions or needs, abnormalities, problems, 32631
scars and marks, and distinguishing characteristics, and other 32632
information that could assist in identifying a minor including, 32633
but not limited to, full name and nickname, date and place of 32634
birth, age, names and addresses of parents and other relatives, 32635
fingerprints, dental records, photographs, social security number, 32636
driver's license number, credit card numbers, bank account 32637
numbers, and clothing.32638

       (2) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age.32639

       (3) "Missing children" or "missing child" means either of the 32640
following:32641

       (a) A minor who has run away from or who otherwise is missing 32642
from the home of, or the care, custody, and control of, the 32643
minor's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 32644
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person having 32645
responsibility for the care of the minor;32646

       (b) A minor who is missing and about whom there is reason to 32647
believe the minor could be the victim of a violation of section 32648
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.03, or 2919.23 of the Revised Code or of a 32649
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 32650
prior to July 1, 1996.32651

       (B) When a law enforcement agency in this state that has 32652
jurisdiction in the matter is informed that a minor is or may be a 32653
missing child and that the person providing the information wishes 32654
to file a missing child report, the law enforcement agency shall 32655
take that report. Upon taking the report, the law enforcement 32656
agency shall take prompt action upon it, including, but not 32657
limited to, concerted efforts to locate the missing child. No law 32658
enforcement agency in this state shall have a rule or policy that 32659
prohibits or discourages the filing of or the taking of action 32660
upon a missing child report, within a specified period following 32661
the discovery or formulation of a belief that a minor is or could 32662
be a missing child.32663

       (C) If a missing child report is made to a law enforcement 32664
agency in this state that has jurisdiction in the matter, the law 32665
enforcement agency shall gather readily available information 32666
about the missing child and integrate it into the national crime 32667
information center computer immediately following the making of 32668
the report. The law enforcement agency shall make reasonable 32669
efforts to acquire additional information about the missing child 32670
following the transmittal of the initially available information, 32671
and promptly integrate any additional information acquired into 32672
such computer systems.32673

       Whenever a law enforcement agency integrates information 32674
about a missing child into the national crime information center 32675
computer, the law enforcement agency promptly shall notify the 32676
missing child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and 32677
legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 32678
responsible for the care of the missing child, that it has so 32679
integrated the information.32680

       The parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 32681
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person responsible 32682
for the care of the missing child shall provide available 32683
information upon request, and may provide information voluntarily, 32684
to the law enforcement agency during the information gathering 32685
process. The law enforcement agency also may obtain available 32686
information about the missing child from other persons, subject to 32687
constitutional and statutory limitations.32688

       (D) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 32689
enforcement agency involved may notify the public or nonpublic 32690
school in which the missing child is or was most recently 32691
enrolled, as ascertained by the agency, that the child is the 32692
subject of a missing child report and that the child's school 32693
records are to be marked in accordance with section 3313.672 of 32694
the Revised Code.32695

        (E) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 32696
enforcement agency involved promptly shall make a reasonable 32697
attempt to notify other law enforcement agencies within its county 32698
and, if the agency has jurisdiction in a municipal corporation or 32699
township that borders another county, to notify the law 32700
enforcement agency for the municipal corporation or township in 32701
the other county with which it shares the border, that it has 32702
taken a missing child report and may be requesting assistance or 32703
cooperation in the case, and provide relevant information to the 32704
other law enforcement agencies. The agency may notify additional 32705
law enforcement agencies, or appropriate public children services 32706
agencies, about the case, request their assistance or cooperation 32707
in the case, and provide them with relevant information.32708

       Upon request from a law enforcement agency, a public children 32709
services agency shall grant the law enforcement agency access to 32710
all information concerning a missing child that the agency 32711
possesses that may be relevant to the law enforcement agency in 32712
investigating a missing child report concerning that child. The 32713
information obtained by the law enforcement agency shall be used 32714
only to further the investigation to locate the missing child.32715

       (F) Upon request, law enforcement agencies in this state 32716
shall provide assistance to, and cooperate with, other law 32717
enforcement agencies in their investigation of missing child 32718
cases. The assistance and cooperation under this paragraph shall 32719
be pursuant to any terms agreed upon by the law enforcement 32720
agencies, which may include the provision of law enforcement 32721
services or the use of law enforcement equipment or the 32722
interchange of services and equipment among the cooperating law 32723
enforcement agencies. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar 32724
as it applies to the operation of law enforcement agencies, shall 32725
apply to the cooperating political subdivisions and to the law 32726
enforcement agency employees when they are rendering services 32727
pursuant to this paragraph outside the territory of the political 32728
subdivision by which they are employed. Law enforcement agency 32729
employees rendering services outside the territory of the 32730
political subdivision in which they are employed, pursuant to this 32731
paragraph, shall be entitled to participate in any indemnity fund 32732
established by their employer to the same extent as if they were 32733
rendering service within the territory of their employing 32734
political subdivision. Those law enforcement agency employees also 32735
shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. 32736
of the Revised Code to the same extent as if rendering services 32737
within the territory of their employing political subdivision.32738

       The information in any missing child report made to a law 32739
enforcement agency shall be made available, upon request, to law 32740
enforcement personnel of this state, other states, and the federal 32741
government when the law enforcement personnel indicate that the 32742
request is to aid in identifying or locating a missing child or 32743
the possible identification of a deceased minor who, upon 32744
discovery, cannot be identified.32745

       (G) When a missing child has not been located within thirty 32746
days after the date on which the missing child report pertaining 32747
to the child was filed with a law enforcement agency, that law 32748
enforcement agency shall request the missing child's parents, 32749
parent who is the residential parent and legal custodian, 32750
guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person responsible for 32751
the care of the missing child, to provide written consent for the 32752
law enforcement agency to contact the missing child's dentist and 32753
request the missing child's dental records. Upon receipt of such 32754
written consent, the dentist shall release a copy of the missing 32755
child's dental records to the law enforcement agency and shall 32756
provide and encode the records in such form as requested by the 32757
law enforcement agency. The law enforcement agency then shall 32758
integrate information in the records into the national crime 32759
information center computer in order to compare the records to 32760
those of unidentified deceased persons. This division does not 32761
prevent a law enforcement agency from seeking consent to obtain 32762
copies of a missing child's dental records, or prevent a missing 32763
child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 32764
custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 32765
responsible for the care of the missing child, from granting 32766
consent for the release of copies of the missing child's dental 32767
records to a law enforcement agency, at any time.32768

       (H) A missing child's parents, parent who is the residential 32769
parent and legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any 32770
other persons responsible for the care of a missing child, 32771
immediately shall notify the law enforcement agency with which 32772
they filed the missing child report whenever the child has 32773
returned to their home or to their care, custody, and control, has 32774
been released if the missing child was the victim of an offense 32775
listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise has 32776
been located. Upon such notification or upon otherwise learning 32777
that a missing child has returned to the home of, or to the care, 32778
custody, and control of the missing child's parents, parent who is 32779
the residential parent and legal custodian, guardian, legal 32780
custodian, or other person responsible for the missing child's 32781
care, has been released if the missing child was the victim of an 32782
offense listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise 32783
has been located, the law enforcement agency involved promptly 32784
shall integrate the fact that the minor no longer is a missing 32785
child into the national crime information center computer and 32786
shall inform any school that was notified under division (D) of 32787
this section that the minor is no longer a missing child.32788

       (I) Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to 32789
impair the confidentiality of services provided to runaway minors 32790
by shelters for runaway minors pursuant to sections 5119.64 to 32791
5119.68 of the Revised Code.32792

       Sec. 2903.13.  (A) No person shall knowingly cause or attempt 32793
to cause physical harm to another or to another's unborn.32794

       (B) No person shall recklessly cause serious physical harm to 32795
another or to another's unborn.32796

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of assault, 32797
and the court shall sentence the offender as provided in this 32798
division and divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), 32799
and (9), and (10) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in 32800
division (C)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8), or (9) of this 32801
section, assault is a misdemeanor of the first degree.32802

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 32803
offense is committed by a caretaker against a functionally 32804
impaired person under the caretaker's care, assault is a felony of 32805
the fourth degree. If the offense is committed by a caretaker 32806
against a functionally impaired person under the caretaker's care, 32807
if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 32808
to a violation of this section or section 2903.11 or 2903.16 of 32809
the Revised Code, and if in relation to the previous conviction 32810
the offender was a caretaker and the victim was a functionally 32811
impaired person under the offender's care, assault is a felony of 32812
the third degree.32813

       (3) If the offense occurs in or on the grounds of a state 32814
correctional institution or an institution of the department of 32815
youth services, the victim of the offense is an employee of the 32816
department of rehabilitation and correction or the department of 32817
youth services, and the offense is committed by a person 32818
incarcerated in the state correctional institution or by a person 32819
institutionalized in the department of youth services institution 32820
pursuant to a commitment to the department of youth services, 32821
assault is a felony of the third degree.32822

       (4) If the offense is committed in any of the following 32823
circumstances, assault is a felony of the fifth degree:32824

       (a) The offense occurs in or on the grounds of a state 32825
correctional institution or an institution of the department of 32826
youth services, the victim of the offense is an employee of the 32827
department of rehabilitation and correction, the department of 32828
youth services, or a probation department or is on the premises of 32829
the particular institution for business purposes or as a visitor, 32830
and the offense is committed by a person incarcerated in the state 32831
correctional institution, by a person institutionalized in the 32832
department of youth services institution pursuant to a commitment 32833
to the department of youth services, by a parolee, by an offender 32834
under transitional control, under a community control sanction, or 32835
on an escorted visit, by a person under post-release control, or 32836
by an offender under any other type of supervision by a government 32837
agency.32838

       (b) The offense occurs in or on the grounds of a local 32839
correctional facility, the victim of the offense is an employee of 32840
the local correctional facility or a probation department or is on 32841
the premises of the facility for business purposes or as a 32842
visitor, and the offense is committed by a person who is under 32843
custody in the facility subsequent to the person's arrest for any 32844
crime or delinquent act, subsequent to the person's being charged 32845
with or convicted of any crime, or subsequent to the person's 32846
being alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child.32847

       (c)(b) The offense occurs off the grounds of a state 32848
correctional institution and off the grounds of an institution of 32849
the department of youth services, the victim of the offense is an 32850
employee of the department of rehabilitation and correction, the 32851
department of youth services, or a probation department, the 32852
offense occurs during the employee's official work hours and while 32853
the employee is engaged in official work responsibilities, and the 32854
offense is committed by a person incarcerated in a state 32855
correctional institution or institutionalized in the department of 32856
youth services who temporarily is outside of the institution for 32857
any purpose, by a parolee, by an offender under transitional 32858
control, under a community control sanction, or on an escorted 32859
visit, by a person under post-release control, or by an offender 32860
under any other type of supervision by a government agency.32861

       (d)(c) The offense occurs off the grounds of a local 32862
correctional facility, the victim of the offense is an employee of 32863
the local correctional facility or a probation department, the 32864
offense occurs during the employee's official work hours and while 32865
the employee is engaged in official work responsibilities, and the 32866
offense is committed by a person who is under custody in the 32867
facility subsequent to the person's arrest for any crime or 32868
delinquent act, subsequent to the person being charged with or 32869
convicted of any crime, or subsequent to the person being alleged 32870
to be or adjudicated a delinquent child and who temporarily is 32871
outside of the facility for any purpose or by a parolee, by an 32872
offender under transitional control, under a community control 32873
sanction, or on an escorted visit, by a person under post-release 32874
control, or by an offender under any other type of supervision by 32875
a government agency.32876

       (e)(d) The victim of the offense is a school teacher or 32877
administrator or a school bus operator, and the offense occurs in 32878
a school, on school premises, in a school building, on a school 32879
bus, or while the victim is outside of school premises or a school 32880
bus and is engaged in duties or official responsibilities 32881
associated with the victim's employment or position as a school 32882
teacher or administrator or a school bus operator, including, but 32883
not limited to, driving, accompanying, or chaperoning students at 32884
or on class or field trips, athletic events, or other school 32885
extracurricular activities or functions outside of school 32886
premises.32887

       (4)(5) If the victim of the offense is a peace officer or an 32888
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 32889
investigation, a firefighter, or a person performing emergency 32890
medical service, while in the performance of their official 32891
duties, assault is a felony of the fourth degree.32892

       (5)(6) If the victim of the offense is a peace officer or an 32893
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 32894
investigation and if the victim suffered serious physical harm as 32895
a result of the commission of the offense, assault is a felony of 32896
the fourth degree, and the court, pursuant to division (F) of 32897
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, shall impose as a mandatory 32898
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 32899
fourth degree that is at least twelve months in duration.32900

       (6)(7) If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee 32901
of a public children services agency or a private child placing 32902
agency and the offense relates to the officer's or employee's 32903
performance or anticipated performance of official 32904
responsibilities or duties, assault is either a felony of the 32905
fifth degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of 32906
or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that 32907
prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children 32908
services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior 32909
offense related to the officer's or employee's performance or 32910
anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, a 32911
felony of the fourth degree. 32912

       (7)(8) If the victim of the offense is a health care 32913
professional of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or 32914
a security officer of a hospital whom the offender knows or has 32915
reasonable cause to know is a health care professional of a 32916
hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security 32917
officer of a hospital, if the victim is engaged in the performance 32918
of the victim's duties, and if the hospital offers de-escalation 32919
or crisis intervention training for such professionals, workers, 32920
or officers, assault is one of the following:32921

        (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(8)(b) of 32922
this section, assault committed in the specified circumstances is 32923
a misdemeanor of the first degree. Notwithstanding the fine 32924
specified in division (A)(2)(b) of section 2929.28 of the Revised 32925
Code for a misdemeanor of the first degree, in sentencing the 32926
offender under this division and if the court decides to impose a 32927
fine, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more 32928
than five thousand dollars.32929

        (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 32930
pleaded guilty to one or more assault or homicide offenses 32931
committed against hospital personnel, assault committed in the 32932
specified circumstances is a felony of the fifth degree.32933

        (8)(9) If the victim of the offense is a judge, magistrate, 32934
prosecutor, or court official or employee whom the offender knows 32935
or has reasonable cause to know is a judge, magistrate, 32936
prosecutor, or court official or employee, and if the victim is 32937
engaged in the performance of the victim's duties, assault is one 32938
of the following:32939

        (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(8)(b) of 32940
this section, assault committed in the specified circumstances is 32941
a misdemeanor of the first degree. In sentencing the offender 32942
under this division, if the court decides to impose a fine, 32943
notwithstanding the fine specified in division (A)(2)(b) of 32944
section 2929.28 of the Revised Code for a misdemeanor of the first 32945
degree, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more 32946
than five thousand dollars.32947

        (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 32948
pleaded guilty to one or more assault or homicide offenses 32949
committed against justice system personnel, assault committed in 32950
the specified circumstances is a felony of the fifth degree.32951

       (9)(10) If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty 32952
to assault when it is a misdemeanor also is convicted of or pleads 32953
guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the 32954
Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the 32955
indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall 32956
sentence the offender to a mandatory jail term as provided in 32957
division (G) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.32958

       If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to 32959
assault when it is a felony also is convicted of or pleads guilty 32960
to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the 32961
Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the 32962
indictment, or information charging the offense, except as 32963
otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(6) of this section, the 32964
court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as 32965
provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 32966
Code.32967

       (D) As used in this section:32968

       (1) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 32969
2935.01 of the Revised Code.32970

       (2) "Firefighter" has the same meaning as in section 3937.41 32971
of the Revised Code.32972

       (3) "Emergency medical service" has the same meaning as in 32973
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.32974

       (4) "Local correctional facility" means a county, 32975
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 32976
jail or workhouse, a minimum security jail established under 32977
section 341.23 or 753.21 of the Revised Code, or another county, 32978
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 32979
facility used for the custody of persons arrested for any crime or 32980
delinquent act, persons charged with or convicted of any crime, or 32981
persons alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child.32982

       (5) "Employee of a local correctional facility" means a 32983
person who is an employee of the political subdivision or of one 32984
or more of the affiliated political subdivisions that operates the 32985
local correctional facility and who operates or assists in the 32986
operation of the facility.32987

       (6) "School teacher or administrator" means either of the 32988
following:32989

       (a) A person who is employed in the public schools of the 32990
state under a contract described in section 3311.77 or 3319.08 of 32991
the Revised Code in a position in which the person is required to 32992
have a certificate issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.311 32993
of the Revised Code.32994

       (b) A person who is employed by a nonpublic school for which 32995
the state board of education prescribes minimum standards under 32996
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code and who is certificated in 32997
accordance with section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.32998

       (7) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 32999
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.33000

       (8) "Escorted visit" means an escorted visit granted under 33001
section 2967.27 of the Revised Code.33002

       (9) "Post-release control" and "transitional control" have 33003
the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.33004

       (10) "Investigator of the bureau of criminal identification 33005
and investigation" has the same meaning as in section 2903.11 of 33006
the Revised Code.33007

       (11) "Health care professional" and "health care worker" have 33008
the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.33009

       (12) "Assault or homicide offense committed against hospital 33010
personnel" means a violation of this section or of section 33011
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, or 33012
2903.14 of the Revised Code committed in circumstances in which 33013
all of the following apply:33014

        (a) The victim of the offense was a health care professional 33015
of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security 33016
officer of a hospital.33017

        (b) The offender knew or had reasonable cause to know that 33018
the victim was a health care professional of a hospital, a health 33019
care worker of a hospital, or a security officer of a hospital.33020

        (c) The victim was engaged in the performance of the victim's 33021
duties.33022

        (d) The hospital offered de-escalation or crisis intervention 33023
training for such professionals, workers, or officers.33024

        (13) "De-escalation or crisis intervention training" means 33025
de-escalation or crisis intervention training for health care 33026
professionals of a hospital, health care workers of a hospital, 33027
and security officers of a hospital to facilitate interaction with 33028
patients, members of a patient's family, and visitors, including 33029
those with mental impairments. 33030

       (14) "Assault or homicide offense committed against justice 33031
system personnel" means a violation of this section or of section 33032
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, or 33033
2903.14 of the Revised Code committed in circumstances in which 33034
the victim of the offense was a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or 33035
court official or employee whom the offender knew or had 33036
reasonable cause to know was a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or 33037
court official or employee, and the victim was engaged in the 33038
performance of the victim's duties.33039

        (15) "Court official or employee" means any official or 33040
employee of a court created under the constitution or statutes of 33041
this state or of a United States court located in this state.33042

        (16) "Judge" means a judge of a court created under the 33043
constitution or statutes of this state or of a United States court 33044
located in this state.33045

        (17) "Magistrate" means an individual who is appointed by a 33046
court of record of this state and who has the powers and may 33047
perform the functions specified in Civil Rule 53, Criminal Rule 33048
19, or Juvenile Rule 40, or an individual who is appointed by a 33049
United States court located in this state who has similar powers 33050
and functions.33051

        (18) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 33052
of the Revised Code. 33053

       (19)(a) "Hospital" means, subject to division (D)(19)(b) of 33054
this section, an institution classified as a hospital under 33055
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 33056
patients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, psychiatric, 33057
or rehabilitation care or a hospital operated by a health 33058
maintenance organization.33059

        (b) "Hospital" does not include any of the following:33060

        (i) A facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 33061
Code, a health care facility operated by the department of mental 33062
health or the department of developmental disabilities, a health 33063
maintenance organization that does not operate a hospital, or the 33064
office of any private, licensed health care professional, whether 33065
organized for individual or group practice;33066

        (ii) An institution for the sick that is operated exclusively 33067
for patients who use spiritual means for healing and for whom the 33068
acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their religious 33069
beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting organization, exempt 33070
from federal income taxation under section 501 of the "Internal 33071
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, 33072
and providing twenty-four-hour nursing care pursuant to the 33073
exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code 33074
from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised 33075
Code.33076

        (20) "Health maintenance organization" has the same meaning 33077
as in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code. 33078

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 33079
Revised Code:33080

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:33081

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 33082
the Revised Code;33083

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 33084
of the Revised Code;33085

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 33086
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services33087
or by the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to 33088
sections 5119.025119.14 and 5123.03 of the Revised Code;33089

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.2233090
5119.34 of the Revised Code;33091

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 33092
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 33093
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;33094

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 33095
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 33096
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 33097
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 33098
others.33099

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 33100
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 33101
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 33102
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.33103

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 33104
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 33105
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 33106
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 33107
person.33108

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 33109
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 33110
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 33111
results in serious physical harm to the person.33112

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 33113
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 33114
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 33115
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 33116
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.33117

       Sec. 2907.22.  (A) No person shall knowingly:33118

       (1) Establish, maintain, operate, manage, supervise, control, 33119
or have an interest in a brothel or any other enterprise a purpose 33120
of which is to facilitate engagement in sexual activity for hire;33121

       (2) Supervise, manage, or control the activities of a 33122
prostitute in engaging in sexual activity for hire;33123

       (3) Transport another, or cause another to be transported 33124
across the boundary of this state or of any county in this state, 33125
in order to facilitate the other person's engaging in sexual 33126
activity for hire;33127

       (4) For the purpose of violating or facilitating a violation 33128
of this section, induce or procure another to engage in sexual 33129
activity for hire.33130

       (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of promoting 33131
prostitution. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 33132
promoting prostitution is a felony of the fourth degree. If any 33133
prostitute in the brothel involved in the offense, or the 33134
prostitute whose activities are supervised, managed, or controlled 33135
by the offender, or the person transported, induced, or procured 33136
by the offender to engage in sexual activity for hire, is a minor, 33137
whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor, then 33138
promoting prostitution is a felony of the third degree. If the 33139
offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 33140
specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised 33141
Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, 33142
or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the 33143
offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) 33144
of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the 33145
offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of 33146
section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.33147

       Sec. 2913.40.  (A) As used in this section: 33148

       (1) "Statement or representation" means any oral, written, 33149
electronic, electronic impulse, or magnetic communication that is 33150
used to identify an item of goods or a service for which 33151
reimbursement may be made under the medical assistancemedicaid33152
program or that states income and expense and is or may be used to 33153
determine a rate of reimbursement under the medical assistance33154
medicaid program. 33155

       (2) "Medical assistance program" means the program 33156
established by the department of job and family services to 33157
provide medical assistance under section 5111.01 of the Revised 33158
Code and the medicaid program of Title XIX of the "Social Security 33159
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended.33160

       (3) "Provider" means any person who has signed a provider 33161
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid33162
to provide goods or services pursuant to the medical assistance33163
medicaid program or any person who has signed an agreement with a 33164
party to such a provider agreement under which the person agrees 33165
to provide goods or services that are reimbursable under the 33166
medical assistancemedicaid program. 33167

       (4)(3) "Provider agreement" means an oral or written 33168
agreement between the department of job and family services and a 33169
person in which the person agrees to provide goods or services 33170
under the medical assistance programhas the same meaning as in 33171
section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 33172

       (5)(4) "Recipient" means any individual who receives goods or 33173
services from a provider under the medical assistancemedicaid33174
program. 33175

       (6)(5) "Records" means any medical, professional, financial, 33176
or business records relating to the treatment or care of any 33177
recipient, to goods or services provided to any recipient, or to 33178
rates paid for goods or services provided to any recipient and any 33179
records that are required by the rules of the medicaid director of 33180
job and family services to be kept for the medical assistance33181
medicaid program. 33182

       (B) No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a 33183
false or misleading statement or representation for use in 33184
obtaining reimbursement from the medical assistancemedicaid33185
program. 33186

       (C) No person, with purpose to commit fraud or knowing that 33187
the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do either of the 33188
following: 33189

       (1) Contrary to the terms of the person's provider agreement, 33190
charge, solicit, accept, or receive for goods or services that the 33191
person provides under the medical assistancemedicaid program any 33192
property, money, or other consideration in addition to the amount 33193
of reimbursement under the medical assistancemedicaid program and 33194
the person's provider agreement for the goods or services and any 33195
cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.20 of 33196
the Revised Code or rules adopted pursuant to section 5111.01, 33197
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 33198
regarding the medicaid program. 33199

       (2) Solicit, offer, or receive any remuneration, other than 33200
any cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.2033201
of the Revised Code or rules adopted under section 5111.01, 33202
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 33203
regarding the medicaid program, in cash or in kind, including, but 33204
not limited to, a kickback or rebate, in connection with the 33205
furnishing of goods or services for which whole or partial 33206
reimbursement is or may be made under the medical assistance33207
medicaid program. 33208

       (D) No person, having submitted a claim for or provided goods 33209
or services under the medical assistancemedicaid program, shall 33210
do either of the following for a period of at least six years 33211
after a reimbursement pursuant to that claim, or a reimbursement 33212
for those goods or services, is received under the medical 33213
assistancemedicaid program: 33214

       (1) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 33215
records that are necessary to fully disclose the nature of all 33216
goods or services for which the claim was submitted, or for which 33217
reimbursement was received, by the person; 33218

       (2) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 33219
records that are necessary to disclose fully all income and 33220
expenditures upon which rates of reimbursements were based for the 33221
person. 33222

       (E) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 33223
fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, medicaid 33224
fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of 33225
property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this section 33226
is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand 33227
five hundred dollars, medicaid fraud is a felony of the fifth 33228
degree. If the value of property, services, or funds obtained in 33229
violation of this section is seven thousand five hundred dollars 33230
or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, 33231
medicaid fraud is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of 33232
the property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this 33233
section is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, medicaid 33234
fraud is a felony of the third degree. 33235

       (F) Upon application of the governmental agency, office, or 33236
other entity that conducted the investigation and prosecution in a 33237
case under this section, the court shall order any person who is 33238
convicted of a violation of this section for receiving any 33239
reimbursement for furnishing goods or services under the medical 33240
assistancemedicaid program to which the person is not entitled to 33241
pay to the applicant its cost of investigating and prosecuting the 33242
case. The costs of investigation and prosecution that a defendant 33243
is ordered to pay pursuant to this division shall be in addition 33244
to any other penalties for the receipt of that reimbursement that 33245
are provided in this section, section 5111.035164.35 of the 33246
Revised Code, or any other provision of law. 33247

       (G) The provisions of this section are not intended to be 33248
exclusive remedies and do not preclude the use of any other 33249
criminal or civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this 33250
section. 33251

       Sec. 2913.401.  (A) As used in this section: 33252

       (1) "Medicaid benefitsservices" means benefits under the 33253
medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111.has the 33254
same meaning as in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 33255

       (2) "Property" means any real or personal property or other 33256
asset in which a person has any legal title or interest. 33257

       (B) No person shall knowingly do any of the following in an 33258
application for enrollment in the medicaid benefitsprogram or in 33259
a document that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 33260
determining eligibility to receivefor the medicaid benefits33261
program: 33262

       (1) Make or cause to be made a false or misleading statement; 33263

       (2) Conceal an interest in property; 33264

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this 33265
section, fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 33266
during the period beginning thirty-six months before submission of 33267
the application or document and ending on the date the application 33268
or document was submitted; 33269

       (b) Fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 33270
during the period beginning sixty months before submission of the 33271
application or document and ending on the date the application or 33272
document was submitted and that was made to an irrevocable trust a 33273
portion of which is not distributable to the applicant for 33274
medicaid benefits or the recipient of medicaid benefits or to a 33275
revocable trust. 33276

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 33277
eligibility fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 33278
a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. 33279
If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices paid as a result of 33280
the violation is one thousand dollars or more and is less than 33281
seven thousand five hundred dollars, a violation of this section 33282
is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the medicaid 33283
benefitsservices paid as a result of the violation is seven 33284
thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred 33285
fifty thousand dollars, a violation of this section is a felony of 33286
the fourth degree. If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices33287
paid as a result of the violation is one hundred fifty thousand 33288
dollars or more, a violation of this section is a felony of the 33289
third degree. 33290

       (2) In addition to imposing a sentence under division (C)(1) 33291
of this section, the court shall order that a person who is guilty 33292
of medicaid eligibility fraud make restitution in the full amount 33293
of any medicaid benefitsservices paid on behalf of an applicant 33294
for or recipient of medicaid benefits for which the applicant or 33295
recipient was not eligible, plus interest at the rate applicable 33296
to judgments on unreimbursed amounts from the date on which the 33297
benefitsmedicaid services were paid to the date on which 33298
restitution is made. 33299

       (3) The remedies and penalties provided in this section are 33300
not exclusive and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or 33301
civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this section. 33302

       (D) This section does not apply to a person who fully 33303
disclosed in an application for medicaid benefits or in a document 33304
that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 33305
determining eligibility to receivefor medicaid benefits all of 33306
the interests in property of the applicant for or recipient of 33307
medicaid benefits, all transfers of property by the applicant for 33308
or recipient of medicaid benefits, and the circumstances of all 33309
those transfers. 33310

       (E) Any amounts of medicaid benefitsservices recovered as 33311
restitution under this section and any interest on those amounts 33312
shall be credited to the general revenue fund, and any applicable 33313
federal share shall be returned to the appropriate agency or 33314
department of the United States. 33315

       Sec. 2919.271.  (A)(1)(a) If a defendant is charged with a 33316
violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal 33317
ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court 33318
may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant 33319
if the court determines that either of the following criteria 33320
apply:33321

       (i) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 33322
order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 33323
2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation 33324
allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical 33325
harm to the person or property of a family or household member 33326
covered by the order or agreement, or conduct by the defendant 33327
that caused a family or household member to believe that the 33328
defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that 33329
member's property.33330

       (ii) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 33331
order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the 33332
Revised Code or a protection order issued by a court of another 33333
state, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the 33334
defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of 33335
the person covered by the order, or conduct by the defendant that 33336
caused the person covered by the order to believe that the 33337
defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that 33338
person's property.33339

       (b) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 33340
2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is 33341
substantially similar to that section, the court may order an 33342
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant.33343

       (2) An evaluation ordered under division (A)(1) of this 33344
section shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date 33345
the order is entered pursuant to that division. In that order, the 33346
court shall do either of the following:33347

       (a) Order that the evaluation of the mental condition of the 33348
defendant be preceded by an examination conducted either by a 33349
forensic center that is designated by the department of mental 33350
healthmental health and addiction services to conduct 33351
examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with 33352
violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or 33353
of substantially similar municipal ordinances in the area in which 33354
the court is located, or by any other program or facility that is 33355
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 33356
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 33357
to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged 33358
with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code 33359
or of substantially similar municipal ordinances, and that is 33360
operated by either department or is certified by either department 33361
as being in compliance with the standards established under 33362
division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 33363
or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code.33364

       (b) Designate a center, program, or facility other than one 33365
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 33366
addiction services or the department of developmental 33367
disabilities, as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, 33368
to conduct the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 33369
condition of the defendant.33370

       Whether the court acts pursuant to division (A)(2)(a) or (b) 33371
of this section, the court may designate examiners other than the 33372
personnel of the center, program, facility, or department involved 33373
to make the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 33374
condition of the defendant.33375

       (B) If the court considers that additional evaluations of the 33376
mental condition of a defendant are necessary following the 33377
evaluation authorized by division (A) of this section, the court 33378
may order up to two additional similar evaluations. These 33379
evaluations shall be completed no later than thirty days from the 33380
date the applicable court order is entered. If more than one 33381
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant is ordered 33382
under this division, the prosecutor and the defendant may 33383
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 33384
one of the evaluations and preceding examinations.33385

       (C)(1) The court may order a defendant who has been released 33386
on bail to submit to an examination under division (A) or (B) of 33387
this section. The examination shall be conducted either at the 33388
detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined 33389
if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so 33390
specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, 33391
at the premises of the center, program, or facility. Additionally, 33392
the examination shall be conducted at the times established by the 33393
examiners involved. If such a defendant refuses to submit to an 33394
examination or a complete examination as required by the court or 33395
the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, the court 33396
may amend the conditions of the bail of the defendant and order 33397
the sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 33398
defendant to the detention facility in which the defendant would 33399
have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, 33400
or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners 33401
involved, to the premises of the center, program, or facility, for 33402
purposes of the examination.33403

       (2) A defendant who has not been released on bail shall be 33404
examined at the detention facility in which the defendant is 33405
confined or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or 33406
examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or 33407
facility.33408

       (D) The examiner of the mental condition of a defendant under 33409
division (A) or (B) of this section shall file a written report 33410
with the court within thirty days after the entry of an order for 33411
the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant. The 33412
report shall contain the findings of the examiner; the facts in 33413
reasonable detail on which the findings are based; the opinion of 33414
the examiner as to the mental condition of the defendant; the 33415
opinion of the examiner as to whether the defendant represents a 33416
substantial risk of physical harm to other persons as manifested 33417
by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent behavior, 33418
evidence of recent threats that placed other persons in reasonable 33419
fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or evidence of 33420
present dangerousness; and the opinion of the examiner as to the 33421
types of treatment or counseling that the defendant needs. The 33422
court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and 33423
defense counsel.33424

       (E) The costs of any evaluation and preceding examination of 33425
a defendant that is ordered pursuant to division (A) or (B) of 33426
this section shall be taxed as court costs in the criminal case.33427

       (F) If the examiner considers it necessary in order to make 33428
an accurate evaluation of the mental condition of a defendant, an 33429
examiner under division (A) or (B) of this section may request any 33430
family or household member of the defendant to provide the 33431
examiner with information. A family or household member may, but 33432
is not required to, provide information to the examiner upon 33433
receipt of the request.33434

       (G) As used in this section:33435

       (1) "Bail" includes a recognizance.33436

       (2) "Examiner" means a psychiatrist, a licensed independent 33437
social worker who is employed by a forensic center that is 33438
certified as being in compliance with the standards established 33439
under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 or division 33440
(C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code, a licensed 33441
professional clinical counselor who is employed at a forensic 33442
center that is certified as being in compliance with such 33443
standards, or a licensed clinical psychologist, except that in 33444
order to be an examiner, a licensed clinical psychologist shall 33445
meet the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of the 33446
Revised Code or be employed to conduct examinations by the 33447
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services33448
or by a forensic center certified as being in compliance with the 33449
standards established under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.0133450
5119.10 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code 33451
that is designated by the department of mental healthmental 33452
health and addiction services.33453

       (3) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 33454
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.33455

       (4) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 33456
of the Revised Code.33457

       (5) "Psychiatrist" and "licensed clinical psychologist" have 33458
the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.33459

       (6) "Protection order issued by a court of another state" has 33460
the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.33461

       Sec. 2921.01.  As used in sections 2921.01 to 2921.45 of the 33462
Revised Code:33463

       (A) "Public official" means any elected or appointed officer, 33464
or employee, or agent of the state or any political subdivision, 33465
whether in a temporary or permanent capacity, and includes, but is 33466
not limited to, legislators, judges, and law enforcement officers. 33467
"Public official" does not include an employee, officer, or 33468
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 33469
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 33470
Code.33471

       (B) "Public servant" means any of the following:33472

       (1) Any public official;33473

       (2) Any person performing ad hoc a governmental function, 33474
including, but not limited to, a juror, member of a temporary 33475
commission, master, arbitrator, advisor, or consultant;33476

       (3) A person who is a candidate for public office, whether or 33477
not the person is elected or appointed to the office for which the 33478
person is a candidate. A person is a candidate for purposes of 33479
this division if the person has been nominated according to law 33480
for election or appointment to public office, or if the person has 33481
filed a petition or petitions as required by law to have the 33482
person's name placed on the ballot in a primary, general, or 33483
special election, or if the person campaigns as a write-in 33484
candidate in any primary, general, or special election.33485

       "Public servant" does not include an employee, officer, or 33486
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 33487
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 33488
Code.33489

       (C) "Party official" means any person who holds an elective 33490
or appointive post in a political party in the United States or 33491
this state, by virtue of which the person directs, conducts, or 33492
participates in directing or conducting party affairs at any level 33493
of responsibility.33494

       (D) "Official proceeding" means any proceeding before a 33495
legislative, judicial, administrative, or other governmental 33496
agency or official authorized to take evidence under oath, and 33497
includes any proceeding before a referee, hearing examiner, 33498
commissioner, notary, or other person taking testimony or a 33499
deposition in connection with an official proceeding.33500

       (E) "Detention" means arrest; confinement in any vehicle 33501
subsequent to an arrest; confinement in any public or private 33502
facility for custody of persons charged with or convicted of crime 33503
in this state or another state or under the laws of the United 33504
States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or unruly 33505
child in this state or another state or under the laws of the 33506
United States; hospitalization, institutionalization, or 33507
confinement in any public or private facility that is ordered 33508
pursuant to or under the authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 33509
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 33510
Code; confinement in any vehicle for transportation to or from any 33511
facility of any of those natures; detention for extradition or 33512
deportation; except as provided in this division, supervision by 33513
any employee of any facility of any of those natures that is 33514
incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 33515
confinement in the facility but that occurs outside the facility; 33516
supervision by an employee of the department of rehabilitation and 33517
correction of a person on any type of release from a state 33518
correctional institution; or confinement in any vehicle, airplane, 33519
or place while being returned from outside of this state into this 33520
state by a private person or entity pursuant to a contract entered 33521
into under division (E) of section 311.29 of the Revised Code or 33522
division (B) of section 5149.03 of the Revised Code. For a person 33523
confined in a county jail who participates in a county jail 33524
industry program pursuant to section 5147.30 of the Revised Code, 33525
"detention" includes time spent at an assigned work site and going 33526
to and from the work site.33527

       (F) "Detention facility" means any public or private place 33528
used for the confinement of a person charged with or convicted of 33529
any crime in this state or another state or under the laws of the 33530
United States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or 33531
unruly child in this state or another state or under the laws of 33532
the United States.33533

       (G) "Valuable thing or valuable benefit" includes, but is not 33534
limited to, a contribution. This inclusion does not indicate or 33535
imply that a contribution was not included in those terms before 33536
September 17, 1986.33537

       (H) "Campaign committee," "contribution," "political action 33538
committee," "legislative campaign fund," "political party," and 33539
"political contributing entity" have the same meanings as in 33540
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.33541

       (I) "Provider agreement" and "medical assistance program" 33542
havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 2913.405164.0133543
of the Revised Code.33544

       Sec. 2921.13.  (A) No person shall knowingly make a false 33545
statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 33546
statement previously made, when any of the following applies:33547

       (1) The statement is made in any official proceeding.33548

       (2) The statement is made with purpose to incriminate 33549
another.33550

       (3) The statement is made with purpose to mislead a public 33551
official in performing the public official's official function.33552

       (4) The statement is made with purpose to secure a grant 33553
under Chapter 4143. of the Revised Code; the payment of 33554
unemployment compensation; Ohio works first; prevention, 33555
retention, and contingency benefits and services; disability 33556
financial assistance; retirement benefits or health care coverage 33557
from a state retirement system; economic development assistance, 33558
as defined in section 9.66 of the Revised Code; or other benefits 33559
administered by a governmental agency or paid out of a public 33560
treasury.33561

       (5) The statement is made with purpose to secure the issuance 33562
by a governmental agency of a license, permit, authorization, 33563
certificate, registration, release, or provider agreement.33564

       (6) The statement is sworn or affirmed before a notary public 33565
or another person empowered to administer oaths.33566

       (7) The statement is in writing on or in connection with a 33567
report or return that is required or authorized by law.33568

       (8) The statement is in writing and is made with purpose to 33569
induce another to extend credit to or employ the offender, to 33570
confer any degree, diploma, certificate of attainment, award of 33571
excellence, or honor on the offender, or to extend to or bestow 33572
upon the offender any other valuable benefit or distinction, when 33573
the person to whom the statement is directed relies upon it to 33574
that person's detriment.33575

       (9) The statement is made with purpose to commit or 33576
facilitate the commission of a theft offense.33577

       (10) The statement is knowingly made to a probate court in 33578
connection with any action, proceeding, or other matter within its 33579
jurisdiction, either orally or in a written document, including, 33580
but not limited to, an application, petition, complaint, or other 33581
pleading, or an inventory, account, or report.33582

       (11) The statement is made on an account, form, record, 33583
stamp, label, or other writing that is required by law.33584

       (12) The statement is made in connection with the purchase of 33585
a firearm, as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, and 33586
in conjunction with the furnishing to the seller of the firearm of 33587
a fictitious or altered driver's or commercial driver's license or 33588
permit, a fictitious or altered identification card, or any other 33589
document that contains false information about the purchaser's 33590
identity.33591

       (13) The statement is made in a document or instrument of 33592
writing that purports to be a judgment, lien, or claim of 33593
indebtedness and is filed or recorded with the secretary of state, 33594
a county recorder, or the clerk of a court of record.33595

       (14) The statement is made in an application filed with a 33596
county sheriff pursuant to section 2923.125 of the Revised Code in 33597
order to obtain or renew a concealed handgun license or is made in 33598
an affidavit submitted to a county sheriff to obtain a concealed 33599
handgun license on a temporary emergency basis under section 33600
2923.1213 of the Revised Code.33601

       (15) The statement is required under section 5743.71 of the 33602
Revised Code in connection with the person's purchase of 33603
cigarettes or tobacco products in a delivery sale.33604

       (B) No person, in connection with the purchase of a firearm, 33605
as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly 33606
furnish to the seller of the firearm a fictitious or altered 33607
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, a fictitious or 33608
altered identification card, or any other document that contains 33609
false information about the purchaser's identity.33610

       (C) No person, in an attempt to obtain a concealed handgun 33611
license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code, shall 33612
knowingly present to a sheriff a fictitious or altered document 33613
that purports to be certification of the person's competence in 33614
handling a handgun as described in division (B)(3) of that 33615
section. 33616

       (D) It is no defense to a charge under division (A)(6) of 33617
this section that the oath or affirmation was administered or 33618
taken in an irregular manner.33619

       (E) If contradictory statements relating to the same fact are 33620
made by the offender within the period of the statute of 33621
limitations for falsification, it is not necessary for the 33622
prosecution to prove which statement was false but only that one 33623
or the other was false.33624

       (F)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), 33625
(6), (7), (8), (10), (11), (13), or (15) of this section is guilty 33626
of falsification, a misdemeanor of the first degree.33627

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(9) of this section is 33628
guilty of falsification in a theft offense. Except as otherwise 33629
provided in this division, falsification in a theft offense is a 33630
misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or 33631
services stolen is one thousand dollars or more and is less than 33632
seven thousand five hundred dollars, falsification in a theft 33633
offense is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the 33634
property or services stolen is seven thousand five hundred dollars 33635
or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, 33636
falsification in a theft offense is a felony of the fourth degree. 33637
If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred 33638
fifty thousand dollars or more, falsification in a theft offense 33639
is a felony of the third degree.33640

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(12) or (B) of this section 33641
is guilty of falsification to purchase a firearm, a felony of the 33642
fifth degree.33643

       (4) Whoever violates division (A)(14) or (C) of this section 33644
is guilty of falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, 33645
a felony of the fourth degree.33646

       (G) A person who violates this section is liable in a civil 33647
action to any person harmed by the violation for injury, death, or 33648
loss to person or property incurred as a result of the commission 33649
of the offense and for reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, 33650
and other expenses incurred as a result of prosecuting the civil 33651
action commenced under this division. A civil action under this 33652
division is not the exclusive remedy of a person who incurs 33653
injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a 33654
violation of this section.33655

       Sec. 2921.22.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 33656
of this section, no person, knowing that a felony has been or is 33657
being committed, shall knowingly fail to report such information 33658
to law enforcement authorities.33659

       (2) No person, knowing that a violation of division (B) of 33660
section 2913.04 of the Revised Code has been, or is being 33661
committed or that the person has received information derived from 33662
such a violation, shall knowingly fail to report the violation to 33663
law enforcement authorities.33664

       (B) Except for conditions that are within the scope of 33665
division (E) of this section, no physician, limited practitioner, 33666
nurse, or other person giving aid to a sick or injured person 33667
shall negligently fail to report to law enforcement authorities 33668
any gunshot or stab wound treated or observed by the physician, 33669
limited practitioner, nurse, or person, or any serious physical 33670
harm to persons that the physician, limited practitioner, nurse, 33671
or person knows or has reasonable cause to believe resulted from 33672
an offense of violence.33673

       (C) No person who discovers the body or acquires the first 33674
knowledge of the death of a person shall fail to report the death 33675
immediately to a physician whom the person knows to be treating 33676
the deceased for a condition from which death at such time would 33677
not be unexpected, or to a law enforcement officer, an ambulance 33678
service, an emergency squad, or the coroner in a political 33679
subdivision in which the body is discovered, the death is believed 33680
to have occurred, or knowledge concerning the death is obtained.33681

       (D) No person shall fail to provide upon request of the 33682
person to whom a report required by division (C) of this section 33683
was made, or to any law enforcement officer who has reasonable 33684
cause to assert the authority to investigate the circumstances 33685
surrounding the death, any facts within the person's knowledge 33686
that may have a bearing on the investigation of the death.33687

       (E)(1) As used in this division, "burn injury" means any of 33688
the following:33689

       (a) Second or third degree burns;33690

       (b) Any burns to the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal 33691
edema due to the inhalation of superheated air;33692

       (c) Any burn injury or wound that may result in death;33693

       (d) Any physical harm to persons caused by or as the result 33694
of the use of fireworks, novelties and trick noisemakers, and wire 33695
sparklers, as each is defined by section 3743.01 of the Revised 33696
Code.33697

       (2) No physician, nurse, or limited practitioner who, outside 33698
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility, attends or 33699
treats a person who has sustained a burn injury that is inflicted 33700
by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows evidence 33701
of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or criminal 33702
manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately to the 33703
local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, if there 33704
is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the person 33705
is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law enforcement 33706
authorities.33707

       (3) No manager, superintendent, or other person in charge of 33708
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility in which a 33709
person is attended or treated for any burn injury that is 33710
inflicted by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows 33711
evidence of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or 33712
criminal manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately 33713
to the local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, 33714
if there is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the 33715
person is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law 33716
enforcement authorities.33717

       (4) No person who is required to report any burn injury under 33718
division (E)(2) or (3) of this section shall fail to file, within 33719
three working days after attending or treating the victim, a 33720
written report of the burn injury with the office of the state 33721
fire marshal. The report shall comply with the uniform standard 33722
developed by the state fire marshal pursuant to division (A)(15) 33723
of section 3737.22 of the Revised Code.33724

       (5) Anyone participating in the making of reports under 33725
division (E) of this section or anyone participating in a judicial 33726
proceeding resulting from the reports is immune from any civil or 33727
criminal liability that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as 33728
a result of such actions. Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the 33729
Revised Code, the physician-patient relationship is not a ground 33730
for excluding evidence regarding a person's burn injury or the 33731
cause of the burn injury in any judicial proceeding resulting from 33732
a report submitted under division (E) of this section.33733

       (F)(1) Any doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, 33734
hospital intern or resident, registered or licensed practical 33735
nurse, psychologist, social worker, independent social worker, 33736
social work assistant, professional clinical counselor, or 33737
professional counselor who knows or has reasonable cause to 33738
believe that a patient or client has been the victim of domestic 33739
violence, as defined in section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, shall 33740
note that knowledge or belief and the basis for it in the 33741
patient's or client's records.33742

       (2) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 33743
doctor-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding any 33744
information regarding the report containing the knowledge or 33745
belief noted under division (F)(1) of this section, and the 33746
information may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the 33747
Rules of Evidence.33748

       (G) Divisions (A) and (D) of this section do not require 33749
disclosure of information, when any of the following applies:33750

       (1) The information is privileged by reason of the 33751
relationship between attorney and client; doctor and patient; 33752
licensed psychologist or licensed school psychologist and client; 33753
member of the clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest and any person 33754
communicating information confidentially to the member of the 33755
clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest for a religious counseling 33756
purpose of a professional character; husband and wife; or a 33757
communications assistant and those who are a party to a 33758
telecommunications relay service call.33759

       (2) The information would tend to incriminate a member of the 33760
actor's immediate family.33761

       (3) Disclosure of the information would amount to revealing a 33762
news source, privileged under section 2739.04 or 2739.12 of the 33763
Revised Code.33764

       (4) Disclosure of the information would amount to disclosure 33765
by a member of the ordained clergy of an organized religious body 33766
of a confidential communication made to that member of the clergy 33767
in that member's capacity as a member of the clergy by a person 33768
seeking the aid or counsel of that member of the clergy.33769

       (5) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 33770
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 33771
with a bona fide program of treatment or services for drug 33772
dependent persons or persons in danger of drug dependence, which 33773
program is maintained or conducted by a hospital, clinic, person, 33774
agency, or organizationservices provider certified pursuant to 33775
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code.33776

       (6) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 33777
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 33778
with a bona fide program for providing counseling services to 33779
victims of crimes that are violations of section 2907.02 or 33780
2907.05 of the Revised Code or to victims of felonious sexual 33781
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 33782
Code. As used in this division, "counseling services" include 33783
services provided in an informal setting by a person who, by 33784
education or experience, is competent to provide those services.33785

       (H) No disclosure of information pursuant to this section 33786
gives rise to any liability or recrimination for a breach of 33787
privilege or confidence.33788

       (I) Whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is 33789
guilty of failure to report a crime. Violation of division (A)(1) 33790
of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Violation 33791
of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the 33792
second degree.33793

       (J) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is 33794
guilty of failure to report knowledge of a death, a misdemeanor of 33795
the fourth degree.33796

       (K)(1) Whoever negligently violates division (E) of this 33797
section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.33798

       (2) Whoever knowingly violates division (E) of this section 33799
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.33800

       Sec. 2921.36.  (A) No person shall knowingly convey, or 33801
attempt to convey, onto the grounds of a detention facility or of 33802
an institution, office building, or other place that is under the 33803
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 33804
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 33805
the department of youth services, or the department of 33806
rehabilitation and correction any of the following items:33807

       (1) Any deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, as defined in 33808
section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, or any part of or ammunition 33809
for use in such a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance;33810

       (2) Any drug of abuse, as defined in section 3719.011 of the 33811
Revised Code;33812

       (3) Any intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of 33813
the Revised Code.33814

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person 33815
who conveys or attempts to convey an item onto the grounds of a 33816
detention facility or of an institution, office building, or other 33817
place under the control of the department of mental healthmental 33818
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 33819
disabilities, the department of youth services, or the department 33820
of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to the written 33821
authorization of the person in charge of the detention facility or 33822
the institution, office building, or other place and in accordance 33823
with the written rules of the detention facility or the 33824
institution, office building, or other place.33825

       (C) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 33826
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 33827
confined in a youth services facility, to a prisoner who is 33828
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment, or to 33829
any patient in an institution under the control of the department 33830
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 33831
department of developmental disabilities any item listed in 33832
division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.33833

       (D) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 33834
cash to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a 33835
child confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who 33836
is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment.33837

       (E) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 33838
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 33839
confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who is 33840
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment a 33841
cellular telephone, two-way radio, or other electronic 33842
communications device.33843

       (F)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under 33844
division (A)(1) of this section that the weapon or dangerous 33845
ordnance in question was being transported in a motor vehicle for 33846
any lawful purpose, that it was not on the actor's person, and, if 33847
the weapon or dangerous ordnance in question was a firearm, that 33848
it was unloaded and was being carried in a closed package, box, or 33849
case or in a compartment that can be reached only by leaving the 33850
vehicle.33851

       (2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division 33852
(C) of this section that the actor was not otherwise prohibited by 33853
law from delivering the item to the confined person, the child, 33854
the prisoner, or the patient and that either of the following 33855
applies:33856

       (a) The actor was permitted by the written rules of the 33857
detention facility or the institution, office building, or other 33858
place to deliver the item to the confined person or the patient.33859

       (b) The actor was given written authorization by the person 33860
in charge of the detention facility or the institution, office 33861
building, or other place to deliver the item to the confined 33862
person or the patient.33863

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section or 33864
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving an 33865
item listed in division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of 33866
illegal conveyance of weapons onto the grounds of a specified 33867
governmental facility, a felony of the third degree. If the 33868
offender is an officer or employee of the department of 33869
rehabilitation and correction, the court shall impose a mandatory 33870
prison term.33871

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section or 33872
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 33873
drug of abuse is guilty of illegal conveyance of drugs of abuse 33874
onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a felony of 33875
the third degree. If the offender is an officer or employee of the 33876
department of rehabilitation and correction or of the department 33877
of youth services, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term.33878

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section or 33879
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 33880
intoxicating liquor is guilty of illegal conveyance of 33881
intoxicating liquor onto the grounds of a specified governmental 33882
facility, a misdemeanor of the second degree.33883

       (4) Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty 33884
of illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention 33885
facility, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender 33886
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 33887
of division (D) of this section, illegal conveyance of cash onto 33888
the grounds of a detention facility is a felony of the fifth 33889
degree.33890

       (5) Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty 33891
of illegal conveyance of a communications device onto the grounds 33892
of a specified governmental facility, a misdemeanor of the first 33893
degree, or if the offender previously has been convicted of or 33894
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E) of this section, a 33895
felony of the fifth degree.33896

       Sec. 2921.38.  (A) No person who is confined in a detention 33897
facility, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another 33898
person, shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come 33899
into contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 33900
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 33901
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 33902
other manner.33903

       (B) No person, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or 33904
alarm a law enforcement officer, shall cause or attempt to cause 33905
the law enforcement officer to come into contact with blood, 33906
semen, urine, feces, or another bodily substance by throwing the 33907
bodily substance at the law enforcement officer, by expelling the 33908
bodily substance upon the law enforcement officer, or in any other 33909
manner.33910

       (C) No person, with knowledge that the person is a carrier of 33911
the virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a 33912
carrier of a hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis and 33913
with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another person, 33914
shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come into 33915
contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 33916
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 33917
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 33918
other manner.33919

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of harassment 33920
with a bodily substance. A violation of division (A) or (B) of 33921
this section is a felony of the fifth degree. A violation of 33922
division (C) of this section is a felony of the third degree.33923

       (E)(1) The court, on request of the prosecutor, or the law 33924
enforcement authority responsible for the investigation of the 33925
violation, shall cause a person who allegedly has committed a 33926
violation of this section to submit to one or more appropriate 33927
tests to determine if the person is a carrier of the virus that 33928
causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a carrier of a 33929
hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis.33930

       (2) The court shall charge the offender with the costs of the 33931
test or tests ordered under division (E)(1) of this section unless 33932
the court determines that the accused is unable to pay, in which 33933
case the costs shall be charged to the entity that operates the 33934
detention facility in which the alleged offense occurred.33935

       (F) This section does not apply to a person who is 33936
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a facility 33937
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 33938
addiction services or the department of developmental 33939
disabilities.33940

       Sec. 2923.125.  (A) This section applies with respect to the 33941
application for and issuance by this state of concealed handgun 33942
licenses other than concealed handgun licenses on a temporary 33943
emergency basis that are issued under section 2923.1213 of the 33944
Revised Code. Upon the request of a person who wishes to obtain a 33945
concealed handgun license with respect to which this section 33946
applies or to renew a concealed handgun license with respect to 33947
which this section applies, a sheriff, as provided in division (I) 33948
of this section, shall provide to the person free of charge an 33949
application form and the web site address at which the pamphlet 33950
described in division (B) of section 109.731 of the Revised Code 33951
may be found. A sheriff shall accept a completed application form 33952
and the fee, items, materials, and information specified in 33953
divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section at the times and in the 33954
manners described in division (I) of this section.33955

        (B) An applicant for a concealed handgun license with respect 33956
to which this section applies shall submit a completed application 33957
form and all of the following to the sheriff of the county in 33958
which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county 33959
adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides:33960

       (1)(a) A nonrefundable license fee as described in either of 33961
the following: 33962

       (i) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 33963
for five or more years, a fee of sixty-seven dollars;33964

       (ii) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 33965
for less than five years, a fee of sixty-seven dollars plus the 33966
actual cost of having a background check performed by the federal 33967
bureau of investigation.33968

       (b) No sheriff shall require an applicant to pay for the cost 33969
of a background check performed by the bureau of criminal 33970
identification and investigation.33971

       (c) A sheriff shall waive the payment of the license fee 33972
described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section in connection with 33973
an initial or renewal application for a license that is submitted 33974
by an applicant who is a retired peace officer, a retired person 33975
described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised 33976
Code, or a retired federal law enforcement officer who, prior to 33977
retirement, was authorized under federal law to carry a firearm in 33978
the course of duty, unless the retired peace officer, person, or 33979
federal law enforcement officer retired as the result of a mental 33980
disability.33981

       (d) The sheriff shall deposit all fees paid by an applicant 33982
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section into the sheriff's 33983
concealed handgun license issuance fund established pursuant to 33984
section 311.42 of the Revised Code. The county shall distribute 33985
the fees in accordance with section 311.42 of the Revised Code.33986

       (2) A color photograph of the applicant that was taken within 33987
thirty days prior to the date of the application;33988

       (3) One or more of the following competency certifications, 33989
each of which shall reflect that, regarding a certification 33990
described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), (e), or (f) of this 33991
section, within the three years immediately preceding the 33992
application the applicant has performed that to which the 33993
competency certification relates and that, regarding a 33994
certification described in division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the 33995
applicant currently is an active or reserve member of the armed 33996
forces of the United States or within the six years immediately 33997
preceding the application the honorable discharge or retirement to 33998
which the competency certification relates occurred:33999

        (a) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion 34000
of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms 34001
safety instructor course, class, or program that was offered by or 34002
under the auspices of the national rifle association and that 34003
complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this 34004
section;34005

       (b) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion 34006
of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms 34007
safety instructor course, class, or program that satisfies all of 34008
the following criteria:34009

       (i) It was open to members of the general public.34010

       (ii) It utilized qualified instructors who were certified by 34011
the national rifle association, the executive director of the Ohio 34012
peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.75 or 34013
109.78 of the Revised Code, or a governmental official or entity 34014
of another state.34015

       (iii) It was offered by or under the auspices of a law 34016
enforcement agency of this or another state or the United States, 34017
a public or private college, university, or other similar 34018
postsecondary educational institution located in this or another 34019
state, a firearms training school located in this or another 34020
state, or another type of public or private entity or organization 34021
located in this or another state.34022

       (iv) It complies with the requirements set forth in division 34023
(G) of this section.34024

        (c) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion 34025
of a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources 34026
peace officer training school that is approved by the executive 34027
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to 34028
section 109.75 of the Revised Code and that complies with the 34029
requirements set forth in division (G) of this section, or the 34030
applicant has satisfactorily completed and been issued a 34031
certificate of completion of a basic firearms training program, a 34032
firearms requalification training program, or another basic 34033
training program described in section 109.78 or 109.801 of the 34034
Revised Code that complies with the requirements set forth in 34035
division (G) of this section;34036

        (d) A document that evidences both of the following:34037

        (i) That the applicant is an active or reserve member of the 34038
armed forces of the United States, was honorably discharged from 34039
military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the 34040
United States, is a retired trooper of the state highway patrol, 34041
or is a retired peace officer or federal law enforcement officer 34042
described in division (B)(1) of this section or a retired person 34043
described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised 34044
Code and division (B)(1) of this section;34045

        (ii) That, through participation in the military service or 34046
through the former employment described in division (B)(3)(d)(i) 34047
of this section, the applicant acquired experience with handling 34048
handguns or other firearms, and the experience so acquired was 34049
equivalent to training that the applicant could have acquired in a 34050
course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), or 34051
(c) of this section.34052

        (e) A certificate or another similar document that evidences 34053
satisfactory completion of a firearms training, safety, or 34054
requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or 34055
program that is not otherwise described in division (B)(3)(a), 34056
(b), (c), or (d) of this section, that was conducted by an 34057
instructor who was certified by an official or entity of the 34058
government of this or another state or the United States or by the 34059
national rifle association, and that complies with the 34060
requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;34061

        (f) An affidavit that attests to the applicant's satisfactory 34062
completion of a course, class, or program described in division 34063
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section and that is subscribed 34064
by the applicant's instructor or an authorized representative of 34065
the entity that offered the course, class, or program or under 34066
whose auspices the course, class, or program was offered.34067

       (4) A certification by the applicant that the applicant has 34068
read the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training 34069
commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that 34070
reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force 34071
matters.34072

       (5) A set of fingerprints of the applicant provided as 34073
described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code through use of an 34074
electronic fingerprint reading device or, if the sheriff to whom 34075
the application is submitted does not possess and does not have 34076
ready access to the use of such a reading device, on a standard 34077
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 34078
109.572 of the Revised Code.34079

        (C) Upon receipt of the completed application form, 34080
supporting documentation, and, if not waived, license fee of an 34081
applicant under this section, a sheriff, in the manner specified 34082
in section 311.41 of the Revised Code, shall conduct or cause to 34083
be conducted the criminal records check and the incompetency 34084
records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code.34085

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) or (4) of this 34086
section, within forty-five days after a sheriff's receipt of an 34087
applicant's completed application form for a concealed handgun 34088
license under this section, the supporting documentation, and, if 34089
not waived, the license fee, the sheriff shall make available 34090
through the law enforcement automated data system in accordance 34091
with division (H) of this section the information described in 34092
that division and, upon making the information available through 34093
the system, shall issue to the applicant a concealed handgun 34094
license that shall expire as described in division (D)(2)(a) of 34095
this section if all of the following apply:34096

       (a) The applicant is legally living in the United States, has 34097
been a resident of this state for at least forty-five days, and 34098
has been a resident of the county in which the person seeks the 34099
license or a county adjacent to the county in which the person 34100
seeks the license for at least thirty days. For purposes of 34101
division (D)(1)(a) of this section:34102

       (i) If a person is absent from the United States, from this 34103
state, or from a particular county in this state in compliance 34104
with military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of 34105
the armed forces of the United States and if prior to leaving this 34106
state in compliance with those orders the person was legally 34107
living in the United States and was a resident of this state, the 34108
person, solely by reason of that absence, shall not be considered 34109
to have lost the person's status as living in the United States or 34110
the person's residence in this state or in the county in which the 34111
person was a resident prior to leaving this state in compliance 34112
with those orders, without regard to whether or not the person 34113
intends to return to this state or to that county, shall not be 34114
considered to have acquired a residence in any other state, and 34115
shall not be considered to have become a resident of any other 34116
state.34117

       (ii) If a person is present in this state in compliance with 34118
military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of the 34119
armed forces of the United States for at least forty-five days, 34120
the person shall be considered to have been a resident of this 34121
state for that period of at least forty-five days, and, if a 34122
person is present in a county of this state in compliance with 34123
military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of the 34124
armed forces of the United States for at least thirty days, the 34125
person shall be considered to have been a resident of that county 34126
for that period of at least thirty days.34127

        (b) The applicant is at least twenty-one years of age.34128

        (c) The applicant is not a fugitive from justice.34129

       (d) The applicant is not under indictment for or otherwise 34130
charged with a felony; an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 34131
4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, 34132
use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a 34133
drug of abuse; a misdemeanor offense of violence; or a violation 34134
of section 2903.14 or 2923.1211 of the Revised Code.34135

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(5) of this 34136
section, the applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty 34137
to a felony or an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of 34138
the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, 34139
administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of 34140
abuse; has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing 34141
an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony or would be 34142
an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised 34143
Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, 34144
administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of 34145
abuse; and has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 34146
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of 34147
section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the 34148
violation is a peace officer, regardless of whether the applicant 34149
was sentenced under division (C)(3)(4) of that section.34150

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(5) of this 34151
section, the applicant, within three years of the date of the 34152
application, has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 34153
misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation 34154
of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 34155
2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a 34156
peace officer, or a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of 34157
the Revised Code; and has not been adjudicated a delinquent child 34158
for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a 34159
misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation 34160
of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 34161
2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a 34162
peace officer or for committing an act that if committed by an 34163
adult would be a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of the 34164
Revised Code.34165

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(e) of 34166
this section, the applicant, within five years of the date of the 34167
application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 34168
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing two or more 34169
violations of section 2903.13 or 2903.14 of the Revised Code.34170

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(5) of this 34171
section, the applicant, within ten years of the date of the 34172
application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 34173
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of 34174
section 2921.33 of the Revised Code.34175

       (i) The applicant has not been adjudicated as a mental 34176
defective, has not been committed to any mental institution, is 34177
not under adjudication of mental incompetence, has not been found 34178
by a court to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization 34179
by court order, and is not an involuntary patient other than one 34180
who is a patient only for purposes of observation. As used in this 34181
division, "mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 34182
order" and "patient" have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 34183
of the Revised Code.34184

       (j) The applicant is not currently subject to a civil 34185
protection order, a temporary protection order, or a protection 34186
order issued by a court of another state.34187

       (k) The applicant certifies that the applicant desires a 34188
legal means to carry a concealed handgun for defense of the 34189
applicant or a member of the applicant's family while engaged in 34190
lawful activity.34191

       (l) The applicant submits a competency certification of the 34192
type described in division (B)(3) of this section and submits a 34193
certification of the type described in division (B)(4) of this 34194
section regarding the applicant's reading of the pamphlet prepared 34195
by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 34196
109.731 of the Revised Code.34197

       (m) The applicant currently is not subject to a suspension 34198
imposed under division (A)(2) of section 2923.128 of the Revised 34199
Code of a concealed handgun license that previously was issued to 34200
the applicant under this section or section 2923.1213 of the 34201
Revised Code.34202

       (2)(a) A concealed handgun license that a sheriff issues 34203
under division (D)(1) of this section shall expire five years 34204
after the date of issuance. 34205

       If a sheriff issues a license under this section, the sheriff 34206
shall place on the license a unique combination of letters and 34207
numbers identifying the license in accordance with the procedure 34208
prescribed by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant 34209
to section 109.731 of the Revised Code.34210

       (b) If a sheriff denies an application under this section 34211
because the applicant does not satisfy the criteria described in 34212
division (D)(1) of this section, the sheriff shall specify the 34213
grounds for the denial in a written notice to the applicant. The 34214
applicant may appeal the denial pursuant to section 119.12 of the 34215
Revised Code in the county served by the sheriff who denied the 34216
application. If the denial was as a result of the criminal records 34217
check conducted pursuant to section 311.41 of the Revised Code and 34218
if, pursuant to section 2923.127 of the Revised Code, the 34219
applicant challenges the criminal records check results using the 34220
appropriate challenge and review procedure specified in that 34221
section, the time for filing the appeal pursuant to section 119.12 34222
of the Revised Code and this division is tolled during the 34223
pendency of the request or the challenge and review. If the court 34224
in an appeal under section 119.12 of the Revised Code and this 34225
division enters a judgment sustaining the sheriff's refusal to 34226
grant to the applicant a concealed handgun license, the applicant 34227
may file a new application beginning one year after the judgment 34228
is entered. If the court enters a judgment in favor of the 34229
applicant, that judgment shall not restrict the authority of a 34230
sheriff to suspend or revoke the license pursuant to section 34231
2923.128 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or to refuse to renew 34232
the license for any proper cause that may occur after the date the 34233
judgment is entered. In the appeal, the court shall have full 34234
power to dispose of all costs.34235

       (3) If the sheriff with whom an application for a concealed 34236
handgun license was filed under this section becomes aware that 34237
the applicant has been arrested for or otherwise charged with an 34238
offense that would disqualify the applicant from holding the 34239
license, the sheriff shall suspend the processing of the 34240
application until the disposition of the case arising from the 34241
arrest or charge.34242

       (4) If the sheriff determines that the applicant is legally 34243
living in the United States and is a resident of the county in 34244
which the applicant seeks the license or of an adjacent county but 34245
does not yet meet the residency requirements described in division 34246
(D)(1)(a) of this section, the sheriff shall not deny the license 34247
because of the residency requirements but shall not issue the 34248
license until the applicant meets those residency requirements.34249

       (5) If an applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 34250
to an offense identified in division (D)(1)(e), (f), or (h) of 34251
this section or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for 34252
committing an act or violation identified in any of those 34253
divisions, and if a court has ordered the sealing or expungement 34254
of the records of that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication 34255
pursuant to sections 2151.355 to 2151.358, sections 2953.31 to 34256
2953.36, or section 2953.37 of the Revised Code or a court has 34257
granted the applicant relief pursuant to section 2923.14 of the 34258
Revised Code from the disability imposed pursuant to section 34259
2923.13 of the Revised Code relative to that conviction, guilty 34260
plea, or adjudication, the sheriff with whom the application was 34261
submitted shall not consider the conviction, guilty plea, or 34262
adjudication in making a determination under division (D)(1) or 34263
(F) of this section or, in relation to an application for a 34264
concealed handgun license on a temporary emergency basis submitted 34265
under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, in making a 34266
determination under division (B)(2) of that section.34267

       (E) If a concealed handgun license issued under this section 34268
is lost or is destroyed, the licensee may obtain from the sheriff 34269
who issued that license a duplicate license upon the payment of a 34270
fee of fifteen dollars and the submission of an affidavit 34271
attesting to the loss or destruction of the license. The sheriff, 34272
in accordance with the procedures prescribed in section 109.731 of 34273
the Revised Code, shall place on the replacement license a 34274
combination of identifying numbers different from the combination 34275
on the license that is being replaced.34276

       (F)(1) A licensee who wishes to renew a concealed handgun 34277
license issued under this section shall do so not earlier than 34278
ninety days before the expiration date of the license or at any 34279
time after the expiration date of the license by filing with the 34280
sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or with the 34281
sheriff of an adjacent county an application for renewal of the 34282
license obtained pursuant to division (D) of this section, a 34283
certification by the applicant that, subsequent to the issuance of 34284
the license, the applicant has reread the pamphlet prepared by the 34285
Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 34286
of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and 34287
use of deadly force matters, and a nonrefundable license renewal 34288
fee in an amount determined pursuant to division (F)(4) of this 34289
section unless the fee is waived.34290

       (2) A sheriff shall accept a completed renewal application, 34291
the license renewal fee, and the information specified in division 34292
(F)(1) of this section at the times and in the manners described 34293
in division (I) of this section. Upon receipt of a completed 34294
renewal application, of certification that the applicant has 34295
reread the specified pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer 34296
training commission, and of a license renewal fee unless the fee 34297
is waived, a sheriff, in the manner specified in section 311.41 of 34298
the Revised Code shall conduct or cause to be conducted the 34299
criminal records check and the incompetency records check 34300
described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code. The sheriff shall 34301
renew the license if the sheriff determines that the applicant 34302
continues to satisfy the requirements described in division (D)(1) 34303
of this section, except that the applicant is not required to meet 34304
the requirements of division (D)(1)(l) of this section. A renewed 34305
license shall expire five years after the date of issuance. A 34306
renewed license is subject to division (E) of this section and 34307
sections 2923.126 and 2923.128 of the Revised Code. A sheriff 34308
shall comply with divisions (D)(2) to (4) of this section when the 34309
circumstances described in those divisions apply to a requested 34310
license renewal. If a sheriff denies the renewal of a concealed 34311
handgun license, the applicant may appeal the denial, or challenge 34312
the criminal record check results that were the basis of the 34313
denial if applicable, in the same manner as specified in division 34314
(D)(2)(b) of this section and in section 2923.127 of the Revised 34315
Code, regarding the denial of a license under this section.34316

       (3) A renewal application submitted pursuant to division (F) 34317
of this section shall only require the licensee to list on the 34318
application form information and matters occurring since the date 34319
of the licensee's last application for a license pursuant to 34320
division (B) or (F) of this section. A sheriff conducting the 34321
criminal records check and the incompetency records check 34322
described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code shall conduct the 34323
check only from the date of the licensee's last application for a 34324
license pursuant to division (B) or (F) of this section through 34325
the date of the renewal application submitted pursuant to division 34326
(F) of this section.34327

       (4) An applicant for a renewal concealed handgun license 34328
under this section shall submit to the sheriff of the county in 34329
which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county 34330
adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides a 34331
nonrefundable license fee as described in either of the following:34332

       (a) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 34333
for five or more years, a fee of fifty dollars;34334

       (b) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 34335
for less than five years, a fee of fifty dollars plus the actual 34336
cost of having a background check performed by the federal bureau 34337
of investigation.34338

       (G)(1) Each course, class, or program described in division 34339
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall provide to each 34340
person who takes the course, class, or program the web site 34341
address at which the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer 34342
training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised 34343
Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly 34344
force matters may be found. Each such course, class, or program 34345
described in one of those divisions shall include at least twelve 34346
hours of training in the safe handling and use of a firearm that 34347
shall include all of the following:34348

        (a) At least ten hours of training on the following matters:34349

       (i) The ability to name, explain, and demonstrate the rules 34350
for safe handling of a handgun and proper storage practices for 34351
handguns and ammunition;34352

        (ii) The ability to demonstrate and explain how to handle 34353
ammunition in a safe manner;34354

       (iii) The ability to demonstrate the knowledge, skills, and 34355
attitude necessary to shoot a handgun in a safe manner;34356

       (iv) Gun handling training.34357

       (b) At least two hours of training that consists of range 34358
time and live-fire training.34359

        (2) To satisfactorily complete the course, class, or program 34360
described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section, 34361
the applicant shall pass a competency examination that shall 34362
include both of the following:34363

       (a) A written section on the ability to name and explain the 34364
rules for the safe handling of a handgun and proper storage 34365
practices for handguns and ammunition;34366

       (b) A physical demonstration of competence in the use of a 34367
handgun and in the rules for safe handling and storage of a 34368
handgun and a physical demonstration of the attitude necessary to 34369
shoot a handgun in a safe manner.34370

        (3) The competency certification described in division 34371
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall be dated and 34372
shall attest that the course, class, or program the applicant 34373
successfully completed met the requirements described in division 34374
(G)(1) of this section and that the applicant passed the 34375
competency examination described in division (G)(2) of this 34376
section.34377

       (H) Upon deciding to issue a concealed handgun license, 34378
deciding to issue a replacement concealed handgun license, or 34379
deciding to renew a concealed handgun license pursuant to this 34380
section, and before actually issuing or renewing the license, the 34381
sheriff shall make available through the law enforcement automated 34382
data system all information contained on the license. If the 34383
license subsequently is suspended under division (A)(1) or (2) of 34384
section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, revoked pursuant to division 34385
(B)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, or lost or 34386
destroyed, the sheriff also shall make available through the law 34387
enforcement automated data system a notation of that fact. The 34388
superintendent of the state highway patrol shall ensure that the 34389
law enforcement automated data system is so configured as to 34390
permit the transmission through the system of the information 34391
specified in this division.34392

       (I) A sheriff shall accept a completed application form or 34393
renewal application, and the fee, items, materials, and 34394
information specified in divisions (B)(1) to (5) or division (F) 34395
of this section, whichever is applicable, and shall provide an 34396
application form or renewal application to any person during at 34397
least fifteen hours a week and shall provide the web site address 34398
at which the pamphlet described in division (B) of section 109.731 34399
of the Revised Code may be found at any time, upon request. The 34400
sheriff shall post notice of the hours during which the sheriff is 34401
available to accept or provide the information described in this 34402
division.34403

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 34404
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 34405
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 34406
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 34407
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 34408
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 34409
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 34410
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 34411
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 34412
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 34413
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 34414
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 34415
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 34416
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.34417

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 34418
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 34419
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 34420
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 34421
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 34422
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 34423
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 34424
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 34425
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 34426
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 34427
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 34428
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 34429
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 34430
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 34431
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 34432
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 34433
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 34434
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 34435
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 34436
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 34437
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 34438
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 34439
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 34440
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 34441
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 34442
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 34443
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 34444
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 34445
handgun. 34446

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 34447
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 34448
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 34449
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 34450
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 34451
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 34452
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 34453
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 34454
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 34455
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 34456
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 34457
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 34458
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 34459
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 34460
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 34461
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 34462
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 34463
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 34464
officer leaves.34465

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 34466
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 34467
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 34468
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 34469
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 34470
handgun into any of the following places:34471

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 34472
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 34473
identification and investigation, a state correctional 34474
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 34475
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 34476
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 34477
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 34478
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;34479

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 34480
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 34481
Revised Code;34482

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 34483
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 34484
Revised Code;34485

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 34486
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 34487
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 34488
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;34489

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 34490
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 34491
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 34492
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 34493
vehicle;34494

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 34495
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 34496
posts or permits otherwise;34497

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, a 34498
type B family day-care home, or a type C family day-care home, 34499
except that this division does not prohibit a licensee who resides 34500
in a type A family day-care home, a type B family day-care home, 34501
or a type C family day-care home from carrying a concealed handgun 34502
at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated or used 34503
for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed handgun in a 34504
part of the home that is dedicated or used for day-care purposes 34505
at any time during which no children, other than children of that 34506
licensee, are in the home;34507

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 34508
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 34509
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 34510
aircraft;34511

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 34512
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 34513
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 34514
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 34515
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 34516
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;34517

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 34518
handguns.34519

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 34520
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 34521
private college, university, or other institution of higher 34522
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 34523
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 34524
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 34525
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 34526
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 34527
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 34528
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.34529

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 34530
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 34531
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 34532
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 34533
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 34534
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 34535
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 34536
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 34537
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 34538
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 34539
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 34540
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 34541
university, or other institution of higher education.34542

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 34543
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 34544
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 34545
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 34546
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 34547
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 34548
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 34549
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.34550

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 34551
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 34552
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 34553
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 34554
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 34555
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 34556
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 34557
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 34558
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 34559
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 34560
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 34561
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 34562
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 34563
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 34564
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 34565
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 34566
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 34567
trespass based on the violation.34568

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 34569
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 34570
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 34571
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 34572
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 34573
premises.34574

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:34575

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 34576
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 34577
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 34578
or university.34579

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 34580
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.34581

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 34582
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 34583
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 34584
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 34585
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 34586
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 34587
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 34588
carries a license issued under that section.34589

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 34590
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 34591
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 34592
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 34593
be considered to be a licensee in this state.34594

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 34595
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 34596
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 34597
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 34598
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 34599
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 34600
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 34601
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 34602
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 34603
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 34604
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 34605
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 34606
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 34607
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.34608

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 34609
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 34610
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 34611
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 34612
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 34613
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 34614
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:34615

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 34616
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 34617
for reasons of mental instability.34618

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 34619
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 34620
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 34621
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 34622
person had statutory powers of arrest.34623

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 34624
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 34625
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.34626

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 34627
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 34628
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 34629
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 34630
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 34631
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 34632
by the agency.34633

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 34634
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 34635
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 34636
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 34637
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 34638
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 34639
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 34640
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 34641
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 34642
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 34643
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 34644
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 34645
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 34646
section, and if the identification card includes that 34647
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 34648
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 34649
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 34650
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 34651
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 34652
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 34653
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 34654
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 34655
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 34656
the word "RETIRED."34657

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 34658
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 34659
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 34660
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 34661
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.34662

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 34663
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 34664
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 34665
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 34666
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 34667
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 34668
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 34669
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 34670
required to pay the cost of the course.34671

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 34672
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 34673
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 34674
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 34675
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 34676
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 34677
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 34678
years from the date on which the program was successfully 34679
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 34680
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 34681
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 34682
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 34683
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 34684
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 34685
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 34686
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 34687
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 34688
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 34689
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 34690
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 34691
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 34692
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 34693
section.34694

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 34695
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 34696
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 34697
may be required to pay the cost of the program.34698

        (G) As used in this section:34699

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 34700
satisfies all of the following:34701

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 34702
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.34703

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 34704
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.34705

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 34706
receiving firearms.34707

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 34708
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 34709
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.34710

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 34711
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:34712

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 34713
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 34714
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 34715
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 34716
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 34717
political subdivision;34718

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 34719
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 34720
registrar functions.34721

       Sec. 2925.03.  (A) No person shall knowingly do any of the 34722
following:34723

       (1) Sell or offer to sell a controlled substance or a 34724
controlled substance analog;34725

       (2) Prepare for shipment, ship, transport, deliver, prepare 34726
for distribution, or distribute a controlled substance or a 34727
controlled substance analog, when the offender knows or has 34728
reasonable cause to believe that the controlled substance or a 34729
controlled substance analog is intended for sale or resale by the 34730
offender or another person.34731

       (B) This section does not apply to any of the following:34732

       (1) Manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized 34733
to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other 34734
persons whose conduct is in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 34735
4723., 4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code;34736

       (2) If the offense involves an anabolic steroid, any person 34737
who is conducting or participating in a research project involving 34738
the use of an anabolic steroid if the project has been approved by 34739
the United States food and drug administration;34740

       (3) Any person who sells, offers for sale, prescribes, 34741
dispenses, or administers for livestock or other nonhuman species 34742
an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration 34743
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species and 34744
approved for that purpose under the "Federal Food, Drug, and 34745
Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 34746
and is sold, offered for sale, prescribed, dispensed, or 34747
administered for that purpose in accordance with that act.34748

       (C) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty 34749
of one of the following:34750

       (1) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 34751
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule I or 34752
schedule II, with the exception of marihuana, cocaine, L.S.D., 34753
heroin, hashish, and controlled substance analogs, whoever 34754
violates division (A) of this section is guilty of aggravated 34755
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 34756
determined as follows:34757

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(b), (c), 34758
(d), (e), or (f) of this section, aggravated trafficking in drugs 34759
is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of section 34760
2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to 34761
impose a prison term on the offender.34762

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(c), (d), 34763
(e), or (f) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 34764
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 34765
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and division 34766
(C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 34767
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34768

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34769
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 34770
is less than five times the bulk amount, aggravated trafficking in 34771
drugs is a felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise 34772
provided in this division, there is a presumption for a prison 34773
term for the offense. If aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 34774
felony of the third degree under this division and if the offender 34775
two or more times previously has been convicted of or pleaded 34776
guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a 34777
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34778
felony of the third degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 34779
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34780
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 34781
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 34782
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 34783
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.34784

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34785
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 34786
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, aggravated 34787
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 34788
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 34789
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount 34790
of the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34791
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34792
juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first 34793
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one 34794
of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34795

       (e) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 34796
fifty times the bulk amount but is less than one hundred times the 34797
bulk amount and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 34798
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34799
aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first degree, 34800
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34801
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34802

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 34803
hundred times the bulk amount and regardless of whether the 34804
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34805
vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 34806
felony of the first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, 34807
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 34808
prison term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34809

       (2) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 34810
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule III, IV, 34811
or V, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34812
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 34813
determined as follows:34814

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(b), (c), 34815
(d), or (e) of this section, trafficking in drugs is a felony of 34816
the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 34817
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34818
term on the offender.34819

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(c), (d), 34820
or (e) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 34821
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 34822
in drugs is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of 34823
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34824
to impose a prison term on the offender.34825

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34826
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 34827
is less than five times the bulk amount, trafficking in drugs is a 34828
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 34829
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 34830
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 34831
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34832
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs 34833
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 34834
prison term for the offense.34835

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34836
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 34837
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, trafficking 34838
in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and there is a 34839
presumption for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of 34840
the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34841
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34842
juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, 34843
and there is a presumption for a prison term for the offense.34844

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34845
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 34846
amount, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and 34847
the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34848
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 34849
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 34850
amount and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 34851
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a 34852
felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a 34853
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34854
felony of the first degree.34855

       (3) If the drug involved in the violation is marihuana or a 34856
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing marihuana 34857
other than hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section 34858
is guilty of trafficking in marihuana. The penalty for the offense 34859
shall be determined as follows:34860

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(b), (c), 34861
(d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, trafficking in 34862
marihuana is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of 34863
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34864
to impose a prison term on the offender.34865

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(c), (d), 34866
(e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, if the offense was 34867
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34868
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the fourth 34869
degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 34870
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 34871
offender.34872

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34873
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred grams 34874
but is less than one thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is a 34875
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 34876
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 34877
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 34878
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34879
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34880
marihuana is a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of 34881
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34882
to impose a prison term on the offender.34883

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34884
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 34885
but is less than five thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is 34886
a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 34887
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 34888
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 34889
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34890
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34891
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 34892
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.34893

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34894
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five thousand grams 34895
but is less than twenty thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana 34896
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption that a 34897
prison term shall be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the 34898
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34899
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34900
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second 34901
degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall be 34902
imposed for the offense.34903

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34904
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty thousand 34905
grams but is less than forty thousand grams, trafficking in 34906
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 34907
impose a mandatory prison term of five, six, seven, or eight 34908
years. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range and 34909
if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34910
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of 34911
the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 34912
term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the first 34913
degree.34914

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34915
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand 34916
grams, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second degree, 34917
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 34918
prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 34919
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand grams 34920
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 34921
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony 34922
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 34923
prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the 34924
first degree.34925

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34926
offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of marihuana, 34927
trafficking in marihuana is a minor misdemeanor upon a first 34928
offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree upon a subsequent 34929
offense. If the offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of 34930
marihuana and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 34931
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana 34932
is a misdemeanor of the third degree.34933

       (4) If the drug involved in the violation is cocaine or a 34934
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing cocaine, 34935
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34936
trafficking in cocaine. The penalty for the offense shall be 34937
determined as follows:34938

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(b), (c), 34939
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in cocaine is a 34940
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 34941
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34942
term on the offender.34943

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(c), (d), 34944
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 34945
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34946
trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34947
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34948
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34949

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34950
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five grams but is 34951
less than ten grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a felony 34952
of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 34953
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34954
term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within 34955
that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 34956
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is 34957
a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 34958
prison term for the offense.34959

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34960
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 34961
less than twenty grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a 34962
felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise provided in 34963
this division, there is a presumption for a prison term for the 34964
offense. If trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the third degree 34965
under this division and if the offender two or more times 34966
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony 34967
drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 34968
term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the third 34969
degree. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 34970
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 34971
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of 34972
the second degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 34973
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 34974
second degree.34975

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34976
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 34977
less than twenty-seven grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is 34978
a felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 34979
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34980
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 34981
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34982
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34983
cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 34984
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34985
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34986

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 34987
twenty-seven grams but is less than one hundred grams of cocaine 34988
and regardless of whether the offense was committed in the 34989
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 34990
in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 34991
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34992
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34993

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 34994
hundred grams of cocaine and regardless of whether the offense was 34995
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34996
juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, 34997
the offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose 34998
as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for 34999
a felony of the first degree.35000

       (5) If the drug involved in the violation is L.S.D. or a 35001
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing L.S.D., 35002
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 35003
trafficking in L.S.D. The penalty for the offense shall be 35004
determined as follows:35005

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(b), (c), 35006
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 35007
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 35008
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 35009
term on the offender.35010

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(c), (d), 35011
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 35012
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35013
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 35014
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 35015
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.35016

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35017
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 35018
is less than fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals 35019
or exceeds one gram but is less than five grams of L.S.D. in a 35020
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 35021
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 35022
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 35023
determining whether to impose a prison term for the offense. If 35024
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 35025
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 35026
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 35027
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 35028
offense.35029

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35030
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 35031
is less than two hundred fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid 35032
form or equals or exceeds five grams but is less than twenty-five 35033
grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 35034
distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the third 35035
degree, and, except as otherwise provided in this division, there 35036
is a presumption for a prison term for the offense. If trafficking 35037
in L.S.D. is a felony of the third degree under this division and 35038
if the offender two or more times previously has been convicted of 35039
or pleaded guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall 35040
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 35041
prescribed for a felony of the third degree. If the amount of the 35042
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 35043
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 35044
juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the second degree, 35045
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 35046
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.35047

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35048
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 35049
unit doses but is less than one thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a 35050
solid form or equals or exceeds twenty-five grams but is less than 35051
one hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 35052
extract, or liquid distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 35053
felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 35054
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 35055
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 35056
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 35057
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 35058
L.S.D. is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 35059
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 35060
a felony of the first degree.35061

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 35062
thousand unit doses but is less than five thousand unit doses of 35063
L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds one hundred grams but 35064
is less than five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, 35065
liquid extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of 35066
whether the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or 35067
in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony 35068
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 35069
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 35070
first degree.35071

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 35072
thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds 35073
five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 35074
extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of whether the 35075
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 35076
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 35077
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 35078
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 35079
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.35080

       (6) If the drug involved in the violation is heroin or a 35081
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing heroin, 35082
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 35083
trafficking in heroin. The penalty for the offense shall be 35084
determined as follows:35085

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(b), (c), 35086
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in heroin is a 35087
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 35088
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 35089
term on the offender.35090

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(c), (d), 35091
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 35092
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35093
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the fourth degree, and 35094
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 35095
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.35096

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35097
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 35098
is less than fifty unit doses or equals or exceeds one gram but is 35099
less than five grams, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the 35100
fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 35101
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term for 35102
the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within that 35103
range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school 35104
or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a 35105
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 35106
prison term for the offense.35107

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35108
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 35109
is less than one hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds five 35110
grams but is less than ten grams, trafficking in heroin is a 35111
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 35112
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 35113
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 35114
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 35115
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 35116
presumption for a prison term for the offense.35117

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35118
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one hundred unit 35119
doses but is less than five hundred unit doses or equals or 35120
exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams, trafficking in 35121
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 35122
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 35123
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 35124
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 35125
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 35126
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 35127
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 35128
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.35129

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 35130
hundred unit doses but is less than two thousand five hundred unit 35131
doses or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two 35132
hundred fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was 35133
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 35134
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 35135
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 35136
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.35137

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two 35138
thousand five hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds two hundred 35139
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 35140
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35141
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, the 35142
offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose as a 35143
mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a 35144
felony of the first degree.35145

       (7) If the drug involved in the violation is hashish or a 35146
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing hashish, 35147
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 35148
trafficking in hashish. The penalty for the offense shall be 35149
determined as follows:35150

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(b), (c), 35151
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in hashish is a 35152
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 35153
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 35154
term on the offender.35155

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(c), (d), 35156
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 35157
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35158
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 35159
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 35160
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.35161

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35162
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 35163
less than fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or 35164
exceeds two grams but is less than ten grams of hashish in a 35165
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 35166
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 35167
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 35168
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender. If 35169
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 35170
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 35171
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 35172
third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 35173
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 35174
offender.35175

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35176
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty grams but is 35177
less than two hundred fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or 35178
equals or exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams of 35179
hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 35180
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the third 35181
degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 35182
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 35183
offender. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 35184
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 35185
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of 35186
the second degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term 35187
shall be imposed for the offense.35188

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35189
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 35190
grams but is less than one thousand grams of hashish in a solid 35191
form or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two hundred 35192
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 35193
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 35194
third degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall 35195
be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 35196
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 35197
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 35198
hashish is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 35199
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.35200

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35201
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 35202
but is less than two thousand grams of hashish in a solid form or 35203
equals or exceeds two hundred grams but is less than four hundred 35204
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 35205
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 35206
second degree, and the court shall impose a mandatory prison term 35207
of five, six, seven, or eight years. If the amount of the drug 35208
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 35209
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35210
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the 35211
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison 35212
term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.35213

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35214
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand grams 35215
of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred grams 35216
of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 35217
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the second 35218
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the 35219
maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. 35220
If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand 35221
grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred 35222
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 35223
liquid distillate form and if the offense was committed in the 35224
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 35225
in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 35226
impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 35227
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.35228

       (8) If the drug involved in the violation is a controlled 35229
substance analog or compound, mixture, preparation, or substance 35230
that contains a controlled substance analog, whoever violates 35231
division (A) of this section is guilty of trafficking in a 35232
controlled substance analog. The penalty for the offense shall be 35233
determined as follows:35234

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(b), (c), 35235
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in a controlled 35236
substance analog is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (C) 35237
of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 35238
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.35239

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(c), (d), 35240
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 35241
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35242
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 35243
fourth degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 35244
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 35245
offender.35246

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35247
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 35248
less than twenty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 35249
analog is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of 35250
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 35251
to impose a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 35252
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 35253
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35254
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 35255
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 35256
offense.35257

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35258
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 35259
less than thirty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 35260
analog is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption 35261
for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 35262
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 35263
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35264
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 35265
second degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for 35266
the offense.35267

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35268
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds thirty grams but is 35269
less than forty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 35270
analog is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 35271
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 35272
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 35273
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 35274
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 35275
juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony 35276
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 35277
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 35278
first degree.35279

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 35280
forty grams but is less than fifty grams and regardless of whether 35281
the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 35282
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance 35283
analog is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 35284
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 35285
a felony of the first degree.35286

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 35287
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 35288
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 35289
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 35290
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 35291
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 35292
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.35293

       (D) In addition to any prison term authorized or required by 35294
division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of 35295
the Revised Code, and in addition to any other sanction imposed 35296
for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 35297
of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender who is 35298
convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of 35299
this section shall do all of the following that are applicable 35300
regarding the offender:35301

       (1) If the violation of division (A) of this section is a 35302
felony of the first, second, or third degree, the court shall 35303
impose upon the offender the mandatory fine specified for the 35304
offense under division (B)(1) of section 2929.18 of the Revised 35305
Code unless, as specified in that division, the court determines 35306
that the offender is indigent. Except as otherwise provided in 35307
division (H)(1) of this section, a mandatory fine or any other 35308
fine imposed for a violation of this section is subject to 35309
division (F) of this section. If a person is charged with a 35310
violation of this section that is a felony of the first, second, 35311
or third degree, posts bail, and forfeits the bail, the clerk of 35312
the court shall pay the forfeited bail pursuant to divisions 35313
(D)(1) and (F) of this section, as if the forfeited bail was a 35314
fine imposed for a violation of this section. If any amount of the 35315
forfeited bail remains after that payment and if a fine is imposed 35316
under division (H)(1) of this section, the clerk of the court 35317
shall pay the remaining amount of the forfeited bail pursuant to 35318
divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, as if that remaining 35319
amount was a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this section.35320

       (2) The court shall suspend the driver's or commercial 35321
driver's license or permit of the offender in accordance with 35322
division (G) of this section.35323

       (3) If the offender is a professionally licensed person, the 35324
court immediately shall comply with section 2925.38 of the Revised 35325
Code.35326

       (E) When a person is charged with the sale of or offer to 35327
sell a bulk amount or a multiple of a bulk amount of a controlled 35328
substance, the jury, or the court trying the accused, shall 35329
determine the amount of the controlled substance involved at the 35330
time of the offense and, if a guilty verdict is returned, shall 35331
return the findings as part of the verdict. In any such case, it 35332
is unnecessary to find and return the exact amount of the 35333
controlled substance involved, and it is sufficient if the finding 35334
and return is to the effect that the amount of the controlled 35335
substance involved is the requisite amount, or that the amount of 35336
the controlled substance involved is less than the requisite 35337
amount.35338

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 35339
3719.21 of the Revised Code and except as provided in division (H) 35340
of this section, the clerk of the court shall pay any mandatory 35341
fine imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section and any 35342
fine other than a mandatory fine that is imposed for a violation 35343
of this section pursuant to division (A) or (B)(5) of section 35344
2929.18 of the Revised Code to the county, township, municipal 35345
corporation, park district, as created pursuant to section 511.18 35346
or 1545.04 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement agencies 35347
in this state that primarily were responsible for or involved in 35348
making the arrest of, and in prosecuting, the offender. However, 35349
the clerk shall not pay a mandatory fine so imposed to a law 35350
enforcement agency unless the agency has adopted a written 35351
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of this section that 35352
addresses the use of the fine moneys that it receives. Each agency 35353
shall use the mandatory fines so paid to subsidize the agency's 35354
law enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses, in 35355
accordance with the written internal control policy adopted by the 35356
recipient agency under division (F)(2) of this section.35357

       (2)(a) Prior to receiving any fine moneys under division 35358
(F)(1) of this section or division (B) of section 2925.42 of the 35359
Revised Code, a law enforcement agency shall adopt a written 35360
internal control policy that addresses the agency's use and 35361
disposition of all fine moneys so received and that provides for 35362
the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of those 35363
fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of those 35364
fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 35365
expenditure. The policy shall not provide for or permit the 35366
identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an 35367
ongoing investigation. All financial records of the receipts of 35368
those fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of 35369
those fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 35370
expenditure by an agency are public records open for inspection 35371
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Additionally, a written 35372
internal control policy adopted under this division is such a 35373
public record, and the agency that adopted it shall comply with 35374
it.35375

       (b) Each law enforcement agency that receives in any calendar 35376
year any fine moneys under division (F)(1) of this section or 35377
division (B) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code shall prepare 35378
a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the 35379
information contained in all of the public financial records kept 35380
by the agency pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section for 35381
that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative 35382
report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 35383
following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney 35384
general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public 35385
record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised 35386
Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar 35387
year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall 35388
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 35389
of representatives a written notification that does all of the 35390
following:35391

       (i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from law 35392
enforcement agencies reports of the type described in this 35393
division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that 35394
the reports were received under this division;35395

       (ii) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under 35396
section 149.43 of the Revised Code;35397

       (iii) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy 35398
of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the 35399
speaker of the house of representatives upon request.35400

       (3) As used in division (F) of this section:35401

       (a) "Law enforcement agencies" includes, but is not limited 35402
to, the state board of pharmacy and the office of a prosecutor.35403

       (b) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 35404
of the Revised Code.35405

       (G) When required under division (D)(2) of this section or 35406
any other provision of this chapter, the court shall suspend for 35407
not less than six months or more than five years the driver's or 35408
commercial driver's license or permit of any person who is 35409
convicted of or pleads guilty to any violation of this section or 35410
any other specified provision of this chapter. If an offender's 35411
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit is suspended 35412
pursuant to this division, the offender, at any time after the 35413
expiration of two years from the day on which the offender's 35414
sentence was imposed or from the day on which the offender finally 35415
was released from a prison term under the sentence, whichever is 35416
later, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting 35417
termination of the suspension; upon the filing of such a motion 35418
and the court's finding of good cause for the termination, the 35419
court may terminate the suspension.35420

       (H)(1) In addition to any prison term authorized or required 35421
by division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 35422
of the Revised Code, in addition to any other penalty or sanction 35423
imposed for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 35424
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and in addition to the forfeiture of 35425
property in connection with the offense as prescribed in Chapter 35426
2981. of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender 35427
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division 35428
(A) of this section may impose upon the offender an additional 35429
fine specified for the offense in division (B)(4) of section 35430
2929.18 of the Revised Code. A fine imposed under division (H)(1) 35431
of this section is not subject to division (F) of this section and 35432
shall be used solely for the support of one or more eligible 35433
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices provider in 35434
accordance with divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section.35435

       (2) The court that imposes a fine under division (H)(1) of 35436
this section shall specify in the judgment that imposes the fine 35437
one or more eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs35438
services provider for the support of which the fine money is to be 35439
used. No alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 35440
provider shall receive or use money paid or collected in 35441
satisfaction of a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this 35442
section unless the programservices provider is specified in the 35443
judgment that imposes the fine. No alcohol and drugcommunity35444
addiction programservices provider shall be specified in the 35445
judgment unless the programservices provider is an eligible 35446
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider35447
and, except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 35448
section, unless the programservices provider is located in the 35449
county in which the court that imposes the fine is located or in a 35450
county that is immediately contiguous to the county in which that 35451
court is located. If no eligible alcohol and drugcommunity35452
addiction programservices provider is located in any of those 35453
counties, the judgment may specify an eligible alcohol and drug35454
community addiction programservices provider that is located 35455
anywhere within this state.35456

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 35457
of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 35458
imposed under division (H)(1) of this section to the eligible 35459
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider35460
specified pursuant to division (H)(2) of this section in the 35461
judgment. The eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 35462
programservices provider that receives the fine moneys shall use 35463
the moneys only for the alcohol and drug addiction services 35464
identified in the application for certification under section 35465
3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or in the application for a 35466
license under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code filed 35467
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 35468
health and addiction services by the alcohol and drugcommunity35469
addiction programservices provider specified in the judgment.35470

       (4) Each alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program35471
services provider that receives in a calendar year any fine moneys 35472
under division (H)(3) of this section shall file an annual report 35473
covering that calendar year with the court of common pleas and the 35474
board of county commissioners of the county in which the program35475
services provider is located, with the court of common pleas and 35476
the board of county commissioners of each county from which the 35477
programservices provider received the moneys if that county is 35478
different from the county in which the programservices provider35479
is located, and with the attorney general. The alcohol and drug35480
community addiction programservices provider shall file the 35481
report no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 35482
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider35483
received the fine moneys. The report shall include statistics on 35484
the number of persons served by the alcohol and drugcommunity35485
addiction programservices provider, identify the types of alcohol 35486
and drug addiction services provided to those persons, and include 35487
a specific accounting of the purposes for which the fine moneys 35488
received were used. No information contained in the report shall 35489
identify, or enable a person to determine the identity of, any 35490
person served by the alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program35491
services provider. Each report received by a court of common 35492
pleas, a board of county commissioners, or the attorney general is 35493
a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 35494
Revised Code.35495

       (5) As used in divisions (H)(1) to (5) of this section:35496

       (a) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 35497
provider" and "alcohol and drug addiction services" have the same 35498
meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised Code.35499

       (b) "Eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program35500
services provider" means an alcohol and druga community addiction 35501
programservices provider that is certified under section 3793.0635502
5119.36 of the Revised Code or licensed under section 3793.1135503
5119.39 of the Revised Code by the department of alcohol and drug 35504
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.35505

       (I) As used in this section, "drug" includes any substance 35506
that is represented to be a drug.35507

       (J) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of trafficking 35508
in a controlled substance analog under division (C)(8) of this 35509
section that the person charged with violating that offense sold 35510
or offered to sell, or prepared for shipment, shipped, 35511
transported, delivered, prepared for distribution, or distributed 35512
an item described in division (HH)(2)(a), (b), or (c) of section 35513
3719.01 of the Revised Code.35514

       Sec. 2929.13.  (A) Except as provided in division (E), (F), 35515
or (G) of this section and unless a specific sanction is required 35516
to be imposed or is precluded from being imposed pursuant to law, 35517
a court that imposes a sentence upon an offender for a felony may 35518
impose any sanction or combination of sanctions on the offender 35519
that are provided in sections 2929.14 to 2929.18 of the Revised 35520
Code. 35521

       If the offender is eligible to be sentenced to community 35522
control sanctions, the court shall consider the appropriateness of 35523
imposing a financial sanction pursuant to section 2929.18 of the 35524
Revised Code or a sanction of community service pursuant to 35525
section 2929.17 of the Revised Code as the sole sanction for the 35526
offense. Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35527
court is required to impose a mandatory prison term for the 35528
offense for which sentence is being imposed, the court also shall 35529
impose any financial sanction pursuant to section 2929.18 of the 35530
Revised Code that is required for the offense and may impose any 35531
other financial sanction pursuant to that section but may not 35532
impose any additional sanction or combination of sanctions under 35533
section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code.35534

       If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree felony 35535
OVI offense or for a third degree felony OVI offense, in addition 35536
to the mandatory term of local incarceration or the mandatory 35537
prison term required for the offense by division (G)(1) or (2) of 35538
this section, the court shall impose upon the offender a mandatory 35539
fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the 35540
Revised Code and may impose whichever of the following is 35541
applicable:35542

       (1) For a fourth degree felony OVI offense for which sentence 35543
is imposed under division (G)(1) of this section, an additional 35544
community control sanction or combination of community control 35545
sanctions under section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code. If 35546
the court imposes upon the offender a community control sanction 35547
and the offender violates any condition of the community control 35548
sanction, the court may take any action prescribed in division (B) 35549
of section 2929.15 of the Revised Code relative to the offender, 35550
including imposing a prison term on the offender pursuant to that 35551
division.35552

       (2) For a third or fourth degree felony OVI offense for which 35553
sentence is imposed under division (G)(2) of this section, an 35554
additional prison term as described in division (B)(4) of section 35555
2929.14 of the Revised Code or a community control sanction as 35556
described in division (G)(2) of this section.35557

       (B)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this 35558
section, if an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 35559
felony of the fourth or fifth degree that is not an offense of 35560
violence or that is a qualifying assault offense, the court shall 35561
sentence the offender to a community control sanction of at least 35562
one year's duration if all of the following apply: 35563

       (i) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 35564
pleaded guilty to a felony offense. 35565

       (ii) The most serious charge against the offender at the time 35566
of sentencing is a felony of the fourth or fifth degree.35567

       (iii) If the court made a request of the department of 35568
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) of 35569
this section, the department, within the forty-five-day period 35570
specified in that division, provided the court with the names of, 35571
contact information for, and program details of one or more 35572
community control sanctions of at least one year's duration that 35573
are available for persons sentenced by the court.35574

       (iv) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 35575
pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor offense of violence that the 35576
offender committed within two years prior to the offense for which 35577
sentence is being imposed.35578

       (b) The court has discretion to impose a prison term upon an 35579
offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony of the 35580
fourth or fifth degree that is not an offense of violence or that 35581
is a qualifying assault offense if any of the following apply: 35582

       (i) The offender committed the offense while having a firearm 35583
on or about the offender's person or under the offender's control. 35584

       (ii) If the offense is a qualifying assault offense, the 35585
offender caused serious physical harm to another person while 35586
committing the offense, and, if the offense is not a qualifying 35587
assault offense, the offender caused physical harm to another 35588
person while committing the offense. 35589

       (iii) The offender violated a term of the conditions of bond 35590
as set by the court.35591

       (iv) The court made a request of the department of 35592
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) of 35593
this section, and the department, within the forty-five-day period 35594
specified in that division, did not provide the court with the 35595
name of, contact information for, and program details of any 35596
community control sanction of at least one year's duration that is 35597
available for persons sentenced by the court.35598

       (v) The offense is a sex offense that is a fourth or fifth 35599
degree felony violation of any provision of Chapter 2907. of the 35600
Revised Code.35601

       (vi) In committing the offense, the offender attempted to 35602
cause or made an actual threat of physical harm to a person with a 35603
deadly weapon.35604

       (vii) In committing the offense, the offender attempted to 35605
cause or made an actual threat of physical harm to a person, and 35606
the offender previously was convicted of an offense that caused 35607
physical harm to a person. 35608

       (viii) The offender held a public office or position of 35609
trust, and the offense related to that office or position; the 35610
offender's position obliged the offender to prevent the offense or 35611
to bring those committing it to justice; or the offender's 35612
professional reputation or position facilitated the offense or was 35613
likely to influence the future conduct of others.35614

       (ix) The offender committed the offense for hire or as part 35615
of an organized criminal activity.35616

       (x) The offender at the time of the offense was serving, or 35617
the offender previously had served, a prison term.35618

       (xi) The offender committed the offense while under a 35619
community control sanction, while on probation, or while released 35620
from custody on a bond or personal recognizance.35621

       (c) If a court that is sentencing an offender who is 35622
convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony of the fourth or fifth 35623
degree that is not an offense of violence or that is a qualifying 35624
assault offense believes that no community control sanctions are 35625
available for its use that, if imposed on the offender, will 35626
adequately fulfill the overriding principles and purposes of 35627
sentencing, the court shall contact the department of 35628
rehabilitation and correction and ask the department to provide 35629
the court with the names of, contact information for, and program 35630
details of one or more community control sanctions of at least one 35631
year's duration that are available for persons sentenced by the 35632
court. Not later than forty-five days after receipt of a request 35633
from a court under this division, the department shall provide the 35634
court with the names of, contact information for, and program 35635
details of one or more community control sanctions of at least one 35636
year's duration that are available for persons sentenced by the 35637
court, if any. Upon making a request under this division that 35638
relates to a particular offender, a court shall defer sentencing 35639
of that offender until it receives from the department the names 35640
of, contact information for, and program details of one or more 35641
community control sanctions of at least one year's duration that 35642
are available for persons sentenced by the court or for forty-five 35643
days, whichever is the earlier.35644

       If the department provides the court with the names of, 35645
contact information for, and program details of one or more 35646
community control sanctions of at least one year's duration that 35647
are available for persons sentenced by the court within the 35648
forty-five-day period specified in this division, the court shall 35649
impose upon the offender a community control sanction under 35650
division (B)(1)(a) of this section, except that the court may 35651
impose a prison term under division (B)(1)(b) of this section if a 35652
factor described in division (B)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section 35653
applies. If the department does not provide the court with the 35654
names of, contact information for, and program details of one or 35655
more community control sanctions of at least one year's duration 35656
that are available for persons sentenced by the court within the 35657
forty-five-day period specified in this division, the court may 35658
impose upon the offender a prison term under division 35659
(B)(1)(b)(iv) of this section.35660

       (d) A sentencing court may impose an additional penalty under 35661
division (B) of section 2929.15 of the Revised Code upon an 35662
offender sentenced to a community control sanction under division 35663
(B)(1)(a) of this section if the offender violates the conditions 35664
of the community control sanction, violates a law, or leaves the 35665
state without the permission of the court or the offender's 35666
probation officer.35667

       (2) If division (B)(1) of this section does not apply, except 35668
as provided in division (E), (F), or (G) of this section, in 35669
determining whether to impose a prison term as a sanction for a 35670
felony of the fourth or fifth degree, the sentencing court shall 35671
comply with the purposes and principles of sentencing under 35672
section 2929.11 of the Revised Code and with section 2929.12 of 35673
the Revised Code.35674

       (C) Except as provided in division (D), (E), (F), or (G) of 35675
this section, in determining whether to impose a prison term as a 35676
sanction for a felony of the third degree or a felony drug offense 35677
that is a violation of a provision of Chapter 2925. of the Revised 35678
Code and that is specified as being subject to this division for 35679
purposes of sentencing, the sentencing court shall comply with the 35680
purposes and principles of sentencing under section 2929.11 of the 35681
Revised Code and with section 2929.12 of the Revised Code.35682

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (E) or (F) of this 35683
section, for a felony of the first or second degree, for a felony 35684
drug offense that is a violation of any provision of Chapter 35685
2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code for which a presumption 35686
in favor of a prison term is specified as being applicable, and 35687
for a violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of section 2907.05 of 35688
the Revised Code for which a presumption in favor of a prison term 35689
is specified as being applicable, it is presumed that a prison 35690
term is necessary in order to comply with the purposes and 35691
principles of sentencing under section 2929.11 of the Revised 35692
Code. Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to a 35693
presumption established under this division for a violation of 35694
division (A)(4) of section 2907.05 of the Revised Code.35695

       (2) Notwithstanding the presumption established under 35696
division (D)(1) of this section for the offenses listed in that 35697
division other than a violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of 35698
section 2907.05 of the Revised Code, the sentencing court may 35699
impose a community control sanction or a combination of community 35700
control sanctions instead of a prison term on an offender for a 35701
felony of the first or second degree or for a felony drug offense 35702
that is a violation of any provision of Chapter 2925., 3719., or 35703
4729. of the Revised Code for which a presumption in favor of a 35704
prison term is specified as being applicable if it makes both of 35705
the following findings:35706

       (a) A community control sanction or a combination of 35707
community control sanctions would adequately punish the offender 35708
and protect the public from future crime, because the applicable 35709
factors under section 2929.12 of the Revised Code indicating a 35710
lesser likelihood of recidivism outweigh the applicable factors 35711
under that section indicating a greater likelihood of recidivism.35712

       (b) A community control sanction or a combination of 35713
community control sanctions would not demean the seriousness of 35714
the offense, because one or more factors under section 2929.12 of 35715
the Revised Code that indicate that the offender's conduct was 35716
less serious than conduct normally constituting the offense are 35717
applicable, and they outweigh the applicable factors under that 35718
section that indicate that the offender's conduct was more serious 35719
than conduct normally constituting the offense.35720

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 35721
for any drug offense that is a violation of any provision of 35722
Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code and that is a felony of the 35723
third, fourth, or fifth degree, the applicability of a presumption 35724
under division (D) of this section in favor of a prison term or of 35725
division (B) or (C) of this section in determining whether to 35726
impose a prison term for the offense shall be determined as 35727
specified in section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 35728
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, or 2925.37 of the 35729
Revised Code, whichever is applicable regarding the violation.35730

       (2) If an offender who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to 35731
a felony violates the conditions of a community control sanction 35732
imposed for the offense solely by reason of producing positive 35733
results on a drug test, the court, as punishment for the violation 35734
of the sanction, shall not order that the offender be imprisoned 35735
unless the court determines on the record either of the following:35736

       (a) The offender had been ordered as a sanction for the 35737
felony to participate in a drug treatment program, in a drug 35738
education program, or in narcotics anonymous or a similar program, 35739
and the offender continued to use illegal drugs after a reasonable 35740
period of participation in the program.35741

       (b) The imprisonment of the offender for the violation is 35742
consistent with the purposes and principles of sentencing set 35743
forth in section 2929.11 of the Revised Code.35744

       (3) A court that sentences an offender for a drug abuse 35745
offense that is a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree may 35746
require that the offender be assessed by a properly credentialed 35747
professional within a specified period of time. The court shall 35748
require the professional to file a written assessment of the 35749
offender with the court. If the offender is eligible for a 35750
community control sanction and after considering the written 35751
assessment, the court may impose a community control sanction that 35752
includes treatment and recovery support services authorized by 35753
section 3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code. If the court imposes 35754
treatment and recovery support services as a community control 35755
sanction, the court shall direct the level and type of treatment 35756
and recovery support services after considering the assessment and 35757
recommendation of treatment and recovery support services 35758
providers.35759

       (F) Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (E) of this section, the 35760
court shall impose a prison term or terms under sections 2929.02 35761
to 2929.06, section 2929.14, section 2929.142, or section 2971.03 35762
of the Revised Code and except as specifically provided in section 35763
2929.20, divisions (C) to (I) of section 2967.19, or section 35764
2967.191 of the Revised Code or when parole is authorized for the 35765
offense under section 2967.13 of the Revised Code shall not reduce 35766
the term or terms pursuant to section 2929.20, section 2967.19, 35767
section 2967.193, or any other provision of Chapter 2967. or 35768
Chapter 5120. of the Revised Code for any of the following 35769
offenses:35770

       (1) Aggravated murder when death is not imposed or murder;35771

       (2) Any rape, regardless of whether force was involved and 35772
regardless of the age of the victim, or an attempt to commit rape 35773
if, had the offender completed the rape that was attempted, the 35774
offender would have been guilty of a violation of division 35775
(A)(1)(b) of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code and would be 35776
sentenced under section 2971.03 of the Revised Code;35777

       (3) Gross sexual imposition or sexual battery, if the victim 35778
is less than thirteen years of age and if any of the following 35779
applies:35780

       (a) Regarding gross sexual imposition, the offender 35781
previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to rape, the former 35782
offense of felonious sexual penetration, gross sexual imposition, 35783
or sexual battery, and the victim of the previous offense was less 35784
than thirteen years of age;35785

       (b) Regarding gross sexual imposition, the offense was 35786
committed on or after August 3, 2006, and evidence other than the 35787
testimony of the victim was admitted in the case corroborating the 35788
violation.35789

       (c) Regarding sexual battery, either of the following 35790
applies:35791

       (i) The offense was committed prior to August 3, 2006, the 35792
offender previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to rape, 35793
the former offense of felonious sexual penetration, or sexual 35794
battery, and the victim of the previous offense was less than 35795
thirteen years of age.35796

       (ii) The offense was committed on or after August 3, 2006.35797

       (4) A felony violation of section 2903.04, 2903.06, 2903.08, 35798
2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2905.32, or 2907.07 of the Revised Code 35799
if the section requires the imposition of a prison term;35800

       (5) A first, second, or third degree felony drug offense for 35801
which section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 35802
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, 2925.37, 3719.99, or 35803
4729.99 of the Revised Code, whichever is applicable regarding the 35804
violation, requires the imposition of a mandatory prison term;35805

       (6) Any offense that is a first or second degree felony and 35806
that is not set forth in division (F)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this 35807
section, if the offender previously was convicted of or pleaded 35808
guilty to aggravated murder, murder, any first or second degree 35809
felony, or an offense under an existing or former law of this 35810
state, another state, or the United States that is or was 35811
substantially equivalent to one of those offenses;35812

       (7) Any offense that is a third degree felony and either is a 35813
violation of section 2903.04 of the Revised Code or an attempt to 35814
commit a felony of the second degree that is an offense of 35815
violence and involved an attempt to cause serious physical harm to 35816
a person or that resulted in serious physical harm to a person if 35817
the offender previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 35818
of the following offenses:35819

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, involuntary manslaughter, 35820
rape, felonious sexual penetration as it existed under section 35821
2907.12 of the Revised Code prior to September 3, 1996, a felony 35822
of the first or second degree that resulted in the death of a 35823
person or in physical harm to a person, or complicity in or an 35824
attempt to commit any of those offenses;35825

       (b) An offense under an existing or former law of this state, 35826
another state, or the United States that is or was substantially 35827
equivalent to an offense listed in division (F)(7)(a) of this 35828
section that resulted in the death of a person or in physical harm 35829
to a person.35830

       (8) Any offense, other than a violation of section 2923.12 of 35831
the Revised Code, that is a felony, if the offender had a firearm 35832
on or about the offender's person or under the offender's control 35833
while committing the felony, with respect to a portion of the 35834
sentence imposed pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of section 2929.14 35835
of the Revised Code for having the firearm;35836

       (9) Any offense of violence that is a felony, if the offender 35837
wore or carried body armor while committing the felony offense of 35838
violence, with respect to the portion of the sentence imposed 35839
pursuant to division (B)(1)(d) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 35840
Code for wearing or carrying the body armor;35841

       (10) Corrupt activity in violation of section 2923.32 of the 35842
Revised Code when the most serious offense in the pattern of 35843
corrupt activity that is the basis of the offense is a felony of 35844
the first degree;35845

       (11) Any violent sex offense or designated homicide, assault, 35846
or kidnapping offense if, in relation to that offense, the 35847
offender is adjudicated a sexually violent predator;35848

       (12) A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2921.36 35849
of the Revised Code, or a violation of division (C) of that 35850
section involving an item listed in division (A)(1) or (2) of that 35851
section, if the offender is an officer or employee of the 35852
department of rehabilitation and correction;35853

        (13) A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 35854
of the Revised Code if the victim of the offense is a peace 35855
officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code, or an 35856
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 35857
investigation, as defined in section 2903.11 of the Revised Code, 35858
with respect to the portion of the sentence imposed pursuant to 35859
division (B)(5) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code;35860

        (14) A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 35861
of the Revised Code if the offender has been convicted of or 35862
pleaded guilty to three or more violations of division (A) or (B) 35863
of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or an equivalent offense, 35864
as defined in section 2941.1415 of the Revised Code, or three or 35865
more violations of any combination of those divisions and 35866
offenses, with respect to the portion of the sentence imposed 35867
pursuant to division (B)(6) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 35868
Code;35869

       (15) Kidnapping, in the circumstances specified in section 35870
2971.03 of the Revised Code and when no other provision of 35871
division (F) of this section applies;35872

        (16) Kidnapping, abduction, compelling prostitution, 35873
promoting prostitution, engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity, 35874
illegal use of a minor in a nudity-oriented material or 35875
performance in violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 35876
2907.323 of the Revised Code, or endangering children in violation 35877
of division (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 2919.22 of 35878
the Revised Code, if the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty 35879
to a specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the 35880
Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the 35881
indictment, or information charging the offense;35882

       (17) A felony violation of division (A) or (B) of section 35883
2919.25 of the Revised Code if division (D)(3), (4), or (5) of 35884
that section, and division (D)(6) of that section, require the 35885
imposition of a prison term;35886

       (18) A felony violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, or 35887
2903.13 of the Revised Code, if the victim of the offense was a 35888
woman that the offender knew was pregnant at the time of the 35889
violation, with respect to a portion of the sentence imposed 35890
pursuant to division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 35891
Code.35892

       (G) Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (E) of this section, if 35893
an offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree felony OVI 35894
offense or for a third degree felony OVI offense, the court shall 35895
impose upon the offender a mandatory term of local incarceration 35896
or a mandatory prison term in accordance with the following:35897

       (1) If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree 35898
felony OVI offense and if the offender has not been convicted of 35899
and has not pleaded guilty to a specification of the type 35900
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code, the court may 35901
impose upon the offender a mandatory term of local incarceration 35902
of sixty days or one hundred twenty days as specified in division 35903
(G)(1)(d) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code. The court shall 35904
not reduce the term pursuant to section 2929.20, 2967.193, or any 35905
other provision of the Revised Code. The court that imposes a 35906
mandatory term of local incarceration under this division shall 35907
specify whether the term is to be served in a jail, a 35908
community-based correctional facility, a halfway house, or an 35909
alternative residential facility, and the offender shall serve the 35910
term in the type of facility specified by the court. A mandatory 35911
term of local incarceration imposed under division (G)(1) of this 35912
section is not subject to any other Revised Code provision that 35913
pertains to a prison term except as provided in division (A)(1) of 35914
this section.35915

       (2) If the offender is being sentenced for a third degree 35916
felony OVI offense, or if the offender is being sentenced for a 35917
fourth degree felony OVI offense and the court does not impose a 35918
mandatory term of local incarceration under division (G)(1) of 35919
this section, the court shall impose upon the offender a mandatory 35920
prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years if the 35921
offender also is convicted of or also pleads guilty to a 35922
specification of the type described in section 2941.1413 of the 35923
Revised Code or shall impose upon the offender a mandatory prison 35924
term of sixty days or one hundred twenty days as specified in 35925
division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 35926
if the offender has not been convicted of and has not pleaded 35927
guilty to a specification of that type. Subject to divisions (C) 35928
to (I) of section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, the court shall not 35929
reduce the term pursuant to section 2929.20, 2967.19, 2967.193, or 35930
any other provision of the Revised Code. The offender shall serve 35931
the one-, two-, three-, four-, or five-year mandatory prison term 35932
consecutively to and prior to the prison term imposed for the 35933
underlying offense and consecutively to any other mandatory prison 35934
term imposed in relation to the offense. In no case shall an 35935
offender who once has been sentenced to a mandatory term of local 35936
incarceration pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section for a 35937
fourth degree felony OVI offense be sentenced to another mandatory 35938
term of local incarceration under that division for any violation 35939
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code. In 35940
addition to the mandatory prison term described in division (G)(2) 35941
of this section, the court may sentence the offender to a 35942
community control sanction under section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the 35943
Revised Code, but the offender shall serve the prison term prior 35944
to serving the community control sanction. The department of 35945
rehabilitation and correction may place an offender sentenced to a 35946
mandatory prison term under this division in an intensive program 35947
prison established pursuant to section 5120.033 of the Revised 35948
Code if the department gave the sentencing judge prior notice of 35949
its intent to place the offender in an intensive program prison 35950
established under that section and if the judge did not notify the 35951
department that the judge disapproved the placement. Upon the 35952
establishment of the initial intensive program prison pursuant to 35953
section 5120.033 of the Revised Code that is privately operated 35954
and managed by a contractor pursuant to a contract entered into 35955
under section 9.06 of the Revised Code, both of the following 35956
apply:35957

       (a) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 35958
make a reasonable effort to ensure that a sufficient number of 35959
offenders sentenced to a mandatory prison term under this division 35960
are placed in the privately operated and managed prison so that 35961
the privately operated and managed prison has full occupancy.35962

       (b) Unless the privately operated and managed prison has full 35963
occupancy, the department of rehabilitation and correction shall 35964
not place any offender sentenced to a mandatory prison term under 35965
this division in any intensive program prison established pursuant 35966
to section 5120.033 of the Revised Code other than the privately 35967
operated and managed prison.35968

       (H) If an offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 35969
offense or child-victim oriented offense that is a felony 35970
committed on or after January 1, 1997, the judge shall require the 35971
offender to submit to a DNA specimen collection procedure pursuant 35972
to section 2901.07 of the Revised Code.35973

       (I) If an offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 35974
offense or a child-victim oriented offense committed on or after 35975
January 1, 1997, the judge shall include in the sentence a summary 35976
of the offender's duties imposed under sections 2950.04, 2950.041, 35977
2950.05, and 2950.06 of the Revised Code and the duration of the 35978
duties. The judge shall inform the offender, at the time of 35979
sentencing, of those duties and of their duration. If required 35980
under division (A)(2) of section 2950.03 of the Revised Code, the 35981
judge shall perform the duties specified in that section, or, if 35982
required under division (A)(6) of section 2950.03 of the Revised 35983
Code, the judge shall perform the duties specified in that 35984
division.35985

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, 35986
when considering sentencing factors under this section in relation 35987
to an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an attempt 35988
to commit an offense in violation of section 2923.02 of the 35989
Revised Code, the sentencing court shall consider the factors 35990
applicable to the felony category of the violation of section 35991
2923.02 of the Revised Code instead of the factors applicable to 35992
the felony category of the offense attempted.35993

       (2) When considering sentencing factors under this section in 35994
relation to an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an 35995
attempt to commit a drug abuse offense for which the penalty is 35996
determined by the amount or number of unit doses of the controlled 35997
substance involved in the drug abuse offense, the sentencing court 35998
shall consider the factors applicable to the felony category that 35999
the drug abuse offense attempted would be if that drug abuse 36000
offense had been committed and had involved an amount or number of 36001
unit doses of the controlled substance that is within the next 36002
lower range of controlled substance amounts than was involved in 36003
the attempt.36004

       (K) As used in this section:36005

       (1) "Drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in section 36006
2925.01 of the Revised Code.36007

       (2) "Qualifying assault offense" means a violation of section 36008
2903.13 of the Revised Code for which the penalty provision in 36009
division (C)(7)(8)(b) or (C)(8)(9)(b) of that section applies.36010

       (L) At the time of sentencing an offender for any sexually 36011
oriented offense, if the offender is a tier III sex 36012
offender/child-victim offender relative to that offense and the 36013
offender does not serve a prison term or jail term, the court may 36014
require that the offender be monitored by means of a global 36015
positioning device. If the court requires such monitoring, the 36016
cost of monitoring shall be borne by the offender. If the offender 36017
is indigent, the cost of compliance shall be paid by the crime 36018
victims reparations fund.36019

       Sec. 2929.15.  (A)(1) If in sentencing an offender for a 36020
felony the court is not required to impose a prison term, a 36021
mandatory prison term, or a term of life imprisonment upon the 36022
offender, the court may directly impose a sentence that consists 36023
of one or more community control sanctions authorized pursuant to 36024
section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code. If the 36025
court is sentencing an offender for a fourth degree felony OVI 36026
offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 36027
Code, in addition to the mandatory term of local incarceration 36028
imposed under that division and the mandatory fine required by 36029
division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code, the court 36030
may impose upon the offender a community control sanction or 36031
combination of community control sanctions in accordance with 36032
sections 2929.16 and 2929.17 of the Revised Code. If the court is 36033
sentencing an offender for a third or fourth degree felony OVI 36034
offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 36035
Code, in addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison 36036
term and additional prison term imposed under that division, the 36037
court also may impose upon the offender a community control 36038
sanction or combination of community control sanctions under 36039
section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code, but the offender 36040
shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving 36041
the community control sanction.36042

        The duration of all community control sanctions imposed upon 36043
an offender under this division shall not exceed five years. If 36044
the offender absconds or otherwise leaves the jurisdiction of the 36045
court in which the offender resides without obtaining permission 36046
from the court or the offender's probation officer to leave the 36047
jurisdiction of the court, or if the offender is confined in any 36048
institution for the commission of any offense while under a 36049
community control sanction, the period of the community control 36050
sanction ceases to run until the offender is brought before the 36051
court for its further action. If the court sentences the offender 36052
to one or more nonresidential sanctions under section 2929.17 of 36053
the Revised Code, the court shall impose as a condition of the 36054
nonresidential sanctions that, during the period of the sanctions, 36055
the offender must abide by the law and must not leave the state 36056
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 36057
officer. The court may impose any other conditions of release 36058
under a community control sanction that the court considers 36059
appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring that the 36060
offender not ingest or be injected with a drug of abuse and submit 36061
to random drug testing as provided in division (D) of this section 36062
to determine whether the offender ingested or was injected with a 36063
drug of abuse and requiring that the results of the drug test 36064
indicate that the offender did not ingest or was not injected with 36065
a drug of abuse.36066

       (2)(a) If a court sentences an offender to any community 36067
control sanction or combination of community control sanctions 36068
authorized pursuant to section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the 36069
Revised Code, the court shall place the offender under the general 36070
control and supervision of a department of probation in the county 36071
that serves the court for purposes of reporting to the court a 36072
violation of any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 36073
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, a 36074
violation of law, or the departure of the offender from this state 36075
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 36076
officer. Alternatively, if the offender resides in another county 36077
and a county department of probation has been established in that 36078
county or that county is served by a multicounty probation 36079
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, 36080
the court may request the court of common pleas of that county to 36081
receive the offender into the general control and supervision of 36082
that county or multicounty department of probation for purposes of 36083
reporting to the court a violation of any condition of the 36084
sanctions, any condition of release under a community control 36085
sanction imposed by the court, a violation of law, or the 36086
departure of the offender from this state without the permission 36087
of the court or the offender's probation officer, subject to the 36088
jurisdiction of the trial judge over and with respect to the 36089
person of the offender, and to the rules governing that department 36090
of probation.36091

       If there is no department of probation in the county that 36092
serves the court, the court shall place the offender, regardless 36093
of the offender's county of residence, under the general control 36094
and supervision of the adult parole authority for purposes of 36095
reporting to the court a violation of any of the sanctions, any 36096
condition of release under a community control sanction imposed by 36097
the court, a violation of law, or the departure of the offender 36098
from this state without the permission of the court or the 36099
offender's probation officer.36100

       (b) If the court imposing sentence upon an offender sentences 36101
the offender to any community control sanction or combination of 36102
community control sanctions authorized pursuant to section 36103
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code, and if the 36104
offender violates any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 36105
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 36106
violates any law, or departs the state without the permission of 36107
the court or the offender's probation officer, the public or 36108
private person or entity that operates or administers the sanction 36109
or the program or activity that comprises the sanction shall 36110
report the violation or departure directly to the sentencing 36111
court, or shall report the violation or departure to the county or 36112
multicounty department of probation with general control and 36113
supervision over the offender under division (A)(2)(a) of this 36114
section or the officer of that department who supervises the 36115
offender, or, if there is no such department with general control 36116
and supervision over the offender under that division, to the 36117
adult parole authority. If the public or private person or entity 36118
that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 36119
activity that comprises the sanction reports the violation or 36120
departure to the county or multicounty department of probation or 36121
the adult parole authority, the department's or authority's 36122
officers may treat the offender as if the offender were on 36123
probation and in violation of the probation, and shall report the 36124
violation of the condition of the sanction, any condition of 36125
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 36126
the violation of law, or the departure from the state without the 36127
required permission to the sentencing court.36128

       (3) If an offender who is eligible for community control 36129
sanctions under this section admits to being drug addicted or the 36130
court has reason to believe that the offender is drug addicted, 36131
and if the offense for which the offender is being sentenced was 36132
related to the addiction, the court may require that the offender 36133
be assessed by a properly credentialed professional within a 36134
specified period of time and shall require the professional to 36135
file a written assessment of the offender with the court. If a 36136
court imposes treatment and recovery support services as a 36137
community control sanction, the court shall direct the level and 36138
type of treatment and recovery support services after 36139
consideration of the written assessment, if available at the time 36140
of sentencing, and recommendations of the professional and other 36141
treatment and recovery support services providers.36142

        (4) If an assessment completed pursuant to division (A)(3) of 36143
this section indicates that the offender is addicted to drugs or 36144
alcohol, the court may include in any community control sanction 36145
imposed for a violation of section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 36146
2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, or 36147
2925.37 of the Revised Code a requirement that the offender 36148
participate in a treatment and recovery support services program 36149
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or 36150
offered by another properly credentialed programcommunity 36151
addiction services provider.36152

       (B)(1) If the conditions of a community control sanction are 36153
violated or if the offender violates a law or leaves the state 36154
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 36155
officer, the sentencing court may impose upon the violator one or 36156
more of the following penalties:36157

       (a) A longer time under the same sanction if the total time 36158
under the sanctions does not exceed the five-year limit specified 36159
in division (A) of this section;36160

       (b) A more restrictive sanction under section 2929.16, 36161
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code;36162

       (c) A prison term on the offender pursuant to section 2929.14 36163
of the Revised Code. 36164

       (2) The prison term, if any, imposed upon a violator pursuant 36165
to this division shall be within the range of prison terms 36166
available for the offense for which the sanction that was violated 36167
was imposed and shall not exceed the prison term specified in the 36168
notice provided to the offender at the sentencing hearing pursuant 36169
to division (B)(2) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code. The 36170
court may reduce the longer period of time that the offender is 36171
required to spend under the longer sanction, the more restrictive 36172
sanction, or a prison term imposed pursuant to this division by 36173
the time the offender successfully spent under the sanction that 36174
was initially imposed.36175

       (C) If an offender, for a significant period of time, 36176
fulfills the conditions of a sanction imposed pursuant to section 36177
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code in an exemplary 36178
manner, the court may reduce the period of time under the sanction 36179
or impose a less restrictive sanction, but the court shall not 36180
permit the offender to violate any law or permit the offender to 36181
leave the state without the permission of the court or the 36182
offender's probation officer.36183

       (D)(1) If a court under division (A)(1) of this section 36184
imposes a condition of release under a community control sanction 36185
that requires the offender to submit to random drug testing, the 36186
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 36187
general control and supervision of the offender under division 36188
(A)(2)(a) of this section may cause the offender to submit to 36189
random drug testing performed by a laboratory or entity that has 36190
entered into a contract with any of the governmental entities or 36191
officers authorized to enter into a contract with that laboratory 36192
or entity under section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised 36193
Code.36194

       (2) If no laboratory or entity described in division (D)(1) 36195
of this section has entered into a contract as specified in that 36196
division, the department of probation or the adult parole 36197
authority that has general control and supervision of the offender 36198
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall cause the offender 36199
to submit to random drug testing performed by a reputable public 36200
laboratory to determine whether the individual who is the subject 36201
of the drug test ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse.36202

       (3) A laboratory or entity that has entered into a contract 36203
pursuant to section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code 36204
shall perform the random drug tests under division (D)(1) of this 36205
section in accordance with the applicable standards that are 36206
included in the terms of that contract. A public laboratory shall 36207
perform the random drug tests under division (D)(2) of this 36208
section in accordance with the standards set forth in the policies 36209
and procedures established by the department of rehabilitation and 36210
correction pursuant to section 5120.63 of the Revised Code. An 36211
offender who is required under division (A)(1) of this section to 36212
submit to random drug testing as a condition of release under a 36213
community control sanction and whose test results indicate that 36214
the offender ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse shall 36215
pay the fee for the drug test if the department of probation or 36216
the adult parole authority that has general control and 36217
supervision of the offender requires payment of a fee. A 36218
laboratory or entity that performs the random drug testing on an 36219
offender under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section shall 36220
transmit the results of the drug test to the appropriate 36221
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 36222
general control and supervision of the offender under division 36223
(A)(2)(a) of this section.36224

       Sec. 2930.01.  As used in this chapter:36225

       (A) "Crime" means any of the following:36226

       (1) A felony;36227

       (2) A violation of section 2903.05, 2903.06, 2903.13, 36228
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2907.06, 2919.25, or 2921.04 of the 36229
Revised Code, a violation of section 2903.07 of the Revised Code 36230
as it existed prior to March 23, 2000, or a violation of a 36231
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;36232

       (3) A violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19, 36233
division (A) or (B) of section 1547.11, or division (A)(3) of 36234
section 4561.15 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 36235
substantially similar to any of those divisions that is the 36236
proximate cause of a vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, 36237
aquatic device, or aircraft accident in which the victim receives 36238
injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment either at 36239
the scene of the accident by emergency medical services personnel 36240
or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's office, 36241
specialist's office, or other medical care facility.36242

       (4) A motor vehicle accident to which both of the following 36243
apply:36244

       (a) The motor vehicle accident is caused by a violation of a 36245
provision of the Revised Code that is a misdemeanor of the first 36246
degree or higher.36247

       (b) As a result of the motor vehicle accident, the victim 36248
receives injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment 36249
either at the scene of the accident by emergency medical services 36250
personnel or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's 36251
office, specialist's office, or other medical care facility.36252

       (B) "Custodial agency" means one of the following:36253

       (1) The entity that has custody of a defendant or an alleged 36254
juvenile offender who is incarcerated for a crime, is under 36255
detention for the commission of a specified delinquent act, or who 36256
is detained after a finding of incompetence to stand trial or not 36257
guilty by reason of insanity relative to a crime, including any of 36258
the following:36259

       (a) The department of rehabilitation and correction or the 36260
adult parole authority;36261

       (b) A county sheriff;36262

       (c) The entity that administers a jail, as defined in section 36263
2929.01 of the Revised Code;36264

       (d) The entity that administers a community-based 36265
correctional facility and program or a district community-based 36266
correctional facility and program;36267

       (e) The department of mental healthmental health and 36268
addiction services or other entity to which a defendant found 36269
incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity is 36270
committed.36271

       (2) The entity that has custody of an alleged juvenile 36272
offender pursuant to an order of disposition of a juvenile court, 36273
including the department of youth services or a school, camp, 36274
institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent 36275
children.36276

       (C) "Defendant" means a person who is alleged to be the 36277
perpetrator of a crime in a police report or in a complaint, 36278
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 36279
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution and 36280
subsequent proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.36281

       (D) "Member of the victim's family" means a spouse, child, 36282
stepchild, sibling, parent, stepparent, grandparent, or other 36283
relative of a victim but does not include a person who is charged 36284
with, convicted of, or adjudicated to be a delinquent child for 36285
the crime or specified delinquent act against the victim or 36286
another crime or specified delinquent act arising from the same 36287
conduct, criminal episode, or plan.36288

       (E) "Prosecutor" means one of the following:36289

       (1) With respect to a criminal case, it has the same meaning 36290
as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code and also includes the 36291
attorney general and, when appropriate, the employees of any 36292
person listed in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code or of the 36293
attorney general.36294

       (2) With respect to a delinquency proceeding, it includes any 36295
person listed in division (C) of section 2935.01 of the Revised 36296
Code or an employee of a person listed in that division who 36297
prosecutes a delinquency proceeding.36298

       (F) "Public agency" means an office, agency, department, 36299
bureau, or other governmental entity of the state or of a 36300
political subdivision of the state.36301

       (G) "Public official" has the same meaning as in section 36302
2921.01 of the Revised Code.36303

       (H) "Victim" means either of the following:36304

       (1) A person who is identified as the victim of a crime or 36305
specified delinquent act in a police report or in a complaint, 36306
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 36307
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution or 36308
delinquency proceeding and subsequent proceedings to which this 36309
chapter makes reference.36310

       (2) A person who receives injuries as a result of a vehicle, 36311
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft accident 36312
that is proximately caused by a violation described in division 36313
(A)(3) of this section or a motor vehicle accident that is 36314
proximately caused by a violation described in division (A)(4) of 36315
this section and who receives medical treatment as described in 36316
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, whichever is applicable.36317

       (I) "Victim's representative" means a member of the victim's 36318
family or another person who pursuant to the authority of section 36319
2930.02 of the Revised Code exercises the rights of a victim under 36320
this chapter.36321

       (J) "Court" means a court of common pleas, juvenile court, 36322
municipal court, or county court.36323

       (K) "Delinquency proceeding" means all proceedings in a 36324
juvenile court that are related to a case in which a complaint has 36325
been filed alleging that a child is a delinquent child.36326

       (L) "Case" means a delinquency proceeding and all related 36327
activity or a criminal prosecution and all related activity.36328

       (M) The "defense" means the defense against criminal charges 36329
in a criminal prosecution or the defense against a delinquent 36330
child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.36331

       (N) The "prosecution" means the prosecution of criminal 36332
charges in a criminal prosecution or the prosecution of a 36333
delinquent child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.36334

       (O) "Specified delinquent act" means any of the following:36335

       (1) An act committed by a child that if committed by an adult 36336
would be a felony;36337

       (2) An act committed by a child that is a violation of a 36338
section listed in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section or is a 36339
violation of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;36340

       (3) An act committed by a child that is described in division 36341
(A)(3) or (4) of this section.36342

       (P)(1) "Alleged juvenile offender" means a child who is 36343
alleged to have committed a specified delinquent act in a police 36344
report or in a complaint in juvenile court that charges the 36345
commission of a specified delinquent act and that provides the 36346
basis for the delinquency proceeding and all subsequent 36347
proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.36348

       (2) As used in divisions (O) and (P)(1) of this section, 36349
"child" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 36350
Code.36351

       (Q) "Motor vehicle accident" means any accident involving a 36352
motor vehicle.36353

       (R) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 36354
4509.01 of the Revised Code.36355

       (S) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 36356
the Revised Code.36357

       (T) "Aquatic device" means any vessel, or any water skis, 36358
aquaplane, or similar device.36359

        (U) "Vehicle," "streetcar," and "trackless trolley" have the 36360
same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.36361

        (V) "Vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, 36362
or aircraft accident" means any accident involving a vehicle, 36363
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft.36364

        (W) "Vessel" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 of 36365
the Revised Code.36366

       Sec. 2935.03.  (A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, 36367
deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, 36368
police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a 36369
police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under 36370
division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a 36371
police force employed by a regional transit authority under 36372
division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state 36373
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 36374
of the Revised Code, veterans' home police officer appointed under 36375
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer 36376
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 36377
the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a 36378
municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal 36379
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 36380
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 36381
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 36382
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 36383
transportation security administration of the United States 36384
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 36385
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall 36386
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found 36387
violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, 36388
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 36389
authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have 36390
been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal 36391
corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, 36392
university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the 36393
Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 36394
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 36395
appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance 36396
of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.36397

       (2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 36398
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 36399
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 36400
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 36401
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and 36402
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, 36403
within the limits of the peace officer's, state fire marshal law 36404
enforcement officer's, or individual's territorial jurisdiction, a 36405
law of this state.36406

       (3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms 36407
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 36408
101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at 36409
arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a 36410
person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at 36411
arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial jurisdiction 36412
specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised 36413
Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of 36414
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an 36415
ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a 36416
township.36417

       (4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 36418
sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be 36419
obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the 36420
sergeant at arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial 36421
jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the 36422
Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal 36423
corporation, or a resolution of a township.36424

       (B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an 36425
offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as 36426
defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of 36427
public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised 36428
Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 36429
2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection 36430
order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the 36431
offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of 36432
the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in 36433
section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined 36434
in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse 36435
offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has 36436
been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, 36437
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 36438
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 36439
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 36440
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 36441
college, university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 36442
of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 36443
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 36444
appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 36445
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer 36446
described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain 36447
until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer 36448
has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.36449

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the 36450
execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to 36451
believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed 36452
and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the 36453
statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the 36454
violation:36455

       (a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged 36456
offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or 36457
aggravated trespass;36458

       (b) A written statement by the administrator of the 36459
interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 36460
5119.515119.71 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had 36461
been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility 36462
under an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 36463
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 36464
2945.402 of the Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from 36465
confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 36466
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 36467
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 36468
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside of the 36469
facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;36470

       (c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility 36471
in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or 36472
confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 36473
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 36474
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 36475
from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for 36476
transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an 36477
employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, 36478
institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that 36479
occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of 36480
the Revised Code.36481

       (3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a 36482
peace officer described in division (A) of this section has 36483
reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic 36484
violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been 36485
committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person 36486
is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following 36487
occurs:36488

       (i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the 36489
person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence 36490
or the offense of violating a protection order against the person 36491
who executes the statement or against a child of the person who 36492
executes the statement.36493

       (ii) No written statement of the type described in division 36494
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, 36495
based upon the peace officer's own knowledge and observation of 36496
the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense 36497
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 36498
violating a protection order or based upon any other information, 36499
including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy 36500
information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of 36501
the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged 36502
incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable 36503
grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the 36504
offense of violating a protection order has been committed and 36505
reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty 36506
of committing the offense.36507

       (iii) No written statement of the type described in division 36508
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer 36509
witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic 36510
violence or the offense of violating a protection order.36511

       (b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 36512
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 36513
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 36514
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a 36515
particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the 36516
preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest 36517
and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 36518
until a warrant can be obtained.36519

       If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 36520
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 36521
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 36522
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or 36523
household members have committed the offense against each other, 36524
it is the preferred course of action in this state that the 36525
officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and 36526
detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household 36527
member who committed the offense and whom the officer has 36528
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. 36529
There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any 36530
other family or household member who committed the offense and 36531
whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the 36532
primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of 36533
this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a 36534
warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who 36535
committed the offense and whom the officer does not have 36536
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.36537

       (c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36538
section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has 36539
reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic 36540
violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is 36541
the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division 36542
(B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the 36543
officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident 36544
required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement 36545
of the officer's reasons for not arresting and detaining that 36546
person until a warrant can be obtained.36547

       (d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this 36548
section which family or household member is the primary physical 36549
aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have 36550
committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of 36551
violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer 36552
described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any 36553
other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the 36554
following:36555

       (i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent 36556
acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the 36557
officer reasonably can ascertain;36558

       (ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was 36559
caused by a person acting in self-defense;36560

       (iii) Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting 36561
from the other person's threatened use of force against any person 36562
or resulting from the other person's use or history of the use of 36563
force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;36564

       (iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the 36565
persons involved in the alleged offense.36566

       (e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this 36567
section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or 36568
charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic 36569
violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the 36570
victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of 36571
charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a 36572
complaint against the person who has committed the offense.36573

       (ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing 36574
the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a 36575
protection order and if the victim of the offense does not 36576
cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting 36577
authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to 36578
the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law 36579
enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not 36580
wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop 36581
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the 36582
involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to 36583
continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss 36584
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and 36585
notwithstanding the victim's failure to cooperate or the victim's 36586
wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are 36587
relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the 36588
statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to 36589
the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges 36590
and of all witnesses to that incident.36591

       (f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of 36592
this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division 36593
(B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 36594
of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible 36595
shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the 36596
person will be taken subsequent to the person's arrest or any 36597
possibility that the person's arrest might cause, contribute to, 36598
or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any 36599
other detention facility.36600

       (g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36601
section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this 36602
section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 36603
section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person 36604
is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the 36605
arrest of the person.36606

       (h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36607
section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense 36608
of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of 36609
violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the 36610
incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or 36611
any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon 36612
during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was 36613
used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, 36614
and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly 36615
weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised 36616
Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division 36617
(B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code 36618
shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly 36619
weapon. For purposes of that section, the "underlying criminal 36620
offense" that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon 36621
under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly 36622
weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is 36623
applicable:36624

       (i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence 36625
or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection 36626
order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;36627

       (ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and 36628
circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense 36629
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 36630
violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the 36631
deadly weapon responded.36632

       (4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) 36633
to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 36634
of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division 36635
(B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of 36636
this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36637
section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent 36638
described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the 36639
Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for 36640
injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or 36641
is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.36642

       (C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a 36643
violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 36644
4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has 36645
been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to 36646
regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title 36647
XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to 36648
enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom 36649
the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the 36650
motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after 36651
investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the 36652
vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.36653

       (D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, 36654
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 36655
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 36656
3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by 36657
a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 36658
of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port 36659
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, 36660
special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a 36661
municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility 36662
described in division (A) of this section, township constable, 36663
police officer of a township or joint police district, state 36664
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 36665
of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural 36666
resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties 36667
under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, 36668
the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has 36669
arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of 36670
the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is 36671
authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and 36672
detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, 36673
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 36674
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 36675
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 36676
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 36677
port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air 36678
navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer 36679
is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 36680
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a 36681
warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of 36682
that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a 36683
warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:36684

       (1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 36685
the offense is committed;36686

       (2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the 36687
political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing 36688
project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a 36689
municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional 36690
transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its 36691
territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or 36692
other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in 36693
which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or 36694
within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace 36695
officer;36696

       (3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the 36697
first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a 36698
misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent 36699
municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are 36700
chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.36701

       (E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) 36702
or (B) of this section:36703

       (1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until 36704
a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 36705
4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 36706
4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the 36707
portion of any street or highway that is located immediately 36708
adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or 36709
deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.36710

       (2) A member of the police force of a township police 36711
district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a 36712
member of the police force of a joint police district created 36713
under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable 36714
appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, 36715
who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer 36716
training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may 36717
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person 36718
found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed 36719
in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 36720
and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 36721
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 36722
the township police district or joint police district, in the case 36723
of a member of a township police district or joint police district 36724
police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in 36725
the case of a township constable. However, if the population of 36726
the township that created the township police district served by 36727
the member's police force, or the townships and municipal 36728
corporations that created the joint police district served by the 36729
member's police force, or the township that is served by the 36730
township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the 36731
township police district or joint police district police force or 36732
the township constable may not make an arrest under division 36733
(E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part 36734
of the interstate system.36735

       (3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, 36736
or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, 36737
until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any 36738
section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) 36739
of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is 36740
located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal 36741
corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is 36742
appointed, elected, or employed.36743

       (4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 36744
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 36745
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 36746
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 36747
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and 36748
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found 36749
violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in 36750
division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 36751
4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 36752
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 36753
the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction 36754
of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement 36755
officer.36756

       (F)(1) A department of mental healthmental health and 36757
addiction services special police officer or a department of 36758
developmental disabilities special police officer may arrest 36759
without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be obtained any 36760
person found committing on the premises of any institution under 36761
the jurisdiction of the particular department a misdemeanor under 36762
a law of the state.36763

       A department of mental healthmental health and addiction 36764
services special police officer or a department of developmental 36765
disabilities special police officer may arrest without a warrant 36766
and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person who has been 36767
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an institution 36768
under the jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or 36769
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 36770
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is 36771
found committing on the premises of any institution under the 36772
jurisdiction of the particular department a violation of section 36773
2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape from the 36774
premises of the institution.36775

       (2)(a) If a department of mental healthmental health and 36776
addiction services special police officer or a department of 36777
developmental disabilities special police officer finds any person 36778
who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an 36779
institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department 36780
pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 36781
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 36782
Code committing a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code 36783
that involves an escape from the premises of the institution, or 36784
if there is reasonable ground to believe that a violation of 36785
section 2921.34 of the Revised Code has been committed that 36786
involves an escape from the premises of an institution under the 36787
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 36788
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 36789
and if a department of mental healthmental health and addiction 36790
services special police officer or a department of developmental 36791
disabilities special police officer has reasonable cause to 36792
believe that a particular person who has been hospitalized, 36793
institutionalized, or confined in the institution pursuant to or 36794
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 36795
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of 36796
the violation, the special police officer, outside of the premises 36797
of the institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for 36798
that violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a 36799
warrant can be obtained, if both of the following apply:36800

       (i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 36801
the offense is committed;36802

       (ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the 36803
institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the 36804
Revised Code occurred.36805

       (b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the 36806
execution of a written statement by the administrator of the 36807
institution in which a person had been hospitalized, 36808
institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of 36809
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 36810
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 36811
from the premises of the institution in violation of section 36812
2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to 36813
believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to 36814
believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed 36815
the offense is guilty of the violation.36816

       (G) As used in this section:36817

       (1) A "department of mental healthmental health and 36818
addiction services special police officer" means a special police 36819
officer of the department of mental healthmental health and 36820
addiction services designated under section 5119.145119.08 of the 36821
Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer training 36822
commission under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having 36823
successfully completed an approved peace officer basic training 36824
program.36825

       (2) A "department of developmental disabilities special 36826
police officer" means a special police officer of the department 36827
of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of 36828
the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer 36829
training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as 36830
having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic 36831
training program.36832

       (3) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 36833
2923.11 of the Revised Code.36834

       (4) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 36835
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.36836

       (5) "Street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 36837
4511.01 of the Revised Code.36838

       (6) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in section 36839
5516.01 of the Revised Code.36840

       (7) "Peace officer of the department of natural resources" 36841
means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a 36842
natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 36843
pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer 36844
designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a 36845
preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the 36846
Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 36847
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to 36848
section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer 36849
designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code.36850

       (8) "Portion of any street or highway" means all lanes of the 36851
street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including 36852
designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.36853

       Sec. 2935.33.  (A) If a person charged with a misdemeanor is 36854
taken before a judge of a court of record and if it appears to the 36855
judge that the person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute 36856
alcohol intoxication and that the person would benefit from 36857
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 36858
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 36859
the Revised Code, the judge may place the person temporarily in a 36860
programservices provider certified under that chapter in the area 36861
in which the court has jurisdiction for inpatient care and 36862
treatment for an indefinite period not exceeding five days. The 36863
commitment does not limit the right to release on bail. The judge 36864
may dismiss a charge of a violation of division (B) of section 36865
2917.11 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 36866
substantially equivalent to that division if the defendant 36867
complies with all the conditions of treatment ordered by the 36868
court.36869

       The court may order that any fines or court costs collected 36870
by the court from defendants who have received inpatient care from 36871
an alcohol and druga community addiction programservices 36872
provider be paid, for the benefit of the program, to the board of 36873
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the 36874
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in 36875
which the programservices provider is located or to the director 36876
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 36877
services.36878

       (B) If a person is being sentenced for a violation of 36879
division (B) of section 2917.11 or section 4511.19 of the Revised 36880
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised 36881
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised 36882
Code involving a protection order issued or consent agreement 36883
approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised 36884
Code, or a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially 36885
equivalent to that division or any of those sections and if it 36886
appears to the judge at the time of sentencing that the person is 36887
an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol intoxication and 36888
that, in lieu of imprisonment, the person would benefit from 36889
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 36890
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 36891
the Revised Code, the court may commit the person to close 36892
supervision in any facility in the area in which the court has 36893
jurisdiction that is, or is operated by, such a programservices 36894
provider. Such close supervision may include outpatient services 36895
and part-time release, except that a person convicted of a 36896
violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 36897
shall be confined to the facility for at least three days and 36898
except that a person convicted of a misdemeanor violation of 36899
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code, a misdemeanor violation of 36900
section 2919.27 of the Revised Code involving a protection order 36901
issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 36902
or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, or a violation of a substantially 36903
equivalent municipal ordinance shall be confined to the facility 36904
in accordance with the order of commitment. A commitment of a 36905
person to a facility for purposes of close supervision shall not 36906
exceed the maximum term for which the person could be imprisoned.36907

       (C) A law enforcement officer who finds a person subject to 36908
prosecution for violation of division (B) of section 2917.11 of 36909
the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent 36910
to that division and who has reasonable cause to believe that the 36911
person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol 36912
intoxication and would benefit from immediate treatment 36913
immediately may place the person in an alcohol and druga 36914
community addiction programservices provider certified under 36915
Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code in the area in which the 36916
person is found, for emergency treatment, in lieu of other arrest 36917
procedures, for a maximum period of forty-eight hours. During that 36918
time, if the person desires to leave such custody, the person 36919
shall be released forthwith.36920

       (D) As used in this section:36921

       (1) "Alcoholic" has the same meaning as in section 3793.0136922
5119.01 of the Revised Code;36923

       (2) "Acute alcohol intoxication" means a heavy consumption of 36924
alcohol over a relatively short period of time, resulting in 36925
dysfunction of the brain centers controlling behavior, speech, and 36926
memory and causing characteristic withdrawal symptoms.36927

       Sec. 2945.37.  (A) As used in sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of 36928
the Revised Code:36929

       (1) "Prosecutor" means a prosecuting attorney or a city 36930
director of law, village solicitor, or similar chief legal officer 36931
of a municipal corporation who has authority to prosecute a 36932
criminal case that is before the court or the criminal case in 36933
which a defendant in a criminal case has been found incompetent to 36934
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.36935

       (2) "Examiner" means either of the following:36936

       (a) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 36937
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 36938
the Revised Code or is employed by a certified forensic center 36939
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 36940
addiction services to conduct examinations or evaluations.36941

       (b) For purposes of a separate mental retardation evaluation 36942
that is ordered by a court pursuant to division (H) of section 36943
2945.371 of the Revised Code, a psychologist designated by the 36944
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to that section to 36945
conduct that separate mental retardation evaluation.36946

       (3) "Nonsecured status" means any unsupervised, off-grounds 36947
movement or trial visit from a hospital or institution, or any 36948
conditional release, that is granted to a person who is found 36949
incompetent to stand trial and is committed pursuant to section 36950
2945.39 of the Revised Code or to a person who is found not guilty 36951
by reason of insanity and is committed pursuant to section 2945.40 36952
of the Revised Code.36953

       (4) "Unsupervised, off-grounds movement" includes only 36954
off-grounds privileges that are unsupervised and that have an 36955
expectation of return to the hospital or institution on a daily 36956
basis.36957

       (5) "Trial visit" means a patient privilege of a longer 36958
stated duration of unsupervised community contact with an 36959
expectation of return to the hospital or institution at designated 36960
times.36961

       (6) "Conditional release" means a commitment status under 36962
which the trial court at any time may revoke a person's 36963
conditional release and order the rehospitalization or 36964
reinstitutionalization of the person as described in division (A) 36965
of section 2945.402 of the Revised Code and pursuant to which a 36966
person who is found incompetent to stand trial or a person who is 36967
found not guilty by reason of insanity lives and receives 36968
treatment in the community for a period of time that does not 36969
exceed the maximum prison term or term of imprisonment that the 36970
person could have received for the offense in question had the 36971
person been convicted of the offense instead of being found 36972
incompetent to stand trial on the charge of the offense or being 36973
found not guilty by reason of insanity relative to the offense.36974

       (7) "Licensed clinical psychologist," "mentally ill person 36975
subject to hospitalization by court order," and "psychiatrist" 36976
have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.36977

       (8) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 36978
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 36979
Revised Code.36980

       (B) In a criminal action in a court of common pleas, a county 36981
court, or a municipal court, the court, prosecutor, or defense may 36982
raise the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. If 36983
the issue is raised before the trial has commenced, the court 36984
shall hold a hearing on the issue as provided in this section. If 36985
the issue is raised after the trial has commenced, the court shall 36986
hold a hearing on the issue only for good cause shown or on the 36987
court's own motion.36988

       (C) The court shall conduct the hearing required or 36989
authorized under division (B) of this section within thirty days 36990
after the issue is raised, unless the defendant has been referred 36991
for evaluation in which case the court shall conduct the hearing 36992
within ten days after the filing of the report of the evaluation 36993
or, in the case of a defendant who is ordered by the court 36994
pursuant to division (H) of section 2945.371 of the Revised Code 36995
to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation conducted by a 36996
psychologist designated by the director of developmental 36997
disabilities, within ten days after the filing of the report of 36998
the separate mental retardation evaluation under that division. A 36999
hearing may be continued for good cause.37000

       (D) The defendant shall be represented by counsel at the 37001
hearing conducted under division (C) of this section. If the 37002
defendant is unable to obtain counsel, the court shall appoint 37003
counsel under Chapter 120. of the Revised Code or under the 37004
authority recognized in division (C) of section 120.06, division 37005
(E) of section 120.16, division (E) of section 120.26, or section 37006
2941.51 of the Revised Code before proceeding with the hearing.37007

       (E) The prosecutor and defense counsel may submit evidence on 37008
the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. A written 37009
report of the evaluation of the defendant may be admitted into 37010
evidence at the hearing by stipulation, but, if either the 37011
prosecution or defense objects to its admission, the report may be 37012
admitted under sections 2317.36 to 2317.38 of the Revised Code or 37013
any other applicable statute or rule.37014

       (F) The court shall not find a defendant incompetent to stand 37015
trial solely because the defendant is receiving or has received 37016
treatment as a voluntary or involuntary mentally ill patient under 37017
Chapter 5122. or a voluntary or involuntary mentally retarded 37018
resident under Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code or because the 37019
defendant is receiving or has received psychotropic drugs or other 37020
medication, even if the defendant might become incompetent to 37021
stand trial without the drugs or medication.37022

       (G) A defendant is presumed to be competent to stand trial. 37023
If, after a hearing, the court finds by a preponderance of the 37024
evidence that, because of the defendant's present mental 37025
condition, the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature 37026
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 37027
assisting in the defendant's defense, the court shall find the 37028
defendant incompetent to stand trial and shall enter an order 37029
authorized by section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.37030

       (H) Municipal courts shall follow the procedures set forth in 37031
sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. Except as 37032
provided in section 2945.371 of the Revised Code, a municipal 37033
court shall not order an evaluation of the defendant's competence 37034
to stand trial or the defendant's mental condition at the time of 37035
the commission of the offense to be conducted at any hospital 37036
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 37037
addiction services. Those evaluations shall be performed through 37038
community resources including, but not limited to, certified 37039
forensic centers, court probation departments, and community 37040
mental health agenciesservices providers. All expenses of the 37041
evaluations shall be borne by the legislative authority of the 37042
municipal court, as defined in section 1901.03 of the Revised 37043
Code, and shall be taxed as costs in the case. If a defendant is 37044
found incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of 37045
insanity, a municipal court may commit the defendant as provided 37046
in sections 2945.38 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.37047

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 37048
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 37049
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 37050
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 37051
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 37052
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 37053
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.37054

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 37055
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 37056
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 37057
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 37058
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 37059
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 37060
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 37061
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 37062
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 37063
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.37064

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 37065
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 37066
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 37067
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 37068
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 37069
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 37070
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 37071
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 37072
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 37073
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 37074
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 37075
services or the department of developmental disabilities where the 37076
defendant may be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of 37077
time not to exceed twenty days.37078

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 37079
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 37080
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 37081
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 37082
operated or certified by the department of mental healthmental 37083
health and addiction services or the department of developmental 37084
disabilities, where the defendant may be held for evaluation for a 37085
reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return 37086
the defendant to the place of detention after the evaluation. A 37087
municipal court may make an order under this division only upon 37088
the request of a certified forensic center examiner.37089

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 37090
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 37091
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 37092
defendant is charged.37093

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 37094
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 37095
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 37096
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 37097
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 37098
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 37099
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."37100

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 37101
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 37102
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 37103
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 37104
following:37105

       (1) The examiner's findings;37106

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 37107
based;37108

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 37109
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 37110
findings or recommendations that are applicable:37111

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 37112
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 37113
of assisting in the defendant's defense;37114

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 37115
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 37116
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 37117
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 37118
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 37119
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 37120
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 37121
institutionalization by court order;37122

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 37123
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 37124
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 37125
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 37126
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 37127
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 37128
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 37129
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;37130

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 37131
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 37132
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 37133
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 37134
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 37135
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 37136
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 37137
and with the safety of the community.37138

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 37139
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 37140
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 37141
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 37142
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 37143
charged.37144

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 37145
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 37146
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 37147
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 37148
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 37149
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 37150
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 37151
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 37152
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 37153
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 37154
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 37155
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 37156
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 37157
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 37158
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 37159
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 37160
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 37161
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 37162
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 37163
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 37164
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 37165
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 37166
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 37167
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 37168
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 37169
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 37170
the Revised Code.37171

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 37172
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 37173
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 37174
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 37175
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 37176
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 37177
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 37178
insanity.37179

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 37180
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 37181
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 37182
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 37183
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 37184
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 37185
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 37186
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 37187
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 37188
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 37189
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 37190
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.37191

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 37192
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 37193
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 37194
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 37195
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 37196
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 37197
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.37198

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 37199
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 37200
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 37201
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 37202
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 37203
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 37204
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 37205
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 37206
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 37207
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 37208
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 37209
drugs, other medication, or treatment.37210

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 37211
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 37212
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 37213
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 37214
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 37215
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 37216
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 37217
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 37218
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 37219
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 37220
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 37221
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 37222
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 37223
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 37224
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 37225
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 37226
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 37227
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.37228

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 37229
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 37230
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 37231
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 37232
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 37233
healthmental health and addiction services for treatment or 37234
continuing evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or 37235
agency, as determined to be clinically appropriate by the 37236
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services37237
or shall be committed to a facility certified by the department of 37238
mental healthmental health and addiction services as being 37239
qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or community mental 37240
health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another mental health 37241
professional for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment. 37242
Prior to placing the defendant, the department of mental health37243
mental health and addiction services shall obtain court approval 37244
for that placement following a hearing. The court order for the 37245
defendant to undergo treatment or continuing evaluation and 37246
treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify 37247
that the defendant, if determined to require treatment or 37248
continuing evaluation and treatment for mental retardation, shall 37249
receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at an 37250
institution or facility operated by the department of 37251
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 37252
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 37253
treat mental retardation, at a public or private mental 37254
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 37255
retardation professional. In any case, the order may restrict the 37256
defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers necessary. 37257
The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to the chief 37258
clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency where the 37259
defendant is placed by the department of mental healthmental 37260
health and addiction services, or to the managing officer of the 37261
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 37262
person to which the defendant is committed, copies of relevant 37263
police reports and other background information that pertains to 37264
the defendant and is available to the prosecutor unless the 37265
prosecutor determines that the release of any of the information 37266
in the police reports or any of the other background information 37267
to unauthorized persons would interfere with the effective 37268
prosecution of any person or would create a substantial risk of 37269
harm to any person.37270

       In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 37271
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 37272
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 37273
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 37274
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 37275
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 37276
to protecting public safety.37277

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 37278
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 37279
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 37280
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 37281
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 37282
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 37283
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 37284
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 37285
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 37286
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 37287
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 37288
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 37289
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 37290
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 37291
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 37292
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 37293
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 37294
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 37295
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 37296
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 37297
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 37298
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 37299
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 37300
petition.37301

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37302
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 37303
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 37304
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 37305
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 37306
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 37307
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 37308
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 37309
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 37310
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 37311
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 37312
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 37313
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 37314
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 37315
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 37316
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 37317
Code.37318

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 37319
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 37320
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 37321
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 37322
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 37323
5123. of the Revised Code.37324

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 37325
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 37326
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 37327
periods is applicable:37328

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 37329
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:37330

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 37331
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;37332

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 37333
second degree;37334

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 37335
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 37336
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 37337
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.37338

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 37339
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 37340
division (C)(1) of this section;37341

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 37342
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 37343
degree;37344

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 37345
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 37346
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.37347

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 37348
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 37349
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 37350
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.37351

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 37352
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 37353
court under this section to the department of mental healthmental 37354
health and addiction services or is committed to an institution or 37355
facility for the treatment of mental retardation shall not be 37356
granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds 37357
movement, or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court 37358
order. The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds 37359
movement to obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation 37360
treatment services if the person who supervises the treatment or 37361
the continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered 37362
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that 37363
the treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 37364
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 37365
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 37366
services or the institution or facility to which the defendant is 37367
committed. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 37368
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health37369
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 37370
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 37371
is committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 37372
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 37373
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 37374
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 37375
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 37376
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health37377
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 37378
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 37379
is committed shall notify the court within twenty-four hours of 37380
the defendant's movement to the medical facility for an emergency 37381
medical situation under this division.37382

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 37383
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 37384
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 37385
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 37386
court at the following times:37387

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 37388
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 37389
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;37390

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 37391
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 37392
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 37393
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 37394
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 37395
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 37396
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;37397

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;37398

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 37399
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 37400
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 37401
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 37402
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 37403
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 37404
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.37405

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 37406
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 37407
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 37408
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 37409
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 37410
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 37411
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 37412
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 37413
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 37414
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 37415
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 37416
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 37417
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 37418
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 37419
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 37420
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 37421
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 37422
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 37423
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 37424
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 37425
the prosecutor and defense counsel.37426

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 37427
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 37428
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 37429
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 37430
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 37431
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 37432
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 37433
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 37434
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 37435
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 37436
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 37437
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 37438
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 37439
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 37440
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 37441
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 37442
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 37443
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 37444
the following is applicable:37445

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 37446
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 37447
by law.37448

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37449
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 37450
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 37451
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 37452
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 37453
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 37454
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 37455
change the facility or program at which the treatment is to be 37456
continued, and shall specify whether the treatment is to be 37457
continued at the same or a different facility or program.37458

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37459
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 37460
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 37461
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 37462
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 37463
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 37464
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 37465
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 37466
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.37467

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37468
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 37469
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 37470
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 37471
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 37472
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 37473
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 37474
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 37475
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 37476
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 37477
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 37478
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 37479
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 37480
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 37481
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 37482
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 37483
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 37484
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 37485
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 37486
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 37487
for civil commitment under authority of this division:37488

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 37489
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 37490
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 37491
admitted shall do all of the following:37492

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 37493
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 37494
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 37495
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;37496

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 37497
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 37498
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 37499
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 37500
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;37501

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 37502
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 37503
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 37504
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 37505
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.37506

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 37507
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 37508
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 37509
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 37510
defendant.37511

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 37512
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 37513
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 37514
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 37515
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 37516
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 37517
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 37518
condition at the time of the offense charged.37519

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 37520
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 37521
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 37522
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 37523
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 37524
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 37525
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 37526
course of treatment, one of the following applies:37527

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 37528
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 37529
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 37530
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 37531
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 37532
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 37533
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 37534
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 37535
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 37536
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 37537
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 37538
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 37539
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 37540
specified in those divisions.37541

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 37542
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 37543
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 37544
evidence:37545

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 37546
defendant is charged.37547

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 37548
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 37549
subject to institutionalization by court order.37550

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 37551
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 37552
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 37553
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 37554
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 37555
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 37556
defendant's ability to conform to the law.37557

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 37558
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 37559
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 37560
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 37561
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 37562
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 37563
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 37564
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 37565
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 37566
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 37567
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 37568
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 37569
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 37570
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 37571
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program, 37572
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 37573
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 37574
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 37575
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 37576
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 37577
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 37578
conduct.37579

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 37580
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 37581
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 37582
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 37583
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 37584
either to the department of mental healthmental health and 37585
addiction services for treatment at a hospital, facility, or 37586
agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department of 37587
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to another 37588
medical or psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing 37589
the defendant, the department of mental healthmental health and 37590
addiction services shall obtain court approval for that placement. 37591
If the court conducts such a hearing and if it makes those 37592
findings by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit 37593
the defendant, if determined to require treatment for mental 37594
retardation, to a facility operated by the department of 37595
developmental disabilities, or another facility, as appropriate. 37596
In determining the place of commitment, the court shall consider 37597
the extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 37598
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and 37599
shall order the least restrictive alternative available that is 37600
consistent with public safety and the welfare of the defendant. In 37601
weighing these factors, the court shall give preference to 37602
protecting public safety.37603

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 37604
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 37605
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 37606
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services37607
or to the defendant's place of commitment all reports of the 37608
defendant's current mental condition and, except as otherwise 37609
provided in this division, any other relevant information, 37610
including, but not limited to, a transcript of the hearing held 37611
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies of relevant 37612
police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and conviction 37613
records that pertain to the defendant and that the prosecutor 37614
possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 37615
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 37616
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 37617
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 37618
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 37619
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 37620
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 37621
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 37622
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 37623
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 37624
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 37625
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 37626
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 37627
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 37628
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 37629
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 37630
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 37631
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.37632

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 37633
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 37634
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.37635

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 37636
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 37637
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 37638
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 37639
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 37640
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 37641
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 37642
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 37643
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 37644
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 37645
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 37646
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.37647

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 37648
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 37649
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 37650
confinement prior to and during trial.37651

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 37652
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 37653
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 37654
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 37655
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 37656
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 37657
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 37658
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 37659
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 37660
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 37661
respondent.37662

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 37663
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 37664
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 37665
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 37666
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 37667
rights:37668

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 37669
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 37670
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 37671
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 37672
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 37673
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;37674

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 37675
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 37676
if the person is indigent;37677

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 37678
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 37679
against the person;37680

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 37681
not be compelled to testify;37682

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 37683
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 37684
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 37685
the release to the person of information contained in the document 37686
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.37687

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 37688
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 37689
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 37690
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 37691
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 37692
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 37693
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 37694
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 37695
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 37696
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.37697

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 37698
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 37699
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 37700
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 37701
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 37702
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 37703
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 37704
which case the person shall be returned to that department.37705

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 37706
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 37707
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 37708
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 37709
of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 37710
treatment in a hospital, facility, or agency as determined 37711
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 37712
health and addiction services or to another medical or psychiatric 37713
facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the 37714
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services37715
shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, at the hearing 37716
under division (A) of this section, the court determines by clear 37717
and convincing evidence that the person requires treatment for 37718
mental retardation, it shall commit the person to a facility 37719
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 37720
another facility, as appropriate. Further proceedings shall be in 37721
accordance with sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised 37722
Code. In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 37723
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 37724
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 37725
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 37726
available that is consistent with public safety and the welfare of 37727
the person. In weighing these factors, the court shall give 37728
preference to protecting public safety.37729

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 37730
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 37731
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 37732
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 37733
defendant's place of commitment all reports of the person's 37734
current mental condition, and, except as otherwise provided in 37735
this division, any other relevant information, including, but not 37736
limited to, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division 37737
(A) of this section, copies of relevant police reports, and copies 37738
of any prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 37739
person and that the prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall 37740
send the reports of the person's current mental condition in every 37741
case of commitment, and, unless the prosecutor determines that the 37742
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 37743
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 37744
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 37745
the prosecutor also shall send the other relevant information. 37746
Upon admission of a person committed under division (F) of this 37747
section, the place of commitment shall send to the board of 37748
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 37749
community mental health board serving the county in which the 37750
charges against the person were filed a copy of all reports of the 37751
person's current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 37752
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 37753
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 37754
to division (A) of this section, the relevant police reports, and 37755
the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the person 37756
and that the prosecutor possesses. 37757

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 37758
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 37759
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 37760
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.37761

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 37762
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 37763
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 37764
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 37765
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 37766
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 37767
final termination of the commitment as described in division 37768
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 37769
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 37770
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 37771
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 37772
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 37773
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 37774
5123. of the Revised Code.37775

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 37776
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 37777
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 37778
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 37779
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 37780
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 37781
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 37782
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 37783
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 37784
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 37785
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 37786
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 37787
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 37788
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 37789
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 37790
trial court.37791

       (C) The department of mental healthmental health and 37792
addiction services or the institution, facility, or program to 37793
which a defendant or person has been committed under section 37794
2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall report in writing to 37795
the trial court, at the times specified in this division, as to 37796
whether the defendant or person remains a mentally ill person 37797
subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded 37798
person subject to institutionalization by court order and, in the 37799
case of a defendant committed under section 2945.39 of the Revised 37800
Code, as to whether the defendant remains incompetent to stand 37801
trial. The department, institution, facility, or program shall 37802
make the reports after the initial six months of treatment and 37803
every two years after the initial report is made. The trial court 37804
shall provide copies of the reports to the prosecutor and to the 37805
counsel for the defendant or person. Within thirty days after its 37806
receipt pursuant to this division of a report from the department, 37807
institution, facility, or program, the trial court shall hold a 37808
hearing on the continued commitment of the defendant or person or 37809
on any changes in the conditions of the commitment of the 37810
defendant or person. The defendant or person may request a change 37811
in the conditions of confinement, and the trial court shall 37812
conduct a hearing on that request if six months or more have 37813
elapsed since the most recent hearing was conducted under this 37814
section.37815

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 37816
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 37817
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 37818
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 37819
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 37820
healthmental health and addiction services or the managing 37821
officer of the institution or director of the facility or program 37822
to which the defendant or person is committed may recommend a 37823
termination of the defendant's or person's commitment or a change 37824
in the conditions of the defendant's or person's commitment.37825

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 37826
section, if the designee of the department of mental healthmental 37827
health and addiction services recommends on-grounds unsupervised 37828
movement, off-grounds supervised movement, or nonsecured status 37829
for the defendant or person or termination of the defendant's or 37830
person's commitment, the following provisions apply:37831

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 37832
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 37833
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 37834
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 37835
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 37836
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 37837
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 37838
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 37839
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 37840
approve the application by entering its order approving the 37841
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 37842
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 37843
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 37844
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 37845
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 37846
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 37847
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 37848
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 37849
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 37850
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 37851
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 37852
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 37853
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 37854
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 37855
accordingly.37856

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 37857
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 37858
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 37859
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 37860
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 37861
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 37862
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 37863
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 37864
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 37865
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 37866
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 37867
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 37868
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 37869
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 37870
designee, all of the following apply:37871

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 37872
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 37873
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 37874
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 37875
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 37876
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 37877
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 37878
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 37879
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.37880

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 37881
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 37882
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 37883
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 37884
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.37885

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 37886
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 37887
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 37888
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 37889
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 37890
designee shall work with community mental health agenciesservices 37891
providers, programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug 37892
addiction, and mental health services or community mental health 37893
boards to develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the 37894
defendant or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but 37895
shall not be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or 37896
person's compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. 37897
The system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 37898
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 37899
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 37900
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 37901
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 37902
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 37903
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 37904
intended to prevent.37905

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 37906
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 37907
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 37908
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 37909
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 37910
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 37911
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 37912
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 37913
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 37914
hearing.37915

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 37916
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 37917
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 37918
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 37919
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 37920
days to permit time for the evaluation.37921

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 37922
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 37923
Evidence.37924

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 37925
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 37926
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 37927
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 37928
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 37929
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 37930
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 37931
plan.37932

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 37933
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 37934
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 37935
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 37936
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 37937
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 37938
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.37939

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 37940
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 37941
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 37942
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 37943
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 37944
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 37945
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 37946
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 37947
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 37948
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 37949
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 37950
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 37951
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 37952
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 37953
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 37954
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 37955
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 37956
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 37957
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 37958
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 37959
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 37960
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 37961
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 37962
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 37963
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 37964
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 37965
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 37966
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 37967
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 37968
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 37969
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 37970
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 37971
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 37972
placement.37973

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 37974
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 37975
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 37976
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 37977
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 37978
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 37979
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 37980
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 37981
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 37982
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 37983
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 37984
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 37985
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 37986
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 37987
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 37988
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 37989
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 37990
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 37991
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 37992
alternative placement, the department of developmental 37993
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 37994
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 37995
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 37996
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 37997
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 37998
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 37999
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 38000
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 38001
the department of health.38002

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 38003
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 38004
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 38005
to, all of the following:38006

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 38007
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 38008
the defendant or person or others;38009

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 38010
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;38011

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 38012
defendant's or person's condition so that the defendant or person 38013
will continue treatment as prescribed or seek professional 38014
assistance as needed;38015

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 38016
commitment;38017

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 38018
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 38019
regulations, and values of society;38020

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 38021
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 38022
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 38023
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 38024
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 38025
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.38026

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 38027
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 38028
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 38029
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.38030

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 38031
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:38032

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 38033
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 38034
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 38035
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 38036
institutionalization by court order;38037

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 38038
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 38039
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 38040
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.38041

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 38042
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 38043
the public interest.38044

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 38045
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 38046
designee of the department of mental healthmental health and 38047
addiction services, managing officer of the institution, or 38048
director of a facility or program, the trial court may approve, 38049
disapprove, or modify the recommendation and shall enter an order 38050
accordingly.38051

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 38052
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 38053
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 38054
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 38055
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 38056
the earlier of one of the following:38057

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 38058
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 38059
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 38060
determined by the trial court;38061

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 38062
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 38063
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 38064
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 38065
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 38066
reason of insanity;38067

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 38068
commitment under the circumstances described in division 38069
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.38070

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 38071
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 38072
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 38073
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 38074
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 38075
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 38076
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 38077
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 38078
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health38079
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 38080
the institution or director of the facility or program to which 38081
the defendant is committed files an application with the trial 38082
court alleging that the defendant presently is competent to stand 38083
trial and requesting a hearing on the competency issue or the 38084
trial court otherwise has reasonable cause to believe that the 38085
defendant presently is competent to stand trial and determines on 38086
its own motion to hold a hearing on the competency issue, the 38087
trial court shall schedule a hearing on the competency of the 38088
defendant to stand trial, shall give the prosecutor, the counsel 38089
for the defendant, and the department's designee or the managing 38090
officer of the institution or the director of the facility to 38091
which the defendant is committed notice of the date, time, and 38092
place of the hearing at least fifteen days before the hearing, and 38093
shall conduct the hearing within thirty days of the filing of the 38094
application or of its own motion. If, at the conclusion of the 38095
hearing, the trial court determines that the defendant presently 38096
is capable of understanding the nature and objective of the 38097
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 38098
defendant's defense, the trial court shall order that the 38099
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall be proceeded 38100
against as provided by law with respect to the applicable offenses 38101
described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 38102
Code and shall enter whichever of the following additional orders 38103
is appropriate:38104

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 38105
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 38106
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 38107
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 38108
commitment to the department of mental healthmental health and 38109
addiction services or to an institution, facility, or program for 38110
the treatment of mental retardation be continued during the 38111
pendency of the trial on the applicable offenses described in 38112
division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.38113

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 38114
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 38115
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 38116
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 38117
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health38118
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 38119
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 38120
not be continued during the pendency of the trial on the 38121
applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 38122
2945.38 of the Revised Code. This order shall be a final 38123
termination of the commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) 38124
of this section.38125

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 38126
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 38127
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 38128
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 38129
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 38130
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 38131
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health38132
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 38133
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 38134
be continued, and that the defendant remains subject to the 38135
jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to that commitment, and 38136
to the provisions of this section, until the final termination of 38137
the commitment as described in division (J)(1) of this section.38138

       Sec. 2951.041.  (A)(1) If an offender is charged with a 38139
criminal offense, including but not limited to a violation of 38140
section 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, or 2919.21 of 38141
the Revised Code, and the court has reason to believe that drug or 38142
alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to the criminal 38143
offense with which the offender is charged or that, at the time of 38144
committing that offense, the offender had a mental illness or was 38145
a person with intellectual disability and that the mental illness 38146
or status as a person with intellectual disability was a factor 38147
leading to the offender's criminal behavior, the court may accept, 38148
prior to the entry of a guilty plea, the offender's request for 38149
intervention in lieu of conviction. The request shall include a 38150
statement from the offender as to whether the offender is alleging 38151
that drug or alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to 38152
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged or is 38153
alleging that, at the time of committing that offense, the 38154
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 38155
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 38156
intellectual disability was a factor leading to the criminal 38157
offense with which the offender is charged. The request also shall 38158
include a waiver of the defendant's right to a speedy trial, the 38159
preliminary hearing, the time period within which the grand jury 38160
may consider an indictment against the offender, and arraignment, 38161
unless the hearing, indictment, or arraignment has already 38162
occurred. The court may reject an offender's request without a 38163
hearing. If the court elects to consider an offender's request, 38164
the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the 38165
offender is eligible under this section for intervention in lieu 38166
of conviction and shall stay all criminal proceedings pending the 38167
outcome of the hearing. If the court schedules a hearing, the 38168
court shall order an assessment of the offender for the purpose of 38169
determining the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of 38170
conviction and recommending an appropriate intervention plan.38171

       If the offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 38172
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 38173
the offender is charged, the court may order that the offender be 38174
assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 38175
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 38176
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 38177
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 38178
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan. The program38179
addiction services provider or the properly credentialed 38180
professional shall provide a written assessment of the offender to 38181
the court.38182

       (2) The victim notification provisions of division (C) of 38183
section 2930.08 of the Revised Code apply in relation to any 38184
hearing held under division (A)(1) of this section.38185

       (B) An offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 38186
conviction if the court finds all of the following:38187

       (1) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 38188
pleaded guilty to a felony offense of violence or previously has 38189
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any felony that is not an 38190
offense of violence and the prosecuting attorney recommends that 38191
the offender be found eligible for participation in intervention 38192
in lieu of treatment under this section, previously has not been 38193
through intervention in lieu of conviction under this section or 38194
any similar regimen, and is charged with a felony for which the 38195
court, upon conviction, would impose a community control sanction 38196
on the offender under division (B)(2) of section 2929.13 of the 38197
Revised Code or with a misdemeanor.38198

       (2) The offense is not a felony of the first, second, or 38199
third degree, is not an offense of violence, is not a violation of 38200
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 of the Revised Code, is 38201
not a violation of division (A)(1) of section 2903.08 of the 38202
Revised Code, is not a violation of division (A) of section 38203
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance that is 38204
substantially similar to that division, and is not an offense for 38205
which a sentencing court is required to impose a mandatory prison 38206
term, a mandatory term of local incarceration, or a mandatory term 38207
of imprisonment in a jail.38208

       (3) The offender is not charged with a violation of section 38209
2925.02, 2925.04, or 2925.06 of the Revised Code, is not charged 38210
with a violation of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a 38211
felony of the first, second, third, or fourth degree, and is not 38212
charged with a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 38213
that is a felony of the first, second, or third degree.38214

       (4) If an offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 38215
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 38216
the offender is charged, the court has ordered that the offender 38217
be assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 38218
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 38219
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 38220
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 38221
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan, the offender 38222
has been assessed by a programan addiction services provider of 38223
that nature or a properly credentialed professional in accordance 38224
with the court's order, and the programaddiction services 38225
provider or properly credentialed professional has filed the 38226
written assessment of the offender with the court.38227

       (5) If an offender alleges that, at the time of committing 38228
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged, the 38229
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 38230
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 38231
intellectual disability was a factor leading to that offense, the 38232
offender has been assessed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, 38233
independent social worker, or professional clinical counselor for 38234
the purpose of determining the offender's eligibility for 38235
intervention in lieu of conviction and recommending an appropriate 38236
intervention plan.38237

       (6) The offender's drug usage, alcohol usage, mental illness, 38238
or intellectual disability, whichever is applicable, was a factor 38239
leading to the criminal offense with which the offender is 38240
charged, intervention in lieu of conviction would not demean the 38241
seriousness of the offense, and intervention would substantially 38242
reduce the likelihood of any future criminal activity.38243

       (7) The alleged victim of the offense was not sixty-five 38244
years of age or older, permanently and totally disabled, under 38245
thirteen years of age, or a peace officer engaged in the officer's 38246
official duties at the time of the alleged offense.38247

       (8) If the offender is charged with a violation of section 38248
2925.24 of the Revised Code, the alleged violation did not result 38249
in physical harm to any person, and the offender previously has 38250
not been treated for drug abuse.38251

       (9) The offender is willing to comply with all terms and 38252
conditions imposed by the court pursuant to division (D) of this 38253
section.38254

       (10) The offender is not charged with an offense that would 38255
result in the offender being disqualified under Chapter 4506. of 38256
the Revised Code from operating a commercial motor vehicle or 38257
would subject the offender to any other sanction under that 38258
chapter. 38259

       (C) At the conclusion of a hearing held pursuant to division 38260
(A) of this section, the court shall enter its determination as to 38261
whether the offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 38262
conviction and as to whether to grant the offender's request. If 38263
the court finds under division (B) of this section that the 38264
offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction and 38265
grants the offender's request, the court shall accept the 38266
offender's plea of guilty and waiver of the defendant's right to a 38267
speedy trial, the preliminary hearing, the time period within 38268
which the grand jury may consider an indictment against the 38269
offender, and arraignment, unless the hearing, indictment, or 38270
arraignment has already occurred. In addition, the court then may 38271
stay all criminal proceedings and order the offender to comply 38272
with all terms and conditions imposed by the court pursuant to 38273
division (D) of this section. If the court finds that the offender 38274
is not eligible or does not grant the offender's request, the 38275
criminal proceedings against the offender shall proceed as if the 38276
offender's request for intervention in lieu of conviction had not 38277
been made.38278

       (D) If the court grants an offender's request for 38279
intervention in lieu of conviction, the court shall place the 38280
offender under the general control and supervision of the county 38281
probation department, the adult parole authority, or another 38282
appropriate local probation or court services agency, if one 38283
exists, as if the offender was subject to a community control 38284
sanction imposed under section 2929.15, 2929.18, or 2929.25 of the 38285
Revised Code. The court shall establish an intervention plan for 38286
the offender. The terms and conditions of the intervention plan 38287
shall require the offender, for at least one year from the date on 38288
which the court grants the order of intervention in lieu of 38289
conviction, to abstain from the use of illegal drugs and alcohol, 38290
to participate in treatment and recovery support services, and to 38291
submit to regular random testing for drug and alcohol use and may 38292
include any other treatment terms and conditions, or terms and 38293
conditions similar to community control sanctions, which may 38294
include community service or restitution, that are ordered by the 38295
court.38296

       (E) If the court grants an offender's request for 38297
intervention in lieu of conviction and the court finds that the 38298
offender has successfully completed the intervention plan for the 38299
offender, including the requirement that the offender abstain from 38300
using illegal drugs and alcohol for a period of at least one year 38301
from the date on which the court granted the order of intervention 38302
in lieu of conviction, the requirement that the offender 38303
participate in treatment and recovery support services, and all 38304
other terms and conditions ordered by the court, the court shall 38305
dismiss the proceedings against the offender. Successful 38306
completion of the intervention plan and period of abstinence under 38307
this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is not a 38308
criminal conviction for purposes of any disqualification or 38309
disability imposed by law and upon conviction of a crime, and the 38310
court may order the sealing of records related to the offense in 38311
question in the manner provided in sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of 38312
the Revised Code.38313

       (F) If the court grants an offender's request for 38314
intervention in lieu of conviction and the offender fails to 38315
comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 38316
intervention plan for the offender, the supervising authority for 38317
the offender promptly shall advise the court of this failure, and 38318
the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the offender 38319
failed to comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 38320
plan. If the court determines that the offender has failed to 38321
comply with any of those terms and conditions, it shall enter a 38322
finding of guilty and shall impose an appropriate sanction under 38323
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. If the court sentences the 38324
offender to a prison term, the court, after consulting with the 38325
department of rehabilitation and correction regarding the 38326
availability of services, may order continued court-supervised 38327
activity and treatment of the offender during the prison term and, 38328
upon consideration of reports received from the department 38329
concerning the offender's progress in the program of activity and 38330
treatment, may consider judicial release under section 2929.20 of 38331
the Revised Code.38332

       (G) As used in this section:38333

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 38334
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.38335

       (2) "Intervention in lieu of conviction" means any 38336
court-supervised activity that complies with this section.38337

       (3) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 38338
2935.01 of the Revised Code.38339

       (4) "Mental illness" and "psychiatrist" have the same 38340
meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.38341

       (5) "Person with intellectual disability" means a person 38342
having significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning 38343
existing concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, 38344
manifested during the developmental period.38345

       (6) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 4732.01 38346
of the Revised Code.38347

       (H) Whenever the term "mentally retarded person" is used in 38348
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the 38349
reference shall be deemed to include a "person with intellectual 38350
disability," as defined in this section.38351

       Sec. 2967.22.  Whenever it is brought to the attention of the 38352
adult parole authority or a department of probation that a 38353
parolee, person under a community control sanction, person under 38354
transitional control, or releasee appears to be a mentally ill 38355
person subject to hospitalization by court order, as defined in 38356
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or a mentally retarded person 38357
subject to institutionalization by court order, as defined in 38358
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code, the parole or probation 38359
officer, subject to the approval of the chief of the adult parole 38360
authority, the designee of the chief of the adult parole 38361
authority, or the chief probation officer, may file an affidavit 38362
under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of the Revised Code. A parolee, 38363
person under a community control sanction, or releasee who is 38364
involuntarily detained under Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised 38365
Code shall receive credit against the period of parole or 38366
community control or the term of post-release control for the 38367
period of involuntary detention.38368

       If a parolee, person under a community control sanction, 38369
person under transitional control, or releasee escapes from an 38370
institution or facility within the department of mental health38371
mental health and addiction services or the department of 38372
developmental disabilities, the superintendent of the institution 38373
immediately shall notify the chief of the adult parole authority 38374
or the chief probation officer. Notwithstanding the provisions of 38375
section 5122.26 of the Revised Code, the procedure for the 38376
apprehension, detention, and return of the parolee, person under a 38377
community control sanction, person under transitional control, or 38378
releasee is the same as that provided for the apprehension, 38379
detention, and return of persons who escape from institutions 38380
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction. If 38381
the escaped parolee, person under transitional control, or 38382
releasee is not apprehended and returned to the custody of the 38383
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services38384
or the department of developmental disabilities within ninety days 38385
after the escape, the parolee, person under transitional control, 38386
or releasee shall be discharged from the custody of the department 38387
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 38388
department of developmental disabilities and returned to the 38389
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction. If the 38390
escaped person under a community control sanction is not 38391
apprehended and returned to the custody of the department of38392
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 38393
department of developmental disabilities within ninety days after 38394
the escape, the person under a community control sanction shall be 38395
discharged from the custody of the department of mental health38396
mental health and addiction services or the department of 38397
developmental disabilities and returned to the custody of the 38398
court that sentenced that person.38399

       Sec. 2981.01. (A) Forfeitures under this chapter shall be 38400
governed by all of the following purposes:38401

       (1) To provide economic disincentives and remedies to deter 38402
and offset the economic effect of offenses by seizing and 38403
forfeiting contraband, proceeds, and certain instrumentalities;38404

       (2) To ensure that seizures and forfeitures of 38405
instrumentalities are proportionate to the offense committed;38406

       (3) To protect third parties from wrongful forfeiture of 38407
their property;38408

       (4) To prioritize restitution for victims of offenses.38409

       (B) As used in this chapter:38410

       (1) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 38411
the Revised Code.38412

       (2) "Computers," "computer networks," "computer systems," 38413
"computer software," and "telecommunications device" have the same 38414
meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.38415

       (3) "Financial institution" means a bank, credit union, 38416
savings and loan association, or a licensee or registrant under 38417
Chapter 1321. of the Revised Code.38418

       (4) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings 38419
as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.38420

       (5) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of 38421
property that is subject to forfeiture, including any person who 38422
establishes a valid claim to or interest in the property in 38423
accordance with section 2923.04 of the Revised Code, and any 38424
victim of an alleged offense.38425

       (6) "Instrumentality" means property otherwise lawful to 38426
possess that is used in or intended to be used in an offense. An 38427
"instrumentality" may include, but is not limited to, a firearm, a 38428
mobile instrumentality, a computer, a computer network, a computer 38429
system, computer software, a telecommunications device, money, and 38430
any other means of exchange.38431

       (7) "Law enforcement agency" includes, but is not limited to, 38432
the state board of pharmacy, the enforcement division of the 38433
department of taxation, the Ohio casino control commission, and 38434
the office of the prosecutor.38435

       (8) "Mobile instrumentality" means an instrumentality that is 38436
inherently mobile and used in the routine transport of persons. 38437
"Mobile instrumentality" includes, but is not limited to, any 38438
vehicle, any watercraft, and any aircraft.38439

       (9) "Money" has the same meaning as in section 1301.201 of 38440
the Revised Code.38441

       (10) "Offense" means any act or omission that could be 38442
charged as a criminal offense or a delinquent act, whether or not 38443
a formal criminal prosecution or delinquent child proceeding began 38444
at the time the forfeiture is initiated. Except as otherwise 38445
specified, an offense for which property may be forfeited includes 38446
any felony and any misdemeanor. The commission of an "offense" 38447
includes the commission of a delinquent act.38448

       (11) "Proceeds" means both of the following:38449

       (a) In cases involving unlawful goods, services, or 38450
activities, "proceeds" means any property derived directly or 38451
indirectly from an offense. "Proceeds" may include, but is not 38452
limited to, money or any other means of exchange. "Proceeds" is 38453
not limited to the net gain or profit realized from the offense.38454

       (b) In cases involving lawful goods or services that are sold 38455
or provided in an unlawful manner, "proceeds" means the amount of 38456
money or other means of exchange acquired through the illegal 38457
transactions resulting in the forfeiture, less the direct costs 38458
lawfully incurred in providing the goods or services. The lawful 38459
costs deduction does not include any part of the overhead expenses 38460
of, or income taxes paid by, the entity providing the goods or 38461
services. The alleged offender or delinquent child has the burden 38462
to prove that any costs are lawfully incurred.38463

       (12) "Property" means "property" as defined in section 38464
2901.01 of the Revised Code and any benefit, privilege, claim, 38465
position, interest in an enterprise, or right derived, directly or 38466
indirectly, from the offense.38467

       (13) "Property subject to forfeiture" includes contraband and 38468
proceeds and may include instrumentalities as provided in this 38469
chapter.38470

       (14) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 38471
of the Revised Code. When relevant, "prosecutor" also includes the 38472
attorney general.38473

       (15) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of 38474
the Revised Code.38475

       (16) "Watercraft" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 38476
of the Revised Code.38477

       (C) The penalties and procedures under Chapters 2923., 2925., 38478
and 2933., and 3772. of the Revised Code remain in effect to the 38479
extent that they do not conflict with this chapter.38480

       Sec. 2981.12. (A) Unclaimed or forfeited property in the 38481
custody of a law enforcement agency, other than property described 38482
in division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 of the Revised Code, shall 38483
be disposed of by order of any court of record that has 38484
territorial jurisdiction over the political subdivision that 38485
employs the law enforcement agency, as follows:38486

       (1) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of 38487
the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the 38488
treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or 38489
scientific purposes under applicable federal law.38490

       (2) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work 38491
may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. 38492
Firearms suitable for sporting use or as museum pieces or 38493
collectors' items may be sold at public auction pursuant to 38494
division (B) of this section. The agency may sell other firearms 38495
and dangerous ordnance to a federally licensed firearms dealer in 38496
a manner that the court considers proper. The agency shall destroy 38497
any firearms or dangerous ordnance not given to a law enforcement 38498
agency or sold or shall send them to the bureau of criminal 38499
identification and investigation for destruction by the bureau.38500

       (3) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.38501

       (4) Beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol seized from a 38502
person who does not hold a permit issued under Chapters 4301. and 38503
4303. of the Revised Code or otherwise forfeited to the state for 38504
an offense under section 4301.45 or 4301.53 of the Revised Code 38505
shall be sold by the division of liquor control if the division 38506
determines that it is fit for sale or shall be placed in the 38507
custody of the investigations unit in the department of public 38508
safety and be used for training relating to law enforcement 38509
activities. The department, with the assistance of the division of 38510
liquor control, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 38511
of the Revised Code to provide for the distribution to state or 38512
local law enforcement agencies upon their request. If any tax 38513
imposed under Title XLIII of the Revised Code has not been paid in 38514
relation to the beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, any moneys 38515
acquired from the sale shall first be used to pay the tax. All 38516
other money collected under this division shall be paid into the 38517
state treasury. Any beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol that the 38518
division determines to be unfit for sale shall be destroyed.38519

       (5) Money received by an inmate of a correctional institution 38520
from an unauthorized source or in an unauthorized manner shall be 38521
returned to the sender, if known, or deposited in the inmates' 38522
industrial and entertainment fund of the institution if the sender 38523
is not known.38524

       (6)(a) Any mobile instrumentality forfeited under this 38525
chapter may be given to the law enforcement agency that initially 38526
seized the mobile instrumentality for use in performing its 38527
duties, if the agency wants the mobile instrumentality. The agency 38528
shall take the mobile instrumentality subject to any security 38529
interest or lien on the mobile instrumentality.38530

       (b) Vehicles and vehicle parts forfeited under sections 38531
4549.61 to 4549.63 of the Revised Code may be given to a law 38532
enforcement agency for use in performing its duties. Those parts 38533
may be incorporated into any other official vehicle. Parts that do 38534
not bear vehicle identification numbers or derivatives of them may 38535
be sold or disposed of as provided by rules of the director of 38536
public safety. Parts from which a vehicle identification number or 38537
derivative of it has been removed, defaced, covered, altered, or 38538
destroyed and that are not suitable for police work or 38539
incorporation into an official vehicle shall be destroyed and sold 38540
as junk or scrap.38541

       (7) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and 38542
computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law 38543
enforcement agency for that purpose or disposed of under division 38544
(B) of this section.38545

       (8) Money seized in connection with a violation of section 38546
2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code shall be 38547
deposited in the victims of human trafficking fund created by 38548
section 5101.87 of the Revised Code.38549

       (B) Unclaimed or forfeited property that is not described in 38550
division (A) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 38551
of the Revised Code, with court approval, may be used by the law 38552
enforcement agency in possession of it. If it is not used by the 38553
agency, it may be sold without appraisal at a public auction to 38554
the highest bidder for cash or disposed of in another manner that 38555
the court considers proper.38556

       (C) Except as provided in divisions (A) and (F) of this 38557
section and after compliance with division (D) of this section 38558
when applicable, any moneys acquired from the sale of property 38559
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 38560
general revenue fund of the state, or the general fund of the 38561
county, the township, or the municipal corporation of which the 38562
law enforcement agency involved is an agency.38563

       (D) If the property was in the possession of the law 38564
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 38565
a juvenile court, ten per cent of any moneys acquired from the 38566
sale of property disposed of under this section shall be applied 38567
to one or more alcohol and drugcommunity addiction treatment 38568
programsservices providers that are certified by the department 38569
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 38570
services under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code. A 38571
juvenile court shall not specify a programservices provider, 38572
except as provided in this division, unless the programservices 38573
provider is in the same county as the court or in a contiguous 38574
county. If no certified programservices provider is located in 38575
any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify a certified 38576
programservices provider anywhere in Ohio. The remaining ninety 38577
per cent of the proceeds or cash shall be applied as provided in 38578
division (C) of this section.38579

       Each treatment programservices provider that receives in any 38580
calendar year forfeited money under this division shall file an 38581
annual report for that year with the attorney general and with the 38582
court of common pleas and board of county commissioners of the 38583
county in which the programservices provider is located and of 38584
any other county from which the programservices provider received 38585
forfeited money. The programservices provider shall file the 38586
report on or before the first day of March in the calendar year 38587
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider38588
received the money. The report shall include statistics on the 38589
number of persons the programservices provider served, identify 38590
the types of treatment services it provided to them, and include a 38591
specific accounting of the purposes for which it used the money so 38592
received. No information contained in the report shall identify, 38593
or enable a person to determine the identity of, any person served 38594
by the programservices provider.38595

       (E) Each certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 38596
treatment programservices provider that receives in any calendar 38597
year money under this section or under section 2981.13 of the 38598
Revised Code as the result of a juvenile forfeiture order shall 38599
file an annual report for that calendar year with the attorney 38600
general and with the court of common pleas and board of county 38601
commissioners of the county in which the programservices provider38602
is located and of any other county from which the programservices 38603
provider received the money. The programservices provider shall 38604
file the report on or before the first day of March in the 38605
calendar year following the year in which the programservices 38606
provider received the money. The report shall include statistics 38607
on the number of persons served with the money, identify the types 38608
of treatment services provided, and specifically account for how 38609
the money was used. No information in the report shall identify or 38610
enable a person to determine the identity of anyone served by the 38611
programservices provider.38612

       As used in this division, "juvenile-related forfeiture order" 38613
means any forfeiture order issued by a juvenile court under 38614
section 2981.04 or 2981.05 of the Revised Code and any disposal of 38615
property ordered by a court under section 2981.11 of the Revised 38616
Code regarding property that was in the possession of a law 38617
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 38618
a juvenile court.38619

       (F) Each board of county commissioners that recognizes a 38620
citizens' reward program under section 9.92 of the Revised Code 38621
shall notify each law enforcement agency of that county and of a 38622
township or municipal corporation wholly located in that county of 38623
the recognition by filing a copy of its resolution conferring that 38624
recognition with each of those agencies. When the board recognizes 38625
a citizens' reward program and the county includes a part, but not 38626
all, of the territory of a municipal corporation, the board shall 38627
so notify the law enforcement agency of that municipal corporation 38628
of the recognition of the citizens' reward program only if the 38629
county contains the highest percentage of the municipal 38630
corporation's population.38631

       Upon being so notified, each law enforcement agency shall pay 38632
twenty-five per cent of any forfeited proceeds or cash derived 38633
from each sale of property disposed of pursuant to this section to 38634
the citizens' reward program for use exclusively to pay rewards. 38635
No part of the funds may be used to pay expenses associated with 38636
the program. If a citizens' reward program that operates in more 38637
than one county or in another state in addition to this state 38638
receives funds under this section, the funds shall be used to pay 38639
rewards only for tips and information to law enforcement agencies 38640
concerning offenses committed in the county from which the funds 38641
were received.38642

       Receiving funds under this section or section 2981.11 of the 38643
Revised Code does not make the citizens' reward program a 38644
governmental unit or public office for purposes of section 149.43 38645
of the Revised Code.38646

       (G) Any property forfeited under this chapter shall not be 38647
used to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or 38648
pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different 38649
offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.38650

       (H) Any moneys acquired from the sale of personal effects, 38651
tools, or other property seized because the personal effects, 38652
tools, or other property were used in the commission of a 38653
violation of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised 38654
Code or derived from the proceeds of the commission of a violation 38655
of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code and 38656
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 38657
victims of human trafficking fund created by section 5101.87 of 38658
the Revised Code.38659

       Sec. 2981.13. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 38660
section, property ordered forfeited as contraband, proceeds, or an 38661
instrumentality pursuant to this chapter shall be disposed of, 38662
used, or sold pursuant to section 2981.12 of the Revised Code. If 38663
the property is to be sold under that section, the prosecutor 38664
shall cause notice of the proposed sale to be given in accordance 38665
with law.38666

       (B) If the contraband or instrumentality forfeited under this 38667
chapter is sold, any moneys acquired from a sale and any proceeds 38668
forfeited under this chapter shall be applied in the following 38669
order:38670

       (1) First, to pay costs incurred in the seizure, storage, 38671
maintenance, security, and sale of the property and in the 38672
forfeiture proceeding;38673

       (2) Second, in a criminal forfeiture case, to satisfy any 38674
restitution ordered to the victim of the offense or, in a civil 38675
forfeiture case, to satisfy any recovery ordered for the person 38676
harmed, unless paid from other assets;38677

       (3) Third, to pay the balance due on any security interest 38678
preserved under this chapter;38679

       (4) Fourth, apply the remaining amounts as follows: 38680

       (a) If the forfeiture was ordered by a juvenile court, ten 38681
per cent to one or more certified alcohol and drug addiction 38682
treatment programs as provided in division (D) of section 2981.12 38683
of the Revised Code;38684

       (b) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety 38685
per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than 38686
a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to the law enforcement 38687
trust fund of the prosecutor and to the following fund supporting 38688
the law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 38689
investigation: the law enforcement trust fund of the county 38690
sheriff, municipal corporation, township, or park district created 38691
under section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code; the state 38692
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund; the 38693
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 38694
forfeiture, and other fund; the department of taxation enforcement 38695
fund; the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund created by 38696
division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code; the 38697
medicaid fraud investigation and prosecution fund; the casino 38698
control commission enforcement fund created by section 3772.36 of 38699
the Revised Code; or the treasurer of state for deposit into the 38700
peace officer training commission fund if any other state law 38701
enforcement agency substantially conducted the investigation. In 38702
the case of property forfeited for medicaid fraud, any remaining 38703
amount shall be used by the attorney general to investigate and 38704
prosecute medicaid fraud offenses.38705

       If the prosecutor declines to accept any of the remaining 38706
amounts, the amounts shall be applied to the fund of the agency 38707
that substantially conducted the investigation.38708

       (c) If more than one law enforcement agency is substantially 38709
involved in the seizure of property forfeited under this chapter, 38710
the court ordering the forfeiture shall equitably divide the 38711
amounts, after calculating any distribution to the law enforcement 38712
trust fund of the prosecutor pursuant to division (B)(4) of this 38713
section, among the entities that the court determines were 38714
substantially involved in the seizure.38715

       (C)(1) A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by 38716
the prosecutor of each county who intends to receive any remaining 38717
amounts pursuant to this section, by the sheriff of each county, 38718
by the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, by the 38719
board of township trustees of each township that has a township 38720
police department, township or joint police district police force, 38721
or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners 38722
of each park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 38723
1545.01 of the Revised Code that has a park district police force 38724
or law enforcement department, for the purposes of this section.38725

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 38726
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the 38727
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 38728
forfeiture, and other fund, the medicaid fraud investigation and 38729
prosecution fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and 38730
the peace officer training commission fund, for the purposes of 38731
this section.38732

       Amounts distributed to any municipal corporation, township, 38733
or park district law enforcement trust fund shall be allocated 38734
from the fund by the legislative authority only to the police 38735
department of the municipal corporation, by the board of township 38736
trustees only to the township police department, township police 38737
district police force, or office of the constable, by the joint 38738
police district board only to the joint police district, and by 38739
the board of park commissioners only to the park district police 38740
force or law enforcement department.38741

       (2)(a) No amounts shall be allocated to a fund created under 38742
this section or used by an agency unless the agency has adopted a 38743
written internal control policy that addresses the use of moneys 38744
received from the appropriate fund. The appropriate fund shall be 38745
expended only in accordance with that policy and, subject to the 38746
requirements specified in this section, only for the following 38747
purposes:38748

       (i) To pay the costs of protracted or complex investigations 38749
or prosecutions;38750

       (ii) To provide reasonable technical training or expertise;38751

       (iii) To provide matching funds to obtain federal grants to 38752
aid law enforcement, in the support of DARE programs or other 38753
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 38754
the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse;38755

       (iv) To pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 38756
3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an 38757
illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or 38758
money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation 38759
of the laboratory;38760

       (v) For other law enforcement purposes that the 38761
superintendent of the state highway patrol, department of public 38762
safety, prosecutor, county sheriff, legislative authority, 38763
department of taxation, Ohio casino control commission, board of 38764
township trustees, or board of park commissioners determines to be 38765
appropriate.38766

       (b) The board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund shall be 38767
expended only in accordance with the written internal control 38768
policy so adopted by the board and only in accordance with section 38769
4729.65 of the Revised Code, except that it also may be expended 38770
to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 38771
of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal 38772
methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money 38773
involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the 38774
laboratory.38775

       (c) The state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and 38776
other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit 38777
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation 38778
enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, 38779
the casino control commission enforcement fund, and a law 38780
enforcement trust fund shall not be used to meet the operating 38781
costs of the state highway patrol, of the investigative unit of 38782
the department of public safety, of the state board of pharmacy, 38783
of any political subdivision, of the Ohio casino control 38784
commission, or of any office of a prosecutor or county sheriff 38785
that are unrelated to law enforcement.38786

       (d) Forfeited moneys that are paid into the state treasury to 38787
be deposited into the peace officer training commission fund shall 38788
be used by the commission only to pay the costs of peace officer 38789
training.38790

       (3) Any of the following offices or agencies that receive 38791
amounts under this section during any calendar year shall file a 38792
report with the specified entity, not later than the thirty-first 38793
day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the 38794
moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this 38795
section or other relevant statute and specifying the amounts 38796
expended for each authorized purpose:38797

       (a) Any sheriff or prosecutor shall file the report with the 38798
county auditor.38799

       (b) Any municipal corporation police department shall file 38800
the report with the legislative authority of the municipal 38801
corporation.38802

       (c) Any township police department, township or joint police 38803
district police force, or office of the constable shall file the 38804
report with the board of township trustees of the township.38805

       (d) Any park district police force or law enforcement 38806
department shall file the report with the board of park 38807
commissioners of the park district.38808

       (e) The superintendent of the state highway patrol and the 38809
tax commissioner shall file the report with the attorney general.38810

       (f) The executive director of the state board of pharmacy 38811
shall file the report with the attorney general, verifying that 38812
cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the board of pharmacy drug 38813
law enforcement fund were used only in accordance with section 38814
4729.65 of the Revised Code.38815

       (g) The peace officer training commission shall file a report 38816
with the attorney general, verifying that cash and forfeited 38817
proceeds paid into the peace officer training commission fund 38818
pursuant to this section during the prior calendar year were used 38819
by the commission during the prior calendar year only to pay the 38820
costs of peace officer training.38821

       (h) The executive director of the Ohio casino control 38822
commission shall file the report with the attorney general, 38823
verifying that cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the casino 38824
control commission enforcement fund were used only in accordance 38825
with section 3772.36 of the Revised Code.38826

       (D) The written internal control policy of a county sheriff, 38827
prosecutor, municipal corporation police department, township 38828
police department, township or joint police district police force, 38829
office of the constable, or park district police force or law 38830
enforcement department shall provide that at least ten per cent of 38831
the first one hundred thousand dollars of amounts deposited during 38832
each calendar year in the agency's law enforcement trust fund 38833
under this section, and at least twenty per cent of the amounts 38834
exceeding one hundred thousand dollars that are so deposited, 38835
shall be used in connection with community preventive education 38836
programs. The manner of use shall be determined by the sheriff, 38837
prosecutor, department, police force, or office of the constable 38838
after receiving and considering advice on appropriate community 38839
preventive education programs from the county's board of alcohol, 38840
drug addiction, and mental health services, from the county's 38841
alcohol and drug addiction services board, or through appropriate 38842
community dialogue.38843

       The financial records kept under the internal control policy 38844
shall specify the amount deposited during each calendar year in 38845
the portion of that amount that was used pursuant to this 38846
division, and the programs in connection with which the portion of 38847
that amount was so used.38848

       As used in this division, "community preventive education 38849
programs" include, but are not limited to, DARE programs and other 38850
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 38851
the dangers associated with using drugs of abuse.38852

       (E) Upon the sale, under this section or section 2981.12 of 38853
the Revised Code, of any property that is required by law to be 38854
titled or registered, the state shall issue an appropriate 38855
certificate of title or registration to the purchaser. If the 38856
state is vested with title and elects to retain property that is 38857
required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall 38858
issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.38859

       (F) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, 38860
prosecutor, court, or the attorney general to comply with this 38861
section in relation to any property seized does not affect the 38862
validity of the seizure and shall not be considered to be the 38863
basis for suppressing any evidence resulting from the seizure, 38864
provided the seizure itself was lawful.38865

       Sec. 3101.051.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 38866
this section, a probate court shall make available to any person 38867
for inspection the records pertaining to the issuance of marriage 38868
licenses as provided under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.38869

       (B) Before it makes available to a person any records 38870
pertaining to the issuance of a marriage license as described in 38871
division (A) of this section, subject to division (C) of this 38872
section, a probate court shall delete or otherwise remove any 38873
social security numbers of the parties to a marriage so that they 38874
are not available to the person inspecting the records.38875

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply in any of the 38876
following circumstances:38877

       (1) If the records in question are inspected by authorized 38878
personnel of the division of child support in the department of 38879
job and family services under section 5101.315101.37 of the 38880
Revised Code;38881

       (2) If the records in question are inspected by law 38882
enforcement personnel for purposes of a criminal investigation;38883

       (3) If the records in question with the social security 38884
numbers are necessary for use in a civil or criminal trial and the 38885
release of the records with the social security numbers is ordered 38886
by a court with jurisdiction over the trial;38887

       (4) If the records in question are inspected by either party 38888
to the marriage to which the records pertain;38889

       (5) If the court possessed the records in question prior to 38890
the effective date of this section.38891

       Sec. 3107.083.  Not later than ninety days after June 20, 38892
1996, the director of job and family services shall do all of the 38893
following:38894

       (A)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will be an 38895
adopted person as defined in section 3107.45 of the Revised Code, 38896
prescribe a form that has the following six components:38897

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 38898
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to indicate the 38899
requirements of section 3107.082 or 5103.152 of the Revised Code 38900
have been met. The component shall be as follows:38901

"Statement Concerning Ohio Law and Adoption Materials
38902

       By signing this component of this form, I acknowledge that it 38903
has been explained to me, and I understand, that, if I check the 38904
space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 38905
authorize the release, the adoption file maintained by the Ohio 38906
Department of Health, which contains identifying information about 38907
me at the time of my child's birth, will be released, on request, 38908
to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen 38909
but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she 38910
is age twenty-one or older. It has also been explained to me, and 38911
I understand, that I may prohibit the release of identifying 38912
information about me contained in the adoption file by checking 38913
the space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 38914
do not authorize the release of the identifying information. It 38915
has additionally been explained to me, and I understand, that I 38916
may change my mind regarding the decision I make on the next 38917
component of this form at any time and as many times as I desire 38918
by signing, dating, and having filed with the Ohio Department of 38919
Health a denial of release form or authorization of release form 38920
prescribed and provided by the Department of Health and providing 38921
the Department two items of identification.38922

       By signing this component of this form, I also acknowledge 38923
that I have been provided a copy of written materials about 38924
adoption prepared by the Ohio Department of Job and Family 38925
Services, the adoption process and ramifications of consenting to 38926
adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody surrender 38927
agreement have been discussed with me, and I have been provided 38928
the opportunity to review the materials and ask questions about 38929
the materials and discussion.38930

Signature of biological parent: 38931
Signature of witness: 38932
Date: " 38933

       (b) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 38934
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code regarding the parent's 38935
decision whether to allow identifying information about the parent 38936
contained in an adoption file maintained by the department of 38937
health to be released to the parent's child and adoptive parent 38938
pursuant to section 3107.47 of the Revised Code. The component 38939
shall be as follows:38940

"Statement Regarding Release of Identifying Information
38941

       The purpose of this component of this form is to allow a 38942
biological parent to decide whether to allow the Ohio Department 38943
of Health to provide an adoptee and adoptive parent identifying 38944
information about the adoptee's biological parent contained in an 38945
adoption file maintained by the Department. Please check one of 38946
the following spaces:38947

...... YES, I authorize the Ohio Department of Health to release identifying information about me, on request, to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she is age twenty-one or older. 38948
...... NO, I do not authorize the release of identifying information about me to the adoptive parent or adoptee. 38949

Signature of biological parent: 38950
Signature of witness: 38951
Date: " 38952

       (c) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 38953
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 38954
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 38955
knowledge, all of the following:38956

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 38957
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 38958
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 38959
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;38960

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 38961
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 38962
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 38963
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;38964

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 38965
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 38966
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 38967
birth;38968

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;38969

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 38970
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 38971
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 38972
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement, 38973
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 38974
estimate of the expenses;38975

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 38976
determines appropriate to be included in this component.38977

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38978
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38979
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 38980
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 38981
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.38982

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38983
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38984
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 38985
3107.68 of the Revised Code.38986

       (f) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38987
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38988
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 38989
3107.68 of the Revised Code.38990

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 38991
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.38992

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 38993
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 38994
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, 38995
attorneys, and persons authorized to take acknowledgments.38996

       (B)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will become 38997
an adopted person as defined in section 3107.39 of the Revised 38998
Code, prescribe a form that has the following five components:38999

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 39000
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to attest that the 39001
requirement of division (A) of section 3107.082 or division (A) of 39002
section 5103.152 of the Revised Code has been met;39003

       (b) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 39004
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 39005
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 39006
knowledge, all of the following:39007

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 39008
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 39009
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 39010
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;39011

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 39012
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 39013
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 39014
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;39015

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 39016
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 39017
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 39018
birth;39019

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;39020

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 39021
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 39022
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 39023
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement for, 39024
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 39025
estimate of the expenses;39026

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 39027
determines appropriate to be included in the component.39028

       (c) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 39029
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 39030
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 39031
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 39032
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.39033

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 39034
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 39035
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 39036
3107.68 of the Revised Code.39037

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 39038
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 39039
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 39040
3107.68 of the Revised Code.39041

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 39042
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.39043

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 39044
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 39045
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, and 39046
attorneys.39047

       (C) Prepare the written materials about adoption that are 39048
required to be given to parents under division (A) of section 39049
3107.082 and division (A) of section 5103.152 of the Revised Code. 39050
The materials shall provide information about the adoption 39051
process, including ramifications of a parent consenting to a 39052
child's adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody 39053
surrender agreement. The materials also shall include referral 39054
information for professional counseling and adoption support 39055
organizations. The director shall provide the materials to 39056
assessors.39057

       (D) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 39058
Revised Code specifying the documents that must be filed with a 39059
probate court under divisions (B) and (D) of section 3107.081 of 39060
the Revised Code and a juvenile court under divisions (C) and (E) 39061
of section 5103.151 of the Revised Code.39062

       Sec. 3109.15.  There is hereby created within the department 39063
of job and family services the children's trust fund board 39064
consisting of fifteen members. The directors of alcohol and drug 39065
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, health, 39066
and job and family services shall be members of the board. Eight 39067
public members shall be appointed by the governor. These members 39068
shall be persons with demonstrated knowledge in programs for 39069
children, shall be representative of the demographic composition 39070
of this state, and, to the extent practicable, shall be 39071
representative of the following categories: the educational 39072
community; the legal community; the social work community; the 39073
medical community; the voluntary sector; and professional 39074
providers of child abuse and child neglect services. Five of these 39075
members shall be residents of metropolitan statistical areas as 39076
defined by the United States office of management and budget where 39077
the population exceeds four hundred thousand; no two such members 39078
shall be residents of the same metropolitan statistical area. Two 39079
members of the board shall be members of the house of 39080
representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 39081
representatives and shall be members of two different political 39082
parties. Two members of the board shall be members of the senate 39083
appointed by the president of the senate and shall be members of 39084
two different political parties. All members of the board 39085
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 39086
president of the senate shall serve until the expiration of the 39087
sessions of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 39088
They may be reappointed to an unlimited number of successive terms 39089
of two years at the pleasure of the speaker of the house of 39090
representatives or president of the senate. Public members shall 39091
serve terms of three years. Each member shall serve until the 39092
member's successor is appointed, or until a period of sixty days 39093
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No public member may serve 39094
more than two consecutive full terms. All vacancies on the board 39095
shall be filled for the balance of the unexpired term in the same 39096
manner as the original appointment.39097

       Any member of the board may be removed by the member's 39098
appointing authority for misconduct, incompetency, or neglect of 39099
duty after first being given the opportunity to be heard in the 39100
member's own behalf. Pursuant to section 3.17 of the Revised Code, 39101
a member, except a member of the general assembly or a judge of 39102
any court in the state, who fails to attend at least three-fifths 39103
of the regular and special meetings held by the board during any 39104
two-year period forfeits the member's position on the board.39105

       Each member of the board shall serve without compensation but 39106
shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses incurred 39107
in the performance of official duties.39108

       At the beginning of the first year of each even-numbered 39109
general assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed 39110
by the speaker of the house of representatives from among members 39111
of the board who are members of the house of representatives. At 39112
the beginning of the first year of each odd-numbered general 39113
assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed by the 39114
president of the senate from among the members of the board who 39115
are senate members.39116

       The board shall biennially select a vice-chair from among its 39117
nonlegislative members.39118

       Sec. 3111.04.  (A) An action to determine the existence or 39119
nonexistence of the father and child relationship may be brought 39120
by the child or the child's personal representative, the child's 39121
mother or her personal representative, a man alleged or alleging 39122
himself to be the child's father, the child support enforcement 39123
agency of the county in which the child resides if the child's 39124
mother, father, or alleged father is a recipient of public 39125
assistance or of services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security 39126
Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, or the 39127
alleged father's personal representative.39128

       (B) An agreement does not bar an action under this section.39129

       (C) If an action under this section is brought before the 39130
birth of the child and if the action is contested, all 39131
proceedings, except service of process and the taking of 39132
depositions to perpetuate testimony, may be stayed until after the 39133
birth.39134

       (D) A recipient of public assistance or of services under 39135
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 39136
U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, shall cooperate with the child support 39137
enforcement agency of the county in which a child resides to 39138
obtain an administrative determination pursuant to sections 39139
3111.38 to 3111.54 of the Revised Code, or, if necessary, a court 39140
determination pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the 39141
Revised Code, of the existence or nonexistence of a parent and 39142
child relationship between the father and the child. If the 39143
recipient fails to cooperate, the agency may commence an action to 39144
determine the existence or nonexistence of a parent and child 39145
relationship between the father and the child pursuant to sections 39146
3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code.39147

       (E) As used in this section, "public assistance" means all of 39148
the following:39149

       (1) Medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;39150

       (2) Ohio works first under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code;39151

       (3) Disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of 39152
the Revised Code.39153

       Sec. 3111.72.  The contract between the department of job and 39154
family services and a local hospital shall require all of the 39155
following:39156

       (A) That the hospital provide a staff person to meet with 39157
each unmarried mother who gave birth in or en route to the 39158
hospital within twenty-four hours of the birth or before the 39159
mother is released from the hospital;39160

       (B) That the staff person attempt to meet with the father of 39161
the unmarried mother's child if possible;39162

       (C) That the staff person explain to the unmarried mother and 39163
the father, if he is present, the benefit to the child of 39164
establishing a parent and child relationship between the father 39165
and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing a 39166
parent and child relationship;39167

       (D) That the staff person present to the unmarried mother 39168
and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement regarding 39169
the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent that is 39170
prepared and provided by the department of job and family services 39171
pursuant to section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;39172

       (E) That the staff person provide the mother and, if 39173
possible, the father, all forms and statements necessary to 39174
voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including, 39175
but not limited to, the acknowledgment of paternity affidavit 39176
prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to 39177
section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;39178

       (F) That the staff person, at the request of both the mother 39179
and father, help the mother and father complete any form or 39180
statement necessary to establish a parent and child relationship;39181

       (G) That the hospital provide a notary public to notarize an 39182
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit signed by the mother and 39183
father;39184

       (H) That the staff person present to an unmarried mother who 39185
is not participating in the Ohio works first program established 39186
under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or receiving medical 39187
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid an 39188
application for Title IV-D services;39189

       (I) That the staff person forward any completed 39190
acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is 39191
completed, to the office of child support in the department of job 39192
and family services;39193

       (J) That the department of job and family services pay the 39194
hospital twenty dollars for every correctly signed and notarized 39195
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit from the hospital.39196

       Sec. 3119.29. (A) As used in this section and sections 39197
3119.30 to 3119.56 of the Revised Code:39198

       (1) "Cash medical support" means an amount ordered to be paid 39199
in a child support order toward the cost of health insurance 39200
provided by a public entity, another parent, or person with whom 39201
the child resides, through employment or otherwise, or for other 39202
medical cost not covered by insurance.39203

       (2) "Federal poverty line" has the same meaning as defined in 39204
section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.39205

       (3) "Health care" means such medical support that includes 39206
coverage under a health insurance plan, payment of costs of 39207
premiums, co-paymentscopayments, and deductibles, or payment for 39208
medical expenses incurred on behalf of the child.39209

       (4) "Health insurance coverage" means accessible private 39210
health insurance that provides primary care services within thirty 39211
miles from the residence of the child subject to the child support 39212
order.39213

       (5) "Health plan administrator" means any entity authorized 39214
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to engage in the business of 39215
insurance in this state, any health insuring corporation, any 39216
legal entity that is self-insured and provides benefits to its 39217
employees or members, and the administrator of any such entity or 39218
corporation.39219

       (6) "National medical support notice" means a form required 39220
by the "Child Support Performance and Incentive Act of 1998," P.L. 39221
105-200, 112 Stat. 659, 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(19), as amended, and 39222
jointly developed and promulgated by the secretary of health and 39223
human services and the secretary of labor in federal regulations 39224
adopted under that act as modified by the department of job and 39225
family services under section 3119.291 of the Revised Code.39226

       (7) "Person required to provide health insurance coverage" 39227
means the obligor, obligee, or both, required by the court under a 39228
court child support order or by the child support enforcement 39229
agency under an administrative child support order to provide 39230
health insurance coverage pursuant to section 3119.30 of the 39231
Revised Code.39232

       (8) Subject to division (B) of this section, "reasonable 39233
cost" means the contributing cost of private family health 39234
insurance to the person responsible for the health care of the 39235
children subject to the child support order that does not exceed 39236
an amount equal to five per cent of the annual gross income of 39237
that person.39238

       (9) "Title XIX" has the same meaning as defined in section 39239
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.39240

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 39241
services issues a regulation defining "reasonable cost" or a 39242
similar term or phrase relevant to the provisions in child support 39243
orders relating to the provision of health care for children 39244
subject to the orders, and if that definition is substantively 39245
different from the meaning of "reasonable cost" as defined in 39246
division (A) of this section, "reasonable cost" as used in this 39247
section shall have the meaning as defined by the United States 39248
secretary of health and human services.39249

       Sec. 3119.54.  A party to a child support order issued in 39250
accordance with section 3119.30 of the Revised Code shall notify 39251
any physician, hospital, or other provider of medical services 39252
that provides medical services to the child who is the subject of 39253
the child support order of the number of any health insurance or 39254
health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the child if the 39255
child is eligible for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of 39256
the Revised Codemedicaid. The party shall include in the notice 39257
the name and address of the insurer. Any physician, hospital, or 39258
other provider of medical services for which medical assistance is 39259
available under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codecovered by the 39260
medicaid program who is notified under this section of the 39261
existence of a health insurance or health care policy, contract, 39262
or plan with coverage for children who are eligible for medical 39263
assistancemedicaid shall first bill the insurer for any services 39264
provided for those children. If the insurer fails to pay all or 39265
any part of a claim filed under this section and the services for 39266
which the claim is filed are covered by Chapter 5111. of the 39267
Revised Codethe medicaid program, the physician, hospital, or 39268
other medical services provider shall bill the remaining unpaid 39269
costs of the services in accordance with Chapter 5111. of the 39270
Revised Codeto the medicaid program.39271

       Sec. 3121.441. (A) Notwithstanding the provisions of this 39272
chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., and 3125., and sections 3770.071 39273
and 5107.20 of the Revised Code providing for the office of child 39274
support in the department of job and family services to collect, 39275
withhold, or deduct spousal support, when a court pursuant to 39276
section 3105.18 or 3105.65 of the Revised Code issues or modifies 39277
an order requiring an obligor to pay spousal support or grants or 39278
modifies a decree of dissolution of marriage incorporating a 39279
separation agreement that provides for spousal support, or at any 39280
time after the issuance, granting, or modification of an order or 39281
decree of that type, the court may permit the obligor to make the 39282
spousal support payments directly to the obligee instead of to the 39283
office if the obligee and the obligor have no minor children born 39284
as a result of their marriage and the obligee has not assigned the 39285
spousal support amounts to the department pursuant to section39286
5101.59 or 5107.20 or 5160.38 of the Revised Code.39287

       (B) A court that permits an obligor to make spousal support 39288
payments directly to the obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 39289
section shall order the obligor to make the spousal support 39290
payments as a check, as a money order, or in any other form that 39291
establishes a clear record of payment.39292

       (C) If a court permits an obligor to make spousal support 39293
payments directly to an obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 39294
section and the obligor is in default in making any spousal 39295
support payment to the obligee, the court, upon motion of the 39296
obligee or on its own motion, may rescind the permission granted 39297
under that division. After the rescission, the court shall 39298
determine the amount of arrearages in the spousal support payments 39299
and order the obligor to make to the office of child support in 39300
the department of job and family services any spousal support 39301
payments that are in arrears and any future spousal support 39302
payments. Upon the issuance of the order of the court under this 39303
division, the provisions of this chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., 39304
and 3125., and sections 3770.071 and 5107.20 of the Revised Code 39305
apply with respect to the collection, withholding, or deduction of 39306
the obligor's spousal support payments that are the subject of 39307
that order of the court.39308

       Sec. 3121.89.  As used in sections 3121.891 to 3121.8911 of 39309
the Revised Code:39310

       (A) "Contractor" means an individual who provides services to 39311
an employer as an independent contractor for compensation that is 39312
reported as income other than wages and who is an individual, the 39313
sole shareholder of a corporation, or the sole member of a limited 39314
liability company. "Contractor" does not include any of the 39315
following:39316

       (1) An individual performing intelligence or 39317
counterintelligence functions for a state agency if the head of 39318
the agency has determined that reporting pursuant to this section 39319
could endanger the safety of the individual or compromise an 39320
ongoing investigation or intelligence mission;39321

       (2) A professionally licensed person who is providing 39322
services to the employer under that license;39323

       (3) An individual who will receive for the services provided 39324
under the contract compensation of less than two thousand five 39325
hundred dollars per year or a greater amount that the director of 39326
job and family services establishes by rule adopted under section 39327
3121.896 of the Revised Code.39328

       (B) "Employee" means an individual who is employed to provide 39329
services to an employer for compensation that is reported as 39330
income from wages. "Employee" does not include an individual 39331
performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions for a 39332
state agency, if the head of the agency has determined that 39333
reporting pursuant to this section could endanger the safety of 39334
the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or 39335
intelligence mission.39336

       (C) "Employer" means any person or governmental entity other 39337
than the federal government for which an individual performs any 39338
service, of whatever nature, as the employee or contractor of such 39339
person, except that:39340

       (1) If the person for whom the individual performs services 39341
does not have control of the payment of compensation for the 39342
services, "employer" means the person having control of the 39343
payment of the compensation.39344

       (2) In the case of a person paying compensation on behalf of 39345
a nonresident alien individual, foreign partnership, or foreign 39346
corporation not engaged in trade or business within the United 39347
States, "employer" means the person paying the compensation.39348

       (3) In the case of compensation paid to a contractor, 39349
"employer" does not include any person or entity that lacks a 39350
federal employer identification number.39351

       (D) "Newly hired employee" means either of the following:39352

       (1) An employee who has not previously been employed by the 39353
employer;39354

       (2) An employee who was previously employed by an employer 39355
but has been separated from that prior employment for at least 39356
sixty consecutive days.39357

       (E) "Professionally licensed person" has the same meaning as 39358
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.39359

       Sec. 3121.891.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 39360
of this section, every employer shall make a new hire report to 39361
the department of job and family services regarding the hiring, 39362
rehiring, or return to work as ana newly hired employee or a39363
contractor of a person who resides, works, or will be assigned to 39364
work in this state to whom the employer anticipates paying 39365
compensation.39366

       (B) An employer with employees or contractors in two or more 39367
states that transmits new hire reports magnetically or 39368
electronically may make the new hire report to another state if 39369
the employer does both of the following:39370

       (1) Notifies the Ohio department of job and family services 39371
and the United States secretary of health and human services in 39372
writing that the employer has designated another state as the 39373
state to which the employer will transmit the report;39374

       (2) Transmits the report to that state in compliance with 39375
federal law.39376

       (C) The department may by rule exempt employers from making 39377
new hire reports on any classification of contractors if the 39378
department determines that exempting the employer will assist the 39379
administration of the new hire reporting requirement.39380

       Sec. 3121.892. (A) An employer shall include all of the 39381
following in each new hire report:39382

        (1) For each employee, the employee's name, address, date of 39383
birth, social security number, and date of hire, rehire, or return 39384
to work;39385

        (2) For each contractor, the contractor's name, address, 39386
social security or tax identification number, the date payments 39387
begin, and the length of time the contractor will be performing 39388
services for the employer;39389

       (3) The employer's name, address, and identification number.39390

       (B) The department of job and family services may by rule 39391
require that additional information, specified in the rule, be 39392
included in each new hire report.39393

       Sec. 3121.893.  An employer shall make a new hire report for 39394
each newly hired employee or contractor in a manner prescribed by 39395
the department of job and family services. The department may 39396
require that the report include or consist of the submission of a 39397
copy of the United States internal revenue service form W-4 39398
(employee's withholding allowance certificate) for the employee, a 39399
form provided by the department, or any other hiring document or 39400
data storage device or mechanism the department authorizes. An 39401
employer may make the new hire report by mail, fax, magnetic or 39402
electronic means, or other means the department authorizes. If an 39403
employer makes a new hire report by mail, the date of making the 39404
report is the postmark date if the report is mailed in the United 39405
States with first class postage and is addressed as the department 39406
authorizes. An employer shall make the new hire report not later 39407
than twenty days after the date on which the employer hires or 39408
rehires an employee or the employee returns to work or the date on 39409
which the employer engages or re-engages the contractor or the 39410
contractor resumes providing services under the contract.39411

       Sec. 3121.898.  The department of job and family services 39412
shall use the new hire reports it receives for any of the 39413
following purposes set forth in 42 U.S.C. 653a, as amended, 39414
including:39415

       (A) To locate individuals for the purposes of establishing 39416
paternity and for establishing, modifying, and enforcing child 39417
support orders.39418

       (B) As used in this division, "state agency" means every 39419
department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other organized 39420
body established by the constitution or laws of this state for the 39421
exercise of state government; every entity of county government 39422
that is subject to the rules of a state agency; and every 39423
contractual agent of a state agency.39424

       To make available to any state agency responsible for 39425
administering any of the following programs for purposes of 39426
verifying program eligibility:39427

       (1) Any Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of 39428
the Revised Code;39429

       (2) The medicaid program authorized by Chapter 5111. of the 39430
Revised Code;39431

       (3) The unemployment compensation program authorized by 39432
Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code;39433

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program authorized 39434
by section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;39435

       (5) Any other program authorized in 42 U.S.C. 1320b-7(b), as 39436
amended.39437

       (C) The administration of the employment security program 39438
under the director of job and family services.39439

       Sec. 3123.958.  The office of child support shallmay publish 39440
and distribute the firsta set of posters throughout the state not 39441
later than October 1, 1992. The office shall publish and 39442
distribute subsequent sets of posters not less than twice39443
annually.39444

       Sec. 3125.18. A child support enforcement agency shall 39445
administer a Title IV-A program identified under division 39446
(A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code that 39447
the department of job and family services provides for the agency 39448
to administer under the department's supervision pursuant to 39449
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code.39450

       Sec. 3125.36.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 39451
all support orders that are administered by a child support 39452
enforcement agency designated under section 307.981 of the Revised 39453
Code or former section 2301.35 of the Revised Code and are 39454
eligible for Title IV-D services shall be Title IV-D cases under 39455
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act." Subject to division (B) 39456
of this section, all obligees of support orders administered by 39457
the agency shall be considered to have filed a signed application 39458
for Title IV-D services.39459

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 39460
court that issues or modifies a support order shall require the 39461
obligee under the order to sign, at the time of the issuance or 39462
modification of the order, an application for Title IV-D services 39463
and to file, as soon as possible, the signed application with the 39464
child support enforcement agency that will administer the order. 39465
The application shall be on a form prescribed by the department of 39466
job and family services. Except as provided in division (D) of 39467
this section, a support order that is administered by a child 39468
support enforcement agency, and that is eligible for Title IV-D 39469
services shall be a Title IV-D case under Title IV-D of the 39470
"Social Security Act" only upon the filing of the signed 39471
application for Title IV-D services.39472

       (C) A child support enforcement agency shall make available 39473
an application for Title IV-D services to all persons requesting a 39474
child support enforcement agency's assistance in an action under 39475
sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code or in an 39476
administrative proceeding brought to establish a parent and child 39477
relationship, to establish or modify an administrative support 39478
order, or to establish or modify an order to provide health 39479
insurance coverage for the children subject to a support order.39480

       (D) An obligee under a support order who has assigned the 39481
right to the support pursuant to section 5101.59 or 5107.20 or 39482
5160.38 of the Revised Code shall not be required to sign an 39483
application for Title IV-D services. The support order shall be 39484
considered a Title IV-D case.39485

       Sec. 3301.07.  The state board of education shall exercise 39486
under the acts of the general assembly general supervision of the 39487
system of public education in the state. In addition to the powers 39488
otherwise imposed on the state board under the provisions of law, 39489
the board shall have the powers described in this section.39490

       (A) The state board shall exercise policy forming, planning, 39491
and evaluative functions for the public schools of the state 39492
except as otherwise provided by law.39493

       (B)(1) The state board shall exercise leadership in the 39494
improvement of public education in this state, and administer the 39495
educational policies of this state relating to public schools, and 39496
relating to instruction and instructional material, building and 39497
equipment, transportation of pupils, administrative 39498
responsibilities of school officials and personnel, and finance 39499
and organization of school districts, educational service centers, 39500
and territory. Consultative and advisory services in such matters 39501
shall be provided by the board to school districts and educational 39502
service centers of this state. 39503

       (2) The state board also shall develop a standard of 39504
financial reporting which shall be used by each school district 39505
board of education and educational service centereach governing 39506
board of an educational service center, each governing authority 39507
of a community school established under Chapter 3314., each 39508
governing body of a STEM school established under Chapter 3328., 39509
and each board of trustees of a college-preparatory boarding 39510
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code to make 39511
its financial information and annual budgets for each school 39512
building under its control available to the public in a format 39513
understandable by the average citizen. The format shall show, 39514
among other things,both at the district and educational service 39515
center level orand at the school building level, as determined 39516
appropriate by the department of education, revenue by source; 39517
expenditures for salaries, wages, and benefits of employees, 39518
showing such amounts separately for classroom teachers, other 39519
employees required to hold licenses issued pursuant to sections 39520
3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code, and all other employees; 39521
expenditures other than for personnel, by category, including 39522
utilities, textbooks and other educational materials, equipment, 39523
permanent improvements, pupil transportation, extracurricular 39524
athletics, and other extracurricular activities; and per pupil 39525
expenditures. The format shall also include information on total 39526
revenue and expenditures, per pupil revenue, and expenditures for 39527
both classroom and nonclassroom purposes, as defined by the 39528
standards adopted under section 3302.20 of the Revised Code in the 39529
aggregate and for each subgroup of students, as defined by section 39530
3317.40 of the Revised Code, that receives services provided for 39531
by state or federal funding.39532

       (3) Each school district board, governing authority, 39533
governing body, or board of trustees, or its respective designee, 39534
shall annually report, to the department of education, all 39535
financial information required by the standards for financial 39536
reporting, as prescribed by division (B)(2) of this section and 39537
adopted by the state board. The department shall post these 39538
reports in a prominent location on its web site and shall notify 39539
each school when reports are made available.39540

       (C) The state board shall administer and supervise the 39541
allocation and distribution of all state and federal funds for 39542
public school education under the provisions of law, and may 39543
prescribe such systems of accounting as are necessary and proper 39544
to this function. It may require county auditors and treasurers, 39545
boards of education, educational service center governing boards, 39546
treasurers of such boards, teachers, and other school officers and 39547
employees, or other public officers or employees, to file with it 39548
such reports as it may prescribe relating to such funds, or to the 39549
management and condition of such funds.39550

       (D)(1) Wherever in Titles IX, XXIII, XXIX, XXXIII, XXXVII, 39551
XLVII, and LI of the Revised Code a reference is made to standards 39552
prescribed under this section or division (D) of this section, 39553
that reference shall be construed to refer to the standards 39554
prescribed under division (D)(2) of this section, unless the 39555
context specifically indicates a different meaning or intent.39556

        (2) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 39557
standards to be applied to all elementary and secondary schools in 39558
this state for the purpose of requiringproviding children access 39559
to a general education of high quality according to the learning 39560
needs of each individual, including students with disabilities, 39561
economically disadvantaged students, limited English proficient 39562
students, and students identified as gifted. Such standards shall 39563
provide adequately for: the licensing of teachers, administrators, 39564
and other professional personnel and their assignment according to 39565
training and qualifications; efficient and effective instructional 39566
materials and equipment, including library facilities; the proper 39567
organization, administration, and supervision of each school, 39568
including regulations for preparing all necessary records and 39569
reports and the preparation of a statement of policies and 39570
objectives for each school; the provision of safe buildings, 39571
grounds, health and sanitary facilities and services; admission of 39572
pupils, and such requirements for their promotion from grade to 39573
grade as will assure that they are capable and prepared for the 39574
level of study to which they are certified; requirements for 39575
graduation; and such other factors as the board finds necessary.39576

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 39577
promotion of students or requirements for graduation on the 39578
ability of students, at any grade level, to earn credits or 39579
advance upon demonstration of mastery of knowledge and skills 39580
through competency-based learning models. Credits of grade level 39581
advancement shall not require a minimum number of days or hours in 39582
a classroom.39583

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 39584
assignment of staff on ensuring each school has a sufficient 39585
number of teachers to ensure a student has an appropriate level of 39586
interaction to meet each student's personal learning goals.39587

       In the formulation and administration of such standards for 39588
nonpublic schools the board shall also consider the particular 39589
needs, methods and objectives of those schools, provided they do 39590
not conflict with the provision of a general education of a high 39591
quality and provided that regular procedures shall be followed for 39592
promotion from grade to grade of pupils who have met the 39593
educational requirements prescribed.39594

        In the formulation and administration of such standards as 39595
they relate to instructional materials and equipment in public 39596
schools, including library materials, the board shall require that 39597
the material and equipment be aligned with and promote skills 39598
expected under the statewide academic standards adopted under 39599
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.39600

        (3) In addition to the minimum standards required by division 39601
(D)(2) of this section, the state board may formulate and 39602
prescribe the following additional minimum operating standards for 39603
school districts:39604

       (a) Standards for the effective and efficient organization, 39605
administration, and supervision of each school district so that it 39606
becomes a thinking and learning organization according to 39607
principles of systems design and collaborative professional 39608
learning communities research as defined by the superintendent of 39609
public instruction, including a focus on the personalized and 39610
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 39611
among school boards, administrators, faculty, and staff to develop 39612
a common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 39613
responsibility among school boards, administrators, faculty, and 39614
staff to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action 39615
orientation, and experimentation to ensure the academic success of 39616
all students; commitment to teaching and learning strategies that 39617
utilize technological tools and emphasize inter-disciplinary, 39618
real-world, project-based, and technology-oriented learning 39619
experiences to meet the individual needs of every student;with a39620
commitment to high expectations for every student based on the 39621
learning needs of each individual, including students with 39622
disabilities, economically disadvantaged students, limited English 39623
proficient students, and students identified as gifted, and 39624
commitment to closing the achievement gap without suppressing the 39625
achievement levels of higher achieving students so that all 39626
students achieve core knowledge and skills in accordance with the 39627
statewide academic standards adopted under section 3301.079 of the 39628
Revised Code; commitment to the use of assessments to diagnose 39629
the needs of each student; effective connections and relationships 39630
with families and others that support student success; and 39631
commitment to the use of positive behavior intervention supports 39632
throughout a district to ensure a safe and secure learning 39633
environment for all students;39634

       (b) Standards for the establishment of business advisory 39635
councils under section 3313.82 of the Revised Code;39636

        (c) Standards for school district buildings that may require:39637

       (i) Thethe effective and efficient organization, 39638
administration, and supervision of each school district building 39639
so that it becomes a thinking and learning organization according 39640
to principles of systems design and collaborative professional 39641
learning communities research as defined by the state 39642
superintendent, including a focus on the personalized and 39643
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 39644
among building administrators, faculty, and staff to develop a 39645
common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 39646
responsibility among building administrators, faculty, and staff 39647
to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action orientation, 39648
and experimentation to ensure the academic success of all 39649
students; commitment to job embedded professional development and 39650
professional mentoring and coaching; established periods of time 39651
for teachers to pursue planning time for the development of lesson 39652
plans, professional development, and shared learning; commitment 39653
to effective management strategies that allow administrators 39654
reasonable access to classrooms for observation and professional 39655
development experiences; commitment to teaching and learning 39656
strategies that utilize technological tools and emphasize 39657
inter-disciplinary, real-world, project-based, and 39658
technology-oriented learning experiences to meet the individual 39659
needs of every student;with a commitment to high expectations for 39660
every student based on the learning needs of each individual, 39661
including students with disabilities, economically disadvantaged 39662
students, limited English proficient students, and students 39663
identified as gifted, and commitment to closing the achievement 39664
gap without suppressing the achievement levels of higher achieving 39665
students so that all students achieve core knowledge and skills in 39666
accordance with the statewide academic standards adopted under 39667
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code; commitment to the use of 39668
assessments to diagnose the needs of each student; effective 39669
connections and relationships with families and others that 39670
support student success; commitment to the use of positive 39671
behavior intervention supports throughout the building to ensure a 39672
safe and secure learning environment for all students;39673

       (ii) A school building leadership team to coordinate positive 39674
behavior intervention supports, learning environments, thinking 39675
and learning systems, collaborative planning, planning time, 39676
student academic interventions, student extended learning 39677
opportunities, and other activities identified by the team and 39678
approved by the district board of education. The team shall 39679
include the building principal, representatives from each 39680
collective bargaining unit, a classroom teacher, parents, business 39681
representatives, and others that support student success. 39682

        (E) The state board may require as part of the health 39683
curriculum information developed under section 2108.34 of the 39684
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts pursuant 39685
to Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code and may provide the 39686
information to high schools, educational service centers, and 39687
joint vocational school district boards of education;39688

       (F) The state board shall prepare and submit annually to the 39689
governor and the general assembly a report on the status, needs, 39690
and major problems of the public schools of the state, with 39691
recommendations for necessary legislative action and a ten-year 39692
projection of the state's public and nonpublic school enrollment, 39693
by year and by grade level.39694

       (G) The state board shall prepare and submit to the director 39695
of budget and management the biennial budgetary requests of the 39696
state board of education, for its agencies and for the public 39697
schools of the state.39698

       (H) The state board shall cooperate with federal, state, and 39699
local agencies concerned with the health and welfare of children 39700
and youth of the state.39701

       (I) The state board shall require such reports from school 39702
districts and educational service centers, school officers, and 39703
employees as are necessary and desirable. The superintendents and 39704
treasurers of school districts and educational service centers 39705
shall certify as to the accuracy of all reports required by law or 39706
state board or state department of education rules to be submitted 39707
by the district or educational service center and which contain 39708
information necessary for calculation of state funding. Any 39709
superintendent who knowingly falsifies such report shall be 39710
subject to license revocation pursuant to section 3319.31 of the 39711
Revised Code.39712

       (J) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 39713
state board shall adopt procedures, standards, and guidelines for 39714
the education of children with disabilities pursuant to Chapter 39715
3323. of the Revised Code, including procedures, standards, and 39716
guidelines governing programs and services operated by county 39717
boards of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 3323.09 39718
of the Revised Code.39719

       (K) For the purpose of encouraging the development of special 39720
programs of education for academically gifted children, the state 39721
board shall employ competent persons to analyze and publish data, 39722
promote research, advise and counsel with boards of education, and 39723
encourage the training of teachers in the special instruction of 39724
gifted children. The board may provide financial assistance out of 39725
any funds appropriated for this purpose to boards of education and 39726
educational service center governing boards for developing and 39727
conducting programs of education for academically gifted children.39728

       (L) The state board shall require that all public schools 39729
emphasize and encourage, within existing units of study, the 39730
teaching of energy and resource conservation as recommended to 39731
each district board of education by leading business persons 39732
involved in energy production and conservation, beginning in the 39733
primary grades.39734

       (M) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 39735
standards requiring the use of phonics as a technique in the 39736
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three. In 39737
addition, the state board shall provide in-service training 39738
programs for teachers on the use of phonics as a technique in the 39739
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three.39740

       (N) The state board may adopt rules necessary for carrying 39741
out any function imposed on it by law, and may provide rules as 39742
are necessary for its government and the government of its 39743
employees, and may delegate to the superintendent of public 39744
instruction the management and administration of any function 39745
imposed on it by law. It may provide for the appointment of board 39746
members to serve on temporary committees established by the board 39747
for such purposes as are necessary. Permanent or standing 39748
committees shall not be created.39749

        (O) Upon application from the board of education of a school 39750
district, the superintendent of public instruction may issue a 39751
waiver exempting the district from compliance with the standards 39752
adopted under divisions (B)(2) and (D) of this section, as they 39753
relate to the operation of a school operated by the district. The 39754
state board shall adopt standards for the approval or disapproval 39755
of waivers under this division. The state superintendent shall 39756
consider every application for a waiver, and shall determine 39757
whether to grant or deny a waiver in accordance with the state 39758
board's standards. For each waiver granted, the state 39759
superintendent shall specify the period of time during which the 39760
waiver is in effect, which shall not exceed five years. A district 39761
board may apply to renew a waiver.39762

       Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 39763
rules for a statewide education management information system. The 39764
rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for 39765
the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with 39766
this section and the rules adopted under this section. The 39767
guidelines shall include:39768

       (1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in 39769
the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 39770
section;39771

       (2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data 39772
to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this 39773
section;39774

       (3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance 39775
with division (G) of this section;39776

       (4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public 39777
in accordance with division (H) of this section.39778

       (B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require 39779
the data maintained in the education management information system 39780
to include at least the following:39781

       (1) Student participation and performance data, for each 39782
grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in 39783
each school building in each school district, that includes:39784

       (a) The numbers of students receiving each category of 39785
instructional service offered by the school district, such as 39786
regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, 39787
specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is 39788
part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted 39789
students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial 39790
instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services 39791
under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an 39792
instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific 39793
type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services 39794
in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, 39795
instructional services specifically for students gifted in 39796
mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services 39797
for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of 39798
instructional services required by the guidelines under this 39799
division shall be the same as the categories of instructional 39800
services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 39801
(C)(3) of this section.39802

       (b) The numbers of students receiving support or 39803
extracurricular services for each of the support services or 39804
extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as 39805
counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports 39806
and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the 39807
guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories 39808
of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 39809
(C)(4)(a) of this section.39810

       (c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine 39811
through twelve;39812

       (d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 39813
3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;39814

       (e) The number of students designated as having a disabling 39815
condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the 39816
Revised Code;39817

       (f) The numbers of students reported to the state board 39818
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised 39819
Code;39820

       (g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the 39821
year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as 39822
present for any field trip that is approved by the school 39823
administration.39824

       (h) Expulsion rates;39825

       (i) Suspension rates;39826

       (j) Dropout rates;39827

       (k) Rates of retention in grade;39828

       (l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average 39829
number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state 39830
board of education rules;39831

       (m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified 39832
by the department of education that reflects the rate at which 39833
students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the 39834
current year complete school and that is consistent with 39835
nationally accepted reporting requirements;39836

       (n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to 39837
kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the 39838
Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of 39839
kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to 39840
report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment 39841
administered to a kindergarten student if the parent of that 39842
student requests the district not to report those results.39843

       (2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school 39844
district, including:39845

       (a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed 39846
employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed 39847
employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of 39848
instructional service, instructional support service, and 39849
administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of 39850
this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall 39851
require these categories of data to be maintained for the school 39852
district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in 39853
the school district as a whole, for each school building as a 39854
whole, and for each grade in each school building.39855

       (b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time 39856
equivalent employees providing each category of service used 39857
pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the 39858
total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and 39859
the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and 39860
nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to 39861
division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under 39862
this section shall require these categories of data to be 39863
maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever 39864
applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for 39865
each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school 39866
building.39867

       (c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching 39868
classes of regular education and the average number of pupils 39869
enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten 39870
through five in the district as a whole and in each school 39871
building in the school district.39872

       (d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school 39873
district and each school building.39874

       (3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, 39875
including information regarding the gender ratio of the school 39876
district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's 39877
pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the 39878
district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school 39879
district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged 39880
households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to 39881
allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of 39882
this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division 39883
(B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to 39884
standard practices of agencies of the federal government.39885

       (b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, 39886
whether the student previously participated in a public preschool 39887
program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and 39888
the number of years the student participated in each of these 39889
programs.39890

       (4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal 39891
law.39892

       (C) The education management information system shall include 39893
cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each 39894
school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted 39895
under this section shall require the cost data for each school 39896
district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost 39897
units and shall require all of the costs of each school district 39898
to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require 39899
the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least 39900
the following:39901

       (1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. 39902
The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division 39903
(C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and 39904
reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM 39905
in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 39906
of the Revised Code.39907

       (2) Administrative costs for each school building in the 39908
school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 39909
this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be 39910
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per 39911
full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support 39912
services in each building.39913

       (3) Instructional services costs for each category of 39914
instructional service provided directly to students and required 39915
by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this 39916
section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 39917
division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of 39918
them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure 39919
per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole 39920
and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 39921
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 39922
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 39923
cost for each of the following components:39924

       (a) The cost of each instructional services category required 39925
by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section 39926
that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;39927

       (b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as 39928
services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom 39929
aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students 39930
in conjunction with each instructional services category;39931

       (c) The cost of the administrative support services related 39932
to each instructional services category, such as the cost of 39933
personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional 39934
services category and the cost of personnel supervising or 39935
coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.39936

       (4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each 39937
category of service directly provided to students and required by 39938
guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. 39939
The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) 39940
of this section to be designed so that each of them may be 39941
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil 39942
receiving the service in the school district as a whole and 39943
average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 39944
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 39945
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 39946
cost for each of the following components:39947

       (a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services 39948
category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) 39949
of this section that is provided directly to students by a 39950
licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance 39951
counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a 39952
supplemental contract;39953

       (b) The cost of each such services category provided directly 39954
to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial 39955
services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;39956

       (c) The cost of the administrative services related to each 39957
services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, 39958
such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that 39959
develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in 39960
administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.39961

       (D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall 39962
require school districts to collect information about individual 39963
students, staff members, or both in connection with any data 39964
required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 39965
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may 39966
also require school districts to report information about 39967
individual staff members in connection with any data required by 39968
division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 39969
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall 39970
not authorize school districts to request social security numbers 39971
of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the 39972
reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and 39973
social security number to the state board of education or the 39974
department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the 39975
reporting under this section of any personally identifiable 39976
information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning 39977
the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this 39978
section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the 39979
school district or the information technology center operated 39980
under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by 39981
the district or technology center to have access to such 39982
information or is employed by an entity with which the department 39983
contracts for the scoring or the development of state assessments. 39984
The guidelines may require school districts to provide the social 39985
security numbers of individual staff members and the county of 39986
residence for a student. Nothing in this section prohibits the 39987
state board of education or department of education from providing 39988
a student's county of residence to the department of taxation to 39989
facilitate the distribution of tax revenue.39990

       (2)(a) The guidelines shall provide for each school district 39991
or community school to assign a data verification code that is 39992
unique on a statewide basis over time to each student whose 39993
initial Ohio enrollment is in that district or school and to 39994
report all required individual student data for that student 39995
utilizing such code. The guidelines shall also provide for 39996
assigning data verification codes to all students enrolled in 39997
districts or community schools on the effective date of the 39998
guidelines established under this section. The assignment of data 39999
verification codes for other entities, as described in division 40000
(D)(2)(c) of this section, the use of those codes, and the 40001
reporting and use of associated individual student data shall be 40002
coordinated by the department in accordance with state and federal 40003
law.40004

        School districts shall report individual student data to the 40005
department through the information technology centers utilizing 40006
the code. The entities described in division (D)(2)(c) of this 40007
section shall report individual student data to the department in 40008
the manner prescribed by the department.40009

        Except as provided in sections 3301.941, 3310.11, 3310.42, 40010
3310.63, 3313.978, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time 40011
shall the state board or the department have access to information 40012
that would enable any data verification code to be matched to 40013
personally identifiable student data.40014

       (b) Each school district and community school shall ensure 40015
that the data verification code is included in the student's 40016
records reported to any subsequent school district, community 40017
school, or state institution of higher education, as defined in 40018
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, in which the student 40019
enrolls. Any such subsequent district or school shall utilize the 40020
same identifier in its reporting of data under this section.40021

       (c) The director of any state agency that administers a 40022
publicly funded program providing services to children who are 40023
younger than compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 40024
of the Revised Code, including the directors of health, job and 40025
family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 40026
services, and developmental disabilities, shall request and 40027
receive, pursuant to sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised 40028
Code, a data verification code for a child who is receiving those 40029
services. 40030

       (E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require 40031
school districts to collect and report data, information, or 40032
reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) 40033
of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting 40034
requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, 40035
information, or reports may be maintained in the education 40036
management information system but are not required to be compiled 40037
as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this 40038
section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) 40039
of this section.40040

       (F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, 40041
the board of education of each school district shall annually 40042
collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the 40043
guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to 40044
this section. A school district may collect and report these data 40045
notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.40046

       (G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 40047
it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school 40048
district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board 40049
shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole 40050
and each school building within each district and shall compile 40051
the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats 40052
shall:40053

       (1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a 40054
manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and 40055
among school buildings within each school district;40056

       (2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as 40057
assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant 40058
to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.40059

       (H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the 40060
procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all 40061
school districts and the general public that includes the profile 40062
of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) 40063
of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school 40064
district.40065

       (2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 40066
it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school 40067
district and the general public that includes the profiles of each 40068
of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant 40069
to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be 40070
sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of 40071
the district board of education.40072

       (3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under 40073
divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available 40074
to the general public at each school district's offices. Each 40075
district board of education shall make copies of each report 40076
available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable 40077
fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall 40078
annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the 40079
school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the 40080
week in which the reports will first be available, a notice 40081
containing the address where the reports are available and the 40082
date on which the reports will be available.40083

       (I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this 40084
section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public 40085
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.40086

       (J) As used in this section:40087

       (1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted 40088
village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance 40089
with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As 40090
used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also 40091
includes any educational service center or other educational 40092
entity required to submit data using the system established under 40093
this section.40094

       (2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made 40095
by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt 40096
retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending 40097
institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of 40098
the Revised Code.40099

       (K) Any person who removes data from the information system 40100
established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to 40101
any person not entitled under law to have access to such 40102
information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code 40103
prohibiting tampering with data.40104

       (L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and 40105
the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the 40106
department of education may sanction any school district that 40107
reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not 40108
conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the 40109
department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise 40110
does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by 40111
this section.40112

       (2) If the department decides to sanction a school district 40113
under this division, the department shall take the following 40114
sequential actions:40115

       (a) Notify the district in writing that the department has 40116
determined that data has not been reported as required under this 40117
section and require the district to review its data submission and 40118
submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. 40119
The department also may require the district to develop a 40120
corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the 40121
district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting 40122
procedures.40123

       (b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state 40124
funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not 40125
previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, 40126
require the district to develop a corrective action plan in 40127
accordance with that division;40128

       (c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of 40129
the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 40130
current fiscal year;40131

       (d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to 40132
investigate the district's data reporting practices and make 40133
recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may 40134
include one or more of the following actions:40135

       (i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting 40136
practices by department staff or an outside entity;40137

       (ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;40138

       (iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent 40139
of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 40140
current fiscal year;40141

       (iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;40142

       (v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data 40143
management system;40144

       (vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend 40145
or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with 40146
division (N) of this section;40147

       (vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 40148
3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the 40149
district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as 40150
required by this section;40151

       (viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 40152
3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data 40153
submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a 40154
higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, 40155
issue a revised report card for the district;40156

       (ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data 40157
reporting problems.40158

       (3) Any time the department takes an action against a school 40159
district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department 40160
shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. 40161
The department shall send a copy of the report to the district 40162
superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the 40163
report in its files.40164

       (4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section 40165
resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the 40166
department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any 40167
further actions described by that division. If the department 40168
withheld funds from the district under that division, the 40169
department may release those funds to the district, except that if 40170
the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this 40171
section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under 40172
division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld 40173
funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department 40174
shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or 40175
(c) of this section.40176

       (5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, 40177
the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to 40178
conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices 40179
any time the department has reason to believe the district has not 40180
made a good faith effort to report data as required by this 40181
section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under 40182
division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a 40183
district has not made a good faith effort to report data as 40184
required by this section, the district shall reimburse the 40185
department for the full cost of the audit. The department may 40186
withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.40187

       (6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school 40188
district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the 40189
department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an 40190
opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to 40191
report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be 40192
conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the 40193
information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend 40194
whether the department should issue a revised report card for the 40195
district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that 40196
the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as 40197
required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of 40198
conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.40199

       (7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data 40200
reported under this section caused a school district to receive 40201
excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall 40202
reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in 40203
accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. 40204
The department may withhold state funds due to the district for 40205
this purpose.40206

       (8) Any school district that has funds withheld under 40207
division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in 40208
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.40209

       (9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and 40210
a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken 40211
under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall 40212
be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort 40213
to report data as required by this section.40214

       (10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 40215
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this 40216
section.40217

       (M) No information technology center or school district shall 40218
acquire, change, or update its student administration software 40219
package to manage and report data required to be reported to the 40220
department unless it converts to a student software package that 40221
is certified by the department.40222

       (N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 40223
3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a 40224
license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the 40225
Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee 40226
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 40227
incomplete data to the education management information system.40228

       (O) No person shall release or maintain any information about 40229
any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this 40230
division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.40231

       (P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected 40232
under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and 40233
socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected 40234
under that division shall be included on the report cards required 40235
by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.40236

       (Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information 40237
required by division (H) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 40238
based upon the data collected under this section, the department 40239
shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection 40240
of any data necessary to comply with that division.40241

       Sec. 3301.0715.  (A) Except as otherwise required under 40242
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code, the board 40243
of education of each city, local, and exempted village school 40244
district shall administer each applicable diagnostic assessment 40245
developed and provided to the district in accordance with section 40246
3301.079 of the Revised Code to the following:40247

       (1) Any student who transfers into the district or to a 40248
different school within the district if each applicable diagnostic 40249
assessment was not administered by the district or school the 40250
student previously attended in the current school year, within 40251
thirty days after the date of transfer. If the district or school 40252
into which the student transfers cannot determine whether the 40253
student has taken any applicable diagnostic assessment in the 40254
current school year, the district or school may administer the 40255
diagnostic assessment to the student.40256

       (2) Each(a) Prior to July 1, 2014, each kindergarten 40257
student, not earlier than four weeks prior to the first day of 40258
school and not later than the first day of October. For40259

       (b) Beginning July 1, 2014, each kindergarten student, not 40260
earlier than the first day of the school year and not later than 40261
the first day of November, except that the language and reading 40262
skills portion of the assessment shall be administered by the 40263
thirtieth day of September to fulfill the requirements of division 40264
(B) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.40265

       For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, the 40266
district shall administer the kindergarten readiness assessment 40267
provided by the department of education. In no case shall the 40268
results of the readiness assessment be used to prohibit a student 40269
from enrolling in kindergarten.40270

       (3) Each student enrolled in first, second, or third grade.40271

       (B) Each district board shall administer each diagnostic 40272
assessment when the board deems appropriate, provided the 40273
administration complies with section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. 40274
However, the board shall administer any diagnostic assessment at 40275
least once annually to all students in the appropriate grade 40276
level. A district board may administer any diagnostic assessment 40277
in the fall and spring of a school year to measure the amount of 40278
academic growth attributable to the instruction received by 40279
students during that school year.40280

       (C) Any district that received an excellent or effective 40281
rating for the immediately preceding school year, pursuant to 40282
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to the 40283
effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013, or the equivalent 40284
of such rating as determined by the department of education, may 40285
use different diagnostic assessments from those adopted under 40286
division (D) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code in order to 40287
satisfy the requirements of division (A)(2) of this section.40288

       (D) Each district board shall utilize and score any 40289
diagnostic assessment administered under division (A) of this 40290
section in accordance with rules established by the department. 40291
After the administration of any diagnostic assessment, each 40292
district shall provide a student's completed diagnostic 40293
assessment, the results of such assessment, and any other 40294
accompanying documents used during the administration of the 40295
assessment to the parent of that student, and shall include all 40296
such documents and information in any plan developed for the 40297
student under division (C) of section 3313.608 of the Revised 40298
Code. Each district shall submit to the department, in the manner 40299
the department prescribes, the results of the diagnostic 40300
assessments administered under this section, regardless of the 40301
type of assessment used under section 3313.608 of the Revised 40302
Code. The department may issue reports with respect to the data 40303
collected.40304

       (E) Each district board shall provide intervention services 40305
to students whose diagnostic assessments show that they are 40306
failing to make satisfactory progress toward attaining the 40307
academic standards for their grade level.40308

       Sec. 3301.0723.  (A) The independent contractor engaged by 40309
the department of education to create and maintain for school 40310
districts and community schools the student data verification 40311
codes required by division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the 40312
Revised Code, upon request of the director of any state agency 40313
that administers a publicly funded program providing services to 40314
children who are younger than compulsory school age, as defined in 40315
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, including the directors of 40316
health, job and family services, mental healthmental health and 40317
addiction services, and developmental disabilities, shall assign a 40318
data verification code to a child who is receiving such services 40319
and shall provide that code to the director. The contractor also 40320
shall provide that code to the department of education.40321

       (B) The director of a state agency that receives a child's 40322
data verification code under division (A) of this section shall 40323
use that code to submit information for that child to the 40324
department of education in accordance with section 3301.0714 of 40325
the Revised Code.40326

       (C) A public school that receives from the independent 40327
contractor the data verification code for a child assigned under 40328
division (A) of this section shall not request or assign to that 40329
child another data verification code under division (D)(2) of 40330
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. That school and any other 40331
public school in which the child subsequently enrolls shall use 40332
the data verification code assigned under division (A) of this 40333
section to report data relative to that student required under 40334
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.40335

       Sec. 3301.15.  The state board of education or its authorized 40336
representatives may inspect all institutions under the control of 40337
the department of job and family services, the department of40338
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 40339
of developmental disabilities, and the department of 40340
rehabilitation and correction which employ teachers, and may make 40341
a report on the teaching, discipline, and school equipment in 40342
these institutions to the director of job and family services, the 40343
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 40344
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 40345
rehabilitation and correction, and the governor.40346

       Sec. 3301.80.  (A) The preparing students for education 40347
success grant program is established. Under the program, the 40348
superintendent of public instruction shall award grants to 40349
nonprofit corporations that are exempt from federal income 40350
taxation under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 40351
that provide charitable services to needy residents of this state, 40352
and that meet the following requirements:40353

       (1) The nonprofit corporation has at least two locations in 40354
the state that provide after-school programming for youth eighteen 40355
years of age or younger that holistically address areas affecting 40356
student academic success; and40357

       (2) The nonprofit corporation provides evidence that the 40358
students who served in the corporation's after-school programs 40359
have shown academic improvement.40360

       (B) A nonprofit corporation may apply for a grant under this 40361
section on the form prescribed by the superintendent.40362

       (C) The superintendent may award grants to qualified 40363
nonprofit corporations that submit an application that conveys a 40364
credible plan to use grant money for the following purposes:40365

       (1) To establish new after-school programs that will serve a 40366
high concentration of youth eighteen years of age or younger; and40367

       (2) To provide innovative, comprehensive after-school 40368
programs that improve educational outcomes and simultaneously 40369
reduce barriers to academic success through targeted programming 40370
that provides literacy achievement, homework assistance, tutoring, 40371
and high-yield learning activities, as well as character and 40372
self-esteem building that contribute to academic success and 40373
graduation completion, and a comprehensive health and wellness 40374
program.40375

       (D) The superintendent shall do anything necessary and proper 40376
to administer the grant program, including the prescription of an 40377
application form, the establishment of application deadlines, a 40378
schedule for evaluating applications received, criteria for 40379
selecting grantees, and a process to notify successful and 40380
unsuccessful applicants.40381

       (E) The preparing students for education success fund is 40382
created in the state treasury. All moneys deposited into the fund 40383
shall be disbursed as grants under division (C) of this section.40384

       (F) Each grant recipient shall submit an annual report that 40385
provides a detailed accounting of the use of the grant money to 40386
the superintendent and the general assembly.40387

       Sec. 3302.01.  As used in this chapter:40388

       (A) "Performance index score" means the average of the totals 40389
derived from calculations for each subject area of English 40390
language arts, mathematics, science, and social studies of the 40391
weighted proportion of untested students and students scoring at 40392
each level of skill described in division (A)(2) of section 40393
3301.0710 of the Revised Code on the assessments prescribed by 40394
divisions (A) and (B)(1) of that section. The department of 40395
education shall assign weights such that students who do not take 40396
an assessment receive a weight of zero and students who take an 40397
assessment receive progressively larger weights dependent upon the 40398
level of skill attained on the assessment. The department shall 40399
assign additional weights to students who have been permitted to 40400
pass over a subject in accordance with a student acceleration 40401
policy adopted under section 3324.10 of the Revised Code. If such 40402
a student attains the proficient score prescribed under division 40403
(A)(2)(c) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or higher on an 40404
assessment, the department shall assign the student the weight 40405
prescribed for the next higher scoring level. If such a student 40406
attains the advanced score, prescribed under division (A)(2)(a) of 40407
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, on an assessment, the 40408
department shall assign to the student an additional proportional 40409
weight, as approved by the state board. For each school year that 40410
such a student's score is included in the performance index score 40411
and the student attains the proficient score on an assessment, 40412
that additional weight shall be assigned to the student on a 40413
subject-by-subject basis.40414

       Students shall be included in the "performance index score" 40415
in accordance with division (K)(2) of section 3302.03 of the 40416
Revised Code.40417

       (B) "Subgroup" means a subset of the entire student 40418
population of the state, a school district, or a school building 40419
and includes each of the following:40420

       (1) Major racial and ethnic groups;40421

       (2) Students with disabilities;40422

       (3) Economically disadvantaged students;40423

       (4) Limited English proficient students;40424

       (5) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 40425
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 40426
of the Revised Code. For students who are gifted in specific 40427
academic ability fields, the department shall use data for those 40428
students with specific academic ability in math and reading. If 40429
any other academic field is assessed, the department shall also 40430
include data for students with specific academic ability in that 40431
field.40432

       (6) Students in the lowest quintile for achievement 40433
statewide, as determined by a method prescribed by the state board 40434
of education.40435

       (C) "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001" includes the statutes 40436
codified at 20 U.S.C. 6301 et seq. and any amendments, waivers, or 40437
both thereto, rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to those 40438
statutes, guidance documents, and any other policy directives 40439
regarding implementation of that act issued by the United States 40440
department of education.40441

       (D) "Adequate yearly progress" means a measure of annual 40442
academic performance as calculated in accordance with the "No 40443
Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 40444

       (E) "Supplemental educational services" means additional 40445
academic assistance, such as tutoring, remediation, or other 40446
educational enrichment activities, that is conducted outside of 40447
the regular school day by a provider approved by the department in 40448
accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 40449

       (F) "Value-added progress dimension" means a measure of 40450
academic gain for a student or group of students over a specific 40451
period of time that is calculated by applying a statistical 40452
methodology to individual student achievement data derived from 40453
the achievement assessments prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the 40454
Revised Code. The "value-added progress dimension" shall be 40455
developed and implemented in accordance with section 3302.021 of 40456
the Revised Code.40457

       (G)(1) "Four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 40458
number of students who graduate in four years or less with a 40459
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 40460
form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class.40461

       (2) "Five-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 40462
number of students who graduate in five years with a regular high 40463
school diploma divided by the number of students who form the 40464
adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.40465

        (H) "State institution of higher education" has the same 40466
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.40467

       (I) "Annual measurable objectives" means a measure of student 40468
progress determined in accordance with an agreement between the 40469
department of education and the United States department of 40470
education.40471

       Sec. 3302.03.  Annually, not later than the fifteenth day of 40472
September or the preceding Friday when that day falls on a 40473
Saturday or Sunday, the department of education shall assign a 40474
letter grade for overall academic performance and for each 40475
separate performance measure for each school district, and each 40476
school building in a district, in accordance with this section. 40477
The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the 40478
Revised Code to establish performance criteria for each letter 40479
grade and prescribe a method by which the department assigns each 40480
letter grade. For a school building to which any of the 40481
performance measures do not apply, due to grade levels served by 40482
the building, the state board shall designate the performance 40483
measures that are applicable to the building and that must be 40484
calculated separately and used to calculate the building's overall 40485
grade. The department shall issue annual report cards reflecting 40486
the performance of each school district, each building within each 40487
district, and for the state as a whole using the performance 40488
measures and letter grade system described in this section. The 40489
department shall include on the report card for each district and 40490
each building within each district the most recent two-year trend 40491
data in student achievement for each subject and each grade.40492

       (A)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 40493
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 40494
of the following performance measures:40495

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 40496

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 40497
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 40498
possible points on the performance index system as adopted by the 40499
state board. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 40500
under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, the state board of 40501
education shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at 40502
least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a 40503
"C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."40504

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 40505
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 40506
state board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code and the 40507
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 40508
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40509
division (A)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 40510
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."40511

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates.40512

        In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40513
division (A)(1)(d), (B)(1)(d), or (C)(1)(d) of this section, the 40514
department shall designate a four-year adjusted cohort graduation 40515
rate of ninety-three per cent or higher for an "A" and a five-year 40516
cohort graduation rate of ninety-five per cent or higher for an 40517
"A."40518

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 40519
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 40520
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 40521
available. The letter grade assigned for this growth measure shall 40522
be as follows:40523

       (i) A score that is at least two standard errors of measure 40524
above the mean score shall be designated as an "A."40525

       (ii) A score that is at least one standard error of measure 40526
but less than two standard errors of measure above the mean score 40527
shall be designated as a "B."40528

       (iii) A score that is less than one standard error of measure 40529
above the mean score but greater than or equal to one standard 40530
error of measure below the mean score shall be designated as a 40531
"C."40532

       (iv) A score that is not greater than one standard error of 40533
measure below the mean score but is greater than or equal to two 40534
standard errors of measure below the mean score shall be 40535
designated as a "D."40536

       (v) A score that is not greater than two standard errors of 40537
measure below the mean score shall be designated as an "F."40538

       Whenever the value-added progress dimension is used as a 40539
graded performance measure, whether as an overall measure or as a 40540
measure of separate subgroups, the grades for the measure shall be 40541
calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) 40542
of this section.40543

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 40544
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 40545
subgroups: students identified as gifted, students with 40546
disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the 40547
lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis. Each 40548
subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.40549

       (2) Not later than April 30, 2013, the state board of 40550
education shall adopt a resolution describing the performance 40551
measures, benchmarks, and grading system for the 2012-2013 school 40552
year and, not later than June 30, 2013, shall adopt rules in 40553
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that prescribe 40554
the methods by which the performance measures under division 40555
(A)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter 40556
grade, including performance benchmarks for each letter grade.40557

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 40558
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 40559
measures under division (A)(1) of this section shall be assessed 40560
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 40561
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 40562
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 40563
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.40564

       (3) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 40565
district or building for the 2012-2013 school year.40566

       (B)(1) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall 40567
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 40568
of the following performance measures:40569

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 40570

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 40571
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 40572
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 40573
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 40574
under division (B)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 40575
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 40576
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 40577
than fifty per cent for an "F."40578

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 40579
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 40580
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 40581
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 40582
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40583
division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 40584
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."40585

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;40586

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 40587
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 40588
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 40589
available.40590

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 40591
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 40592
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 40593
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 40594
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 40595
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 40596
achievement on a statewide basis. Each subgroup shall be a 40597
separate graded measure.40598

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 40599
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 40600
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 40601
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 40602
assigning grades to districts and buildings for purposes of 40603
division (B)(1)(j) of this section. In adopting benchmarks for 40604
assigning letter grades under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of 40605
this section, the state board shall determine progress made based 40606
on the reduction in the percentage of students scoring below grade 40607
level, or below proficient, compared from year to year on the 40608
English language arts diagnostic assessments administered under 40609
section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code and the third grade English 40610
language arts assessment under section 3301.0710 of the Revised 40611
Code, as applicable. The state board shall designate for a "C" 40612
grade a value that is not lower than the statewide average value 40613
for this measure. No grade shall be issued under divisions 40614
(B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(j) of this section for a district or building 40615
in which less than five per cent of students have scored below 40616
grade level on the diagnostic assessment administered to students 40617
in kindergarten under division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the 40618
Revised Code.40619

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (B)(1) of 40620
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 40621
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 40622
letter grade:40623

       (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40624
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 40625
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 40626
better on advanced placement examinations;40627

        (b) The number of a district's or building's students who 40628
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 40629
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 40630
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 40631
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 40632
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 40633
other official document, either of which is issued by the 40634
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 40635
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 40636
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 40637
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 40638
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 40639
for completion of a degree.40640

       (c) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40641
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 40642
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 40643
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 40644
with standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 of 40645
the Revised Code;40646

        (d) The percentage of the district's or the building's 40647
students who receive industry credentials. The state board shall 40648
adopt criteria for acceptable industry credentials.40649

        (e) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40650
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 40651
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 40652
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations.40653

        (f) The percentage of the district's or building's students 40654
who receive an honors diploma under division (B) of section 40655
3313.61 of the Revised Code.40656

       (3) Not later than December 31, 2013, the state board shall 40657
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 40658
that prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under 40659
divisions (B)(1)(f) and (B)(1)(g) of this section will be assessed 40660
and assigned a letter grade, including performance benchmarks for 40661
each grade.40662

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 40663
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 40664
measures under division (B)(1) of this section shall be assessed 40665
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 40666
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 40667
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 40668
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.40669

       (4) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 40670
district or building for the 2013-2014 school year.40671

       (C)(1) For the 2014-2015 school year and each school year 40672
thereafter, the department shall issue grades as described in 40673
division (E) of this section for each of the following performance 40674
measures and an overall letter grade based on an aggregate of 40675
those measures:40676

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 40677

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 40678
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 40679
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 40680
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 40681
under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 40682
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 40683
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 40684
than fifty per cent for an "F."40685

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 40686
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 40687
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 40688
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 40689
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40690
division (C)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 40691
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."40692

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;40693

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 40694
dimension, or another measure of student academic progress if 40695
adopted by the state board, of a school district or building, for 40696
which the department shall use up to three years of value-added 40697
data as available.40698

       In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades for 40699
overall score on value-added progress dimension under division 40700
(C)(1)(e) of this section, the state board shall prohibit the 40701
assigning of a grade of "A" for that measure unless the district's 40702
or building's grade assigned for value-added progress dimension 40703
for all subgroups under division (C)(1)(i) of this section is a 40704
"B" or higher.40705

       For the metric prescribed by division (C)(1)(e) of this 40706
section, the state board may adopt a student academic progress 40707
measure to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. 40708
If the state board adopts such a measure, it also shall prescribe 40709
a method for assigning letter grades for the new measure that is 40710
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 40711
section.40712

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score of a school 40713
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 40714
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 40715
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 40716
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 40717
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 40718
achievement on a statewide basis, as determined by a method 40719
prescribed by the state board. Each subgroup shall be a separate 40720
graded measure.40721

       The state board may adopt student academic progress measures 40722
to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. If the 40723
state board adopts such measures, it also shall prescribe a method 40724
for assigning letter grades for the new measures that is 40725
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 40726
section.40727

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 40728
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 40729
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 40730
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 40731
assigning grades to a district or building for purposes of 40732
division (C)(1)(j) of this section. The state board shall 40733
designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the 40734
statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued 40735
under division (C)(1)(g) of this section for a district or 40736
building in which less than five per cent of students have scored 40737
below grade level on the kindergarten diagnostic assessment under 40738
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.40739

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (C)(1) of 40740
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 40741
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 40742
letter grade:40743

        (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40744
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 40745
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 40746
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 40747
with the standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 40748
of the Revised Code;40749

        (b) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40750
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 40751
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 40752
better on advanced placement examinations;40753

        (c) The number of a district's or building's students who 40754
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 40755
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 40756
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 40757
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 40758
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 40759
other official document, either of which is issued by the 40760
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 40761
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 40762
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 40763
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 40764
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 40765
for completion of a degree.40766

        (d) The percentage of the district's or building's students 40767
who receive an honor's diploma under division (B) of section 40768
3313.61 of the Revised Code;40769

        (e) The percentage of the district's or building's students 40770
who receive industry credentials;40771

        (f) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40772
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 40773
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 40774
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations;40775

        (g) The results of the college and career-ready assessments 40776
administered under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the 40777
Revised Code.40778

        (3) The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 40779
119. of the Revised Code that establish a method to assign an 40780
overall grade for a school district or school building for the 40781
2014-2015 school year and each school year thereafter. The rules 40782
shall group the performance measures in divisions (C)(1) and (2) 40783
of this section into the following components:40784

        (a) Gap closing, which shall include the performance measure 40785
in division (C)(1)(a) of this section;40786

        (b) Achievement, which shall include the performance measures 40787
in divisions (C)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;40788

        (c) Progress, which shall include the performance measures in 40789
divisions (C)(1)(e) and (i) of this section;40790

        (d) Graduation, which shall include the performance measure 40791
in division (C)(1)(d) of this section;40792

        (e) Kindergarten through third-grade literacy, which shall 40793
include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(k) of this 40794
section;40795

        (f) Prepared for success, which shall include the performance 40796
measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of 40797
this section. The state board shall develop a method to determine 40798
a grade for the component in division (C)(3)(f) of this section 40799
using the performance measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), 40800
(d), (e), and (f) of this section. When available, the state board 40801
may incorporate the performance measure under division (C)(2)(g) 40802
of this section into the component under division (C)(3)(f) of 40803
this section. When determining the overall grade for the prepared 40804
for success component prescribed by division (C)(3)(f) of this 40805
section, no individual student shall be counted in more than one 40806
performance measure. However, if a student qualifies for more than 40807
one performance measure in the component, the state board may, in 40808
its method to determine a grade for the component, specify an 40809
additional weight for such a student that is not greater than or 40810
equal to 1.0. In determining the overall score under division 40811
(C)(3)(f) of this section, the state board shall ensure that the 40812
pool of students included in the performance measures aggregated 40813
under that division are all of the students included in the four- 40814
and five-year adjusted graduation cohort.40815

        In the rules adopted under division (C)(3) of this section, 40816
the state board shall adopt a method for determining a grade for 40817
each component in divisions (C)(3)(a) to (f) of this section. The 40818
state board also shall establish a method to assign an overall 40819
grade of "A," "B," "C," "D," or "F" using the grades assigned for 40820
each component. The method the state board adopts for assigning an 40821
overall grade shall give equal weight to the components in 40822
divisions (C)(3)(b) and (c) of this section.40823

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 40824
of rules to prescribe the methods for calculating the overall 40825
grade for the report card, as required by this division, the 40826
department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing 40827
committees of the house of representatives and the senate that 40828
consider education legislation describing the format for the 40829
report card, weights that will be assigned to the components of 40830
the overall grade, and the method for calculating the overall 40831
grade.40832

       (D) Not later than July 1, 2015, the state board shall 40833
develop a measure of student academic progress for high school 40834
students. Beginning with the report card for the 2015-2016 school 40835
year, each school district and applicable school building shall be 40836
assigned a separate letter grade for this measure and the 40837
district's or building's grade for that measure shall be included 40838
in determining the district's or building's overall letter grade. 40839
This measure shall be included within the measure prescribed in 40840
division (C)(2)(c) of this section in the calculation for the 40841
overall letter grade.40842

       (E) The letter grades assigned to a school district or 40843
building under this section shall be as follows:40844

       (1) "A" for a district or school making excellent progress;40845

       (2) "B" for a district or school making above average 40846
progress;40847

       (3) "C" for a district or school making average progress;40848

       (4) "D" for a district or school making below average 40849
progress;40850

       (5) "F" for a district or school failing to meet minimum 40851
progress.40852

        (F) When reporting data on student achievement and progress, 40853
the department shall disaggregate that data according to the 40854
following categories: 40855

       (1) Performance of students by grade-level; 40856

       (2) Performance of students by race and ethnic group; 40857

       (3) Performance of students by gender; 40858

       (4) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 40859
enrolled in a district or school for three or more years; 40860

       (5) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 40861
enrolled in a district or school for more than one year and less 40862
than three years; 40863

       (6) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 40864
enrolled in a district or school for one year or less; 40865

       (7) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40866
economically disadvantaged; 40867

       (8) Performance of students grouped by those who are enrolled 40868
in a conversion community school established under Chapter 3314. 40869
of the Revised Code; 40870

       (9) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40871
classified as limited English proficient; 40872

       (10) Performance of students grouped by those who have 40873
disabilities; 40874

       (11) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40875
classified as migrants; 40876

       (12) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40877
identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and the 40878
specific academic ability fields of reading and math pursuant to 40879
Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. In disaggregating specific 40880
academic ability fields for gifted students, the department shall 40881
use data for those students with specific academic ability in math 40882
and reading. If any other academic field is assessed, the 40883
department shall also include data for students with specific 40884
academic ability in that field as well.40885

       (13) Performance of students grouped by those who perform in 40886
the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis, as 40887
determined by a method prescribed by the state board. 40888

       The department may disaggregate data on student performance 40889
according to other categories that the department determines are 40890
appropriate. To the extent possible, the department shall 40891
disaggregate data on student performance according to any 40892
combinations of two or more of the categories listed in divisions 40893
(F)(1) to (13) of this section that it deems relevant. 40894

       In reporting data pursuant to division (F) of this section, 40895
the department shall not include in the report cards any data 40896
statistical in nature that is statistically unreliable or that 40897
could result in the identification of individual students. For 40898
this purpose, the department shall not report student performance 40899
data for any group identified in division (F) of this section that 40900
contains less than ten students. If the department does not report 40901
student performance data for a group because it contains less than 40902
ten students, the department shall indicate on the report card 40903
that is why data was not reported.40904

       (G) The department may include with the report cards any 40905
additional education and fiscal performance data it deems 40906
valuable. 40907

       (H) The department shall include on each report card a list 40908
of additional information collected by the department that is 40909
available regarding the district or building for which the report 40910
card is issued. When available, such additional information shall 40911
include student mobility data disaggregated by race and 40912
socioeconomic status, college enrollment data, and the reports 40913
prepared under section 3302.031 of the Revised Code. 40914

       The department shall maintain a site on the world wide web. 40915
The report card shall include the address of the site and shall 40916
specify that such additional information is available to the 40917
public at that site. The department shall also provide a copy of 40918
each item on the list to the superintendent of each school 40919
district. The district superintendent shall provide a copy of any 40920
item on the list to anyone who requests it. 40921

       (I) Division (I) of this section does not apply to conversion 40922
community schools that primarily enroll students between sixteen 40923
and twenty-two years of age who dropped out of high school or are 40924
at risk of dropping out of high school due to poor attendance, 40925
disciplinary problems, or suspensions. 40926

       (1) For any district that sponsors a conversion community 40927
school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the department 40928
shall combine data regarding the academic performance of students 40929
enrolled in the community school with comparable data from the 40930
schools of the district for the purpose of determining the 40931
performance of the district as a whole on the report card issued 40932
for the district under this section or section 3302.033 of the 40933
Revised Code. 40934

       (2) Any district that leases a building to a community school 40935
located in the district or that enters into an agreement with a 40936
community school located in the district whereby the district and 40937
the school endorse each other's programs may elect to have data 40938
regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in the 40939
community school combined with comparable data from the schools of 40940
the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the 40941
district as a whole on the district report card. Any district that 40942
so elects shall annually file a copy of the lease or agreement 40943
with the department. 40944

       (3) Any municipal school district, as defined in section 40945
3311.71 of the Revised Code, that sponsors a community school 40946
located within the district's territory, or that enters into an 40947
agreement with a community school located within the district's 40948
territory whereby the district and the community school endorse 40949
each other's programs, may exercise either or both of the 40950
following elections:40951

        (a) To have data regarding the academic performance of 40952
students enrolled in that community school combined with 40953
comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose 40954
of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the 40955
district's report card;40956

        (b) To have the number of students attending that community 40957
school noted separately on the district's report card.40958

       The election authorized under division (I)(3)(a) of this 40959
section is subject to approval by the governing authority of the 40960
community school.40961

       Any municipal school district that exercises an election to 40962
combine or include data under division (I)(3) of this section, by 40963
the first day of October of each year, shall file with the 40964
department documentation indicating eligibility for that election, 40965
as required by the department.40966

       (J) The department shall include on each report card the 40967
percentage of teachers in the district or building who are highly 40968
qualified, as defined by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 40969
and a comparison of that percentage with the percentages of such 40970
teachers in similar districts and buildings. 40971

       (K)(1) In calculating English language arts, mathematics, 40972
social studies, or science assessment passage rates used to 40973
determine school district or building performance under this 40974
section, the department shall include all students taking an 40975
assessment with accommodation or to whom an alternate assessment 40976
is administered pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of section 40977
3301.0711 of the Revised Code. 40978

        (2) In calculating performance index scores, rates of 40979
achievement on the performance indicators established by the state 40980
board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, and annual 40981
measurable objectives for determining adequate yearly progress for 40982
school districts and buildings under this section, the department 40983
shall do all of the following: 40984

       (a) Include for each district or building only those students 40985
who are included in the ADM certified for the first full school 40986
week of October and are continuously enrolled in the district or 40987
building through the time of the spring administration of any 40988
assessment prescribed by division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of section 40989
3301.0710 of the Revised Code that is administered to the 40990
student's grade level; 40991

       (b) Include cumulative totals from both the fall and spring 40992
administrations of the third grade English language arts 40993
achievement assessment; 40994

       (c) Except as required by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 40995
2001," exclude for each district or building any limited English 40996
proficient student who has been enrolled in United States schools 40997
for less than one full school year.40998

       (L) Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year and at least 40999
once every three years thereafter, the state board of education 41000
shall review and may adjust the benchmarks for assigning letter 41001
grades to the performance measures and components prescribed under 41002
divisions (C)(3) and (D) of this section.41003

       Sec. 3302.22.  (A) The governor's effective and efficient 41004
schools recognition program is hereby created. Each year, the 41005
governor shall recognize, in a manner deemed appropriate by the 41006
governor, the top ten per cent of all public schools in this 41007
state, including schools of city, exempted village, and local 41008
school districts, or joint vocational school districts, community 41009
schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, and 41010
STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code.41011

       (B) The top ten per cent of schools shall be determined by 41012
the department of education according to standards established by 41013
the department, in consultation with the governor's office of 21st 41014
century education. The standards for recognition for each type of 41015
school may vary depending upon the unique characteristics of that 41016
type of school. The standards shall include, but need not be 41017
limited to, both of the following, provided that sufficient data 41018
is available for each school:41019

       (1) Student performance, as determined by factors including41020
that may include, but not be limited to, performance indicators 41021
under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, report cards issued 41022
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, performance index score 41023
rankings under section 3302.21 of the Revised Code, and any other 41024
statewide or national assessment or student performance 41025
recognition program the department selects;41026

       (2) Fiscal performance, includingwhich may include41027
cost-effective measures taken by the school.41028

       (C) If applicable, the standards under divisions (B)(1) and 41029
(2) of this section may be applied at the school building or 41030
district level, depending upon the quality and availability of 41031
data.41032

       Sec. 3302.26. (A) As used in this section:41033

       (1) "Expenditure per equivalent pupils" is the total 41034
operating expenditures of a school district divided by the measure 41035
of equivalent pupils.41036

       (2) "Measure of equivalent pupils" is the total number of 41037
students in a school district adjusted for the relative 41038
differences in costs associated with the unique characteristics 41039
and needs of each category of pupil.41040

       (B) The department of education shall create a performance 41041
management section on the department's public web site. The 41042
performance management section shall include information on 41043
academic and financial performance metrics for each school 41044
district to assist schools and districts in providing an effective 41045
and efficient delivery of educational services. The section shall 41046
include a graph that illustrates the relationship between a 41047
district's academic performance, as measured by the performance 41048
index score, and its expenditure per equivalent pupils as compared 41049
to similar districts. The section shall include statistics of 41050
academic and financial performance measures for each school 41051
district to allow for a comparison and benchmarking between 41052
districts.41053

       (C) The department may contract with an independent 41054
organization to develop and host the performance management 41055
section of its web site.41056

       Sec. 3304.231.  There is hereby created a brain injury 41057
advisory committee, which shall advise the administrator of the 41058
rehabilitation services commission and the brain injury program 41059
with regard to unmet needs of survivors of brain injury, 41060
development of programs for survivors and their families, 41061
establishment of training programs for health care professionals, 41062
and any other matter within the province of the brain injury 41063
program. The committee shall consist of not fewer than twenty41064
nineteen and not more than twenty-twotwenty-one members as 41065
follows:41066

       (A) Not fewer than ten and not more than twelve members 41067
appointed by the administrator of the rehabilitation services 41068
commission, including all of the following: a survivor of brain 41069
injury, a relative of a survivor of brain injury, a licensed 41070
physician recommended by the Ohio chapter of the American college 41071
of emergency physicians, a licensed physician recommended by the 41072
Ohio state medical association, one other health care 41073
professional, a rehabilitation professional, an individual who 41074
represents the brain injury association of Ohio, and not fewer 41075
than three nor more than five individuals who shall represent the 41076
public;41077

       (B) The directors of the departments of health, alcohol and 41078
drug addiction servicesmental health and drug addiction services, 41079
developmental disabilities, mental health, job and family 41080
services, aging, and public safety; the medicaid director; the 41081
administrator of workers' compensation; the superintendent of 41082
public instruction; and the administrator of the rehabilitation 41083
services commission. Any of the officials specified in this 41084
division may designate an individual to serve in the official's 41085
place as a member of the committee.41086

        Terms of office of the appointed members shall be two years. 41087
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 41088
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 41089
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 41090
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 41091
as a member for the remainder of that term.41092

       Members of the committee shall serve without compensation, 41093
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 41094
in the performance of their duties.41095

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The Ohio board of regents shall designate 41096
the entities that are eligible to provide investment options under 41097
alternative retirement plans maintained by public institutions of 41098
higher education. The board shall accept and review applications 41099
from entities seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not 41100
designate an entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the 41101
requirements described in division (B) of this section.41102

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 41103
must meet both of the following requirements:41104

       (1) The entity must be authorized to conduct business in this 41105
state with regard to the investment options to be offered under an 41106
alternative retirement plan maintained by a public institution of 41107
higher education.41108

       (2) The entity must offermeet one of the following 41109
requirements:41110

       (a) Have provided investment options for not less than ten 41111
years under alternative retirement plans maintained by public 41112
institutions of higher education in this state;41113

       (b) Offer the same or similar investment options under 41114
alternative retirement plans, optional retirement plans, or 41115
similar types of plans with respect to which all of the following 41116
apply:41117

       (a)(i) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 41118
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).41119

       (b)(ii) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 41120
education in at least ten other states.41121

       (c)(iii) The plans are established as primary retirement 41122
plans that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable 41123
state retirement system.41124

       (C) In determining whether to designate an entity as a 41125
vendor, the board of regents shall identify, consider, and 41126
evaluate all of the following:41127

       (1) The experience of the entity in providing in this state 41128
or other states investment options under alternative retirement 41129
plans, optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans that 41130
meet the requirements of division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of this 41131
section, as applicable;41132

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the entity in recruiting 41133
eligible employees to select that entity for purposes of 41134
participating in an alternative retirement plan and in retaining 41135
those employees' accounts;41136

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 41137
investment options to the electing employees;41138

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 41139
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;41140

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 41141
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 41142
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 41143
by the entity;41144

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 41145
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 41146
beneficiaries;41147

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 41148
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 41149
disclose those fees and expenses;41150

       (8) The rights and benefits to be provided under the 41151
investment options;41152

       (9) The capability of the entity to provide the rights and 41153
benefits under the investment options;41154

       (10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 41155
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;41156

       (11) Any other matters the board of regents considers 41157
relevant.41158

       (D) The board of regents shall conduct periodic reviews of 41159
each entity designated as a vendor and the investment options 41160
being offered to ensure that the requirements and purposes of this 41161
chapter are being met. The reviews of a vendor shall occur not 41162
less frequently than once every three years.41163

       If it finds that the vendor is not in compliance with the 41164
requirements of this chapter or the vendor is not satisfactorily 41165
meeting the purposes of this chapter, the board shall rescind the 41166
vendor's designation.41167

       (E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the Revised 41168
Code, designation of a vendor or the execution of any agreement 41169
under this chapter is not subject to competitive bidding under 41170
those sections.41171

       Sec. 3307.51.  (A) The state teachers retirement board shall 41172
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 41173
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 41174
funding requirements of the STRS defined benefit plan. The actuary 41175
shall complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial 41176
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 41177
of the American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 41178
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:41179

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;41180

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 41181
used in the valuation;41182

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 41183
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 41184
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 41185
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 41186
contributing to the retirement system;41187

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 41188
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 41189
accrued pension liabilities;41190

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 41191
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 41192
the last annual actuarial valuation;41193

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 41194
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 41195
objectives established by the board.41196

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 41197
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 41198
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 41199
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 41200
upon its availability and not later than the first day of January 41201
following the year for which the valuation was made.41202

       (B) At such times as the state teachers retirement board 41203
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 41204
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 41205
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 41206
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 41207
the system, and other system retirants as defined in section 41208
3307.35 of the Revised Code to update the actuarial assumptions 41209
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 41210
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 41211
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 41212
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 41213
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 41214
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 41215
shall include all of the following:41216

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 41217
experience observed over the period of the investigation;41218

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 41219
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 41220
this section;41221

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 41222
changes in actuarial assumptions.41223

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 41224
study council and the standing committees of the house of 41225
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 41226
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 41227
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.41228

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 41229
other studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of 41230
the normal and deficiency rates of contribution provided by 41231
section 3307.28 of the Revised Code, and those rates may be 41232
adjusted by the board, as recommended by the actuary, effective as 41233
of the first of any year thereafter.41234

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 41235
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 41236
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 41237
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 41238
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 41239
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 41240
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 41241
which shall include all of the following:41242

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 41243
evaluated;41244

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 41245
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;41246

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 41247
in the report;41248

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 41249
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 41250
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 41251
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 41252
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 41253
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 41254
not to exceed thirty years;41255

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 41256
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 41257
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 41258
board.41259

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 41260
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 41261
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 41262
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 41263
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 41264
retirement study council.41265

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 41266
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 41267
provision of benefits under section 3307.39 of the Revised Code. 41268
The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and the thirtieth 41269
day of June of each year thereafter. The report shall include the 41270
following:41271

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 41272
provided;41273

       (2) A summary of the benefits;41274

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 41275
benefits;41276

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 41277
the benefits;41278

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 41279
funding method used to provide the benefits;41280

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the 41281
provisions of benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;41282

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 41283
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 41284
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 41285
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 41286
fiscal year;41287

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 41288
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 41289
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 41290
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;41291

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 41292
comparability of the report required under this division;41293

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 41294
section 3307.39 of the Revised Code.41295

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 41296
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 41297
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 41298
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 41299
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 41300
December following the year for which the report was made.41301

       Sec. 3309.21.  (A) The school employees retirement board 41302
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 41303
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 41304
and funding requirements of the school employees retirement system 41305
as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 41306
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 41307
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 41308
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 41309
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:41310

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;41311

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 41312
used in the valuation;41313

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 41314
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 41315
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 41316
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 41317
contributing to the retirement system;41318

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 41319
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 41320
accrued pension liabilities;41321

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 41322
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 41323
the last annual actuarial valuation;41324

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 41325
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 41326
objectives established by the board.41327

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 41328
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 41329
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 41330
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 41331
upon its availability and not later than the first day of May 41332
following the year for which the valuation was made.41333

       (B) At such times as the school employees retirement board 41334
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 41335
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 41336
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 41337
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 41338
the retirement system, and SERS retirants and other system 41339
retirants as defined in section 3309.341 of the Revised Code to 41340
update the actuarial assumptions used in the actuarial valuation 41341
required by division (A) of this section. The actuary shall 41342
prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The report shall 41343
be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial assumptions 41344
shall be made in accordance with the actuarial standards of 41345
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 41346
American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all of the 41347
following:41348

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 41349
experience observed over the period of the investigation;41350

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 41351
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 41352
this section;41353

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 41354
changes in actuarial assumptions.41355

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 41356
study council and the standing committees of the house of 41357
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 41358
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 41359
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.41360

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 41361
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 41362
rates of contribution as provided by section 3309.49 of the 41363
Revised Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as 41364
recommended by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year 41365
thereafter.41366

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 41367
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 41368
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 41369
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 41370
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 41371
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 41372
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 41373
which shall include all of the following:41374

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 41375
evaluated;41376

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 41377
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;41378

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 41379
in the report;41380

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 41381
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 41382
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 41383
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 41384
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 41385
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 41386
not to exceed thirty years;41387

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 41388
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 41389
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 41390
board.41391

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 41392
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 41393
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 41394
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 41395
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 41396
retirement study council.41397

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 41398
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 41399
provision of benefits under sections 3309.375 and 3309.69 of the 41400
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and 41401
the thirtieth day of June of each year thereafter. The report 41402
shall include the following:41403

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 41404
provided;41405

       (2) A summary of the benefits;41406

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 41407
benefits;41408

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 41409
the benefits;41410

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 41411
funding method used to provide the benefits;41412

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 41413
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;41414

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 41415
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 41416
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 41417
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 41418
fiscal year;41419

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 41420
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 41421
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 41422
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;41423

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 41424
comparability of the report required under this division;41425

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (E) of 41426
section 3309.69 of the Revised Code.41427

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 41428
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 41429
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 41430
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 41431
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 41432
December following the year for which the report was made.41433

       Sec. 3310.01.  As used in sections 3310.01 to 3310.17 of the 41434
Revised Code:41435

       (A) "Chartered nonpublic school" means a nonpublic school 41436
that holds a valid charter issued by the state board of education 41437
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and meets the standards 41438
established for such schools in rules adopted by the state board.41439

       (B) An "eligible student" is a student who satisfies the 41440
conditions specified in section 3310.03 or 3310.032 of the Revised 41441
Code.41442

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 41443
the Revised Code.41444

       (D) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 41445
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 41446
3313.65 of the Revised Code.41447

       (E) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 41448
of the Revised Code.41449

       Sec. 3310.02. (A) The educational choice scholarship pilot 41450
program is hereby established. Under the program, the department 41451
of education annually shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 41452
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 41453
Revised Code for up to the following number of eligible students:41454

       (1) Thirty thousand in the 2011-2012 school year;41455

       (2) Sixty thousand in the 2012-2013 school year and 41456
thereafter. 41457

       (B) If the number of students who apply for a scholarship 41458
exceeds the number of scholarships available under division (A) of 41459
this section for the applicable school year, the department shall 41460
award scholarships in the following order of priority:41461

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships in 41462
the prior school year;41463

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41464
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as 41465
defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, who qualify under 41466
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 41467
of students described in division (B)(2) of this section who apply 41468
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 41469
after awards are made under division (B)(1) of this section, the 41470
department shall select students described in division (B)(2) of 41471
this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.41472

        (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under 41473
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 41474
of students described in division (B)(3) of this section who apply 41475
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 41476
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 41477
section, the department shall select students described in 41478
division (B)(3) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41479
scholarships.41480

       (4) Fourth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41481
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 41482
qualify under division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised 41483
Code. If the number of students described in division (B)(4) of 41484
this section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 41485
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 41486
(B)(1) to (3) of this section, the department shall select 41487
students described in division (B)(4) of this section by lot to 41488
receive any remaining scholarships.41489

       (5) Fifth, to other eligible students who qualify under 41490
division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the 41491
number of students described in division (B)(5) of this section 41492
who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of available 41493
scholarships after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (4) 41494
of this section, the department shall select students described in 41495
division (B)(5) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41496
scholarships.41497

       (6) Sixth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41498
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 41499
qualify under division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 41500
If the number of students described in division (B)(6) of this 41501
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 41502
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 41503
(B)(1) to (5) of this section, the department shall select 41504
students described in division (B)(6) of this section by lot to 41505
receive any remaining scholarships.41506

        (7) Seventh, to other eligible students who qualify under 41507
division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 41508
of students described in division (B)(7) of this section who apply 41509
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 41510
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this 41511
section, the department shall select students described in 41512
division (B)(7) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41513
scholarships. 41514

       Sec. 3310.03.  A student is an "eligible student" for 41515
purposes of the educational choice scholarship pilot program if 41516
the student's resident district is not a school district in which 41517
the pilot project scholarship program is operating under sections 41518
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student satisfies 41519
one of the conditions in division (A), (B), or (C), or (D) of this 41520
section:41521

       (A)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 41522
by the student's resident district that, on the report card issued 41523
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the 41524
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 41525
sought, did not receive a rating as described in division (G)(H)41526
of this section, and to which any or a combination of any of the 41527
following apply for two of the three most recent report cards 41528
published prior to the first day of July of the school year for 41529
which a scholarship is sought:41530

       (a) The building was declared to be in a state of academic 41531
emergency or academic watch under section 3302.03 of the Revised 41532
Code as that section existed prior to the effective date of this 41533
amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41534

       (b) The building received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 41535
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 41536
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 41537
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 41538
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 41539
school year, or both; or if the building serves only grades ten 41540
through twelve, the building received a grade of "D" or "F" for 41541
the performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) 41542
of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year 41543
adjusted cohort graduation rate of less than seventy-five per 41544
cent.41545

        (c) The building received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 41546
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 41547
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 41548
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 41549
school year or any school year thereafter.41550

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten in the 41551
school year for which a scholarship is sought and otherwise would 41552
be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a school 41553
building described in division (A)(1) of this section.41554

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 41555
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 41556
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 41557
described in division (A)(1) of this section.41558

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 41559
the student's resident district or in a community school 41560
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 41561
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 41562
school building described in division (A)(1) of this section in 41563
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.41564

       (5) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten in the 41565
school year for which a scholarship is sought, or is enrolled in a 41566
community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 41567
Code, and all of the following apply to the student's resident 41568
district:41569

        (a) The district has in force an intradistrict open 41570
enrollment policy under which no student in kindergarten or the 41571
community school student's grade level, respectively, is 41572
automatically assigned to a particular school building;41573

       (b) In the most recent rating published prior to the first 41574
day of July of the school year for which scholarship is sought, 41575
the district did not receive a rating described in division (G)(H)41576
of this section, and in at least two of the three most recent 41577
report cards published prior to the first day of July of that 41578
school year, any or a combination of the following apply to the 41579
district:41580

        (i) The district was declared to be in a state of academic 41581
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 41582
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41583

        (ii) The district received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 41584
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 41585
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 41586
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 41587
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 41588
school year, or both.41589

        (c) The district received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 41590
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 41591
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 41592
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 41593
school year or any school year thereafter.41594

       (B)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 41595
by the student's resident district and to which both of the 41596
following apply:41597

       (a) The building was ranked, for at least two of the three 41598
most recent rankings published under section 3302.21 of the 41599
Revised Code prior to the first day of July of the school year for 41600
which a scholarship is sought, in the lowest ten per cent of all 41601
public school buildings according to performance index score under 41602
section 3302.21 of the Revised Code.41603

       (b) The building was not declared to be excellent or 41604
effective, or the equivalent of such ratings as determined by the 41605
department of education, under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 41606
in the most recent rating published prior to the first day of July 41607
of the school year for which a scholarship is sought.41608

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten in the 41609
school year for which a scholarship is sought and otherwise would 41610
be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a school 41611
building described in division (B)(1) of this section.41612

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 41613
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 41614
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 41615
described in division (B)(1) of this section.41616

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 41617
the student's resident district or in a community school 41618
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 41619
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 41620
school building described in division (B)(1) of this section in 41621
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.41622

       (C) The student is enrolled in a nonpublic school at the time 41623
the school is granted a charter by the state board of education 41624
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and the student meets 41625
the standards of division (B) of section 3310.031 of the Revised 41626
Code.41627

        (D) For the 2016-2017 school year and each school year 41628
thereafter, the student is in any of grades kindergarten through 41629
three, is enrolled in a school building that is operated by the 41630
student's resident district, and to which both of the following 41631
apply:41632

        (1) The building, in at least two of the three most recent 41633
ratings of school buildings published prior to the first day of 41634
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought, 41635
received a grade of "D" or "F" for making progress in improving 41636
literacy in grades kindergarten through three under division 41637
(B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;41638

        (2) The building did not receive a grade of "A" for making 41639
progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through 41640
three under division (B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of 41641
the Revised Code in the most recent rating published prior to the 41642
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 41643
sought.41644

        (E) A student who receives a scholarship under the 41645
educational choice scholarship pilot program remains an eligible 41646
student and may continue to receive scholarships in subsequent 41647
school years until the student completes grade twelve, so long as 41648
all of the following apply:41649

       (1) The student's resident district remains the same, or the 41650
student transfers to a new resident district and otherwise would 41651
be assigned in the new resident district to a school building 41652
described in division (A)(1) or, (B)(1), or (D) of this section; 41653

       (2) The student takes each assessment prescribed for the 41654
student's grade level under section 3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the 41655
Revised Code while enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school;41656

       (3) In each school year that the student is enrolled in a 41657
chartered nonpublic school, the student is absent from school for 41658
not more than twenty days that the school is open for instruction, 41659
not including excused absences.41660

        (E)(F)(1) The department shall cease awarding first-time 41661
scholarships pursuant to divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section 41662
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 41663
of school buildings published under section 3302.03 of the Revised 41664
Code prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to 41665
meet the criteria in division (A)(1) of this section. The 41666
department shall cease awarding first-time scholarships pursuant 41667
to division (A)(5) of this section with respect to a school 41668
district that, in the most recent ratings of school districts 41669
published under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 41670
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 41671
in division (A)(5) of this section. 41672

       (2) The department shall cease awarding first-time 41673
scholarships pursuant to divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section 41674
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 41675
of school buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 41676
prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet 41677
the criteria in division (B)(1) of this section. 41678

       (3) The department shall cease awarding first-time 41679
scholarships pursuant to division (D) of this section with respect 41680
to a school building that, in the most recent ratings of school 41681
buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 41682
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 41683
in division (D) of this section.41684

        (4) However, students who have received scholarships in the 41685
prior school year remain eligible students pursuant to division 41686
(D)(E) of this section.41687

       (F)(G) The state board of education shall adopt rules 41688
defining excused absences for purposes of division (D)(E)(3) of 41689
this section.41690

       (G)(H)(1) A student who satisfies only the conditions 41691
prescribed in divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section shall not be 41692
eligible for a scholarship if the student's resident building 41693
meets any of the following in the most recent rating under section 41694
3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the first day of 41695
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought:41696

        (a) The building has an overall designation of excellent or 41697
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 41698
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41699

        (b) For the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 school year or both, the 41700
building has a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance index score 41701
under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the 41702
Revised Code and for the value-added progress dimension under 41703
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 41704
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 41705
the building received a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance 41706
index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 41707
3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year adjusted cohort 41708
graduation rate of greater than or equal to seventy-five per cent.41709

        (c) For the 2014-2015 school year or any school year 41710
thereafter, the building has a grade of "A" or "B" under division 41711
(C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade of "A" 41712
for the value-added progress dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of 41713
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code; or if the building serves 41714
only grades ten through twelve, the building received a grade of 41715
"A" or "B" for the performance index score under division 41716
(C)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a 41717
four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate of greater than or equal 41718
to seventy-five per cent.41719

        (2) A student who satisfies only the conditions prescribed in 41720
division (A)(5) of this section shall not be eligible for a 41721
scholarship if the student's resident district meets any of the 41722
following in the most recent rating under section 3302.03 of the 41723
Revised Code published prior to the first day of July of the 41724
school year for which a scholarship is sought:41725

        (a) The district has an overall designation of excellent or 41726
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 41727
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41728

        (b) The district has a grade of "A" or "B" for the 41729
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 41730
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 41731
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 41732
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 and 41733
2013-2014 school years.41734

        (c) The district has an overall grade of "A" or "B" under 41735
division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade 41736
of "A" for the value-added progress dimension under division 41737
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 41738
school year or any school year thereafter.41739

       Sec. 3310.032.  (A) A student is an "eligible student" for 41740
purposes of the expansion of the educational choice scholarship 41741
pilot program under this section if the student's resident 41742
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 41743
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 41744
3313.979 of the Revised Code, the student is not eligible for an 41745
educational choice scholarship under section 3310.03 of the 41746
Revised Code, and the student's family income is at or below two 41747
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 41748
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.41749

       (B) In each fiscal year for which the general assembly 41750
appropriates funds for purposes of this section, the department of 41751
education shall pay scholarships to attend chartered nonpublic 41752
schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the Revised Code. 41753
The number of scholarships awarded under this section shall not 41754
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 41755
the general assembly for this purpose.41756

       (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded as 41757
follows:41758

       (1) For the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 41759
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time;41760

       (2) For each subsequent school year, scholarships shall be 41761
awarded to eligible students in the next grade level above the 41762
highest grade level awarded in the preceding school year, in 41763
addition to the grade levels for which students received 41764
scholarships in the preceding school year.41765

       (D) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 41766
scholarship under this section exceeds the scholarships available 41767
based on the appropriation for this section, the department shall 41768
award scholarships in the following order of priority:41769

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships 41770
under this section in the prior school year;41771

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41772
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. If 41773
the number of students described in division (D)(2) of this 41774
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 41775
available scholarships after awards are made under division (D)(1) 41776
of this section, the department shall select students described in 41777
division (D)(2) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41778
scholarships.41779

       (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under this 41780
section. If the number of students described in division (D)(3) of 41781
this section exceeds the number of available scholarships after 41782
awards are made under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of this section, 41783
the department shall select students described in division (D)(3) 41784
of this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.41785

       (E) A student who receives a scholarship under this section 41786
remains an eligible student and may continue to receive 41787
scholarships under this section in subsequent school years until 41788
the student completes grade twelve, so long as the student 41789
satisfies the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of 41790
section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.41791

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 41792
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current school 41793
year and subsequent school years even if the student's family 41794
income rises above the amount specified in division (A) of this 41795
section, provided the student remains enrolled in a chartered 41796
nonpublic school.41797

       Sec. 3310.035. (A) A student who is eligible for an 41798
educational choice scholarship under both sections 3310.03 and 41799
3310.032 of the Revised Code, and applies for a scholarship for 41800
the first time after the effective date of this section shall 41801
receive a scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.41802

        (B) A student who is eligible under both sections 3310.03 and 41803
3310.032 of the Revised Code and received a scholarship in the 41804
previous school year shall continue to receive the scholarship 41805
under the section from which the student received the scholarship 41806
in the previous school year, so long as:41807

        (1) The number of students who apply for a scholarship does 41808
not exceed the number of scholarships available under division (A) 41809
of section 3310.02 of the Revised Code.41810

        (2) A student who receives a scholarship under section 41811
3310.03 of the Revised Code satisfies with the conditions 41812
specified in divisions (E)(1) to (3) of that section, and a 41813
student who receives a scholarship under section 3310.032 41814
satisfies with the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and 41815
(3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 41816

       Sec. 3310.05.  A scholarship under the educational choice 41817
scholarship pilot program is not available for any student whose 41818
resident district is a school district in which the pilot project 41819
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 41820
3313.979 of the Revised Code. The two pilot programs are separate 41821
and distinct, with differing eligibility criteria. The pilot 41822
project scholarship program operating under sections 3313.974 to 41823
3313.979 of the Revised Code is a district-wide program that may 41824
award scholarships to students who do not attend district schools 41825
that face academic challenges, whereas the educational choice 41826
scholarship pilot program established under sections 3310.01 to 41827
3310.17 of the Revised Code is limited to students of individual 41828
district school buildings that face academic challenges and to 41829
students from low-income families.41830

       Sec. 3310.06.  It is the policy adopted by the general 41831
assembly that the educational choice scholarship pilot program 41832
shall be construed as one of several educational options available 41833
for students enrolled in persistently low-performing school 41834
buildings or for students from low-income families. Students may 41835
be enrolled in the schools of the student's resident district, in 41836
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 41837
Code, in the schools of another school district pursuant to an 41838
open enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the 41839
Revised Code, in a chartered nonpublic school with or without a 41840
scholarship under the educational choice scholarship pilot 41841
program, or in other schools as the law may provide.41842

       Sec. 3310.08. (A) The amount paid for an eligible student 41843
under the educational choice scholarship pilot program shall be 41844
the lesser of the tuition of the chartered nonpublic school in 41845
which the student is enrolled or the maximum amount prescribed in 41846
section 3310.09 of the Revised Code.41847

        (B)(1) The department of education shall pay to the parent of 41848
each eligible student for whom a scholarship is awarded under the 41849
program, or to the student if at least eighteen years of age, 41850
periodic partial payments of the scholarship.41851

        (2) The department shall proportionately reduce or terminate 41852
the payments for any student who withdraws from a chartered 41853
nonpublic school prior to the end of the school year.41854

       (C)(1) The department shall deduct from the payments made to 41855
each school district under Chapter 3317., and if necessary, 41856
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the amount paid 41857
under division (B) of this section for each eligible student 41858
awardedwho qualifies for a scholarship under the programsection 41859
3310.03 of the Revised Code and who is entitled under section 41860
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in the 41861
district. In the case of a student entitled to attend school in a 41862
school district under division (B)(2)(a) of section 3313.64 or 41863
division (C) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 41864
department shall deduct the payments from the school district that 41865
includes the student in its average daily membership as reported 41866
to the department under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as 41867
determined by the department.41868

       (2) If the department reduces or terminates payments to a 41869
parent or a student, as prescribed in division (B)(2) of this 41870
section, and the student enrolls in the schools of the student's 41871
resident district or in a community school, established under 41872
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, before the end of the school 41873
year, the department shall proportionally restore to the resident 41874
district the amount deducted for that student under division 41875
(C)(1) of this section.41876

       Sec. 3310.56. (A) The amount of the scholarship awarded and 41877
paid to an eligible applicant for services for a qualified special 41878
education child under the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 41879
program in each school year shall be the least of the amounts 41880
prescribed in divisions (A)(1), (2), orand (3) of this section, 41881
as follows:41882

       (1) The amount of fees charged for that school year by the 41883
alternative public provider or registered private provider;41884

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 41885
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:41886

        (a) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 41887
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 41888
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2009;41889

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732the formula amount times the 41890
following multiple prescribed for the child's disability:41891

        (i) For a student in category one, 0.2892the multiple 41892
specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41893

        (ii) For a student in category two, 0.3691the multiple 41894
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41895

       (iii) For a student in category three, 1.7695the multiple 41896
specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41897

       (iv) For a student in category four, 2.3646the multiple 41898
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41899

        (v) For a student in category five, 3.1129the multiple 41900
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41901

        (vi) For a student in category six, 4.7342the multiple 41902
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.41903

        Before applying the multiples specified in divisions 41904
(A)(2)(b)(i) to (vi) of this section, they first shall be adjusted 41905
by multiplying them by 0.90.41906

       (3) Twenty thousand dollars.41907

        (B) As used in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, a child 41908
with a disability is in:41909

        (1) "Category one" if the child's primary or only identified 41910
disability is a speech and language disability, as this term is 41911
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.child is receiving special 41912
education services for a disability specified in division (A) of 41913
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41914

        (2) "Category two" if the child is identified as specific 41915
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 41916
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as 41917
having an other health impairment-minor, as defined in section 41918
3317.02receiving special education services for a disability 41919
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41920

        (3) "Category three" if the child is identified as vision 41921
impaired, hearing disabled, or severe behavior disabled, as these 41922
terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.receiving special 41923
education services for a disability specified in division (C) of 41924
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41925

       (4) "Category four" if the child is identified as 41926
orthopedically disabled, as this term is defined pursuant to 41927
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as having an other health 41928
impairment-major, as defined in section 3317.02receiving special 41929
education services for a disability specified in division (D) of 41930
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41931

       (5) "Category five" if the child is identified as having 41932
multiple disabilities, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 41933
3323.receiving special education services for a disability 41934
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41935

       (6) "Category six" if the child is identified as autistic, 41936
having traumatic brain injuries, or both visually and hearing 41937
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.41938
receiving special education services for a disability specified in 41939
division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.41940

       Sec. 3311.0510.  (A) If all of the client school districts of 41941
an educational service center have terminated their agreements 41942
with the service center under division (D) of section 3313.843 of 41943
the Revised Code, upon the latest effective date of the 41944
terminations, the governing board of that service center shall be 41945
abolished and such service center shall be dissolved by order of 41946
the superintendent of public instruction. The superintendent's 41947
order shall provide for the equitable division and disposition of 41948
the assets, property, debts, and obligations of the service center 41949
among the school districts that were client school districts of 41950
the service center for the service center's last fiscal year of 41951
operation. The superintendent's order shall provide that the tax 41952
duplicate of each of those school districts shall be bound for and 41953
assume the district's equitable share of the outstanding 41954
indebtedness of the service center. The superintendent's order is 41955
final and is not appealable.41956

       Immediately upon the abolishment of the service center 41957
governing board pursuant to this section, the superintendent of 41958
public instruction shall appoint a qualified individual to 41959
administer the dissolution of the service center and to implement 41960
the terms of the superintendent's dissolution order.41961

        Prior to distributing assets to any school district under 41962
this section, but after paying in full other debts and obligations 41963
of the service center under this section, the superintendent of 41964
public instruction may assess against the remaining assets of the 41965
service center the amount of the costs incurred by the department 41966
of education in performing the superintendent's duties under this 41967
division, including the fees, if any, owed to the individual 41968
appointed to administer the superintendent's dissolution order. 41969
Any excess cost incurred by the department under this division 41970
shall be divided equitably among the school districts that were 41971
client school districts of the service center for the service 41972
center's last fiscal year of operation. Each district's share of 41973
that excess cost shall be bound against the tax duplicate of that 41974
district.41975

       (B) A final audit of the former service center shall be 41976
performed in accordance with procedures established by the auditor 41977
of state.41978

       (C) The public records of an educational service center that 41979
is dissolved under this section shall be transferred in accordance 41980
with this division. Public records maintained by the service 41981
center in connection with services provided by the service center 41982
to local school districts of which the territory of the service 41983
center is or previously was made up shall be transferred to each 41984
of the respective local school districts. Public records 41985
maintained by the service center in connection with services 41986
provided to client school districts shall be transferred to each 41987
of the respective client school districts. All other public 41988
records maintained by the service center at the time the service 41989
center ceases operations shall be transferred to the Ohio 41990
historical society for analysis and disposition by the society in 41991
its capacity as archives administrator for the state and its 41992
political subdivisions pursuant to division (C) of section 149.30 41993
and section 149.31 of the Revised Code.41994

       (D) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 41995
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 41996
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 41997
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 41998
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 41999
center.42000

       Sec. 3311.22.  A governing board of an educational service 42001
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 42002
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 42003
in number to at least fifty-five per cent of the qualified 42004
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 42005
portion of a school district, or districts proposed to be 42006
transferred may propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or 42007
all of one or more local school districts to another local school 42008
district or districts within the territory of the educational 42009
service center. Such transfers may be made only to local school 42010
districts adjoining the school district that is proposed to be 42011
transferred, unless the board of education of the district 42012
proposed to be transferred has entered into an agreement pursuant 42013
to section 3313.42 of the Revised Code, in which case such 42014
transfers may be made to any local school district within the 42015
territory of the educational service center.42016

       When a governing board of an educational service center 42017
adopts a resolution proposing a transfer of school territory it 42018
shall forthwith file a copy of such resolution, together with an 42019
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 42020
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 42021
would be altered by such proposal. A governing board of an 42022
educational service center proposing a transfer of territory under 42023
the provisions of this section shall at its next regular meeting 42024
that occurs not earlier than thirty days after the adoption by the 42025
governing board of a resolution proposing such transfer, adopt a 42026
resolution making the transfer effective at any time prior to the 42027
next succeeding first day of July, unless, prior to the expiration 42028
of such thirty-day period, qualified electors residing in the area 42029
proposed to be transferred, equal in number to a majority of the 42030
qualified electors voting at the last general election, file a 42031
petition of referendum against such transfer.42032

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed 42033
under the provisions of this section shall be filed at the office 42034
of the educational service center superintendent. The person 42035
presenting the petition shall be given a receipt containing 42036
thereon the time of day, the date, and the purpose of the 42037
petition.42038

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 42039
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 42040
petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed under this 42041
section and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent shall 42042
present the petition to the educational service center governing 42043
board at a meeting of the board which shall occur not later than 42044
thirty days following the filing of the petition.42045

       Upon presentation to the educational service center governing 42046
board of a proposal to transfer territory as requested by petition 42047
of fifty-five per cent of the qualified electors voting at the 42048
last general election or a petition of referendum against a 42049
proposal of the county board to transfer territory, the governing 42050
board shall promptly certify the proposal to the board of 42051
elections for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 42052
ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs not 42053
less than ninety days after the date of such certification, or at 42054
a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 42055
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 42056
the date of such certification. Signatures on a petition of 42057
transfer or petition of referendum may be withdrawn up to and 42058
including the above mentioned meeting of the educational service 42059
center governing board only by order of the board upon testimony 42060
of the petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 42061
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 42062
misrepresentation.42063

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 42064
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 42065
the territory included in a resolution of transfer previously 42066
adopted by the educational service center governing board, no 42067
action shall be taken on such petition if within the thirty-day 42068
period after the adoption of the resolution of transfer a 42069
referendum petition is filed. After the election, if the proposed 42070
transfer fails to receive a majority vote, action on such petition 42071
shall then be processed under this section as though originally 42072
filed under the provisions hereof. If no referendum petition is 42073
filed within the thirty-day period after the adoption of the 42074
resolution of transfer, no action shall be taken on such petition.42075

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 42076
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 42077
the territory included in a petition previously filed by electors 42078
no action shall be taken on such new petition.42079

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 42080
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 42081
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 42082
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 42083
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 42084
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 42085
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 42086
education.42087

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 42088
electors residing in the district or districts containing 42089
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 42090
transfer be approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 42091
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 42092
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 42093
first day of July. If the proposed transfer is not approved by at 42094
least a majority of the electors voting on the proposal, the 42095
question of transferring any property included in the territory 42096
covered by the proposal shall not be submitted to electors at any 42097
election prior to the first general election the date of which is 42098
at least two years after the date of the original election, or the 42099
first primary election held in an even-numbered year the date of 42100
which is at least two years after the date of the original 42101
election. A transfer shall be subject to the approval of the 42102
receiving board or boards of education, unless the proposal was 42103
initiated by the educational service center governing board, in 42104
which case, if the transfer is opposed by the board of education 42105
offered the territory, the local board may, within thirty days, 42106
following the receipt of the notice of transfer, appeal to the 42107
state board of education which shall then either approve or 42108
disapprove the transfer.42109

       Following an election upon a proposed transfer initiated by a 42110
petition the board of education that is offered territory shall, 42111
within thirty days following receipt of the proposal, either 42112
accept or reject the transfer.42113

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 42114
to two or more school districts and the offer is rejected by any 42115
one of the receiving boards of education, none of the territory 42116
included in the proposal shall be transferred.42117

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 42118
boards of education the educational service center governing board 42119
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor and with 42120
the state board of education an accurate map showing the 42121
boundaries of the territory transferred.42122

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 42123
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 42124
apportioned between the acquiring school district and that portion 42125
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 42126
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 42127
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 42128
the original school district as of the effective date of the 42129
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 42130
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 42131
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 42132
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 42133
redemption.42134

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 42135
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 42136
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 42137
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 42138
acquiring the territory. 42139

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 42140
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 42141
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 42142
board between the acquiring district and any part of the original 42143
district remaining after the transfer.42144

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 42145
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 42146
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 42147
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 42148
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 42149
member of the board of education of such district.42150

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 42151
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 42152
education of the school district to which such territory is 42153
transferred.42154

       Subsequent to June 30, 1959, if an entire district is 42155
transferred, foundation program moneys accruing to a district 42156
accepting school territory under the provisions of this section or 42157
former section 3311.22 of the Revised Code, shall not be less, in 42158
any year during the next succeeding three years following the 42159
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 42160
separately in the year in which the transfer was consummated.42161

       Sec. 3311.231.  A governing board of an educational service 42162
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 42163
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 42164
in number to not less than fifty-five per cent of the qualified 42165
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 42166
portion of a school district proposed to be transferred may 42167
propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or all of one or more 42168
local school districts within the territory of the center to an 42169
adjoining educational service center or to an adjoining city or 42170
exempted village school district.42171

       A governing board of an educational service center adopting a 42172
resolution proposing a transfer of school territory under this 42173
section shall file a copy of such resolution together with an 42174
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 42175
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 42176
would be altered by such proposal. Where a transfer of territory 42177
is proposed by a governing board of an educational service center 42178
under this section, the governing board shall, at its next regular 42179
meeting that occurs not earlier than the thirtieth day after the 42180
adoption by the governing board of the resolution proposing such 42181
transfer, adopt a resolution making the transfer as originally 42182
proposed, effective at any time prior to the next succeeding first 42183
day of July, unless, prior to the expiration of such thirty-day 42184
period, qualified electors residing in the area proposed to be 42185
transferred, equal in number to a majority of the qualified 42186
electors voting at the last general election, file a petition of 42187
referendum against such transfer.42188

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum under the 42189
provisions of this section shall be filed at the office of the 42190
educational service center superintendent. The person presenting 42191
the petition shall be given a receipt containing thereon the time 42192
of day, the date, and the purpose of the petition.42193

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 42194
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 42195
such petition, and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent 42196
shall present the petition to the educational service center 42197
governing board at a meeting of said governing board which shall 42198
occur not later than thirty days following the filing of said 42199
petition.42200

       The educational service center governing board shall promptly 42201
certify the proposal to the board of elections of such counties in 42202
which school districts whose boundaries would be altered by such 42203
proposal are located for the purpose of having the proposal placed 42204
on the ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs 42205
not less than ninety days after the date of such certification or 42206
at a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 42207
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 42208
the date of such certification.42209

       Signatures on a petition of transfer or petition of 42210
referendum may be withdrawn up to and including the above 42211
mentioned meeting of the educational service center governing 42212
board only by order of the governing board upon testimony of the 42213
petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 42214
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 42215
misrepresentation.42216

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 42217
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 42218
the territory included either in a petition previously filed by 42219
electors or in a resolution of transfer previously adopted by the 42220
educational service center governing board, no action shall be 42221
taken on such new petition as long as the previously initiated 42222
proposal is pending before the governing board or is subject to an 42223
election.42224

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 42225
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 42226
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 42227
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 42228
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 42229
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 42230
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 42231
education.42232

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 42233
electors residing in the district or districts containing 42234
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 42235
transfer is approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 42236
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 42237
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 42238
first day of July, subject to the approval of the receiving board 42239
of education in case of a transfer to a city or exempted village 42240
school district, and subject to the approval of the educational 42241
service center governing board of the receiving center, in case of 42242
a transfer to an educational service center. If the proposed 42243
transfer is not approved by at least a majority of the electors 42244
voting on the proposal, the question of transferring any property 42245
included in the territory covered by the proposal shall not be 42246
submitted to electors at any election prior to the first general 42247
election the date of which is at least two years after the date of 42248
the original election, or the first primary election held in an 42249
even-numbered year the date of which is at least two years after 42250
the date of the original election.42251

       Where a territory is transferred under this section to a city 42252
or exempted village school district, the board of education of 42253
such district shall, and where territory is transferred to an 42254
educational service center the governing board of such educational 42255
service center shall, within thirty days following receipt of the 42256
proposal, either accept or reject the transfer.42257

       Where a governing board of an educational service center 42258
adopts a resolution accepting territory transferred to the 42259
educational service center under the provisions of sections 42260
3311.231 and 3311.24 of the Revised Code, the governing board 42261
shall, at the time of the adoption of the resolution accepting the 42262
territory, designate the school district to which the accepted 42263
territory shall be annexed.42264

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 42265
to two or more adjoining school districts and the offer is 42266
rejected by any one of the receiving boards of education, none of 42267
the territory included in the proposal shall be transferred.42268

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 42269
boards of education the educational service center governing board 42270
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor of each 42271
county affected by the transfer and with the state board of 42272
education an accurate map showing the boundaries of the territory 42273
transferred.42274

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 42275
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 42276
apportioned between the acquiring school district and the portion 42277
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 42278
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 42279
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 42280
the original school district as of the effective date of the 42281
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 42282
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 42283
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 42284
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 42285
redemption.42286

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 42287
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 42288
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 42289
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 42290
acquiring the territory. 42291

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 42292
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 42293
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 42294
board, between the acquiring district and any part of the original 42295
district remaining after the transfer.42296

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 42297
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 42298
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 42299
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 42300
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 42301
member of the board of education of such district.42302

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 42303
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 42304
education of the school district to which such territory is 42305
transferred.42306

       If an entire district is transferred, foundation program 42307
moneys accruing to a district receiving school territory under the 42308
provisions of this section shall not be less, in any year during 42309
the next succeeding three years following the transfer, than the 42310
sum of the amounts received by the districts separately in the 42311
year in which the transfer was consummated.42312

       Sec. 3311.38.  The state board of education may conduct, or 42313
may direct the superintendent of public instruction to conduct, 42314
studies where there is evidence of need for transfer of local, 42315
exempted village, or city school districts, or parts of any such 42316
districts, to contiguous or noncontiguous local, exempted village, 42317
or city school districts. Such studies shall include a study of 42318
the effect of any proposal upon any portion of a school district 42319
remaining after such proposed transfer. The state board, in 42320
conducting such studies and in making recommendations as a result 42321
thereof, shall consider the possibility of improving school 42322
district organization as well as the desires of the residents of 42323
the school districts which would be affected.42324

       (A) After the adoption of recommendations growing out of any 42325
such study, or upon receipt of a resolution adopted by majority 42326
vote of the full membership of the board of any city, local, or 42327
exempted village school district requesting that the entire 42328
district be transferred to another city, local, or exempted 42329
village school district, the state board may propose by resolution 42330
the transfer of territory, which may consist of part or all of the 42331
territory of a local, exempted village, or city school district to 42332
a contiguous local, exempted village, or city school district.42333

       The state board shall thereupon file a copy of such proposal 42334
with the board of education of each school district whose 42335
boundaries would be altered by the proposal and with the governing 42336
board of any educational service center in which such school 42337
district is located.42338

       The state board may, not less than thirty days following the 42339
adoption of the resolution proposing the transfer of territory, 42340
certify the proposal to the board of elections of the county or 42341
counties in which any of the territory of the proposed district is 42342
located, for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 42343
ballot at the next general election or at a primary election 42344
occurring not less than ninety days after the adoption of such 42345
resolution.42346

       If any proposal has been previously initiated pursuant to 42347
section 3311.22, 3311.231, or 3311.26 of the Revised Code which 42348
affects any of the territory affected by the proposal of the state 42349
board, the proposal of the state board shall not be placed on the 42350
ballot while the previously initiated proposal is subject to an 42351
election.42352

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections of 42353
any county pursuant to this section, the board of elections of 42354
such county shall make the necessary arrangements for the 42355
submission of such question to the electors of the county 42356
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be counted and 42357
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 42358
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 42359
education.42360

       The electors qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 42361
electors residing in the local, exempted village, or city school 42362
districts, containing territory proposed to be transferred.42363

       If the proposed transfer be approved by a majority of the 42364
electors voting on the proposal, the state board, subject to the 42365
approval of the board of education of the district to which the 42366
territory would be transferred, shall make such transfer prior to 42367
the next succeeding July 1.42368

       (B) If a study conducted in accordance with this section 42369
involves a school district with less than four thousand dollars of 42370
assessed value for each pupil in the total student count 42371
determined under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the state 42372
board of education, with the approval of the educational service 42373
center governing board, and upon recommendation by the state 42374
superintendent of public instruction, may by resolution transfer 42375
all or any part of such a school district to any city, exempted 42376
village, or local school district which has more than twenty-five 42377
thousand pupils in average daily membership. Such resolution of 42378
transfer shall be adopted only after the board of education of the 42379
receiving school district has adopted a resolution approving the 42380
proposed transfer. For the purposes of this division, the assessed 42381
value shall be as certified in accordance with section 3317.021 of 42382
the Revised Code.42383

       (C) Upon the making of a transfer of an entire school 42384
district pursuant to this section, the indebtedness of the 42385
district transferred shall be assumed in full by the acquiring 42386
district and the funds of the district transferred shall be paid 42387
over in full to the acquiring district, except that any 42388
indebtedness of the transferred district incurred as a result of a 42389
loan made under section 3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby 42390
canceled and shall not be assumed by the acquiring district.42391

       (D) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 42392
when only part of a district is transferred, the net indebtedness 42393
of each original district of which only a part is taken by the 42394
acquiring district shall be apportioned between the acquiring 42395
district and the original district in the ratio which the assessed 42396
valuation of the part taken by the acquiring district bears to the 42397
assessed valuation of the original district as of the effective 42398
date of the transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" 42399
means the difference between the par value of the outstanding and 42400
unpaid bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held 42401
in the sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for 42402
their redemption.42403

       (E) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 42404
when only part of a district is transferred, the funds of the 42405
district from which territory was transferred shall be divided 42406
equitably by the state board between the acquiring district and 42407
that part of the former district remaining after the transfer.42408

       (F) If an entire school district is transferred, the board of 42409
education of such district is thereby abolished. If part of a 42410
school district is transferred, any member of the board of 42411
education who is a legal resident of that part which is 42412
transferred shall thereby cease to be a member of that board.42413

       If an entire school district is transferred, foundation 42414
program moneys accruing to a district accepting school territory 42415
under the provisions of this section shall not be less, in any 42416
year during the next succeeding three years following the 42417
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 42418
separately in the year in which the transfer became effective.42419

       Sec. 3311.78.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised 42420
Code to the contrary, a municipal school district shall be subject 42421
to this section instead of sections 3317.13, 3317.14, and 3317.141 42422
of the Revised Code.42423

       (A) As used in this section, "principal" includes an 42424
assistant principal.42425

       (B) The board of education of each municipal school district 42426
annually shall adopt a differentiated salary schedule for teachers 42427
based upon performance as described in division (D) of this 42428
section. The board also annually shall adopt a differentiated 42429
salary schedule for principals based upon performance as described 42430
in division (D) of this section.42431

       For each teacher or principal hired on or after the effective 42432
date of this sectionOctober 1, 2012, the board shall determine 42433
the teacher's or principal's initial placement on the applicable 42434
salary schedule based on years of experience and area of licensure 42435
and any other factors the board considers appropriate. For each 42436
teacher hired prior to the effective date of this sectionOctober 42437
1, 2012, the board shall initially place the teacher on the 42438
applicable salary schedule so that the teacher's annual salary on 42439
the schedule is comparable to the teacher's annual salary for the 42440
school year immediately prior to the school year covered by the 42441
schedule. For each principal hired prior to the effective date of 42442
this sectionOctober 1, 2012, the board shall initially place the 42443
principal on the applicable salary schedule consistent with the 42444
principal's employment contract.42445

       (C) The salary of a teacher shall not be reduced unless such 42446
reduction is accomplished as part of a negotiated collective 42447
bargaining agreement. The salary of a principal shall not be 42448
reduced during the term of the principal's employment contract 42449
unless such reduction is by mutual agreement of the board and the 42450
principal or is part of a uniform plan affecting the entire 42451
district.42452

       (D) For purposes of the schedules, the board shall measure a 42453
teacher's or principal's performance by considering all of the 42454
following:42455

       (1) The level of license issued under section 3319.22 of the 42456
Revised Code that the teacher or principal holds;42457

       (2) Whether the teacher or principal is a highly qualified 42458
teacher, as defined in section 3319.074 of the Revised Code;42459

       (3) Ratings received by the teacher or principal on 42460
performance evaluations conducted under section 3311.80 or 3311.84 42461
of the Revised Code;42462

       (4) Any specialized training and experience in the assigned 42463
position.42464

       (E) The salary schedules adopted under this section may 42465
provide for additional compensation for teachers or principals who 42466
perform duties, not contracted for under a supplemental contract, 42467
that the board determines warrant additional compensation. Those 42468
duties may include, but are not limited to, assignment to a school 42469
building eligible for funding under Title I of the "Elementary and 42470
Secondary Education Act of 1965," 20 U.S.C. 6301 et seq.; 42471
assignment to a building in "school improvement" status under the 42472
"No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," as defined in section 3302.01 42473
of the Revised Code; teaching in a grade level or subject area in 42474
which the board has determined there is a shortage within the 42475
district; assignment to a hard-to-staff school, as determined by 42476
the board; or teaching in a school with an extended school day or 42477
school year.42478

       (F) The chief executive officer of the district, or the chief 42479
executive officer's designee, annually shall review the salary of 42480
each teacher and principal and make a recommendation to the board. 42481
Based on the recommendation, the board may increase a teacher's or 42482
principal's salary based on the teacher's or principal's 42483
performance and duties as provided for in divisions (D) and (E) of 42484
this section. The performance-based increase for a teacher or 42485
principal rated as accomplished shall be greater than the 42486
performance-based increase for a teacher or principal rated as 42487
proficient. Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, division 42488
(C) of section 3319.02, and section 3319.12 of the Revised Code, 42489
the board may decrease the teacher's or principal's salary if the 42490
teacher or principal will perform fewer or different duties 42491
described in division (E) of this section in the school year for 42492
which the salary is decreased.42493

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 42494
4117. of the Revised Code, the requirements of this section 42495
prevail over any conflicting provisions of a collective bargaining 42496
agreement entered into on or after the effective date of this 42497
sectionOctober 1, 2012. However, the board and the teachers' 42498
labor organization shall negotiate the implementation of the 42499
differentiated salary schedule for teachers and may negotiate 42500
additional factors regarding teacher salaries, provided those 42501
factors are consistent with this section.42502

       Sec. 3312.08.  Each fiscal agent selected by the department 42503
of education pursuant to section 3312.07 of the Revised Code shall 42504
do all of the following:42505

       (A) Enter into performance contracts with the department in 42506
accordance with section 3312.09 of the Revised Code for the 42507
implementation of state and regional education initiatives and 42508
school improvement efforts;42509

       (B) Receive federal and state funds, including federal funds 42510
for the provision of special education and related services, as 42511
specified in the performance contracts, and disburse those funds 42512
as specified in the performance contracts to educational service 42513
centers, information technology centers, and other regional 42514
service providers. However, any funds owed to an educational 42515
service center in accordance with an agreement entered into under 42516
section 3317.113313.843, 3313.844, or 3313.845 of the Revised 42517
Code shall be paid directly to the service center by the 42518
department in accordance with that section and any operating funds 42519
appropriated for an information technology center shall be paid 42520
directly to the information technology center by the department 42521
pursuant to section 3301.075 of the Revised Code.42522

       (C) Implement any expenditure of funds recommended by the 42523
advisory council for the region pursuant to section 3312.04 of the 42524
Revised Code or required by the terms of any performance contract, 42525
unless there are insufficient funds available to the region to pay 42526
for the expenditure or the expenditure violates a provision of the 42527
Revised Code, a rule of the state board of education regarding 42528
such expenditure, or the terms of a performance contract;42529

       (D) Exercise fiscal oversight of the implementation of state 42530
and regional education initiatives and school improvement efforts.42531

       Sec. 3313.372.  (A) As used in this section, "energy 42532
conservation measure" means an installation or modification of an 42533
installation in, or remodeling of, a building, to reduce energy 42534
consumption. It includes:42535

       (1) Insulation of the building structure and systems within 42536
the building;42537

       (2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, 42538
heat absorbing or heat reflective glazed and coated window and 42539
door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and 42540
other window and door system modifications that reduce energy 42541
consumption;42542

       (3) Automatic energy control systems;42543

       (4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system 42544
modifications or replacements;42545

       (5) Caulking and weatherstripping;42546

       (6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to 42547
increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing 42548
the overall illumination of a facility, unless such increase in 42549
illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or 42550
local building code for the proposed lighting system;42551

       (7) Energy recovery systems;42552

       (8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of 42553
energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily 42554
within a building or complex of buildings;42555

       (9) Any other modification, installation, or remodeling 42556
approved by the Ohio school facilities commission as an energy 42557
conservation measure.42558

       (B) A board of education of a city, exempted village, local, 42559
or joint vocational school district may enter into an installment 42560
payment contract for the purchase and installation of energy 42561
conservation measures. The provisions of such installment payment 42562
contracts dealing with interest charges and financing terms shall 42563
not be subject to the competitive bidding requirements of section 42564
3313.46 of the Revised Code, and shall be on the following terms:42565

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs thereof shall be 42566
paid within two years from the date of purchase.42567

       (2) The remaining balance of the costs thereof shall be paid 42568
within fifteen years from the date of purchase.42569

       The provisions of any installment payment contract entered 42570
into pursuant to this section shall provide that all payments, 42571
except payments for repairs and obligations on termination of the 42572
contract prior to its expiration, be stated as a percentage of 42573
calculated energy, water, or waste water cost savings, avoided 42574
operating costs, and avoided capital costs attributable to the one 42575
or more measures over a defined period of time. Those payments 42576
shall be made only to the extent that the savings described in 42577
this division actually occur. The contractor shall warrant and 42578
guarantee that the energy conservation measures shall realize 42579
guaranteed savings. In order to ensure payment of any savings 42580
shortfall, the contractor shall provide an energy guarantee bond 42581
for the full term of the contract, including any partial guarantee 42582
year.42583

        The commission may reduce the term of any installment payment 42584
contract entered into under this section on or after the effective 42585
date of this amendment to three years. 42586

       An installment payment contract entered into by a board of 42587
education under this section shall require the board to contract 42588
in accordance with division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised 42589
Code for the installation, modification, or remodeling of energy 42590
conservation measures unless division (A) of section 3313.46 of 42591
the Revised Code does not apply pursuant to division (B)(3) of 42592
that section.42593

       (C) The board may issue the notes of the school district 42594
signed by the president and the treasurer of the board and 42595
specifying the terms of the purchase and securing the deferred 42596
payments provided in this section, payable at the times provided 42597
and bearing interest at a rate not exceeding the rate determined 42598
as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code. The notes may 42599
contain an option for prepayment and shall not be subject to 42600
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. In the resolution authorizing 42601
the notes, the board may provide, without the vote of the electors 42602
of the district, for annually levying and collecting taxes in 42603
amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and retire the notes, 42604
except that the total net indebtedness of the district without a 42605
vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of 42606
the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, 42607
shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation. 42608
Revenues derived from local taxes or otherwise, for the purpose of 42609
conserving energy or for defraying the current operating expenses 42610
of the district, may be applied to the payment of interest and the 42611
retirement of such notes. The notes may be sold at private sale or 42612
given to the contractor under the installment payment contract 42613
authorized by division (B) of this section.42614

       (D) Debt incurred under this section shall not be included in 42615
the calculation of the net indebtedness of a school district under 42616
section 133.06 of the Revised Code.42617

       (E) No school district board shall enter into an installment 42618
payment contract under division (B) of this section unless it 42619
first obtains a report of the costs of the energy conservation 42620
measures and the savings thereof as described under division (G) 42621
of section 133.06 of the Revised Code as a requirement for issuing 42622
energy securities, makes a finding that the amount spent on such 42623
measures is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save 42624
in energy costs and resultant operational and maintenance costs as 42625
described in that division, except that that finding shall cover 42626
the ensuing fifteen years, and the Ohio school facilities 42627
commission determines that the district board's findings are 42628
reasonable and approves the contract as described in that 42629
division.42630

       The district board shall monitor the savings and maintain a 42631
report of those savings, which shall be submitted to the 42632
commission in the same manner as required by division (G) of 42633
section 133.06 of the Revised Code in the case of energy 42634
securities.42635

       Sec. 3313.376.  As used in this section, "client school 42636
district" has the same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the 42637
Revised Codemeans a city, exempted village, or local school 42638
district that has entered into an agreement under section 3313.843 42639
or 3313.845 of the Revised Code to receive any services from an 42640
educational service center.42641

       For the purpose of obtaining quantity discounts in purchasing 42642
textbooks; computer equipment, including computer software; school 42643
buses; and natural gas, electricity, and other utility services, 42644
the governing boards of two or more educational service centers 42645
may enter into agreements, including installment purchase and 42646
lease-purchase contracts, to jointly purchase such commodities to 42647
be utilized by client school districts of the educational service 42648
centers.42649

       Sec. 3313.42.  (A) When in the judgment of a board of 42650
education of any school district in this state, lying adjacent to 42651
a school district of another state, the best interests of the 42652
public schools can be promoted by purchasing school grounds, 42653
repairing or erecting a schoolhouse, and maintaining them jointly 42654
between the two adjacent school districts, the board of education 42655
of the school district of this state so situated may enter into an 42656
agreement with the school authorities of said adjacent school 42657
district for the purpose of purchasing school grounds, repairing 42658
or constructing a school building, purchasing school furniture, 42659
equipment, appliances, fuel, employing teachers, and maintaining a 42660
school. The board of education of this state may levy taxes and 42661
perform such other duties in maintaining such joint school as are 42662
otherwise provided by law for maintaining the public schools in 42663
this state.42664

       In carrying out this section the school district shall pay 42665
such proportion of the cost of purchasing school grounds, 42666
repairing or erecting a building, and in maintaining the joint 42667
school as is equitable and just in the judgment of the board of 42668
education and trustees of the two adjacent school districts.42669

       (B) In any school district that has entered into an agreement 42670
under division (A) of this section, the state minimum teacher 42671
salary requirements prescribed by section 3317.13 of the Revised 42672
Code do not apply if the total expenditures by the school district 42673
for teacher salaries in any school year equals or exceeds the 42674
total minimum expenditures that would have been required in that 42675
year if such minimum teacher salary requirements did apply.42676

       (C) Notwithstanding sections 3319.01, 3319.02, and 3313.22 of 42677
the Revised Code, the board of education of a local school 42678
district that has entered into an agreement with an adjacent 42679
school district in another state under division (A) of this 42680
section may contract with the educational service center within 42681
which the local school district is located for the service center 42682
to provide any administrative services specified in the agreement 42683
to the local school district and the adjacent district. If such an 42684
agreement provides for the duties of a district treasurer, 42685
superintendent, or principals to be performed by the service 42686
center, the local school district is not required to employ 42687
persons to perform such duties.42688

       Sec. 3313.48. (A) The board of education of each city, 42689
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 42690
shall provide for the free education of the youth of school age 42691
within the district under its jurisdiction, at such places as will 42692
be most convenient for the attendance of the largest number 42693
thereof. Except as provided in section 3313.481 of the Revised 42694
Code, eachEach school so provided and each chartered nonpublic 42695
school shall be open for instruction with pupils in attendance, 42696
including scheduled classes, supervised activities, and approved 42697
education options but excluding lunch and breakfast periods and 42698
extracurricular activities, for not less than one hundred 42699
eighty-two daysfour hundred fifty-five hours in the case of 42700
pupils in kindergarten unless such pupils are provided all-day 42701
kindergarten, as defined in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, 42702
in which case the pupils shall be in attendance for nine hundred 42703
ten hours; nine hundred ten hours in the case of pupils in grades 42704
one through six; and one thousand one hours in the case of pupils 42705
in grades seven through twelve in each school year, which may 42706
include all of the following:42707

       (A)(1) Up to fourthe equivalent of two school days per year 42708
in which classes are dismissed one-half day early or the 42709
equivalent amount of time during a different number of daysduring 42710
which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not required 42711
to attend for the purpose of individualized parent-teacher 42712
conferences and reporting periods;42713

       (B)(2) Up to the equivalent of two school days per year 42714
during which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not 42715
required to attend for professional meetings of teachers when such 42716
days occur during a regular school week and schools are not in 42717
session;42718

       (C) The number of days the school is closed as a result of 42719
public calamity, as provided in section 3317.01 of the Revised 42720
Code(3) Morning and afternoon recess periods of not more than 42721
fifteen minutes duration per period for pupils in grades 42722
kindergarten through six.42723

       The state board of education shall adopt standards for 42724
defining "school day" as used in sections 3313.48 and 3317.01 of 42725
the Revised Code.42726

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, each day for 42727
grades seven through twelve shall consist of not less than five 42728
clock hours with pupils in attendance, except in such emergency 42729
situations, including lack of classroom space, as are approved by 42730
the state board of education. Except as otherwise provided in this 42731
section, each day for grades one through six shall consist of not 42732
less than five clock hours with pupils in attendance which may 42733
include fifteen minute morning and afternoon recess periods, 42734
except in such emergency situations, including lack of classroom 42735
space, as are approved by the state board of education.42736

       (B) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a school 42737
calendar, the board of education of each city, exempted village, 42738
and local school district shall hold a public hearing on the 42739
school calendar, addressing topics that include, but are not 42740
limited to, the total number of hours in a school year, length of 42741
school day, and beginning and end dates of instruction. Each board 42742
shall publish notice of the hearing in a newspaper of general 42743
circulation in the district not later than thirty days prior to 42744
the hearing.42745

        (C) No school operated by a city, exempted village, local, or 42746
joint vocational school district shall reduce the number of hours 42747
in each school year that the school is scheduled to be open for 42748
instruction from the number of hours per year the school was open 42749
for instruction during the previous school year unless the 42750
reduction is approved by a resolution adopted by the district 42751
board of education. Any reduction so approved shall not result in 42752
fewer hours of instruction per school year than the applicable 42753
number of hours required under division (A) of this section.42754

       (D) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 42755
a high school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the 42756
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 42757
school district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed 42758
change with the scheduling needs of any joint vocational school 42759
district in which any of the high school's students are also 42760
enrolled. The board shall consider the impact of the proposed 42761
change on student access to the instructional programs offered by 42762
the joint vocational school district, incentives for students to 42763
participate in career-technical education, transportation, and the 42764
timing of graduation. The board shall provide the joint vocational 42765
school district board with advance notice of the proposed change 42766
and the two boards shall enter into a written agreement 42767
prescribing reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs 42768
of the joint vocational school district prior to implementation of 42769
the change.42770

       (E) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 42771
a school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the board 42772
of education of each city, exempted village, and local school 42773
district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed change 42774
with the scheduling needs of any community school established 42775
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to which the district is 42776
required to transport students under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 42777
of the Revised Code. The board shall consider the impact of the 42778
proposed change on student access to the instructional programs 42779
offered by the community school, transportation, and the timing of 42780
graduation. The board shall provide the sponsor, governing 42781
authority, and operator of the community school with advance 42782
notice of the proposed change, and the board and the governing 42783
authority, or operator if such authority is delegated to the 42784
operator, shall enter into a written agreement prescribing 42785
reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs of the 42786
community school prior to implementation of the change.42787

       (F) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 42788
the schools under its jurisdiction are open for instruction, the 42789
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 42790
school district shall consult with the chartered nonpublic schools 42791
to which the district is required to transport students under 42792
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and shall consider the effect 42793
of the proposed change on the schedule for transportation of those 42794
students to their nonpublic schools. The governing authority of a 42795
chartered nonpublic school shall consult with each school district 42796
board of education that transports students to the chartered 42797
nonpublic school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code prior 42798
to making any change in the hours or days in which the nonpublic 42799
school is open for instruction.42800

       (G) The state board of education shall not adopt or enforce 42801
any rule or standard that imposes on chartered nonpublic schools 42802
the procedural requirements imposed on school districts by 42803
divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section.42804

       Sec. 3313.481. Wherever in Title XXXIII of the Revised Code 42805
the term "school day" is used, unless otherwise specified, that 42806
term shall be construed to mean the time during a calendar day 42807
that a school is open for instruction pursuant to the schedule 42808
adopted by the board of education of the school district or the 42809
governing authority of the chartered nonpublic school in 42810
accordance with section 3313.48 of the Revised Code.42811

       Sec. 3313.483.  (A) A board of education, upon the adoption 42812
of a resolution stating that it may be financially unable to open 42813
on the day or to remain open for instruction on all days set forth 42814
in its adopted school calendar and pay all obligated expenses, or 42815
the superintendent of public instruction upon the issuance of 42816
written notification under division (B) of section 3313.489 of the 42817
Revised Code, shall request the auditor of state to determine 42818
whether such situation exists. The auditor shall deliver a copy of 42819
each request from a board of education to the superintendent of 42820
public instruction. In the case of a school district not under a 42821
fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code the 42822
auditor shall not issue a finding under this section until written 42823
notification is received from the superintendent pursuant to 42824
section 3313.487 of the Revised Code.42825

       (B) If the auditor of state finds that the board of education 42826
has attempted to avail itself to the fullest extent authorized by 42827
law of all lawful revenue sources available to it except those 42828
authorized by section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the auditor 42829
shall certify that finding to the superintendent of public 42830
instruction and the state board of education and shall certify the 42831
operating deficit the district will have at the end of the fiscal 42832
year if it commences or continues operating its instructional 42833
program in accordance with its adopted school calendar and pays 42834
all obligated expenses.42835

       (C) No board of education may delay the opening of its 42836
schools or close its schools for financial reasons. Upon the 42837
request of the superintendent of public instruction, the attorney 42838
general shall seek injunctive relief and any other relief required 42839
to enforce this prohibition in the court of common pleas of 42840
Franklin county. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 42841
exclusive original jurisdiction over all such actions.42842

       (D) Upon the receipt of any certification of an operating 42843
deficit from the auditor of state, a board of education shall make 42844
application to a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 42845
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations for a loan in 42846
an amount sufficient to enable the district to open or remain open 42847
for instruction on all days set forth in its adopted school 42848
calendar but not to exceed the amount of the deficit certified.42849

       (E)(1) Any board of education that has applied for and been 42850
denied a loan from a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 42851
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations pursuant to 42852
division (D) of this section shall submit to the superintendent of 42853
public instruction a plan for implementing reductions in the 42854
school district's budget; apply for a loan from a commercial bank, 42855
underwriter, or other prospective lender or purchaser of its 42856
obligations in an amount not to exceed its certified deficit; and 42857
provide the superintendent such information as the superintendent 42858
requires concerning its application for such a loan. The board of 42859
education of a school district declared to be under a fiscal watch 42860
pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code 42861
may, upon approval of the superintendent, utilize the financial 42862
plan required by section 3316.04 of the Revised Code, or 42863
applicable parts thereof, as the plan required under this 42864
division. The board of education of a school district declared to 42865
be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 42866
3316.03 of the Revised Code may utilize the financial recovery 42867
plan for the district, or applicable parts thereof, as the plan 42868
required under this division. Except for the plan of a school 42869
district under a fiscal emergency, the superintendent shall 42870
evaluate, make recommendations concerning, and approve or 42871
disapprove each plan. When a plan is submitted, the superintendent 42872
shall immediately notify the members of the general assembly whose 42873
legislative districts include any or all of the territory of the 42874
school district submitting the plan.42875

       (2) The superintendent shall submit to the controlling board 42876
a copy of each plan the superintendent approves, or each plan 42877
submitted by a district under a fiscal emergency pursuant to 42878
division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code, and the 42879
general terms of each proposed loan, and shall make 42880
recommendations regarding the plan and whether a proposed loan to 42881
the board of education should be approved for payment as provided 42882
in division (E)(3) of this section. The controlling board shall 42883
approve or disapprove the plan and the proposed loan presented to 42884
it by the superintendent. In the case of a district not under a 42885
fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of 42886
the Revised Code, the controlling board may require a board of 42887
education to implement the superintendent's recommendations for 42888
expenditure reductions or impose other requirements. Loan 42889
repayments shall be in accordance with a schedule approved by the 42890
superintendent, except that the principal amount of the loan shall 42891
be payable in monthly, semiannual, or annual installments of 42892
principal and interest that are substantially equal principal and 42893
interest installments. Except as otherwise provided in division 42894
(E)(2) of this section, repayment shall be made no later than the 42895
fifteenth day of June of the second fiscal year following the 42896
approval of the loan. A school district with a certified deficit 42897
in excess of either twenty-five million dollars or fifteen per 42898
cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during the 42899
fiscal year shall repay the loan no later than the fifteenth day 42900
of June of the tenth fiscal year following the approval of the 42901
loan. In deciding whether to approve or disapprove a proposed 42902
loan, the controlling board shall consider the deficit certified 42903
by the auditor of state pursuant to this section. A board of 42904
education that has an outstanding loan approved pursuant to this 42905
section with a repayment date of more than two fiscal years after 42906
the date of approval of such loan may not apply for another loan 42907
with such a repayment date until the outstanding loan has been 42908
repaid.42909

       (3) If a board of education has submitted and received 42910
controlling board approval of a plan and proposed loan in 42911
accordance with this section, the superintendent of public 42912
instruction shall report to the controlling board the actual 42913
amounts loaned to the board of education. Such board of education 42914
shall request the superintendent to pay any funds the board of 42915
education would otherwise receive pursuant to Chapter 3306. of the 42916
Revised Code first directly to the holders of the board of 42917
education's notes, or an agent thereof, such amounts as are 42918
specified under the terms of the loan. Such payments shall be made 42919
only from and to the extent of money appropriated by the general 42920
assembly for purposes of such sections. No note or other 42921
obligation of the board of education under the loan constitutes an 42922
obligation nor a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing 42923
power of the state, and the holder or owner of such note or 42924
obligation has no right to have taxes levied by the general 42925
assembly for the payment of such note or obligation, and such note 42926
or obligation shall contain a statement to that effect.42927

       (4) Pursuant to the terms of such a loan, a board of 42928
education may issue its notes in anticipation of the collection of 42929
its voted levies for current expenses or its receipt of such state 42930
funds or both. Such notes shall be issued in accordance with 42931
division (E) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code and constitute 42932
Chapter 133. securities to the extent such division and the 42933
otherwise applicable provisions of Chapter 133. of the Revised 42934
Code are not inconsistent with this section, provided that in any 42935
event sections 133.24 and 5705.21 and divisions (A), (B), (C), and 42936
(E)(2) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code do not apply to such 42937
notes.42938

       (5) Notwithstanding section 133.36 or 3313.17, any other 42939
section of the Revised Code, or any other provision of law, a 42940
board of education that has received a loan under this section may 42941
not declare bankruptcy, so long as any portion of such loan 42942
remains unpaid.42943

       (F) Under this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 42944
3313.4811, "board of education" or "district board" includes the 42945
financial planning and supervision commission of a school district 42946
under a fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised 42947
Code where such commission chooses to exercise the powers and 42948
duties otherwise required of the district board of education under 42949
this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 3313.4811 of the 42950
Revised Code.42951

       Sec. 3313.484.  No loan shall be approved under sections 42952
3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code after March 1, 42953
1998.42954

       By the last day of June each year, the department of 42955
education shall calculate and pay a subsidy to every school 42956
district that during the current fiscal year paid and was 42957
obligated to pay interest on a loan under sections 3313.483 to 42958
3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code in excess of two per cent 42959
simple interest. The amount of the subsidy shall equal the 42960
difference between the amount of interest the district paid and 42961
was obligated to pay during the year and the interest that the 42962
district would have been obligated to pay if the interest rate on 42963
the loan had been two per cent per year.42964

       Sec. 3313.488.  (A) Within fifteen days ofafter the date a 42965
board of education requests that its school district be made 42966
subject to this section as authorized by section 3317.62 of the 42967
Revised Code, or the state board of education has issuedissues an 42968
order under section 3313.487 of the Revised Code making a school 42969
district subject to this section, the district's board of 42970
education shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 42971
expenditures for the remainder of the current fiscal year. The 42972
fiscal statement shall be submitted to the superintendent of 42973
public instruction and shall set forth all revenues to be received 42974
by the district during the remainder of the fiscal year and their 42975
sources, the expenses to be incurred by the district during the 42976
remainder of the fiscal year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses 42977
at the time the fiscal statement is prepared and the date or dates 42978
by which such expenses must be paid, and such other information as 42979
the superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 42980
that during the remainder of the fiscal year, the district will 42981
not incur any expenses that will further impair its ability to 42982
operate an instructional program that meets or exceeds the minimum 42983
standards of the state board of education and requirements of the 42984
Revised Code during the current and ensuing fiscal years with the 42985
revenue available to it from existing revenue sources. The fiscal 42986
statement shall be presented in such detail and form as the 42987
superintendent prescribes. Beginning the tenth day after the 42988
fiscal statement is submitted and for the remainder of the fiscal 42989
year, the board shall not make any expenditure of money, make any 42990
employment, purchase, or rental contract, give any order involving 42991
the expenditure of money, or increase any wage or salary schedule 42992
unless the superintendent of public instruction has approved the 42993
fiscal statement in writing and the expenditure, contract, order, 42994
or schedule has been approved in writing by the superintendent as 42995
being in conformity with the fiscal statement.42996

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 42997
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 42998
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 42999
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.43000

       (B) A board of education subject to division (A) of this 43001
section shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 43002
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year. The fiscal statement 43003
shall be submitted to the superintendent of public instruction and 43004
shall set forth all revenues to be received by the district during 43005
such year and their source, the expenses to be incurred by the 43006
district during such year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses on 43007
the first day of such fiscal year, the date or dates by which such 43008
expenses must be paid, and such other information as the 43009
superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 43010
that during such year, the district will not incur any expenses 43011
that will further impair its ability to operate an instructional 43012
program that meets or exceeds the minimum standards of the state 43013
board of education and requirements of the Revised Code during 43014
such year with the revenue available to it from existing revenue 43015
sources. The fiscal statement shall be presented at the time and 43016
in such detail and form as the superintendent prescribes. During 43017
the fiscal year following the year in which a board of education 43018
first becomes subject to division (A) of this section it shall not 43019
make any expenditure of money, make any employment, purchase, or 43020
rental contract, give any order involving the expenditure of 43021
money, or increase any wage or salary schedule unless the 43022
superintendent of public instruction has approved the fiscal 43023
statement submitted under this division in writing and has 43024
approved the expenditure, contract, order, or schedule in writing 43025
as being in conformity with the fiscal statement.43026

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 43027
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 43028
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 43029
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.43030

       (C) The state board of education shall examine any fiscal 43031
statement presented to and approved by the superintendent of 43032
public instruction under division (B) of this section and shall 43033
determine whether the data set forth in the fiscal statement are 43034
factual and based upon assumptions that in its judgment are 43035
reasonable expectations consistent with acceptable governmental 43036
budget and accounting practices. If the state board so determines 43037
and finds that the revenues and expenditures in the fiscal 43038
statement are in balance for the fiscal year and the fiscal 43039
statement will enable the district to operate during such year 43040
without interrupting its school calendar, it shall certify its 43041
determination and finding to the district at least thirty days 43042
prior to the beginning of the fiscal year, and the district shall 43043
thereupon cease to be subject to this section. If the state board 43044
does not make such a determination and finding, the board of 43045
education and school district are subject to this division and 43046
division (B) of this section in the ensuing fiscal year and each 43047
fiscal year thereafter until the state board makes a 43048
determination, finding, and certification under this division.43049

       (D) Any officer, employee, or other person who knowingly 43050
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds or 43051
knowingly authorizes or executes any contract, order, or schedule 43052
contrary to division (A) or (B) of this section or who knowingly 43053
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds on any 43054
such void contract, order, or schedule is jointly and severally 43055
liable in person and upon any official bond that the officer, 43056
employee, or other person has given to such school district to the 43057
extent of any payments on the void claim, not to exceed twenty 43058
thousand dollars. The attorney general at the written request of 43059
the superintendent of public instruction shall enforce this 43060
liability by civil action brought in any court of appropriate 43061
jurisdiction in the name of and on behalf of the school district.43062

       (E) During each month that a board of education is subject to 43063
division (A), (B), or (C) of this section, the superintendent of 43064
public instruction shall submit a report to the speaker of the 43065
house of representatives and the president of the senate on the 43066
financial condition of the school district. The report shall 43067
contain the date by which the superintendent anticipates the 43068
district will cease to be subject to such divisions, the 43069
district's plans for becoming exempt from such section, and such 43070
other information the superintendent determines appropriate or the 43071
speaker of the house of representatives or president of the senate 43072
requests.43073

       In addition to the other reports required under this 43074
division, on the thirty-first day of each school district fiscal 43075
year following a fiscal year in which a school district first 43076
becomes subject to this section, the superintendent shall submit a 43077
written report to the speaker of the house of representatives and 43078
the president of the senate. The report shall include 43079
recommendations to the general assembly for strengthening the 43080
financial condition of school districts based upon the experiences 43081
of the superintendent and the state board in exercising their 43082
powers under this section and sections 3313.483 and 3313.487 of 43083
the Revised Code.43084

       (F) This section does not apply to a school district declared 43085
to be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 43086
3316.03 of the Revised Code.43087

       Sec. 3313.4810.  Any school district receiving a loan under 43088
section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the Revised Code in excess of seven 43089
per cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during 43090
the fiscal year in which the loan is received and that has 43091
received a loan under that section within the last five years is 43092
subject to section 3313.488 of the Revised Code for the duration 43093
of the fiscal year in which the district receives the loan and 43094
during the ensuing two fiscal years. The controlling board may not 43095
relieve a school district to which this section applies from any 43096
requirements imposed under section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the 43097
Revised Code to implement recommendations of the superintendent of 43098
public instruction for expenditure reduction and may not modify 43099
any other requirements imposed under such section upon such a 43100
district as a condition for receiving the loan unless expressly 43101
authorized to do so by law. The superintendent of public 43102
instruction shall, among any recommendations hethe superintendent43103
makes for expenditure reduction under section 3313.483 or 3317.6343104
of the Revised Code affecting the number of employees of a school 43105
district to which this section applies, provide wherever possible 43106
for the retention of teachers who are actually involved in the 43107
daily teaching of students in the classroom.43108

       Sec. 3313.533.  (A) The board of education of a city, 43109
exempted village, or local school district may adopt a resolution 43110
to establish and maintain an alternative school in accordance with 43111
this section. The resolution shall specify, but not necessarily be 43112
limited to, all of the following:43113

       (1) The purpose of the school, which purpose shall be to 43114
serve students who are on suspension, who are having truancy 43115
problems, who are experiencing academic failure, who have a 43116
history of class disruption, who are exhibiting other academic or 43117
behavioral problems specified in the resolution, or who have been 43118
discharged or released from the custody of the department of youth 43119
services under section 5139.51 of the Revised Code;43120

       (2) The grades served by the school, which may include any of 43121
grades kindergarten through twelve;43122

       (3) A requirement that the school be operated in accordance 43123
with this section. The board of education adopting the resolution 43124
under division (A) of this section shall be the governing board of 43125
the alternative school. The board shall develop and implement a 43126
plan for the school in accordance with the resolution establishing 43127
the school and in accordance with this section. Each plan shall 43128
include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following:43129

       (a) Specification of the reasons for which students will be 43130
accepted for assignment to the school and any criteria for 43131
admission that are to be used by the board to approve or 43132
disapprove the assignment of students to the school;43133

       (b) Specification of the criteria and procedures that will be 43134
used for returning students who have been assigned to the school 43135
back to the regular education program of the district;43136

       (c) An evaluation plan for assessing the effectiveness of the 43137
school and its educational program and reporting the results of 43138
the evaluation to the public.43139

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of Title XXXIII of the 43140
Revised Code to the contrary, the alternative school plan may 43141
include any of the following:43142

       (1) A requirement that on each school day students must 43143
attend school or participate in other programs specified in the 43144
plan or by the chief administrative officer of the school for a 43145
period equal to the minimum school day set by the state board of 43146
education under section 3313.48 of the Revised Code plus any 43147
additional time required in the plan or by the chief 43148
administrative officer;43149

       (2) Restrictions on student participation in extracurricular 43150
or interscholastic activities;43151

       (3) A requirement that students wear uniforms prescribed by 43152
the district board of education.43153

       (C) In accordance with the alternative school plan, the 43154
district board of education may employ teachers and nonteaching 43155
employees necessary to carry out its duties and fulfill its 43156
responsibilities or may contract with a nonprofit or for profit 43157
entity to operate the alternative school, including the provision 43158
of personnel, supplies, equipment, or facilities.43159

       (D) An alternative school may be established in all or part 43160
of a school building.43161

       (E) If a district board of education elects under this 43162
section, or is required by section 3313.534 of the Revised Code, 43163
to establish an alternative school, the district board may join 43164
with the board of education of one or more other districts to form 43165
a joint alternative school by forming a cooperative education 43166
school district under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised 43167
Code, or a joint educational program under section 3313.842 of the 43168
Revised Code. The authority to employ personnel or to contract 43169
with a nonprofit or for profit entity under division (C) of this 43170
section applies to any alternative school program established 43171
under this division.43172

       (F) Any individual employed as a teacher at an alternative 43173
school operated by a nonprofit or for profit entity under this 43174
section shall be licensed and shall be subject to background 43175
checks, as described in section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, in 43176
the same manner as an individual employed by a school district.43177

       (G) Division (G) of this section applies only to any 43178
alternative school that is operated by a nonprofit or for profit 43179
entity under contract with the school district.43180

       (1) In addition to the specifications authorized under 43181
division (B) of this section, any plan adopted under that division 43182
for an alternative school to which division (G) of this section 43183
also applies shall include the following:43184

       (a) A description of the educational program provided at the 43185
alternative school, which shall include:43186

       (i) Provisions for the school to be configured in clusters or 43187
small learning communities;43188

       (ii) Provisions for the incorporation of education technology 43189
into the curriculum;43190

       (iii) Provisions for accelerated learning programs in reading 43191
and mathematics.43192

       (b) A method to determine the reading and mathematics level 43193
of each student assigned to the alternative school and a method to 43194
continuously monitor each student's progress in those areas. The 43195
methods employed under this division shall be aligned with the 43196
curriculum adopted by the school district board of education under 43197
section 3313.60 of the Revised Code.43198

       (c) A plan for social services to be provided at the 43199
alternative school, such as, but not limited to, counseling 43200
services, psychological support services, and enrichment programs;43201

       (d) A plan for a student's transition from the alternative 43202
school back to a school operated by the school district;43203

       (e) A requirement that the alternative school maintain 43204
financial records in a manner that is compatible with the form 43205
prescribed for school districts by the auditor of state to enable 43206
the district to comply with any rules adopted by the auditor of 43207
state.43208

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, any 43209
alternative school to which division (G) of this section applies 43210
shall include only grades six through twelve.43211

       (3) Notwithstanding anything in division (A)(3)(a) of this 43212
section to the contrary, the characteristics of students who may 43213
be assigned to an alternative school to which division (G) of this 43214
section applies shall include only disruptive and low-performing 43215
students.43216

       (H) When any district board of education determines to 43217
contract with a nonprofit or for profit entity to operate an 43218
alternative school under this section, the board shall use the 43219
procedure set forth in this division.43220

       (1) The board shall publish notice of a request for proposals 43221
in a newspaper of general circulation in the district once each 43222
week for a period of two consecutive weeks, or as provided in 43223
section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the date specified by 43224
the board for receiving proposals. Notices of requests for 43225
proposals shall contain a general description of the subject of 43226
the proposed contract and the location where the request for 43227
proposals may be obtained. The request for proposals shall include 43228
all of the following information:43229

       (a) Instructions and information to respondents concerning 43230
the submission of proposals, including the name and address of the 43231
office where proposals are to be submitted;43232

       (b) Instructions regarding communications, including at least 43233
the names, titles, and telephone numbers of persons to whom 43234
questions concerning a proposal may be directed;43235

       (c) A description of the performance criteria that will be 43236
used to evaluate whether a respondent to which a contract is 43237
awarded is meeting the district's educational standards or the 43238
method by which such performance criteria will be determined;43239

       (d) Factors and criteria to be considered in evaluating 43240
proposals, the relative importance of each factor or criterion, 43241
and a description of the evaluation procedures to be followed;43242

       (e) Any terms or conditions of the proposed contract, 43243
including any requirement for a bond and the amount of such bond;43244

       (f) Documents that may be incorporated by reference into the 43245
request for proposals, provided that the request for proposals 43246
specifies where such documents may be obtained and that such 43247
documents are readily available to all interested parties.43248

       (2) After the date specified for receiving proposals, the 43249
board shall evaluate the submitted proposals and may hold 43250
discussions with any respondent to ensure a complete understanding 43251
of the proposal and the qualifications of such respondent to 43252
execute the proposed contract. Such qualifications shall include, 43253
but are not limited to, all of the following:43254

       (a) Demonstrated competence in performance of the required 43255
services as indicated by effective implementation of educational 43256
programs in reading and mathematics and at least three years of 43257
experience successfully serving a student population similar to 43258
the student population assigned to the alternative school;43259

       (b) Demonstrated performance in the areas of cost 43260
containment, the provision of educational services of a high 43261
quality, and any other areas determined by the board;43262

       (c) Whether the respondent has the resources to undertake the 43263
operation of the alternative school and to provide qualified 43264
personnel to staff the school;43265

       (d) Financial responsibility.43266

       (3) The board shall select for further review at least three 43267
proposals from respondents the board considers qualified to 43268
operate the alternative school in the best interests of the 43269
students and the district. If fewer than three proposals are 43270
submitted, the board shall select each proposal submitted. The 43271
board may cancel a request for proposals or reject all proposals 43272
at any time prior to the execution of a contract.43273

       The board may hold discussions with any of the three selected 43274
respondents to clarify or revise the provisions of a proposal or 43275
the proposed contract to ensure complete understanding between the 43276
board and the respondent of the terms under which a contract will 43277
be entered. Respondents shall be accorded fair and equal treatment 43278
with respect to any opportunity for discussion regarding 43279
clarifications or revisions. The board may terminate or 43280
discontinue any further discussion with a respondent upon written 43281
notice.43282

       (4) Upon further review of the three proposals selected by 43283
the board, the board shall award a contract to the respondent the 43284
board considers to have the most merit, taking into consideration 43285
the scope, complexity, and nature of the services to be performed 43286
by the respondent under the contract.43287

       (5) Except as provided in division (H)(6) of this section, 43288
the request for proposals, submitted proposals, and related 43289
documents shall become public records under section 149.43 of the 43290
Revised Code after the award of the contract.43291

       (6) Any respondent may request in writing that the board not 43292
disclose confidential or proprietary information or trade secrets 43293
contained in the proposal submitted by the respondent to the 43294
board. Any such request shall be accompanied by an offer of 43295
indemnification from the respondent to the board. The board shall 43296
determine whether to agree to the request and shall inform the 43297
respondent in writing of its decision. If the board agrees to 43298
nondisclosure of specified information in a proposal, such 43299
information shall not become a public record under section 149.43 43300
of the Revised Code. If the respondent withdraws its proposal at 43301
any time prior to the execution of a contract, the proposal shall 43302
not be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.43303

       (I) Upon a recommendation from the department and in 43304
accordance with section 3301.16 of the Revised Code, the state 43305
board of education may revoke the charter of any alternative 43306
school operated by a school district that violates this section.43307

       Sec. 3313.539. (A) As used in this section, "physician":43308

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 43309
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 43310
medicine and surgery.43311

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 43312
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.43313

       (B) No school district board of education or governing 43314
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 43315
permit a student to practice for or compete in interscholastic 43316
athletics until the student has submitted, to a school official 43317
designated by the board or governing authority, a form signed by 43318
the parent, guardian, or other person having care or charge of the 43319
student stating that the student and the parent, guardian, or 43320
other person having care or charge of the student have received 43321
the concussion and head injury information sheet required by 43322
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code. A completed form shall be 43323
submitted each school year, as defined in section 3313.62 of the 43324
Revised Code, for each sport or other category of interscholastic 43325
athletics for or in which the student practices or competes.43326

       (C)(1) No school district board of education or governing 43327
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 43328
permit an individual to coach interscholastic athletics unless the 43329
individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 43330
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 43331
athletics.43332

       (2) No school district board of education or governing 43333
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 43334
permit an individual to referee interscholastic athletics unless 43335
the individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 43336
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 43337
athletics or presents evidence that the individual has 43338
successfully completed, within the previous three years, a 43339
training program in recognizing the symptoms of concussions and 43340
head injuries to which the department of health has provided a 43341
link on its internet web site under section 3707.52 of the Revised 43342
Code or a training program authorized and required by an 43343
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events.43344

       (D) If a student practicing for or competing in an 43345
interscholastic athletic event exhibits signs, symptoms, or 43346
behaviors consistent with having sustained a concussion or head 43347
injury while participating in the practice or competition, the 43348
student shall be removed from the practice or competition by 43349
either of the following:43350

        (1) The individual who is serving as the student's coach 43351
during that practice or competition;43352

        (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 43353
practice or competition.43354

       (E)(1) If a student is removed from practice or competition 43355
under division (D) of this section, the coach or referee who 43356
removed the student shall not allow the student, on the same day 43357
the student is removed, to return to that practice or competition 43358
or to participate in any other practice or competition for which 43359
the coach or referee is responsible. Thereafter, the coach or 43360
referee shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 43361
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 43362
for which the coach or referee is responsible until both of the 43363
following conditions are satisfied:43364

       (a) The student's condition is assessed by eitherany of the 43365
following:43366

       (i) A physician;43367

        (ii) A chiropractor;43368

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the school 43369
district board of education or governing authority of the 43370
chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school, pursuant to division 43371
(E)(2) of this section, authorizes to assess a student who has 43372
been removed from practice or competition under division (D) of 43373
this section.43374

       (b) The student receives written clearance that it is safe 43375
for the student to return to practice or competition from a 43376
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 43377
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 43378
grant the clearance.43379

       (2) A school district board of education or governing 43380
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school may 43381
authorize a licensed health care provider who is not a physician 43382
or a chiropractor to make an assessment or grant a clearance for 43383
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section only if the provider 43384
is acting in accordance with one of the following, as applicable 43385
to the provider's authority to practice in this state:43386

       (a) In consultation with a physician;43387

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;43388

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;43389

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.43390

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 43391
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 43392
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.43393

       (F) A school district board of education or governing 43394
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school that is 43395
subject to the rules of an interscholastic conference or an 43396
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 43397
shall be considered to be in compliance with divisions (B), (D), 43398
and (E) of this section, as long as the requirements of those 43399
rules are substantially similar to the requirements of divisions 43400
(B), (D), and (E) of this section.43401

       (G)(1) A school district, member of a school district board 43402
of education, or school district employee or volunteer, including 43403
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 43404
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 43405
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 43406
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 43407
misconduct.43408

       This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any other 43409
immunity or defense that a school district, member of a school 43410
district board of education, or school district employee or 43411
volunteer, including a coach or referee, may be entitled to under 43412
Chapter 2744. or any other provision of the Revised Code or under 43413
the common law of this state.43414

       (2) A chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school or any 43415
officer, director, employee, or volunteer of the school, including 43416
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 43417
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 43418
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 43419
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 43420
misconduct.43421

       Sec. 3313.5311. (A) As used in this section and in section 43422
3313.5312 of the Revised Code, "extracurricular activity" has the 43423
same meaning as in section 3313.537 of the Revised Code.43424

       (B) If the nonpublic school in which the student is enrolled 43425
does not offer the extracurricular activity, a student enrolled in 43426
a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall be afforded, by 43427
the superintendent of the school district in which the student is 43428
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 43429
Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in that 43430
extracurricular activity at the district school to which the 43431
student otherwise would be assigned during that school year. If 43432
more than one school operated by the school district serves the 43433
student's grade level, as determined by the district 43434
superintendent based on the student's age and academic 43435
performance, the student shall be afforded the opportunity to 43436
participate in that extracurricular activity at the school to 43437
which the student would be assigned by the superintendent under 43438
section 3319.01 of the Revised Code.43439

       (C) The superintendent of any school district may afford any 43440
student enrolled in a nonpublic school, and who is not entitled to 43441
attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 43442
the Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in an 43443
extracurricular activity offered by a school of the district, if 43444
both of the following apply:43445

        (1) The nonpublic school in which the student is enrolled 43446
does not offer the extracurricular activity;43447

        (2) The extracurricular activity is not interscholastic 43448
athletics or interscholastic contests or competition in music, 43449
drama, or forensics.43450

       (D) In order to participate in an extracurricular activity 43451
under this section, the student shall be of the appropriate age 43452
and grade level, as determined by the superintendent of the 43453
district, for the school that offers the extracurricular activity, 43454
and shall fulfill the same academic, nonacademic, and financial 43455
requirements as any other participant. 43456

       (E) No school district shall impose additional rules on a 43457
student to participate under this section that do not apply to 43458
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity. 43459
No district shall impose additional fees for a student to 43460
participate under this section that exceed any fees charged to 43461
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity.43462

       (F) No school district, interscholastic conference, or 43463
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 43464
shall require a student who is eligible to participate in 43465
interscholastic extracurricular activities under this section to 43466
meet eligibility requirements that conflict with this section.43467

       Sec. 3313.5312.  (A) A student who is receiving home 43468
instruction in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 3321.04 43469
of the Revised Code shall be afforded, by the superintendent of 43470
the school district in which the student is entitled to attend 43471
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 43472
opportunity to participate in any extracurricular activity offered 43473
at the district school to which the student otherwise would be 43474
assigned during that school year. If more than one school operated 43475
by the school district serves the student's grade level, as 43476
determined by the district superintendent based on the student's 43477
age and academic performance, the student shall be afforded the 43478
opportunity to participate in extracurricular activities at the 43479
school to which the student would be assigned by the 43480
superintendent under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code. If a 43481
student who is afforded the opportunity to participate in 43482
extracurricular activities under division (A) of this section 43483
wishes to participate in an activity that is offered by the 43484
district, the student shall not participate in that activity at 43485
another school or school district to which the student is not 43486
entitled to attend.43487

       (B) The superintendent of any school district may afford any 43488
student who receives home instruction under division (A)(2) of 43489
section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and who is not entitled to 43490
attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 43491
the Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in any 43492
extracurricular activity offered by a school of the district, if 43493
the district to which the student is entitled to attend does not 43494
offer that extracurricular activity.43495

       (C) In order to participate in an extracurricular activity 43496
under this section, the student shall be of the appropriate age 43497
and grade level, as determined by the superintendent of the 43498
district, for the school that offers the extracurricular activity, 43499
shall fulfill the same nonacademic and financial requirements as 43500
any other participant, and shall fulfill either of the following 43501
academic requirements:43502

       (1) If the student received home instruction in the preceding 43503
grading period, the student shall meet any academic requirements 43504
established by the state board of education for the continuation 43505
of home instruction.43506

       (2) If the student did not receive home instruction in the 43507
preceding grading period, the student's academic performance 43508
during the preceding grading period shall have met any academic 43509
standards for eligibility to participate in the program 43510
established by the school district.43511

       (D) Eligibility for a student who leaves a school district 43512
mid-year for home instruction shall be determined based on an 43513
interim academic assessment issued by the district in which the 43514
student was enrolled based on the student's work while enrolled in 43515
that district.43516

       (E) Any student who commences home instruction after the 43517
beginning of a school year and who is, at the time home 43518
instruction commences, ineligible to participate in an 43519
extracurricular activity due to failure to meet academic standards 43520
or any other requirements of the district shall not participate in 43521
the extracurricular activity under this section until the student 43522
meets the academic requirements established by the state board of 43523
education for continuation of home instruction as verified by the 43524
superintendent of the district. No student under this section 43525
shall be eligible to participate in the same semester in which the 43526
student was determined ineligible.43527

       (F) No school district shall impose additional rules on a 43528
student to participate under this section that do not apply to 43529
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity. 43530
No district shall impose fees for a student to participate under 43531
this section that exceed any fees charged to other students 43532
participating in the same extracurricular activity.43533

       (G) No school district, interscholastic conference, or 43534
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 43535
shall require a student who is eligible to participate in 43536
interscholastic extracurricular activities under this section to 43537
meet eligibility requirements that conflict with this section.43538

       Sec. 3313.603.  (A) As used in this section:43539

       (1) "One unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of 43540
course instruction, except that for a laboratory course, "one 43541
unit" means a minimum of one hundred fifty hours of course 43542
instruction.43543

       (2) "One-half unit" means a minimum of sixty hours of course 43544
instruction, except that for physical education courses, "one-half 43545
unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course 43546
instruction.43547

       (B) Beginning September 15, 2001, except as required in 43548
division (C) of this section and division (C) of section 3313.614 43549
of the Revised Code, the requirements for graduation from every 43550
high school shall include twenty units earned in grades nine 43551
through twelve and shall be distributed as follows:43552

       (1) English language arts, four units;43553

       (2) Health, one-half unit;43554

       (3) Mathematics, three units;43555

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;43556

       (5) Science, two units until September 15, 2003, and three 43557
units thereafter, which at all times shall include both of the 43558
following:43559

       (a) Biological sciences, one unit;43560

       (b) Physical sciences, one unit.43561

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 43562
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 43563
following:43564

       (a) American history, one-half unit;43565

       (b) American government, one-half unit.43566

       (7) Social studies, two units.43567

       (8) Elective units, seven units until September 15, 2003, and 43568
six units thereafter.43569

       Each student's electives shall include at least one unit, or 43570
two half units, chosen from among the areas of 43571
business/technology, fine arts, and/or foreign language.43572

       (C) Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 43573
first time on or after July 1, 2010, except as provided in 43574
divisions (D) to (F) of this section, the requirements for 43575
graduation from every public and chartered nonpublic high school 43576
shall include twenty units that are designed to prepare students 43577
for the workforce and college. The units shall be distributed as 43578
follows:43579

       (1) English language arts, four units;43580

       (2) Health, one-half unit, which shall include instruction in 43581
nutrition and the benefits of nutritious foods and physical 43582
activity for overall health;43583

       (3) Mathematics, four units, which shall include one unit of 43584
algebra II or the equivalent of algebra II;43585

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;43586

       (5) Science, three units with inquiry-based laboratory 43587
experience that engages students in asking valid scientific 43588
questions and gathering and analyzing information, which shall 43589
include the following, or their equivalent:43590

       (a) Physical sciences, one unit;43591

       (b) Life sciences, one unit;43592

       (c) Advanced study in one or more of the following sciences, 43593
one unit:43594

       (i) Chemistry, physics, or other physical science;43595

       (ii) Advanced biology or other life science;43596

       (iii) Astronomy, physical geology, or other earth or space 43597
science.43598

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 43599
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 43600
following:43601

       (a) American history, one-half unit;43602

       (b) American government, one-half unit.43603

       (7) Social studies, two units.43604

       Each school shall integrate the study of economics and 43605
financial literacy, as expressed in the social studies academic 43606
content standards adopted by the state board of education under 43607
division (A)(1) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the 43608
academic content standards for financial literacy and 43609
entrepreneurship adopted under division (A)(2) of that section, 43610
into one or more existing social studies credits required under 43611
division (C)(7) of this section, or into the content of another 43612
class, so that every high school student receives instruction in 43613
those concepts. In developing the curriculum required by this 43614
paragraph, schools shall use available public-private partnerships 43615
and resources and materials that exist in business, industry, and 43616
through the centers for economics education at institutions of 43617
higher education in the state.43618

       (8) Five units consisting of one or any combination of 43619
foreign language, fine arts, business, career-technical education, 43620
family and consumer sciences, technology, agricultural education, 43621
a junior reserve officer training corps (JROTC) program approved 43622
by the congress of the United States under title 10 of the United 43623
States Code, or English language arts, mathematics, science, or 43624
social studies courses not otherwise required under division (C) 43625
of this section.43626

       Ohioans must be prepared to apply increased knowledge and 43627
skills in the workplace and to adapt their knowledge and skills 43628
quickly to meet the rapidly changing conditions of the 43629
twenty-first century. National studies indicate that all high 43630
school graduates need the same academic foundation, regardless of 43631
the opportunities they pursue after graduation. The goal of Ohio's 43632
system of elementary and secondary education is to prepare all 43633
students for and seamlessly connect all students to success in 43634
life beyond high school graduation, regardless of whether the next 43635
step is entering the workforce, beginning an apprenticeship, 43636
engaging in post-secondary training, serving in the military, or 43637
pursuing a college degree.43638

        The Ohio core curriculum is the standard expectation for all 43639
students entering ninth grade for the first time at a public or 43640
chartered nonpublic high school on or after July 1, 2010. A 43641
student may satisfy this expectation through a variety of methods, 43642
including, but not limited to, integrated, applied, 43643
career-technical, and traditional coursework.43644

       Whereas teacher quality is essential for student success in 43645
completing the Ohio core curriculum, the general assembly shall 43646
appropriate funds for strategic initiatives designed to strengthen 43647
schools' capacities to hire and retain highly qualified teachers 43648
in the subject areas required by the curriculum. Such initiatives 43649
are expected to require an investment of $120,000,000 over five 43650
years.43651

       Stronger coordination between high schools and institutions 43652
of higher education is necessary to prepare students for more 43653
challenging academic endeavors and to lessen the need for academic 43654
remediation in college, thereby reducing the costs of higher 43655
education for Ohio's students, families, and the state. The state 43656
board and the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 43657
develop policies to ensure that only in rare instances will 43658
students who complete the Ohio core curriculum require academic 43659
remediation after high school.43660

       School districts, community schools, and chartered nonpublic 43661
schools shall integrate technology into learning experiences 43662
across the curriculum in order to maximize efficiency, enhance 43663
learning, and prepare students for success in the 43664
technology-driven twenty-first century. Districts and schools 43665
shall use distance and web-based course delivery as a method of 43666
providing or augmenting all instruction required under this 43667
division, including laboratory experience in science. Districts 43668
and schools shall utilize technology access and electronic 43669
learning opportunities provided by the eTech Ohiobroadcast 43670
educational media commission, chancellor, the Ohio learning 43671
network, education technology centers, public television stations, 43672
and other public and private providers.43673

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a 43674
student who enters ninth grade on or after July 1, 2010, and 43675
before July 1, 2014, may qualify for graduation from a public or 43676
chartered nonpublic high school even though the student has not 43677
completed the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 43678
this section if all of the following conditions are satisfied:43679

       (1) After the student has attended high school for two years, 43680
as determined by the school, the student and the student's parent, 43681
guardian, or custodian sign and file with the school a written 43682
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 43683
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 43684
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 43685
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 43686
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.43687

       (2) The student and parent, guardian, or custodian fulfill 43688
any procedural requirements the school stipulates to ensure the 43689
student's and parent's, guardian's, or custodian's informed 43690
consent and to facilitate orderly filing of statements under 43691
division (D)(1) of this section.43692

       (3) The student and the student's parent, guardian, or 43693
custodian and a representative of the student's high school 43694
jointly develop an individual career plan for the student that 43695
specifies the student matriculating to a two-year degree program, 43696
acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an 43697
apprenticeship.43698

       (4) The student's high school provides counseling and support 43699
for the student related to the plan developed under division 43700
(D)(3) of this section during the remainder of the student's high 43701
school experience.43702

       (5) The student successfully completes, at a minimum, the 43703
curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section.43704

       The department of education, in collaboration with the 43705
chancellor, shall analyze student performance data to determine if 43706
there are mitigating factors that warrant extending the exception 43707
permitted by division (D) of this section to high school classes 43708
beyond those entering ninth grade before July 1, 2014. The 43709
department shall submit its findings and any recommendations not 43710
later than August 1, 2014, to the speaker and minority leader of 43711
the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of 43712
the senate, the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the 43713
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 43714
that consider education legislation, the state board of education, 43715
and the superintendent of public instruction.43716

       (E) Each school district and chartered nonpublic school 43717
retains the authority to require an even more rigorous minimum 43718
curriculum for high school graduation than specified in division 43719
(B) or (C) of this section. A school district board of education, 43720
through the adoption of a resolution, or the governing authority 43721
of a chartered nonpublic school may stipulate any of the 43722
following:43723

        (1) A minimum high school curriculum that requires more than 43724
twenty units of academic credit to graduate;43725

        (2) An exception to the district's or school's minimum high 43726
school curriculum that is comparable to the exception provided in 43727
division (D) of this section but with additional requirements, 43728
which may include a requirement that the student successfully 43729
complete more than the minimum curriculum prescribed in division 43730
(B) of this section;43731

        (3) That no exception comparable to that provided in division 43732
(D) of this section is available.43733

       (F) A student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 43734
program, which program has received a waiver from the department, 43735
may qualify for graduation from high school by successfully 43736
completing a competency-based instructional program administered 43737
by the dropout prevention and recovery program in lieu of 43738
completing the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 43739
this section. The department shall grant a waiver to a dropout 43740
prevention and recovery program, within sixty days after the 43741
program applies for the waiver, if the program meets all of the 43742
following conditions:43743

       (1) The program serves only students not younger than sixteen 43744
years of age and not older than twenty-one years of age.43745

       (2) The program enrolls students who, at the time of their 43746
initial enrollment, either, or both, are at least one grade level 43747
behind their cohort age groups or experience crises that 43748
significantly interfere with their academic progress such that 43749
they are prevented from continuing their traditional programs.43750

       (3) The program requires students to attain at least the 43751
applicable score designated for each of the assessments prescribed 43752
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or, 43753
to the extent prescribed by rule of the state board under division 43754
(D)(6) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, division (B)(2) 43755
of that section.43756

       (4) The program develops an individual career plan for the 43757
student that specifies the student's matriculating to a two-year 43758
degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or 43759
entering an apprenticeship.43760

       (5) The program provides counseling and support for the 43761
student related to the plan developed under division (F)(4) of 43762
this section during the remainder of the student's high school 43763
experience.43764

       (6) The program requires the student and the student's 43765
parent, guardian, or custodian to sign and file, in accordance 43766
with procedural requirements stipulated by the program, a written 43767
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 43768
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 43769
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 43770
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 43771
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.43772

       (7) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted 43773
to the department an instructional plan that demonstrates how the 43774
academic content standards adopted by the state board under 43775
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code will be taught and assessed.43776

       If the department does not act either to grant the waiver or 43777
to reject the program application for the waiver within sixty days 43778
as required under this section, the waiver shall be considered to 43779
be granted.43780

       (G) Every high school may permit students below the ninth 43781
grade to take advanced work. If a high school so permits, it shall 43782
award high school credit for successful completion of the advanced 43783
work and shall count such advanced work toward the graduation 43784
requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section if the 43785
advanced work was both:43786

       (1) Taught by a person who possesses a license or certificate 43787
issued under section 3301.071, 3319.22, or 3319.222 of the Revised 43788
Code that is valid for teaching high school;43789

       (2) Designated by the board of education of the city, local, 43790
or exempted village school district, the board of the cooperative 43791
education school district, or the governing authority of the 43792
chartered nonpublic school as meeting the high school curriculum 43793
requirements.43794

        Each high school shall record on the student's high school 43795
transcript all high school credit awarded under division (G) of 43796
this section. In addition, if the student completed a seventh- or 43797
eighth-grade fine arts course described in division (K) of this 43798
section and the course qualified for high school credit under that 43799
division, the high school shall record that course on the 43800
student's high school transcript.43801

       (H) The department shall make its individual academic career 43802
plan available through its Ohio career information system web site 43803
for districts and schools to use as a tool for communicating with 43804
and providing guidance to students and families in selecting high 43805
school courses.43806

        (I) Units earned in English language arts, mathematics, 43807
science, and social studies that are delivered through integrated 43808
academic and career-technical instruction are eligible to meet the 43809
graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section.43810

       (J) The state board, in consultation with the chancellor, 43811
shall adopt a statewide plan implementing methods for students to 43812
earn units of high school credit based on a demonstration of 43813
subject area competency, instead of or in combination with 43814
completing hours of classroom instruction. The state board shall 43815
adopt the plan not later than March 31, 2009, and commence phasing 43816
in the plan during the 2009-2010 school year. The plan shall 43817
include a standard method for recording demonstrated proficiency 43818
on high school transcripts. Each school district and community 43819
school shall comply with the state board's plan adopted under this 43820
division and award units of high school credit in accordance with 43821
the plan. The state board may adopt existing methods for earning 43822
high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area 43823
competency as necessary prior to the 2009-2010 school year.43824

       (K) This division does not apply to students who qualify for 43825
graduation from high school under division (D) or (F) of this 43826
section, or to students pursuing a career-technical instructional 43827
track as determined by the school district board of education or 43828
the chartered nonpublic school's governing authority. 43829
Nevertheless, the general assembly encourages such students to 43830
consider enrolling in a fine arts course as an elective.43831

       Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first 43832
time on or after July 1, 2010, each student enrolled in a public 43833
or chartered nonpublic high school shall complete two semesters or 43834
the equivalent of fine arts to graduate from high school. The 43835
coursework may be completed in any of grades seven to twelve. Each 43836
student who completes a fine arts course in grade seven or eight 43837
may elect to count that course toward the five units of electives 43838
required for graduation under division (C)(8) of this section, if 43839
the course satisfied the requirements of division (G) of this 43840
section. In that case, the high school shall award the student 43841
high school credit for the course and count the course toward the 43842
five units required under division (C)(8) of this section. If the 43843
course in grade seven or eight did not satisfy the requirements of 43844
division (G) of this section, the high school shall not award the 43845
student high school credit for the course but shall count the 43846
course toward the two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts 43847
required by this division.43848

       (L) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this section, 43849
the board of education of each school district and the governing 43850
authority of each chartered nonpublic school may adopt a policy to 43851
excuse from the high school physical education requirement each 43852
student who, during high school, has participated in 43853
interscholastic athletics, marching band, or cheerleading for at 43854
least two full seasons or in the junior reserve officer training 43855
corps for at least two full school years. If the board or 43856
authority adopts such a policy, the board or authority shall not 43857
require the student to complete any physical education course as a 43858
condition to graduate. However, the student shall be required to 43859
complete one-half unit, consisting of at least sixty hours of 43860
instruction, in another course of study. In the case of a student 43861
who has participated in the junior reserve officer training corps 43862
for at least two full school years, credit received for that 43863
participation may be used to satisfy the requirement to complete 43864
one-half unit in another course of study.43865

       (M) It is important that high school students learn and 43866
understand United States history and the governments of both the 43867
United States and the state of Ohio. Therefore, beginning with 43868
students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 43869
1, 2012, the study of American history and American government 43870
required by divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall 43871
include the study of all of the following documents:43872

        (1) The Declaration of Independence;43873

        (2) The Northwest Ordinance;43874

        (3) The Constitution of the United States with emphasis on 43875
the Bill of Rights;43876

        (4) The Ohio Constitution.43877

        The study of each of the documents prescribed in divisions 43878
(M)(1) to (4) of this section shall include study of that document 43879
in its original context.43880

        The study of American history and government required by 43881
divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall include the 43882
historical evidence of the role of documents such as the 43883
Federalist Papers and the Anti-Federalist Papers to firmly 43884
establish the historical background leading to the establishment 43885
of the provisions of the Constitution and Bill of Rights.43886

       Sec. 3313.6011.  (A) As used in this section, "sexual:43887

       (1) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 43888
2907.01 of the Revised Code.43889

       (2) "Gateway sexual activity" means activities described as 43890
"sexual contact" in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code.43891

       (B) Instruction in venereal disease education pursuant to 43892
division (A)(5)(c) of section 3313.60 of the Revised Code shall 43893
emphasize that abstinence from sexual activity is the only 43894
protection that is one hundred per cent effective against unwanted 43895
pregnancy, sexually transmitted disease, and the sexual 43896
transmission of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency 43897
syndrome.43898

       (C) In adopting minimum standards under section 3301.07 of 43899
the Revised Code, the state board of education shall require 43900
course material and instruction in venereal disease education 43901
courses taught pursuant to division (A)(5)(c) of section 3313.60 43902
of the Revised Code to do all of the following:43903

       (1) Stress that students should abstain from sexual activity 43904
until after marriage;43905

       (2) Teach the potential physical, psychological, emotional, 43906
and social side effects of participating in sexual activity 43907
outside of marriage;43908

       (3) Teach that conceiving children out of wedlock is likely 43909
to have harmful consequences for the child, the child's parents, 43910
and society;43911

       (4) Stress that sexually transmitted diseases are serious 43912
possible hazards of sexual activity;43913

       (5) Advise students of the laws pertaining to financial 43914
responsibility of parents to children born in and out of wedlock;43915

       (6) Advise students of the circumstances under which it is 43916
criminal to have sexual contact with a person under the age of 43917
sixteen pursuant to section 2907.04 of the Revised Code;43918

       (7) Emphasize adoption as an option for unintended 43919
pregnancies.43920

       (D) Any model education program for health education the 43921
state board of education adopts shall conform to the requirements 43922
of this section.43923

       (E) Instruction under this section shall not utilize the 43924
services of any individual or organization to assist in teaching 43925
the coursework if that individual or organization endorses student 43926
nonabstinence from sexual activity as an appropriate or acceptable 43927
behavior, or if that individual or organization promotes, 43928
endorses, advocates, or condones gateway sexual activity.43929

       (F) Instruction under this section shall not do any of the 43930
following:43931

       (1) Promote, implicitly or explicitly, any gateway sexual 43932
activity or health message that encourages students to experiment 43933
with sexual activity;43934

       (2) Provide or distribute on school grounds materials that 43935
condone, encourage, or promote student sexual activity among 43936
unmarried students;43937

       (3) Display or conduct demonstrations with devices 43938
specifically manufactured for sexual stimulation;43939

       (4) Distribute contraception on school property.43940

       Medically accurate information about contraception and 43941
condoms may be provided if the information is presented in a 43942
manner consistent with provisions of this section and clearly 43943
informs students that while such methods may reduce the risk of 43944
acquiring sexually transmitted diseases or pregnancy, only 43945
abstinence removes all risk.43946

       (G)(1) If a student receives instruction by an individual or 43947
organization that promotes gateway sexual activity or demonstrates 43948
sexual activity, in violation of division (E) or (F) of this 43949
section, the student's parent or legal guardian shall have a cause 43950
of action against that individual or organization for actual 43951
damages plus reasonable attorney's fees and court costs.43952

       (2) If a student's parent or legal guardian is the prevailing 43953
party to an action brought under division (G)(1) of this section, 43954
a court may impose a civil fine in an amount not to exceed five 43955
thousand dollars.43956

       (3) An action brought under division (G)(1) of this section 43957
shall be commenced within one year after the alleged violation 43958
occurred.43959

       (H)(1) The provisions of division (F) of this section shall 43960
not apply to instruction by any teacher, instructor, or 43961
organization who, with respect to a course or class otherwise 43962
offered in accordance with the requirements of this section, 43963
orally answers in good faith any question, or series of questions, 43964
germane and material to the course, asked of a teacher or 43965
instructor and initiated by a student or students enrolled in the 43966
course.43967

       (2) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary and 43968
regardless of the title or designated name of a particular class 43969
or course, any instruction in sex education or sexual activity 43970
shall comply with the requirements of this section. However, 43971
nothing in this section shall prohibit the scientific study of the 43972
sexual reproductive system through coursework in biology, 43973
physiology, anatomy, health, or physical education.43974

       (I) On and after March 18, 1999, and notwithstanding section 43975
3302.07 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of public 43976
instruction shall not approve, pursuant to section 3302.07 of the 43977
Revised Code, any waiver of any requirement of this section or of 43978
any rule adopted by the state board of education pursuant to this 43979
section.43980

       Sec. 3313.6013. (A) As used in this section, "dual enrollment 43981
program" means a program that enables a student to earn credit 43982
toward a degree from an institution of higher education while 43983
enrolled in high school or that enables a student to complete 43984
coursework while enrolled in high school that may earn credit 43985
toward a degree from an institution of higher education upon the 43986
student's attainment of a specified score on an examination 43987
covering the coursework. Dual enrollment programs may include any 43988
of the following:43989

        (1) The post-secondary enrollment options program established 43990
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code;43991

       (2) Advanced placement courses;43992

       (3) Any similar program established pursuant to an agreement 43993
between a school district or chartered nonpublic high school and 43994
an institution of higher education;43995

       (4) Early college high schools.43996

        (B) Each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational 43997
school district and each chartered nonpublic high school shall 43998
provide students enrolled in grades nine through twelve with the 43999
opportunity to participate in a dual enrollment program. For this 44000
purpose, each school district and chartered nonpublic high school 44001
shall offer at least one dual enrollment program in accordance 44002
with division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.44003

        (1) A city, local, or exempted village school district meets 44004
the requirements of this division through its mandatory 44005
participation in the post-secondary enrollment options program 44006
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code. However, a 44007
city, local, or exempted village school district may offer any 44008
other dual enrollment program, in addition to the post-secondary 44009
enrollment options program, and each joint vocational school 44010
district shall offer at least one other dual enrollment program, 44011
to students in good standing, as defined by the partnership for 44012
continued learning under section 3301.42 of the Revised Code as it 44013
existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as subsequently defined by 44014
the department of education.44015

        (2) A chartered nonpublic high school that elects to 44016
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 44017
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code meets the 44018
requirements of this division. Each chartered nonpublic high 44019
school that elects not to participate in the post-secondary 44020
enrollment options program instead shall offer at least one other 44021
dual enrollment program to students in good standing, as defined 44022
by the partnership for continued learning under section 3301.42 of 44023
the Revised Code as it existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as 44024
subsequently defined by the department of education.44025

       (C) Each school district and each chartered nonpublic high 44026
school shall provide information about the dual enrollment 44027
programs offered by the district or school to all students 44028
enrolled in grades eight through eleven.44029

       Sec. 3313.6016.  (A) Beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, 44030
the department of education shall administer a pilot program 44031
requiring daily physical activity for students. Any school 44032
district; community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 44033
Revised Code; science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 44034
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or 44035
chartered nonpublic school annually may elect to participate in 44036
the pilot program by notifying the department of its interest by a 44037
date established by the department. If a school district elects to 44038
participate in the pilot program, each school building operated by 44039
the district shall be requiredthe district shall select one or 44040
more school buildings to participate in the program. To the 44041
maximum extent possible, the department shall seek to include in 44042
the pilot program districts and schools that are located in urban, 44043
suburban, and rural areas distributed geographically throughout 44044
the state. The department shall administer the pilot program in 44045
accordance with this section.44046

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 44047
district or school participating in the pilot program shall 44048
require all students in each of grades kindergarten through twelve44049
the school building selected under division (A) of this section to 44050
engage in at least thirty minutes of moderate to rigorous physical 44051
activity each school day or at least one hundred fifty minutes of 44052
moderate to rigorous physical activity each week, exclusive of 44053
recess. Physical activity engaged in during the following may 44054
count toward the daily requirement:44055

       (1) A physical education course;44056

       (2) A program or activity occurring before or after the 44057
regular school day, as defined in section 3313.814 of the Revised 44058
Code, that is sponsored or approved by the school of attendance, 44059
provided school officials are able to monitor students' 44060
participation to ensure compliance with the requirement.44061

       (C) None of the following shall be subject to the requirement 44062
of division (B) of this section:44063

       (1) Any student enrolled in the post-secondary enrollment 44064
options program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 44065
Code;44066

       (2) Any student enrolled in a career-technical education 44067
program operated by the district or school;44068

       (3) Any student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 44069
program operated by the district or school.44070

       (D) For any period in which a student is participating in 44071
interscholastic athletics, marching band, cheerleading, or a 44072
junior reserve officer training corps program, the district or 44073
school may excuse the student from the requirement of division (B) 44074
of this section.44075

       (E) The district or school may excuse any kindergarten 44076
student who is not enrolled in all-day kindergarten, as defined in 44077
section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, from the requirement of 44078
division (B) of this section.44079

       (F) Each district or school annually shall report to the 44080
department, in the manner prescribed by the department, how the 44081
district or school implemented the thirty minutes of daily 44082
physical activity and the financial costs of implementation. The 44083
department shall issue an annual report of the data collected 44084
under this division.44085

       Sec. 3313.62.  The school year shall begin on the first day 44086
of July of each calendar year and close on the thirtieth day of 44087
June of the succeeding calendar year. A school week shall consist 44088
of five days, and a school month of four school weeks. A chartered 44089
nonpublic school may be open for instruction with pupils in 44090
attendance on any day of the week, including Saturday or Sunday.44091

       Sec. 3313.64.  (A) As used in this section and in section 44092
3313.65 of the Revised Code:44093

       (1)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this 44094
section, "parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 44095
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 44096
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 44097
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. When a child 44098
is in the legal custody of a government agency or a person other 44099
than the child's natural or adoptive parent, "parent" means the 44100
parent with residual parental rights, privileges, and 44101
responsibilities. When a child is in the permanent custody of a 44102
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 44103
adoptive parent, "parent" means the parent who was divested of 44104
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child and 44105
the right to have the child live with the parent and be the legal 44106
custodian of the child and all residual parental rights, 44107
privileges, and responsibilities.44108

       (b) When a child is the subject of a power of attorney 44109
executed under sections 3109.51 to 3109.62 of the Revised Code, 44110
"parent" means the grandparent designated as attorney in fact 44111
under the power of attorney. When a child is the subject of a 44112
caretaker authorization affidavit executed under sections 3109.64 44113
to 3109.73 of the Revised Code, "parent" means the grandparent 44114
that executed the affidavit.44115

       (2) "Legal custody," "permanent custody," and "residual 44116
parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities" have the same 44117
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.44118

       (3) "School district" or "district" means a city, local, or 44119
exempted village school district and excludes any school operated 44120
in an institution maintained by the department of youth services.44121

       (4) Except as used in division (C)(2) of this section, "home" 44122
means a home, institution, foster home, group home, or other 44123
residential facility in this state that receives and cares for 44124
children, to which any of the following applies:44125

       (a) The home is licensed, certified, or approved for such 44126
purpose by the state or is maintained by the department of youth 44127
services.44128

       (b) The home is operated by a person who is licensed, 44129
certified, or approved by the state to operate the home for such 44130
purpose.44131

       (c) The home accepted the child through a placement by a 44132
person licensed, certified, or approved to place a child in such a 44133
home by the state.44134

       (d) The home is a children's home created under section 44135
5153.21 or 5153.36 of the Revised Code.44136

       (5) "Agency" means all of the following:44137

       (a) A public children services agency;44138

       (b) An organization that holds a certificate issued by the 44139
Ohio department of job and family services in accordance with the 44140
requirements of section 5103.03 of the Revised Code and assumes 44141
temporary or permanent custody of children through commitment, 44142
agreement, or surrender, and places children in family homes for 44143
the purpose of adoption;44144

       (c) Comparable agencies of other states or countries that 44145
have complied with applicable requirements of section 2151.39 of 44146
the Revised Code or as applicable, sections 5103.20 to 5103.22 or 44147
5103.23 to 5103.237 of the Revised Code.44148

       (6) A child is placed for adoption if either of the following 44149
occurs:44150

       (a) An agency to which the child has been permanently 44151
committed or surrendered enters into an agreement with a person 44152
pursuant to section 5103.16 of the Revised Code for the care and 44153
adoption of the child.44154

       (b) The child's natural parent places the child pursuant to 44155
section 5103.16 of the Revised Code with a person who will care 44156
for and adopt the child.44157

       (7) "Preschool child with a disability" has the same meaning 44158
as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.44159

       (8) "Child," unless otherwise indicated, includes preschool 44160
children with disabilities.44161

       (9) "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 44162
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 44163
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 44164
the Revised Code.44165

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in section 3321.01 of the 44166
Revised Code for admittance to kindergarten and first grade, a 44167
child who is at least five but under twenty-two years of age and 44168
any preschool child with a disability shall be admitted to school 44169
as provided in this division.44170

       (1) A child shall be admitted to the schools of the school 44171
district in which the child's parent resides.44172

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B) of section 2151.362 44173
and section 3317.30 of the Revised Code, a child who does not 44174
reside in the district where the child's parent resides shall be 44175
admitted to the schools of the district in which the child resides 44176
if any of the following applies:44177

       (a) The child is in the legal or permanent custody of a 44178
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 44179
adoptive parent.44180

       (b) The child resides in a home.44181

       (c) The child requires special education.44182

       (3) A child who is not entitled under division (B)(2) of this 44183
section to be admitted to the schools of the district where the 44184
child resides and who is residing with a resident of this state 44185
with whom the child has been placed for adoption shall be admitted 44186
to the schools of the district where the child resides unless 44187
either of the following applies:44188

       (a) The placement for adoption has been terminated.44189

       (b) Another school district is required to admit the child 44190
under division (B)(1) of this section.44191

       Division (B) of this section does not prohibit the board of 44192
education of a school district from placing a child with a 44193
disability who resides in the district in a special education 44194
program outside of the district or its schools in compliance with 44195
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.44196

       (C) A district shall not charge tuition for children admitted 44197
under division (B)(1) or (3) of this section. If the district 44198
admits a child under division (B)(2) of this section, tuition 44199
shall be paid to the district that admits the child as provided in 44200
divisions (C)(1) to (3) of this section, unless division (C)(4) of 44201
this section applies to the child:44202

       (1) If the child receives special education in accordance 44203
with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, the school district of 44204
residence, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, 44205
shall pay tuition for the child in accordance with section 44206
3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, or 3323.141 of the Revised Code 44207
regardless of who has custody of the child or whether the child 44208
resides in a home.44209

       (2) For a child that does not receive special education in 44210
accordance with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, except as 44211
otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(d) of this section, if the 44212
child is in the permanent or legal custody of a government agency 44213
or person other than the child's parent, tuition shall be paid by:44214

       (a) The district in which the child's parent resided at the 44215
time the court removed the child from home or at the time the 44216
court vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person 44217
or government agency, whichever occurred first;44218

       (b) If the parent's residence at the time the court removed 44219
the child from home or placed the child in the legal or permanent 44220
custody of the person or government agency is unknown, tuition 44221
shall be paid by the district in which the child resided at the 44222
time the child was removed from home or placed in legal or 44223
permanent custody, whichever occurred first;44224

       (c) If a school district cannot be established under division 44225
(C)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, tuition shall be paid by the 44226
district determined as required by section 2151.362 of the Revised 44227
Code by the court at the time it vests custody of the child in the 44228
person or government agency;44229

       (d) If at the time the court removed the child from home or 44230
vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person or 44231
government agency, whichever occurred first, one parent was in a 44232
residential or correctional facility or a juvenile residential 44233
placement and the other parent, if living and not in such a 44234
facility or placement, was not known to reside in this state, 44235
tuition shall be paid by the district determined under division 44236
(D) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code as the district 44237
required to pay any tuition while the parent was in such facility 44238
or placement;44239

       (e) If the department of education has determined, pursuant 44240
to division (A)(2) of section 2151.362 of the Revised Code, that a 44241
school district other than the one named in the court's initial 44242
order, or in a prior determination of the department, is 44243
responsible to bear the cost of educating the child, the district 44244
so determined shall be responsible for that cost.44245

       (3) If the child is not in the permanent or legal custody of 44246
a government agency or person other than the child's parent and 44247
the child resides in a home, tuition shall be paid by one of the 44248
following:44249

       (a) The school district in which the child's parent resides;44250

       (b) If the child's parent is not a resident of this state, 44251
the home in which the child resides.44252

       (4) Division (C)(4) of this section applies to any child who 44253
is admitted to a school district under division (B)(2) of this 44254
section, resides in a home that is not a foster home or, a home 44255
maintained by the department of youth services, a detention 44256
facility established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, or 44257
a juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the 44258
Revised Code, receives educational services at the home or 44259
facility in which the child resides pursuant to a contract between 44260
the home or facility and the school district providing those 44261
services, and does not receive special education.44262

        In the case of a child to which division (C)(4) of this 44263
section applies, the total educational cost to be paid for the 44264
child shall be determined by a formula approved by the department 44265
of education, which formula shall be designed to calculate a per 44266
diem cost for the educational services provided to the child for 44267
each day the child is served and shall reflect the total actual 44268
cost incurred in providing those services. The department shall 44269
certify the total educational cost to be paid for the child to 44270
both the school district providing the educational services and, 44271
if different, the school district that is responsible to pay 44272
tuition for the child. The department shall deduct the certified 44273
amount from the state basic aid funds payable under Chapter 3317. 44274
of the Revised Code to the district responsible to pay tuition and 44275
shall pay that amount to the district providing the educational 44276
services to the child.44277

       (D) Tuition required to be paid under divisions (C)(2) and 44278
(3)(a) of this section shall be computed in accordance with 44279
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. Tuition required to be paid 44280
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section shall be computed in 44281
accordance with section 3317.081 of the Revised Code. If a home 44282
fails to pay the tuition required by division (C)(3)(b) of this 44283
section, the board of education providing the education may 44284
recover in a civil action the tuition and the expenses incurred in 44285
prosecuting the action, including court costs and reasonable 44286
attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or city director of 44287
law represents the board in such action, costs and reasonable 44288
attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon the prosecuting 44289
attorney's, director's, or one of their designee's time spent 44290
preparing and presenting the case, shall be deposited in the 44291
county or city general fund.44292

       (E) A board of education may enroll a child free of any 44293
tuition obligation for a period not to exceed sixty days, on the 44294
sworn statement of an adult resident of the district that the 44295
resident has initiated legal proceedings for custody of the child.44296

       (F) In the case of any individual entitled to attend school 44297
under this division, no tuition shall be charged by the school 44298
district of attendance and no other school district shall be 44299
required to pay tuition for the individual's attendance. 44300
Notwithstanding division (B), (C), or (E) of this section:44301

       (1) All persons at least eighteen but under twenty-two years 44302
of age who live apart from their parents, support themselves by 44303
their own labor, and have not successfully completed the high 44304
school curriculum or the individualized education program 44305
developed for the person by the high school pursuant to section 44306
3323.08 of the Revised Code, are entitled to attend school in the 44307
district in which they reside.44308

       (2) Any child under eighteen years of age who is married is 44309
entitled to attend school in the child's district of residence.44310

       (3) A child is entitled to attend school in the district in 44311
which either of the child's parents is employed if the child has a 44312
medical condition that may require emergency medical attention. 44313
The parent of a child entitled to attend school under division 44314
(F)(3) of this section shall submit to the board of education of 44315
the district in which the parent is employed a statement from the 44316
child's physician certifying that the child's medical condition 44317
may require emergency medical attention. The statement shall be 44318
supported by such other evidence as the board may require.44319

       (4) Any child residing with a person other than the child's 44320
parent is entitled, for a period not to exceed twelve months, to 44321
attend school in the district in which that person resides if the 44322
child's parent files an affidavit with the superintendent of the 44323
district in which the person with whom the child is living resides 44324
stating all of the following:44325

       (a) That the parent is serving outside of the state in the 44326
armed services of the United States;44327

       (b) That the parent intends to reside in the district upon 44328
returning to this state;44329

       (c) The name and address of the person with whom the child is 44330
living while the parent is outside the state.44331

       (5) Any child under the age of twenty-two years who, after 44332
the death of a parent, resides in a school district other than the 44333
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 44334
parent's death is entitled to continue to attend school in the 44335
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 44336
parent's death for the remainder of the school year, subject to 44337
approval of that district board.44338

       (6) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 44339
with a parent who is having a new house built in a school district 44340
outside the district where the parent is residing is entitled to 44341
attend school for a period of time in the district where the new 44342
house is being built. In order to be entitled to such attendance, 44343
the parent shall provide the district superintendent with the 44344
following:44345

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 44346
location of the house being built, and stating the parent's 44347
intention to reside there upon its completion;44348

       (b) A statement from the builder confirming that a new house 44349
is being built for the parent and that the house is at the 44350
location indicated in the parent's statement.44351

       (7) A child under the age of twenty-two years residing with a 44352
parent who has a contract to purchase a house in a school district 44353
outside the district where the parent is residing and who is 44354
waiting upon the date of closing of the mortgage loan for the 44355
purchase of such house is entitled to attend school for a period 44356
of time in the district where the house is being purchased. In 44357
order to be entitled to such attendance, the parent shall provide 44358
the district superintendent with the following:44359

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 44360
location of the house being purchased, and stating the parent's 44361
intent to reside there;44362

       (b) A statement from a real estate broker or bank officer 44363
confirming that the parent has a contract to purchase the house, 44364
that the parent is waiting upon the date of closing of the 44365
mortgage loan, and that the house is at the location indicated in 44366
the parent's statement.44367

       The district superintendent shall establish a period of time 44368
not to exceed ninety days during which the child entitled to 44369
attend school under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section may 44370
attend without tuition obligation. A student attending a school 44371
under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section shall be eligible to 44372
participate in interscholastic athletics under the auspices of 44373
that school, provided the board of education of the school 44374
district where the student's parent resides, by a formal action, 44375
releases the student to participate in interscholastic athletics 44376
at the school where the student is attending, and provided the 44377
student receives any authorization required by a public agency or 44378
private organization of which the school district is a member 44379
exercising authority over interscholastic sports.44380

       (8) A child whose parent is a full-time employee of a city, 44381
local, or exempted village school district, or of an educational 44382
service center, may be admitted to the schools of the district 44383
where the child's parent is employed, or in the case of a child 44384
whose parent is employed by an educational service center, in the 44385
district that serves the location where the parent's job is 44386
primarily located, provided the district board of education 44387
establishes such an admission policy by resolution adopted by a 44388
majority of its members. Any such policy shall take effect on the 44389
first day of the school year and the effective date of any 44390
amendment or repeal may not be prior to the first day of the 44391
subsequent school year. The policy shall be uniformly applied to 44392
all such children and shall provide for the admission of any such 44393
child upon request of the parent. No child may be admitted under 44394
this policy after the first day of classes of any school year.44395

       (9) A child who is with the child's parent under the care of 44396
a shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in section 44397
3113.33 of the Revised Code, is entitled to attend school free in 44398
the district in which the child is with the child's parent, and no 44399
other school district shall be required to pay tuition for the 44400
child's attendance in that school district.44401

       The enrollment of a child in a school district under this 44402
division shall not be denied due to a delay in the school 44403
district's receipt of any records required under section 3313.672 44404
of the Revised Code or any other records required for enrollment. 44405
Any days of attendance and any credits earned by a child while 44406
enrolled in a school district under this division shall be 44407
transferred to and accepted by any school district in which the 44408
child subsequently enrolls. The state board of education shall 44409
adopt rules to ensure compliance with this division.44410

       (10) Any child under the age of twenty-two years whose parent 44411
has moved out of the school district after the commencement of 44412
classes in the child's senior year of high school is entitled, 44413
subject to the approval of that district board, to attend school 44414
in the district in which the child attended school at the time of 44415
the parental move for the remainder of the school year and for one 44416
additional semester or equivalent term. A district board may also 44417
adopt a policy specifying extenuating circumstances under which a 44418
student may continue to attend school under division (F)(10) of 44419
this section for an additional period of time in order to 44420
successfully complete the high school curriculum for the 44421
individualized education program developed for the student by the 44422
high school pursuant to section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.44423

       (11) As used in this division, "grandparent" means a parent 44424
of a parent of a child. A child under the age of twenty-two years 44425
who is in the custody of the child's parent, resides with a 44426
grandparent, and does not require special education is entitled to 44427
attend the schools of the district in which the child's 44428
grandparent resides, provided that, prior to such attendance in 44429
any school year, the board of education of the school district in 44430
which the child's grandparent resides and the board of education 44431
of the school district in which the child's parent resides enter 44432
into a written agreement specifying that good cause exists for 44433
such attendance, describing the nature of this good cause, and 44434
consenting to such attendance.44435

       In lieu of a consent form signed by a parent, a board of 44436
education may request the grandparent of a child attending school 44437
in the district in which the grandparent resides pursuant to 44438
division (F)(11) of this section to complete any consent form 44439
required by the district, including any authorization required by 44440
sections 3313.712, 3313.713, 3313.716, and 3313.718 of the Revised 44441
Code. Upon request, the grandparent shall complete any consent 44442
form required by the district. A school district shall not incur 44443
any liability solely because of its receipt of a consent form from 44444
a grandparent in lieu of a parent.44445

       Division (F)(11) of this section does not create, and shall 44446
not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or substantive 44447
legal right against a school district, a member of a board of 44448
education, or an employee of a school district. This section does 44449
not affect, and shall not be construed as affecting, any 44450
immunities from defenses to tort liability created or recognized 44451
by Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code for a school district, 44452
member, or employee.44453

       (12) A child under the age of twenty-two years is entitled to 44454
attend school in a school district other than the district in 44455
which the child is entitled to attend school under division (B), 44456
(C), or (E) of this section provided that, prior to such 44457
attendance in any school year, both of the following occur:44458

       (a) The superintendent of the district in which the child is 44459
entitled to attend school under division (B), (C), or (E) of this 44460
section contacts the superintendent of another district for 44461
purposes of this division;44462

       (b) The superintendents of both districts enter into a 44463
written agreement that consents to the attendance and specifies 44464
that the purpose of such attendance is to protect the student's 44465
physical or mental well-being or to deal with other extenuating 44466
circumstances deemed appropriate by the superintendents.44467

       While an agreement is in effect under this division for a 44468
student who is not receiving special education under Chapter 3323. 44469
of the Revised Code and notwithstanding Chapter 3327. of the 44470
Revised Code, the board of education of neither school district 44471
involved in the agreement is required to provide transportation 44472
for the student to and from the school where the student attends.44473

       A student attending a school of a district pursuant to this 44474
division shall be allowed to participate in all student 44475
activities, including interscholastic athletics, at the school 44476
where the student is attending on the same basis as any student 44477
who has always attended the schools of that district while of 44478
compulsory school age.44479

       (13) All school districts shall comply with the 44480
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C.A. 11431 et 44481
seq., for the education of homeless children. Each city, local, 44482
and exempted village school district shall comply with the 44483
requirements of that act governing the provision of a free, 44484
appropriate public education, including public preschool, to each 44485
homeless child.44486

       When a child loses permanent housing and becomes a homeless 44487
person, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 11481(5), or when a child who is 44488
such a homeless person changes temporary living arrangements, the 44489
child's parent or guardian shall have the option of enrolling the 44490
child in either of the following:44491

       (a) The child's school of origin, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 44492
11432(g)(3)(C);44493

       (b) The school that is operated by the school district in 44494
which the shelter where the child currently resides is located and 44495
that serves the geographic area in which the shelter is located.44496

       (14) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 44497
with a person other than the child's parent is entitled to attend 44498
school in the school district in which that person resides if both 44499
of the following apply:44500

       (a) That person has been appointed, through a military power 44501
of attorney executed under section 574(a) of the "National Defense 44502
Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994," 107 Stat. 1674 (1993), 10 44503
U.S.C. 1044b, or through a comparable document necessary to 44504
complete a family care plan, as the parent's agent for the care, 44505
custody, and control of the child while the parent is on active 44506
duty as a member of the national guard or a reserve unit of the 44507
armed forces of the United States or because the parent is a 44508
member of the armed forces of the United States and is on a duty 44509
assignment away from the parent's residence.44510

       (b) The military power of attorney or comparable document 44511
includes at least the authority to enroll the child in school.44512

        The entitlement to attend school in the district in which the 44513
parent's agent under the military power of attorney or comparable 44514
document resides applies until the end of the school year in which 44515
the military power of attorney or comparable document expires.44516

       (G) A board of education, after approving admission, may 44517
waive tuition for students who will temporarily reside in the 44518
district and who are either of the following:44519

       (1) Residents or domiciliaries of a foreign nation who 44520
request admission as foreign exchange students;44521

       (2) Residents or domiciliaries of the United States but not 44522
of Ohio who request admission as participants in an exchange 44523
program operated by a student exchange organization.44524

       (H) Pursuant to sections 3311.211, 3313.90, 3319.01, 3323.04, 44525
3327.04, and 3327.06 of the Revised Code, a child may attend 44526
school or participate in a special education program in a school 44527
district other than in the district where the child is entitled to 44528
attend school under division (B) of this section.44529

       (I)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 44530
section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, a child under 44531
twenty-two years of age may attend school in the school district 44532
in which the child, at the end of the first full week of October 44533
of the school year, was entitled to attend school as otherwise 44534
provided under this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised 44535
Code, if at that time the child was enrolled in the schools of the 44536
district but since that time the child or the child's parent has 44537
relocated to a new address located outside of that school district 44538
and within the same county as the child's or parent's address 44539
immediately prior to the relocation. The child may continue to 44540
attend school in the district, and at the school to which the 44541
child was assigned at the end of the first full week of October of 44542
the current school year, for the balance of the school year. 44543
Division (I)(1) of this section applies only if both of the 44544
following conditions are satisfied:44545

       (a) The board of education of the school district in which 44546
the child was entitled to attend school at the end of the first 44547
full week in October and of the district to which the child or 44548
child's parent has relocated each has adopted a policy to enroll 44549
children described in division (I)(1) of this section.44550

       (b) The child's parent provides written notification of the 44551
relocation outside of the school district to the superintendent of 44552
each of the two school districts.44553

       (2) At the beginning of the school year following the school 44554
year in which the child or the child's parent relocated outside of 44555
the school district as described in division (I)(1) of this 44556
section, the child is not entitled to attend school in the school 44557
district under that division.44558

       (3) Any person or entity owing tuition to the school district 44559
on behalf of the child at the end of the first full week in 44560
October, as provided in division (C) of this section, shall 44561
continue to owe such tuition to the district for the child's 44562
attendance under division (I)(1) of this section for the lesser of 44563
the balance of the school year or the balance of the time that the 44564
child attends school in the district under division (I)(1) of this 44565
section.44566

       (4) A pupil who may attend school in the district under 44567
division (I)(1) of this section shall be entitled to 44568
transportation services pursuant to an agreement between the 44569
district and the district in which the child or child's parent has 44570
relocated unless the districts have not entered into such 44571
agreement, in which case the child shall be entitled to 44572
transportation services in the same manner as a pupil attending 44573
school in the district under interdistrict open enrollment as 44574
described in division (H) of section 3313.981 of the Revised Code, 44575
regardless of whether the district has adopted an open enrollment 44576
policy as described in division (B)(1)(b) or (c) of section 44577
3313.98 of the Revised Code.44578

       (J) This division does not apply to a child receiving special 44579
education.44580

       A school district required to pay tuition pursuant to 44581
division (C)(2) or (3) of this section or section 3313.65 of the 44582
Revised Code shall have an amount deducted under division (C) of 44583
section 3317.023 of the Revised Code equal to its own tuition rate 44584
for the same period of attendance. A school district entitled to 44585
receive tuition pursuant to division (C)(2) or (3) of this section 44586
or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code shall have an amount 44587
credited under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 44588
Code equal to its own tuition rate for the same period of 44589
attendance. If the tuition rate credited to the district of 44590
attendance exceeds the rate deducted from the district required to 44591
pay tuition, the department of education shall pay the district of 44592
attendance the difference from amounts deducted from all 44593
districts' payments under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the 44594
Revised Code but not credited to other school districts under such 44595
division and from appropriations made for such purpose. The 44596
treasurer of each school district shall, by the fifteenth day of 44597
January and July, furnish the superintendent of public instruction 44598
a report of the names of each child who attended the district's 44599
schools under divisions (C)(2) and (3) of this section or section 44600
3313.65 of the Revised Code during the preceding six calendar 44601
months, the duration of the attendance of those children, the 44602
school district responsible for tuition on behalf of the child, 44603
and any other information that the superintendent requires.44604

       Upon receipt of the report the superintendent, pursuant to 44605
division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, shall deduct 44606
each district's tuition obligations under divisions (C)(2) and (3) 44607
of this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code and pay to 44608
the district of attendance that amount plus any amount required to 44609
be paid by the state.44610

       (K) In the event of a disagreement, the superintendent of 44611
public instruction shall determine the school district in which 44612
the parent resides.44613

       (L) Nothing in this section requires or authorizes, or shall 44614
be construed to require or authorize, the admission to a public 44615
school in this state of a pupil who has been permanently excluded 44616
from public school attendance by the superintendent of public 44617
instruction pursuant to sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of the 44618
Revised Code.44619

       (M) In accordance with division (B)(1) of this section, a 44620
child whose parent is a member of the national guard or a reserve 44621
unit of the armed forces of the United States and is called to 44622
active duty, or a child whose parent is a member of the armed 44623
forces of the United States and is ordered to a temporary duty 44624
assignment outside of the district, may continue to attend school 44625
in the district in which the child's parent lived before being 44626
called to active duty or ordered to a temporary duty assignment 44627
outside of the district, as long as the child's parent continues 44628
to be a resident of that district, and regardless of where the 44629
child lives as a result of the parent's active duty status or 44630
temporary duty assignment. However, the district is not 44631
responsible for providing transportation for the child if the 44632
child lives outside of the district as a result of the parent's 44633
active duty status or temporary duty assignment.44634

       Sec. 3313.646.  (A) The board of education of a school 44635
district, except a cooperative education district established 44636
pursuant to section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, may establish 44637
and operate a preschool program to provide services to 44638
preschool-age children, provided the board has demonstrated a need 44639
for the program. A board may use school funds in support of 44640
preschool programs. The board shall maintain, operate, and admit 44641
children to any such program pursuant to rules adopted by such 44642
board and the rules of the state board of education adopted under 44643
sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 of the Revised Code.44644

       A board of education may establish fees or tuition, which may 44645
be graduated in proportion to family income, for participation in 44646
a preschool program. In cases where payment of fees or tuition 44647
would create a hardship for the child's parent or guardian, the 44648
board may waive any such fees or tuition.44649

       (B) No board of education that is not receiving funds under 44650
the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, on 44651
March 17, 1989, shall compete for funds under the "Head Start Act" 44652
with any grantee receiving funds under that act.44653

       (C) A board of education may contract with any of the 44654
following preschool providers to provide preschool programs44655
services to preschool-age children, other than programs for units 44656
described by divisions (B) and (C) ofthose services for which the 44657
district is eligible to receive funding under section 3317.0544658
3317.0213 of the Revised Code, for children of the school 44659
district:44660

       (1) Any organization receiving funds under the "Head Start 44661
Act";44662

       (2) Any nonsectarian eligible nonpublic school as defined in 44663
division (H) of section 3301.52 of the Revised Code;44664

       (3) Any child care provider licensed under Chapter 5104. of 44665
the Revised Code.44666

       Boards may contract to provide preschool programsservices to 44667
preschool-age children only with such organizations whose staff 44668
meet the requirements of rules adopted under section 3301.53 of 44669
the Revised Code or those of the child development associate 44670
credential established by the national association for the 44671
education of young children.44672

       (D) A contract entered into under division (C) of this 44673
section may provide for the board of education to lease school 44674
facilities to the preschool provider or to furnish transportation, 44675
utilities, or staff for the preschool program.44676

       (E) The treasurer of any board of education operating a 44677
preschool program pursuant to this section shall keep an account 44678
of all funds used to operate the program in the same manner as the 44679
treasurer would any other funds of the district pursuant to this 44680
chapter.44681

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 44682
3313.64 of the Revised Code:44683

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 44684
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 44685
residential facility that is:44686

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 44687
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 44688
of the Revised Code;44689

       (b) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 44690
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 44691
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;44692

       (c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 44693
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 44694
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 44695
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 44696
Code;44697

       (d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 44698
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;44699

       (e) Licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 44700
and addiction services under section 5119.205119.33 or 5119.2244701
5119.34 of the Revised Code;44702

       (f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department of 44703
developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 44704
Code;44705

       (g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 44706
agency of the United States government;44707

       (h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.44708

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 44709
following apply:44710

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:44711

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 44712
Code;44713

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 44714
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;44715

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 44716
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 44717
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 44718
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 44719
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 44720
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 44721
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 44722
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 44723
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 44724
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 44725
authority.44726

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 44727
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 44728
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 44729
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.44730

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 44731
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 44732
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 44733
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 44734
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 44735
person's removal.44736

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 44737
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.44738

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 44739
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.44740

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 44741
section apply, the determination of what school district must 44742
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 44743
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 44744
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.44745

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 44746
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 44747
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 44748
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 44749
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 44750
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 44751
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 44752
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 44753
reside in this state.44754

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 44755
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 44756
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 44757
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 44758
follows:44759

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 44760
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 44761
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 44762
juvenile court;44763

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 44764
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 44765
sentence was imposed;44766

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 44767
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 44768
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 44769
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 44770
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 44771
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 44772
first was transferred;44773

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 44774
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 44775
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 44776
determine which district shall pay tuition.44777

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 44778
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 44779
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 44780
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 44781
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 44782
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.44783

       Sec. 3313.714.  (A) As used in this section:44784

       (1) "Board of education" means the board of education of a 44785
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 44786
district.44787

       (2) "Healthcheck" means the early and periodic screening, 44788
diagnosis, and treatment program, a component of the medical 44789
assistancemedicaid program established under Title XIX of the 44790
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 302, as 44791
amended, and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.44792

       (3) "Pupil" means a person under age twenty-two enrolled in 44793
the schools of a city, local, exempted village, or joint 44794
vocational school district.44795

       (4) "Parent" means either parent with the following 44796
exceptions:44797

       (a) If one parent has custody by court order, "parent" means 44798
the parent with custody.44799

       (b) If neither parent has legal custody, "parent" means the 44800
person or government entity with legal custody.44801

       (c) The child's legal guardian or a person who has accepted 44802
responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of the child.44803

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 44804
servicesmedicaid, a board of education shall establish and 44805
conduct a healthcheck program for pupils enrolled in the schools 44806
of the district who are medicaid recipients of medical assistance 44807
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. At the request of a board 44808
of education, the department may authorize the board to establish 44809
a healthcheck program. A board that establishes a healthcheck 44810
program shall enter into a medical assistancemedicaid provider 44811
agreement with the department.44812

       A healthcheck program established by a board of education 44813
shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted by the 44814
medicaid director of job and family services under division (F) of 44815
this section. The healthcheck program shall include all of the 44816
following components:44817

       (1) A comprehensive health and development history;44818

       (2) A comprehensive physical examination;44819

       (3) A developmental assessment;44820

       (4) A nutritional assessment;44821

       (5) A vision assessment;44822

       (6) A hearing assessment;44823

       (7) An immunization assessment;44824

       (8) Lead screening and laboratory tests ordered by a doctor 44825
of medicine or osteopathic medicine as part of one of the other 44826
components;44827

       (9) Such other assessment as may be required by the 44828
department of job and family servicesmedicaid in accordance with 44829
the requirements of the healthcheck program.44830

       All services included in a board of education's healthcheck 44831
program that the board provided under sections 3313.67, 3313.673, 44832
3313.68, 3313.69, and 3313.71 of the Revised Code during the 44833
1990-1991 school year shall continue to be provided to medical 44834
assistancemedicaid recipients by the board pursuant to those 44835
sections. The services shall be considered part of the healthcheck 44836
program for medicaid recipients of medical assistance, and the 44837
board shall be eligible for reimbursementpayment from the state44838
department in accordance with this division for providing the 44839
services.44840

       The department shall reimbursepay boards of education for 44841
healthcheck program services provided under this division at the 44842
rates paid under the medical assistancemedicaid program to 44843
physicians, dentists, nurses, and other providers of healthcheck 44844
services.44845

       (C) Each board of education that conducts a healthcheck 44846
program shall determine for each pupil enrolled in the schools of 44847
the district whether the pupil is a medical assistancemedicaid44848
recipient. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 44849
county departments of human servicesjob and family services shall 44850
assist the board in making these determinations. Except as 44851
necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, all 44852
information received by a board under this division shall be 44853
confidential.44854

       Before the first day of October of each year, each board that 44855
conducts a healthcheck program shall send the parent of each pupil 44856
who is under age eighteen and a medicaid recipient of medical 44857
assistance notice that the pupil will be examined under the 44858
district's healthcheck program unless the parent notifies the 44859
board that the parent denies consent for the examination. The 44860
notice shall include a form to be used by the parent to indicate 44861
that the parent denies consent. The denial shall be effective only 44862
if the form is signed by the parent and returned to the board or 44863
the school in which the pupil is enrolled. If the parent does not 44864
return a signed form indicating denial of consent within two weeks 44865
after the date the notice is sent, the school district and the 44866
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall deem the 44867
parent to have consented to examination of the parent's child 44868
under the healthcheck program. In the case of a pupil age eighteen 44869
or older, the notice shall be given to the pupil, and the school 44870
district and the department of job and family servicesmedicaid44871
shall deem the pupil to have consented to examination unless the 44872
pupil returns the signed form indicating the pupil's denial of 44873
consent.44874

       (D)(1) As used in this division:44875

       (a) "Nonfederal share" means the portion of expenditures for 44876
services that is required under the medical assistancemedicaid44877
program to be paid for with state or local government funds.44878

       (b) "Federal financial participation" means the portion of 44879
expenditures for services that is reimbursedpayable under the 44880
medical assistancemedicaid program with federal funds.44881

       (2) At the request of a board of education, the state 44882
department may enter into an agreement with the board under which 44883
the board provides medical services to a medicaid recipient of 44884
medical assistance that are reimbursablepayable under the medical 44885
assistancemedicaid program but not under the healthcheck program. 44886
The agreement may be for a term specified in the agreement and 44887
renewable by mutual consent of the board and the department, or 44888
may continue in force as long as agreeable to the board and the 44889
department.44890

       The board shall use state or local funds of the district to 44891
pay the nonfederal share of expenditures for services provided 44892
under this division. Prior to entering into or renewing an 44893
agreement and at any other time requested by the department while 44894
the agreement is in force, the board shall certify to the 44895
department in accordance with the rules adopted under division (F) 44896
of this section that it will have sufficient state or local funds 44897
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under this division. 44898
If the board fails to make the certification, the department shall 44899
not enter into or renew the agreement. If an agreement has been 44900
entered into, it shall be void unless the board makes the 44901
certification not later than fifteen days after receiving notice 44902
from the department that the certification is due. The board shall 44903
report to the department, in accordance with the rules, the amount 44904
of state or local funds it spends to provide services under this 44905
division.44906

       The department shall reimbursepay the board the federal 44907
financial participation allowed for the board's expenditures for 44908
services under this division. The total of the nonfederal share 44909
spent by the board and the federal financial participation 44910
reimbursedpaid by the department for a service rendered under 44911
this division shall be an amount agreed to by the board and the 44912
department, but shall not exceed the maximum reimbursablepayable 44913
amount for that service under rules adopted by the director of job 44914
and family services under Chapter 5111.section 5164.02 of the 44915
Revised Code. The rules adopted under division (F) of this section 44916
shall include procedures under which the department will recover 44917
from a board overpayments and subsequent federal audit 44918
disallowances of federal financial participation reimbursedpaid44919
by the department.44920

       (E) A board of education shall provide services under 44921
division (D) of this section and under its healthcheck program as 44922
provided in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this section:44923

       (1) By having the services performed by physicians, dentists, 44924
and nurses employed by the board;44925

       (2) By contracting with physicians, dentists, nurses, and 44926
other providers of services who have medical assistancemedicaid44927
provider agreements with the department of job and family services44928
medicaid;44929

       (3) By having some of the services performed by persons 44930
described in division (E)(1) of this section and others performed 44931
by persons described in division (E)(2) of this section.44932

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 44933
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 44934
governing healthcheck programs conducted under this section and 44935
services provided under division (D) of this section.44936

       Sec. 3313.715.  The board of education of a school district 44937
may request from the director of developmental disabilities the 44938
appropriate identification numbers for all students residing in 44939
the district who are medical assistancemedicaid recipients under 44940
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The director shall furnish such 44941
numbers upon receipt of lists of student names furnished by the 44942
district board, in such form as the director may require.44943

       The medicaid director of job and family services shall 44944
provide the director of developmental disabilities with the data 44945
necessary for compliance with this section.44946

       Section 3319.321 of the Revised Code does not apply to the 44947
release of student names or other data to the director of 44948
developmental disabilities for the purposes of this section. 44949
Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not apply to information 44950
required to be kept by a school board or the departments of job 44951
and family servicesmedicaid or developmental disabilities to the 44952
extent necessary to comply with this section and section 3313.714 44953
of the Revised Code. However, any such information or data shall 44954
be used only for the specific legal purposes of such boards and 44955
departments and shall not be released to any unauthorized person.44956

       Sec. 3313.83.  (A)(1) For the purpose of pooling resources, 44957
operating more cost effectively, minimizing administrative 44958
overhead, encouraging the sharing of resource development, and 44959
diminishing duplication, the boards of education of two or more 44960
city, local, or exempted village school districts each having a 44961
majority of its territory in a county with a population greater 44962
than one million two hundred thousand, by adopting identical 44963
resolutions, may enter into an agreement providing for the 44964
creation of a regional student education district for the purpose 44965
of funding the following for students enrolled in those school 44966
districts, including students diagnosed as autistic and students 44967
with special needs, and their immediate family members:44968

        (a) Special education services;44969

        (b) Behavioral health services for persons with special 44970
needs.44971

        If more than eight boards of education adopt resolutions to 44972
form a regional student education district, the boards may meet at 44973
facilities of the educational service center of the county to 44974
discuss membership in the district.44975

       (2) The territory of a regional student education district at 44976
any time shall be composed of the combined territories of the 44977
school districts that are parties to the agreement at that time. 44978
Services funded by a regional student education district shall be 44979
available to all individuals enrolled in a school district that is 44980
a part of the regional student education district and members of 44981
their immediate family.44982

       (3) The agreement may be amended pursuant to terms and 44983
procedures mutually agreed to by the boards of education that are 44984
parties to the agreement.44985

       (B) Each regional student education district shall be 44986
governed by a board of directors. The superintendent of each board 44987
of education that is a party to the agreement shall serve on the 44988
board of directors. The agreement shall provide for the terms of 44989
office of directors. Directors shall receive no compensation, but 44990
shall be reimbursed, from the special fund of the regional student 44991
education district, for the reasonable and necessary expenses they 44992
incur in the performance of their duties for the district. The 44993
agreement shall provide for the conduct of the board's initial 44994
organizational meeting and for the frequency of subsequent 44995
meetings and quorum requirements. At its first meeting, the board 44996
shall designate from among its members a president and secretary 44997
in the manner provided in the agreement.44998

       The board of directors of a regional student education 44999
district is a body corporate and politic, is capable of suing and 45000
being sued, is capable of contracting within the limits of this 45001
section and the agreement governing the district, and is capable 45002
of accepting gifts, donations, bequests, or other grants of money 45003
for use in paying its expenses. The district is a public office 45004
and its directors are public officials within the meaning of 45005
section 117.01 of the Revised Code, the board of directors is a 45006
public body within the meaning of section 121.22 of the Revised 45007
Code, and records of the board and of the district are public 45008
records within the meaning of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.45009

       The agreement shall require the board to designate a 45010
permanent location for its offices and meeting place, and may 45011
provide for the use of such facilities and property for the 45012
provision of services by the agencies with which the board 45013
contracts under division (C) of this section.45014

       (C)(1) To provide the services identified in division (A)(1) 45015
of this section, the board of directors of a regional student 45016
education district shall provide for the hiring of employees or 45017
shall contract with one or more entities. Except as provided in 45018
division (C)(2) of this section, any entity with which the board 45019
of directors contracts to provide the services identified in 45020
division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be a qualified nonprofit, 45021
nationally accredited agency to which both of the following apply:45022

        (a) The agency is licensed or certified by the departments of 45023
mental health,mental health and addiction services and job and 45024
family services, and alcohol and drug addiction services.45025

        (b) The agency provides school-based behavioral health 45026
services.45027

       (2) The board of directors may contract with an entity that 45028
does not meet the conditions stated in division (C)(1) of this 45029
section if the services to be provided by the entity are only 45030
incidental to the services identified in division (A)(1)(b) of 45031
this section.45032

       (3) The board of directors may levy a tax throughout the 45033
district as provided in section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code. The 45034
board of directors shall provide for the creation of a special 45035
fund to hold the proceeds of any tax levied under section 45036
5705.2111 of the Revised Code and any gifts, donations, bequests, 45037
or other grants of money coming into the possession of the 45038
district. A regional student education district is a subdivision, 45039
and the board of directors is a governing body, within the meaning 45040
of section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The board of directors may 45041
not issue securities or otherwise incur indebtedness.45042

       (4) The adoption or rejection by electors of a tax levy to 45043
fund a regional student education district pursuant to section 45044
5705.2111 of the Revised Code does not alter the duty of each 45045
school district member of the regional student education district 45046
to provide special education and related services as required 45047
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code. On the expiration of a 45048
regional student education district levy, the state, member school 45049
districts of the regional student education district, and any 45050
other governmental entity shall not be obligated to provide 45051
replacement funding for the revenues under the expired levy. The 45052
tax levy, in whole or in part, shall not be considered a levy for 45053
current operating expenses pursuant to division (A) of section 45054
3317.01 of the Revised Code for any of the school districts that 45055
are members of the regional student education district.45056

       (D)(1) The agreement shall provide for the manner of 45057
appointing an individual or entity to perform the duties of fiscal 45058
officer of the regional student education district. The agreement 45059
shall specify the length of time the individual or entity shall 45060
perform those duties and whether the individual or entity may be 45061
reappointed upon the completion of a term. The fiscal officer may 45062
receive compensation for performing the duties of the position and 45063
be reimbursed for reasonable expenses of performing those duties 45064
from the regional student education district's special fund.45065

       (2) The legal advisor of the board of directors of a regional 45066
student education district shall be the prosecuting attorney of 45067
the most populous county containing a school district that is a 45068
member of the regional student education district. The prosecuting 45069
attorney shall prosecute all actions against a member of the board 45070
of directors for malfeasance or misfeasance in office and shall be 45071
the legal counsel for the board and its members in all other 45072
actions brought by or against them and shall conduct those actions 45073
in the prosecuting attorney's official capacity. No compensation 45074
in addition to the prosecuting attorney's regular salary shall be 45075
allowed.45076

       (E) The board of directors of a regional student education 45077
district shall procure a policy or policies of insurance insuring 45078
the board, the fiscal officer, and the legal representative 45079
against liability on account of damage or injury to persons and 45080
property. Before procuring such insurance the board shall adopt a 45081
resolution setting forth the amount of insurance to be purchased, 45082
the necessity of the insurance, and a statement of its estimated 45083
premium cost. Insurance procured pursuant to this section shall be 45084
from one or more recognized insurance companies authorized to do 45085
business in this state. The cost of the insurance shall be paid 45086
from the district's special fund.45087

       A regional student education district is a political 45088
subdivision within the meaning of section 2744.01 of the Revised 45089
Code.45090

       (F)(1) The board of education of a school district having a 45091
majority of its territory in the county may join an existing 45092
regional student education district by adopting a resolution 45093
requesting to join as a party to the agreement and upon approval 45094
by the boards of education that currently are parties to the 45095
agreement. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 45096
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, a board of 45097
education may join the district only after a majority of qualified 45098
electors in the school district voting on the question vote in 45099
favor of levying the tax throughout the school district. A board 45100
of education joining an existing district shall have the same 45101
powers, rights, and obligations under the agreement as other 45102
boards of education that are parties to the agreement.45103

       (2) A board of education that is a party to an agreement 45104
under this section may withdraw the school district from a 45105
regional student education district by adopting a resolution. The 45106
withdrawal shall take effect on the date provided in the 45107
resolution. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 45108
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, the 45109
resolution shall take effect not later than the first day of 45110
January following adoption of the resolution. Beginning with the 45111
first day of January following adoption of the resolution, any tax 45112
levied under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall not be 45113
levied within the territory of the withdrawing school district. 45114
Any collection of tax levied in the territory of the withdrawing 45115
school district under that section that has not been settled and 45116
distributed when the resolution takes effect shall be credited to 45117
the district's special fund.45118

       (G) An agreement entered into under this section shall 45119
provide for the manner of the regional student education 45120
district's dissolution. The district shall cease to exist when not 45121
more than one school district remains in the district, and the 45122
levy of any tax under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 45123
not be extended on the tax lists in any tax year beginning after 45124
the dissolution of the district. The agreement shall provide that, 45125
upon dissolution of the district, any unexpended balance in the 45126
district's special fund shall be divided among the school 45127
districts that are parties to the agreement immediately before 45128
dissolution in proportion to the taxable valuation of taxable 45129
property in the districts, and credited to their respective 45130
general funds.45131

       Sec. 3313.841.  The boards of education and governing boards 45132
of two or more city, local, joint vocational, or exempted village 45133
school districts or educational service centers may contract in 45134
accordance with the terms of this section for the sharing on a 45135
cooperative basis of the services of supervisory teachers, special 45136
instruction teachers, special education teachers, and other 45137
licensed personnel necessary to conduct approved cooperative 45138
classes for special education and related services and gifted 45139
education.45140

       The boards of two or more districts or service centers 45141
desiring to enroll students in such classes shall each adopt 45142
resolutions indicating such desire and designating one of the 45143
participating districts or service centers as the funding agent 45144
for purposes of this section. The district or service center 45145
designated as the funding agent shall enter into an employment 45146
contract with each licensed teacher whose services are to be 45147
shared among the participating districts and service centers. In 45148
turn, the funding agent shall enter into contracts with each of 45149
the districts and service centers which have adopted resolutions 45150
agreeing to participate in the cooperative program upon terms 45151
agreed to by all parties to such contract. Such contracts between 45152
districts and service centers shall set forth the services to be 45153
provided by the licensed teacher employed by the funding agent 45154
whose services are to be shared by the participating districts and 45155
service centers and the basis for computing the amounts to be paid 45156
for such services to the funding agent by the participating 45157
districts and service centers.45158

       For purposes of division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of 45159
the Revised Code, the funding agent shall count all pupils 45160
enrolled in cooperative programs for pupils with disabilities as 45161
pupils enrolled in such programs in the funding agent district. 45162
Upon receipt of payment for such programs, the funding agent 45163
district shall credit the account of districts participating in 45164
the cooperative program for the amounts due under contracts 45165
entered into under the terms of this section in proportion to the 45166
number of resident students enrolled in the cooperative program 45167
from each participating district and service center.45168

       In determining the terms of the contract entered into by the 45169
funding agent district or service center and the participating 45170
districts and service centers, the superintendent of schools of 45171
each participating board of education and governing board shall 45172
serve as a committee which shall recommend such terms to such 45173
boards.45174

       Sec. 3313.843.  (A) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 45175
3311.52 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to any 45176
cooperative education school district.45177

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 45178
or local school district with an average daily student enrollment 45179
of sixteen thousand or less, reported for the district on the most 45180
recent report card issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised 45181
Code, shall enter into an agreement with the governing board of an 45182
educational service center, under which the educational service 45183
center governing board will provide services to the district.45184

       (2) The board of education of a city, exempted village, or 45185
local school district with an average daily student enrollment of 45186
more than sixteen thousand may enter into an agreement with the 45187
governing board of an educational service center, under which the 45188
educational service center governing board will provide services 45189
to the district.45190

       (3) Services provided under an agreement entered into under 45191
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall be specified in the 45192
agreement, and may include any of the following: supervisory 45193
teachers; in-service and continuing education programs for 45194
district personnel; curriculum services; research and development 45195
programs; academic instruction for which the governing board 45196
employs teachers pursuant to section 3319.02 of the Revised Code; 45197
assistance in the provision of special accommodations and classes 45198
for students with disabilities; or any other services the district 45199
board and service center governing board agree can be better 45200
provided by the service center and are not provided under an 45201
agreement entered into under section 3313.845 of the Revised Code. 45202
Services included in the agreement shall be provided to the 45203
district in the manner specified in the agreement. The district 45204
board of education shall reimburse the educational service center 45205
governing board pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code45206
terms specified in the agreement entered into under this section.45207

       Beginning with the 2012-2013 school year, the board of any 45208
district described in division (B)(2) of this section may elect 45209
not to receive the supervisory services for which supervisory 45210
units are paid under division (B) of section 3317.11 of the 45211
Revised Code, provided that election is specified in the 45212
agreement.45213

       (C) Any agreement entered into pursuant to this section shall 45214
be filed with the department of education by the first day of July 45215
of the school year for which the agreement is in effect.45216

       (D)(1) An agreement for services from an educational service 45217
center entered into under this section may be terminated by the 45218
school district board of education, at its option, by notifying 45219
the governing board of the service center by March 1, 2012, or by 45220
the first day of January of any odd-numbered year thereafter, that 45221
the district board intends to terminate the agreement in that 45222
year, and that termination shall be effective on the thirtieth day 45223
of June of that year. The failure of a district board to notify an 45224
educational service center of its intent to terminate an agreement 45225
by March 1, 2012, shall result in renewal of the existing 45226
agreement for the following school year. Thereafter, the failure 45227
of a district board to notify an educational service center of its 45228
intent to terminate an agreement by the first day of January of an 45229
odd-numbered year shall result in renewal of the existing 45230
agreement for the following two school years.45231

       (2) If the school district that terminates an agreement for 45232
services under division (D)(1) of this section is also subject to 45233
the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section, the district 45234
board shall enter into a new agreement with any educational 45235
service center so that the new agreement is effective on the first 45236
day of July of that same year.45237

       (3) If all moneys owed by a school district to an educational 45238
service center under an agreement for services terminated under 45239
division (D)(1) of this section have been paid in full by the 45240
effective date of the termination, the governing board of the 45241
service center shall submit an affidavit to the department 45242
certifying that fact not later than fifteen days after the 45243
termination's effective date. Notwithstanding anything in the 45244
Revised Code to the contrary, until the department receives such 45245
an affidavit, it shall not make any payments to any other 45246
educational service center with which the district enters into an 45247
agreement under this section for services that the educational 45248
service center provides to the district.45249

        (E) An educational service center may apply to any state or 45250
federal agency for competitive grants. It may also apply to any 45251
private entity for additional funds. 45252

       (F) Not later than January 1, 2014, each educational service 45253
center shall post on its web site a list of all of the services 45254
that it provides and the corresponding cost for each of those 45255
services.45256

        (G)(1) For purposes of this division, a school district's 45257
"total student count" means the average daily student enrollment 45258
reported on the most recent report card issued for the district 45259
pursuant to section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.45260

        (2) For purposes of calculating any state subsidy to be paid 45261
to an educational service center for services provided to a school 45262
district, the service center's student count shall be the sum of 45263
the total student counts of all the school districts with which 45264
the educational service center has entered into an agreement under 45265
this section.45266

        (3) When a district enters into a new agreement with a new 45267
educational service center, the department of education shall 45268
ensure that the state subsidy for services provided to the 45269
district is paid to the new educational service center and that 45270
the educational service center with which the district previously 45271
had an agreement is no longer paid a state subsidy for providing 45272
services to that district. 45273

       Sec. 3313.845.  The board of education of a city, exempted 45274
village, or local school district and the governing board of an 45275
educational service center may enter into an agreement under which 45276
the educational service center will provide services to the school 45277
district. Services provided under the agreement and the amount to 45278
be paid for such services shall be mutually agreed to by the 45279
district board of education and the service center governing 45280
board, and shall be specified in the agreement. Payment for 45281
services specified in the agreement shall be made pursuant to 45282
division (D) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code and shall not 45283
include any deduction under division (B), (C), or (F) of that 45284
sectionthe terms of that agreement. Any agreement entered into 45285
pursuant to this section shall be valid only if a copy is filed 45286
with the department of education.45287

       The authority granted under this section to the boards of 45288
education of city, exempted village, and local school districts is 45289
in addition to the authority granted to such boards under section 45290
3313.843 of the Revised Code. 45291

       Sec. 3313.848.  (A) As used in this section:45292

       (1) "Client" means a city, local, or exempted village school 45293
district, community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 45294
Revised Code, STEM school established under Chapter 3326. of the 45295
Revised Code, or political subdivision.45296

       (2) "Governing body" means the board of education of a school 45297
district, governing authority of a community school, governing 45298
body of a STEM school, or governing body of a political 45299
subdivision.45300

       (3) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as used in 45301
section 3313.846 of the Revised Code.45302

       (4) "Service agreement" means an agreement that a client has 45303
entered into with an educational service center under section 45304
3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.846, or 3326.45 of the Revised 45305
Code and any subsequent amendment to that agreement.45306

       (B) If at the end of a fiscal year for which a service 45307
agreement is in effect any of the funds paid directly by a client 45308
to the educational service center under the agreement have not 45309
been expended, a client's governing body may elect to have the 45310
service center retain the unexpended funds for the purpose of 45311
applying them toward any payment the client will owe to the 45312
service center under a service agreement for the next fiscal year. 45313
The treasurer or fiscal officer of the client shall indicate on 45314
the client's end-of-year financial report that unexpended funds 45315
have been retained by the service center and the amount of those 45316
funds.45317

       (C) If the chief administrator of a client requests that the 45318
treasurer of an educational service center spend a portion of the 45319
client's funds retained under division (B) of this section for a 45320
purpose other than services specifically set forth under a service 45321
agreement and the treasurer fulfills that request, the treasurer 45322
shall keep a record of the expenditure and the purpose for which 45323
the expenditure was made. On at least an annual basis, or upon the 45324
request of the client's governing body or its treasurer or fiscal 45325
officer, the treasurer of the service center shall notify the 45326
client's treasurer or fiscal officer of the expenditures recorded 45327
under this division. The client's treasurer or fiscal officer 45328
shall include that information in the financial report made by the 45329
treasurer or fiscal officer at the next meeting of the client's 45330
governing body that occurs following receipt of the information.45331

       Sec. 3313.88.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of August of 45332
each school year, the board of education of any school district or 45333
the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic school may 45334
submit to the department of education a plan to require students 45335
to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the district's 45336
or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order to make up 45337
days in that school year on which it is necessary to close schools 45338
for any of the reasons specified in division (B) of section 45339
3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of the number of days 45340
permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3317.01 of the 45341
Revised Code.45342

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 45343
governing authority of any community school established under 45344
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 45345
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 45346
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 45347
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 45348
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 45349
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 45350
specified in division (L)(H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 45351
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 45352
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.45353

        A plan submitted by a school district board or chartered 45354
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 45355
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 45356
submitted by a community school governing authority shall provide 45357
for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 45358
equivalent of three days. Provided the plan meets all requirements 45359
of this section, the department shall permit the board or 45360
governing authority to implement the plan for the applicable 45361
school year.45362

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 45363
district board of education shall include the written consent of 45364
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 45365
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.45366

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 45367
the following:45368

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 45369
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 45370
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 45371
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 45372
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 45373
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 45374
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 45375
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 45376
create lesson plans for those lessons.45377

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 45378
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 45379
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 45380
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 45381
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 45382
division (B) of this section.45383

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 45384
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 45385
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 45386
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 45387
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 45388
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.45389

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 45390
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 45391
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 45392
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 45393
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 45394
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.45395

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 45396
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 45397
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 45398
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 45399
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 45400
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 45401
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 45402
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 45403
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 45404
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 45405
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 45406
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 45407
to complete the lessons.45408

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 45409
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 45410
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 45411
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 45412
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.45413

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 45414
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 45415
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 45416
the online lesson plans.45417

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 45418
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 45419
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 45420
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 45421
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 45422
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 45423
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 45424
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 45425
equivalent, of a school.45426

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 45427
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 45428

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 45429
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 45430
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 45431
with respect to the number of make-up days specified in the plan.45432

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 45433
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 45434
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 45435
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 45436
specified in the plan.45437

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 45438
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 45439
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 45440
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 45441
kindergarten through twelve.45442

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 45443
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 45444
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 45445
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 45446
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 45447
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 45448
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 45449
students from low-income families. The state superintendent shall 45450
notify students of their selection prior to the fifteenth day of 45451
January. 45452

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 45453
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 45454
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 45455
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 45456
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 45457
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.45458

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 45459
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 45460
of the following conditions are met:45461

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 45462
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 45463
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 45464
registered private school.45465

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 45466
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 45467
admitted:45468

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 45469
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 45470
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 45471
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;45472

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 45473
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 45474
3313.977 of the Revised Code.45475

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 45476
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 45477
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 45478
an adjacent school district.45479

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 45480
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 45481
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 45482
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 45483
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 45484
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 45485
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 45486
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 45487
3313.976 of the Revised Code.45488

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 45489
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 45490
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 45491
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 45492
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. 45493

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 45494
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 45495
not exceed the lesser of the net tuition charges of the 45496
alternative school the scholarship recipient attends or three 45497
thousand dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four 45498
hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 45499
2011, and four thousand two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 45500
2012 and thereafter.45501

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 45502
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 45503
of the net tuition charges of the alternative school the 45504
scholarship recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred 45505
dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty 45506
dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five 45507
thousand dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafterfiscal year 45508
2013, and five thousand seven hundred dollars in fiscal year 2014 45509
and thereafter.45510

       The net tuition and fees charged to a student shall be the 45511
tuition amount specified by the alternative school minus all other 45512
financial aid, discounts, and adjustments received for the 45513
student. In cases where discounts are offered for multiple 45514
students from the same family, and not all students in the same 45515
family are scholarship recipients, the net tuition amount 45516
attributable to the scholarship recipient shall be the lowest net 45517
tuition to which the family is entitled.45518

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 45519
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 45520
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 45521
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 45522
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 45523
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 45524
educating such students.45525

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 45526
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 45527
charges for such assistance or:45528

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 45529
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 45530
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 45531
amount;45532

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.45533

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 45534
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 45535
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 45536
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 45537
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 45538
required by division (D)(2) of this section.45539

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 45540
administrator of each registered private school located in the 45541
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 45542
such district shall complete a parental information form and 45543
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 45544
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 45545
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 45546
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 45547
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 45548
affiliations.45549

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 45550
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 45551
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 45552
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 45553
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:45554

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 45555
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 45556
Code;45557

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 45558
is enrolled;45559

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 45560
data verification codes.45561

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 45562
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 45563
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 45564
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 45565
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 45566
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 45567
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 45568
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 45569
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 45570
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 45571
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 45572
department shall assign a code to the student.45573

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 45574
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 45575
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 45576
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 45577
assigned a code under this division.45578

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 45579
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 45580
person except as provided by law.45581

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 45582
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 45583
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 45584
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 45585
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.45586

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 45587
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 45588
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 45589
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 45590
scores shall be aggregated as follows:45591

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 45592
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 45593
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 45594
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 45595
the Revised Code;45596

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 45597
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 45598
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 45599
3313.976 of the Revised Code.45600

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 45601
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 45602
following categories:45603

       (a) Grade level;45604

       (b) Race and ethnicity;45605

       (c) Gender;45606

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 45607
for three or more years;45608

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 45609
for more than one year and less than three years;45610

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 45611
for one year or less;45612

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.45613

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 45614
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 45615
site and shall include that data in the information about the 45616
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 45617
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 45618
division, the department shall not include any data that is 45619
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 45620
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 45621
department shall not report performance data for any group that 45622
contains less than ten students.45623

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 45624
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 45625
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 45626
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 45627
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 45628
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 45629
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 45630
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 45631
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 45632
socioeconomic status.45633

       Sec. 3313.98.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 45634
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 45635
the provisions of this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 45636
of the Revised Code that apply to a city school district do not 45637
apply to a joint vocational or cooperative education school 45638
district unless expressly specified.45639

       (A) As used in this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 45640
of the Revised Code:45641

       (1) "Parent" means either of the natural or adoptive parents 45642
of a student, except under the following conditions:45643

       (a) When the marriage of the natural or adoptive parents of 45644
the student has been terminated by a divorce, dissolution of 45645
marriage, or annulment or the natural or adoptive parents of the 45646
student are living separate and apart under a legal separation 45647
decree and the court has issued an order allocating the parental 45648
rights and responsibilities with respect to the student, "parent" 45649
means the residential parent as designated by the court except 45650
that "parent" means either parent when the court issues a shared 45651
parenting decree.45652

       (b) When a court has granted temporary or permanent custody 45653
of the student to an individual or agency other than either of the 45654
natural or adoptive parents of the student, "parent" means the 45655
legal custodian of the child.45656

       (c) When a court has appointed a guardian for the student, 45657
"parent" means the guardian of the student.45658

       (2) "Native student" means a student entitled under section 45659
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in a 45660
district adopting a resolution under this section.45661

       (3) "Adjacent district" means a city, exempted village, or 45662
local school district having territory that abuts the territory of 45663
a district adopting a resolution under this section.45664

       (4) "Adjacent district student" means a student entitled 45665
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 45666
school in an adjacent district.45667

       (5) "Adjacent district joint vocational student" means an 45668
adjacent district student who enrolls in a city, exempted village, 45669
or local school district pursuant to this section and who also 45670
enrolls in a joint vocational school district that does not 45671
contain the territory of the district for which that student is a 45672
native student and does contain the territory of the city, 45673
exempted village, or local district in which the student enrolls.45674

       (6) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 45675
3317.02 of the Revised Code.45676

       (7) "Adjusted formula amount" means the sum of the formula 45677
amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements 45678
specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the 45679
Revised Code for fiscal year 2009.45680

       (8) "Poverty line" means the poverty line established by the 45681
director of the United States office of management and budget as 45682
revised by the directorsecretary of the office of community45683
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 45684
"Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 45685
9902, as amended.45686

       (9)(8) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of 45687
the Revised Code.45688

       (10)(9) "Other district" means a city, exempted village, or 45689
local school district having territory outside of the territory of 45690
a district adopting a resolution under this section.45691

       (11)(10) "Other district student" means a student entitled 45692
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 45693
school in an other district.45694

       (12)(11) "Other district joint vocational student" means a 45695
student who is enrolled in any city, exempted village, or local 45696
school district and who also enrolls in a joint vocational school 45697
district that does not contain the territory of the district for 45698
which that student is a native student in accordance with a policy 45699
adopted under section 3313.983 of the Revised Code.45700

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, local, and 45701
exempted village school district shall adopt a resolution 45702
establishing for the school district one of the following 45703
policies:45704

       (a) A policy that entirely prohibits the enrollment of 45705
students from adjacent districts or other districts, other than 45706
students for whom tuition is paid in accordance with section 45707
3317.08 of the Revised Code;45708

       (b) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 45709
adjacent districts in accordance with policy statements contained 45710
in the resolution;45711

       (c) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 45712
other districts in accordance with policy statements contained in 45713
the resolution.45714

       (2) A policy permitting enrollment of students from adjacent 45715
or from other districts, as applicable, shall provide for all of 45716
the following:45717

       (a) Application procedures, including deadlines for 45718
application and for notification of students and the 45719
superintendent of the applicable district whenever an adjacent or 45720
other district student's application is approved.45721

       (b) Procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 45722
applicants free of any tuition obligation to the district's 45723
schools, including, but not limited to:45724

       (i) The establishment of district capacity limits by grade 45725
level, school building, and education program;45726

       (ii) A requirement that all native students wishing to be 45727
enrolled in the district will be enrolled and that any adjacent or 45728
other district students previously enrolled in the district shall 45729
receive preference over first-time applicants;45730

       (iii) Procedures to ensure that an appropriate racial balance 45731
is maintained in the district schools.45732

       (C) Except as provided in section 3313.982 of the Revised 45733
Code, the procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 45734
students, as applicable, shall not include:45735

       (1) Any requirement of academic ability, or any level of 45736
athletic, artistic, or other extracurricular skills;45737

       (2) Limitations on admitting applicants because of 45738
disability, except that a board may refuse to admit a student 45739
receiving services under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, if the 45740
services described in the student's IEP are not available in the 45741
district's schools;45742

       (3) A requirement that the student be proficient in the 45743
English language;45744

       (4) Rejection of any applicant because the student has been 45745
subject to disciplinary proceedings, except that if an applicant 45746
has been suspended or expelled by the student's district for ten 45747
consecutive days or more in the term for which admission is sought 45748
or in the term immediately preceding the term for which admission 45749
is sought, the procedures may include a provision denying 45750
admission of such applicant.45751

       (D)(1) Each school board permitting only enrollment of 45752
adjacent district students shall provide information about the 45753
policy adopted under this section, including the application 45754
procedures and deadlines, to the superintendent and the board of 45755
education of each adjacent district and, upon request, to the 45756
parent of any adjacent district student.45757

       (2) Each school board permitting enrollment of other district 45758
students shall provide information about the policy adopted under 45759
this section, including the application procedures and deadlines, 45760
upon request, to the board of education of any other school 45761
district or to the parent of any student anywhere in the state.45762

       (E) Any school board shall accept all credits toward 45763
graduation earned in adjacent or other district schools by an 45764
adjacent or other district student or a native student.45765

       (F)(1) No board of education may adopt a policy discouraging 45766
or prohibiting its native students from applying to enroll in the 45767
schools of an adjacent or any other district that has adopted a 45768
policy permitting such enrollment, except that:45769

       (a) A district may object to the enrollment of a native 45770
student in an adjacent or other district in order to maintain an 45771
appropriate racial balance.45772

       (b) The board of education of a district receiving funds 45773
under 64 Stat. 1100 (1950), 20 U.S.C.A. 236 et seq., as amended, 45774
may adopt a resolution objecting to the enrollment of its native 45775
students in adjacent or other districts if at least ten per cent 45776
of its students are included in the determination of the United 45777
States secretary of education made under section 20 U.S.C.A. 45778
238(a).45779

       (2) If a board objects to enrollment of native students under 45780
this division, any adjacent or other district shall refuse to 45781
enroll such native students unless tuition is paid for the 45782
students in accordance with section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. 45783
An adjacent or other district enrolling such students may not 45784
receive funding for those students in accordance with section 45785
3313.981 of the Revised Code.45786

       (G) The state board of education shall monitor school 45787
districts to ensure compliance with this section and the 45788
districts' policies. The board may adopt rules requiring uniform 45789
application procedures, deadlines for application, notification 45790
procedures, and record-keeping requirements for all school boards 45791
that adopt policies permitting the enrollment of adjacent or other 45792
district students, as applicable. If the state board adopts such 45793
rules, no school board shall adopt a policy that conflicts with 45794
those rules.45795

       (H) A resolution adopted by a board of education under this 45796
section that entirely prohibits the enrollment of students from 45797
adjacent and from other school districts does not abrogate any 45798
agreement entered into under section 3313.841 or 3313.92 of the 45799
Revised Code or any contract entered into under section 3313.90 of 45800
the Revised Code between the board of education adopting the 45801
resolution and the board of education of any adjacent or other 45802
district or prohibit these boards of education from entering into 45803
any such agreement or contract.45804

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit or 45805
require the board of education of a city, exempted village, or 45806
local school district to exclude any native student of the 45807
district from enrolling in the district.45808

       Sec. 3313.981.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 45809
rules requiring all of the following:45810

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 45811
and local school district to annually report to the department of 45812
education all of the following:45813

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district 45814
students, as applicable, and adjacent district or other district 45815
joint vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district 45816
and the number of native students enrolled in adjacent or other 45817
districts, in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) 45818
of section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;45819

       (b) Each adjacent district or other district student's or 45820
adjacent district or other district joint vocational student's 45821
date of enrollment in the district;45822

       (c) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 45823
other district students enrolled in vocationaleach of the 45824
categories of career-technical education programs or classes 45825
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 45826
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 45827
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 45828
of that section;45829

       (d) Each native student's date of enrollment in an adjacent 45830
or other district.45831

       (2) The board of education of each joint vocational school 45832
district to annually report to the department all of the 45833
following:45834

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district joint 45835
vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district;45836

       (b) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 45837
other district joint vocational students enrolled in vocational45838
each category of career-technical education programs or classes 45839
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 45840
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 45841
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 45842
of that section;45843

       (c) For each adjacent district or other district joint 45844
vocational student, the city, exempted village, or local school 45845
district in which the student is also enrolled.45846

       (3) Prior to the first full school week in October each year, 45847
the superintendent of each city, local, or exempted village school 45848
district that admits adjacent district or other district students 45849
or adjacent district or other district joint vocational students 45850
in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) of section 45851
3313.98 of the Revised Code to notify each adjacent or other 45852
district where those students are entitled to attend school under 45853
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code of the number of 45854
the adjacent or other district's native students who are enrolled 45855
in the superintendent's district under the policy.45856

       The rules shall provide for the method of counting students 45857
who are enrolled for part of a school year in an adjacent or other 45858
district or as an adjacent district or other district joint 45859
vocational student.45860

       (B) From the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 45861
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code and, 45862
if necessary, from the payments made to the district under 45863
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department of 45864
education shall annually subtract both of the following:45865

       (1) An amount equal to the number of the district's native 45866
students reported under division (A)(1) of this section who are 45867
enrolled in adjacent or other school districts pursuant to 45868
policies adopted by such districts under division (B) of section 45869
3313.98 of the Revised Code multiplied by the adjusted formula 45870
amount;45871

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 45872
of this section for any such native students receiving special 45873
education and related services in adjacent or other school 45874
districts or as an adjacent district or other district joint 45875
vocational student;45876

       (3) For the full-time equivalent number the formula amount of 45877
the district's native students reported under division (A)(1)(c) 45878
or (2)(b) of this section as enrolled in vocational45879
career-technical education programs or classes described in 45880
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to $5,73245881
the formula amount times the applicable multiple prescribed by 45882
that section.45883

       (C) To the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 45884
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the 45885
department of education shall annually add all of the following:45886

       (1) An amount equal to the adjusted formula amount multiplied 45887
by the remainder obtained by subtracting the number of adjacent 45888
district or other district joint vocational students from the 45889
number of adjacent district or other district students enrolled in 45890
the district, as reported under division (A)(1) of this section;45891

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 45892
of this section for any adjacent district or other district 45893
students, except for any adjacent or other district joint 45894
vocational students, receiving special education and related 45895
services in the district;45896

       (3) For the full-time equivalent number of the adjacent or 45897
other district students who are not adjacent district or other 45898
district joint vocational students and are reported under division 45899
(A)(1)(c) of this section as enrolled in vocational45900
career-technical education programs or classes described in 45901
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to $5,73245902
the formula amount times the applicable multiple prescribed by 45903
that section;45904

       (4) An amount equal to the number of adjacent district or 45905
other district joint vocational students reported under division 45906
(A)(1) of this section multiplied by an amount equal to twenty per 45907
cent of the adjusted formula amount.45908

       (D) To the payments made to a joint vocational school 45909
district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the department 45910
of education shall add, for each adjacent district or other 45911
district joint vocational student reported under division (A)(2) 45912
of this section, both of the following:45913

       (1) The adjusted formula amount;45914

       (2) An amount equal to the full-time equivalent number of 45915
students reported pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of this section 45916
times $5,732the formula amount times the applicable multiple 45917
prescribed by section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.45918

       (E)(1) A city, exempted village, or local school board 45919
providing special education and related services to an adjacent or 45920
other district student in accordance with an IEP shall, pursuant 45921
to rules of the state board, compute the excess costs to educate 45922
such student as follows:45923

       (a) Subtract the adjusted formula amount from the actual 45924
costs to educate the student;45925

       (b) From the amount computed under division (E)(1)(a) of this 45926
section subtract the amount of any funds received by the district 45927
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to provide special 45928
education and related services to the student.45929

       (2) The board shall report the excess costs computed under 45930
this division to the department of education.45931

       (3) If any student for whom excess costs are computed under 45932
division (E)(1) of this section is an adjacent or other district 45933
joint vocational student, the department of education shall add 45934
the amount of such excess costs to the payments made under Chapter 45935
3317. of the Revised Code to the joint vocational school district 45936
enrolling the student.45937

       (F) As provided in division (D)(1)(b) of section 3317.03 of 45938
the Revised Code, no joint vocational school district shall count 45939
any adjacent or other district joint vocational student enrolled 45940
in the district in its formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 45941
of the Revised Code.45942

       (G) No city, exempted village, or local school district shall 45943
receive a payment under division (C) of this section for a 45944
student, and no joint vocational school district shall receive a 45945
payment under division (D) of this section for a student, if for 45946
the same school year that student is counted in the district's 45947
formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.45948

       (H) Upon request of a parent, and provided the board offers 45949
transportation to native students of the same grade level and 45950
distance from school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code, a 45951
city, exempted village, or local school board enrolling an 45952
adjacent or other district student shall provide transportation 45953
for the student within the boundaries of the board's district, 45954
except that the board shall be required to pick up and drop off a 45955
nonhandicapped student only at a regular school bus stop 45956
designated in accordance with the board's transportation policy. 45957
Pursuant to rules of the state board of education, such board may 45958
reimburse the parent from funds received for pupil transportation 45959
under section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, or other provisions 45960
of law, for the reasonable cost of transportation from the 45961
student's home to the designated school bus stop if the student's 45962
family has an income below the federal poverty line.45963

       Sec. 3314.015.  (A) The department of education shall be 45964
responsible for the oversight of any and all sponsors of the 45965
community schools established under this chapter and shall provide 45966
technical assistance to schools and sponsors in their compliance 45967
with applicable laws and the terms of the contracts entered into 45968
under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and in the development 45969
and start-up activities of those schools. In carrying out its 45970
duties under this section, the department shall do all of the 45971
following:45972

        (1) In providing technical assistance to proposing parties, 45973
governing authorities, and sponsors, conduct training sessions and 45974
distribute informational materials;45975

       (2) Approve entities to be sponsors of community schools; 45976

       (3) Monitor and evaluate, as required under section 3314.016 45977
of the Revised Code, the effectiveness of any and all sponsors in 45978
their oversight of the schools with which they have contracted;45979

        (4) By December thirty-first of each year, issue a report to 45980
the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, the 45981
president of the senate, and the chairpersons of the house and 45982
senate committees principally responsible for education matters 45983
regarding the effectiveness of academic programs, operations, and 45984
legal compliance and of the financial condition of all community 45985
schools established under this chapter and on the performance of 45986
community school sponsors;45987

        (5) From time to time, make legislative recommendations to 45988
the general assembly designed to enhance the operation and 45989
performance of community schools.45990

        (B)(1) Except as provided in sections 3314.021 and 3314.027 45991
of the Revised Code, no entity listed in division (C)(1) of 45992
section 3314.02 of the Revised Code shall enter into a preliminary 45993
agreement under division (C)(2) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 45994
Code until it has received approval from the department of 45995
education to sponsor community schools under this chapter and has 45996
entered into a written agreement with the department regarding the 45997
manner in which the entity will conduct such sponsorship. The 45998
department shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 45999
Revised Code rules containing criteria, procedures, and deadlines 46000
for processing applications for such approval, for oversight of 46001
sponsors, for notifying a sponsor of noncompliance with applicable 46002
laws and administrative rules under division (F) of this section,46003
for revocation of the approval of sponsors under division (C) of 46004
this section, and for entering into written agreements with 46005
sponsors. The rules shall require an entity to submit evidence of 46006
the entity's ability and willingness to comply with the provisions 46007
of division (D) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code. The rules 46008
also shall require entities approved as sponsors on and after June 46009
30, 2005, to demonstrate a record of financial responsibility and 46010
successful implementation of educational programs. If an entity 46011
seeking approval on or after June 30, 2005, to sponsor community 46012
schools in this state sponsors or operates schools in another 46013
state, at least one of the schools sponsored or operated by the 46014
entity must be comparable to or better than the performance of 46015
Ohio schools in need of continuous improvement under section 46016
3302.03 of the Revised Code, as determined by the department.46017

        Subject to section 3314.016 of the Revised Code, an entity 46018
that sponsors community schools may enter into preliminary 46019
agreements and sponsor up to one hundred schools, provided each 46020
school and the contract for sponsorship meets the requirements of 46021
this chapter.46022

       (2) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 46023
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 46024
119. of the Revised Code, whether the mission proposed to be 46025
specified in the contract of a community school to be sponsored by 46026
a state university board of trustees or the board's designee under 46027
division (C)(1)(e) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code complies 46028
with the requirements of that division. Such determination of the 46029
state board is final.46030

       (3) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 46031
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 46032
119. of the Revised Code, if any tax-exempt entity under section 46033
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that is proposed to be a 46034
sponsor of a community school is an education-oriented entity for 46035
purpose of satisfying the condition prescribed in division 46036
(C)(1)(f)(iii) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code. Such 46037
determination of the state board is final.46038

       (C) If at any time the state board of education finds that a 46039
sponsor is not in compliance or is no longer willing to comply 46040
with its contract with any community school or with the 46041
department's rules for sponsorship, the state board or designee 46042
shall conduct a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 46043
Revised Code on that matter. If after the hearing, the state board 46044
or designee has confirmed the original finding, the department of 46045
education may revoke the sponsor's approval to sponsor community 46046
schools. In that case, the department's office of Ohio school 46047
sponsorship, established under section 3314.029 of the Revised 46048
Code, may assume the sponsorship of any schools with which the 46049
sponsor has contracted until the earlier of the expiration of two 46050
school years or until a new sponsor as described in division 46051
(C)(1) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code is secured by the 46052
school's governing authority. The office of Ohio school 46053
sponsorship may extend the term of the contract in the case of a 46054
school for which it has assumed sponsorship under this division as 46055
necessary to accommodate the term of the department's 46056
authorization to sponsor the school specified in this division. 46057
Community schools sponsored under this division shall not apply to 46058
the limit on directly authorized community schools under division 46059
(A)(3) of section 3314.029 of the Revised Code. However, nothing 46060
in this division shall preclude a community school affected by 46061
this division from applying for sponsorship under that section.46062

       (D) The decision of the department to disapprove an entity 46063
for sponsorship of a community school or to revoke approval for 46064
such sponsorship under division (C) of this section, may be 46065
appealed by the entity in accordance with section 119.12 of the 46066
Revised Code.46067

       (E) The department shall adopt procedures for use by a 46068
community school governing authority and sponsor when the school 46069
permanently closes and ceases operation, which shall include at 46070
least procedures for data reporting to the department, handling of 46071
student records, distribution of assets in accordance with section 46072
3314.074 of the Revised Code, and other matters related to ceasing 46073
operation of the school.46074

       (F)(1) In lieu of revoking a sponsor's authority to sponsor 46075
community schools under division (C) of this section, if the 46076
department finds that a sponsor is not in compliance with 46077
applicable laws and administrative rules, the department shall 46078
declare in a written notice to the sponsor the specific laws or 46079
rules, or both, for which the sponsor is noncompliant. A sponsor 46080
notified under division (F)(1) of this section shall respond to 46081
the department not later than fourteen days after the notification 46082
with a plan to remedy the conditions for which the sponsor was 46083
found to be noncompliant. Not later than sixty days after 46084
receiving a notification of noncompliance from the department, the 46085
sponsor shall implement the compliance plan. If a sponsor does not 46086
respond to the department or implement a compliance plan by the 46087
deadlines prescribed by division (F)(1) of this section, the 46088
department shall declare in written notice to the school that the 46089
sponsor is in probationary status, and may limit the sponsor's 46090
ability to sponsor additional schools.46091

        (2) A sponsor that has been placed on probationary status 46092
under division (F)(1) of this section may apply to the department 46093
for its probationary status to be lifted. The application for a 46094
sponsor's probationary status to be lifted shall include evidence, 46095
occurring after the initial notification of noncompliance, of the 46096
sponsor's compliance with applicable laws and administrative 46097
rules. Not later than fourteen days after receiving an application 46098
from the sponsor, the department shall decide whether or not to 46099
remove the sponsor's probationary status.46100

       (G) In carrying out its duties under this chapter, the 46101
department shall not impose requirements on community schools or 46102
their sponsors that are not permitted by law or duly adopted 46103
rules.46104

       (H) This section applies to entities that sponsor conversion 46105
community schools and new start-up schools.46106

       Sec. 3314.017.  (A) The state board of education shall 46107
prescribe by rules, adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 46108
Revised Code, an academic performance rating and report card 46109
system that satisfies the requirements of this section for 46110
community schools that primarily serve students enrolled in 46111
dropout prevention and recovery programs as described in division 46112
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code, to be used in 46113
lieu of the system prescribed under sections 3302.03 and 3314.012 46114
of the Revised Code beginning with the 2012-2013 school year. Each 46115
such school shall comply with the testing and reporting 46116
requirements of the system as prescribed by the state board.46117

       (B) Nothing in this section shall at any time relieve a 46118
school from its obligations under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 46119
2001" to make "adequate yearly progress," as both that act and 46120
that term are defined in section 3302.01 of the Revised Code, or a 46121
school's amenability to the provisions of section 3302.04 or 46122
3302.041 of the Revised Code. The department shall continue to 46123
report each school's performance as required by the act and to 46124
enforce applicable sanctions under section 3302.04 or 3302.041 of 46125
the Revised Code. 46126

       (C) The rules adopted by the state board shall prescribe the 46127
following performance indicators for the rating and report card 46128
system required by this section:46129

       (1) Graduation rate for each of the following student 46130
cohorts:46131

       (a) The number of students who graduate in four years or less 46132
with a regular high school diploma divided by the number of 46133
students who form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class;46134

       (b) The number of students who graduate in five years with a 46135
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 46136
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;46137

       (c) The number of students who graduate in six years with a 46138
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 46139
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;46140

       (d) The number of students who graduate in seven years with a 46141
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 46142
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;46143

       (e) The number of students who graduate in eight years with a 46144
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 46145
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.46146

       (2) The percentage of twelfth-grade students currently 46147
enrolled in the school who have attained the designated passing 46148
score on all of the applicable state high school achievement 46149
assessments required under division (B)(1) or (2) of section 46150
3301.0710 of the Revised Code and other students enrolled in the 46151
school, regardless of grade level, who are within three months of 46152
their twenty-second birthday and have attained the designated 46153
passing score on all of the applicable state high school 46154
achievement assessments by their twenty-second birthday;46155

       (3) Annual measurable objectives as defined in section 46156
3302.01 of the Revised Code;46157

        (4) Growth in student achievement in reading, or mathematics, 46158
or both as measured by separate nationally norm-referenced 46159
assessments that have developed appropriate standards for students 46160
enrolled in dropout prevention and recovery programs, adopted or 46161
approved by the state board.46162

       (D)(1) The state board's rules shall prescribe the expected 46163
performance levels and benchmarks for each of the indicators 46164
prescribed by division (C) of this section based on the data 46165
gathered by the department under division (F) of this section. 46166
Based on a school's level of attainment or nonattainment of the 46167
expected performance levels and benchmarks for each of the 46168
indicators, the department shall rate each school in one of the 46169
following categories:46170

       (a) Exceeds standards;46171

       (b) Meets standards;46172

       (c) Does not meet standards.46173

       (2) The state board's rules shall establish all of the 46174
following:46175

       (a) Not later than June 30, 2013, performance levels and 46176
benchmarks for the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) to (3) 46177
of this section;46178

       (b) Not later than December 31, 2014, both of the following:46179

       (i) Performance levels and benchmarks for the indicator 46180
described in division (C)(4) of this section;46181

       (ii) Standards for awarding a community school described in 46182
division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code an 46183
overall designation, which shall be calculated as follows:46184

       (I) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 46185
indicators described in division (C)(1) of this section that are 46186
applicable to the school year for which the overall designation is 46187
granted.46188

       (II) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 46189
indicators described in division (C)(4) of this section.46190

       (III) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 46191
indicators described in division (C)(2) of this section.46192

       (IV) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 46193
indicators described in division (C)(3) of this section.46194

       (3) If both of the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) 46195
and (2) of this section improve by ten per cent for two 46196
consecutive years, a school shall be rated asnot less than "meets 46197
standards."46198

       The rating and the relevant performance data for each school 46199
shall be posted on the department's web site, and a copy of the 46200
rating and data shall be provided to the governing authority of 46201
the community school. 46202

       (E)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 46203
issue a report card including the following performance measures, 46204
but without a performance rating as described in divisions 46205
(D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, for each community school 46206
described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised 46207
Code:46208

       (a) The graduation rates as described in divisions (C)(1)(a) 46209
to (c) of this section;46210

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 46211
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 46212
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 46213
this section;46214

       (c) The statewide average for the graduation rates and 46215
assessment passage rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to (c) 46216
and (C)(2) of this section;46217

        (d) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 46218
of this section.46219

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall issue 46220
a report card including the following performance measures for 46221
each community school described in division (A)(4) of section 46222
3314.35 of the Revised Code:46223

       (a) The graduation rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to 46224
(d) of this section, including a performance rating as described 46225
in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;46226

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 46227
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 46228
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 46229
this section, including a performance rating as described in 46230
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;46231

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 46232
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 46233
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;46234

        (d) Both of the following without an assigned rating:46235

        (i) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 46236
mathematics described in division (C)(4) of this section, if 46237
available;46238

       (ii) Student outcome data, including postsecondary credit 46239
earned, nationally recognized career or technical certification, 46240
military enlistment, job placement, and attendance rate. 46241

       (3) Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, and annually 46242
thereafter, the department shall issue a report card for each 46243
community school described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 46244
3314.35 of the Revised Code that includes all of the following 46245
performance measures, including a performance rating for each 46246
measure as described in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this 46247
section:46248

       (a) The graduation rates as described in division (C)(1) of 46249
this section;46250

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 46251
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 46252
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 46253
this section;46254

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 46255
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 46256
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;46257

        (d) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 46258
mathematics as described in division (C)(4) of this section;46259

       (e) An overall performance designation for the school 46260
calculated under rules adopted under division (D)(2) of this 46261
section.46262

       The department shall also include student outcome data, 46263
including postsecondary credit earned, nationally recognized 46264
career or technical certification, military enlistment, job 46265
placement, attendance rate, and progress on closing achievement 46266
gaps for each school. This information shall not be included in 46267
the calculation of a school's performance rating.46268

        (F) In developing the rating and report card system required 46269
by this section, during the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, 46270
the department shall gather and analyze data as determined 46271
necessary from each community school described in division 46272
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code. Each such school 46273
shall cooperate with the department by supplying requested data 46274
and administering required assessments, including sample 46275
assessments for purposes of measuring student achievement growth 46276
as described in division (C)(4) of this section. The department 46277
shall consult with stakeholder groups in performing its duties 46278
under this division.46279

       The department shall also identify one or more states that 46280
have established or are in the process of establishing similar 46281
academic performance rating systems for dropout prevention and 46282
recovery programs and consult with the departments of education of 46283
those states in developing the system required by this section.46284

       (G) Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board shall 46285
review the performance levels and benchmarks for performance 46286
indicators in the report card issued under this section and may 46287
revise them based on the data collected under division (F) of this 46288
section.46289

       Sec. 3314.029. This section establishes the Ohio school 46290
sponsorship program. The department of education shall establish 46291
an office of Ohio school sponsorship to perform the department's 46292
duties prescribed by this section.46293

        (A)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 46294
chapter, but subject to section 3314.20 of the Revised Code, any 46295
person, group of individuals, or entity may apply to the 46296
department for direct authorization to establish a community 46297
school and, upon approval of the application, may establish the 46298
school. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter, 46299
the governing authority of an existing community school, upon the 46300
expiration or termination of its contract with the school's 46301
sponsor entered into under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code, 46302
may apply to the department for direct authorization to continue 46303
operating the school and, upon approval of the application, may 46304
continue to operate the school.46305

        Each application submitted to the department shall include 46306
the following:46307

       (a) Evidence that the applicant will be able to comply with 46308
division (C) of this section;46309

       (b) A statement indicating that the applicant agrees to 46310
comply with all applicable provisions of this chapter, including 46311
the requirement to be established as a nonprofit corporation or 46312
public benefit corporation in accordance with division (A)(1) of 46313
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;46314

       (c) A statement attesting that no unresolved finding of 46315
recovery has been issued by the auditor of state against any 46316
person, group of individuals, or entity that is a party to the 46317
application and that no person who is party to the application has 46318
been a member of the governing authority of any community school 46319
that has permanently closed and against which an unresolved 46320
finding of recovery has been issued by the auditor of state. In 46321
the case of an application submitted by the governing authority of 46322
an existing community school, a person who is party to the 46323
application shall include each individual member of that governing 46324
authority.46325

       (d) A statement that the school will be nonsectarian in its 46326
programs, admission policies, employment practices, and all other 46327
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 46328
religious institution;46329

       (e) A statement of whether the school is to be created by 46330
converting all or part of an existing public school or educational 46331
service center building or is to be a new start-up school. If it 46332
is a converted public school or service center building, the 46333
statement shall include a specification of any duties or 46334
responsibilities of an employer that the board of education or 46335
service center governing board that operated the school or 46336
building before conversion is delegating to the governing 46337
authority of the community school with respect to all or any 46338
specified group of employees, provided the delegation is not 46339
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 46340
employees.46341

       (f) A statement that the school's teachers will be licensed 46342
in the manner prescribed by division (A)(10) of section 3314.03 of 46343
the Revised Code;46344

       (g) A statement that the school will comply with all of the 46345
provisions of law enumerated in divisions (A)(11)(d) and (e) of 46346
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and of division (A)(11)(h) of 46347
that section, if applicable;46348

       (h) A statement that the school's graduation and curriculum 46349
requirements will comply with division (A)(11)(f) of section 46350
3314.03 of the Revised Code;46351

       (i) A description of each of the following:46352

       (i) The school's mission and educational program, the 46353
characteristics of the students the school is expected to attract, 46354
the ages and grade levels of students, and the focus of the 46355
curriculum;46356

       (ii) The school's governing authority, which shall be in 46357
compliance with division (E) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 46358
Code;46359

       (iii) The school's admission and dismissal policies, which 46360
shall be in compliance with divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 46361
3314.03 of the Revised Code;46362

       (iv) The school's business plan, including a five-year 46363
financial forecast;46364

       (v) In the case of an application to establish a community 46365
school, the applicant's resources and capacity to establish and 46366
operate the school;46367

       (vi) The school's academic goals to be achieved and the 46368
method of measurement that will be used to determine progress 46369
toward those goals, which shall include the statewide achievement 46370
assessments;46371

       (vii) The facilities to be used by the school and their 46372
locations;46373

       (viii) A description of the learning opportunities that will 46374
be offered to students including both classroom-based and 46375
nonclassroom-based learning opportunities that are in compliance 46376
with criteria for student participation established by the 46377
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 46378
Revised Code.46379

       (2) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, the 46380
department shall approve each application, unless, within thirty 46381
days after receipt of the application, the department determines 46382
that the application does not satisfy the requirements of division 46383
(A)(1) of this section and provides the applicant a written 46384
explanation of the reasons for the determination. In that case, 46385
the department shall grant the applicant thirty days to correct 46386
the insufficiencies in the application. If the department 46387
determines that the insufficiencies have been corrected, it shall 46388
approve the application. If the department determines that the 46389
insufficiencies have not been corrected, it shall deny the 46390
application and provide the applicant with a written explanation 46391
of the reasons for the denial. The denial of an application may be 46392
appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.46393

       (3) For each of five school years, beginning with the school 46394
year that begins in the calendar year in which this section takes 46395
effect, the department may approve up to twenty applications for 46396
community schools to be established or to continue operation under 46397
division (A) of this section; however, of the twenty applications 46398
that may be approved each school year, only up to five may be for 46399
the establishment of new schools.46400

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, the 46401
department may deny an application submitted by the governing 46402
authority of an existing community school, if a previous sponsor 46403
of that school did not renew its contract or terminated its 46404
contract with the school entered into under section 3314.03 of the 46405
Revised Code.46406

       (B) The department and the governing authority of each 46407
community school authorized under this section shall enter into a 46408
contract under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code. 46409
Notwithstanding division (A)(13) of that section, the contract 46410
with an existing community school may begin at any time during the 46411
academic year. The length of the initial contract of any community 46412
school under this section may be for any term up to five years. 46413
The contract may be renewed in accordance with division (E) of 46414
that section. The contract may provide for the school's governing 46415
authority to pay a fee for oversight and monitoring of the school 46416
that does not exceed three per cent of the total amount of 46417
payments for operating expenses that the school receives from the 46418
state.46419

       (C) The department may require a community school authorized 46420
under this section to post and file with the superintendent of 46421
public instruction a bond payable to the state or to file with the 46422
state superintendent a guarantee, which shall be used to pay the 46423
state any moneys owed by the community school in the event the 46424
school closes.46425

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a community 46426
school authorized under this section shall comply with all 46427
applicable provisions of this chapter. The department may take any 46428
action that a sponsor may take under this chapter to enforce the 46429
school's compliance with this division and the terms of the 46430
contract entered into under division (B) of this section.46431

       (E) Not later than December 31, 2012, and annually 46432
thereafter, the department shall issue a report on the program, 46433
including information about the number of community schools 46434
participating in the program and their compliance with the 46435
provisions of this chapter. In its fifth report, the department 46436
shall include a complete evaluation of the program and 46437
recommendations regarding the program's continuation. Each report 46438
shall be provided to the general assembly, in accordance with 46439
section 101.68 of the Revised Code, and to the governor.46440

       Sec. 3314.03.  A copy of every contract entered into under 46441
this section shall be filed with the superintendent of public 46442
instruction. The department of education shall make available on 46443
its web site a copy of every approved, executed contract filed 46444
with the superintendent under this section.46445

       (A) Each contract entered into between a sponsor and the 46446
governing authority of a community school shall specify the 46447
following:46448

       (1) That the school shall be established as either of the 46449
following:46450

       (a) A nonprofit corporation established under Chapter 1702. 46451
of the Revised Code, if established prior to April 8, 2003;46452

       (b) A public benefit corporation established under Chapter 46453
1702. of the Revised Code, if established after April 8, 2003.46454

       (2) The education program of the school, including the 46455
school's mission, the characteristics of the students the school 46456
is expected to attract, the ages and grades of students, and the 46457
focus of the curriculum;46458

       (3) The academic goals to be achieved and the method of 46459
measurement that will be used to determine progress toward those 46460
goals, which shall include the statewide achievement assessments;46461

       (4) Performance standards by which the success of the school 46462
will be evaluated by the sponsor;46463

       (5) The admission standards of section 3314.06 of the Revised 46464
Code and, if applicable, section 3314.061 of the Revised Code;46465

       (6)(a) Dismissal procedures;46466

       (b) A requirement that the governing authority adopt an 46467
attendance policy that includes a procedure for automatically 46468
withdrawing a student from the school if the student without a 46469
legitimate excuse fails to participate in one hundred five 46470
consecutive hours of the learning opportunities offered to the 46471
student.46472

       (7) The ways by which the school will achieve racial and 46473
ethnic balance reflective of the community it serves;46474

       (8) Requirements for financial audits by the auditor of 46475
state. The contract shall require financial records of the school 46476
to be maintained in the same manner as are financial records of 46477
school districts, pursuant to rules of the auditor of state. 46478
Audits shall be conducted in accordance with section 117.10 of the 46479
Revised Code.46480

       (9) The facilities to be used and their locations;46481

       (10) Qualifications of teachers, including the following:46482

       (a) Aa requirement that the school's classroom teachers be 46483
licensed in accordance with sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the 46484
Revised Code, except that a community school may engage 46485
noncertificated persons to teach up to twelve hours per week 46486
pursuant to section 3319.301 of the Revised Code;46487

       (b) A requirement that each classroom teacher initially hired 46488
by the school on or after July 1, 2013, and employed to provide 46489
instruction in physical education hold a valid license issued 46490
pursuant to section 3319.22 of the Revised Code for teaching 46491
physical education.46492

       (11) That the school will comply with the following 46493
requirements:46494

       (a) The school will provide learning opportunities to a 46495
minimum of twenty-five students for a minimum of nine hundred 46496
twenty hours per school year.46497

       (b) The governing authority will purchase liability 46498
insurance, or otherwise provide for the potential liability of the 46499
school.46500

       (c) The school will be nonsectarian in its programs, 46501
admission policies, employment practices, and all other 46502
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 46503
religious institution.46504

       (d) The school will comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 46505
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 46506
3301.0712, 3301.0715, 3313.472, 3313.50, 3313.536, 3313.539, 46507
3313.608, 3313.609, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 3313.6015, 46508
3313.643, 3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 46509
3313.666, 3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 46510
3313.69, 3313.71, 3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.814, 46511
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.321, 3319.39, 46512
3319.391, 3319.41, 3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 46513
3321.18, 3321.19, 3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 46514
5705.391 and Chapters 117., 1347., 2744., 3365., 3742., 4112., 46515
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 46516
district and will comply with section 3301.0714 of the Revised 46517
Code in the manner specified in section 3314.17 of the Revised 46518
Code.46519

       (e) The school shall comply with Chapter 102. and section 46520
2921.42 of the Revised Code.46521

       (f) The school will comply with sections 3313.61, 3313.611, 46522
and 3313.614 of the Revised Code, except that for students who 46523
enter ninth grade for the first time before July 1, 2010, the 46524
requirement in sections 3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code 46525
that a person must successfully complete the curriculum in any 46526
high school prior to receiving a high school diploma may be met by 46527
completing the curriculum adopted by the governing authority of 46528
the community school rather than the curriculum specified in Title 46529
XXXIII of the Revised Code or any rules of the state board of 46530
education. Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 46531
first time on or after July 1, 2010, the requirement in sections 46532
3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code that a person must 46533
successfully complete the curriculum of a high school prior to 46534
receiving a high school diploma shall be met by completing the 46535
Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of section 46536
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless the person qualifies under 46537
division (D) or (F) of that section. Each school shall comply with 46538
the plan for awarding high school credit based on demonstration of 46539
subject area competency, adopted by the state board of education 46540
under division (J) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.46541

       (g) The school governing authority will submit within four 46542
months after the end of each school year a report of its 46543
activities and progress in meeting the goals and standards of 46544
divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section and its financial status 46545
to the sponsor and the parents of all students enrolled in the 46546
school.46547

       (h) The school, unless it is an internet- or computer-based 46548
community school, will comply with section 3313.801 of the Revised 46549
Code as if it were a school district.46550

       (i) If the school is the recipient of moneys from a grant 46551
awarded under the federal race to the top program, Division (A), 46552
Title XIV, Sections 14005 and 14006 of the "American Recovery and 46553
Reinvestment Act of 2009," Pub. L. No. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, the 46554
school will pay teachers based upon performance in accordance with 46555
section 3317.141 and will comply with section 3319.111 of the 46556
Revised Code as if it were a school district.46557

       (12) Arrangements for providing health and other benefits to 46558
employees;46559

       (13) The length of the contract, which shall begin at the 46560
beginning of an academic year. No contract shall exceed five years 46561
unless such contract has been renewed pursuant to division (E) of 46562
this section.46563

       (14) The governing authority of the school, which shall be 46564
responsible for carrying out the provisions of the contract;46565

       (15) A financial plan detailing an estimated school budget 46566
for each year of the period of the contract and specifying the 46567
total estimated per pupil expenditure amount for each such year. 46568
The plan shall specify for each year the base formula amount that 46569
will be used for purposes of funding calculations under section 46570
3314.08 of the Revised Code. This base formula amount for any year 46571
shall not exceed the formula amount defined under section 3317.02 46572
of the Revised Code. The plan may also specify for any year a 46573
percentage figure to be used for reducing the per pupil amount of 46574
the subsidy calculated pursuant to section 3317.029 of the Revised 46575
Code the school is to receive that year under section 3314.08 of 46576
the Revised Code. 46577

       (16) Requirements and procedures regarding the disposition of 46578
employees of the school in the event the contract is terminated or 46579
not renewed pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code;46580

       (17) Whether the school is to be created by converting all or 46581
part of an existing public school or educational service center 46582
building or is to be a new start-up school, and if it is a 46583
converted public school or service center building, specification 46584
of any duties or responsibilities of an employer that the board of 46585
education or service center governing board that operated the 46586
school or building before conversion is delegating to the 46587
governing authority of the community school with respect to all or 46588
any specified group of employees provided the delegation is not 46589
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 46590
employees;46591

       (18) Provisions establishing procedures for resolving 46592
disputes or differences of opinion between the sponsor and the 46593
governing authority of the community school;46594

       (19) A provision requiring the governing authority to adopt a 46595
policy regarding the admission of students who reside outside the 46596
district in which the school is located. That policy shall comply 46597
with the admissions procedures specified in sections 3314.06 and 46598
3314.061 of the Revised Code and, at the sole discretion of the 46599
authority, shall do one of the following:46600

       (a) Prohibit the enrollment of students who reside outside 46601
the district in which the school is located;46602

       (b) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in districts 46603
adjacent to the district in which the school is located;46604

       (c) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in any other 46605
district in the state.46606

       (20) A provision recognizing the authority of the department 46607
of education to take over the sponsorship of the school in 46608
accordance with the provisions of division (C) of section 3314.015 46609
of the Revised Code;46610

       (21) A provision recognizing the sponsor's authority to 46611
assume the operation of a school under the conditions specified in 46612
division (B) of section 3314.073 of the Revised Code;46613

        (22) A provision recognizing both of the following:46614

       (a) The authority of public health and safety officials to 46615
inspect the facilities of the school and to order the facilities 46616
closed if those officials find that the facilities are not in 46617
compliance with health and safety laws and regulations;46618

       (b) The authority of the department of education as the 46619
community school oversight body to suspend the operation of the 46620
school under section 3314.072 of the Revised Code if the 46621
department has evidence of conditions or violations of law at the 46622
school that pose an imminent danger to the health and safety of 46623
the school's students and employees and the sponsor refuses to 46624
take such action.46625

        (23) A description of the learning opportunities that will be 46626
offered to students including both classroom-based and 46627
non-classroom-based learning opportunities that is in compliance 46628
with criteria for student participation established by the 46629
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 46630
Revised Code;46631

       (24) The school will comply with sections 3302.04 and 46632
3302.041 of the Revised Code, except that any action required to 46633
be taken by a school district pursuant to those sections shall be 46634
taken by the sponsor of the school. However, the sponsor shall not 46635
be required to take any action described in division (F) of 46636
section 3302.04 of the Revised Code.46637

       (25) Beginning in the 2006-2007 school year, the school will 46638
open for operation not later than the thirtieth day of September 46639
each school year, unless the mission of the school as specified 46640
under division (A)(2) of this section is solely to serve dropouts. 46641
In its initial year of operation, if the school fails to open by 46642
the thirtieth day of September, or within one year after the 46643
adoption of the contract pursuant to division (D) of section 46644
3314.02 of the Revised Code if the mission of the school is solely 46645
to serve dropouts, the contract shall be void.46646

       (B) The community school shall also submit to the sponsor a 46647
comprehensive plan for the school. The plan shall specify the 46648
following:46649

       (1) The process by which the governing authority of the 46650
school will be selected in the future;46651

       (2) The management and administration of the school;46652

       (3) If the community school is a currently existing public 46653
school or educational service center building, alternative 46654
arrangements for current public school students who choose not to 46655
attend the converted school and for teachers who choose not to 46656
teach in the school or building after conversion;46657

       (4) The instructional program and educational philosophy of 46658
the school;46659

       (5) Internal financial controls.46660

       (C) A contract entered into under section 3314.02 of the 46661
Revised Code between a sponsor and the governing authority of a 46662
community school may provide for the community school governing 46663
authority to make payments to the sponsor, which is hereby 46664
authorized to receive such payments as set forth in the contract 46665
between the governing authority and the sponsor. The total amount 46666
of such payments for oversight and monitoring of the school shall 46667
not exceed three per cent of the total amount of payments for 46668
operating expenses that the school receives from the state.46669

       (D) The contract shall specify the duties of the sponsor 46670
which shall be in accordance with the written agreement entered 46671
into with the department of education under division (B) of 46672
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code and shall include the 46673
following:46674

        (1) Monitor the community school's compliance with all laws 46675
applicable to the school and with the terms of the contract;46676

        (2) Monitor and evaluate the academic and fiscal performance 46677
and the organization and operation of the community school on at 46678
least an annual basis;46679

        (3) Report on an annual basis the results of the evaluation 46680
conducted under division (D)(2) of this section to the department 46681
of education and to the parents of students enrolled in the 46682
community school;46683

        (4) Provide technical assistance to the community school in 46684
complying with laws applicable to the school and terms of the 46685
contract;46686

        (5) Take steps to intervene in the school's operation to 46687
correct problems in the school's overall performance, declare the 46688
school to be on probationary status pursuant to section 3314.073 46689
of the Revised Code, suspend the operation of the school pursuant 46690
to section 3314.072 of the Revised Code, or terminate the contract 46691
of the school pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code as 46692
determined necessary by the sponsor;46693

        (6) Have in place a plan of action to be undertaken in the 46694
event the community school experiences financial difficulties or 46695
closes prior to the end of a school year.46696

        (E) Upon the expiration of a contract entered into under this 46697
section, the sponsor of a community school may, with the approval 46698
of the governing authority of the school, renew that contract for 46699
a period of time determined by the sponsor, but not ending earlier 46700
than the end of any school year, if the sponsor finds that the 46701
school's compliance with applicable laws and terms of the contract 46702
and the school's progress in meeting the academic goals prescribed 46703
in the contract have been satisfactory. Any contract that is 46704
renewed under this division remains subject to the provisions of 46705
sections 3314.07, 3314.072, and 3314.073 of the Revised Code.46706

       (F) If a community school fails to open for operation within 46707
one year after the contract entered into under this section is 46708
adopted pursuant to division (D) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 46709
Code or permanently closes prior to the expiration of the 46710
contract, the contract shall be void and the school shall not 46711
enter into a contract with any other sponsor. A school shall not 46712
be considered permanently closed because the operations of the 46713
school have been suspended pursuant to section 3314.072 of the 46714
Revised Code. 46715

       Sec. 3314.042.  The governing authority of each community 46716
school shall comply with the standards for financial reporting 46717
adopted under division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised 46718
Code.46719

       Sec. 3314.05.  (A) The contract between the community school 46720
and the sponsor shall specify the facilities to be used for the 46721
community school and the method of acquisition. Except as provided 46722
in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section, no community school 46723
shall be established in more than one school district under the 46724
same contract.46725

        (B) Division (B) of this section shall not apply to internet- 46726
or computer-based community schools.46727

       (1) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 46728
under the same contract only if the limitations on availability of 46729
space prohibit serving all the grade levels specified in the 46730
contract in a single facility or division (B)(2), (3), or (4) of 46731
this section applies to the school. The school shall not offer the 46732
same grade level classrooms in more than one facility.46733

       (2) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 46734
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 46735
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 46736
multiple facilities, as long as all of the following apply:46737

       (a) The governing authority of the community school filed a 46738
copy of its contract with the school's sponsor under section 46739
3314.03 of the Revised Code with the superintendent of public 46740
instruction on or before May 15, 2008.46741

       (b) The school was not open for operation prior to July 1, 46742
2008.46743

       (c) The governing authority has entered into and maintains a 46744
contract with an operator of the type described in division 46745
(A)(8)(b) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.46746

       (d)(b) The contract with that operator qualified the school 46747
to be established pursuant to division (A) of former section 46748
3314.016 of the Revised Code.46749

       (e)(c) The school's rating under section 3302.03 of the 46750
Revised Code does not fall below a combination of any of the 46751
following for two or more consecutive years:46752

       (i) A rating of "in need of continuous improvement" under 46753
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior 46754
to the effective date of this sectionMarch 22, 2013;46755

       (ii) For the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, a rating 46756
of "C" for both the performance index score under division 46757
(A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) and the value-added dimension under 46758
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 46759
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 46760
the building received a grade of "C" for the performance index 46761
score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of 46762
the Revised Code;46763

       (iii) For the 2014-2015 school year and for any school year 46764
thereafter, an overall grade of "C" under division (C)(3) of 46765
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or an overall performance 46766
designation of "meets standards" under division (E)(3)(e) of 46767
section 3314.017 of the Revised Code.46768

       (3) A new start-up community school may be established in two 46769
school districts under the same contract if all of the following 46770
apply:46771

       (a) At least one of the school districts in which the school 46772
is established is a challenged school district;46773

       (b) The school operates not more than one facility in each 46774
school district and, in accordance with division (B)(1) of this 46775
section, the school does not offer the same grade level classrooms 46776
in both facilities; and46777

       (c) Transportation between the two facilities does not 46778
require more than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured 46779
by school bus.46780

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(3) of 46781
this section applies, if only one of the school districts in which 46782
the school is established is a challenged school district, that 46783
district shall be considered the school's primary location and the 46784
district in which the school is located for the purposes of 46785
division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and divisions (C) and (H) of 46786
section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and for all other purposes of 46787
this chapter. If both of the school districts in which the school 46788
is established are challenged school districts, the school's 46789
governing authority shall designate one of those districts to be 46790
considered the school's primary location and the district in which 46791
the school is located for the purposes of those divisions and all 46792
other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the department of 46793
education of that designation.46794

       (4) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 46795
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 46796
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 46797
multiple facilities, as long as both of the following apply:46798

       (a) The facilities are all located in the same county.46799

       (b) Either of the following conditions are satisfied:46800

        (i) The community school is sponsored by a board of education 46801
of a city, local, or exempted village school district having 46802
territory in the same county where the facilities of the community 46803
school are located;46804

        (ii) The community school is managed by an operator.46805

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(4) of 46806
this section applies and that maintains facilities in more than 46807
one school district, the school's governing authority shall 46808
designate one of those districts to be considered the school's 46809
primary location and the district in which the school is located 46810
for the purposes of division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and 46811
divisions (C) and (H) of section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and 46812
for all other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the 46813
department of that designation.46814

       (5) Any facility used for a community school shall meet all 46815
health and safety standards established by law for school 46816
buildings.46817

       (C) In the case where a community school is proposed to be 46818
located in a facility owned by a school district or educational 46819
service center, the facility may not be used for such community 46820
school unless the district or service center board owning the 46821
facility enters into an agreement for the community school to 46822
utilize the facility. Use of the facility may be under any terms 46823
and conditions agreed to by the district or service center board 46824
and the school.46825

       (D) Two or more separate community schools may be located in 46826
the same facility.46827

       (E) In the case of a community school that is located in 46828
multiple facilities, beginning July 1, 2012, the department shall 46829
assign a unique identification number to the school and to each 46830
facility maintained by the school. Each number shall be used for 46831
identification purposes only. Nothing in this division shall be 46832
construed to require the department to calculate the amount of 46833
funds paid under this chapter, or to compute any data required for 46834
the report cards issued under section 3314.012 of the Revised 46835
Code, for each facility separately. The department shall make all 46836
such calculations or computations for the school as a whole.46837

       Sec. 3314.06.  The governing authority of each community 46838
school established under this chapter shall adopt admission 46839
procedures that specify the following:46840

       (A) That, except as otherwise provided in this section, 46841
admission to the school shall be open to any individual age five 46842
to twenty-two entitled to attend school pursuant to section 46843
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code in a school district in the 46844
state.46845

       Additionally, except as otherwise provided in this section, 46846
admission to the school may be open on a tuition basis to any 46847
individual age five to twenty-two who is not a resident of this 46848
state. The school shall not receive state funds under section 46849
3314.08 of the Revised Code for any student who is not a resident 46850
of this state.46851

       An individual younger than five years of age may be admitted 46852
to the school in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 46853
3321.01 of the Revised Code.46854

       (B)(1) That admission to the school may be limited to 46855
students who have attained a specific grade level or are within a 46856
specific age group; to students that meet a definition of 46857
"at-risk," as defined in the contract; to residents of a specific 46858
geographic area within the district, as defined in the contract; 46859
or to separate groups of autistic students and nondisabled 46860
students, as authorized in section 3314.061 of the Revised Code 46861
and as defined in the contract.46862

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, 46863
"at-risk" students may include those students identified as gifted 46864
students under section 3324.03 of the Revised Code.46865

       (C) Whether enrollment is limited to students who reside in 46866
the district in which the school is located or is open to 46867
residents of other districts, as provided in the policy adopted 46868
pursuant to the contract.46869

       (D)(1) That there will be no discrimination in the admission 46870
of students to the school on the basis of race, creed, color, 46871
disability, or sex except that:46872

       (a) The governing authority may do either of the following 46873
for the purpose described in division (G) of this section:46874

       (i) Establish a single-gender school for either sex;46875

       (ii) Establish single-gender schools for each sex under the 46876
same contract, provided substantially equal facilities and 46877
learning opportunities are offered for both boys and girls. Such 46878
facilities and opportunities may be offered for each sex at 46879
separate locations.46880

       (b) The governing authority may establish a school that 46881
simultaneously serves a group of students identified as autistic 46882
and a group of students who are not disabled, as authorized in 46883
section 3314.061 of the Revised Code. However, unless the total 46884
capacity established for the school has been filled, no student 46885
with any disability shall be denied admission on the basis of that 46886
disability.46887

       (2) That upon admission of any student with a disability, the 46888
community school will comply with all federal and state laws 46889
regarding the education of students with disabilities.46890

       (E) That the school may not limit admission to students on 46891
the basis of intellectual ability, measures of achievement or 46892
aptitude, or athletic ability, except that a school may limit its 46893
enrollment to students as described in division (B) of this 46894
section.46895

       (F) That the community school will admit the number of 46896
students that does not exceed the capacity of the school's 46897
programs, classes, grade levels, or facilities.46898

       (G) That the purpose of single-gender schools that are 46899
established shall be to take advantage of the academic benefits 46900
some students realize from single-gender instruction and 46901
facilities and to offer students and parents residing in the 46902
district the option of a single-gender education.46903

       (H) That, except as otherwise provided under division (B) of 46904
this section or section 3314.061 of the Revised Code, if the 46905
number of applicants exceeds the capacity restrictions of division 46906
(F) of this section, students shall be admitted by lot from all 46907
those submitting applications, except preference shall be given to 46908
students attending the school the previous year and to students 46909
who reside in the district in which the school is located. 46910
Preference may be given to siblings of students attending the 46911
school the previous year.46912

       Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (H) of this section, in the 46913
event the racial composition of the enrollment of the community 46914
school is violative of a federal desegregation order, the 46915
community school shall take any and all corrective measures to 46916
comply with the desegregation order.46917

       Sec. 3314.072. The provisions of this section are enacted to 46918
promote the public health, safety, and welfare by establishing 46919
procedures under which the governing authorities of community 46920
schools established under this chapter will be held accountable 46921
for their compliance with the terms of the contracts they enter 46922
into with their school's sponsors and the law relating to the 46923
school's operation. Suspension of the operation of a school 46924
imposed under this section is intended to encourage the governing 46925
authority's compliance with the terms of the school's contract and 46926
the law and is not intended to be an alteration of the terms of 46927
that contract.46928

       (A) If a sponsor of a community school established under this 46929
chapter suspends the operation of that school pursuant to 46930
procedures set forth in this section, the governing authority 46931
shall not operate that school while the suspension is in effect. 46932
Any such suspension shall remain in effect until the sponsor 46933
notifies the governing authority that it is no longer in effect. 46934
The contract of a school of which operation is suspended under 46935
this section also may be subject to termination or nonrenewal 46936
under section 3314.07 of the Revised Code.46937

       (B) If at any time conditions at the school do not comply 46938
with a health and safety standard established by law for school 46939
buildings, the sponsor shall immediately suspend the operation of 46940
the school pursuant to procedures set forth in division (D) of 46941
this section. If the sponsor fails to take action to suspend the 46942
operation of a school to which this division applies, the 46943
department of education may take such action.46944

       (C)(1) For any of the reasons prescribed in division 46945
(B)(1)(a) to (d) of section 3314.07 of the Revised Code, the 46946
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter may 46947
suspend the operation of the school only if it first issues to the 46948
governing authority notice of the sponsor's intent to suspend the 46949
operation of the contract. Such notice shall explain the reasons 46950
for the sponsor's intent to suspend operation of the contract and 46951
shall provide the school's governing authority with five business 46952
days to submit to the sponsor a proposal to remedy the conditions 46953
cited as reasons for the suspension.46954

       (2) The sponsor shall promptly review any proposed remedy 46955
timely submitted by the governing authority and either approve or 46956
disapprove the remedy. If the sponsor disapproves the remedy 46957
proposed by the governing authority, if the governing authority 46958
fails to submit a proposed remedy in the manner prescribed by the 46959
sponsor, or if the governing authority fails to implement the 46960
remedy as approved by the sponsor, the sponsor may suspend 46961
operation of the school pursuant to procedures set forth in 46962
division (D) of this section.46963

       (D)(1) If division (B) of this section applies or if the 46964
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter 46965
decides to suspend the operation of a school as permitted in 46966
division (C)(2) of this section, the sponsor shall promptly send 46967
written notice to the governing authority stating that the 46968
operation of the school is immediately suspended, and explaining 46969
the specific reasons for the suspension. The notice shall state 46970
that the governing authority has five business days to submit a 46971
proposed remedy to the conditions cited as reasons for the 46972
suspension or face potential contract termination.46973

       (2) Upon receipt of the notice of suspension prescribed under 46974
division (D)(1) of this section, the governing authority shall 46975
immediately notify the employees of the school and the parents of 46976
the students enrolled in the school of the suspension and the 46977
reasons therefore, and shall cease all school operations on the 46978
next business day.46979

       (E) If the sponsor of a community school suspends the 46980
operation of that school pursuant to procedures set forth in this 46981
section, the school's contract with the sponsor under section 46982
3314.03 of the Revised Code shall become void, if the governing 46983
authority of the school fails to provide a proposal to remedy the 46984
conditions cited by the sponsor as reasons for the suspension, to 46985
the satisfaction of the sponsor, by the thirtieth day of September 46986
of the school year immediately following the school year in which 46987
the operation of school was suspended.46988

       Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply 46989
only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 46990
Code.46991

       (A) If any community school established under this chapter 46992
permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community school, 46993
the assets of that school shall be distributed first to the 46994
retirement funds of employees of the school, employees of the 46995
school, and private creditors who are owed compensation, and then 46996
any remaining funds shall be paid to the department of education 46997
for redistribution to the school districts in which the students 46998
who were enrolled in the school at the time it ceased operation 46999
were entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 47000
the Revised Code. The amount distributed to each school district 47001
shall be proportional to the district's share of the total 47002
enrollment in the community school.47003

       (B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a 47004
community school and the school has received computer hardware or 47005
software from the former Ohio SchoolNet commission or the former47006
eTech Ohio commission, such hardware or software shall be returned47007
turned over to the eTech Ohio commissiondepartment of education, 47008
and the eTech Ohio commissionwhich shall redistribute the 47009
hardware and software, to the extent such redistribution is 47010
possible, to school districts in conformance with the provisions 47011
of the programs as they were operated and administered by the 47012
former eTech Ohio commission.47013

       (C) If the assets of the school are insufficient to pay all 47014
persons or entities to whom compensation is owed, the 47015
prioritization of the distribution of the assets to individual 47016
persons or entities within each class of payees may be determined 47017
by decree of a court in accordance with this section and Chapter 47018
1702. of the Revised Code.47019

       Sec. 3314.08. The deductions under division (C) and the 47020
payments under division (D) of this section for fiscal years 2012 47021
and 2013 shall be made in accordance with section 3314.088 of the 47022
Revised Code.47023

       (A) As used in this section:47024

       (1) "Base formula amount" means the amount specified as such 47025
in a community school's financial plan for a school year pursuant 47026
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.47027

       (2) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 47028
Revised Code.47029

       (3) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 47030
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 47031
described in that section.47032

       (4) "Applicable vocational education weight" means:47033

       (a) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 47034
or classes described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 47035
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division;47036

       (b) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 47037
or classes described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the 47038
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division.47039

       (5) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 47040
school in a district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 47041
Revised Code.47042

       (6) A community school student is "included in the poverty 47043
student count" of a school district if the student is entitled to 47044
attend school in the district and the student's family receives 47045
assistance under the Ohio works first program.47046

       (7) "Poverty-based assistance reduction factor" means the 47047
percentage figure, if any, for reducing the per pupil amount of 47048
poverty-based assistance a community school is entitled to receive 47049
pursuant to divisions (D)(5) to (9) of this section in any year, 47050
as specified in the school's financial plan for the year pursuant 47051
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.47052

       (8) "All-day kindergarten" has the same meaning as in section 47053
3321.05 of the Revised Code.47054

        (9)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" 47055
means a student who is receiving the career-technical education 47056
services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 47057
Revised Code.47058

       (b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 47059
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 47060
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.47061

       (c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 47062
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 47063
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.47064

       (d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 47065
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 47066
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.47067

       (e) "Category five career-technical education student" means 47068
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 47069
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.47070

       (2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" 47071
means a limited English proficient student described in division 47072
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.47073

       (b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 47074
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 47075
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.47076

       (c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 47077
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 47078
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.47079

       (3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a 47080
student who is receiving special education services for a 47081
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 47082
Revised Code.47083

       (b) "Category two special education student" means a student 47084
who is receiving special education services for a disability 47085
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47086

       (c) "Category three special education student" means a 47087
student who is receiving special education services for a 47088
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 47089
Revised Code.47090

       (d) "Category four special education student" means a student 47091
who is receiving special education services for a disability 47092
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47093

       (e) "Category five special education student" means a student 47094
who is receiving special education services for a disability 47095
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47096

       (f) "Category six special education student" means a student 47097
who is receiving special education services for a disability 47098
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47099

       (4) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 47100
3317.02 of the Revised Code.47101

       (5) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 47102
Revised Code.47103

       (6) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 47104
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 47105
3313.65 of the Revised Code.47106

       (7) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 47107
5751.20 of the Revised Code.47108

       (B) The state board of education shall adopt rules requiring 47109
both of the following:47110

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 47111
and local school district to annually report the number of 47112
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 47113
enrolled in grades oneeach grade kindergarten through twelve in a 47114
community school established under this chapter, the number of 47115
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 47116
enrolled in kindergarten in a community school, the number of 47117
those kindergartners who are enrolled in all-day kindergarten in 47118
their community school, and for each child, the community school 47119
in which the child is enrolled.47120

       (2) The governing authority of each community school 47121
established under this chapter to annually report all of the 47122
following:47123

       (a) The number of students enrolled in grades one through 47124
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of students enrolled in 47125
kindergarten in the school who are not receiving special education 47126
and related services pursuant to an IEP;47127

       (b) The number of enrolled students in grades one through 47128
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of enrolled students in 47129
kindergarten, who are receiving special education and related 47130
services pursuant to an IEP;47131

       (c) The number of students reported under division (B)(2)(b) 47132
of this section receiving special education and related services 47133
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in each of divisions 47134
(A) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47135

       (d) The full-time equivalent number of students reported 47136
under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are enrolled 47137
in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 47138
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 47139
3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by the community 47140
school;47141

       (e) Twenty per cent of the number of students reported under 47142
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are not reported 47143
under division (B)(2)(d) of this section but who are enrolled in 47144
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 47145
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 47146
3317.014 of the Revised Code at a joint vocational school district 47147
under a contract between the community school and the joint 47148
vocational school district and are entitled to attend school in a 47149
city, local, or exempted village school district whose territory 47150
is part of the territory of the joint vocational school district47151
or another district in the career-technical planning district to 47152
which the school is assigned;47153

       (f) The number of enrolled preschool children with 47154
disabilities receiving special education services in a 47155
state-funded unit;47156

       (g) The community school's base formula amount;47157

       (h)The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 47158
and (b) of this section who are category one to three limited 47159
English proficient students described in each of divisions (A) to 47160
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;47161

       (g) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 47162
and (b) who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 47163
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 47164
number reported under division (B)(2)(g) of this section based on 47165
anything other than family income.47166

       (h) For each student, the city, exempted village, or local 47167
school district in which the student is entitled to attend school;47168

       (i) Any poverty-based assistance reduction factor that 47169
applies to a school yearunder section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 47170
Revised Code.47171

       A school district board and a community school governing 47172
authority shall include in their respective reports under division 47173
(B) of this section any child admitted in accordance with division 47174
(A)(2) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.47175

       A governing authority of a community school shall not include 47176
in its report under division (B)(2) of this section any student 47177
for whom tuition is charged under division (F) of this section.47178

       (C) From the state education aid calculated for a city, 47179
exempted village, or local school district and, if necessary, from 47180
the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 47181
of the Revised Code, the department of education shall annually 47182
subtract the sum of the amounts described in divisions (C)(1) to 47183
(9) of this section. However, when deducting payments on behalf of 47184
students enrolled in internet- or computer-based community 47185
schools, the department shall deduct only those amounts described 47186
in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section. Furthermore, the 47187
aggregate amount deducted under this division shall not exceed the 47188
sum of the district's state education aid and its payment under 47189
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code.47190

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47191
for each community school where the district's students are 47192
enrolled, the number of the district's students reported under 47193
divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are enrolled 47194
in grades one through twelve, and one-half the number of students 47195
reported under those divisions who are enrolled in kindergarten, 47196
in that community school is multiplied by the sum of the base 47197
formula amount of that community school plus the per pupil amount 47198
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 47199
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.47200

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 47201
(C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:47202

       (a) For each of the district's students reported under 47203
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in a community 47204
school in grades one through twelve and receiving special 47205
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 47206
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, the product of 47207
the applicable special education weight times the community 47208
school's base formula amount;47209

       (b) For each of the district's students reported under 47210
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in kindergarten in 47211
a community school and receiving special education and related 47212
services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 47213
3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the amount calculated as 47214
prescribed in division (C)(2)(a) of this section.47215

       (3) For each of the district's students reported under 47216
division (B)(2)(d) of this section for whom payment is made under 47217
division (D)(4) of this section, the amount of that payment;47218

       (4) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47219
for each community school where the district's students are 47220
enrolled, the number of the district's students enrolled in that 47221
community school who are included in the district's poverty 47222
student count is multiplied by the per pupil amount of 47223
poverty-based assistance the school district receives that year 47224
pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, 47225
as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of 47226
that community school. The per pupil amount of that aid for the 47227
district shall be calculated by the department.47228

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47229
for each community school where the district's students are 47230
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount of aid received under 47231
division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 47232
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of the community 47233
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:47234

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 47235
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 47236
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 47237
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;47238

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 47239
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 47240
and who are not receiving special education and related services 47241
pursuant to an IEP;47242

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 47243
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 47244
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 47245
IEP.47246

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 47247
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the quotient of the amount 47248
the district received under that division divided by the 47249
district's kindergarten through third grade ADM, as defined in 47250
that section.47251

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47252
for each community school where the district's students are 47253
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 47254
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 47255
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 47256
school, is multiplied by the number of the district's students 47257
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 47258
limited-English proficient.47259

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47260
for each community school where the district's students are 47261
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 47262
(G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 47263
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 47264
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:47265

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 47266
one through twelve in that community school;47267

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 47268
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.47269

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 47270
3317.029 of the Revised Code is the district's amount per teacher 47271
calculated under division (G)(1) or (2) of that section divided by 47272
17.47273

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47274
for each community school where the district's students are 47275
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under divisions 47276
(H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 47277
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 47278
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:47279

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 47280
one through twelve in that community school;47281

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 47282
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.47283

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 47284
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the amount calculated 47285
under each division divided by the district's formula ADM, as 47286
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.47287

       (9) An amount equal to the per pupil state parity aid funding 47288
calculated for the school district under either division (C) or 47289
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code multiplied by the sum 47290
of the number of students in grades one through twelve, and 47291
one-half of the number of students in kindergarten, who are 47292
entitled to attend school in the district and are enrolled in a 47293
community school as reported under division (B)(1) of this 47294
section.47295

       (D) The department shall annually pay to a community school 47296
established under this chapter the sum of the amounts described in 47297
divisions (D)(1) to (10) of this section. However, the department 47298
shall calculate and pay to each internet- or computer-based 47299
community school only the amounts described in divisions (D)(1) to 47300
(3) of this section. Furthermore, the sum of the payments to all 47301
community schools under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of 47302
this section for the students entitled to attend school in any 47303
particular school district shall not exceed the sum of that 47304
district's state education aid and its payment under sections 47305
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code. If the sum of the payments 47306
calculated under those divisions for the students entitled to 47307
attend school in a particular school district exceeds the sum of 47308
that district's state education aid and its payment under sections 47309
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department shall 47310
calculate and apply a proration factor to the payments to all 47311
community schools under those divisions for the students entitled 47312
to attend school in that district.47313

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when 47314
the number of students enrolled in grades one through twelve, plus 47315
one-half of the kindergarten students in the school, reported 47316
under divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are 47317
not receiving special education and related services pursuant to 47318
an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 of the 47319
Revised Code is multiplied by the sum of the community school's 47320
base formula amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding 47321
supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 47322
3317.012 of the Revised Code.47323

       (2) The sum of the following amounts:47324

       (a) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 47325
this section as enrolled in the school in grades one through 47326
twelve and receiving special education and related services 47327
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 47328
of the Revised Code, the following amount:47329

(the school's base formula amount plus
47330

the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements specified in
47331

divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code)
47332

+ (the applicable special education weight X the
47333

community school's base formula amount);
47334

       (b) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 47335
this section as enrolled in kindergarten and receiving special 47336
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 47337
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the 47338
amount calculated under the formula prescribed in division 47339
(D)(2)(a) of this section.47340

       (3) An amount received from federal funds to provide special 47341
education and related services to students in the community 47342
school, as determined by the superintendent of public instruction.47343

       (4) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(d) of 47344
this section as enrolled in vocational education programs or 47345
classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 47346
Code, are provided by the community school, and are comparable as 47347
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 47348
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 47349
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 47350
an amount equal to the applicable vocational education weight 47351
times the community school's base formula amount times the 47352
percentage of time the student spends in the vocational education 47353
programs or classes.47354

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47355
for each school district where the community school's students are 47356
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 47357
enrolled in the community school who are included in the 47358
district's poverty student count is multiplied by the per pupil 47359
amount of poverty-based assistance that school district receives 47360
that year pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 47361
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 47362
reduction factor of the community school. The per pupil amount of 47363
aid shall be determined as described in division (C)(4) of this 47364
section.47365

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47366
for each school district where the community school's students are 47367
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of aid 47368
received under division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 47369
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 47370
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 47371
following:47372

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 47373
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 47374
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 47375
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;47376

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 47377
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 47378
and who are not receiving special education and related services 47379
pursuant to an IEP;47380

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 47381
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 47382
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 47383
IEP.47384

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 47385
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 47386
described in division (C)(5) of this section.47387

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47388
for each school district where the community school's students are 47389
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 47390
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 47391
limited-English proficient is multiplied by the district's per 47392
pupil amount received under division (F) of section 3317.029 of 47393
the Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 47394
reduction factor of the community school.47395

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47396
for each school district where the community school's students are 47397
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 47398
received under division (G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 47399
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 47400
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 47401
following:47402

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 47403
one through twelve in that community school;47404

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 47405
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.47406

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 47407
3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as described in 47408
division (C)(7) of this section.47409

       (9) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47410
for each school district where the community school's students are 47411
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 47412
received under divisions (H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the 47413
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 47414
reduction factor of the community school, is multiplied by the sum 47415
of the following:47416

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 47417
one through twelve in that community school;47418

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 47419
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.47420

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 47421
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 47422
described in division (C)(8) of this section.47423

       (10) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 47424
for each school district where the community school's students are 47425
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of 47426
state parity aid funding calculated under either division (C) or 47427
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code is multiplied by the 47428
sum of the number of that district's students enrolled in grades 47429
one through twelve, and one-half of the number of that district's 47430
students enrolled in kindergarten, in the community school as 47431
reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.47432

       (E)(1) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 47433
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 47434
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 47435
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 47436
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 47437
(C)(3)(b) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, the school may 47438
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 47439
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 47440
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 47441
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 47442
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 47443
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.47444

       (2) The community school shall only report under division 47445
(E)(1) of this section, and the department shall only pay for, the 47446
costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to 47447
the student in accordance with the student's individualized 47448
education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs 47449
associated with any cause of action relating to the student may 47450
not be included in the amount.47451

       (F) A community school may apply to the department of 47452
education for preschool children with disabilities unit funding 47453
the school would receive if it were a school district. Upon 47454
request of its governing authority, a community school that 47455
received such unit funding as a school district-operated school 47456
before it became a community school shall retain any units awarded 47457
to it as a school district-operated school provided the school 47458
continues to meet eligibility standards for the unit.47459

       A community school shall be considered a school district and 47460
its governing authority shall be considered a board of education 47461
for the purpose of applying to any state or federal agency for 47462
grants that a school district may receive under federal or state 47463
law or any appropriations act of the general assembly. The 47464
governing authority of a community school may apply to any private 47465
entity for additional funds.47466

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 47467
and subject to divisions (C)(3) and (4) of this section, on a 47468
full-time equivalency basis, for each student enrolled in a 47469
community school established under this chapter, the department of 47470
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 47471
student's resident district and, if necessary, from the payment 47472
made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the 47473
Revised Code and pay to the community school the sum of the 47474
following:47475

       (a) An opportunity grant in an amount equal to the formula 47476
amount;47477

       (b) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 47478
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 47479
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 47480
department, X 0.25;47481

       (c) Additional state aid for special education and related 47482
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 47483
follows:47484

       (i) If the student is a category one special education 47485
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 47486
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47487

       (ii) If the student is a category two special education 47488
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 47489
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47490

       (iii) If the student is a category three special education 47491
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 47492
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47493

       (iv) If the student is a category four special education 47494
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 47495
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47496

       (v) If the student is a category five special education 47497
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 47498
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47499

       (vi) If the student is a category six special education 47500
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 47501
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47502

       (d) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, an 47503
additional amount of $300, in fiscal year 2014, and $303, in 47504
fiscal year 2015;47505

       (e) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an 47506
additional amount equal to the following:47507

       ($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X 47508
(the resident district's economically disadvantaged index)47509

       (f) Limited English proficiency funds as follows:47510

       (i) If the student is a category one limited English 47511
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 47512
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;47513

       (ii) If the student is a category two limited English 47514
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 47515
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;47516

       (iii) If the student is a category three limited English 47517
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 47518
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.47519

       (g) Career-technical education funds as follows:47520

       (i) If the student is a category one career-technical 47521
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47522
division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;47523

       (ii) If the student is a category two career-technical 47524
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47525
division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;47526

       (iii) If the student is a category three career-technical 47527
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47528
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;47529

       (iv) If the student is a category four career-technical 47530
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47531
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;47532

       (v) If the student is a category five career-technical 47533
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47534
division (E) of section 3317.014.47535

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (C)(1)(g) of 47536
this section is subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the 47537
Revised Code.47538

       (2) When deducting from the state education aid of a 47539
student's resident district for students enrolled in an internet- 47540
or computer-based community school and making payments to such 47541
school under this section, the department shall make the 47542
deductions and payments described in only divisions (C)(1)(a), 47543
(c), and (g) of this section.47544

       No deductions or payments shall be made for a student 47545
enrolled in such school under division (C)(1)(b), (d), (e), or (f) 47546
of this section.47547

       (3)(a) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 47548
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 47549
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 47550
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 47551
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 47552
(B) of section 3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the school may 47553
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 47554
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 47555
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 47556
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 47557
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 47558
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.47559

       (b) The community school shall report under division 47560
(C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall pay for, only 47561
the costs of educational expenses and the related services 47562
provided to the student in accordance with the student's 47563
individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or 47564
other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the 47565
student may not be included in the amount.47566

       (4) If the sum of the payments computed under division (C)(1) 47567
of this section for the students entitled to attend school in a 47568
particular school district under sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of 47569
the Revised Code exceeds the sum of that district's state 47570
education aid and its payment under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 47571
the Revised Code, the department shall calculate and apply a 47572
proration factor to the payments to all community schools under 47573
that division for the students entitled to attend school in that 47574
district. 47575

       (D) A board of education sponsoring a community school may 47576
utilize local funds to make enhancement grants to the school or 47577
may agree, either as part of the contract or separately, to 47578
provide any specific services to the community school at no cost 47579
to the school.47580

       (H)(E) A community school may not levy taxes or issue bonds 47581
secured by tax revenues.47582

       (I)(F) No community school shall charge tuition for the 47583
enrollment of any student who is a resident of this state. A 47584
community school may charge tuition for the enrollment of any 47585
student who is not a resident of this state.47586

       (J)(G)(1)(a) A community school may borrow money to pay any 47587
necessary and actual expenses of the school in anticipation of the 47588
receipt of any portion of the payments to be received by the 47589
school pursuant to division (D)(C) of this section. The school may 47590
issue notes to evidence such borrowing. The proceeds of the notes 47591
shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated 47592
receipts may be lawfully expended by the school.47593

       (b) A school may also borrow money for a term not to exceed 47594
fifteen years for the purpose of acquiring facilities.47595

       (2) Except for any amount guaranteed under section 3318.50 of 47596
the Revised Code, the state is not liable for debt incurred by the 47597
governing authority of a community school.47598

       (K) For purposes of determining the number of students for 47599
which divisions (D)(5) and (6) of this section applies in any 47600
school year, a community school may submit to the department of 47601
job and family services, no later than the first day of March, a 47602
list of the students enrolled in the school. For each student on 47603
the list, the community school shall indicate the student's name, 47604
address, and date of birth and the school district where the 47605
student is entitled to attend school. Upon receipt of a list under 47606
this division, the department of job and family services shall 47607
determine, for each school district where one or more students on 47608
the list is entitled to attend school, the number of students 47609
residing in that school district who were included in the 47610
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. The 47611
department shall make this determination on the basis of 47612
information readily available to it. Upon making this 47613
determination and no later than ninety days after submission of 47614
the list by the community school, the department shall report to 47615
the state department of education the number of students on the 47616
list who reside in each school district who were included in the 47617
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. In 47618
complying with this division, the department of job and family 47619
services shall not report to the state department of education any 47620
personally identifiable information on any student.47621

       (L)(H) The department of education shall adjust the amounts 47622
subtracted and paid under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this 47623
section to reflect any enrollment of students in community schools 47624
for less than the equivalent of a full school year. The state 47625
board of education within ninety days after April 8, 2003, shall 47626
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules 47627
governing the payments to community schools under this section and 47628
section 3314.13 of the Revised Code including initial payments in 47629
a school year and adjustments and reductions made in subsequent 47630
periodic payments to community schools and corresponding 47631
deductions from school district accounts as provided under 47632
divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section and section 3314.13 47633
of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section and section 47634
3314.13 of the Revised Code:47635

       (1) A student shall be considered enrolled in the community 47636
school for any portion of the school year the student is 47637
participating at a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 47638
Code.47639

       (2) A student shall be considered to be enrolled in a 47640
community school for the period of time beginning on the later of 47641
the date on which the school both has received documentation of 47642
the student's enrollment from a parent and the student has 47643
commenced participation in learning opportunities as defined in 47644
the contract with the sponsor, or thirty days prior to the date on 47645
which the student is entered into the education management 47646
information system established under section 3301.0714 of the 47647
Revised Code. For purposes of applying this division and divisions 47648
(L)(H)(3) and (4) of this section to a community school student, 47649
"learning opportunities" shall be defined in the contract, which 47650
shall describe both classroom-based and non-classroom-based 47651
learning opportunities and shall be in compliance with criteria 47652
and documentation requirements for student participation which 47653
shall be established by the department. Any student's instruction 47654
time in non-classroom-based learning opportunities shall be 47655
certified by an employee of the community school. A student's 47656
enrollment shall be considered to cease on the date on which any 47657
of the following occur:47658

        (a) The community school receives documentation from a parent 47659
terminating enrollment of the student.47660

        (b) The community school is provided documentation of a 47661
student's enrollment in another public or private school.47662

        (c) The community school ceases to offer learning 47663
opportunities to the student pursuant to the terms of the contract 47664
with the sponsor or the operation of any provision of this 47665
chapter.47666

       Except as otherwise specified in this paragraph, beginning in 47667
the 2011-2012 school year, any student who completed the prior 47668
school year in an internet- or computer-based community school 47669
shall be considered to be enrolled in the same school in the 47670
subsequent school year until the student's enrollment has ceased 47671
as specified in division (L)(H)(2) of this section. The department 47672
shall continue subtracting and paying amounts for the student 47673
under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section without 47674
interruption at the start of the subsequent school year. However, 47675
if the student without a legitimate excuse fails to participate in 47676
the first one hundred five consecutive hours of learning 47677
opportunities offered to the student in that subsequent school 47678
year, the student shall be considered not to have re-enrolled in 47679
the school for that school year and the department shall 47680
recalculate the payments to the school for that school year to 47681
account for the fact that the student is not enrolled.47682

        (3) The department shall determine each community school 47683
student's percentage of full-time equivalency based on the 47684
percentage of learning opportunities offered by the community 47685
school to that student, reported either as number of hours or 47686
number of days, is of the total learning opportunities offered by 47687
the community school to a student who attends for the school's 47688
entire school year. However, no internet- or computer-based 47689
community school shall be credited for any time a student spends 47690
participating in learning opportunities beyond ten hours within 47691
any period of twenty-four consecutive hours. Whether it reports 47692
hours or days of learning opportunities, each community school 47693
shall offer not less than nine hundred twenty hours of learning 47694
opportunities during the school year.47695

       (4) With respect to the calculation of full-time equivalency 47696
under division (L)(H)(3) of this section, the department shall 47697
waive the number of hours or days of learning opportunities not 47698
offered to a student because the community school was closed 47699
during the school year due to disease epidemic, hazardous weather 47700
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 47701
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 47702
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 47703
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 47704
use, so long as the school was actually open for instruction with 47705
students in attendance during that school year for not less than 47706
the minimum number of hours required by this chapter. The 47707
department shall treat the school as if it were open for 47708
instruction with students in attendance during the hours or days 47709
waived under this division.47710

       (M)(I) The department of education shall reduce the amounts 47711
paid under division (D) of this section to reflect payments made 47712
to colleges under division (B) of section 3365.07 of the Revised 47713
Code or through alternative funding agreements entered into under 47714
rules adopted under section 3365.12 of the Revised Code.47715

       (N)(J)(1) No student shall be considered enrolled in any 47716
internet- or computer-based community school or, if applicable to 47717
the student, in any community school that is required to provide 47718
the student with a computer pursuant to division (C) of section 47719
3314.22 of the Revised Code, unless both of the following 47720
conditions are satisfied:47721

       (a) The student possesses or has been provided with all 47722
required hardware and software materials and all such materials 47723
are operational so that the student is capable of fully 47724
participating in the learning opportunities specified in the 47725
contract between the school and the school's sponsor as required 47726
by division (A)(23) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;47727

       (b) The school is in compliance with division (A) of section 47728
3314.22 of the Revised Code, relative to such student.47729

       (2) In accordance with policies adopted jointly by the 47730
superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state, the 47731
department shall reduce the amounts otherwise payable under 47732
division (D)(C) of this section to any community school that 47733
includes in its program the provision of computer hardware and 47734
software materials to any student, if such hardware and software 47735
materials have not been delivered, installed, and activated for 47736
each such student in a timely manner or other educational 47737
materials or services have not been provided according to the 47738
contract between the individual community school and its sponsor.47739

       The superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of 47740
state shall jointly establish a method for auditing any community 47741
school to which this division pertains to ensure compliance with 47742
this section.47743

       The superintendent, auditor of state, and the governor shall 47744
jointly make recommendations to the general assembly for 47745
legislative changes that may be required to assure fiscal and 47746
academic accountability for such schools.47747

       (O)(K)(1) If the department determines that a review of a 47748
community school's enrollment is necessary, such review shall be 47749
completed and written notice of the findings shall be provided to 47750
the governing authority of the community school and its sponsor 47751
within ninety days of the end of the community school's fiscal 47752
year, unless extended for a period not to exceed thirty additional 47753
days for one of the following reasons:47754

        (a) The department and the community school mutually agree to 47755
the extension.47756

        (b) Delays in data submission caused by either a community 47757
school or its sponsor.47758

       (2) If the review results in a finding that additional 47759
funding is owed to the school, such payment shall be made within 47760
thirty days of the written notice. If the review results in a 47761
finding that the community school owes moneys to the state, the 47762
following procedure shall apply:47763

       (a) Within ten business days of the receipt of the notice of 47764
findings, the community school may appeal the department's 47765
determination to the state board of education or its designee.47766

        (b) The board or its designee shall conduct an informal 47767
hearing on the matter within thirty days of receipt of such an 47768
appeal and shall issue a decision within fifteen days of the 47769
conclusion of the hearing.47770

        (c) If the board has enlisted a designee to conduct the 47771
hearing, the designee shall certify its decision to the board. The 47772
board may accept the decision of the designee or may reject the 47773
decision of the designee and issue its own decision on the matter.47774

        (d) Any decision made by the board under this division is 47775
final.47776

        (3) If it is decided that the community school owes moneys to 47777
the state, the department shall deduct such amount from the 47778
school's future payments in accordance with guidelines issued by 47779
the superintendent of public instruction.47780

       (P)(L) The department shall not subtract from a school 47781
district's state aid account under division (C) of this section47782
and shall not pay to a community school under division (D)(C) of 47783
this section any amount for any of the following:47784

        (1) Any student who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 47785
public or nonpublic high school;47786

        (2) Any student who is not a resident of the state;47787

        (3) Any student who was enrolled in the community school 47788
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 47789
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 47790
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 47791
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section, unless 47792
the superintendent of public instruction grants the student a 47793
waiver from the requirement to take the assessment and a parent is 47794
not paying tuition for the student pursuant to section 3314.26 of 47795
the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant a waiver only for 47796
good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 47797
education.47798

       (4) Any student who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 47799
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 47800
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 47801
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 47802
armed forces and who apply for enrollment in a community school 47803
not later than four years after termination of war or their 47804
honorable discharge. If, however, any such veteran elects to 47805
enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition 47806
is paid under federal law, or otherwise, the department shall not 47807
subtract from a school district's state aid account under division 47808
(C) of this section and shall not pay to a community school under 47809
division (D)(C) of this section any amount for that veteran.47810

       Sec. 3314.082.  A community school shall be considered a 47811
school district and its governing authority shall be considered a 47812
board of education for the purpose of applying to any state or 47813
federal agency for grants that a school district may receive under 47814
federal or state law or any appropriations act of the general 47815
assembly. The governing authority of a community school may apply 47816
to any private entity for additional funds.47817

       Sec. 3314.083. If the department of education pays a joint 47818
vocational school district under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 47819
3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special 47820
education and related services to a student with a disability who 47821
is enrolled in a community school, as calculated under division 47822
(G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall deduct the 47823
amount of that payment from the amount calculated for payment to 47824
the community school under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.47825

       Sec. 3314.084.  (A) As used in this section:47826

       (1) "Formula ADM" has the same meaning as in section 3317.03 47827
of the Revised Code.47828

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of the 47829
Revised Code.47830

       (3) "School district of residence" has the same meaning as in 47831
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code; however, a community school 47832
established under this chapter is not a "school district of 47833
residence" for purposes of this section.47834

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 47835
3314.08 or 3317.03 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply 47836
in the case of a child who is enrolled in a community school and 47837
is also living in a home:47838

       (1) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(1) 47839
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the child's school 47840
district of residence, and not the school district in which the 47841
home that the child is living in is located, shall be considered 47842
to be the school district in which the child is entitled to attend 47843
school. That school district of residence, therefore, shall make 47844
the report required under division (B)(1) of section 3314.08 of 47845
the Revised Code with respect to the child.47846

       (2) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(2) 47847
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the community school shall 47848
report the name of the child's school district of residence.47849

       (3) The child's school district of residence shall count the 47850
child in that district's formula ADM.47851

       (4) The school district in which the home that the child is 47852
living in is located shall not count the child in that district's 47853
formula ADM.47854

       (5) The Departmentdepartment of Educationeducation shall 47855
deduct the applicable amounts prescribed under division (C) of 47856
section 3314.08 and division (D) of section 3314.13 of the Revised 47857
Code from the child's school district of residence and shall not 47858
deduct those amounts from the school district in which the home 47859
that the child is living in is located.47860

       (6) The Departmentdepartment shall make the payments 47861
prescribed in divisions (D) and (E)division (C) of section 47862
3314.08 and section 3314.13 of the Revised Code, as applicable, to 47863
the community school.47864

       Sec. 3314.086. A community school established under this 47865
chapter, including an internet- or computer-based community 47866
school, may provide career-technical education in the manner 47867
prescribed by section 3313.90 of the Revised Code. The community 47868
school may contract with any public agency, board, or bureau or 47869
with any private individual or firm for the purchase of any 47870
career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service 47871
for any student enrolled in the community school and may pay for 47872
such services with funds received under section 3314.08 of the 47873
Revised Code.47874

       Sec. 3314.087.  (A) As used in this section:47875

        (1) "Career-technical program" means vocational47876
career-technical programs or classes described in division (A) or,47877
(B), (C), (D), or (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code in 47878
which a student is enrolled.47879

        (2) "Formula ADM," "category one or two vocationalthrough 47880
five career-technical education ADM," and "FTE basis" have the 47881
same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.47882

        (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 47883
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 47884
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 47885
Code.47886

        (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter 47887
or Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, a student enrolled in a 47888
community school may simultaneously enroll in the career-technical 47889
program operated by the student's resident school district. On an 47890
FTE basis, the student's resident school district shall count the 47891
student in the category one or two vocationalthrough five 47892
career-technical education ADM for the proportion of the time the 47893
student is enrolled in the district's career-technical program 47894
and, accordingly, the department of education shall calculate 47895
funds under Chapter 3317. for the district attributable to the 47896
student for the proportion of time the student attends the 47897
career-technical program. The community school shall count the 47898
student in its enrollment report under section 3314.08 of the 47899
Revised Code and shall report to the department the proportion of 47900
time that the student attends classes at the community school. The 47901
department shall pay the community school and deduct from the 47902
student's resident school district the amount computed for the 47903
student under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code in proportion to 47904
the fraction of the time on an FTE basis that the student attends 47905
classes at the community school. "Full-time equivalency" for a 47906
community school student, as defined in division (L)(H) of section 47907
3314.08 of the Revised Code, does not apply to the student.47908

       Sec. 3314.09.  (A) As used in this section and section 47909
3314.091 of the Revised Code, "native student" means a student 47910
entitled to attend school in the school district under section 47911
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.47912

       (B) Except as provided in section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the 47913
Revised Code, the board of education of each city, local, and 47914
exempted village school district shall provide transportation to 47915
and from school for its district's native students in accordance 47916
with section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.47917

       Sec. 3314.091. (A)A student who attends a community school 47918
that provides or arranges for transporting students pursuant to 47919
this section, or the student's parent or guardian, is not eligible 47920
for the subsidy prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code.47921

       (A) A school district is not required to provide 47922
transportation for any native student enrolled in a community 47923
school if the district board of education has entered into an 47924
agreement with the community school's governing authority that 47925
designates the community school as responsible for providing or 47926
arranging for the transportation of the district's native students 47927
to and from the community school. For any such agreement to be 47928
effective, it must be certified by the superintendent of public 47929
instruction as having met all of the following requirements:47930

       (1) It is submitted to the department of education by a 47931
deadline which shall be established by the department.47932

       (2) In accordance with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this 47933
section, it specifies qualifications, such as residing a minimum 47934
distance from the school, for students to have their 47935
transportation provided or arranged.47936

       (3) The transportation provided by the community school is 47937
subject to all provisions of the Revised Code and all rules 47938
adopted under the Revised Code pertaining to pupil transportation.47939

        (4) The sponsor of the community school also has signed the 47940
agreement.47941

       (B)(1) For the school year that begins on July 1, 2007, a 47942
school district is not required to provide transportation for any 47943
native student enrolled in a community school, if the community 47944
school during the previous school year transported the students 47945
enrolled in the school or arranged for the students' 47946
transportation, even if that arrangement consisted of having 47947
parents transport their children to and from the school, but did 47948
not enter into an agreement to transport or arrange for 47949
transportation for those students under division (A) of this 47950
section, and if the governing authority of the community school by 47951
July 15, 2007, submits written notification to the district board 47952
of education stating that the governing authority is accepting 47953
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 47954
of the district's native students to and from the community 47955
school. 47956

       (2) ForExcept as provided in division (B)(4) of this 47957
section, for any school year subsequent to the school year that 47958
begins on July 1, 2007, a school district is not required to 47959
provide transportation for any native student enrolled in a 47960
community school if the governing authority of the community 47961
school, by the thirty-first day of January of the previous school 47962
year, submits written notification to the district board of 47963
education stating that the governing authority is accepting 47964
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 47965
of the district's native students to and from the community 47966
school. If the governing authority of the community school has 47967
previously accepted responsibility for providing or arranging for 47968
the transportation of a district's native students to and from the 47969
community school, under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, 47970
and has since relinquished that responsibility under division 47971
(B)(3) of this section, the governing authority shall not accept 47972
that responsibility again unless the district board consents to 47973
the governing authority's acceptance of that responsibility.47974

       (3) A governing authority's acceptance of responsibility 47975
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall cover an entire 47976
school year, and shall remain in effect for subsequent school 47977
years unless the governing authority submits written notification 47978
to the district board that the governing authority is 47979
relinquishing the responsibility. However, a governing authority 47980
shall not relinquish responsibility for transportation before the 47981
end of a school year, and shall submit the notice relinquishing 47982
responsibility by the thirty-first day of January, in order to 47983
allow the school district reasonable time to prepare 47984
transportation for its native students enrolled in the school. 47985

       (4)(a) For any school year that begins on or after July 1, 47986
2014, a school district is not required to provide transportation 47987
for any native student enrolled in a community school scheduled to 47988
open for operation in the current school year, if the governing 47989
authority of the community school, by the fifteenth day of April 47990
of the previous school year, submits written notification to the 47991
district board of education stating that the governing authority 47992
is accepting responsibility for providing or arranging for the 47993
transportation of the district's native students to and from the 47994
community school.47995

        (b) The governing authority of a community school that 47996
accepts responsibility for transporting its students under 47997
division (4)(a) of this section shall comply with divisions (B)(2) 47998
and (3) of this section to renew or relinquish that authority for 47999
subsequent school years. 48000

        (C)(1) A community school governing authority that enters 48001
into an agreement under division (A) of this section, or that 48002
accepts responsibility under division (B) of this section, shall 48003
provide or arrange transportation free of any charge for each of 48004
its enrolled students who is required to be transported under 48005
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code or who would otherwise be 48006
transported by the school district under the district's 48007
transportation policy. The governing authority shall report to the 48008
department of education the number of students transported or for 48009
whom transportation is arranged under this section in accordance 48010
with rules adopted by the state board of education.48011

       (2) The governing authority may provide or arrange 48012
transportation for any other enrolled student who is not eligible 48013
for transportation in accordance with division (C)(1) of this 48014
section and may charge a fee for such service up to the actual 48015
cost of the service.48016

       (3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in division 48017
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, a community school governing 48018
authority shall provide or arrange transportation free of any 48019
charge for any disabled student enrolled in the school for whom 48020
the student's individualized education program developed under 48021
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code specifies transportation.48022

       (D)(1) If a school district board and a community school 48023
governing authority elect to enter into an agreement under 48024
division (A) of this section, the department of education shall 48025
make payments to the community school according to the terms of 48026
the agreement for each student actually transported under division 48027
(C)(1) of this section.48028

        If a community school governing authority accepts 48029
transportation responsibility under division (B) of this section, 48030
the department shall make payments to the community school for 48031
each student actually transported or for whom transportation is 48032
arranged by the community school under division (C)(1) of this 48033
section, calculated as follows:48034

       (a) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 48035
specified that transportation payments to school districts be 48036
based on an across-the-board percentage of the district's payment 48037
for the previous school year, the per pupil payment to the 48038
community school shall be the following quotient:48039

       (i) The total amount calculated for the school district in 48040
which the child is entitled to attend school for student 48041
transportation other than transportation of children with 48042
disabilities; divided by48043

       (ii) The number of students included in the district's 48044
transportation ADM for the current fiscal year, as reported under 48045
division (B)(13)(19) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, plus 48046
the number of students enrolled in the community school not 48047
counted in the district's transportation ADM who are transported 48048
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.48049

       (b) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 48050
specified that the transportation payments to school districts be 48051
calculated in accordance with section 3317.0212 of the Revised 48052
Code and any rules of the state board of education implementing 48053
that section, the payment to the community school shall be the 48054
amount so calculated that otherwise would be paid to the school 48055
district in which the student is entitled to attend school by the 48056
method of transportation the district would have used. The 48057
community school, however, is not required to use the same method 48058
to transport that student.48059

       (c) Divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 48060
to fiscal years 2012 and 2013. Rather, for each of those fiscal 48061
years, the per pupil payment to a community school for 48062
transporting a student shall be the total amount paid under former 48063
section 3306.12 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2011 to the 48064
school district in which the child is entitled to attend school 48065
divided by that district's "qualifying ridership," as defined in 48066
that section for fiscal year 2011.48067

       As used in this division "entitled to attend school" means 48068
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 48069
Revised Code. 48070

        (2) The department shall deduct the payment under division 48071
(D)(1) of this section from the state education aid, as defined in 48072
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, and, if necessary, the 48073
payment under sections 321.14 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, 48074
that is otherwise paid to the school district in which the student 48075
enrolled in the community school is entitled to attend school. The 48076
department shall include the number of the district's native 48077
students for whom payment is made to a community school under 48078
division (D)(1) of this section in the calculation of the 48079
district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 of the 48080
Revised Code and the operating appropriations act.48081

       (3) A community school shall be paid under division (D)(1) of 48082
this section only for students who are eligible as specified in 48083
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 48084
section, and whose transportation to and from school is actually 48085
provided, who actually utilized transportation arranged, or for 48086
whom a payment in lieu of transportation is made by the community 48087
school's governing authority. To qualify for the payments, the 48088
community school shall report to the department, in the form and 48089
manner required by the department, data on the number of students 48090
transported or whose transportation is arranged, the number of 48091
miles traveled, cost to transport, and any other information 48092
requested by the department.48093

       (4) A community school shall use payments received under this 48094
section solely to pay the costs of providing or arranging for the 48095
transportation of students who are eligible as specified in 48096
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 48097
section, which may include payments to a parent, guardian, or 48098
other person in charge of a child in lieu of transportation.48099

       (E) Except when arranged through payment to a parent, 48100
guardian, or person in charge of a child, transportation provided 48101
or arranged for by a community school pursuant to an agreement 48102
under this section is subject to all provisions of the Revised 48103
Code, and all rules adopted under the Revised Code, pertaining to 48104
the construction, design, equipment, and operation of school buses 48105
and other vehicles transporting students to and from school. The 48106
drivers and mechanics of the vehicles are subject to all 48107
provisions of the Revised Code, and all rules adopted under the 48108
Revised Code, pertaining to drivers and mechanics of such 48109
vehicles. The community school also shall comply with sections 48110
3313.201, 3327.09, and 3327.10 of the Revised Code, division (B) 48111
of section 3327.16 of the Revised Code and, subject to division 48112
(C)(1) of this section, sectionsand section 3327.01 and 3327.0248113
of the Revised Code, as if it were a school district. 48114

       Sec. 3314.092. The governing authority or operator of a 48115
community school established under this chapter shall consult with 48116
each school district board of education that transports students 48117
to the community school under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 of the 48118
Revised Code prior to making any change in the hours or days in 48119
which the community school is open for instruction.48120

       Sec. 3314.11.  (A) The board of education of each city, 48121
exempted village, and local school district monthly shall review 48122
enrollment for students enrolled in community schools established 48123
under this chapter and entitled to attend school in the district 48124
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code. For each 48125
student, the district shall verify to the department of education 48126
both of the following:48127

       (1) The community school in which the student is enrolled;48128

       (2) That the student is entitled to attend school in the 48129
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.48130

       (B) For purposes of its initial reporting of the school 48131
districts its students are entitled to attend, the governing 48132
authority of a community school may adopt a policy that prescribes 48133
the number of documents listed in division (E) of this section 48134
required to verify a student's residency. This policy, if adopted, 48135
shall supersede any policy concerning the number of documents for 48136
initial residency verification adopted by the district the student 48137
is entitled to attend. If a community school does not adopt a 48138
policy under this division, the policy of the school district in 48139
which the student is entitled to attend shall prevail.48140

       (C) In making the determinations under this section, the 48141
school district in which a parent or child resides is the location 48142
the parent or student has established as the primary residence and 48143
where substantial family activity takes place.48144

        (D) If a district's determination under division (A) of this 48145
section of the school district a student is entitled to attend 48146
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code differs from 48147
a community school's determination under division (B) of this 48148
section, the community school shall provide the school district 48149
that made the determination under division (A) of this section 48150
with documentation of the student's residency and shall make a 48151
good faith effort to accurately identify the correct residence of 48152
the student.48153

        (E) For purposes of this section, the following documents may 48154
serve as evidence of primary residence:48155

       (1) A deed, mortgage, lease, current home owner's or renter's 48156
insurance declaration page, or current real property tax bill;48157

       (2) A utility bill or receipt of utility installation issued 48158
within ninety days of enrollment;48159

       (3) A paycheck or paystub issued to the parent or student 48160
within ninety days of the date of enrollment that includes the 48161
address of the parent's or student's primary residence;48162

       (4) The most current available bank statement issued to the 48163
parent or student that includes the address of the parent's or 48164
student's primary residence;48165

       (5) Any other official document issued to the parent or 48166
student that includes the address of the parent's or student's 48167
primary residence. The superintendent of public instruction shall 48168
develop guidelines for determining what qualifies as an "official 48169
document" under this division.48170

       (F) When a student loses permanent housing and becomes a 48171
homeless child or youth, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 11434a, or when a 48172
child who is such a homeless child or youth changes temporary 48173
living arrangements, the district in which the student is entitled 48174
to attend school shall be determined in accordance with division 48175
(F)(13) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code and the 48176
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C. 11431 et seq.48177

       (G) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 48178
district a student is entitled to attend, the community school, 48179
after complying with division (D) of this section, but not more 48180
than sixty days after the monthly deadline established by the 48181
department of education for reporting of community school 48182
enrollment, may present the matter to the superintendent of public 48183
instruction. Not later than thirty days after the community school 48184
presents the matter, the state superintendent, or the state 48185
superintendent's designee, shall determine which district the 48186
student is entitled to attend and shall direct any necessary 48187
adjustments to payments and deductions under sectionssection48188
3314.08 and 3314.13 of the Revised Code based on that 48189
determination.48190

       Sec. 3314.26. (A) Each internet- or computer-based community 48191
school shall withdraw from the school any student who, for two 48192
consecutive school years, has failed to participate in the spring 48193
administration of any assessment prescribed under section 48194
3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the Revised Code for the student's grade 48195
level and was not excused from the assessment pursuant to division 48196
(C)(1) or (3) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, regardless 48197
of whether a waiver was granted for the student under division 48198
(P)(L)(3) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code. The school shall 48199
report any such student's data verification code, as assigned 48200
pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, to the 48201
department of education. The department shall maintain a list of 48202
all data verification codes reported under this division and 48203
section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code and provide that list to 48204
each internet- or computer-based community school and to each 48205
school to which section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code applies.48206

        (B) No internet- or computer-based community school shall 48207
receive any state funds under this chapter for any enrolled 48208
student whose data verification code appears on the list 48209
maintained by the department under division (A) of this section.48210

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 48211
contrary, the parent of any such student shall pay tuition to the 48212
internet- or computer-based community school in an amount equal to 48213
the state funds the school otherwise would receive for that 48214
student, as determined by the department. An internet- or 48215
computer-based community school may withdraw any student for whom 48216
the parent does not pay tuition as required by this division.48217

       Sec. 3314.29.  (A) Notwithstanding anything in this chapter 48218
to the contrary, an internet- or computer-based community school 48219
may divide into two separate internet- or computer-based community 48220
schools by grade level, if all of the following apply:48221

       (1) The school was in operation on or before the effective 48222
date of this section.48223

       (2) The school offers at least grades one through eight.48224

       (3) The sponsor of the school approves dividing the school 48225
into two separate schools under this section.48226

       (4) The school exercises the option to divide into two 48227
separate schools under this section during either the 2013-2014 or 48228
2014-2015 school year. 48229

       (B) No school may exercise the option under this section 48230
after the 2014-2015 school year. However, the authority of a 48231
school that has exercised the option under this section to operate 48232
separately as two schools continues for all subsequent school 48233
years in which the schools are in operation.48234

       (C) An internet- or computer-based community school created 48235
under this section shall not count toward the annual limit on new 48236
internet- or computer-based community schools prescribed by 48237
division (B) of section 3314.013 of the Revised Code.48238

       Sec. 3315.40.  The board of education of a city, local, 48239
exempted village, or joint vocational school district or the 48240
governing board of any educational service center may establish an 48241
education foundation fund. Moneys in the fund shall consist of 48242
proceeds paid into the fund under division (B) of section 3313.36 48243
of the Revised Code. In addition, by resolution adopted by a 48244
majority of its members, a city, local, exempted village, or joint 48245
vocational board may annually direct the school district treasurer 48246
to pay into the education foundation fund an amount from the 48247
school district general fund not to exceed one-half of one per 48248
cent of the total appropriations of the school district as 48249
estimated by the board at the time the resolution is adopted or as 48250
set forth in the annual appropriation measure as most recently 48251
amended or supplemented; and any governing board, by resolution 48252
adopted by a majority of its members, may annually direct the 48253
service center treasurer to pay into the education foundation fund 48254
an amount not to exceed one-half of one per cent of the funds 48255
received by the governing board pursuant to an agreement entered 48256
into under section 3317.113313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised 48257
Code.48258

       Income from the investment of moneys in the fund shall be 48259
paid into the fund. A board, by resolution adopted by a majority 48260
of its members, may accept a trust created under section 3315.41 48261
of the Revised Code for the investment of money in the educational 48262
foundation fund and direct the school district or service center 48263
treasurer to pay to the trustee, the initial trust principal 48264
contemplated by the instrument creating the trust. A board that 48265
has accepted a trust created under section 3315.41 of the Revised 48266
Code may do any of the following by resolution adopted by a 48267
majority of its members: direct the school district or service 48268
center treasurer to pay additional amounts to the trust principal, 48269
amend the trust, revoke the trust, or provide for payment of 48270
compensation to the trustee.48271

       Moneys in the fund shall be expended only by resolution 48272
adopted by a majority of the members of the board for operating or 48273
capital costs of any existing or new and innovative program 48274
designed to enhance or promote education within the district or 48275
service center, such as scholarships for students or teachers.48276

       A board of education or governing board may appoint a 48277
committee of administrators to administer the education foundation 48278
fund and to make recommendations for the use of the fund. Members 48279
of the committee shall serve at the discretion of the appointing 48280
board. Members shall receive no compensation, but may be 48281
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 48282
performance of their official duties.48283

       Sec. 3315.42.  Sections 3315.40 and 3315.41 of the Revised 48284
Code do not apply to either of the following:48285

       (A) A school district that has received funds for a project 48286
under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, so long as the purchase 48287
price to be paid by the board for the state's interest in the 48288
project has not been paid;48289

       (B) A school district that has an outstanding loan under 48290
section 3313.483 or sections 3317.62 to 3317.64 of the Revised 48291
Code.48292

       Sec. 3316.041.  (A) Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 48293
133. or sections 3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised 48294
Code, and subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 48295
instruction, a school district that is in a state of fiscal watch 48296
declared under section 3316.03 of the Revised Code may restructure 48297
or refinance loans obtained or in the process of being obtained 48298
under section 3313.483 of the Revised Code if all of the following 48299
requirements are met:48300

       (1) The operating deficit certified for the school district 48301
for the current or preceding fiscal year under section 3313.483 of 48302
the Revised Code exceeds fifteen per cent of the district's 48303
general revenue fund for the fiscal year preceding the year for 48304
which the certification of the operating deficit is made.48305

       (2) The school district voters have, during the period of the 48306
fiscal watch, approved the levy of a tax under section 718.09, 48307
718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 5748.02, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code 48308
that is not a renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 48309
5705.199 of the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating 48310
revenue.48311

       (3) The board of education of the school district has adopted 48312
or amended the financial plan required by section 3316.04 of the 48313
Revised Code to reflect the restructured or refinanced loans, and 48314
sets forth the means by which the district will bring projected 48315
operating revenues and expenditures, and projected debt service 48316
obligations, into balance for the life of any such loan.48317

       (B) Subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 48318
instruction, the school district may issue securities to evidence 48319
the restructuring or refinancing authorized by this section. Such 48320
securities may extend the original period for repayment not to 48321
exceed ten years, and may alter the frequency and amount of 48322
repayments, interest or other financing charges, and other terms 48323
or agreements under which the loans were originally contracted, 48324
provided the loans received under sections 3313.483 of the Revised 48325
Code are repaid from funds the district would otherwise receive 48326
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, as required under 48327
division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code. 48328
Securities issued for the purpose of restructuring or refinancing 48329
under this section shall be repaid in equal payments and at equal 48330
intervals over the term of the debt and are not eligible to be 48331
included in any subsequent proposal to restructure or refinance.48332

       (C) Unless the district is declared to be in a state of 48333
fiscal emergency under division (D) of section 3316.04 of the 48334
Revised Code, a school district shall remain in a state of fiscal 48335
watch for the duration of the repayment period of any loan 48336
restructured or refinanced under this section.48337

       Sec. 3316.06.  (A) Within one hundred twenty days after the 48338
first meeting of a school district financial planning and 48339
supervision commission, the commission shall adopt a financial 48340
recovery plan regarding the school district for which the 48341
commission was created. During the formulation of the plan, the 48342
commission shall seek appropriate input from the school district 48343
board and from the community. This plan shall contain the 48344
following:48345

       (1) Actions to be taken to:48346

       (a) Eliminate all fiscal emergency conditions declared to 48347
exist pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised 48348
Code;48349

       (b) Satisfy any judgments, past-due accounts payable, and all 48350
past-due and payable payroll and fringe benefits;48351

       (c) Eliminate the deficits in all deficit funds, except that 48352
any prior year deficits in the capital and maintenance fund 48353
established pursuant to section 3315.18 of the Revised Code shall 48354
be forgiven;48355

       (d) Restore to special funds any moneys from such funds that 48356
were used for purposes not within the purposes of such funds, or 48357
borrowed from such funds by the purchase of debt obligations of 48358
the school district with the moneys of such funds, or missing from 48359
the special funds and not accounted for, if any;48360

       (e) Balance the budget, avoid future deficits in any funds, 48361
and maintain on a current basis payments of payroll, fringe 48362
benefits, and all accounts;48363

       (f) Avoid any fiscal emergency condition in the future;48364

       (g) Restore the ability of the school district to market 48365
long-term general obligation bonds under provisions of law 48366
applicable to school districts generally.48367

       (2) The management structure that will enable the school 48368
district to take the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 48369
section. The plan shall specify the level of fiscal and management 48370
control that the commission will exercise within the school 48371
district during the period of fiscal emergency, and shall 48372
enumerate respectively, the powers and duties of the commission 48373
and the powers and duties of the school board during that period. 48374
The commission may elect to assume any of the powers and duties of 48375
the school board it considers necessary, including all powers 48376
related to personnel, curriculum, and legal issues in order to 48377
successfully implement the actions described in division (A)(1) of 48378
this section.48379

       (3) The target dates for the commencement, progress upon, and 48380
completion of the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 48381
section and a reasonable period of time expected to be required to 48382
implement the plan. The commission shall prepare a reasonable time 48383
schedule for progress toward and achievement of the requirements 48384
for the plan, and the plan shall be consistent with that time 48385
schedule.48386

       (4) The amount and purpose of any issue of debt obligations 48387
that will be issued, together with assurances that any such debt 48388
obligations that will be issued will not exceed debt limits 48389
supported by appropriate certifications by the fiscal officer of 48390
the school district and the county auditor. Debt obligations 48391
issued pursuant to section 133.301 of the Revised Code shall 48392
include assurances that such debt shall be in an amount not to 48393
exceed the amount certified under division (B) of such section. If 48394
the commission considers it necessary in order to maintain or 48395
improve educational opportunities of pupils in the school 48396
district, the plan may include a proposal to restructure or 48397
refinance outstanding debt obligations incurred by the board under 48398
section 3313.483 of the Revised Code contingent upon the approval, 48399
during the period of the fiscal emergency, by district voters of a 48400
tax levied under section 718.09, 718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 48401
5748.02, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that is not a 48402
renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 5705.199 of 48403
the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating revenue. 48404
Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 133. or sections 3313.483 48405
to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code, following the required 48406
approval of the district voters and with the approval of the 48407
commission, the school district may issue securities to evidence 48408
the restructuring or refinancing. Those securities may extend the 48409
original period for repayment, not to exceed ten years, and may 48410
alter the frequency and amount of repayments, interest or other 48411
financing charges, and other terms of agreements under which the 48412
debt originally was contracted, at the discretion of the 48413
commission, provided that any loans received pursuant to section 48414
3313.483 of the Revised Code shall be paid from funds the district 48415
would otherwise receive under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, 48416
as required under division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the 48417
Revised Code. The securities issued for the purpose of 48418
restructuring or refinancing the debt shall be repaid in equal 48419
payments and at equal intervals over the term of the debt and are 48420
not eligible to be included in any subsequent proposal for the 48421
purpose of restructuring or refinancing debt under this section.48422

       (5) An evaluation of the feasibility of entering into shared 48423
services agreements with other political subdivisions for the 48424
joint exercise of any power, performance of any function, or 48425
rendering of any service, if so authorized by statute.48426

       (B) Any financial recovery plan may be amended subsequent to 48427
its adoption. Each financial recovery plan shall be updated 48428
annually.48429

       (C) Each school district financial planning and supervision 48430
commission shall submit the financial recovery plan it adopts or 48431
updates under this section to the state superintendent of public 48432
instruction for approval immediately following its adoption or 48433
updating. The state superintendent shall evaluate the plan and 48434
either approve or disapprove it within thirty calendar days from 48435
the date of its submission. If the plan is disapproved, the state 48436
superintendent shall recommend modifications that will render it 48437
acceptable. No financial planning and supervision commission shall 48438
implement a financial recovery plan that is adopted or updated on 48439
or after April 10, 2001, unless the state superintendent has 48440
approved it.48441

       Sec. 3317.01.  As used in this section, "school district," 48442
unless otherwise specified, means any city, local, exempted 48443
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school 48444
district and any educational service center.48445

       This chapter shall be administered by the state board of 48446
education. The superintendent of public instruction shall 48447
calculate the amounts payable to each school district and shall 48448
certify the amounts payable to each eligible district to the 48449
treasurer of the district as provided by this chapter. As soon as 48450
possible after such amounts are calculated, the superintendent 48451
shall certify to the treasurer of each school district the 48452
district's adjusted charge-off increase, as defined in section 48453
5705.211 of the Revised Code. Certification of moneys pursuant to 48454
this section shall include the amounts payable to each school 48455
building, at a frequency determined by the superintendent, for 48456
each subgroup of students, as defined in section 3317.40 of the 48457
Revised Code, receiving services, provided for by state funding, 48458
from the district or school. No moneys shall be distributed 48459
pursuant to this chapter without the approval of the controlling 48460
board.48461

       The state board of education shall, in accordance with 48462
appropriations made by the general assembly, meet the financial 48463
obligations of this chapter.48464

       Moneys distributed pursuant to this chapter shall be 48465
calculated based on the annualized average of the monthly 48466
certifications required under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code48467
and paid on a fiscal year basis, beginning with the first day of 48468
July and extending through the thirtieth day of June. The moneys 48469
appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed 48470
periodically to each school district unless otherwise provided 48471
for. The state board, in June of each year, shall submit to the 48472
controlling board the state board's year-end distributions 48473
pursuant to this chapter.48474

       Except as otherwise provided, payments under this chapter 48475
shall be made only to those school districts in which:48476

       (A) The school district, except for any educational service 48477
center and any joint vocational or cooperative education school 48478
district, levies for current operating expenses at least twenty 48479
mills. Levies for joint vocational or cooperative education school 48480
districts or county school financing districts, limited to or to 48481
the extent apportioned to current expenses, shall be included in 48482
this qualification requirement. School district income tax levies 48483
under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, limited to or to the 48484
extent apportioned to current operating expenses, shall be 48485
included in this qualification requirement to the extent 48486
determined by the tax commissioner under division (D) of section 48487
3317.021 of the Revised Code.48488

       (B) The school year next preceding the fiscal year for which 48489
such payments are authorized meets the requirement of section 48490
3313.48 or 3313.481 of the Revised Code, with regard to the 48491
minimum number of days or hours school must be open for 48492
instruction with pupils in attendance, for individualized 48493
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods, and for 48494
professional meetings of teachers. This requirement shall be 48495
waived by the superintendent of public instruction if it had been 48496
necessary for a school to be closed because of disease epidemic, 48497
hazardous weather conditions, law enforcement emergencies, 48498
inoperability of school buses or other equipment necessary to the 48499
school's operation, damage to a school building, or other 48500
temporary circumstances due to utility failure rendering the 48501
school building unfit for school use, provided that for those 48502
school districts operating pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 48503
Revised Code the number of days the school was actually open for 48504
instruction with pupils in attendance and for individualized 48505
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods is not less than 48506
one hundred seventy-five, or for those school districts operating 48507
on a trimester plan the number of days the school was actually 48508
open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less than 48509
seventy-nine days in any trimester, for those school districts 48510
operating on a quarterly plan the number of days the school was 48511
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 48512
than fifty-nine days in any quarter, or for those school districts 48513
operating on a pentamester plan the number of days the school was 48514
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 48515
than forty-four days in any pentamester.48516

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 48517
comply with this division or section 3313.481 of the Revised Code48518
because schools were open for instruction but either twelfth grade 48519
students were excused from attendance for up to the equivalent of48520
three school days or only a portion of the kindergarten students 48521
were in attendance for up to the equivalent of three school days 48522
in order to allow for the gradual orientation to school of such 48523
students.48524

       The superintendent of public instruction shall waive the 48525
requirements of this section with reference to the minimum number 48526
of days or hours school must be in session with pupils in 48527
attendance for the school year succeeding the school year in which 48528
a board of education initiates a plan of operation pursuant to 48529
section 3313.481 of the Revised Code. The minimum requirements of 48530
this section shall again be applicable to such a district 48531
beginning with the school year commencing the second July 48532
succeeding the initiation of one such plan, and for each school 48533
year thereafter.48534

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 48535
comply with this division or section 3313.48 or 3313.481 of the 48536
Revised Code because schools were open for instruction but the 48537
length of the regularly scheduled school day, for any number of 48538
days during the school year, was reduced by not more than two 48539
hours due to hazardous weather conditions.48540

       A board of education or governing board of an educational 48541
service center which has not conformed with other law and the 48542
rules pursuant thereto, shall not participate in the distribution 48543
of funds authorized by this chapter, except for good and 48544
sufficient reason established to the satisfaction of the state 48545
board of education and the state controlling board.48546

       All funds allocated to school districts under this chapter, 48547
except those specifically allocated for other purposes, shall be 48548
used to pay current operating expenses only.48549

       Sec. 3317.013. Except for a preschool child with a 48550
disability for whom a scholarship has been awarded under section 48551
3310.41 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to 48552
preschool children with disabilities.48553

       Analysis of special education cost data has resulted in a 48554
finding that the average special education additional cost per 48555
pupil, including the costs of related services, can be expressed 48556
as a multiple of the formula amount. The multiples for the 48557
following categories of special education programs, as these 48558
programs are defined for purposes of Chapter 3323. of the Revised 48559
Code, and adjusted as provided in this section, are as follows:48560

       (A) A multiple of 0.2906 for students whose primary or only 48561
identified disability is a speech and language disability, as this 48562
term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;48563

       (B) A multiple of 0.7374 for students identified as specific 48564
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 48565
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or48566
identified as having an other health impairment-minor, or 48567
identified as a preschool child who is developmentally delayed;48568

       (C) A multiple of 1.7716 for students identified as hearing 48569
disabled or severe behavior disabled, as these terms are defined 48570
pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;48571

       (D) A multiple of 2.3643 for students identified as vision 48572
impaired, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 48573
Revised Code, or as having an other health impairment-major;48574

       (E) A multiple of 3.2022 for students identified as 48575
orthopedically disabled or as having multiple disabilities, as 48576
these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised 48577
Code;48578

       (F) A multiple of 4.7205 for students identified as autistic, 48579
having traumatic brain injuries, or as both visually and hearing 48580
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of 48581
the Revised Code.48582

       In fiscal years 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, and 2013, the48583
The multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section 48584
shall be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.90.48585

       Sec.  3317.014.  The career-technical education additional 48586
cost per pupil for each student enrolled in career-technical 48587
education programs approved by the department of education in 48588
accordance with rules adopted under section 3313.90 of the Revised 48589
Code can be expressed as a multiple of the formula amount. The 48590
multiples for the following categories of career-technical 48591
education programs are as follows:48592

       (A) A multiple of 0.76 for each student enrolled in 48593
career-technical education workforce development programs in 48594
environmental and agricultural systems, construction technologies, 48595
engineering and science technologies, finance, health science, 48596
information technology, and manufacturing technologies;48597

       (B) A multiple of 0.68 for each student enrolled in workforce 48598
development programs in business and administration, hospitality 48599
and tourism, human services, law and public safety, and 48600
transportation systems;48601

       (C) A multiple of 0.43 for students enrolled in workforce 48602
development career-based intervention programs;48603

       (D) A multiple of 0.31 for students enrolled in workforce 48604
development programs in arts and communications, education and 48605
training, marketing, workforce development academics, and career 48606
development;48607

       (E) A multiple of 0.24 for students enrolled in family and 48608
consumer science programs.48609

       Career-technical education associated services costs can be 48610
expressed as a multiple of 0.05 of the formula amount.48611

       Sec. 3317.016.  The amounts for limited English proficient 48612
students shall be as follows:48613

       (A) An amount of $1,500, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,515, in 48614
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 48615
schools in the United States for 180 school days or less and was 48616
not previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 48617
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 48618
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).48619

       (B) An amount of $1,125, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,136, in 48620
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 48621
schools in the United States for more than 180 school days or was 48622
previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 48623
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 48624
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).48625

       (C) An amount of $750, in fiscal year 2014, and $758, in 48626
fiscal year 2015, for each student who does not qualify for 48627
inclusion under division (A) or (B) of this section and is in a 48628
trial-mainstream period, as defined by the department.48629

       Sec. 3317.017.  The department of education shall compute a 48630
school district's state share index as follows:48631

       (A) Calculate the district's valuation index, which equals 48632
the following quotient:48633

       (The district's three-year average valuation / the district's 48634
total ADM) / (the statewide three-year average valuation for 48635
school districts with a total ADM greater than zero / the 48636
statewide total ADM)48637

       (B) Calculate the district's median income index, which 48638
equals the following quotient:48639

       (The district's median Ohio adjusted gross income / the 48640
median of the median Ohio adjusted gross income of all districts 48641
statewide)48642

       (C) Determine the district's wealth index as follows:48643

       (1) If the district's median income index is less than the 48644
district's valuation index, then the district's wealth index shall 48645
be equal to [(1/3 X the district's median income index) + (2/3 X 48646
the district's valuation index)].48647

       (2) If the district's median income index is greater than or 48648
equal to the district's valuation index, then the district's 48649
wealth index shall be equal to the district's valuation index.48650

       (D) Determine the district's state share index as follows:48651

       (1) If the district's wealth index is less than or equal to 48652
0.35, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 48653
0.90.48654

       (2) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.35 but 48655
less than or equal to 0.90, then the district's state share index 48656
shall be equal to {0.40 X [(0.90 – the district's wealth index) / 48657
0.55]} + 0.50.48658

       (3) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.90 but 48659
less than 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be 48660
equal to {0.45 X [(1.8 – the district's wealth index) / 0.9]} + 48661
0.05.48662

       (4) If the district's wealth index is greater than or equal 48663
to 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 48664
0.05.48665

       (E)(1) For each school district for which the tax-exempt 48666
value of the district, as certified under division (A)(4) of 48667
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code, equals or exceeds thirty per 48668
cent of the potential value of the district, the department shall 48669
calculate the difference between the district's tax-exempt value 48670
and thirty per cent of the district's potential value. For this 48671
purpose, the "potential value" of a school district is the 48672
three-year average valuation of the district plus the tax-exempt 48673
value of the district.48674

       (2) For each school district to which division (E)(1) of this 48675
section applies, the department shall adjust the three-year 48676
average valuation used in the calculation under division (A) of 48677
this section by subtracting from it the amount calculated under 48678
division (E)(1) of this section.48679

       (F) When performing the calculations required under this 48680
section, the department shall not round to fewer than four decimal 48681
places.48682

        For purposes of these calculations for fiscal years 2014 and 48683
2015, "three-year average valuation" means the average of total 48684
taxable value for fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014; "total ADM" 48685
means the total ADM for fiscal year 2014; "median Ohio adjusted 48686
gross income" means the median Ohio adjusted gross income for tax 48687
year 2011; and "tax-exempt value" means the tax-exempt value for 48688
fiscal year 2014.48689

       Sec. 3317.02.  As used in this chapter:48690

       (A)(1) "Category one career-technical education ADM" means 48691
the average daily membership of students receiving 48692
career-technical education services described in division (A) of 48693
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and reported under division 48694
(B)(11) or (D)(2)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48695

       (2) "Category two career-technical education ADM" means the 48696
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48697
education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 48698
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(12) or 48699
(D)(2)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48700

       (3) "Category three career-technical education ADM" means the 48701
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48702
education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 48703
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(13) or 48704
(D)(2)(j) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48705

       (4) "Category four career-technical education ADM" means the 48706
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48707
education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 48708
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(14) or 48709
(D)(2)(k) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48710

       (5) "Category five career-technical education ADM" means the 48711
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48712
education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 48713
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(15) or 48714
(D)(2)(l) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48715

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient ADM" means 48716
the average daily membership of limited English proficient 48717
students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the 48718
Revised Code and reported under division (B)(16) or (D)(2)(m) of 48719
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48720

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient ADM" means the 48721
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 48722
described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 48723
and reported under division (B)(17) or (D)(2)(n) of section 48724
3317.03 of the Revised Code.48725

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient ADM" means the 48726
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 48727
described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 48728
and reported under division (B)(18) or (D)(2)(o) of section 48729
3317.03 of the Revised Code.48730

       (C)(1) "Category one special education ADM" means the average 48731
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 48732
education services for the disability specified in division (A) of 48733
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division 48734
(B)(5) or (D)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48735

       (2) "Category two special education ADM" means the average 48736
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 48737
education services for those disabilities specified in division 48738
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under 48739
division (B)(6) or (D)(2)(c) of section 3317.03 of the Revised 48740
Code.48741

       (3) "Category three special education ADM" means the average 48742
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48743
for those disabilities specified in division (C) of section 48744
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and reported under division (B)(7) 48745
or (D)(2)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48746

       (4) "Category four special education ADM" means the average 48747
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48748
for those disabilities specified in division (D) of section 48749
3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(8) or 48750
(D)(2)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48751

       (5) "Category five special education ADM" means the average 48752
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48753
for the disabilities specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 48754
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(9) or 48755
(D)(2)(f) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48756

       (6) "Category six special education ADM" means the average 48757
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48758
for the disabilities specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 48759
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(10) or 48760
(D)(2)(g) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48761

       (D) "County DD board" means a county board of developmental 48762
disabilities.48763

       (E) "Economically disadvantaged index for a school district" 48764
means the square of the quotient of that district's percentage of 48765
students in its total ADM who are identified as economically 48766
disadvantaged as defined by the department of education, divided 48767
by the statewide percentage of students identified as economically 48768
disadvantaged.48769

       (F)(1) "Formula ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted 48770
village school district, the average daily membership described in 48771
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 48772
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 48773
ordered under division (K) of that section, and as further 48774
adjusted by counting only twenty per cent of the number of joint 48775
vocational school district students counted under division (A)(3) 48776
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48777

       (2) "Formula ADM" means, for a joint vocational school 48778
district, the final number verified by the superintendent of 48779
public instruction, based on the number reported pursuant to 48780
division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as adjusted, 48781
if so ordered, under division (K) of that section.48782

       (G) "Formula amount" means $5,732, for fiscal year 2014, and 48783
$5,789, for fiscal year 2015.48784

       (H) "FTE basis" means a count of students based on full-time 48785
equivalency, in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 48786
education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. In 48787
adopting its rules under this division, the department shall 48788
provide for counting any student in category one, two, three, 48789
four, five, or six special education ADM or in category one, two, 48790
three, four, or five career technical education ADM in the same 48791
proportion the student is counted in formula ADM.48792

       (I) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 48793
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.48794

       (J) "Medically fragile child" means a child to whom all of 48795
the following apply:48796

       (1) The child requires the services of a doctor of medicine 48797
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 48798
instability of the child's medical condition.48799

       (2) The child requires the services of a registered nurse on 48800
a daily basis.48801

       (3) The child is at risk of institutionalization in a 48802
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 48803
for the mentally retarded.48804

       (K)(1) A child may be identified as having an "other health 48805
impairment-major" if the child's condition meets the definition of 48806
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 48807
the state board of education and if either of the following apply:48808

       (a) The child is identified as having a medical condition 48809
that is among those listed by the superintendent of public 48810
instruction as conditions where a substantial majority of cases 48811
fall within the definition of "medically fragile child."48812

       (b) The child is determined by the superintendent of public 48813
instruction to be a medically fragile child. A school district 48814
superintendent may petition the superintendent of public 48815
instruction for a determination that a child is a medically 48816
fragile child.48817

       (2) A child may be identified as having an "other health 48818
impairment-minor" if the child's condition meets the definition of 48819
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 48820
the state board of education but the child's condition does not 48821
meet either of the conditions specified in division (K)(1)(a) or 48822
(b) of this section.48823

       (L) "Preschool child with a disability" means a child with a 48824
disability, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, who 48825
is at least age three but is not of compulsory school age, as 48826
defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and who is not 48827
currently enrolled in kindergarten.48828

       (M) "Preschool scholarship ADM" means the number of preschool 48829
children with disabilities reported under division (B)(3)(h) of 48830
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48831

       (N) "Related services" includes:48832

       (1) Child study, special education supervisors and 48833
coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical 48834
development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher 48835
assistants for children with disabilities whose disabilities are 48836
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (B)(3) 48837
of this section, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, 48838
work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services 48839
as those terms are defined by the department;48840

       (2) Speech and language services provided to any student with 48841
a disability, including any student whose primary or only 48842
disability is a speech and language disability;48843

       (3) Any related service not specifically covered by other 48844
state funds but specified in federal law, including but not 48845
limited to, audiology and school psychological services;48846

       (4) Any service included in units funded under former 48847
division (O)(1) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code;48848

       (5) Any other related service needed by children with 48849
disabilities in accordance with their individualized education 48850
programs.48851

       (O) "School district," unless otherwise specified, means 48852
city, local, and exempted village school districts.48853

       (P) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 48854
5751.20 of the Revised Code.48855

       (Q) "State share index" means the state share index 48856
calculated for a district under section 3317.017 of the Revised 48857
Code.48858

       (R) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and 48859
payable against real and public utility property after making the 48860
reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code, plus 48861
the taxes levied against tangible personal property.48862

       (S) "Total ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village 48863
school district, the average daily membership described in 48864
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 48865
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 48866
ordered under division (K) of that section.48867

       (T) "Total career-technical education weight" for a district 48868
means the sum of the following:48869

       (1) The district's category one career-technical education 48870
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of 48871
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48872

       (2) The district's category two career-technical education 48873
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of 48874
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48875

       (3) The district's category three career-technical education 48876
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of 48877
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48878

       (4) The district's category four career-technical education 48879
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of 48880
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48881

       (5) The district's category five career-technical education 48882
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of 48883
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.48884

       (U) "Total special education ADM" means the sum of categories 48885
one through six special education ADM.48886

       (V) "Total special education weight" for a district means the 48887
sum of the following:48888

       (1) The district's category one special education ADM 48889
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of section 48890
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48891

       (2) The district's category two special education ADM 48892
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of section 48893
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48894

       (3) The district's category three special education ADM 48895
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of section 48896
3317.013 of the Revised Code; 48897

       (4) The district's category four special education ADM 48898
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of section 48899
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48900

       (5) The district's category five special education ADM 48901
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of section 48902
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48903

       (6) The district's category six special education ADM 48904
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (F) of section 48905
3317.013 of the Revised Code.48906

       (W) "Total taxable value" means the sum of the amounts 48907
certified for a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 48908
school district under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 48909
of the Revised Code.48910

       Sec. 3317.021.  (A) On or before the first day of June of 48911
each year, the tax commissioner shall certify to the department of 48912
education and the office of budget and management the information 48913
described in divisions (A)(1) to (7) of this section for each 48914
city, exempted village, and local school district, and the 48915
information required by divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section 48916
for each joint vocational school district, and it shall be used, 48917
along with the information certified under division (B) of this 48918
section, in making the computations for the district under this 48919
chapter.48920

       (1) The taxable value of real and public utility real 48921
property in the school district subject to taxation in the 48922
preceding tax year, by class and by county of location.48923

       (2) The taxable value of tangible personal property, 48924
including public utility personal property, subject to taxation by 48925
the district for the preceding tax year.48926

       (3)(a) The total property tax rate and total taxes charged 48927
and payable for the current expenses for the preceding tax year 48928
and the total property tax rate and the total taxes charged and 48929
payable to a joint vocational district for the preceding tax year 48930
that are limited to or to the extent apportioned to current 48931
expenses.48932

       (b) The portion of the amount of taxes charged and payable 48933
reported for each city, local, and exempted village school 48934
district under division (A)(3)(a) of this section attributable to 48935
a joint vocational school district.48936

       (4) The value of all real and public utility real property in 48937
the school district exempted from taxation minus both of the 48938
following:48939

       (a) The value of real and public utility real property in the 48940
district owned by the United States government and used 48941
exclusively for a public purpose;48942

       (b) The value of real and public utility real property in the 48943
district exempted from taxation under Chapter 725. or 1728. or 48944
section 3735.67, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 48945
5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code.48946

       (5) The total federal adjusted gross income of the residents 48947
of the school district, based on tax returns filed by the 48948
residents of the district, for the most recent year for which this 48949
information is available.48950

       (6) The sum of the school district compensation value as 48951
indicated on the list of exempted property for the preceding tax 48952
year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code as if such property 48953
had been assessed for taxation that year and the other 48954
compensation value for the school district, minus the amounts 48955
described in divisions (A)(6)(c) to (i) of this section. The 48956
portion of school district compensation value or other 48957
compensation value attributable to an incentive district exemption 48958
may be subtracted only once even if that incentive district 48959
satisfies more than one of the criteria in divisions (A)(6)(c) to 48960
(i) of this section.48961

       (a) "School district compensation value" means the aggregate 48962
value of real property in the school district exempted from 48963
taxation pursuant to an ordinance or resolution adopted under 48964
division (C) of section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, 48965
or division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code to the 48966
extent that the exempted value results in the charging of payments 48967
in lieu of taxes required to be paid to the school district under 48968
division (D)(1) or (2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 48969
5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code.48970

       (b) "Other compensation value" means the quotient that 48971
results from dividing (i) the dollar value of compensation 48972
received by the school district during the preceding tax year 48973
pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of section 5709.82 of the 48974
Revised Code and the amounts received pursuant to an agreement as 48975
specified in division (D)(2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of 48976
section 5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised 48977
Code to the extent those amounts were not previously reported or 48978
included in division (A)(6)(a) of this section, and so that any 48979
such amount is reported only once under division (A)(6)(b) of this 48980
section, in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant 48981
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under division (C) of 48982
section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, or division (B) 48983
of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, by (ii) the real property 48984
tax rate in effect for the preceding tax year for 48985
nonresidential/agricultural real property after making the 48986
reductions required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code.48987

       (c) The portion of school district compensation value or 48988
other compensation value that was exempted from taxation pursuant 48989
to such an ordinance or resolution for the preceding tax year, if 48990
the ordinance or resolution is adopted prior to January 1, 2006, 48991
and the legislative authority or board of township trustees or 48992
county commissioners, prior to January 1, 2006, executes a 48993
contract or agreement with a developer, whether for-profit or 48994
not-for-profit, with respect to the development of a project 48995
undertaken or to be undertaken and identified in the ordinance or 48996
resolution, and upon which parcels such project is being, or will 48997
be, undertaken;48998

        (d) The portion of school district compensation value that 48999
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year and for 49000
which payments in lieu of taxes for the preceding tax year were 49001
provided to the school district under division (D)(1) of section 49002
5709.40 of the Revised Code.49003

       (e) The portion of school district compensation value that 49004
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 49005
such an ordinance or resolution, if and to the extent that, on or 49006
before April 1, 2006, the fiscal officer of the municipal 49007
corporation that adopted the ordinance, or of the township or 49008
county that adopted the resolution, certifies and provides 49009
appropriate supporting documentation to the tax commissioner and 49010
the director of development that, based on hold-harmless 49011
provisions in any agreement between the school district and the 49012
legislative authority of the municipal corporation, board of 49013
township trustees, or board of county commissioners that was 49014
entered into on or before June 1, 2005, the ability or obligation 49015
of the municipal corporation, township, or county to repay bonds, 49016
notes, or other financial obligations issued or entered into prior 49017
to January 1, 2006, will be impaired, including obligations to or 49018
of any other body corporate and politic with whom the legislative 49019
authority of the municipal corporation or board of township 49020
trustees or county commissioners has entered into an agreement 49021
pertaining to the use of service payments derived from the 49022
improvements exempted;49023

       (f) The portion of school district compensation value that 49024
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 49025
such an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 49026
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, in a municipal corporation with 49027
a population that exceeds one hundred thousand, as shown by the 49028
most recent federal decennial census, that includes a major 49029
employment center and that is adjacent to historically distressed 49030
neighborhoods, if the legislative authority of the municipal 49031
corporation that exempted the property prepares an economic 49032
analysis that demonstrates that all taxes generated within the 49033
incentive district accruing to the state by reason of improvements 49034
constructed within the district during its existence exceed the 49035
amount the state pays the school district under section 3317.022 49036
of the Revised Code attributable to such property exemption from 49037
the school district's recognized valuation. The analysis shall be 49038
submitted to and approved by the department of development prior 49039
to January 1, 2006, and the department shall not unreasonably 49040
withhold approval.49041

       (g) The portion of school district compensation value that 49042
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 49043
an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 49044
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, and if service payments have 49045
been pledged to be used for mixed-use riverfront entertainment 49046
development in any county with a population that exceeds six 49047
hundred thousand, as shown by the most recent federal decennial 49048
census;49049

       (h) The portion of school district compensation value that 49050
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 49051
an ordinance or resolution, if, prior to January 1, 2006, the 49052
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board of 49053
township trustees, or board of county commissioners has pledged 49054
service payments for a designated transportation capacity project 49055
approved by the transportation review advisory council under 49056
Chapter 5512. of the Revised Code;49057

       (i) The portion of school district compensation value that 49058
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 49059
an ordinance or resolution if the legislative authority of a 49060
municipal corporation, board of township trustees, or board of 49061
county commissioners have, by January 1, 2006, pledged proceeds 49062
for designated transportation improvement projects that involve 49063
federal funds for which the proceeds are used to meet a local 49064
share match requirement for such funding.49065

       As used in division (A)(6) of this section, "project" has the 49066
same meaning as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.49067

       (7) The aggregate value of real property in the school 49068
district for which an exemption from taxation is granted by an 49069
ordinance or resolution adopted on or after January 1, 2006, under 49070
Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or section 49071
5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the Revised 49072
Code, as indicated on the list of exempted property for the 49073
preceding tax year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code and 49074
as if such property had been assessed for taxation that year, 49075
minus the product determined by multiplying (a) the aggregate 49076
value of the real property in the school district exempted from 49077
taxation for the preceding tax year under any of the chapters or 49078
sections specified in this division, by (b) a fraction, the 49079
numerator of which is the difference between (i) the amount of 49080
anticipated revenue such school district would have received for 49081
the preceding tax year if the real property exempted from taxation 49082
had not been exempted from taxation and (ii) the aggregate amount 49083
of payments in lieu of taxes on the exempt real property for the 49084
preceding tax year and other compensation received for the 49085
preceding tax year by the school district pursuant to any 49086
agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2006, under section 49087
5709.82 of the Revised Code between the school district and the 49088
legislative authority of a political subdivision that acted under 49089
the authority of a chapter or statute specified in this division, 49090
that were entered into in relation to such exemption, and the 49091
denominator of which is the amount of anticipated revenue such 49092
school district would have received in the preceding fiscal year 49093
if the real property exempted from taxation had not been exempted.49094

       (B) On or before the first day of May each year, the tax 49095
commissioner shall certify to the department of education and the 49096
office of budget and management the total taxable real property 49097
value of railroads and, separately, the total taxable tangible 49098
personal property value of all public utilities for the preceding 49099
tax year, by school district and by county of location.49100

       (C) If a public utility has properly and timely filed a 49101
petition for reassessment under section 5727.47 of the Revised 49102
Code with respect to an assessment issued under section 5727.23 of 49103
the Revised Code affecting taxable property apportioned by the tax 49104
commissioner to a school district, the taxable value of public 49105
utility tangible personal property included in the certification 49106
under divisions (A)(2) and (B) of this section for the school 49107
district shall include only the amount of taxable value on the 49108
basis of which the public utility paid tax for the preceding year 49109
as provided in division (B)(1) or (2) of section 5727.47 of the 49110
Revised Code.49111

       (D) If on the basis of the information certified under 49112
division (A) of this section, the department determines that any 49113
district fails in any year to meet the qualification requirement 49114
specified in division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, 49115
the department shall immediately request the tax commissioner to 49116
determine the extent to which any school district income tax 49117
levied by the district under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 49118
shall be included in meeting that requirement. Within five days of 49119
receiving such a request from the department, the tax commissioner 49120
shall make the determination required by this division and report 49121
the quotient obtained under division (D)(3) of this section to the 49122
department and the office of budget and management. This quotient 49123
represents the number of mills that the department shall include 49124
in determining whether the district meets the qualification 49125
requirement of division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised 49126
Code.49127

       The tax commissioner shall make the determination required by 49128
this division as follows:49129

       (1) Multiply one mill times the total taxable value of the 49130
district as determined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this 49131
section;49132

       (2) Estimate the total amount of tax liability for the 49133
current tax year under taxes levied by Chapter 5748. of the 49134
Revised Code that are apportioned to current operating expenses of 49135
the district, excluding any income tax receipts allocated for the 49136
project cost, debt service, or maintenance set-aside associated 49137
with a state-assisted classroom facilities project as authorized 49138
by section 3318.052 of the Revised Code;49139

       (3) Divide the amount estimated under division (D)(2) of this 49140
section by the product obtained under division (D)(1) of this 49141
section.49142

       (E)(1) On or before June 1, 2006, and the first day of April 49143
of each year thereafter, the director of development shall report 49144
to the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 49145
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 49146
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 49147
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 49148
division (D) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 5709.73, 49149
division (C) of section 5709.78, or division (B)(1), (B)(2), (C), 49150
or (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code in relation to 49151
exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to an ordinance adopted 49152
by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation under 49153
division (C) of section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, or a 49154
resolution adopted by a board of township trustees or board of 49155
county commissioners under division (C) of section 5709.73 or 49156
division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, respectively. 49157
On or before April 1, 2006, and the first day of March of each 49158
year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, exempted 49159
village, or joint vocational school district that has entered into 49160
such an agreement shall report to the director of development the 49161
total amounts of such payments the district received for the 49162
preceding tax year as provided in this section. The state board of 49163
education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 and 3319.311 of the 49164
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the license of a treasurer 49165
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 49166
incomplete data under this division.49167

       (2) On or before April 1, 2007, and the first day of April of 49168
each year thereafter, the director of development shall report to 49169
the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 49170
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 49171
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 49172
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 49173
divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code 49174
in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to 49175
ordinances or resolutions adopted on or after January 1, 2006, 49176
under Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or 49177
section 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the 49178
Revised Code. On or before March 1, 2007, and the first day of 49179
March of each year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, 49180
exempted village, or joint vocational school district that has 49181
entered into such an agreement shall report to the director of 49182
development the total amounts of such payments the district 49183
received for the preceding tax year as provided by this section. 49184
The state board of education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 49185
and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the 49186
license of a treasurer found to have willfully reported erroneous, 49187
inaccurate, or incomplete data under this division.49188

       Sec. 3317.022. (A) The department of education shall compute 49189
and distribute state core foundation funding to each eligible 49190
school district for the fiscal year, using the information 49191
obtained under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the 49192
calendar year in which the fiscal year begins, as prescribed in 49193
the following divisions:49194

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 49195
following formula:49196

       The formula amount X formula ADM X the district's state share 49197
index49198

       (2) Targeted assistance funds calculated under divisions (A) 49199
and (B) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code;49200

       (3) Additional state aid for special education and related 49201
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 49202
calculated according to the following formula:49203

The formula amount X the district's total special education
49204

weight X the district's state share index
49205

       (4) Kindergarten through third grade literacy funds 49206
calculated according to the following formula:49207

       ($300, in fiscal year 2014, or $303, in fiscal year 2015) X 49208
formula ADM for grades kindergarten through three X the district's 49209
state share index49210

       (5) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 49211
the following formula:49212

       ($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X 49213
(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number of 49214
students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under 49215
division (B)(21) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code49216

       (6) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 49217
of the following:49218

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 49219
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 49220
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;49221

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 49222
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 49223
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;49224

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 49225
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 49226
the Revised Code X the district's state share index.49227

       (7)(a) Gifted identification funds calculated according to 49228
the following formula:49229

($5, in fiscal year 2014, or $5.05, in fiscal year 2015) X the
49230

district's formula ADM
49231

       (b) Gifted unit funding calculated under section 3317.051 of 49232
the Revised Code.49233

       (8) Career-technical education funds calculated according to 49234
the following formula:49235

The formula amount X the district's total career-technical
49236

education weight X the district's state share index
49237

       Payment of funds under division (A)(8) of this section is 49238
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.49239

       (9) Career-technical education associated services funds 49240
calculated according to the following formula:49241

The district's state share index X 0.05 X the formula
49242

amount X the sum of categories one through five career-technical
49243

education ADM
49244

       (B) In any fiscal year, a school district shall spend for 49245
purposes that the department designates as approved for special 49246
education and related services expenses at least the amount 49247
calculated as follows:49248

(The formula amount X the total special education ADM) +
49249

(the formula amount X the district's total special education
49250

weight)
49251

       The purposes approved by the department for special education 49252
expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, 49253
identification of children with disabilities, compliance with 49254
state rules governing the education of children with disabilities 49255
and prescribing the continuum of program options for children with 49256
disabilities, provision of speech language pathology services, and 49257
the portion of the school district's overall administrative and 49258
overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special 49259
education student population.49260

       The scholarships deducted from the school district's account 49261
under sections 3310.41 and 3310.55 of the Revised Code shall be 49262
considered to be an approved special education and related 49263
services expense for the purpose of the school district's 49264
compliance with this division.49265

       (C) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 49266
under division (A)(8) of this section shall spend those funds only 49267
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 49268
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 49269
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 49270
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 49271
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 49272
district to report data annually so that the department may 49273
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 49274
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(8) of this 49275
section may be spent.49276

       (D) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 49277
under division (A)(9) of this section, or through a transfer of 49278
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 49279
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 49280
department designates as approved for career-technical education 49281
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 49282
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 49283
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 49284
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 49285
may deny payment under division (A)(9) of this section to any 49286
district that the department determines is not operating those 49287
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(9) of this 49288
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 49289
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.49290

       (E) All funds received under division (A)(8) of this section 49291
by either a comprehensive single-district career-technical 49292
planning district or a school district that is a party to a 49293
career-technical educational compact shall be spent in the 49294
following manner:49295

        (1) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 49296
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 49297
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 49298
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 49299
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 49300
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 49301
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 49302
development; and other costs directly associated with 49303
career-technical education programs including development of new 49304
programs.49305

        (2) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 49306
used for personnel expenditures. 49307

       Sec. 3317.023.  (A) The amounts required to be paid to a 49308
district under this chapter shall be adjusted by the amount of the 49309
computations made under divisions (B) to (K) of this section. 49310

       As used in this section:49311

       (1) "VEPDCTPD" means a school district or group of school 49312
districts designated by the department of education as being 49313
responsible for the planning for and provision of vocational49314
career-technical education services to students within the 49315
district or group.49316

       (2) "Lead district" means a school district, including a 49317
joint vocational school district, designated by the department as 49318
a VEPDCTPD, or designated to provide primary vocational49319
career-technical education leadership within a VEPDCTPD composed 49320
of a group of districts.49321

       (B) If a local school district, or a, city, or exempted 49322
village school district to which a governing board of an 49323
educational service center provides services pursuant to an 49324
agreement entered into under section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, 49325
deduct the amount of the payment required for the reimbursement of 49326
the governing board under section 3317.11 of the Revised Codethe 49327
agreement.49328

       (C)(1) If the district is required to pay to or entitled to 49329
receive tuition from another school district under division (C)(2) 49330
or (3) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, 49331
or if the superintendent of public instruction is required to 49332
determine the correct amount of tuition and make a deduction or 49333
credit under section 3317.08 of the Revised Code, deduct and 49334
credit such amounts as provided in division (J) of section 3313.64 49335
or section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.49336

       (2) For each child for whom the district is responsible for 49337
tuition or payment under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 or 49338
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, deduct the amount of tuition 49339
or payment for which the district is responsible.49340

       (D) If the district has been certified by the superintendent 49341
of public instruction under section 3313.90 of the Revised Code as 49342
not in compliance with the requirements of that section, deduct an 49343
amount equal to ten per cent of the amount computed for the 49344
district under this chapter.49345

       (E) If the district has received a loan from a commercial 49346
lending institution for which payments are made by the 49347
superintendent of public instruction pursuant to division (E)(3) 49348
of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, deduct an amount equal to 49349
such payments.49350

       (F)(1) If the district is a party to an agreement entered 49351
into under division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3311.06 or 49352
division (B) of section 3311.24 of the Revised Code and is 49353
obligated to make payments to another district under such an 49354
agreement, deduct an amount equal to such payments if the district 49355
school board notifies the department in writing that it wishes to 49356
have such payments deducted.49357

       (2) If the district is entitled to receive payments from 49358
another district that has notified the department to deduct such 49359
payments under division (F)(1) of this section, add the amount of 49360
such payments.49361

       (G) If the district is required to pay an amount of funds to 49362
a cooperative education district pursuant to a provision described 49363
by division (B)(4) of section 3311.52 or division (B)(8) of 49364
section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, deduct such amounts as 49365
provided under that provision and credit those amounts to the 49366
cooperative education district for payment to the district under 49367
division (B)(1) of section 3317.19 of the Revised Code.49368

       (H)(1) If a district is educating a student entitled to 49369
attend school in another district pursuant to a shared education 49370
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement other than 49371
an agreement entered into pursuant to section 3313.842 of the 49372
Revised Code, credit to that educating district on an FTE basis 49373
both of the following:49374

       (a) An amount equal to the formula amount.49375

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732the formula amount times the 49376
state share percentageindex times any multiple applicable to the 49377
student for fiscal year 2009 pursuant to section 3317.013 or 49378
3317.014 of the Revised Code, as those sections existed for that 49379
fiscal year.49380

       (2) Deduct any amount credited pursuant to division (H)(1) of 49381
this section from amounts paid to the school district in which the 49382
student is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 49383
or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.49384

       (3) If the district is required by a shared education 49385
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement to make 49386
payments to an educational service center, deduct the amounts from 49387
payments to the district and add them to the amounts paid to the 49388
service center pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.49389

       (I)(1) If a district, including a joint vocational school 49390
district, is a lead district of a VEPDCTPD, credit to that 49391
district the following amountsamount calculated for all theeach49392
school districtsdistrict within that VEPDCTPD:49393

       (a) In any fiscal year except fiscal year 2012 or 2013, the 49394
amount computed under division (D)(2) of section 3317.022 of the 49395
Revised Code;49396

       (b) In fiscal years 2012 and 2013, an amount equal to the 49397
following:49398

state share
percentage
index
X .05 X
$5,732
the formula amount
X
49399

the sum of categories one
49400

and two vocational
through five career-technical
education ADM
49401

       (2) Deduct from each appropriate district that is not a lead 49402
district, the amount attributable to that district that is 49403
credited to a lead district under division (I)(1) of this section.49404

       (J) If the department pays a joint vocational school district 49405
under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code 49406
for excess costs of providing special education and related 49407
services to a student with a disability, as calculated under 49408
division (G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall 49409
deduct the amount of that payment from the city, local, or 49410
exempted village school district that is responsible as specified 49411
in that section for the excess costs.49412

       (K)(1) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 49413
special education services for a child under division (C) of 49414
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall pay that 49415
amount to the district.49416

       (2) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 49417
special education services for a child under division (C) of 49418
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall deduct 49419
that amount from the district of residence of that child.49420

       Sec. 3317.0212. The department of education shall make no 49421
payments under this section for fiscal year 2012 or 2013.49422

       (A) As used in this section:49423

        (1) "Assigned bus" means a school bus used to transport 49424
qualifying riders.49425

       (2) "Nontraditional ridership" means the average number of 49426
qualifying riders who are enrolled in a community school 49427
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, in a STEM 49428
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, or in 49429
a nonpublic school and are provided school bus service by a school 49430
district during the first full week of October.49431

        (3) "Qualifying riders" means resident students enrolled in 49432
regular education in grades kindergarten to twelve who are 49433
provided school bus service by a school district and who live more 49434
than one mile from the school they attend, including students with 49435
dual enrollment in a joint vocational school district or a 49436
cooperative education school district, and students enrolled in a 49437
community school, STEM school, or nonpublic school.49438

       (4)(2) "Qualifying ridership" means the average number of 49439
qualifying riders who are provided school bus service by a school 49440
district during the first full week of October.49441

       (5)(3) "Rider density" means the number of qualifying riders 49442
per square mile of a school district.49443

       (6)(4) "School bus service" means a school district's 49444
transportation of qualifying riders in any of the following types 49445
of vehicles:49446

       (a) School buses owned or leased by the district;49447

       (b) School buses operated by a private contractor hired by 49448
the district;49449

       (c) School buses operated by another school district or 49450
entity with which the district has contracted, either as part of a 49451
consortium for the provision of transportation or otherwise.49452

       (B) Not later than the fifteenth day of October each year, 49453
each city, local, and exempted village school district shall 49454
report to the department of education its qualifying ridership, 49455
nontraditional ridership, number of qualifying riders per assigned 49456
bus, and any other information requested by the department. 49457
Subsequent adjustments to the reported numbers shall be made only 49458
in accordance with rules adopted by the department.49459

       (C) The department shall calculate the statewide 49460
transportation cost per student as follows:49461

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 49462
district's transportation cost per student by dividing the 49463
district's total costs for school bus service in the previous 49464
fiscal year by its qualifying ridership in the previous fiscal 49465
year.49466

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 49467
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 49468
costs per student and the ten districts with the lowest 49469
transportation costs per student, divide the aggregate cost for 49470
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 49471
fiscal year by the aggregate qualifying ridership of those 49472
districts in the previous fiscal year.49473

       (D) The department shall calculate the statewide 49474
transportation cost per mile as follows:49475

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 49476
district's transportation cost per mile by dividing the district's 49477
total costs for school bus service in the previous fiscal year by 49478
its total number of miles driven for school bus service in the 49479
previous fiscal year.49480

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 49481
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 49482
costs per mile and the ten districts with the lowest 49483
transportation costs per mile, divide the aggregate cost for 49484
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 49485
fiscal year by the aggregate miles driven for school bus service 49486
in those districts in the previous fiscal year.49487

       (E) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 49488
exempted village school district's transportation base payment as 49489
follows:49490

       (1) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per student by 49491
the district's qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year.49492

       (2) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per mile by 49493
the district's total number of miles driven for school bus service 49494
in the current fiscal year.49495

       (3) Multiply the greater of the amounts calculated under 49496
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section by the greater of sixty 49497
per cent or the district's state share percentageindex, as 49498
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.49499

       (F) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 49500
exempted village school district's nontraditional ridership 49501
adjustment according to the following formula:49502

(nontraditional ridership for the current fiscal year /
49503

qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year) X 0.1 X
49504

transportation base payment
49505

       (G) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 49506
offers school bus service to all resident students who are 49507
enrolled in regular education in district schools in grades nine 49508
to twelve and who live more than one mile from the school they 49509
attend, the department shall calculate the district's high school 49510
ridership adjustment according to the following formula:49511

0.025 X transportation base payment
49512

       (H) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 49513
offers school bus service to students enrolled in grades 49514
kindergarten to eight who live more than one mile, but two miles 49515
or less, from the school they attend, the department shall 49516
calculate an additional adjustment according to the following 49517
formula:49518

0.025 X transportation base payment
49519

       (I)(1) The department annually shall establish a target 49520
number of qualifying riders per assigned bus for each city, local, 49521
and exempted village school district. The department shall use the 49522
most recently available data in establishing the target number. 49523
The target number shall be based on the statewide median number of 49524
qualifying riders per assigned bus as adjusted to reflect the 49525
district's rider density in comparison to the rider density of all 49526
other districts. The department shall post on the department's web 49527
site each district's target number of qualifying riders per 49528
assigned bus and a description of how the target number was 49529
determined.49530

       (2) The department shall determine each school district's 49531
efficiency index by dividing the district's median number of 49532
qualifying riders per assigned bus by its target number of 49533
qualifying riders per assigned bus.49534

       (3) The department shall determine each city, local, and 49535
exempted village school district's efficiency adjustment as 49536
follows:49537

       (a) If the district's efficiency index is equal to or greater 49538
than 1.5, the efficiency adjustment shall be calculated according 49539
to the following formula:49540

0.1 X transportation base payment
49541

       (b) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.5 but 49542
equal to or greater than 1.0, the efficiency adjustment shall be 49543
calculated according to the following formula:49544

[(efficiency index – 1) / 5] X transportation base payment
49545

       (c) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.0, the 49546
efficiency adjustment shall be zero.49547

       (J) The department shall pay each city, local, and exempted 49548
village school district the lesser of the following:49549

       (1) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions (E) to 49550
(H) and (I)(3) of this section;49551

       (2) The district's total costs for school bus service for the 49552
prior fiscal year.49553

       (K) In addition to funds paid under division (J)(E) of this 49554
section, each city, local, and exempted village district shall 49555
receive in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 49556
education a payment for students transported by means other than 49557
school bus service and whose transportation is not funded under 49558
division (C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. The rules 49559
shall include provisions for school district reporting of such 49560
students.49561

       (G)(1) In fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department shall 49562
pay each district a pro rata portion of the amounts calculated 49563
under division (E) of this section and described in division (F) 49564
of this section, based on state appropriations.49565

       (2) In addition to the prorated payment under division (G)(1) 49566
of this section, in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department 49567
shall pay each school district that meets the conditions 49568
prescribed in division (G)(3) of this section an additional amount 49569
equal to the difference of (a) the amounts calculated under 49570
division (E) of this section and prescribed in division (F) of 49571
this section minus (b) that prorated payment.49572

       (3) Division (G)(2) of this section applies to each school 49573
district that meets all of the following conditions:49574

       (a) The district qualifies for the calculation of a payment 49575
under division (E) of this section because it transports students 49576
on board-owned or contractor-owned school buses.49577

       (b) The district's state share index is greater than or equal 49578
to 0.50.49579

       (c) The district's rider density is at or below the median 49580
rider density of all districts that qualify for calculation of a 49581
payment under division (E) of this section.49582

       (H) Each city, local, and exempted village school district 49583
shall report all data used to calculate funding for transportation 49584
under this section through the education management information 49585
system pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.49586

       Sec. 3317.0213. (A) The department of education shall compute 49587
and pay to each school district in accordance with this section 49588
additional state aid for preschool special education children to 49589
each city, local, and exempted village school district and to each 49590
institution, as defined in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code. 49591
Funding shall be provided for children who are not enrolled in 49592
kindergarten and who are under age six on the thirtieth day of 49593
September of the academic year, or on the first day of August of 49594
the academic year if the school district in which the child is 49595
enrolled has adopted a resolution under division (A)(3) of section 49596
3321.01 of the Revised Code, but not less than age three on the 49597
first day of December of the academic year.49598

       The additional state aid shall be calculated under the 49599
following formula:49600

       ($4,000 X the number of preschool special education children) 49601
+ the sum of the following:49602

       (1) The district's or institution's category one special 49603
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49604
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49605
the district's state share index X 0.50;49606

       (2) The district's or institution's category two special 49607
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49608
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49609
the district's state share index X 0.50;49610

       (3) The district's or institution's category three special 49611
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49612
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49613
the district's state share index X 0.50;49614

       (4) The district's or institution's category four special 49615
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49616
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49617
the district's state share index X 0.50;49618

       (5) The district's or institution's category five special 49619
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49620
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49621
the district's state share index X 0.50;49622

       (6) The district's or institution's category six special 49623
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49624
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49625
the district's state share index X 0.50.49626

       The special education disability categories for preschool 49627
children used in this section are the same categories prescribed 49628
in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.49629

       As used in division (A) of this section, the state share 49630
index of a student enrolled in an institution is the state share 49631
index of the school district in which the student is entitled to 49632
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 49633
Code.49634

       (B) If an educational service center is providing services to 49635
preschool special education students under agreement with the 49636
city, local, or exempted village school district in which the 49637
students are entitled to attend school, that district may 49638
authorize the department to transfer funds computed under this 49639
section to the service center providing those services.49640

       (C)(1) If a county DD board is providing services to 49641
preschool special education students under agreement with the 49642
city, local, or exempted village school district in which the 49643
students are entitled to attend school, the department shall 49644
deduct from the district's payment computed under division (A) of 49645
this section the total amount of those funds that are attributable 49646
to the students served by the county DD board and pay that amount 49647
to that board.49648

        (2) In addition, for any fiscal year, no county DD board 49649
shall receive in total funding for preschool special education 49650
services an amount that is less than what it received for the 49651
previous fiscal year, as determined by the department. If 49652
necessary, the department shall increase the state payment to a 49653
county DD board to comply with division (C)(2) of this section.49654

       Sec. 3317.0214. (A) The department shall compute and pay in 49655
accordance with this section additional state aid to school 49656
districts for students in categories two through six special 49657
education ADM. If a district's costs for the fiscal year for a 49658
student in its categories two through six special education ADM 49659
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student, 49660
the district may submit to the superintendent of public 49661
instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of 49662
all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation 49663
for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the 49664
department shall pay to the district an amount equal to the sum of 49665
the following:49666

       (1) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 49667
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;49668

       (2) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 49669
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 49670
the district's state share index.49671

       (B) For purposes of division (A) of this section, the 49672
threshold catastrophic cost for serving a student equals:49673

       (1) For a student in the school district's category two, 49674
three, four, or five special education ADM, twenty-seven thousand 49675
three hundred seventy-five dollars;49676

       (2) For a student in the district's category six special 49677
education ADM, thirty-two thousand eight hundred fifty dollars.49678

       (C) The district shall report under division (A) of this 49679
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 49680
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 49681
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 49682
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 49683
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 49684
included in the amount.49685

       Sec. 3317.0217. Payment of the amount calculated for a school 49686
district under this section shall be made under division (A) of 49687
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.49688

       (A) The department of education shall annually compute 49689
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:49690

        (1) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school 49691
district, which equals the following sum:49692

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the district's 49693
three-year average valuation divided by (ii) its formula ADM; plus49694

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the average of the 49695
total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's 49696
residents for the three years most recently reported under section 49697
3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (ii) its formula ADM.49698

        (2) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per 49699
pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to 49700
the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.49701

       (3) Compute the statewide wealth per pupil, which equals the 49702
following sum:49703

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 49704
three-year average valuations for all school districts divided by 49705
(ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all schools districts; plus49706

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 49707
three-year average total federal adjusted gross incomes for all 49708
school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for 49709
all school districts.49710

        (4) Compute each district's wealth index by dividing the 49711
statewide wealth per pupil by the district's local wealth per 49712
pupil.49713

       (5) Compute the per pupil targeted assistance for each 49714
eligible school district in accordance with the following formula:49715

(Threshold local wealth per pupil - the district's local wealth
49716
per pupil)
49717

X target millage X the district's wealth index
49718

       Where:49719

       (a) An "eligible school district" means a school district 49720
with a local wealth per pupil less than that of the school 49721
district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.49722

       (b) "Threshold local wealth per pupil" means the local wealth 49723
per pupil of the school district with the 490th lowest local 49724
wealth per pupil.49725

       (c) "Target millage" means 0.006.49726

        If the result of the calculation for a school district under 49727
division (A)(5) of this section is less than zero, the district's 49728
targeted assistance shall be zero.49729

       (6) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as targeted 49730
assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of 49731
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the per pupil 49732
targeted assistance computed under division (A)(5) of this section 49733
by the district's net formula ADM.49734

       As used in this division, a district's "net formula ADM" 49735
means its formula ADM minus both the number of internet- and 49736
computer-based community school students reported under division 49737
(B)(3)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and scholarship 49738
students reported under divisions (B)(3)(f) and (g) of that 49739
section.49740

       (B) The department shall annually compute supplemental 49741
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:49742

       (1) Compute each district's agricultural percentage as the 49743
quotient of (a) the three-year average tax valuation of real 49744
property in the district that is classified as agricultural 49745
property divided by (b) the three-year average tax valuation of 49746
all of the real property in the district. For purposes of this 49747
computation, a district's "three-year average tax valuation" means 49748
the average of a district's tax valuation for fiscal years 2012, 49749
2013, and 2014.49750

       (2) Determine each district's agricultural targeted 49751
percentage as follows:49752

       (a) If a district's agricultural percentage is greater than 49753
or equal to 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted 49754
percentage shall be equal to 0.40.49755

       (b) If a district's agricultural percentage is less than 49756
0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall 49757
be equal to 4 X the district's agricultural percentage.49758

       (3) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as supplemental 49759
targeted assistance funds to each school district under division 49760
(A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the 49761
district's agricultural targeted percentage by the amount 49762
calculated for the district under division (A)(6) of this section.49763

       Sec. 3317.03.  (A) The superintendent of each city, local, 49764
and exempted village school district and of each educational 49765
service center shall, for the schools under the superintendent's 49766
supervision, certify to the state board of education on or before 49767
the fifteenth day of October in each yearmonth for the first full 49768
school week in Octoberof that month the average daily membership 49769
of students receiving services from schools under the 49770
superintendent's supervision, and the numbers of other students 49771
entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 49772
3313.65 of the Revised Code the superintendent is required to 49773
report under this section, so that the department of education can 49774
calculate the district's formula ADM. If a school under the 49775
superintendent's supervision is closed for one or more days during 49776
thata week for which the average daily membership must be 49777
certified due to hazardous weather conditions or other 49778
circumstances described in the first paragraph of division 49779
(B)(A)(1) of section 3317.013313.482 of the Revised Code, the 49780
superintendent may apply to the superintendent of public 49781
instruction for a waiver, under which the superintendent of public 49782
instruction may exempt the district superintendent from certifying 49783
the average daily membership for that school for that week and 49784
specify an alternate week in the same month for certifying the 49785
average daily membership of that school.49786

       The average daily membership during sucha week shall consist 49787
of the sum of the following:49788

       (1) On an FTE basis, the number of students in grades 49789
kindergarten through twelve receiving any educational services 49790
from the district, except that the following categories of 49791
students shall not be included in the determination:49792

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;49793

       (b) Adjacent or other district students enrolled in the 49794
district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section 49795
3313.98 of the Revised Code;49796

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 49797
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 49798
are entitled to attend school in another district pursuant to 49799
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;49800

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 49801
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code;49802

       (e) Students receiving services in the district through a 49803
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 49804
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code.49805

       (2) On an FTE basis, the number of students entitled to 49806
attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 49807
3313.65 of the Revised Code, but receiving educational services in 49808
grades kindergarten through twelve from one or more of the 49809
following entities:49810

       (a) A community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the 49811
Revised Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to 49812
Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community 49813
school;49814

       (b) An alternative school pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 49815
3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or 49816
(b) of this section;49817

       (c) A college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code, 49818
except when the student is enrolled in the college while also 49819
enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or; a 49820
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 49821
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;49822

       (d) An adjacent or other school district under an open 49823
enrollment policy adopted pursuant to section 3313.98 of the 49824
Revised Code;49825

       (e) An educational service center or cooperative education 49826
district;49827

       (f) Another school district under a cooperative education 49828
agreement, compact, or contract;49829

       (g) A chartered nonpublic school with a scholarship paid 49830
under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, if the students 49831
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 49832
Code;49833

        (h) An alternative public provider or a registered private 49834
provider with a scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 49835
or sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code. 49836

       As used in this section, "alternative public provider" and 49837
"registered private provider" have the same meanings as in section 49838
3310.41 or 3310.51 of the Revised Code, as applicable.49839

       (i) A science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 49840
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, 49841
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 49842
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;49843

       (j) A college-preparatory boarding school established under 49844
Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code.49845

       (3) The number of students enrolled in a joint vocational 49846
school district or under a vocationalcareer-technical education 49847
compact, excluding any students entitled to attend school in the 49848
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who 49849
are enrolled in another school district through an open enrollment 49850
policy as reported under division (A)(2)(d) of this section and 49851
then enroll in a joint vocational school district or under a 49852
vocationalcareer-technical education compact;49853

       (4) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49854
preschool children with disabilities, entitled to attend school in 49855
the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 49856
Code who are placed by the district with a county DD board, minus 49857
the number of such children placed with a county DD board in 49858
fiscal year 1998. If this calculation produces a negative number, 49859
the number reported under division (A)(4) of this section shall be 49860
zero.49861

       (B) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 49862
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 49863
chapter, in addition to the average daily membership, each 49864
superintendent shall report separately the following student 49865
counts for the same weekweeks for which average daily membership 49866
is certified:49867

       (1) The total average daily membership in regular learning 49868
day classes included in the report under division (A)(1) or (2) of 49869
this section for each of the individual grades kindergarten 49870
through twelve in schools under the superintendent's supervision;49871

       (2) The number of all preschool children with disabilities 49872
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes in the 49873
district that arefor whom the district is eligible for approval49874
to receive funding under division (B) of section 3317.053317.021349875
of the Revised Code and the number of those classes, which shall 49876
be reported not later than the fifteenth day of December, in 49877
accordance with rules adopted under thatthe disability categories 49878
prescribed in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49879

       (3) The number of children entitled to attend school in the 49880
district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 49881
Code who are:49882

       (a) Participating in a pilot project scholarship program 49883
established under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised 49884
Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section;49885

       (b) Enrolled in a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 49886
Code, except when the student is enrolled in the college while 49887
also enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or;49888
a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 49889
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;49890

       (c) Enrolled in an adjacent or other school district under 49891
section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;49892

       (d) Enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 49893
3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- or 49894
computer-based community school as defined in section 3314.02 of 49895
the Revised Code, including any participation in a college 49896
pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in 49897
such community school;49898

       (e) Enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 49899
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, 49900
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 49901
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;49902

        (f) Enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school with a 49903
scholarship paid under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code and who 49904
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 49905
Code;49906

       (g) Enrolled in kindergarten through grade twelve in an 49907
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 49908
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;49909

        (h) Enrolled as a preschool child with a disability in an 49910
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 49911
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;49912

       (i) Participating in a program operated by a county DD board 49913
or a state institution;49914

       (j) Enrolled in a science, technology, engineering, and 49915
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 49916
Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 49917
3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;49918

       (k) Enrolled in a college-preparatory boarding school 49919
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code.49920

       (4) The number of pupils enrolled in joint vocational 49921
schools;49922

       (5) The combined average daily membership of children with 49923
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49924
receiving special education services for the category one 49925
disability described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 49926
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49927
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49928
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49929
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49930

       (6) The combined average daily membership of children with 49931
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49932
receiving special education services for category two disabilities 49933
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, 49934
including children attending a special education program operated 49935
by an alternative public provider or a registered private provider 49936
with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of 49937
the Revised Code;49938

       (7) The combined average daily membership of children with 49939
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49940
receiving special education services for category three 49941
disabilities described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 49942
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49943
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49944
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49945
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49946

       (8) The combined average daily membership of children with 49947
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49948
receiving special education services for category four 49949
disabilities described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the 49950
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49951
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49952
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49953
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49954

       (9) The combined average daily membership of children with 49955
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49956
receiving special education services for the category five 49957
disabilities described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the 49958
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49959
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49960
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49961
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49962

       (10) The combined average daily membership of children with 49963
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) and under 49964
division (B)(3)(h) of this section receiving special education 49965
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 49966
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, including children 49967
attending a special education program operated by an alternative 49968
public provider or a registered private provider with a 49969
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 49970
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49971

       (11) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49972
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category one 49973
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes, 49974
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 49975
operated by the school district or by another district, other than 49976
a joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 49977
center, excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of 49978
this section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based 49979
community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H) of section 49980
3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;49981

       (12) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49982
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category two 49983
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or services, 49984
described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 49985
operated by the school district or another school district, other 49986
than a joint vocational school district, or by an educational 49987
service center, excluding any student reported under division 49988
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 49989
computer-based community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H)49990
of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this 49991
section;49992

       Beginning with fiscal year 2010, vocational education ADM 49993
shall not be used to calculate a district's funding but shall be 49994
reported under divisions (B)(11) and (12) of this section for 49995
statistical purposes.49996

       (13) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49997
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category three 49998
career-technical education programs or services, described in 49999
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 50000
the school district or another school district, other than a joint 50001
vocational school district, or by an educational service center, 50002
excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this 50003
section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 50004
school, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 50005
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;50006

       (14) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 50007
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category four 50008
career-technical education programs or services, described in 50009
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 50010
the school district or another school district, other than a joint 50011
vocational school district, or by an educational service center, 50012
excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this 50013
section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 50014
school, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 50015
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;50016

       (15) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 50017
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category five 50018
career-technical education programs or services, described in 50019
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 50020
the school district or another school district, other than a joint 50021
vocational school district, or by an educational service center, 50022
excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this 50023
section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 50024
school, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 50025
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;50026

       (16) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 50027
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 50028
proficient students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 50029
of the Revised Code;50030

       (17) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 50031
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 50032
proficient students described in division (B) of section 3317.016 50033
of the Revised Code;50034

       (18) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 50035
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 50036
proficient students described in division (C) of section 3317.016 50037
of the Revised Code;50038

       (19) The average number of children transported by the school 50039
district on board-owned or contractor-owned and -operated buses, 50040
reported in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 50041
education;50042

       (14)(20)(a) The number of children, other than preschool 50043
children with disabilities, the district placed with a county DD 50044
board in fiscal year 1998;. Division (B)(20)(a) of this section 50045
does not apply after fiscal year 2013.50046

       (b) The number of children with disabilities, other than 50047
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 50048
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 50049
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 50050
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50051

       (c) The number of children with disabilities, other than 50052
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 50053
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 50054
services for category two disabilities described in division (B) 50055
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50056

       (d) The number of children with disabilities, other than 50057
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 50058
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 50059
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 50060
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50061

       (e) The number of children with disabilities, other than 50062
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 50063
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 50064
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 50065
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50066

       (f) The number of children with disabilities, other than 50067
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 50068
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 50069
services for the category five disabilities described in division 50070
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50071

       (g) The number of children with disabilities, other than 50072
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 50073
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 50074
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 50075
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.50076

       (21) The number of students who are economically 50077
disadvantaged, as defined by the department. A student shall not 50078
be categorically excluded from the number reported under division 50079
(B)(21) of this section based on anything other than family 50080
income.50081

       (C)(1) The average daily membership in divisions (B)(1) to 50082
(12) of this section shall be based upon the number of full-time 50083
equivalent students. The state board of education shall adopt 50084
rules defining full-time equivalent students and for determining 50085
the average daily membership therefrom for the purposes of 50086
divisions (A), (B), and (D) of this section. Each student enrolled 50087
in kindergarten shall be counted as one full-time equivalent 50088
student regardless of whether the student is enrolled in a 50089
part-day or all-day kindergarten class.50090

       (2) A student enrolled in a community school established 50091
under Chapter 3314., a science, technology, engineering, and 50092
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326., or a 50093
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 50094
3328. of the Revised Code shall be counted in the formula ADM and, 50095
if applicable, the category one, two, three, four, five, or six 50096
special education ADM of the school district in which the student 50097
is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 50098
the Revised Code for the same proportion of the school year that 50099
the student is counted in the enrollment of the community school, 50100
the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or 50101
the college-preparatory boarding school for purposes of section 50102
3314.08, 3326.33, or 3328.24 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 50103
the number of students reported pursuant to division (B)(3)(d), 50104
(e), (j), or (k) of this section, the department may adjust the 50105
formula ADM of a school district to account for students entitled 50106
to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 50107
of the Revised Code who are enrolled in a community school, a 50108
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or a 50109
college-preparatory boarding school for only a portion of the 50110
school year.50111

        (3) No child shall be counted as more than a total of one 50112
child in the sum of the average daily memberships of a school 50113
district under division (A), divisions (B)(1) to (12)(22), or 50114
division (D) of this section, except as follows:50115

       (a) A child with a disability described in section 3317.013 50116
of the Revised Code may be counted both in formula ADM and in 50117
category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM 50118
and, if applicable, in category one or two vocational50119
career-technical education ADM. As provided in division (C)(H) of 50120
section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, such a child shall be counted 50121
in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education 50122
ADM in the same proportion that the child is counted in formula 50123
ADM.50124

       (b) A child enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education 50125
programs or classes described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 50126
Code may be counted both in formula ADM and category one or, two 50127
vocational, three, four, or five career-technical education ADM 50128
and, if applicable, in category one, two, three, four, five, or 50129
six special education ADM. Such a child shall be counted in 50130
category one or, two vocational, three, four, or five 50131
career-technical education ADM in the same proportion as the 50132
percentage of time that the child spends in the vocational50133
career-technical education programs or classes.50134

       (4) Based on the information reported under this section, the 50135
department of education shall determine the total student count, 50136
as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, for each 50137
school district.50138

       (D)(1) The superintendent of each joint vocational school 50139
district shall certify to the superintendent of public instruction 50140
on or before the fifteenth day of October in each yearmonth for 50141
the first full school week in October the formula ADM, for 50142
purposes of section 3318.42 of the Revised Code and for any other 50143
purpose prescribed by law for which "formula ADM" of the joint 50144
vocational district is a factorof that month the average daily 50145
membership. If a school operated by the joint vocational school 50146
district is closed for one or more days during thata week for 50147
which the average daily membership must be certified due to 50148
hazardous weather conditions or other circumstances described in 50149
the first paragraph of division (B)(A)(1) of section 3317.0150150
3313.482 of the Revised Code, the superintendent may apply to the 50151
superintendent of public instruction for a waiver, under which the 50152
superintendent of public instruction may exempt the district 50153
superintendent from certifying the formula ADMaverage daily 50154
membership for that school for that week and specify an alternate 50155
week in the same month for certifying the formula ADMaverage 50156
daily membership of that school.50157

       The formula ADMaverage daily membership, except as otherwise 50158
provided in this division, shall consist of the average daily 50159
membership during sucha week, on an FTE basis, of the number of 50160
students receiving any educational services from the district, 50161
including students enrolled in a community school established 50162
under Chapter 3314. or a science, technology, engineering, and 50163
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 50164
Code who are attending the joint vocational district under an 50165
agreement between the district board of education and the 50166
governing authority of the community school or the governing body 50167
of the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school50168
and are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 50169
village school district whose territory is part of the territory 50170
of the joint vocational district.50171

        The following categories of students shall not be included in 50172
the determination made under division (D)(1) of this section:50173

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;50174

       (b) Adjacent or other district joint vocational students 50175
enrolled in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant 50176
to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;50177

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 50178
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 50179
are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 50180
village school district whose territory is not part of the 50181
territory of the joint vocational district;50182

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 50183
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.50184

       (2) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 50185
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 50186
chapter, in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall 50187
report separately the average daily membership included in the 50188
report under division (D)(1) of this section for each of the 50189
following categories of students for each of the same weekweeks50190
for which formula ADM is certified:50191

       (a) Students enrolled in each individual grade included in 50192
the joint vocational district schools;50193

       (b) Children with disabilities receiving special education 50194
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 50195
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50196

       (c) Children with disabilities receiving special education 50197
services for the category two disabilities described in division 50198
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50199

       (d) Children with disabilities receiving special education 50200
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 50201
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50202

       (e) Children with disabilities receiving special education 50203
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 50204
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50205

       (f) Children with disabilities receiving special education 50206
services for the category five disabilities described in division 50207
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50208

       (g) Children with disabilities receiving special education 50209
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 50210
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;50211

       (h) Students receiving category one vocational50212
career-technical education services, described in division (A) of 50213
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;50214

       (i) Students receiving category two vocational50215
career-technical education services, described in division (B) of 50216
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;50217

       (j) Students receiving category three career-technical 50218
education services, described in division (C) of section 3317.014 50219
of the Revised Code;50220

       (k) Students receiving category four career-technical 50221
education services, described in division (D) of section 3317.014 50222
of the Revised Code;50223

       (l) Students receiving category five career-technical 50224
education services, described in division (E) of section 3317.014 50225
of the Revised Code;50226

       (m) Limited English proficient students described in division 50227
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;50228

       (n) Limited English proficient students described in division 50229
(B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;50230

       (o) Limited English proficient students described in division 50231
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;50232

       (p) Students who are economically disadvantaged, as defined 50233
by the department. A student shall not be categorically excluded 50234
from the number reported under division (D)(2)(p) of this section 50235
based on anything other than family income.50236

       The superintendent of each joint vocational school district 50237
shall also indicate the city, local, or exempted village school 50238
district in which each joint vocational district pupil is entitled 50239
to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 50240
Revised Code.50241

       (E) In each school of each city, local, exempted village, 50242
joint vocational, and cooperative education school district there 50243
shall be maintained a record of school membership, which record 50244
shall accurately show, for each day the school is in session, the 50245
actual membership enrolled in regular day classes. For the purpose 50246
of determining average daily membership, the membership figure of 50247
any school shall not include any pupils except those pupils 50248
described by division (A) of this section. The record of 50249
membership for each school shall be maintained in such manner that 50250
no pupil shall be counted as in membership prior to the actual 50251
date of entry in the school and also in such manner that where for 50252
any cause a pupil permanently withdraws from the school that pupil 50253
shall not be counted as in membership from and after the date of 50254
such withdrawal. There shall not be included in the membership of 50255
any school any of the following:50256

       (1) Any pupil who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 50257
public or nonpublic high school;50258

       (2) Any pupil who is not a resident of the state;50259

       (3) Any pupil who was enrolled in the schools of the district 50260
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 50261
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 50262
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 50263
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section;50264

       (4) Any pupil who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 50265
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 50266
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 50267
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 50268
armed forces and who apply for reenrollment in the public school 50269
system of their residence not later than four years after 50270
termination of war or their honorable discharge.50271

       If, however, any veteran described by division (E)(4) of this 50272
section elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans 50273
for whom tuition is paid under the provisions of federal laws, or 50274
otherwise, that veteran shall not be included in average daily 50275
membership.50276

       Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the 50277
membership of any school may include a pupil who did not take an 50278
assessment required by section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code if 50279
the superintendent of public instruction grants a waiver from the 50280
requirement to take the assessment to the specific pupil and a 50281
parent is not paying tuition for the pupil pursuant to section 50282
3313.6410 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant such a 50283
waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the 50284
state board of education.50285

       Except as provided in divisions (B)(2) and (F) of this 50286
section, the average daily membership figure of any local, city, 50287
exempted village, or joint vocational school district shall be 50288
determined by dividing the figure representing the sum of the 50289
number of pupils enrolled during each day the school of attendance 50290
is actually open for instruction during the week for which the 50291
average daily membership is being certified by the total number of 50292
days the school was actually open for instruction during that 50293
week. For purposes of state funding, "enrolled" persons are only 50294
those pupils who are attending school, those who have attended 50295
school during the current school year and are absent for 50296
authorized reasons, and those children with disabilities currently 50297
receiving home instruction.50298

       The average daily membership figure of any cooperative 50299
education school district shall be determined in accordance with 50300
rules adopted by the state board of education.50301

       (F)(1) If the formula ADM for the first full school week in 50302
February is at least three per cent greater than that certified 50303
for the first full school week in the preceding October, the 50304
superintendent of schools of any city, exempted village, or joint 50305
vocational school district or educational service center shall 50306
certify such increase to the superintendent of public instruction. 50307
Such certification shall be submitted no later than the fifteenth 50308
day of February. For the balance of the fiscal year, beginning 50309
with the February payments, the superintendent of public 50310
instruction shall use the increased formula ADM in calculating or 50311
recalculating the amounts to be allocated in accordance with 50312
section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the Revised Code. In no event shall 50313
the superintendent use an increased membership certified to the 50314
superintendent after the fifteenth day of February. Division 50315
(F)(1) of this section does not apply after fiscal year 2006.50316

       (2) If on the first school day of April the total number of 50317
classes or units for preschool children with disabilities that are 50318
eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 50319
Revised Code exceeds the number of units that have been approved 50320
for the year under that division, the superintendent of schools of 50321
any city, exempted village, or cooperative education school 50322
district or educational service center shall make the 50323
certifications required by this section for that day. If the 50324
department determines additional units can be approved for the 50325
fiscal year within any limitations set forth in the acts 50326
appropriating moneys for the funding of such units, the department 50327
shall approve additional units for the fiscal year on the basis of 50328
such average daily membership. For each unit so approved, the 50329
department shall pay an amount computed in the manner prescribed 50330
in section 3317.052 or 3317.19 and section 3317.053 of the Revised 50331
Code.50332

       (3) If a student attending a community school under Chapter 50333
3314., a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 50334
established under Chapter 3326., or a college-preparatory boarding 50335
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code is not 50336
included in the formula ADM certified for the school district in 50337
which the student is entitled to attend school under section 50338
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the department of 50339
education shall adjust the formula ADM of that school district to 50340
include the student in accordance with division (C)(2) of this 50341
section, and shall recalculate the school district's payments 50342
under this chapter for the entire fiscal year on the basis of that 50343
adjusted formula ADM. This requirement applies regardless of 50344
whether the student was enrolled, as defined in division (E) of 50345
this section, in the community school, the science, technology, 50346
engineering, and mathematics school, or the college-preparatory 50347
boarding school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is 50348
being certified.50349

        (4)(2) If a student awarded an educational choice scholarship 50350
is not included in the formula ADM of the school district from 50351
which the department deducts funds for the scholarship under 50352
section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, the department shall adjust 50353
the formula ADM of that school district to include the student to 50354
the extent necessary to account for the deduction, and shall 50355
recalculate the school district's payments under this chapter for 50356
the entire fiscal year on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. 50357
This requirement applies regardless of whether the student was 50358
enrolled, as defined in division (E) of this section, in the 50359
chartered nonpublic school, the school district, or a community 50360
school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 50361
certified.50362

       (5)(3) If a student awarded a scholarship under the Jon 50363
Peterson special needs scholarship program is not included in the 50364
formula ADM of the school district from which the department 50365
deducts funds for the scholarship under section 3310.55 of the 50366
Revised Code, the department shall adjust the formula ADM of that 50367
school district to include the student to the extent necessary to 50368
account for the deduction, and shall recalculate the school 50369
district's payments under this chapter for the entire fiscal year 50370
on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. This requirement 50371
applies regardless of whether the student was enrolled, as defined 50372
in division (E) of this section, in an alternative public 50373
provider, a registered private provider, or the school district 50374
during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 50375
certified. 50376

       (G)(1)(a) The superintendent of an institution operating a 50377
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 50378
Revised Code shall, for the programs under such superintendent's 50379
supervision, certify to the state board of education, in the 50380
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction, 50381
both of the following:50382

       (i) The average daily membership of all children with 50383
disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 50384
receiving services at the institution for each category of 50385
disability described in divisions (A) to (F) of section 3317.013 50386
of the Revised Code;50387

       (ii) The average daily membership of all preschool children 50388
with disabilities in classes or programs approved annually by the 50389
department of education for unitfor whom the district is eligible 50390
to receive funding under section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised 50391
Code, reported according to the categories prescribed in section 50392
3317.013 of the Revised Code.50393

       (b) The superintendent of an institution with vocational50394
career-technical education units approved under division (A) of50395
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code shall, for the units under the 50396
superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of 50397
education the average daily membership in those units, in the 50398
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction.50399

       (2) The superintendent of each county DD board that maintains 50400
special education classes under section 3317.20 of the Revised 50401
Code or units approvedprovides services to preschool children 50402
with disabilities pursuant to section 3317.05 of the Revised Code50403
an agreement between the DD board and the appropriate school 50404
district shall do both of the following:50405

       (a) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 50406
the board, the average daily membership in classes under section 50407
3317.20 of the Revised Code for each school district that has 50408
placed children in the classes;50409

       (b) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 50410
the board, the number of all preschool children with disabilities 50411
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes for which the 50412
DD board is eligible for approvalto receive funding under 50413
division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised Code, 50414
reported according to the categories prescribed in section 50415
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and the number of those classes.50416

       (3)(a) If on the first school day of April the number of 50417
classes or units maintained for preschool children with 50418
disabilities by the county DD board that are eligible for approval 50419
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code is 50420
greater than the number of units approved for the year under that 50421
division, the superintendent shall make the certification required 50422
by this section for that day.50423

       (b) If the department determines that additional classes or 50424
units can be approved for the fiscal year within any limitations 50425
set forth in the acts appropriating moneys for the funding of the 50426
classes and units described in division (G)(3)(a) of this section, 50427
the department shall approve and fund additional units for the 50428
fiscal year on the basis of such average daily membership. For 50429
each unit so approved, the department shall pay an amount computed 50430
in the manner prescribed in sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 50431
Revised Code.50432

       (H) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, when 50433
any city, local, or exempted village school district provides 50434
instruction for a nonresident pupil whose attendance is 50435
unauthorized attendance as defined in section 3327.06 of the 50436
Revised Code, that pupil's membership shall not be included in 50437
that district's membership figure used in the calculation of that 50438
district's formula ADM or included in the determination of any 50439
unitfunding approved for the district under section 3317.0550440
3317.0213 of the Revised Code. The reporting official shall report 50441
separately the average daily membership of all pupils whose 50442
attendance in the district is unauthorized attendance, and the 50443
membership of each such pupil shall be credited to the school 50444
district in which the pupil is entitled to attend school under 50445
division (B) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised 50446
Code as determined by the department of education.50447

       (I)(1) A city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 50448
school district admitting a scholarship student of a pilot project 50449
district pursuant to division (C) of section 3313.976 of the 50450
Revised Code may count such student in its average daily 50451
membership.50452

       (2) In any year for which funds are appropriated for pilot 50453
project scholarship programs, a school district implementing a 50454
state-sponsored pilot project scholarship program that year 50455
pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code may 50456
count in average daily membership:50457

       (a) All children residing in the district and utilizing a 50458
scholarship to attend kindergarten in any alternative school, as 50459
defined in section 3313.974 of the Revised Code;50460

       (b) All children who were enrolled in the district in the 50461
preceding year who are utilizing a scholarship to attend an 50462
alternative school.50463

       (J) The superintendent of each cooperative education school 50464
district shall certify to the superintendent of public 50465
instruction, in a manner prescribed by the state board of 50466
education, the applicable average daily memberships for all 50467
students in the cooperative education district, also indicating 50468
the city, local, or exempted village district where each pupil is 50469
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 50470
Revised Code.50471

       (K) If the superintendent of public instruction determines 50472
that a component of the average daily membership certified or 50473
reported by a district superintendent, or other reporting entity, 50474
is not correct, the superintendent of public instruction may order 50475
that the formula ADM used for the purposes of payments under any 50476
section of Title XXXIII of the Revised Code be adjusted in the 50477
amount of the error.50478

       Sec. 3317.032. (A) Each city, local, exempted village, and 50479
cooperative education school district, each educational service 50480
center, each county DD board, and each institution operating a 50481
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 50482
Revised Code shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by the 50483
state board of education, maintain a record of district membership 50484
of both of the following:50485

       (1) All preschool children with disabilities in units 50486
approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised 50487
Code; 50488

       (2) Allall preschool children with disabilities who are not 50489
in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 50490
Revised Code but who are otherwise served by a special education 50491
program.50492

       (B) The superintendent of each district, board, or 50493
institution subject to division (A) of this section shall certify 50494
to the state board of education, in accordance with procedures 50495
adopted by that board, membership figures of all preschool 50496
children with disabilities whose membership is maintained under 50497
division (A)(2) of this section. The figures certified under this 50498
division shall be used in the determination of the ADM used to 50499
compute funds for educational service center governing boards 50500
under section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.50501

       Sec. 3317.05.  (A) For the purpose of calculating payments 50502
under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code, theThe50503
department of education shall determine for each institution, by 50504
the last day of January of each year and based on information 50505
certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the number of 50506
vocationalcareer-technical education units or fractions of units 50507
approved by the department on the basis of standards and rules 50508
adopted by the state board of education. As used in this division50509
section, "institution" means an institution operated by a 50510
department specified in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code and 50511
that provides vocationalcareer-technical education programs under 50512
the supervision of the division of vocationalcareer-technical50513
education of the department that meet the standards and rules for 50514
these programs, including licensure of professional staff involved 50515
in the programs, as established by the state board.50516

       (B) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 50517
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 50518
department shall determine, based on information certified under 50519
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 50520
of January of each year for each educational service center, for 50521
each school district, including each cooperative education school 50522
district, for each institution eligible for payment under section 50523
3323.091 of the Revised Code, and for each county DD board: the 50524
number of classes operated by the school district, service center, 50525
institution, or county DD board for preschool children with 50526
disabilities, or fraction thereof, including in the case of a 50527
district or service center that is a funding agent, classes taught 50528
by a licensed teacher employed by that district or service center 50529
under section 3313.841 of the Revised Code, approved annually by 50530
the department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 50531
state board.50532

       (C) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 50533
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 50534
department shall determine, based on information certified under 50535
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 50536
of January of each year for each school district, including each 50537
cooperative education school district, for each institution 50538
eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, 50539
and for each county DD board: the number of units for related 50540
services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, for 50541
preschool children with disabilities approved annually by the 50542
department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 50543
state board.50544

       (D) All of the arithmetical calculations made under this 50545
section shall be carried to the second decimal place. The total 50546
number of units for school districts, service centers, and50547
institutions approved annually under this section shall not exceed 50548
the number of units included in the estimate of cost for these 50549
units and appropriations made for them by the general assembly.50550

        In the case of units for preschool children with disabilities 50551
described in division (B) of this section, the department shall 50552
approve only preschool units for children who are under age six on 50553
the thirtieth day of September of the academic year, or on the 50554
first day of August of the academic year if the school district in 50555
which the child is enrolled has adopted a resolution under 50556
division (A)(3) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, but not 50557
less than age three on the first day of December of the academic 50558
year, except that such a unit may include one or more children who 50559
are under age three or are age six or over on the applicable date, 50560
as reported under division (B)(2) or (G)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 50561
of the Revised Code, if such children have been admitted to the 50562
unit pursuant to rules of the state board. The number of units for 50563
county DD boards and institutions eligible for payment under 50564
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code approved under this section 50565
shall not exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations 50566
made for such purposes by the general assembly.50567

       No unit shall be approved under divisions (B) and (C) of this 50568
section unless a plan has been submitted and approved under 50569
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.50570

       (C) The department shall pay each institution approved for 50571
career-technical education units under division (A) of this 50572
section an amount for the total of all the units approved under 50573
that division. The amount for each unit shall be the sum of the 50574
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit, calculated on the 50575
basis of the teacher's training level and years of experience 50576
pursuant to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of 50577
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 50578
2001, plus fifteen per cent of that minimum salary amount, and 50579
nine thousand five hundred ten dollars. Each institution that 50580
receives unit funds under this division annually shall report to 50581
the department on the delivery of services and the performance of 50582
students and any other information required by the department to 50583
evaluate the institution's career-technical education program.50584

       (D) For each unit allocated to an institution pursuant to 50585
division (A) of this section, the department, in addition to the 50586
amount specified in division (B) of this section, shall pay a 50587
supplemental unit allowance of $7,227.50588

       Sec. 3317.051.  (A) As used in this section, "gifted unit 50589
ADM" means a school district's formula ADM minus the number of 50590
students reported by a district under divisions (A)(2)(a) and (i) 50591
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.50592

       (B) The department of education shall compute and pay to a 50593
school district funds based on units for services to students 50594
identified as gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code as 50595
prescribed by this section.50596

       (C) The department shall allocate gifted units for a school 50597
district as follows:50598

       (1) One gifted coordinator unit shall be allocated for every 50599
3,300 students in a district's gifted unit ADM, with a minimum of 50600
0.5 units and a maximum of 8 units allocated for the district.50601

       (2) One gifted intervention specialist unit shall be 50602
allocated for every 1,100 students in a district's gifted unit 50603
ADM, with a minimum of 0.3 units allocated for the district.50604

       (D) The department shall pay the following amount to a school 50605
district for gifted units:50606

       (1) In fiscal year 2014, $37,000 multiplied by the number of 50607
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 50608
section;50609

       (2) In fiscal year 2015, $37,370 multiplied by the number of 50610
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 50611
section.50612

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 50613
allocated under division (C)(1) of this section only for gifted 50614
coordinator services as prescribed by the department. Qualified 50615
personnel shall be employed by the district for this purpose on a 50616
full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the number of 50617
units allocated to the district under division (C)(1) of this 50618
section.50619

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 50620
allocated under division (C)(2) of this section only for gifted 50621
intervention specialist services as prescribed by the department. 50622
Qualified personnel shall be employed by the district for this 50623
purpose on a full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the 50624
number of units allocated to the district under division (C)(2) of 50625
this section.50626

       (E) A school district may assign gifted unit funding that it 50627
receives under division (D) of this section to another school 50628
district, an educational service center, a community school, or a 50629
STEM school as part of an arrangement to provide services to the 50630
district as follows:50631

       (1) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(1) 50632
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 50633
school that employs qualified gifted coordinators;50634

       (2) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(2) 50635
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 50636
school that employs qualified gifted intervention specialists.50637

       Sec. 3317.06.  Moneys paid to school districts under division 50638
(E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall be used for the 50639
following independent and fully severable purposes:50640

       (A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic 50641
textbooksdigital texts as have been approved by the 50642
superintendent of public instruction for use in public schools in 50643
the state and to loan such textbooks or electronic textbooks50644
digital texts to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 50645
district or to their parents and to hire clerical personnel to 50646
administer such lending program. Such loans shall be based upon 50647
individual requests submitted by such nonpublic school pupils or 50648
parents. Such requests shall be submitted to the school district 50649
in which the nonpublic school is located. Such individual requests 50650
for the loan of textbooks or electronic textbooksdigital texts50651
shall, for administrative convenience, be submitted by the 50652
nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's parent to the nonpublic 50653
school, which shall prepare and submit collective summaries of the 50654
individual requests to the school district. As used in this 50655
section:50656

       (1) "Textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil 50657
uses as a consumable or nonconsumable text, text substitute, or 50658
text supplement in a particular class or program in the school the 50659
pupil regularly attends.50660

       (2) "Electronic textbook""Digital text" means anya 50661
consumable book or book substitute that a student accesses through 50662
the use of a computer or other electronic medium or that is 50663
available through an internet-based provider of course content, or 50664
any other material that contributes to the learning process 50665
through electronic means.50666

       (B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to 50667
pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 50668
service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the 50669
pupil receiving the service.50670

       (C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric 50671
services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 50672
district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended 50673
by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.50674

       (D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils 50675
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services 50676
shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving 50677
the service.50678

       (E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and 50679
hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 50680
district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in 50681
nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located 50682
on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided 50683
in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and 50684
from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in 50685
which the nonpublic school is located.50686

       (F) To provide guidance, counseling, and social work services 50687
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 50688
services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 50689
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 50690
of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the 50691
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 50692
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 50693
the nonpublic school is located.50694

       (G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending 50695
nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be 50696
provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public 50697
centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic 50698
premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in 50699
public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall 50700
be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school 50701
is located.50702

       (H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools 50703
within the district such standardized tests and scoring services 50704
as are in use in the public schools of the state;50705

       (I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic 50706
schools within the district and are children with disabilities as 50707
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or gifted children. 50708
Such programs shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 50709
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 50710
of the nonpublic premises. If such programs are provided in the 50711
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 50712
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 50713
the nonpublic school is located.50714

       (J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the 50715
administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D), 50716
(E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory 50717
personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks 50718
pursuant to this section.50719

       (K) To purchase or lease any secular, neutral, and 50720
nonideological computer application software designed to assist 50721
students in performing a single task or multiple related tasks, 50722
device management software, learning management software, 50723
site-licensing, digital video on demand (DVD), wide area 50724
connectivity and related technology as it relates to internet 50725
access, mathematics or science equipment and materials, 50726
instructional materials, and school library materials that are in 50727
general use in the public schools of the state and loan such items 50728
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to 50729
their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the 50730
lending program. Only such items that are incapable of diversion 50731
to religious use and that are susceptible of loan to individual 50732
pupils and are furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be 50733
purchased and loaned under this division. As used in this section, 50734
"instructional materials" means prepared learning materials that 50735
are secular, neutral, and nonideological in character and are of 50736
benefit to the instruction of school children, and may include 50737
educational resources and services developed by the eTech Ohio 50738
commission.50739

       Mobile applications that are secular, neutral, and 50740
nonideological in character and that are purchased for less than 50741
ten dollars for instructional use shall be considered to be 50742
consumable and shall be distributed to students without the 50743
expectation that the applications must be returned.50744

       (L) To purchase or lease instructional equipment, including 50745
computer hardware and related equipment in general use in the 50746
public schools of the state, for use by pupils attending nonpublic 50747
schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils 50748
attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their 50749
parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending 50750
program. "Computer hardware and related equipment" includes 50751
desktop computers and workstations; laptop computers, computer 50752
tablets, and other mobile handheld devices; and their operating 50753
systems and accessories.50754

       (M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the provision of 50755
services pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this 50756
section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating costs 50757
associated with these units.50758

       (N) To reimburse costs the district incurred to store the 50759
records of a chartered nonpublic school that closes. 50760
Reimbursements under this division shall be made one time only for 50761
each chartered nonpublic school that closes.50762

       (O) To purchase life-saving medical or other emergency 50763
equipment for placement in nonpublic schools within the district 50764
or to maintain such equipment.50765

       Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to division 50766
(J) of this section shall perform their services in the public 50767
schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units 50768
where the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil, 50769
except that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the 50770
service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children 50771
receiving the services.50772

       All services provided pursuant to this section may be 50773
provided under contract with educational service centers, the 50774
department of health, city or general health districts, or private 50775
agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an appropriate 50776
state board or agency.50777

       Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions (E), 50778
(F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the school 50779
district from its general funds and not from moneys paid to it 50780
under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code unless 50781
a special transportation request is submitted by the parent of the 50782
child receiving service pursuant to such divisions. If such an 50783
application is presented to the school district, it may pay for 50784
the transportation from moneys paid to it under division (E) of 50785
section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.50786

       No school district shall provide health or remedial services 50787
to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section unless 50788
such services are available to pupils attending the public schools 50789
within the district.50790

       Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, 50791
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, and health and 50792
remedial services provided for the benefit of nonpublic school 50793
pupils pursuant to this section and the admission of pupils to 50794
such nonpublic schools shall be provided without distinction as to 50795
race, creed, color, or national origin of such pupils or of their 50796
teachers.50797

       No school district shall provide services, materials, or 50798
equipment that contain religious content for use in religious 50799
courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or any other 50800
religious activity.50801

       As used in this section, "parent" includes a person standing 50802
in loco parentis to a child.50803

       Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, payments 50804
shall be made under this section to any city, local, or exempted 50805
village school district within which is located one or more 50806
nonpublic elementary or high schools and any payments made to 50807
school districts under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the 50808
Revised Code for purposes of this section may be disbursed without 50809
submission to and approval of the controlling board.50810

       The allocation of payments for materials, equipment, 50811
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, health services, 50812
and remedial services to city, local, and exempted village school 50813
districts shall be on the basis of the state board of education's 50814
estimated annual average daily membership in nonpublic elementary 50815
and high schools located in the district.50816

       Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school 50817
districts under this section shall be equal to specific 50818
appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a 50819
school district on such payments shall be used by the district for 50820
the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may be 50821
used.50822

       The department of education shall adopt guidelines and 50823
procedures under which such programs and services shall be 50824
provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for 50825
administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and 50826
services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts 50827
appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section may 50828
be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel unemployment 50829
compensation fund established pursuant to section 4141.47 of the 50830
Revised Code. The department shall also adopt guidelines and 50831
procedures limiting the purchase and loan of the items described 50832
in division (K) of this section to items that are in general use 50833
in the public schools of the state, that are incapable of 50834
diversion to religious use, and that are susceptible to individual 50835
use rather than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end of 50836
each biennium, each board of education shall remit to the 50837
department all moneys paid to it under division (E) of section 50838
3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those 50839
moneys that are not required to pay expenses incurred under this 50840
section during the biennium for which the money was appropriated 50841
and during which the interest was earned. If a board of education 50842
subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the 50843
board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred 50844
under this section during the biennium for which the remitted 50845
money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of 50846
education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the 50847
insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were 50848
lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the 50849
refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount 50850
of the refund to be made to the director of job and family 50851
services who shall make a refund as provided in section 4141.47 of 50852
the Revised Code.50853

       Each school district shall label materials, equipment, 50854
computer hardware or software, textbooks, and electronic textbooks50855
digital texts purchased or leased for loan to a nonpublic school 50856
under this section, acknowledging that they were purchased or 50857
leased with state funds under this section. However, a district 50858
need not label materials, equipment, computer hardware or 50859
software, textbooks, or electronic textbooksdigital texts that 50860
the district determines are consumable in nature or have a value 50861
of less than two hundred dollars.50862

       Sec. 3317.08.  A board of education may admit to its schools 50863
a child it is not required by section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 50864
Revised Code to admit, if tuition is paid for the child.50865

       Unless otherwise provided by law, tuition shall be computed 50866
in accordance with this section. A district's tuition charge for a 50867
school year shall be one of the following:50868

       (A) For any child, except a preschool child with a disability 50869
described in division (B) of this section, the quotient obtained 50870
by dividing the sum of the amounts described in divisions (A)(1) 50871
and (2) of this section by the district's formula ADM.50872

       (1) The district's total taxes charged and payable for 50873
current expenses for the tax year preceding the tax year in which 50874
the school year begins as certified under division (A)(3) of 50875
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.50876

       (2) The district's total taxes collected for current expenses 50877
under a school district income tax adopted pursuant to section 50878
5748.03, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that are 50879
disbursed to the district during the fiscal year, excluding any 50880
income tax receipts allocated for the project cost, debt service, 50881
or maintenance set-aside associated with a state-assisted 50882
classroom facilities project as authorized by section 3318.052 of 50883
the Revised Code. On or before the first day of June of each year, 50884
the tax commissioner shall certify the amount to be used in the 50885
calculation under this division for the next fiscal year to the 50886
department of education and the office of budget and management 50887
for each city, local, and exempted village school district that 50888
levies a school district income tax.50889

       (B) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 50890
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 50891
Revised Code, an amount computed for the school year as follows:50892

       (1) For each type of special education service provided to 50893
the child for whom tuition is being calculated, determine the 50894
amount of the district's operating expenses in providing that type 50895
of service to all preschool children with disabilities not 50896
included in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 50897
of the Revised Code;50898

       (2) For each type of special education service for which 50899
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 50900
section, determine the amount of such operating expenses that was 50901
paid from any state funds received under this chapter;50902

       (3) For each type of special education service for which 50903
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 50904
section, divide the difference between the amount determined under 50905
division (B)(1) of this section and the amount determined under 50906
division (B)(2) of this section by the total number of preschool 50907
children with disabilities not included in units approved under 50908
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code who received 50909
that type of service;50910

       (4) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 50911
division (B)(3) of this section for all types of special education 50912
services provided to the child for whom tuition is being 50913
calculated.50914

       The state board of education shall adopt rules defining the 50915
types of special education services and specifying the operating 50916
expenses to be used in the computation under this section.50917

       If any child for whom a tuition charge is computed under this 50918
section for any school year is enrolled in a district for only 50919
part of that school year, the amount of the district's tuition 50920
charge for the child for the school year shall be computed in 50921
proportion to the number of school days the child is enrolled in 50922
the district during the school year.50923

       Except as otherwise provided in division (J) of section 50924
3313.64 of the Revised Code, whenever a district admits a child to 50925
its schools for whom tuition computed in accordance with this 50926
section is an obligation of another school district, the amount of 50927
the tuition shall be certified by the treasurer of the board of 50928
education of the district of attendance, to the board of education 50929
of the district required to pay tuition for its approval and 50930
payment. If agreement as to the amount payable or the district 50931
required to pay the tuition cannot be reached, or the board of 50932
education of the district required to pay the tuition refuses to 50933
pay that amount, the board of education of the district of 50934
attendance shall notify the superintendent of public instruction. 50935
The superintendent shall determine the correct amount and the 50936
district required to pay the tuition and shall deduct that amount, 50937
if any, under division (D) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 50938
Code, from the district required to pay the tuition and add that 50939
amount to the amount allocated to the district attended under such 50940
division. The superintendent of public instruction shall send to 50941
the district required to pay the tuition an itemized statement 50942
showing such deductions at the time of such deduction.50943

       When a political subdivision owns and operates an airport, 50944
welfare, or correctional institution or other project or facility 50945
outside its corporate limits, the territory within which the 50946
facility is located is exempt from taxation by the school district 50947
within which such territory is located, and there are school age 50948
children residing within such territory, the political subdivision 50949
owning such tax exempt territory shall pay tuition to the district 50950
in which such children attend school. The tuition for these 50951
children shall be computed as provided for in this section.50952

       Sec. 3317.10.  (A) On or before the first day of March of 50953
each year, the department of job and family services shall certify 50954
to the state board of education the unduplicated number of 50955
children ages five through seventeen residing in each school 50956
district and living in a family that, during the preceding 50957
October, participated in Ohio works first.50958

       The department of job and family services shall certify this 50959
information according to the school district of residence for each 50960
child. Except as provided under division (B) of this section, the 50961
number of children so certified in any year shall be used by the 50962
department of education in calculating the distribution of moneys 50963
for the ensuing fiscal year as provided in section 3317.029 of the 50964
Revised Code.50965

       (B) Upon the transfer of part of the territory of one school 50966
district to the territory of one or more other school districts, 50967
the department of education may adjust the number of children 50968
certified under division (A) of this section for any district 50969
gaining or losing territory in such a transfer in order to take 50970
into account the effect of the transfer on the number of such 50971
children who reside in the district. Within sixty days of receipt 50972
of a request for information from the department of education, the 50973
department of job and family services shall provide any 50974
information the department of education determines is necessary to 50975
make such adjustments. The department of education may use the 50976
adjusted number for any district for the applicable fiscal year, 50977
in lieu of the number certified for the district for that fiscal 50978
year under division (A) of this section, in the calculation of the 50979
distribution of moneys provided in section 3317.029 of the Revised 50980
Code.50981

       Sec. 3317.12.  Any board of education participating in funds 50982
distributed under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code shall annually 50983
adopt a salary scheduleschedules for teachers and nonteaching 50984
school employees based upon training, experience, and 50985
qualifications with initial salaries no less than the salaries in 50986
effect on October 13, 1967. Each board of education shall prepare 50987
and may amend from time to time, specifications descriptive of 50988
duties, responsibilities, requirements, and desirable 50989
qualifications of the classifications of employees required to 50990
perform the duties specified in the salary schedule. All 50991
nonteaching school employees are to be notified of the position 50992
classification to which they are assigned and the salary for the 50993
classification. The compensation of all employees working for a 50994
particular school board shall be uniform for like positions except 50995
as compensation would be affected by salary increments based upon 50996
length of service.50997

       On the fifteenth day of October each year the salary schedule 50998
and the list of job classifications and salaries in effect on that 50999
date shall be filed by each board of education with the 51000
superintendent of public instruction. If such salary schedule and 51001
classification plan is not filed the superintendent of public 51002
instruction shall order the board to file such schedules 51003
forthwith. If this condition is not corrected within ten days 51004
after receipt of the order from the superintendent of public 51005
instruction, no money shall be distributed to the district under 51006
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code until the superintendent has 51007
satisfactory evidence of the board of education's full compliance 51008
with such order.51009

       Sec. 3317.14.  Any school district board of education or 51010
educational service center governing board participating in funds 51011
distributed under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code shall annually 51012
adopt a teachers' salary schedule with provision for increments 51013
based upon training and years of service. Notwithstanding sections 51014
3317.13 and 3319.088 of the Revised Code, theThe board may 51015
establish its own service requirements and may grant service 51016
credit for such activities as teaching in public or nonpublic 51017
schools in this state or in another state, for service as an 51018
educational assistant other than as a classroom aide employed in 51019
accordance with section 5107.541 of the Revised Code, and for 51020
service in the military or in an appropriate state or federal 51021
governmental agency, provided no teacher receives less than the 51022
amount required to be paid pursuant to section 3317.13 of the 51023
Revised Code and provided full credit for a minimum of five years 51024
of actual teaching and military experience as defined in division 51025
(A) of section 3317.13 of the Revised Code is given to each 51026
teacher.51027

       On the fifteenth day of October of each year, a copy of the 51028
salary schedule in effect on that date shall be filed by the board 51029
of education of each local school district with the educational 51030
service center superintendent, who thereupon shall certify to the 51031
treasurer of such local district the correct salary to be paid to 51032
each teacher in accordance with the adopted schedule.51033

       Each teacher who has completed training which would qualify 51034
such teacher for a higher salary bracket pursuant to this section 51035
shall file by the fifteenth day of September with the treasurer of 51036
the board of education or educational service center satisfactory 51037
evidence of the completion of such additional training. The 51038
treasurer shall then immediately place the teacher, pursuant to 51039
this section and section 3317.13 of the Revised Code, in the 51040
proper salary bracket in accordance with training and years of 51041
service before certifying such salary, training, and years of 51042
service to the superintendent of public instruction. No teacher 51043
shall be paid less than the salary to which such teacher is 51044
entitled pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code.51045

       As used in this section:51046

       (A) "Years of service" includes the following:51047

       (1) All years of teaching service in the same school district 51048
or educational service center, regardless of training level, with 51049
each year consisting of at least one hundred twenty days under a 51050
teacher's contract;51051

       (2) All years of teaching service in a chartered, nonpublic 51052
school located in Ohio as a teacher licensed pursuant to section 51053
3319.22 of the Revised Code or in another public school, 51054
regardless of training level, with each year consisting of at 51055
least one hundred twenty days under a teacher's contract;51056

       (3) All years of teaching service in a chartered school or 51057
institution or a school or institution that subsequently became 51058
chartered or a chartered special education program or a special 51059
education program that subsequently became chartered operated by 51060
the state or by a subdivision or other local governmental unit of 51061
this state as a teacher licensed pursuant to section 3319.22 of 51062
the Revised Code, regardless of training level, with each year 51063
consisting of at least one hundred twenty days;51064

       (4) All years of active military service in the armed forces 51065
of the United States, as defined in section 3307.75 of the Revised 51066
Code, to a maximum of five years. For purposes of this 51067
calculation, a partial year of active military service of eight 51068
continuous months or more in the armed forces shall be counted as 51069
a full year.51070

       (B) "Teacher" means all teachers employed by the board of 51071
education of any school district, including any cooperative 51072
education or joint vocational school district and all teachers 51073
employed by any educational service center governing board.51074

       Sec. 3317.141.  The board of education of any city, exempted 51075
village, local, or joint vocational school district that is the 51076
recipient of moneys from a grant awarded under the federal race to 51077
the top program, Division (A), Title XIV, Sections 14005 and 14006 51078
of the "American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009," Pub. L. 51079
No. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, shall comply with this section in 51080
accordance with the timeline contained in the board's scope of 51081
work, as approved by the superintendent of public instruction, and 51082
shall not be subject to sections 3317.13 andsection 3317.14 of 51083
the Revised Code. The board of education of any other school 51084
district, and the governing board of each educational service 51085
center, shall comply with either this section or sections 3317.13 51086
andsection 3317.14 of the Revised Code.51087

        (A) The board annually shall adopt a salary schedule for 51088
teachers based upon performance as described in division (B) of 51089
this section.51090

       (B) For purposes of the schedule, a board shall measure a 51091
teacher's performance by considering all of the following:51092

       (1) The level of license issued under section 3319.22 of the 51093
Revised Code that the teacher holds;51094

       (2) Whether the teacher is a highly qualified teacher, as 51095
defined in section 3319.074 of the Revised Code;51096

       (3) Ratings received by the teacher on performance 51097
evaluations conducted under section 3319.111 of the Revised Code.51098

       (C) The schedule shall provide for annual adjustments based 51099
on performance on the evaluations conducted under section 3319.111 51100
of the Revised Code. The annual performance-based adjustment for a 51101
teacher rated as accomplished shall be greater than the annual 51102
performance-based adjustment for a teacher rated as proficient.51103

       (D) The salary schedule adopted under this section may 51104
provide for additional compensation for teachers who agree to 51105
perform duties, not contracted for under a supplemental contract, 51106
that the employing board determines warrant additional 51107
compensation. Those duties may include, but are not limited to, 51108
assignment to a school building eligible for funding under Title I 51109
of the "Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965," 20 U.S.C. 51110
6301 et seq.; assignment to a building in "school improvement" 51111
status under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," as defined in 51112
section 3302.01 of the Revised Code; teaching in a grade level or 51113
subject area in which the board has determined there is a shortage 51114
within the district or service center; or assignment to a 51115
hard-to-staff school, as determined by the board.51116

       Sec. 3317.16.  (A) The department of education shall compute 51117
and distribute state core foundation funding to each joint 51118
vocational school district for the fiscal year as prescribed in 51119
the following divisions:51120

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 51121
following formula:51122

(The formula amount X formula ADM) - (0.0005 X the
51123

district's three-year average valuation)
51124

       If the result of the calculation for a joint vocational 51125
school district under division (A)(1) of this section is less than 51126
zero, the joint vocational school district's opportunity grant 51127
shall be zero.51128

       (2) Additional state aid for special education and related 51129
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 51130
calculated as the sum of the following:51131

The formula amount X the district's total special education
51132

weight X the district's state share percentage
51133

       (3) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 51134
the following formula:51135

($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X
51136

(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number
51137

of students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under
51138

division (D)(2)(p) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code
51139

       (4) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 51140
of the following:51141

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 51142
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 51143
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;51144

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 51145
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 51146
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;51147

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 51148
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 51149
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;51150

       (5) Career-technical education funds calculated according to 51151
the following formula:51152

The formula amount X the district's total career-technical
51153

education weight X the district's state share percentage
51154

       Payment of funds under division (A)(5) of this section is 51155
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.51156

       (6) Career-technical education associated services funds 51157
calculated under the following formula:51158

The district's state share percentage X 0.05 X the formula
51159

amount X the sum of categories one through five career-technical
51160

education ADM
51161

       (B)(1) If a joint vocational school district's costs for a 51162
fiscal year for a student in its categories two through six 51163
special education ADM exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for 51164
serving the student, as specified in division (B) of section 51165
3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the district may submit to the 51166
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 51167
by the superintendent, of all of its costs for that student. Upon 51168
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 51169
manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the district an 51170
amount equal to the sum of the following:51171

       (a) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 51172
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;51173

       (b) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 51174
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 51175
the district's state share percentage.51176

       (2) The district shall report under division (B)(1) of this 51177
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 51178
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 51179
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 51180
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 51181
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 51182
included in the amount.51183

       (C)(1) For each student with a disability receiving special 51184
education and related services under an individualized education 51185
program, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, at a 51186
joint vocational district, the resident district or, if the 51187
student is enrolled in a community school, the community school 51188
shall be responsible for the amount of any costs of providing 51189
those special education and related services to that student that 51190
exceed the sum of the amount calculated for those services 51191
attributable to that student under division (A) of this section.51192

       Those excess costs shall be calculated by subtracting the sum 51193
of the following from the actual cost to provide special education 51194
and related services to the student:51195

       (a) The formula amount;51196

       (b) The formula amount times the multiple specified in 51197
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that is applicable to the 51198
student;51199

       (c) Any funds paid under section 3317.0214 for the student.51200

       (2) The board of education of the joint vocational school 51201
district may report the excess costs calculated under division 51202
(C)(1) of this section to the department of education.51203

       (3) If the board of education of the joint vocational school 51204
district reports excess costs under division (C)(2) of this 51205
section, the department shall pay the amount of excess cost 51206
calculated under division (C)(2) of this section to the joint 51207
vocational school district and shall deduct that amount as 51208
provided in division (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this section, as 51209
applicable:51210

       (a) If the student is not enrolled in a community school, the 51211
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 51212
student's resident district pursuant to division (J) of section 51213
3317.023 of the Revised Code.51214

       (b) If the student is enrolled in a community school, the 51215
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 51216
community school pursuant to section 3314.083 of the Revised Code.51217

       (D) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 51218
under division (A)(5) of this section shall spend those funds only 51219
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 51220
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 51221
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 51222
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 51223
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 51224
district to report data annually so that the department may 51225
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 51226
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(5) of this 51227
section may be spent.51228

       (E) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 51229
under division (A)(6) of this section, or through a transfer of 51230
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 51231
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 51232
department designates as approved for career-technical education 51233
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 51234
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 51235
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 51236
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 51237
may deny payment under division (A)(6) of this section to any 51238
district that the department determines is not operating those 51239
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(6) of this 51240
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 51241
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.51242

       (F) As used in this section:51243

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 51244
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.51245

       (2) "Resident district" means the city, local, or exempted 51246
village school district in which a student is entitled to attend 51247
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.51248

       (3) "State share percentage" is equal to the following:51249

The amount computed under division (A)(1) of this section /
51250

(the formula amount X formula ADM)
51251

       Sec. 3317.161.  (A) As used in this section, "lead district" 51252
has the same meaning as in section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.51253

       (B) The lead district of a career-technical planning district 51254
shall review the career-technical education program of each city, 51255
local, and exempted village school district, each community 51256
school, and each STEM school that is assigned to the 51257
career-technical planning district and determine whether to 51258
approve or disapprove the program. The lead district shall notify 51259
the department of its determination.51260

       (C) Upon receiving notification of a lead district's 51261
approval, the department shall pay to the member city, local, or 51262
exempted village school district or deduct from the state 51263
education aid of a district and pay to a community school or STEM 51264
school the funds attributed to the career-technical students 51265
enrolled in the district or school, according to a payment 51266
schedule prescribed by the department.51267

       (D) Upon receiving notification from a lead district of 51268
disapproval of a city, local, or exempted village school 51269
district's, a community school's, or STEM school's 51270
career-technical education program, the department shall 51271
automatically review the lead district's decision. In reviewing 51272
the lead district's decision, the department shall consider the 51273
demand for the career-technical education program and the 51274
availability of the program within the career-technical planning 51275
district. If, as a result of the review, the department decides to 51276
approve the city, local, or exempted village school district's, 51277
the community school's, or the STEM school's career-technical 51278
education program, the department shall pay the funds to the 51279
district or deduct and pay the funds to the community school or 51280
STEM school in the manner described in division (C) of this 51281
section. The department's decision shall be final.51282

       Sec. 3317.18.  (A) As used in this section, the terms 51283
"Chapter 133. securities," "credit enhancement facilities," "debt 51284
charges," "general obligation," "legislation," "public 51285
obligations," and "securities" have the same meanings as in 51286
section 133.01 of the Revised Code.51287

       (B) The board of education of any school district authorizing 51288
the issuance of securities under section 133.10, 133.301, or 51289
3313.372 of the Revised Code or general obligation Chapter 133. 51290
securities may adopt legislation requesting the state department 51291
of education to approve, and enter into an agreement with the 51292
school district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for 51293
such securities providing for, the withholding and deposit of 51294
funds, otherwise due the district under Chapter 3317. of the 51295
Revised Code, for the payment of debt service charges on such 51296
securities.51297

       The board of education shall deliver to the state department 51298
a copy of such resolution and any additional pertinent information 51299
the state department may require.51300

       The department of education and the office of budget and 51301
management shall evaluate each request received from a school 51302
district under this section and the department, with the advice 51303
and consent of the director of budget and management, shall 51304
approve or deny each request based on all of the following:51305

       (1) Whether approval of the request will enhance the 51306
marketability of the securities for which the request is made;51307

       (2) Any other pertinent factors or limitations established in 51308
rules made under division (I) of this section, including:51309

       (a) Current and projected obligations of funds due to the 51310
requesting school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code 51311
including obligations of those funds to public obligations or 51312
relevant credit enhancement facilities under this section, Chapter 51313
133. and section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, and under any other 51314
similar provisions of law;51315

       (b) Whether the department of education or the office of 51316
budget and management has any reason to believe the requesting 51317
school district will be unable to pay when due the debt charges on 51318
the securities for which the request is made.51319

       The department may require a school district to establish 51320
schedules for the payment of all debt charges that take into 51321
account the amount and timing of anticipated distributions of 51322
funds to the district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.51323

       (C) If the department approves the request of a school 51324
district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant to this section, 51325
the department shall enter into a written agreement with the 51326
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for the 51327
securities which shall provide for the withholding of funds 51328
pursuant to this section for the payment of debt charges on those 51329
securities, and may include both of the following:51330

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 51331
department, at a time prior to any date for the payment of 51332
applicable debt charges, whether the district is able to pay those 51333
debt charges when due;51334

       (2) Requirements that the district deposit amounts for the 51335
payment of debt charges on the securities with the primary paying 51336
agent or fiscal agent for the securities prior to the date on 51337
which those debt charge payments are due to the owners or holders 51338
of the securities.51339

       (D) Whenever a district notifies the department of education 51340
that it will be unable to pay debt charges when they are due, 51341
subject to the withholding provisions of this section, or whenever 51342
the applicable paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the 51343
department that it has not timely received from a school district 51344
the full amount needed for the payment when due of those debt 51345
charges to the holders or owners of such securities, the 51346
department shall immediately contact the school district and the 51347
paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm or determine whether the 51348
district is unable to make the required payment by the date on 51349
which it is due.51350

       Upon demand of the treasurer of state while holding a school 51351
district obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 51352
135.143 of the Revised Code, the state department of education, 51353
without a request of the school district, shall withhold and 51354
deposit funds pursuant to this section for payment of debt service 51355
charges on that obligation.51356

       If the department confirms or determines that the district 51357
will be unable to make such payment and payment will not be made 51358
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the department shall 51359
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 51360
agent the lesser of the amount due for debt charges or the amount 51361
due the district for the remainder of the fiscal year under 51362
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code. If this amount is insufficient 51363
to pay the total amount then due the agent for the payment of debt 51364
charges, the department shall pay to the agent each fiscal year 51365
thereafter, and until the full amount due the agent for unpaid 51366
debt charges is paid in full, the lesser of the remaining amount 51367
due the agent for debt charges or the amount due the district for 51368
the fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.51369

       (E) The state department may make any payments under this 51370
division by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.51371

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 51372
this section shall be applied only to the payment of debt charges 51373
on the securities of the school district subject to this section 51374
or to the reimbursement to the provider of a credit enhancement 51375
facility that has paid such debt charges.51376

       (F) To the extent a school district whose securities are 51377
subject to this section is unable to pay applicable debt charges 51378
because of the failure to collect property taxes levied for the 51379
payment of those debt charges, the district may transfer to or 51380
deposit into any fund that would have received payments under 51381
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code that were withheld under this 51382
section any such delinquent property taxes when later collected, 51383
provided that transfer or deposit shall be limited to the amounts 51384
withheld from that fund under this section.51385

       (G) The department may make payments under this section to 51386
paying agents or fiscal agents only from and to the extent that 51387
money is appropriated by the general assembly for Chapter 3317. of 51388
the Revised Code or for the purposes of this section. No 51389
securities of a school district to which this section is made 51390
applicable constitute an obligation or a debt or a pledge of the 51391
faith, credit, or taxing power of the state, and the holders or 51392
owners of such securities have no right to have taxes levied or 51393
appropriations made by the general assembly for the payment of 51394
debt charges on those securities, and those securities, if the 51395
department requires, shall contain a statement to that effect. The 51396
agreement for or the actual withholding and payment of moneys 51397
under this section does not constitute the assumption by the state 51398
of any debt of a school district.51399

       (H) In the case of securities subject to the withholding 51400
provisions of this section, the issuing board of education shall 51401
appoint a paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or 51402
employee of the school district.51403

       (I) The department of education, with the advice of the 51404
office of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 51405
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 51406
section and division (B) of section 133.25 of the Revised Code as 51407
it relates to the withholding and depositing of payments under 51408
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to secure payment of debt 51409
charges on school district securities. Those rules shall include 51410
criteria for the evaluation and approval or denial of school 51411
district requests for withholding under this section and limits on 51412
the obligation for the purpose of paying debt charges or 51413
reimbursing credit enhancement facilities of funds otherwise to be 51414
paid to school districts under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.51415

       (J) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 51416
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 51417
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.51418

       Sec. 3317.19. (A) As used in this section, "total unit 51419
allowance" means an amount equal to the sum of the following:51420

       (1) The total of the salary allowances for the teachers 51421
employed in the cooperative education school district for all 51422
units approved under division (B) or (C) of section 3317.05 of the 51423
Revised Code. The salary allowance for each unit shall equal the 51424
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit calculated on the basis 51425
of the teacher's training level and years of experience pursuant 51426
to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of section 51427
3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 2001.51428

       (2) Fifteen per cent of the total computed under division 51429
(A)(1) of this section;51430

       (3) The total of the unit operating allowances for all 51431
approved units. The amount of each allowance shall equal one of 51432
the following:51433

       (a) Eight thousand twenty-three dollars times the number of 51434
units for preschool children with disabilities or fraction thereof 51435
approved for the year under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 51436
Revised Code;51437

       (b) Two thousand one hundred thirty-two dollars times the 51438
number of units or fraction thereof approved for the year under 51439
division (C) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.51440

       (B) The state board of education shall compute and distribute 51441
to each cooperative education school district for each fiscal year 51442
an amount equal to the sum of the following:51443

       (1)(A) An amount equal to the total of the amounts credited 51444
to the cooperative education school district pursuant to division 51445
(H) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code;51446

       (2) The total unit allowance;51447

       (3)(B) An amount for assisting in providing free lunches to 51448
needy children pursuant to division (D) of section 3317.024 of the 51449
Revised Code.51450

       (C) If a cooperative education school district has had 51451
additional special education units approved for the year under 51452
division (F)(2) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the 51453
district shall receive an additional amount during the last half 51454
of the fiscal year. For each unit, the additional amount shall 51455
equal fifty per cent of the amount computed under division (A) of 51456
this section for a unit approved under division (B) of section 51457
3317.05 of the Revised Code.51458

       Sec. 3317.20.  This section does not apply to preschool 51459
children with disabilities.51460

       (A) As used in this section:51461

       (1) "Applicable weight" means the multiple specified in 51462
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability described in 51463
that section.51464

       (2) "Child's school district" means the school district in 51465
which a child is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 51466
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.51467

       (3) "State share percentageindex" means the state share 51468
percentageindex of the child's school district.51469

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the51470
The department shall annually pay each county DD board for each 51471
child with a disability, other than a preschool child with a 51472
disability, for whom the county DD board provides special 51473
education and related services an amount equal to the formula 51474
amount + (state share percentageindex X formula amount X the 51475
applicable weight).51476

       (C) If any school district places with a county DD board more 51477
children with disabilities than it had placed with a county DD 51478
board in fiscal year 1998, the department shall not make a payment 51479
under division (B) of this section for the number of children 51480
exceeding the number placed in fiscal year 1998. The department 51481
instead shall deduct from the district's payments under this 51482
chapter, and pay to the county DD board, an amount calculated in 51483
accordance with the formula prescribed in division (B) of this 51484
section for each child over the number of children placed in 51485
fiscal year 1998.51486

       (D) The department shall calculate for each county DD board 51487
receiving payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this section the 51488
following amounts: 51489

       (1) The amount received by the county DD board for approved 51490
special education and related services units, other than units for 51491
preschool children with disabilities, in fiscal year 1998, divided 51492
by the total number of children served in the units that year;51493

       (2) The product of the quotient calculated under division 51494
(D)(1) of this section times the number of children for whom 51495
payments are made under divisions (B) and (C) of this section.51496

       If the amount calculated under division (D)(2) of this 51497
section is greater than the total amount calculated under 51498
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the department shall pay 51499
the county DD board one hundred per cent of the difference in 51500
addition to the payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this 51501
section.51502

       (E)(C) Each county DD board shall report to the department, 51503
in the manner specified by the department, the name of each child 51504
for whom the county DD board provides special education and 51505
related services and the child's school district.51506

        (F)(D)(1) For the purpose of verifying the accuracy of the 51507
payments under this section, the department may request from 51508
either of the following entities the data verification code 51509
assigned under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised 51510
Code to any child who is placed with a county DD board:51511

        (a) The child's school district;51512

        (b) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 51513
data verification codes.51514

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (F)(D)(1) 51515
of this section for the data verification code of a child, the 51516
child's school district shall submit that code to the department 51517
in the manner specified by the department. If the child has not 51518
been assigned a code, the district shall assign a code to that 51519
child and submit the code to the department by a date specified by 51520
the department. If the district does not assign a code to the 51521
child by the specified date, the department shall assign a code to 51522
the child.51523

        The department annually shall submit to each school district 51524
the name and data verification code of each child residing in the 51525
district for whom the department has assigned a code under this 51526
division.51527

        (3) The department shall not release any data verification 51528
code that it receives under division (F)(D) of this section to any 51529
person except as provided by law.51530

       (G)(E) Any document relative to special education and related 51531
services provided by a county DD board that the department holds 51532
in its files that contains both a student's name or other 51533
personally identifiable information and the student's data 51534
verification code shall not be a public record under section 51535
149.43 of the Revised Code.51536

       Sec. 3313.847.        Sec. 3317.30. (A) In the case of a child placed in 51537
the custody of a juvenile facility established under section 51538
2151.65 or a detention facility established under section 2152.41 51539
of the Revised Code, ifpayment for the child's education services 51540
shall be administered by one of the following methods:51541

        (1) If the facility educates the child, the facility, or the 51542
chartered nonpublic school it operates, may submit its request for 51543
payment directly to the school district that is to bear the cost 51544
of educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of 51545
the Revised Code. That district shall pay the facility or the 51546
chartered nonpublic school directly for those services.51547

        (2) If the facility contracts directly with a school district 51548
in which the facility is located for services for that child, the 51549
school district may submit its request for payment directly to the 51550
school district that is to bear the cost of educating the child, 51551
as determined under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code. That 51552
district shall pay the school district where the facility is 51553
located directly for those services.51554

        (3) If that facility contracts directly with an educational 51555
service center for services for that child, the service center may 51556
submit its request for payment for services for the child directly 51557
to the school district that is responsible to bear the cost of 51558
educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of the 51559
Revised Code. That district shall pay the service center directly 51560
for those services. Notwithstanding51561

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 51562
3317.03 of the Revised Code, the district that pays a service 51563
center, facility or chartered nonpublic school the facility 51564
operates, or other school district for services for a particular 51565
child under this section shall include that child in the 51566
district's average daily membership as reported under division (A) 51567
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. No other district shall 51568
include the child in its average daily membership.51569

       Payments made for a child under this section shall be 51570
determined in accordance with division (C)(4) of section 3313.64 51571
of the Revised Code.51572

       Sec. 3317.40.  (A) As used in this section, "subgroup" means 51573
one of the following subsets of the entire student population of a 51574
school district or a school building:51575

       (1) Students with disabilities;51576

       (2) Economically disadvantaged students;51577

       (3) Limited English proficient students;51578

       (4) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 51579
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 51580
of the Revised Code. 51581

       (B) When funds are provided under this chapter specifically 51582
for services for a subgroup of students, the general assembly has 51583
determined that these students experience unique challenges 51584
requiring additional resources. The department of education shall 51585
require school districts and schools to account for the 51586
expenditure of funds provided under this chapter for services to 51587
those students.51588

       (C) If a district or school fails to show satisfactory 51589
achievement and progress, as determined by the state board of 51590
education, for any subgroup of students based on performance 51591
measures reported or graded under section 3302.03 of the Revised 51592
Code, the district or school shall submit an improvement plan to 51593
the department for approval. The plan may be included in any other 51594
improvement plan required of the district or school under state or 51595
federal law. The department may require that a plan required under 51596
division (C) of this section include an agreement to partner with 51597
another organization that has demonstrated the ability to improve 51598
the educational outcome for that subgroup of students to provide 51599
services to those students. The partner organization may be 51600
another school, district, or other education provider.51601

       Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board of 51602
education shall establish measures of satisfactory achievement and 51603
progress, which include, but are not limited to, performance 51604
measures under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code. The department 51605
shall make the initial determination of satisfactory achievement 51606
and progress under this section using those measures not later 51607
than September 1, 2015, and then make determinations under this 51608
section annually thereafter.51609

       The department shall publish a list of schools, school 51610
districts, and other educational providers that have demonstrated 51611
an ability to serve each subgroup of students.51612

       Sec. 3317.50.  The eTech Ohio telecommunity education fund is 51613
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 51614
certain excess local exchange telephone company contributions 51615
transferred from the reserve fund of the Ohio telecommunications 51616
advisory board pursuant to an agreement between the public 51617
utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio department of education. 51618
The fund shall be used by the chancellor of the Ohio board of 51619
regents, in the amounts appropriated, to finance technology grants 51620
to state-chartered elementary and secondary schools. Investment 51621
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.51622

       Sec. 3317.51.  (A) The distance learning fund is hereby 51623
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys 51624
paid to the eTech Ohio commission by any telephone company as a 51625
part of a settlement agreement between such company and the public 51626
utilities commission in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish 51627
distance learning throughout the state. The commissionchancellor 51628
of the Ohio board of regents shall administer the fund and expend 51629
moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools 51630
chartered by the state board of education to establish distance 51631
learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible for 51632
funds if they are within the service area of the telephone 51633
company. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 51634
fund.51635

       (B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means 51636
the creation of a learning environment involving a school setting 51637
and at least one other location outside of the school which allows 51638
for information available at one site to be accessed at the other 51639
through the use of such educational applications as one-way or 51640
two-way transmission of data, voice, and video, singularly or in 51641
appropriate combinations.51642

       Sec. 3318.011.  For purposes of providing assistance under 51643
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the department of 51644
education shall annually do all of the following:51645

       (A) Calculate the adjusted valuation per pupil of each city, 51646
local, and exempted village school district according to the 51647
following formula:51648

The district's valuation per pupil -
51649

[$30,000 X (1 - the district's income factor)].
51650

       For purposes of this calculation:51651

       (1) Except for a district with an open enrollment net gain 51652
that is ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, "valuation per 51653
pupil" for a district means its average taxable value, divided by 51654
its formula ADM for the previous fiscal year. "Valuation per 51655
pupil," for a district with an open enrollment net gain that is 51656
ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, means its average taxable 51657
value, divided by the sum of its formula ADM for the previous 51658
fiscal year plus its open enrollment net gain for the previous 51659
fiscal year. 51660

       (2) "Average taxable value" means the average of the sum of 51661
the amounts certified for a district under divisions (A)(1) and 51662
(2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the second, third, 51663
and fourth preceding fiscal years.51664

       (3) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 51665
school in a city, local, or exempted village school district under 51666
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.51667

        (4) "Formula ADM" and "income factor" havehas the same 51668
meaningsmeaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.51669

       (5) "Native student" has the same meaning as in section 51670
3313.98 of the Revised Code.51671

        (6) "Open enrollment net gain" for a district means (a) the 51672
number of the students entitled to attend school in another 51673
district but who are enrolled in the schools of the district under 51674
its open enrollment policy minus (b) the number of the district's 51675
native students who are enrolled in the schools of another 51676
district under the other district's open enrollment policy, both 51677
numbers as certified to the department under section 3313.981 of 51678
the Revised Code. If the difference is a negative number, the 51679
district's "open enrollment net gain" is zero.51680

        (7) "Open enrollment policy" means an interdistrict open 51681
enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the Revised 51682
Code.51683

       (8) "District median income" means the median Ohio adjusted 51684
gross income certified for a school district. On or before the 51685
first day of July of each year, the tax commissioner shall certify 51686
to the department of education and the office of budget and 51687
management for each city, exempted village, and local school 51688
district the median Ohio adjusted gross income of the residents of 51689
the school district determined on the basis of tax returns filed 51690
for the second preceding tax year by the residents of the 51691
district.51692

       (9) "Statewide median income" means the median district 51693
median income of all city, exempted village, and local school 51694
districts in the state.51695

       (10) "Income factor" for a city, exempted village, or local 51696
school district means the quotient obtained by dividing that 51697
district's median income by the statewide median income.51698

       (B) Calculate for each district the three-year average of the 51699
adjusted valuations per pupil calculated for the district for the 51700
current and two preceding fiscal years;51701

       (C) Rank all such districts in order of adjusted valuation 51702
per pupil from the district with the lowest three-year average 51703
adjusted valuation per pupil to the district with the highest 51704
three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil;51705

       (D) Divide such ranking into percentiles with the first 51706
percentile containing the one per cent of school districts having 51707
the lowest three-year average adjusted valuations per pupil and 51708
the one-hundredth percentile containing the one per cent of school 51709
districts having the highest three-year average adjusted 51710
valuations per pupil;51711

       (E) Determine the school districts that have three-year 51712
average adjusted valuations per pupil that are greater than the 51713
median three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil for all 51714
school districts in the state;51715

       (F) On or before the first day of September, certify the 51716
information described in divisions (A) to (E) of this section to 51717
the Ohio school facilities commission.51718

       Sec. 3318.031. (A) The Ohio school facilities commission 51719
shall consider student and staff safety and health when reviewing 51720
design plans for classroom facility construction projects proposed 51721
under this chapter. After consulting with appropriate education, 51722
health, and law enforcement personnel, the commission may require 51723
as a condition of project approval under either section 3318.03 or 51724
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code such 51725
changes in the design plans as the commission believes will 51726
advance or improve student and staff safety and health in the 51727
proposed classroom facility.51728

       To carry out its duties under this division, the commission 51729
shall review and, if necessary, amend any construction and design 51730
standards used in its project approval process, including 51731
standards for location and number of exits, standards for lead 51732
safety in classroom facilities constructed before 1978 in which 51733
services are provided to children under six years of age, and 51734
location of restrooms, with a focus on advancing student and staff 51735
safety and health.51736

       (B) When reviewing design standards for classroom facility 51737
construction projects proposed under this chapter, the commission 51738
shall also consider the extent to which the design standards 51739
support the following:51740

       (1) Support and facilitation of smaller classes and the trend 51741
toward smaller schoolsTrends in educational delivery methods, 51742
including digital access and blended learning;51743

       (2) Provision of sufficient space for training new teachers 51744
and promotion of collaboration among teaching candidates, 51745
experienced teachers, and teacher educators;51746

       (3) Provision of adequate space for teacher planning and 51747
collaboration;51748

       (4) Provision of adequate space for parent involvement 51749
activities;51750

       (5) Provision of sufficient space for innovative partnerships 51751
between schools and health and social service agencies.51752

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 51753
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 51754
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 51755
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 51756
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 51757
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 51758
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 51759
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 51760
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 51761
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 51762
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 51763
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 51764
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 51765
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 51766
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 51767
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 51768
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 51769
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 51770
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 51771
following provisions:51772

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 51773
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 51774
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 51775
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 51776
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 51777
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 51778
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 51779
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 51780
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 51781
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 51782
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 51783
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 51784
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 51785
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 51786
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 51787
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 51788
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 51789
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 51790
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 51791
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 51792
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 51793
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 51794
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 51795
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 51796
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.51797

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 51798
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 51799
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 51800
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 51801
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 51802
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 51803
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 51804
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 51805
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 51806
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 51807
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 51808
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 51809
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 51810
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 51811
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 51812
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 51813
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 51814
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 51815
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 51816
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 51817
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 51818
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 51819
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 51820
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 51821
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 51822
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 51823
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 51824
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 51825
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 51826
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 51827
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 51828
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 51829
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 51830
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 51831
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 51832
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.51833

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 51834
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 51835
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 51836
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 51837
district's project construction fund;51838

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 51839
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 51840
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 51841
applicable:51842

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 51843
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 51844
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 51845
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 51846
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 51847
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 51848
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 51849
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 51850
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 51851
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 51852
the Revised Code;51853

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 51854
one of the following:51855

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 51856
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 51857
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;51858

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 51859
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 51860
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 51861
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 51862
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 51863
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;51864

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 51865
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 51866
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 51867
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 51868
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions of51869
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 51870
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 51871
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 51872
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 51873
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 51874
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 51875
approved by the electors.51876

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 51877
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 51878
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 51879
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 51880
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;51881

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 51882
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 51883
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 51884
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 51885
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 51886
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;51887

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 51888
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 51889
the school district board in proportion to their respective 51890
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;51891

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 51892
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 51893
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;51894

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 51895
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 51896
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 51897
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 51898
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 51899
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 51900
part of the basic project cost;51901

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 51902
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 51903
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 51904
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 51905
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;51906

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 51907
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 51908
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 51909
the state subject to approval by the commission;51910

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 51911
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 51912
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 51913
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 51914
district board;51915

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 51916
project construction fund upon completion of the project;51917

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 51918
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 51919
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;51920

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 51921
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 51922
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 51923
outstanding;51924

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 51925
agreement in the office of the commission;51926

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 51927
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 51928
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 51929
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 51930
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 51931
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 51932
may be fixed by the commission;51933

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 51934
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission;51935

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 51936
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 51937
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 51938
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 51939
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 51940
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 51941
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 51942
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 51943
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 51944
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 51945
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 51946
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 51947
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 51948
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 51949
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 51950
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 51951
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 51952
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 51953
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 51954
period than would otherwise be required under this division.51955

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 51956
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 51957
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 51958
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 51959
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 51960
purposes.51961

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 51962
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 51963
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 51964
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 51965
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 51966
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 51967
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 51968
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 51969
Revised Code;51970

       (U) ProvisionA provision stipulating that for continued 51971
release of project funds the school district board shall comply 51972
with sectionsections 3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code 51973
throughout the project and shall notify the department of 51974
education and the Ohio community school association when the board 51975
plans to dispose of facilities by sale under that section;51976

       (V) ProvisionA provision stipulating that the commission 51977
shall not approve a contract for demolition of a facility until 51978
the school district board has complied with sectionsections51979
3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code relative to that 51980
facility, unless demolition of that facility is to clear a site 51981
for construction of a replacement facility included in the 51982
district's project;51983

       (W) A requirement for the school district to adhere to a 51984
facilities maintenance plan approved by the commission.51985

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 51986
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 51987
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 51988
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 51989
Code, including any of the following:51990

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 51991
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 51992
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.51993

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 51994
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 51995
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 51996
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 51997
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 51998
perform such powers and duties.51999

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 52000
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 52001
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.52002

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 52003
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 52004
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 52005
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 52006
the executive director or the Ohio facilities construction 52007
commission to perform such powers and duties.52008

       (5) Request the Ohio facilities construction commission to 52009
debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the Revised 52010
Code.52011

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 52012
fix the compensation of an executive director whoof the Ohio 52013
facilities construction commission, as appointed under division 52014
(B) of section 123.21 of the Revised Code, shall also serve at the 52015
pleasure ofas the executive director for the Ohio school 52016
facilities commission. The executive director shall exercise all 52017
powers that the Ohio school facilities commission possesses, 52018
supervise the operations of the Ohio school facilities commission 52019
and perform such other duties as delegated by the Ohio school 52020
facilities commission. The executive director also shall employ 52021
and fix the compensation of such employees as will facilitate the 52022
activities and purposes of the Ohio school facilities commission, 52023
who shall serve at the pleasure of the executive director. The 52024
employees of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 52025
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 52026
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Any 52027
agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between the office 52028
of collective bargaining and the exclusive representative for 52029
employees of the commission is binding and shall continue to have 52030
effect.52031

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 52032
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 52033
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 52034
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.52035

       Sec. 3318.36.  (A)(1) As used in this section:52036

       (a) "Ohio school facilities commission," "classroom 52037
facilities," "school district," "school district board," "net 52038
bonded indebtedness," "required percentage of the basic project 52039
costs," "basic project cost," "valuation," and "percentile" have 52040
the same meanings as in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code.52041

       (b) "Required level of indebtedness" means five per cent of 52042
the school district's valuation for the year preceding the year in 52043
which the commission and school district enter into an agreement 52044
under division (B) of this section, plus [two one-hundredths of 52045
one per cent multiplied by (the percentile in which the district 52046
ranks minus one)].52047

       (c) "Local resources" means any moneys generated in any 52048
manner permitted for a school district board to raise the school 52049
district portion of a project undertaken with assistance under 52050
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code.52051

       (d) "Tangible personal property phase-out impacted district" 52052
means a school district for which the taxable value of its 52053
tangible personal property certified under division (A)(2) of 52054
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code for tax year 2005, excluding 52055
the taxable value of public utility personal property, made up 52056
eighteen per cent or more of its total taxable value for tax year 52057
2005 as certified under that section.52058

       (2) For purposes of determining the required level of 52059
indebtedness, the required percentage of the basic project costs 52060
under division (C)(1) of this section, and priority for assistance 52061
under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the 52062
percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission 52063
has entered into an agreement under this section between the first 52064
day of July and the thirty-first day of August in each fiscal year 52065
is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the 52066
immediately preceding fiscal year, and the percentile ranking of a 52067
school district with which the commission has entered into such 52068
agreement between the first day of September and the thirtieth day 52069
of June in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated 52070
for that district for the current fiscal year. However, in the 52071
case of a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, 52072
the district's priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 52073
3318.20 of the Revised Code and its portion of the basic project 52074
cost under those sections shall be determined in the manner 52075
prescribed, respectively, in divisions (B)(3)(b) and (E)(1)(b) of 52076
this section.52077

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the school building 52078
assistance expedited local partnership program. Under the program, 52079
the Ohio school facilities commission may enter into an agreement 52080
with the board of any school district under which the board may 52081
proceed with the new construction or major repairs of a part of 52082
the district's classroom facilities needs, as determined under 52083
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, through the 52084
expenditure of local resources prior to the school district's 52085
eligibility for state assistance under those sections, and may 52086
apply that expenditure toward meeting the school district's 52087
portion of the basic project cost of the total of the district's 52088
classroom facilities needs, as recalculated under division (E) of 52089
this section, when the district becomes eligible for state 52090
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or section 3318.364 52091
of the Revised Code. Any school district that is reasonably 52092
expected to receive assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 52093
of the Revised Code within two fiscal years from the date the 52094
school district adopts its resolution under division (B) of this 52095
section shall not be eligible to participate in the program 52096
established under this section.52097

       (2) To participate in the program, a school district board 52098
shall first adopt a resolution certifying to the commission the 52099
board's intent to participate in the program.52100

       The resolution shall specify the approximate date that the 52101
board intends to seek elector approval of any bond or tax measures 52102
or to apply other local resources to use to pay the cost of 52103
classroom facilities to be constructed under this section. The 52104
resolution may specify the application of local resources or 52105
elector-approved bond or tax measures after the resolution is 52106
adopted by the board, and in such case the board may proceed with 52107
a discrete portion of its project under this section as soon as 52108
the commission and the controlling board have approved the basic 52109
project cost of the district's classroom facilities needs as 52110
specified in division (D) of this section. The board shall submit 52111
its resolution to the commission not later than ten days after the 52112
date the resolution is adopted by the board.52113

       The commission shall not consider any resolution that is 52114
submitted pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, as amended 52115
by this amendment, sooner than September 14, 2000.52116

       (3) For purposes of determining when a district that enters 52117
into an agreement under this section becomes eligible for 52118
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 52119
or priority for assistance under section 3318.364 of the Revised 52120
Code, the commission shall use one of the following as applicable:52121

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 52122
impacted district, the district's percentile ranking determined at 52123
the time the district entered into the agreement under this 52124
section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section;52125

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 52126
district, the lesser of (i) the district's percentile ranking 52127
determined at the time the district entered into the agreement 52128
under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this 52129
section, or (ii) the district's current percentile ranking under 52130
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.52131

       (4) Any project under this section shall comply with section 52132
3318.03 of the Revised Code and with any specifications for plans 52133
and materials for classroom facilities adopted by the commission 52134
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code.52135

       (5) If a school district that enters into an agreement under 52136
this section has not begun a project applying local resources as 52137
provided for under that agreement at the time the district is 52138
notified by the commission that it is eligible to receive state 52139
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, 52140
all assessment and agreement documents entered into under this 52141
section are void.52142

       (6) Only construction of or repairs to classroom facilities 52143
that have been approved by the commission and have been therefore 52144
included as part of a district's basic project cost qualify for 52145
application of local resources under this section.52146

       (C) Based on the results of on-site visits and assessment, 52147
the commission shall determine the basic project cost of the 52148
school district's classroom facilities needs. The commission shall 52149
determine the school district's portion of such basic project 52150
cost, which shall be the greater of:52151

       (1) The required percentage of the basic project costs, 52152
determined based on the school district's percentile ranking;52153

       (2) An amount necessary to raise the school district's net 52154
bonded indebtedness, as of the fiscal year the commission and the 52155
school district enter into the agreement under division (B) of 52156
this section, to within five thousand dollars of the required 52157
level of indebtedness.52158

       (D)(1) When the commission determines the basic project cost 52159
of the classroom facilities needs of a school district and the 52160
school district's portion of that basic project cost under 52161
division (C) of this section, the project shall be conditionally 52162
approved. Such conditional approval shall be submitted to the 52163
controlling board for approval thereof. The controlling board 52164
shall forthwith approve or reject the commission's determination, 52165
conditional approval, and the amount of the state's portion of the 52166
basic project cost; however, no state funds shall be encumbered 52167
under this section. Upon approval by the controlling board, the 52168
school district board may identify a discrete part of its 52169
classroom facilities needs, which shall include only new 52170
construction of or additions or major repairs to a particular 52171
building, to address with local resources. Upon identifying a part 52172
of the school district's basic project cost to address with local 52173
resources, the school district board may allocate any available 52174
school district moneys to pay the cost of that identified part, 52175
including the proceeds of an issuance of bonds if approved by the 52176
electors of the school district.52177

       All local resources utilized under this division shall first 52178
be deposited in the project construction account required under 52179
section 3318.08 of the Revised Code.52180

       (2) Unless the school district board exercises its option 52181
under division (D)(3) of this section, for a school district to 52182
qualify for participation in the program authorized under this 52183
section, one of the following conditions shall be satisfied:52184

       (a) The electors of the school district by a majority vote 52185
shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation 52186
for a period of twenty-three years at the rate of not less than 52187
one-half mill for each dollar of valuation to be used to pay the 52188
cost of maintaining the classroom facilities included in the basic 52189
project cost as determined by the commission. The form of the 52190
ballot to be used to submit the question whether to approve the 52191
tax required under this division to the electors of the school 52192
district shall be the form for an additional levy of taxes 52193
prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code, which may be 52194
combined in a single ballot question with the questions prescribed 52195
under section 5705.218 of the Revised Code.52196

       (b) As authorized under division (C) of section 3318.05 of 52197
the Revised Code, the school district board shall earmark from the 52198
proceeds of a permanent improvement tax levied under section 52199
5705.21 of the Revised Code, an amount equivalent to the 52200
additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this 52201
section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included 52202
in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.52203

       (c) As authorized under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, 52204
the school district board shall, if approved by the commission, 52205
annually transfer into the maintenance fund required under section 52206
3318.05 of the Revised Code the amount prescribed in section 52207
3318.051 of the Revised Code in lieu of the tax otherwise required 52208
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of 52209
the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as 52210
determined by the commission.52211

        (d) If the school district board has rescinded the agreement 52212
to make transfers under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, as 52213
provided under division (F) of that section, the electors of the 52214
school district, in accordance with section 3318.063 of the 52215
Revised Code, first shall approve the levy of taxes outside the 52216
ten-mill limitation for the period specified in that section at a 52217
rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation.52218

       (e) The school district board shall apply the proceeds of a 52219
tax to leverage bonds as authorized under section 3318.052 of the 52220
Revised Code or dedicate a local donated contribution in the 52221
manner described in division (B) of section 3318.084 of the 52222
Revised Code in an amount equivalent to the additional tax 52223
otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for 52224
the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic 52225
project cost as determined by the commission.52226

       (3) A school district board may opt to delay taking any of 52227
the actions described in division (D)(2) of this section until the 52228
school district becomes eligible for state assistance under 52229
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code. In order to 52230
exercise this option, the board shall certify to the commission a 52231
resolution indicating the board's intent to do so prior to 52232
entering into an agreement under division (B) of this section.52233

       (4) If pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section a district 52234
board opts to delay levying an additional tax until the district 52235
becomes eligible for state assistance, it shall submit the 52236
question of levying that tax to the district electors as follows:52237

       (a) In accordance with section 3318.06 of the Revised Code if 52238
it will also be necessary pursuant to division (E) of this section 52239
to submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue;52240

       (b) In accordance with section 3318.361 of the Revised Code 52241
if it is not necessary to also submit a proposal for approval of a 52242
bond issue pursuant to division (E) of this section.52243

       (5) No state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 52244
the Revised Code shall be released until a school district board 52245
that adopts and certifies a resolution under division (D) of this 52246
section also demonstrates to the satisfaction of the commission 52247
compliance with the provisions of division (D)(2) of this section.52248

       Any amount required for maintenance under division (D)(2) of 52249
this section shall be deposited into a separate fund as specified 52250
in division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code.52251

       (E)(1) If the school district becomes eligible for state 52252
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 52253
based on its percentile ranking under division (B)(3) of this 52254
section or is offered assistance under section 3318.364 of the 52255
Revised Code, the commission shall conduct a new assessment of the 52256
school district's classroom facilities needs and shall recalculate 52257
the basic project cost based on this new assessment. The basic 52258
project cost recalculated under this division shall include the 52259
amount of expenditures made by the school district board under 52260
division (D)(1) of this section. The commission shall then 52261
recalculate the school district's portion of the new basic project 52262
cost, which shall be one of the following as applicable:52263

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 52264
impacted district, the percentage of the original basic project 52265
cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division 52266
(C) of this section;52267

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 52268
district, the lesser of (i) the percentage of the original basic 52269
project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under 52270
division (C) of this section, or (ii) the percentage of the new 52271
basic project cost determined under section 3318.032 of the 52272
Revised Code using the district's current percentile ranking under 52273
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. The52274

       The commission shall deduct the expenditure of school 52275
district moneys made under division (D)(1) of this section from 52276
the school district's portion of the basic project cost as 52277
recalculated under this division. If the amount of school district 52278
resources applied by the school district board to the school 52279
district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is 52280
less than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under 52281
this division, the school district board by a majority vote of all 52282
of its members shall, if it desires to seek state assistance under 52283
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, adopt a 52284
resolution as specified in section 3318.06 of the Revised Code to 52285
submit to the electors of the school district the question of 52286
approval of a bond issue in order to pay any additional amount of 52287
school district portion required for state assistance. Any tax 52288
levy approved under division (D) of this section satisfies the 52289
requirements to levy the additional tax under section 3318.06 of 52290
the Revised Code.52291

       (2) If the amount of school district resources applied by the 52292
school district board to the school district's portion of the 52293
basic project cost under this section is more than the total 52294
amount of such portion as recalculated under this division (E)(1) 52295
of this section, within one year after the school district's 52296
portion is so recalculated under division (E)(1) of this section52297
the commission may grant to the school district the difference 52298
between the two calculated portions, but at no time shall the 52299
commission expend any state funds on a project in an amount 52300
greater than the state's portion of the basic project cost as 52301
recalculated under this division (E)(1) of this section.52302

       Any reimbursement under this division shall be only for local 52303
resources the school district has applied toward construction cost 52304
expenditures for the classroom facilities approved by the 52305
commission, which shall not include any financing costs associated 52306
with that construction.52307

       The school district board shall use any moneys reimbursed to 52308
the district under this division to pay off any debt service the 52309
district owes for classroom facilities constructed under its 52310
project under this section before such moneys are applied to any 52311
other purpose. However, the district board first may deposit 52312
moneys reimbursed under this division into the district's general 52313
fund or a permanent improvement fund to replace local resources 52314
the district withdrew from those funds, as long as, and to the 52315
extent that, those local resources were used by the district for 52316
constructing classroom facilities included in the district's basic 52317
project cost.52318

       (3) A tangible personal property phase-out impacted district 52319
shall receive credit under division (E) of this section for the 52320
expenditure of local resources pursuant to any prior agreement 52321
authorized by this section, notwithstanding any recalculation of 52322
its average taxable value.52323

       Sec. 3318.363. (A) This section applies beginning in fiscal 52324
year 2003 and only to a school district participating in the 52325
school building assistance expedited local partnership program 52326
under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code.52327

       (B) If there is a decrease in the tax valuation of a school 52328
district to which this section applies by ten per cent or greater 52329
from one tax year to the next due to a decrease in the assessment 52330
rate of the taxable property of an electric company that owns 52331
property in the district, as provided for in section 5727.111 of 52332
the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. S.B. 3 of the 123rd 52333
General Assembly, the Ohio school facilities commission shall 52334
calculate or recalculate the state and school district portions of 52335
the basic project cost of the school district's project by 52336
determining the percentile rank in which the district would be 52337
located if such ranking were made using the adjusted valuation per 52338
pupil calculated under division (C) of this section rather than 52339
the three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil, calculated 52340
under division (B) of section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. For 52341
such district, the required percentage of the basic project cost 52342
used to determine the state and school district shares of that 52343
cost under division (C) of section 3318.36 of the Revised Code 52344
shall be based on the percentile rank as calculated under this 52345
section rather than as otherwise provided in division (C)(1) of 52346
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code. If the commission has 52347
determined the state and school district portion of the basic 52348
project cost of such a district's project under section 3318.36 of 52349
the Revised Code prior to that decrease in tax valuation, the 52350
commission shall adjust the state and school district shares of 52351
the basic project cost of such project in accordance with this 52352
section.52353

       (C)(1) As used in divisions (C) and (D) of this section, 52354
"total taxable value," and "formula ADM," and "income factor" have 52355
the same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, and 52356
"income factor" has the same meaning as in section 3318.011 of the 52357
Revised Code.52358

       (2) The adjusted valuation per pupil for a school district to 52359
which this section applies shall be calculated using the following 52360
formula:52361

       (The district's total taxable value for the tax year 52362
preceding the calendar year in which the current fiscal year 52363
begins / the district's formula ADM for the previous fiscal year) 52364
- [$30,000 x (1 - the district's income factor)].52365

       (D) At the request of the Ohio school facilities commission, 52366
the department of education shall report a district's total 52367
taxable value for the tax year preceding the calendar year in 52368
which the current fiscal year begins for any district to which 52369
this section applies as that information has been certified to the 52370
department by the tax commissioner pursuant to section 3317.021 of 52371
the Revised Code.52372

       Sec. 3319.031.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised 52373
Code to the contrary, if the board of education of a city, local, 52374
or exempted village school district does not appoint a business 52375
manager under section 3319.03 of the Revised Code, the board may 52376
assign powers and duties specified in section 3319.04 of the 52377
Revised Code to one or more employees or officers of the board, 52378
including the treasurer, and may give the employees or officers 52379
any title recognizing the assignment of the powers and duties. The 52380
prohibition, in section 3319.04 of the Revised Code, against a 52381
business manager having possession of moneys does not prevent a 52382
board from assigning powers and duties specified in that section 52383
to the treasurer and does not prevent a treasurer who is assigned 52384
those powers and duties from exercising the powers and duties of 52385
treasurer. If the board assigns the duties of a business manager 52386
under section 3319.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer, the 52387
treasurer shall not have the authority to make recommendations to 52388
appoint or discharge noneducational employees, except as provided 52389
under section 3313.31 of the Revised Code. Instead, the district 52390
superintendent shall be responsible for making recommendations, 52391
subject to confirmation by the board, for the appointment or 52392
discharge of noneducational employees. 52393

       Sec. 3319.07.  (A) The board of education of each city, 52394
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 52395
shall employ the teachers of the public schools of their 52396
respective districts.52397

       The governing board of each educational service center may 52398
employ special instruction teachers, special education teachers, 52399
and teachers of academic courses in which there are too few 52400
students in each of the school districts entering into agreements 52401
pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code to warrant each 52402
district's employing teachers for those courses.52403

       When any board makes appointments of teachers, the teachers 52404
in the employ of the board shall be considered before new teachers 52405
are chosen in their stead. In all school districts and in service 52406
centers, no teacher shall be employed unless such person is 52407
nominated by the superintendent of such district or center, or by 52408
another individual designated by the board in the event that the 52409
superintendent's nomination would be a violation of section 52410
2921.42 of the Revised Code. Such board, by a three-fourths vote 52411
of its full membership, may re-employ any teacher whom the 52412
superintendent refuses to appoint.52413

       (B) The board of education of any school district may 52414
contract with the governing board of the educational service 52415
center from which it otherwise receives services to conduct 52416
searches and recruitment of candidates for teacher positions.52417

       Sec. 3319.073.  (A) The board of education of each city and 52418
exempted village school district and the governing board of each 52419
educational service center shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 52420
developed by the department of education for, or shall develop in 52421
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 52422
in child abuse prevention or intervention programs, a program of 52423
in-service training in the prevention of child abuse, violence, 52424
and substance abuse and the promotion of positive youth 52425
development. Each person employed by any school district or 52426
service center to work in a school as a nurse, teacher, counselor, 52427
school psychologist, or administrator shall complete at least four 52428
hours of the in-service training within two years of commencing 52429
employment with the district or center, and every five years 52430
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 52431
service center to work in an elementary school as a nurse, 52432
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on March 52433
30, 2007, shall complete at least four hours of the in-service 52434
training not later than March 30, 2009, and every five years 52435
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 52436
service center to work in a middle or high school as a nurse, 52437
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on 52438
October 16, 2009, shall complete at least four hours of the 52439
in-service training not later than October 16, 2011, and every 52440
five years thereafter.52441

       (B) Each board shall incorporate training in school safety 52442
and violence prevention, including human trafficking content, into 52443
the in-service training required by division (A) of this section. 52444
For this purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 52445
developed by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 52446
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 52447
in school safety and violence prevention programs.52448

       (C) Each board shall incorporate training on the board's 52449
harassment, intimidation, or bullying policy adopted under section 52450
3313.666 of the Revised Code into the in-service training required 52451
by division (A) of this section. Each board also shall incorporate 52452
training in the prevention of dating violence into the in-service 52453
training required by that division for middle and high school 52454
employees. The board shall develop its own curricula for these 52455
purposes.52456

       (D) Each board shall incorporate training in youth suicide 52457
awareness and prevention into the in-service training required by 52458
division (A) of this section for each person employed by a school 52459
district or service center to work in a school as a nurse, 52460
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator, and any 52461
other personnel that the board determines appropriate. For this 52462
purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum developed 52463
by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 52464
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 52465
in youth suicide awareness and prevention programs.52466

       The training completed under this division shall count toward 52467
the satisfaction of requirements for professional development 52468
required by the school district or service center board, and the 52469
training may be accomplished through self-review of suitable 52470
suicide prevention materials approved by the board.52471

       Sec. 3319.17.  (A) As used in this section, "interdistrict 52472
contract" means any contract or agreement entered into by an 52473
educational service center governing board and another board or 52474
other public entity pursuant to section 3313.17, 3313.841, 52475
3313.842, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.91, or 3323.08 of the 52476
Revised Code, including any such contract or agreement for the 52477
provision of services funded under division (E) of section 52478
3317.024 of the Revised Code or provided in any unit approved 52479
under section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.52480

       (B) When, for any of the following reasons that apply to any 52481
city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school district 52482
or any educational service center, the board decides that it will 52483
be necessary to reduce the number of teachers it employs, it may 52484
make a reasonable reduction:52485

       (1) In the case of any district or service center, return to 52486
duty of regular teachers after leaves of absence including 52487
suspension of schools, territorial changes affecting the district 52488
or center, or financial reasons;52489

       (2) In the case of any city, exempted village, local, or 52490
joint vocational school district, decreased enrollment of pupils 52491
in the district;52492

       (3) In the case of any governing board of a service center 52493
providing any particular service directly to pupils pursuant to 52494
one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such service, 52495
reduction in the total number of pupils the governing board is 52496
required to provide with the service under all interdistrict 52497
contracts as a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or 52498
more of these interdistrict contracts;52499

       (4) In the case of any governing board providing any 52500
particular service that it does not provide directly to pupils 52501
pursuant to one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such 52502
service, reduction in the total level of the service the governing 52503
board is required to provide under all interdistrict contracts as 52504
a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or more of these 52505
interdistrict contracts.52506

       (C) In making any such reduction, any city, exempted village, 52507
local, or joint vocational school board shall proceed to suspend 52508
contracts in accordance with the recommendation of the 52509
superintendent of schools who shall, within each teaching field 52510
affected, give preference to teachers on continuing contracts. The 52511
board shall not give preference to any teacher based on seniority, 52512
except when making a decision between teachers who have comparable 52513
evaluations.52514

       On a case-by-case basis, in lieu of suspending a contract in 52515
whole, a board may suspend a contract in part, so that an 52516
individual is required to work a percentage of the time the 52517
employee otherwise is required to work under the contract and 52518
receives a commensurate percentage of the full compensation the 52519
employee otherwise would receive under the contract.52520

       The teachers whose continuing contracts are suspended by any 52521
board pursuant to this section shall have the right of restoration 52522
to continuing service status by that board if and when teaching 52523
positions become vacant or are created for which any of such 52524
teachers are or become qualified. No teacher whose continuing 52525
contract has been suspended pursuant to this section shall lose 52526
that right of restoration to continuing service status by reason 52527
of having declined recall to a position that is less than 52528
full-time or, if the teacher was not employed full-time just prior 52529
to suspension of the teacher's continuing contract, to a position 52530
requiring a lesser percentage of full-time employment than the 52531
position the teacher last held while employed in the district or 52532
service center. Seniority shall not be the basis for rehiring a 52533
teacher, except when making a decision between teachers who have 52534
comparable evaluations.52535

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 52536
4117. of the Revised Code:52537

       (1) The requirements of this section, as it existed prior to 52538
the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, prevail 52539
over any conflicting provisions of agreements between employee 52540
organizations and public employers entered into between September 52541
29, 2005, and that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011;52542

       (2) The requirements of this section, as it exists on and 52543
after the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, 52544
prevail over any conflicting provisions of agreements between 52545
employee organizations and public employers entered into on or 52546
after that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011.52547

       Sec. 3319.22.  (A)(1) The state board of education shall 52548
issue the following educator licenses:52549

       (a) A resident educator license, which shall be valid for 52550
four years, except that the state board, on a case-by-case basis, 52551
may extend the license's duration as necessary to enable the 52552
license holder to complete the Ohio teacher residency program 52553
established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code;52554

       (b) A professional educator license, which shall be valid for 52555
five years and shall be renewable;52556

       (c) A senior professional educator license, which shall be 52557
valid for five years and shall be renewable;52558

       (d) A lead professional educator license, which shall be 52559
valid for five years and shall be renewable.52560

       (2) The state board may issue any additional educator 52561
licenses of categories, types, and levels the board elects to 52562
provide. 52563

       (3) The state board shall adopt rules establishing the 52564
standards and requirements for obtaining each educator license 52565
issued under this section.52566

       (B) The rules adopted under this section shall require at 52567
least the following standards and qualifications for the educator 52568
licenses described in division (A)(1) of this section:52569

       (1) An applicant for a resident educator license shall hold 52570
at least a bachelor's degree from an accredited teacher 52571
preparation program or be a participant in the teach for America 52572
program and meet the qualifications required under section 52573
3319.227 of the Revised Code.52574

       (2) An applicant for a professional educator license shall:52575

       (a) Hold at least a bachelor's degree from an institution of 52576
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 52577
organization;52578

       (b) Have successfully completed the Ohio teacher residency 52579
program established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code, if 52580
the applicant's current or most recently issued license is a 52581
resident educator license issued under this section or an 52582
alternative resident educator license issued under section 3319.26 52583
of the Revised Code.52584

       (3) An applicant for a senior professional educator license 52585
shall:52586

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 52587
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 52588
organization;52589

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license 52590
issued under this section or section 3319.222 or under former 52591
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;52592

       (c) Meet the criteria for the accomplished or distinguished 52593
level of performance, as described in the standards for teachers 52594
adopted by the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised 52595
Code.52596

       (4) An applicant for a lead professional educator license 52597
shall:52598

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 52599
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 52600
organization;52601

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license or a 52602
senior professional educator license issued under this section or 52603
a professional educator license issued under section 3319.222 or 52604
former section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;52605

       (c) Meet the criteria for the distinguished level of 52606
performance, as described in the standards for teachers adopted by 52607
the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;52608

       (d) Either hold a valid certificate issued by the national 52609
board for professional teaching standards or meet the criteria for 52610
a master teacher or other criteria for a lead teacher adopted by 52611
the educator standards board under division (F)(4) or (5) of 52612
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code.52613

       (C) The state board shall align the standards and 52614
qualifications for obtaining a principal license with the 52615
standards for principals adopted by the state board under section 52616
3319.61 of the Revised Code. 52617

       (D) If the state board requires any examinations for educator 52618
licensure, the department of education shall provide the results 52619
of such examinations received by the department to the chancellor 52620
of the Ohio board of regents, in the manner and to the extent 52621
permitted by state and federal law.52622

       (E) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends, or 52623
rescinds for educator licenses under this section, division (D) of 52624
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, or any other law shall be 52625
adopted, amended, or rescinded under Chapter 119. of the Revised 52626
Code except as follows:52627

       (1) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 119.03 and 52628
division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, in the case 52629
of the adoption of any rule or the amendment or rescission of any 52630
rule that necessitates institutions' offering preparation programs 52631
for educators and other school personnel that are approved by the 52632
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.048 of 52633
the Revised Code to revise the curriculum of those programs, the 52634
effective date shall not be as prescribed in division (D) of 52635
section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the 52636
Revised Code. Instead, the effective date of such rules, or the 52637
amendment or rescission of such rules, shall be the date 52638
prescribed by section 3333.048 of the Revised Code.52639

       (2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or rescind 52640
emergency rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised 52641
Code, this authority shall not apply to the state board of 52642
education with regard to rules for educator licenses.52643

       (F)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing 52644
standards requiring additional coursework for the renewal of any 52645
educator license shall require a school district and a chartered 52646
nonpublic school to establish local professional development 52647
committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief administrative 52648
officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable to 52649
such officer. The committees established under this division shall 52650
determine whether coursework that a district or chartered 52651
nonpublic school teacher proposes to complete meets the 52652
requirement of the rules. The department of education shall 52653
provide technical assistance and support to committees as the 52654
committees incorporate the professional development standards 52655
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 52656
3319.61 of the Revised Code into their review of coursework that 52657
is appropriate for license renewal. The rules shall establish a 52658
procedure by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a local 52659
professional development committee.52660

       (2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive 52661
representative established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 52662
Code, the professional development committees shall be established 52663
as described in division (F)(2) of this section.52664

       Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under 52665
this section, the board of education of each school district shall 52666
establish the structure for one or more local professional 52667
development committees to be operated by such school district. The 52668
committee structure so established by a district board shall 52669
remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary 52670
of the date upon which the current committee structure was 52671
established, the board provides notice to all affected district 52672
employees that the committee structure is to be modified. 52673
Professional development committees may have a district-level or 52674
building-level scope of operations, and may be established with 52675
regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator 52676
license is designated.52677

       Each professional development committee shall consist of at 52678
least three classroom teachers employed by the district, one 52679
principal employed by the district, and one other employee of the 52680
district appointed by the district superintendent. For committees 52681
with a building-level scope, the teacher and principal members 52682
shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members shall 52683
be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to 52684
that building. For committees with a district-level scope, the 52685
teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom 52686
teachers of the district, and the principal member shall be 52687
elected by a majority vote of the principals of the district, 52688
unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the district, 52689
in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on 52690
the committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level 52691
scope, the teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade 52692
or age levels, and shall be elected by majority vote of the 52693
classroom teachers holding such a license and the principal shall 52694
be elected by all principals serving in buildings where any such 52695
teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a 52696
replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional 52697
development committee, except in the case of vacancies among the 52698
elected classroom teacher members, which shall be filled by vote 52699
of the remaining members of the committee so selected.52700

       Terms of office on professional development committees shall 52701
be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. 52702
The conduct of elections for members of professional development 52703
committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing 52704
the committees. A professional development committee may include 52705
additional members, except that the majority of members on each 52706
such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the 52707
district. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 52708
to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was 52709
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 52710
term.52711

       The initial meeting of any professional development 52712
committee, upon election and appointment of all committee members, 52713
shall be called by a member designated by the district 52714
superintendent. At this initial meeting, the committee shall 52715
select a chairperson and such other officers the committee deems 52716
necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings. 52717
Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the 52718
chairperson or upon the filing of a petition with the district 52719
superintendent signed by a majority of the committee members 52720
calling for the committee to meet.52721

       (3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive 52722
representative has been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of 52723
the Revised Code, professional development committees shall be 52724
established in accordance with any collective bargaining agreement 52725
in effect in the district that includes provisions for such 52726
committees.52727

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 52728
different method for the selection of teacher members of the 52729
committees, the exclusive representative of the district's 52730
teachers shall select the teacher members.52731

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 52732
different structure for the committees, the board of education of 52733
the school district shall establish the structure, including the 52734
number of committees and the number of teacher and administrative 52735
members on each committee; the specific administrative members to 52736
be part of each committee; whether the scope of the committees 52737
will be district levels, building levels, or by type of grade or 52738
age levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths 52739
of terms for members; the manner of filling vacancies on the 52740
committees; and the frequency and time and place of meetings. 52741
However, in all cases, except as provided in division (F)(4) of 52742
this section, there shall be a majority of teacher members of any 52743
professional development committee, there shall be at least five 52744
total members of any professional development committee, and the 52745
exclusive representative shall designate replacement members in 52746
the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective 52747
bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting 52748
such replacements.52749

       (4) Whenever an administrator's coursework plan is being 52750
discussed or voted upon, the local professional development 52751
committee shall, at the request of one of its administrative 52752
members, cause a majority of the committee to consist of 52753
administrative members by reducing the number of teacher members 52754
voting on the plan.52755

       (G)(1) The department of education, educational service 52756
centers, county boards of developmental disabilities, regional 52757
professional development centers, special education regional 52758
resource centers, college and university departments of education, 52759
head start programs, the eTech Ohio commission, and the Ohio 52760
education computer network may establish local professional 52761
development committees to determine whether the coursework 52762
proposed by their employees who are licensed or certificated under 52763
this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code, or under the 52764
former version of either section as it existed prior to October 52765
16, 2009, meet the requirements of the rules adopted under this 52766
section. They may establish local professional development 52767
committees on their own or in collaboration with a school district 52768
or other agency having authority to establish them.52769

       Local professional development committees established by 52770
county boards of developmental disabilities shall be structured in 52771
a manner comparable to the structures prescribed for school 52772
districts in divisions (F)(2) and (3) of this section, as shall 52773
the committees established by any other entity specified in 52774
division (G)(1) of this section that provides educational services 52775
by employing or contracting for services of classroom teachers 52776
licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of 52777
the Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as 52778
it existed prior to October 16, 2009. All other entities specified 52779
in division (G)(1) of this section shall structure their 52780
committees in accordance with guidelines which shall be issued by 52781
the state board.52782

       (2) Any public agency that is not specified in division 52783
(G)(1) of this section but provides educational services and 52784
employs or contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed 52785
or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the 52786
Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as it 52787
existed prior to October 16, 2009, may establish a local 52788
professional development committee, subject to the approval of the 52789
department of education. The committee shall be structured in 52790
accordance with guidelines issued by the state board.52791

       Sec. 3319.235.  (A) The standards for the preparation of 52792
teachers adopted under section 3333.048 of the Revised Code shall 52793
require any institution that provides a course of study for the 52794
training of teachers to ensure that graduates of such course of 52795
study are skilled at integrating educational technology in the 52796
instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having 52797
either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner 52798
prescribed by the department of education or completed a course 52799
that includes training in such skills.52800

       (B) The eTech Ohio commissionchancellor of the Ohio board of 52801
regents, in consultation with the department of education, shall 52802
establish model professional development programs to assist 52803
teachers who completed their teacher preparation prior to the 52804
effective date of division (A) of this section to become skilled 52805
at integrating educational technology in the instruction of 52806
children. The commissionchancellor shall provide technical 52807
assistance to school districts wishing to establish such programs.52808

       Sec. 3319.57.  (A) A grant program is hereby established 52809
under which the department of education shall award grants to 52810
assist certain schools in a city, exempted village, local, or 52811
joint vocational school district in implementing one of the 52812
following innovations:52813

       (1) The use of instructional specialists to mentor and 52814
support classroom teachers;52815

       (2) The use of building managers to supervise the 52816
administrative functions of school operation so that a school 52817
principal can focus on supporting instruction, providing 52818
instructional leadership, and engaging teachers as part of the 52819
instructional leadership team;52820

       (3) The reconfiguration of school leadership structure in a 52821
manner that allows teachers to serve in leadership roles so that 52822
teachers may share the responsibility for making and implementing 52823
school decisions;52824

       (4) The adoption of new models for restructuring the school 52825
day or school year, such as including teacher planning and 52826
collaboration time as part of the school day;52827

       (5) The creation of smaller schools or smaller units within 52828
larger schools for the purpose of facilitating teacher 52829
collaboration to improve and advance the professional practice of 52830
teaching;52831

       (6) The implementation of "grow your own" recruitment 52832
strategies that are designed to assist individuals who show a 52833
commitment to education become licensed teachers, to assist 52834
experienced teachers obtain licensure in subject areas for which 52835
there is need, and to assist teachers in becoming principals;52836

       (7) The provision of better conditions for new teachers, such 52837
as reduced teaching load and reduced class size;52838

        (8) The provision of incentives to attract qualified 52839
mathematics, science, or special education teachers;52840

        (9) The development and implementation of a partnership with 52841
teacher preparation programs at colleges and universities to help 52842
attract teachers qualified to teach in shortage areas;52843

        (10) The implementation of a program to increase the cultural 52844
competency of both new and veteran teachers;52845

        (11) The implementation of a program to increase the subject 52846
matter competency of veteran teachers.52847

       (B) To qualify for a grant to implement one of the 52848
innovations described in division (A) of this section, a school 52849
must meet both of the following criteria:52850

       (1) Be hard to staff, as defined by the department.52851

       (2) Use existing school district funds for the implementation 52852
of the innovation in an amount equal to the grant amount 52853
multiplied by (1 - the district's state share percentageindex for 52854
the fiscal year in which the grant is awarded). 52855

       For purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, "state share 52856
percentageindex" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of 52857
the Revised Code.52858

       (C) The amount and number of grants awarded under this 52859
section shall be determined by the department based on any 52860
appropriations made by the general assembly for grants under this 52861
section. 52862

       (D) The state board of education shall adopt rules for the 52863
administration of this grant program.52864

       Sec. 3321.01. (A)(1) As used in this chapter, "parent," 52865
"guardian," or "other person having charge or care of a child" 52866
means either parent unless the parents are separated or divorced 52867
or their marriage has been dissolved or annulled, in which case 52868
"parent" means the parent who is the residential parent and legal 52869
custodian of the child. If the child is in the legal or permanent 52870
custody of a person or government agency, "parent" means that 52871
person or government agency. When a child is a resident of a home, 52872
as defined in section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, and the child's 52873
parent is not a resident of this state, "parent," "guardian," or 52874
"other person having charge or care of a child" means the head of 52875
the home.52876

       A child between six and eighteen years of age is "of 52877
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 52878
3321.13 of the Revised Code. A child under six years of age who 52879
has been enrolled in kindergarten also shall be considered "of 52880
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 52881
3321.13 of the Revised Code unless at any time the child's parent 52882
or guardian, at the parent's or guardian's discretion and in 52883
consultation with the child's teacher and principal, formally 52884
withdraws the child from kindergarten. The compulsory school age 52885
of a child shall not commence until the beginning of the term of 52886
such schools, or other time in the school year fixed by the rules 52887
of the board of the district in which the child resides.52888

       (2) No child shall be admitted to a kindergarten or a first 52889
grade of a public school in a district in which all children are 52890
admitted to kindergarten and the first grade in August or 52891
September unless the child is five or six years of age, 52892
respectively, by the thirtieth day of September of the year of 52893
admittance, or by the first day of a term or semester other than 52894
one beginning in August or September in school districts granting 52895
admittance at the beginning of such term or semester, unless the 52896
child has been recommended for early admittance in accordance with 52897
the district's acceleration policy adopted under section 3324.10 52898
of the Revised Code. A child who does not meet the age requirement 52899
for admittance to kindergarten or first grade shall be evaluated 52900
for early admittance upon referral by the child's parent or 52901
guardian, an educator employed by the district, a preschool 52902
educator who knows the child, or a pediatrician or psychologist 52903
who knows the child.52904

       (3) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, 52905
beginning with the school year that starts in 2001 and continuing 52906
thereafter the board of education of any district may adopt a 52907
resolution establishing the first day of August in lieu of the 52908
thirtieth day of September as the required date by which students 52909
must have attained the age specified in that division.52910

       (4) After a student has been admitted to kindergarten in a 52911
school district or chartered nonpublic school, no board of 52912
education of a school district to which the student transfers 52913
shall deny that student admission based on the student's age.52914

       (B) As used in division (C) of this section, "successfully 52915
completed kindergarten" means that the child has completed the 52916
kindergarten requirements at one of the following:52917

       (1) A public or chartered nonpublic school;52918

       (2) A kindergarten class that is both of the following:52919

       (a) Offered by a day-care provider licensed under Chapter 52920
5104. of the Revised Code;52921

       (b) If offered after July 1, 1991, is directly taught by a 52922
teacher who holds one of the following:52923

       (i) A valid educator license issued under section 3319.22 of 52924
the Revised Code;52925

       (ii) A Montessori preprimary credential or age-appropriate 52926
diploma granted by the American Montessori society or the 52927
association Montessori internationale;52928

       (iii) Certification determined under division (F) of this 52929
section to be equivalent to that described in division 52930
(B)(2)(b)(ii) of this section;52931

       (iv) Certification for teachers in nontax-supported schools 52932
pursuant to section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.52933

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, no 52934
school district shall admit to the first grade any child who has 52935
not successfully completed kindergarten.52936

       (D) The scheduling of times for kindergarten classes and 52937
length of the school day for kindergarten shall be determined by 52938
the board of education of a city, exempted village, or local 52939
school district.52940

       (E) Any kindergarten class offered by a day-care provider or 52941
school described by division (B)(1) or (B)(2)(a) of this section 52942
shall be developmentally appropriate.52943

       (F) Upon written request of a day-care provider described by 52944
division (B)(2)(a) of this section, the department of education 52945
shall determine whether certification held by a teacher employed 52946
by the provider meets the requirement of division (B)(2)(b)(iii) 52947
of this section and, if so, shall furnish the provider a statement 52948
to that effect.52949

        (G) As used in this division, "all-day kindergarten" has the 52950
same meaning as in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code.52951

       (1) AnyA school district that did not receive for fiscal 52952
year 2009 poverty-based assistance for all-day kindergarten under 52953
division (D) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code may charge 52954
fees or tuition for studentsa student enrolled in all-day 52955
kindergarten only so long as the student is reported as less than 52956
one full-time equivalent student under division (A) of section 52957
3317.03 of the Revised Code. If a district charges fees or tuition 52958
for all-day kindergarten under this division, the district shall 52959
develop a sliding fee scale based on family incomes.52960

       (2) The department of education shall conduct an annual 52961
survey of each school district described in division (G)(1) of 52962
this section to determine the following:52963

       (a) Whether the district charges fees or tuition for students 52964
enrolled in all-day kindergarten;52965

       (b) The amount of the fees or tuition charged;52966

       (c) How many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 52967
eligible for free lunches under the "National School Lunch Act," 52968
60 Stat. 230 (1946), 42 U.S.C. 1751, as amended, and the "Child 52969
Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1771, as amended, 52970
and how many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 52971
eligible for reduced price lunches under those acts;52972

       (d) How many students are enrolled in traditional half-day 52973
kindergarten rather than all-day kindergarten.52974

       Each district shall report to the department, in the manner 52975
prescribed by the department, the information described in 52976
divisions (G)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.52977

       The department shall issue an annual report on the results of 52978
the survey and shall post the report on its web site. The 52979
department shall issue the first report not later than April 30, 52980
2008, and shall issue a report not later than the thirtieth day of 52981
April each year thereafter.52982

       Sec. 3321.05.  (A) As used in this section, "all-day 52983
kindergarten" means a kindergarten class that is in session five 52984
days per week for not less than the same number of clock hours 52985
each dayweek as for students in grades one through six.52986

        (B) Any school district may operate all-day kindergarten or 52987
extended kindergarten, but no district shall require any student 52988
to attend kindergarten for more than the number of clock hours 52989
required each day for traditional kindergarten by the minimum 52990
standards adopted under division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 52991
Revised Code. Each school district that operates all-day or 52992
extended kindergarten shall accommodate kindergarten students 52993
whose parents or guardians elect to enroll them for the minimum 52994
number of hours.52995

       (C) A school district may use space in child day-care centers 52996
licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code to provide 52997
all-day kindergarten under this section.52998

       Sec. 3323.021.  As used in this section, "participating 52999
county DD board" means a county board of developmental 53000
disabilities electing to participate in the provision of or 53001
contracting for educational services for children under division 53002
(D) of section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.53003

       (A) When a school district, educational service center, or 53004
participating county DD board enters into an agreement or contract 53005
with another school district, educational service center, or 53006
participating county DD board to provide educational services to a 53007
disabled child during a school year, both of the following shall 53008
apply:53009

       (1) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the provider of the 53010
services intends to increase the amount it charges for some or all 53011
of those services during the next school year or if the provider 53012
intends to cease offering all or part of those services during the 53013
next school year, the provider shall notify the entity for which 53014
the services are provided of these intended changes no later than 53015
the first day of March of the current fiscal year.53016

       (2) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the entity for which 53017
services are provided intends to cease obtaining those services 53018
from the provider for the next school year or intends to change 53019
the type or amount of services it obtains from the provider for 53020
the next school year, the entity shall notify the service provider 53021
of these intended changes no later than the first day of March of 53022
the current fiscal year.53023

       (B) School districts, educational service centers, 53024
participating county DD boards, and other applicable governmental 53025
entities shall collaborate where possible to maximize federal 53026
sources of revenue to provide additional funds for special 53027
education related services for disabled children. Annually, each 53028
school district shall report to the department of education any 53029
amounts of moneysuch federal revenue the district received 53030
through such medical assistance program.53031

       (C) The state board of education, the department of 53032
developmental disabilities, and the department of job and family 53033
servicesmedicaid shall develop working agreements for pursuing 53034
additional funds for services for disabled children.53035

       Sec. 3323.03.  The state board of education shall, in 53036
consultation with the department of health, the department of 53037
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and the 53038
department of developmental disabilities, establish standards and 53039
procedures for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 53040
children with disabilities residing in the state, including 53041
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 53042
of the state and children with disabilities attending nonpublic 53043
schools, regardless of the severity of their disabilities, and who 53044
are in need of special education and related services. The state 53045
board shall develop and implement a practical method to determine 53046
which children with disabilities are currently receiving needed 53047
special education and related services.53048

       In conducting the evaluation, the board of education of each 53049
school district shall use a variety of assessment tools and 53050
strategies to gather relevant functional, developmental, and 53051
academic information about the child, including information 53052
provided by the child's parent. The board of education of each 53053
school district, in consultation with the county DD board, the 53054
county family and children first council, and the board of 53055
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of each county 53056
in which the school district has territory, shall identify, 53057
locate, and evaluate all children with disabilities residing 53058
within the district to determine which children with disabilities 53059
are not receiving appropriate special education and related 53060
services. In addition, the board of education of each school 53061
district, in consultation with such county boards or council, 53062
shall identify, locate, and evaluate all children with 53063
disabilities who are enrolled by their parents in nonpublic 53064
elementary and secondary schools located within the public school 53065
district, without regard to where those children reside in 53066
accordance with rules of the state board of education or 53067
guidelines of the superintendent of public instruction.53068

        Each county DD board, county family and children first 53069
council, and board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 53070
services and the board's or council's contract agencies may 53071
transmit to boards of education the names and addresses of 53072
children with disabilities who are not receiving appropriate 53073
special education and related services.53074

       Sec. 3323.04.  The state board of education, in consultation 53075
with the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 53076
services and the department of developmental disabilities, shall 53077
establish procedures and standards for the development of 53078
individualized education programs for children with disabilities.53079

       The state board shall require the board of education of each 53080
school district to develop an individualized education program for 53081
each child with a disability who is at least three years of age 53082
and less than twenty-two years of age residing in the district in 53083
a manner that is in accordance with rules of the state board.53084

       Prior to the placement of a child with a disability in a 53085
program operated under section 3323.09 of the Revised Code, the 53086
district board of education shall consult the county DD board of 53087
the county in which the child resides regarding the proposed 53088
placement.53089

       A child with a disability enrolled in a nonpublic school or 53090
facility shall be provided special education and related services, 53091
in accordance with an individualized education program, at no cost 53092
for those services, if the child is placed in, or referred to, 53093
that nonpublic school or facility by the department of education 53094
or a school district.53095

       The IEP team shall review the individualized education 53096
program of each child with a disability periodically, but at least 53097
annually, to determine whether the annual goals for the child are 53098
being achieved, and shall revise the individualized education 53099
program as appropriate.53100

       The state board shall establish procedures and standards to 53101
assure that to the maximum extent appropriate, children with 53102
disabilities, including children in public or private institutions 53103
or other care facilities, shall be educated with children who are 53104
not disabled. Special classes, separate schools, or other removal 53105
of children with disabilities from the regular educational 53106
environment shall be used only when the nature or severity of a 53107
child's disability is such that education in regular classes with 53108
supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily.53109

       If an agency directly affected by a placement decision 53110
objects to such decision, an impartial hearing officer, appointed 53111
by the department of education from a list prepared by the 53112
department, shall conduct a hearing to review the placement 53113
decision. The agencies that are parties to a hearing shall divide 53114
the costs of such hearing equally. The decision of the hearing 53115
officer shall be final, except that any party to the hearing who 53116
is aggrieved by the findings or the decision of the hearing 53117
officer may appeal the findings or decision in accordance with 53118
division (H) of section 3323.05 of the Revised Code or the parent 53119
of any child affected by such decision may present a complaint in 53120
accordance with that section.53121

       Sec. 3323.07.  The state board of education shall authorize 53122
the establishment and maintenance of special education and related 53123
services for all children with disabilities who are at least three 53124
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 53125
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 53126
from school, and may authorize special education and related 53127
services for children with disabilities who are less than three 53128
years of age in accordance with rules adopted by the state board. 53129
The state board shall require the boards of education of school 53130
districts, shall authorize the department of mental healthmental 53131
health and addiction services and the department of developmental 53132
disabilities, and may authorize any other educational agency, to 53133
establish and maintain such special education and related services 53134
in accordance with standards adopted by the state board.53135

       Sec. 3323.08.  (A) Each school district shall submit a plan 53136
to the superintendent of public instruction that provides 53137
assurances that the school district will provide for the education 53138
of children with disabilities within its jurisdiction and has in 53139
effect policies, procedures, and programs that are consistent with 53140
the policies and procedures adopted by the state board of 53141
education in accordance with section 612 of the "Individuals with 53142
Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004," 20 U.S.C. 1412, 53143
and that meet the conditions applicable to school districts under 53144
section 613 of that act, 20 U.S.C. 1413.53145

       Each district's plan shall do all of the following:53146

       (1) Provide, as specified in section 3323.11 of the Revised 53147
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 53148
board, for an organizational structure and necessary and qualified 53149
staffing and supervision for the identification of and provision 53150
of special education and related services for children with 53151
disabilities;53152

       (2) Provide, as specified by section 3323.03 of the Revised 53153
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 53154
board, for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 53155
children with disabilities residing in the district, including 53156
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 53157
of the state and children with disabilities attending private 53158
schools and who are in need of special education and related 53159
services. A practical method shall be developed and implemented to 53160
determine which children with disabilities are currently receiving 53161
needed special education and related services.53162

       (3) Provide, as specified by section 3323.07 of the Revised 53163
Code and standards established by the state board, for the 53164
establishment and maintenance of special education and related 53165
services for children with disabilities who are at least three 53166
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 53167
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 53168
from school.53169

       (4) Provide, as specified by section 3323.04 of the Revised 53170
Code and in accordance with standards adopted by the state board, 53171
for an individualized education program for each child with a 53172
disability who is at least three years of age and less than 53173
twenty-two years of age residing within the district;53174

       (5) Provide, as specified by section 3323.02 of the Revised 53175
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 53176
board, for special education and related services and a free 53177
appropriate public education for every child with a disability who 53178
is at least three years of age and less than twenty-two years of 53179
age, including children with disabilities who have been suspended 53180
or expelled from school;53181

       (6) Provide procedural safeguards and prior written notice as 53182
required under section 3323.05 of the Revised Code and the 53183
standards established by the state board;53184

       (7) Outline the steps that have been or are being taken to 53185
comply with standards established by the state board.53186

       (B)(1) A school district may arrange, by a cooperative 53187
agreement or contract with one or more school districts or with a 53188
cooperative education or joint vocational school district or an 53189
educational service center, to provide for the identification, 53190
location, and evaluation of children with disabilities, and to 53191
provide special education and related services for such children 53192
that meet the standards established by the state board. A school 53193
district may arrange, by a cooperative agreement or contract, for 53194
the provision of related services for children with disabilities 53195
that meet the standards established by the state board.53196

       (2) A school district shall arrange by interagency agreement 53197
with one or more school districts or with a cooperative education 53198
or joint vocational school district or an educational service 53199
center or other providers of early learning services to provide 53200
for the identification, location, evaluation of children with 53201
disabilities of ages birth through five years of age and for the 53202
transition of children with disabilities at age three in 53203
accordance with the standards established by the state board. A 53204
school district may arrange by interagency agreement with 53205
providers of early learning services to provide special education 53206
and related services for such children that meet the standards 53207
established by the state board.53208

       (3) If at the time an individualized education program is 53209
developed for a child a school district is not providing special 53210
education and related services required by that individualized 53211
education program, the school district may arrange by contract 53212
with a nonpublic entity for the provision of the special education 53213
and related services, provided the special education and related 53214
services meet the standards for special education and related 53215
services established by the state board and is provided within the 53216
state.53217

       (4) Any cooperative agreement or contract under division 53218
(B)(1) or (2) of this section involving a local school district 53219
shall be approved by the governing board of the educational 53220
service center which serves that district.53221

       (C) No plan of a local school district shall be submitted to 53222
the superintendent of public instruction until it has been 53223
approved by the superintendent of the educational service center 53224
which serves that district.53225

       (D) Upon approval of a school district's plan by the 53226
superintendent of public instruction, the district shall 53227
immediately certify students for state funds under section 3317.03 53228
of the Revised Code to implement and maintain such plan. The 53229
district also shall request approval of classroom units under 53230
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code for which the 53231
district has adequately identified preschool children with 53232
disabilities and shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by 53233
the state board, request approval of units under division (C) of 53234
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The district shall, in 53235
accordance with guidelines adopted by the state board, identify 53236
problems relating to the provision of qualified personnel and 53237
adequate facilities, and indicate the extent to which the cost of 53238
programs required under the plan will exceed anticipated state 53239
reimbursement. Each school district shall immediately implement 53240
the identification, location, and evaluation of children with 53241
disabilities in accordance with this chapter, and shall implement 53242
those parts of the plan involving placement and provision of 53243
special education and related services.53244

       Sec. 3323.09.  (A) As used in this section:53245

       (1) "Home" has the meaning given in section 3313.64 of the 53246
Revised Code.53247

       (2) "Preschool child" means a child who is at least age three 53248
but under age six on the thirtieth day of September of an academic 53249
year.53250

       (B) Each county DD board shall establish special education 53251
programs for all children with disabilities who in accordance with 53252
section 3323.04 of the Revised Code have been placed in special 53253
education programs operated by the county board and for preschool 53254
children who are developmentally delayed or at risk of being 53255
developmentally delayed. The board annually shall submit to the 53256
department of education a plan for the provision of these programs 53257
and, if applicable, a request for approval of units under section 53258
3317.05 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of public 53259
instruction shall review the plan and approve or modify it in 53260
accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education 53261
under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 53262
public instruction shall compile the plans submitted by county 53263
boards and shall submit a comprehensive plan to the state board.53264

       A county DD board may combine transportation for children 53265
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 or53266
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 with 53267
transportation for children and adults enrolled in programs and 53268
services offered by the board under Chapter 5126. of the Revised 53269
Code.53270

       (C) A county DD board that during the school year provided 53271
special education pursuant to this section for any child with 53272
mental disabilities under twenty-two years of age shall prepare 53273
and submit the following reports and statements:53274

       (1) The board shall prepare a statement for each child who at 53275
the time of receiving such special education was a resident of a 53276
home and was not in the legal or permanent custody of an Ohio 53277
resident or a government agency in this state, and whose natural 53278
or adoptive parents are not known to have been residents of this 53279
state subsequent to the child's birth. The statement shall contain 53280
the child's name, the name of the child's school district of 53281
residence, the name of the county board providing the special 53282
education, and the number of months, including any fraction of a 53283
month, it was provided. Not later than the thirtieth day of June, 53284
the board shall forward a certified copy of such statement to both 53285
the director of developmental disabilities and to the home.53286

       Within thirty days after its receipt of a statement, the home 53287
shall pay tuition to the county board computed in the manner 53288
prescribed by section 3323.141 of the Revised Code.53289

       (2) The board shall prepare a report for each school district 53290
that is the school district of residence of one or more of such 53291
children for whom statements are not required by division (C)(1) 53292
of this section. The report shall contain the name of the county 53293
board providing special education, the name of each child 53294
receiving special education, the number of months, including 53295
fractions of a month, that the child received it, and the name of 53296
the child's school district of residence. Not later than the 53297
thirtieth day of June, the board shall forward certified copies of 53298
each report to the school district named in the report, the 53299
superintendent of public instruction, and the director of 53300
developmental disabilities.53301

       Sec. 3323.091.  (A) The department of mental healthmental 53302
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 53303
disabilities, the department of youth services, and the department 53304
of rehabilitation and correction shall establish and maintain 53305
special education programs for children with disabilities in 53306
institutions under their jurisdiction according to standards 53307
adopted by the state board of education.53308

       (B) The superintendent of each state institution required to 53309
provide services under division (A) of this section, and each 53310
county DD board, providing special education for preschool 53311
children with disabilities under this chapter may apply to the 53312
state department of education for unit funding, which shall be 53313
paid in accordance with sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 53314
Revised Code.53315

        The superintendent of each state institution required to 53316
provide services under division (A) of this section may apply to 53317
the department of education for special education and related 53318
services weighted funding for children with disabilities other 53319
than preschool children with disabilities, calculated in 53320
accordance with section 3317.201 of the Revised Code.53321

       Each county DD board providing special education for children 53322
with disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 53323
may apply to the department of education for base cost and53324
opportunity funds, special education and related services weighted53325
funding, and targeted assistance funds calculated in accordance 53326
with section 3317.20 of the Revised Code.53327

       (C) In addition to the authorization to apply for state 53328
funding described in division (B) of this section, each state 53329
institution required to provide services under division (A) of 53330
this section is entitled to tuition payments calculated in the 53331
manner described in division (C) of this section.53332

       On or before the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 53333
superintendent of each institution that during the school year 53334
provided special education pursuant to this section shall prepare 53335
a statement for each child with a disability under twenty-two 53336
years of age who has received special education. The statement 53337
shall contain the child's data verification code assigned pursuant 53338
to division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code and 53339
the name of the child's school district of residence. Within sixty 53340
days after receipt of such statement, the department of education 53341
shall perform one of the following:53342

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 53343
described in division (C)(2) of this section, pay to the 53344
institution submitting the statement an amount equal to the 53345
tuition calculated under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the 53346
Revised Code for the period covered by the statement, and deduct 53347
the same from the amount of state funds, if any, payable under 53348
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, to the child's school district 53349
of residence or, if the amount of such state funds is 53350
insufficient, require the child's school district of residence to 53351
pay the institution submitting the statement an amount equal to 53352
the amount determined under this division.53353

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 53354
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 53355
Revised Code, perform the following:53356

       (a) Pay to the institution submitting the statement an amount 53357
equal to the tuition calculated under division (B) of section 53358
3317.08 of the Revised Code for the period covered by the 53359
statement, except that in calculating the tuition under that 53360
section the operating expenses of the institution submitting the 53361
statement under this section shall be used instead of the 53362
operating expenses of the school district of residence;53363

       (b) Deduct from the amount of state funds, if any, payable 53364
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to the child's school 53365
district of residence an amount equal to the amount paid under 53366
division (C)(2)(a) of this section.53367

       Sec. 3323.13. (A) If a child who is a school resident of one 53368
school district receives special education from another district, 53369
the board of education of the district providing the education, 53370
subject to division (C) of this section, may require the payment 53371
by the board of education of the district of residence of a sum 53372
not to exceed one of the following, as applicable:53373

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 53374
described in division (A)(2) of this section, the tuition of the 53375
district providing the education for a child of normal needs of 53376
the same school grade. The determination of the amount of such 53377
tuition shall be in the manner provided for by division (A) of 53378
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.53379

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 53380
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 53381
Revised Code, the tuition of the district providing the education 53382
for the child as calculated under division (B) of section 3317.08 53383
of the Revised Code, multiplied by 0.50.53384

       (B) The board of the district of residence may contract with 53385
the board of another district for the transportation of such child 53386
into any school in such other district, on terms agreed upon by 53387
such boards. Upon direction of the state board of education, the 53388
board of the district of residence shall pay for the child's 53389
transportation and the tuition.53390

       (C) The board of education of a district providing the 53391
education for a child shall be entitled to require payment from 53392
the district of residence under this section or section 3323.14 of 53393
the Revised Code only if the district providing the education has 53394
done at least one of the following:53395

        (1) Invited the district of residence to send representatives 53396
to attend the meetings of the team developing the child's 53397
individualized education program;53398

        (2) Received from the district of residence a copy of the 53399
individualized education program or a multifactored evaluation 53400
developed for the child by the district of residence;53401

        (3) Informed the district of residence in writing that the 53402
district is providing the education for the child.53403

        As used in division (C)(2) of this section, "multifactored 53404
evaluation" means an evaluation, conducted by a multidisciplinary 53405
team, of more than one area of the child's functioning so that no 53406
single procedure shall be the sole criterion for determining an 53407
appropriate educational program placement for the child.53408

       Sec. 3323.14. This section does not apply to any preschool 53409
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 53410
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.53411

       (A) Where a child who is a school resident of one school 53412
district receives special education from another district and the 53413
per capita cost to the educating district for that child exceeds 53414
the sum of the amount received by the educating district for that 53415
child under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code 53416
and the amount received by the district from the state board of 53417
education for that child, then the board of education of the 53418
district of residence shall pay to the board of the school 53419
district that is providing the special education such excess cost 53420
as is determined by using a formula approved by the department of 53421
education and agreed upon in contracts entered into by the boards 53422
of the districts concerned at the time the district providing such 53423
special education accepts the child for enrollment. The department 53424
shall certify the amount of the payments under Chapter 3317. of 53425
the Revised Code for such pupils with disabilities for each school 53426
year ending on the thirtieth day of July.53427

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 53428
section who has been placed in a home, as defined in section 53429
3313.64 of the Revised Code, pursuant to the order of a court and 53430
who is not subject to section 3323.141 of the Revised Code, the 53431
district providing the child with special education and related 53432
services may charge to the child's district of residence the 53433
excess cost determined by formula approved by the department, 53434
regardless of whether the district of residence has entered into a 53435
contract with the district providing the services. If the district 53436
providing the services chooses to charge excess costs, the 53437
district may report the amount calculated under this division to 53438
the department.53439

       (C) If a district providing special education for a child 53440
reports an amount for the excess cost of those services, as 53441
authorized and calculated under division (A) or (B) of this 53442
section, the department shall pay that amount of excess cost to 53443
the district providing the services and shall deduct that amount 53444
from the child's district of residence in accordance with division 53445
(K) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.53446

       Sec. 3323.141.  (A) When a child who is not in the legal or 53447
permanent custody of an Ohio resident or a government agency in 53448
this state and whose natural or adoptive parents are not known to 53449
have been residents of this state subsequent to the child's birth 53450
is a resident of a home as defined in section 3313.64 of the 53451
Revised Code and receives special education and related services 53452
from a school district or county MR/DDDD board, the home shall 53453
pay tuition to the board providing the special education.53454

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 53455
section who receives special education and related services from a 53456
school district, tuition shall be the amount determined under 53457
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.53458

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 53459
(B)(2) of this section the tuition shall be an amount equal to the 53460
sum of the following:53461

       (a) Tuition as determined in the manner provided for by 53462
division (B) of section 3317.081 of the Revised Code for the 53463
district that provides the special education;53464

       (b) Such excess cost as is determined by using a formula 53465
established by rule of the department of education. The excess 53466
cost computed in this section shall not be used as excess cost 53467
computed under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code.53468

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 53469
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 53470
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall be computed as 53471
follows:53472

       (a) Determine the amount of the tuition of the district 53473
providing the education for the child as calculated under division 53474
(B) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;53475

       (b) For each type of special education service included in 53476
the computation of the amount of tuition under division (B)(2)(a) 53477
of this section, divide the amount determined for that computation 53478
under division (B)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code by 53479
the total number of preschool children with disabilities used for 53480
that computation under division (B)(3) of section 3317.08 of the 53481
Revised Code;53482

       (c) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 53483
division (B)(2)(b) of this section;53484

       (d) Determine the sum of the amounts determined under 53485
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (c) of this section.53486

       (C) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 53487
section who receives special education and related services from a 53488
county MR/DDDD board, tuition shall be the amount determined 53489
under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section.53490

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 53491
(C)(2) of this section, the tuition shall be an amount equal to 53492
such board's per capita cost of providing special education and 53493
related services for children at least three but less than 53494
twenty-two years of age as determined by using a formula 53495
established by rule of the department of developmental 53496
disabilities.53497

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 53498
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 53499
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall equal the sum of 53500
the amounts of each such board's per capita cost of providing each 53501
of the special education or related service that the child 53502
receives. The calculation of tuition shall be made by using a 53503
formula established by rule of the department of developmental 53504
disabilities. The formula for the calculation of per capita costs 53505
under division (C)(2) of this section shall be based only on each 53506
such MR/DDDD board's cost of providing each type of special 53507
education or related service to preschool children with 53508
disabilities not included in a unit approved under division (B) of 53509
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.53510

       (D) If a home fails to pay the tuition required under this 53511
section, the board of education or county MR/DDDD board providing 53512
the education may recover in a civil action the tuition and the 53513
expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including court costs 53514
and reasonable attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or 53515
city director of law represents the board in such action, costs 53516
and reasonable attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon 53517
the time spent preparing and presenting the case by the 53518
prosecuting attorney, director, or a designee of either, shall be 53519
deposited in the county or city general fund.53520

       Sec. 3323.142. This section does not apply to any preschool 53521
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 53522
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.53523

       As used in this section, "per pupil amount" for a preschool 53524
child with a disability included in such an approved unit means 53525
the amount determined by dividing the amount received for the 53526
classroom unit in which the child has been placed by the number of 53527
children in the unit. For any other child, "per pupil amount" 53528
means the amount paid for the child under section 3317.20 of the 53529
Revised Code.53530

       When a school district places or has placed a child with a 53531
county DD board for special education, but another district is 53532
responsible for tuition under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 53533
Revised Code and the child is not a resident of the territory 53534
served by the county DD board, the board may charge the district 53535
responsible for tuition with the educational costs in excess of 53536
the per pupil amount received by the board under Chapter 3317. of 53537
the Revised Code. The amount of the excess cost shall be 53538
determined by the formula established by rule of the department of 53539
education under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, and the 53540
payment for such excess cost shall be made by the school district 53541
directly to the county DD board.53542

       A school district board of education and the county DD board 53543
that serves the school district may negotiate and contract, at or 53544
after the time of placement, for payments by the board of 53545
education to the county DD board for additional services provided 53546
to a child placed with the county DD board and whose 53547
individualized education program established pursuant to section 53548
3323.08 of the Revised Code requires additional services that are 53549
not routinely provided children in the county DD board's program 53550
but are necessary to maintain the child's enrollment and 53551
participation in the program. Additional services may include, but 53552
are not limited to, specialized supplies and equipment for the 53553
benefit of the child and instruction, training, or assistance 53554
provided by staff members other than staff members for which 53555
funding is received under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.53556

       Sec. 3326.11. Each science, technology, engineering, and 53557
mathematics school established under this chapter and its 53558
governing body shall comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 53559
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 2921.42, 2921.43, 53560
3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3313.14, 3313.15, 3313.16, 3313.18, 53561
3313.201, 3313.26, 3313.472, 3313.48, 3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.50, 53562
3313.536, 3313.539, 3313.608, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 53563
3313.6015, 3313.61, 3313.611, 3313.614, 3313.615, 3313.643, 53564
3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 3313.666, 53565
3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 3313.69, 3313.71, 53566
3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.801, 3313.814, 53567
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.88, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.21, 53568
3319.32, 3319.321, 3319.35, 3319.39, 3319.391, 3319.41, 3319.45, 53569
3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 3321.18, 3321.19, 53570
3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 5705.391 and Chapters 53571
102., 117., 1347., 2744., 3307., 3309., 3365., 3742., 4112., 53572
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 53573
district.53574

       Sec. 3326.112.  The governing body of each STEM school shall 53575
comply with the standards for financial reporting adopted under 53576
division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.53577

       Sec. 3326.20.  (A) As used in this section, "native student" 53578
means a student entitled to attend school in the school district 53579
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.53580

       (B) Unless either the proposal for the establishment of a 53581
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, as it 53582
was approved by the STEM committee under section 3326.03 of the 53583
Revised Code, otherwise provides for the transportation of 53584
students to and from the STEM school, or the parent of a native 53585
student or that student opts to receive the transportation subsidy 53586
prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, the board of 53587
education of each city, local, and exempted village school 53588
district shall provide transportation to and from school for its 53589
district's native students enrolled in the STEM school in the same 53590
manner that section 3327.01 of the Revised Code requires for its 53591
native students enrolled in nonpublic schools.53592

       Sec. 3326.31.  As used in sections 3326.31 to 3326.50 of the 53593
Revised Code:53594

       (A) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 53595
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 53596
described in that section.53597

       (B) "Applicable vocational education weight" means the 53598
multiple specified in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code for 53599
vocational education programs or classes described in that section53600
(1) "Category one career-technical education student" means a 53601
student who is receiving the career-technical education services 53602
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53603

       (2) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 53604
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53605
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53606

       (3) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 53607
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53608
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53609

       (4) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 53610
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53611
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53612

       (5) "Category five career-technical education student" means 53613
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 53614
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53615

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient student" 53616
means a limited English proficient student described in division 53617
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53618

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 53619
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 53620
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53621

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 53622
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 53623
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53624

       (C)(1) "Category one special education student" means a 53625
student who is receiving special education services for a 53626
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 53627
Revised Code.53628

       (2) "Category two special education student" means a student 53629
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53630
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53631

       (3) "Category three special education student" means a 53632
student who is receiving special education services for a 53633
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 53634
Revised Code.53635

       (4) "Category four special education student" means a student 53636
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53637
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53638

       (5) "Category five special education student" means a student 53639
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53640
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53641

       (6) "Category six special education student" means a student 53642
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53643
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53644

       (C)(D) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 53645
3317.02 of the Revised Code.53646

       (D)(E) "IEP" means an individualized education program as 53647
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.53648

       (E) A student is "included in the poverty student count of 53649
the student's resident district" if the student's family receives 53650
assistance under the Ohio works first program.53651

       (F) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 53652
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 53653
3313.65 of the Revised Code.53654

       (G) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 53655
5751.20 of the Revised Code.53656

       Sec. 3326.32.  Each science, technology, engineering, and 53657
mathematics school shall report to the department of education, in 53658
the form and manner required by the department, all of the 53659
following information:53660

       (A) The total number of students enrolled in the school;53661

       (B) The number of students who are receiving special 53662
education and related services pursuant to an IEP;53663

       (C) For each student reported under division (B) of this 53664
section, which category specified in divisions (A) to (F) of 53665
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code applies to the student;53666

       (D) The full-time equivalent number of students who are 53667
enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or 53668
classes described in each of divisions (A) and, (B), (C), (D), and 53669
(E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by 53670
the STEM school;53671

       (E) The number of students who are limited English proficient 53672
students and which category specified in divisions (A) to (C) of 53673
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code applies to each student;53674

       (F) The number of students reported under division (A) of 53675
this section who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 53676
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 53677
number reported under division (F) of this section based on 53678
anything other than family income.53679

       (G) The resident district of each student;53680

       (F)(H) Any additional information the department determines 53681
necessary to make payments under this chapter.53682

       Sec. 3326.33. Payments and deductions under this section for 53683
fiscal years 2012 and 2013 shall be made in accordance with 53684
section 3326.39 of the Revised Code.53685

       For each student enrolled in a science, technology, 53686
engineering, and mathematics school established under this 53687
chapter, on a full-time equivalency basis, the department of 53688
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 53689
student's resident school district and, if necessary, from the 53690
payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 53691
the Revised Code and pay to the school the sum of the following:53692

       (A) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 53693
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 53694
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.53695

       (B) If the student is receiving special education and related 53696
services pursuant to an IEP, the product of the applicable special 53697
education weight times the formula amount;53698

       (C) If the student is enrolled in vocational education 53699
programs or classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the 53700
Revised Code, are provided by the school, and are comparable as 53701
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 53702
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 53703
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 53704
the product of the applicable vocational education weight times 53705
the formula amount times the percentage of time the student spends 53706
in the vocational education programs or classes;53707

       (D) If the student is included in the poverty student count 53708
of the student's resident district, the per pupil amount of the 53709
district's payment under division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 53710
Revised Code;53711

       (E) If the student is identified as limited English 53712
proficient and the student's resident district receives a payment 53713
for services to limited English proficient students under division 53714
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, the per pupil amount 53715
of the district's payment under that division, calculated in the 53716
same manner as per pupil payments are calculated under division 53717
(C)(6) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code;53718

       (F) If the student's resident district receives a payment 53719
under division (G), (H), or (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 53720
Code, the per pupil amount of the district's payments under each 53721
division, calculated in the same manner as per pupil payments are 53722
calculated under divisions (C)(7) and (8) of section 3314.08 of 53723
the Revised Code;53724

       (G) If the student's resident district receives a parity aid 53725
payment under section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code, the per pupil 53726
amount calculated for the district under division (C) or (D) of 53727
that sectionAn opportunity grant in an amount equal to the 53728
formula amount;53729

       (B) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 53730
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 53731
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 53732
department, X 0.25;53733

       (C) Additional state aid for special education and related 53734
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 53735
follows:53736

       (1) If the student is a category one special education 53737
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53738
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53739

       (2) If the student is a category two special education 53740
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53741
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53742

       (3) If the student is a category three special education 53743
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53744
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53745

       (4) If the student is a category four special education 53746
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53747
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53748

       (5) If the student is a category five special education 53749
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53750
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53751

       (6) If the student is a category six special education 53752
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53753
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53754

       (D) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, 53755
$300, in fiscal year 2014, or $303, in fiscal year 2015;53756

       (E) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an amount 53757
equal to the following:53758

($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X (the
53759
resident district's economically disadvantaged index)
53760

       (F) Limited English proficiency funds, as follows:53761

       (1) If the student is a category one limited English 53762
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 53763
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53764

       (2) If the student is a category two limited English 53765
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 53766
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53767

       (3) If the student is a category three limited English 53768
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 53769
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53770

       (G) Career-technical education funds as follows:53771

       (1) If the student is a category one career-technical 53772
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53773
division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53774

       (2) If the student is a category two career-technical 53775
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53776
division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53777

       (3) If the student is a category three career-technical 53778
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53779
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53780

       (4) If the student is a category four career-technical 53781
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53782
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53783

       (5) If the student is a category five career-technical 53784
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53785
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53786

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (G) of this 53787
section is subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the 53788
Revised Code.53789

       Sec. 3326.34. If a science, technology, engineering, and 53790
mathematics school established under this chapter incurs costs for 53791
a fiscal year for a student receiving special education and 53792
related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in 53793
divisions (B) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that 53794
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student as 53795
specified in division (C)(3)(b)(B) of section 3317.0223317.021453796
of the Revised Code, the STEM school may submit to the 53797
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 53798
by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon 53799
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 53800
manner prescribed, the department of education shall pay to the 53801
school an amount equal to the school's costs for the student in 53802
excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.53803

       The school shall only report under this section, and the 53804
department shall only pay for, the costs of educational expenses 53805
and the related services provided to the student in accordance 53806
with the student's IEP. Any legal fees, court costs, or other 53807
costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student 53808
may not be included in the amount.53809

       Sec. 3326.38. A science, technology, engineering, and 53810
mathematics school may do allboth of the following:53811

       (A) Apply to the department of education for gifted unit 53812
funding;53813

       (B) Apply to any state or federal agency for grants that a 53814
school district or public school may receive under federal or 53815
state law or any appropriations act of the general assembly;53816

       (C)(B) Apply to any private entity or foundation for 53817
additional funds.53818

       Sec. 3326.45. (A) The governing body of a science, 53819
technology, engineering, and mathematics school may contract with 53820
the governing board of an educational service center or the board 53821
of education of a joint vocational school district for the 53822
provision of services to the STEM school or to any student 53823
enrolled in the school. Services provided under the contract and 53824
the amount to be paid for those services shall be mutually agreed 53825
to by the parties to the contract, and shall be specified in the 53826
contract.53827

       (B) A contract entered into under this section may require an 53828
educational service center to provide any one or a combination of 53829
the following services to a STEM school:53830

       (1) Supervisory teachers;53831

       (2) In-service and continuing education programs for 53832
personnel of the STEM school;53833

       (3) Curriculum services as provided to the client school 53834
districts of the service center;53835

       (4) Research and development programs;53836

       (5) Academic instruction for which the service center 53837
governing board employs teachers;53838

       (6) Assistance in the provision of special accommodations and 53839
classes for students with disabilities.53840

       Services described in division (B) of this section shall be 53841
provided to the STEM school in the same manner they are provided 53842
to client school districts of the service center, unless otherwise 53843
specified in the contract. The contract shall specify whether the 53844
service center will receive a per-pupil payment from the 53845
department of education for the provision of these services and, 53846
if so, the amount of the per-pupil payment, which shall not exceed 53847
the per-pupil amount paid to the service center under division (F) 53848
of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code for each student in the 53849
service center ADM.53850

       (C) For each contract entered into under this section, the 53851
department shall deduct the amount owed by the STEM school from 53852
the state funds due to the STEM school under this chapter and 53853
shall pay that amount to the educational service center or joint 53854
vocational school district that is party to the contract. In the 53855
case of a contract with an educational service center that 53856
specifies per-pupil payments for the provision of services 53857
described in division (B) of this section, the department also 53858
shall pay the service center the amount calculated under division 53859
(H) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.53860

       (D) No contract entered into under this section shall be 53861
valid unless a copy is filed with the department by the first day 53862
of the school year for which the contract is in effect.53863

       (E) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 53864
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 53865
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 53866
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 53867
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 53868
center.53869

       Sec. 3327.01.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 53870
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 53871
this section and sections 3327.011, 3327.012, and 3327.02 of the 53872
Revised Code do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative 53873
education school district.53874

       In(A) Except as provided in division (D) of this section or 53875
section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the Revised Code, in all city, 53876
local, and exempted village school districts where resident school 53877
pupils in grades kindergarten through eight live more than two 53878
miles from the school for which the state board of education 53879
prescribes minimum standards pursuant to division (D) of section 53880
3301.07 of the Revised Code and to which they are assigned by the 53881
board of education of the district of residence or to and from the 53882
nonpublic or community school which they attend, the board of 53883
education shall provide transportation for such pupils to and from 53884
suchthat school except as provided in section 3327.02 of the 53885
Revised Code.53886

       (B) In all city, local, and exempted village school districts 53887
where pupil transportation is required under a career-technical 53888
plan approved by the state board of education under section 53889
3313.90 of the Revised Code, for any student attending a 53890
career-technical program operated by another school district, 53891
including a joint vocational school district, as prescribed under 53892
that section, the board of education of the student's district of 53893
residence shall provide transportation from the public high school 53894
operated by that district to which the student is assigned to the 53895
career-technical program.53896

       In(C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section or 53897
section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the Revised Code, in all city, 53898
local, and exempted village school districts, the board may 53899
provide transportation for resident school pupils in grades nine 53900
through twelve to and from the high school to which they are 53901
assigned by the board of education of the district of residence or 53902
to and from the nonpublic or community high school which they 53903
attend for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 53904
standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 53905
Revised Code.53906

       (D)(1) A board of education shall not be required to 53907
transport elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic 53908
or community school where such transportation would require more 53909
than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured by school 53910
bus from the public school building to which the pupils would be 53911
assigned if attending the public school designated by the district 53912
of residence.53913

       Where it is impractical to transport a pupil by school 53914
conveyance, a board of education may offer payment, in lieu of 53915
providing such transportation in accordance with section 3327.02 53916
of the Revised Code.53917

       (2) A board of education shall not be required to transport 53918
elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic or 53919
community school on Saturday or Sunday, unless a board of 53920
education and a nonpublic or community school have an agreement in 53921
place to do so before the effective date of this amendment.53922

       (E) In all city, local, and exempted village school 53923
districts, the board shall provide transportation for all children 53924
who are so disabled that they are unable to walk to and from the 53925
school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 53926
standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 53927
Revised Code and which they attend. In case of dispute whether the 53928
child is able to walk to and from the school, the health 53929
commissioner shall be the judge of such ability. In all city, 53930
exempted village, and local school districts, the board shall 53931
provide transportation to and from school or special education 53932
classes for educable mentally retardeddisabled children in 53933
accordance with standards adopted by the state board of education.53934

       (F) When transportation of pupils is provided the conveyance 53935
shall be run on a time schedule that shall be adopted and put in 53936
force by the board not later than ten days after the beginning of 53937
the school term.53938

       The cost of any transportation service authorized by this 53939
section shall be paid first out of federal funds, if any, 53940
available for the purpose of pupil transportation, and secondly 53941
out of state appropriations, in accordance with regulations 53942
adopted by the state board of education.53943

       (G) No transportation of any pupils shall be provided by any 53944
board of education to or from any school which in the selection of 53945
pupils, faculty members, or employees, practices discrimination 53946
against any person on the grounds of race, color, religion, or 53947
national origin.53948

       (H) No transportation to or from school of pupils in grades 53949
kindergarten through five shall be provided by way of transit 53950
buses as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.53951

       Sec. 3327.02.  (A) As used in this section:53952

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 53953
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.53954

       (2) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 53955
the Revised Code.53956

       (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 53957
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 53958
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 53959
Code.53960

       (4) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 53961
of the Revised Code. 53962

       (5) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 53963
5751.20 of the Revised Code.53964

       (6) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 53965
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 53966
Revised Code.53967

       (B) Beginning July 1, 2014, the board of education of a city, 53968
exempted village, or local school district is not required to 53969
provide transportation to and from school for a student attending 53970
one of the district's schools or a community school, STEM school, 53971
or nonpublic school under division (A) or (C) of section 3327.01 53972
of the Revised Code, if the student's parent or the student, if at 53973
least eighteen years old and no guardian or custodian is currently 53974
appointed for the student, opts instead to receive the subsidy 53975
prescribed by division (D) of this section. The parent or student 53976
may exercise that option on an annual basis by submitting an 53977
application to the department of education and by notifying the 53978
district board in accordance with procedures and deadlines 53979
prescribed by the department. The department shall prescribe 53980
deadlines for that application and notice so that the district 53981
board has sufficient time to take the exercise of the parent's or 53982
student's option into account when planning its transportation 53983
routes and schedules for the succeeding school year. The 53984
department shall not accept an application that is submitted after 53985
the deadline. The department shall award a subsidy as long as the 53986
parent or student complies with the application and notice 53987
procedures. The award shall be for one school year at a time and 53988
may be renewed if the parent or student again submits an 53989
application to the department and notice to the district board in 53990
accordance with the prescribed procedures and deadlines. The 53991
parent or student shall use the subsidy to pay the cost of the 53992
student's transportation to and from school for the entire school 53993
year. 53994

       (C) The subsidy prescribed by this section is not available 53995
for any of the following:53996

       (1) A student attending a community school or nonpublic 53997
school that is more than thirty minutes of direct travel time, as 53998
measured by school bus, from the building of the student's 53999
resident school district to which the student would be assigned if 54000
attending school in the district, as provided in division (D) of 54001
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code;54002

       (2) A student attending a community school that either:54003

        (a) Has an agreement with the student's resident school 54004
district for the community school to transport students to that 54005
school under division (A) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code;54006

       (b) Accepts responsibility to transport students to the 54007
school under division (B) of that section.54008

       (3) A student who attends a school district other than the 54009
student's resident school district under an open enrollment policy 54010
adopted in accordance with section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;54011

       (4) A student who attends school in a school district under 54012
division (I) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code. 54013

       (D) The amount of the subsidy awarded for each student under 54014
this section shall equal the lesser of the following:54015

       (1) The statewide average cost of pupil transportation for 54016
the previous school year; 54017

       (2) The average cost of pupil transportation for the previous 54018
school year for the student's resident school district.54019

       The department shall pay that amount to the student's parent 54020
or the student, if at least eighteen years old and no guardian or 54021
custodian is currently appointed for the student, in quarterly 54022
periodic payments. 54023

       (E) The department shall deduct the amount of each subsidy 54024
awarded for a student under this section from the state education 54025
aid of the student's resident school district and, if necessary, 54026
from that district's payments under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 54027
the Revised Code. 54028

       The department shall include the student in the calculation 54029
of the district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 54030
of the Revised Code and the operating appropriations act. 54031

       (F) This section has no effect on a school district's 54032
responsibility to transport a student to and from a 54033
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 54034
3328. of the Revised Code. 54035

       (G) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 54036
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures necessary 54037
to implement this section.54038

       Sec. 3327.07. (A) The governing authority of a chartered 54039
nonpublic school that transports a student enrolled in the school 54040
to and from school may charge the parent or guardian of the 54041
student a fee for the transportation, if the governing authority 54042
purchased the vehicle that transports the student using no state 54043
or federal funds. The fee shall not exceed the per student cost of 54044
the transportation, as determined by the governing authority.54045

        (B) If the parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in 54046
a chartered nonpublic school opts to receive the subsidy 54047
prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, instead of 54048
transportation by a school district under section 3327.01 of the 54049
Revised Code, and the governing authority of the chartered 54050
nonpublic school transports the student to and from school in a 54051
vehicle that the governing authority purchased using no state or 54052
federal funds, the governing authority may charge the parent or 54053
guardian a fee for transportation.54054

        (C) The parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in a 54055
chartered nonpublic school and is eligible for transportation by a 54056
school district under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code may 54057
decline that transportation and accept transportation from the 54058
chartered nonpublic school. The governing authority of a chartered 54059
nonpublic school may charge a fee under division (A) of this 54060
section regardless of whether a student is eligible for 54061
transportation under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.54062

        (D) The offering by the governing authority of a chartered 54063
nonpublic school of transportation to and from the school does not 54064
relieve any school district board of education from any duty 54065
imposed by section 3327.01 of the Revised Code with respect to the 54066
chartered nonpublic school's students.54067

       Sec. 3328.27.  The board of trustees of each 54068
college-preparatory boarding school shall comply with the 54069
standards for financial reporting adopted under division (B)(2) of 54070
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.54071

       Sec. 3333.041.  (A) On or before the last day of December of 54072
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 54073
submit to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 54074
the Revised Code, the general assembly a report or reports 54075
concerning all of the following:54076

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at state 54077
institutions of higher education during the twelve-month period 54078
ending on the thirtieth day of September of the current calendar 54079
year. The report shall list, by school district, the number of 54080
graduates of each school district who attended a state institution 54081
of higher education and the percentage of each district's 54082
graduates enrolled in a state institution of higher education 54083
during the reporting period who were required during such period 54084
by the college or university, as a prerequisite to enrolling in 54085
those courses generally required for first-year students, to 54086
enroll in a remedial course in English, including composition or 54087
reading, mathematics, and any other area designated by the 54088
chancellor. The chancellor also shall make the information 54089
described in division (A)(1) of this section available to the 54090
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 54091
school district.54092

       Each state institution of higher education shall, by the 54093
first day of November of each year, submit to the chancellor in 54094
the form specified by the chancellor the information the 54095
chancellor requires to compile the report.54096

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 54097
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 54098
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 54099
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 54100
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 54101
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 54102
Code or the alternative student academic progress measure if 54103
adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 54104
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 54105
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 54106
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 54107
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 54108
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 54109
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 54110
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.54111

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 54112
tuition trust authority:54113

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 54114
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 54115
the chancellor contracts;54116

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 54117
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 54118
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 54119
with which the chancellor has contracted;54120

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 54121
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 54122
women's business enterprises.54123

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 54124
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 54125
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 54126
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 54127
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 54128
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 54129
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 54130
leave.54131

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 54132
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 54133
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 54134
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 54135
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.54136

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 54137
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 54138
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 54139
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 54140
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 54141
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 54142
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 54143
the chancellor's web site.54144

       (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 54145
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 54146
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:54147

       (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 54148
received an award in the previous fiscal year;54149

       (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 54150
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 54151
statewide economy;54152

       (c)(5) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio 54153
first scholarships, as established under section 3333.61 of the 54154
Revised Code, among state universities and colleges and how the 54155
actual awards fit that strategy.54156

       (8)(6) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 54157
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 54158
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 54159
following:54160

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 54161
received an award in the previous fiscal year;54162

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 54163
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 54164
statewide economy;54165

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 54166
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 54167
fit that strategy.54168

       (B) As used in this section:54169

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 54170
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.54171

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 54172
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 54173
Revised Code.54174

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 54175
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.54176

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 54177
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 54178
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 54179
United States citizens and residents of this state.54180

       Sec. 3333.049. No nonprofit institution that holds a 54181
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 54182
Revised Code shall be liable for a breach of confidentiality 54183
arising from the institution's submission of student data or 54184
records to the board of regents or any other state agency in 54185
compliance with any law, rule, or regulation, provided that the 54186
breach occurs as a result of one of the following:54187

        (A) An action by a third party during and after the 54188
transmission of the data or records by the institution but prior 54189
to receipt of the data or records by the board of regents or other 54190
state agency;54191

        (B) An action by the board of regents or the state agency.54192

        This provision shall apply to the submission of any student 54193
data or records that are subject to any laws of this state or, to 54194
the extent permitted, any federal law, including the "Family 54195
Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 571, 20 54196
U.S.C. 1232g. 54197

       Sec. 3333.124. There is hereby created in the state treasury 54198
the Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Not later 54199
than the first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of 54200
the Ohio board of regents shall certify to the director of budget 54201
and management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue 54202
fund appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year 54203
for purposes of the Ohio college opportunity grant program created 54204
in section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 54205
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 54206
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the Ohio 54207
college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Moneys in the Ohio 54208
college opportunity grant program reserve fund shall be used to 54209
pay grant obligations in excess of the general revenue fund 54210
appropriations made for that purpose.54211

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 54212
Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund to the general 54213
revenue fund.54214

       Sec. 3333.31.  (A) For state subsidy and tuition surcharge 54215
purposes, status as a resident of Ohio shall be defined by the 54216
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents by rule promulgated 54217
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. No adjudication as 54218
to the status of any person under such rule, however, shall be 54219
required to be made pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 54220
The term "resident" for these purposes shall not be equated with 54221
the definition of that term as it is employed elsewhere under the 54222
laws of this state and other states, and shall not carry with it 54223
any of the legal connotations appurtenant thereto. Rather, except 54224
as provided in divisions (B) and (D) of this section, for such 54225
purposes, the rule promulgated under this section shall have the 54226
objective of excluding from treatment as residents those who are 54227
present in the state primarily for the purpose of attending a 54228
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education, 54229
and may prescribe presumptive rules, rebuttable or conclusive, as 54230
to such purpose based upon the source or sources of support of the 54231
student, residence prior to first enrollment, evidence of 54232
intention to remain in the state after completion of studies, or 54233
such other factors as the chancellor deems relevant.54234

       (B) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 54235
residency shall grant residency status to a veteran and to the 54236
veteran's spouse and any dependent of the veteran, if both of the 54237
following conditions are met:54238

       (1) The veteran either:54239

       (a) Served one or more years on active military duty and was 54240
honorably discharged or received a medical discharge that was 54241
related to the military service;54242

       (b) Was killed while serving on active military duty or has 54243
been declared to be missing in action or a prisoner of war.54244

        (2) If the veteran seeks residency status for tuition 54245
surcharge purposes, the veteran has established domicile in this 54246
state as of the first day of a term of enrollment in an 54247
institution of higher education. If the spouse or a dependent of 54248
the veteran seeks residency status for tuition surcharge purposes, 54249
the veteran and the spouse or dependent seeking residency status 54250
have established domicile in this state as of the first day of a 54251
term of enrollment in an institution of higher education, except 54252
that if the veteran was killed while serving on active military 54253
duty, has been declared to be missing in action or a prisoner of 54254
war, or is deceased after discharge, only the spouse or dependent 54255
seeking residency status shall be required to have established 54256
domicile in accordance with this division.54257

        (C) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 54258
residency shall not deny residency status to a student who is 54259
either a dependent child of a parent, or the spouse of a person 54260
who, as of the first day of a term of enrollment in an institution 54261
of higher education, has accepted full-time employment and 54262
established domicile in this state for reasons other than gaining 54263
the benefit of favorable tuition rates.54264

       Documentation of full-time employment and domicile shall 54265
include both of the following documents:54266

       (1) A sworn statement from the employer or the employer's 54267
representative on the letterhead of the employer or the employer's 54268
representative certifying that the parent or spouse of the student 54269
is employed full-time in Ohio;54270

       (2) A copy of the lease under which the parent or spouse is 54271
the lessee and occupant of rented residential property in the 54272
state, a copy of the closing statement on residential real 54273
property of which the parent or spouse is the owner and occupant 54274
in this state or, if the parent or spouse is not the lessee or 54275
owner of the residence in which the parent or spouse has 54276
established domicile, a letter from the owner of the residence 54277
certifying that the parent or spouse resides at that residence.54278

Residency officers may also evaluate, in accordance with the 54279
chancellor's rule, requests for immediate residency status from 54280
dependent students whose parents are not living and whose domicile 54281
follows that of a legal guardian who has accepted full-time 54282
employment and established domicile in the state for reasons other 54283
than gaining the benefit of favorable tuition rates.54284

       (D)(1) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 54285
residency shall grant residency status to a person who, while a 54286
resident of this state for state subsidy and tuition surcharge 54287
purposes, graduated from a high school in this state or completed 54288
the final year of instruction at home as authorized under section 54289
3321.04 of the Revised Code, if the person enrolls in an 54290
institution of higher education and establishes domicile in this 54291
state, regardless of the student's residence prior to that 54292
enrollment.54293

       (2) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 54294
residency shall not grant residency status to an alien if the 54295
alien is not also an immigrant or a nonimmigrant.54296

       (E) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 54297
residency shall grant residency status to a student to whom a 54298
state institution of higher education issues a letter or utility 54299
bill for use as proof that the student is a qualified elector in 54300
this state.54301

        Nothing in division (E) of this section shall be used to 54302
grant residency to a student for any purpose other than for state 54303
subsidy and tuition surcharge purposes.54304

       (F) As used in this section:54305

       (1) "Dependent," "domicile," "institution of higher 54306
education," and "residency officer" have the meanings ascribed in 54307
the chancellor's rules adopted under this section.54308

       (2) "Alien" means a person who is not a United States citizen 54309
or a United States national.54310

       (3) "Immigrant" means an alien who has been granted the right 54311
by the United States bureau of citizenship and immigration 54312
services to reside permanently in the United States and to work 54313
without restrictions in the United States.54314

       (4) "Nonimmigrant" means an alien who has been granted the 54315
right by the United States bureau of citizenship and immigration 54316
services to reside temporarily in the United States.54317

       (5) "State institution of higher education" has the same 54318
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.54319

       Sec. 3333.342. (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 54320
regents may designate a "certificate of value" for a certificate 54321
program at any adult career-technical education institution or 54322
state institution of higher education, as defined under section 54323
3345.011 of the Revised Code, based on the standards adopted under 54324
division (B) of this section.54325

       (B) The chancellor shall develop standards for designation of 54326
the certificates of value for certificate programs at adult 54327
career-technical education institutions and state institutions of 54328
higher education. The standards shall include at least the 54329
following considerations:54330

       (1) The quality of the certificate program;54331

       (2) The ability to transfer agreed-upon technical courses 54332
completed through an adult career-technical education institution 54333
to a state institution of higher education without unnecessary 54334
duplication or institutional barriers;54335

       (3) The extent to which the certificate program encourages a 54336
student to obtain an associate's or bachelor's degree;54337

       (4) The extent to which the certificate program increases a 54338
student's likelihood to complete other certificate programs or an 54339
associate's or bachelor's degree;54340

       (5) The ability of the certificate program to meet the 54341
expectations of the workplace and higher education;54342

       (6) The extent to which the certificate program is aligned 54343
with the strengths of the regional economy;54344

       (7) The extent to which the certificate program increases the 54345
amount of individuals who remain in or enter the state's 54346
workforce;54347

       (8) The extent of a certificate program's relationship with 54348
private companies in the state to fill potential job growth. 54349

       (C) The designation of a certificate of value under this 54350
section shall expire six years after its designation date.54351

       (D) The chancellor may revoke a designation prior to its 54352
expiration date if the chancellor determines that the program no 54353
longer complies with the standards developed under division (B) of 54354
this section.54355

       (E) Any revocation of a certificate of value under this 54356
section shall become effective one hundred eighty days after the 54357
date the revocation was declared by the chancellor.54358

       (F) Any adult career-technical education institution or state 54359
institution of higher education that desires to be eligible to 54360
receive a designation of certificate of value for one or more of 54361
its certificate programs shall comply with all records and data 54362
requests required by the chancellor.54363

       Sec. 3333.90.        Sec. 3333.59.  (A) As used in this section:54364

       (1) "Allocated state share of instruction" means, for any 54365
fiscal year, the amount of the state share of instruction 54366
appropriated to the Ohio board of regents by the general assembly 54367
that is allocated to a community or technical college or community 54368
or technical college district for such fiscal year.54369

       (2) "Issuing authority" has the same meaning as in section 54370
154.01 of the Revised Code.54371

       (3) "Bond service charges" has the same meaning as in section 54372
154.01 of the Revised Code.54373

       (4) "Chancellor" means the chancellor of the Ohio board of 54374
regents.54375

       (5) "Community or technical college" or "college" means any 54376
of the following state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 54377
higher education:54378

       (a) A community college as defined in section 3354.01 of the 54379
Revised Code;54380

       (b) A technical college as defined in section 3357.01 of the 54381
Revised Code;54382

       (c) A state community college as defined in section 3358.01 54383
of the Revised Code.54384

       (6) "Community or technical college district" or "district" 54385
means any of the following institutions of higher education that 54386
are state-supported or state-assisted:54387

       (a) A community college district as defined in section 54388
3354.01 of the Revised Code;54389

       (b) A technical college district as defined in section 54390
3357.01 of the Revised Code;54391

       (c) A state community college district as defined in section 54392
3358.01 of the Revised Code. 54393

       (7) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 54394
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54395

       (8) "Obligations" has the meaning as in section 154.01 or 54396
3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.54397

       (B) The board of trustees of any community or technical 54398
college district authorizing the issuance of obligations under 54399
section 3354.12, 3354.121, 3357.11, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the 54400
Revised Code, or for whose benefit and on whose behalf the issuing 54401
authority proposes to issue obligations under section 154.25 of 54402
the Revised Code, may adopt a resolution requesting the chancellor 54403
to enter into an agreement with the community or technical college 54404
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for such 54405
obligations, providing for the withholding and deposit of funds 54406
otherwise due the district or the community or technical college 54407
it operates in respect of its allocated state share of 54408
instruction, for the payment of bond service charges on such 54409
obligations.54410

       The board of trustees shall deliver to the chancellor a copy 54411
of the resolution and any additional pertinent information the 54412
chancellor may require.54413

       The chancellor and the office of budget and management, and 54414
the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued by 54415
the issuing authority, shall evaluate each request received from a 54416
community or technical college district under this section. The 54417
chancellor, with the advice and consent of the director of budget 54418
and management and the issuing authority in the case of 54419
obligations to be issued by the issuing authority, shall approve 54420
each request if all of the following conditions are met:54421

       (1) Approval of the request will enhance the marketability of 54422
the obligations for which the request is made;54423

       (2) The chancellor and the office of budget and management, 54424
and the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued 54425
by the issuing authority, have no reason to believe the requesting 54426
community or technical college district or the community or 54427
technical college it operates will be unable to pay when due the 54428
bond service charges on the obligations for which the request is 54429
made, and bond service charges on those obligations are therefore 54430
not anticipated to be paid pursuant to this section from the 54431
allocated state share of instruction for purposes of Section 17 of 54432
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.54433

       (3) Any other pertinent conditions established in rules 54434
adopted under division (H) of this section.54435

       (C) If the chancellor approves the request of a community or 54436
technical college district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant 54437
to this section, the chancellor shall enter into a written 54438
agreement with the district and the primary paying agent or fiscal 54439
agent for the obligations, which agreement shall provide for the 54440
withholding of funds pursuant to this section for the payment of 54441
bond service charges on those obligations. The agreement may also 54442
include both of the following:54443

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 54444
chancellor, prior to the deadline for payment of the applicable 54445
bond service charges, whether the district and the community or 54446
technical college it operates are able to pay those bond service 54447
charges when due;54448

       (2) Requirements that the district or the community or 54449
technical college it operates deposits amounts for the payment of 54450
those bond service charges with the primary paying agent or fiscal 54451
agent for the obligations prior to the date on which the bond 54452
service charges are due to the owners or holders of the 54453
obligations.54454

       (D) Whenever a district or the community or technical college 54455
it operates notifies the chancellor that it will not be able to 54456
pay the bond service charges when they are due, subject to the 54457
withholding provisions of this section, or whenever the applicable 54458
paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the chancellor that it has 54459
not timely received from a district or from the college it 54460
operates the full amount needed for payment of the bond service 54461
charges when due to the holders or owners of such obligations, the 54462
chancellor shall immediately contact the district or college and 54463
the paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm that the district and 54464
the college are not able to make the required payment by the date 54465
on which it is due.54466

       If the chancellor confirms that the district and the college 54467
are not able to make the payment and the payment will not be made 54468
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the chancellor shall 54469
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 54470
agent the lesser of the amount due for bond service charges or the 54471
amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled to be made to 54472
the district or to the college in respect of its allocated state 54473
share of instruction. If this amount is insufficient to pay the 54474
total amount then due the agent for the payment of bond service 54475
charges, the chancellor shall continue to pay to the agent from 54476
each periodic distribution thereafter, and until the full amount 54477
due the agent for unpaid bond service charges is paid in full, the 54478
lesser of the remaining amount due the agent for bond service 54479
charges or the amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled 54480
to be made to the district or college in respect of its allocated 54481
state share of instruction.54482

       (E) The chancellor may make any payments under this section 54483
by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.54484

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 54485
this section shall be applied only to the payment of bond service 54486
charges on the obligations of the community or technical college 54487
district or community or technical college subject to this section 54488
or to the reimbursement of the provider of a credit enhancement 54489
facility that has paid the bond service charges.54490

       (F) The chancellor may make payments under this section to 54491
paying agents or fiscal agents during any fiscal biennium of the 54492
state only from and to the extent that money is appropriated to 54493
the board of regents by the general assembly for distribution 54494
during such biennium for the state share of instruction and only 54495
to the extent that a portion of the state share of instruction has 54496
been allocated to the community or technical college district or 54497
community or technical college. Obligations of the issuing 54498
authority or of a community or technical college district to which 54499
this section is made applicable do not constitute an obligation or 54500
a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing power of the 54501
state, and the holders or owners of those obligations have no 54502
right to have excises or taxes levied or appropriations made by 54503
the general assembly for the payment of bond service charges on 54504
the obligations, and the obligations shall contain a statement to 54505
that effect. The agreement for or the actual withholding and 54506
payment of money under this section does not constitute the 54507
assumption by the state of any debt of a community or technical 54508
college district or a community or technical college, and bond 54509
service charges on the related obligations are not anticipated to 54510
be paid from the state general revenue fund for purposes of 54511
Section 17 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.54512

       (G) In the case of obligations subject to the withholding 54513
provisions of this section, the issuing community or technical 54514
college district, or the issuing authority in the case of 54515
obligations issued by the issuing authority, shall appoint a 54516
paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or employee of 54517
the district or college.54518

       (H) The chancellor, with the advice and consent of the office 54519
of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 54520
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 54521
section to secure payment of bond service charges on obligations 54522
issued by a community or technical college district or by the 54523
issuing authority for the benefit of a community or technical 54524
college district or the community or technical college it 54525
operates. Those rules shall include criteria for the evaluation 54526
and approval or denial of community or technical college district 54527
requests for withholding under this section.54528

       (I) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 54529
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 54530
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.54531

       Sec. 3333.613. There is hereby created in the state treasury 54532
the choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the 54533
first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio 54534
board of regents shall certify to the director of budget and 54535
management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 54536
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 54537
purposes of the choose Ohio first scholarship program created in 54538
section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 54539
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 54540
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the choose 54541
Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Moneys in the choose Ohio 54542
first scholarship reserve fund shall be used to pay scholarship 54543
obligations in excess of the general revenue fund appropriations 54544
made for that purpose.54545

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 54546
choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue 54547
fund.54548

       Sec. 3333.82.  (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 54549
regents shall establish a clearinghouse of interactive distance 54550
learning courses and other distance learning courses delivered via 54551
a computer-based method offered by school districts, community 54552
schools, STEM schools, state institutions of higher education, 54553
private colleges and universities, and other nonprofit and 54554
for-profit course providers for sharing with other school 54555
districts, community schools, STEM schools, state institutions of 54556
higher education, private colleges and universities, and 54557
individuals for the fee set pursuant to section 3333.84 of the 54558
Revised Code. The chancellor shall not be responsible for the 54559
content of courses offered through the clearinghouse; however, all 54560
such courses shall be delivered only in accordance with technical 54561
specifications approved by the chancellor and on a common 54562
statewide platform administered by the chancellor.54563

       The clearinghouse's distance learning program for students in 54564
grades kindergarten to twelve shall be based on the following 54565
principles:54566

       (1) All Ohio students shall have access to high quality 54567
distance learning courses at any point in their educational 54568
careers.54569

       (2) All students shall be able to customize their education 54570
using distance learning courses offered through the clearinghouse 54571
and no student shall be denied access to any course in the 54572
clearinghouse in which the student is eligible to enroll.54573

       (3) Students may take distance learning courses for all or 54574
any portion of their curriculum requirements and may utilize a 54575
combination of distance learning courses and courses taught in a 54576
traditional classroom setting.54577

       (4) Students may earn an unlimited number of academic credits 54578
through distance learning courses.54579

       (5) Students may take distance learning courses at any time 54580
of the calendar year.54581

       (6) Student advancement to higher coursework shall be based 54582
on a demonstration of subject area competency instead of 54583
completion of any particular number of hours of instruction.54584

       (B) To offer a course through the clearinghouse, a course 54585
provider shall apply to the chancellor in a form and manner 54586
prescribed by the chancellor. The application for each course 54587
shall describe the course of study in as much detail as required 54588
by the chancellor, whether an instructor is provided, the 54589
qualification and credentials of the instructor, the number of 54590
hours of instruction, and any other information required by the 54591
chancellor. The chancellor may require course providers to include 54592
in their applications information recommended by the state board 54593
of education under former section 3353.30 of the Revised Code.54594

       (C) The chancellor shall review the technical specifications 54595
of each application submitted under division (B) of this section. 54596
In reviewing applications, the chancellor may consult with the 54597
department of education; however, the responsibility to either 54598
approve or not approve a course for the clearinghouse belongs to 54599
the chancellor. The chancellor may request additional information 54600
from a course provider that submits an application under division 54601
(B) of this section, if the chancellor determines that such 54602
information is necessary. The chancellor may negotiate changes in 54603
the proposal to offer a course, if the chancellor determines that 54604
changes are necessary in order to approve the course.54605

       (D) The chancellor shall catalog each course approved for the 54606
clearinghouse, through a print or electronic medium, displaying 54607
the following:54608

       (1) Information necessary for a student and the student's 54609
parent, guardian, or custodian and the student's school district, 54610
community school, STEM school, college, or university to decide 54611
whether to enroll in or subscribe to the course;54612

       (2) Instructions for enrolling in that course, including 54613
deadlines for enrollment.54614

       (E) Any expenses related to the installation of a course into 54615
the common statewide platform shall be borne by the course 54616
provider. 54617

       (F) The eTech Ohio commission, in consultation with the 54618
chancellor and the state board, shall distribute information to 54619
students and parents describing the clearinghouse. The information 54620
shall be provided in an easily understandable formatThe 54621
chancellor may contract with an entity to perform any or all of 54622
the chancellor's duties under sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the 54623
Revised Code.54624

       Sec. 3335.35.  There is hereby created the "Ohio cooperative54625
OSU extension service fund," which shall be under the custody and 54626
control of the board of trustees of the Ohio state university and 54627
shall consist of all moneys appropriated, given, granted, or 54628
bequeathed to the university for the use of the Ohio cooperative54629
OSU extension service by the United States, this state, any 54630
political subdivision of this state, or any person. The board 54631
shall have responsibility for expenditure of all moneys in the 54632
fund in accordance with state and federal law and memoranda of 54633
agreement between the university and the United States department 54634
of agriculture.54635

       Sec. 3335.36.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 54636
university may employ such employees as it considers appropriate 54637
for the conduct of educational programs of the Ohio cooperative54638
OSU extension service and may provide for the payment from the 54639
Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund created by section 54640
3335.35 of the Revised Code of reasonable compensation to such 54641
employees and of reasonable expenses incurred by them in the 54642
discharge of their duties, including expenses of travel and of 54643
maintaining, equipping, and supplying their offices.54644

       The employees shall cooperate with the department of 54645
agriculture, the Ohio agricultural research and development 54646
center, the department of education, and the United States 54647
department of agriculture, for the purpose of making available the 54648
educational materials of theOSU extension service. SuchThe54649
employees shall represent the university and shall conduct 54650
educational activities related to agriculture, natural resources,54651
home economicscommunity development, family livingand consumer 54652
sciences, and 4-H programs for the citizens of this state through 54653
personal instruction, bulletins, practical demonstrations, mass 54654
media, and otherwise, subject to such rules as may be prescribed 54655
by the board of trustees of the university. SuchThe employees 54656
shall have offices provided by the county or other political 54657
subdivision in which they serve in which bulletins and other 54658
educational materials of value to the people may be consulted and 54659
through which the employees may be reached.54660

       The board of trustees of the Ohio state university may hire 54661
or use employees of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to 54662
carry out the functions and duties of a director of economic 54663
development under division (B) of section 307.07 of the Revised 54664
Code pursuant to any agreement with a county under division (A)(2) 54665
of section 307.07 of the Revised Code.54666

       Sec. 3335.37.  The board of county commissioners of any 54667
county may levy a tax, within the limitations prescribed by law, 54668
and appropriate money from the proceeds thereof or from the 54669
general fund of the county to be paid to the Ohio state university 54670
to the credit of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 54671
created by section 3335.35 of the Revised Code and expended for 54672
the purposes prescribed in section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for 54673
the benefit of the citizens of suchthat county. Any money paid 54674
into the fund under this section that aggregates more than ten per 54675
cent of the county appropriation in the preceding year and that 54676
remains unexpended for two years from the time of suchthe payment 54677
shall be returned to the county from which it came unless the 54678
board of county commissioners determines by resolution to 54679
contribute it to the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service for 54680
general purposes.54681

       Sec. 3335.38.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 54682
university shall establish a farm financial management institute 54683
in the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to train interested 54684
and qualified persons to assist farmers needing help with farm 54685
financial management problems.54686

       Participation shall be open to all interested persons, but 54687
the following persons shall be given priority as to enrollment: 54688
employees or representatives of banks and other farm credit 54689
agencies, agricultural teachers, and faculty and employees of the 54690
Ohio state university and the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension 54691
service who agree to assist Ohio farmers in completing and 54692
understanding the coordinated financial statement and other 54693
subjects. A fee may be charged participants, as determined by the54694
OSU extension service, but may be waived for those participants 54695
granted priority status at enrollment.54696

       Sec. 3345.05.  (A) All registration fees, nonresident tuition 54697
fees, academic fees for the support of off-campus instruction, 54698
laboratory and course fees when so assessed and collected, student 54699
health fees for the support of a student health service, all other 54700
fees, deposits, charges, receipts, and income from all or part of 54701
the students, all subsidy or other payments from state 54702
appropriations, and all other fees, deposits, charges, receipts, 54703
income, and revenue received by each state institution of higher 54704
education, the Ohio state university hospitals and their ancillary 54705
facilities, the Ohio agricultural research and development center, 54706
and the Ohio state university cooperativeOSU extension service54707
shall be held and administered by the respective boards of 54708
trustees of the state institution of higher education; provided, 54709
that such fees, deposits, charges, receipts, income and revenue, 54710
to the extent required by resolutions, trust agreements, 54711
indentures, leases, and agreements adopted, made, or entered into 54712
under Chapter 154. or section 3345.07, 3345.11, or 3345.12 of the 54713
Revised Code, shall be held, administered, transferred, and 54714
applied in accordance therewith.54715

       (B) The Ohio board of regents shall require annual reporting 54716
by the Ohio agricultural research and development center and by 54717
each university and college receiving state aid in such form and 54718
detail as determined by the board in consultation with such 54719
center, universities and colleges, and the director of budget and 54720
management.54721

       (C) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 54722
contrary, the title to investments made by the board of trustees 54723
of a state institution of higher education with funds derived from 54724
any of the sources described in division (A) of this section shall 54725
not be vested in the state or the political subdivision but shall 54726
be held in trust by the board. Such investments shall be made 54727
pursuant to an investment policy adopted by the board in public 54728
session that requires all fiduciaries to discharge their duties 54729
with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the 54730
circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in like 54731
capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct 54732
of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims. The 54733
policy also shall require at least the following:54734

       (1) A stipulation that investment of at least twenty-five per 54735
cent of the average amount of the investment portfolio over the 54736
course of the previous fiscal year be invested in securities of 54737
the United States government or of its agencies or 54738
instrumentalities, the treasurer of state's pooled investment 54739
program, obligations of this state or any political subdivision of 54740
this state, certificates of deposit of any national bank located 54741
in this state, written repurchase agreements with any eligible 54742
Ohio financial institution that is a member of the federal reserve 54743
system or federal home loan bank, money market funds, or bankers 54744
acceptances maturing in two hundred seventy days or less which are 54745
eligible for purchase by the federal reserve system, as a reserve;54746

       (2) Eligible funds above those that meet the conditions of 54747
division (C)(1) of this section may be pooled with other 54748
institutional funds and invested in accordance with section 54749
1715.52 of the Revised Code.54750

        (3) The establishment of an investment committee.54751

       (D) The investment committee established under division 54752
(C)(3) of this section shall meet at least quarterly. The 54753
committee shall review and recommend revisions to the board's 54754
investment policy and shall advise the board on its investments 54755
made under division (C) of this section in an effort to assist it 54756
in meeting its obligations as a fiduciary as described in division 54757
(C) of this section. The committee shall be authorized to retain 54758
the services of an investment advisor who meets both of the 54759
following qualifications:54760

       (1) The advisor is either:54761

       (a) Licensed by the division of securities under section 54762
1707.141 of the Revised Code;54763

       (b) Registered with the securities and exchange commission.54764

       (2) The advisor either:54765

       (a) Has experience in the management of investments of public 54766
funds, especially in the investment of state-government investment 54767
portfolios;54768

       (b) Is an eligible institution referenced in section 135.03 54769
of the Revised Code.54770

       (E) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 54771
education" means a state institution of higher education as 54772
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.54773

       Sec. 3345.06.  (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this 54774
section, a graduate of the twelfth grade shall be entitled to 54775
admission without examination to any college or university which 54776
is supported wholly or in part by the state, but for unconditional 54777
admission may be required to complete such units not included in 54778
the graduate's high school course as may be prescribed, not less 54779
than two years prior to the graduate's entrance, by the faculty of 54780
the institution.54781

       (B) Beginning with the 2014-2015 academic year, each state 54782
university listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, except 54783
for Central state university, Shawnee state university, and 54784
Youngstown state university, shall permit a resident of this state 54785
who entered ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 54786
2010, to begin undergraduate coursework at the university only if 54787
the person has successfully completed the Ohio core curriculum for 54788
high school graduation prescribed in division (C) of section 54789
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless one of the following applies:54790

       (1) The person has earned at least ten semester hours, or the 54791
equivalent, at a community college, state community college, 54792
university branch, technical college, or another post-secondary 54793
institution except a state university to which division (B) of 54794
this section applies, in courses that are college-credit-bearing 54795
and may be applied toward the requirements for a degree. The 54796
university shall grant credit for successful completion of those 54797
courses pursuant to any applicable articulation and transfer 54798
policy of the Ohio board of regents or any agreements the 54799
university has entered into in accordance with policies and 54800
procedures adopted under section 3333.16, 3313.161, or 3333.162 of 54801
the Revised Code. The university may count college credit that the 54802
student earned while in high school through the post-secondary 54803
enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 54804
Code, or through other dual enrollment programs, toward the 54805
requirements of division (B)(1) of this section if the credit may 54806
be applied toward a degree.54807

       (2) The person qualified to graduate from high school under 54808
division (D) or (F) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code and 54809
has successfully completed the topics or courses that the person 54810
lacked to graduate under division (C) of that section at any 54811
post-secondary institution or at a summer program at the state 54812
university. A state university may admit a person for enrollment 54813
contingent upon completion of such topics or courses or summer 54814
program.54815

       (3) The person met the high school graduation requirements by 54816
successfully completing the person's individualized education 54817
program developed under section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.54818

       (3)(4) The person is receiving or has completed the final 54819
year of instruction at home as authorized under section 3321.04 of 54820
the Revised Code, or has graduated from a nonchartered, nonpublic 54821
school in Ohio, and demonstrates mastery of the academic content 54822
and skills in reading, writing, and mathematics needed to 54823
successfully complete introductory level coursework at an 54824
institution of higher education and to avoid remedial coursework.54825

       (4)(5) The person is a high school student participating in 54826
the post-secondary enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. 54827
of the Revised Code or another dual enrollment program.54828

       (C) A state university subject to division (B) of this 54829
section may delay admission for or admit conditionally an 54830
undergraduate student who has successfully completed the Ohio core 54831
curriculum if the university determines the student requires 54832
academic remedial or developmental coursework. The university may 54833
delay admission pending, or make admission conditional upon, the 54834
student's successful completion of the academic remedial or 54835
developmental coursework at a university branch, community 54836
college, state community college, or technical college.54837

       (D) This section does not deny the right of a college of law, 54838
medicine, or other specialized education to require college 54839
training for admission, or the right of a department of music or 54840
other art to require particular preliminary training or talent.54841

       Sec. 3345.12.  (A) As used in this section and sections 54842
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 54843
Revised Code that make reference to this section unless the 54844
context does not permit, and in related bond proceedings unless 54845
otherwise expressly provided:54846

       (1) "State university or college" means each of the state 54847
universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code 54848
and the northeast Ohio medical university, and includes its board 54849
of trustees.54850

       (2) "Institution of higher education" or "institution" means 54851
a state university or college, or a community college district, 54852
technical college district, university branch district, or state 54853
community college, and includes the applicable board of trustees 54854
or, in the case of a university branch district, any other 54855
managing authority.54856

       (3) "Housing and dining facilities" means buildings, 54857
structures, and other improvements, and equipment, real estate, 54858
and interests in real estate therefor, to be used for or in 54859
connection with dormitories or other living quarters and 54860
accommodations, or related dining halls or other food service and 54861
preparation facilities, for students, members of the faculty, 54862
officers, or employees of the institution of higher education, and 54863
their spouses and families.54864

       (4) "Auxiliary facilities" means buildings, structures, and 54865
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 54866
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with student 54867
activity or student service facilities, housing and dining 54868
facilities, dining halls, and other food service and preparation 54869
facilities, vehicular parking facilities, bookstores, athletic and 54870
recreational facilities, faculty centers, auditoriums, assembly 54871
and exhibition halls, hospitals, infirmaries and other medical and 54872
health facilities, research, and continuing education facilities.54873

       (5) "Education facilities" means buildings, structures, and 54874
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 54875
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with, 54876
classrooms or other instructional facilities, libraries, 54877
administrative and office facilities, and other facilities, other 54878
than auxiliary facilities, to be used directly or indirectly for 54879
or in connection with the conduct of the institution of higher 54880
education.54881

       (6) "Facilities" means housing and dining facilities, 54882
auxiliary facilities, or education facilities, and includes any 54883
one, part of, or any combination of such facilities, and further 54884
includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and 54885
any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 54886
sites, open space and green space areas, utilities or equipment to 54887
be used in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, 54888
or supplementing or otherwise related to the services or 54889
facilities to be provided by, such facilities.54890

       (7) "Obligations" means bonds or notes or other evidences of 54891
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 54892
authorized to be issued under this section or section 3345.07, 54893
3345.11, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 54894
Code.54895

       (8) "Bond service charges" means principal, including any 54896
mandatory sinking fund or redemption requirements for the 54897
retirement of obligations or assurances, interest, or interest 54898
equivalent and other accreted amounts, and any call premium 54899
required to be paid on obligations or assurances.54900

       (9) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, trust 54901
agreement, indenture, and other agreements and credit enhancement 54902
facilities, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or 54903
any one or more or combination thereof, authorizing, awarding, or 54904
providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing 54905
for the security or liquidity of, obligations or assurances, and 54906
the provisions contained in those obligations or assurances.54907

       (10) "Costs of facilities" means the costs of acquiring, 54908
constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, 54909
renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or furnishing 54910
facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost of 54911
clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be used 54912
in connection with facilities, the cost of any indemnity and 54913
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct 54914
administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct costs of 54915
the institution of higher education or state agency, cost of 54916
engineering, architectural services, design, plans, specifications 54917
and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of 54918
trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and paying agents for the 54919
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 54920
costs and fees and expenses of financial advisers and consultants 54921
in connection therewith, interest on the obligations from the date 54922
thereof to the time when interest is to be covered by available 54923
receipts or other sources other than proceeds of the obligations, 54924
amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 54925
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 54926
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the institution or others, 54927
from whatever source provided, including any temporary advances 54928
from state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of 54929
cost of facilities, and all other expenses necessary or incident 54930
to planning or determining feasibility or practicability with 54931
respect to facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 54932
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 54933
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 54934
equipment, and furnishing of facilities, the financing thereof and 54935
the placing of them in use and operation, including any one, part 54936
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.54937

       (11) "Available receipts" means all moneys received by the 54938
institution of higher education, including income, revenues, and 54939
receipts from the operation, ownership, or control of facilities 54940
or entrepreneurial projects, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges 54941
and receipts therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, and the 54942
proceeds of the sale of obligations or assurances, including 54943
proceeds of obligations or assurances issued to refund obligations 54944
or assurances previously issued, but excluding any special fee, 54945
and receipts therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of 54946
section 154.21 of the Revised Code.54947

       (12) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the meaning given in 54948
division (H) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54949

       (13) "Financing costs" has the meaning given in division (K) 54950
of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54951

       (14) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" has the meaning 54952
given in division (R) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54953

       (15) "Assurances" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 54954
indebtedness, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 54955
authorized to be issued under section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.54956

       (16) "Entrepreneurial project" has the same meaning as in 54957
section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.54958

        (17) "Costs of entrepreneurial projects" means any costs 54959
related to the establishment or development of entrepreneurial 54960
projects pursuant to a resolution adopted under section 3345.36 of 54961
the Revised Code.54962

       (B) Obligations issued under section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of 54963
the Revised Code by a state university or college shall be 54964
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees. Obligations 54965
issued by any other institution of higher education shall be 54966
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees, or managing 54967
directors in the case of certain university branch districts, as 54968
applicable. Sections 9.96 and 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code 54969
apply to obligations and assurances. Obligations and assurances 54970
may be issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 54971
projects even if the institution anticipates the possibility of a 54972
future state appropriation to pay all or a portion of such costs.54973

       (C) Obligations and assurances shall be secured by a pledge 54974
of and lien on all or such part of the available receipts of the 54975
institution of higher education as it provides for in the bond 54976
proceedings, excluding moneys raised by taxation and state 54977
appropriations except as permitted by section 3333.903333.59 of 54978
the Revised Code. Such pledge and lien may be made prior to all 54979
other expenses, claims, or payments, excepting any pledge of such 54980
available receipts previously made to the contrary and except as 54981
provided by any existing restrictions on the use thereof, or such 54982
pledge and lien may be made subordinate to such other expenses, 54983
claims, or payments, as provided in the bond proceedings. 54984
Obligations or assurances may be additionally secured by covenants 54985
of the institution to make, fix, adjust, collect, and apply such 54986
charges, rates, fees, rentals, and other items of available 54987
receipts as will produce pledged available receipts sufficient to 54988
meet bond service charges, reserve, and other requirements 54989
provided for in the bond proceedings. Notwithstanding this and any 54990
other sections of the Revised Code, the holders or owners of the 54991
obligations or assurances shall not be given the right and shall 54992
have no right to have excises or taxes levied by the general 54993
assembly for the payment of bond service charges thereon, and each 54994
such obligation or assurance shall bear on its face a statement to 54995
that effect and to the effect that the right to such payment is 54996
limited to the available receipts and special funds pledged to 54997
such purpose under the bond proceedings.54998

       All pledged available receipts and funds and the proceeds of 54999
obligations or assurances are trust funds and, subject to the 55000
provisions of this section and the applicable bond proceedings, 55001
shall be held, deposited, invested, reinvested, disbursed, 55002
applied, and used to such extent, in such manner, at such times, 55003
and for such purposes, as are provided in the bond proceedings.55004

       (D) The bond proceedings for obligations or assurances shall 55005
provide for the purpose thereof and the principal amount or 55006
maximum principal amount, and provide for or authorize the manner 55007
of determining the principal maturity or maturities, the sale 55008
price including any permitted discount, the interest rate or 55009
rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the maximum 55010
interest rate, the date of the obligations or assurances and the 55011
date or dates of payment of interest thereon, their denominations, 55012
the manner of sale thereof, and the establishment within or 55013
without the state of a place or places of payment of bond service 55014
charges. The bond proceedings also shall provide for a pledge of 55015
and lien on available receipts of the institution of higher 55016
education as provided in division (C) of this section, and a 55017
pledge of and lien on such fund or funds provided in the bond 55018
proceedings arising from available receipts, which pledges and 55019
liens may provide for parity with obligations or assurances 55020
theretofore or thereafter issued by the institution. The available 55021
receipts so pledged and thereafter received by the institution and 55022
the funds so pledged are immediately subject to the lien of such 55023
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 55024
the lien of any such pledge is valid and binding against all 55025
parties having claims of any kind against the institution, 55026
irrespective of whether such parties have notice thereof, and 55027
shall create a perfected security interest for all purposes of 55028
Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, without the necessity for 55029
separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or recording of 55030
the bond proceedings by which such pledge is created or any 55031
certificate, statement, or other document with respect thereto; 55032
and the pledge of such available receipts and funds shall be 55033
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 55034
the purposes for which pledged without necessity for any act of 55035
appropriation.55036

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 55037
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 55038
assurances or to particular obligations and assurances, including:55039

       (1) The acquisition, construction, reconstruction, equipment, 55040
furnishing, improvement, operation, alteration, enlargement, 55041
maintenance, insurance, and repair of facilities or 55042
entrepreneurial projects, and the duties of the institution of 55043
higher education with reference thereto;55044

       (2) The terms of the obligations or assurances, including 55045
provisions for their redemption prior to maturity at the option of 55046
the institution of higher education at such price or prices and 55047
under such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond 55048
proceedings;55049

       (3) Limitations on the purposes to which the proceeds of the 55050
obligations or assurances may be applied;55051

       (4) The rates or rentals or other charges for the use of or 55052
right to use the facilities or entrepreneurial projects financed 55053
by the obligations or assurances, or other properties the revenues 55054
or receipts from which are pledged to the obligations or 55055
assurances, and rules for assuring any applicable use and 55056
occupancy thereof, including limitations upon the right to modify 55057
such rates, rentals, other charges, or regulations;55058

       (5) The use and expenditure of the pledged available receipts 55059
in such manner and to such extent as shall be determined, which 55060
may include provision for the payment of the expenses of 55061
operation, maintenance, and repair of facilities or 55062
entrepreneurial projects so that such expenses, or part thereof, 55063
shall be paid or provided as a charge prior or subsequent to the 55064
payment of bond service charges and any other payments required to 55065
be made by the bond proceedings;55066

       (6) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations or 55067
assurances;55068

       (7) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 55069
the obligations or assurances or under which the same may be 55070
issued;55071

       (8) The deposit, investment, and application of funds, and 55072
the safeguarding of funds on hand or on deposit without regard to 55073
Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, and any bank or trust 55074
company or other financial institution that acts as depository of 55075
any moneys under the bond proceedings shall furnish such 55076
indemnifying bonds or pledge such securities as required by the 55077
bond proceedings or otherwise by the institution of higher 55078
education;55079

       (9) The binding effect of any or every provision of the bond 55080
proceedings upon such officer, board, commission, authority, 55081
agency, department, or other person or body as may from time to 55082
time have the authority under law to take such actions as may be 55083
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by such 55084
provision;55085

       (10) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 55086
indenture;55087

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with respect to the 55088
facilities of the institution of higher education or its 55089
entrepreneurial projects, their operation, the available receipts 55090
and funds pledged, and insurance of facilities or entrepreneurial 55091
projects and of the institution, its officers and employees.55092

       (F) Such obligations or assurances may have the seal of the 55093
institution of higher education or a facsimile thereof affixed 55094
thereto or printed thereon and shall be executed by such officers 55095
as are designated in the bond proceedings, which execution may be 55096
by facsimile signatures. Any obligations or assurances may be 55097
executed by an officer who, on the date of execution, is the 55098
proper officer although on the date of such obligations or 55099
assurances such person was not the proper officer. In case any 55100
officer whose signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears 55101
on any such obligation or assurance ceases to be such officer 55102
before delivery thereof, such signature or facsimile is 55103
nevertheless valid and sufficient for all purposes as if the 55104
person had remained such officer until such delivery; and in case 55105
the seal of the institution has been changed after a facsimile of 55106
the seal has been imprinted on such obligations or assurances, 55107
such facsimile seal continues to be sufficient as to such 55108
obligations or assurances and obligations or assurances issued in 55109
substitution or exchange therefor.55110

       (G) All such obligations or assurances are negotiable 55111
instruments and securities under Chapter 1308. of the Revised 55112
Code, subject to the provisions of the bond proceedings as to 55113
registration. The obligations or assurances may be issued in 55114
coupon or in registered form, or both. Provision may be made for 55115
the registration of any obligations or assurances with coupons 55116
attached thereto as to principal alone or as to both principal and 55117
interest, their exchange for obligations or assurances so 55118
registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 55119
obligations or assurances with coupons attached thereto of any 55120
obligations or assurances registered as to both principal and 55121
interest, and for reasonable charges for such registration, 55122
exchange, conversion, and reconversion.55123

       (H) Pending preparation of definitive obligations or 55124
assurances, the institution of higher education may issue interim 55125
receipts or certificates which shall be exchanged for such 55126
definitive obligations or assurances.55127

       (I) Such obligations or assurances may be secured 55128
additionally by a trust agreement or indenture between the 55129
institution of higher education and a corporate trustee, which may 55130
be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company 55131
within or without this state but authorized to exercise trust 55132
powers within this state. Any such agreement or indenture may 55133
contain the resolution authorizing the issuance of the obligations 55134
or assurances, any provisions that may be contained in the bond 55135
proceedings as authorized by this section, and other provisions 55136
which are customary or appropriate in an agreement or indenture of 55137
such type, including:55138

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, and 55139
indenture, or other instrument comprising part of the bond 55140
proceedings until the institution of higher education has fully 55141
paid the bond service charges on the obligations or assurances 55142
secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;55143

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 55144
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 55145
institution of higher education made as a part of the contract 55146
under which the obligations or assurances were issued, enforcement 55147
of such payments or agreement by mandamus, the appointment of a 55148
receiver, suit in equity, action at law, or any combination of the 55149
foregoing;55150

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations or 55151
assurances and of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and 55152
enforcing them, including limitations on rights of individual 55153
holders of obligations or assurances;55154

       (4) The replacement of any obligations or assurances that 55155
become mutilated or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;55156

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the institution 55157
of higher education agree upon, including limitations, conditions, 55158
or qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.55159

       (J) Each duty of the institution of higher education and its 55160
officers or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond proceedings 55161
or any related agreement or lease made under authority of law, is 55162
hereby established as a duty of such institution, and of each such 55163
officer or employee having authority to perform such duty, 55164
specially enjoined by law resulting from an office, trust, or 55165
station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. 55166
The persons who are at the time the members of the board of 55167
trustees or the managing directors of the institution or its 55168
officers or employees are not liable in their personal capacities 55169
on such obligations or assurances, or lease, or other agreement of 55170
the institution.55171

       (K) The authority to issue obligations or assurances includes 55172
authority to:55173

       (1) Issue obligations or assurances in the form of bond 55174
anticipation notes and to renew them from time to time by the 55175
issuance of new notes. Such notes are payable solely from the 55176
available receipts and funds that may be pledged to the payment of 55177
such bonds, or from the proceeds of such bonds or renewal notes, 55178
or both, as the institution of higher education provides in its 55179
resolution authorizing such notes. Such notes may be additionally 55180
secured by covenants of the institution to the effect that it will 55181
do such or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or 55182
renewal notes in appropriate amount, and either exchange such 55183
bonds or renewal notes therefor or apply the proceeds thereof to 55184
the extent necessary, to make full payment of the bond service 55185
charges on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 55186
provided in such resolution. Subject to the provisions of this 55187
division, all references to obligations or assurances in this 55188
section apply to such anticipation notes.55189

       (2) Issue obligations or assurances to refund, including 55190
funding and retirement of, obligations or assurances previously 55191
issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial projects. 55192
Such obligations or assurances may be issued in amounts sufficient 55193
for payment of the principal amount of the obligations or 55194
assurances to be so refunded, any redemption premiums thereon, 55195
principal maturities of any obligations or assurances maturing 55196
prior to the redemption of any other obligations or assurances on 55197
a parity therewith to be so refunded, interest accrued or to 55198
accrue to the maturity date or dates of redemption of such 55199
obligations or assurances, and any expenses incurred or to be 55200
incurred in connection with such refunding or the issuance of the 55201
obligations or assurances.55202

       (L) Obligations and assurances are lawful investments for 55203
banks, societies for savings, savings and loan associations, 55204
deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, trustees, 55205
fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for life and 55206
domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having charge of 55207
sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of political 55208
subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the commissioners 55209
of the sinking fund, the administrator of workers' compensation in 55210
accordance with the investment policy approved by the bureau of 55211
workers' compensation board of directors pursuant to section 55212
4121.12 of the Revised Code, the state teachers retirement system, 55213
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 55214
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 55215
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 55216
adopted pursuant thereto by any state agency with respect to 55217
investments by them, and are also acceptable as security for the 55218
deposit of public moneys.55219

       (M) All facilities or entrepreneurial projects purchased, 55220
acquired, constructed, or owned by an institution of higher 55221
education, or financed in whole or in part by obligations or 55222
assurances issued by an institution, and used for the purposes of 55223
the institution or other publicly owned and controlled college or 55224
university, is public property used exclusively for a public 55225
purpose, and such property and the income therefrom is exempt from 55226
all taxation and assessment within this state, including ad 55227
valorem and excise taxes. The obligations or assurances, the 55228
transfer thereof, and the income therefrom, including any profit 55229
made on the sale thereof, are at all times free from taxation 55230
within the state. The transfer of tangible personal property by 55231
lease under authority of this section or section 3345.07, 3345.11, 55232
3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 55233
Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code.55234

       (N) The authority granted by this section is cumulative with 55235
the authority granted to institutions of higher education under 55236
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, and nothing in this section 55237
impairs or limits the authority granted by Chapter 154. of the 55238
Revised Code. In any lease, agreement, or commitment made by an 55239
institution of higher education under Chapter 154. of the Revised 55240
Code, it may agree to restrict or subordinate any pledge it may 55241
thereafter make under authority of this section.55242

       (O) Title to lands acquired under this section and sections 55243
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code by a state university or 55244
college shall be taken in the name of the state.55245

       (P) Except where costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 55246
projects are to be paid in whole or in part from funds 55247
appropriated by the general assembly, section 125.81 of the 55248
Revised Code and the requirement for certification with respect 55249
thereto under section 153.04 of the Revised Code do not apply to 55250
such facilities or entrepreneurial projects.55251

       (Q) A state university or college may sell or lease lands or 55252
interests in land owned by it or by the state for its use, or 55253
facilities authorized to be acquired or constructed by it under 55254
section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised Code, to permit the 55255
purchasers or lessees thereof to acquire, construct, equip, 55256
furnish, reconstruct, alter, enlarge, remodel, renovate, 55257
rehabilitate, improve, maintain, repair, or maintain and operate 55258
thereon and to provide by lease or otherwise to such institution, 55259
facilities authorized in section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised 55260
Code or entrepreneurial projects authorized under section 3345.36 55261
of the Revised Code. Such land or interests therein shall be sold 55262
for such appraised value, or leased, and on such terms as the 55263
board of trustees determines. All deeds or other instruments 55264
relating to such sales or leases shall be executed by such officer 55265
of the state university or college as the board of trustees 55266
designates. The state university or college shall hold, invest, or 55267
use the proceeds of such sales or leases for the same purposes for 55268
which proceeds of borrowings may be used under sections 3345.07 55269
and 3345.11 of the Revised Code or, if the proceeds relate to the 55270
sale or lease of entrepreneurial projects, for purposes of section 55271
3345.36 of the Revised Code.55272

       (R) An institution of higher education may pledge available 55273
receipts, to the extent permitted by division (C) of this section 55274
with respect to obligations, to secure the payments to be made by 55275
it under any lease, lease with option to purchase, or 55276
lease-purchase agreement authorized under this section or section 55277
3345.07, 3345.11, 3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 55278
3358.10 of the Revised Code.55279

       Sec. 3345.48. (A) As used in this section:55280

        (1) "Cohort" means a group of students who will complete 55281
their bachelor's degree requirements and graduate from a state 55282
university at the same time. A cohort may include transfer 55283
students and other selected undergraduate student academic 55284
programs as determined by the board of trustees of a state 55285
university.55286

        (2) "Eligible student" means an undergraduate student who:55287

        (a) Is enrolled full-time in a bachelor's degree program at a 55288
state university;55289

        (b) Is a resident of this state, as defined by the chancellor 55290
of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.31 of the Revised 55291
Code.55292

        (3) "State university" has the same meaning as in section 55293
3345.011 of the Revised Code.55294

        (B) The board of trustees of a state university may establish 55295
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program that allows eligible 55296
students in the same cohort to pay a fixed rate for general and 55297
instructional fees for four years. A board of trustees may include 55298
room and board and any additional fees in the program.55299

        If the board of trustees chooses to establish such a program, 55300
the board shall adopt rules for the program that include, but are 55301
not limited to, all of the following:55302

        (1) The number of credit hours required to earn an 55303
undergraduate degree in each major;55304

        (2) A guarantee that the general and instructional fees for 55305
each student in the cohort shall remain constant for four years so 55306
long as the student complies with the requirements of the program, 55307
except that, notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the board 55308
may increase the guaranteed amount by up to six per cent above 55309
what has been charged in the previous academic year one time for 55310
the first cohort enrolled under the tuition guarantee program. If 55311
the board of trustees determines that economic conditions or other 55312
circumstances require an increase for the first cohort of above 55313
six per cent, the board shall submit a request to increase the 55314
amount by a specified percentage to the chancellor. The 55315
chancellor, based on information the chancellor requires from the 55316
board of trustees, shall approve or disapprove such a request. 55317
There shall be no other increase of general and instructional fees 55318
for that cohort or for subsequent cohorts under the program unless 55319
the general assembly approves such an increase for all tuition 55320
guarantee programs established under this section.55321

        (3) A benchmark by which the board sets annual increases in 55322
general and instructional fees. This benchmark and any subsequent 55323
change to the benchmark shall be subject to approval of the 55324
chancellor.55325

        (4) Eligibility requirements for students to participate in 55326
the program;55327

        (5) Student rights and privileges under the program;55328

        (6) Consequences to the university for students unable to 55329
complete a degree program within four years, as follows:55330

        (a) For a student who could not complete the program in four 55331
years due to a lack of available classes or space in classes 55332
provided by the university, the university shall provide the 55333
necessary course or courses for completion to the student free of 55334
charge.55335

        (b) For a student who could not complete the program in four 55336
years due to military service or other circumstances beyond a 55337
student's control, as determined by the board of trustees, the 55338
university shall provide the necessary course or courses for 55339
completion to the student at the student's initial cohort rate.55340

        (c) For a student who did not complete the program in four 55341
years for any other reason, as determined by the board of 55342
trustees, the university shall provide the necessary course or 55343
courses for completion to the student at a rate determined through 55344
a method established by the board under division (B)(7) of this 55345
section.55346

        (7) Guidelines for adjusting a student's annual charges if 55347
the student, due to circumstances under the student's control, is 55348
unable to complete a degree program within four years;55349

        (8) A requirement that the rules adopted under division (B) 55350
of this section be published or posted in the university handbook, 55351
course catalog, and web site.55352

        (C) If a board of trustees implements a program under this 55353
section, the board shall submit the rules adopted under division 55354
(B) of this section to the chancellor for approval before 55355
beginning implementation of the program.55356

        The chancellor shall not unreasonably withhold approval of a 55357
program if the program conforms in principle with the parameters 55358
and guidelines of this section.55359

        (D) A board of trustees of a state university may establish 55360
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program for nonresident 55361
students.55362

        (E) Within five years after the effective date of this 55363
section, the chancellor shall publish on the board of regents web 55364
site a report that includes all of the following:55365

        (1) The state universities that have adopted an undergraduate 55366
tuition guarantee program under this section;55367

        (2) The details of each undergraduate tuition guarantee 55368
program established under this section;55369

        (3) Comparative data, including general and instructional 55370
fees, room and board, graduation rates, and retention rates, from 55371
all state universities.55372

       Sec. 3345.81. Not later than May 1, 2014, and biennially 55373
thereafter, each institution of higher education, as defined by 55374
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, shall submit to the 55375
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, for each campus under the 55376
authority of that institution, a campus-specific completion plan 55377
designed to increase college completion rates. The chancellor 55378
shall prescribe a format for all plans required under this 55379
section, which may include specific strategies, targets, and 55380
metrics that promote student access, retention, progression, and 55381
completion of each student's chosen program of study. Institutions 55382
shall submit each campus plan in accordance with this format and 55383
shall include all required content, as prescribed by the 55384
chancellor. Each plan shall be consistent with the mission and 55385
strategic priorities of the campus and shall examine and, as 55386
appropriate, include all of the following:55387

       (A) Increased alignment of the institution's programs with 55388
programs of other educational institutions from preschool through 55389
higher education;55390

       (B) A communications strategy;55391

       (C) A guidance plan to provide current and potential students 55392
with broadened awareness of dual enrollment programs, as defined 55393
by section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, and the connections 55394
between college completion and career opportunities. The guidance 55395
plan also shall also include financial literacy and planning for 55396
students and their families.55397

       (D) Increased support to ensure success for first-year 55398
students, such as increased access to career counseling and 55399
mentoring, improvements to remediation course design and subject 55400
matter, and other support programs;55401

       (E) The development of institutional systems to streamline 55402
and accelerate a student's progress toward completion, such as a 55403
coordinated system for the transfer of academic credit or a system 55404
that awards academic credit for alternative study, work, or 55405
military experience;55406

       (F) Incentives and rewards for successful student progression 55407
within, and completion of, each student's chosen program.55408

       Sec. 3350.15. The northeast Ohio medical university may enter 55409
into a partnership with Cleveland state university to establish 55410
the northeast Ohio medical university academic campus at Cleveland 55411
state university, to enable fifty per cent or more of the medical 55412
curriculum taught to students enrolled under this partnership to 55413
be based in Cleveland at Cleveland state university, local 55414
hospitals, and community- and neighborhood-based primary care 55415
clinics. Cleveland state university shall not receive state 55416
capital appropriations to pay for facilities for the academic 55417
campus.55418

       Sec. 3353.01.  As used in this chapter:55419

       (A) "Educational television or radio" means television or 55420
radio programs which serve the educational needs of the community 55421
and which meet the requirements of the federal communications 55422
commission for noncommercial educational television or radio.55423

       (B) "Educational telecommunications network" means a system 55424
of connected educational television, radio, or radio reading 55425
service facilities and coordinated programs established and 55426
operated or controlled by the eTech Ohiobroadcast educational 55427
media commission, pursuant to this chapter.55428

       (C) "Transmission" means the sending out of television, 55429
radio, or radio reading service programs, either directly to the 55430
public, or to broadcasting stations or services for simultaneous 55431
broadcast or rebroadcast.55432

       (D) "Transmission facilities" means structures, equipment, 55433
material, and services used in the transmission of educational 55434
television, radio, or radio reading service programs.55435

       (E) "Interconnection facilities" means the equipment, 55436
material, and services used to link one location to another 55437
location or to several locations by means of telephone line, 55438
coaxial cable, microwave relays, or other available technologies.55439

       (F) "Broadcasting station" means a properly licensed 55440
noncommercial educational television or radio station, 55441
appropriately staffed and equipped to produce programs or lessons 55442
and to broadcast programs.55443

       (G) "Radio reading service" means a nonprofit organization 55444
that disseminates news and other information to blind and 55445
physically handicapped persons.55446

       (H) "Affiliate" means an educational telecommunication 55447
entity, including a television or radio broadcasting station or 55448
radio reading service.55449

       Sec. 3353.02.  (A) There is hereby created the eTech Ohio55450
broadcast educational media commission as an independent agency to 55451
advance education and accelerate the learning of the citizens of 55452
this state through technologypublic educational broadcasting 55453
services. The commission shall provide leadership and support in 55454
extending the knowledge of the citizens of this state by promoting 55455
access to and use of all forms of educational technology55456
broadcasting services, including educational television and radio,55457
and radio reading services, broadband networks, videotapes, 55458
compact discs, digital video on demand (DVD), and the internet. 55459
The commission also shall administer programs to provide financial 55460
and other assistance to school districts and other educational 55461
institutions for the acquisition and utilization of educational 55462
technologytelevision and radio and radio reading services.55463

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 55464
the state performing essential governmental functions of the 55465
state.55466

       (B) The commission shall consist of thirteen members, nine of 55467
whom shall be voting members. Six of the voting members shall be 55468
representatives of the public selected from among leading citizens 55469
in the state who have demonstrated interest in educational 55470
broadcast media through service on boards or advisory councils of 55471
educational television stations, educational radio stations, 55472
educational technology agencies, or radio reading services. Of the 55473
representatives of the public, four shall be appointed by the 55474
governor with the advice and consent of the senate, one shall be 55475
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one 55476
shall be appointed by the president of the senate. The 55477
superintendent of public instruction or a designee of the 55478
superintendent, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents or a 55479
designee of the chancellor, and the state chief information 55480
officer or a designee of the officer shall be ex officio voting 55481
members. Of the nonvoting members, two shall be members of the 55482
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 55483
representatives and two shall be members of the senate appointed 55484
by the president of the senate. The members appointed from each 55485
chamber shall not be members of the same political party.55486

       (C) Initial terms of office for members appointed by the 55487
governor shall be one year for one member, two years for one 55488
member, three years for one member, and four years for one member. 55489
At the first meeting of the commission, members appointed by the 55490
governor shall draw lots to determine the length of the term each 55491
member will serve. Thereafter, terms of office for members 55492
appointed by the governor shall be for four years. Terms of office 55493
for voting members appointed by the speaker of the house of 55494
representatives and the president of the senate shall be for four 55495
years. Any member who is a representative of the public may be 55496
reappointed by the member's respective appointing authority, but 55497
no such member may serve more than two consecutive four-year 55498
terms. Such a member may be removed by the member's respective 55499
appointing authority for cause.55500

       Any legislative member appointed by the speaker of the house 55501
of representatives or the president of the senate who ceases to be 55502
a member of the legislative chamber from which the member was 55503
appointed shall cease to be a member of the commission. The 55504
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 55505
senate may remove their respective appointments to the commission 55506
at any time.55507

       (D) Vacancies among appointed members shall be filled in the 55508
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 55509
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 55510
which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for 55511
the remainder of that term. Any appointed member shall continue in 55512
office subsequent to the expiration of that member's term until 55513
the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty 55514
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.55515

       (E) Members of the commission shall serve without 55516
compensation. The members who are representatives of the public 55517
shall be reimbursed, pursuant to office of budget and management 55518
guidelines, for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 55519
performance of official duties.55520

       (F) The governor shall appoint the chairperson of the 55521
commission from among the commission's public voting members. The 55522
chairperson shall serve a term of two years and may be 55523
reappointed. The commission shall elect other officers as 55524
necessary from among its voting members and shall prescribe its 55525
rules of procedure.55526

       (G) The commission shall establish advisory groups as needed 55527
to address topics of interest and to provide guidance to the 55528
commission regarding educational technology issues and the 55529
technology needs of educators, learners, and the public. Members 55530
of each advisory group shall be appointed by the commission and 55531
shall include representatives of individuals or organizations with 55532
an interest in the topic addressed by the advisory group.55533

       Sec. 3353.03.  (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media55534
commission shall appoint an executive director, who shall serve at 55535
the pleasure of the commission. The executive director shall have 55536
no authority other than that provided by law or delegated to the 55537
executive director by the commission. The executive director shall 55538
do all of the following:55539

       (1) Direct commission employees in the administration of all 55540
programs of the commission;55541

       (2) Provide leadership and support in extending the knowledge 55542
of the citizens of this state by promoting equal access to and use 55543
of all forms of educational technologybroadcast media, as 55544
directed by the commission;55545

       (3) Provide financial and other assistance to school 55546
districts, educational television and radio stations, radio 55547
reading services, educational technology organizations, and other 55548
educational institutions for the acquisition and utilization of 55549
educational technologyand related organizations and activities;55550

       (4) Implement policies and directives issued by the 55551
commission;55552

       (5) Perform other duties authorized by the commission.55553

       (B) The commission shall fix the compensation of the 55554
executive director. The executive director shall employ and fix 55555
the compensation for such employees as necessary to facilitate the 55556
activities and purposes of the commission. The employees shall 55557
serve at the pleasure of the executive director.55558

       (C) The employees of the commission shall be placed in the 55559
unclassified service. 55560

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 55561
the employees of the commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. 55562
of the Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined 55563
in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code.55564

       (2) All employees of the commission who transferred to the 55565
commission from one of the commission's predecessor agencies upon 55566
the commission's creation and, when employed by the predecessor 55567
agency were included in a bargaining unit established under 55568
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall continue to be included 55569
in that bargaining unit, are public employees as defined in 55570
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and may collectively bargain 55571
with the commission in accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, 55572
any employee hired by the commission after July 1, 2005, either to 55573
fill vacancies or to fill new positions, shall be exempt from 55574
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 55575
employees as defined in section 4117.10 of the Revised Code.55576

       Sec. 3353.04. (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media55577
commission may perform any act necessary to carry out the 55578
functions of this chapter, including any of the following:55579

       (1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as 55580
prescribed by the general assembly for the provision of technical 55581
assistance, professional development, and other support services 55582
to enable school districts, community schools established under 55583
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, other educational institutions, 55584
and affiliates to utilize educational technology;55585

       (2) Establish a reporting system for school districts, 55586
community schools, other educational institutions, affiliates, and 55587
educational technology organizations that receive financial 55588
assistance from the commission. The system may require the 55589
reporting of information regarding the manner in which the 55590
assistance was expended, the manner in which the equipment or 55591
services purchased with the assistance is being utilized, the 55592
results or outcome of the utilization, the manner in which the 55593
utilization is compatible with the statewide academic standards 55594
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 55595
3301.079 of the Revised Code, and any other information determined 55596
by the commission.55597

       (3) Ensure that, where appropriate, products produced by any 55598
entity to which the commission provides financial assistance for 55599
use in elementary and secondary education are aligned with the 55600
statewide academic standards adopted by the state board pursuant 55601
to section 3301.079 of the Revised Code;55602

       (4) Promote accessibility tothrough broadcasting services of55603
educational products aligned with the statewide academic 55604
standards, adopted by the state board pursuant to section 3301.079 55605
of the Revised Code, for school districts, community schools, and 55606
other entities serving grades kindergarten through twelve;55607

       (5)(2) Own or operate transmission facilities and 55608
interconnection facilities, or contract for transmission 55609
facilities and interconnection facilities, for an educational 55610
television, radio, or radio reading service network;55611

       (6)(3) Establish standards for interconnection facilities 55612
used by the commission in the transmission of educational 55613
television, radio, or radio reading service programming;55614

        (7)(4) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 55615
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 55616
services for the operation of the interconnection; 55617

       (8)(5) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 55618
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 55619
services for the production and use of educational television, 55620
radio, or radio reading service programs to be transmitted by the 55621
educational telecommunications network;55622

       (9)(6) Execute contracts and other agreements necessary and 55623
desirable to carry out the purposes of this chapter and other 55624
duties prescribed to the commission by law or authorize the 55625
executive director of the commission to execute such contracts and 55626
agreements on the commission's behalf;55627

       (10)(7) Act as consultant with educational television and 55628
educational radio stations and radio reading services toward 55629
coordination within the state of the distribution of federal funds 55630
that may become available for equipment for educational 55631
broadcasting or radio reading services;55632

       (11)(8) Make payments to noncommercial Ohio educational 55633
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 55634
services to sustain the operation of such stations or services;55635

       (12)(9) In consultation with participants in programs 55636
administered by the commission, establish guidelines governing 55637
purchasing and procurement that facilitate the timely and 55638
effective implementation of such programs;55639

       (13)(10) In consultation with participants in programs 55640
administered by the commission, consider the efficiency and cost 55641
savings of statewide procurement prior to allocating and releasing 55642
funds for such programs;55643

       (14)(11) In consultation with participants in programs 55644
administered by the commission, establish a systems support 55645
network to facilitate the timely implementation of the programs 55646
and other projects and activities for which the commission 55647
provides assistance.55648

       (B) Chapters 123., 124., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code 55649
and sections 9.331 to 9.335 of the Revised Code do not apply to 55650
contracts, programs, projects, or activities of the commission.55651

       Sec. 3353.06.  (A) The affiliates services fund is hereby 55652
created in the state treasury. The eTech Ohiobroadcast 55653
educational media commission shall deposit any money it receives 55654
for services provided to affiliates to the credit of the fund, 55655
including:55656

       (1) Reimbursements for services provided to stations;55657

       (2) Charges levied for maintenance of telecommunications, 55658
broadcasting, or transmission equipment;55659

       (3) Contract or grant payments from affiliates.55660

       (B) The commission shall use money credited to the affiliates 55661
services fund for any commission operating purposes, including:55662

       (1) The purchase, repair, or maintenance of 55663
telecommunications, broadcasting, or transmission equipment;55664

       (2) The purchase or lease of educational programming;55665

       (3) The purchase of tape and digital media storage and 55666
maintenance of a media library;55667

       (4) Professional development programs and services;55668

       (5) Administrative expenses.55669

       Sec. 3353.07.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 55670
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 55671
telecommunications service shall provide the state government and 55672
affiliated organizations with multimedia support including audio, 55673
visual, and internet services, multimedia streaming, and hosting 55674
multimedia programs.55675

       Services relating to the official activities of the general 55676
assembly and the executive offices provided by the Ohio government 55677
telecommunications service shall be funded through grants to a 55678
publican educational television broadcasting station that will 55679
manage the staff and provide the services of the Ohio government 55680
telecommunications service. The Ohio educational television 55681
stations shall select a member station to manage the Ohio 55682
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 55683
telecommunications service shall receive grants from, or contract 55684
with, any of the three branches of Ohio government, and their 55685
affiliates, to provide additional services. Services provided by 55686
the Ohio government telecommunications service shall not be used 55687
for political purposes included in campaign materials, or 55688
otherwise used to influence an election, legislation, issue, 55689
judicial decision, or other policy of state government.55690

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the legislative programming 55691
committee of the Ohio government telecommunications service that 55692
shall consist of the president of the senate, speaker of the house 55693
of representatives, minority leader of the senate, and minority 55694
leader of the house of representatives, or their designees, and 55695
the clerks of the senate and house of representatives as 55696
nonvoting, ex officio members. By a vote of a majority of its 55697
members, the program committee may add additional members to the 55698
committee.55699

       (2) The legislative programming committee shall adopt rules 55700
that govern the operation of the Ohio government 55701
telecommunications service relating to the general assembly and 55702
any affiliated organizations.55703

       Sec. 3365.01.  As used in this chapter:55704

       (A) "College" means any state-assisted college or university 55705
described in section 3333.041 of the Revised Code, any nonprofit 55706
institution holding a certificate of authorization pursuant to 55707
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, any private institution exempt 55708
from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as 55709
prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code, and any 55710
institution holding a certificate of registration from the state 55711
board of career colleges and schools and program authorization for 55712
an associate or bachelor's degree program issued under section 55713
3332.05 of the Revised Code.55714

       (B) "School district," except as specified in division (G) of 55715
this section, means any school district to which a student is 55716
admitted under section 3313.64, 3313.65, 3313.98, or 3317.08 of 55717
the Revised Code and does not include a joint vocational or 55718
cooperative education school district.55719

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of 55720
the Revised Code.55721

       (D) "Participant" means a student enrolled in a college under 55722
the post-secondary enrollment options program established by this 55723
chapter, including a student who has been excused from the 55724
compulsory attendance law for the purpose of home instruction 55725
under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code.55726

       (E) "Secondary grade" means the ninth through twelfth grades.55727

       (F) "School foundation payments" means the amount required to 55728
be paid to a school district for a fiscal year under Chapter 3317. 55729
of the Revised Code.55730

       (G) "Tuition base" means, with respect to a participant's 55731
school district, the sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil 55732
amount of the base funding supplements specified in divisions 55733
(C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.0123317.02 of the Revised Code for 55734
the applicable fiscal year 2009.55735

       The participant's "school district" in the case of a 55736
participant enrolled in a community school shall be the school 55737
district in which the student is entitled to attend school under 55738
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.55739

       (H) "Educational program" means enrollment in one or more 55740
school districts, in a nonpublic school, or in a college under 55741
division (B) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.55742

       (I) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered or nonchartered 55743
school for which minimum standards are prescribed by the state 55744
board of education pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of 55745
the Revised Code.55746

       (J) "School year" means the year beginning on the first day 55747
of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.55748

       (K) "Community school" means any school established pursuant 55749
to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that includes secondary 55750
grades.55751

       (L) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 55752
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 55753
Revised Code.55754

       Sec. 3365.02.  There is hereby established the post-secondary 55755
enrollment options program under which a secondary grade student 55756
who is a resident of this state may enroll at a college, on a 55757
full- or part-time basis, and complete nonsectarian courses for 55758
high school and college credit.55759

       Secondary grade students in a nonpublic school may 55760
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program if 55761
the chief administrator of such school notifies the department of 55762
education by the first day of April prior to the school year in 55763
which the school's students will participate.55764

       The state board of education, after consulting with the board 55765
of regents, shall adopt rules governing the program. The rules 55766
shall include:55767

       (A) Requirements for school districts, community schools, or 55768
participating nonpublic schools to provide information about the 55769
program prior to the first day of March of each year to all 55770
students enrolled in grades eight through eleven;55771

       (B) A requirement that a student or the student's parent 55772
inform the district board of education, the governing authority of 55773
a community school, the STEM school chief administrative officer, 55774
or the nonpublic school administrator by the thirtieth day of 55775
March of the student's intent to participate in the program during 55776
the following school year. The rule shall provide that any student 55777
who fails to provide the notification by the required date may not 55778
participate in the program during the following school year 55779
without the written consent of the district superintendent, the 55780
governing authority of a community school, the STEM school chief 55781
administrative officer, or the nonpublic school administrator.55782

       (C) Requirements that school districts, community schools, 55783
and STEM schools provide counseling services to students in grades 55784
eight through eleven and to their parents before the students 55785
participate in the program under this chapter to ensure that 55786
students and parents are fully aware of the possible risks and 55787
consequences of participation. Counseling information shall 55788
include without limitation:55789

       (1) Program eligibility;55790

       (2) The process for granting academic credits;55791

       (3) Financial arrangements for tuition, books, materials, and 55792
fees;55793

       (4) Criteria for any transportation aid;55794

       (5) Available support services;55795

       (6) Scheduling;55796

       (7) The consequences of failing or not completing a course in 55797
which the student enrolls and the effect of the grade attained in 55798
the course being included in the student's grade point average, if 55799
applicable;55800

       (8) The effect of program participation on the student's 55801
ability to complete the district's or school's graduation 55802
requirements;55803

       (9) The academic and social responsibilities of students and 55804
parents under the program;55805

       (10) Information about and encouragement to use the 55806
counseling services of the college in which the student intends to 55807
enroll.55808

       (D) A requirement that the student and the student's parent 55809
sign a form, provided by the school district or school, stating 55810
that they have received the counseling required by division (C) of 55811
this section and that they understand the responsibilities they 55812
must assume in the program;55813

       (E) The options required by section 3365.04 of the Revised 55814
Code;55815

       (F) A requirement that a student may not enroll in any 55816
specific college course through the program if the student has 55817
taken high school courses in the same subject area as that college 55818
course and has failed to attain a cumulative grade point average 55819
of at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale, or the equivalent, in such 55820
completed high school coursesA requirement that student 55821
participation in the program be based solely on a participating 55822
college's established admission standards.55823

       Sec. 3365.022.  (A) Beginning July 1, 2013, a student who has 55824
been excused from the compulsory attendance law for the purpose of 55825
home instruction under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and is 55826
the equivalent of a ninth, tenth, eleventh, or twelfth grader may 55827
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 55828
established under this chapter. 55829

       (B)(1) If a student meets the criteria established in 55830
division (A) of this section and wishes to participate in the 55831
post-secondary enrollment options program, the parent or guardian 55832
of that student shall notify the department of education by the 55833
first day of April prior to the school year in which the student 55834
wishes to participate. 55835

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department may accept 55836
applications at a later date if that student wishes to participate 55837
in the program during the 2013-2014 school year.55838

       (C) Pursuant to rules adopted by the state board of education 55839
under section 3365.02 of the Revised Code, payments to a 55840
participating college, in which home-instructed students enrolled 55841
pursuant to this section, shall be made in the same manner as 55842
payments made for participating students from nonpublic secondary 55843
schools, pursuant to section 3365.07 of the Revised Code.55844

       Sec. 3365.07.  (A) The rules adopted under section 3365.02 of 55845
the Revised Code shall specify a method for each of the following:55846

       (1) Determining, with respect to any participant, the 55847
percentage of a full-time educational program constituted by the 55848
participant's total educational program. That percentage shall be 55849
the participant's full-time equivalency percentage for purposes of 55850
the computation required by division (B)(1) of this section.55851

       (2) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 55852
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 55853
participant's school day during which the participant is 55854
participating in each of the following:55855

       (a) Programs provided by the city, local, or exempted village 55856
school district, a community school, or a STEM school;55857

       (b) Programs provided by a joint vocational school district;55858

       (c) Programs provided by a college under division (B) of 55859
section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.55860

The sum of divisions (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section shall equal 55861
one hundred per cent.55862

       (3) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 55863
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 55864
participant's enrollment that shall be deemed to be enrollment in 55865
a joint vocational school district and the percentage that shall 55866
be deemed to be enrollment in a city, local, or exempted village 55867
school district. The sum of such percentages shall equal one 55868
hundred per cent.55869

       (4) In the case of a participant who is enrolled in a 55870
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 55871
participant's school day during which the participant is 55872
participating in programs provided by a college under division (B) 55873
of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.55874

       (B) Each July, unless provided otherwise in an alternative 55875
funding agreement entered into under rules adopted under section 55876
3365.12 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall pay 55877
each college for any participant enrolled in the college in the 55878
prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 55879
Revised Code an amount computed as follows:55880

       (1) Multiply the tuition base by the participant's full-time 55881
equivalency percentage and multiply the resulting amount by a 55882
percentage equal to the percentage of the participant's school day 55883
apportioned to the college under division (A)(2)(c) or (4) of this 55884
section, as applicable.55885

       (2) Pay the college the lesser of:55886

       (a) The amount computed under division (B)(1) of this 55887
section;55888

       (b) The actual costs that would have been the responsibility 55889
of the participant had the participant elected to enroll under 55890
division (A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code, as verified 55891
by the department, of tuition, textbooks, materials, and fees 55892
directly related to any courses elected by the participant during 55893
the prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 55894
Revised Code.55895

       (C) The department shall not reimburse anya college for any 55896
of the following:55897

       (1) A college course taken by a participant under division 55898
(A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code;55899

       (2) A college course taken by a participant that is not 55900
included in or equivalent to a course included in either a 55901
transfer module or the transfer assurance guide developed by the 55902
chancellor.55903

       (D) If the participant was not enrolled in a participating 55904
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 55905
section for each participant shall be subtracted from the school 55906
foundation payments made to the participant's school district or, 55907
if the participant was enrolled in a community school or a STEM 55908
school, from the payments made to the participant's school under 55909
section 3314.08 or 3326.33 of the Revised Code. If the participant 55910
was enrolled in a joint vocational school district, a portion of 55911
the amount shall be subtracted from the payments to the joint 55912
vocational school district and a portion shall be subtracted from 55913
the payments to the participant's city, local, or exempted village 55914
school district. The amount of the payment subtracted from the 55915
city, local, or exempted village school district shall be computed 55916
as follows:55917

       (1) Add the following:55918

       (a) The percentage of the participant's enrollment in the 55919
school district, determined under division (A)(3) of this section; 55920
and55921

       (b) Twenty-five per cent times the percentage of the 55922
participant's enrollment in the joint vocational school district, 55923
determined under division (A)(3) of this section.55924

       (2) Multiply the sum obtained under division (D)(1) of this 55925
section by the amount computed under division (B)(2) of this 55926
section.55927

The balance of the payment shall be subtracted from the joint 55928
vocational district's school foundation payments.55929

       (E) If the participant was enrolled in a participating 55930
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 55931
section shall be subtracted from moneys set aside by the general 55932
assembly for such purpose from funds appropriated for the purposes 55933
of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code.55934

       Sec. 3365.12. The superintendent of public instruction and 55935
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents jointly may adopt 55936
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 55937
permitting a board of education of a school district or joint 55938
vocational school district, governing authority of a community 55939
school, governing body of a STEM school, or governing authority of 55940
a participating nonpublic school to enter into an agreement with a 55941
college or university to use an alternate funding formula to 55942
calculate, or an alternate method to transmit, the amount the 55943
college or university would be paid for a student participating in 55944
a program under this chapter, including the program known as 55945
seniors to sophomores.55946

       Rules adopted under this section may include, but need not be 55947
limited to, any of the following alternative funding options:55948

       (A) Direct payment of funds necessary to support students 55949
participating in a program under this chapter, including the 55950
seniors to sophomores program, by the school district, joint 55951
vocational school district, community school, STEM school, or any 55952
combination thereof, to the college or university in which the 55953
student enrolled;55954

       (B) Alternate funding formulas to calculate the amount of 55955
money to be paid to colleges for participants;55956

       (C) A negotiated amount to be paid, as agreed by the school 55957
district, joint vocational school district, community school, or 55958
STEM school and the college or university. 55959

       Rules adopted under this section shall prohibit any 55960
alternative funding option to include charging a student 55961
participating in the program under this chapter any tuition or 55962
fees.55963

       Sec. 3501.01.  As used in the sections of the Revised Code 55964
relating to elections and political communications:55965

       (A) "General election" means the election held on the first 55966
Tuesday after the first Monday in each November.55967

       (B) "Regular municipal election" means the election held on 55968
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 55969
odd-numbered year.55970

       (C) "Regular state election" means the election held on the 55971
first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 55972
even-numbered year.55973

       (D) "Special election" means any election other than those 55974
elections defined in other divisions of this section. A special 55975
election may be held only on the first Tuesday after the first 55976
Monday in February, May, August, or November, or on the day 55977
authorized by a particular municipal or county charter for the 55978
holding of a primary election, except that in any year in which a 55979
presidential primary election is held, no special election shall 55980
be held in February or May, except as authorized by a municipal or 55981
county charter, but may be held on the first Tuesday after the 55982
first Monday in March.55983

       (E)(1) "Primary" or "primary election" means an election held 55984
for the purpose of nominating persons as candidates of political 55985
parties for election to offices, and for the purpose of electing 55986
persons as members of the controlling committees of political 55987
parties and as delegates and alternates to the conventions of 55988
political parties. Primary elections shall be held on the first 55989
Tuesday after the first Monday in May of each year except in years 55990
in which a presidential primary election is held.55991

       (2) "Presidential primary election" means a primary election 55992
as defined by division (E)(1) of this section at which an election 55993
is held for the purpose of choosing delegates and alternates to 55994
the national conventions of the major political parties pursuant 55995
to section 3513.12 of the Revised Code. Unless otherwise 55996
specified, presidential primary elections are included in 55997
references to primary elections. In years in which a presidential 55998
primary election is held, all primary elections shall be held on 55999
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in March except as 56000
otherwise authorized by a municipal or county charter.56001

       (F) "Political party" means any group of voters meeting the 56002
requirements set forth in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code for 56003
the formation and existence of a political party.56004

       (1) "Major political party" means any political party 56005
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 56006
governor or nominees for presidential electors received no less 56007
than twenty per cent of the total vote cast for such office at the 56008
most recent regular state election.56009

       (2) "Intermediate political party" means any political party 56010
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 56011
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 56012
twenty per cent but not less than ten per cent of the total vote 56013
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election.56014

       (3) "Minor political party" means any political party 56015
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 56016
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 56017
ten per cent but not less than five per cent of the total vote 56018
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election or 56019
which has filed with the secretary of state, subsequent to any 56020
election in which it received less than five per cent of such 56021
vote, a petition signed by qualified electors equal in number to 56022
at least one per cent of the total vote cast for such office in 56023
the last preceding regular state election, except that a newly 56024
formed political party shall be known as a minor political party 56025
until the time of the first election for governor or president 56026
which occurs not less than twelve months subsequent to the 56027
formation of such party, after which election the status of such 56028
party shall be determined by the vote for the office of governor 56029
or president.56030

       (G) "Dominant party in a precinct" or "dominant political 56031
party in a precinct" means that political party whose candidate 56032
for election to the office of governor at the most recent regular 56033
state election at which a governor was elected received more votes 56034
than any other person received for election to that office in such 56035
precinct at such election.56036

       (H) "Candidate" means any qualified person certified in 56037
accordance with the provisions of the Revised Code for placement 56038
on the official ballot of a primary, general, or special election 56039
to be held in this state, or any qualified person who claims to be 56040
a write-in candidate, or who knowingly assents to being 56041
represented as a write-in candidate by another at either a 56042
primary, general, or special election to be held in this state.56043

       (I) "Independent candidate" means any candidate who claims 56044
not to be affiliated with a political party, and whose name has 56045
been certified on the office-type ballot at a general or special 56046
election through the filing of a statement of candidacy and 56047
nominating petition, as prescribed in section 3513.257 of the 56048
Revised Code.56049

       (J) "Nonpartisan candidate" means any candidate whose name is 56050
required, pursuant to section 3505.04 of the Revised Code, to be 56051
listed on the nonpartisan ballot, including all candidates for 56052
judicial office, for member of any board of education, for 56053
municipal or township offices in which primary elections are not 56054
held for nominating candidates by political parties, and for 56055
offices of municipal corporations having charters that provide for 56056
separate ballots for elections for these offices.56057

       (K) "Party candidate" means any candidate who claims to be a 56058
member of a political party, whose name has been certified on the 56059
office-type ballot at a general or special election through the 56060
filing of a declaration of candidacy and petition of candidate, 56061
and who has won the primary election of the candidate's party for 56062
the public office the candidate seeks or is selected by party 56063
committee in accordance with section 3513.31 of the Revised Code.56064

       (L) "Officer of a political party" includes, but is not 56065
limited to, any member, elected or appointed, of a controlling 56066
committee, whether representing the territory of the state, a 56067
district therein, a county, township, a city, a ward, a precinct, 56068
or other territory, of a major, intermediate, or minor political 56069
party.56070

       (M) "Question or issue" means any question or issue certified 56071
in accordance with the Revised Code for placement on an official 56072
ballot at a general or special election to be held in this state.56073

       (N) "Elector" or "qualified elector" means a person having 56074
the qualifications provided by law to be entitled to vote.56075

       (O) "Voter" means an elector who votes at an election.56076

       (P) "Voting residence" means that place of residence of an 56077
elector which shall determine the precinct in which the elector 56078
may vote.56079

       (Q) "Precinct" means a district within a county established 56080
by the board of elections of such county within which all 56081
qualified electors having a voting residence therein may vote at 56082
the same polling place.56083

       (R) "Polling place" means that place provided for each 56084
precinct at which the electors having a voting residence in such 56085
precinct may vote.56086

       (S) "Board" or "board of elections" means the board of 56087
elections appointed in a county pursuant to section 3501.06 of the 56088
Revised Code.56089

       (T) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, city, 56090
village, or school district.56091

       (U) "Election officer" or "election official" means any of 56092
the following:56093

       (1) Secretary of state;56094

       (2) Employees of the secretary of state serving the division 56095
of elections in the capacity of attorney, administrative officer, 56096
administrative assistant, elections administrator, office manager, 56097
or clerical supervisor;56098

       (3) Director of a board of elections;56099

       (4) Deputy director of a board of elections;56100

       (5) Member of a board of elections;56101

       (6) Employees of a board of elections;56102

       (7) Precinct polling place judges;56103

       (8) Employees appointed by the boards of elections on a 56104
temporary or part-time basis.56105

       (V) "Acknowledgment notice" means a notice sent by a board of 56106
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, 56107
informing a voter registration applicant or an applicant who 56108
wishes to change the applicant's residence or name of the status 56109
of the application; the information necessary to complete or 56110
update the application, if any; and if the application is 56111
complete, the precinct in which the applicant is to vote.56112

       (W) "Confirmation notice" means a notice sent by a board of 56113
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, to a 56114
registered elector to confirm the registered elector's current 56115
address.56116

       (X) "Designated agency" means an office or agency in the 56117
state that provides public assistance or that provides 56118
state-funded programs primarily engaged in providing services to 56119
persons with disabilities and that is required by the National 56120
Voter Registration Act of 1993 to implement a program designed and 56121
administered by the secretary of state for registering voters, or 56122
any other public or government office or agency that implements a 56123
program designed and administered by the secretary of state for 56124
registering voters, including the department of job and family 56125
services, the program administered under section 3701.132 of the 56126
Revised Code by the department of health, the department of mental 56127
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 56128
developmental disabilities, the rehabilitation services 56129
commission, and any other agency the secretary of state 56130
designates. "Designated agency" does not include public high 56131
schools and vocational schools, public libraries, or the office of 56132
a county treasurer.56133

       (Y) "National Voter Registration Act of 1993" means the 56134
"National Voter Registration Act of 1993," 107 Stat. 77, 42 56135
U.S.C.A. 1973gg.56136

       (Z) "Voting Rights Act of 1965" means the "Voting Rights Act 56137
of 1965," 79 Stat. 437, 42 U.S.C.A. 1973, as amended.56138

       (AA) "Photo identification" means a document that meets each 56139
of the following requirements:56140

        (1) It shows the name of the individual to whom it was 56141
issued, which shall conform to the name in the poll list or 56142
signature pollbook.56143

        (2) It shows the current address of the individual to whom it 56144
was issued, which shall conform to the address in the poll list or 56145
signature pollbook, except for a driver's license or a state 56146
identification card issued under section 4507.50 of the Revised 56147
Code, which may show either the current or former address of the 56148
individual to whom it was issued, regardless of whether that 56149
address conforms to the address in the poll list or signature 56150
pollbook.56151

        (3) It shows a photograph of the individual to whom it was 56152
issued.56153

        (4) It includes an expiration date that has not passed.56154

        (5) It was issued by the government of the United States or 56155
this state.56156

       Sec. 3599.45.  (A) As used in this section:56157

       "Candidate," "campaign committee," and "contribution" have 56158
the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.56159

       "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 56160
5164.01 of the Revised Code.56161

       (B) No candidate for the office of attorney general or county 56162
prosecutor or such a candidate's campaign committee shall 56163
knowingly accept any contribution from a medicaid provider of 56164
services or goods under contract with the department of job and 56165
family services pursuant to the medicaid program of Title XIX of 56166
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 56167
amended, or from any person having an ownership interest in the 56168
medicaid provider.56169

       As used in this section "candidate," "campaign committee," 56170
and "contribution" have the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of 56171
the Revised Code.56172

       (B)(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a 56173
misdemeanor of the first degree.56174

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 56175
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 56176
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 56177
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 56178
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 56179
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 56180
eligibility requirements established by the director of health 56181
pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 56182
Code, and by the department in the manual of operational 56183
procedures and guidelines for the program for medically 56184
handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) of that 56185
section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for the 56186
program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the child 56187
by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 56188
interested person. The department of health may designate other 56189
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.56190

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 56191
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 56192
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 56193
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 56194
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 56195
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 56196
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 56197
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 56198
potentially medically handicapping condition.56199

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 56200
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 56201
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 56202
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 56203
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 56204
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 56205
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 56206
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 56207
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 56208
5111.01 of the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically 56209
handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian for services 56210
authorized by the department under division (B) or (D) of this 56211
section.56212

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 56213
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 56214
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 56215
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 56216
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 56217
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 56218
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 56219
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 56220
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 56221
division (H) of this section.56222

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 56223
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 56224
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 56225
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 56226
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 56227
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 56228
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 56229
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 56230
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 56231
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 56232
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 56233
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 56234
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 56235
the premiums is cost-effective.56236

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 56237
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 56238
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 56239
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 56240
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 56241
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 56242
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 56243
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 56244
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 56245
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 56246
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 56247
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 56248
professionals.56249

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 56250
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 56251
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 56252
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 56253
director of health pursuant to division (A) of section 3701.021 of 56254
the Revised Code.56255

       The departments of health and job and family services56256
medicaid shall jointly implement procedures to ensure that 56257
duplicate payments are not made under the program for medically 56258
handicapped children and the medical assistancemedicaid program 56259
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code and to 56260
identify and recover duplicate payments.56261

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 56262
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 56263
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 56264
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 56265
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 56266
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 56267
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 56268
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 56269
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 56270
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 56271
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 56272
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 56273
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 56274
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 56275
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 56276
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 56277
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 56278
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 56279
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 56280
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 56281
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 56282
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 56283
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 56284
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 56285
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 56286
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 56287
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 56288
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 56289
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 56290
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 56291
for persons eligible for the medical assistancemedicaid program 56292
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 56293
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 56294
(E) of this section.56295

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 56296
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 56297
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 56298
requirements established in rules adopted by the director of 56299
health pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 3701.021 of the 56300
Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this section, but not 56301
subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.56302

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 56303
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 56304
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 56305
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 56306
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 56307
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 56308
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.56309

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 56310
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 56311
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 56312
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 56313
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 56314
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 56315
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 56316
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 56317
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 56318
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 56319
performance of their duties.56320

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 56321
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 56322
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 56323
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 56324
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 56325
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.56326

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 56327
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 56328
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 56329
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 56330
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 56331
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 56332
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 56333
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.56334

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 56335
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 56336
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 56337
of the discount.56338

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 56339
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 56340
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 56341
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 56342
manufacturer to the department.56343

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 56344
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 56345
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 56346
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 56347
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 56348
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 56349
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 56350
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 56351
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 56352
federal funds or through the medical assistancemedicaid program 56353
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 56354
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 56355
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 56356
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 56357
(3) of this section.56358

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 56359
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 56360
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 56361
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 56362
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 56363
Revised Code.56364

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 56365
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 56366
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 56367
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 56368
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 56369
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 56370
services for medically handicapped children.56371

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 56372
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 56373
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 56374
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 56375
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 56376
to the difference between:56377

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 56378
division (A)(1) of this section;56379

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 56380
section.56381

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 56382
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 56383
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 56384
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 56385
handicapped children.56386

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 56387
the director of health shall hold a public hearing on the proposed 56388
increase and shall give notice of the hearing to each board of 56389
county commissioners that would be affected by the increase at 56390
least thirty days prior to the date set for the hearing. Any 56391
county commissioner may appear and give testimony at the hearing. 56392
Any increase in the millage any county is required to provide for 56393
the program for medically handicapped children shall be 56394
determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 56395
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 56396
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 56397
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.56398

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 56399
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 56400
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 56401
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 56402
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 56403
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 56404
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 56405
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 56406
purposes specified in those divisions.56407

       Sec. 3701.027.  The department of health shall administer 56408
funds received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," 56409
Title V of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 56410
U.S.C.A. 701, as amended, for programs including the program for 56411
medically handicapped children, and to provide technical 56412
assistance and consultation to city and general health districts 56413
and local health planning organizations in implementing local, 56414
community-based, family-centered, coordinated systems of care for 56415
medically handicapped children. The department may make grants to 56416
persons and other entities for the provision of services with the 56417
funds. In addition, the department may use the funds to purchase 56418
liability insurance covering the provision of services under the 56419
programs by physicians and other health care professionals, and to 56420
pay health insurance premiums on behalf of medically handicapped 56421
children participating in the program for medically handicapped 56422
children when the department determines, in accordance with 56423
criteria set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 56424
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of the premiums 56425
is cost effective.56426

       In determining eligibility for services provided with funds 56427
received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," the 56428
department may use the application form established under section56429
5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code. The department may require 56430
applicants to furnish their social security numbers. Funds from 56431
the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant" that are administered 56432
for the purpose of providing family planning services shall be 56433
distributed in accordance with section 3701.033 of the Revised 56434
Code.56435

       Sec. 3701.033.  (A) This section establishes the order of 56436
priority to be followed by the department of health when 56437
distributing funds for the purpose of providing family planning 56438
services, including funds the department receives through the 56439
"Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," Title V of the "Social 56440
Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 701, as amended, and 56441
funds the department receives through Title X of the "Public 56442
Health Service Act," 84 Stat. 1504 (1970), 42 U.S.C. 300a, as 56443
amended. This section does not apply to grants awarded by the 56444
department under section 3701.046 of the Revised Code.56445

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 56446
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 56447
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 56448
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 56449
funds:56450

        (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 56451
are operated by state or local government entities and that 56452
provide or are able to provide family planning services.56453

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 56454
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 56455
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 56456
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 56457
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 56458
priority:56459

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 56460
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 56461
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 56462
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;56463

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 56464
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;56465

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 56466
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 56467
services.56468

       Sec. 3701.13.  The department of health shall have 56469
supervision of all matters relating to the preservation of the 56470
life and health of the people and have ultimate authority in 56471
matters of quarantine and isolation, which it may declare and 56472
enforce, when neither exists, and modify, relax, or abolish, when 56473
either has been established. The department may approve methods of 56474
immunization against the diseases specified in section 3313.671 of 56475
the Revised Code for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of 56476
that section and take such actions as are necessary to encourage 56477
vaccination against those diseases.56478

       The department may make special or standing orders or rules 56479
for preventing the use of fluoroscopes for nonmedical purposes56480
whichthat emit doses of radiation likely to be harmful to any 56481
person, for preventing the spread of contagious or infectious 56482
diseases, for governing the receipt and conveyance of remains of 56483
deceased persons, and for such other sanitary matters as are best 56484
controlled by a general rule. Whenever possible, the department 56485
shall work in cooperation with the health commissioner of a 56486
general or city health district. ItThe department may make and 56487
enforce orders in local matters or reassign substantive authority 56488
for mandatory programs from a general or city health district to 56489
another general or city health district when an emergency exists, 56490
or when the board of health of a general or city health district 56491
has neglected or refused to act with sufficient promptness or 56492
efficiency, or when such board has not been established as 56493
provided by sections 3709.02, 3709.03, 3709.05, 3709.06, 3709.11, 56494
3709.12, and 3709.14 of the Revised Code. In such cases, the 56495
necessary expense incurred shall be paid by the general health 56496
district or city for which the services are rendered.56497

       The department of health may require general or city health 56498
districts to enter into agreements for shared services under 56499
section 9.482 of the Revised Code.56500

       As a condition precedent to receiving funding from the 56501
department of health, the director of health may require general 56502
or city health districts to be accredited not later than July 1, 56503
2018, by an accreditation body approved by the director.56504

       The department may make evaluative studies of the nutritional 56505
status of Ohio residents, and of the food and nutrition-related 56506
programs operating within the state. Every agency of the state, at 56507
the request of the department, shall provide information and 56508
otherwise assist in the execution of such studies.56509

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 56510
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 56511
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 56512
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 56513
1786, as amended. The director of health may adopt rules pursuant 56514
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for administering 56515
the program. The rules may include civil money penalties for 56516
violations of the rules.56517

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 56518
program, the department may use the application form established 56519
under section 5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code for the healthy 56520
start program. The department may require applicants to furnish 56521
their social security numbers.56522

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 56523
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 56524
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 56525
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 56526
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 56527
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 56528
section.56529

       Sec. 3701.243.  (A) Except as provided in this section or 56530
section 3701.248 of the Revised Code, no person or agency of state 56531
or local government that acquires the information while providing 56532
any health care service or while in the employ of a health care 56533
facility or health care provider shall disclose or compel another 56534
to disclose any of the following:56535

       (1) The identity of any individual on whom an HIV test is 56536
performed;56537

       (2) The results of an HIV test in a form that identifies the 56538
individual tested;56539

       (3) The identity of any individual diagnosed as having AIDS 56540
or an AIDS-related condition.56541

       (B)(1) Except as provided in divisions (B)(2), (C), (D), and 56542
(F) of this section, the results of an HIV test or the identity of 56543
an individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed 56544
as having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed only 56545
to the following:56546

       (a) The individual who was tested or the individual's legal 56547
guardian, and the individual's spouse or any sexual partner;56548

       (b) A person to whom disclosure is authorized by a written 56549
release, executed by the individual tested or by the individual's 56550
legal guardian and specifying to whom disclosure of the test 56551
results or diagnosis is authorized and the time period during 56552
which the release is to be effective;56553

       (c) The individual's physician;56554

       (d) The department of health or a health commissioner to 56555
which reports are made under section 3701.24 of the Revised Code;56556

       (e) A health care facility or provider that procures, 56557
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 56558
individual, donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of 56559
the Revised Code, and that needs medical information about the 56560
deceased individual to ensure that the body part is medically 56561
acceptable for its intended purpose;56562

       (f) Health care facility staff committees or accreditation or 56563
oversight review organizations conducting program monitoring, 56564
program evaluation, or service reviews;56565

       (g) A health care provider, emergency medical services 56566
worker, or peace officer who sustained a significant exposure to 56567
the body fluids of another individual, if that individual was 56568
tested pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 3701.242 of the 56569
Revised Code, except that the identity of the individual tested 56570
shall not be revealed;56571

       (h) To law enforcement authorities pursuant to a search 56572
warrant or a subpoena issued by or at the request of a grand jury, 56573
a prosecuting attorney, a city director of law or similar chief 56574
legal officer of a municipal corporation, or a village solicitor, 56575
in connection with a criminal investigation or prosecution.56576

       (2) The results of an HIV test or a diagnosis of AIDS or an 56577
AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a health care provider, 56578
or an authorized agent or employee of a health care facility or a 56579
health care provider, if the provider, agent, or employee has a 56580
medical need to know the information and is participating in the 56581
diagnosis, care, or treatment of the individual on whom the test 56582
was performed or who has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an 56583
AIDS-related condition.56584

       This division does not impose a standard of disclosure 56585
different from the standard for disclosure of all other specific 56586
information about a patient to health care providers and 56587
facilities. Disclosure may not be requested or made solely for the 56588
purpose of identifying an individual who has a positive HIV test 56589
result or has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an AIDS-related 56590
condition in order to refuse to treat the individual. Referral of 56591
an individual to another health care provider or facility based on 56592
reasonable professional judgment does not constitute refusal to 56593
treat the individual.56594

       (3) Not later than ninety days after November 1, 1989, each 56595
health care facility in this state shall establish a protocol to 56596
be followed by employees and individuals affiliated with the 56597
facility in making disclosures authorized by division (B)(2) of 56598
this section. A person employed by or affiliated with a health 56599
care facility who determines in accordance with the protocol 56600
established by the facility that a disclosure is authorized by 56601
division (B)(2) of this section is immune from liability to any 56602
person in a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to 56603
person or property resulting from the disclosure.56604

       (C)(1) Any person or government agency may seek access to or 56605
authority to disclose the HIV test records of an individual in 56606
accordance with the following provisions:56607

       (a) The person or government agency shall bring an action in 56608
a court of common pleas requesting disclosure of or authority to 56609
disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual, who 56610
shall be identified in the complaint by a pseudonym but whose name 56611
shall be communicated to the court confidentially, pursuant to a 56612
court order restricting the use of the name. The court shall 56613
provide the individual with notice and an opportunity to 56614
participate in the proceedings if the individual is not named as a 56615
party. Proceedings shall be conducted in chambers unless the 56616
individual agrees to a hearing in open court.56617

       (b) The court may issue an order granting the plaintiff 56618
access to or authority to disclose the test results only if the 56619
court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the plaintiff 56620
has demonstrated a compelling need for disclosure of the 56621
information that cannot be accommodated by other means. In 56622
assessing compelling need, the court shall weigh the need for 56623
disclosure against the privacy right of the individual tested and 56624
against any disservice to the public interest that might result 56625
from the disclosure, such as discrimination against the individual 56626
or the deterrence of others from being tested.56627

       (c) If the court issues an order, it shall guard against 56628
unauthorized disclosure by specifying the persons who may have 56629
access to the information, the purposes for which the information 56630
shall be used, and prohibitions against future disclosure.56631

       (2) A person or government agency that considers it necessary 56632
to disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual in 56633
an action in which it is a party may seek authority for the 56634
disclosure by filing an in camera motion with the court in which 56635
the action is being heard. In hearing the motion, the court shall 56636
employ procedures for confidentiality similar to those specified 56637
in division (C)(1) of this section. The court shall grant the 56638
motion only if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that a 56639
compelling need for the disclosure has been demonstrated.56640

       (3) Except for an order issued in a criminal prosecution or 56641
an order under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section granting 56642
disclosure of the result of an HIV test of a specific individual, 56643
a court shall not compel a blood bank, hospital blood center, or 56644
blood collection facility to disclose the result of HIV tests 56645
performed on the blood of voluntary donors in a way that reveals 56646
the identity of any donor.56647

       (4) In a civil action in which the plaintiff seeks to recover 56648
damages from an individual defendant based on an allegation that 56649
the plaintiff contracted the HIV virus as a result of actions of 56650
the defendant, the prohibitions against disclosure in this section 56651
do not bar discovery of the results of any HIV test given to the 56652
defendant or any diagnosis that the defendant suffers from AIDS or 56653
an AIDS-related condition.56654

       (D) The results of an HIV test or the identity of an 56655
individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed as 56656
having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a 56657
federal, state, or local government agency, or the official 56658
representative of such an agency, for purposes of the medical 56659
assistancemedicaid program established under section 5111.01 of 56660
the Revised Code, the medicare program established under Title 56661
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935) 42 56662
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or any other public assistance program.56663

       (E) Any disclosure pursuant to this section shall be in 56664
writing and accompanied by a written statement that includes the 56665
following or substantially similar language: "This information has 56666
been disclosed to you from confidential records protected from 56667
disclosure by state law. You shall make no further disclosure of 56668
this information without the specific, written, and informed 56669
release of the individual to whom it pertains, or as otherwise 56670
permitted by state law. A general authorization for the release of 56671
medical or other information is not sufficient for the purpose of 56672
the release of HIV test results or diagnoses."56673

       (F) An individual who knows that the individual has received 56674
a positive result on an HIV test or has been diagnosed as having 56675
AIDS or an AIDS-related condition shall disclose this information 56676
to any other person with whom the individual intends to make 56677
common use of a hypodermic needle or engage in sexual conduct as 56678
defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code. An individual's 56679
compliance with this division does not prohibit a prosecution of 56680
the individual for a violation of division (B) of section 2903.11 56681
of the Revised Code.56682

       (G) Nothing in this section prohibits the introduction of 56683
evidence concerning an HIV test of a specific individual in a 56684
criminal proceeding.56685

       Sec. 3701.261.  (A) As used in this section, "state 56686
university" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 56687
Revised Code.56688

       (B) The director of health shall:56689

       (1) Establish a population-based cancer registry, which shall 56690
be known as the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system, to 56691
monitor the incidence of various types of malignant diseases in 56692
Ohio, make appropriate epidemiologic studies to determine any 56693
causal relations of such diseases with occupational, nutritional, 56694
environmental, or infectious conditions, and alleviate or 56695
eliminate any such conditions;56696

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 56697
or otherwise, agencies of the state and federal government, 56698
agencies of the governments of other states, agencies of political 56699
subdivisions of this state, universities, private organizations, 56700
corporations, and associations for the purposes of division 56701
(A)(B)(1) of this section;56702

       (3) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 56703
or other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of the 56704
functions enumerated in divisions (A)(B)(1) and (2) of this 56705
section.56706

       (B)(C) The Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system shall 56707
follow a model of cancer data collection as set forth by the 56708
survey epidemiology and end results system (SEERS). 56709

       (D) The department may, by contract, designate a state 56710
university as an agent to implement some or all of this section 56711
and section 3701.262 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 56712
under those sections.56713

       Sec. 3701.262.  (A) As used in this section and section 56714
3701.263 of the Revised Code:56715

       (1) "Physician" means a person who holds a valid certificate 56716
issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code authorizing the 56717
person to practice medicine orand surgery or osteopathic medicine 56718
and surgery.56719

       (2) "Dentist" means a person who is licensed under Chapter 56720
4715. of the Revised Code to practice dentistry.56721

       (3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 56722
the Revised Code.56723

       (4) "Cancer" includes those diseases specified by rule of the 56724
director of health under division (B)(2) of this section.56725

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 56726
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the following:56727

       (1) Establish the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 56728
required by section 3701.261 of the Revised Code;56729

       (2) Specify the types of cancer and other tumorous and 56730
precancerous diseases to be reported to the department of health 56731
under division (D) of this section;56732

       (3) Establish reporting requirements for information 56733
concerning diagnosed cancer cases as the director considers 56734
necessary to conduct epidemiologic surveys of cancer in this 56735
state;56736

       (4) Establish standards that must be met by research projects 56737
to be eligible to receive information concerning individual cancer 56738
patients from the department of health under division (B) of 56739
section 3701.263 of the Revised Code.56740

       (C) The department of health shall record in the registry all 56741
reports of cancer received by it. In the development and 56742
administration of the cancer registry the department may use 56743
information compiled by public or private cancer registries and 56744
may contract for the collection and analysis of, and research 56745
related to, the information recorded under this section.56746

       (D)(1) Each physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing 56747
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 56748
report each case of cancer to the department. Any person required 56749
to report pursuant to this section may elect to report to the 56750
department through an existing cancer registry if the registry 56751
meets the reporting standards established by the director and 56752
reports to the department.56753

       (2) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 56754
by division (D)(1) of this section.56755

       (E) All physicians, dentists, hospitals, or persons providing 56756
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 56757
grant to the department or its authorized representative access to 56758
all records that identify cases of cancer or establish 56759
characteristics of cancer, the treatment of cancer, or the medical 56760
status of any identified cancer patient.56761

       (F) The Arthur G. James cancer hospital and Richard J. Solove 56762
research institute of the Ohio state university, shall analyze and 56763
evaluate the cancer reports collected pursuant to this section. 56764
The department shall publish and make available to the public 56765
reports summarizing the information collected. Reports shall be 56766
made on a calendar year basis and published not later than ninety 56767
days after the end of each calendar year.56768

       (G) Furnishing information, including records, reports, 56769
statements, notes, memoranda, or other information, to the 56770
department of health, either voluntarily or as required by this 56771
section, or to a person or governmental entity designated as a 56772
medical research project by the department, does not subject a 56773
physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing diagnostic or 56774
treatment services to patients with cancer to liability in an 56775
action for damages or other relief for furnishing the information.56776

       (H) This section does not affect the authority of any person 56777
or facility providing diagnostic or treatment services to patients 56778
with cancer to maintain facility-based tumor registries, in 56779
addition to complying with the reporting requirements of this 56780
section.56781

       (I) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 56782
by division (D) of this section.56783

       Sec. 3701.264.  There is hereby created the Ohio cancer 56784
incidence surveillance system advisory board. The board shall 56785
consist of the director of health, who shall serve as chair of the 56786
board, and one representative, appointed by the governor, from 56787
each medical school accredited by the liaison committee on medical 56788
education and each osteopathic medical school accredited by the 56789
American osteopathic association in Ohio. In addition, the 56790
director of health shall appoint up to three additional members of 56791
the board. Vacancies on the board shall be filled in the same 56792
manner as the initial appointments. Members shall serve without 56793
compensation.56794

       The board shall provide oversight of the collection and 56795
analysis of data by the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 56796
to the director of health and the Arthur G. James cancer hospital 56797
and Richard J. Solove research institute of the Ohio state 56798
university and advise in the implementation of sections 3701.261 56799
to 3701.263and 3701.262 of the Revised Code. The board shall meet 56800
and conduct its business as directed by the chair.56801

       The board shall report to the finance committees of both 56802
houses of the general assembly, not later than March 1, 2001, on 56803
the progress made in implementing sections 3701.261 to 3701.263 of 56804
the Revised Code.56805

       The board is not subject to sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the 56806
Revised Code.56807

       Sec. 3701.342. After consultation with the public health 56808
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 56809
Revised Code, theThe director of health shall adopt rules 56810
establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable standards 56811
for boards of health and local health departments. The minimum 56812
standards shall assure that boards of health and local health 56813
departments provide for:56814

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;56815

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 56816
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;56817

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 56818
department;56819

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 56820
individuals;56821

       (E) Environmental health management programs;56822

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 56823
individual and community wellness;56824

       (G) Annual completion of two continuing education units by 56825
each member of a board of health.56826

       The director shall adopt rules establishing a formula for 56827
distribution of state health district subsidy funds to boards of 56828
health and local health departments. The formula shall provide no 56829
subsidy funds to a board or department unless it meets minimum 56830
standards and shall provide higher funding levels for boards and 56831
districts that meet optimum achievable standards.56832

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 56833
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 56834
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.56835

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 56836
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:56837

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 56838
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 56839
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 56840
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 56841
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 56842
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 56843
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 56844
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 56845
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 56846
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 56847
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 56848
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 56849
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 56850
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 56851
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.56852

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 56853
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the 56854
director of health regarding private water systems shall provide 56855
for the following:56856

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 56857
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 56858
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 56859
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 56860
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 56861
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 56862
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 56863
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the director, 56864
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, for each new private 56865
water system installation, no portion of any fee for administering 56866
and enforcing such rules shall be returned to the department of 56867
health. If the director of health determines that a board of 56868
health of a city or general health district is unable to 56869
administer and enforce a private water system program in the 56870
district, the director shall administer and enforce such a program 56871
in the district and establish fees for such administration and 56872
enforcement.56873

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 56874
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 56875
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 56876
characteristics of a private water system.56877

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 56878
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 56879
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 56880
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 56881
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 56882
the director and the board of health of the city or general health 56883
district. The annual registration fee for private water systems 56884
contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The director, by rule 56885
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 56886
increase the annual registration fee. 56887

       (4) Subject to rules adopted by the director, boards of 56888
health of city or general health districts shall have the option 56889
of determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 56890
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 56891
private laboratories.56892

       (5) The director may establish fees for each new private 56893
water system installation, which shall be collected by the 56894
appropriate board of health and transmitted to the director 56895
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code.56896

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 56897
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 56898
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 56899
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 56900
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 56901
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 56902
adopted under those sections. 56903

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 56904
this section require health districts to follow specific 56905
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 56906
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 56907
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 56908
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 56909
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 56910
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 56911
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 56912
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 56913
this section without the approval of the board.56914

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 56915
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 56916
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 56917
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 56918
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.56919

       (E) A water system that does not provide water for human 56920
consumption shall not be required to obtain a permit or license 56921
issued under, pay any fees assessed or levied under, or comply 56922
with any rule adopted under sections 3701.34 to 3701.347 of the 56923
Revised Code.56924

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 56925
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 56926
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 56927
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 56928
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 56929
the following members:56930

       (1) One otolaryngologist;56931

       (2) One neonatologist;56932

       (3) One pediatrician;56933

       (4) One neurologist;56934

       (5) One hospital administrator;56935

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 56936
hearing screening and evaluation;56937

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 56938
4753.07 of the Revised Code;56939

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 56940
child;56941

       (9) One geneticist;56942

       (10) One epidemiologist;56943

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;56944

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 56945
hearing impaired;56946

       (13) One family advocate;56947

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;56948

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;56949

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 56950
toddlers;56951

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;56952

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 56953
medical handicaps;56954

       (19) One representative of the department of education;56955

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 56956
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;56957

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.56958

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:56959

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 56960
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 56961
Code;56962

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 56963
prior to their adoption by the director under section 3701.508 of 56964
the Revised Code;56965

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 56966
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 56967
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 56968
all of the following:56969

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 56970
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 56971
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 56972
impairment;56973

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 56974
be conducted;56975

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 56976
screening and hearing evaluation;56977

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 56978
to encourage follow-up hearing care;56979

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 56980
not pass the hearing screening;56981

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 56982
3701.506 of the Revised Code. 56983

       Sec. 3701.5010.  (A) As used in this section:56984

       (1) "Critical congenital heart defects screening" means the 56985
identification of a newborn that may have a critical congenital 56986
heart defect, through the use of a physiologic test; 56987

       (2) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 56988
section 3702.141 of the Revised Code;56989

       (3) "Hospital," "maternity unit," "newborn," and "physician" 56990
have the same meanings as in section 3701.503 of the Revised Code.56991

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 56992
hospital and each freestanding birthing center shall conduct a 56993
critical congenital heart defects screening on each newborn born 56994
in the hospital or center, unless the newborn is being transferred 56995
to another hospital. The screening shall be performed after the 56996
newborn reaches twenty-four hours of age but before discharge. If 56997
the newborn is transferred to another hospital, that hospital 56998
shall conduct the screening when determined to be medically 56999
appropriate.57000

       The hospital or center shall promptly notify the newborn's 57001
parent, guardian, or custodian and attending physician of the 57002
screening results. The hospital or center shall notify the 57003
department of health of the screening results for each newborn 57004
screened.57005

       (C) A hospital or freestanding birthing center shall not 57006
conduct a critical congenital heart defects screening if the 57007
newborn's parent objects on the grounds that the screening 57008
conflicts with the parent's religious tenets and practices. 57009

       (D) The director of health shall establish and maintain a 57010
statewide tracking and monitoring system to ensure that universal 57011
critical congenital heart defects screening is implemented. 57012

       (E) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 57013
119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and procedures for 57014
the screening required by this section, including all of the 57015
following:57016

       (1) Identifying the critical congenital heart defects to be 57017
included in the screening;57018

       (2) Specifying equipment to be used for and methods of 57019
screening for critical congenital heart defects; 57020

       (3) Designating the person or persons who will be responsible 57021
for causing screenings and rescreenings to be performed;57022

       (4) Providing notice to the newborn's parent, guardian, or 57023
custodian of the required initial screening and the possibility 57024
that rescreenings may be necessary;57025

       (5) Communicating to the newborn's parent, guardian, or 57026
custodian and attending physician the results of the screening and 57027
any rescreenings;57028

       (6) Causing rescreenings to be performed when initial 57029
screenings have abnormal results;57030

       (7) Referring newborns who receive abnormal screening or 57031
rescreening results to providers of follow-up services.57032

       Sec. 3701.541. As used in this section, "board of health" 57033
means the board of health of a city or general health district or 57034
the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 57035
3709.05 of the Revised Code.57036

        Any state funds or funds from the federal government 57037
distributed by the department of health to a board of health or a 57038
city or general health district shall be distributed directly to 57039
the board or district. The department shall not distribute any 57040
such funds on a regional basis.57041

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 57042
3701.741 of the Revised Code:57043

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 57044
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 57045
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 57046
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 57047
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 57048
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 57049
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 57050
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 57051
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 57052
group practice.57053

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 57054
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.57055

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 57056
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 57057
services.57058

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:57059

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 57060
4715. of the Revised Code;57061

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 57062
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;57063

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 57064
Revised Code;57065

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 57066
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 57067
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 57068
Code;57069

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 57070
Code;57071

       (f) A physician;57072

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 57073
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;57074

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 57075
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;57076

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 57077
Revised Code;57078

       (j) A chiropractor;57079

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 57080
4747. of the Revised Code;57081

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 57082
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;57083

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 57084
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;57085

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 57086
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;57087

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 57088
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 57089
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 57090
Revised Code;57091

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 57092
Code;57093

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 57094
4761. of the Revised Code;57095

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 57096
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 57097
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.57098

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 57099
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 57100
or health care practitioner.57101

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 57102
the Revised Code.57103

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 57104
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 57105
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 57106
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 57107
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 57108
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 57109
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 57110
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 57111
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled nursing 57112
facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 57113
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in section 57114
5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for 57115
the mentally retarded, as defined in section 5124.01 of the 57116
Revised Code.57117

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 57118
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 57119
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 57120
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.57121

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 57122
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 57123
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 57124
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 57125
representative.57126

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:57127

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 57128
health care provider;57129

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 57130
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 57131
section.57132

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 57133
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 57134
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 57135
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 57136
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 57137
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 57138
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 57139
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 57140
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 57141
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 57142
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 57143
division.57144

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 57145
the Revised Code.57146

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 57147
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 57148
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 57149
surgery.57150

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 57151
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 57152
regarding the patient's medical record.57153

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 57154
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 57155
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 57156
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 57157
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 57158
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 57159
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 57160
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 57161
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 57162
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 57163
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 57164
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 57165
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 57166
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 57167
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 57168
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 57169
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 57170
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 57171
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 57172
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 57173
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 57174
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 57175
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.57176

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 57177
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 57178
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 57179
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 57180
access to the record.57181

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 57182
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 57183
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 57184
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 57185
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.57186

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 57187
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 57188
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.57189

       Sec. 3701.741.  (A) Each health care provider and medical 57190
records company shall provide copies of medical records in 57191
accordance with this section.57192

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this 57193
section, a health care provider or medical records company that 57194
receives a request for a copy of a patient's medical record shall 57195
charge not more than the amounts set forth in this section. 57196

       (1) If the request is made by the patient or the patient's 57197
personal representative, total costs for copies and all services 57198
related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the following:57199

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, 57200
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 57201
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 57202
the Revised Code:57203

        (i) Two dollars and seventy-four cents per page for the first 57204
ten pages;57205

        (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 57206
fifty;57207

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 57208
higher;57209

        (b) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 57210
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 57211
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 57212
per page;57213

        (c) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 57214
health care provider or medical records company.57215

        (2) If the request is made other than by the patient or the 57216
patient's personal representative, total costs for copies and all 57217
services related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the 57218
following:57219

       (a) An initial fee of sixteen dollars and eighty-four cents 57220
adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of the Revised Code, 57221
which shall compensate for the records search;57222

       (b) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 57223
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 57224
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 57225
the Revised Code:57226

       (i) One dollar and eleven cents per page for the first ten 57227
pages;57228

       (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 57229
fifty;57230

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 57231
higher.57232

       (c) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 57233
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 57234
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 57235
per page;57236

       (d) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 57237
health care provider or medical records company.57238

       (C)(1) On request, a health care provider or medical records 57239
company shall provide one copy of the patient's medical record and 57240
one copy of any records regarding treatment performed subsequent 57241
to the original request, not including copies of records already 57242
provided, without charge to the following:57243

       (a) The bureau of workers' compensation, in accordance with 57244
Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 57245
under those chapters;57246

       (b) The industrial commission, in accordance with Chapters 57247
4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 57248
those chapters;57249

       (c) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 57250
county department of job and family services, in accordance with 57251
Chapters 5101.5160., 5161., 5162., 5163., 5164., 5165., 5166.,57252
and 5111.5167. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 57253
those chapters;57254

       (d) The attorney general, in accordance with sections 2743.51 57255
to 2743.72 of the Revised Code and any rules that may be adopted 57256
under those sections;57257

       (e) A patient, patient's personal representative, or 57258
authorized person if the medical record is necessary to support a 57259
claim under Title II or Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 57260
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 401 and 1381, as amended, and the 57261
request is accompanied by documentation that a claim has been 57262
filed.57263

       (2) Nothing in division (C)(1) of this section requires a 57264
health care provider or medical records company to provide a copy 57265
without charge to any person or entity not listed in division 57266
(C)(1) of this section.57267

       (D) Division (C) of this section shall not be construed to 57268
supersede any rule of the bureau of workers' compensation, the 57269
industrial commission, or the department of job and family 57270
servicesmedicaid.57271

       (E) A health care provider or medical records company may 57272
enter into a contract with either of the following for the copying 57273
of medical records at a fee other than as provided in division (B) 57274
of this section:57275

       (1) A patient, a patient's personal representative, or an 57276
authorized person;57277

       (2) An insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised 57278
Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this 57279
state or health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 57280
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.57281

       (F) This section does not apply to medical records the 57282
copying of which is covered by section 173.20 of the Revised Code 57283
or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.57284

       Sec. 3701.742. Not later than January 31, 2006, theThe57285
amounts specified in division (B) of section 3701.741 of the 57286
Revised Code and, not later than the first day of January of each 57287
year thereafter,shall be adjusted annually in accordance with 57288
this section. These amounts plus any amounts previously computed 57289
by annual adjustments made under this section, shall be increased 57290
or decreased by the average percentage of increase or decrease in 57291
the consumer price index for all urban consumers (United States 57292
city average, all items), prepared by the United States department 57293
of labor, bureau of labor statistics, for the57294
twelve-calendar-month period prior to the immediately preceding 57295
first day of Januarycalendar year over the calendar year57296
immediately preceding twelve-calendar-month periodthat year, as 57297
reported by the bureau. The director of health shall make this 57298
determination and adjust the amounts accordingly. The director 57299
shall provide a list of the adjusted amounts to any party upon 57300
request and the department of health shall make thea list of the 57301
adjusted amounts available to the public on itsthe internet web 57302
site maintained by the department of health.57303

       Sec. 3701.78.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 57304
minority health, consisting of twenty-one members. The governor 57305
shall appoint to the commission nine members from among health 57306
researchers, health planners, and health professionals. The 57307
governor also shall appoint two members who are representatives of 57308
the lupus awareness and education program. The speaker of the 57309
house of representatives shall appoint to the commission two 57310
members of the house of representatives, not more than one of whom 57311
is a member of the same political party, and the president of the 57312
senate shall appoint to the commission two members of the senate, 57313
not more than one of whom is a member of the same political party. 57314
The following shall be members of the commission: the directors of 57315
health, mental healthmental health and addiction services, 57316
developmental disabilities, alcohol and drug addiction services,57317
and job and family services, or their designees,; the medicaid 57318
director, or the director's designee; and the superintendent of 57319
public instruction, or the superintendent's designee, shall be 57320
members of the commission. The57321

       The commission shall elect a chairperson from among its 57322
members. Of57323

       Of the members appointed by the governor, five shall be 57324
appointed to initial terms of one year, and four shall be 57325
appointed to initial terms of two years. Thereafter, all members 57326
appointed by the governor shall be appointed to terms of two 57327
years. All members of the commission appointed by the speaker of 57328
the house of representatives or the president of the senate shall 57329
be nonvoting members of the commission and be appointed within 57330
thirty days after the commencement of the first regular session of 57331
each general assembly, and shall serve until the expiration of the 57332
session of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 57333
Members57334

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation, 57335
but shall be reimbursed for the actual and necessary expenses they 57336
incur in the performance of their official duties.57337

       (B) The commission shall promote health and the prevention of 57338
disease among members of minority groups. Each year the commission 57339
shall distribute grants from available funds to community-based 57340
health groups to be used to promote health and the prevention of 57341
disease among members of minority groups. As used in this 57342
division, "minority group" means any of the following economically 57343
disadvantaged groups: Blacks, American Indians, Hispanics, and 57344
Orientals. The commission shall adopt and maintain rules pursuant 57345
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the 57346
distribution of these grants. No group shall qualify to receive a 57347
grant from the commission unless it receives at least twenty per 57348
cent of its funds from sources other than grants distributed under 57349
this section.57350

       (C) The commission may appoint such employees as it considers 57351
necessary to carry out its duties under this section. The 57352
department of health shall provide office space for the 57353
commission.57354

       (D) The commission shall meet at the call of its chairperson 57355
to conduct its official business. A majority of the voting members 57356
of the commission constitute a quorum. The votes of at least eight 57357
voting members of the commission are necessary for the commission 57358
to take any official action or to approve the distribution of 57359
grants under this section.57360

       Sec. 3701.83.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 57361
treasury the general operations fund. Moneys in the fund shall be 57362
used for the purposes specified in sections 3701.04, 3701.344, 57363
3702.20, 3710.15, 3711.16, 3717.45, 3718.06, 3721.02, 3721.022, 57364
3729.07, 3733.43, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.12, 3748.13, 57365
3749.04, 3749.07, 4747.04, 4751.04, and 4769.09 of the Revised 57366
Code.57367

       (B) The alcohol testing program fund is hereby created in the 57368
state treasury. The director of health shall use the fund to 57369
administer and enforce the alcohol testing and permit program 57370
authorized by section 3701.143 of the Revised Code.57371

       The fund shall receive transfers from the liquor control fund 57372
created under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. All investment 57373
earnings of the alcohol testing program fund shall be credited to 57374
the fund.57375

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:57376

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 57377
consideration for employment with a home health agency in a 57378
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 57379
providing direct care to an individual or is referred to a home 57380
health agency by an employment service for such a position. 57381

       (2) "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the 57382
same meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 57383
Revised Code.57384

       (3) "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 57385
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.57386

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 57387
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.57388

       (4)(5) "Direct care" means any of the following:57389

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(7)(8)(a) to (f) 57390
of this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 57391
used as the patient's home;57392

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 57393
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 57394
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 57395
regarding a patient;57396

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 57397
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 57398
home health agency designates as direct care.57399

       (5)(6) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses 57400
listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 57401
109.572 of the Revised Code.57402

       (6)(7) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 57403
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 57404
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 57405
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 57406
agency by an employment service.57407

       (7)(8) "Home health agency" means a person or government 57408
entity, other than a nursing home, residential care facility, 57409
hospice care program, or pediatric respite care program, that has 57410
the primary function of providing any of the following services to 57411
a patient at a place of residence used as the patient's home:57412

       (a) Skilled nursing care;57413

       (b) Physical therapy;57414

       (c) Speech-language pathology;57415

       (d) Occupational therapy;57416

       (e) Medical social services;57417

       (f) Home health aide services.57418

       (8)(9) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 57419
services provided by an employee of a home health agency:57420

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;57421

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;57422

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;57423

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.57424

       (9)(10) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 57425
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 57426
Revised Code.57427

       (10)(11) "Medical social services" means services provided by 57428
a social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 57429
physician.57430

       (11)(12) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 57431
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.57432

       (12)(13) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 57433
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 57434
3721.01 of the Revised Code.57435

       (13)(14) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 57436
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.57437

       (14)(15) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 57438
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.57439

       (15)(16) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 57440
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 57441
or independent social worker.57442

       (16)(17) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 57443
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.57444

       (17)(18) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 57445
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.57446

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 57447
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 57448
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 57449
apply:57450

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 57451
section reveals any of the following:57452

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 57453
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 57454
section;57455

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 57456
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 57457
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 57458
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 57459
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 57460
such a resident;57461

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 57462
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 57463
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 57464
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 57465
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 57466
direct care to an individual.57467

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 57468
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 57469
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 57470
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 57471
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 57472
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 57473
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.57474

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 57475
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 57476
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 57477
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 57478
for a disqualifying offense.57479

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 57480
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 57481
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 57482
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 57483
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 57484
providing direct care to an individual:57485

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 57486
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 57487
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 57488
from employing the applicant in the position;57489

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 57490
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 57491
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 57492
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 57493
impressions as part of the criminal records check.57494

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 57495
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 57496
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 57497
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 57498
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 57499
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 57500
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 57501
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 57502
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 57503
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 57504
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 57505
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 57506
or employee is included in any of the following:57507

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 57508
the United States general services administration pursuant to 57509
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 57510
the federal web site known as the system for award management;57511

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 57512
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 57513
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 57514
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 57515
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 57516
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C.and 1320c-5, 57517
as amended;57518

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 57519
5123.52 of the Revised Code;57520

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 57521
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 57522
the Revised Code;57523

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 57524
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;57525

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 57526
3721.32 of the Revised Code;57527

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 57528
under this section.57529

       (E)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 57530
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 57531
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 57532
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 57533
investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the 57534
applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 57535
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 57536
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 57537
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 57538
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 57539
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 57540
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 57541
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 57542
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 57543
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 57544
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 57545
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 57546
records check request is required by this section does not present 57547
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 57548
period immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal 57549
records check is requested or does not provide evidence that 57550
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 57551
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 57552
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 57553
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 57554
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 57555
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 57556
records check request is required by this section presents proof 57557
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 57558
for that five-year period, the chief administrator may request 57559
that the superintendent include information from the federal 57560
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.57561

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:57562

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 57563
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 57564
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 57565
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 57566
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;57567

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 57568
from each applicant and employee;57569

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 57570
to the superintendent at the time the chief administrator requests 57571
the criminal records check. 57572

       (3) A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 57573
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 57574
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 57575
criminal records check the agency requests under this section. A 57576
home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the 57577
amount the agency pays to the bureau under this section if both of 57578
the following apply:57579

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 57580
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 57581
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 57582
for employment.57583

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 57584
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 57585
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.57586

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 57587
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 57588
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 57589
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 57590
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 57591
the following apply:57592

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 57593
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 57594
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 57595
with regard to the applicant or employee.57596

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 57597
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 57598
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 57599
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 57600
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:57601

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 57602
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;57603

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 57604
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 57605
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.57606

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 57607
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by 57608
this section before obtaining the results of the criminal records 57609
check if the agency is not prohibited by division (B) of this 57610
section from employing the applicant in a position that involves 57611
providing direct care to an individual and either of the following 57612
applies:57613

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 57614
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 57615
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 57616
applicant begins conditional employment.57617

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 57618
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 57619
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 57620
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 57621
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 57622
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:57623

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 57624
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 57625
applicant;57626

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 57627
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 57628
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 57629
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;57630

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 57631
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 57632
the letter;57633

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 57634
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 57635
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 57636
service receives the results.57637

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 57638
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 57639
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 57640
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 57641
chief administrator of the agency. 57642

       (3) A home health agency that employs an applicant 57643
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this 57644
section shall terminate the applicant's employment if the results 57645
of the criminal records check, other than the results of any 57646
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 57647
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 57648
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 57649
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 57650
obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 57651
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 57652
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 57653
the home health agency shall terminate the applicant's employment 57654
unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under this section 57655
that permit the agency to employ the applicant exist and the 57656
agency chooses to employ the applicant. Termination of employment 57657
under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge 57658
for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised 57659
Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the home health 57660
agency about the applicant's criminal record.57661

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 57662
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 57663
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 57664
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 57665
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 57666
to any person other than the following:57667

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 57668
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 57669
representative;57670

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 57671
check or its representative;57672

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 57673
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 57674
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home health 57675
agency that requested the criminal records check;57676

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 57677
records check;57678

       (5) The director of health and the staff of the department of 57679
health who monitor a home health agency's compliance with this 57680
section;57681

       (6) The director of aging or the director's designee if 57682
either of the following apply:57683

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 57684
home health agency, the home health agency also is a 57685
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 57686
long-term care subcontractor;57687

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 57688
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 57689
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 57690
health agency that also is a community-based long-term care 57691
agencyprovider or community-based long-term care subcontractor.57692

       (7) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 57693
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 57694
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 57695
either of the following apply:57696

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 57697
home health agency, the home health agency also is a waiver 57698
agency;57699

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 57700
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 57701
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 57702
health agency that also is a waiver agency.57703

        (8) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 57704
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:57705

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;57706

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 57707
employee;57708

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 57709
program.57710

       (I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 57711
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 57712
property caused by an applicant or employee who a home health 57713
agency employs in a position that involves providing direct care 57714
to an individual, all of the following shall apply:57715

       (1) If the home health agency employed the applicant or 57716
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 57717
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 57718
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 57719
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 57720
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.57721

       (2) If the home health agency employed the applicant in good 57722
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (G) of this 57723
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because it 57724
employed the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal 57725
records check requested under this section.57726

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 57727
applicant or employee according to the personal character 57728
standards established in rules adopted under this section, the 57729
agency shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant 57730
or employee had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 57731
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 57732
disqualifying offense. 57733

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 57734
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 57735

       (1) The rules may do the following:57736

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 57737
criminal records checks under this section;57738

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 57739
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 57740
or more classes of employees from the requirements;57741

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 57742
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 57743
database review conducted under this section.57744

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:57745

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 57746
section;57747

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 57748
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 57749
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 57750
be conducted;57751

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 57752
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 57753
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 57754
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 57755
to be included in one or more of those databases;57756

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 57757
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 57758
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 57759
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 57760
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 57761
standards.57762

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 57763
centered medical home education program in the department of 57764
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 57765
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 57766
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 57767
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 57768
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 57769
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 57770
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.57771

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 57772
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 57773
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 57774
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 57775
Code.57776

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 57777
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 57778
home education program:57779

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 57780
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 57781
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 57782
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 57783
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 57784
centered care;57785

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 57786
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 57787
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 57788
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 57789
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 57790
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 57791
centered care;57792

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:57793

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 57794
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 57795
patient centered care;57796

       (b) Provideprovide education or training on the patient 57797
centered medical home model of care or other similar enhanced 57798
models of coordinated patient centered care.57799

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 57800
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 57801
home education program.57802

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 57803
the program shall be used for the program.57804

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 57805
and administer the patient centered medical home education 57806
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 57807
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 57808
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 57809
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.57810

       Sec. 3701.94. There is hereby established the patient 57811
centered medical home program in the department of health. The 57812
patient centered medical home model of care is an advanced model 57813
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 57814
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 57815
coordinated patient centered care.57816

       Sec. 3701.941. (A) As part of the patient centered medical 57817
home program established under section 3701.94 of the Revised 57818
Code, the department of health shall establish a voluntary patient 57819
centered medical home certification program.57820

       (B) Each primary care practice, that seeks a patient centered 57821
medical home certificate shall submit an application on a form 57822
prepared by the department. The department may require an 57823
application fee and annual renewal fee as determined by the 57824
department. If the department establishes a fee under this 57825
section, the fee shall be in an amount that is sufficient to cover 57826
the cost of any on-site evaluations conducted by the department or 57827
an entity under contract with the department pursuant to section 57828
3701.942 of the Revised Code.57829

       (C) A practice certified under this section shall do all of 57830
the following:57831

       (1) Meet any standards developed by national independent 57832
accrediting and medical home organizations, as determined by the 57833
department;57834

       (2) Develop a systematic follow-up procedure for patients, 57835
including the use of health information technology and patient 57836
registries;57837

       (3) Implement and maintain health information technology that 57838
meets the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 300jj;57839

       (4) Comply with the reporting requirements of section 57840
3701.942 of the Revised Code;57841

       (5) Meet any process, outcome, and quality standards 57842
specified by the department of health;57843

       (6) Meet any other requirements established by the 57844
department.57845

       (D) The department shall seek to do all of the following 57846
through the certification of patient centered medical homes:57847

       (1) Expand, enhance, and encourage the use of primary care 57848
providers, including primary care physicians, advanced practice 57849
registered nurses, and physician assistants, as personal 57850
clinicians;57851

       (2) Develop a focus on delivering high-quality, efficient, 57852
and effective health care services;57853

       (3) Encourage patient centered care and the provision of care 57854
that is appropriate for a patient's race, ethnicity, and language;57855

       (4) Encourage the education and active participation of 57856
patients and patients' families or legal guardians, as 57857
appropriate, in decision making and care plan development;57858

       (5) Provide patients with consistent, ongoing contact with a 57859
personal clinician or team of clinical professionals to ensure 57860
continuous and appropriate care;57861

       (6) Ensure that patient centered medical homes develop and 57862
maintain appropriate comprehensive care plans for patients with 57863
complex or chronic conditions, including an assessment of health 57864
risks and chronic conditions;57865

       (7) Ensure that patient centered medical homes plan for 57866
transition of care from youth to adult to senior;57867

       (8) Enable and encourage use of a range of qualified health 57868
care professionals, including dedicated care coordinators, in a 57869
manner that enables those professionals to practice to the fullest 57870
extent of their professional licenses.57871

       Sec. 3701.942. (A) Each certified patient centered medical 57872
home shall report health care quality and performance information 57873
to the department of health, including any data necessary for 57874
monitoring compliance with certification standards and for 57875
evaluating the impact of patient centered medical homes on health 57876
care quality, cost, and outcomes.57877

       (B) The department may contract with a private entity to 57878
evaluate the effectiveness of certified patient centered medical 57879
homes. The department may provide the entity with data collected 57880
under division (A) of this section.57881

       (C) The department may contract with national independent 57882
accrediting and medical home organizations to provide on-site 57883
evaluation of primary care practices and verification of data 57884
collected under division (A) of this section.57885

       (D) Data collected under this section is not a public record 57886
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.57887

       Sec. 3701.943. (A) The department of health shall submit a 57888
report to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 57889
the Revised Code, the general assembly, evaluating the patient 57890
centered medical home program not later than three years after 57891
rules adopted pursuant to section 3701.944 of the Revised Code 57892
first become effective. The department shall submit a second 57893
report not later than five years after those rules first become 57894
effective.57895

       (B) The reports submitted under division (A) of this section 57896
shall include all of the following:57897

       (1) The number of patients receiving primary care services 57898
from certified patient centered medical homes and the number and 57899
characteristics of those patients with complex or chronic 57900
conditions. To the extent available, information regarding the 57901
income, race, ethnicity, and language of patients shall be 57902
included in the reports;57903

       (2) The number and geographic distribution of certified 57904
patient centered medical homes;57905

       (3) Performance of and quality of care measures implemented 57906
by certified patient centered medical homes;57907

       (4) Preventive care measures implemented by certified patient 57908
centered medical homes;57909

       (5) Payment arrangements of certified patient centered 57910
medical homes;57911

       (6) Costs related to implementation of the patient centered 57912
medical home program and payment of care coordination fees;57913

       (7) The estimated effect of certified patient centered 57914
medical homes on health disparities;57915

       (8) The estimated savings from establishing the patient 57916
centered medical home program, as those savings apply to the fee 57917
for service, managed care, and state-based purchasing sectors.57918

       Sec. 3701.944. The department of health shall adopt rules in 57919
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the 57920
following:57921

       (A) Considering the goals set forth in section 3701.941 of 57922
the Revised Code, establish standards and procedures for 57923
certifying a primary care practice as a patient centered medical 57924
home;57925

       (B) Specify the types of medical practices that constitute 57926
primary care practices for the purpose of certifying patient 57927
centered medical homes; 57928

       (C) Specify the health care quality and performance 57929
information that certified patient centered medical homes must 57930
report to the department pursuant to section 3701.942 of the 57931
Revised Code.57932

       Sec. 3701.95.  (A) As used in this section, "direct care 57933
services" and "direct care worker" have the same meanings as in 57934
section 191.061 of the Revised Code.57935

       (B) Not later than October 1, 2014, the director of health 57936
shall establish a direct care worker certification program. The 57937
director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 57938
Revised Code as necessary to implement the program. The rules may 57939
address standards, procedures, and application fees charged for 57940
certification.57941

       (C) For purposes of the program, the director shall do both 57942
of the following: 57943

       (1) Specify the minimum standards that must be met by a 57944
direct care worker to attain certification, which may include 57945
standards pertaining to education, experience, and continuing 57946
education requirements, as well as standards for compliance with 57947
administrative requirements.57948

       (2) Specify a procedure for determining whether a direct care 57949
worker satisfies the standards specified under division (C)(1) of 57950
this section.57951

       Sec. 3701.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (C) of section 57952
3701.23, division (C) of section 3701.232, division (C) of section 57953
3701.24, division (B) of section 3701.25, division (I)(D)(2) of 57954
section 3701.262, division (D) of section 3701.263, or sections 57955
3701.46 to 3701.55 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor 57956
misdemeanor on a first offense; on each subsequent offense, the 57957
person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.57958

       (B) Whoever violates section 3701.82 of the Revised Code is 57959
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.57960

       (C) Whoever violates section 3701.352 or 3701.81 of the 57961
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.57962

       Sec. 3702.30.  (A) As used in this section:57963

       (1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility, whether 57964
or not part of the same organization as a hospital, that is 57965
located in a building distinct from another in which inpatient 57966
care is provided, and to which any of the following apply:57967

       (a) Outpatient surgery is routinely performed in the 57968
facility, and the facility functions separately from a hospital's 57969
inpatient surgical service and from the offices of private 57970
physicians, podiatrists, and dentists.57971

       (b) Anesthesia is administered in the facility by an 57972
anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist, and 57973
the facility functions separately from a hospital's inpatient 57974
surgical service and from the offices of private physicians, 57975
podiatrists, and dentists.57976

       (c) The facility applies to be certified by the United States 57977
centers for medicare and medicaid services as an ambulatory 57978
surgical center for purposes of reimbursement under Part B of the 57979
medicare program, Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social Security 57980
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended.57981

       (d) The facility applies to be certified by a national 57982
accrediting body approved by the centers for medicare and medicaid 57983
services for purposes of deemed compliance with the conditions for 57984
participating in the medicare program as an ambulatory surgical 57985
center.57986

       (e) The facility bills or receives from any third-party 57987
payer, governmental health care program, or other person or 57988
government entity any ambulatory surgical facility fee that is 57989
billed or paid in addition to any fee for professional services.57990

       (f) The facility is held out to any person or government 57991
entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by 57992
means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.57993

       "Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital 57994
emergency department.57995

       (2) "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" means a fee for 57996
certain overhead costs associated with providing surgical services 57997
in an outpatient setting. A fee is an ambulatory surgical facility 57998
fee only if it directly or indirectly pays for costs associated 57999
with any of the following:58000

       (a) Use of operating and recovery rooms, preparation areas, 58001
and waiting rooms and lounges for patients and relatives;58002

       (b) Administrative functions, record keeping, housekeeping, 58003
utilities, and rent;58004

       (c) Services provided by nurses, orderlies, technical 58005
personnel, and others involved in patient care related to 58006
providing surgery.58007

       "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" does not include any 58008
additional payment in excess of a professional fee that is 58009
provided to encourage physicians, podiatrists, and dentists to 58010
perform certain surgical procedures in their office or their group 58011
practice's office rather than a health care facility, if the 58012
purpose of the additional fee is to compensate for additional cost 58013
incurred in performing office-based surgery.58014

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 58015
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.58016

       (4) "Health care facility" means any of the following:58017

       (a) An ambulatory surgical facility;58018

       (b) A freestanding dialysis center;58019

       (c) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;58020

       (d) A freestanding birthing center;58021

       (e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;58022

       (f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.58023

       (5) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 58024
3901.38 of the Revised Code.58025

       (B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12 and 58026
3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall 58027
establish quality standards for health care facilities. The 58028
standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other quality 58029
standards established by any entity recognized by the director.58030

       In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the standards 58031
shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to maintain an 58032
infection control program. The purposes of the program are to 58033
minimize infections and communicable diseases and facilitate a 58034
functional and sanitary environment consistent with standards of 58035
professional practice. To achieve these purposes, ambulatory 58036
surgical facility staff managing the program shall create and 58037
administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and manage 58038
infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the program is 58039
directed by a qualified professional trained in infection control; 58040
ensure that the program is an integral part of the ambulatory 58041
surgical facility's quality assessment and performance improvement 58042
program; and implement in an expeditious manner corrective and 58043
preventive measures that result in improvement. 58044

       (C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that 58045
each physician who practices at the facility comply with all 58046
relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the 58047
obtaining of informed consent from a patient.58048

       (D) The director shall issue a license to each health care 58049
facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates to 58050
the director that it meets the quality standards established by 58051
the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and satisfies 58052
the informed consent compliance requirements specified in division 58053
(C) of this section.58054

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (H) of this section and 58055
in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health care facility 58056
shall operate without a license issued under this section.58057

       (2) If the department of health finds that a physician who 58058
practices at a health care facility is not complying with any 58059
provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of informed 58060
consent from a patient, the department shall report its finding to 58061
the state medical board, the physician, and the health care 58062
facility.58063

       (3) This division does not create, and shall not be construed 58064
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 58065
against a health care facility and in favor of a patient who 58066
allegedly sustains harm as a result of the failure of the 58067
patient's physician to obtain informed consent from the patient 58068
prior to performing a procedure on or otherwise caring for the 58069
patient in the health care facility.58070

       (F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section 58071
shall include all of the following:58072

       (1) Provisions governing application for, renewal, 58073
suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;58074

       (2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section 58075
3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease 58076
its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided 58077
by a health care facility;58078

       (3) Provisions governing the imposition under section 3702.32 58079
of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of this 58080
section or the rules adopted under this section, including a scale 58081
for determining the amount of the penalties;58082

       (4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use when 58083
conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.58084

       (G) An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or induces 58085
abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the Revised Code.58086

       (H) The following entities are not required to obtain a 58087
license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under 58088
this section:58089

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 58090
Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;58091

       (2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital 58092
accreditation or certification program and that provides 58093
diagnostic imaging;58094

       (3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides diagnostic 58095
imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of a surgical 58096
procedure.58097

       Sec. 3702.302.  In the case of an ambulatory surgical 58098
facility not certified by the centers for medicare and medicaid 58099
services as an ambulatory surgical center, the director of health 58100
shall conduct an inspection of the facility each time the facility 58101
submits an application for license renewal. The director shall not 58102
renew the license unless all of the following conditions are met:58103

       (A) The inspector conducting the inspection completes each 58104
item on the following, as applicable:58105

       (1) Until the director adopts rules under division (F) of 58106
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, the form approved by the 58107
director on the effective date of this section;58108

       (2) The form specified by the director pursuant to rules 58109
adopted under division (F) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.58110

       (B) The inspection demonstrates that the ambulatory surgical 58111
facility complies with all quality standards established by the 58112
director in rules adopted under division (B) of section 3702.30 of 58113
the Revised Code.58114

       (C) The director determines that the most recent version of 58115
the updated written transfer agreement filed in accordance with 58116
division (B) of section 3702.303 of the Revised Code is 58117
satisfactory.58118

       Sec. 3702.303. (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 58119
section, an ambulatory surgical facility shall have a written 58120
transfer agreement with a local hospital that specifies an 58121
effective procedure for the safe and immediate transfer of 58122
patients from the facility to the hospital when medical care 58123
beyond the care that can be provided at the ambulatory surgical 58124
facility is necessary, including when emergency situations occur 58125
or medical complications arise. A copy of the agreement shall be 58126
filed with the director of health.58127

       (B) An ambulatory surgical facility shall update a written 58128
transfer agreement each year and file a copy of the updated 58129
agreement with the director.58130

       (C) The requirement for a written transfer agreement between 58131
an ambulatory surgical facility and a hospital does not apply if 58132
either of the following is the case:58133

       (1) The facility is a provider-based entity, as defined in 42 58134
C.F.R. 413.65(a)(2), of a hospital and the facility's policies and 58135
procedures to address situations when care beyond the care that 58136
can be provided at the ambulatory surgical facility are approved 58137
by the governing body of the facility's parent hospital and 58138
implemented;58139

       (2) The director of health has, pursuant to the procedure 58140
specified in section 3702.304 of the Revised Code, granted the 58141
facility a variance from the requirement.58142

       Sec. 3702.304. (A) The director of health may grant a 58143
variance from the written transfer agreement requirement of 58144
section 3702.303 of the Revised Code if the ambulatory surgical 58145
facility submits to the director a complete variance application, 58146
prescribed by the director, and the director determines after 58147
reviewing the application that the facility is capable of 58148
achieving the purpose of a written transfer agreement in the 58149
absence of one.58150

       (B) A variance application is complete for purposes of 58151
division (A) of this section if it contains or includes as 58152
attachments all of the following:58153

       (1) A statement explaining why application of the requirement 58154
would cause the facility undue hardship and why the variance will 58155
not jeopardize the health and safety of any patient;58156

       (2) A letter, contract, or memorandum of understanding signed 58157
by the facility and one or more consulting physicians who have 58158
admitting privileges at a minimum of one local hospital, 58159
memorializing the physician or physicians' agreement to provide 58160
back-up coverage when medical care beyond the level the facility 58161
can provide is necessary;58162

       (3) For each consulting physician described in division 58163
(B)(2) of this section:58164

       (a) A signed statement in which the physician attests that 58165
the physician is familiar with the facility and its operations, 58166
and agrees to provide notice to the facility of any changes in the 58167
physician's ability to provide back-up coverage;58168

       (b) The estimated travel time from the physician's main 58169
residence or office to each local hospital where the physician has 58170
admitting privileges;58171

       (c) Written verification that the facility has a record of 58172
the name, telephone numbers, and practice specialties of the 58173
physician;58174

       (d) Written verification from the state medical board that 58175
the physician possesses a valid certificate to practice medicine 58176
and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued under 58177
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;58178

       (e) Documented verification that each hospital at which the 58179
physician has admitting privileges has been informed in writing by 58180
the physician that the physician is a consulting physician for the 58181
ambulatory surgical facility and has agreed to provide back-up 58182
coverage for the facility when medical care beyond the care the 58183
facility can provide is necessary.58184

       (4) A copy of the facility's operating procedures or 58185
protocols that, at a minimum, do all of the following: 58186

       (a) Address how back-up coverage by consulting physicians is 58187
to occur, including how back-up coverage is to occur when 58188
consulting physicians are temporarily unavailable;58189

       (b) Specify that each consulting physician is required to 58190
notify the facility, without delay, when the physician is unable 58191
to expeditiously admit patients to a local hospital and provide 58192
for continuity of patient care;58193

       (c) Specify that a patient's medical record maintained by the 58194
facility must be transferred contemporaneously with the patient 58195
when the patient is transferred from the facility to a hospital.58196

       (5) Any other information the director considers necessary.58197

       (C) The director's decision to grant or refuse a variance is 58198
final and not subject to any administrative proceedings under 58199
Chapter 119. or any other provision of the Revised Code. 58200

       (D) The director shall consider each application for a 58201
variance independently without regard to any decision the director 58202
may have made on a prior occasion to grant or deny a variance to 58203
that ambulatory surgical facility or any other facility. 58204

       Sec. 3702.305. The director of health may impose conditions 58205
on any variance the director has granted under section 3702.304 of 58206
the Revised Code. The director may, at any time, revoke the 58207
variance if the director determines that the facility is failing 58208
to meet one or more of the conditions.58209

       Sec. 3702.306. A variance the director of health grants under 58210
section 3702.304 of the Revised Code is effective for the period 58211
of time specified by the director, except that it shall not be 58212
effective beyond the date the ambulatory surgical facility's 58213
license expires. If a variance is to expire on the date the 58214
facility's license expires, the facility may submit to the 58215
director an application for a new variance with its next license 58216
renewal application.58217

       Sec. 3702.307. An ambulatory surgical facility shall notify 58218
the director of health when either of the following occurs:58219

       (A) The facility modifies its operating procedures or 58220
protocols described in division (B)(4) of section 3702.304 of the 58221
Revised Code. Notification under these circumstances shall occur 58222
not later than forty-eight hours after the modification is made.58223

       (B) The ambulatory surgical facility becomes aware of an 58224
event, including disciplinary action by the state medical board 58225
pursuant to section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, that may affect a 58226
consulting physician's certificate to practice medicine and 58227
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery or the physician's 58228
ability to admit patients to a hospital identified in a variance 58229
application, as described in division (B)(3)(e) of section 58230
3702.304 of the Revised Code. Notification under these 58231
circumstances shall occur not later than one week after the 58232
facility becomes aware of the event's occurrence.58233

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 58234
Revised Code:58235

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 58236
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 58237
as the applicant.58238

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 58239
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 58240
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.58241

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 58242
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 58243
reviewable activity.58244

       (D) "Service area" means the current and projected primary 58245
and secondary service areas to which the long-term care facility 58246
is, or will be, providing long-term care services.58247

       (E) "Primary service area" means the geographic region, 58248
usually comprised of the Ohio zip code in which the long-term care 58249
facility is located and contiguous zip codes, from which 58250
approximately seventy-five to eighty per cent of the facility's 58251
residents currently originate or are expected to originate.58252

       (F) "Secondary service area" means the geographic region, 58253
usually comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary 58254
service area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the 58255
facility's remaining residents currently originate or are expected 58256
to originate.58257

       (G) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 58258
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 58259
maintenance organization as defined in division (I) of this 58260
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 58261
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 58262
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701.,or58263
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, the medicaid program, or any 58264
self-insurance plan.58265

       (H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 58266
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 58267
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 58268
the state or a political subdivision.58269

       (I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 58270
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 58271
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 58272
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.58273

       (J) "Existing long-term care facility" means either of the 58274
following:58275

       (1) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 58276
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 58277
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 58278
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 58279
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed 58280
and equipped to provide long-term care services, and is actively 58281
providing long-term care services;58282

       (2) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 58283
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 58284
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 58285
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 58286
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has 58287
beds registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as 58288
skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds and has provided 58289
long-term care services for at least three hundred sixty-five 58290
consecutive days within the twenty-four months immediately 58291
preceding the date a certificate of need application is filed with 58292
the director of health.58293

       (K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 58294
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 58295
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 58296
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 58297
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 58298
political subdivisions.58299

       (L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 58300
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 58301
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 58302
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 58303
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.58304

       (M) "Affected person" means:58305

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 58306
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 58307
application in question;58308

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 58309
question;58310

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses long-term care 58311
facilities within the service area served or to be served by the 58312
long-term care services that would be provided under the 58313
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;58314

       (4) Any long-term care facility that is located in the 58315
service area where the long-term care services would be provided 58316
under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;58317

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse long-term care 58318
facilities for services in the service area where the long-term 58319
care services would be provided under the certificate of need or 58320
reviewability ruling in question.58321

       (N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:58322

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 58323
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 58324
3721.09 of the Revised Code;58325

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 58326
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 58327
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 58328
"Social Security Act";58329

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 58330
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 58331
or long-term care beds.58332

       (O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed that is 58333
categorized as one of the following:58334

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 58335
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 58336
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 58337
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 58338
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;58339

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 58340
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 58341
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 58342
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 58343
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 58344
facility;58345

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 58346
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 58347
special skilled nursing bed;58348

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 58349
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 58350
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 58351
as a nursing home bed;58352

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 58353
approved by the director.58354

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 58355
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 58356
described in division (O)(5) of this section.58357

       (P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 58358
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 58359
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 58360
not a reviewable activity.58361

       (Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 58362
5155.31 of the Revised Code.58363

       (R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:58364

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 58365
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a long-term care 58366
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 58367
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 58368
facility;58369

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 58370
applicant, of a long-term care facility that is the subject of an 58371
application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or operator 58372
of the applicant or such a facility.58373

       (S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" means 58374
a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a 58375
pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not 58376
immediate jeopardy or represents widespread deficiencies resulting 58377
in actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy.58378

       (T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency that, 58379
under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 58380
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 58381
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 58382
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.58383

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 58384
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 58385
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 58386
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 58387
Code.58388

       Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for certificates 58389
of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled nursing beds 58390
shall be conducted in accordance with this division and rules 58391
adopted by the director of health. 58392

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 58393
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.58394

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 58395
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 58396
formula developed under rules adopted by the director for the 58397
purpose of determining the number of long-term care beds that may 58398
be needed within the state.58399

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 58400
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 58401
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 58402
more than thirty days.58403

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 58404
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 58405
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 58406
accessible skilled nursing facilities.58407

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the 58408
director shall give special attention to the required 58409
documentation of the need for such beds, including the efforts 58410
made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled nursing 58411
facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size of units 58412
with such beds given the historical pattern of the applicant 58413
hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled nursing 58414
patients.58415

       (B) For assistance in monitoring the use of hospital beds 58416
recategorized as skilled nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the 58417
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 58418
procedures for reporting to the department of health.58419

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 58420
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 58421
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 58422
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 58423
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 58424
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.58425

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 58426
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 58427
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 58428
5111. of the Revised Code.58429

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 58430
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 58431
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 58432
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 58433
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 58434
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 58435
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 58436
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 58437
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 58438
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 58439
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 58440
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.58441

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 58442
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 58443
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 58444
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 58445
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 58446
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 58447
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 58448
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 58449
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 58450
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 58451
subject to sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the 58452
Revised Code.58453

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 58454
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 58455
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 58456
utilizing the facility resulting from the violation not later than 58457
thirty days after the person receives the notice mailed under 58458
section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the person appeals the 58459
director's determination under section 3702.60 of the Revised 58460
Code, thirty days after the person receives an order upholding the 58461
director's determination that is not subject to further appeal. 58462

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 58463
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using a 58464
facility as required by this section or if the person continues to 58465
seek payment or reimbursement for services rendered or costs 58466
incurred in conducting the activity as prohibited by section 58467
3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to the penalties imposed 58468
under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the Revised Code:58469

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 58470
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 58471
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 58472
Code;58473

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 58474
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 58475
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 58476
nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging 58477
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds within any 58478
of those facilities that are involved in the activity;58479

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 58480
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 58481
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, 58482
residential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 58483
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;58484

       (D) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 58485
services may refuse to license under section 5119.205119.33 of 58486
the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or reduce bed capacity 58487
previously granted to, a hospital receiving mentally ill persons 58488
or beds within such a hospital that are involved in the activity;58489

       (E) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 58490
refuse to enter into a provider agreement that includes a 58491
facility, beds, or services that result from the activity.58492

       Sec. 3702.62.  Sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 of the Revised 58493
Code do not apply to any part of a long-term care facility's 58494
campus that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 58495
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 58496
Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as amended, as defined 58497
in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.58498

       Sec. 3702.74.  (A) A primary care physician who has signed a 58499
letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code and the 58500
director of health may enter into a contract for the physician's 58501
participation in the physician loan repayment program. The 58502
physician's employer or other funding source may also be a party 58503
to the contract.58504

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 58505
obligations:58506

       (1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care 58507
services in the health resource shortage area identified in the 58508
letter of intent for at least two years;58509

       (2) When providing primary care services in the health 58510
resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do 58511
all of the following:58512

       (a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty 58513
hours per week, of which at least twenty-one hours will be spent 58514
providing patient care in an outpatient or ambulatory setting;58515

       (b) Provide primary care services without regard to a 58516
patient's ability to pay;58517

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 58518
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the 58519
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 58520
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 58521
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 58522
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 58523
primary care services to medicaid recipients of the medical 58524
assistance program.58525

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 58526
3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care 58527
physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division 58528
(B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest 58529
of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary 58530
care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the 58531
Revised Code;58532

       (4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the department 58533
of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 58534
3702.79 of the Revised Code if the physician fails to complete the 58535
service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this 58536
section.58537

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 58538
the parties.58539

       Sec. 3702.91.  (A) An individual who has signed a letter of 58540
intent under section 3702.90 of the Revised Code may enter into a 58541
contract with the director of health for participation in the 58542
dentist loan repayment program. The dentist's employer or other 58543
funding source may also be a party to the contract.58544

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 58545
obligations:58546

       (1) The individual agrees to provide dental services in the 58547
dental health resource shortage area identified in the letter of 58548
intent for at least two years.58549

       (2) When providing dental services in the dental health 58550
resource shortage area, the individual agrees to do all of the 58551
following:58552

       (a) Provide dental services for a minimum of forty hours per 58553
week;58554

       (b) Provide dental services without regard to a patient's 58555
ability to pay;58556

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 58557
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, and the 58558
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 58559
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 58560
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 58561
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 58562
dental services to medicaid recipients.58563

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 58564
3702.85 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the individual 58565
performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of 58566
this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a 58567
government or other educational loan taken by the individual for 58568
expenses described in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code.58569

       (4) The individual agrees to pay the department of health an 58570
amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.86 of the 58571
Revised Code, if the individual fails to complete the service 58572
obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section.58573

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 58574
the parties.58575

       (D) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 58576
year, the department of health shall mail to each individual to 58577
whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under the dentist loan 58578
repayment program a statement showing the amount of principal and 58579
interest repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the 58580
preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with 58581
address correction and forwarding requested in the manner 58582
prescribed by the United States postal service.58583

       Sec. 3704.144. (A) Gifts, grants, and contributions for the 58584
purpose of adding pollution control equipment to diesel-powered 58585
school buses and converting diesel-powered school buses to 58586
alternative fuels, including contributions that are made pursuant 58587
to the settlement of an administrative action or civil action that 58588
is brought at the request of the director of environmental 58589
protection pursuant to Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., 6109., or 58590
6111. of the Revised Code, shall be credited to the clean diesel 58591
school bus fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 58592
The director shall use money credited to the fund to make grants 58593
to school districts in the state and to county boards of 58594
developmental disabilities for the purpose of adding pollution 58595
control equipment to diesel-powered school buses and converting 58596
diesel-powered school buses to alternative fuels by means of 58597
certified engine configurations and verified technologies that are 58598
consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any 58599
regulations adopted under that section and to pay the 58600
environmental protection agency's costs incurred in administering 58601
this section. In addition, the director may use money credited to 58602
the fund to make grants to school districts and to county boards 58603
of developmental disabilities for the purpose of maintaining 58604
pollution control equipment that is installed on diesel-powered 58605
school buses and to pay the additional cost incurred by a school 58606
district or a county board for using ultra-low sulfur diesel fuel 58607
instead of diesel fuel for the operation of diesel-powered school 58608
buses.58609

       (B) In making grants under this section, the director shall 58610
give priority to school districts and to county boards of 58611
developmental disabilities that are located in a county that is 58612
designated as nonattainment by the United States environmental 58613
protection agency for the fine particulate national ambient air 58614
quality standard under the federal Clean Air Act. In addition, the 58615
director may give a higher priority to a school district or a 58616
county board of developmental disabilities that employs additional 58617
measures that reduce air pollution from the district's or the 58618
county board's school bus fleet.58619

       (C) The director shall adopt rules establishing procedures 58620
and requirements that are necessary to implement this section, 58621
including procedures and requirements governing applications for 58622
grants.58623

       (D) As used in this section:58624

        (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 58625
125.831 of the Revised Code.58626

        (2) "Certified engine configuration" and "section 793" have 58627
the same meanings as in section 122.861 of the Revised Code.58628

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 58629
technology, including retrofit technology and auxiliary power 58630
unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United 58631
States environmental protection agency or the California air 58632
resources board.58633

       Sec. 3706.01.  As used in this chapter:58634

       (A) "Governmental agency" means a department, division, or 58635
other unit of state government, a municipal corporation, county, 58636
township, and other political subdivision, or any other public 58637
corporation or agency having the power to acquire, construct, or 58638
operate air quality facilities, the United States or any agency 58639
thereof, and any agency, commission, or authority established 58640
pursuant to an interstate compact or agreement.58641

       (B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, 58642
association, or corporation, or any combination thereof.58643

       (C) "Air contaminant" means particulate matter, dust, fumes, 58644
gas, mist, smoke, noise, vapor, heat, radioactivity, radiation, or 58645
odorous substance, or any combination thereof.58646

       (D) "Air pollution" means the presence in the ambient air of 58647
one or more air contaminants in sufficient quantity and of such 58648
characteristics and duration as to injure human health or welfare, 58649
plant or animal life, or property, or that unreasonably interferes 58650
with the comfortable enjoyment of life or property.58651

       (E) "Ambient air" means that portion of the atmosphere 58652
outside of buildings and other enclosures, stacks, or ducts that 58653
surrounds human, plant, or animal life, or property.58654

       (F) "Emission" means the release into the outdoor atmosphere 58655
of an air contaminant.58656

       (G) "Air quality facility" means any of the following:58657

       (1) Any method, modification or replacement of property, 58658
process, device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, 58659
prevents, contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or 58660
disposes of air contaminants or substances containing air 58661
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 58662
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air, including, 58663
without limitation, facilities and expenditures that qualify as 58664
air pollution control facilities under section 103 (C)(4)(F) of 58665
the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, and regulations 58666
adopted thereunder;58667

       (2) Motor vehicle inspection stations operated in accordance 58668
with, and any equipment used for motor vehicle inspections 58669
conducted under, section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and rules 58670
adopted under it;58671

       (3) Ethanol or other biofuel facilities, including any 58672
equipment used at the ethanol or other biofuel facility for the 58673
production of ethanol or other biofuels;58674

       (4) Any property or portion thereof used for the collection, 58675
storage, treatment, utilization, processing, or final disposal of 58676
a by-product or solid waste resulting from any method, process, 58677
device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, prevents, 58678
contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or disposes of air 58679
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 58680
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air;58681

       (5) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 58682
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 58683
through improvements in the efficiency of energy utilization or 58684
energy conservation;58685

       (6) Any coal research and development project conducted under 58686
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code;58687

        (7) As determined by the director of the Ohio coal 58688
development office, any property or portion thereof that is used 58689
for the collection, storage, treatment, utilization, processing, 58690
or final disposal of a by-product resulting from a coal research 58691
and development project as defined in section 1555.01 of the 58692
Revised Code or from the use of clean coal technology, excluding 58693
any property or portion thereof that is used primarily for other 58694
subsequent commercial purposes;58695

        (8) Any property or portion thereof that is part of the 58696
FutureGen project of the United States department of energy or 58697
related to the siting of the FutureGen project.;58698

       (9) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 58699
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 58700
through the generation of clean, renewable energy with renewable 58701
energy resources or advanced energy resources as defined in 58702
section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.;58703

        (10) Any property, device, structure or equipment necessary 58704
for the manufacture and production of equipment described as an 58705
air quality facility under this chapter;58706

       (11) Any property, device, or equipment related to the 58707
recharging or refueling of vehicles that promotes the reduction of 58708
emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air through the use 58709
of an alternative fuel as defined in section 125.831 of the 58710
Revised Code or the use of a renewable energy resource as defined 58711
in section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.58712

       "Air quality facility" further includes any property or 58713
system to be used in whole or in part for any of the purposes in 58714
divisions (G)(1) to (10)(11) of this section, whether another 58715
purpose is also served, and any property or system incidental to 58716
or that has to do with, or the end purpose of which is, any of the 58717
foregoing. Air quality facilities that are defined in this 58718
division for industry, commerce, distribution, or research, 58719
including public utility companies, are hereby determined to be 58720
those that qualify as facilities for the control of air pollution 58721
and thermal pollution related to air under Section 13 of Article 58722
VIII, Ohio Constitution.58723

       (H) "Project" or "air quality project" means any air quality 58724
facility, including undivided or other interests therein, acquired 58725
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by the Ohio 58726
air quality development authority under this chapter, or acquired 58727
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by a 58728
governmental agency or person with all or a part of the cost 58729
thereof being paid from a loan or grant from the authority under 58730
this chapter or otherwise paid from the proceeds of air quality 58731
revenue bonds, including all buildings and facilities that the 58732
authority determines necessary for the operation of the project, 58733
together with all property, rights, easements, and interests that 58734
may be required for the operation of the project.58735

       (I) "Cost" as applied to an air quality project means the 58736
cost of acquisition and construction, the cost of acquisition of 58737
all land, rights-of-way, property rights, easements, franchise 58738
rights, and interests required for such acquisition and 58739
construction, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 58740
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 58741
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved, the 58742
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 58743
and sub-offices of the authority, the cost of diverting highways, 58744
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 58745
including the cost of land or easements for such access roads, the 58746
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 58747
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 58748
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 58749
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 58750
of construction, engineering, expenses of research and development 58751
with respect to air quality facilities, the cost of any commodity 58752
contract, including fees and expenses related thereto, legal 58753
expenses, plans, specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of 58754
cost and revenues, working capital, other expenses necessary or 58755
incident to determining the feasibility or practicability of 58756
acquiring or constructing such project, administrative expense, 58757
and such other expense as may be necessary or incident to the 58758
acquisition or construction of the project, the financing of such 58759
acquisition or construction, including the amount authorized in 58760
the resolution of the authority providing for the issuance of air 58761
quality revenue bonds to be paid into any special funds from the 58762
proceeds of such bonds, and the financing of the placing of such 58763
project in operation. Any obligation, cost, or expense incurred by 58764
any governmental agency or person for surveys, borings, 58765
preparation of plans and specifications, and other engineering 58766
services, or any other cost described above, in connection with 58767
the acquisition or construction of a project may be regarded as a 58768
part of the cost of that project and may be reimbursed out of the 58769
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds as authorized by this 58770
chapter.58771

       (J) "Owner" includes an individual, copartnership, 58772
association, or corporation having any title or interest in any 58773
property, rights, easements, or interests authorized to be 58774
acquired by this chapter.58775

       (K) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 58776
by the authority for the use or services of any air quality 58777
project, any gift or grant received with respect to any air 58778
quality project, any moneys received with respect to the lease, 58779
sublease, sale, including installment sale or conditional sale, or 58780
other disposition of an air quality project, moneys received in 58781
repayment of and for interest on any loans made by the authority 58782
to a person or governmental agency, whether from the United States 58783
or any department, administration, or agency thereof, or 58784
otherwise, proceeds of such bonds to the extent that use thereof 58785
for payment of principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the 58786
bonds is authorized by the authority, amounts received or 58787
otherwise derived from a commodity contract or from the sale of 58788
the related commodity under such a contract, proceeds from any 58789
insurance, condemnation, or guaranty pertaining to a project or 58790
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 58791
of the project, and income and profit from the investment of the 58792
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds or of any revenues.58793

       (L) "Public roads" includes all public highways, roads, and 58794
streets in the state, whether maintained by the state, county, 58795
city, township, or other political subdivision.58796

       (M) "Public utility facilities" includes tracks, pipes, 58797
mains, conduits, cables, wires, towers, poles, and other equipment 58798
and appliances of any public utility.58799

       (N) "Construction," unless the context indicates a different 58800
meaning or intent, includes reconstruction, enlargement, 58801
improvement, or providing furnishings or equipment.58802

       (O) "Air quality revenue bonds," unless the context indicates 58803
a different meaning or intent, includes air quality revenue notes, 58804
air quality revenue renewal notes, and air quality revenue 58805
refunding bonds, except that notes issued in anticipation of the 58806
issuance of bonds shall have a maximum maturity of five years as 58807
provided in section 3706.05 of the Revised Code and notes or 58808
renewal notes issued as the definitive obligation may be issued 58809
maturing at such time or times with a maximum maturity of forty 58810
years from the date of issuance of the original note.58811

       (P) "Solid waste" means any garbage; refuse; sludge from a 58812
waste water treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air 58813
pollution control facility; and other discarded material, 58814
including solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous material 58815
resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural 58816
operations, and from community activities, but not including solid 58817
or dissolved material in domestic sewage, or solid or dissolved 58818
material in irrigation return flows or industrial discharges that 58819
are point sources subject to permits under section 402 of the 58820
"Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 58821
880, 33 U.S.C.A. 1342, as amended, or source, special nuclear, or 58822
byproduct material as defined by the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 58823
68 Stat. 921, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended.58824

       (Q) "Sludge" means any solid, semisolid, or liquid waste, 58825
other than a recyclable by-product, generated from a municipal, 58826
commercial, or industrial waste water treatment plant, water 58827
supply plant, or air pollution control facility or any other such 58828
wastes having similar characteristics and effects.58829

       (R) "Ethanol or other biofuel facility" means a plant at 58830
which ethanol or other biofuel is produced.58831

       (S) "Ethanol" means fermentation ethyl alcohol derived from 58832
agricultural products, including potatoes, cereal, grains, cheese 58833
whey, and sugar beets; forest products; or other renewable or 58834
biomass resources, including residue and waste generated from the 58835
production, processing, and marketing of agricultural products, 58836
forest products, and other renewable or biomass resources, that 58837
meets all of the specifications in the American society for 58838
testing and materials (ASTM) specification D 4806-88 and is 58839
denatured as specified in Parts 20 and 21 of Title 27 of the Code 58840
of Federal Regulations.58841

       (T) "Biofuel" means any fuel that is made from cellulosic 58842
biomass resources, including renewable organic matter, crop waste 58843
residue, wood, aquatic plants and other crops, animal waste, solid 58844
waste, or sludge, and that is used for the production of energy 58845
for transportation or other purposes.58846

       (U) "FutureGen project" means the buildings, equipment, and 58847
real property and functionally related buildings, equipment, and 58848
real property, including related research projects that support 58849
the development and operation of the buildings, equipment, and 58850
real property, designated by the United States department of 58851
energy and the FutureGen industrial alliance, inc., as the 58852
coal-fueled, zero-emissions power plant designed to prove the 58853
technical and economic feasibility of producing electricity and 58854
hydrogen from coal and nearly eliminating carbon dioxide emissions 58855
through capture and permanent storage.58856

       (V) "Commodity contract" means a contract or series of 58857
contracts entered into in connection with the acquisition or 58858
construction of air quality facilities for the purchase or sale of 58859
a commodity that is eligible for prepayment with the proceeds of 58860
federally tax exempt bonds under sections 103, 141, and 148 of the 58861
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, and regulations adopted 58862
under it.58863

       Sec. 3707.511.  (A) As used in this section, "physician":58864

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 58865
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 58866
medicine and surgery.58867

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 58868
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.58869

        (B) A youth sports organization shall provide to the parent, 58870
guardian, or other person having care or charge of an individual 58871
who wishes to practice for or compete in an athletic activity 58872
organized by a youth sports organization the concussion and head 58873
injury information sheet required by section 3707.52 of the 58874
Revised Code. The organization shall provide the information sheet 58875
annually for each sport or other category of athletic activity for 58876
or in which the individual practices or competes.58877

        (C)(1) No individual shall act as a coach or referee for a 58878
youth sports organization unless the individual holds a 58879
pupil-activity program permit issued under section 3319.303 of the 58880
Revised Code for coaching interscholastic athletics or presents 58881
evidence that the individual has successfully completed, within 58882
the previous three years, a training program in recognizing the 58883
symptoms of concussions and head injuries to which the department 58884
of health has provided a link on its internet web site under 58885
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code.58886

       (2) The youth sports organization for which the individual 58887
intends to act as a coach or referee shall inform the individual 58888
of the requirement described in division (C)(1) of this section.58889

       (D) If an individual practicing for or competing in an 58890
athletic event organized by a youth sports organization exhibits 58891
signs, symptoms, or behaviors consistent with having sustained a 58892
concussion or head injury while participating in the practice or 58893
competition, the individual shall be removed from the practice or 58894
competition by one of the following:58895

       (1) The individual who is serving as the individual's coach 58896
during that practice or competition;58897

       (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 58898
practice or competition;58899

       (3) An official of the youth sports organization who is 58900
supervising that practice or competition.58901

       (E)(1) If an individual is removed from practice or 58902
competition under division (D) of this section, the coach, 58903
referee, or official who removed the individual shall not allow 58904
the individual, on the same day the individual is removed, to 58905
return to that practice or competition or to participate in any 58906
other practice or competition for which the coach, referee, or 58907
official is responsible. Thereafter, the coach, referee, or 58908
official shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 58909
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 58910
for which the coach, referee, or official is responsible until 58911
both of the following conditions are satisfied:58912

       (a) The individual's condition is assessed by eitherany of 58913
the following:58914

       (i) A physician;58915

        (ii) A chiropractor;58916

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the youth 58917
sports organization, pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, 58918
authorizes to assess an individual who has been removed from 58919
practice or competition under division (D) of this section.58920

       (b) The individual receives written clearance that it is safe 58921
for the individual to return to practice or competition from a 58922
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 58923
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 58924
grant the clearance.58925

       (2) A youth sports organization may authorize a licensed 58926
health care provider who is not a physician or a chiropractor to 58927
make an assessment or grant a clearance for purposes of division 58928
(E)(1) of this section only if the provider is acting in 58929
accordance with one of the following, as applicable to the 58930
provider's authority to practice in this state:58931

       (a) In consultation with a physician;58932

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;58933

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;58934

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.58935

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 58936
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 58937
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.58938

       (F)(1) A youth sports organization or official, employee, or 58939
volunteer of a youth sports organization, including a coach or 58940
referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 58941
death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising from 58942
providing services or performing duties under this section, unless 58943
the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.58944

       (2) This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any 58945
other immunity or defense that a public entity, public official, 58946
or public employee may be entitled to under Chapter 2744. or any 58947
other provision of the Revised Code or under the common law of 58948
this state.58949

       Sec. 3709.01.  The state shall be divided into health 58950
districts. Each city constitutes a health district and shall be 58951
known as a "city health district."58952

       The townships and villages in each county shall be combined 58953
into a health district and shall be known as a "general health 58954
district."58955

       As provided for in sections 3709.051, 3709.07, 3709.071, and 58956
3709.10 of the Revised Code, there may be a union of two or more 58957
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, a union 58958
of two or more contiguous city health districts to form a single58959
city health district, or a union of a general health district and 58960
one or more city health districts located within or partially 58961
within such general health district.58962

       Sec. 3709.051.  Two or more contiguous city health districts 58963
may be united to form a single city health district by a majority 58964
affirmative vote of the legislative authority of each city 58965
affected by the union.58966

       If at least three per cent of the qualified electors residing 58967
within each of two or more contiguous city health districts sign a 58968
petition proposing a union into a single city health district, an 58969
election shall be held as provided in this section to determine 58970
whether a single city health district shall be formed. The 58971
petition for union may specify regarding the board of health of 58972
the new district:58973

       (A) The qualifications for membership;58974

       (B) The term of office;58975

       (C) The number of members or a method by which the number may 58976
be determined from time to time;58977

       (D) The method of appointment.58978

       Such petition shall be filed with the boards of county 58979
commissioners of the respective counties affected, subject to 58980
approval of the director of health, and such boards shall promptly 58981
certify the text of the proposal to the boards of election for the 58982
purpose of having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next 58983
general election occurring more than ninety days after such 58984
certification. The election procedures provided in Chapter 3505. 58985
of the Revised Code for questions and issues shall apply to the 58986
election. If a majority of the electors voting on the proposal in 58987
each of the health districts affected vote in favor thereof, the 58988
union of such districts into a single city health district shall 58989
be established on the second succeeding first day of January.58990

       Sec. 3709.10.  When it is proposed that two or more58991
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, unite in 58992
the formation of one general health district, the district 58993
advisory council of each general health district shall meet and 58994
vote on the question of union. An affirmative majority vote of the 58995
district advisory council shall be required for approval. When the 58996
district advisory councils have voted affirmatively on the 58997
question, they shall meet in joint session and shall elect a board 58998
of health for the combined districts. Each original general health 58999
district shall be entitled to at least one member on the board of 59000
health of the combined districts.59001

       When such union is completed, suchthe district shall 59002
constitute a general health district and shall be governed in the 59003
manner provided for general health districts. When two or more 59004
general health districts unite to form one district, the office of 59005
the board of health shall be located at the county seat of the 59006
county selected by the joint board of district advisory councils.59007

       When two or more general health districts have been combined 59008
into a single district, the county auditor of the county selected 59009
by the joint board of district advisory councils as the location 59010
of the central office of the board of health shall be the auditor 59011
of such district and the county treasurer of such county shall be 59012
the custodian of the health funds of such district. When the 59013
budget of such combined general health district is a matter for 59014
consideration, the members of the budget commissions of the 59015
counties constituting the district shall sit as a joint board for 59016
considering and acting on such budget.59017

       Sec. 3712.051.  (A) As used in this division, "person" does 59018
not include a member of an interdisciplinary team, as defined in 59019
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any individual who is 59020
employed by a person or public agency licensed under section 59021
3712.041 of the Revised Code.59022

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, no person 59023
or public agency, other than a person or public agency licensed 59024
pursuant to section 3712.041 of the Revised Code, shall hold 59025
itself out as providing a pediatric respite care program, or 59026
provide a pediatric respite care program, or use the term 59027
"pediatric respite care program" or any term containing "pediatric 59028
respite care" to describe or refer to a health program, facility, 59029
or agency.59030

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 59031
following:59032

        (1) A hospital;59033

        (2) A nursing home or residential care facility, as those 59034
terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;59035

       (3) A home health agency, if it provides services under 59036
contract with a person or public agency providing a pediatric 59037
respite care program licensed under section 3712.041 of the 59038
Revised Code;59039

        (4) A regional, state, or national nonprofit organization 59040
whose members are providers of pediatric respite care programs, 59041
individuals interested in pediatric respite care programs, or 59042
both, as long as the organization does not provide or represent 59043
that it provides pediatric respite care programs;59044

       (5) A person or government entity certified under section 59045
5123.161 of the Revised Code as a supported living provider;59046

       (6) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 59047
the Revised Code;59048

       (7) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 59049
the Revised Code;59050

       (8) A person providing respite care under a family support 59051
services program established under section 5126.11 of the Revised 59052
Code;59053

       (9) A person or government entity providing respite care 59054
under a medicaid waiver component that the department of 59055
developmental disabilities administers pursuant to section 59056
5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code.59057

       (C) The department of health shall petition the court of 59058
common pleas of any county in which a person or public agency, 59059
without a license granted under section 3712.041 of the Revised 59060
Code, is holding itself out as providing a pediatric respite care 59061
program, is providing a pediatric respite care program, or is 59062
representing a health program, facility, or agency as a pediatric 59063
respite care program, for an order enjoining that person or public 59064
agency from conducting those activities without a license. The 59065
court has jurisdiction to grant injunctive relief upon a showing 59066
that the respondent named in the petition is conducting those 59067
activities without a license.59068

       Any person or public agency may request the department to 59069
petition the court for injunctive relief under this division, and 59070
the department shall do so if it determines that the person or 59071
public agency named in the request is violating division (A) of 59072
this section.59073

       Sec. 3712.07.  (A) As used in this section, "terminal care 59074
facility for the homeless" means a facility that provides 59075
accommodations to homeless individuals who are terminally ill.59076

       (B) A person or public agency licensed under this chapter to 59077
provide a hospice care program may enter into an agreement with a 59078
terminal care facility for the homeless under which hospice care 59079
program services may be provided to individuals residing at the 59080
facility, if all of the following apply:59081

       (1) Each resident of the facility has been diagnosed by a 59082
physician as having a terminal condition and an anticipated life 59083
expectancy of six months or less;59084

       (2) No resident of the facility has a relative or other 59085
person willing or capable of providing the care necessary to cope 59086
with histhe resident's terminal illness or is financially capable 59087
of hiring a person to provide such care;59088

       (3) Each resident of the facility is under the direct care of 59089
a physician;59090

       (4) No resident of the facility requires the staff of the 59091
facility to administer medication by injection;59092

       (5) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 59093
or indirectly, from the residents;59094

       (6) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 59095
or indirectly, from the medical assistancemedicaid program59096
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code or the 59097
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 59098
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;59099

       (7) The facility meets all applicable state and federal 59100
health and safety standards, including standards for fire 59101
prevention, maintenance of safe and sanitary conditions, and 59102
proper preparation and storage of foods.59103

       (C) Hospice care program services may be provided at a 59104
terminal care facility for the homeless only by the personnel of 59105
the person or public agency that has entered into an agreement 59106
with the facility under this section.59107

       (D) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 59108
entered into an agreement under this section may assist its 59109
residents with the self-administration of medication if the 59110
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 59111
administered by injection. In the event that a resident has 59112
entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally alert, 59113
the facility may administer medication to that resident if the 59114
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 59115
administered by injection. Determinations of whether an individual 59116
has entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally 59117
alert shall be based on directions from the personnel who provide 59118
hospice care program services at the facility.59119

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:59120

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 59121
consideration for employment with a hospice care program or 59122
pediatric respite care program in a full-time, part-time, or 59123
temporary position that involves providing direct care to an older 59124
adult or pediatric respite care patient. "Applicant" does not 59125
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 59126
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 59127
than reimbursement for actual expenses.59128

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 59129
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.59130

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.59131

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 59132
the chief administrator of a hospice care program or pediatric 59133
respite care program shall request that the superintendent of the 59134
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 59135
criminal records check of each applicant. If an applicant for whom 59136
a criminal records check request is required under this division 59137
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 59138
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 59139
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 59140
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 59141
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 59142
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 59143
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 59144
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 59145
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 59146
request is required under this division presents proof of having 59147
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 59148
administrator may request that the superintendent include 59149
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 59150
criminal records check.59151

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 59152
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:59153

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 59154
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 59155
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 59156
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 59157
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 59158
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;59159

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 59160
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 59161
investigation.59162

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 59163
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 59164
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 59165
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 59166
required by this section.59167

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 59168
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 59169
to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice care program or 59170
pediatric respite care program shall employ a person in a position 59171
that involves providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric 59172
respite care patient if the person has been convicted of or 59173
pleaded guilty to any of the following:59174

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 59175
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 59176
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 59177
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 59178
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 59179
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 59180
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 59181
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 59182
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.59183

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 59184
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 59185
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 59186
this section.59187

       (2)(a) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care 59188
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 59189
records check request is required under division (B) of this 59190
section prior to obtaining the results of a criminal records check 59191
regarding the individual, provided that the program shall request 59192
a criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance 59193
with division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business 59194
days after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 59195
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a 59196
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program may employ 59197
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 59198
care program or pediatric respite care program by an employment 59199
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 59200
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 59201
respite care patients and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 59202
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 59203
section.59204

       (b) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 59205
that employs an individual conditionally under authority of 59206
division (C)(2)(a) of this section shall terminate the 59207
individual's employment if the results of the criminal records 59208
check requested under division (B) of this section or described in 59209
division (I)(2) of this section, other than the results of any 59210
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 59211
are not obtained within the period ending thirty days after the 59212
date the request is made. Regardless of when the results of the 59213
criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that 59214
the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of 59215
the offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this 59216
section, the program shall terminate the individual's employment 59217
unless the program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 59218
division (F) of this section. Termination of employment under this 59219
division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes 59220
of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 59221
individual makes any attempt to deceive the program about the 59222
individual's criminal record.59223

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program or pediatric respite care 59224
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 59225
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 59226
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 59227
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 59228
this section.59229

       (2) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 59230
may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the program 59231
pays under division (D)(1) of this section. A program may collect 59232
a fee only if both of the following apply:59233

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 59234
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 59235
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 59236
employment;59237

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 59238
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program 59239
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.59240

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 59241
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 59242
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 59243
be made available to any person other than the following:59244

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 59245
check or the individual's representative;59246

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 59247
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;59248

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 59249
program that provides direct care to older adults or pediatric 59250
respite care patients that is owned or operated by the same entity 59251
that owns or operates the hospice care program or pediatric 59252
respite care program;59253

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 59254
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 59255
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 59256
the applicant;59257

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 59258
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.59259

       (F) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 59260
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 59261
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a hospice care 59262
program or pediatric respite care program may employ a person who 59263
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 59264
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 59265
character standards set by the director.59266

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 59267
pediatric respite care program shall inform each individual, at 59268
the time of initial application for a position that involves 59269
providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric respite care 59270
patient, that the individual is required to provide a set of 59271
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 59272
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 59273
consideration for employment.59274

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 59275
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 59276
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program or 59277
pediatric respite care program employs in a position that involves 59278
providing direct care to older adults or pediatric respite care 59279
patients, all of the following shall apply:59280

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 59281
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 59282
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 59283
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 59284
the information in the report is determined later to have been 59285
incomplete or inaccurate;59286

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 59287
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 59288
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 59289
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 59290
check requested under this section;59291

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 59292
according to the personal character standards established in rules 59293
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 59294
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 59295
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 59296
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.59297

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 59298
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 59299
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 59300
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant if 59301
the applicant has been referred to the program by an employment 59302
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 59303
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 59304
respite care patients and both of the following apply:59305

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 59306
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 59307
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 59308
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 59309
preceding the applicant's referral;59310

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 59311
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 59312
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 59313
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 59314
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 59315
care program or pediatric respite care program chooses to employ 59316
the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.59317

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 59318
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 59319
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 59320
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant and 59321
may employ the applicant conditionally as described in this 59322
division, if the applicant has been referred to the program by an 59323
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 59324
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 59325
adults or pediatric respite care patients and if the chief 59326
administrator receives from the employment service or the 59327
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 59328
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 59329
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 59330
service and that states that the employment service has requested 59331
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 59332
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 59333
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 59334
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 59335
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 59336
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 59337
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 59338
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 59339
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 59340
program or pediatric respite care program. If a hospice care 59341
program or pediatric respite care program employs an applicant 59342
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 59343
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 59344
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 59345
care program or pediatric respite care program, and division 59346
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 59347
employment.59348

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 59349
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 59350
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 59351
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 59352
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 59353
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 59354
shall submit a report to the superintendent of industrial 59355
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 59356
The form shall be submitted once every six monthsper year and 59357
shall show the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys 59358
imported into this state or manufactured in this state. Each 59359
report shall be accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item 59360
of bedding or stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured 59361
in this state.59362

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 59363
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 59364
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 59365
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 59366
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.59367

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 59368
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 59369
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 59370
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 59371
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 59372
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.59373

       Sec. 3714.07.  (A)(1) For the purpose of assisting boards of 59374
health and the environmental protection agency in administering 59375
and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it, there is 59376
hereby levied a fee of thirty cents per cubic yard or sixty cents 59377
per ton, as applicable, on both of the following:59378

       (a) The disposal of construction and demolition debris at a 59379
construction and demolition debris facility that is licensed under 59380
this chapter or at a solid waste facility that is licensed under 59381
Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code;59382

       (b) The disposal of asbestos or asbestos-containing materials 59383
or products at a construction and demolition debris facility that 59384
is licensed under this chapter or at a solid waste facility that 59385
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code.59386

       (2) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 59387
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall determine if cubic 59388
yards or tons will be used as the unit of measurement. If basing 59389
the fee on cubic yards, the owner or operator shall utilize either 59390
the maximum cubic yard capacity of the container, or the hauling 59391
volume of the vehicle, that transports the construction and 59392
demolition debris to the facility or the cubic yards actually 59393
logged for disposal by the owner or operator in accordance with 59394
rules adopted under section 3714.02 of the Revised Code. If basing 59395
the fee on tonnage, the owner or operator shall use certified 59396
scales to determine the tonnage of construction and demolition 59397
debris that is disposed of.59398

       (3) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 59399
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall calculate the 59400
amount of money generated from the fee levied under division 59401
(A)(1) of this section and shall hold that amount as a trustee for 59402
the health district having jurisdiction over the facility, if that 59403
district is on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the 59404
Revised Code, or for the state. The owner or operator shall 59405
prepare and file with the appropriate board of health or the 59406
director of environmental protection monthly returns indicating 59407
the total volume or weight, as applicable, of construction and 59408
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 59409
products disposed of at the facility and the total amount of money 59410
generated during that month from the fee levied under division 59411
(A)(1) of this section on the disposal of construction and 59412
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 59413
products. Not later than thirty days after the last day of the 59414
month to which the return applies, the owner or operator shall 59415
mail to the board of health or the director the return for that 59416
month together with the amount of money calculated under division 59417
(A)(3) of this section on the disposal of construction and 59418
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 59419
products during that month or may submit the return and money 59420
electronically in a manner approved by the director. The owner or 59421
operator may request, in writing, an extension of not more than 59422
thirty days after the last day of the month to which the return 59423
applies. A request for extension may be denied. If the owner or 59424
operator submits the money late, the owner or operator shall pay a 59425
penalty of ten per cent of the amount of the money due for each 59426
month that it is late.59427

       (4) Of the money that is submitted by a construction and 59428
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility on a per 59429
cubic yard or per ton basis under this section, a board of health 59430
shall transmit three cents per cubic yard or six cents per ton, as 59431
applicable, to the director not later than forty-five days after 59432
the receipt of the money. The money retained by a board of health 59433
under this section shall be paid into a special fund, which is 59434
hereby created in each health district, and used solely tofor the 59435
following purposes:59436

       (a) To administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 59437
under it;59438

       (b) To abate accumulations of construction and demolition 59439
debris as provided in section 3714.074 of the Revised Code.59440

       The director shall transmit all money received under this 59441
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 59442
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund, which 59443
is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be 59444
administered by the director, and money credited to the fund shall 59445
be used exclusively for the administration and enforcement of this 59446
chapter and rules adopted under it.59447

       (B) The board of health of a health district or the director 59448
may enter into an agreement with the owner or operator of a 59449
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 59450
facility for the quarterly payment of money generated from the 59451
disposal fee as calculated in division (A)(3) of this section. The 59452
board of health shall notify the director of any such agreement. 59453
Not later than forty-five days after receipt of the quarterly 59454
payment, the board of health shall transmit the amount established 59455
in division (A)(4) of this section to the director. The money 59456
retained by the board of health shall be deposited in the special 59457
fund of the district as required under that division. Upon receipt 59458
of the money from a board of health, the director shall transmit 59459
the money to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 59460
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund.59461

       (C) If a construction and demolition debris facility or a 59462
solid waste facility is located within the territorial boundaries 59463
of a municipal corporation or the unincorporated area of a 59464
township, the municipal corporation or township may appropriate up 59465
to four cents per cubic yard or up to eight cents per ton of the 59466
disposal fee required to be paid by the facility under division 59467
(A)(1) of this section for the same purposes that a municipal 59468
corporation or township may levy a fee under division (C) of 59469
section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.59470

       The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 59471
township may appropriate the money from the fee by enacting an 59472
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 59473
fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the legislative authority 59474
shall mail a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the 59475
board of health of the health district in which the construction 59476
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 59477
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 59478
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 59479
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the ordinance 59480
or resolution and not later than forty-five days after receipt of 59481
money generated from the fee, the board or the director, as 59482
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer or other appropriate 59483
officer of the municipal corporation or clerk of the township that 59484
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 59485
or operator of the facility that is required by the ordinance or 59486
resolution to be paid to that municipal corporation or township.59487

       Money received by the treasurer or other appropriate officer 59488
of a municipal corporation under this division shall be paid into 59489
the general fund of the municipal corporation. Money received by 59490
the clerk of a township under this division shall be paid into the 59491
general fund of the township. The treasurer or other officer of 59492
the municipal corporation or the clerk of the township, as 59493
appropriate, shall maintain separate records of the money received 59494
under this division.59495

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 59496
township may cease appropriating money under this division by 59497
repealing the ordinance or resolution that was enacted or adopted 59498
under this division.59499

       The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 59500
119. of the Revised Code establishing requirements for prorating 59501
the amount of the fee that may be appropriated under this division 59502
by a municipal corporation or township in which only a portion of 59503
a construction and demolition debris facility is located within 59504
the territorial boundaries of the municipal corporation or 59505
township.59506

       (D) The board of county commissioners of a county in which a 59507
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 59508
facility is located may appropriate up to three cents per cubic 59509
yard or up to six cents per ton of the disposal fee required to be 59510
paid by the facility under division (A)(1) of this section for the 59511
same purposes that a solid waste management district may levy a 59512
fee under division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.59513

        The board of county commissioners may appropriate the money 59514
from the fee by adopting a resolution establishing the amount of 59515
the fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the board of county 59516
commissioners shall mail a certified copy of the resolution to the 59517
board of health of the health district in which the construction 59518
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 59519
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 59520
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 59521
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the resolution 59522
and not later than forty-five days after receipt of money 59523
generated from the fee, the board of health or the director, as 59524
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer of the county that 59525
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 59526
or operator of the facility that is required by the resolution to 59527
be paid to that county.59528

        Money received by a county treasurer under this division 59529
shall be paid into the general fund of the county. The county 59530
treasurer shall maintain separate records of the money received 59531
under this division.59532

        A board of county commissioners may cease appropriating money 59533
under this division by repealing the resolution that was adopted 59534
under this division.59535

       (E)(1) This section does not apply to the disposal of 59536
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 59537
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if there is no 59538
construction and demolition debris facility licensed under this 59539
chapter within thirty-five miles of the solid waste facility as 59540
determined by a facility's property boundaries.59541

        (2) This section does not apply to the disposal of 59542
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 59543
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 59544
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 59545
disposal of the construction and demolition debris and asbestos or 59546
asbestos-containing materials or products that are identical to 59547
the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 3734. of the 59548
Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that facility.59549

       (3) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 59550
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 59551
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 59552
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 59553
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 59554
when either of the following applies:59555

        (a) The materials are placed within the limits of 59556
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 59557
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 59558
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 59559
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 59560
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 59561
3714.02 of the Revised Code.59562

       (b) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 59563
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 59564
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 59565
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 59566
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 59567
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 59568
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 59569
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.59570

       Sec. 3714.074.  (A) A board of health may use money in the 59571
board's special fund created in section 3714.07 of the Revised 59572
Code for the purpose specified in division (B) of this section if 59573
both of the following apply:59574

       (1) It is the end of the fiscal year.59575

       (2) The board determines that it has more money in the fund 59576
than is necessary for the board to administer and enforce this 59577
chapter and rules adopted under it for the following fiscal year.59578

       (B) A board of health may use excess money as described in 59579
division (A) of this section to abate accumulations of 59580
construction and demolition debris at a location for which a 59581
license has not been issued pursuant to section 3714.05 of the 59582
Revised Code if all of the following apply to the property on 59583
which the accumulations are located:59584

       (1) The construction and demolition debris was placed on the 59585
property under either of the following circumstances:59586

       (a) After the owner of the property acquired title to it; 59587

       (b) Before the owner of the property acquired title to it if 59588
the owner acquired title to the property by bequest or devise.59589

       (2) The owner of the property did not have knowledge that the 59590
construction and demolition debris was being placed on the 59591
property, or the owner posted on the property signs prohibiting 59592
dumping or took other action to prevent the placing of 59593
construction and demolition debris on the property.59594

       (3) The owner of the property did not participate in or 59595
consent to the placement of the construction and demolition debris 59596
on the property.59597

       (4) The owner of the property did not receive any financial 59598
benefit from the placement of the construction and demolition 59599
debris on the property or from having the construction and 59600
demolition debris on the property.59601

       (5) Title to the property was not transferred to the owner of 59602
that property for the purpose of avoiding liability for violations 59603
of this chapter or rules adopted under it.59604

       (6) The person responsible for the placement of the 59605
construction and demolition debris on the property, in placing the 59606
construction and demolition debris on the property, was not acting 59607
as an agent for the owner of the property.59608

       Sec. 3717.08.  (A) The director of agriculture and director 59609
of health shall strive to increase consumer confidence in the 59610
state's food supply by promoting food safety awareness and 59611
education. The efforts of the director of agriculture and director 59612
of health shall be made, when appropriate and available, through 59613
partnerships with representatives of retail food establishments, 59614
representatives of food service operations, and representatives of 59615
the academic community, including the Ohio state universityOSU59616
extension service.59617

       (B) As part of their promotion of food safety awareness, the 59618
director of agriculture and the director of health shall do the 59619
following:59620

       (1) Develop training programs regarding the Ohio uniform food 59621
safety code. The directors may offer the training programs 59622
separately but shall coordinate the content of the programs to the 59623
greatest extent practicable. The training programs shall be made 59624
available to the employees of the department of agriculture, 59625
employees of the department of health, representatives of boards 59626
of health and the health officials employed by the boards, 59627
representatives of retail food establishments, and representatives 59628
of food service operations.59629

       (2) Co-sponsor a biennial statewide food safety conference. 59630
Additional statewide food safety conferences may be held as 59631
considered appropriate by the director of agriculture and director 59632
of health.59633

       Sec. 3718.06. (A) A board of health shall establish fees in 59634
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 59635
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 59636
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 59637
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 59638
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 59639
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 59640
board in carrying out those duties.59641

        (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 59642
director of health may establish by rule a fee to be collected 59643
from applicants for installation permits and alteration permits 59644
issued under rules adopted under this chapter. The director of 59645
health shall use not more than seventy-fiveninety per cent of the 59646
proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing this 59647
chapter and the rules adopted under it by the director. The 59648
director shall use not less than twenty-fiveten per cent of the 59649
proceeds from that fee to establish a program in cooperation with 59650
boards of health to fund installation and evaluation of sewage 59651
treatment system new technology pilot projects through grants or 59652
other agreements. In the selection of pilot projects, the director 59653
shall consult with the sewage treatment system technical advisory 59654
committee. A board of health shall collect and transmit the fee to 59655
the director pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 59656

       Sec. 3719.61.  Nothing in the laws dealing with drugs of 59657
abuse shall be construed to prohibit treatment of narcotic drug 59658
dependent persons by the continuing maintenance of their 59659
dependence through the administration of methadone in accordance 59660
with the rules adopted by the department of alcohol and drug 59661
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 59662
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code, when all of the 59663
following apply:59664

       (A) The likelihood that any person undergoing maintenance 59665
treatment will be cured of dependence on narcotic drugs is remote, 59666
the treatment is prescribed for the purpose of alleviating or 59667
controlling the patient's drug dependence, and the patient's 59668
prognosis while undergoing treatment is at least a partial 59669
improvement in the patient's asocial or antisocial behavior 59670
patterns;59671

       (B) In the case of an inpatient in a hospital or clinic, the 59672
amount of the maintenance drug dispensed at any one time does not 59673
exceed the quantity necessary for a single dose, and the dose is 59674
administered to the patient immediately;59675

       (C) In the case of an outpatient, the amount of the 59676
maintenance drug dispensed at any one time shall be determined by 59677
the patient's treatment provider taking into account the patient's 59678
progress in the treatment program and the patient's needs for 59679
gainful employment, education, and responsible homemaking, except 59680
that in no event shall the dosage be greater than the amount 59681
permitted by federal law and rules adopted by the department 59682
pursuant to section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;59683

       (D) The drug is not dispensed in any case to replace or 59684
supplement any part of a supply of the drug previously dispensed, 59685
or when there is reasonable cause to believe it will be used or 59686
disposed of unlawfully;59687

       (E) The drug is dispensed through a program licensed and 59688
operated in accordance with section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised 59689
Code.59690

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 59691
3721.99 of the Revised Code:59692

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 59693
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 59694
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 59695
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 59696
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 59697
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 59698
of the Revised Code.59699

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:59700

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 59701
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 59702
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 59703
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 59704
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 59705
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 59706
3702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the version 59707
of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect immediately prior 59708
to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the person under sections 59709
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after August 5, 1989;59710

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 59711
licensed as a residential care facility.59712

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:59713

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 59714
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 59715
5122.01 of the Revised Code;59716

       (ii) A residential facility as defined in section 5119.2259717
5119.34 of the Revised Code;59718

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 59719
the Revised Code;59720

       (iv) An alcohol or drugA community addiction program59721
services provider as defined in section 3793.015119.01 of the 59722
Revised Code;59723

       (v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 59724
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;59725

       (vi) A facility providing services under contract with the 59726
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of 59727
the Revised Code;59728

       (vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 59729
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 59730
for care of hospice patients;59731

       (viii) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care 59732
program licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that 59733
is used exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;59734

       (ix) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is operated 59735
by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of 59736
religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of 59737
their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 59738
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 59739
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistancemedicaid59740
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 59741
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the 59742
facility, infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to 59743
members of the religious order;59744

       (x) A county home or district home that has never been 59745
licensed as a residential care facility.59746

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 59747
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 59748
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 59749
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 59750
uncle.59751

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 59752
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 59753
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.59754

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 59755
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 59756
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 59757
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 59758
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 59759
to, the following:59760

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 59761
and supervision of special diets;59762

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 59763
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 59764
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;59765

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;59766

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 59767
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 59768
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;59769

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 59770
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 59771
administration.59772

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 59773
not limited to, the following:59774

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;59775

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 59776
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 59777
of the Revised Code;59778

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 59779
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 59780
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 59781
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.59782

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 59783
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 59784
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 59785
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 59786
providing personal care services.59787

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 59788
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 59789
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 59790
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 59791
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 59792
skilled nursing care.59793

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 59794
either of the following:59795

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 59796
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 59797
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 59798
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;59799

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 59800
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 59801
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 59802
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 59803
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 59804
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.59805

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 59806
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 59807
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 59808
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 59809
mental impairment.59810

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 59811
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 59812
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 59813
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 59814
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.59815

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 59816
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.59817

       (B) The director of health may further classify homes. For 59818
the purposes of this chapter, any residence, institution, hotel, 59819
congregate housing project, or similar facility that meets the 59820
definition of a home under this section is such a home regardless 59821
of how the facility holds itself out to the public.59822

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 59823
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 59824
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 59825
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 59826
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 59827
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.59828

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 59829
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 59830
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.59831

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 59832
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 59833
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 59834
assistance.59835

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix) of this section does not prohibit 59836
a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that division 59837
from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the 59838
Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the 59839
"Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 59840
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 59841
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 59842
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 59843
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.59844

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 59845
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 59846
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 59847
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 59848
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 59849
recognized church or religious denomination.59850

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 59851
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 59852
residential care facility may do the following:59853

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 59854
residents:59855

       (a) Supervision of special diets;59856

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 59857
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;59858

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 59859
administration of medication.59860

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 59861
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 59862
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 59863
period;59864

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 59865
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 59866
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.59867

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 59868
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 59869
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 59870
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 59871
section.59872

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 59873
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 59874
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 59875
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 59876
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 59877
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 59878
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 59879
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 59880
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 59881
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 59882
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 59883
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 59884
medication:59885

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 59886
Revised Code;59887

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 59888
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 59889
course in medication administration approved by the board of 59890
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 59891
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 59892
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 59893
osteopathic medicine and surgery;59894

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 59895
Revised Code;59896

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 59897
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 59898
surgery.59899

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 59900
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 59901
may do the following:59902

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 59903
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;59904

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 59905
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 59906
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 59907
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 59908
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.59909

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 59910
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 59911
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 59912
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 59913
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 59914
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 59915
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 59916
place the container to the mouth of the resident.59917

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 59918
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 59919
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 59920
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 59921
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 59922
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 59923
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 59924
Revised Code, the director of health shall adopt rules specifying 59925
what constitutes the need for skilled nursing care on a part-time, 59926
intermittent basis. The director shall adopt rules that are 59927
consistent with rules pertaining to home health care adopted by 59928
the medicaid director of job and family services for the medicaid 59929
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 59930
Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to this division may be 59931
provided by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 59932
the "Social Security Actfor participation in the medicare 59933
program," a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 59934
the Revised Code, or a member of the staff of a residential care 59935
facility who is qualified to perform skilled nursing care.59936

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 59937
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:59938

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 59939
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 59940
should be transferred to a nursing home;59941

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 59942
receiving the care.59943

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 59944
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 59945
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 59946
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 59947
following:59948

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;59949

        (b) The individual's personal physician;59950

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 59951
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;59952

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 59953
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 59954
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 59955

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 59956
shall include all of the following provisions:59957

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 59958
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 59959
individual's needs can be met at the facility;59960

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 59961
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 59962
are being met at the facility;59963

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 59964
schedule specified in the agreement;59965

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 59966
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 59967
care program that best meets the individual's needs;59968

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 59969
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 59970
nursing care the individual needs is routine.59971

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 59972
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 59973
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.59974

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 59975
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 59976
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 59977
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 59978
unrelated adults.59979

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 59980
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 59981
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 59982
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 59983
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 59984
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 59985
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 59986
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 59987
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 59988
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 59989
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 59990
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 59991
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 59992
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 59993
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 59994
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 59995
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 59996
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 59997
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 59998
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 59999
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 60000
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 60001
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 60002
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.60003

       (C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home 60004
pursuant to this chapter and as a residential facility pursuant to 60005
section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code if the director 60006
determines that the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home 60007
can be maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to 60008
be licensed as a residential facility.60009

       (D) In determining the number of residents in a home for the 60010
purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 60011
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 60012
unless one of the following is the case:60013

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 60014
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 60015
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 60016
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.60017

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and a residential 60018
facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit 60019
licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and 60020
all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care 60021
facility shall be considered as another group.60022

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 60023
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 60024
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 60025
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 60026
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 60027
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 60028
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 60029
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 60030
building code established by the board of building standards under 60031
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 60032
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 60033
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 60034
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 60035
or unit meets the requirements of this division.60036

       (E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 60037
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 60038
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 60039
capacity:60040

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;60041

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;60042

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 60043
twenty dollars. 60044

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 60045
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 60046
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 60047
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 60048
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.60049

       (F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 60050
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 60051
conducted under this section, including any statement of 60052
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 60053
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 60054
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 60055
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 60056
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 60057
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 60058
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 60059
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 60060
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 60061
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 60062
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 60063
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 60064
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 60065
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.60066

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 60067
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 60068
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 60069
prosecution.60070

       Sec. 3721.022.  (A) As used in this section:60071

       (1) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 60072
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.60073

       (2) "Deficiency" and "survey" have the same meanings as in 60074
section 5111.355165.60 of the Revised Code.60075

       (3) "Title XIX" and "Title XVIII" have the same meanings as 60076
in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.60077

       (B) The department of health is hereby designated the state 60078
agency responsible for establishing and maintaining health 60079
standards and serving as the state survey agency for the purposes 60080
of TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 60081
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended. The department 60082
shall carry out these functions in accordance with the 60083
regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued under TitlesTitle60084
XVIII and Title XIX by the United States secretary of health and 60085
human services and with sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.6260086
5165.89 of the Revised Code. The director of health shall enter 60087
into agreements with regard to these functions with the department 60088
of job and family servicesmedicaid and the United States 60089
department of health and human services. The director may also 60090
enter into agreements with the department of job and family 60091
servicesmedicaid under which the department of health is 60092
designated to perform functions under sections 5111.355165.60 to 60093
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.60094

       The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 60095
Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement the survey and 60096
certification requirements for skilled nursing facilities and 60097
nursing facilities established by the United States secretary of 60098
health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX 60099
of the "Social Security Act," and the survey requirements 60100
established under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of 60101
the Revised Code. The rules shall include an informal process by 60102
which a facility may obtain up to two reviews of any deficiencies 60103
that have been cited on a statement of deficiencies made by the 60104
department of health under 42 C.F.R. Part 488 and cause the 60105
facility to be in noncompliance as defined in 42 C.F.R. 488.301. 60106
The first review shall be conducted by an employee of the 60107
department who did not participate in and was not otherwise 60108
involved in any way with the survey. A facility that is not 60109
satisfied with the results of a first review may receive a second 60110
review on payment of a fee to the department. The amount of the 60111
fee shall be specified in rules adopted under this section. The 60112
fee shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of 60113
the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the 60114
Revised Code for use in the implementation of this section. The 60115
second review shall be conducted by either of the following as 60116
selected by the facility: a hearing officer employed by the 60117
department or a hearing officer included on a list the department 60118
shall provide the facility. A final determination that any 60119
deficiency citation is unjustified shall be reflected clearly in 60120
all records relating to the survey.60121

       The director need not adopt as rules any of the regulations, 60122
guidelines, or procedures issued under TitlesTitle XVIII and 60123
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" by the United States 60124
secretary of health and human services.60125

       Sec. 3721.024.  As used in this section, "nursing facility" 60126
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised 60127
Code.60128

       The department of health may establish a program of 60129
recognition of nursing facilities that provide the highest quality 60130
care to residents who are medicaid recipients of medical 60131
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The program 60132
may be funded with public funds appropriated by the general 60133
assembly for the purpose of the program or any funds appropriated 60134
for nursing home licensure.60135

       Sec. 3721.027. (A) As used in this section, "survey" has the 60136
same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the Revised Code.60137

       (B) The department of health shall investigate within ten 60138
working days after referral, in accordance with procedures and 60139
criteria to be established by the department of health and the 60140
department of aging, any unresolved complaint that the office of 60141
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman has investigated 60142
and found to be valid and refers to the department of health. This 60143
requirement does not supersede federal requirements for survey 60144
agency complaint investigations.60145

       Sec. 3721.042.  The director of health may not deny a nursing 60146
home license to a facility seeking a license under this chapter as 60147
a nursing home on the grounds that the facility does not satisfy a 60148
requirement established in rules adopted under section 3721.04 of 60149
the Revised Code regarding the toilet rooms and dining and 60150
recreational areas of nursing homes if all of the following 60151
requirements are met:60152

       (A) The facility seeks a license under this chapter because 60153
it is a county home or district home being sold under section 60154
5155.31 of the Revised Code to a person who may not operate the 60155
facility without a nursing home license under this chapter.60156

       (B) The requirement would not have applied to the facility 60157
had the facility been a nursing home first licensed under this 60158
chapter before October 20, 2001.60159

       (C) The facility was a nursing facility, as defined in 60160
section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code, on the date 60161
immediately preceding the date the facility is sold to the person 60162
seeking the license.60163

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 60164
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 60165
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 60166
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 60167
the state fire marshal.60168

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 60169
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 60170
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 60171
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 60172
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 60173
and:60174

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 60175
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:60176

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 60177
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;60178

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 60179
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 60180
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 60181
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 60182
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;60183

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 60184
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 60185
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 60186
comply with this section;60187

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 60188
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 60189
or both.60190

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 60191
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 60192
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 60193
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 60194
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 60195
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 60196
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 60197
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 60198
industrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 60199
department of health.60200

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 60201
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall terminate 60202
payments under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 60203
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, tothe medicaid provider 60204
agreements of those homes whichthat do not comply with the 60205
requirements of this section for the submission of a written fire 60206
safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for the 60207
installation of systems.60208

       Sec. 3721.072.  (A) As used in this section:60209

       (1) "Advance care planning" means providing each nursing home 60210
resident, or the resident's sponsor if the resident is unable to 60211
participate, on admission to the nursing home and quarterly 60212
thereafter, with the opportunity to discuss the resident's care 60213
goals.60214

       (2) "Overhead paging" means sending audible announcements via 60215
an electronic sound amplification and distribution system 60216
throughout part or all of a nursing home to staff, residents, 60217
residents' families, or others.60218

       (3) "Quality improvement project" means a project listed by 60219
the department of aging under the nursing home quality initiative 60220
established under section 173.60 of the Revised Code.60221

       (B) Beginning July 1, 2013, each nursing home shall 60222
participate in at least one quality improvement project each year. 60223
Each nursing facility shall select the project in which it will 60224
participate from the list the department of aging makes available 60225
pursuant to section 173.60 of the Revised Code.60226

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2015, each nursing home shall 60227
participate in advance care planning with all residents or their 60228
sponsors.60229

       (D) Beginning July 1, 2015, each nursing home shall prohibit 60230
the use of overhead paging within the nursing home, except that 60231
the nursing home may permit the use of overhead paging for matters 60232
of urgent public safety or urgent clinical operations and in 60233
accordance with the preferences of the nursing home's residents. 60234
The nursing home shall develop a written policy regarding its use 60235
of overhead paging and make the policy available to staff, 60236
residents, and residents' families.60237

       Sec. 3721.08.  (A) As used in this section, "real and present 60238
danger" means imminent danger of serious physical or 60239
life-threatening harm to one or more occupants of a home.60240

       (B) The director of health may petition the court of common 60241
pleas of the county in which the home is located for an order 60242
enjoining any person from operating a home without a license or 60243
enjoining a county home or district home that has had its license 60244
revoked from continuing to operate. The court shall have 60245
jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that 60246
the respondent named in the petition is operating a home without a 60247
license or that the county home or district home named in the 60248
petition is operating despite the revocation of its license. The 60249
court shall have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief 60250
against the operation of a home without a valid license regardless 60251
of whether the home meets essential licensing requirements.60252

       (C) Unless the department of job and family servicesmedicaid60253
or contracting agency has taken action under section 5111.5160254
5165.77 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary manager or seek 60255
injunctive relief, if, in the judgment of the director of health, 60256
real and present danger exists at any home, the director may 60257
petition the court of common pleas of the county in which the home 60258
is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary to close the 60259
home, transfer one or more occupants to other homes or other 60260
appropriate care settings, or otherwise eliminate the real and 60261
present danger. The court shall have the jurisdiction to grant 60262
such injunctive relief upon a showing that there is real and 60263
present danger.60264

       (D)(1) If the director determines that real and present 60265
danger exists at a home and elects not to immediately seek 60266
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section, the director 60267
may give written notice of proposed action to the home. The notice 60268
shall specify all of the following:60269

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the real and 60270
present danger;60271

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 60272
take to respond to the conditions;60273

       (c) The date on which the director intends to seek injunctive 60274
relief under division (C) of this section if the director 60275
determines that real and present danger exists at the home.60276

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the time 60277
specified pursuant to division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that it 60278
believes the conditions giving rise to the real and present danger 60279
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 60280
inspection to determine whether real and present danger exists. If 60281
the director determines on the basis of the inspection that real 60282
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 60283
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.60284

       (E)(1) If in the judgment of the director of health 60285
conditions exist at a home that will give rise to real and present 60286
danger if not corrected, the director shall give written notice of 60287
proposed action to the home. The notice shall specify all of the 60288
following:60289

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the 60290
director's judgment;60291

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 60292
take to respond to the conditions;60293

       (c) The date, which shall be no less than ten days after the 60294
notice is delivered, on which the director intends to seek 60295
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section if the 60296
conditions are not substantially corrected and the director 60297
determines that a real and present danger exists.60298

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the period of 60299
time specified pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of this section, 60300
that the conditions giving rise to the director's determination 60301
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 60302
inspection. If the director determines on the basis of the 60303
inspection that the conditions have not been corrected and a real 60304
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 60305
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.60306

       (F)(1) A court that grants injunctive relief under division 60307
(C) of this section may also appoint a special master who, subject 60308
to division (F)(2) of this section, shall have such powers and 60309
authority over the home and length of appointment as the court 60310
considers necessary. Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, 60311
the salary of a special master and any costs incurred by a special 60312
master shall be the obligation of the home.60313

       (2) No special master shall enter into any employment 60314
contract on behalf of a home, or purchase with the home's funds 60315
any capital goods totaling more than ten thousand dollars, unless 60316
the special master has obtained approval for the contract or 60317
purchase from the home's operator or the court.60318

       (G) If the director takes action under division (C), (D), or 60319
(E) of this section, the director may also appoint employees of 60320
the department of health to conduct on-site monitoring of the 60321
home. Appointment of monitors is not subject to appeal under 60322
Chapter 119. or any other section of the Revised Code. No employee 60323
of a home for which monitors are appointed, no person employed by 60324
the home within the previous two years, and no person who 60325
currently has a consulting contract with the department or a home, 60326
shall be appointed under this division. Every monitor shall have 60327
the professional qualifications necessary to monitor correction of 60328
the conditions that give rise to or, in the director's judgment, 60329
will give rise to real and present danger. The number of monitors 60330
present at a home at any given time shall not exceed one for every 60331
fifty residents, or fraction thereof.60332

       (H) On finding that the real and present danger for which 60333
injunctive relief was granted under division (C) of this section 60334
has been eliminated and that the home's operator has demonstrated 60335
the capacity to prevent the real and present danger from 60336
recurring, the court shall terminate its jurisdiction over the 60337
home and return control and management of the home to the 60338
operator. If the real and present danger cannot be eliminated 60339
practicably within a reasonable time following appointment of a 60340
special master, the court may order the special master to close 60341
the home and transfer all residents to other homes or other 60342
appropriate care settings.60343

       (I) The director of health shall give notice of proposed 60344
action under divisions (D) and (E) of this section to both of the 60345
following:60346

       (1) The home's administrator;60347

       (2) If the home is operated by an organization described in 60348
subsection 501(c)(3) and tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of the 60349
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 60350
amended, the board of trustees of the organization; or, if the 60351
home is not operated by such an organization, the owner of the 60352
home.60353

       Notices shall be delivered by certified mail or hand 60354
delivery. If notices are mailed, they shall be addressed to the 60355
persons specified in divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this section, as 60356
indicated in the department of health's records. If they are hand 60357
delivered, they shall be delivered to persons who would reasonably 60358
appear to the average prudent person to have authority to accept 60359
them.60360

       (J) If ownership of a home is assigned or transferred to a 60361
different person, the new owner is responsible and liable for 60362
compliance with any notice of proposed action or order issued 60363
under this section prior to the effective date of the assignment 60364
or transfer.60365

       Sec. 3721.10.  As used in sections 3721.10 to 3721.18 of the 60366
Revised Code:60367

       (A) "Home" means all of the following:60368

       (1) A home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;60369

       (2) Any facility or part of a facility not defined as a home 60370
under section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is certified as a 60371
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 60372
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395 and 1396, as amended, 60373
or as aor nursing facility, both as defined in section 5111.2060374
5165.01 of the Revised Code;60375

       (3) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 60376
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.60377

       (B) "Resident" means a resident or a patient of a home.60378

       (C) "Administrator" means all of the following:60379

       (1) With respect to a home as defined in section 3721.01 of 60380
the Revised Code, a nursing home administrator as defined in 60381
section 4751.01 of the Revised Code;60382

       (2) With respect to a facility or part of a facility not 60383
defined as a home in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is 60384
authorized to provide skilled nursing facility or nursing facility 60385
services, the administrator of the facility or part of a facility;60386

       (3) With respect to a county home or district home, the 60387
superintendent appointed under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.60388

       (D) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian of 60389
a resident who has an interest or responsibility in the resident's 60390
welfare.60391

       (E) "Residents' rights advocate" means:60392

       (1) An employee or representative of any state or local 60393
government entity that has a responsibility regarding residents 60394
and that has registered with the department of health under 60395
division (B) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code;60396

       (2) An employee or representative of any private nonprofit 60397
corporation or association that qualifies for tax-exempt status 60398
under section 501(a) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 60399
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and that has registered 60400
with the department of health under division (B) of section 60401
3701.07 of the Revised Code and whose purposes include educating 60402
and counseling residents, assisting residents in resolving 60403
problems and complaints concerning their care and treatment, and 60404
assisting them in securing adequate services to meet their needs;60405

       (3) A member of the general assembly.60406

       (F) "Physical restraint" means, but is not limited to, any 60407
article, device, or garment that interferes with the free movement 60408
of the resident and that the resident is unable to remove easily, 60409
a geriatric chair, or a locked room door.60410

       (G) "Chemical restraint" means any medication bearing the 60411
American hospital formulary service therapeutic class 4.004:00, 60412
28:16:08, 28:24:08, or 28:24:92 that alters the functioning of the 60413
central nervous system in a manner that limits physical and 60414
cognitive functioning to the degree that the resident cannot 60415
attain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and 60416
psychosocial well-being.60417

       (H) "Ancillary service" means, but is not limited to, 60418
podiatry, dental, hearing, vision, physical therapy, occupational 60419
therapy, speech therapy, and psychological and social services.60420

       (I) "Facility" means a facility, or part of a facility, 60421
certified as a nursing facility or skilled nursing facility under 60422
Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security Act, both as 60423
defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code." "Facility" does 60424
not include an intermediate care facility for the mentally 60425
retarded, as defined in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 60426
Code.60427

       (J) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII 60428
of the "Social Security Act."60429

       (K) "Medicaid" means the program established by Title XIX of 60430
the "Social Security Act" and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.60431

       Sec. 3721.12.  (A) The administrator of a home shall:60432

       (1) With the advice of residents, their sponsors, or both, 60433
establish and review at least annually, written policies regarding 60434
the applicability and implementation of residents' rights under 60435
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, the 60436
responsibilities of residents regarding the rights, and the home's 60437
grievance procedure established under division (A)(2) of this 60438
section. The administrator is responsible for the development of, 60439
and adherence to, procedures implementing the policies.60440

       (2) Establish a grievance committee for review of complaints 60441
by residents. The grievance committee shall be comprised of the 60442
home's staff and residents, sponsors, or outside representatives 60443
in a ratio of not more than one staff member to every two 60444
residents, sponsors, or outside representatives.60445

       (3) Furnish to each resident and sponsor prior to or at the 60446
time of admission, and to each member of the home's staff, at 60447
least one of each of the following:60448

       (a) A copy of the rights established under sections 3721.10 60449
to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;60450

       (b) A written explanation of the provisions of sections 60451
3721.16 to 3721.162 of the Revised Code;60452

       (c) A copy of the home's policies and procedures established 60453
under this section;60454

       (d) A copy of the home's rules;60455

       (e) A copy of the addresses and telephone numbers of the 60456
board of health of the health district of the county in which the 60457
home is located, the county department of job and family services 60458
of the county in which the home is located, the state departments 60459
of health and job and family servicesmedicaid, the state and 60460
local offices of the department of aging, and any Ohio nursing 60461
home ombudspersonombudsman program.60462

       (B) Written acknowledgment of the receipt of copies of the 60463
materials listed in this section shall be made part of the 60464
resident's record and the staff member's personnel record.60465

       (C) The administrator shall post all of the following 60466
prominently within the home:60467

       (1) A copy of the rights of residents as listed in division 60468
(A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code;60469

       (2) A copy of the home's rules and its policies and 60470
procedures regarding the rights and responsibilities of residents;60471

       (3) A notice that a copy of this chapter, rules of the 60472
department of health applicable to the home, and federal 60473
regulations adopted under the medicare and medicaid programs, and 60474
the materials required to be available in the home under section 60475
3721.021 of the Revised Code, are available for inspection in the 60476
home at reasonable hours;60477

       (4) A list of residents' rights advocates;60478

       (5) A notice that the following are available in a place 60479
readily accessible to residents:60480

       (a) If the home is licensed under section 3721.02 of the 60481
Revised Code, a copy of the most recent licensure inspection 60482
report prepared for the home under that section;60483

       (b) If the home is a facility, a copy of the most recent 60484
statement of deficiencies issued to the home under section 5111.4260485
5165.68 of the Revised Code.60486

       (D) The administrator of a home may, with the advice of 60487
residents, their sponsors, or both, establish written policies 60488
regarding the applicability and administration of any additional 60489
residents' rights beyond those set forth in sections 3721.10 to 60490
3721.17 of the Revised Code, and the responsibilities of residents 60491
regarding the rights. Policies established under this division 60492
shall be reviewed, and procedures developed and adhered to as in 60493
division (A)(1) of this section.60494

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:60495

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 60496
pursuant to rules adopted by the director of health under section 60497
3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on the same site 60498
as homes licensed under this chapter.60499

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 60500
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 60501
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 60502
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 60503
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 60504
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 60505
than reimbursement for actual expenses.60506

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services provider" means 60507
a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.60508

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 60509
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.60510

       (4)(5) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of 60511
the Revised Code.60512

       (5)(6) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.60513

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 60514
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 60515
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 60516
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 60517
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 60518
check request is required under this division does not present 60519
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 60520
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 60521
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 60522
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 60523
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 60524
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 60525
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 60526
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 60527
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 60528
request is required under this division presents proof of having 60529
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 60530
administrator may request that the superintendent include 60531
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 60532
criminal records check.60533

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 60534
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:60535

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 60536
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 60537
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 60538
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 60539
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 60540
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;60541

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 60542
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 60543
investigation.60544

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 60545
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 60546
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 60547
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 60548
required by this section.60549

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 60550
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 60551
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 60552
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 60553
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 60554
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:60555

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 60556
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 60557
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 60558
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 60559
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 60560
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 60561
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 60562
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 60563
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.60564

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 60565
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 60566
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 60567
this section.60568

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 60569
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 60570
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 60571
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 60572
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 60573
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 60574
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 60575
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 60576
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 60577
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 60578
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 60579
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 60580
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 60581
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 60582
check is not required under division (B) of this section.60583

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 60584
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 60585
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 60586
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 60587
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 60588
other than the results of any request for information from the 60589
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 60590
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 60591
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 60592
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 60593
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 60594
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 60595
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 60596
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 60597
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 60598
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 60599
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 60600
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 60601
the individual's criminal record.60602

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 60603
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 60604
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 60605
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 60606
a request made under division (B) of this section.60607

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 60608
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 60609
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 60610
fee only if both of the following apply:60611

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 60612
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 60613
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 60614
for employment;60615

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 60616
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or 60617
program the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.60618

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 60619
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 60620
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 60621
shall not be made available to any person other than the 60622
following:60623

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 60624
check or the individual's representative;60625

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 60626
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;60627

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 60628
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 60629
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 60630
program;60631

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 60632
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 60633
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 60634
the applicant;60635

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 60636
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;60637

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 60638
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 60639
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;60640

       (7) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 60641
criminal records check is requested by the chief administrator of 60642
a home that is also a community-based long-term care services 60643
provider.60644

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 60645
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 60646
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 60647
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 60648
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 60649
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 60650
standards set by the director.60651

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 60652
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 60653
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 60654
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 60655
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 60656
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 60657
consideration for employment.60658

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 60659
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 60660
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 60661
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 60662
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:60663

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 60664
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 60665
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 60666
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 60667
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 60668
been incomplete or inaccurate;60669

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 60670
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 60671
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 60672
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 60673
of a criminal records check requested under this section;60674

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 60675
individual according to the personal character standards 60676
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 60677
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 60678
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 60679
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 60680
(C)(1) of this section.60681

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 60682
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 60683
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 60684
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 60685
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 60686
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 60687
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 60688
following apply:60689

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 60690
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 60691
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 60692
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 60693
preceding the applicant's referral;60694

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 60695
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 60696
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 60697
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 60698
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 60699
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 60700
to division (F) of this section.60701

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 60702
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 60703
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 60704
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 60705
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 60706
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 60707
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 60708
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 60709
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 60710
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 60711
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 60712
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 60713
service and that states that the employment service has requested 60714
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 60715
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 60716
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 60717
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 60718
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 60719
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 60720
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 60721
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 60722
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 60723
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 60724
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 60725
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 60726
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 60727
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 60728
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.60729

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 60730
include, but are not limited to, the following:60731

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 60732
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 60733
and rules adopted by the director of health;60734

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 60735
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 60736
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;60737

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 60738
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 60739
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 60740
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 60741
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 60742
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 60743
payment for care.60744

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 60745
responded to promptly;60746

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 60747
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;60748

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 60749
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 60750
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;60751

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 60752
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 60753
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 60754
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 60755
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 60756
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 60757
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 60758
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.60759

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 60760
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 60761
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 60762
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 60763
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 60764
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 60765
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 60766
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 60767
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 60768
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 60769
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 60770
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 60771
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 60772
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 60773
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 60774
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 60775
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 60776
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.60777

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 60778
the physician did not visit the resident;60779

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 60780
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 60781
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 60782
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 60783
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 60784
contract;60785

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 60786
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;60787

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 60788
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;60789

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 60790
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 60791
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 60792
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 60793
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 60794
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 60795
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 60796
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 60797
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 60798
the restraint on that resident.60799

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 60800
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 60801
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 60802
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 60803
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 60804
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 60805
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 60806
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 60807
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 60808
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 60809
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 60810
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 60811
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 60812
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 60813
reasons for continuing the restraint.60814

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 60815
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 60816
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 60817
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 60818
convenience.60819

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 60820
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 60821
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 60822
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 60823
services within the community;60824

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 60825
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 60826
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 60827
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 60828
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 60829
to vote;60830

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 60831
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 60832
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 60833
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 60834
habilitation programs;60835

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 60836
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 60837
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 60838
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 60839
policies;60840

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 60841
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 60842
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 60843
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 60844
contradictory to written admission policies;60845

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 60846
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 60847
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 60848
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 60849
documented by the attending physician;60850

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 60851
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 60852
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 60853
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 60854
resident's or the group's initiative;60855

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 60856
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 60857
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 60858
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 60859
physician, except that communications with public officials or 60860
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 60861
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 60862
limited to, the right to:60863

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;60864

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 60865
communications;60866

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.60867

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 60868
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 60869
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 60870
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 60871
attending physician;60872

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 60873
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 60874
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 60875
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 60876
physician;60877

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 60878
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 60879
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 60880
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 60881
medical record by the attending physician;60882

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 60883
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 60884
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 60885
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 60886
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 60887
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days' 60888
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 60889
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.60890

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 60891
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 60892
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 60893
rates;60894

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;60895

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 60896
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 60897
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 60898
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 60899
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:60900

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 60901
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 60902
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 60903
resident or the resident's sponsor;60904

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 60905
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 60906
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.60907

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 60908
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 60909
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 60910
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 60911
nuisance;60912

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 60913
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 60914
of the reason for either change.60915

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 60916
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 60917
following:60918

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 60919
the home.60920

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 60921
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.60922

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.60923

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 60924
endangered.60925

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 60926
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 60927
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 60928
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 60929
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 60930
unless both of the following are the case:60931

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 60932
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 60933
job and family services.60934

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 60935
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 60936
and family services has upheld the denial was upheld.60937

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 60938
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.355165.60 to 60939
5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the 60940
home otherwise ceases to operate.60941

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 60942
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 60943
or denied.60944

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 60945
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 60946
involuntarily terminated or denied.60947

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 60948
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 60949
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 60950
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 60951
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 60952
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 60953
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 60954
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 60955
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 60956
in assisting residents.60957

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 60958
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 60959
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 60960
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 60961
hours.60962

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 60963
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 60964
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.60965

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 60966
of this section is void.60967

       Sec. 3721.14.  To assist in the implementation of the rights 60968
granted in division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 60969
each home shall provide:60970

       (A) Appropriate staff training to implement each resident's 60971
rights under division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 60972
including, but not limited to, explaining:60973

       (1) The resident's rights and the staff's responsibility in 60974
the implementation of the rights;60975

       (2) The staff's obligation to provide all residents who have 60976
similar needs with comparable service.60977

       (B) Arrangements for a resident's needed ancillary services;60978

       (C) Protected areas outside the home for residents to enjoy 60979
outdoor activity, within the capacity of the facility, consistent 60980
with applicable laws and rules;60981

       (D) Adequate indoor space, which need not be dedicated to 60982
that purpose, for families of residents to meet privately with 60983
families of other residents;60984

       (E) Access to the following persons to enter the home during 60985
reasonable hours, except where such access would interfere with 60986
resident care or the privacy of residents:60987

       (1) Employees of the department of health, department of 60988
mental healthmental health and addiction services, department of 60989
developmental disabilities, department of aging, department of job 60990
and family services, and county departments of job and family 60991
services;60992

       (2) Prospective residents and their sponsors;60993

       (3) A resident's sponsors;60994

       (4) Residents' rights advocates;60995

       (5) A resident's attorney;60996

       (6) A minister, priest, rabbi, or other person ministering to 60997
a resident's religious needs.60998

       (F) In writing, a description of the home's grievance 60999
procedures.61000

       Sec. 3721.15.  (A) Authorization from a resident or a sponsor 61001
with a power of attorney for a home to manage the resident's 61002
financial affairs shall be in writing and shall be attested to by 61003
a witness who is not connected in any manner whatsoever with the 61004
home or its administrator. The home shall maintain accounts 61005
pursuant to division (A)(27) of section 3721.13 of the Revised 61006
Code. Upon the resident's transfer, discharge, or death, the 61007
account shall be closed and a final accounting made. All remaining 61008
funds shall be returned to the resident or resident's sponsor, 61009
except in the case of death, when all remaining funds shall be 61010
transferred or used in accordance with section 5111.1135162.22 of 61011
the Revised Code.61012

       (B) A home that manages a resident's financial affairs shall 61013
deposit the resident's funds in excess of one hundred dollars, and 61014
may deposit the resident's funds that are one hundred dollars or 61015
less, in an interest-bearing account separate from any of the 61016
home's operating accounts. Interest earned on the resident's funds 61017
shall be credited to the resident's account. A resident's funds 61018
that are one hundred dollars or less and have not been deposited 61019
in an interest-bearing account may be deposited in a 61020
noninterest-bearing account or petty cash fund.61021

       (C) Each resident whose financial affairs are managed by a 61022
home shall be promptly notified by the home when the total of the 61023
amount of funds in the resident's accounts and the petty cash fund 61024
plus other nonexempt resources reaches two hundred dollars less 61025
than the maximum amount permitted a recipient of medicaid. The 61026
notice shall include an explanation of the potential effect on the 61027
resident's eligibility for medicaid if the amount in the 61028
resident's accounts and the petty cash fund, plus the value of 61029
other nonexempt resources, exceeds the maximum assets a medicaid 61030
recipient may retain.61031

       (D) Each home that manages the financial affairs of residents 61032
shall purchase a surety bond or otherwise provide assurance 61033
satisfactory to the director of health, or, in the case of a home 61034
that participates in the medicaid program, to the medicaid61035
director of job and family services, to assure the security of all 61036
residents' funds managed by the home.61037

       Sec. 3721.16. For each resident of a home, notice of a 61038
proposed transfer or discharge shall be in accordance with this 61039
section.61040

       (A)(1) The administrator of a home shall notify a resident in 61041
writing, and the resident's sponsor in writing by certified mail, 61042
return receipt requested, in advance of any proposed transfer or 61043
discharge from the home. The administrator shall send a copy of 61044
the notice to the state department of health. The notice shall be 61045
provided at least thirty days in advance of the proposed transfer 61046
or discharge, unless any of the following applies:61047

       (a) The resident's health has improved sufficiently to allow 61048
a more immediate discharge or transfer to a less skilled level of 61049
care;61050

       (b) The resident has resided in the home less than thirty 61051
days;61052

       (c) An emergency arises in which the safety of individuals in 61053
the home is endangered;61054

       (d) An emergency arises in which the health of individuals in 61055
the home would otherwise be endangered;61056

       (e) An emergency arises in which the resident's urgent 61057
medical needs necessitate a more immediate transfer or discharge.61058

       In any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 61059
to (e) of this section, the notice shall be provided as many days 61060
in advance of the proposed transfer or discharge as is 61061
practicable.61062

       (2) The notice required under division (A)(1) of this section 61063
shall include all of the following:61064

       (a) The reasons for the proposed transfer or discharge;61065

       (b) The proposed date the resident is to be transferred or 61066
discharged;61067

       (c) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, a proposed 61068
location to which the resident may relocate and a notice that the 61069
resident and resident's sponsor may choose another location to 61070
which the resident will relocate;61071

       (d) Notice of the right of the resident and the resident's 61072
sponsor to an impartial hearing at the home on the proposed 61073
transfer or discharge, and of the manner in which and the time 61074
within which the resident or sponsor may request a hearing 61075
pursuant to section 3721.161 of the Revised Code;61076

       (e) A statement that the resident will not be transferred or 61077
discharged before the date specified in the notice unless the home 61078
and the resident or, if the resident is not competent to make a 61079
decision, the home and the resident's sponsor, agree to an earlier 61080
date;61081

       (f) The address of the legal services office of the 61082
department of health;61083

       (g) The name, address, and telephone number of a 61084
representative of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman61085
program and, if the resident or patient has a developmental 61086
disability or mental illness, the name, address, and telephone 61087
number of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.61088

       (3) The proposed location to which a resident may relocate as 61089
specified pursuant to division (A)(2)(c) of this section in the 61090
proposed transfer or discharge notice shall be capable of meeting 61091
the resident's health-care and safety needs. The proposed location 61092
for relocation need not have accepted the resident at the time the 61093
notice is issued to the resident and resident's sponsor.61094

       (B) No home shall transfer or discharge a resident before the 61095
date specified in the notice required by division (A) of this 61096
section unless the home and the resident or, if the resident is 61097
not competent to make a decision, the home and the resident's 61098
sponsor, agree to an earlier date.61099

       (C) Transfer or discharge actions shall be documented in the 61100
resident's medical record by the home if there is a medical basis 61101
for the action.61102

       (D) A resident or resident's sponsor may challenge a transfer 61103
or discharge by requesting an impartial hearing pursuant to 61104
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, unless the transfer or 61105
discharge is required because of one of the following reasons:61106

       (1) The home's license has been revoked under this chapter;61107

       (2) The home is being closed pursuant to section 3721.08, 61108
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of 61109
the Revised Code;61110

       (3) The resident is a recipient of medicaid and the home's 61111
participation in the medicaid program has been involuntarily 61112
terminated or denied by the federal government;61113

       (4) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program 61114
and the home's certification under the medicare program has been 61115
involuntarily terminated or denied by the federal government.61116

       (E) If a resident is transferred or discharged pursuant to 61117
this section, the home from which the resident is being 61118
transferred or discharged shall provide the resident with adequate 61119
preparation prior to the transfer or discharge to ensure a safe 61120
and orderly transfer or discharge from the home, and the home or 61121
alternative setting to which the resident is to be transferred or 61122
discharged shall have accepted the resident for transfer or 61123
discharge.61124

       (F) At the time of a transfer or discharge of a resident who 61125
is a recipient of medicaid from a home to a hospital or for 61126
therapeutic leave, the home shall provide notice in writing to the 61127
resident and in writing by certified mail, return receipt 61128
requested, to the resident's sponsor, specifying the number of 61129
days, if any, during which the resident will be permitted under 61130
the medicaid program to return and resume residence in the home 61131
and specifying the medicaid program's coverage of the days during 61132
which the resident is absent from the home. An individual who is 61133
absent from a home for more than the number of days specified in 61134
the notice and continues to require the services provided by the 61135
facility shall be given priority for the first available bed in a 61136
semi-private room.61137

       Sec. 3721.17.  (A) Any resident who believes that the 61138
resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 61139
Code have been violated may file a grievance under procedures 61140
adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 3721.12 of the 61141
Revised Code.61142

       When the grievance committee determines a violation of 61143
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code has occurred, it 61144
shall notify the administrator of the home. If the violation 61145
cannot be corrected within ten days, or if ten days have elapsed 61146
without correction of the violation, the grievance committee shall 61147
refer the matter to the department of health.61148

       (B) Any person who believes that a resident's rights under 61149
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code have been violated 61150
may report or cause reports to be made of the information directly 61151
to the department of health. No person who files a report is 61152
liable for civil damages resulting from the report.61153

       (C)(1) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 61154
section, the department of health shall investigate any complaint 61155
referred to it by a home's grievance committee and any complaint 61156
from any source that alleges that the home provided substantially 61157
less than adequate care or treatment, or substantially unsafe 61158
conditions, or, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer 61159
it to the attorney general, if the attorney general agrees to 61160
investigate within thirty days.61161

       (2) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 61162
section, the department of health may investigate any alleged 61163
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or 61164
of rules, policies, or procedures adopted pursuant to those 61165
sections, not covered by division (C)(1) of this section, or it 61166
may, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer the 61167
complaint to the grievance committee at the home where the alleged 61168
violation occurred, or to the attorney general if the attorney 61169
general agrees to investigate within thirty days.61170

       (D) If, after an investigation, the department of health 61171
finds probable cause to believe that a violation of sections 61172
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or 61173
procedures adopted pursuant to those sections, has occurred at a 61174
home that is certified under the medicare or medicaid program, it 61175
shall cite one or more findings or deficiencies under sections 61176
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the 61177
home is not so certified, the department shall hold an 61178
adjudicative hearing within thirty days under Chapter 119. of the 61179
Revised Code.61180

       (E) Upon a finding at an adjudicative hearing under division 61181
(D) of this section that a violation of sections 3721.10 to 61182
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or procedures 61183
adopted pursuant thereto, has occurred, the department of health 61184
shall make an order for compliance, set a reasonable time for 61185
compliance, and assess a fine pursuant to division (F) of this 61186
section. The fine shall be paid to the general revenue fund only 61187
if compliance with the order is not shown to have been made within 61188
the reasonable time set in the order. The department of health may 61189
issue an order prohibiting the continuation of any violation of 61190
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.61191

       Findings at the hearings conducted under this section may be 61192
appealed pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 61193
an appeal may be made to the court of common pleas of the county 61194
in which the home is located.61195

       The department of health shall initiate proceedings in court 61196
to collect any fine assessed under this section that is unpaid 61197
thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.61198

       (F) Any home found, pursuant to an adjudication hearing under 61199
division (D) of this section, to have violated sections 3721.10 to 61200
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or rules, policies, or procedures 61201
adopted pursuant to those sections may be fined not less than one 61202
hundred nor more than five hundred dollars for a first offense. 61203
For each subsequent offense, the home may be fined not less than 61204
two hundred nor more than one thousand dollars.61205

       A violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 61206
Code is a separate offense for each day of the violation and for 61207
each resident who claims the violation.61208

       (G) No home or employee of a home shall retaliate against any 61209
person who:61210

       (1) Exercises any right set forth in sections 3721.10 to 61211
3721.17 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, filing 61212
a complaint with the home's grievance committee or reporting an 61213
alleged violation to the department of health;61214

       (2) Appears as a witness in any hearing conducted under this 61215
section or section 3721.162 of the Revised Code;61216

       (3) Files a civil action alleging a violation of sections 61217
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or notifies a county 61218
prosecuting attorney or the attorney general of a possible 61219
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.61220

       If, under the procedures outlined in this section, a home or 61221
its employee is found to have retaliated, the violator may be 61222
fined up to one thousand dollars.61223

       (H) When legal action is indicated, any evidence of criminal 61224
activity found in an investigation under division (C) of this 61225
section shall be given to the prosecuting attorney in the county 61226
in which the home is located for investigation.61227

       (I)(1)(a) Any resident whose rights under sections 3721.10 to 61228
3721.17 of the Revised Code are violated has a cause of action 61229
against any person or home committing the violation.61230

       (b) An action under division (I)(1)(a) of this section may be 61231
commenced by the resident or by the resident's legal guardian or 61232
other legally authorized representative on behalf of the resident 61233
or the resident's estate. If the resident or the resident's legal 61234
guardian or other legally authorized representative is unable to 61235
commence an action under that division on behalf of the resident, 61236
the following persons in the following order of priority have the 61237
right to and may commence an action under that division on behalf 61238
of the resident or the resident's estate:61239

       (i) The resident's spouse;61240

       (ii) The resident's parent or adult child;61241

       (iii) The resident's guardian if the resident is a minor 61242
child;61243

       (iv) The resident's brother or sister;61244

       (v) The resident's niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle.61245

       (c) Notwithstanding any law as to priority of persons 61246
entitled to commence an action, if more than one eligible person 61247
within the same level of priority seeks to commence an action on 61248
behalf of a resident or the resident's estate, the court shall 61249
determine, in the best interest of the resident or the resident's 61250
estate, the individual to commence the action. A court's 61251
determination under this division as to the person to commence an 61252
action on behalf of a resident or the resident's estate shall bar 61253
another person from commencing the action on behalf of the 61254
resident or the resident's estate.61255

       (d) The result of an action commenced pursuant to division 61256
(I)(1)(a) of this section by a person authorized under division 61257
(I)(1)(b) of this section shall bind the resident or the 61258
resident's estate that is the subject of the action.61259

       (e) A cause of action under division (I)(1)(a) of this 61260
section shall accrue, and the statute of limitations applicable to 61261
that cause of action shall begin to run, based upon the violation 61262
of a resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the 61263
Revised Code, regardless of the party commencing the action on 61264
behalf of the resident or the resident's estate as authorized 61265
under divisions (I)(1)(b) and (c) of this section.61266

       (2)(a) The plaintiff in an action filed under division (I)(1) 61267
of this section may obtain injunctive relief against the violation 61268
of the resident's rights. The plaintiff also may recover 61269
compensatory damages based upon a showing, by a preponderance of 61270
the evidence, that the violation of the resident's rights resulted 61271
from a negligent act or omission of the person or home and that 61272
the violation was the proximate cause of the resident's injury, 61273
death, or loss to person or property.61274

       (b) If compensatory damages are awarded for a violation of 61275
the resident's rights, section 2315.21 of the Revised Code shall 61276
apply to an award of punitive or exemplary damages for the 61277
violation.61278

       (c) The court, in a case in which only injunctive relief is 61279
granted, may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's 61280
fees limited to the work reasonably performed.61281

       (3) Division (I)(2) (b) of this section shall be considered 61282
to be purely remedial in operation and shall be applied in a 61283
remedial manner in any civil action in which this section is 61284
relevant, whether the action is pending in court or commenced on 61285
or after July 9, 1998.61286

       (4) Within thirty days after the filing of a complaint in an 61287
action for damages brought against a home under division (I)(1)(a) 61288
of this section by or on behalf of a resident or former resident 61289
of the home, the plaintiff or plaintiff's counsel shall send 61290
written notice of the filing of the complaint to the department of 61291
job and family servicesmedicaid if the department has a right of 61292
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code against 61293
the liability of the home for the cost of medicalmedicaid61294
services and care arising out of injury, disease, or disability of 61295
the resident or former resident.61296

       Sec. 3721.19.  (A) As used in this section:61297

       (1) "Home" and "residential care facility" have the same 61298
meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;61299

       (2) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 61300
5165.01 of the Revised Code.61301

       (3) "Sponsor" and "residents' rights advocate" have the same 61302
meanings as in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.61303

       A home licensed under this chapter that is not a party to a 61304
provider agreement, as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised 61305
Code, shall provide each prospective resident, before admission, 61306
with the following information, orally and in a separate written 61307
notice on which is printed in a conspicuous manner: "This home is 61308
not a participant in the medical assistancemedicaid program 61309
administered by the Ohio department of job and family services61310
medicaid. Consequently, you may be discharged from this home if 61311
you are unable to pay for the services provided by this home."61312

       If the prospective resident has a sponsor whose identity is 61313
made known to the home, the home shall also inform the sponsor, 61314
before admission of the resident, of the home's status relative to 61315
the medical assistancemedicaid program. Written acknowledgement 61316
of the receipt of the information shall be provided by the 61317
resident and, if the prospective resident has a sponsor who has 61318
been identified to the home, by the sponsor. The written 61319
acknowledgement shall be made part of the resident's record by the 61320
home.61321

       No home shall terminate its status as a provider under the 61322
medicaid programagreement unless it has complied with section 61323
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code and, at least ninety days 61324
prior to such termination, provided written notice to the 61325
residents of the home and their sponsors of such action. This 61326
requirement shall not apply in cases where the department of job 61327
and family servicesmedicaid terminates a home's provider 61328
agreement or provider status.61329

       (B) A home licensed under this chapter as a residential care 61330
facility shall provide notice to each prospective resident or the 61331
individual's sponsor of the services offered by the facility and 61332
the types of skilled nursing care that the facility may provide. A 61333
residential care facility that, pursuant to section 3721.012 of 61334
the Revised Code, has a policy of entering into risk agreements 61335
with residents or their sponsors shall provide each prospective 61336
resident or the individual's sponsor a written explanation of the 61337
policy and the provisions that may be contained in a risk 61338
agreement. At the time the information is provided, the facility 61339
shall obtain a statement signed by the individual receiving the 61340
information acknowledging that the individual received the 61341
information. The facility shall maintain on file the individual's 61342
signed statement.61343

       (C) A resident has a cause of action against a home for 61344
breach of any duty imposed by this section. The action may be 61345
commenced by the resident, or on the resident's behalf by the 61346
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, by the filing 61347
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 61348
which the home is located, or in the court of common pleas of 61349
Franklin county.61350

       If the court finds that a breach of any duty imposed by this 61351
section has occurred, the court shall enjoin the home from 61352
discharging the resident from the home until arrangements 61353
satisfactory to the court are made for the orderly transfer of the 61354
resident to another mode of health care including, but not limited 61355
to, another home, and may award the resident and a person or 61356
public agency that brings an action on behalf of a resident 61357
reasonable attorney's fees. If a home discharges a resident to 61358
whom or to whose sponsor information concerning its status 61359
relative to the medical assistancemedicaid program was not 61360
provided as required under this section, the court shall grant any 61361
appropriate relief including, but not limited to, actual damages, 61362
reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.61363

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 61364
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 61365
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 61366
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 61367
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 61368
following:61369

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 61370
participants health care services including at least the following 61371
basic health care services: usual physician services, 61372
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 61373
service, and out-of-area coverage;61374

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 61375
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 61376
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 61377
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 61378
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 61379
actually provided;61380

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 61381
following ways:61382

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 61383
partners of the organization;61384

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 61385
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 61386
individual-practice basis.61387

       (B) As used in this chapter:61388

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:61389

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 61390
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 61391
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 61392
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 61393
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 61394

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 61395
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 61396
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 61397
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 61398
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 61399
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 61400
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 61401

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 61402
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 61403
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 61404
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.61405

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 61406
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 61407
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 61408
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 61409
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 61410
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 61411
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 61412
facility operated by the department of mental healthmental health 61413
and addiction services or the department of developmental 61414
disabilities, a health maintenance organization that does not 61415
operate a hospital, the office of any private licensed health care 61416
professional, whether organized for individual or group practice, 61417
or a clinic that provides ambulatory patient services and where 61418
patients are not regularly admitted as inpatients. "Hospital" also 61419
does not include an institution for the sick that is operated 61420
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 61421
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 61422
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 61423
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 61424
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 61425
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 61426
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 61427
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 61428
4723. of the Revised Code.61429

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 61430
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 61431
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.61432

       Sec. 3734.28.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 61433
3734.281 and 3734.282 of the Revised Code, moneys collected under 61434
sections 3734.122, 3734.13, 3734.20, 3734.22, 3734.24, and 3734.26 61435
of the Revised Code and under the "Comprehensive Environmental 61436
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 61437
42 U.S.C.A. 9601, et seq., as amended, including moneys recovered 61438
under division (B)(1) of this section, shall be paid into the 61439
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste clean-up fund, 61440
which is hereby created. In addition, both of the following shall 61441
be credited to the fund:61442

       (A) Moneys recovered for costs paid from the fund for 61443
activities described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 61444
3745.12 of the Revised Code;61445

       (B) Natural resource damage assessment costs recovered under 61446
any of the following:61447

       (1) The "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, 61448
and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C. 9601, et 61449
seq., as amended;61450

       (2) The "Oil Pollution Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 484, 33 U.S.C. 61451
2701, et seq., as amended;61452

       (3) The Federal Water Pollution Control Act as defined in 61453
section 6111.01 of the Revised Code"Clean Water Act of 1977," 91 61454
Stat. 1566, 33 U.S.C. 1321, et seq., as amended;61455

       (4) Any other applicable federal or state law. 61456

       The environmental protection agency shall use the moneys in 61457
the fund for the purposes set forth in division (D) of section 61458
3734.122, sections 3734.19, 3734.20, 3734.21, 3734.23, 3734.25, 61459
3734.26, and 3734.27, divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3745.12, 61460
and Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code, including any related 61461
enforcement expenses and administrative expenses of any related 61462
closure or corrective action program. In addition, the agency 61463
shall use the moneys in the fund to pay the state's long-term 61464
operation and maintenance costs or matching share for actions 61465
taken under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, 61466
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," as amended. If those 61467
moneys are reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United 61468
States or any other person, the moneys shall be placed in the fund 61469
and not in the general revenue fund.61470

       The director of environmental protection may enter into 61471
contracts and grant agreements with federal, state, or local 61472
government agencies, nonprofit organizations, and colleges and 61473
universities for the purpose of carrying out the responsibilities 61474
of the environmental protection agency for which money may be 61475
expended from the fund.61476

       Sec. 3734.57.  (A) The following fees are hereby levied on 61477
the transfer or disposal of solid wastes in this state:61478

       (1) One dollar per ton through June 30, 20142016, one-half61479
thirty per cent of the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the 61480
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste facility 61481
management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code and 61482
one-halfseventy per cent of the proceeds of which shall be 61483
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the hazardous 61484
waste clean-up fund created in section 3734.28 of the Revised 61485
Code;61486

       (2) An additional one dollar per ton through June 30, 201461487
2016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 61488
treasury to the credit of the solid waste fund, which is hereby 61489
created. The environmental protection agency shall use money in 61490
the solid waste fund to pay the costs of administering and 61491
enforcing the laws pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes, 61492
and construction and demolition debris, including, without 61493
limitation, ground water evaluations related to solid wastes, 61494
infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, under 61495
this chapter and Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code and any rules 61496
adopted under them, providing compliance assistance to small 61497
businesses, and paying a share of the administrative costs of the 61498
environmental protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of 61499
the Revised Code.61500

        (3) An additional two dollars and fifty cents per ton through 61501
June 30, 20142016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in 61502
the state treasury to the credit of the environmental protection 61503
fund created in section 3745.015 of the Revised Code;61504

       (4) An additional twenty-five cents per ton through June 30, 61505
20132016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 61506
treasury to the credit of the soil and water conservation district 61507
assistance fund created in section 1515.14 of the Revised Code.61508

       In the case of solid wastes that are taken to a solid waste 61509
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 61510
for disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located in this 61511
state or outside of this state, the fees levied under this 61512
division shall be collected by the owner or operator of the 61513
transfer facility as a trustee for the state. The amount of fees 61514
required to be collected under this division at such a transfer 61515
facility shall equal the total tonnage of solid wastes received at 61516
the facility multiplied by the fees levied under this division. In 61517
the case of solid wastes that are not taken to a solid waste 61518
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 61519
to a solid waste disposal facility, the fees shall be collected by 61520
the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility as a 61521
trustee for the state. The amount of fees required to be collected 61522
under this division at such a disposal facility shall equal the 61523
total tonnage of solid wastes received at the facility that was 61524
not previously taken to a solid waste transfer facility located in 61525
this state multiplied by the fees levied under this division. Fees 61526
levied under this division do not apply to materials separated 61527
from a mixed waste stream for recycling by a generator or 61528
materials removed from the solid waste stream through recycling, 61529
as "recycling" is defined in rules adopted under section 3734.02 61530
of the Revised Code.61531

       The owner or operator of a solid waste transfer facility or 61532
disposal facility, as applicable, shall prepare and file with the 61533
director of environmental protection each month a return 61534
indicating the total tonnage of solid wastes received at the 61535
facility during that month and the total amount of the fees 61536
required to be collected under this division during that month. In 61537
addition, the owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility 61538
shall indicate on the return the total tonnage of solid wastes 61539
received from transfer facilities located in this state during 61540
that month for which the fees were required to be collected by the 61541
transfer facilities. The monthly returns shall be filed on a form 61542
prescribed by the director. Not later than thirty days after the 61543
last day of the month to which a return applies, the owner or 61544
operator shall mail to the director the return for that month 61545
together with the fees required to be collected under this 61546
division during that month as indicated on the return or may 61547
submit the return and fees electronically in a manner approved by 61548
the director. If the return is filed and the amount of the fees 61549
due is paid in a timely manner as required in this division, the 61550
owner or operator may retain a discount of three-fourths of one 61551
per cent of the total amount of the fees that are required to be 61552
paid as indicated on the return.61553

        The owner or operator may request an extension of not more 61554
than thirty days for filing the return and remitting the fees, 61555
provided that the owner or operator has submitted such a request 61556
in writing to the director together with a detailed description of 61557
why the extension is requested, the director has received the 61558
request not later than the day on which the return is required to 61559
be filed, and the director has approved the request. If the fees 61560
are not remitted within thirty days after the last day of the 61561
month to which the return applies or are not remitted by the last 61562
day of an extension approved by the director, the owner or 61563
operator shall not retain the three-fourths of one per cent 61564
discount and shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of 61565
the fees for each month that they are late. For purposes of 61566
calculating the late fee, the first month in which fees are late 61567
begins on the first day after the deadline has passed for timely 61568
submitting the return and fees, and one additional month shall be 61569
counted every thirty days thereafter.61570

       The owner or operator of a solid waste facility may request a 61571
refund or credit of fees levied under this division and remitted 61572
to the director that have not been paid to the owner or operator. 61573
Such a request shall be made only if the fees have not been 61574
collected by the owner or operator, have become a debt that has 61575
become worthless or uncollectable for a period of six months or 61576
more, and may be claimed as a deduction, including a deduction 61577
claimed if the owner or operator keeps accounts on an accrual 61578
basis, under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," 68A Stat. 50, 26 61579
U.S.C. 166, as amended, and regulations adopted under it. Prior to 61580
making a request for a refund or credit, an owner or operator 61581
shall make reasonable efforts to collect the applicable fees. A 61582
request for a refund or credit shall not include any costs 61583
resulting from those efforts to collect unpaid fees.61584

       A request for a refund or credit of fees shall be made in 61585
writing, on a form prescribed by the director, and shall be 61586
supported by evidence that may be required in rules adopted by the 61587
director under this chapter. After reviewing the request, and if 61588
the request and evidence submitted with the request indicate that 61589
a refund or credit is warranted, the director shall grant a refund 61590
to the owner or operator or shall permit a credit to be taken by 61591
the owner or operator on a subsequent monthly return submitted by 61592
the owner or operator. The amount of a refund or credit shall not 61593
exceed an amount that is equal to ninety days' worth of fees owed 61594
to an owner or operator by a particular debtor of the owner or 61595
operator. A refund or credit shall not be granted by the director 61596
to an owner or operator more than once in any twelve-month period 61597
for fees owed to the owner or operator by a particular debtor.61598

       If, after receiving a refund or credit from the director, an 61599
owner or operator receives payment of all or part of the fees, the 61600
owner or operator shall remit the fees with the next monthly 61601
return submitted to the director together with a written 61602
explanation of the reason for the submittal.61603

        For purposes of computing the fees levied under this division 61604
or division (B) of this section, any solid waste transfer or 61605
disposal facility that does not use scales as a means of 61606
determining gate receipts shall use a conversion factor of three 61607
cubic yards per ton of solid waste or one cubic yard per ton for 61608
baled waste, as applicable.61609

       The fees levied under this division and divisions (B) and (C) 61610
of this section are in addition to all other applicable fees and 61611
taxes and shall be paid by the customer or a political subdivision 61612
to the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or disposal 61613
facility. In the alternative, the fees shall be paid by a customer 61614
or political subdivision to a transporter of waste who 61615
subsequently transfers the fees to the owner or operator of such a 61616
facility. The fees shall be paid notwithstanding the existence of 61617
any provision in a contract that the customer or a political 61618
subdivision may have with the owner or operator or with a 61619
transporter of waste to the facility that would not require or 61620
allow such payment regardless of whether the contract was entered 61621
prior to or after October 16, 2009. For those purposes, "customer" 61622
means a person who contracts with, or utilizes the solid waste 61623
services of, the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or 61624
disposal facility or a transporter of solid waste to such a 61625
facility.61626

       (B) For the purposes specified in division (G) of this 61627
section, the solid waste management policy committee of a county 61628
or joint solid waste management district may levy fees upon the 61629
following activities:61630

       (1) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located 61631
in the district of solid wastes generated within the district;61632

       (2) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 61633
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 61634
the district, but inside this state;61635

       (3) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 61636
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 61637
this state.61638

        The solid waste management plan of the county or joint 61639
district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised 61640
Code and any amendments to it, or the resolution adopted under 61641
this division, as appropriate, shall establish the rates of the 61642
fees levied under divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, 61643
if any, and shall specify whether the fees are levied on the basis 61644
of tons or cubic yards as the unit of measurement. A solid waste 61645
management district that levies fees under this division on the 61646
basis of cubic yards shall do so in accordance with division (A) 61647
of this section.61648

        The fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 61649
not less than one dollar per ton nor more than two dollars per 61650
ton, the fee levied under division (B)(2) of this section shall be 61651
not less than two dollars per ton nor more than four dollars per 61652
ton, and the fee levied under division (B)(3) of this section 61653
shall be not more than the fee levied under division (B)(1) of 61654
this section.61655

       Prior to the approval of the solid waste management plan of a 61656
district under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, the solid 61657
waste management policy committee of a district may levy fees 61658
under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the 61659
proposed amount of the fees. Upon adopting the resolution, the 61660
committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of 61661
county commissioners of each county forming the district and to 61662
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 61663
township under the jurisdiction of the district and shall prepare 61664
and publish the resolution and a notice of the time and location 61665
where a public hearing on the fees will be held. Upon adopting the 61666
resolution, the committee shall deliver written notice of the 61667
adoption of the resolution; of the amount of the proposed fees; 61668
and of the date, time, and location of the public hearing to the 61669
director and to the fifty industrial, commercial, or institutional 61670
generators of solid wastes within the district that generate the 61671
largest quantities of solid wastes, as determined by the 61672
committee, and to their local trade associations. The committee 61673
shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators within 61674
the district and their local trade associations, but the 61675
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 61676
generator or local trade association does not invalidate the 61677
proceedings under this division. The publication shall occur at 61678
least thirty days before the hearing. After the hearing, the 61679
committee may make such revisions to the proposed fees as it 61680
considers appropriate and thereafter, by resolution, shall adopt 61681
the revised fee schedule. Upon adopting the revised fee schedule, 61682
the committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution doing so to 61683
the board of county commissioners of each county forming the 61684
district and to the legislative authority of each municipal 61685
corporation and township under the jurisdiction of the district. 61686
Within sixty days after the delivery of a copy of the resolution 61687
adopting the proposed revised fees by the policy committee, each 61688
such board and legislative authority, by ordinance or resolution, 61689
shall approve or disapprove the revised fees and deliver a copy of 61690
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. If any such board or 61691
legislative authority fails to adopt and deliver to the policy 61692
committee an ordinance or resolution approving or disapproving the 61693
revised fees within sixty days after the policy committee 61694
delivered its resolution adopting the proposed revised fees, it 61695
shall be conclusively presumed that the board or legislative 61696
authority has approved the proposed revised fees. The committee 61697
shall determine if the resolution has been ratified in the same 61698
manner in which it determines if a draft solid waste management 61699
plan has been ratified under division (B) of section 3734.55 of 61700
the Revised Code.61701

       The committee may amend the schedule of fees levied pursuant 61702
to a resolution adopted and ratified under this division by 61703
adopting a resolution establishing the proposed amount of the 61704
amended fees. The committee may repeal the fees levied pursuant to 61705
such a resolution by adopting a resolution proposing to repeal 61706
them. Upon adopting such a resolution, the committee shall proceed 61707
to obtain ratification of the resolution in accordance with this 61708
division.61709

       Not later than fourteen days after declaring the new fees to 61710
be ratified or the fees to be repealed under this division, the 61711
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 61712
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 61713
fees of the ratification and the amount of the fees or of the 61714
repeal of the fees. Collection of any fees shall commence or 61715
collection of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the 61716
second month following the month in which notification is sent to 61717
the owner or operator.61718

       Fees levied under this division also may be established, 61719
amended, or repealed by a solid waste management policy committee 61720
through the adoption of a new district solid waste management 61721
plan, the adoption of an amended plan, or the amendment of the 61722
plan or amended plan in accordance with sections 3734.55 and 61723
3734.56 of the Revised Code or the adoption or amendment of a 61724
district plan in connection with a change in district composition 61725
under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code.61726

       Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an 61727
order approving a district's solid waste management plan, amended 61728
plan, or amendment to a plan or amended plan that establishes, 61729
amends, or repeals a schedule of fees levied by the district, the 61730
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 61731
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 61732
fees of the approval of the plan or amended plan, or the amendment 61733
to the plan, as appropriate, and the amount of the fees, if any. 61734
In the case of an initial or amended plan approved under section 61735
3734.521 of the Revised Code in connection with a change in 61736
district composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of a 61737
county from a joint district, the committee, within fourteen days 61738
after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that 61739
section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 61740
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 61741
fees that the change has taken effect and of the amount of the 61742
fees, if any. Collection of any fees shall commence or collection 61743
of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the second month 61744
following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or 61745
operator.61746

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 61747
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 61748
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 61749
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, forty-five 61750
days or more before the beginning of a calendar year, the policy 61751
committee of each of the districts resulting from the change that 61752
obtained the director's approval of an initial or amended plan in 61753
connection with the change, within fourteen days after the 61754
director's completion of the required actions, shall notify by 61755
certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal 61756
facility that is required to collect the district's fees that the 61757
change is to take effect on the first day of January immediately 61758
following the issuance of the notice and of the amount of the fees 61759
or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this 61760
section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan as so 61761
approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's fees by 61762
that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set forth in 61763
such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first day of 61764
January immediately following the issuance of the notice. If such 61765
an initial or amended plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection 61766
of the fees shall cease on that first day of January.61767

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 61768
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 61769
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 61770
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, less than 61771
forty-five days before the beginning of a calendar year, the 61772
director, on behalf of each of the districts resulting from the 61773
change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or 61774
amended plan in connection with the change proceedings, shall 61775
notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste 61776
disposal facility that is required to collect the district's fees 61777
that the change is to take effect on the first day of January 61778
immediately following the mailing of the notice and of the amount 61779
of the fees or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) 61780
of this section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan 61781
as so approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's 61782
fees by that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set 61783
forth in such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first 61784
day of the second month following the month in which notification 61785
is sent to the owner or operator. If such an initial or amended 61786
plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection of the fees shall 61787
cease on the first day of the second month following the month in 61788
which notification is sent to the owner or operator.61789

        If the schedule of fees that a solid waste management 61790
district is levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section 61791
is amended or repealed, the fees in effect immediately prior to 61792
the amendment or repeal shall continue to be collected until 61793
collection of the amended fees commences or collection of the 61794
repealed fees ceases, as applicable, as specified in this 61795
division. In the case of a change in district composition, money 61796
so received from the collection of the fees of the former 61797
districts shall be divided among the resulting districts in 61798
accordance with division (B) of section 343.012 of the Revised 61799
Code and the agreements entered into under division (B) of section 61800
343.01 of the Revised Code to establish the former and resulting 61801
districts and any amendments to those agreements.61802

       For the purposes of the provisions of division (B) of this 61803
section establishing the times when newly established or amended 61804
fees levied by a district are required to commence and the 61805
collection of fees that have been amended or repealed is required 61806
to cease, "fees" or "schedule of fees" includes, in addition to 61807
fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, those 61808
levied under section 3734.573 or 3734.574 of the Revised Code.61809

       (C) For the purposes of defraying the added costs to a 61810
municipal corporation or township of maintaining roads and other 61811
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 61812
services, and compensating a municipal corporation or township for 61813
reductions in real property tax revenues due to reductions in real 61814
property valuations resulting from the location and operation of a 61815
solid waste disposal facility within the municipal corporation or 61816
township, a municipal corporation or township in which such a 61817
solid waste disposal facility is located may levy a fee of not 61818
more than twenty-five cents per ton on the disposal of solid 61819
wastes at a solid waste disposal facility located within the 61820
boundaries of the municipal corporation or township regardless of 61821
where the wastes were generated.61822

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 61823
township may levy fees under this division by enacting an 61824
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 61825
fees. Upon so doing the legislative authority shall mail a 61826
certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of 61827
county commissioners or directors of the county or joint solid 61828
waste management district in which the municipal corporation or 61829
township is located or, if a regional solid waste management 61830
authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 61831
Code, to the board of trustees of that regional authority, the 61832
owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility in the 61833
municipal corporation or township that is required to collect the 61834
fee by the ordinance or resolution, and the director of 61835
environmental protection. Although the fees levied under this 61836
division are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of 61837
measurement, the legislative authority, in its ordinance or 61838
resolution levying the fees under this division, may direct that 61839
the fees be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of 61840
measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards 61841
per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes.61842

       Not later than five days after enacting an ordinance or 61843
adopting a resolution under this division, the legislative 61844
authority shall so notify by certified mail the owner or operator 61845
of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect 61846
the fee. Collection of any fee levied on or after March 24, 1992, 61847
shall commence on the first day of the second month following the 61848
month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.61849

       (D)(1) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 61850
this section do not apply to the disposal of solid wastes that:61851

       (a) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator of 61852
the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of 61853
solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the 61854
generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a 61855
premises where the wastes are generated;61856

       (b) Are generated from the combustion of coal, or from the 61857
combustion of primarily coal, regardless of whether the disposal 61858
facility is located on the premises where the wastes are 61859
generated;61860

       (c) Are asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or products 61861
disposed of at a construction and demolition debris facility that 61862
is licensed under Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code or at a solid 61863
waste facility that is licensed under this chapter.61864

       (2) Except as provided in section 3734.571 of the Revised 61865
Code, any fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section apply 61866
to solid wastes originating outside the boundaries of a county or 61867
joint district that are covered by an agreement for the joint use 61868
of solid waste facilities entered into under section 343.02 of the 61869
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners or board of 61870
directors of the county or joint district where the wastes are 61871
generated and disposed of.61872

       (3) When solid wastes, other than solid wastes that consist 61873
of scrap tires, are burned in a disposal facility that is an 61874
incinerator or energy recovery facility, the fees levied under 61875
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 61876
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash remaining after burning 61877
of the solid wastes and shall be collected by the owner or 61878
operator of the sanitary landfill where the ash is disposed of.61879

       (4) When solid wastes are delivered to a solid waste transfer 61880
facility, the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 61881
section shall be levied upon the disposal of solid wastes 61882
transported off the premises of the transfer facility for disposal 61883
and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste 61884
disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of.61885

       (5) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 61886
section do not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a waste 61887
water treatment facility holding a national pollutant discharge 61888
elimination system permit and that is disposed of through 61889
incineration, land application, or composting or at another 61890
resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a landfill.61891

       (6) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 61892
section do not apply to solid wastes delivered to a solid waste 61893
composting facility for processing. When any unprocessed solid 61894
waste or compost product is transported off the premises of a 61895
composting facility and disposed of at a landfill, the fees levied 61896
under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be 61897
collected by the owner or operator of the landfill where the 61898
unprocessed waste or compost product is disposed of.61899

       (7) When solid wastes that consist of scrap tires are 61900
processed at a scrap tire recovery facility, the fees levied under 61901
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 61902
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash or other solid wastes 61903
remaining after the processing of the scrap tires and shall be 61904
collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal 61905
facility where the ash or other solid wastes are disposed of.61906

       (8) The director of environmental protection may issue an 61907
order exempting from the fees levied under this section solid 61908
wastes, including, but not limited to, scrap tires, that are 61909
generated, transferred, or disposed of as a result of a contract 61910
providing for the expenditure of public funds entered into by the 61911
administrator or regional administrator of the United States 61912
environmental protection agency, the director of environmental 61913
protection, or the director of administrative services on behalf 61914
of the director of environmental protection for the purpose of 61915
remediating conditions at a hazardous waste facility, solid waste 61916
facility, or other location at which the administrator or regional 61917
administrator or the director of environmental protection has 61918
reason to believe that there is a substantial threat to public 61919
health or safety or the environment or that the conditions are 61920
causing or contributing to air or water pollution or soil 61921
contamination. An order issued by the director of environmental 61922
protection under division (D)(8) of this section shall include a 61923
determination that the amount of the fees not received by a solid 61924
waste management district as a result of the order will not 61925
adversely impact the implementation and financing of the 61926
district's approved solid waste management plan and any approved 61927
amendments to the plan. Such an order is a final action of the 61928
director of environmental protection.61929

       (E) The fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 61930
section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid 61931
waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of as a 61932
trustee for the county or joint district and municipal corporation 61933
or township where the wastes are disposed of. Moneys from the fees 61934
levied under division (B) of this section shall be forwarded to 61935
the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 61936
district in accordance with rules adopted under division (H) of 61937
this section. Moneys from the fees levied under division (C) of 61938
this section shall be forwarded to the treasurer or such other 61939
officer of the municipal corporation as, by virtue of the charter, 61940
has the duties of the treasurer or to the fiscal officer of the 61941
township, as appropriate, in accordance with those rules.61942

       (F) Moneys received by the treasurer or other officer of the 61943
municipal corporation under division (E) of this section shall be 61944
paid into the general fund of the municipal corporation. Moneys 61945
received by the fiscal officer of the township under that division 61946
shall be paid into the general fund of the township. The treasurer 61947
or other officer of the municipal corporation or the township 61948
fiscal officer, as appropriate, shall maintain separate records of 61949
the moneys received from the fees levied under division (C) of 61950
this section.61951

       (G) Moneys received by the board of county commissioners or 61952
board of directors under division (E) of this section or section 61953
3734.571, 3734.572, 3734.573, or 3734.574 of the Revised Code 61954
shall be paid to the county treasurer, or other official acting in 61955
a similar capacity under a county charter, in a county district or 61956
to the county treasurer or other official designated by the board 61957
of directors in a joint district and kept in a separate and 61958
distinct fund to the credit of the district. If a regional solid 61959
waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 61960
of the Revised Code, moneys received by the board of trustees of 61961
that regional authority under division (E) of this section shall 61962
be kept by the board in a separate and distinct fund to the credit 61963
of the district. Moneys in the special fund of the county or joint 61964
district arising from the fees levied under division (B) of this 61965
section and the fee levied under division (A) of section 3734.573 61966
of the Revised Code shall be expended by the board of county 61967
commissioners or directors of the district in accordance with the 61968
district's solid waste management plan or amended plan approved 61969
under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code 61970
exclusively for the following purposes:61971

       (1) Preparation of the solid waste management plan of the 61972
district under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, monitoring 61973
implementation of the plan, and conducting the periodic review and 61974
amendment of the plan required by section 3734.56 of the Revised 61975
Code by the solid waste management policy committee;61976

       (2) Implementation of the approved solid waste management 61977
plan or amended plan of the district, including, without 61978
limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste 61979
recycling or reduction programs;61980

       (3) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 61981
the district, if solid waste facilities are located within the 61982
district, for enforcement of this chapter and rules, orders, and 61983
terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances adopted 61984
or issued under it, other than the hazardous waste provisions of 61985
this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions 61986
of permits issued under those provisions;61987

       (4) Providing financial assistance to each county within the 61988
district to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and other 61989
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 61990
services resulting from the location and operation of a solid 61991
waste facility within the county under the district's approved 61992
solid waste management plan or amended plan;61993

       (5) Pursuant to contracts entered into with boards of health 61994
within the district, if solid waste facilities contained in the 61995
district's approved plan or amended plan are located within the 61996
district, for paying the costs incurred by those boards of health 61997
for collecting and analyzing samples from public or private water 61998
wells on lands adjacent to those facilities;61999

       (6) Developing and implementing a program for the inspection 62000
of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state 62001
that are disposed of at solid waste facilities included in the 62002
district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan;62003

       (7) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 62004
the district for the enforcement of section 3734.03 of the Revised 62005
Code or to local law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction 62006
within the district for enforcing anti-littering laws and 62007
ordinances;62008

       (8) Providing financial assistance to boards of health of 62009
health districts within the district that are on the approved list 62010
under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code to defray the costs to 62011
the health districts for the participation of their employees 62012
responsible for enforcement of the solid waste provisions of this 62013
chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of 62014
permits, licenses, and variances issued under those provisions in 62015
the training and certification program as required by rules 62016
adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;62017

       (9) Providing financial assistance to individual municipal 62018
corporations and townships within the district to defray their 62019
added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and 62020
of providing emergency and other public services resulting from 62021
the location and operation within their boundaries of a 62022
composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or 62023
recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is 62024
furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services 62025
to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the board 62026
of county commissioners or directors of the district;62027

       (10) Payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or 62028
ordered to be paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and 62029
of any administrative costs incurred pursuant to that section. In 62030
the case of a joint solid waste management district, if the board 62031
of county commissioners of one of the counties in the district is 62032
negotiating on behalf of affected communities, as defined in that 62033
section, in that county, the board shall obtain the approval of 62034
the board of directors of the district in order to expend moneys 62035
for administrative costs incurred.62036

       Prior to the approval of the district's solid waste 62037
management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, moneys 62038
in the special fund of the district arising from the fees shall be 62039
expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by the solid 62040
waste management policy committee by resolution.62041

       Notwithstanding division (G)(6) of this section as it existed 62042
prior to October 29, 1993, or any provision in a district's solid 62043
waste management plan prepared in accordance with division 62044
(B)(2)(e) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code as it existed 62045
prior to that date, any moneys arising from the fees levied under 62046
division (B)(3) of this section prior to January 1, 1994, may be 62047
expended for any of the purposes authorized in divisions (G)(1) to 62048
(10) of this section.62049

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 62050
119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures for collecting and 62051
forwarding the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 62052
section to the boards of county commissioners or directors of 62053
county or joint solid waste management districts and to the 62054
treasurers or other officers of municipal corporations and the 62055
fiscal officers of townships. The rules also shall prescribe the 62056
dates for forwarding the fees to the boards and officials and may 62057
prescribe any other requirements the director considers necessary 62058
or appropriate to implement and administer divisions (A), (B), and 62059
(C) of this section.62060

       Sec. 3734.901.  (A)(1) For the purpose of providing revenue 62061
to defray the cost of administering and enforcing the scrap tire 62062
provisions of this chapter, rules adopted under those provisions, 62063
and terms and conditions of orders, variances, and licenses issued 62064
under those provisions; to abate accumulations of scrap tires; to 62065
make grants supporting market development activities for scrap 62066
tires and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and 62067
tire recycling processes and to support scrap tire amnesty and 62068
cleanup events; to make loans to promote the recycling or recovery 62069
of energy from scrap tires; and to defray the costs of 62070
administering and enforcing sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 of the 62071
Revised Code, a fee of fifty cents per tire is hereby levied on 62072
the sale of tires. The proceeds of the fee shall be deposited in 62073
the state treasury to the credit of the scrap tire management fund 62074
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. The fee is levied 62075
from the first day of the calendar month that begins next after 62076
thirty days from October 29, 1993, through June 30, 20132016.62077

       (2) Beginning on July 1, 2011, and ending on June 30, 201362078
2016, there is hereby levied an additional fee of fifty cents per 62079
tire on the sale of tires the proceeds of which shall be deposited 62080
in the state treasury to the credit of the soil and water 62081
conservation district assistance fund created in section 1515.14 62082
of the Revised Code.62083

       (B) Only one sale of the same article shall be used in 62084
computing the amount of the fee due.62085

       Sec. 3734.907.  (A) Any person required to pay the fee 62086
imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code is personally 62087
liable for the fee. The tax commissioner may make an assessment, 62088
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession, 62089
against any person who fails to file a return or pay any fee, 62090
interest, or additional charge as required by sections 3734.90 to 62091
3734.9014 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the 62092
person assessed written notice of the assessment in the manner 62093
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, 62094
the commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 62095
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.62096

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 62097
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the fee imposed by 62098
section 3734.901 of the Revised Code has not paid the full amount 62099
of fee due, the commissioner may audit a representative sample of 62100
the person's business and may issue an assessment based on the 62101
audit.62102

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 62103
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 62104
rules providing for the imposition and remission of the penalties.62105

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 62106
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 62107
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 62108
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 62109
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 62110
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 62111
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. 62112
The petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, 62113
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 62114
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 62115
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 62116
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 62117
Code.62118

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 62119
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 62120
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 62121
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 62122
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 62123
resides or in which the person's business is conducted. If the 62124
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 62125
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 62126
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 62127
pleas of Franklin county.62128

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 62129
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 62130
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 62131
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tire 62132
fee," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution 62133
shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax 62134
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 62135
apply to sales made under the judgment.62136

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety62137
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 62138
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 62139
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 62140
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 62141
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 62142
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 62143
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 62144
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 62145
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 62146
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 62147
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 62148
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 62149
as the fee and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 62150
under this section.62151

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 62152
fee will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 62153
collection of the fee are instituted without delay, the 62154
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 62155
liable for the fee. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 62156
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 62157
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 62158
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 62159
on the person assessed or the person's legal representative, as 62160
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, within five days 62161
of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 62162
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 62163
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 62164
division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 62165
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 62166
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 62167
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 62168
consideration of the petition for reassessment.62169

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 62170
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 62171
from the fee imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code.62172

       Sec. 3735.58.  (A) The director of mental healthmental 62173
health and addiction services, the director of developmental 62174
disabilities, or the director of rehabilitation and correction may 62175
enter into contracts for the sale of land not needed by their 62176
departments and under their jurisdiction or supervision to 62177
metropolitan housing authorities for use by such an authority for 62178
a housing project or projects. Such contract may contain such 62179
conditions and terms as are, in the discretion of the directors, 62180
in the best interests of the state and the welfare of the 62181
residents of the state.62182

       (B) The director may, upon receipt of a request from a 62183
metropolitan housing authority, request the approval of the 62184
governor to sell and convey land not needed by the director's 62185
department and under the director's jurisdiction or supervision to 62186
an authority, subject to such terms and conditions consistent with 62187
the public interest and welfare of the residents of the state as 62188
the director considers necessary. The governor, with the approval 62189
of the controlling board, may approve the request. Such property 62190
shall be appraised at its fair market value before it is conveyed. 62191
The director of administrative services shall cause it to be 62192
appraised by three disinterested persons and shall determine the 62193
fee which each appraiser shall receive, not to exceed fifty 62194
dollars. All appraisal fees shall be paid by the authority which 62195
shall deposit with the director one hundred fifty dollars before 62196
the appraisal is made. If the deposit exceeds the appraisal fee, 62197
the balance shall be returned to the authority. The appraisal 62198
value, when approved by the director, is the purchase price. If 62199
the purchase price is not paid within ninety days after notice to 62200
the authority of the approved appraisal value, the director shall 62201
withdraw approval of the appraisal value and no deed shall be 62202
delivered to the authority without the written approval of the 62203
director of the purchase price. If the purchase price is paid 62204
within ninety days, a deed shall be prepared and recorded pursuant 62205
to section 5301.13 of the Revised Code.62206

       (C) Moneys received from sales of land to a metropolitan 62207
housing authority shall be placed in the state treasury in special 62208
funds, to be used for such purposes of the department of mental 62209
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 62210
developmental disabilities, or the department of rehabilitation 62211
and correction as is appropriate.62212

       Sec. 3735.661.  (A) For the purpose of determining the "first 62213
two amendments" referenced in division (B) of Section 3 of Am. 62214
Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th General Assembly, an amendment means any 62215
modification to an ordinance or resolution adopted under section 62216
3735.66 of the Revised Code that does any of the following:62217

       (1) Expands the geographic size of a community reinvestment 62218
area.62219

(2) Increases a property's or category of property's exempted 62220
percentage of assessed valuation, notwithstanding the requirements 62221
of section 3735.66 of the Revised Code as that section existed on 62222
July 21, 1994. Division (A)(2) of this section does not authorize 62223
a municipal corporation to increase a property's or category of 62224
property's exempted percentage of assessed valuation pursuant to 62225
that section.62226

       (3) Increases the term of any tax exemption or authorized 62227
category of tax exemptions.62228

       (4) Extends the duration of a community reinvestment area62229

       (5) Changes eligibility requirements for receiving tax 62230
exemptions.62231

       (B) For the purpose of determining the "first two amendments" 62232
in division (B) of Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th 62233
General Assembly, an amendment does not include any modification 62234
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under section 3735.66 of the 62235
Revised Code that does any of the following:62236

       (1) Restricts the availability of tax exemptions, including 62237
any of the following:62238

       (a) Removes area from or decreases the geographic size of a 62239
community reinvestment area.62240

       (b) Decreases a property's or category of property's exempted 62241
percentage of assessed valuation, notwithstanding the requirements 62242
of section 3735.66 of the Revised Code as that section existed on 62243
July 21, 1994. Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not 62244
authorize a municipal corporation to decrease a property's or 62245
category of property's exempted percentage of assessed valuation 62246
pursuant to that section.62247

       (c) Decreases the term of any tax exemption or category of 62248
exemption.62249

       (d) Shortens the period of time after which the granting of 62250
tax exemptions may be terminated.62251

       (2) Recognizes or confirms the continuing existence of a 62252
community reinvestment area until a date after which the area may 62253
be terminated.62254

       (3) Recognizes or confirms a previously granted tax 62255
exemption.62256

       (4) Clarifies ambiguities or corrects defects in previously 62257
enacted ordinances or resolutions.62258

       (5) Makes modifications that are procedural or 62259
administrative, including changing the designation of a housing 62260
officer, the process for approving or appealing a tax exemption, 62261
or the amount of any application fee, or modifying a community 62262
reinvestment area housing council created under section 3735.69 of 62263
the Revised Code or a tax incentive review council under section 62264
5709.85 of the Revised Code.62265

       Sec. 3737.02.  (A) The fire marshal may collect fees to cover 62266
the costs of performing inspections and other duties that the fire 62267
marshal is authorized or required by law to perform. Except as 62268
provided in division (B) of this section, all fees collected by 62269
the fire marshal shall be deposited to the credit of the fire 62270
marshal's fund.62271

       (B) All of the following shall be credited to the underground 62272
storage tank administration fund, which is hereby created in the 62273
state treasury:62274

       (1) Fees collected under sections 3737.88 and 3737.881 of the 62275
Revised Code for operation of the underground storage tank and 62276
underground storage tank installer certification programs, moneys;62277

       (2) Moneys recovered under section 3737.89 of the Revised 62278
Code for the state's costs of undertaking corrective or 62279
enforcement actions under that section or section 3737.882 of the 62280
Revised Code, and fines;62281

       (3) Fines and penalties collected under section 3737.882 of 62282
the Revised Code shall be credited to the underground storage tank 62283
administration fund, which is hereby created in the state 62284
treasury. All;62285

       (4) Amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving 62286
loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code.62287

       (C) All interest earned on moneys credited to the underground 62288
storage tank administration fund shall be credited to the fund. 62289
Moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration 62290
fund shall be used by the fire marshal for implementation and 62291
enforcement of underground storage tank, corrective action, and 62292
installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 62293
of the Revised Code. Only moneys described in divisions (B)(3) and 62294
(4) of this section shall be used by the fire marshal to make 62295
underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of 62296
the Revised Code, and no other moneys may be used to make those 62297
loans.62298

       (C)(D) The fire marshal shall take all actions necessary to 62299
obtain any federal funding available to carry out the fire 62300
marshal's responsibilities under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of 62301
the Revised Code and federal laws regarding the cleaning up of 62302
releases of petroleum, as "release" is defined in section 3737.87 62303
of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, any federal 62304
funds that are available to reimburse the state for the costs of 62305
undertaking corrective actions for such releases of petroleum. The 62306
state may, when appropriate, return to the United States any 62307
federal funds recovered under sections 3737.882 and 3737.89 of the 62308
Revised Code.62309

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 62310
fire code, adopt rules to:62311

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 62312
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;62313

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 62314
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 62315
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 62316
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;62317

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 62318
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 62319
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 62320
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.62321

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 62322
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 62323
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 62324
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 62325
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 62326
the minimum federal standards.62327

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 62328
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 62329
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 62330
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 62331
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 62332
identical to the minimum federal standards.62333

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 62334
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 62335
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.62336

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 62337
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 62338
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 62339
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.62340

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 62341
safety in a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2262342
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 62343
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 62344
unrelated adults. The fire marshal shall adopt the rules under 62345
this division in consultation with the director of mental health62346
mental health and addiction services and interested parties 62347
designated by the director of mental healthmental health and 62348
addiction services. 62349

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 62350
of the Revised Code:62351

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:62352

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 62353
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 62354
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;62355

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 62356
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health62357
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.205119.3362358
of the Revised Code, and any institution, hospital, or other place 62359
established, controlled, or supervised by the department of mental 62360
healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 5119. of 62361
the Revised Code;62362

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 62363
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 62364
any residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of 62365
the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 62366
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults;62367

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 62368
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;62369

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;62370

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 62371
more than ten articles of seating furniture.62372

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 62373
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 62374
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.62375

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 62376
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 62377
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 62378
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 62379
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:62380

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;62381

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 62382
material;62383

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 62384
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 62385
covering.62386

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 62387
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 62388
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.62389

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 62390
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 62391
treatment of humans, any of the following:62392

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;62393

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 62394
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 62395
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 62396
vertical surface;62397

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 62398
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 62399
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.62400

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 62401
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 62402
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 62403
furniture.62404

       Sec. 3737.88.  (A)(1) The fire marshal shall have 62405
responsibility for implementation of the underground storage tank 62406
program and corrective action program for releases of petroleum 62407
from underground storage tanks established by the "Resource 62408
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2795, 42 U.S.C.A. 62409
6901, as amended. To implement the programs, the fire marshal may 62410
adopt, amend, and rescind such rules, conduct such inspections, 62411
require annual registration of underground storage tanks, issue 62412
such citations and orders to enforce those rules, enter into 62413
environmental covenants in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 62414
5301.92 of the Revised Code, and perform such other duties, as are 62415
consistent with those programs. The fire marshal, by rule, may 62416
delegate the authority to conduct inspections of underground 62417
storage tanks to certified fire safety inspectors.62418

       (2) In the place of any rules regarding release containment 62419
and release detection for underground storage tanks adopted under 62420
division (A)(1) of this section, the fire marshal, by rule, shall 62421
designate areas as being sensitive for the protection of human 62422
health and the environment and adopt alternative rules regarding 62423
release containment and release detection methods for new and 62424
upgraded underground storage tank systems located in those areas. 62425
In designating such areas, the fire marshal shall take into 62426
consideration such factors as soil conditions, hydrogeology, water 62427
use, and the location of public and private water supplies. Not 62428
later than July 11, 1990, the fire marshal shall file the rules 62429
required under this division with the secretary of state, director 62430
of the legislative service commission, and joint committee on 62431
agency rule review in accordance with divisions (B) and (H) of 62432
section 119.03 of the Revised Code.62433

       (3) Notwithstanding sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 62434
Revised Code, a person who is not a responsible person, as 62435
determined by the fire marshal pursuant to this chapter, may 62436
conduct a voluntary action in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 62437
Revised Code and rules adopted under it for either of the 62438
following:62439

       (a) A class C release;62440

       (b) A release, other than a class C release, that is subject 62441
to the rules adopted by the fire marshal under division (B) of 62442
section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to a corrective 62443
action, provided that both of the following apply:62444

       (i) The voluntary action also addresses hazardous substances 62445
or petroleum that is not subject to the rules adopted under 62446
division (B) of section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to 62447
a corrective action.62448

       (ii) The fire marshal has not issued an administrative order 62449
concerning the release or referred the release to the attorney 62450
general for enforcement. 62451

       The director of environmental protection, pursuant to section 62452
3746.12 of the Revised Code, may issue a covenant not to sue to 62453
any person who properly completes a voluntary action with respect 62454
to any such release in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 62455
Revised Code and rules adopted under it.62456

       (B) Before adopting any rule under this section or section 62457
3737.881 or 3737.882 of the Revised Code, the fire marshal shall 62458
file written notice of the proposed rule with the chairperson of 62459
the state fire council, and, within sixty days after notice is 62460
filed, the council may file responses to or comments on and may 62461
recommend alternative or supplementary rules to the fire marshal. 62462
At the end of the sixty-day period or upon the filing of 62463
responses, comments, or recommendations by the council, the fire 62464
marshal may adopt the rule filed with the council or any 62465
alternative or supplementary rule recommended by the council.62466

       (C) The state fire council may recommend courses of action to 62467
be taken by the fire marshal in carrying out the fire marshal's 62468
duties under this section. The council shall file its 62469
recommendations in the office of the fire marshal, and, within 62470
sixty days after the recommendations are filed, the fire marshal 62471
shall file with the chairperson of the council comments on, and 62472
proposed action in response to, the recommendations.62473

       (D) For the purpose of sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 62474
Revised Code, the fire marshal shall adopt, and may amend and 62475
rescind, rules identifying or listing hazardous substances. The 62476
rules shall be consistent with and equivalent in scope, coverage, 62477
and content to regulations identifying or listing hazardous 62478
substances adopted under the "Comprehensive Environmental 62479
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2779, 62480
42 U.S.C.A. 9602, as amended, except that the fire marshal shall 62481
not identify or list as a hazardous substance any hazardous waste 62482
identified or listed in rules adopted under division (A) of 62483
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.62484

       (E) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, 62485
the fire marshal shall have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the 62486
storage, treatment, and disposal of petroleum contaminated soil 62487
generated from corrective actions undertaken in response to 62488
releases of petroleum from underground storage tank systems. The 62489
fire marshal may adopt, amend, or rescind such rules as the fire 62490
marshal considers to be necessary or appropriate to regulate the 62491
storage, treatment, or disposal of petroleum contaminated soil so 62492
generated.62493

       (F) The fire marshal shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules 62494
under sections 3737.88 to 3737.8823737.883 of the Revised Code in 62495
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.62496

       Sec. 3737.883.  (A) As used in this section, "political 62497
subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the 62498
Revised Code, but includes a community improvement corporation as 62499
that term is defined in section 1724.01 of the Revised Code.62500

       (B) A political subdivision may do any of the following for 62501
an underground storage tank located within its territorial 62502
boundaries if the responsible person is not identifiable or if the 62503
state fire marshal determines that an identified responsible 62504
person is unable to pay the costs of the action to be taken by the 62505
political subdivision:62506

       (1) Initiate, continue, or properly complete the removal of 62507
an underground storage tank system;62508

       (2) Initiate, continue, or properly complete an assessment of 62509
the site of an underground storage tank or the site of an 62510
underground storage tank system;62511

       (3) Initiate, continue, or properly complete a corrective 62512
action.62513

       (C) The state fire marshal or the state fire marshal's 62514
designee shall administer an underground storage tank revolving 62515
loan program under which the state fire marshal issues loans to 62516
assist with the costs of actions described in divisions (B)(1) to 62517
(3) of this section. The state fire marshal shall issue a loan 62518
under the program to a political subdivision that meets the 62519
application requirements of division (D) of this section and 62520
agrees to written terms and conditions of the loan with the state 62521
fire marshal.62522

       (D) A political subdivision shall apply to the state fire 62523
marshal for a loan under this section on a form prescribed by the 62524
state fire marshal. In the application, the political subdivision 62525
shall do all of the following:62526

       (1) Describe the action for which it is requesting a loan;62527

        (2) State the requested loan amount;62528

       (3) Explain how the political subdivision plans to spend, of 62529
its own funds, in undertaking the action for which the loan is 62530
requested, an amount equal to at least five per cent of the 62531
requested loan amount;62532

       (4) Provide any other information requested by the state fire 62533
marshal.62534

       (E) The state fire marshal shall consult with the director of 62535
development services before issuing any loan under this section.62536

       (F) A loan issued under this section shall not carry 62537
interest. No loan issued under this section shall have a term of 62538
more than ten years. The political subdivision shall repay a loan 62539
issued under this section to the state fire marshal.62540

       (G) If, at any time after the expenditure of loan funds by a 62541
political subdivision under this section, the state fire marshal 62542
or any law enforcement agency identifies the responsible person or 62543
determines, for any reason, that the previously identified 62544
responsible person was or is able to pay the costs of the action 62545
for which the loan was issued, the political subdivision may bring 62546
any appropriate proceedings against the responsible person to 62547
recover the costs incurred by the political subdivision. The 62548
proceedings may be brought in either the court of common pleas 62549
having jurisdiction where the underground storage tank is located 62550
or the court of common pleas of Franklin county.62551

       (H)(1) The state fire marshal shall adopt and may amend and 62552
rescind rules as necessary for the administration and operation of 62553
the underground storage tank revolving loan program. The rules may 62554
do any of the following:62555

       (a) Further define the entities considered "political 62556
subdivisions" eligible to receive loans;62557

       (b) Establish qualifying criteria for loan recipients;62558

       (c) Establish criteria for awarding loans, loan amounts, loan 62559
payment terms, and permissible expenditures of loan funds, 62560
including methods that the state fire marshal may use to verify 62561
the proper use of loan funds or to obtain reimbursement for or the 62562
return of improperly used loan funds.62563

       (2) The state fire marshal may adopt and may amend and 62564
rescind rules for the issuance of emergency underground storage 62565
tank revolving loans to qualifying entities during a natural 62566
disaster or another similar event as defined in the rules.62567

       Sec. 3737.883.        Sec. 3737.884.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to 62568
section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state fire marshal shall 62569
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 62570
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 62571
Code with respect to a certificate issued pursuant to section 62572
3737.34, 3737.65, 3737.83, or 3737.881 of the Revised Code.62573

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 62574
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 62575
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 62576
times determined by rules the director of health shall adopt in 62577
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are 62578
consistent with the guidelines established by the centers for 62579
disease control and prevention in the public health service of the 62580
United States department of health and human services. The rules 62581
shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.62582

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 62583
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 62584
health program, including the medicaid program established by 62585
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 62586
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 62587
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 62588
the parent's religious tenets and practices.62589

       Sec. 3742.31.  (A) The director of health shall establish, 62590
promote, and maintain a child lead poisoning prevention program. 62591
The program shall provide statewide coordination of screening, 62592
diagnosis, and treatment services for children under age six, 62593
including both of the following:62594

       (1) Collecting the social security numbers of all children 62595
screened, diagnosed, or treated as part of the program's case 62596
management system;62597

       (2) Disclosing to the office of medical assistance in the62598
department of job and family servicesmedicaid on at least an 62599
annual basis the identity and lead screening test results of each 62600
child screened pursuant to section 3742.30 of the Revised Code. 62601
The director shall collect and disseminate information relating to 62602
child lead poisoning and controlling lead hazards.62603

       (B) The director of health shall operate the child lead 62604
poisoning prevention program in accordance with rules adopted 62605
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code. The director may enter 62606
into an interagency agreement with one or more other state 62607
agencies to perform one or more of the program's duties. The 62608
director shall supervise and direct an agency's performance of 62609
such a duty.62610

       Sec. 3742.32. (A) The director of health shall appoint an 62611
advisory council to assist in the ongoing development and 62612
implementation of the child lead poisoning prevention program 62613
created under section 3742.31 of the Revised Code. The advisory 62614
council shall consist of the following members:62615

       (1) A representative of the office of medical assistance in 62616
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;62617

       (2) A representative of the bureau of child care in the 62618
department of job and family services;62619

       (3) A representative of the department of environmental 62620
protection;62621

       (4) A representative of the department of education;62622

       (5) A representative of the department of development 62623
services agency;62624

       (6) A representative of the Ohio apartment owner's 62625
association;62626

       (7) A representative of the Ohio help end lead poisoning 62627
coalition;62628

       (8) A representative of the Ohio environmental health 62629
association;62630

        (9) An Ohio representative of the national paint and coatings 62631
association.62632

       (B) The advisory council shall do both of the following:62633

       (1) Provide the director with advice regarding the policies 62634
the child lead poisoning prevention program should emphasize, 62635
preferred methods of financing the program, and any other matter 62636
relevant to the program's operation;62637

       (2) Submit a report of the state's activities to the 62638
governor, president of the senate, and speaker of the house of 62639
representatives on or before the first day of March each year.62640

       (C) The advisory council is not subject to sections 101.82 to 62641
101.87 of the Revised Code.62642

       Sec. 3742.51. (A) There is hereby created in the state 62643
treasury the lead poisoning prevention fund. The fund shall 62644
include all moneys appropriated to the department of health for 62645
the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.31 to 3742.50 62646
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. 62647
Any grants, contributions, or other moneys collected by the 62648
department for purposes of preventing lead poisoning shall be 62649
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the fund.62650

       (B) Moneys in the fund shall be used solely for the purposes 62651
of the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 62652
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code, including providing financial 62653
assistance to individuals who are unable to pay for the following:62654

       (1) Costs associated with obtaining lead tests and lead 62655
poisoning treatment for children under six years of age who are 62656
not covered by private medical insurance or are underinsured, are 62657
not eligible for the medicaid program established under Chapter 62658
5111. of the Revised Code or any other government health program, 62659
and do not have access to another source of funds to cover the 62660
cost of lead tests and any indicated treatments;62661

       (2) Costs associated with having lead abatement performed or 62662
having the preventive treatments specified in section 3742.41 of 62663
the Revised Code performed.62664

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 62665
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 62666
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 62667
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 62668
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 62669
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 62670
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 62671
been submitted to the director.62672

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this 62673
section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or operates 62674
an air contaminant source and who is required to apply for and 62675
obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code 62676
shall pay the fees set forth in this division. For the purposes of 62677
this division, total emissions of air contaminants may be 62678
calculated using engineering calculations, emissions factors, 62679
material balance calculations, or performance testing procedures, 62680
as authorized by the director.62681

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 62682
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 62683
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 62684
organic compounds, and lead:62685

       (1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 62686
each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 62687
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;62688

       (2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 62689
each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 62690
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;62691

       (3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 62692
of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, and each 62693
subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than the 62694
fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the calendar 62695
year in which the emissions occurred.62696

       The fees levied under this division do not apply to that 62697
portion of the emissions of a regulated pollutant at a facility 62698
that exceed four thousand tons during a calendar year.62699

       (C)(1) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section 62700
are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V permit 62701
program.62702

       (2) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section do 62703
not apply to emissions from any electric generating unit 62704
designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal Clean 62705
Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be assessed 62706
on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing in 62707
calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from the 62708
generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue to be 62709
assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total actual 62710
emissions from the generating unit during the preceding calendar 62711
year.62712

       (3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or operators 62713
of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee assessed 62714
under division (B) or (D) of this section. Any such invoice shall 62715
be issued no sooner than the applicable date when the fee first 62716
may be collected in a year under the applicable division, shall 62717
identify the nature and amount of the fee assessed, and shall 62718
indicate that the fee is required to be paid within thirty days 62719
after the issuance of the invoice.62720

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 62721
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 62722
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 62723
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 62724
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 62725
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 62726
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 62727
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 62728
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 62729
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 62730
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:62731

Total tons per year 62732
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 62733
emitted per facility 62734
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 62735
50 or more, but less than 100     300 62736
100 or more     700 62737

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 62738
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 62739
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 62740
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 62741
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 62742
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 62743
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 62744
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 62745
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 62746
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 62747
accordance with the following schedule:62748

Total tons per year 62749
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 62750
emitted per facility 62751
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 62752
10 or more, but less than 50      200 62753
50 or more, but less than 100      300 62754
100 or more      700 62755

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 62756
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 62757
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 62758
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 62759
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 62760
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 62761
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.62762

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 20142016, 62763
each person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall 62764
pay an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions 62765
from the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 62766
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 62767
following schedule:62768

Combined total tons 62769
per year of all regulated Annual fee 62770
pollutants emitted per facility 62771

Less than 10 $ 170 62772
10 or more, but less than 20   340 62773
20 or more, but less than 30   670 62774
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 62775
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 62776
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 62777
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 62778
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 62779
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 62780
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 62781
100 or more 3,350 62782

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 62783
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 62784
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 62785
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 62786
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 62787
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 62788
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 62789
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 62790
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 62791
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 62792
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 62793
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 62794
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 62795
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 62796
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 62797
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 62798
biennially rather than annually.62799

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 62800
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 62801
increase the fees prescribed in division (B) of this section by 62802
the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for the 62803
most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a year 62804
exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 62805
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 62806
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 62807
the purposes of division (B) of this section and shall make the 62808
revised schedules available to persons required to pay the fees 62809
assessed under that division and to the public.62810

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:62811

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 62812
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 62813
United States department of labor as of the close of the 62814
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 62815
that year.62816

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 62817
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 62818
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.62819

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 62820
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 62821
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 62822
following schedules:62823

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 62824
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 62825
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)62826

Input capacity (maximum) 62827
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 62828
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 62829
10 or more, but less than 100      400 62830
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 62831
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 62832
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 62833
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 62834
5000 or more     9000 62835

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 62836
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 62837
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.62838

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 62839
engines designed to generate electricity62840

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 62841
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 62842
10 or more, but less than 25      150 62843
25 or more, but less than 50      300 62844
50 or more, but less than 100      500 62845
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 62846
250 or more     2000 62847

       (3) Incinerators62848

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 62849
0 to 100    $ 100 62850
101 to 500      500 62851
501 to 2000     1000 62852
2001 to 20,000     1500 62853
more than 20,000     3750 62854

       (4)(a) Process62855

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 62856
0 to 1000    $ 200 62857
1001 to 5000      500 62858
5001 to 10,000      750 62859
10,001 to 50,000     1000 62860
more than 50,000     1250 62861

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 62862
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 62863
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 62864
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 62865
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 62866
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 62867
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 62868
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 62869
established in division (F)(2) of this section.62870

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 62871
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 62872
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 62873
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 62874
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 62875
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 62876
industrial classification code according to the Standard 62877
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 62878
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 62879
president, 1987, as revised:62880

        Major group 10, metal mining;62881

       Major group 12, coal mining;62882

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;62883

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;62884

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;62885

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;62886

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;62887

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;62888

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);62889

       5159 Farm related raw materials;62890

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.62891

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 62892
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 62893
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 62894
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:62895

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 62896
0 to 10,000   $  200 62897
10,001 to 50,000      400 62898
50,001 to 100,000      500 62899
100,001 to 200,000      600 62900
200,001 to 400,000      750 62901
400,001 or more      900 62902

       (5) Storage tanks62903

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 62904
0 to 20,000   $  100 62905
20,001 to 40,000      150 62906
40,001 to 100,000      250 62907
100,001 to 500,000      400 62908
500,001 or greater      750 62909

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities62910

For each gasoline/fuel 62911
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 62912
units at the facility)     $ 100 62913

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities62914

For each dry cleaning 62915
facility (includes all units Permit to install 62916
at the facility)     $ 100 62917

       (8) Registration status62918

For each source covered Permit to install 62919
by registration status     $  75 62920

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 62921
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 62922
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 62923
in the following schedule:62924

Action Fee 62925
Each notification $75 62926
Asbestos removal $3/unit 62927
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 62928

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 62929
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.62930

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 62931
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 62932
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 62933
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 62934
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 62935
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.62936

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 62937
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 62938
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 62939
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 62940
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 62941
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 62942
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 62943
dollars.62944

       (J) Notwithstanding division (F) of this section, a person 62945
who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to rules 62946
adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code 62947
after the date actual construction of the source began shall pay a 62948
fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee that 62949
otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division unless 62950
the applicant received authorization to begin construction under 62951
division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This division 62952
only applies to sources for which actual construction of the 62953
source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or payment 62954
of the fee established in this division does not preclude the 62955
director from taking any administrative or judicial enforcement 62956
action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., or 6111. 62957
of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any of them, in 62958
connection with a violation of rules adopted under division (F) of 62959
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.62960

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 62961
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 62962
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 62963
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 62964
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 62965
pipework.62966

       (K)(1) Money received under division (B) of this section 62967
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 62968
Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the Revised 62969
Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed under 62970
division (B) of this section on actual emissions from a source and 62971
received by the environmental protection agency pursuant to that 62972
division shall be transferred using an interstate transfer voucher 62973
to the state treasury to the credit of the small business 62974
assistance fund created in section 3706.19 of the Revised Code. In 62975
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 62976
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 62977
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 62978
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 62979
created by that section.62980

       (2) Money received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), 62981
(F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in 62982
the state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 62983
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.62984

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 62985
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 62986
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 62987
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 62988
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 62989
schedule:62990

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  62991
0 to 1000 $  0 62992
1,001 to 5000 100 62993
5,001 to 50,000 200 62994
50,001 to 100,000 300 62995
100,001 to 300,000 525 62996
over 300,000 750 62997

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 62998
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 62999
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 63000
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 63001
dollars per mine.63002

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 63003
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 63004
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 63005
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 63006
fifty dollars.63007

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 63008
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 63009
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 63010
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 63011
cost through June 30, 20142016, and one hundred dollars plus 63012
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 63013
after July 1, 20142016, except that the total fee shall not 63014
exceed fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 20142016, and 63015
five thousand dollars on and after July 1, 20142016. The fee 63016
shall be paid at the time the application is submitted.63017

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 63018
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 63019
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 63020
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.63021

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 63022
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 63023
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 63024
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 63025
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 63026
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 63027
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 63028
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 63029
of the amount of the fee.63030

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 20122014, and January 63031
30, 20132015, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued 63032
pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average 63033
daily discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 63034
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 63035
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 63036
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.63037

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 63038
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 63039
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 63040
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 63041
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 63042
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 63043
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 63044
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 63045
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 63046
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 63047
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 63048
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 63049
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 63050
discharge.63051

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 63052
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 63053
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 63054
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 63055
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 63056
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 63057
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 63058
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 63059
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 63060
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 63061
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 63062
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 63063
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.63064

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 63065
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:63066

Average daily Fee due by 63067
discharge flow January 30, 63068
2012 2014, and 63069
January 30, 2013 2015 63070

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 63071
50,000 to 100,000 500 63072
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 63073
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 63074
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 63075
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 63076
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 63077
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 63078
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 63079
100,000,001 or more 62,100 63080

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 63081
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 63082
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 63083
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 63084
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 63085
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 63086
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 63087
treatment works.63088

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 63089
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 63090
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 63091
fee specified in the following schedule:63092

Average daily Fee due by 63093
discharge flow January 30, 63094
2012 2014, and 63095
January 30, 2013 2015 63096

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 63097
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 63098
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 63099
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 63100
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 63101
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 63102
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 63103
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 63104
250,000,001 or more 18,700 63105

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 63106
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 63107
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 63108
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 63109
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 63110
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 20122014, and not 63111
later than January 30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the 63112
surcharge at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 63113
ten per cent of the amount of the surcharge.63114

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 63115
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 63116
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 63117
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 63118
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 63119
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 63120
not later than January 30, 20122014, and not later than January 63121
30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time 63122
shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the 63123
required fee.63124

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 63125
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 63126
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 63127
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 63128
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 63129
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 63130
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 63131
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 63132
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 63133
annual fee that is unpaid.63134

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 63135
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 63136
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 63137
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.63138

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:63139

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 63140
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 63141
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 63142
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 63143
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.63144

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 63145
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 63146
assigned by the director.63147

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 63148
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 63149
number assigned by the director.63150

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 63151
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 63152
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 63153
director.63154

       (M) Through June 30, 20142016, a person applying for a 63155
license or license renewal to operate a public water system under 63156
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 63157
established under this division at the time of application to the 63158
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 63159
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 63160
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 63161
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 63162
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 63163
Code.63164

        Except as provided in divisiondivisions (M)(4) and (5) of 63165
this section, fees required under this division shall be 63166
calculated and paid in accordance with the following schedule:63167

       (1) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 63168
the Revised Code for any public water system that is a community 63169
water system as defined in section 6109.01 of the Revised Code, 63170
and for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 63171
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:63172

Number of service connections Fee amount 63173
Not more than 49    $ 112 63174
50 to 99      176 63175

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 63176
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 63177
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 63178
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 63179
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 63180
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 63181
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 63182
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 63183
50,000 to 99,999   .92 63184
100,000 to 149,999   .86 63185
150,000 to 199,999   .80 63186
200,000 or more   .76 63187

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 63188
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 63189
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 63190
be assessed on a volumetric basis.63191

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 63192
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 63193
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 63194
main to any building outlet.63195

       (2) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 63196
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 63197
community water system and serves a nontransient population, and 63198
for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 63199
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:63200

Population served Fee amount 63201
Fewer than 150 $    112 63202
150 to 299      176 63203
300 to 749      384 63204
750 to 1,499      628 63205
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 63206
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 63207
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 63208
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 63209
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 63210
30,000 or more   16,820 63211

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 63212
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 63213
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 63214
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 63215
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 63216
three individuals per service connection.63217

       (3) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 63218
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 63219
community water system and serves a transient population, and for 63220
each license renewal required for such a system prior to January 63221
31, 20142016, the fee is:63222

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 63223
1 $112 63224
2  112 63225
3  176 63226
4  278 63227
5  568 63228
System designated as using a 63229
surface water source  792 63230

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 63231
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 63232
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 63233
plumbing system serving the public water system.63234

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 63235
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 63236
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 63237
whichever is greater.63238

       (5) An applicant for an initial license who is proposing to 63239
operate a new public water supply system shall submit a fee that 63240
equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee for the remainder 63241
of the licensing year.63242

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 63243
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 63244
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 63245
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 63246
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 63247
through June 30, 20142016, and fifteen thousand dollars on and 63248
after July 1, 20142016. The fee shall be paid at the time the 63249
application is submitted.63250

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 63251
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 63252
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 63253
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 63254
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 63255
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 63256
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 63257
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 63258
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.63259

       (3) Through June 30, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 63260
survey basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by 63261
the state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory 63262
personnel for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and 63263
procedures established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised 63264
Code for determining the qualitative characteristics of water:63265

microbiological 63266
MMO-MUG $2,000 63267
MF 2,100 63268
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 63269
organic chemical 5,400 63270
trace metals 5,400 63271
standard chemistry 2,800 63272
limited chemistry 1,550 63273

       On and after July 1, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 63274
survey basis, shall be charged any such person:63275

microbiological $ 1,650 63276
organic chemicals 3,500 63277
trace metals 3,500 63278
standard chemistry 1,800 63279
limited chemistry 1,000 63280

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 63281
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014 2016, an individual 63282
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 63283
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 63284
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 63285
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 63286
survey requested.63287

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:63288

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.63289

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.63290

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.63291

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.63292

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 63293
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 63294
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 63295
Code.63296

        (O) Any person applying to the director to take an 63297
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 63298
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 63299
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 63300
application is submitted, shall pay a fee in accordance with the 63301
following schedule through November 30, 20142016:63302

Class A operator $ 80 63303
Class I operator   105 63304
Class II operator   120 63305
Class III operator   130 63306
Class IV operator   145 63307

       On and after December 1, 20142016, the applicant shall pay a 63308
fee in accordance with the following schedule:63309

Class A operator $ 50 63310
Class I operator   70 63311
Class II operator   80 63312
Class III operator   90 63313
Class IV operator   100 63314

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 63315
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 63316
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 63317
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 63318
forty-five dollars.63319

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 63320
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 63321
following schedule:63322

Class A operator $25 63323
Class I operator  35 63324
Class II operator  45 63325
Class III operator  55 63326
Class IV operator  65 63327

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 63328
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 63329
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 63330
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 63331
schedule:63332

Class A operator $45 63333
Class I operator  55 63334
Class II operator  65 63335
Class III operator  75 63336
Class IV operator  85 63337

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 63338
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.63339

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 63340
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 63341
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 63342
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 63343
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 63344
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 63345
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 63346
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 63347
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 63348
year.63349

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 63350
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 63351
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 63352
Code.63353

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 63354
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 63355
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 63356
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 63357
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 63358
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 63359
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 63360
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 63361
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 63362
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 63363
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 63364
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 63365
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 63366
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.63367

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 63368
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 63369
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 63370
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 63371
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 63372
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 63373
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 63374
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 63375
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 63376
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 63377
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 63378
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 63379
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 63380
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 63381
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 63382
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 63383
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 63384
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 63385
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 63386
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 63387
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 63388
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 63389
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 63390
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 63391
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 63392
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 63393
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 63394
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 63395
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 63396
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 63397
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 63398
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 63399
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 63400
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 63401
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 63402
late.63403

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 63404
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.63405

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 63406
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 63407
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 63408
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 63409
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 63410
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.63411

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 63412
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 63413
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 63414
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 63415
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 63416
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.63417

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 63418
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 63419
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 63420
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 63421
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 63422
dollars.63423

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 63424
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 63425
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 63426
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 63427
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 63428
thousand dollars.63429

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 63430
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 63431
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.63432

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 63433
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 63434
of one thousand dollars.63435

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 63436
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 63437
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 63438
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 63439
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 63440
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 63441
fee for each week that the fee is late.63442

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 63443
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 63444
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 63445
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.63446

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 63447
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 63448
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 63449
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 63450
person applying for a registration certificate under section 63451
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 63452
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 63453
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 63454
application is submitted.63455

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 63456
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 63457
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 63458
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 63459
20142016, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time 63460
the application is submitted on and after July 1, 20142016. 63461
Except as provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through 63462
June 30, 20142016, any person applying for a national pollutant 63463
discharge elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the 63464
Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars 63465
at the time of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 63466
20142016, such a person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen 63467
dollars at the time of application.63468

       In addition to the application fee established under division 63469
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 63470
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 63471
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 63472
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 63473
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 63474
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 63475
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 63476
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 63477
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 63478
application is submitted.63479

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 63480
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 63481
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 63482
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 63483
Revised Code.63484

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 63485
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 63486
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 63487
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 63488
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.63489

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 63490
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 63491
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 63492
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 63493
(5) of this section, as applicable.63494

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 63495
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 63496
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 63497
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 63498
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 63499
electronic application. An application for a registration 63500
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 63501
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 63502
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 63503
application fee, and any other fees established under this 63504
division, are paid.63505

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 63506
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 63507
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 63508
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 63509
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 63510
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.63511

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 63512
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 63513
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:63514

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 63515
application for initial permit coverage;63516

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 63517
application for a renewal of permit coverage.63518

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 63519
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 63520
the following:63521

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 63522
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 63523
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 63524
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 63525
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 63526
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 63527
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 63528
certifications.63529

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 63530
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 63531
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 63532
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 63533
of the Revised Code.63534

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 63535
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 63536
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 63537
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 63538
of the Revised Code.63539

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 63540
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 63541
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 63542
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 63543
any fee required by this section;63544

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 63545
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 63546
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 63547
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 63548
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;63549

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 63550
to carry out this section.63551

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 63552
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 63553
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 63554
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 63555
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 63556
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 63557
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 63558
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 63559
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which a 63560
fee is prescribed in division (L)(1)(b) of this section.63561

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 63562
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 63563
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 63564
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 63565
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 63566
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 63567
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 63568
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 63569
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.63570

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 63571
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 63572
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 63573
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 63574
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 63575
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 63576
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 63577
6111. of the Revised Code.63578

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), and 63579
(J) of this section, and in any other provision of this section 63580
pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the Revised 63581
Code:63582

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 63583
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 63584
Revised Code.63585

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 63586
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 63587
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:63588

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 63589
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 63590
implementation or enforcement;63591

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 63592
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 63593
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 63594
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;63595

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 63596
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 63597
certification, and related data entry;63598

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 63599
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 63600
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;63601

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;63602

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;63603

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;63604

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 63605
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 63606
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 63607
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 63608
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 63609
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 63610
Revised Code.63611

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 63612
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 63613
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 63614
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 63615
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 63616
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 63617
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 63618
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 63619
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 63620
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.63621

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 63622
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 63623
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.63624

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 63625
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 63626
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 63627
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 63628
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 63629
exceptions:63630

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 63631
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 63632
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 63633
hundred dollars.63634

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 63635
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 63636
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 63637
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 63638
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 63639
capacity.63640

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 63641
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 63642
division (Y)(3) of this section.63643

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 63644
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 63645
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 63646
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 63647
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 63648
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 63649
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 63650
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 63651
of this section.63652

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 63653
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 63654
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 63655
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 63656
sewage sludge that have been transferred.63657

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 63658
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 63659
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 63660
division (Y) of this section.63661

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 63662
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 63663
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 63664
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 63665
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 63666
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 63667
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:63668

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;63669

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 63670
landfill: five thousand dollars;63671

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 63672
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 63673
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.63674

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 63675
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 63676
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 63677
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 63678
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 63679
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 63680
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 63681
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 63682
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 63683
of this section.63684

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 63685
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 63686
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 63687
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 63688
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 63689
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.63690

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 63691
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 63692
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 63693
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 63694
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 63695
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 63696
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 63697
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.63698

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 63699
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 63700
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 63701
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 63702
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 63703
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 63704
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 63705
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 63706
fee to ensure that it is accurate.63707

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 63708
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 63709
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 63710
119. of the Revised Code.63711

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 63712
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 63713
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 63714
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 63715
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 63716
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 63717
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 63718
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.63719

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 63720
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 63721
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 63722
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 63723
of the required annual sludge fee.63724

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 63725
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 63726
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 63727
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 63728
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 63729
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 63730
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.63731

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 63732
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 63733
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 63734
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 63735
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 63736
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 63737
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 63738
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 63739
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 63740
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 63741
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.63742

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 63743
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 63744
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 63745
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 63746
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 63747
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 63748
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 63749
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 63750
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 63751
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 63752
(Y)(7) of this section.63753

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 63754
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 63755
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 63756
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 63757
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 63758
of the Revised Code.63759

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:63760

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 63761
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.63762

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 63763
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 63764
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 63765
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 63766
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 63767
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 63768
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 63769
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 63770
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 63771
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.63772

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 63773
meets all of the following qualifications:63774

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 63775
503.32(a);63776

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 63777
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);63778

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 63779
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;63780

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 63781
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.63782

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 63783
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 63784
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.63785

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 63786
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 63787
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.63788

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 63789
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 63790
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 63791
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 63792
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.63793

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 63794
to productive use.63795

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 63796
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 63797
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 63798
dedicated disposal sites.63799

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 63800
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 63801
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 63802
device.63803

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 63804
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 63805
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 63806
they are separated by a public road or highway.63807

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 63808
(Y)(1) of this section.63809

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 63810
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 63811
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.63812

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 63813
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 63814
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 63815
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 63816
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 63817
activity.63818

       Sec. 3745.113. (A) A person that applies for a state isolated 63819
wetland permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules 63820
adopted under it shall pay an application fee of two hundred 63821
dollars at the time of application.63822

       In addition, that person shall pay, at the time of 63823
application, a review fee of five hundred dollars per acre of the 63824
wetlands to be impacted.63825

       However, the review fee shall not exceed five thousand 63826
dollars per application. In addition, if an application is denied, 63827
the director of environmental protection shall refund to the 63828
applicant one-half of the amount of the review fee paid by the 63829
applicant under division (A) of this section.63830

       (B) If a person conducts any activities for which an 63831
individual state isolated wetland permit is required under Chapter 63832
6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it without first 63833
obtaining such a permit, the person shall pay twice the amount of 63834
the application and review fees that the person otherwise would 63835
have been required to pay under division (A) of this section, not 63836
to exceed ten thousand dollars.63837

       (C) All moneys collected under this section shall be 63838
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the dredge and 63839
fillsurface water protection fund created in section 6111.02963840
6111.038 of the Revised Code.63841

       (D) Fees established under this section shall not apply to 63842
any agency or department of the state or to any county, township, 63843
or municipal corporation in this state.63844

       Sec. 3769.08.  (A) Any person holding a permit to conduct a 63845
horse-racing meeting may provide a place in the race meeting 63846
grounds or enclosure at which the permit holder may conduct and 63847
supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering by patrons of legal 63848
age on the live racing programs and simulcast racing programs 63849
conducted by the permit holder.63850

       The pari-mutuel method of wagering upon the live racing 63851
programs and simulcast racing programs held at or conducted within 63852
such race track, and at the time of such horse-racing meeting, or 63853
at other times authorized by the state racing commission, shall 63854
not be unlawful. No other place, except that provided and 63855
designated by the permit holder and except as provided in section 63856
3769.26 of the Revised Code, nor any other method or system of 63857
betting or wagering on live racing programs and simulcast racing 63858
programs, except the pari-mutuel system, shall be used or 63859
permitted by the permit holder; nor, except as provided in section 63860
3769.089 or 3769.26 of the Revised Code, shall the pari-mutuel 63861
system of wagering be conducted by the permit holder on any races 63862
except the races at the race track, grounds, or enclosure for 63863
which the person holds a permit. Each permit holder may retain as 63864
a commission an amount not to exceed eighteen per cent of the 63865
total of all moneys wagered on live racing programs and simulcast 63866
racing programs.63867

       The pari-mutuel wagering authorized by this section is 63868
subject to sections 3769.25 to 3769.28 of the Revised Code.63869

       (B) At the close of each racing day, each permit holder 63870
authorized to conduct thoroughbred racing, out of the amount 63871
retained on that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 63872
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 63873
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 63874
wagered on live racing programs on that day and shall separately 63875
compute and pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax 63876
commissioner, as a tax, a sum equal to the following percentages 63877
of the total of all money wagered on simulcast racing programs on 63878
that day:63879

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 63880
wagered, or any part of that amount;63881

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63882
wagered, or any part of that amount;63883

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63884
wagered, or any part of that amount;63885

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 63886
dollars wagered.63887

       Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 63888
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct 63889
thoroughbred racing shall use for purse money a sum equal to fifty 63890
per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the permit holder 63891
as a commission after payment of the state tax. This fifty per 63892
cent payment shall be in addition to the purse distribution from 63893
breakage specified in this section.63894

       Subject to division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid 63895
to the tax commissioner by thoroughbred racing permit holders, 63896
one-half of one per cent of the total of all moneys so wagered on 63897
a racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund created by 63898
section 3769.082 of the Revised Code, one and one-eighth per cent 63899
of the total of all moneys so wagered on a racing day shall be 63900
paid into the Ohio thoroughbred race fund created by section 63901
3769.083 of the Revised Code, and one-quarter of one per cent of 63902
the total of all moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit 63903
holder shall be paid into the state racing commission operating 63904
fund created by section 3769.03 of the Revised Code. The required 63905
payment to the state racing commission operating fund does not 63906
apply to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies. 63907
The remaining moneys may be retained by the permit holder, except 63908
as provided in this section with respect to the odd cents 63909
redistribution. Amounts paid into the nursing home franchise 63910
permit fee fund pursuant to this section and section 3769.26 of 63911
the Revised Code shall be used solely for the support of the 63912
PASSPORT program as determined in appropriations made by the 63913
general assembly. If the PASSPORT program is abolished, the amount 63914
that would have been paid to the nursing home franchise permit fee 63915
fund under this chapter shall be paid to the general revenue fund 63916
of the state. As used in this chapter, "PASSPORT program" means 63917
the PASSPORT program created underhas the same meaning as in63918
section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.63919

       The total amount paid to the Ohio thoroughbred race fund 63920
under this section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the 63921
Revised Code shall not exceed by more than six per cent the total 63922
amount paid to this fund under this section and division (A) of 63923
that section during the immediately preceding calendar year.63924

       Each year, the total amount calculated for payment into the 63925
Ohio fairs fund under this division, division (C) of this section, 63926
and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code shall be 63927
an amount calculated using the percentages specified in this 63928
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 63929
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code.63930

       A permit holder may contract with a thoroughbred horsemen's 63931
organization for the organization to act as a representative of 63932
all thoroughbred owners and trainers participating in a 63933
horse-racing meeting conducted by the permit holder. A 63934
"thoroughbred horsemen's organization" is any corporation or 63935
association that represents, through membership or otherwise, more 63936
than one-half of the aggregate of all thoroughbred owners and 63937
trainers who were licensed and actively participated in racing 63938
within this state during the preceding calendar year. Except as 63939
otherwise provided in this paragraph, any moneys received by a 63940
thoroughbred horsemen's organization shall be used exclusively for 63941
the benefit of thoroughbred owners and trainers racing in this 63942
state through the administrative purposes of the organization, 63943
benevolent activities on behalf of the horsemen, promotion of the 63944
horsemen's rights and interests, and promotion of equine research. 63945
A thoroughbred horsemen's organization may expend not more than an 63946
aggregate of five per cent of its annual gross receipts, or a 63947
larger amount as approved by the organization, for dues, 63948
assessments, and other payments to all other local, national, or 63949
international organizations having as their primary purposes the 63950
promotion of thoroughbred horse racing, thoroughbred horsemen's 63951
rights, and equine research.63952

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 63953
section, at the close of each racing day, each permit holder 63954
authorized to conduct harness or quarter horse racing, out of the 63955
amount retained that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 63956
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 63957
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 63958
wagered on live racing programs and shall separately compute and 63959
pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a 63960
tax, a sum equal to the following percentages of the total of all 63961
money wagered on simulcast racing programs on that day:63962

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 63963
wagered, or any part of that amount;63964

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63965
wagered, or any part of that amount;63966

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63967
wagered, or any part of that amount;63968

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 63969
dollars wagered.63970

       Except as otherwise provided in division (B) and subject to 63971
division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid to the tax 63972
commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct harness or 63973
quarter horse racing, one-half of one per cent of all moneys 63974
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund; 63975
from the moneys paid to the tax commissioner by permit holders 63976
authorized to conduct harness racing, five-eighths of one per cent 63977
of all moneys wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the 63978
Ohio standardbred development fund; and from the moneys paid to 63979
the tax commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct 63980
quarter horse racing, five-eighths of one per cent of all moneys 63981
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio quarter 63982
horse development fund.63983

       (D) In addition, subject to division (M) of this section, 63984
beginning on January 1, 1996, from the money paid to the tax 63985
commissioner as a tax under this section and division (A) of 63986
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code by harness horse permit 63987
holders, one-half of one per cent of the amount wagered on a 63988
racing day shall be paid into the Ohio standardbred development 63989
fund. Beginning January 1, 1998, the payment to the Ohio 63990
standardbred development fund required under this division does 63991
not apply to county agricultural societies or independent 63992
agricultural societies.63993

       The total amount paid to the Ohio standardbred development 63994
fund under this division, division (C) of this section, and 63995
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code and the total 63996
amount paid to the Ohio quarter horse development fund under this 63997
division and division (A) of that section shall not exceed by more 63998
than six per cent the total amount paid into the fund under this 63999
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 64000
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code in the immediately preceding 64001
calendar year.64002

       (E) Subject to division (M) of this section, from the money 64003
paid as a tax under this chapter by harness and quarter horse 64004
permit holders, one-quarter of one per cent of the total of all 64005
moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit holder shall be paid 64006
into the state racing commission operating fund created by section 64007
3769.03 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply to 64008
county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.64009

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 64010
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct harness 64011
racing shall pay to the harness horsemen's purse pool a sum equal 64012
to fifty per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the 64013
permit holder as a commission after payment of the state tax. This 64014
fifty per cent payment is to be in addition to the purse 64015
distribution from breakage specified in this section.64016

       (G) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 64017
harness racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of all 64018
redistribution to be made on all mutual contributions exceeding a 64019
sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten.64020

       Forty per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd 64021
cents shall be used by the permit holder for purse money for Ohio 64022
sired, bred, and owned colts, for purse money for Ohio bred 64023
horses, and for increased purse money for horse races. Upon the 64024
formation of the corporation described in section 3769.21 of the 64025
Revised Code to establish a harness horsemen's health and 64026
retirement fund, twenty-five per cent of that portion of that 64027
total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each racing 64028
day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish and fund 64029
the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is formed, 64030
that twenty-five per cent shall be paid at the close of each 64031
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 64032
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county in which the 64033
permit holder operates race meetings. The remaining thirty-five 64034
per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd cents shall be 64035
retained by the permit holder.64036

       (H) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 64037
thoroughbred racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 64038
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 64039
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten. Twenty 64040
per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall 64041
be used by the permit holder for increased purse money for horse 64042
races. Upon the formation of the corporation described in section 64043
3769.21 of the Revised Code to establish a thoroughbred horsemen's 64044
health and retirement fund, forty-five per cent of that portion of 64045
that total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each 64046
racing day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish 64047
and fund the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is 64048
formed, that forty-five per cent shall be paid by the permit 64049
holder to the tax commissioner or the tax commissioner's agent in 64050
the county seat of the county in which the permit holder operates 64051
race meetings, at the close of each racing day. The remaining 64052
thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd 64053
cents shall be retained by the permit holder.64054

       (I) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 64055
quarter horse racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 64056
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 64057
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten, subject 64058
to a tax of twenty-five per cent on that portion of the total sum 64059
of such odd cents that is in excess of two thousand dollars during 64060
a calendar year, which tax shall be paid at the close of each 64061
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 64062
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county within which 64063
the permit holder operates race meetings. Forty per cent of that 64064
portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall be used by the 64065
permit holder for increased purse money for horse races. The 64066
remaining thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum 64067
of odd cents shall be retained by the permit holder.64068

       (J)(1) To encourage the improvement of racing facilities for 64069
the benefit of the public, breeders, and horse owners, and to 64070
increase the revenue to the state from the increase in pari-mutuel 64071
wagering resulting from those improvements, the taxes paid by a 64072
permit holder to the state as provided for in this chapter shall 64073
be reduced by three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 64074
wagered for those permit holders who make capital improvements to 64075
existing race tracks or construct new race tracks. The percentage 64076
of the reduction that may be taken each racing day shall equal 64077
seventy-five per cent of the taxes levied under divisions (B) and 64078
(C) of this section and section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and 64079
division (F)(2) of section 3769.26 of the Revised Code, as 64080
applicable, divided by the calculated amount each fund should 64081
receive under divisions (B) and (C) of this section and section 64082
3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of section 64083
3769.26 of the Revised Code and the reduction provided for in this 64084
division. If the resulting percentage is less than one, that 64085
percentage shall be multiplied by the amount of the reduction 64086
provided for in this division. Otherwise, the permit holder shall 64087
receive the full reduction provided for in this division. The 64088
amount of the allowable reduction not received shall be carried 64089
forward and applied against future tax liability. After any 64090
reductions expire, any reduction carried forward shall be treated 64091
as a reduction as provided for in this division.64092

       If more than one permit holder is authorized to conduct 64093
racing at the facility that is being built or improved, the cost 64094
of the new race track or capital improvement shall be allocated 64095
between or among all the permit holders in the ratio that the 64096
permit holders' number of racing days bears to the total number of 64097
racing days conducted at the facility.64098

       A reduction for a new race track or a capital improvement 64099
shall start from the day racing is first conducted following the 64100
date actual construction of the new race track or each capital 64101
improvement is completed and the construction cost has been 64102
approved by the racing commission, unless otherwise provided in 64103
this section. A reduction for a new race track or a capital 64104
improvement shall continue for a period of twenty-five years for 64105
new race tracks and for fifteen years for capital improvements if 64106
the construction of the capital improvement or new race track 64107
commenced prior to March 29, 1988, and for a period of ten years 64108
for new race tracks or capital improvements if the construction of 64109
the capital improvement or new race track commenced on or after 64110
March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, or until the total tax 64111
reduction reaches seventy per cent of the approved cost of the new 64112
race track or capital improvement, as allocated to each permit 64113
holder, whichever occurs first. A reduction for a new race track 64114
or a capital improvement approved after June 6, 2001, shall 64115
continue until the total tax reduction reaches one hundred per 64116
cent of the approved cost of the new race track or capital 64117
improvement, as allocated to each permit holder.64118

       A reduction granted for a new race track or a capital 64119
improvement, the application for which was approved by the racing 64120
commission after March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, shall 64121
not commence nor shall the ten-year period begin to run until all 64122
prior tax reductions with respect to the same race track have 64123
ended. The total tax reduction because of capital improvements 64124
shall not during any one year exceed for all permit holders using 64125
any one track three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 64126
wagered, regardless of the number of capital improvements made. 64127
Several capital improvements to a race track may be consolidated 64128
in an application if the racing commission approved the 64129
application prior to March 29, 1988. No permit holder may receive 64130
a tax reduction for a capital improvement approved by the racing 64131
commission on or after March 29, 1988, at a race track until all 64132
tax reductions have ended for all prior capital improvements 64133
approved by the racing commission under this section or section 64134
3769.20 of the Revised Code at that race track. If there are two 64135
or more permit holders operating meetings at the same track, they 64136
may consolidate their applications. The racing commission shall 64137
notify the tax commissioner when the reduction of tax begins and 64138
when it ends.64139

       Each fiscal year the racing commission shall submit a report 64140
to the tax commissioner, the office of budget and management, and 64141
the legislative service commission. The report shall identify each 64142
capital improvement project undertaken under this division and in 64143
progress at each race track, indicate the total cost of each 64144
project, state the tax reduction that resulted from each project 64145
during the immediately preceding fiscal year, estimate the tax 64146
reduction that will result from each project during the current 64147
fiscal year, state the total tax reduction that resulted from all 64148
such projects at all race tracks during the immediately preceding 64149
fiscal year, and estimate the total tax reduction that will result 64150
from all such projects at all race tracks during the current 64151
fiscal year.64152

       (2) In order to qualify for the reduction in tax, a permit 64153
holder shall apply to the racing commission in such form as the 64154
commission may require and shall provide full details of the new 64155
race track or capital improvement, including a schedule for its 64156
construction and completion, and set forth the costs and expenses 64157
incurred in connection with it. The racing commission shall not 64158
approve an application unless the permit holder shows that a 64159
contract for the new race track or capital improvement has been 64160
let under an unrestricted competitive bidding procedure, unless 64161
the contract is exempted by the controlling board because of its 64162
unusual nature. In determining whether to approve an application, 64163
the racing commission shall consider whether the new race track or 64164
capital improvement will promote the safety, convenience, and 64165
comfort of the racing public and horse owners and generally tend 64166
towards the improvement of racing in this state.64167

       (3) If a new race track or capital improvement is approved by 64168
the racing commission and construction has started, the tax 64169
reduction may be authorized by the commission upon presentation of 64170
copies of paid bills in excess of one hundred thousand dollars or 64171
ten per cent of the approved cost, whichever is greater. After the 64172
initial authorization, the permit holder shall present copies of 64173
paid bills. If the permit holder is in substantial compliance with 64174
the schedule for construction and completion of the new race track 64175
or capital improvement, the racing commission may authorize the 64176
continuation of the tax reduction upon the presentation of the 64177
additional paid bills. The total amount of the tax reduction 64178
authorized shall not exceed the percentage of the approved cost of 64179
the new race track or capital improvement specified in division 64180
(J)(1) of this section. The racing commission may terminate any 64181
tax reduction immediately if a permit holder fails to complete the 64182
new race track or capital improvement, or to substantially comply 64183
with the schedule for construction and completion of the new race 64184
track or capital improvement. If a permit holder fails to complete 64185
a new race track or capital improvement, the racing commission 64186
shall order the permit holder to repay to the state the total 64187
amount of tax reduced. The normal tax paid by the permit holder 64188
shall be increased by three-fourths of one per cent of the total 64189
amount wagered until the total amount of the additional tax 64190
collected equals the total amount of tax reduced.64191

       (4) As used in this section:64192

       (a) "Capital improvement" means an addition, replacement, or 64193
remodeling of a structural unit of a race track facility costing 64194
at least one hundred thousand dollars, including, but not limited 64195
to, the construction of barns used exclusively for the race track 64196
facility, backstretch facilities for horsemen, paddock facilities, 64197
new pari-mutuel and totalizator equipment and appurtenances to 64198
that equipment purchased by the track, new access roads, new 64199
parking areas, the complete reconstruction, reshaping, and 64200
leveling of the racing surface and appurtenances, the installation 64201
of permanent new heating or air conditioning, roof replacement or 64202
restoration, installations of a permanent nature forming a part of 64203
the track structure, and construction of buildings that are 64204
located on a permit holder's premises. "Capital improvement" does 64205
not include the cost of replacement of equipment that is not 64206
permanently installed, ordinary repairs, painting, and maintenance 64207
required to keep a race track facility in ordinary operating 64208
condition.64209

       (b) "New race track" includes the reconstruction of a race 64210
track damaged by fire or other cause that has been declared by the 64211
racing commission, as a result of the damage, to be an inadequate 64212
facility for the safe operation of horse racing.64213

       (c) "Approved cost" includes all debt service and interest 64214
costs that are associated with a capital improvement or new race 64215
track and that the racing commission approves for a tax reduction 64216
under division (J) of this section.64217

       (5) The racing commission shall not approve an application 64218
for a tax reduction under this section if it has reasonable cause 64219
to believe that the actions or negligence of the permit holder 64220
substantially contributed to the damage suffered by the track due 64221
to fire or other cause. The racing commission shall obtain any 64222
data or information available from a fire marshal, law enforcement 64223
official, or insurance company concerning any fire or other damage 64224
suffered by a track, prior to approving an application for a tax 64225
reduction.64226

       (6) The approved cost to which a tax reduction applies shall 64227
be determined by generally accepted accounting principles and 64228
verified by an audit of the permit holder's records upon 64229
completion of the project by the racing commission, or by an 64230
independent certified public accountant selected by the permit 64231
holder and approved by the commission.64232

       (K) No other license or excise tax or fee, except as provided 64233
in sections 3769.01 to 3769.14 of the Revised Code, shall be 64234
assessed or collected from such licensee by any county, township, 64235
district, municipal corporation, or other body having power to 64236
assess or collect a tax or fee. That portion of the tax paid under 64237
this section by permit holders for racing conducted at and during 64238
the course of an agricultural exposition or fair, and that portion 64239
of the tax that would have been paid by eligible permit holders 64240
into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund as a result of 64241
racing conducted at and during the course of an agricultural 64242
exposition or fair, shall be deposited into the state treasury to 64243
the credit of the horse racing tax fund, which is hereby created 64244
for the use of the agricultural societies of the several counties 64245
in which the taxes originate. The state racing commission shall 64246
determine eligible permit holders for purposes of the preceding 64247
sentence, taking into account the breed of horse, the racing 64248
dates, the geographic proximity to the fair, and the best 64249
interests of Ohio racing. On the first day of any month on which 64250
there is money in the fund, the tax commissioner shall provide for 64251
payment to the treasurer of each agricultural society the amount 64252
of the taxes collected under this section upon racing conducted at 64253
and during the course of any exposition or fair conducted by the 64254
society.64255

       (L) From the tax paid under this section by harness track 64256
permit holders, the tax commissioner shall pay into the Ohio 64257
thoroughbred race fund a sum equal to a percentage of the amount 64258
wagered upon which the tax is paid. The percentage shall be 64259
determined by the tax commissioner and shall be rounded to the 64260
nearest one-hundredth. The percentage shall be such that, when 64261
multiplied by the amount wagered upon which tax was paid by the 64262
harness track permit holders in the most recent year for which 64263
final figures are available, it results in a sum that 64264
substantially equals the same amount of tax paid by the tax 64265
commissioner during that year into the Ohio fairs fund from taxes 64266
paid by thoroughbred permit holders. This division does not apply 64267
to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.64268

       (M) Twenty-five per cent of the taxes levied on thoroughbred 64269
racing permit holders, harness racing permit holders, and quarter 64270
horse racing permit holders under this section, division (A) of 64271
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of 64272
section 3769.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the nursing 64273
home franchise permit fee fund. The tax commissioner shall pay any 64274
money remaining, after the payment into the nursing home franchise 64275
permit fee fund and the reductions provided for in division (J) of 64276
this section and in section 3769.20 of the Revised Code, into the 64277
Ohio fairs fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio standardbred 64278
development fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and state racing 64279
commission operating fund as prescribed in this section and 64280
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code. The tax 64281
commissioner shall thereafter use and apply the balance of the 64282
money paid as a tax by any permit holder to cover any shortage in 64283
the accounts of such funds resulting from an insufficient payment 64284
as a tax by any other permit holder. The moneys received by the 64285
tax commissioner shall be deposited weekly and paid by the tax 64286
commissioner into the funds to cover the total aggregate amount 64287
due from all permit holders to the funds, as calculated under this 64288
section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, 64289
as applicable. If, after the payment into the nursing home 64290
franchise permit fee fund, sufficient funds are not available from 64291
the tax deposited by the tax commissioner to pay the required 64292
amounts into the Ohio fairs fund, Ohio standardbred development 64293
fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and 64294
the state racing commission operating fund, the tax commissioner 64295
shall prorate on a proportional basis the amount paid to each of 64296
the funds. Any shortage to the funds as a result of a proration 64297
shall be applied against future deposits for the same calendar 64298
year when funds are available. After this application, the tax 64299
commissioner shall pay any remaining money paid as a tax by all 64300
permit holders into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. 64301
This division does not apply to permit holders conducting racing 64302
at the course of an agricultural exposition or fair as described 64303
in division (K) of this section.64304

       Sec. 3769.088.  (A) If any permit holder required by this 64305
chapter to pay the taxes levied by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 64306
3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised Code fails to pay the taxes, 64307
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against the permit 64308
holder based upon any information in the commissioner's 64309
possession.64310

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 64311
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 64312
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 64313
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 64314
section.64315

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 64316
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 64317
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 64318
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 64319
hearing on the petition.64320

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 64321
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 64322
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 64323
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 64324
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 64325
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 64326
from the party assessed to the commissioner. The petition shall 64327
indicate the objections of the party assessed, but additional 64328
objections may be raised in writing if received by the 64329
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 64330
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 64331
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.64332

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 64333
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 64334
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 64335
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 64336
pleas in the county in which the place, track, or enclosure for 64337
which the permit was issued is located or the county in which the 64338
party assessed resides or has its principal place of business. If 64339
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 64340
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 64341
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 64342
common pleas of Franklin county.64343

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 64344
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 64345
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 64346
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state horse 64347
racing tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 64348
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 64349
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 64350
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.64351

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety64352
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 64353
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 64354
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 64355
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 64356
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 64357
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 64358
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 64359
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 64360
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 64361
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 64362
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 64363
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 64364
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 64365
under this section.64366

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 64367
section shall be treated as revenue arising from the taxes imposed 64368
by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised 64369
Code.64370

       Sec. 3770.02.  (A) Subject to the advice and consent of the 64371
senate, the governor shall appoint a director of the state lottery 64372
commission who shall serve at the pleasure of the governor. The 64373
director shall devote full time to the duties of the office and 64374
shall hold no other office or employment. The director shall meet 64375
all requirements for appointment as a member of the commission and 64376
shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that 64377
equip the director to administer an enterprise of the nature of a 64378
state lottery. The director shall receive an annual salary in 64379
accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised 64380
Code.64381

       (B)(1) The director shall attend all meetings of the 64382
commission and shall act as its secretary. The director shall keep 64383
a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the 64384
commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's 64385
principal office. All records of the commission's meetings shall 64386
be available for inspection by any member of the public, upon a 64387
showing of good cause and prior notification to the director.64388

       (2) The director shall be the commission's executive officer 64389
and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and 64390
supervising and administering the state lottery in accordance with 64391
this chapter, and carrying out all commission rules adopted under 64392
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.64393

       (C)(1) The director shall appoint an assistant director, 64394
deputy directors of marketing, operations, sales, finance, public 64395
relations, security, and administration, and as many regional 64396
managers as are required. The director may also appoint necessary 64397
professional, technical, and clerical assistants. All such 64398
officers and employees shall be appointed and compensated pursuant 64399
to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code. Regional and assistant 64400
regional managers, sales representatives, and any lottery 64401
executive account representatives shall remain in the unclassified 64402
service.64403

       (2) The director, in consultation with the director of 64404
administrative services, may establish standards of proficiency 64405
and productivity for commission field representatives.64406

       (D) The director shall request the bureau of criminal 64407
identification and investigation, the department of public safety, 64408
or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the 64409
director with the criminal records of any job applicant and may 64410
periodically request the criminal records of commission employees. 64411
At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director 64412
shall require a job applicant or commission employee to obtain 64413
fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau 64414
of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law 64415
enforcement agency, and the director shall cause these fingerprint 64416
cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and 64417
investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The 64418
commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint 64419
cards and shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for 64420
each investigation under this division a reasonable fee, as 64421
determined by the agency.64422

       (E) The director shall license lottery sales agents pursuant 64423
to section 3770.05 of the Revised Code and, when it is considered 64424
necessary, may revoke or suspend the license of any lottery sales 64425
agent. The director may license video lottery technology 64426
providers, independent testing laboratories, and gaming employees, 64427
and promulgate rules relating thereto. When the director considers 64428
it necessary, the director may suspend or revoke the license of a 64429
video lottery technology provider, independent testing laboratory, 64430
or gaming employee, including suspension or revocation without 64431
affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 64432
of the Revised Code when the public safety, convenience, or trust 64433
requires immediate action.64434

       (F) The director shall confer at least once each month with 64435
the commission, at which time the director shall advise it 64436
regarding the operation and administration of the lottery. The 64437
director shall make available at the request of the commission all 64438
documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation 64439
and administration of the lottery. The director shall prepare and 64440
make available to the commission each month a complete and 64441
accurate accounting of lottery revenues, prize money disbursements 64442
and the cost of goods and services awarded as prizes, operating 64443
expenses, and all other relevant financial information, including 64444
an accounting of all transfers made from any lottery funds in the 64445
custody of the treasurer of state to benefit education.64446

       (G) The director may enter into contracts for the operation 64447
or promotion of the lottery pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 64448
Revised Code. 64449

       (H)(1) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under 64450
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall require 64451
any lottery sales agents to either mail directly to the commission 64452
or deposit to the credit of the state lottery fund, in banking 64453
institutions designated by the treasurer of state, net proceeds 64454
due the commission as determined by the director, and to file with 64455
the director or the director's designee reports of their receipts 64456
and transactions in the sale of lottery tickets in the form 64457
required by the director.64458

       (2) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 64459
119. of the Revised Code, the director may impose penalties for 64460
the failure of a sales agent to transfer funds to the commission 64461
in a timely manner. Penalties may include monetary penalties, 64462
immediate suspension or revocation of a license, or any other 64463
penalty the commission adopts by rule.64464

       (I) The director may arrange for any person, or any banking 64465
institution, to perform functions and services in connection with 64466
the operation of the lottery as the director may consider 64467
necessary to carry out this chapter.64468

       (J)(1) As used in this chapter, "statewide joint lottery 64469
game" means a lottery game that the commission sells solely within 64470
this state under an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to 64471
sell the same lottery game solely within their statewide or other 64472
jurisdictional boundaries.64473

       (2) If the governor directs the director to do so, the 64474
director shall enter into an agreement with other lottery 64475
jurisdictions to conduct statewide joint lottery games. If the 64476
governor signs the agreement personally or by means of an 64477
authenticating officer pursuant to section 107.15 of the Revised 64478
Code, the director then may conduct statewide joint lottery games 64479
under the agreement.64480

       (3) The entire net proceeds from any statewide joint lottery 64481
games shall be used to fund elementary, secondary, vocational, and 64482
special education programs in this state.64483

       (4) The commission shall conduct any statewide joint lottery 64484
games in accordance with rules it adopts under division (B)(5) of 64485
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.64486

       (K)(1) The director shall enter into an agreement with the 64487
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 64488
and addiction services under which the department shall provide a 64489
program of gambling addiction services on behalf of the 64490
commission. The commission shall pay the costs of the program 64491
provided pursuant to the agreement.64492

        (2) As used in this section, "gambling addiction services" 64493
has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised 64494
Code.64495

       Sec. 3770.03.  (A) The state lottery commission shall 64496
promulgate rules under which a statewide lottery may be conducted, 64497
which includes, and since the original enactment of this section 64498
has included, the authority for the commission to operate video 64499
lottery terminal games. Any reference in this chapter to tickets 64500
shall not be construed to in any way limit the authority of the 64501
commission to operate video lottery terminal games. Nothing in 64502
this chapter shall restrict the authority of the commission to 64503
promulgate rules related to the operation of games utilizing video 64504
lottery terminals as described in section 3770.21 of the Revised 64505
Code. Provided, however, that no tickets shall be sold, offered 64506
for sale, or purchased from a licensed lottery sales agent or the 64507
commission by telephone or by the use of computer, credit card, 64508
debit card, or fascimile services. The rules shall be promulgated 64509
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that instant 64510
game rules shall be promulgated pursuant to section 111.15 of the 64511
Revised Code but are not subject to division (D) of that section. 64512
Subjects covered in these rules shall include, but need not be 64513
limited to, the following:64514

       (1) The type of lottery to be conducted;64515

       (2) The prices of tickets in the lottery;64516

       (3) The number, nature, and value of prize awards, the manner 64517
and frequency of prize drawings, and the manner in which prizes 64518
shall be awarded to holders of winning tickets.64519

       (B) The commission shall promulgate rules, in addition to 64520
those described in division (A) of this section, pursuant to 64521
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a statewide lottery 64522
and statewide joint lottery games may be conducted. Subjects 64523
covered in these rules shall include, but not be limited to, the 64524
following:64525

       (1) The locations at which lottery tickets may be sold and 64526
the manner in which they are to be sold. These rules may authorize 64527
the sale of lottery tickets by commission personnel or other 64528
licensed individuals from traveling show wagons at the state fair, 64529
and at any other expositions the director of the commission 64530
considers acceptable. These rules shall prohibit commission 64531
personnel or other licensed individuals from soliciting from an 64532
exposition the right to sell lottery tickets at that exposition, 64533
but shall allow commission personnel or other licensed individuals 64534
to sell lottery tickets at an exposition if the exposition 64535
requests commission personnel or licensed individuals to do so. 64536
These rules may also address the accessibility of sales agent 64537
locations to commission products in accordance with the "Americans 64538
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101 64539
et seq.64540

       (2) The manner in which lottery sales revenues are to be 64541
collected, including authorization for the director to impose 64542
penalties for failure by lottery sales agents to transfer revenues 64543
to the commission in a timely manner;64544

       (3) The amount of compensation to be paid licensed lottery 64545
sales agents;64546

       (4) The substantive criteria for the licensing of lottery 64547
sales agents consistent with section 3770.05 of the Revised Code, 64548
and procedures for revoking or suspending their licenses 64549
consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If 64550
circumstances, such as the nonpayment of funds owed by a lottery 64551
sales agent, or other circumstances related to the public safety, 64552
convenience, or trust, require immediate action, the director may 64553
suspend a license without affording an opportunity for a prior 64554
hearing under section 119.07 of the Revised Code.64555

       (5) Special game rules to implement any agreements signed by 64556
the governor that the director enters into with other lottery 64557
jurisdictions under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised 64558
Code to conduct statewide joint lottery games. The rules shall 64559
require that the entire net proceeds of those games that remain, 64560
after associated operating expenses, prize disbursements, lottery 64561
sales agent bonuses, commissions, and reimbursements, and any 64562
other expenses necessary to comply with the agreements or the 64563
rules are deducted from the gross proceeds of those games, be 64564
transferred to the lottery profits education fund under division 64565
(B) of section 3770.06 of the Revised Code.64566

       (6) Any other subjects the commission determines are 64567
necessary for the operation of video lottery terminal games, 64568
including the establishment of any fees, fines, or payment 64569
schedules.64570

       (C) Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code does not apply to, 64571
affect, or prohibit lotteries conducted pursuant to this chapter.64572

       (D) The commission may promulgate rules, in addition to those 64573
described in divisions (A) and (B) of this section, that establish 64574
standards governing the display of advertising and celebrity 64575
images on lottery tickets and on other items that are used in the 64576
conduct of, or to promote, the statewide lottery and statewide 64577
joint lottery games. Any revenue derived from the sale of 64578
advertising displayed on lottery tickets and on those other items 64579
shall be considered, for purposes of section 3770.06 of the 64580
Revised Code, to be related proceeds in connection with the 64581
statewide lottery or gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery 64582
games, as applicable.64583

       (E)(1) The commission shall meet with the director at least 64584
once each month and shall convene other meetings at the request of 64585
the chairperson or any five of the members. No action taken by the 64586
commission shall be binding unless at least five of the members 64587
present vote in favor of the action. A written record shall be 64588
made of the proceedings of each meeting and shall be transmitted 64589
forthwith to the governor, the president of the senate, the senate 64590
minority leader, the speaker of the house of representatives, and 64591
the house minority leader.64592

       (2) The director shall present to the commission a report 64593
each month, showing the total revenues, prize disbursements, and 64594
operating expenses of the state lottery for the preceding month. 64595
As soon as practicable after the end of each fiscal year, the 64596
commission shall prepare and transmit to the governor and the 64597
general assembly a report of lottery revenues, prize 64598
disbursements, and operating expenses for the preceding fiscal 64599
year and any recommendations for legislation considered necessary 64600
by the commission.64601

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 64602
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 64603
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 64604
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 64605
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 64606
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 64607
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 64608
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 64609
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 64610
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 64611
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 64612
lottery commission or the director's designee.64613

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 64614
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 64615
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 64616
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 64617
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 64618
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 64619
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 64620
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 64621
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 64622
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 64623
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 64624
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 64625
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 64626
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 64627
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 64628
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 64629
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 64630
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 64631
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 64632
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 64633
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 64634
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 64635
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 64636
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 64637
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 64638
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 64639
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 64640
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 64641
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 64642
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.64643

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 64644
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 64645
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 64646
of the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 64647
state lottery fund that does not represent proceeds from statewide 64648
joint lottery games is in excess of that needed to meet the 64649
maturing obligations of the commission and as working capital for 64650
its further operations, the director of the state lottery 64651
commission shall recommend the amount of the excess to be 64652
transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 64653
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 64654
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 64655
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 64656
the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 64657
state lottery fund that represents proceeds from statewide joint 64658
lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of those games as 64659
described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised 64660
Code and the rules adopted under that division, the director of 64661
the state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the 64662
proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, 64663
and the director of budget and management may transfer those 64664
proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. Investment 64665
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 64666
to the fund.64667

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 64668
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 64669
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 64670
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 64671
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 64672
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 64673
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 64674
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 64675
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 64676
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 64677
revenues of the fund.64678

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 64679
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 64680
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 64681
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 64682
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 64683
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 64684
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 64685
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 64686
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 64687
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 64688
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 64689
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 64690
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 64691
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 64692
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 64693
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 64694
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 64695
education fund.64696

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 64697
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 64698
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 64699
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 64700
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 64701
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 64702
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 64703
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 64704
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 64705
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 64706
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 64707
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 64708
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 64709
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 64710
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 64711
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 64712
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 64713
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 64714
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 64715
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 64716
interests of a single issuer.64717

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 64718
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 64719
treasurer of state.64720

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 64721
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 64722
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.64723

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 64724
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 64725
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 64726
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 64727
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 64728
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.64729

       (E) The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 64730
audit programplan before the beginning of each fiscal year, 64731
subject to the approval of the auditoroffice of stateinternal 64732
audit in the office of budget and management. At the end of each 64733
fiscal year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual 64734
report to the auditoroffice of stateinternal audit for the 64735
auditor of state'soffice's review and approval, specifying the 64736
internal audit work completed by the end of that fiscal year and 64737
reporting on compliance with the annual internal audit program. 64738
The form and content of the report shall be prescribed by the 64739
auditor of state under division (C) of section 117.20 of the 64740
Revised Codeplan.64741

       (E)(F) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget 64742
and management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is 64743
necessary to be applied to the payment of debt service on 64744
obligations, all as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the 64745
Revised Code, the director shall transfer that amount directly 64746
from the state lottery fund or from the lottery profits education 64747
fund to the bond service fund defined in those sections. The 64748
provisions of this division are subject to any prior pledges or 64749
obligation of those amounts to the payment of bond service charges 64750
as defined in division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, 64751
as referred to in division (B) of this section.64752

       Sec. 3772.03. (A) To ensure the integrity of casino gaming, 64753
the commission shall have authority to complete the functions of 64754
licensing, regulating, investigating, and penalizing casino 64755
operators, management companies, holding companies, key employees, 64756
casino gaming employees, and gaming-related vendors. The 64757
commission also shall have jurisdiction over all persons 64758
participating in casino gaming authorized by Section 6(C) of 64759
Article XV, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter.64760

       (B) All rules adopted by the commission under this chapter 64761
shall be adopted under procedures established in Chapter 119. of 64762
the Revised Code. The commission may contract for the services of 64763
experts and consultants to assist the commission in carrying out 64764
its duties under this section.64765

       (C) Within six months of September 10, 2010, the commission 64766
shall adopt initial rules as are necessary for completing the 64767
functions stated in division (A) of this section and for 64768
addressing the subjects enumerated in division (D) of this 64769
section.64770

       (D) The commission shall adopt, and as advisable and 64771
necessary shall amend or repeal, rules that include all of the 64772
following:64773

       (1) The prevention of practices detrimental to the public 64774
interest;64775

       (2) Prescribing the method of applying, and the form of 64776
application, that an applicant for a license under this chapter 64777
must follow as otherwise described in this chapter;64778

       (3) Prescribing the information to be furnished by an 64779
applicant or licensee as described in section 3772.11 of the 64780
Revised Code;64781

       (4) Describing the certification standards and duties of an 64782
independent testing laboratory certified under section 3772.31 of 64783
the Revised Code and the relationship between the commission, the 64784
laboratory, the gaming-related vendor, and the casino operator;64785

        (5) The minimum amount of insurance that must be maintained 64786
by a casino operator, management company, holding company, or 64787
gaming-related vendor;64788

       (6) The approval process for a significantany change in 64789
ownership or transfer of control of a licenseecasino operator as 64790
provided in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code;64791

       (7) The design of gaming supplies, devices, and equipment to 64792
be distributed by gaming-related vendors;64793

       (8) Identifying the casino gaming that is permitted, 64794
identifying the gaming supplies, devices, and equipment, that are 64795
permitted, defining the area in which the permitted casino gaming 64796
may be conducted, and specifying the method of operation according 64797
to which the permitted casino gaming is to be conducted as 64798
provided in section 3772.20 of the Revised Code, and requiring 64799
gaming devices and equipment to meet the standards of this state;64800

       (9) Tournament play in any casino facility;64801

       (10) Establishing and implementing a voluntary exclusion 64802
program that provides all of the following:64803

       (a) Except as provided by commission rule, a person who 64804
participates in the program shall agree to refrain from entering a 64805
casino facility.64806

       (b) The name of a person participating in the program shall 64807
be included on a list of persons excluded from all casino 64808
facilities.64809

       (c) Except as provided by commission rule, no person who 64810
participates in the program shall petition the commission for 64811
admittance into a casino facility.64812

       (d) The list of persons participating in the program and the 64813
personal information of those persons shall be confidential and 64814
shall only be disseminated by the commission to a casino operator 64815
and the agents and employees of the casino operator for purposes 64816
of enforcement and to other entities, upon request of the 64817
participant and agreement by the commission.64818

       (e) A casino operator shall make all reasonable attempts as 64819
determined by the commission to cease all direct marketing efforts 64820
to a person participating in the program.64821

       (f) A casino operator shall not cash the check of a person 64822
participating in the program or extend credit to the person in any 64823
manner. However, the program shall not exclude a casino operator 64824
from seeking the payment of a debt accrued by a person before 64825
participating in the program.64826

       (g) Any and all locations at which a person may register as a 64827
participant in the program shall be published.64828

       (11) Requiring the commission to adopt standards regarding 64829
the marketing materials of a licensed casino operator, including 64830
allowing the commission to prohibit marketing materials that are 64831
contrary to the adopted standards;64832

       (12) Requiring that the records, including financial 64833
statements, of any casino operator, management company, holding 64834
company, and gaming-related vendor be maintained in the manner 64835
prescribed by the commission and made available for inspection 64836
upon demand by the commission, but shall be subject to section 64837
3772.16 of the Revised Code;64838

       (13) Permitting a licensed casino operator, management 64839
company, key employee, or casino gaming employee to question a 64840
person suspected of violating this chapter;64841

       (14) The chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar 64842
objects that may be purchased by means of an agreement under which 64843
credit is extended to a wagerer by a casino operator;64844

       (15) Establishing standards for provisional key employee 64845
licenses for a person who is required to be licensed as a key 64846
employee and is in exigent circumstances and standards for 64847
provisional licenses for casino gaming employees who submit 64848
complete applications and are compliant under an instant 64849
background check. A provisional license shall be valid not longer 64850
than three months. A provisional license may be renewed one time, 64851
at the commission's discretion, for an additional three months. In 64852
establishing standards with regard to instant background checks 64853
the commission shall take notice of criminal records checks as 64854
they are conducted under section 311.41 of the Revised Code using 64855
electronic fingerprint reading devices.64856

       (16) Establishing approval procedures for third-party 64857
engineering or accounting firms, as described in section 3772.09 64858
of the Revised Code;64859

       (17) Prescribing the manner in which winnings, compensation 64860
from casino gaming, and gross revenue must be computed and 64861
reported by a licensee as described in Chapter 5753. of the 64862
Revised Code;64863

       (18) Prescribing conditions under which a licensee's license 64864
may be suspended or revoked as described in section 3772.04 of the 64865
Revised Code;64866

       (19) Prescribing the manner and procedure of all hearings to 64867
be conducted by the commission or by any hearing examiner;64868

       (20) Prescribing technical standards and requirements that 64869
are to be met by security and surveillance equipment that is used 64870
at and standards and requirements to be met by personnel who are 64871
employed at casino facilities, and standards and requirements for 64872
the provision of security at and surveillance of casino 64873
facilities;64874

       (21) Prescribing requirements for a casino operator to 64875
provide unarmed security services at a casino facility by licensed 64876
casino employees, and the training that shall be completed by 64877
these employees;64878

       (22) Prescribing standards according to which casino 64879
operators shall keep accounts and standards according to which 64880
casino accounts shall be audited, and establish means of assisting 64881
the tax commissioner in levying and collecting the gross casino 64882
revenue tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code;64883

       (23) Defining penalties for violation of commission rules and 64884
a process for imposing such penalties subject to the review of the 64885
joint committee on gaming and wagering;64886

       (24) Establishing standards for decertifying contractors that 64887
violate statutes or rules of this state or the federal government;64888

       (25) Establishing standards for the repair of casino gaming 64889
equipment;64890

       (26) Establishing procedures to ensure that casino operators, 64891
management companies, and holding companies are compliant with the 64892
compulsive and problem gambling plan submitted under section 64893
3772.18 of the Revised Code;64894

       (27) Prescribing, for institutional investors in or holding 64895
companies of a casino operator, management company, holding 64896
company, or gaming-related vendor that fall below the threshold 64897
needed to be considered an institutional investor or a holding 64898
company, standards regarding what any employees, members, or 64899
owners of those investors or holding companies may do and shall 64900
not do in relation to casino facilities and casino gaming in this 64901
state, which standards shall rationally relate to the need to 64902
proscribe conduct that is inconsistent with passive institutional 64903
investment status;64904

       (28) Providing for any other thing necessary and proper for 64905
successful and efficient regulation of casino gaming under this 64906
chapter.64907

       (E) The commission shall employ and assign gaming agents as 64908
necessary to assist the commission in carrying out the duties of 64909
this chapter. In order to maintain employment as a gaming agent, 64910
the gaming agent shall successfully complete all continuing 64911
training programs required by the commission and shall not have 64912
been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a 64913
disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised 64914
Code.64915

       (F) The commission, as a law enforcement agency, and its 64916
gaming agents, as law enforcement officers as defined in section 64917
2901.01 of the Revised Code, shall have authority with regard to 64918
the detection and investigation of, the seizure of evidence 64919
allegedly relating to, and the apprehension and arrest of persons 64920
allegedly committing gaming offenses, and shall have access to 64921
casino facilities to carry out the requirements of this chapter.64922

       (G) The commission may eject or exclude or authorize the 64923
ejection or exclusion of and a gaming agent may eject a person 64924
from a casino facility for any of the following reasons:64925

       (1) The person's name is on the list of persons voluntarily 64926
excluding themselves from all casinos in a program established 64927
according to rules adopted by the commission;64928

       (2) The person violates or conspires to violate this chapter 64929
or a rule adopted thereunder; or64930

       (3) The commission determines that the person's conduct or 64931
reputation is such that the person's presence within a casino 64932
facility may call into question the honesty and integrity of the 64933
casino gaming operations or interfere with the orderly conduct of 64934
the casino gaming operations.64935

       (H) A person, other than a person participating in a 64936
voluntary exclusion program, may petition the commission for a 64937
public hearing on the person's ejection or exclusion under this 64938
chapter.64939

       (I) A casino operator or management company shall have the 64940
same authority to eject or exclude a person from the management 64941
company's casino facilities as authorized in division (G) of this 64942
section. The licensee shall immediately notify the commission of 64943
an ejection or exclusion.64944

       (J) The commission shall submit a written annual report with 64945
the governor, president and minority leader of the senate, speaker 64946
and minority leader of the house of representatives, and joint 64947
committee on gaming and wagering before the first day of September 64948
each year. The annual report shall include a statement describing 64949
the receipts and disbursements of the commission, relevant 64950
financial data regarding casino gaming, including gross revenues 64951
and disbursements made under this chapter, actions taken by the 64952
commission, an update on casino operators', management companies', 64953
and holding companies' compulsive and problem gambling plans and 64954
the voluntary exclusion program and list, and any additional 64955
information that the commission considers useful or that the 64956
governor, president or minority leader of the senate, speaker or 64957
minority leader of the house of representatives, or joint 64958
committee on gaming and wagering requests.64959

        (K) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, beginning on 64960
July 1, 2011, the commission shall assume jurisdiction over and 64961
oversee the regulation of skill-based amusement machines as is 64962
provided in the law of this state.64963

       Sec. 3772.062. (A) The executive director of the commission 64964
shall enter into an agreement with the department of alcohol and 64965
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 64966
which the department provides a program of gambling and addiction 64967
services on behalf of the commission.64968

       (B) The executive director of the commission, in conjunction 64969
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 64970
health and addiction services and the state lottery commission, 64971
shall establish, operate, and publicize an in-state, toll-free 64972
telephone number Ohio residents may call to obtain basic 64973
information about problem gambling, the gambling addiction 64974
services available to problem gamblers, and how a problem gambler 64975
may obtain help. The telephone number shall be staffed twenty-four 64976
hours per day, seven days a week, to respond to inquiries and 64977
provide that information. The costs of establishing, operating, 64978
and publicizing the telephone number shall be paid for with money 64979
in the problem casino gambling and addictions fund.64980

       Sec. 3772.091. (A) NoA casino operator license issued under 64981
this chapter is transferable, subject to approval by the 64982
commission. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 64983
new majority ownership interest orAny such transfer shall require 64984
the filing of an application for transferring a casino operator 64985
license and submission of an application fee with the commission 64986
before the transfer may be approved. 64987

       (B) A new majority ownership interest in or change in or 64988
transfer of control of a licenseecasino operator shall require a 64989
new licensecommission approval. The commission may reopen a 64990
licensing investigation at any time. A significantAny such 64991
ownership interest in or change in or transfer of control, as 64992
determined by the commission, shall require the filing of an 64993
application for a newtransferring the casino operator license and 64994
submission of a licensean application fee with the commission 64995
before any suchthe ownership interest in or the change in or 64996
transfer of control ismay be approved. A change in or transfer of 64997
control to an immediate family member is not considered a 64998
significant change under this section64999

       (C) An application for transferring a casino operator license 65000
shall be made under oath on forms prescribed by the commission and 65001
shall contain the information required by section 3772.11 of the 65002
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.65003

        (D) The fee to obtain an application for transferring a 65004
casino operator license shall be the same as is required to obtain 65005
an application under division (C) of section 3772.17 of the 65006
Revised Code. Such an application fee may be increased to the 65007
extent that the actual review and investigation costs relating to 65008
an applicant exceed the fee set forth in this division. This 65009
application fee is nonrefundable and shall be deposited into the 65010
casino control commission fund.65011

       (E) In the determination of whether to approve the transfer 65012
of a casino operator license, the applicant shall prove their 65013
suitability for licensure by clear and convincing evidence and the 65014
commission shall consider all the factors established in this 65015
chapter that pertain to the granting of a casino operator license. 65016

       (F) The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at 65017
any time.65018

       (B) An initial license shall not be considered transferred, 65019
and a new license shall not be required, when an initial licensee 65020
that is licensed before June 1, 2013, does or has done both of the 65021
following:65022

       (1) Obtains a majority ownership interest in, or a change in 65023
or transfer of control of, another initial licensee for the same 65024
casino facility; and65025

       (2) Was investigated under this chapter as a parent, 65026
affiliate, subsidiary, key employee, or partner, or joint venturer 65027
with another initial licensee that has held for the same casino 65028
facility a majority ownership interest in or control of the 65029
initial license when the initial license was issued and when such 65030
an initial licensee obtains a majority ownership interest in or a 65031
change in or transfer of control.65032

       (C)(G) As used in this section:65033

       (1) "Control", "control" means either of the following:65034

       (a)(1) Either:65035

       (i)(a) Holding fifty per cent or more of the outstanding 65036
voting securities of a licensee; or65037

       (ii)(b) For an unincorporated licensee, having the right to 65038
fifty per cent or more of the profits of the licensee, or having 65039
the right in the event of dissolution to fifty per cent or more of 65040
the assets of the licensee.65041

       (b)(2) Having the contractual power presently to designate 65042
fifty per cent or more of the directors of a for-profit or 65043
not-for-profit corporation, or in the case of trusts described in 65044
paragraphs (c)(3) to (5) of 16 C.F.R. 801.1, the trustees of such 65045
a trust.65046

       (2) "Initial license" means the first plenary license issued 65047
to an initial licensee.65048

       (3) "Initial licensee" means any of the persons issued an 65049
initial license to conduct or participate in conducting casino 65050
gaming at each casino facility as either a casino operator, a 65051
management company, or a holding company of a casino operator or 65052
management company.65053

       Sec. 3772.092. (A) Except as provided in division (A) of 65054
section 3772.091 of the Revised Code, no license issued under this 65055
chapter is transferable.65056

        (B) Except as provided in division (B) of section 3772.091 of 65057
the Revised Code, a new majority ownership interest in or a change 65058
in or transfer of control of a licensee shall require a new 65059
license. Any such ownership interest in or change in or transfer 65060
of control shall require the filing of the applicable application 65061
for a new license and submission of the applicable application and 65062
license fees with the commission before the new license may be 65063
issued.65064

        (C) An application for the applicable new license shall be 65065
made under oath on forms prescribed by the commission and shall 65066
contain the information required by this chapter and the rules 65067
adopted thereunder.65068

        (D) The applicable application and license fees shall be in 65069
the amounts prescribed in section 3772.17 of the Revised Code and 65070
the rules adopted thereunder. Such an application fee may be 65071
increased to the extent that the actual review and investigation 65072
costs relating to an applicant exceed the fee set forth in this 65073
division. The application fee is nonrefundable and shall be 65074
deposited into the casino control commission fund.65075

        (E) In the determination of whether to approve the 65076
application for a new license, the applicant shall prove their 65077
suitability for licensure by clear and convincing evidence and the 65078
commission shall consider all of the factors established in this 65079
chapter that pertain to the granting of such a license.65080

        (F) The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at 65081
any time.65082

        (G) As used in this section, "control" has the same meaning 65083
as in division (G) of section 3772.091 of the Revised Code.65084

       Sec. 3772.36.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 65085
treasury the casino control commission enforcement fund. All 65086
moneys that are derived from any fines, mandatory fines, or 65087
forfeited bail to which the commission may be entitled under this 65088
chapter and all moneys that are derived from forfeitures of 65089
property to which the commission may be entitled under this 65090
chapter or Chapter 2981. of the Revised Code, any other provision 65091
of the Revised Code, or federal law shall be deposited into the 65092
fund. Subject to division (B) of this section and divisions (B), 65093
(C), and (D) of section 2981.13 of the Revised Code, the moneys in 65094
the fund shall be used solely to subsidize the commission's 65095
division of enforcement and its efforts to ensure the integrity of 65096
casino gaming.65097

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision in the Revised 65098
Code, moneys that are derived from forfeitures of property under 65099
federal law and that are deposited into the casino control 65100
commission enforcement fund in accordance with division (A) of 65101
this section shall be used and accounted for in accordance with 65102
the applicable federal law, and the commission otherwise shall 65103
comply with federal law in connection with that money.65104

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 65105
facility" means any of the following:65106

        (1) A maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home 65107
licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;65108

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 65109
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 65110
Revised Code;65111

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of 65112
the Revised Code;65113

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.205119.3365114
of the Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;65115

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 65116
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 65117
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 65118
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 65119
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 65120
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 65121
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.65122

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 65123
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 65124
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 65125
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 65126
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 65127
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 65128
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 65129
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 65130
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 65131
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 65132
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 65133
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 65134
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 65135
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 65136
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 65137
building standards adopts under division (A) of section 3781.10 of 65138
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 65139
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 65140
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 65141
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 65142
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 65143
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 65144
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 65145
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 65146
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:65147

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 65148
the patients or residents of the facility;65149

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 65150
the event of fire or other emergency.65151

       Sec. 3798.01. As used in this chapter:65152

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "physical safeguards," and 65153
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 65154
164.304.65155

       (B) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 65156
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 65157
director of job and family services pursuant to the approval or 65158
reapproval process, as applicable, the director establishes in 65159
rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 of the Revised 65160
Code or that has been certified by the office of the national 65161
coordinator for health information technology in the United States 65162
department of health and human services.65163

       (C) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 65164
"health information," "individually identifiable health 65165
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 65166
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.65167

       (D) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 65168
C.F.R. 164.501.65169

       (E) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 65170
transmission of health information through a direct connection 65171
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 65172
without the use of a health information exchange. 65173

       (F) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 65174
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.65175

       (G) "Health information exchange" means any person or 65176
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 65177
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 65178
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 65179
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 65180
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 65181
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 65182
service provider.65183

       (H) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 65184
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 65185
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.65186

       (I) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 65187
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 65188
effective, secure, and consistent manner.65189

       (J) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 65190
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 65191
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 65192
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 65193
3798.13 of the Revised Code.65194

       (K) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 65195
160.202.65196

        (L) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 65197
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 65198
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 65199
oversight in this state.65200

       (M) "Personal representative" means a person who has 65201
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 65202
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 65203
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 65204
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 65205
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 65206
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 65207
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 65208
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 65209
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 65210
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 65211
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 65212
provider and the minor.65213

       (N) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 65214
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 65215
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 65216
area smaller than that of the state.65217

       (O) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:65218

       (1) The department of aging;65219

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services65220
mental health and addiction services;65221

       (3) The department of developmental disabilities;65222

       (4) The department of education;65223

       (5) The department of health;65224

       (6) The department of insurance;65225

       (7) The department of job and family services;65226

       (8) The department of mental healthmedicaid;65227

       (9) The department of rehabilitation and correction;65228

       (10) The department of youth services;65229

       (11) The bureau of workers' compensation;65230

       (12) The rehabilitation services commission;65231

       (13) The office of the attorney general;65232

       (14) A health care licensing board created under Title XLVII 65233
of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 65234
health information.65235

       Sec. 3901.3814. Sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3813 of 65236
the Revised Code do not apply to the following:65237

       (A) Policies offering coverage that is regulated under 65238
Chapters 3935. and 3937. of the Revised Code;65239

       (B) An employer's self-insurance plan and any of its 65240
administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of the Revised Code, 65241
to the extent that federal law supersedes, preempts, prohibits, or 65242
otherwise precludes the application of any provisions of those 65243
sections to the plan and its administrators;65244

       (C) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 65245
medicare advantage program operated under Title XVIII of the 65246
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 65247
amended;65248

       (D) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 65249
medicaid program operated under Title XIX of the "Social Security 65250
Act," except that if a federal waiver applied for under section 65251
5111.1785167.25 of the Revised Code is granted or the medicaid65252
director of job and family services determines that this provision 65253
can be implemented without a waiver, sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 65254
to 3901.3813 of the Revised Code apply to claims submitted 65255
electronically or non-electronically that are made with respect to 65256
coverage of medicaid recipients by health insuring corporations 65257
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, instead of the 65258
prompt payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46;65259

       (E) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 65260
tricare program offered by the United States department of 65261
defense.65262

       Sec. 3903.14.  (A) The superintendent of insurance as 65263
rehabilitator may appoint one or more special deputies, who shall 65264
have all the powers and responsibilities of the rehabilitator 65265
granted under this section, and the superintendent may employ such 65266
clerks and assistants as considered necessary. The compensation of 65267
the special deputies, clerks, and assistants and all expenses of 65268
taking possession of the insurer and of conducting the proceedings 65269
shall be fixed by the superintendent, with the approval of the 65270
court and shall be paid out of the funds or assets of the insurer. 65271
The persons appointed under this section shall serve at the 65272
pleasure of the superintendent. In the event that the property of 65273
the insurer does not contain sufficient cash or liquid assets to 65274
defray the costs incurred, the superintendent may advance the 65275
costs so incurred out of any appropriation for the maintenance of 65276
the department of insurance. Any amounts so advanced for expenses 65277
of administration shall be repaid to the superintendent for the 65278
use of the department out of the first available money of the 65279
insurer.65280

       (B) The rehabilitator may take such action as the 65281
rehabilitator considers necessary or appropriate to reform and 65282
revitalize the insurer. The rehabilitator shall have all the 65283
powers of the directors, officers, and managers, whose authority 65284
shall be suspended, except as they are redelegated by the 65285
rehabilitator. The rehabilitator shall have full power to direct 65286
and manage, to hire and discharge employees subject to any 65287
contract rights they may have, and to deal with the property and 65288
business of the insurer.65289

       (C) If it appears to the rehabilitator that there has been 65290
criminal or tortious conduct, or breach of any contractual or 65291
fiduciary obligation detrimental to the insurer by any officer, 65292
manager, agent, director, trustee, broker, employee, or other 65293
person, the rehabilitator may pursue all appropriate legal 65294
remedies on behalf of the insurer.65295

       (D) If the rehabilitator determines that reorganization, 65296
consolidation, conversion, reinsurance, merger, or other 65297
transformation of the insurer is appropriate, the rehabilitator 65298
shall prepare a plan to effect such changes. Upon application of 65299
the rehabilitator for approval of the plan, and after such notice 65300
and hearings as the court may prescribe, the court may either 65301
approve or disapprove the plan proposed, or may modify it and 65302
approve it as modified. Any plan approved under this section shall 65303
be, in the judgment of the court, fair and equitable to all 65304
parties concerned. If the plan is approved, the rehabilitator 65305
shall carry out the plan. In the case of a life insurer, the plan 65306
proposed may include the imposition of liens upon the policies of 65307
the company, if all rights of shareholders are first relinquished. 65308
A plan for a life insurer may also propose imposition of a 65309
moratorium upon loan and cash surrender rights under policies, for 65310
such period and to such an extent as may be necessary.65311

       (E) In the case of a medicaid health insuring corporation 65312
that has posted a bond or deposited securities in accordance with 65313
section 1751.271 of the Revised Code, the plan proposed under 65314
division (D) of this section may include the use of the proceeds 65315
of the bond or securities to first pay the claims of contracted 65316
providers for covered health care services provided to medicaid 65317
recipients, then next to pay other claimants with any remaining 65318
funds, consistent with the priorities set forth in sections 65319
3903.421 and 3903.42 of the Revised Code.65320

       (F) The rehabilitator shall have the power under sections 65321
3903.26 and 3903.27 of the Revised Code to avoid fraudulent 65322
transfers.65323

       (G) As used in this section:65324

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider with a contract 65325
with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide covered 65326
health care services to medicaid recipients.65327

        (2) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 65328
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 65329
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.65330

       Sec. 3905.40.  There shall be paid to the superintendent of 65331
insurance the following fees:65332

       (A) Each insurance company doing business in this state shall 65333
pay:65334

       (1) For filing a copy of its charter or deed of settlement, 65335
two hundred fifty dollars;65336

       (2) For filing each statement, one hundred seventy-five 65337
dollars;65338

       (3) For each certificate of authority or license, one hundred 65339
seventy-five, and for each certified copy thereof, five dollars;65340

       (4) For each copy of a paper filed in the superintendent's 65341
office, twenty cents per page;65342

       (5) For issuing certificates of deposits or certified copies 65343
thereof, five dollars for the first certificate or copy and one 65344
dollar for each additional certificate or copy;65345

       (6) For issuing certificates of compliance or certified 65346
copies thereof, sixty dollars;65347

       (7) For affixing the seal of office and certifying documents, 65348
other than those enumerated herein, two dollars;65349

       (8) For each agent appointment and each annual renewal of an 65350
agent appointment, not more than twenty dollars;65351

       (9) For each termination of an agent appointment, five 65352
dollars.65353

       (B) Each domestic life insurance company doing business in 65354
this state shall pay for annual valuation of its policies, one 65355
cent on every one thousand dollars of insurance.65356

       (C) Each applicant for licensure as an insurance agent except 65357
applicants for licensure as surety bail bond agents, surplus line 65358
brokers, and portable electronics insurance vendors shall pay ten 65359
dollars for each line of authority requested. Fees collected under 65360
this division shall be credited to the department of insurance 65361
operating fund created in section 3901.021 of the Revised Code.65362

       (D) Each domestic mutual life insurance company shall pay for 65363
verifying that any amendment to its articles of incorporation was 65364
regularly adopted, two hundred fifty dollars with each application 65365
for verification. Any such amendment shall be considered to have 65366
been regularly adopted when approved by the affirmative vote of 65367
two-thirds of the policyholders present in person or by proxy at 65368
any annual meeting of policyholders or at a special meeting of 65369
policyholders called for that purpose.65370

       (E) Each insurance agent doing business in this state shall 65371
pay a biennial license renewal fee of twenty-five dollars, except 65372
the following insurance agents are not required to pay that 65373
license renewal fee:65374

       (1) Individual resident agents who have met their continuing 65375
education requirements under section 3905.481 of the Revised Code;65376

       (2) Surety bail bond agents;65377

       (3) Surplus line brokers;65378

       (4) Portable electronics insurance vendors.65379

       (F) Each applicant for licensure as a portable electronics 65380
insurance vendor with a portable electronics insurance limited 65381
lines license and each licensed vendor doing business in this 65382
state shall pay the following fees prescribed by the 65383
superintendent: 65384

       (1) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 65385
at more than ten locations in this state, an application fee not 65386
to exceed five thousand dollars for an initial license and a 65387
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed two thousand five 65388
hundred dollars for each renewal thereafter;65389

       (2) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 65390
at ten or fewer locations in this state, an application fee not to 65391
exceed three thousand dollars for an initial license and a 65392
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed one thousand dollars 65393
for each renewal thereafter.65394

       (G) All fees collected by the superintendent under this 65395
section except any fees collected under divisions (A)(2), (3), and 65396
(6) of this section shall be credited to the department of 65397
insurance operating fund created under section 3901.021 of the 65398
Revised Code.65399

       Sec. 3905.483.  (A) There is hereby created the insurance 65400
agent education advisory council to advise the superintendent of 65401
insurance in carrying out the duties imposed under sections 65402
3905.04 and 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code.65403

       (B) The council shall be composed of the superintendent, or 65404
the superintendent's designee, and twelve members appointed by the 65405
superintendent, as follows:65406

       (1) One representative of the association of Ohio life 65407
insurance companies;65408

       (2) One representative of the independent insurance agents of 65409
Ohio;65410

       (3) One representative of the Ohio association of health 65411
underwriters;65412

       (4) One representative of the national association of 65413
insurance and financial advisors-Ohio;65414

       (5) One representative of the Ohio insurance institute;65415

       (6) One representative of the professional insurance agents 65416
association of Ohio;65417

       (7) One representative of the Ohio land title association;65418

       (8) Two insurance agents each of whom has been licensed 65419
continuously during the five-year period immediately preceding the 65420
agent's appointment;65421

       (9) One representative of an insurance company admitted to 65422
transact business in this state;65423

       (10) Two representatives of consumers, one of whom shall be 65424
at least sixtyfifty years of age.65425

       (C)(1) Of the initial eleven appointments made by the 65426
superintendent, three shall be for terms ending December 31, 1994, 65427
four shall be for terms ending December 31, 1995, and four shall 65428
be for terms ending December 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms of office 65429
shall be for three years, each term ending on the thirty-first day 65430
of December of the third year.65431

       (2) The initial appointment of the twelfth member made by the 65432
superintendent under division (B)(7) of this section, pursuant to 65433
Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th general assembly, shall be for a 65434
term ending December 31, 2003. Thereafter, the term of office 65435
shall be for three years, ending on the thirty-first day of 65436
December of the third year.65437

       (D) Each member shall hold office from the date of 65438
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 65439
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 65440
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 65441
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. 65442
Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration 65443
date of the member's term until the member's successor takes 65444
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 65445
occurs first. A vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 65446
original appointment.65447

       (E) Initial appointments to the council shall be made no 65448
later than thirty days after April 16, 1993. The initial 65449
appointment of the twelfth member to the council under division 65450
(B)(7) of this section, pursuant to Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th 65451
general assembly, shall be made no later than December 31, 2002.65452

       (F) Any member is eligible for reappointment. The 65453
superintendent, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, may 65454
remove for cause any member the superintendent appoints.65455

       (G) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 65456
serve as chairperson of the council. Meetings shall be held upon 65457
the call of the chairperson and as may be provided by procedures 65458
adopted by the superintendent. Seven members of the council 65459
constitute a quorum.65460

       (H) Each member shall receive mileage and necessary and 65461
actual expenses while engaged in the business of the council.65462

       Sec. 3905.862.  Upon the expiration or cancellation of a 65463
surety bail bond agent's appointment, the agent shall not engage 65464
or attempt to engage in any activity requiring such an 65465
appointment. However, an insurer that cancels the appointment of a 65466
surety bail bond agent may authorize the agent to continue to 65467
attempt the arrest and surrender of a defendant for whom a bail 65468
bond had been written prior to the cancellation and to seek 65469
discharge of forfeitures and judgments.65470

       An insurer that cancels the appointment of a surety bail bond 65471
agent or allows that appointment to expire shall pay to the 65472
superintendent of insurance a fee pursuant to division (A)(9) of 65473
section 3905.40 of the Revised Code.65474

       Sec. 3916.06.  (A)(1) With each application for a viatical 65475
settlement, a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65476
broker shall disclose at least the following to a viator no later 65477
than the time all parties sign the application for the viatical 65478
settlement contract:65479

       (a) That there are possible alternatives to viatical 65480
settlement contracts, including any accelerated death benefits 65481
offered under the viator's policy;65482

       (b) That some or all of the proceeds of the viatical 65483
settlement may be subject to federal income taxation and state 65484
franchise and income taxation, and that assistance should be 65485
sought from a professional tax advisor;65486

       (c) That the proceeds of the viatical settlement could be 65487
subject to the claims of creditors;65488

       (d) That receipt of the proceeds of the viatical settlement 65489
may adversely affect the viator's eligibility for medical 65490
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codethe medicaid 65491
program or other government benefits or entitlements, and that 65492
advice should be obtained from the appropriate government 65493
agencies;65494

       (e) That the viator has a right to rescind the viatical 65495
settlement contract for at least fifteen calendar days after the 65496
viator receives the viatical settlement proceeds, as provided in 65497
section 3916.08 of the Revised Code. If the insured dies during 65498
the rescission period, the viatical settlement contract shall be 65499
deemed to have been rescinded, subject to repayment of all 65500
viatical settlement proceeds to the viatical settlement company.65501

       (f) That funds will be sent to the viator within three 65502
business days after the viatical settlement provider has received 65503
written acknowledgment from the insurer or group administrator 65504
that ownership of the policy or interest in the certificate has 65505
been transferred and that the beneficiary has been designated 65506
pursuant to the viatical settlement contract;65507

       (g) That entering into a viatical settlement contract may 65508
cause other rights or benefits, including conversion rights and 65509
waiver of premium benefits that may exist under the policy, to be 65510
forfeited by the viator and that assistance should be sought from 65511
a financial advisor.65512

       (h) That following execution of the viatical settlement 65513
contract, the viatical settlement provider or the authorized 65514
representative of the viatical settlement provider may contact the 65515
insured for the purpose of determining the insured's health status 65516
and to confirm the insured's residential or business address and 65517
telephone number or for other purposes permitted by law. Any such 65518
contact shall be limited to once in any three-month period if the 65519
insured has a life expectancy of more than one year or to once per 65520
month if the insured has a life expectancy of one year or less.65521

       (2) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65522
broker shall provide the disclosures under division (A)(1) of this 65523
section in a separate document that is signed by the viator and 65524
the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker.65525

       (3) Disclosure to a viator under division (A)(1) of this 65526
section shall include distribution of a brochure describing the 65527
process of viatical settlements. The viatical settlement provider 65528
or viatical settlement broker shall use the NAIC's form for the 65529
brochure unless another form is developed or approved by the 65530
superintendent.65531

       (4) The disclosure document under division (A)(1) of this 65532
section shall contain the following language:65533

       "All medical, financial, or personal information solicited or 65534
obtained by a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65535
broker about an insured, including the insured's identity or the 65536
identity of family members, a spouse, or a significant other may 65537
be disclosed as necessary to effect the viatical settlement 65538
between the viator and the viatical settlement provider. If you 65539
are asked to provide this information, you will be asked to 65540
consent to the disclosure. The information may be provided to 65541
someone who buys the policy or provides funds for the purchase. 65542
You may be asked to renew your permission to share information 65543
every two years."65544

       (B)(1) A viatical settlement provider shall disclose at least 65545
the following to a viator prior to the date the viatical 65546
settlement contract is signed by all the necessary parties:65547

       (a) The affiliation, if any, between the viatical settlement 65548
provider and the issuer of the policy to be viaticated;65549

       (b) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 65550
viatical settlement provider;65551

       (c) Regarding a viatical settlement broker, the amount and 65552
method of calculating the broker's compensation. As used in this 65553
division, "compensation" includes anything of value paid or given 65554
to a viatical settlement broker for the placement of a policy or 65555
certificate.65556

       (d) Any affiliations or contractual arrangements between the 65557
viatical settlement provider and the viatical settlement broker;65558

       (e) If a policy to be viaticated has been issued as a joint 65559
policy or involves family riders or any coverage of a life other 65560
than the insured under the policy to be viaticated, the possible 65561
loss of coverage on the other lives under the policy and that 65562
advice should be sought from the viator's insurance agent or the 65563
company issuing the policy;65564

       (f) The dollar amount of the current death benefit payable to 65565
the viatical settlement provider under the policy, and, if known, 65566
the availability of any additional guaranteed insurance benefits, 65567
the dollar amount of any accidental death and dismemberment 65568
benefits under the policy, and the extent to which the viator's 65569
interest in those benefits will be transferred as a result of the 65570
viatical settlement contract.65571

        (g) That an escrow agent shall provide escrow services to the 65572
parties pursuant to a written agreement, signed by the viatical 65573
settlement provider, the viatical settlement broker, and the 65574
viator. At the close of escrow, the escrow agent will distribute 65575
the proceeds of the sale to the viator, minus any compensation to 65576
be paid to any other persons who provided services and to whom the 65577
viator has agreed to compensate out of the gross amount offered by 65578
the viatical settlement purchaser. All persons receiving any form 65579
of compensation under the escrow agreement shall be clearly 65580
identified, including name, business address, telephone number, 65581
and tax identification number.65582

       (2) The viatical settlement broker shall disclose at least 65583
the following to a viator prior to the execution of the viatical 65584
settlement contract:65585

       (a) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 65586
viatical settlement broker;65587

       (b) A full, complete, and accurate description of all offers, 65588
counteroffers, acceptances, and rejections relating to the 65589
proposed viatical settlement contract;65590

       (c) Any affiliations or contractual agreements between the 65591
viatical settlement broker and any person making an offer in 65592
connection with the proposed viatical settlement contract;65593

       (d) The amount and method of calculating the viatical 65594
settlement broker's compensation and, if any portion of the 65595
viatical settlement broker's compensation is taken from the 65596
viatical settlement offer, the total amount of the viatical 65597
settlement offer and the viatical settlement broker's compensation 65598
as a percentage of that total. As used in this division, 65599
"compensation" includes anything of value paid or given to a 65600
viatical settlement broker related to the settlement of a policy.65601

       (3) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65602
broker shall conspicuously display the disclosures required under 65603
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section in the viatical 65604
settlement contract or in a separate document signed by the viator 65605
and the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65606
broker, as appropriate.65607

       (C) If the viatical settlement provider transfers ownership 65608
or changes the beneficiary of the policy, the viatical settlement 65609
provider shall communicate in writing the change in ownership or 65610
beneficiary to the insured within twenty days after the change.65611

       Sec. 3923.24.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 65612
Revised Code, every certificate furnished by an insurer in 65613
connection with, or pursuant to any provision of, any group 65614
sickness and accident insurance policy delivered, issued for 65615
delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after January 1, 65616
1972, every policy of sickness and accident insurance delivered, 65617
issued for delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after 65618
January 1, 1972, and every multiple employer welfare arrangement 65619
offering an insurance program, which provides that coverage of an 65620
unmarried dependent child of a parent or legal guardian will 65621
terminate upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent 65622
children specified in the contract shall also provide in substance 65623
both of the following:65624

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 65625
dependent children, as provided in the policy, upon the request of 65626
the insured, the insurer shall offer to cover the unmarried child 65627
until the child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the 65628
following are true:65629

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 65630
child of the insured.65631

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 65632
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 65633
education.65634

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 65635
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 65636
coverage.65637

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 65638
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 65639
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 65640
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.65641

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 65642
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 65643
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 65644
following:65645

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 65646
mental retardation or physical handicap;65647

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the policyholder or certificate 65648
holder for support and maintenance.65649

       (B) Proof of such incapacity and dependence for purposes of 65650
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished by the 65651
policyholder or by the certificate holder to the insurer within 65652
thirty-one days of the child's attainment of the limiting age. 65653
Upon request, but not more frequently than annually after the 65654
two-year period following the child's attainment of the limiting 65655
age, the insurer may require proof satisfactory to it of the 65656
continuance of such incapacity and dependency.65657

       (C) Nothing in this section shall require an insurer to cover 65658
a dependent child who is mentally retarded or physically 65659
handicapped if the contract is underwritten on evidence of 65660
insurability based on health factors set forth in the application, 65661
or if such dependent child does not satisfy the conditions of the 65662
contract as to any requirement for evidence of insurability or 65663
other provision of the contract, satisfaction of which is required 65664
for coverage thereunder to take effect. In any such case, the 65665
terms of the contract shall apply with regard to the coverage or 65666
exclusion of the dependent from such coverage. Nothing in this 65667
section shall apply to accidental death or dismemberment benefits 65668
provided by any such policy of sickness and accident insurance.65669

       (D) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:65670

       (1) Require that any policy offer coverage for dependent 65671
children or provide coverage for an unmarried dependent child's 65672
children as dependents on the policy;65673

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 65674
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 65675
age for dependents, as provided in the policy;65676

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 65677
the dependents of any employee.65678

        (E) This section does not apply to any policies or 65679
certificates covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 65680
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 65681
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 65682
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 65683
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 65684
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 65685
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 65686
payable with or without regard to fault and that is statutorily 65687
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 65688
equivalent self-insurance.65689

       (F) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 65690
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 65691
includes both of the following:65692

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;65693

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 65694
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.65695

       Sec. 3923.241. (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 65696
Revised Code, any public employee benefit plan that provides that 65697
coverage of an unmarried dependent child will terminate upon 65698
attainment of the limiting age for dependent children specified in 65699
the plan shall also provide in substance both of the following:65700

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 65701
dependent children, as provided in the plan, upon the request of 65702
the employee, the public employee benefit plan shall offer to 65703
cover the unmarried child until the child attains twenty-eight 65704
years of age if all of the following are true:65705

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 65706
child of the employee.65707

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 65708
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 65709
education.65710

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 65711
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 65712
coverage.65713

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 65714
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 65715
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 65716
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.65717

       (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 65718
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 65719
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 65720
following:65721

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 65722
mental retardation or physical handicap;65723

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the plan member for support and 65724
maintenance.65725

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 65726
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the public 65727
employee benefit plan within thirty-one days of the child's 65728
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 65729
frequently than annually, the public employee benefit plan may 65730
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 65731
incapacity and dependency.65732

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:65733

       (1) Require that any public employee benefit plan offer 65734
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 65735
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the public 65736
employee benefit plan;65737

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 65738
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 65739
age for dependents, as provided in the plan;65740

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 65741
the dependents of any employee.65742

       (D) This section does not apply to any public employee 65743
benefit plan covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 65744
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 65745
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 65746
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 65747
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 65748
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 65749
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 65750
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 65751
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 65752
equivalent self-insurance.65753

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 65754
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 65755
includes both of the following:65756

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;65757

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 65758
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.65759

       Sec. 3923.281.  (A) As used in this section:65760

       (1) "Biologically based mental illness" means schizophrenia, 65761
schizoaffective disorder, major depressive disorder, bipolar 65762
disorder, paranoia and other psychotic disorders, 65763
obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as these terms 65764
are defined in the most recent edition of the diagnostic and 65765
statistical manual of mental disorders published by the American 65766
psychiatric association.65767

       (2) "Policy of sickness and accident insurance" has the same 65768
meaning as in section 3923.01 of the Revised Code, but excludes 65769
any hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, long-term care, 65770
disability income, one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer 65771
than six months, supplemental benefit, or other policy that 65772
provides coverage for specific diseases or accidents only; any 65773
policy that provides coverage for workers' compensation claims 65774
compensable pursuant to Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised 65775
Code; and any policy that provides coverage to beneficiaries 65776
enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 65777
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 65778
assistance program or medicaid, as provided by the Ohio department 65779
of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code65780
recipients.65781

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the Revised Code, and 65782
subject to division (E) of this section, every policy of sickness 65783
and accident insurance shall provide benefits for the diagnosis 65784
and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses on the same 65785
terms and conditions as, and shall provide benefits no less 65786
extensive than, those provided under the policy of sickness and 65787
accident insurance for the treatment and diagnosis of all other 65788
physical diseases and disorders, if both of the following apply:65789

       (1) The biologically based mental illness is clinically 65790
diagnosed by a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 65791
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 65792
medicine and surgery; a psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. 65793
of the Revised Code; a professional clinical counselor, 65794
professional counselor, or independent social worker licensed 65795
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code; or a clinical nurse 65796
specialist licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code whose 65797
nursing specialty is mental health.65798

       (2) The prescribed treatment is not experimental or 65799
investigational, having proven its clinical effectiveness in 65800
accordance with generally accepted medical standards.65801

       (C) Division (B) of this section applies to all coverages and 65802
terms and conditions of the policy of sickness and accident 65803
insurance, including, but not limited to, coverage of inpatient 65804
hospital services, outpatient services, and medication; maximum 65805
lifetime benefits; copayments; and individual and family 65806
deductibles.65807

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting 65808
a sickness and accident insurance company from taking any of the 65809
following actions:65810

       (1) Negotiating separately with mental health care providers 65811
with regard to reimbursement rates and the delivery of health care 65812
services;65813

       (2) Offering policies that provide benefits solely for the 65814
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses;65815

       (3) Managing the provision of benefits for the diagnosis or 65816
treatment of biologically based mental illnesses through the use 65817
of pre-admission screening, by requiring beneficiaries to obtain 65818
authorization prior to treatment, or through the use of any other 65819
mechanism designed to limit coverage to that treatment determined 65820
to be necessary;65821

       (4) Enforcing the terms and conditions of a policy of 65822
sickness and accident insurance.65823

       (E) An insurer that offers any policy of sickness and 65824
accident insurance is not required to provide benefits for the 65825
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses 65826
pursuant to division (B) of this section if all of the following 65827
apply:65828

       (1) The insurer submits documentation certified by an 65829
independent member of the American academy of actuaries to the 65830
superintendent of insurance showing that incurred claims for 65831
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 65832
illnesses for a period of at least six months independently caused 65833
the insurer's costs for claims and administrative expenses for the 65834
coverage of all other physical diseases and disorders to increase 65835
by more than one per cent per year. 65836

       (2) The insurer submits a signed letter from an independent 65837
member of the American academy of actuaries to the superintendent 65838
of insurance opining that the increase described in division 65839
(E)(1) of this section could reasonably justify an increase of 65840
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 65841
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 65842
disorders.65843

       (3) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 65844
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 65845
pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:65846

       (a) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 65847
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 65848
months independently caused the insurer's costs for claims and 65849
administrative expenses for the coverage of all other physical 65850
diseases and disorders to increase by more than one per cent per 65851
year.65852

       (b) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase of 65853
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 65854
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 65855
disorders.65856

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 65857
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65858

       Sec. 3923.443. (A)(1) No agent shall sell, solicit, or 65859
negotiate long-term care insurance on or after September 1, 2008, 65860
without completing an initial eight-hour partnership program 65861
training course as described in division (B) of this section.65862

        (2)(a) Any agent that sells, solicits, or negotiates any 65863
long-term care insurance shall complete at least four hours of 65864
continuing education in every twenty-four-month period commencing 65865
on the first day of January of the year immediately following the 65866
year of the issuance of the agent's license.65867

       (b) No agent shall fail to complete the continuing education 65868
requirements in division (A)(2)(a) of this section in the 65869
twenty-four-month period described in that division.65870

       (B) The initial training course and continuing education 65871
required under division (A) of this section may be approved by the 65872
superintendent of insurance as continuing education courses under 65873
sections 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code and shall 65874
consist of combined topics related to long-term care insurance, 65875
long-term care services, and state long-term care insurance 65876
partnership programs, including all of the following:65877

       (1) State and federal regulations and requirements and the 65878
relationship between state long-term care insurance partnership 65879
programs and other public and private coverage of long-term care 65880
services, including medicaid;65881

       (2) Available long-term care services and providers;65882

       (3) Changes or improvements in long-term care services or 65883
providers;65884

       (4) Alternatives to the purchase of private long-term care 65885
insurance;65886

       (5) The effect of inflation on benefits and the importance of 65887
inflation protection;65888

       (6) Consumer suitability standards and guidelines;65889

       (7) Any other topics required by the superintendent.65890

       (C) The initial training and continuing education required by 65891
division (A) of this section shall not include training that is 65892
specific to a particular insurer or company product or that 65893
includes any sales or marketing information, materials, or 65894
training other than those required by state or federal law.65895

       (D) A resident agent shall satisfy the training and 65896
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 65897
completing long-term care courses that are approved by the 65898
superintendent. A nonresident agent may satisfy the training and 65899
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 65900
completing the training requirements in any other state, provided 65901
that the course is approved for credit by the insurance department 65902
of that state prior to the agent taking the course.65903

       (E) Each insurer shall obtain records of the initial training 65904
and continuing education completed by agents of that insurer 65905
pursuant to division (A) of this section as well as the training 65906
completed by the insurer's agents concerning the distribution of 65907
the insurer's partnership program policies and shall make those 65908
records available to the superintendent upon request.65909

       (F) Each insurer shall maintain records with respect to the 65910
training of its agents concerning the distribution of the 65911
insurer's partnership program policies. Each insurer shall provide 65912
documentation to the superintendent that will allow the 65913
superintendent to provide assurance to the medicaid director of 65914
job and family services that agents have received the training 65915
required by this section and that agents have demonstrated an 65916
understanding of the partnership program policies and their 65917
relationship to public and private coverage of long-term care in 65918
this state, including medicaid. The superintendent may audit each 65919
insurer's records annually to verify that the insurer is 65920
maintaining the records required by this division. The 65921
superintendent shall make the records provided to the 65922
superintendent pursuant to division (E) of this section available 65923
to the director.65924

       Sec. 3923.49.  The department of insurance shall establish an 65925
outreach program to educate consumers about the following:65926

       (A) The need for long-term care insurance;65927

       (B) Mechanisms for financing long-term care;65928

       (C) The availability of long-term care insurance;65929

       (D) The resource protection provided by the Ohio long-term 65930
care insurance program under section 5111.185164.86 of the 65931
Revised Code;65932

       (E) That a consumer who purchased a long-term care insurance 65933
policy that does not meet the requirements of section 3923.50 of 65934
the Revised Code may purchase a policy that meets those 65935
requirements.65936

       The department shall develop and make available to consumers 65937
information to assist them in choosing long-term care insurance 65938
coverage.65939

       Sec. 3923.50.  For the purposes of the Ohio long-term care 65940
insurance program established under section 5111.185164.86 of the 65941
Revised Code, the department of insurance shall notify the 65942
department of job and family servicesmedicaid of all long-term 65943
care insurance policies that meet all of the following 65944
requirements:65945

       (A) Comply with sections 3923.41 to 3923.48 of the Revised 65946
Code and the rules adopted under section 3923.47 of the Revised 65947
Code;65948

       (B) Provide benefits for home and community-based services in 65949
addition to nursing home care;65950

       (C) Include case management services in its coverage of home 65951
and community-based services;65952

       (D) Provide five per cent inflation protection compounded 65953
annually;65954

       (E) Provide for the keeping of records and 65955
explanation-of-benefit reports on insurance payments that count 65956
toward resource exclusion for the medical assistancemedicaid65957
program;65958

       (F) Provide the information the medicaid director of job and 65959
family services determines is necessary to document the extent of 65960
resource exclusion and to evaluate the Ohio long-term care 65961
insurance program;65962

       (G) Comply with other requirements established in rules 65963
adopted under this section.65964

       The superintendent of insurance shall adopt rules in 65965
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 65966
requirements under division (G) of this section that policies must 65967
meet to qualify under the Ohio long-term care insurance program. 65968
The superintendent shall consult with the departments of aging and 65969
job and family servicesmedicaid in adopting those rules.65970

       Sec. 3923.601. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 65971
following:65972

       (a) A sickness and accident insurer that issues or requires 65973
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 65974
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 65975
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 65976
services;65977

        (b) A person that a sickness and accident insurer contracts 65978
with to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 65979
technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.65980

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 65981
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 65982
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 65983
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 65984
connection with any of the following:65985

       (a) Any individual or group policy of sickness and accident 65986
insurance covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 65987
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 65988
medicare, tricare, specified disease, or vision care; coverage 65989
under a one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six 65990
months; coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; 65991
insurance arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; 65992
automobile medical payment insurance; or insurance under which 65993
benefits are payable with or without regard to fault and which is 65994
statutorily required to be contained in any liability insurance 65995
policy or equivalent self-insurance.65996

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 65997
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.65998

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 65999
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 66000
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 66001
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 66002
this section to the plan and its administrators.66003

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 66004
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 66005
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 66006
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 66007
this section.66008

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 66009
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 66010
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 66011
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 66012
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 66013
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 66014
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 66015
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.66016

        (2) If the insurer or person under contract with the insurer 66017
to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 66018
technology requires the information for the submission and routing 66019
of a claim, the standardized identification card or the electronic 66020
technology shall contain any of the following information:66021

        (a) The insurer's name;66022

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 66023
number;66024

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 66025
issues;66026

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 66027
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";66028

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";66029

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 66030
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."66031

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 66032
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 66033
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 66034
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 66035
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 66036
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 66037
identification number or the processor's control number is 66038
different for medical and pharmacy claims.66039

        (D) Each sickness and accident insurer described in division 66040
(A) of this section shall annually file a certificate with the 66041
superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any person it 66042
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or 66043
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 66044
drug claims complies with this section.66045

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 66046
if there is a change in the information contained in the 66047
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 66048
issued to an insured, the insurer or person under contract with 66049
the insurer to issue a standardized identification card or an 66050
electronic technology shall issue a new card or electronic 66051
technology to the insured.66052

        (2) An insurer or person under contract with the insurer is 66053
not required under division (E)(1) of this section to issue a new 66054
card or electronic technology to an insured more than once during 66055
a twelve-month period.66056

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring 66057
an insurer to produce more than one standardized identification 66058
card or one electronic technology for use by insureds accessing 66059
health care benefits provided under a policy of sickness and 66060
accident insurance.66061

       Sec. 3923.83. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 66062
following:66063

       (a) A public employee benefit plan that issues or requires 66064
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 66065
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 66066
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 66067
services;66068

        (b) A person or entity that a public employee benefit plan 66069
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or an 66070
electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 66071
section.66072

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 66073
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 66074
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 66075
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 66076
connection with either of the following:66077

       (a) Any individual or group policy of insurance covering only 66078
accident, credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, 66079
hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, 66080
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 66081
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 66082
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 66083
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 66084
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 66085
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 66086
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 66087
equivalent self-insurance.66088

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 66089
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.66090

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 66091
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 66092
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 66093
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 66094
this section.66095

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 66096
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 66097
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 66098
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 66099
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 66100
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 66101
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 66102
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.66103

        (2) If the public employee benefit plan or person under 66104
contract with the plan to issue a standardized identification card 66105
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 66106
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 66107
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 66108
following information:66109

        (a) The plan's name;66110

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 66111
number;66112

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 66113
issues;66114

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 66115
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";66116

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";66117

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 66118
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."66119

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 66120
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 66121
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 66122
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 66123
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 66124
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 66125
identification number or the processor's control number is 66126
different for medical and pharmacy claims.66127

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 66128
if there is a change in the information contained in the 66129
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 66130
issued to an insured, the public employee benefit plan or person 66131
under contract with the plan to issue a standardized 66132
identification card or electronic technology shall issue a new 66133
card or electronic technology to the insured. 66134

       (2) A public employee benefit plan or person under contract 66135
with the plan is not required under division (D)(1) of this 66136
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an insured 66137
more than once during a twelve-month period.66138

       (F)(E) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 66139
requiring a public employee benefit plan to produce more than one 66140
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 66141
use by insureds accessing health care benefits provided under a 66142
health benefit plan.66143

       Sec. 3924.41.  (A) As used in sections 3924.41 and 3924.42 of 66144
the Revised Code, "health insurer" means any sickness and accident 66145
insurer or health insuring corporation. "Health insurer" also 66146
includes any group health plan as defined in section 607 of the 66147
federal "Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 66148
Stat. 832, 29 U.S.C.A. 1167.66149

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 66150
no health insurer shall take into consideration the availability 66151
of, or eligibility for, medical assistancethe medicaid program in 66152
this state under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or in any other 66153
state pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 66154
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, when determining an 66155
individual's eligibility for coverage or when making payments to 66156
or on behalf of an enrollee, subscriber, policyholder, or 66157
certificate holder.66158

       Sec. 3924.42.  No health insurer shall impose requirements on 66159
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, when it has 66160
been assigned the rights of an individual who is eligible for 66161
medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code66162
medicaid and who is covered under a health care policy, contract, 66163
or plan issued by the health insurer, that are different from the 66164
requirements applicable to an agent or assignee of any other 66165
individual so covered.66166

       Sec. 3963.01. As used in this chapter:66167

       (A) "Affiliate" means any person or entity that has ownership 66168
or control of a contracting entity, is owned or controlled by a 66169
contracting entity, or is under common ownership or control with a 66170
contracting entity.66171

       (B) "Basic health care services" has the same meaning as in 66172
division (A) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that 66173
it does not include any services listed in that division that are 66174
provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.66175

       (C) "Contracting entity" means any person that has a primary 66176
business purpose of contracting with participating providers for 66177
the delivery of health care services.66178

       (D) "Credentialing" means the process of assessing and 66179
validating the qualifications of a provider applying to be 66180
approved by a contracting entity to provide basic health care 66181
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 66182
care services to enrollees.66183

       (E) "Edit" means adjusting one or more procedure codes billed 66184
by a participating provider on a claim for payment or a practice 66185
that results in any of the following:66186

       (1) Payment for some, but not all of the procedure codes 66187
originally billed by a participating provider;66188

       (2) Payment for a different procedure code than the procedure 66189
code originally billed by a participating provider;66190

       (3) A reduced payment as a result of services provided to an 66191
enrollee that are claimed under more than one procedure code on 66192
the same service date.66193

       (F) "Electronic claims transport" means to accept and 66194
digitize claims or to accept claims already digitized, to place 66195
those claims into a format that complies with the electronic 66196
transaction standards issued by the United States department of 66197
health and human services pursuant to the "Health Insurance 66198
Portability and Accountability Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 1955, 42 66199
U.S.C. 1320d, et seq., as those electronic standards are 66200
applicable to the parties and as those electronic standards are 66201
updated from time to time, and to electronically transmit those 66202
claims to the appropriate contracting entity, payer, or 66203
third-party administrator.66204

       (G) "Enrollee" means any person eligible for health care 66205
benefits under a health benefit plan, including an eligible 66206
recipient of medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, and 66207
includes all of the following terms:66208

       (1) "Enrollee" and "subscriber" as defined by section 1751.01 66209
of the Revised Code;66210

       (2) "Member" as defined by section 1739.01 of the Revised 66211
Code;66212

       (3) "Insured" and "plan member" pursuant to Chapter 3923. of 66213
the Revised Code;66214

       (4) "Beneficiary" as defined by section 3901.38 of the 66215
Revised Code.66216

       (H) "Health care contract" means a contract entered into, 66217
materially amended, or renewed between a contracting entity and a 66218
participating provider for the delivery of basic health care 66219
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 66220
care services to enrollees.66221

       (I) "Health care services" means basic health care services, 66222
specialty health care services, and supplemental health care 66223
services.66224

       (J) "Material amendment" means an amendment to a health care 66225
contract that decreases the participating provider's payment or 66226
compensation, changes the administrative procedures in a way that 66227
may reasonably be expected to significantly increase the 66228
provider's administrative expenses, or adds a new product. A 66229
material amendment does not include any of the following:66230

       (1) A decrease in payment or compensation resulting solely 66231
from a change in a published fee schedule upon which the payment 66232
or compensation is based and the date of applicability is clearly 66233
identified in the contract;66234

       (2) A decrease in payment or compensation that was 66235
anticipated under the terms of the contract, if the amount and 66236
date of applicability of the decrease is clearly identified in the 66237
contract;66238

       (3) An administrative change that may significantly increase 66239
the provider's administrative expense, the specific applicability 66240
of which is clearly identified in the contract;66241

       (4) Changes to an existing prior authorization, 66242
precertification, notification, or referral program that do not 66243
substantially increase the provider's administrative expense;66244

       (5) Changes to an edit program or to specific edits if the 66245
participating provider is provided notice of the changes pursuant 66246
to division (A)(1) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code and the 66247
notice includes information sufficient for the provider to 66248
determine the effect of the change;66249

       (6) Changes to a health care contract described in division 66250
(B) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code.66251

       (K) "Participating provider" means a provider that has a 66252
health care contract with a contracting entity and is entitled to 66253
reimbursement for health care services rendered to an enrollee 66254
under the health care contract.66255

       (L) "Payer" means any person that assumes the financial risk 66256
for the payment of claims under a health care contract or the 66257
reimbursement for health care services provided to enrollees by 66258
participating providers pursuant to a health care contract.66259

       (M) "Primary enrollee" means a person who is responsible for 66260
making payments for participation in a health care plan or an 66261
enrollee whose employment or other status is the basis of 66262
eligibility for enrollment in a health care plan.66263

       (N) "Procedure codes" includes the American medical 66264
association's current procedural terminology code, the American 66265
dental association's current dental terminology, and the centers 66266
for medicare and medicaid services health care common procedure 66267
coding system.66268

       (O) "Product" means one of the following types of categories 66269
of coverage for which a participating provider may be obligated to 66270
provide health care services pursuant to a health care contract:66271

       (1) A health maintenance organization or other product 66272
provided by a health insuring corporation;66273

       (2) A preferred provider organization;66274

       (3) Medicare;66275

       (4) Medicaid;66276

       (5) Workers' compensation.66277

       (P) "Provider" means a physician, podiatrist, dentist, 66278
chiropractor, optometrist, psychologist, physician assistant, 66279
advanced practice registered nurse, occupational therapist, 66280
massage therapist, physical therapist, professional counselor, 66281
professional clinical counselor, hearing aid dealer, orthotist, 66282
prosthetist, home health agency, hospice care program, pediatric 66283
respite care program, or hospital, or a provider organization or 66284
physician-hospital organization that is acting exclusively as an 66285
administrator on behalf of a provider to facilitate the provider's 66286
participation in health care contracts. "Provider" does not mean a 66287
pharmacist, pharmacy, nursing home, or a provider organization or 66288
physician-hospital organization that leases the provider 66289
organization's or physician-hospital organization's network to a 66290
third party or contracts directly with employers or health and 66291
welfare funds.66292

       (Q) "Specialty health care services" has the same meaning as 66293
in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that it does not 66294
include any services listed in division (B) of section 1751.01 of 66295
the Revised Code that are provided by a pharmacist or a nursing 66296
home.66297

       (R) "Supplemental health care services" has the same meaning 66298
as in division (B) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except 66299
that it does not include any services listed in that division that 66300
are provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.66301

       Sec. 3963.04. (A)(1) If an amendment to a health care 66302
contract is not a material amendment, the contracting entity shall 66303
provide the participating provider notice of the amendment at 66304
least fifteen days prior to the effective date of the amendment. 66305
The contracting entity shall provide all other notices to the 66306
participating provider pursuant to the health care contract.66307

       (2) A material amendment to a health care contract shall 66308
occur only if the contracting entity provides to the participating 66309
provider the material amendment in writing and notice of the 66310
material amendment not later than ninety days prior to the 66311
effective date of the material amendment. The notice shall be 66312
conspicuously entitled "Notice of Material Amendment to Contract."66313

       (3) If within fifteen days after receiving the material 66314
amendment and notice described in division (A)(2) of this section, 66315
the participating provider objects in writing to the material 66316
amendment, and there is no resolution of the objection, either 66317
party may terminate the health care contract upon written notice 66318
of termination provided to the other party not later than sixty 66319
days prior to the effective date of the material amendment.66320

       (4) If the participating provider does not object to the 66321
material amendment in the manner described in division (A)(3) of 66322
this section, the material amendment shall be effective as 66323
specified in the notice described in division (A)(2) of this 66324
section.66325

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the 66326
delay caused by compliance with that division could result in 66327
imminent harm to an enrollee, if the material amendment of a 66328
health care contract is required by state or federal law, rule, or 66329
regulation, or if the provider affirmatively accepts the material 66330
amendment in writing and agrees to an earlier effective date than 66331
otherwise required by division (A)(2) of this section.66332

       (2) This section does not apply under any of the following 66333
circumstances:66334

       (a) The participating provider's payment or compensation is 66335
based on the current medicaid or medicare physician fee schedule, 66336
and the change in payment or compensation results solely from a 66337
change in that physician fee schedule.66338

       (b) A routine change or update of the health care contract is 66339
made in response to any addition, deletion, or revision of any 66340
service code, procedure code, or reporting code, or a pricing 66341
change is made by any third party source.66342

        For purposes of division (B)(2)(b) of this section:66343

        (i) "Service code, procedure code, or reporting code" means 66344
the current procedural terminology (CPT), current dental 66345
terminology (CDT), the healthcare common procedure coding system 66346
(HCPCS), the international classification of diseases (ICD), or 66347
the drug topics redbook average wholesale price (AWP).66348

        (ii) "Third party source" means the American medical 66349
association, American dental association, the centers for medicare 66350
and medicaid services, the national center for health statistics, 66351
the department of health and human services office of the 66352
inspector general, the Ohio department of insurance, or the Ohio 66353
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.66354

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, a 66355
health care contract may be amended by operation of law as 66356
required by any applicable state or federal law, rule, or 66357
regulation. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require 66358
the renegotiation of a health care contract that is in existence 66359
before the effective date of this sectionJune 25, 2008, until the 66360
time that the contract is renewed or materially amended.66361

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 66362
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 66363
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 66364
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 66365
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 66366
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 66367
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 66368
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 66369
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 66370
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 66371
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 66372
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 66373
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 66374
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 66375
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 66376
and one shall be an active member of an association that 66377
represents managers of fairs or festivals.66378

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 66379
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 66380
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 66381
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 66382
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 66383
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 66384
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 66385
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 66386
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 66387
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 66388
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 66389
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 66390
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 66391
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 66392
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 66393
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 66394
members shall reside in a different region of the state.66395

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 66396
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 66397
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 66398
in the manner provided for initial appointmentsby the director of 66399
commerce, and shall not require the advice and consent of the 66400
senate. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 66401
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 66402
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 66403
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 66404
expiration date of the member's term until the successor takes 66405
office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 66406
occurs first.66407

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 66408
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 66409
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 66410
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 66411
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 66412
board members.66413

       The superintendent of industrial compliance shall furnish 66414
office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 66415
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 66416
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 66417
Revised Code.66418

       Sec. 4112.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:66419

       (1) "Person" includes one or more individuals, partnerships, 66420
associations, organizations, corporations, legal representatives, 66421
trustees, trustees in bankruptcy, receivers, and other organized 66422
groups of persons. "Person" also includes, but is not limited to, 66423
any owner, lessor, assignor, builder, manager, broker, 66424
salesperson, appraiser, agent, employee, lending institution, and 66425
the state and all political subdivisions, authorities, agencies, 66426
boards, and commissions of the state.66427

       (2) "Employer" includes the state, any political subdivision 66428
of the state, any person employing four or more persons within the 66429
state, and any person acting directly or indirectly in the 66430
interest of an employer, but shall not include a religious 66431
corporation, association, educational institution, or society with 66432
respect to the employment of individuals of a particular religion 66433
to perform work connected with the carrying on by such 66434
corporation, association, educational institution, or society.66435

       (3) "Employee" means an individual employed by any employer 66436
but does not include any individual employed in the domestic 66437
service of any person.66438

       (4) "Labor organization" includes any organization that 66439
exists, in whole or in part, for the purpose of collective 66440
bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances, 66441
terms or conditions of employment, or other mutual aid or 66442
protection in relation to employment.66443

       (5) "Employment agency" includes any person regularly 66444
undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure 66445
opportunities to work or to procure, recruit, refer, or place 66446
employees.66447

       (6) "Commission" means the Ohio civil rights commission 66448
created by section 4112.03 of the Revised Code.66449

       (7) "Discriminate" includes segregate or separate.66450

       (8) "Unlawful discriminatory practice" means any act 66451
prohibited by section 4112.02, 4112.021, or 4112.022 of the 66452
Revised Code.66453

       (9) "Place of public accommodation" means any inn, 66454
restaurant, eating house, barbershop, public conveyance by air, 66455
land, or water, theater, store, other place for the sale of 66456
merchandise, or any other place of public accommodation or 66457
amusement of which the accommodations, advantages, facilities, or 66458
privileges are available to the public.66459

       (10) "Housing accommodations" includes any building or 66460
structure, or portion of a building or structure, that is used or 66461
occupied or is intended, arranged, or designed to be used or 66462
occupied as the home residence, dwelling, dwelling unit, or 66463
sleeping place of one or more individuals, groups, or families 66464
whether or not living independently of each other; and any vacant 66465
land offered for sale or lease. "Housing accommodations" also 66466
includes any housing accommodations held or offered for sale or 66467
rent by a real estate broker, salesperson, or agent, by any other 66468
person pursuant to authorization of the owner, by the owner, or by 66469
the owner's legal representative.66470

       (11) "Restrictive covenant" means any specification limiting 66471
the transfer, rental, lease, or other use of any housing 66472
accommodations because of race, color, religion, sex, military 66473
status, familial status, national origin, disability, or ancestry, 66474
or any limitation based upon affiliation with or approval by any 66475
person, directly or indirectly, employing race, color, religion, 66476
sex, military status, familial status, national origin, 66477
disability, or ancestry as a condition of affiliation or approval.66478

       (12) "Burial lot" means any lot for the burial of deceased 66479
persons within any public burial ground or cemetery, including, 66480
but not limited to, cemeteries owned and operated by municipal 66481
corporations, townships, or companies or associations incorporated 66482
for cemetery purposes.66483

       (13) "Disability" means a physical or mental impairment that 66484
substantially limits one or more major life activities, including 66485
the functions of caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, 66486
walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and 66487
working; a record of a physical or mental impairment; or being 66488
regarded as having a physical or mental impairment.66489

       (14) Except as otherwise provided in section 4112.021 of the 66490
Revised Code, "age" means at least forty years old.66491

       (15) "Familial status" means either of the following:66492

       (a) One or more individuals who are under eighteen years of 66493
age and who are domiciled with a parent or guardian having legal 66494
custody of the individual or domiciled, with the written 66495
permission of the parent or guardian having legal custody, with a 66496
designee of the parent or guardian;66497

       (b) Any person who is pregnant or in the process of securing 66498
legal custody of any individual who is under eighteen years of 66499
age.66500

       (16)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(16)(b) of this 66501
section, "physical or mental impairment" includes any of the 66502
following:66503

       (i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic 66504
disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the 66505
following body systems: neurological; musculoskeletal; special 66506
sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; 66507
cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genito-urinary; hemic and 66508
lymphatic; skin; and endocrine;66509

       (ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, including, but not 66510
limited to, mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional 66511
or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities;66512

       (iii) Diseases and conditions, including, but not limited to, 66513
orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral 66514
palsy, autism, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, 66515
cancer, heart disease, diabetes, human immunodeficiency virus 66516
infection, mental retardation, emotional illness, drug addiction, 66517
and alcoholism.66518

       (b) "Physical or mental impairment" does not include any of 66519
the following:66520

       (i) Homosexuality and bisexuality;66521

       (ii) Transvestism, transsexualism, pedophilia, exhibitionism, 66522
voyeurism, gender identity disorders not resulting from physical 66523
impairments, or other sexual behavior disorders;66524

       (iii) Compulsive gambling, kleptomania, or pyromania;66525

       (iv) Psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the 66526
current illegal use of a controlled substance or the current use 66527
of alcoholic beverages.66528

       (17) "Dwelling unit" means a single unit of residence for a 66529
family of one or more persons.66530

       (18) "Common use areas" means rooms, spaces, or elements 66531
inside or outside a building that are made available for the use 66532
of residents of the building or their guests, and includes, but is 66533
not limited to, hallways, lounges, lobbies, laundry rooms, refuse 66534
rooms, mail rooms, recreational areas, and passageways among and 66535
between buildings.66536

       (19) "Public use areas" means interior or exterior rooms or 66537
spaces of a privately or publicly owned building that are made 66538
available to the general public.66539

       (20) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in 66540
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.66541

       (21) "Disabled tenant" means a tenant or prospective tenant 66542
who is a person with a disability.66543

       (22) "Military status" means a person's status in "service in 66544
the uniformed services" as defined in section 5923.05 of the 66545
Revised Code.66546

       (23) "Aggrieved person" includes both of the following:66547

        (a) Any person who claims to have been injured by any 66548
unlawful discriminatory practice described in division (H) of 66549
section 4112.02 of the Revised Code;66550

       (b) Any person who believes that the person will be injured 66551
by, any unlawful discriminatory practice described in division (H) 66552
of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code that is about to occur.66553

       (B) For the purposes of divisions (A) to (F) of section 66554
4112.02 of the Revised Code, the terms "because of sex" and "on 66555
the basis of sex" include, but are not limited to, because of or 66556
on the basis of pregnancy, any illness arising out of and 66557
occurring during the course of a pregnancy, childbirth, or related 66558
medical conditions. Women affected by pregnancy, childbirth, or 66559
related medical conditions shall be treated the same for all 66560
employment-related purposes, including receipt of benefits under 66561
fringe benefit programs, as other persons not so affected but 66562
similar in their ability or inability to work, and nothing in 66563
division (B) of section 4111.17 of the Revised Code shall be 66564
interpreted to permit otherwise. This division shall not be 66565
construed to require an employer to pay for health insurance 66566
benefits for abortion, except where the life of the mother would 66567
be endangered if the fetus were carried to term or except where 66568
medical complications have arisen from the abortion, provided that 66569
nothing in this division precludes an employer from providing 66570
abortion benefits or otherwise affects bargaining agreements in 66571
regard to abortion.66572

       Sec. 4112.02.  It shall be an unlawful discriminatory 66573
practice:66574

       (A) For any employer, because of the race, color, religion, 66575
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 66576
ancestry of any person, to discharge without just cause, to refuse 66577
to hire, or otherwise to discriminate against that person with 66578
respect to hire, tenure, terms, conditions, or privileges of 66579
employment, or any matter directly or indirectly related to 66580
employment.66581

       (B) For an employment agency or personnel placement service, 66582
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 66583
origin, disability, age, or ancestry, to do any of the following:66584

       (1) Refuse or fail to accept, register, classify properly, or 66585
refer for employment, or otherwise discriminate against any 66586
person;66587

       (2) Comply with a request from an employer for referral of 66588
applicants for employment if the request directly or indirectly 66589
indicates that the employer fails to comply with the provisions of 66590
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.66591

       (C) For any labor organization to do any of the following:66592

       (1) Limit or classify its membership on the basis of race, 66593
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 66594
disability, age, or ancestry;66595

       (2) Discriminate against, limit the employment opportunities 66596
of, or otherwise adversely affect the employment status, wages, 66597
hours, or employment conditions of any person as an employee 66598
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 66599
origin, disability, age, or ancestry.66600

       (D) For any employer, labor organization, or joint 66601
labor-management committee controlling apprentice training 66602
programs to discriminate against any person because of race, 66603
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 66604
disability, or ancestry in admission to, or employment in, any 66605
program established to provide apprentice training.66606

       (E) Except where based on a bona fide occupational 66607
qualification certified in advance by the commission, for any 66608
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, or labor 66609
organization, prior to employment or admission to membership, to 66610
do any of the following:66611

       (1) Elicit or attempt to elicit any information concerning 66612
the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 66613
disability, age, or ancestry of an applicant for employment or 66614
membership;66615

       (2) Make or keep a record of the race, color, religion, sex, 66616
military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of 66617
any applicant for employment or membership;66618

       (3) Use any form of application for employment, or personnel 66619
or membership blank, seeking to elicit information regarding race, 66620
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 66621
disability, age, or ancestry; but an employer holding a contract 66622
containing a nondiscrimination clause with the government of the 66623
United States, or any department or agency of that government, may 66624
require an employee or applicant for employment to furnish 66625
documentary proof of United States citizenship and may retain that 66626
proof in the employer's personnel records and may use photographic 66627
or fingerprint identification for security purposes;66628

       (4) Print or publish or cause to be printed or published any 66629
notice or advertisement relating to employment or membership 66630
indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or 66631
discrimination, based upon race, color, religion, sex, military 66632
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;66633

       (5) Announce or follow a policy of denying or limiting, 66634
through a quota system or otherwise, employment or membership 66635
opportunities of any group because of the race, color, religion, 66636
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 66637
ancestry of that group;66638

       (6) Utilize in the recruitment or hiring of persons any 66639
employment agency, personnel placement service, training school or 66640
center, labor organization, or any other employee-referring source 66641
known to discriminate against persons because of their race, 66642
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 66643
disability, age, or ancestry.66644

       (F) For any person seeking employment to publish or cause to 66645
be published any advertisement that specifies or in any manner 66646
indicates that person's race, color, religion, sex, military 66647
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, or 66648
expresses a limitation or preference as to the race, color, 66649
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 66650
or ancestry of any prospective employer.66651

       (G) For any proprietor or any employee, keeper, or manager of 66652
a place of public accommodation to deny to any person, except for 66653
reasons applicable alike to all persons regardless of race, color, 66654
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 66655
or ancestry, the full enjoyment of the accommodations, advantages, 66656
facilities, or privileges of the place of public accommodation.66657

       (H) For any person to do any of the following:66658

       (1) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 66659
or finance housing accommodations, refuse to negotiate for the 66660
sale or rental of housing accommodations, or otherwise deny or 66661
make unavailable housing accommodations because of race, color, 66662
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 66663
disability, or national origin;66664

       (2) Represent to any person that housing accommodations are 66665
not available for inspection, sale, or rental, when in fact they 66666
are available, because of race, color, religion, sex, military 66667
status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;66668

       (3) Discriminate against any person in the making or 66669
purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial assistance 66670
for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or 66671
maintenance of housing accommodations, or any person in the making 66672
or purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial 66673
assistance that is secured by residential real estate, because of 66674
race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 66675
ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial 66676
composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 66677
accommodations are located, provided that the person, whether an 66678
individual, corporation, or association of any type, lends money 66679
as one of the principal aspects or incident to the person's 66680
principal business and not only as a part of the purchase price of 66681
an owner-occupied residence the person is selling nor merely 66682
casually or occasionally to a relative or friend;66683

       (4) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 66684
conditions of selling, transferring, assigning, renting, leasing, 66685
or subleasing any housing accommodations or in furnishing 66686
facilities, services, or privileges in connection with the 66687
ownership, occupancy, or use of any housing accommodations, 66688
including the sale of fire, extended coverage, or homeowners 66689
insurance, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, 66690
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or 66691
because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the 66692
housing accommodations are located;66693

       (5) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 66694
conditions of any loan of money, whether or not secured by 66695
mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, 66696
rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations 66697
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial 66698
status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the 66699
racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 66700
accommodations are located;66701

       (6) Refuse to consider without prejudice the combined income 66702
of both husband and wife for the purpose of extending mortgage 66703
credit to a married couple or either member of a married couple;66704

       (7) Print, publish, or circulate any statement or 66705
advertisement, or make or cause to be made any statement or 66706
advertisement, relating to the sale, transfer, assignment, rental, 66707
lease, sublease, or acquisition of any housing accommodations, or 66708
relating to the loan of money, whether or not secured by mortgage 66709
or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, 66710
repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, that indicates 66711
any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based 66712
upon race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 66713
ancestry, disability, or national origin, or an intention to make 66714
any such preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination;66715

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(8) or (17) 66716
of this section, make any inquiry, elicit any information, make or 66717
keep any record, or use any form of application containing 66718
questions or entries concerning race, color, religion, sex, 66719
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 66720
national origin in connection with the sale or lease of any 66721
housing accommodations or the loan of any money, whether or not 66722
secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, 66723
construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing 66724
accommodations. Any person may make inquiries, and make and keep 66725
records, concerning race, color, religion, sex, military status, 66726
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin for the 66727
purpose of monitoring compliance with this chapter.66728

       (9) Include in any transfer, rental, or lease of housing 66729
accommodations any restrictive covenant, or honor or exercise, or 66730
attempt to honor or exercise, any restrictive covenant;66731

       (10) Induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a 66732
housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by 66733
representing that a change has occurred or may occur with respect 66734
to the racial, religious, sexual, military status, familial 66735
status, or ethnic composition of the block, neighborhood, or other 66736
area in which the housing accommodations are located, or induce or 66737
solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a housing accommodations 66738
listing, sale, or transaction by representing that the presence or 66739
anticipated presence of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, 66740
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 66741
national origin, in the block, neighborhood, or other area will or 66742
may have results including, but not limited to, the following:66743

       (a) The lowering of property values;66744

       (b) A change in the racial, religious, sexual, military 66745
status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block, 66746
neighborhood, or other area;66747

       (c) An increase in criminal or antisocial behavior in the 66748
block, neighborhood, or other area;66749

       (d) A decline in the quality of the schools serving the 66750
block, neighborhood, or other area.66751

       (11) Deny any person access to or membership or participation 66752
in any multiple-listing service, real estate brokers' 66753
organization, or other service, organization, or facility relating 66754
to the business of selling or renting housing accommodations, or 66755
discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of that 66756
access, membership, or participation, on account of race, color, 66757
religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, 66758
disability, or ancestry;66759

       (12) Coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any 66760
person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of that 66761
person's having exercised or enjoyed or having aided or encouraged 66762
any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right 66763
granted or protected by division (H) of this section;66764

       (13) Discourage or attempt to discourage the purchase by a 66765
prospective purchaser of housing accommodations, by representing 66766
that any block, neighborhood, or other area has undergone or might 66767
undergo a change with respect to its religious, racial, sexual, 66768
military status, familial status, or ethnic composition;66769

       (14) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 66770
or finance, or otherwise deny or withhold, a burial lot from any 66771
person because of the race, color, sex, military status, familial 66772
status, age, ancestry, disability, or national origin of any 66773
prospective owner or user of the lot;66774

       (15) Discriminate in the sale or rental of, or otherwise make 66775
unavailable or deny, housing accommodations to any buyer or renter 66776
because of a disability of any of the following:66777

       (a) The buyer or renter;66778

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 66779
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 66780
available;66781

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 66782
division (H)(15)(b) of this section.66783

       (16) Discriminate in the terms, conditions, or privileges of 66784
the sale or rental of housing accommodations to any person or in 66785
the provision of services or facilities to any person in 66786
connection with the housing accommodations because of a disability 66787
of any of the following:66788

       (a) That person;66789

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 66790
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 66791
available;66792

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 66793
division (H)(16)(b) of this section.66794

       (17) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(17) of this 66795
section, make an inquiry to determine whether an applicant for the 66796
sale or rental of housing accommodations, a person residing in or 66797
intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are 66798
sold, rented, or made available, or any individual associated with 66799
that person has a disability, or make an inquiry to determine the 66800
nature or severity of a disability of the applicant or such a 66801
person or individual. The following inquiries may be made of all 66802
applicants for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, 66803
regardless of whether they have disabilities:66804

       (a) An inquiry into an applicant's ability to meet the 66805
requirements of ownership or tenancy;66806

       (b) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 66807
for housing accommodations available only to persons with 66808
disabilities or persons with a particular type of disability;66809

       (c) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 66810
for a priority available to persons with disabilities or persons 66811
with a particular type of disability;66812

       (d) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant currently 66813
uses a controlled substance in violation of section 2925.11 of the 66814
Revised Code or a substantively comparable municipal ordinance;66815

       (e) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant at any time 66816
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense, an element 66817
of which is the illegal sale, offer to sell, cultivation, 66818
manufacture, other production, shipment, transportation, delivery, 66819
or other distribution of a controlled substance.66820

       (18)(a) Refuse to permit, at the expense of a person with a 66821
disability, reasonable modifications of existing housing 66822
accommodations that are occupied or to be occupied by the person 66823
with a disability, if the modifications may be necessary to afford 66824
the person with a disability full enjoyment of the housing 66825
accommodations. This division does not preclude a landlord of 66826
housing accommodations that are rented or to be rented to a 66827
disabled tenant from conditioning permission for a proposed 66828
modification upon the disabled tenant's doing one or more of the 66829
following:66830

       (i) Providing a reasonable description of the proposed 66831
modification and reasonable assurances that the proposed 66832
modification will be made in a workerlike manner and that any 66833
required building permits will be obtained prior to the 66834
commencement of the proposed modification;66835

       (ii) Agreeing to restore at the end of the tenancy the 66836
interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they were 66837
in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable 66838
wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if it is reasonable 66839
for the landlord to condition permission for the proposed 66840
modification upon the agreement;66841

       (iii) Paying into an interest-bearing escrow account that is 66842
in the landlord's name, over a reasonable period of time, a 66843
reasonable amount of money not to exceed the projected costs at 66844
the end of the tenancy of the restoration of the interior of the 66845
housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to the 66846
proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and tear 66847
during the period of occupancy, if the landlord finds the account 66848
reasonably necessary to ensure the availability of funds for the 66849
restoration work. The interest earned in connection with an escrow 66850
account described in this division shall accrue to the benefit of 66851
the disabled tenant who makes payments into the account.66852

       (b) A landlord shall not condition permission for a proposed 66853
modification upon a disabled tenant's payment of a security 66854
deposit that exceeds the customarily required security deposit of 66855
all tenants of the particular housing accommodations.66856

       (19) Refuse to make reasonable accommodations in rules, 66857
policies, practices, or services when necessary to afford a person 66858
with a disability equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling 66859
unit, including associated public and common use areas;66860

       (20) Fail to comply with the standards and rules adopted 66861
under division (A) of section 3781.111 of the Revised Code;66862

       (21) Discriminate against any person in the selling, 66863
brokering, or appraising of real property because of race, color, 66864
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 66865
disability, or national origin;66866

       (22) Fail to design and construct covered multifamily 66867
dwellings for first occupancy on or after June 30, 1992, in 66868
accordance with the following conditions:66869

       (a) The dwellings shall have at least one building entrance 66870
on an accessible route, unless it is impractical to do so because 66871
of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the site.66872

       (b) With respect to dwellings that have a building entrance 66873
on an accessible route, all of the following apply:66874

       (i) The public use areas and common use areas of the 66875
dwellings shall be readily accessible to and usable by persons 66876
with a disability.66877

       (ii) All the doors designed to allow passage into and within 66878
all premises shall be sufficiently wide to allow passage by 66879
persons with a disability who are in wheelchairs.66880

       (iii) All premises within covered multifamily dwelling units 66881
shall contain an accessible route into and through the dwelling; 66882
all light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats, and other 66883
environmental controls within such units shall be in accessible 66884
locations; the bathroom walls within such units shall contain 66885
reinforcements to allow later installation of grab bars; and the 66886
kitchens and bathrooms within such units shall be designed and 66887
constructed in a manner that enables an individual in a wheelchair 66888
to maneuver about such rooms.66889

       For purposes of division (H)(22) of this section, "covered 66890
multifamily dwellings" means buildings consisting of four or more 66891
units if such buildings have one or more elevators and ground 66892
floor units in other buildings consisting of four or more units.66893

       (I) For any person to discriminate in any manner against any 66894
other person because that person has opposed any unlawful 66895
discriminatory practice defined in this section or because that 66896
person has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in 66897
any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing under 66898
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.66899

       (J) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce 66900
the doing of any act declared by this section to be an unlawful 66901
discriminatory practice, to obstruct or prevent any person from 66902
complying with this chapter or any order issued under it, or to 66903
attempt directly or indirectly to commit any act declared by this 66904
section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice.66905

       (K)(1) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 66906
religious or denominational institution or organization, or any 66907
nonprofit charitable or educational organization that is operated, 66908
supervised, or controlled by or in connection with a religious 66909
organization, from limiting the sale, rental, or occupancy of 66910
housing accommodations that it owns or operates for other than a 66911
commercial purpose to persons of the same religion, or from giving 66912
preference in the sale, rental, or occupancy of such housing 66913
accommodations to persons of the same religion, unless membership 66914
in the religion is restricted on account of race, color, or 66915
national origin.66916

       (2) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 66917
bona fide private or fraternal organization that, incidental to 66918
its primary purpose, owns or operates lodgings for other than a 66919
commercial purpose, from limiting the rental or occupancy of the 66920
lodgings to its members or from giving preference to its members.66921

       (3) Nothing in division (H) of this section limits the 66922
applicability of any reasonable local, state, or federal 66923
restrictions regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted 66924
to occupy housing accommodations. Nothing in that division 66925
prohibits the owners or managers of housing accommodations from 66926
implementing reasonable occupancy standards based on the number 66927
and size of sleeping areas or bedrooms and the overall size of a 66928
dwelling unit, provided that the standards are not implemented to 66929
circumvent the purposes of this chapter and are formulated, 66930
implemented, and interpreted in a manner consistent with this 66931
chapter and any applicable local, state, or federal restrictions 66932
regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted to occupy 66933
housing accommodations.66934

       (4) Nothing in division (H) of this section requires that 66935
housing accommodations be made available to an individual whose 66936
tenancy would constitute a direct threat to the health or safety 66937
of other individuals or whose tenancy would result in substantial 66938
physical damage to the property of others.66939

       (5) Nothing in division (H) of this section pertaining to 66940
discrimination on the basis of familial status shall be construed 66941
to apply to any of the following:66942

       (a) Housing accommodations provided under any state or 66943
federal program that have been determined under the "Fair Housing 66944
Amendments Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as 66945
amended, to be specifically designed and operated to assist 66946
elderly persons;66947

       (b) Housing accommodations intended for and solely occupied 66948
by persons who are sixty-two years of age or older;66949

       (c) Housing accommodations intended and operated for 66950
occupancy by at least one person who is fifty-five years of age or 66951
older per unit, as determined under the "Fair Housing Amendments 66952
Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as amended.66953

       (L) Nothing in divisions (A) to (E) of this section shall be 66954
construed to require a person with a disability to be employed or 66955
trained under circumstances that would significantly increase the 66956
occupational hazards affecting either the person with a 66957
disability, other employees, the general public, or the facilities 66958
in which the work is to be performed, or to require the employment 66959
or training of a person with a disability in a job that requires 66960
the person with a disability routinely to undertake any task, the 66961
performance of which is substantially and inherently impaired by 66962
the person's disability.66963

       (M) Nothing in divisions (H)(1) to (18) of this section shall 66964
be construed to require any person selling or renting property to 66965
modify the property in any way or to exercise a higher degree of 66966
care for a person with a disability, to relieve any person with a 66967
disability of any obligation generally imposed on all persons 66968
regardless of disability in a written lease, rental agreement, or 66969
contract of purchase or sale, or to forbid distinctions based on 66970
the inability to fulfill the terms and conditions, including 66971
financial obligations, of the lease, agreement, or contract.66972

       (N) An aggrieved individual may enforce the individual's 66973
rights relative to discrimination on the basis of age as provided 66974
for in this section by instituting a civil action, within one 66975
hundred eighty days after the alleged unlawful discriminatory 66976
practice occurred, in any court with jurisdiction for any legal or 66977
equitable relief that will effectuate the individual's rights.66978

       A person who files a civil action under this division is 66979
barred, with respect to the practices complained of, from 66980
instituting a civil action under section 4112.14 of the Revised 66981
Code and from filing a charge with the commission under section 66982
4112.05 of the Revised Code.66983

       (O) With regard to age, it shall not be an unlawful 66984
discriminatory practice and it shall not constitute a violation of 66985
division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code for any 66986
employer, employment agency, joint labor-management committee 66987
controlling apprenticeship training programs, or labor 66988
organization to do any of the following:66989

       (1) Establish bona fide employment qualifications reasonably 66990
related to the particular business or occupation that may include 66991
standards for skill, aptitude, physical capability, intelligence, 66992
education, maturation, and experience;66993

       (2) Observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or any 66994
bona fide employee benefit plan, including, but not limited to, a 66995
retirement, pension, or insurance plan, that is not a subterfuge 66996
to evade the purposes of this section. However, no such employee 66997
benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual, and 66998
no such seniority system or employee benefit plan shall require or 66999
permit the involuntary retirement of any individual, because of 67000
the individual's age except as provided for in the "Age 67001
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 67002
29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in 67003
Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 67004
623, as amended.67005

       (3) Retire an employee who has attained sixty-five years of 67006
age who, for the two-year period immediately before retirement, is 67007
employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, 67008
if the employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual 67009
retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or 67010
deferred compensation plan, or any combination of those plans, of 67011
the employer of the employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at 67012
least forty-four thousand dollars, in accordance with the 67013
conditions of the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment 67014
of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended by the "Age 67015
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 67016
3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended;67017

       (4) Observe the terms of any bona fide apprenticeship program 67018
if the program is registered with the Ohio apprenticeship council 67019
pursuant to sections 4139.01 to 4139.06 of the Revised Code and is 67020
approved by the federal committee on apprenticeship of the United 67021
States department of labor.67022

       (P) Nothing in this chapter prohibiting age discrimination 67023
and nothing in division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code 67024
shall be construed to prohibit the following:67025

       (1) The designation of uniform age the attainment of which is 67026
necessary for public employees to receive pension or other 67027
retirement benefits pursuant to Chapter 145., 742., 3307., 3309., 67028
or 5505. of the Revised Code;67029

       (2) The mandatory retirement of uniformed patrol officers of 67030
the state highway patrol as provided in section 5505.16 of the 67031
Revised Code;67032

       (3) The maximum age requirements for appointment as a patrol 67033
officer in the state highway patrol established by section 5503.01 67034
of the Revised Code;67035

       (4) The maximum age requirements established for original 67036
appointment to a police department or fire department in sections 67037
124.41 and 124.42 of the Revised Code;67038

       (5) Any maximum age not in conflict with federal law that may 67039
be established by a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 67040
resolution of a board of township trustees for original 67041
appointment as a police officer or firefighter;67042

       (6) Any mandatory retirement provision not in conflict with 67043
federal law of a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 67044
resolution of a board of township trustees pertaining to police 67045
officers and firefighters;67046

       (7) Until January 1, 1994, the mandatory retirement of any 67047
employee who has attained seventy years of age and who is serving 67048
under a contract of unlimited tenure, or similar arrangement 67049
providing for unlimited tenure, at an institution of higher 67050
education as defined in the "Education Amendments of 1980," 94 67051
Stat. 1503, 20 U.S.C.A. 1141(a).67052

       (Q)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (Q)(1)(b) of this 67053
section, for purposes of divisions (A) to (E) of this section, a 67054
disability does not include any physiological disorder or 67055
condition, mental or psychological disorder, or disease or 67056
condition caused by an illegal use of any controlled substance by 67057
an employee, applicant, or other person, if an employer, 67058
employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 67059
organization, or joint labor-management committee acts on the 67060
basis of that illegal use.67061

       (b) Division (Q)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to an 67062
employee, applicant, or other person who satisfies any of the 67063
following:67064

       (i) The employee, applicant, or other person has successfully 67065
completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no longer 67066
is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance, or the 67067
employee, applicant, or other person otherwise successfully has 67068
been rehabilitated and no longer is engaging in that illegal use.67069

       (ii) The employee, applicant, or other person is 67070
participating in a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no 67071
longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance.67072

       (iii) The employee, applicant, or other person is erroneously 67073
regarded as engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 67074
substance, but the employee, applicant, or other person is not 67075
engaging in that illegal use.67076

       (2) Divisions (A) to (E) of this section do not prohibit an 67077
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 67078
organization, or joint labor-management committee from doing any 67079
of the following:67080

       (a) Adopting or administering reasonable policies or 67081
procedures, including, but not limited to, testing for the illegal 67082
use of any controlled substance, that are designed to ensure that 67083
an individual described in division (Q)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this 67084
section no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 67085
substance;67086

       (b) Prohibiting the illegal use of controlled substances and 67087
the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;67088

       (c) Requiring that employees not be under the influence of 67089
alcohol or not be engaged in the illegal use of any controlled 67090
substance at the workplace;67091

       (d) Requiring that employees behave in conformance with the 67092
requirements established under "The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 67093
1988," 102 Stat. 4304, 41 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;67094

       (e) Holding an employee who engages in the illegal use of any 67095
controlled substance or who is an alcoholic to the same 67096
qualification standards for employment or job performance, and the 67097
same behavior, to which the employer, employment agency, personnel 67098
placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management 67099
committee holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory 67100
performance or behavior is related to an employee's illegal use of 67101
a controlled substance or alcoholism;67102

       (f) Exercising other authority recognized in the "Americans 67103
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101, 67104
as amended, including, but not limited to, requiring employees to 67105
comply with any applicable federal standards.67106

       (3) For purposes of this chapter, a test to determine the 67107
illegal use of any controlled substance does not include a medical 67108
examination.67109

       (4) Division (Q) of this section does not encourage, 67110
prohibit, or authorize, and shall not be construed as encouraging, 67111
prohibiting, or authorizing, the conduct of testing for the 67112
illegal use of any controlled substance by employees, applicants, 67113
or other persons, or the making of employment decisions based on 67114
the results of that type of testing.67115

       The unlawful discriminatory practices defined in this section 67116
do not make it unlawful for a person or an appointing authority 67117
administering an examination under section 124.23 of the Revised 67118
Code to obtain information about an applicant's military status 67119
for the purpose of determining if the applicant is eligible for 67120
the additional credit that is available under that section.67121

       Sec. 4112.12.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 67122
African-American males, which shall consist of not more than 67123
twenty-five members as follows: the directors or their designees 67124
of the departments of health, development, alcohol and drug 67125
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and job 67126
and family services; the equal employment opportunity officer of 67127
the department of administrative services or the equal employment 67128
opportunity officer's designee; the executive director or the 67129
executive director's designee of the Ohio civil rights commission; 67130
the executive director or the executive director's designee of the 67131
division of criminal justice services in the department of public 67132
safety; the superintendent of public instruction; the chancellor 67133
or the chancellor's designee of the Ohio board of regents; two 67134
members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker 67135
of the house of representatives each of whom shall be members of 67136
different political parties; and two members of the senate 67137
appointed by the president of the senate each of whom shall be 67138
members of different political parties. The members who are 67139
members of the general assembly shall be nonvoting members. The 67140
Ohio state university African American and African studies 67141
community extension center, in consultation with the governor, 67142
shall appoint four members from the private corporate sector, at 67143
least four members from the public sector, and two members from 67144
the nonprofit sector.67145

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, except that 67146
members of the general assembly appointed to the commission shall 67147
be members only so long as they are members of the general 67148
assembly. Each term ends on the same day of the same month as did 67149
the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the 67150
date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member 67151
was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 67152
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any 67153
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 67154
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 67155
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 67156
term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 67157
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 67158
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 67159
whichever occurs first.67160

       The commission annually shall elect a chairperson from among 67161
its members.67162

       (C) Members of the commission and members of subcommittees 67163
appointed under division (B) of section 4112.13 of the Revised 67164
Code shall not be compensated, but shall be reimbursed for their 67165
necessary and actual expenses incurred in the performance of their 67166
official duties.67167

       (D) The Ohio state university African American and African 67168
studies community extension center, in consultation with the 67169
governor, shall appoint an executive director of the commission on 67170
African-American males, who shall be in the unclassified civil 67171
service. The executive director shall supervise the commission's 67172
activities and report to the commission and to the Ohio state 67173
university African American and African studies community 67174
extension center on the progress of those activities. The 67175
executive director shall do all things necessary for the efficient 67176
and effective implementation of the duties of the commission.67177

       The responsibilities assigned to the executive director do 67178
not relieve the members of the commission from final 67179
responsibility for the proper performance of the requirements of 67180
this division.67181

       (E) The commission on African-American males shall do all of 67182
the following:67183

       (1) Employ, promote, supervise, and remove all employees, as 67184
needed, in connection with the performance of its duties under 67185
this section;67186

       (2) Maintain its office in Columbus;67187

       (3) Acquire facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to 67188
house the commission, its employees, and files and records under 67189
its control, and to discharge any duty imposed upon it by law. The 67190
expense of these acquisitions shall be audited and paid for in the 67191
same manner as other state expenses.67192

       (4) Establish the overall policy and management of the 67193
commission in accordance with this chapter;67194

       (5) Follow all state procurement requirements;67195

        (6) Implement the policies and plans of the Ohio state 67196
university African American and African studies community 67197
extension center as those policies and plans are formulated and 67198
adopted by the Ohio state university African American and African 67199
studies community extension center;67200

        (7) Report to the Ohio state university African American and 67201
African studies community extension center on the progress of the 67202
commission on African-American males in implementing the policies 67203
and plans of the Ohio state university African American and 67204
African studies community extension center.67205

       (F) The commission on African-American males may:67206

       (1) Hold sessions at any place within the state, except that 67207
the commission on African-American males shall meet at least 67208
quarterly;67209

       (2) Establish, change, or abolish positions, and assign and 67210
reassign duties and responsibilities of any employee of the 67211
commission on African-American males as necessary to achieve the 67212
most efficient performance of its functions.67213

       (G) The Ohio state university African American and African 67214
studies community extension center shall establish the overall 67215
policy and management of the commission on African-American males 67216
and shall direct, manage, and oversee the commission. The Ohio 67217
state university African American and African studies community 67218
extension center shall develop overall policies and plans, and the 67219
commission on African-American males shall implement those 67220
policies and plans. The commission on African-American males, 67221
through its executive director, shall keep the Ohio state 67222
university African American and African studies community 67223
extension center informed as to the activities of the commission 67224
on African-American males in such manner and at such times as the 67225
Ohio state university African American and African studies 67226
community extension center shall determine.67227

        The Ohio state university African American and African 67228
studies community extension center may prescribe duties and 67229
responsibilities of the commission on African-American males in 67230
addition to those prescribed in section 4112.13 of the Revised 67231
Code.67232

        (H) The Ohio state university African American and African 67233
studies community extension center annually shall contract for a 67234
report on the status of African Americans in this state. Issues to 67235
be evaluated in the report shall include the criminal justice 67236
system, education, employment, health care, and housing, and such 67237
other issues as the Ohio state university African American and 67238
African studies community extension center may specify. The report 67239
shall include policy recommendations relating to the issues 67240
covered in the report.67241

       Sec. 4112.31.  The new African immigrants commission shall do 67242
all of the following:67243

       (A) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 67244
conferences, investigations, and special studies on problems and 67245
programs concerning sub-Saharan African people;67246

       (B) Secure appropriate recognition of the accomplishments and 67247
contributions of sub-Saharan African people to this state;67248

       (C) Stimulate public awareness of the problems of sub-Saharan 67249
African people by conducting a program of public education;67250

       (D) Develop, coordinate, and assist other public and private 67251
organizations that serve sub-Saharan African people, including the 67252
conducting of training programs for community leadership and 67253
service project staff;67254

       (E) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 67255
departments and agencies of the nature, magnitude, and priorities 67256
of the problems of sub-Saharan African people;67257

       (F) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 67258
departments and agencies on, and assist in the development and 67259
implementation of, comprehensive and coordinated policies, 67260
programs, and procedures focusing on the special problems and 67261
needs of sub-Saharan African people, especially in the fields of 67262
education, employment, energy, health, housing, welfare, and 67263
recreation;67264

       (G) Propose new programs concerning sub-Saharan African 67265
people to public and private agencies and evaluate for such 67266
agencies existing programs or prospective legislation concerning 67267
sub-Saharan African people;67268

       (H) Review and approve grants to be made from federal, state, 67269
or private funds that are administered or subcontracted by the 67270
commission;67271

       (I) Prepare, review, and approve an annual report;67272

       (J) Serve as a clearinghouse to review and comment on all 67273
proposals to meet the needs of sub-Saharan African people that are 67274
submitted to it by public and private agencies;67275

       (K) Apply for and accept grants and gifts from governmental 67276
and private sources to be administered by the commission or 67277
subcontracted to local agencies;67278

       (L) Monitor and evaluate all programs subcontracted to local 67279
agencies by the commission;67280

       (M) Endeavor to assure that sub-Saharan African people have 67281
access to decision-making bodies in all state and local 67282
governmental departments and agencies;67283

       (N) Establish advisory committees on special subjects as 67284
needed to facilitate and maximize community participation in the 67285
operation of the commission;67286

       (O) Establish with state and local governments and private 67287
business and industry relationships that promote and assure equal 67288
opportunity for sub-Saharan African people in government, 67289
education, and employment.67290

       (P) Create an interagency council consisting of the following 67291
persons or their authorized representatives: one member of the 67292
senate appointed by the president of the senate; one member of the 67293
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 67294
representatives; the directors of administrative services, 67295
agriculture, education, development services, health, highway 67296
safety, job and family services, liquor control, mental health67297
mental health and addiction services, mental retardation and 67298
developmental disabilities, natural resources, rehabilitation and 67299
correction, youth services, transportation, environmental 67300
protection, and budget and management; the chairperson of the Ohio 67301
civil rights commission, the administrators of the bureau of 67302
workers' compensation and the rehabilitation services commission, 67303
and an additional member of the governor's cabinet appointed by 67304
the governor. The new African immigrants commission, by rule, may 67305
designate other state officers or their representatives to be 67306
members of the council. The director of the commission shall be 67307
the chairperson of the council.67308

       The interagency council shall provide and coordinate the 67309
exchange of information relative to the needs of sub-Saharan 67310
African people and promote the delivery of state services to such 67311
people. The council shall meet at the call of the chairperson.67312

       Advisory committees shall be composed of persons representing 67313
community organizations and charitable institutions, public 67314
officials, and such other persons as the commission determines.67315

       Sec. 4115.034.  On January 1, 1996, and the first day of 67316
January of every even-numbered year thereafter, the director of 67317
commerce shall adjust the threshold levels for which public 67318
improvement projects are subject to sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 67319
the Revised Code as set forth in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of 67320
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall adjust 67321
those amounts according to the average increase or decrease for 67322
each of the two years immediately preceding the adjustment as set 67323
forth in the United States department of commerce, bureau of the 67324
census implicit price deflator forthe construction cost index 67325
published by the engineering news-record or, should that index 67326
cease to be published, a similar recognized industry index chosen 67327
by the director, provided that no increase or decrease for any 67328
year shall exceed three per cent of the threshold level in 67329
existence at the time of the adjustment.67330

       Sec. 4115.32.  (A) Subject to section 4115.36 of the Revised 67331
Code, there is hereby created the state committee for the purchase 67332
of products and services provided by persons with severe 67333
disabilities. The committee shall be composed ex officio of the 67334
following persons, or their designees:67335

       (1) The directors of administrative services, mental health67336
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 67337
transportation, natural resources, and commerce;67338

       (2) The administrators of the rehabilitation services 67339
commission and the bureau of workers' compensation;67340

       (3) The secretary of state;67341

       (4) One representative of a purchasing department of a 67342
political subdivision who is designated by the governor.67343

       The governor shall appoint two representatives of a qualified 67344
nonprofit agency for persons with severe disabilities, and a 67345
person with a severe disability to the committee.67346

       (B) Within thirty days after September 29, 1995, the governor 67347
shall appoint the representatives of a qualified nonprofit agency 67348
for persons with severe disabilities to the committee for a term 67349
ending August 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms for such representatives 67350
are for three years, each term ending on the same day of the same 67351
month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Each committee 67352
member shall serve from the date of the member's appointment until 67353
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 67354
shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 67355
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 67356
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 67357
predecessor was appointed shall serve as a member for the 67358
remainder of that term. A member shall serve subsequent to the 67359
expiration of the member's term and shall continue to serve until 67360
the member's successor takes office.67361

       (C) Members of the committee shall serve without 67362
compensation. Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(1) and 67363
(2) of this section, members shall be reimbursed for actual and 67364
necessary expenses, including travel expenses, incurred while away 67365
from their homes or regular places of business and incurred while 67366
performing services for the committee.67367

       (1) The members listed in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this 67368
section, or their designees, shall not be reimbursed for any 67369
expenses.67370

       (2) No member of the committee who is entitled to receive 67371
reimbursement for the performance of services for the committee 67372
from another agency or entity shall receive reimbursement from the 67373
committee.67374

       (D) The committee shall elect from among its members a 67375
chairperson. The committee may request from any agency of the 67376
state, political subdivision, or instrumentality of the state any 67377
information necessary to enable it to carry out the intent of 67378
sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the Revised Code. Upon request of 67379
the committee, the agency, subdivision, or instrumentality shall 67380
furnish the information to the chairperson of the committee.67381

       (E) The committee shall not later than one hundred eighty 67382
days following the close of each fiscal year transmit to the 67383
governor, the general assembly, and each qualified nonprofit 67384
agency for persons with severe disabilities a report that includes 67385
the names of the committee members serving during the preceding 67386
fiscal year, the dates of committee meetings in that year, and any 67387
recommendations for changes in sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the 67388
Revised Code that the committee determines are necessary.67389

       (F) The director of administrative services shall designate a 67390
subordinate to act as executive director of the committee and 67391
shall furnish other staff and clerical assistance, office space, 67392
and supplies required by the committee.67393

       Sec. 4117.06.  (A) The state employment relations board shall 67394
decide in each case the unit appropriate for the purposes of 67395
collective bargaining. The determination is final and conclusive 67396
and not appealable to the court.67397

       (B) The board shall determine the appropriateness of each 67398
bargaining unit and shall consider among other relevant factors: 67399
the desires of the employees; the community of interest; wages, 67400
hours, and other working conditions of the public employees; the 67401
effect of over-fragmentation; the efficiency of operations of the 67402
public employer; the administrative structure of the public 67403
employer; and the history of collective bargaining.67404

       (C) The board may determine a unit to be the appropriate unit 67405
in a particular case, even though some other unit might also be 67406
appropriate.67407

       (D) In addition, in determining the appropriate unit, the 67408
board shall not:67409

       (1) Decide that any unit is appropriate if the unit includes 67410
both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority 67411
of the professional employees and a majority of the 67412
nonprofessional employees first vote for inclusion in the unit;67413

       (2) Include guards or correction officers at correctional or 67414
mental institutions, special police officers appointed in 67415
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 67416
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 67417
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile correction 67418
facilities, or any public employee employed as a guard to enforce 67419
against other employees rules to protect property of the employer 67420
or to protect the safety of persons on the employer's premises in 67421
a unit with other employees;67422

       (3) Include members of a police or fire department or members 67423
of the state highway patrol in a unit with other classifications 67424
of public employees of the department;67425

       (4) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 67426
more than one institution of higher education; nor shall it within 67427
any such institution of higher education designate as appropriate 67428
a unit where such designation would be inconsistent with the 67429
accreditation standards or interpretations of such standards, 67430
governing such institution of higher education or any department, 67431
school, or college thereof. For the purposes of this division, any 67432
branch or regional campus of a public institution of higher 67433
education is part of that institution of higher education.67434

       (5) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 67435
employees within the jurisdiction of more than one elected county 67436
office holder, unless the county-elected office holder and the 67437
board of county commissioners agree to such other designation;67438

       (6) With respect to members of a police department, designate 67439
as appropriate a unit that includes rank and file members of the 67440
department with members who are of the rank of sergeant or above;67441

       (7) Except as otherwise provided by division (A)(3) of 67442
section 3314.10 or division (B) of section 3326.18 of the Revised 67443
Code, designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 67444
employees from multiple community schools established under 67445
Chapter 3314. or multiple science, technology, engineering, and 67446
mathematics schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 67447
Code. For purposes of this division, more than one unit may be 67448
designated within a single community school or science, 67449
technology, engineering, and mathematics school.67450

       This section shall not be deemed to prohibit multiunit 67451
bargaining.67452

       Sec. 4117.14.  (A) The procedures contained in this section 67453
govern the settlement of disputes between an exclusive 67454
representative and a public employer concerning the termination or 67455
modification of an existing collective bargaining agreement or 67456
negotiation of a successor agreement, or the negotiation of an 67457
initial collective bargaining agreement.67458

       (B)(1) In those cases where there exists a collective 67459
bargaining agreement, any public employer or exclusive 67460
representative desiring to terminate, modify, or negotiate a 67461
successor collective bargaining agreement shall:67462

       (a) Serve written notice upon the other party of the proposed 67463
termination, modification, or successor agreement. The party must 67464
serve the notice not less than sixty days prior to the expiration 67465
date of the existing agreement or, in the event the existing 67466
collective bargaining agreement does not contain an expiration 67467
date, not less than sixty days prior to the time it is proposed to 67468
make the termination or modifications or to make effective a 67469
successor agreement.67470

       (b) Offer to bargain collectively with the other party for 67471
the purpose of modifying or terminating any existing agreement or 67472
negotiating a successor agreement;67473

       (c) Notify the state employment relations board of the offer 67474
by serving upon the board a copy of the written notice to the 67475
other party and a copy of the existing collective bargaining 67476
agreement.67477

       (2) In the case of initial negotiations between a public 67478
employer and an exclusive representative, where a collective 67479
bargaining agreement has not been in effect between the parties, 67480
any party may serve notice upon the board and the other party 67481
setting forth the names and addresses of the parties and offering 67482
to meet, for a period of ninety days, with the other party for the 67483
purpose of negotiating a collective bargaining agreement.67484

       If the settlement procedures specified in divisions (B), (C), 67485
and (D) of this section govern the parties, where those procedures 67486
refer to the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement, it 67487
means the expiration of the sixty-day period to negotiate a 67488
collective bargaining agreement referred to in this subdivision, 67489
or in the case of initial negotiations, it means the ninety-day 67490
period referred to in this subdivision.67491

       (3) The parties shall continue in full force and effect all 67492
the terms and conditions of any existing collective bargaining 67493
agreement, without resort to strike or lock-out, for a period of 67494
sixty days after the party gives notice or until the expiration 67495
date of the collective bargaining agreement, whichever occurs 67496
later, or for a period of ninety days where applicable.67497

       (4) Upon receipt of the notice, the parties shall enter into 67498
collective bargaining.67499

       (C) In the event the parties are unable to reach an 67500
agreement, they may submit, at any time prior to forty-five days 67501
before the expiration date of the collective bargaining agreement, 67502
the issues in dispute to any mutually agreed upon dispute 67503
settlement procedure which supersedes the procedures contained in 67504
this section.67505

       (1) The procedures may include:67506

       (a) Conventional arbitration of all unsettled issues;67507

       (b) Arbitration confined to a choice between the last offer 67508
of each party to the agreement as a single package;67509

       (c) Arbitration confined to a choice of the last offer of 67510
each party to the agreement on each issue submitted;67511

       (d) The procedures described in division (C)(1)(a), (b), or 67512
(c) of this section and including among the choices for the 67513
arbitrator, the recommendations of the fact finder, if there are 67514
recommendations, either as a single package or on each issue 67515
submitted;67516

       (e) Settlement by a citizens' conciliation council composed 67517
of three residents within the jurisdiction of the public employer. 67518
The public employer shall select one member and the exclusive 67519
representative shall select one member. The two members selected 67520
shall select the third member who shall chair the council. If the 67521
two members cannot agree upon a third member within five days 67522
after their appointments, the board shall appoint the third 67523
member. Once appointed, the council shall make a final settlement 67524
of the issues submitted to it pursuant to division (G) of this 67525
section.67526

       (f) Any other dispute settlement procedure mutually agreed to 67527
by the parties.67528

       (2) If, fifty days before the expiration date of the 67529
collective bargaining agreement, the parties are unable to reach 67530
an agreement, any party may request the state employment relations 67531
board to intervene. The request shall set forth the names and 67532
addresses of the parties, the issues involved, and, if applicable, 67533
the expiration date of any agreement.67534

       The board shall intervene and investigate the dispute to 67535
determine whether the parties have engaged in collective 67536
bargaining.67537

       If an impasse exists or forty-five days before the expiration 67538
date of the collective bargaining agreement if one exists, the 67539
board shall appoint a mediator to assist the parties in the 67540
collective bargaining process.67541

       (3) Any time after the appointment of a mediator, either 67542
party may request the appointment of a fact-finding panel. Within 67543
fifteen days after receipt of a request for a fact-finding panel, 67544
the board shall appoint a fact-finding panel of not more than 67545
three members who have been selected by the parties in accordance 67546
with rules established by the board, from a list of qualified 67547
persons maintained by the board.67548

       (a) The fact-finding panel shall, in accordance with rules 67549
and procedures established by the board that include the 67550
regulation of costs and expenses of fact-finding, gather facts and 67551
make recommendations for the resolution of the matter. The board 67552
shall by its rules require each party to specify in writing the 67553
unresolved issues and its position on each issue to the 67554
fact-finding panel. The fact-finding panel shall make final 67555
recommendations as to all the unresolved issues.67556

       (b) The board may continue mediation, order the parties to 67557
engage in collective bargaining until the expiration date of the 67558
agreement, or both.67559

       (4) The following guidelines apply to fact-finding:67560

       (a) The fact-finding panel may establish times and place of 67561
hearings which shall be, where feasible, in the jurisdiction of 67562
the state.67563

       (b) The fact-finding panel shall conduct the hearing pursuant 67564
to rules established by the board.67565

       (c) Upon request of the fact-finding panel, the board shall 67566
issue subpoenas for hearings conducted by the panel.67567

       (d) The fact-finding panel may administer oaths.67568

       (e) The board shall prescribe guidelines for the fact-finding 67569
panel to follow in making findings. In making its recommendations, 67570
the fact-finding panel shall take into consideration the factors 67571
listed in divisions (G)(7)(a) to (f) of this section.67572

       (f) The fact-finding panel may attempt mediation at any time 67573
during the fact-finding process. From the time of appointment 67574
until the fact-finding panel makes a final recommendation, it 67575
shall not discuss the recommendations for settlement of the 67576
dispute with parties other than the direct parties to the dispute.67577

       (5) The fact-finding panel, acting by a majority of its 67578
members, shall transmit its findings of fact and recommendations 67579
on the unresolved issues to the public employer and employee 67580
organization involved and to the board no later than fourteen days 67581
after the appointment of the fact-finding panel, unless the 67582
parties mutually agree to an extension. The parties shall share 67583
the cost of the fact-finding panel in a manner agreed to by the 67584
parties.67585

       (6)(a) Not later than seven days after the findings and 67586
recommendations are sent, the legislative body, by a three-fifths 67587
vote of its total membership, and in the case of the public 67588
employee organization, the membership, by a three-fifths vote of 67589
the total membership, may reject the recommendations; if neither 67590
rejects the recommendations, the recommendations shall be deemed 67591
agreed upon as the final resolution of the issues submitted and a 67592
collective bargaining agreement shall be executed between the 67593
parties, including the fact-finding panel's recommendations, 67594
except as otherwise modified by the parties by mutual agreement. 67595
If either the legislative body or the public employee organization 67596
rejects the recommendations, the board shall publicize the 67597
findings of fact and recommendations of the fact-finding panel. 67598
The board shall adopt rules governing the procedures and methods 67599
for public employees to vote on the recommendations of the 67600
fact-finding panel.67601

        (b) As used in division (C)(6)(a) of this section, 67602
"legislative body" means the controlling board when the state or 67603
any of its agencies, authorities, commissions, boards, or other 67604
branch of public employment is party to the fact-finding process.67605

       (D) If the parties are unable to reach agreement within seven 67606
days after the publication of findings and recommendations from 67607
the fact-finding panel or the collective bargaining agreement, if 67608
one exists, has expired, then the:67609

       (1) Public employees, who are members of a police or fire 67610
department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy sheriffs, 67611
dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's department or 67612
the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers employed by a 67613
public employer other than a police, fire, or sheriff's department 67614
to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's department, or emergency 67615
medical or rescue personnel and units, an exclusive nurse's unit, 67616
employees of the state school for the deaf or the state school for 67617
the blind, employees of any public employee retirement system, 67618
corrections officers, guards at penal or mental institutions, 67619
special police officers appointed in accordance with sections67620
5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the Revised Code, psychiatric 67621
attendants employed at mental health forensic facilities, youth 67622
leaders employed at juvenile correctional facilities, or members 67623
of a law enforcement security force that is established and 67624
maintained exclusively by a board of county commissioners and 67625
whose members are employed by that board, shall submit the matter 67626
to a final offer settlement procedure pursuant to a board order 67627
issued forthwith to the parties to settle by a conciliator 67628
selected by the parties. The parties shall request from the board 67629
a list of five qualified conciliators and the parties shall select 67630
a single conciliator from the list by alternate striking of names. 67631
If the parties cannot agree upon a conciliator within five days 67632
after the board order, the board shall on the sixth day after its 67633
order appoint a conciliator from a list of qualified persons 67634
maintained by the board or shall request a list of qualified 67635
conciliators from the American arbitration association and appoint 67636
therefrom.67637

       (2) Public employees other than those listed in division 67638
(D)(1) of this section have the right to strike under Chapter 67639
4117. of the Revised Code provided that the employee organization 67640
representing the employees has given a ten-day prior written 67641
notice of an intent to strike to the public employer and to the 67642
board, and further provided that the strike is for full, 67643
consecutive work days and the beginning date of the strike is at 67644
least ten work days after the ending date of the most recent prior 67645
strike involving the same bargaining unit; however, the board, at 67646
its discretion, may attempt mediation at any time.67647

       (E) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit 67648
the parties, at any time, from voluntarily agreeing to submit any 67649
or all of the issues in dispute to any other alternative dispute 67650
settlement procedure. An agreement or statutory requirement to 67651
arbitrate or to settle a dispute pursuant to a final offer 67652
settlement procedure and the award issued in accordance with the 67653
agreement or statutory requirement is enforceable in the same 67654
manner as specified in division (B) of section 4117.09 of the 67655
Revised Code.67656

       (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 67657
party from seeking enforcement of a collective bargaining 67658
agreement or a conciliator's award as specified in division (B) of 67659
section 4117.09 of the Revised Code.67660

       (G) The following guidelines apply to final offer settlement 67661
proceedings under division (D)(1) of this section:67662

       (1) The parties shall submit to final offer settlement those 67663
issues that are subject to collective bargaining as provided by 67664
section 4117.08 of the Revised Code and upon which the parties 67665
have not reached agreement and other matters mutually agreed to by 67666
the public employer and the exclusive representative; except that 67667
the conciliator may attempt mediation at any time.67668

       (2) The conciliator shall hold a hearing within thirty days 67669
of the board's order to submit to a final offer settlement 67670
procedure, or as soon thereafter as is practicable.67671

       (3) The conciliator shall conduct the hearing pursuant to 67672
rules developed by the board. The conciliator shall establish the 67673
hearing time and place, but it shall be, where feasible, within 67674
the jurisdiction of the state. Not later than five calendar days 67675
before the hearing, each of the parties shall submit to the 67676
conciliator, to the opposing party, and to the board, a written 67677
report summarizing the unresolved issues, the party's final offer 67678
as to the issues, and the rationale for that position.67679

       (4) Upon the request by the conciliator, the board shall 67680
issue subpoenas for the hearing.67681

       (5) The conciliator may administer oaths.67682

       (6) The conciliator shall hear testimony from the parties and 67683
provide for a written record to be made of all statements at the 67684
hearing. The board shall submit for inclusion in the record and 67685
for consideration by the conciliator the written report and 67686
recommendation of the fact-finders.67687

       (7) After hearing, the conciliator shall resolve the dispute 67688
between the parties by selecting, on an issue-by-issue basis, from 67689
between each of the party's final settlement offers, taking into 67690
consideration the following:67691

       (a) Past collectively bargained agreements, if any, between 67692
the parties;67693

       (b) Comparison of the issues submitted to final offer 67694
settlement relative to the employees in the bargaining unit 67695
involved with those issues related to other public and private 67696
employees doing comparable work, giving consideration to factors 67697
peculiar to the area and classification involved;67698

       (c) The interests and welfare of the public, the ability of 67699
the public employer to finance and administer the issues proposed, 67700
and the effect of the adjustments on the normal standard of public 67701
service;67702

       (d) The lawful authority of the public employer;67703

       (e) The stipulations of the parties;67704

       (f) Such other factors, not confined to those listed in this 67705
section, which are normally or traditionally taken into 67706
consideration in the determination of the issues submitted to 67707
final offer settlement through voluntary collective bargaining, 67708
mediation, fact-finding, or other impasse resolution procedures in 67709
the public service or in private employment.67710

       (8) Final offer settlement awards made under Chapter 4117. of 67711
the Revised Code are subject to Chapter 2711. of the Revised Code.67712

       (9) If more than one conciliator is used, the determination 67713
must be by majority vote.67714

       (10) The conciliator shall make written findings of fact and 67715
promulgate a written opinion and order upon the issues presented 67716
to the conciliator, and upon the record made before the 67717
conciliator and shall mail or otherwise deliver a true copy 67718
thereof to the parties and the board.67719

       (11) Increases in rates of compensation and other matters 67720
with cost implications awarded by the conciliator may be effective 67721
only at the start of the fiscal year next commencing after the 67722
date of the final offer settlement award; provided that if a new 67723
fiscal year has commenced since the issuance of the board order to 67724
submit to a final offer settlement procedure, the awarded 67725
increases may be retroactive to the commencement of the new fiscal 67726
year. The parties may, at any time, amend or modify a 67727
conciliator's award or order by mutual agreement.67728

       (12) The parties shall bear equally the cost of the final 67729
offer settlement procedure.67730

       (13) Conciliators appointed pursuant to this section shall be 67731
residents of the state.67732

       (H) All final offer settlement awards and orders of the 67733
conciliator made pursuant to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code are 67734
subject to review by the court of common pleas having jurisdiction 67735
over the public employer as provided in Chapter 2711. of the 67736
Revised Code. If the public employer is located in more than one 67737
court of common pleas district, the court of common pleas in which 67738
the principal office of the chief executive is located has 67739
jurisdiction.67740

       (I) The issuance of a final offer settlement award 67741
constitutes a binding mandate to the public employer and the 67742
exclusive representative to take whatever actions are necessary to 67743
implement the award.67744

       Sec. 4117.15.  (A) Whenever a strike by members of a police 67745
or fire department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy 67746
sheriffs, dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's 67747
department or the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers 67748
employed by a public employer other than a police, fire, or 67749
sheriff's department to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's 67750
department, or emergency medical or rescue personnel and units, an 67751
exclusive nurse's unit, employees of the state school for the deaf 67752
or the state school for the blind, employees of any public 67753
employee retirement system, correction officers, guards at penal 67754
or mental institutions, or special police officers appointed in 67755
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 67756
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 67757
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile 67758
correctional facilities, or members of a law enforcement security 67759
force that is established and maintained exclusively by a board of 67760
county commissioners and whose members are employed by that board, 67761
a strike by other public employees during the pendency of the 67762
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 67763
Code, or a strike during the term or extended term of a collective 67764
bargaining agreement occurs, the public employer may seek an 67765
injunction against the strike in the court of common pleas of the 67766
county in which the strike is located.67767

       (B) An unfair labor practice by a public employer is not a 67768
defense to the injunction proceeding noted in division (A) of this 67769
section. Allegations of unfair labor practices during the 67770
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 67771
Code shall receive priority by the state employment relations 67772
board.67773

       (C) No public employee is entitled to pay or compensation 67774
from the public employer for the period engaged in any strike.67775

       Sec. 4121.50. Not later than July 1, 2012, the administrator 67776
of workers' compensation shall adopt rules in accordance with 67777
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated 67778
services program for claimants under this chapter or Chapter 67779
4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code who are found to have 67780
obtained prescription drugs that were reimbursed pursuant to an 67781
order of the administrator or of the industrial commission or by a 67782
self-insuring employer but were obtained at a frequency or in an 67783
amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 67784
implemented in a manner that is substantially similar to the 67785
coordinated services programs established for the medicaid program 67786
under section 5111.085sections 5164.758 and 5111.1795167.13 of 67787
the Revised Code.67788

       Sec. 4123.32.  The administrator of workers' compensation, 67789
with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 67790
board of directors, shall adopt rules with respect to the 67791
collection, maintenance, and disbursements of the state insurance 67792
fund including all of the following:67793

       (A) A rule providing that the premium security deposit 67794
collected from any employer entitles the employer to the benefits 67795
of this chapter for the remainder of the six months and also for 67796
an additional adjustment period of two months, and, thereafter, if 67797
the employer pays the premium due at the close of any six-month 67798
period, coverage shall be extended for an additional eight-month 67799
period beginning from the end of the six-month period for which 67800
the employer pays the premium due;67801

       (B) A rule providing for ascertaining the correctness of any 67802
employer's report of estimated or actual expenditure of wages and 67803
the determination and adjustment of proper premiums and the 67804
payment of those premiums by the employer for or during any period 67805
less than eight months and notwithstanding any payment or 67806
determination of premium made when exceptional conditions or 67807
circumstances in the judgment of the administrator justify the 67808
action;67809

       (C) Such special rules as the administrator considers 67810
necessary to safeguard the fund and that are just in the 67811
circumstances, covering the rates to be applied where one employer 67812
takes over the occupation or industry of another or where an 67813
employer first makes application for state insurance, and the 67814
administrator may require that if any employer transfers a 67815
business in whole or in part or otherwise reorganizes the 67816
business, the successor in interest shall assume, in proportion to 67817
the extent of the transfer, as determined by the administrator, 67818
the employer's account and shall continue the payment of all 67819
contributions due under this chapter;67820

       (D) A rule providing that an employer who employs an employee 67821
covered under the federal "Longshore and Harbor Workers' 67822
Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 33 U.S.C. 901 et seq., and this 67823
chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code shall be assessed a 67824
premium in accordance with the expenditure of wages, payroll, or 67825
both attributable to only labor performed and services provided by 67826
such an employee when the employee performs labor and provides 67827
services for which the employee is not eligible to receive 67828
compensation and benefits under that federal act.67829

       (E) A rule providing for all of the following:67830

       (1) If, within two months immediately after the expiration of 67831
the six-month period, an employer fails to file a report of the 67832
employer's actual payroll expenditures for the period, the premium 67833
found to be due from the employer for the period shall be 67834
increased in an amount equal to one per cent of the premium, but 67835
the increase shall not be less than three nor more than fifteen 67836
dollars;67837

       (2) The premium determined by the administrator to be due 67838
from an employer shall be payable on or before the end of the 67839
coverage period established by the premium security deposit, or 67840
within the time specified by the administrator if the period for 67841
which the advance premium has been paid is less than eight months. 67842
If an employer fails to pay the premium when due, the 67843
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than thirty 67844
dollars to the premium plus an additional penalty amount as 67845
follows:67846

       (a) For a premium from sixty-one to ninety days past due, the 67847
prime interest rate, multiplied by the premium due;67848

       (b) For a premium from ninety-one to one hundred twenty days 67849
past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, multiplied by 67850
the premium due;67851

       (c) For a premium from one hundred twenty-one to one hundred 67852
fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per cent, 67853
multiplied by the premium due;67854

       (d) For a premium from one hundred fifty-one to one hundred 67855
eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per cent, 67856
multiplied by the premium due;67857

       (e) For a premium from one hundred eighty-one to two hundred 67858
ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per cent, 67859
multiplied by the premium due;67860

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 67861
that a premium remains past due after it has remained past due for 67862
more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus eight 67863
per cent, multiplied by the premium due.67864

       (3) Notwithstanding the interest rates specified in division 67865
(E)(2) of this section, at no time shall the additional penalty 67866
amount assessed under division (E)(2) of this section exceed 67867
fifteen per cent of the premium due.67868

        (4) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty or additional 67869
penalty to an adjudicating committee pursuant to section 4123.291 67870
of the Revised Code.67871

       For purposes of division (E) of this section, "prime interest 67872
rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the administrator 67873
shall determine the prime interest rate in the same manner as a 67874
county auditor determines the average bank prime rate under 67875
section 929.02 of the Revised Code.67876

       (5) If the employer files an appropriate payroll report, 67877
within the time provided by law or within the time specified by 67878
the administrator if the period for which the employer paid an 67879
estimated premium is less than eight months, the employer shall 67880
not be in default and division (E)(2) of this section shall not 67881
apply if the employer pays the premiums within fifteen days after 67882
being first notified by the administrator of the amount due.67883

       (6) Any deficiencies in the amounts of the premium security 67884
deposit paid by an employer for any period shall be subject to an 67885
interest charge of six per cent per annum from the date the 67886
premium obligation is incurred. In determining the interest due on 67887
deficiencies in premium security deposit payments, a charge in 67888
each case shall be made against the employer in an amount equal to 67889
interest at the rate of six per cent per annum on the premium 67890
security deposit due but remaining unpaid sixty days after notice 67891
by the administrator.67892

       (7) Any interest charges or penalties provided for in 67893
divisions (E)(2) and (6) of this section shall be credited to the 67894
employer's account for rating purposes in the same manner as 67895
premiums.67896

       (F) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 67897
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit a premium 67898
security deposit. The deposit shall be calculated equivalent to 67899
thirty per cent of the semiannual premium obligation of the 67900
employer based upon the employer's estimated expenditure for wages 67901
for the ensuing six-month period plus thirty per cent of an 67902
additional adjustment period of two months but only up to a 67903
maximum of one thousand dollars and not less than ten dollars. The 67904
administrator shall review the security deposit of every employer 67905
who has submitted a deposit which is less than the 67906
one-thousand-dollar maximum. The administrator may require any 67907
such employer to submit additional money up to the maximum of one 67908
thousand dollars that, in the administrator's opinion, reflects 67909
the employer's current payroll expenditure for an eight-month 67910
period.67911

       (G) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 67912
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit an 67913
application for coverage that completely provides all of the 67914
information required for the administrator to establish coverage 67915
for that employer, and that the employer's failure to provide all 67916
of the information completely may be grounds for the administrator 67917
to deny coverage for that employer.67918

       (H) A rule providing that, in addition to any other remedies 67919
permitted in this chapter, the administrator may discontinue an 67920
employer's coverage if the employer fails to pay the premium due 67921
on or before the premium's due date.67922

       (I) A rule providing that if after a final adjudication it is 67923
determined that an employer has failed to pay an obligation, 67924
billing, account, or assessment that is greater than one thousand 67925
dollars on or before its due date, the administrator may 67926
discontinue the employer's coverage in addition to any other 67927
remedies permitted in this chapter, and that the administrator 67928
shall not discontinue an employer's coverage pursuant to this 67929
division prior to a final adjudication regarding the employer's 67930
failure to pay such obligation, billing, account, or assessment on 67931
or before its due date.67932

       (J) As used in divisions (H) and (I) of this section:67933

        (1) "Employer" has the same meaning as in division (B) of 67934
section 4123.01 of the Revised Code except that "employer" does 67935
not include the state, a state hospital, or a state university or 67936
college.67937

        (2) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 67938
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code and also includes the Ohio 67939
agricultural research and development center and the Ohio state 67940
university cooperativeOSU extension service.67941

        (3) "State hospital" means the Ohio state university hospital 67942
and its ancillary facilities and the medical university of Ohio at 67943
Toledo hospital.67944

       Sec. 4131.03.  (A) For the relief of persons who are entitled 67945
to receive benefits by virtue of the federal act, there is hereby 67946
established a coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund, which shall be 67947
separate from the funds established and administered pursuant to 67948
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code. The fund shall consist of 67949
premiums and other payments thereto by subscribers who elect to 67950
subscribe to the fund to insure the payment of benefits required 67951
by the federal act.67952

       (B)(1) The coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund shall be in the 67953
custody of the treasurer of state. The bureau of workers' 67954
compensation shall make disbursements from the fund to those 67955
persons entitled to payment therefrom and in the amounts required 67956
pursuant to sections 4131.01 to 4131.06 of the Revised Code. All 67957
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.67958

       (2) Beginning July 1, 2011, and ending June 30, 2013, the 67959
director of natural resources annually may request the 67960
administrator of workers' compensation to transfer a portion of 67961
the investment earnings credited to the coal-workers 67962
pneumoconiosis fund as provided in this division. If the 67963
administrator receives a request from the director, the 67964
administrator, on the first day of July, or as soon as possible 67965
after that date, shall transfer from the investment earnings 67966
credited to the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund an amount not to 67967
exceed three million dollars to the mine safety fund created in 67968
section 1561.24 of the Revised Code for the purposes specified in 67969
that section and an amount not to exceed one million five hundred 67970
thousand dollars to the coal mining administration and reclamation 67971
reserve fund created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code for 67972
the purposes specified in that section. The administrator, with 67973
the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 67974
board of directors, shall adopt rules governing the transfer in 67975
order to ensure the solvency of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis 67976
fund. For that purpose, the rules may establish tests based on 67977
measures of net assets, liabilities, expenses, interest, dividend 67978
income, or other factors that the administrator determines 67979
appropriate that may be applied prior to a transfer. 67980

       (C) The administrator shall have the same powers to invest 67981
any of the surplus or reserve belonging to the coal-workers 67982
pneumoconiosis fund as are delegated to the administrator under 67983
section 4123.44 of the Revised Code with respect to the state 67984
insurance fund.67985

       (D) If the administrator determines that reinsurance of the 67986
risks of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund is necessary to 67987
assure solvency of the fund, the administrator may:67988

       (1) Enter into contracts for the purchase of reinsurance 67989
coverage of the risks of the fund with any company or agency 67990
authorized by law to issue contracts of reinsurance;67991

       (2) Pay the cost of reinsurance from the fund;67992

       (3) Include the costs of reinsurance as a liability and 67993
estimated liability of the fund.67994

       Sec. 4141.162.  (A) The director of job and family services 67995
shall establish an income and eligibility verification system that 67996
complies with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act." The 67997
programs included in the system are all of the following:67998

       (1) Unemployment compensation pursuant to section 3304 of the 67999
"Internal Revenue Code of 1954";68000

       (2) The state programs funded in part under part A of Title 68001
IV of the "Social Security Act" and administered under Chapters 68002
5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code;68003

       (3) Medicaid pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 68004
Act"The medicaid program;68005

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program pursuant to 68006
the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.;68007

       (5) Any Ohio program under a plan approved under Title I, X, 68008
XIV, or XVI of the "Social Security Act."68009

       Wage information provided by employers to the director shall 68010
be furnished to the income and eligibility verification system. 68011
Such information shall be used by the director to determine 68012
eligibility of individuals for unemployment compensation benefits 68013
and the amount of those benefits and used by the agencies that 68014
administer the programs identified in divisions (A)(2) to (5) of 68015
this section to determine or verify eligibility for or the amount 68016
of benefits under those programs.68017

       The director shall fully implement the use of wage 68018
information to determine eligibility for and the amount of 68019
unemployment compensation benefits by September 30, 1988.68020

       Information furnished under the system shall also be made 68021
available to the appropriate state or local child support 68022
enforcement agency for the purposes of an approved plan under 68023
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act" and to the appropriate 68024
federal agency for the purposes of Titles II and XVI of the 68025
"Social Security Act."68026

       (B) The director shall adopt rules as necessary under which 68027
the department of job and family services and other state agencies 68028
that the director determines must participate in order to ensure 68029
compliance with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act" exchange 68030
information with each other or authorized federal agencies about 68031
individuals who are applicants for or recipients of benefits under 68032
any of the programs enumerated in division (A) of this section. 68033
The rules shall extend to all of the following:68034

       (1) A requirement for standardized formats and procedures for 68035
a participating agency to request and receive information about an 68036
individual, which information shall include the individual's 68037
social security number;68038

       (2) A requirement that all applicants for and recipients of 68039
benefits under any program enumerated in division (A) of this 68040
section be notified at the time of application, and periodically 68041
thereafter, that information available through the system may be 68042
shared with agencies that administer other benefit programs and 68043
utilized in establishing or verifying eligibility or benefit 68044
amounts under the other programs enumerated in division (A) of 68045
this section;68046

       (3) A requirement that information is made available only to 68047
the extent necessary to assist in the valid administrative needs 68048
of the program receiving the information and is targeted for use 68049
in ways which are most likely to be productive in identifying and 68050
preventing ineligibility and incorrect payments;68051

       (4) A requirement that information is adequately protected 68052
against unauthorized disclosures for purposes other than to 68053
establish or verify eligibility or benefit amounts under the 68054
programs enumerated in division (A) of this section;68055

       (5) A requirement that a program providing information is 68056
reimbursed by the program using the information for the actual 68057
costs of furnishing the information and that the director be 68058
reimbursed by the participating programs for any actual costs 68059
incurred in operating the system;68060

       (6) Requirements for any other matters necessary to ensure 68061
the effective, efficient, and timely exchange of necessary 68062
information or that the director determines must be addressed in 68063
order to ensure compliance with the requirements of section 1137 68064
of the "Social Security Act."68065

       (C) Each participating agency shall furnish to the income and 68066
eligibility verification system established in division (A) of 68067
this section that information, which the director, by rule, 68068
determines is necessary in order to comply with section 1137 of 68069
the "Social Security Act."68070

       (D) Notwithstanding the information disclosure requirements 68071
of this section and section 4141.21 and division (A) of section 68072
4141.284 of the Revised Code, the director shall administer those 68073
provisions of law so as to comply with section 1137 of the "Social 68074
Security Act."68075

       (E) Requirements in section 4141.21 of the Revised Code with 68076
respect to confidentiality of information obtained in the 68077
administration of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code and any 68078
sanctions imposed for improper disclosure of such information 68079
shall apply to the redisclosure of information disclosed under 68080
this section.68081

       (F) The director of job and family services shall consult 68082
with the medicaid director and the director of administrative 68083
services regarding the implementation of this section.68084

       Sec. 4143.01.  As used in this chapter:68085

       (A) "Average weekly wage," "employment," "employer," 68086
"partially unemployed," and "totally unemployed" have the same 68087
meanings as in section 4141.01 of the Revised Code.68088

       (B) "Duration of unemployment" means the full period of 68089
unemployment next ensuing after a separation from any base period, 68090
as defined in rules adopted under section 4143.03 of the Revised 68091
Code, or subsequent work and until an individual has become 68092
reemployed in employment subject to this chapter, or the 68093
unemployment compensation act of another state, or of the United 68094
States, and until such individual has worked six weeks and for 68095
those weeks has earned or been paid remuneration equal to six 68096
times an average weekly wage of not less than the amount as 68097
determined in the rules adopted by the director of job and family 68098
services under section 4143.03 of the Revised Code.68099

       (C) "Grant year," with respect to an individual, means the 68100
fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week 68101
with respect to which the individual first files a valid 68102
application for a grant under this chapter, and thereafter the 68103
fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week 68104
with respect to which the individual next files a valid 68105
application after the termination of the individual's last 68106
preceding grant year, except that the application shall not be 68107
considered valid unless the individual has had employment in six 68108
weeks and has, since the beginning of the individual's previous 68109
grant year, in the employment earned three times the average 68110
weekly wage determined for the previous grant year.68111

       (D) "Qualifying week" means any calendar week in an 68112
individual's base period with respect to which the individual 68113
earns or is paid remuneration in employment.68114

       (E) "Seasonal employment" has the same meaning as in section 68115
4141.33 of the Revised Code.68116

       (F) "Unemployment compensation" has the same meaning as in 68117
section 4141.284 of the Revised Code.68118

       Sec. 4143.02.  There is hereby created the military spouse 68119
compensation grant program to provide compensation to an 68120
individual who leaves employment to accompany the individual's 68121
spouse on a military transfer. The director of job and family 68122
services shall administer the program in accordance with the 68123
requirements of this chapter.68124

       Sec. 4143.03.  (A) With respect to the military spouse 68125
compensation grant program created in section 4143.02 of the 68126
Revised Code, the director of job and family services, in 68127
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 68128
rules that establish all of the following:68129

       (1) Eligibility requirements an individual shall satisfy to 68130
receive a grant under section 4143.04 of the Revised Code, 68131
including the definition of an individual's "base period," which 68132
shall be similar to the requirements an individual must satisfy to 68133
receive unemployment compensation under Chapter 4141. of the 68134
Revised Code;68135

       (2) Procedures for an individual to follow to apply for a 68136
grant and procedures for the awarding and payment of grants in 68137
accordance with section 4143.04 of the Revised Code, that shall be 68138
similar to the manner in which claims for unemployment 68139
compensation are applied for, awarded, and paid pursuant to 68140
Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code;68141

       (3) Requirements to determine an individual's duration of 68142
unemployment;68143

       (4) Requirements for the reduction in grant amounts, that 68144
shall be similar to the requirements specified in sections 4141.31 68145
and 4141.312 of the Revised Code;68146

       (5) Procedures and requirements addressing child support 68147
obligations, that shall be similar to the procedures and 68148
requirements described in section 4141.284 of the Revised Code;68149

       (6) Requirements for eligibility for an individual who has 68150
seasonal employment, that shall be similar to the requirements 68151
described in section 4141.33 of the Revised Code;68152

       (7) Procedures to allow an individual to appeal a 68153
determination made by the director under this chapter in 68154
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, including the 68155
time limits in which the individual has to file an appeal;68156

       (8) Penalties for overpayments, and procedures to collect 68157
those overpayments, that shall be similar to penalties and 68158
procedures described in section 4141.35 of the Revised Code.68159

       (B) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 68160
Revised Code, may adopt any other rules as the director determines 68161
necessary to administer and enforce this chapter. Any rules 68162
adopted under this division shall be consistent with any similar 68163
provision addressed in Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.68164

       (C) The director may apply any agreement the director has 68165
entered into pursuant to section 4141.43 of the Revised Code, to 68166
the extent permitted under an agreement, in administering this 68167
chapter, or the director may enter into similar agreements as the 68168
director determines necessary. The director shall cooperate with 68169
other agencies as described in division (A) of section 4141.35 of 68170
the Revised Code in the administration of this chapter.68171

       Sec. 4143.04.  (A) An individual is eligible to receive a 68172
grant under the military spouse compensation grant program created 68173
in section 4143.02 of the Revised Code for a week in which the 68174
individual satisfies all of the following requirements:68175

       (1) The individual's spouse is a member of the armed services 68176
of the United States, the spouse is the subject of a military 68177
transfer, and the individual left employment to accompany the 68178
individual's spouse.68179

       (2) The individual is not otherwise eligible for unemployment 68180
compensation;68181

       (3) The individual satisfies the eligibility requirements 68182
established by the director of job and family services in the 68183
rules the director adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised 68184
Code.68185

       (B) The director may use the information the director obtains 68186
under section 4141.162 of the Revised Code to determine an 68187
individual's eligibility for a grant under this section.68188

       (C) All grants shall be paid through public employment 68189
offices in accordance with the rules as the director adopts under 68190
section 4143.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall use 68191
eligible funds to issue grants established in this section, except 68192
from the unemployment compensation fund established in section 68193
4141.09 of the Revised Code. 68194

       (D) A grant is payable to an eligible and qualified 68195
individual for each week the individual is totally unemployed at 68196
the weekly grant amount determined by the following:68197

       (1) Computing the individual's average weekly wage;68198

       (2) Determining the individual's dependency class under 68199
division (G) of this section;68200

       (3) Computing the individual's weekly grant amount to be 68201
fifty per cent of the individual's average weekly wage, that shall 68202
not exceed the following amounts:68203

       (a) For dependency class A, fifty per cent of the statewide 68204
average weekly wage as calculated under section 4141.30 of the 68205
Revised Code; 68206

       (b) For dependency class B, sixty per cent of the statewide 68207
average weekly wage;68208

       (c) For dependency class C, sixty-six and two-thirds per cent 68209
of the statewide average weekly wage.68210

       (E) A grant is payable to each partially unemployed 68211
individual otherwise eligible on account of each week the 68212
individual is partially unemployed in an amount equal to the 68213
individual's weekly grant amount determined under division (B) of 68214
this section less that part of the remuneration payable to the 68215
individual with respect to that week that is in excess of twenty 68216
per cent of the individual's weekly grant amount.68217

       (F) The total amount of a grant to which an individual is 68218
entitled in any grant year, whether for partial or total 68219
unemployment, or both, shall not exceed the lesser of the 68220
following two amounts:68221

       (1) An amount equal to twenty-six times the individual's 68222
weekly grant amount determined in accordance with division (B) of 68223
this section and this division;68224

       (2) An amount computed by taking the sum of twenty times the 68225
individual's weekly grant amount for the first twenty base period 68226
qualifying weeks plus one times the weekly grant amount for each 68227
additional qualifying week beyond the first twenty qualifying 68228
weeks in the individual's base period.68229

       (G)(1) As used in this division, "dependent" has the same 68230
meaning as in section 4141.30 of the Revised Code.68231

       (2) Each eligible and qualified individual shall be assigned 68232
a dependency class in accordance with the following schedule:68233

Class Description of dependents 68234
A No dependents, or has insufficient wages to qualify for more than the maximum weekly grant amount as provided under dependency class A 68235
B One or two dependents 68236
C Three or more dependents 68237

       (H) Any weekly grant amount that is not a multiple of one 68238
dollar shall be rounded to the next lower multiple of one dollar. 68239
Any grant paid under this section shall be calculated against the 68240
maximum total unemployment compensation payable to the individual 68241
in a benefit year under section 4141.30 of the Revised Code.68242

       (I) If permitted by the United States secretary of labor, a 68243
grant paid under this section shall be considered regular benefits 68244
for purposes of section 4141.301 of the Revised Code. If an 68245
individual who receives a grant under this section is eligible for 68246
extended benefits under section 4141.301 of the Revised Code, 68247
notwithstanding section 4141.09 or division (J) or (L) of section 68248
4141.301 of the Revised Code, extended benefits that may become 68249
payable to that individual that are chargeable to the account of 68250
an employer from whom the individual was separated under division 68251
(A) of this section shall not be charged to that account and shall 68252
be paid from the funds used to pay grants under this section.68253

       Sec. 4143.05.  The director of job and family services shall 68254
reduce the amount of any weekly grant amount paid under section 68255
4143.04 of the Revised Code in accordance with the rules the 68256
director adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised Code. The 68257
director shall make any deduction from such a grant for purposes 68258
of federal income tax payment in a similar manner as the director 68259
makes that deduction under section 4141.321 of the Revised Code 68260
with respect to unemployment compensation.68261

       Sec. 4143.06.  An individual may appeal a determination made 68262
by the director of job and family services in accordance with the 68263
rules the director adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised 68264
Code. The determination made upon completion of that appeals 68265
process is a final determination that may be appealed pursuant to 68266
section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 68267

       Sec. 4143.07.  (A) Except with respect to the rules adopted 68268
by the director of job and family services under section 4143.03 68269
of the Revised Code concerning child support obligations:68270

       (1) No agreement by an individual to waive the individual's 68271
right to a grant under this chapter is valid, nor shall a grant be 68272
assigned, released, or commuted.68273

       (2) A grant is exempt from all claims of creditors and from 68274
levy, execution, garnishment, attachment, and all other process or 68275
remedy for recovery or collection of a debt, and that exemption 68276
may not be waived.68277

       (B) No individual claiming a grant under this chapter shall 68278
be charged fees of any kind by the director in any proceeding 68279
under this chapter. Any individual claiming a grant may represent 68280
the individual's self personally or be represented by a person 68281
admitted to the practice of law or by a person not admitted to the 68282
practice of law in any proceeding under this chapter before the 68283
director, but no such counsel or agent representing an individual 68284
claiming a grant shall either charge or receive for those services 68285
more than an amount approved by the director. No person shall 68286
charge or receive anything of value in violation of this division.68287

       (C) No employee or other person shall violate this chapter, 68288
or do any act prohibited by this chapter, or fail to perform any 68289
duty lawfully enjoined, within the time prescribed by the 68290
director, for which no penalty has been specifically provided, or 68291
fail to obey any lawful order given or made by the director or any 68292
judgment or decree made by any court in connection with this 68293
chapter. Every day during which any person fails to comply with 68294
any order of the director or to perform any duty enjoined by this 68295
chapter constitutes a separate violation of the order or of this 68296
chapter.68297

       Sec. 4143.08.  The director of job and family services shall 68298
enforce this chapter in accordance with the rules the director 68299
adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised Code. In administering 68300
and enforcing this chapter, the director shall give great weight 68301
and deference to decisions made under Chapter 4141. of the Revised 68302
Code with respect to unemployment compensation.68303

       The director may administer oaths, certify to official acts, 68304
take depositions, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance and 68305
testimony of witnesses and the production of documents and 68306
testimony in connection with the administration of this chapter. 68307
In case of the refusal of a witness to attend or testify, or to 68308
produce documents, as to any matter regarding which the witness 68309
might be lawfully interrogated in the administration of this 68310
chapter, the court of common pleas of the county in which the 68311
person resides or is found, the court of appeals that has 68312
jurisdiction over the county in which the person resides or is 68313
found, or a judge thereof, upon application of the director, shall 68314
compel obedience by proceedings as for contempt as in case of like 68315
refusal to obey a similar order of the court.68316

       Sec. 4143.09.  This chapter shall be liberally construed.68317

       Sec. 4143.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (B) of section 68318
4143.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 68319
first degree.68320

       (B) Whoever violates division (C) of section 4143.07 of the 68321
Revised Code shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars for 68322
the first offense, and for each subsequent offense, the person 68323
shall be fined not less than twenty-five dollars nor more than one 68324
thousand dollars.68325

       Sec. 4301.10.  (A) The division of liquor control shall do 68326
all of the following:68327

       (1) Control the traffic in beer and intoxicating liquor in 68328
this state, including the manufacture, importation, and sale of 68329
beer and intoxicating liquor;68330

       (2) Grant or refuse permits for the manufacture, 68331
distribution, transportation, and sale of beer and intoxicating 68332
liquor and the sale of alcohol, as authorized or required by this 68333
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code. A certificate, 68334
signed by the superintendent of liquor control and to which is 68335
affixed the official seal of the division, stating that it appears 68336
from the records of the division that no permit has been issued to 68337
the person specified in the certificate, or that a permit, if 68338
issued, has been revoked, canceled, or suspended, shall be 68339
received as prima-facie evidence of the facts recited in the 68340
certificate in any court or before any officer of this state.68341

       (3) Put into operation, manage, and control a system of state 68342
liquor stores for the sale of spirituous liquor at retail and to 68343
holders of permits authorizing the sale of spirituous liquor; 68344
however, the division shall not establish any drive-in state 68345
liquor stores; and by means of those types of stores, and any 68346
manufacturing plants, distributing and bottling plants, 68347
warehouses, and other facilities that it considers expedient, 68348
establish and maintain a state monopoly of the distribution of 68349
spirituous liquor and its sale in packages or containers; and for 68350
that purpose, manufacture, buy, import, possess, and sell 68351
spirituous liquors as provided in this chapter and Chapter 4303. 68352
of the Revised Code, and in the rules promulgated by the 68353
superintendent of liquor control pursuant to those chapters; lease 68354
or in any manner acquire the use of any land or building required 68355
for any of those purposes; purchase any equipment that is 68356
required; and borrow money to carry on its business, and issue, 68357
sign, endorse, and accept notes, checks, and bills of exchange; 68358
but all obligations of the division created under authority of 68359
this division shall be a charge only upon the moneys received by 68360
the division from the sale of spirituous liquor and its other 68361
business transactions in connection with the sale of spirituous 68362
liquor, and shall not be general obligations of the state;68363

       (4) Enforce the administrative provisions of this chapter and 68364
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and the rules and orders of the 68365
liquor control commission and the superintendent relating to the 68366
manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and sale 68367
of beer or intoxicating liquor. The attorney general, any 68368
prosecuting attorney, and any prosecuting officer of a municipal 68369
corporation or a municipal court shall, at the request of the 68370
division of liquor control or the department of public safety, 68371
prosecute any person charged with the violation of any provision 68372
in those chapters or of any section of the Revised Code relating 68373
to the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 68374
sale of beer or intoxicating liquor.68375

       (5) Determine the locations of all state liquor stores and 68376
manufacturing, distributing, and bottling plants required in 68377
connection with those stores, subject to this chapter and Chapter 68378
4303. of the Revised Code;68379

       (6) Conduct inspections of liquor permit premises to 68380
determine compliance with the administrative provisions of this 68381
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code and the rules 68382
adopted under those provisions by the liquor control commission.68383

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(6) of this 68384
section, those inspections may be conducted only during those 68385
hours in which the permit holder is open for business and only by 68386
authorized agents or employees of the division or by any peace 68387
officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code. 68388
Inspections may be conducted at other hours only to determine 68389
compliance with laws or commission rules that regulate the hours 68390
of sale of beer or intoxicating liquor and only if the 68391
investigator has reasonable cause to believe that those laws or 68392
rules are being violated. Any inspection conducted pursuant to 68393
division (A)(6) of this section is subject to all of the following 68394
requirements:68395

       (a) The only property that may be confiscated is contraband, 68396
as defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, or property 68397
that is otherwise necessary for evidentiary purposes.68398

       (b) A complete inventory of all property confiscated from the 68399
premises shall be given to the permit holder or the permit 68400
holder's agent or employee by the confiscating agent or officer at 68401
the conclusion of the inspection. At that time, the inventory 68402
shall be signed by the confiscating agent or officer, and the 68403
agent or officer shall give the permit holder or the permit 68404
holder's agent or employee the opportunity to sign the inventory.68405

       (c) Inspections conducted pursuant to division (A)(6) of this 68406
section shall be conducted in a reasonable manner. A finding by 68407
any court of competent jurisdiction that an inspection was not 68408
conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance with this section 68409
or any rules adopted by the commission may be considered grounds 68410
for suppression of evidence. A finding by the commission that an 68411
inspection was not conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance 68412
with this section or any rules adopted by it may be considered 68413
grounds for dismissal of the commission case.68414

       If any court of competent jurisdiction finds that property 68415
confiscated as the result of an administrative inspection is not 68416
necessary for evidentiary purposes and is not contraband, as 68417
defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, the court shall 68418
order the immediate return of the confiscated property, provided 68419
that property is not otherwise subject to forfeiture, to the 68420
permit holder. However, the return of this property is not grounds 68421
for dismissal of the case. The commission likewise may order the 68422
return of confiscated property if no criminal prosecution is 68423
pending or anticipated.68424

       (7) Delegate to any of its agents or employees any power of 68425
investigation that the division possesses with respect to the 68426
enforcement of any of the administrative laws relating to beer or 68427
intoxicating liquor, provided that this division does not 68428
authorize the division to designate any agent or employee to serve 68429
as an enforcement agent. The employment and designation of 68430
enforcement agents shall be within the exclusive authority of the 68431
director of public safety pursuant to sections 5502.13 to 5502.19 68432
of the Revised Code.68433

       (8) Collect the following fees:68434

       (a) A biennial fifty-dollar registration fee for each agent, 68435
solicitor, trade marketing professional, or salesperson, 68436
registered pursuant to section 4303.25 of the Revised Code, of a 68437
beer or intoxicating liquor manufacturer, supplier, broker, trade 68438
marketing company, or wholesale distributor doing business in this 68439
state;68440

       (b) A fifty-dollar product registration fee for each new beer 68441
or intoxicating liquor product sold in this state. The product 68442
registration fee also applies to products sold in this state by 68443
B-2a and S permit holders. The product registration fee shall be 68444
accompanied by a copy of the federal label and product approval 68445
for the new product.68446

       (c) An annual three-hundred-dollar supplier registration fee 68447
from each manufacturer or supplier that produces and ships into 68448
this state, or ships into this state, intoxicating liquor or beer, 68449
in addition to an initial application fee of one hundred dollars. 68450
A manufacturer that produces and ships beer or wine into this 68451
state and that holds only an S permit is exempt from the supplier 68452
registration fee. A manufacturer that produces and ships wine into 68453
this state and that holds a B-2a permit shall pay an annual 68454
seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A manufacturer that 68455
produces and ships wine into this state and that does not hold 68456
either an S or a B-2a permit, but that produces less than two 68457
hundred fifty thousand gallons of wine per year and that is 68458
entitled to a tax credit under 27 C.F.R. 24.278 shall pay an 68459
annual seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A B-2a or S 68460
permit holder that does not sell its wine to wholesale 68461
distributors of wine in this state and an S permit holder that 68462
does not sell its beer to wholesale distributors of beer in this 68463
state shall not be required to submit to the division territory 68464
designation forms.68465

       Each supplier, agent, solicitor, trade marketing 68466
professional, or salesperson registration issued under this 68467
division shall authorize the person named to carry on the activity 68468
specified in the registration. Each agent, solicitor, trade 68469
marketing professional, or salesperson registration is valid for 68470
two years or for the unexpired portion of a two-year registration 68471
period. Each supplier registration is valid for one year or for 68472
the unexpired portion of a one-year registration period. 68473
Registrations shall end on their respective uniform expiration 68474
date, which shall be designated by the division, and are subject 68475
to suspension, revocation, cancellation, or fine as authorized by 68476
this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code.68477

       As used in this division, "trade marketing company" and 68478
"trade marketing professional" have the same meanings as in 68479
section 4301.171 of the Revised Code.68480

       (9) Establish a system of electronic data interchange within 68481
the division and regulate the electronic transfer of information 68482
and funds among persons and governmental entities engaged in the 68483
manufacture, distribution, and retail sale of alcoholic beverages;68484

       (10) Notify all holders of retail permits of the forms of 68485
permissible identification for purposes of division (A) of section 68486
4301.639 of the Revised Code;68487

       (11) Exercise all other powers expressly or by necessary 68488
implication conferred upon the division by this chapter and 68489
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and all powers necessary for 68490
the exercise or discharge of any power, duty, or function 68491
expressly conferred or imposed upon the division by those 68492
chapters.68493

       (B) The division may do all of the following:68494

       (1) Sue, but may be sued only in connection with the 68495
execution of leases of real estate and the purchases and contracts 68496
necessary for the operation of the state liquor stores that are 68497
made under this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code;68498

       (2) Enter into leases and contracts of all descriptions and 68499
acquire and transfer title to personal property with regard to the 68500
sale, distribution, and storage of spirituous liquor within the 68501
state;68502

       (3) Terminate at will any lease entered into pursuant to 68503
division (B)(2) of this section upon first giving ninety days' 68504
notice in writing to the lessor of its intention to do so;68505

       (4) Fix the wholesale and retail prices at which the various 68506
classes, varieties, and brands of spirituous liquor shall be sold 68507
by the division. Those retail prices shall be the same at all 68508
state liquor stores, except to the extent that a price 68509
differential is required to collect a county sales tax levied 68510
pursuant to section 5739.021 of the Revised Code and for which tax 68511
the tax commissioner has authorized prepayment pursuant to section 68512
5739.05 of the Revised Code. In fixing selling prices, the 68513
division shall compute an anticipated gross profit at least 68514
sufficient to provide in each calendar year all costs and expenses 68515
of the division and also an adequate working capital reserve for 68516
the division. The gross profit shall not exceed forty per cent of 68517
the retail selling price based on costs of the division, and in 68518
addition the sum required by section 4301.12 of the Revised Code 68519
to be paid into the state treasury. An amount equal to one and 68520
one-half per cent of that gross profit shall be paid into the 68521
statewide treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 68522
of the Revised Code and be appropriated by the general assembly 68523
from the fund to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 68524
servicesmental health and addiction services as provided in 68525
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code.68526

       On spirituous liquor manufactured in this state from the 68527
juice of grapes or fruits grown in this state, the division shall 68528
compute an anticipated gross profit of not to exceed ten per cent. 68529

       The wholesale prices fixed under this division shall be at a 68530
discount of not less than six per cent of the retail selling 68531
prices as determined by the division in accordance with this 68532
section.68533

       (C) The division may approve the expansion or diminution of a 68534
premises to which a liquor permit has been issued and may adopt 68535
standards governing such an expansion or diminution.68536

       Sec. 4301.30.  (A) All fees collected by the division of 68537
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 68538
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 68539
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 68540
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 68541
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 68542
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 68543
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. 68544

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 68545
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 68546
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 68547
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 68548
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 68549
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 68550
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 68551
credited to the fund.68552

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 68553
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 68554
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 68555
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 68556
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 68557
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 68558
amount to the general revenue fund.68559

        (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 68560
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 68561
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 68562
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 68563
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 68564
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 68565
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 68566
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. 68567
In planning for the allocation of and in allocating these amounts 68568
for the purposes of Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code, the 68569
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall comply 68570
with the nondiscrimination provisions of Title VI of the Civil 68571
Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted under that act.68572

        (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 68573
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 68574
quarterly calendar periods as follows:68575

       (1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount shown 68576
by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 68577
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 68578
municipal corporation;68579

       (2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 68580
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 68581
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 68582
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 68583
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 68584
township or in an established fire district within the township, 68585
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 68586
within the territory comprising such fire district.68587

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 68588
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 68589
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 68590
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 68591
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 68592
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 68593
state.68594

        (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 68595
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 68596
entitled to share in distributions under this section are refusing 68597
or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and Chapter 4303. 68598
of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state relating to 68599
the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 68600
sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the prosecuting 68601
officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal court fails to 68602
comply with the request of the commission authorized by division 68603
(A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, the commission, by 68604
certified mail, may notify the chief executive officer of the 68605
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the 68606
township of the failure and require the immediate cooperation of 68607
the responsible officers of the municipal corporation or township 68608
with the division of liquor control in the enforcement of those 68609
chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days after the notice is 68610
served, the commission shall determine whether the requirement has 68611
been complied with. If the commission determines that the 68612
requirement has not been complied with, it may issue an order to 68613
the superintendent to withhold the distributive share of the 68614
municipal corporation or township until further order of the 68615
commission. This action of the commission is reviewable within 68616
thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of Franklin 68617
county.68618

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 68619
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 68620
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 68621
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 68622
regulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount equal to 68623
fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from the state 68624
liquor regulatory fund into the general revenue fund.68625

       Sec. 4301.43.  (A) As used in sections 4301.43 to 4301.50 of 68626
the Revised Code:68627

       (1) "Gallon" or "wine gallon" means one hundred twenty-eight 68628
fluid ounces.68629

       (2) "Sale" or "sell" includes exchange, barter, gift, 68630
distribution, and, except with respect to A-4 permit holders, 68631
offer for sale.68632

       (B) For the purposes of providing revenues for the support of 68633
the state and encouraging the grape industries in the state, a tax 68634
is hereby levied on the sale or distribution of wine in Ohio, 68635
except for known sacramental purposes, at the rate of thirty cents 68636
per wine gallon for wine containing not less than four per cent of 68637
alcohol by volume and not more than fourteen per cent of alcohol 68638
by volume, ninety-eight cents per wine gallon for wine containing 68639
more than fourteen per cent but not more than twenty-one per cent 68640
of alcohol by volume, one dollar and eight cents per wine gallon 68641
for vermouth, and one dollar and forty-eight cents per wine gallon 68642
for sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the tax to be 68643
paid by the holders of A-2 and B-5 permits or by any other person 68644
selling or distributing wine upon which no tax has been paid. From 68645
the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, and sparkling 68646
and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of state shall 68647
credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under section 68648
924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to one cent per gallon for 68649
each gallon upon which the tax is paid.68650

       (C) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 68651
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on prepared and bottled 68652
highballs, cocktails, cordials, and other mixed beverages at the 68653
rate of one dollar and twenty cents per wine gallon to be paid by 68654
holders of A-4 permits or by any other person selling or 68655
distributing those products upon which no tax has been paid. Only 68656
one sale of the same article shall be used in computing the amount 68657
of tax due. The tax on mixed beverages to be paid by holders of 68658
A-4 permits under this section shall not attach until the 68659
ownership of the mixed beverage is transferred for valuable 68660
consideration to a wholesaler or retailer, and no payment of the 68661
tax shall be required prior to that time.68662

       (D) During the period of July 1, 20112013, through June 30, 68663
20132015, from the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, 68664
and sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of 68665
state shall credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under 68666
section 924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to two cents per 68667
gallon upon which the tax is paid. The amount credited under this 68668
division is in addition to the amount credited to the Ohio grape 68669
industries fund under division (B) of this section.68670

       (E) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 68671
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on cider at the rate of 68672
twenty-four cents per wine gallon to be paid by the holders of A-2 68673
and B-5 permits or by any other person selling or distributing 68674
cider upon which no tax has been paid. Only one sale of the same 68675
article shall be used in computing the amount of the tax due.68676

       Sec. 4305.131.  (A) If any permit holder fails to pay the 68677
taxes levied by section 4301.42, 4301.43, 4301.432, or 4305.01 of 68678
the Revised Code in the manner prescribed by section 4303.33 of 68679
the Revised Code, or by section 4301.421 or 4301.424 of the 68680
Revised Code in the manner prescribed in section 4301.422 of the 68681
Revised Code, and by the rules of the tax commissioner, the 68682
commissioner may make an assessment against the permit holder 68683
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.68684

       No assessment shall be made against any permit holder for any 68685
taxes imposed by section 4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 68686
4301.432, or 4305.01 of the Revised Code more than three years 68687
after the last day of the calendar month in which the sale was 68688
made or more than three years after the return for that period is 68689
filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an assessment 68690
against any permit holder or registrant as provided in section 68691
4303.331 of the Revised Code who fails to file a return as 68692
required by section 4301.422 or 4303.33 of the Revised Code, or 68693
who files a fraudulent return.68694

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 68695
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 68696
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 68697
penalties added to assessments made under this section.68698

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 68699
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 68700
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 68701
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 68702
hearing on the petition.68703

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 68704
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 68705
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 68706
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 68707
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 68708
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 68709
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 68710
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 68711
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 68712
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 68713
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 68714
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.68715

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 68716
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 68717
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 68718
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 68719
pleas in the county in which the permit holder's place of business 68720
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 68721
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 68722
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 68723
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 68724
common pleas of Franklin county.68725

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 68726
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 68727
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 68728
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state beer 68729
and liquor sales taxes," and shall have the same effect as other 68730
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 68731
request of the commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 68732
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment, except as 68733
otherwise provided in this chapter and Chapters 4301. and 4307. of 68734
the Revised Code.68735

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety68736
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 68737
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 68738
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 68739
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 68740
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 68741
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 68742
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 68743
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 68744
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 68745
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 68746
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 68747
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 68748
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 68749
section.68750

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 68751
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by sections 68752
4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 4301.432, and 4305.01 of the 68753
Revised Code.68754

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 68755
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 68756
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:68757

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 68758
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 68759
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 68760
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 68761
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 68762
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 68763
a department in the discharge of its functions.68764

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 68765
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 68766
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 68767
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 68768
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 68769
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 68770
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 68771
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 68772
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 68773
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 68774
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 68775
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 68776
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 68777
miles per hour or less.68778

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 68779
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 68780
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 68781
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 68782
principally for agricultural purposes.68783

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 68784
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 68785
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 68786
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 68787
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.68788

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 68789
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 68790
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 68791
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.68792

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 68793
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 68794
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 68795
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 68796
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 68797
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 68798
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 68799
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 68800
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 68801
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 68802
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 68803
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 68804
of other states.68805

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 68806
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 68807
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 68808
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 68809
general transportation.68810

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 68811
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 68812
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 68813
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 68814
than engaging in business for profit.68815

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 68816
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 68817
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 68818
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.68819

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 68820
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 68821
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.68822

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 68823
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 68824
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 68825
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 68826
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 68827
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.68828

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 68829
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 68830
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 68831
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 68832
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 68833
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 68834
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.68835

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 68836
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 68837
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 68838
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 68839
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 68840
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 68841
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 68842
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 68843
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 68844
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 68845
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 68846
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 68847
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 68848
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 68849
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.68850

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 68851
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 68852
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 68853
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 68854
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 68855
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 68856
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 68857
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 68858
purposes.68859

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 68860
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 68861
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 68862
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 68863
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 68864
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 68865
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 68866
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 68867
Code.68868

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 68869
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 68870
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 68871
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 68872
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 68873
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 68874
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 68875
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 68876
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 68877
a trailer.68878

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 68879
structure that meets all of the following conditions:68880

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 68881
travel.68882

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 68883
for profit.68884

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 68885
commerce.68886

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 68887
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.68888

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 68889
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.68890

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:68891

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 68892
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 68893
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 68894
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 68895
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 68896
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.68897

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 68898
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 68899
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 68900
food, and for sleeping.68901

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 68902
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 68903
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 68904
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 68905
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 68906
a dwelling.68907

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 68908
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 68909
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 68910
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 68911
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 68912
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 68913
of a truck.68914

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 68915
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 68916
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 68917
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 68918
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 68919
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 68920
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.68921

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 68922
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.68923

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 68924
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 68925
the load.68926

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 68927
with two or more solid tires.68928

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 68929
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 68930
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 68931
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 68932
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 68933
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 68934
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 68935
and vegetable products.68936

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 68937
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 68938
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 68939
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.68940

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 68941
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 68942
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 68943
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 68944
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 68945
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 68946
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 68947
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 68948
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 68949
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 68950
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 68951
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 68952
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 68953
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 68954
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 68955
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 68956
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 68957
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 68958
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 68959
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 68960
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 68961
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 68962
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 68963
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 68964
vehicles.68965

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 68966
motor vehicle upon the public highways.68967

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 68968
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 68969
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 68970
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 68971
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 68972
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 68973
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 68974
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 68975
compensation, or profit.68976

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 68977
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.68978

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 68979
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.68980

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 68981
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 68982
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.68983

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 68984
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 68985
vehicle.68986

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 68987
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 68988
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 68989
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 68990
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 68991
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 68992
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 68993
licensed dealership.68994

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 68995
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 68996
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 68997
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.68998

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 68999
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 69000
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 69001
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 69002
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 69003
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:69004

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 69005
of twenty-six thousand pounds;69006

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 69007
the gross vehicle weight;69008

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 69009
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.69010

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 69011
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 69012
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 69013
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 69014
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.69015

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 69016
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 69017
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 69018
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 69019
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 69020
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 69021
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 69022
left the place of origin.69023

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 69024
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 69025
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 69026
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 69027
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 69028
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 69029
jurisdictions.69030

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 69031
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 69032
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 69033
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.69034

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 69035
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 69036
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 69037
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 69038
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.69039

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 69040
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 69041
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 69042
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 69043
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 69044
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.69045

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 69046
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 69047
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 69048
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 69049
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 69050
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 69051
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 69052
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 69053
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 69054
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 69055
directing.69056

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 69057
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.69058

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 69059
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 69060
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 69061
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 69062
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 69063
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.69064

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 69065
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 69066
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.69067

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 69068
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 69069
an information system or for transmission from one information 69070
system to another.69071

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 69072
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 69073
record.69074

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 69075
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.69076

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 69077
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 69078
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 69079
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 69080
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 69081
vehicle dealer under that section.69082

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 69083
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 69084
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 69085
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 69086
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 69087
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.69088

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 69089
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 69090
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 69091
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 69092
been suspended.69093

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 69094
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 69095
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 69096
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 69097
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 69098
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 69099
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 69100
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 69101
maintenance of state park facilities.69102

       Sec. 4501.21.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 69103
treasury the license plate contribution fund. The fund shall 69104
consist of all contributions paid by motor vehicle registrants and 69105
collected by the registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to sections 69106
4503.491, 4503.493, 4503.494, 4503.496, 4503.498, 4503.499, 69107
4503.50, 4503.501, 4503.502, 4503.505, 4503.51, 4503.522, 69108
4503.523, 4503.524, 4503.531, 4503.545, 4503.55, 4503.551, 69109
4503.552, 4503.553, 4503.561, 4503.562, 4503.564, 4503.591, 69110
4503.67, 4503.68, 4503.69, 4503.701, 4503.71, 4503.711, 4503.712, 69111
4503.713, 4503.72, 4503.73, 4503.732, 4503.74, 4503.75, 4503.751, 69112
4503.85, 4503.89, 4503.92, and 4503.94 of the Revised Code. 69113

       (B) The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69114
collects in the fund as follows: 69115

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69116
to section 4503.491 of the Revised Code to the breast cancer fund 69117
of Ohio, which shall use that money only to pay for programs that 69118
provide assistance and education to Ohio breast cancer patients 69119
and that improve access for such patients to quality health care 69120
and clinical trials and shall not use any of the money for 69121
abortion information, counseling, services, or other 69122
abortion-related activities. 69123

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69124
to section 4503.493 of the Revised Code to the autism society of 69125
Ohio, which shall use the contributions for programs and autism 69126
awareness efforts throughout the state. 69127

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69128
receives pursuant to section 4503.494 of the Revised Code to the 69129
national multiple sclerosis society for distribution in equal 69130
amounts to the northwestern Ohio, Ohio buckeye, and Ohio valley 69131
chapters of the national multiple sclerosis society. These 69132
chapters shall use the money they receive under this section to 69133
assist in paying the expenses they incur in providing services 69134
directly to their clients.69135

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69136
receives pursuant to section 4503.496 of the Revised Code to the 69137
Ohio sickle cell and health association, which shall use the 69138
contributions to help support educational, clinical, and social 69139
support services for adults who have sickle cell disease.69140

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69141
receives pursuant to section 4503.498 of the Revised Code to 69142
special olympics Ohio, inc., which shall use the contributions for 69143
its programs, charitable efforts, and other activities. 69144

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69145
receives pursuant to section 4503.499 of the Revised Code to the 69146
children's glioma cancer foundation, which shall use the 69147
contributions for its research and other programs. 69148

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69149
receives pursuant to section 4503.50 of the Revised Code to the 69150
future farmers of America foundation, which shall deposit the 69151
contributions into its general account to be used for educational 69152
and scholarship purposes of the future farmers of America 69153
foundation. 69154

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69155
receives pursuant to section 4503.501 of the Revised Code to the 69156
4-H youth development program of the Ohio state university 69157
extension program, which shall use those contributions to pay the 69158
expenses it incurs in conducting its educational activities. 69159

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69160
to section 4503.502 of the Revised Code to the Ohio cattlemen's 69161
foundation, which shall use those contributions for scholarships 69162
and other educational activities. 69163

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69164
to section 4503.505 of the Revised Code to the organization Ohio 69165
region phi theta kappa, which shall use those contributions for 69166
scholarships for students who are members of that organization. 69167

        The registrar shall pay each contribution the registrar 69168
receives pursuant to section 4503.51 of the Revised Code to the 69169
university or college whose name or marking or design appears on 69170
collegiate license plates that are issued to a person under that 69171
section. A university or college that receives contributions from 69172
the fund shall deposit the contributions into its general 69173
scholarship fund. 69174

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69175
receives pursuant to section 4503.522 of the Revised Code to the 69176
"friends of Perry's victory and international peace memorial, 69177
incorporated," a nonprofit corporation organized under the laws of 69178
this state, to assist that organization in paying the expenses it 69179
incurs in sponsoring or holding charitable, educational, and 69180
cultural events at the monument. 69181

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69182
receives pursuant to section 4503.523 of the Revised Code to the 69183
fairport lights foundation, which shall use the money to pay for 69184
the restoration, maintenance, and preservation of the lighthouses 69185
of fairport harbor. 69186

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69187
receives pursuant to section 4503.524 of the Revised Code to the 69188
Massillon tiger football booster club, which shall use the 69189
contributions only to promote and support the football team of 69190
Washington high school of the Massillon city school district.69191

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69192
receives pursuant to section 4503.531 of the Revised Code to the 69193
thank you foundation, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation 69194
organized under the laws of this state, to assist that 69195
organization in paying for the charitable activities and programs 69196
it sponsors in support of United States military personnel, 69197
veterans, and their families.69198

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69199
receives pursuant to section 4503.55 of the Revised Code to the 69200
pro football hall of fame, which shall deposit the contributions 69201
into a special bank account that it establishes and which shall be 69202
separate and distinct from any other account the pro football hall 69203
of fame maintains, to be used exclusively for the purpose of 69204
promoting the pro football hall of fame as a travel destination. 69205

        The registrar shall pay the contributions that are paid to 69206
the registrar pursuant to section 4503.545 of the Revised Code to 69207
the national rifle association foundation, which shall use the 69208
money to pay the costs of the educational activities and programs 69209
the foundation holds or sponsors in this state. 69210

        The registrar shall pay to the Ohio pet fund the 69211
contributions the registrar receives pursuant to section 4503.551 69212
of the Revised Code and any other money from any other source, 69213
including donations, gifts, and grants, that is designated by the 69214
source to be paid to the Ohio pet fund. The Ohio pet fund shall 69215
use the moneys it receives under this section to support programs 69216
for the sterilization of dogs and cats and for educational 69217
programs concerning the proper veterinary care of those animals, 69218
and for expenses of the Ohio pet fund that are reasonably 69219
necessary for it to obtain and maintain its tax-exempt status and 69220
to perform its duties. 69221

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69222
receives pursuant to section 4503.552 of the Revised Code to the 69223
rock and roll hall of fame and museum, incorporated. 69224

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69225
receives pursuant to section 4503.553 of the Revised Code to the 69226
Ohio coalition for animals, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation. 69227
Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the coalition 69228
shall distribute the money to its members, and the members shall 69229
use the money only to pay for educational, charitable, and other 69230
programs of each coalition member that provide care for unwanted, 69231
abused, and neglected horses. The Ohio coalition for animals may 69232
use a portion of the money to pay for reasonable marketing costs 69233
incurred in the design and promotion of the license plate and for 69234
administrative costs incurred in the disbursement and management 69235
of funds received under this section. 69236

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69237
receives pursuant to section 4503.561 of the Revised Code to the 69238
state of Ohio chapter of ducks unlimited, inc., which shall 69239
deposit the contributions into a special bank account that it 69240
establishes. The special bank account shall be separate and 69241
distinct from any other account the state of Ohio chapter of ducks 69242
unlimited, inc., maintains and shall be used exclusively for the 69243
purpose of protecting, enhancing, restoring, and managing wetlands 69244
and conserving wildlife habitat. The state of Ohio chapter of 69245
ducks unlimited, inc., annually shall notify the registrar in 69246
writing of the name, address, and account to which such payments 69247
are to be made. 69248

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69249
receives pursuant to section 4503.562 of the Revised Code to the 69250
Mahoning river consortium, which shall use the money to pay the 69251
expenses it incurs in restoring and maintaining the Mahoning river 69252
watershed. 69253

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69254
receives pursuant to section 4503.564 of the Revised Code to 69255
Antioch college for the use of the Glen Helen ecology institute to 69256
pay expenses related to the Glen Helen nature preserve.69257

        The registrar shall pay to a sports commission created 69258
pursuant to section 4503.591 of the Revised Code each contribution 69259
the registrar receives under that section that an applicant pays 69260
to obtain license plates that bear the logo of a professional 69261
sports team located in the county of that sports commission and 69262
that is participating in the license plate program pursuant to 69263
division (E) of that section, irrespective of the county of 69264
residence of an applicant. 69265

        The registrar shall pay to a community charity each 69266
contribution the registrar receives under section 4503.591 of the 69267
Revised Code that an applicant pays to obtain license plates that 69268
bear the logo of a professional sports team that is participating 69269
in the license plate program pursuant to division (G) of that 69270
section. 69271

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69272
receives pursuant to section 4503.67 of the Revised Code to the 69273
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 69274
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 69275
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 69276

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69277
receives pursuant to section 4503.68 of the Revised Code to the 69278
great river council of the girl scouts of the United States of 69279
America. The council shall distribute all contributions in an 69280
equitable manner throughout the state to regional councils of the 69281
girl scouts. 69282

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69283
receives pursuant to section 4503.69 of the Revised Code to the 69284
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 69285
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 69286
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 69287

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69288
receives pursuant to section 4503.701 of the Revised Code to the 69289
Prince Hall grand lodge of free and accepted masons of Ohio, which 69290
shall use the contributions for scholarship purposes.69291

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69292
receives pursuant to section 4503.71 of the Revised Code to the 69293
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 69294
deposit the fees into its general account to be used for purposes 69295
of the fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated. 69296

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69297
receives pursuant to section 4503.711 of the Revised Code to the 69298
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 69299
deposit the contributions into an account that it creates to be 69300
used for the purpose of advancing and protecting the law 69301
enforcement profession, promoting improved law enforcement 69302
methods, and teaching respect for law and order. 69303

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69304
to section 4503.712 of the Revised Code to Ohio concerns of police 69305
survivors, which shall use those contributions to provide whatever 69306
assistance may be appropriate to the families of Ohio law 69307
enforcement officers who are killed in the line of duty. 69308

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69309
to section 4503.713 of the Revised Code to the greater Cleveland 69310
peace officers memorial society, which shall use those 69311
contributions to honor law enforcement officers who have died in 69312
the line of duty and support its charitable purposes.69313

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69314
receives pursuant to section 4503.72 of the Revised Code to the 69315
organization known on March 31, 2003, as the Ohio CASA/GAL 69316
association, a private, nonprofit corporation organized under 69317
Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code. The Ohio CASA/GAL association 69318
shall use these contributions to pay the expenses it incurs in 69319
administering a program to secure the proper representation in the 69320
courts of this state of abused, neglected, and dependent children, 69321
and for the training and supervision of persons participating in 69322
that program. 69323

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69324
receives pursuant to section 4503.73 of the Revised Code to Wright 69325
B. Flyer, incorporated, which shall deposit the contributions into 69326
its general account to be used for purposes of Wright B. Flyer, 69327
incorporated. 69328

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69329
receives pursuant to section 4503.732 of the Revised Code to the 69330
Siegel & Shuster society, a nonprofit organization dedicated to 69331
commemorating and celebrating the creation of Superman in 69332
Cleveland, Ohio.69333

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69334
receives pursuant to section 4503.74 of the Revised Code to the 69335
Columbus zoological park association, which shall disburse the 69336
moneys to Ohio's major metropolitan zoos, as defined in section 69337
4503.74 of the Revised Code, in accordance with a written 69338
agreement entered into by the major metropolitan zoos. 69339

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69340
receives pursuant to section 4503.75 of the Revised Code to the 69341
rotary foundation, located on March 31, 2003, in Evanston, 69342
Illinois, to be placed in a fund known as the permanent fund and 69343
used to endow educational and humanitarian programs of the rotary 69344
foundation. 69345

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69346
receives pursuant to section 4503.751 of the Revised Code to the 69347
Ohio association of realtors, which shall deposit the 69348
contributions into a property disaster relief fund maintained 69349
under the Ohio realtors charitable and education foundation.69350

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69351
receives pursuant to section 4503.85 of the Revised Code to the 69352
Ohio sea grant college program to be used for Lake Erie area 69353
research projects. 69354

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69355
receives pursuant to section 4503.89 of the Revised Code to the 69356
American red cross of greater Columbus on behalf of the Ohio 69357
chapters of the American red cross, which shall use the 69358
contributions for disaster readiness, preparedness, and response 69359
programs on a statewide basis.69360

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 69361
to section 4503.92 of the Revised Code to support our troops, 69362
incorporated, a national nonprofit corporation, which shall use 69363
those contributions in accordance with its articles of 69364
incorporation and for the benefit of servicemembers of the armed 69365
forces of the United States and their families when they are in 69366
financial need. 69367

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 69368
receives pursuant to section 4503.94 of the Revised Code to the 69369
Michelle's leading star foundation, which shall use the money 69370
solely to fund the rental, lease, or purchase of the simulated 69371
driving curriculum of the Michelle's leading star foundation by 69372
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 69373
vocational school districts.69374

       (C) All investment earnings of the license plate contribution 69375
fund shall be credited to the fund. Not later than the first day 69376
of May of every year, the registrar shall distribute to each 69377
entity described in division (B) of this section the investment 69378
income the fund earned the previous calendar year. The amount of 69379
such a distribution paid to an entity shall be proportionate to 69380
the amount of money the entity received from the fund during the 69381
previous calendar year.69382

       Sec. 4503.524.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 69383
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 69384
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 69385
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 69386
issuance of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license 69387
plates. The application for "Massillon tiger football booster 69388
club" license plates may be combined with a request for a special 69389
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 69390
Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 69391
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 69392
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 69393
set of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates with 69394
a validation sticker or a validation sticker alone when required 69395
by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 69396
letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, "Massillon tiger 69397
football booster club" license plates shall be inscribed with 69398
words and markings selected and designed by the Massillon tiger 69399
football booster club and approved by the registrar. "Massillon 69400
tiger football booster club" license plates shall bear county 69401
identification stickers that identify the county of registration 69402
by name or number.69403

       (B) "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates 69404
and validation stickers shall be issued upon payment of the 69405
regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 69406
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle tax levied under 69407
Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles 69408
administrative fee of ten dollars, the contribution specified in 69409
division (C) of this section, and compliance with all other 69410
applicable laws relating to the registration of motor vehicles. If 69411
the application for "Massillon tiger football booster club" 69412
license plates is combined with a request for a special reserved 69413
license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised 69414
Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be issued 69415
upon payment of the contribution, fees, and taxes contained in 69416
this division and the additional fee prescribed under section 69417
4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.69418

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 69419
renewal submitted under this section, the registrar shall collect 69420
a contribution of twenty-five dollars. The registrar shall 69421
transmit this contribution to the treasurer of state for deposit 69422
into the license plate contribution fund created in section 69423
4501.21 of the Revised Code.69424

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 69425
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 69426
bureau for additional services required in issuing "Massillon 69427
tiger football booster club" license plates, into the state bureau 69428
of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised 69429
Code.69430

       Sec. 4503.62.  (A) Application for the registration of an 69431
apportionable vehicle shall be made to the registrar of motor 69432
vehicles in accordance with division (J) of section 4503.10 of the 69433
Revised Code.69434

       (B) Any person applying to register a vehicle or combination 69435
vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight of twenty-six thousand 69436
pounds or less or two axles, or that is a bus used in charter 69437
party service, also may register the vehicle in accordance with 69438
division (J) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code if the vehicle 69439
is used or intended for use in two or more international 69440
registration plan member jurisdictions.69441

       (C) No later than December 31, 2011, the registrar shall 69442
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish a 69443
program to accept applications for vehicle registration 69444
transactions of apportionable vehicles electronically over the 69445
internet. The program also may provide for vehicle registration 69446
transactions of nonapportionable commercial motor vehicles over 69447
the internet.69448

       (D) The internet registration program shall provide an option 69449
for the payment of all registration taxes and fees by use of a 69450
financial transaction device. In providing for payment by the use 69451
of a financial transaction device, the registrar may, but is not 69452
required to,shall comply with section 113.40 of the Revised Code. 69453
The registrar, with the approval of the director of public safety, 69454
may contract with a third party to accept and process payments 69455
made by use of a financial transaction device on behalf of the 69456
bureau of motor vehicles. All fees associated with payment by use 69457
of a financial transaction device shall be borne by the applicants 69458
seeking the registration of apportionable or other vehicles under 69459
the program established pursuant to division (C) of this section. 69460
The bureau shall not pay any costs, and shall not retain any 69461
additional fees, associated with the use of a financial 69462
transaction device.69463

       (E) As used in this section, "financial transaction device" 69464
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.69465

       Sec. 4503.732.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 69466
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 69467
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 69468
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 69469
issuance of "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates. 69470
The application may be combined with a request for a special 69471
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 69472
Revised Code. Upon receipt of an application for registration of a 69473
motor vehicle under this section, the registrar shall issue to the 69474
applicant the appropriate motor vehicle registration and a set of 69475
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and a 69476
validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone when required by 69477
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.69478

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 69479
on the license plates, "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" 69480
license plates shall be inscribed with the words "Truth, Justice, 69481
and the American Way" and a design, logo, or marking selected by 69482
the entity that owns the Superman name. The registrar shall 69483
approve the final design after entering into a license agreement 69484
with that entity for appropriate use of the Superman name and 69485
associated logo or marking, as applicable. The license plates 69486
shall bear county identification stickers that identify the county 69487
of registration by name or number.69488

       (B) "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and 69489
validation stickers shall be issued upon receipt of a contribution 69490
as provided in division (C)(1) of this section and upon payment of 69491
the regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 69492
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle license tax levied 69493
under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and a bureau of motor 69494
vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars. The applicant shall 69495
comply with all other applicable laws relating to the registration 69496
of motor vehicles. If the application for "Truth, Justice, and the 69497
American Way" license plates is combined with a request for a 69498
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 69499
the Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall 69500
be issued upon payment of the fees and taxes specified in this 69501
division and the additional fee prescribed under section 4503.40 69502
or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.69503

       (C)(1) For each application for registration and registration 69504
renewal notice the registrar receives under this section, the 69505
registrar shall collect a contribution of ten dollars. The 69506
registrar shall pay this contribution into the state treasury to 69507
the credit of the license plate contribution fund created in 69508
section 4501.21 of the Revised Code.69509

       (2) The registrar shall pay into the state treasury the 69510
ten-dollar bureau administrative fee, the purpose of which is to 69511
compensate the bureau for additional services required in issuing 69512
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates, to the 69513
credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in 69514
section 4501.25 of Revised Code.69515

       Sec. 4505.02.  The registrar of motor vehicles shall issue 69516
rules as the registrar determines necessary to ensure uniform and 69517
orderly operation of this chapter and to ensure that the 69518
identification of each applicant for a certificate of title is 69519
reasonably accurate. The clerks of the courts of common pleas 69520
shall conform thereto. The clerks shall provide the forms as 69521
prescribed by the registrar, except the manufacturers' or 69522
importers' certificates. The clerks shall provide, from moneys in 69523
the automated title processing fund, certificates of title and 69524
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 69525
of the certificate of title processing equipment as determined by 69526
the automated title processing board pursuant to division (C) of 69527
section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. All other automated title 69528
processing system supplies shall be provided by the clerks.69529

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 69530
improperly issued, the registrar shall cancel the certificate. 69531
Upon the cancellation of any certificate of title, the registrar 69532
shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the clerk thereupon 69533
shall enter the cancellation upon the clerk's records. The 69534
registrar also shall notify the person to whom such certificate of 69535
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing thereon, of 69536
the cancellation and shall demand the surrender of the certificate 69537
of title immediately, but the cancellation shall not affect the 69538
validity of any lien noted thereon. The holder of such certificate 69539
of title immediately shall return it to the registrar. If a 69540
certificate of registration has been issued to the holder of a 69541
certificate of title so canceled the registrar immediately shall 69542
cancel it and demand the return of such certificate of 69543
registration and license plates, and the holder of such 69544
certificate of registration and license plates shall return the 69545
same to the registrar forthwith. The clerks shall keep on hand a 69546
sufficient supply of blank forms, which, except for certificate of 69547
title and memorandum certificate forms, shall be furnished and 69548
distributed without charge to registered manufacturers or dealers, 69549
or other persons residing within the county.69550

       Sec. 4505.09.  (A)(1) The clerk of a court of common pleas 69551
shall charge and retain fees as follows:69552

       (a) Five dollars for each certificate of title that is not 69553
applied for within thirty days after the later of the assignment 69554
or delivery of the motor vehicle described in it. The entire fee 69555
shall be retained by the clerk.69556

        (b) Fifteen dollars for each certificate of title or 69557
duplicate certificate of title including the issuance of a 69558
memorandum certificate of title, or authorization to print a 69559
non-negotiable evidence of ownership described in division (G) of 69560
section 4505.08 of the Revised Code, non-negotiable evidence of 69561
ownership printed by the clerk under division (H) of that section, 69562
and notation of any lien on a certificate of title that is applied 69563
for at the same time as the certificate of title. The clerk shall 69564
retain eleven dollars and fifty cents of that fee for each 69565
certificate of title when there is a notation of a lien or 69566
security interest on the certificate of title, twelve dollars and 69567
twenty-five cents when there is no lien or security interest noted 69568
on the certificate of title, and eleven dollars and fifty cents 69569
for each duplicate certificate of title.69570

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents for each certificate of 69571
title with no security interest noted that is issued to a licensed 69572
motor vehicle dealer for resale purposes and, in addition, a 69573
separate fee of fifty cents. The clerk shall retain two dollars 69574
and twenty-five cents of that fee.69575

       (d) Five dollars for each memorandum certificate of title or 69576
non-negotiable evidence of ownership that is applied for 69577
separately. The clerk shall retain that entire fee.69578

       (2) The fees that are not retained by the clerk shall be paid 69579
to the registrar of motor vehicles by monthly returns, which shall 69580
be forwarded to the registrar not later than the fifth day of the 69581
month next succeeding that in which the certificate is issued or 69582
that in which the registrar is notified of a lien or cancellation 69583
of a lien.69584

       (B)(1) The registrar shall pay twenty-five cents of the 69585
amount received for each certificate of title issued to a motor 69586
vehicle dealer for resale, one dollar for certificates of title 69587
issued with a lien or security interest noted on the certificate 69588
of title, and twenty-five cents for each certificate of title with 69589
no lien or security interest noted on the certificate of title 69590
into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in 69591
section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.69592

       (2) Fifty cents of the amount received for each certificate 69593
of title shall be paid by the registrar as follows:69594

       (a) Four cents shall be paid into the state treasury to the 69595
credit of the motor vehicle dealers board fund, which is hereby 69596
created. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 69597
the fund. The moneys in the motor vehicle dealers board fund shall 69598
be used by the motor vehicle dealers board created under section 69599
4517.30 of the Revised Code, together with other moneys 69600
appropriated to it, in the exercise of its powers and the 69601
performance of its duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code, 69602
except that the director of budget and management may transfer 69603
excess money from the motor vehicle dealers board fund to the 69604
bureau of motor vehicles fund if the registrar determines that the 69605
amount of money in the motor vehicle dealers board fund, together 69606
with other moneys appropriated to the board, exceeds the amount 69607
required for the exercise of its powers and the performance of its 69608
duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code and requests the 69609
director to make the transfer.69610

       (b) Twenty-one cents shall be paid into the highway operating 69611
fund.69612

       (c) Twenty-five cents shall be paid into the state treasury 69613
to the credit of the motor vehicle sales audit fund, which is 69614
hereby created. The moneys in the fund shall be used by the tax 69615
commissioner together with other funds available to the 69616
commissioner to conduct a continuing investigation of sales and 69617
use tax returns filed for motor vehicles in order to determine if 69618
sales and use tax liability has been satisfied. The commissioner 69619
shall refer cases of apparent violations of section 2921.13 of the 69620
Revised Code made in connection with the titling or sale of a 69621
motor vehicle and cases of any other apparent violations of the 69622
sales or use tax law to the appropriate county prosecutor whenever 69623
the commissioner considers it advisable.69624

       (3) Two dollars of the amount received by the registrar under 69625
divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section and one dollar 69626
and fifty cents of the amount received by the registrar under 69627
division (A)(1)(c) of this section for each certificate of title 69628
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 69629
automated title processing fund, which is hereby created and which 69630
shall consist of moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this 69631
section and under sections 1548.10 and 4519.59 of the Revised 69632
Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 69633
fund. The moneys in the fund shall be used as follows:69634

       (a) Except for moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the 69635
Revised Code and as provided in division (B)(3)(c) of this 69636
section, moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 69637
shall be used to implement and maintain an automated title 69638
processing system for the issuance of motor vehicle, off-highway 69639
motorcycle, and all-purpose vehicle certificates of title in the 69640
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas.69641

       (b) Moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the Revised 69642
Code shall be used to issue marine certificates of title in the 69643
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas as provided in 69644
Chapter 1548. of the Revised Code.69645

       (c) Moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 69646
shall be used in accordance with section 4505.25 of the Revised 69647
Code to implement Sub. S.B. 59 of the 124th general assembly.69648

       (4) The registrar shall pay the fifty-cent separate fee 69649
collected from a licensed motor vehicle dealer under division 69650
(A)(1)(c) of this section into the title defect recision fund 69651
created by section 1345.52 of the Revised Code.69652

       (C)(1) The automated title processing board is hereby created 69653
consisting of the registrar or the registrar's representative, a 69654
person selected by the registrar, the president of the Ohio clerks 69655
of court association or the president's representative, and two 69656
clerks of courts of common pleas appointed by the governor. The 69657
director of budget and management or the director's designee, the 69658
chief of the division of watercraft in the department of natural 69659
resources or the chief's designee, and the tax commissioner or the 69660
commissioner's designee shall be nonvoting members of the board. 69661
The purpose of the board is to facilitate the operation and 69662
maintenance of an automated title processing system and approve 69663
the procurement of automated title processing system equipment and 69664
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 69665
of that equipment. Voting members of the board, excluding the 69666
registrar or the registrar's representative, shall serve without 69667
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for travel and other 69668
necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of their official 69669
duties. The registrar or the registrar's representative shall 69670
receive neither compensation nor reimbursement as a board member.69671

       (2) The automated title processing board shall determine each 69672
of the following:69673

       (a) The automated title processing equipment and certificates 69674
of title requirements for each county;69675

       (b) The payment of expenses that may be incurred by the 69676
counties in implementing an automated title processing system;69677

       (c) The repayment to the counties for existing title 69678
processing equipment.69679

       (3) The registrar shall purchase, lease, or otherwise acquire 69680
any automated title processing equipment and certificates of title 69681
that the board determines are necessary from moneys in the 69682
automated title processing fund established by division (B)(3) of 69683
this section.69684

       (D) All counties shall conform to the requirements of the 69685
registrar regarding the operation of their automated title 69686
processing system for motor vehicle titles, certificates of title 69687
for off-highway motorcycles and all-purpose vehicles, and 69688
certificates of title for watercraft and outboard motors.69689

       Sec. 4505.101.  (A) The following business owners may obtain 69690
a certificate of title to an unclaimed vehicle in the manner 69691
provided in this section:69692

       (1)(a) The owner of any repair garage or place of storage in 69693
which a motor vehicle with a value of less than twofive thousand 69694
five hundred dollars has been left unclaimed for fifteen business69695
days or more following completion of the requested repair or the 69696
agreed term of storage may;69697

       (b) The owner of a private tow truck, towing company, or tow 69698
company place of storage where a motor vehicle with a value of 69699
less than five thousand dollars has been left unclaimed for 69700
fifteen business days from the date the motor vehicle was towed 69701
under division (B) of section 4513.60 of the Revised Code if the 69702
owner either holds a certificate of public convenience and 69703
necessity under section 4921.03 of the Revised Code or is 69704
registered under rules adopted by the public utilities commission 69705
under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code.69706

       (2) The value of the motor vehicle for the purposes of 69707
divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section shall be determined in 69708
accordance with standards fixed by rule in accordance with Chapter 69709
119. of the Revised Code by the registrar of motor vehicles.69710

       (B) A business owner described in division (A)(1) of this 69711
section shall send by certified mail, return receipt requested, to 69712
the last known address of the owner a notice to remove the motor 69713
vehicle. If the motor vehicle remains unclaimed by the owner for 69714
fifteen business days after the mailing of the notice, and the 69715
personbusiness owner on whose property the vehicle has been 69716
abandoned has received the signed receipt from the certified mail 69717
or has been notified that the delivery was not possible, the69718
personbusiness owner shall obtain a certificate of title, a 69719
salvage certificate of title, or a certificate for destruction 69720
only to the motor vehicle in the person'sbusiness owner's name in 69721
the manner provided in this section.69722

       (C) The business owner of the repair garage or place of 69723
storage thatwho mailed the notice shall execute an affidavit 69724
within thirty business days after receiving the signed receipt 69725
from the certified mail or notification that the delivery was not 69726
possible that all of the requirements of this section necessary to 69727
authorize the issuance of a certificate of title or a salvage 69728
certificate of title for the motor vehicle have been met. The 69729
affidavit shall set forth the value of the motor vehicle when 69730
unclaimed as determined in accordance with standards fixed by the 69731
registrar of motor vehicles in rule in accordance with Chapter 69732
119. of the Revised Code; the length of time that the motor 69733
vehicle has remained unclaimed; the expenses incurred with the 69734
motor vehicle; that a notice to remove the vehicle has been mailed 69735
to the titled owner, if known, by certified mail, return receipt 69736
requested; and that a search of the records of the bureau of motor 69737
vehicles has been made for outstanding liens on the motor vehicle.69738

       (D) No affidavit or application for a certificate for 69739
destruction only shall be executed or filed under this section 69740
until after a search of the records of the bureau of motor 69741
vehicles has been made. If the research reveals any owner of the 69742
motor vehicle, the business owner shall comply with division (B) 69743
of this section. If the research reveals any outstanding lien on 69744
the motor vehicle, the business owner of the repair garage or 69745
place of storage of the motor vehicle shall notify the mortgagee 69746
or lienholder by certified mail, return receipt requested, stating 69747
where the motor vehicle is located and the value of the vehicle. 69748
Unless the mortgagee or lienholder claims the motor vehicle within 69749
fifteen business days from the mailing of the notice, the 69750
mortgagee's mortgage or the lienholder's lien shall be invalid.69751

       (E)(1) Upon presentation by the business owner of the repair 69752
garage or place of storage of the affidavit, showing compliance 69753
with all requirements of this section to the clerk of courts of 69754
the county in which the repair garage or place of storagebusiness69755
is located, the clerk of courts shall issue a certificate of title 69756
or salvage certificate of title, free and clear of all liens and 69757
encumbrances, to the business owner of the place of storage.69758

       (2) The value of the motor vehicle, as determined in 69759
accordance with standards fixed by the registrar of motor vehicles 69760
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, less expenses 69761
incurred by the business owner of such repair garage or place of 69762
storage, shall be paid to the clerk of courts for deposit into the 69763
county general fund upon receipt of the certificate of title.69764

       (B)(F)(1) Upon presentation by the business owner of the 69765
application for a certificate for destruction only, showing 69766
compliance with all requirements of this section to the registrar 69767
of motor vehicles, the registrar shall issue a certificate for 69768
destruction only, free and clear of all liens and encumbrances, to 69769
the business owner.69770

       (2) The value of the motor vehicle with a certificate for 69771
destruction only shall be determined in accordance with standards 69772
fixed by the registrar of motor vehicles in rule in accordance 69773
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, less expenses incurred by 69774
the business owner.69775

       (G) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more 69776
than two hundred dollars, imprisoned not more than ninety days, or 69777
both.69778

       Sec. 4506.07.  (A) Every application for a commercial 69779
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 69780
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit, or a duplicate 69781
of such a license, shall be made upon a form approved and 69782
furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles. Except as provided 69783
in section 4506.24 of the Revised Code in regard to a restricted 69784
commercial driver's license, the application shall be signed by 69785
the applicant and shall contain the following information:69786

       (1) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 69787
account number, sex, general description including height, weight, 69788
and color of hair and eyes, current residence, duration of 69789
residence in this state, country of citizenship, and occupation;69790

       (2) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed to 69791
operate a commercial motor vehicle or any other type of motor 69792
vehicle in another state or a foreign jurisdiction and, if so, 69793
when, by what state, and whether the license or driving privileges 69794
currently are suspended or revoked in any jurisdiction, or the 69795
applicant otherwise has been disqualified from operating a 69796
commercial motor vehicle, or is subject to an out-of-service order 69797
issued under this chapter or any similar law of another state or a 69798
foreign jurisdiction and, if so, the date of, locations involved, 69799
and reason for the suspension, revocation, disqualification, or 69800
out-of-service order;69801

       (3) Whether the applicant is afflicted with or suffering from 69802
any physical or mental disability or disease that prevents the 69803
applicant from exercising reasonable and ordinary control over a 69804
motor vehicle while operating it upon a highway or is or has been 69805
subject to any condition resulting in episodic impairment of 69806
consciousness or loss of muscular control and, if so, the nature 69807
and extent of the disability, disease, or condition, and the names 69808
and addresses of the physicians attending the applicant;69809

       (4) Whether the applicant has obtained a medical examiner's 69810
certificate as required by this chapter and, beginning January 30, 69811
2012, the applicant, prior to or at the time of applying, has 69812
self-certified to the registrar the applicable status of the 69813
applicant under division (A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised 69814
Code;69815

       (5) Whether the applicant has pending a citation for 69816
violation of any motor vehicle law or ordinance except a parking 69817
violation and, if so, a description of the citation, the court 69818
having jurisdiction of the offense, and the date when the offense 69819
occurred;69820

       (6) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 69821
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 69822
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 69823
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 69824
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 69825
issuance of a license;69826

       (7) On and after May 1, 1993, whether the applicant has 69827
executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 69828
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 69829
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 69830
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 69831
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 69832
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 69833
applicant wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant 69834
has executed the instrument;69835

       (8) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 69836
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69837
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 69838
wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant is a 69839
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69840
United States by a military designation on the license.69841

       (B) Every applicant shall certify, on a form approved and 69842
furnished by the registrar, all of the following:69843

       (1) That the motor vehicle in which the applicant intends to 69844
take the driving skills test is representative of the type of 69845
motor vehicle that the applicant expects to operate as a driver;69846

       (2) That the applicant is not subject to any disqualification 69847
or out-of-service order, or license suspension, revocation, or 69848
cancellation, under the laws of this state, of another state, or 69849
of a foreign jurisdiction and does not have more than one driver's 69850
license issued by this or another state or a foreign jurisdiction;69851

       (3) Any additional information, certification, or evidence 69852
that the registrar requires by rule in order to ensure that the 69853
issuance of a commercial driver's license to the applicant is in 69854
compliance with the law of this state and with federal law.69855

       (C) Every applicant shall execute a form, approved and 69856
furnished by the registrar, under which the applicant consents to 69857
the release by the registrar of information from the applicant's 69858
driving record.69859

       (D) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 69860
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 69861
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 69862
or duplicate of such a license under this chapter, if the 69863
applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an elector. 69864
The decision of an applicant whether to register as an elector 69865
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 69866
issue the applicant a license or a renewal or duplicate.69867

       (E) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 69868
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 69869
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 69870
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 69871
or duplicate of such a license who is a resident of this state, if 69872
the applicant is a registered elector who has changed the 69873
applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a notice.69874

       (F) In considering any application submitted pursuant to this 69875
section, the bureau of motor vehicles may conduct any inquiries 69876
necessary to ensure that issuance or renewal of a commercial 69877
driver's license would not violate any provision of the Revised 69878
Code or federal law.69879

       (G) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 69880
after October 7, 2009, the form approved and furnished by the 69881
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a commercial 69882
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 69883
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit or an application 69884
for a duplicate of such a license shall inform applicants that the 69885
applicant must present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an 69886
equivalent document in order to qualify to have the license or 69887
duplicate indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active duty, 69888
or reservist of the armed forces of the United States based on a 69889
request made pursuant to division (A)(8) of this section.69890

       Sec. 4507.021. (A) No person shall drive, operate, draw, 69891
move, or propel an agricultural tractor or implement of husbandry 69892
upon a street or highway in either of the following circumstances 69893
unless the person has a current, valid driver's or commercial 69894
driver's license:69895

        (1) At a speed greater than twenty-five miles per hour; or69896

        (2) While transporting persons in or on a trailer or unit of 69897
farm machinery.69898

        (B) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty 69899
of a misdemeanor of the first degree.69900

       Sec. 4507.03.  (A)(1) No person shall be required to obtain a 69901
driver's or commercial driver's license for the purpose of 69902
temporarily driving, operating, drawing, moving, or propelling a 69903
road roller or road machinery upon a street or highway.69904

       (2) NoExcept as provided in section 4507.021 of the Revised 69905
Code, no person shall be required to obtain a driver's or 69906
commercial driver's license for the purpose of temporarily 69907
driving, operating, drawing, moving, or propelling any 69908
agricultural tractor or implement of husbandry upon a street or 69909
highway at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour or less.69910

        (3) No person shall drive, operate, draw, move, or propel any 69911
agricultural tractor or implement of husbandry upon a street or 69912
highway at a speed greater than twenty-five miles per hour unless 69913
the person has a current, valid driver's or commercial driver's 69914
license.69915

       (4) No person having a valid driver's or commercial driver's 69916
license shall be required to have a motorcycle operator's 69917
endorsement to operate a motorcycle having three wheels with a 69918
motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 69919
displacement.69920

        (B) Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the 69921
United States, when furnished with a driver's permit and when 69922
operating an official motor vehicle in connection with such duty, 69923
is exempt from the license requirements of Chapters 4506. and 69924
4507. of the Revised Code.69925

       Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United 69926
States or in service with the peace corps, volunteers in service 69927
to America, or the foreign service of the United States is exempt 69928
from the license requirements of those chapters for the period of 69929
the person's active duty or service and for six months thereafter, 69930
provided the person was a licensee under those chapters at the 69931
time the person commenced the person's active duty or service. The 69932
spouse or a dependent of any such person on active duty or in 69933
service also is exempt from the license requirements of those 69934
chapters for the period of the person's active duty or service and 69935
for six months thereafter, provided the spouse or dependent was a 69936
licensee under those chapters at the time the person commenced the 69937
active duty or service, and provided further that the person's 69938
active duty or service causes the spouse or dependent to relocate 69939
outside of this state during the period of the active duty or 69940
service.69941

        This section does not prevent such a person or the person's 69942
spouse or dependent from making an application, as provided in 69943
division (C) of section 4507.10 of the Revised Code, for the 69944
renewal of a driver's license or motorcycle operator's endorsement 69945
or as provided in section 4506.14 of the Revised Code for the 69946
renewal of a commercial driver's license during the period of the 69947
person's active duty or service.69948

       (C) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section is 69949
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.69950

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 69951
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 69952
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 69953
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 69954
shall be signed by the applicant.69955

       Every application shall state the following:69956

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 69957
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 69958
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 69959
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 69960
this state, and country of citizenship;69961

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 69962
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 69963
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 69964
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 69965
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;69966

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 69967
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 69968
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 69969
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 69970
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 69971
applicant;69972

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, or 69973
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement has 69974
pending a citation for violation of any motor vehicle law or 69975
ordinance, a description of any such citation pending, and the 69976
date of the citation;69977

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 69978
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 69979
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 69980
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 69981
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 69982
issuance of a license or endorsement;69983

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 69984
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 69985
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 69986
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 69987
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 69988
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 69989
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 69990
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 69991
executed the instrument;69992

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 69993
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69994
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 69995
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 69996
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69997
United States by a military designation on the license.69998

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 69999
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 70000
is made. The application shall state any additional information 70001
that the registrar requires.70002

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 70003
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 70004
any person who applies for a driver's license or motorcycle 70005
operator's license or endorsement under division (A) of this 70006
section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license or 70007
endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 70008
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 70009
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 70010
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 70011
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.70012

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 70013
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 70014
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 70015
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 70016
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 70017
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 70018
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 70019
notice.70020

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 70021
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 70022
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a driver's 70023
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement or an 70024
application for a duplicate of any such license or endorsement 70025
shall inform applicants that the applicant must present a copy of 70026
the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to 70027
qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that the 70028
applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 70029
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 70030
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.70031

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 70032
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 70033
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 70034
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 70035
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 70036
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 70037
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 70038
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 70039
application also shall stateinclude, for an applicant who has not 70040
already certified the applicant's willingness to make an 70041
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code, whether 70042
anthe applicant wishes to certify willingness to make such an 70043
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code and 70044
shall include information about the requirements of sections 70045
2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised Code that apply to persons who 70046
are less than eighteen years of age. The statement regarding 70047
willingness to make such a donation shall be given no 70048
consideration in the decision of whether to issue an 70049
identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed in color 70050
at the time of making application. 70051

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 70052
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 70053
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 70054
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 70055
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 70056
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 70057
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 70058
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 70059
the applicant has executed the instrument. 70060

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 70061
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 70062
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 70063
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 70064
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 70065
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 70066
military designation on the identification card. 70067

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 70068
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 70069
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 70070
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 70071
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 70072
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 70073
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 70074

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 70075
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 70076
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 70077
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 70078
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 70079
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 70080
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 70081
identification card issued by the department of youth services 70082
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 70083
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 70084
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 70085
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 70086
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 70087
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 70088
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 70089
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 70090
Revised Code. 70091

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 70092
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 70093
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 70094
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 70095
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 70096
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 70097
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 70098

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 70099
after the date that is fifteen months after April 7, 2009, the 70100
form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles for an 70101
application for an identification card or duplicate shall inform 70102
applicants that the applicant must present a copy of the 70103
applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to qualify 70104
to have the card or duplicate indicate that the applicant is an 70105
honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces of the United 70106
States based on a request made pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of 70107
this section.70108

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 70109
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 70110
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 70111
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 70112
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 70113
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 70114
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 70115
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:70116

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 70117
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 70118
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 70119
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 70120
on driver attitude.70121

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 70122
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 70123
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 70124
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 70125
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 70126
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 70127
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 70128
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 70129
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 70130
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 70131
addiction services, shall prescribe the content of the 70132
instruction. The number of hours devoted to the area of alcohol 70133
and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall comprise a minimum 70134
of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of instruction 70135
included in the course.70136

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 70137
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 70138
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;70139

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 70140
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 70141
Code.70142

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 70143
any course of remedial driving instruction the director of public 70144
safety approves under this section shall require its students to 70145
attend at least fifty per cent of the course in person and the 70146
director shall not approve any course of remedial driving 70147
instruction that permits its students to take more than fifty per 70148
cent of the course in any other manner, including via video 70149
teleconferencing or the internet.70150

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 70151
that permits students to take the entire course via video 70152
teleconferencing or the internet.70153

       Sec. 4510.45.  (A)(1) A manufacturer of ignition interlock 70154
devices that desires for its devices to be certified under section 70155
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then to be included on the list of 70156
certified devices that the department of public safety compiles 70157
and makes available to courts pursuant to that section first shall 70158
obtain a license from the department under this section. The 70159
department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 70160
shall adopt any rules that are necessary to implement this 70161
licensing requirement.70162

       (2) A manufacturer shall apply to the department for the 70163
license and shall include all information the department may 70164
require by rule. Each application, including an application for 70165
license renewal, shall be accompanied by an application fee of one 70166
hundred dollars, which the department shall deposit into the state 70167
treasury to the credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 70168
fund created by section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.70169

       (3) Upon receipt of a completed application, if the 70170
department finds that a manufacturer has complied with all 70171
application requirements, the department shall issue a license to 70172
the manufacturer. A manufacturer that has been issued a license 70173
under this section is eligible immediately to have the models of 70174
ignition interlock devices it produces certified under section 70175
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then included on the list of 70176
certified devices that the department compiles and makes available 70177
to courts pursuant to that section.70178

       (4)(a) A license issued under this section shall expire 70179
annually on a date selected by the department. The department 70180
shall reject the license application of a manufacturer if any of 70181
the following apply:70182

       (i) The application is not accompanied by the application 70183
fee.70184

       (ii) The department finds that the manufacturer has not 70185
complied with all application requirements.70186

        (iii) The license application is a renewal application and 70187
the manufacturer failed to file the annual report or failed to pay 70188
the fee as required by division (B) of this section.70189

       (b) A manufacturer whose license application is rejected by 70190
the department may appeal the decision to the director of public 70191
safety. The director or the director's designee shall hold a 70192
hearing on the matter not more than thirty days from the date of 70193
the manufacturer's appeal. If the director or the director's 70194
designee upholds the denial of the manufacturer's application for 70195
a license, the manufacturer may appeal the decision to the 70196
Franklin county court of common pleas. If the director or the 70197
director's designee reverses the denial of the manufacturer's 70198
application for a license, the director or the director's designee 70199
shall issue a written order directing that the department issue a 70200
license to the manufacturer.70201

       (B) Every manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 70202
issued a license under this section shall file an annual report 70203
with the department on a form the department prescribes on or 70204
before a date the department prescribes. The annual report shall 70205
state the amount of net profit the manufacturer earned during a 70206
twelve-month period specified by the department that is 70207
attributable to the sales of that manufacturer's certified 70208
ignition interlock devices to purchasers in this state. Each 70209
manufacturer shall pay a fee equal to five per cent of the amount 70210
of the net profit described in this division.70211

       The department may permit annual reports to be filed via 70212
electronic means.70213

       (C) The department shall deposit all fees it receives from 70214
manufacturers under this section into the state treasury to the 70215
credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund created by 70216
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code. All money so deposited into 70217
that fund that is paid by the department of alcohol and drug 70218
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services to county 70219
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, county juvenile indigent 70220
drivers alcohol treatment funds, and municipal indigent drivers 70221
alcohol treatment funds shall be used only as described in 70222
division (H)(3) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.70223

       (D)(1) The director may make an assessment, based on any 70224
information in the director's possession, against any manufacturer 70225
that fails to file an annual report or pay the fee required by 70226
division (B) of this section. The director, in accordance with 70227
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing 70228
assessments and assessment procedures and related provisions. In 70229
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 70230
provisions of section 5751.09 of the Revised Code to the greatest 70231
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 70232
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 70233
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to assessments made 70234
by the director under this section.70235

       (2) A manufacturer may appeal the final determination of the 70236
director regarding an assessment made by the director under this 70237
section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 70238
Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing such appeals. In 70239
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 70240
provisions of section 5717.02 of the Revised Code to the greatest 70241
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 70242
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 70243
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to appeals of 70244
assessments made by the director under this section.70245

       (E) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 70246
Revised Code, shall adopt a penalty schedule setting forth the 70247
monetary penalties to be imposed upon a manufacturer that is 70248
issued a license under this section and fails to file an annual 70249
report or pay the fee required by division (B) of this section in 70250
a timely manner. The penalty amounts shall not exceed the maximum 70251
penalty amounts established in section 5751.06 of the Revised Code 70252
for similar or equivalent facts or circumstances.70253

       (F)(1) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 70254
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 70255
with the department or to pay a fee shall fail to do so as 70256
required by that division.70257

       (2) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 70258
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 70259
with the department shall file a report that contains incorrect or 70260
erroneous information.70261

       (G) Whoever violates division (F)(2) of this section is 70262
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. The department shall 70263
remove from the list of certified devices described in division 70264
(A)(1) of this section the ignition interlock devices manufactured 70265
by a manufacturer that violates division (F)(1) or (2) of this 70266
section.70267

       Sec. 4511.19.  (A)(1) No person shall operate any vehicle, 70268
streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at the time 70269
of the operation, any of the following apply:70270

       (a) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 70271
abuse, or a combination of them.70272

       (b) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 70273
per cent or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one per 70274
cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole 70275
blood.70276

       (c) The person has a concentration of ninety-six-thousandths 70277
of one per cent or more but less than two hundred four-thousandths 70278
of one per cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 70279
person's blood serum or plasma.70280

       (d) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 70281
gram or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one gram by 70282
weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's 70283
breath.70284

       (e) The person has a concentration of eleven-hundredths of 70285
one gram or more but less than two hundred 70286
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram by weight of alcohol per one 70287
hundred milliliters of the person's urine.70288

       (f) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 70289
one per cent or more by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 70290
person's whole blood.70291

       (g) The person has a concentration of two hundred 70292
four-thousandths of one per cent or more by weight per unit volume 70293
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.70294

       (h) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 70295
one gram or more by weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters 70296
of the person's breath.70297

       (i) The person has a concentration of two hundred 70298
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram or more by weight of alcohol 70299
per one hundred milliliters of the person's urine.70300

       (j) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, the 70301
person has a concentration of any of the following controlled 70302
substances or metabolites of a controlled substance in the 70303
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 70304
or exceeds any of the following:70305

       (i) The person has a concentration of amphetamine in the 70306
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of amphetamine 70307
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 70308
amphetamine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 70309
of at least one hundred nanograms of amphetamine per milliliter of 70310
the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70311

       (ii) The person has a concentration of cocaine in the 70312
person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of cocaine 70313
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 70314
cocaine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at 70315
least fifty nanograms of cocaine per milliliter of the person's 70316
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70317

       (iii) The person has a concentration of cocaine metabolite in 70318
the person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of 70319
cocaine metabolite per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 70320
concentration of cocaine metabolite in the person's whole blood or 70321
blood serum or plasma of at least fifty nanograms of cocaine 70322
metabolite per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood 70323
serum or plasma.70324

       (iv) The person has a concentration of heroin in the person's 70325
urine of at least two thousand nanograms of heroin per milliliter 70326
of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin in the 70327
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least fifty 70328
nanograms of heroin per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 70329
blood serum or plasma.70330

       (v) The person has a concentration of heroin metabolite 70331
(6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's urine of at least ten 70332
nanograms of heroin metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per 70333
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin 70334
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's whole blood or 70335
blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of heroin 70336
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per milliliter of the person's 70337
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70338

       (vi) The person has a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 70339
urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of L.S.D. per milliliter 70340
of the person's urine or a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 70341
whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of 70342
L.S.D. per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum 70343
or plasma.70344

       (vii) The person has a concentration of marihuana in the 70345
person's urine of at least ten nanograms of marihuana per 70346
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 70347
marihuana in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of 70348
at least two nanograms of marihuana per milliliter of the person's 70349
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70350

       (viii) Either of the following applies:70351

        (I) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 70352
abuse, or a combination of them, and, as measured by gas 70353
chromatography mass spectrometry, the person has a concentration 70354
of marihuana metabolite in the person's urine of at least fifteen 70355
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 70356
urine or has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the 70357
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least five 70358
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 70359
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70360

       (II) As measured by gas chromatography mass spectrometry, the 70361
person has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the person's 70362
urine of at least thirty-five nanograms of marihuana metabolite 70363
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 70364
marihuana metabolite in the person's whole blood or blood serum or 70365
plasma of at least fifty nanograms of marihuana metabolite per 70366
milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70367

       (ix) The person has a concentration of methamphetamine in the 70368
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of 70369
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 70370
concentration of methamphetamine in the person's whole blood or 70371
blood serum or plasma of at least one hundred nanograms of 70372
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 70373
blood serum or plasma.70374

       (x) The person has a concentration of phencyclidine in the 70375
person's urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of phencyclidine 70376
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 70377
phencyclidine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 70378
of at least ten nanograms of phencyclidine per milliliter of the 70379
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.70380

       (xi) The state board of pharmacy has adopted a rule pursuant 70381
to section 4729.041 of the Revised Code that specifies the amount 70382
of salvia divinorum and the amount of salvinorin A that constitute 70383
concentrations of salvia divinorum and salvinorin A in a person's 70384
urine, in a person's whole blood, or in a person's blood serum or 70385
plasma at or above which the person is impaired for purposes of 70386
operating any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this 70387
state, the rule is in effect, and the person has a concentration 70388
of salvia divinorum or salvinorin A of at least that amount so 70389
specified by rule in the person's urine, in the person's whole 70390
blood, or in the person's blood serum or plasma.70391

       (2) No person who, within twenty years of the conduct 70392
described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, previously has 70393
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this 70394
division, a violation of division (A)(1) or (B) of this section, 70395
or any other equivalent offense shall do both of the following:70396

       (a) Operate any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 70397
within this state while under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 70398
abuse, or a combination of them;70399

       (b) Subsequent to being arrested for operating the vehicle, 70400
streetcar, or trackless trolley as described in division (A)(2)(a) 70401
of this section, being asked by a law enforcement officer to 70402
submit to a chemical test or tests under section 4511.191 of the 70403
Revised Code, and being advised by the officer in accordance with 70404
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code of the consequences of the 70405
person's refusal or submission to the test or tests, refuse to 70406
submit to the test or tests.70407

       (B) No person under twenty-one years of age shall operate any 70408
vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at 70409
the time of the operation, any of the following apply:70410

       (1) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 70411
of one per cent but less than eight-hundredths of one per cent by 70412
weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole blood.70413

       (2) The person has a concentration of at least 70414
three-hundredths of one per cent but less than 70415
ninety-six-thousandths of one per cent by weight per unit volume 70416
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.70417

       (3) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 70418
of one gram but less than eight-hundredths of one gram by weight 70419
of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's breath.70420

       (4) The person has a concentration of at least twenty-eight 70421
one-thousandths of one gram but less than eleven-hundredths of one 70422
gram by weight of alcohol per one hundred milliliters of the 70423
person's urine.70424

       (C) In any proceeding arising out of one incident, a person 70425
may be charged with a violation of division (A)(1)(a) or (A)(2) 70426
and a violation of division (B)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, 70427
but the person may not be convicted of more than one violation of 70428
these divisions.70429

       (D)(1)(a) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court 70430
proceeding for a violation of division (A)(1)(a) of this section 70431
or for an equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the result 70432
of any test of any blood or urine withdrawn and analyzed at any 70433
health care provider, as defined in section 2317.02 of the Revised 70434
Code, may be admitted with expert testimony to be considered with 70435
any other relevant and competent evidence in determining the guilt 70436
or innocence of the defendant.70437

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 70438
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or for an 70439
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the court may admit 70440
evidence on the concentration of alcohol, drugs of abuse, 70441
controlled substances, metabolites of a controlled substance, or a 70442
combination of them in the defendant's whole blood, blood serum or 70443
plasma, breath, urine, or other bodily substance at the time of 70444
the alleged violation as shown by chemical analysis of the 70445
substance withdrawn within three hours of the time of the alleged 70446
violation. The three-hour time limit specified in this division 70447
regarding the admission of evidence does not extend or affect the 70448
two-hour time limit specified in division (A) of section 4511.192 70449
of the Revised Code as the maximum period of time during which a 70450
person may consent to a chemical test or tests as described in 70451
that section. The court may admit evidence on the concentration of 70452
alcohol, drugs of abuse, or a combination of them as described in 70453
this division when a person submits to a blood, breath, urine, or 70454
other bodily substance test at the request of a law enforcement 70455
officer under section 4511.191 of the Revised Code or a blood or 70456
urine sample is obtained pursuant to a search warrant. Only a 70457
physician, a registered nurse, an emergency medical 70458
technician-intermediate, an emergency medical 70459
technician-paramedic, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 70460
phlebotomist shall withdraw a blood sample for the purpose of 70461
determining the alcohol, drug, controlled substance, metabolite of 70462
a controlled substance, or combination content of the whole blood, 70463
blood serum, or blood plasma. This limitation does not apply to 70464
the taking of breath or urine specimens. A person authorized to 70465
withdraw blood under this division may refuse to withdraw blood 70466
under this division, if in that person's opinion, the physical 70467
welfare of the person would be endangered by the withdrawing of 70468
blood.70469

       The bodily substance withdrawn under division (D)(1)(b) of 70470
this section shall be analyzed in accordance with methods approved 70471
by the director of health by an individual possessing a valid 70472
permit issued by the director pursuant to section 3701.143 of the 70473
Revised Code.70474

       (c) As used in division (D)(1)(b) of this section, "emergency 70475
medical technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 70476
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 70477
of the Revised Code.70478

       (2) In a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 70479
for a violation of division (A) of this section or for an 70480
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, if there was at the 70481
time the bodily substance was withdrawn a concentration of less 70482
than the applicable concentration of alcohol specified in 70483
divisions (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section or less 70484
than the applicable concentration of a listed controlled substance 70485
or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance specified for a 70486
violation of division (A)(1)(j) of this section, that fact may be 70487
considered with other competent evidence in determining the guilt 70488
or innocence of the defendant. This division does not limit or 70489
affect a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a 70490
violation of division (B) of this section or for an equivalent 70491
offense that is substantially equivalent to that division.70492

       (3) Upon the request of the person who was tested, the 70493
results of the chemical test shall be made available to the person 70494
or the person's attorney, immediately upon the completion of the 70495
chemical test analysis.70496

        If the chemical test was obtained pursuant to division 70497
(D)(1)(b) of this section, the person tested may have a physician, 70498
a registered nurse, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 70499
phlebotomist of the person's own choosing administer a chemical 70500
test or tests, at the person's expense, in addition to any 70501
administered at the request of a law enforcement officer. If the 70502
person was under arrest as described in division (A)(5) of section 70503
4511.191 of the Revised Code, the arresting officer shall advise 70504
the person at the time of the arrest that the person may have an 70505
independent chemical test taken at the person's own expense. If 70506
the person was under arrest other than described in division 70507
(A)(5) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, the form to be 70508
read to the person to be tested, as required under section 70509
4511.192 of the Revised Code, shall state that the person may have 70510
an independent test performed at the person's expense. The failure 70511
or inability to obtain an additional chemical test by a person 70512
shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the 70513
chemical test or tests taken at the request of a law enforcement 70514
officer.70515

       (4)(a) As used in divisions (D)(4)(b) and (c) of this 70516
section, "national highway traffic safety administration" means 70517
the national highway traffic safety administration established as 70518
an administration of the United States department of 70519
transportation under 96 Stat. 2415 (1983), 49 U.S.C.A. 105.70520

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 70521
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section, of a 70522
municipal ordinance relating to operating a vehicle while under 70523
the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug 70524
of abuse, or of a municipal ordinance relating to operating a 70525
vehicle with a prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled 70526
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole 70527
blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine, if a law 70528
enforcement officer has administered a field sobriety test to the 70529
operator of the vehicle involved in the violation and if it is 70530
shown by clear and convincing evidence that the officer 70531
administered the test in substantial compliance with the testing 70532
standards for any reliable, credible, and generally accepted field 70533
sobriety tests that were in effect at the time the tests were 70534
administered, including, but not limited to, any testing standards 70535
then in effect that were set by the national highway traffic 70536
safety administration, all of the following apply:70537

       (i) The officer may testify concerning the results of the 70538
field sobriety test so administered.70539

       (ii) The prosecution may introduce the results of the field 70540
sobriety test so administered as evidence in any proceedings in 70541
the criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding.70542

       (iii) If testimony is presented or evidence is introduced 70543
under division (D)(4)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section and if the 70544
testimony or evidence is admissible under the Rules of Evidence, 70545
the court shall admit the testimony or evidence and the trier of 70546
fact shall give it whatever weight the trier of fact considers to 70547
be appropriate.70548

       (c) Division (D)(4)(b) of this section does not limit or 70549
preclude a court, in its determination of whether the arrest of a 70550
person was supported by probable cause or its determination of any 70551
other matter in a criminal prosecution or juvenile court 70552
proceeding of a type described in that division, from considering 70553
evidence or testimony that is not otherwise disallowed by division 70554
(D)(4)(b) of this section.70555

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(3) of this section, in any 70556
criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a violation 70557
of division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) 70558
or (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section or for an equivalent 70559
offense that is substantially equivalent to any of those 70560
divisions, a laboratory report from any laboratory personnel 70561
issued a permit by the department of health authorizing an 70562
analysis as described in this division that contains an analysis 70563
of the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or other 70564
bodily substance tested and that contains all of the information 70565
specified in this division shall be admitted as prima-facie 70566
evidence of the information and statements that the report 70567
contains. The laboratory report shall contain all of the 70568
following:70569

       (a) The signature, under oath, of any person who performed 70570
the analysis;70571

       (b) Any findings as to the identity and quantity of alcohol, 70572
a drug of abuse, a controlled substance, a metabolite of a 70573
controlled substance, or a combination of them that was found;70574

       (c) A copy of a notarized statement by the laboratory 70575
director or a designee of the director that contains the name of 70576
each certified analyst or test performer involved with the report, 70577
the analyst's or test performer's employment relationship with the 70578
laboratory that issued the report, and a notation that performing 70579
an analysis of the type involved is part of the analyst's or test 70580
performer's regular duties;70581

       (d) An outline of the analyst's or test performer's 70582
education, training, and experience in performing the type of 70583
analysis involved and a certification that the laboratory 70584
satisfies appropriate quality control standards in general and, in 70585
this particular analysis, under rules of the department of health.70586

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law regarding the 70587
admission of evidence, a report of the type described in division 70588
(E)(1) of this section is not admissible against the defendant to 70589
whom it pertains in any proceeding, other than a preliminary 70590
hearing or a grand jury proceeding, unless the prosecutor has 70591
served a copy of the report on the defendant's attorney or, if the 70592
defendant has no attorney, on the defendant.70593

       (3) A report of the type described in division (E)(1) of this 70594
section shall not be prima-facie evidence of the contents, 70595
identity, or amount of any substance if, within seven days after 70596
the defendant to whom the report pertains or the defendant's 70597
attorney receives a copy of the report, the defendant or the 70598
defendant's attorney demands the testimony of the person who 70599
signed the report. The judge in the case may extend the seven-day 70600
time limit in the interest of justice.70601

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, any 70602
physician, registered nurse, emergency medical 70603
technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, 70604
or qualified technician, chemist, or phlebotomist who withdraws 70605
blood from a person pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 70606
or 4511.192 of the Revised Code, and any hospital, first-aid 70607
station, or clinic at which blood is withdrawn from a person 70608
pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 or 4511.192 of the 70609
Revised Code, is immune from criminal liability and civil 70610
liability based upon a claim of assault and battery or any other 70611
claim that is not a claim of malpractice, for any act performed in 70612
withdrawing blood from the person. The immunity provided in this 70613
division also extends to an emergency medical service organization 70614
that employs an emergency medical technician-intermediate or 70615
emergency medical technician-paramedic who withdraws blood under 70616
this section. The immunity provided in this division is not 70617
available to a person who withdraws blood if the person engages in 70618
willful or wanton misconduct.70619

       As used in this division, "emergency medical 70620
technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 70621
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 70622
of the Revised Code.70623

       (G)(1) Whoever violates any provision of divisions (A)(1)(a) 70624
to (i) or (A)(2) of this section is guilty of operating a vehicle 70625
under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or a combination 70626
of them. Whoever violates division (A)(1)(j) of this section is 70627
guilty of operating a vehicle while under the influence of a 70628
listed controlled substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled 70629
substance. The court shall sentence the offender for either 70630
offense under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, except as 70631
otherwise authorized or required by divisions (G)(1)(a) to (e) of 70632
this section:70633

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(b), (c), 70634
(d), or (e) of this section, the offender is guilty of a 70635
misdemeanor of the first degree, and the court shall sentence the 70636
offender to all of the following:70637

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70638
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70639
mandatory jail term of three consecutive days. As used in this 70640
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 70641
hours. The court may sentence an offender to both an intervention 70642
program and a jail term. The court may impose a jail term in 70643
addition to the three-day mandatory jail term or intervention 70644
program. However, in no case shall the cumulative jail term 70645
imposed for the offense exceed six months.70646

       The court may suspend the execution of the three-day jail 70647
term under this division if the court, in lieu of that suspended 70648
term, places the offender under a community control sanction 70649
pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and requires the 70650
offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a drivers' 70651
intervention program certified under section 3793.105119.38 of 70652
the Revised Code. The court also may suspend the execution of any 70653
part of the three-day jail term under this division if it places 70654
the offender under a community control sanction pursuant to 70655
section 2929.25 of the Revised Code for part of the three days, 70656
requires the offender to attend for the suspended part of the term 70657
a drivers' intervention program so certified, and sentences the 70658
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 70659
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 70660
program. The court may require the offender, as a condition of 70661
community control and in addition to the required attendance at a 70662
drivers' intervention program, to attend and satisfactorily 70663
complete any treatment or education programs that comply with the 70664
minimum standards adopted pursuant to Chapter 3793.5119. of the 70665
Revised Code by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 70666
servicesmental health and addiction services that the operators 70667
of the drivers' intervention program determine that the offender 70668
should attend and to report periodically to the court on the 70669
offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose on 70670
the offender any other conditions of community control that it 70671
considers necessary.70672

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70673
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70674
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 70675
mandatory jail term of at least three consecutive days and a 70676
requirement that the offender attend, for three consecutive days, 70677
a drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 70678
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. As used in this 70679
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 70680
hours. If the court determines that the offender is not conducive 70681
to treatment in a drivers' intervention program, if the offender 70682
refuses to attend a drivers' intervention program, or if the jail 70683
at which the offender is to serve the jail term imposed can 70684
provide a driver's intervention program, the court shall sentence 70685
the offender to a mandatory jail term of at least six consecutive 70686
days.70687

       The court may require the offender, under a community control 70688
sanction imposed under section 2929.25 of the Revised Code, to 70689
attend and satisfactorily complete any treatment or education 70690
programs that comply with the minimum standards adopted pursuant 70691
to Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the director of 70692
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 70693
services, in addition to the required attendance at drivers' 70694
intervention program, that the operators of the drivers' 70695
intervention program determine that the offender should attend and 70696
to report periodically to the court on the offender's progress in 70697
the programs. The court also may impose any other conditions of 70698
community control on the offender that it considers necessary.70699

       (iii) In all cases, a fine of not less than three hundred 70700
seventy-five and not more than one thousand seventy-five dollars;70701

       (iv) In all cases, a class five license suspension of the 70702
offender's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 70703
nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in 70704
division (A)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court 70705
may grant limited driving privileges relative to the suspension 70706
under sections 4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70707

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 70708
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 70709
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one 70710
violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or one other 70711
equivalent offense is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 70712
The court shall sentence the offender to all of the following:70713

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70714
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70715
mandatory jail term of ten consecutive days. The court shall 70716
impose the ten-day mandatory jail term under this division unless, 70717
subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead imposes a 70718
sentence under that division consisting of both a jail term and a 70719
term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous 70720
alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and 70721
continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail term in 70722
addition to the ten-day mandatory jail term. The cumulative jail 70723
term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six months.70724

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 70725
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 70726
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 70727
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 70728
community addiction services provider that is authorized by 70729
section 3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division 70730
(I) of this section, and shall order the offender to follow the 70731
treatment recommendations of the programservices provider. The 70732
purpose of the assessment is to determine the degree of the 70733
offender's alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment 70734
is warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70735
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70736
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70737
related to alcohol use.70738

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70739
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70740
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 70741
mandatory jail term of twenty consecutive days. The court shall 70742
impose the twenty-day mandatory jail term under this division 70743
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 70744
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 70745
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 70746
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 70747
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 70748
term in addition to the twenty-day mandatory jail term. The 70749
cumulative jail term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six 70750
months.70751

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 70752
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 70753
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 70754
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 70755
community addiction service provider that is authorized by section 70756
3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of 70757
this section, and shall order the offender to follow the treatment 70758
recommendations of the programservices provider. The purpose of 70759
the assessment is to determine the degree of the offender's 70760
alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment is 70761
warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70762
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70763
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70764
related to alcohol use.70765

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 70766
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than five 70767
hundred twenty-five and not more than one thousand six hundred 70768
twenty-five dollars;70769

       (iv) In all cases, a class four license suspension of the 70770
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70771
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70772
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 70773
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70774
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70775
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70776

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70777
offender's name, immobilization of the vehicle involved in the 70778
offense for ninety days in accordance with section 4503.233 of the 70779
Revised Code and impoundment of the license plates of that vehicle 70780
for ninety days.70781

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 70782
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 70783
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 70784
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 70785
equivalent offenses is guilty of a misdemeanor. The court shall 70786
sentence the offender to all of the following:70787

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70788
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70789
mandatory jail term of thirty consecutive days. The court shall 70790
impose the thirty-day mandatory jail term under this division 70791
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 70792
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 70793
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 70794
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 70795
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 70796
term in addition to the thirty-day mandatory jail term. 70797
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 70798
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 70799
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 70800
offense shall not exceed one year.70801

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70802
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70803
section, a mandatory jail term of sixty consecutive days. The 70804
court shall impose the sixty-day mandatory jail term under this 70805
division unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it 70806
instead imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both 70807
a jail term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 70808
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 70809
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose 70810
a jail term in addition to the sixty-day mandatory jail term. 70811
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 70812
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 70813
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 70814
offense shall not exceed one year.70815

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 70816
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than eight 70817
hundred fifty and not more than two thousand seven hundred fifty 70818
dollars;70819

       (iv) In all cases, a class three license suspension of the 70820
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70821
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70822
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(3) of 70823
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70824
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70825
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70826

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70827
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 70828
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 70829
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 70830
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 70831
this division.70832

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 70833
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 70834
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 70835
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 70836
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 70837
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program70838
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 70839
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 70840
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70841
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70842
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70843
related to alcohol use.70844

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 70845
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 70846
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 70847
four violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 70848
equivalent offenses or an offender who, within twenty years of the 70849
offense, previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 70850
five or more violations of that nature is guilty of a felony of 70851
the fourth degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of 70852
the following:70853

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70854
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70855
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 70856
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 70857
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 70858
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 70859
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the discretion of the 70860
court, either a mandatory term of local incarceration of sixty 70861
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(1) of section 70862
2929.13 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term of sixty 70863
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of that 70864
section if the offender is not convicted of and does not plead 70865
guilty to a specification of that type. If the court imposes a 70866
mandatory term of local incarceration, it may impose a jail term 70867
in addition to the sixty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total 70868
of the mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not 70869
exceed one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of 70870
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized 70871
for the offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 70872
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 70873
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 70874
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 70875
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 70876
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 70877
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 70878
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 70879
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 70880
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 70881
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 70882
control sanction.70883

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70884
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70885
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 70886
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 70887
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 70888
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 70889
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the 70890
discretion of the court, either a mandatory term of local 70891
incarceration of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 70892
with division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code or a 70893
mandatory prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in 70894
accordance with division (G)(2) of that section if the offender is 70895
not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of 70896
that type. If the court imposes a mandatory term of local 70897
incarceration, it may impose a jail term in addition to the one 70898
hundred twenty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total of the 70899
mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not exceed 70900
one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of section 70901
2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized for the 70902
offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 70903
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 70904
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 70905
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 70906
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 70907
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 70908
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 70909
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 70910
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 70911
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 70912
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 70913
control sanction.70914

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 70915
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 70916
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;70917

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 70918
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70919
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70920
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 70921
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70922
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70923
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70924

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70925
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 70926
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 70927
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 70928
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 70929
this division.70930

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 70931
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 70932
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 70933
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 70934
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 70935
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program70936
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 70937
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 70938
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70939
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70940
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70941
related to alcohol use.70942

       (vii) In all cases, if the court sentences the offender to a 70943
mandatory term of local incarceration, in addition to the 70944
mandatory term, the court, pursuant to section 2929.17 of the 70945
Revised Code, may impose a term of house arrest with electronic 70946
monitoring. The term shall not commence until after the offender 70947
has served the mandatory term of local incarceration.70948

       (e) An offender who previously has been convicted of or 70949
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section that 70950
was a felony, regardless of when the violation and the conviction 70951
or guilty plea occurred, is guilty of a felony of the third 70952
degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of the 70953
following:70954

       (i) If the offender is being sentenced for a violation of 70955
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70956
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 70957
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 70958
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 70959
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 70960
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term 70961
of sixty consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of 70962
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender is not 70963
convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of that 70964
type. The court may impose a prison term in addition to the 70965
mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a sixty-day 70966
mandatory prison term and the additional prison term for the 70967
offense shall not exceed five years. In addition to the mandatory 70968
prison term or mandatory prison term and additional prison term 70969
the court imposes, the court also may sentence the offender to a 70970
community control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall 70971
serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the 70972
community control sanction.70973

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70974
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70975
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 70976
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 70977
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 70978
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 70979
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory 70980
prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 70981
with division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the 70982
offender is not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a 70983
specification of that type. The court may impose a prison term in 70984
addition to the mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a 70985
one hundred twenty-day mandatory prison term and the additional 70986
prison term for the offense shall not exceed five years. In 70987
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 70988
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 70989
sentence the offender to a community control sanction for the 70990
offense, but the offender shall serve all of the prison terms so 70991
imposed prior to serving the community control sanction.70992

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 70993
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 70994
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;70995

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 70996
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70997
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70998
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 70999
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 71000
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 71001
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.71002

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 71003
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 71004
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 71005
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 71006
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 71007
this division.71008

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 71009
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 71010
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 71011
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 71012
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 71013
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program71014
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 71015
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 71016
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 71017
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 71018
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 71019
related to alcohol use.71020

       (2) An offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 71021
violation of division (A) of this section and who subsequently 71022
seeks reinstatement of the driver's or occupational driver's 71023
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege suspended 71024
under this section as a result of the conviction or guilty plea 71025
shall pay a reinstatement fee as provided in division (F)(2) of 71026
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.71027

       (3) If an offender is sentenced to a jail term under division 71028
(G)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) or (G)(1)(c)(i) or (ii) of this section and 71029
if, within sixty days of sentencing of the offender, the court 71030
issues a written finding on the record that, due to the 71031
unavailability of space at the jail where the offender is required 71032
to serve the term, the offender will not be able to begin serving 71033
that term within the sixty-day period following the date of 71034
sentencing, the court may impose an alternative sentence under 71035
this division that includes a term of house arrest with electronic 71036
monitoring, with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both 71037
electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring.71038

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of ten consecutive 71039
days required by division (G)(1)(b)(i) of this section, the court, 71040
under this division, may sentence the offender to five consecutive 71041
days in jail and not less than eighteen consecutive days of house 71042
arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous alcohol 71043
monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and continuous 71044
alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the five consecutive 71045
days in jail and the period of house arrest with electronic 71046
monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both types of 71047
monitoring shall not exceed six months. The five consecutive days 71048
in jail do not have to be served prior to or consecutively to the 71049
period of house arrest.71050

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of twenty 71051
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(b)(ii) of this 71052
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 71053
to ten consecutive days in jail and not less than thirty-six 71054
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 71055
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 71056
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the ten 71057
consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest with 71058
electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 71059
types of monitoring shall not exceed six months. The ten 71060
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 71061
consecutively to the period of house arrest.71062

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of thirty 71063
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(i) of this 71064
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 71065
to fifteen consecutive days in jail and not less than fifty-five 71066
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 71067
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 71068
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the 71069
fifteen consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest 71070
with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 71071
types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The fifteen 71072
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 71073
consecutively to the period of house arrest.71074

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of sixty 71075
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(ii) of this 71076
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 71077
to thirty consecutive days in jail and not less than one hundred 71078
ten consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 71079
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 71080
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total 71081
of the thirty consecutive days in jail and the period of house 71082
arrest with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, 71083
or both types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The thirty 71084
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 71085
consecutively to the period of house arrest.71086

       (4) If an offender's driver's or occupational driver's 71087
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended 71088
under division (G) of this section and if section 4510.13 of the 71089
Revised Code permits the court to grant limited driving 71090
privileges, the court may grant the limited driving privileges in 71091
accordance with that section. If division (A)(7) of that section 71092
requires that the court impose as a condition of the privileges 71093
that the offender must display on the vehicle that is driven 71094
subject to the privileges restricted license plates that are 71095
issued under section 4503.231 of the Revised Code, except as 71096
provided in division (B) of that section, the court shall impose 71097
that condition as one of the conditions of the limited driving 71098
privileges granted to the offender, except as provided in division 71099
(B) of section 4503.231 of the Revised Code.71100

       (5) Fines imposed under this section for a violation of 71101
division (A) of this section shall be distributed as follows:71102

       (a) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 71103
(G)(1)(a)(iii), thirty-five dollars of the fine imposed under 71104
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), one hundred twenty-three dollars of the 71105
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and two hundred ten 71106
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 71107
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to an enforcement and 71108
education fund established by the legislative authority of the law 71109
enforcement agency in this state that primarily was responsible 71110
for the arrest of the offender, as determined by the court that 71111
imposes the fine. The agency shall use this share to pay only 71112
those costs it incurs in enforcing this section or a municipal OVI 71113
ordinance and in informing the public of the laws governing the 71114
operation of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the 71115
dangers of the operation of a vehicle under the influence of 71116
alcohol, and other information relating to the operation of a 71117
vehicle under the influence of alcohol and the consumption of 71118
alcoholic beverages.71119

       (b) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under division 71120
(G)(1)(a)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 71121
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 71122
offender's term of incarceration. If the offender is being 71123
sentenced for a violation of division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), 71124
(e), or (j) of this section and was confined as a result of the 71125
offense prior to being sentenced for the offense but is not 71126
sentenced to a term of incarceration, the fifty dollars shall be 71127
paid to the political subdivision that paid the cost of housing 71128
the offender during that period of confinement. The political 71129
subdivision shall use the share under this division to pay or 71130
reimburse incarceration or treatment costs it incurs in housing or 71131
providing drug and alcohol treatment to persons who violate this 71132
section or a municipal OVI ordinance, costs of any immobilizing or 71133
disabling device used on the offender's vehicle, and costs of 71134
electronic house arrest equipment needed for persons who violate 71135
this section.71136

       (c) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 71137
(G)(1)(a)(iii) and fifty dollars of the fine imposed under 71138
division (G)(1)(b)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into 71139
the county or municipal indigent drivers' alcohol treatment fund 71140
under the control of that court, as created by the county or 71141
municipal corporation under division (F) of section 4511.191 of 71142
the Revised Code.71143

       (d) One hundred fifteen dollars of the fine imposed under 71144
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred seventy-seven dollars of the 71145
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and four hundred forty 71146
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 71147
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 71148
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 71149
offender's term of incarceration. The political subdivision shall 71150
use this share to pay or reimburse incarceration or treatment 71151
costs it incurs in housing or providing drug and alcohol treatment 71152
to persons who violate this section or a municipal OVI ordinance, 71153
costs for any immobilizing or disabling device used on the 71154
offender's vehicle, and costs of electronic house arrest equipment 71155
needed for persons who violate this section.71156

       (e) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under divisions 71157
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (G)(1)(b)(iii), (G)(1)(c)(iii), (G)(1)(d)(iii), 71158
and (G)(1)(e)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into the 71159
special projects fund of the court in which the offender was 71160
convicted and that is established under division (E)(1) of section 71161
2303.201, division (B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) 71162
of section 1907.24 of the Revised Code, to be used exclusively to 71163
cover the cost of immobilizing or disabling devices, including 71164
certified ignition interlock devices, and remote alcohol 71165
monitoring devices for indigent offenders who are required by a 71166
judge to use either of these devices. If the court in which the 71167
offender was convicted does not have a special projects fund that 71168
is established under division (E)(1) of section 2303.201, division 71169
(B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) of section 1907.24 71170
of the Revised Code, the fifty dollars shall be deposited into the 71171
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under 71172
division (I) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.71173

       (f) Seventy-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 71174
(G)(1)(a)(iii), one hundred twenty-five dollars of the fine 71175
imposed under division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred fifty dollars 71176
of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and five 71177
hundred dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) 71178
or (e)(iii) of this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer 71179
of state for deposit into the indigent defense support fund 71180
established under section 120.08 of the Revised Code.71181

       (g) The balance of the fine imposed under division 71182
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (b)(iii), (c)(iii), (d)(iii), or (e)(iii) of this 71183
section shall be disbursed as otherwise provided by law.71184

       (6) If title to a motor vehicle that is subject to an order 71185
of criminal forfeiture under division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of 71186
this section is assigned or transferred and division (B)(2) or (3) 71187
of section 4503.234 of the Revised Code applies, in addition to or 71188
independent of any other penalty established by law, the court may 71189
fine the offender the value of the vehicle as determined by 71190
publications of the national automobile dealers association. The 71191
proceeds of any fine so imposed shall be distributed in accordance 71192
with division (C)(2) of that section.71193

       (7) In all cases in which an offender is sentenced under 71194
division (G) of this section, the offender shall provide the court 71195
with proof of financial responsibility as defined in section 71196
4509.01 of the Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that 71197
proof of financial responsibility, the court, in addition to any 71198
other penalties provided by law, may order restitution pursuant to 71199
section 2929.18 or 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not 71200
exceeding five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from 71201
an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result 71202
of the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or 71203
after committing the offense for which the offender is sentenced 71204
under division (G) of this section.71205

       (8) As used in division (G) of this section, "electronic 71206
monitoring," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory term of local 71207
incarceration" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the 71208
Revised Code.71209

       (H) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty 71210
of operating a vehicle after underage alcohol consumption and 71211
shall be punished as follows:71212

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 71213
section, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth 71214
degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense, 71215
the court shall impose a class six suspension of the offender's 71216
driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary 71217
instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating 71218
privilege from the range specified in division (A)(6) of section 71219
4510.02 of the Revised Code.71220

       (2) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 71221
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more 71222
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 71223
equivalent offenses, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of 71224
the third degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for 71225
the offense, the court shall impose a class four suspension of the 71226
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 71227
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 71228
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 71229
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.71230

       (3) If the offender also is convicted of or also pleads 71231
guilty to a specification of the type described in section 71232
2941.1416 of the Revised Code and if the court imposes a jail term 71233
for the violation of division (B) of this section, the court shall 71234
impose upon the offender an additional definite jail term pursuant 71235
to division (E) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.71236

       (4) The offender shall provide the court with proof of 71237
financial responsibility as defined in section 4509.01 of the 71238
Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that proof of 71239
financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties 71240
provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to 71241
section 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not exceeding 71242
five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from an 71243
accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of 71244
the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or after 71245
committing the violation of division (B) of this section.71246

       (I)(1) No court shall sentence an offender to an alcohol 71247
treatment program under this section unless the treatment program 71248
complies with the minimum standards for alcohol treatment programs 71249
adopted under Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the 71250
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 71251
addiction services.71252

       (2) An offender who stays in a drivers' intervention program 71253
or in an alcohol treatment program under an order issued under 71254
this section shall pay the cost of the stay in the program. 71255
However, if the court determines that an offender who stays in an 71256
alcohol treatment program under an order issued under this section 71257
is unable to pay the cost of the stay in the program, the court 71258
may order that the cost be paid from the court's indigent drivers' 71259
alcohol treatment fund.71260

       (J) If a person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 71261
or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended under 71262
this section files an appeal regarding any aspect of the person's 71263
trial or sentence, the appeal itself does not stay the operation 71264
of the suspension.71265

       (K) Division (A)(1)(j) of this section does not apply to a 71266
person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 71267
while the person has a concentration of a listed controlled 71268
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance in the 71269
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 71270
or exceeds the amount specified in that division, if both of the 71271
following apply:71272

       (1) The person obtained the controlled substance pursuant to 71273
a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized 71274
to prescribe drugs.71275

       (2) The person injected, ingested, or inhaled the controlled 71276
substance in accordance with the health professional's directions.71277

       (L) The prohibited concentrations of a controlled substance 71278
or a metabolite of a controlled substance listed in division 71279
(A)(1)(j) of this section also apply in a prosecution of a 71280
violation of division (D) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code 71281
in the same manner as if the offender is being prosecuted for a 71282
prohibited concentration of alcohol.71283

       (M) All terms defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code 71284
apply to this section. If the meaning of a term defined in section 71285
4510.01 of the Revised Code conflicts with the meaning of the same 71286
term as defined in section 4501.01 or 4511.01 of the Revised Code, 71287
the term as defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code applies 71288
to this section.71289

       (N)(1) The Ohio Traffic Rules in effect on January 1, 2004, 71290
as adopted by the supreme court under authority of section 2937.46 71291
of the Revised Code, do not apply to felony violations of this 71292
section. Subject to division (N)(2) of this section, the Rules of 71293
Criminal Procedure apply to felony violations of this section.71294

       (2) If, on or after January 1, 2004, the supreme court 71295
modifies the Ohio Traffic Rules to provide procedures to govern 71296
felony violations of this section, the modified rules shall apply 71297
to felony violations of this section.71298

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:71299

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 71300
4511.194 of the Revised Code.71301

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 71302
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 71303
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 71304
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 71305
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 71306
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 71307
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 71308
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 71309
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.71310

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 71311
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 71312
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 71313
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 71314
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 71315
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 71316
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 71317
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 71318
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 71319
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 71320
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 71321
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 71322
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.71323

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 71324
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 71325
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 71326
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 71327
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 71328
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 71329
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 71330
designate which of the tests shall be administered.71331

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 71332
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 71333
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 71334
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 71335
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.71336

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 71337
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71338
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 71339
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 71340
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 71341
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71342
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 71343
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 71344
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 71345
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 71346
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 71347
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 71348
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 71349
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 71350
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 71351
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 71352
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 71353
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 71354
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 71355
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 71356
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 71357
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 71358
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 71359
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 71360
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 71361
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 71362
test or tests pursuant to this division.71363

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 71364
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 71365
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 71366
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 71367
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 71368
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 71369
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 71370
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 71371
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 71372
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 71373
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 71374
reckless manner.71375

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 71376
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 71377
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 71378
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 71379
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 71380
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 71381
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 71382
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 71383
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 71384
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 71385
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 71386
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 71387
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 71388
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 71389
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 71390
applies:71391

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 71392
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 71393
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 71394
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 71395
the Revised Code.71396

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 71397
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 71398
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 71399
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 71400
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 71401
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 71402
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 71403
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.71404

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 71405
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 71406
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 71407
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 71408
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 71409
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 71410
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 71411
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 71412
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 71413
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 71414
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 71415
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 71416
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.71417

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 71418
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 71419
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 71420
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 71421
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 71422
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 71423
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 71424
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 71425
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 71426
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 71427
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 71428
be for five years.71429

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 71430
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 71431
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 71432
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 71433
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 71434
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 71435
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 71436
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71437
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 71438
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 71439
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.71440

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 71441
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 71442
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 71443
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 71444
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 71445
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 71446
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.71447

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 71448
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 71449
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 71450
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 71451
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 71452
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 71453
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 71454
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 71455
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 71456
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 71457
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 71458
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71459
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 71460
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 71461
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 71462
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 71463
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 71464
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 71465
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 71466
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 71467
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 71468
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 71469
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 71470
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 71471
the following periods applies:71472

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 71473
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 71474
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 71475
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 71476
Code.71477

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 71478
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 71479
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 71480
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 71481
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 71482
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.71483

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 71484
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 71485
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 71486
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 71487
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 71488
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.71489

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 71490
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 71491
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 71492
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 71493
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 71494
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.71495

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 71496
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 71497
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 71498
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 71499
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 71500
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 71501
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 71502
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71503
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 71504
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 71505
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.71506

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 71507
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 71508
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 71509
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 71510
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 71511
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 71512
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.71513

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 71514
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 71515
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 71516
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 71517
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 71518
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 71519
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 71520
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 71521
section does not affect the suspension.71522

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 71523
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 71524
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 71525
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 71526
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 71527
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 71528
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 71529
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 71530
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 71531
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 71532
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 71533
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 71534
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 71535
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 71536
the issues specified in that division.71537

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 71538
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 71539
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 71540
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 71541
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 71542
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 71543
state in which the person has a license.71544

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 71545
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 71546
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 71547
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 71548
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 71549
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 71550
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 71551
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 71552
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 71553
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:71554

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 71555
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 71556
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 71557
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 71558
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 71559
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 71560
Revised Code.71561

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 71562
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 71563
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 71564
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 71565
state treasury and credited as follows:71566

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 71567
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 71568
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 71569
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 71570
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 71571
developed under section 3793.045119.22 of the Revised Code. 71572

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 71573
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.71574

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 71575
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 71576
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 71577
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 71578
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 71579
servicesmental health and addiction services to the county 71580
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, the county juvenile 71581
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and the municipal 71582
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are required to be 71583
established by counties and municipal corporations pursuant to 71584
division (H) of this section, and shall be used only to pay the 71585
cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program attended 71586
by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is ordered to 71587
attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program by a 71588
county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is determined 71589
by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not to have the 71590
means to pay for the person's attendance at the program or to pay 71591
the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section in 71592
accordance with that division. In addition, a county, juvenile, or 71593
municipal court judge may use moneys in the county indigent 71594
drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers 71595
alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 71596
treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of an 71597
alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and (4) 71598
of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed to a 71599
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile 71600
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent 71601
drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this section 71602
because the director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 71603
health and addiction services does not have the information 71604
necessary to identify the county or municipal corporation where 71605
the offender or juvenile offender was arrested may be transferred 71606
by the director of budget and management to the statewide 71607
treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 of the 71608
Revised Code, upon certification of the amount by the director of 71609
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 71610
services.71611

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio71612
rehabilitation services commission established by section 3304.12 71613
of the Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, 71614
which is hereby established. The fund shall be used to match 71615
available federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any 71616
other purpose or program of the commission to rehabilitate people 71617
with disabilities to help them become employed and independent.71618

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 71619
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 71620
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 71621
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 71622
this section.71623

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 71624
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 71625
Code.71626

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 71627
emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the 71628
Revised Code.71629

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 71630
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 71631
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 71632
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 71633
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 71634
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 71635
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 71636
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 71637
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 71638
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 71639
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 71640
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 71641
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 71642
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 71643
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 71644
device.71645

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 71646
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 71647
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 71648
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 71649
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 71650
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 71651
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 71652
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 71653
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 71654
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 71655
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 71656
with division (F)(2) of this section.71657

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 71658
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 71659
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 71660
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 71661
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 71662
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 71663
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 71664
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 71665
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 71666
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 71667
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 71668
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 71669
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 71670
education programs.71671

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 71672
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 71673
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 71674
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 71675
effectiveness of these programs.71676

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 71677
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 71678
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 71679
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 71680
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 71681
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 71682
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 71683
registrar shall determine.71684

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 71685
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 71686
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 71687
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 71688
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 71689
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 71690
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 71691
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 71692
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 71693
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 71694
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 71695
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 71696
during the period of the suspension.71697

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 71698
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 71699
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 71700
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 71701
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 71702
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 71703
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 71704
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71705
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71706
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 71707
this section and that are credited under that division to the 71708
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 71709
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 71710
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 71711
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 71712
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 71713
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 71714
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 71715
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 71716
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 71717
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 71718
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71719
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 71720
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 71721
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 71722
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 71723
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 71724
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 71725
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 71726
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 71727
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 71728
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 71729
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 71730
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 71731
section or provision.71732

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 71733
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 71734
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 71735
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71736
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 71737
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:71738

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 71739
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:71740

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 71741
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 71742
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 71743
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 71744
under the control of that court;71745

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 71746
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 71747
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 71748
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71749
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;71750

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 71751
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 71752
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 71753
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71754
fund under the control of that court.71755

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 71756
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 71757
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 71758
shall be deposited as follows:71759

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 71760
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 71761
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 71762
control of that court;71763

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 71764
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 71765
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 71766
the control of that court.71767

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 71768
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71769
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71770
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 71771
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 71772
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 71773
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 71774
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 71775
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 71776
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 71777
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 71778
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 71779
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 71780
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 71781
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 71782
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 71783
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 71784
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 71785
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 71786
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71787
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 71788
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 71789
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 71790
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 71791
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 71792
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 71793
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 71794
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 71795
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 71796
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71797
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 71798
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 71799
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 71800
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71801
programs.71802

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 71803
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 71804
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 71805
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 71806
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71807
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 71808
following manners:71809

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 71810
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 71811
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 71812
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 71813
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 71814
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 71815
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 71816
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 71817
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 71818
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 71819
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, when 71820
such use is determined clinically necessary by the treatment 71821
program and when the court determines that the offender or 71822
juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay all or part of the 71823
daily monitoring or cost of the device;71824

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 71825
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 71826
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 71827
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 71828
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 71829
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 71830
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 71831
described in this division if the use of the device is in 71832
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 71833
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 71834
services, when the use of the device is determined clinically 71835
necessary by the treatment program, but the use of a device is not 71836
required to be in conjunction with a treatment program approved by 71837
the department in order for the moneys to be used for the device 71838
as described in this division.71839

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 71840
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 71841
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 71842
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 71843
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 71844
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 71845
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 71846
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 71847
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 71848
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 71849
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 71850
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 71851
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 71852
amount of the surplus in the fund for:71853

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 71854
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 71855
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 71856
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:71857

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 71858
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 71859
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.71860

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 71861
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 71862
for which the surplus money will be used.71863

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 71864
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 71865
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 71866
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 71867
monitoring device.71868

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 71869
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 71870
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 71871
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 71872
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 71873
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 71874
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 71875
by the state public defender to make the determination.71876

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug71877
community addiction programservices provider that is not 71878
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code and 71879
that is interested in receiving amounts from the surplus in the 71880
fund declared under division (H)(4) of this section to the 71881
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 71882
and addiction services in order for the programservices provider71883
to become a certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 71884
programservices provider. The department shall keep a record of 71885
applicant referrals received pursuant to this division and shall 71886
submit a report on the referrals each year to the general 71887
assembly. If a programservices provider interested in becoming 71888
certified makes an application to become certified pursuant to 71889
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, the programservices 71890
provider is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 71891
application is pending with the department. The department of 71892
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 71893
services must offer technical assistance to the applicant. If the 71894
interested programservices provider withdraws the certification 71895
application, the department must notify the court, and the court 71896
shall not provide the interested programservices provider with 71897
any further surplus funds.71898

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 71899
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 71900
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 71901
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 71902
servicesmental health and addiction services an annual report for 71903
each indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in that board's area. 71904

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 71905
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 71906
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 71907
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 71908
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 71909
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 71910
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 71911
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 71912
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 71913
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 71914
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 71915
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 71916
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 71917
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 71918
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 71919
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 71920
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.71921

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 71922
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 71923
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 71924
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.71925

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 71926
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 71927
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 71928
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 71929
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 71930
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 71931
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 71932
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 71933
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 71934
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 71935
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 71936
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 71937
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 71938
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 71939
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 71940
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 71941
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 71942
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 71943
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.71944

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 71945
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 71946
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71947
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 71948
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 71949
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 71950
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 71951
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 71952
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:71953

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 71954
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 71955
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 71956
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 71957
that court.71958

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 71959
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 71960
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 71961
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 71962
established in the county served by the court.71963

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 71964
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 71965
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 71966
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 71967
control of that court.71968

       Sec. 4511.69.  (A) Every vehicle stopped or parked upon a 71969
roadway where there is an adjacent curb shall be stopped or parked 71970
with the right-hand wheels of the vehicle parallel with and not 71971
more than twelve inches from the right-hand curb, unless it is 71972
impossible to approach so close to the curb; in such case the stop 71973
shall be made as close to the curb as possible and only for the 71974
time necessary to discharge and receive passengers or to load or 71975
unload merchandise. Local authorities by ordinance may permit 71976
angle parking on any roadway under their jurisdiction, except that 71977
angle parking shall not be permitted on a state route within a 71978
municipal corporation unless an unoccupied roadway width of not 71979
less than twenty-five feet is available for free-moving traffic.71980

       (B) Local authorities by ordinance may permit parking of 71981
vehicles with the left-hand wheels adjacent to and within twelve 71982
inches of the left-hand curb of a one-way roadway.71983

       (C)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this 71984
section, no vehicle or trackless trolley shall be stopped or 71985
parked on a road or highway with the vehicle or trackless trolley 71986
facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on that 71987
side of the road or highway.71988

       (2)(b) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle 71989
into an angled parking space so that when the motorcycle is parked 71990
it is facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on 71991
the side of the road or highway.71992

       (2)(a) The operators of not more than two motorcycles may 71993
back their motorcycles into a parking space that is located on the 71994
side of, and parallel to, a road or highway, and is not metered. 71995
The motorcycles may face any direction when so parked.71996

        (b) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle into 71997
a parking space that is located on the side of, and parallel to, a 71998
road or highway, and is metered. The motorcycle may face any 71999
direction when so parked. Only one motorcycle at a time shall be 72000
parked in a parking space as described in division (C)(2)(b) of 72001
this section. 72002

       (D) Notwithstanding any statute or any rule, resolution, or 72003
ordinance adopted by any local authority, air compressors, 72004
tractors, trucks, and other equipment, while being used in the 72005
construction, reconstruction, installation, repair, or removal of 72006
facilities near, on, over, or under a street or highway, may stop, 72007
stand, or park where necessary in order to perform such work, 72008
provided a flagperson is on duty or warning signs or lights are 72009
displayed as may be prescribed by the director of transportation.72010

       (E) Special parking locations and privileges for persons with 72011
disabilities that limit or impair the ability to walk, also known 72012
as handicapped parking spaces or disability parking spaces, shall 72013
be provided and designated by all political subdivisions and by 72014
the state and all agencies and instrumentalities thereof at all 72015
offices and facilities, where parking is provided, whether owned, 72016
rented, or leased, and at all publicly owned parking garages. The 72017
locations shall be designated through the posting of an elevated 72018
sign, whether permanently affixed or movable, imprinted with the 72019
international symbol of access and shall be reasonably close to 72020
exits, entrances, elevators, and ramps. All elevated signs posted 72021
in accordance with this division and division (C) of section 72022
3781.111 of the Revised Code shall be mounted on a fixed or 72023
movable post, and the distance from the ground to the bottom edge 72024
of the sign shall measure not less than five feet. If a new sign 72025
or a replacement sign designating a special parking location is 72026
posted on or after October 14, 1999, there also shall be affixed 72027
upon the surface of that sign or affixed next to the designating 72028
sign a notice that states the fine applicable for the offense of 72029
parking a motor vehicle in the special designated parking location 72030
if the motor vehicle is not legally entitled to be parked in that 72031
location.72032

       (F)(1) No person shall stop, stand, or park any motor vehicle 72033
at special parking locations provided under division (E) of this 72034
section or at special clearly marked parking locations provided in 72035
or on privately owned parking lots, parking garages, or other 72036
parking areas and designated in accordance with that division, 72037
unless one of the following applies:72038

       (a) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 72039
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 72040
ability to walk and is displaying a valid removable windshield 72041
placard or special license plates;72042

       (b) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 72043
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 72044
or special handicapped license plates.72045

       (2) Any motor vehicle that is parked in a special marked 72046
parking location in violation of division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 72047
section may be towed or otherwise removed from the parking 72048
location by the law enforcement agency of the political 72049
subdivision in which the parking location is located. A motor 72050
vehicle that is so towed or removed shall not be released to its 72051
owner until the owner presents proof of ownership of the motor 72052
vehicle and pays all towing and storage fees normally imposed by 72053
that political subdivision for towing and storing motor vehicles. 72054
If the motor vehicle is a leased vehicle, it shall not be released 72055
to the lessee until the lessee presents proof that that person is 72056
the lessee of the motor vehicle and pays all towing and storage 72057
fees normally imposed by that political subdivision for towing and 72058
storing motor vehicles.72059

       (3) If a person is charged with a violation of division 72060
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, it is an affirmative defense to 72061
the charge that the person suffered an injury not more than 72062
seventy-two hours prior to the time the person was issued the 72063
ticket or citation and that, because of the injury, the person 72064
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 72065
section 4503.44 of the Revised Code.72066

       (G) When a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 72067
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 72068
ability to walk and is displaying a removable windshield placard 72069
or a temporary removable windshield placard or special license 72070
plates, or when a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 72071
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 72072
or special handicapped license plates, the motor vehicle is 72073
permitted to park for a period of two hours in excess of the legal 72074
parking period permitted by local authorities, except where local 72075
ordinances or police rules provide otherwise or where the vehicle 72076
is parked in such a manner as to be clearly a traffic hazard.72077

       (H) No owner of an office, facility, or parking garage where 72078
special parking locations are required to be designated in 72079
accordance with division (E) of this section shall fail to 72080
properly mark the special parking locations in accordance with 72081
that division or fail to maintain the markings of the special 72082
locations, including the erection and maintenance of the fixed or 72083
movable signs.72084

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a 72085
person or organization to apply for a removable windshield placard 72086
or special license plates if the parking card or special license 72087
plates issued to the person or organization under prior law have 72088
not expired or been surrendered or revoked.72089

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A) or (C) of this section 72090
is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.72091

       (2)(a) Whoever violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 72092
section is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished as 72093
provided in division (J)(2)(a) and (b) of this section. Except as 72094
otherwise provided in division (J)(2)(a) of this section, an 72095
offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section 72096
shall be fined not less than two hundred fifty nor more than five 72097
hundred dollars. An offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or 72098
(b) of this section shall be fined not more than one hundred 72099
dollars if the offender, prior to sentencing, proves either of the 72100
following to the satisfaction of the court:72101

       (i) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(a) of 72102
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 72103
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a removable 72104
windshield placard that then was valid or special license plates 72105
that then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 72106
display the placard or license plates as described in division 72107
(F)(1)(a) of this section.72108

       (ii) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(b) of 72109
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 72110
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a parking card 72111
that then was valid or special handicapped license plates that 72112
then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 72113
display the card or license plates as described in division 72114
(F)(1)(b) of this section.72115

       (b) In no case shall an offender who violates division 72116
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section be sentenced to any term of 72117
imprisonment.72118

       An arrest or conviction for a violation of division (F)(1)(a) 72119
or (b) of this section does not constitute a criminal record and 72120
need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in 72121
response to any inquiries contained in any application for 72122
employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in 72123
connection with the person's appearance as a witness.72124

       The clerk of the court shall pay every fine collected under 72125
division (J)(2) of this section to the political subdivision in 72126
which the violation occurred. Except as provided in division 72127
(J)(2) of this section, the political subdivision shall use the 72128
fine moneys it receives under division (J)(2) of this section to 72129
pay the expenses it incurs in complying with the signage and 72130
notice requirements contained in division (E) of this section. The 72131
political subdivision may use up to fifty per cent of each fine it 72132
receives under division (J)(2) of this section to pay the costs of 72133
educational, advocacy, support, and assistive technology programs 72134
for persons with disabilities, and for public improvements within 72135
the political subdivision that benefit or assist persons with 72136
disabilities, if governmental agencies or nonprofit organizations 72137
offer the programs.72138

       (3) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be 72139
punished as follows:72140

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(3) of this 72141
section, the offender shall be issued a warning.72142

       (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 72143
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (H) of this section or 72144
of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that 72145
division, the offender shall not be issued a warning but shall be 72146
fined not more than twenty-five dollars for each parking location 72147
that is not properly marked or whose markings are not properly 72148
maintained.72149

       (K) As used in this section:72150

       (1) "Handicapped person" means any person who has lost the 72151
use of one or both legs or one or both arms, who is blind, deaf, 72152
or so severely handicapped as to be unable to move without the aid 72153
of crutches or a wheelchair, or whose mobility is restricted by a 72154
permanent cardiovascular, pulmonary, or other handicapping 72155
condition.72156

       (2) "Person with a disability that limits or impairs the 72157
ability to walk" has the same meaning as in section 4503.44 of the 72158
Revised Code.72159

       (3) "Special license plates" and "removable windshield 72160
placard" mean any license plates or removable windshield placard 72161
or temporary removable windshield placard issued under section 72162
4503.41 or 4503.44 of the Revised Code, and also mean any 72163
substantially similar license plates or removable windshield 72164
placard or temporary removable windshield placard issued by a 72165
state, district, country, or sovereignty.72166

       Sec. 4513.60.  (A)(1) The sheriff of a county or chief of 72167
police of a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint 72168
police district, within the sheriff's or chief's respective 72169
territorial jurisdiction, upon complaint of any person adversely 72170
affected, may order into storage any motor vehicle, other than an 72171
abandoned junk motor vehicle as defined in section 4513.63 of the 72172
Revised Code, that has been left on private residential or private 72173
agricultural property for at least four hours without the 72174
permission of the person having the right to the possession of the 72175
property. The sheriff or chief of police, upon complaint of the 72176
owner of a repair garage or place of storage, may order into 72177
storage any motor vehicle, other than an abandoned junk motor 72178
vehicle, that has been left at the garage or place of storage for 72179
a longer period than that agreed upon. The place of storage shall 72180
be designated by the sheriff or chief of police. When ordering a 72181
motor vehicle into storage pursuant to this division, a sheriff or 72182
chief of police, whenever possible, shall arrange for the removal 72183
of the motor vehicle by a private tow truck operator or towing 72184
company. Subject to division (C) of this section, the owner of a 72185
motor vehicle that has been removed pursuant to this division may 72186
recover the vehicle only in accordance with division (E) of this 72187
section.72188

       (2) Divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to 72189
any private residential or private agricultural property that is 72190
established as a private tow-away zone in accordance with division 72191
(B) of this section.72192

       (3) As used in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section, 72193
"private residential property" means private property on which is 72194
located one or more structures that are used as a home, residence, 72195
or sleeping place by one or more persons, if no more than three 72196
separate households are maintained in the structure or structures. 72197
"Private residential property" does not include any private 72198
property on which is located one or more structures that are used 72199
as a home, residence, or sleeping place by two or more persons, if 72200
more than three separate households are maintained in the 72201
structure or structures.72202

       (B)(1) The owner of private property may establish a private 72203
tow-away zone only if all of the following conditions are 72204
satisfied:72205

       (a) The owner posts on the owner's property a sign, that is 72206
at least eighteen inches by twenty-four inches in size, that is 72207
visible from all entrances to the property, and that contains at 72208
least all of the following information:72209

       (i) A notice that the property is a private tow-away zone 72210
and, that vehicles not authorized to park on the property will be 72211
towed away, and that abandoned unclaimed motor vehicles may result 72212
in ownership interest for the tower under section 4505.101 of the 72213
Revised Code;72214

       (ii) The telephone number of the person from whom a 72215
towed-away vehicle can be recovered, and the address of the place 72216
to which the vehicle will be taken and the place from which it may 72217
be recovered;72218

       (iii) A statement that the vehicle may be recovered at any 72219
time during the day or night upon the submission of proof of 72220
ownership and the payment of a towing charge, in an amount not to 72221
exceed ninety dollars, and a storage charge, in an amount not to 72222
exceed twelve dollars per twenty-four-hour period; except that the 72223
charge for towing shall not exceed one hundred fifty dollars, and 72224
the storage charge shall not exceed twenty dollars per 72225
twenty-four-hour period, if the vehicle has a manufacturer's gross 72226
vehicle weight rating in excess of ten thousand pounds and is a 72227
truck, bus, or a combination of a commercial tractor and trailer 72228
or semitrailer.72229

       (b) The place to which the towed vehicle is taken and from 72230
which it may be recovered is conveniently located, is well 72231
lighted, and is on or within a reasonable distance of a regularly 72232
scheduled route of one or more modes of public transportation, if 72233
any public transportation is available in the municipal 72234
corporation or township in which the private tow-away zone is 72235
located.72236

       (2) If a vehicle is parked on private property that is 72237
established as a private tow-away zone in accordance with division 72238
(B)(1) of this section, without the consent of the owner of the 72239
property or in violation of any posted parking condition or 72240
regulation, the owner or the owner's agent may remove, or cause 72241
the removal of, the vehicle, the owner and the operator of the 72242
vehicle shall be deemed to have consented to the removal and 72243
storage of the vehicle, to the possible ownership interest for the 72244
tower as specified in division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section, and 72245
to the payment of the towing and storage charges specified in 72246
division (B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, and the owner, subject to 72247
division (C) of this section, may recover a vehicle that has been 72248
so removed only in accordance with division (E) of this section.72249

       (3) If a municipal corporation requires tow trucks and tow 72250
truck operators to be licensed, no owner of private property 72251
located within the municipal corporation shall remove, or shall 72252
cause the removal and storage of, any vehicle pursuant to division 72253
(B)(2) of this section by an unlicensed tow truck or unlicensed 72254
tow truck operator.72255

       (4) Divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section do not affect or 72256
limit the operation of division (A) of this section or sections 72257
4513.61 to 4513.65 of the Revised Code as they relate to property 72258
other than private property that is established as a private 72259
tow-away zone under division (B)(1) of this section.72260

       (C) If the owner or operator of a motor vehicle that has been 72261
ordered into storage pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 72262
or of a vehicle that is being removed under authority of division 72263
(B)(2) of this section arrives after the motor vehicle or vehicle 72264
has been prepared for removal, but prior to its actual removal 72265
from the property, the owner or operator shall be given the 72266
opportunity to pay a fee of not more than one-half of the charge 72267
for the removal of motor vehicles under division (A)(1) of this 72268
section or of vehicles under division (B)(2) of this section, 72269
whichever is applicable, that normally is assessed by the person 72270
who has prepared the motor vehicle or vehicle for removal, in 72271
order to obtain release of the motor vehicle or vehicle. Upon 72272
payment of that fee, the motor vehicle or vehicle shall be 72273
released to the owner or operator, and upon its release, the owner 72274
or operator immediately shall move it so that:72275

       (1) If the motor vehicle was ordered into storage pursuant to 72276
division (A)(1) of this section, it is not on the private 72277
residential or private agricultural property without the 72278
permission of the person having the right to possession of the 72279
property, or is not at the garage or place of storage without the 72280
permission of the owner, whichever is applicable.72281

       (2) If the vehicle was being removed under authority of 72282
division (B)(2) of this section, it is not parked on the private 72283
property established as a private tow-away zone without the 72284
consent of the owner or in violation of any posted parking 72285
condition or regulation.72286

       (D)(1) If an owner of private property that is established as 72287
a private tow-away zone in accordance with division (B)(1) of this 72288
section or the authorized agent of such an owner removes or causes 72289
the removal of a vehicle from that property under authority of 72290
division (B)(2) of this section, the owner or agent promptly shall 72291
notify the police department of the municipal corporation, 72292
township, or township or joint police district in which the 72293
property is located, of the removal, the vehicle's license number, 72294
make, model, and color, the location from which it was removed, 72295
the date and time of its removal, the telephone number of the 72296
person from whom it may be recovered, and the address of the place 72297
to which it has been taken and from which it may be recovered.72298

       (2) Each county sheriff and each chief of police of a 72299
municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police 72300
district shall maintain a record of motor vehicles that the 72301
sheriff or chief orders into storage pursuant to division (A)(1) 72302
of this section and of vehicles removed from private property in 72303
the sheriff's or chief's jurisdiction that is established as a 72304
private tow-away zone of which the sheriff or chief has received 72305
notice under division (D)(1) of this section. The record shall 72306
include an entry for each such motor vehicle or vehicle that 72307
identifies the motor vehicle's or vehicle's license number, make, 72308
model, and color, the location from which it was removed, the date 72309
and time of its removal, the telephone number of the person from 72310
whom it may be recovered, and the address of the place to which it 72311
has been taken and from which it may be recovered. Any information 72312
in the record that pertains to a particular motor vehicle or 72313
vehicle shall be provided to any person who, either in person or 72314
pursuant to a telephone call, identifies self as the owner or 72315
operator of the motor vehicle or vehicle and requests information 72316
pertaining to its location.72317

       (3) Any person who registers a complaint that is the basis of 72318
a sheriff's or police chief's order for the removal and storage of 72319
a motor vehicle under division (A)(1) of this section shall 72320
provide the identity of the law enforcement agency with which the 72321
complaint was registered to any person who identifies self as the 72322
owner or operator of the motor vehicle and requests information 72323
pertaining to its location.72324

       (E) The owner of a motor vehicle that is ordered into storage 72325
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section or of a vehicle that 72326
is removed under authority of division (B)(2) of this section may 72327
reclaim it upon payment of any expenses or charges incurred in its 72328
removal, in an amount not to exceed ninety dollars, and storage, 72329
in an amount not to exceed twelve dollars per twenty-four-hour 72330
period; except that the charge for towing shall not exceed one 72331
hundred fifty dollars, and the storage charge shall not exceed 72332
twenty dollars per twenty-four-hour period, if the vehicle has a 72333
manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating in excess of ten 72334
thousand pounds and is a truck, bus, or a combination of a 72335
commercial tractor and trailer or semitrailer. Presentation of 72336
proof of ownership, which may be evidenced by a certificate of 72337
title to the motor vehicle or vehicle also shall be required for 72338
reclamation of the vehicle. If a motor vehicle that is ordered 72339
into storage pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section remains 72340
unclaimed by the owner for thirty days, the procedures established 72341
by sections 4513.61 and 4513.62 of the Revised Code shall apply.72342

       (F) No person shall remove, or cause the removal of, any 72343
vehicle from private property that is established as a private 72344
tow-away zone under division (B)(1) of this section other than in 72345
accordance with division (B)(2) of this section, and no person 72346
shall remove, or cause the removal of, any motor vehicle from any 72347
other private property other than in accordance with division 72348
(A)(1) of this section or sections 4513.61 to 4513.65 of the 72349
Revised Code.72350

       (G) Whoever violates division (B)(3) or (F) of this section 72351
is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.72352

       Sec. 4513.61.  The sheriff of a county or chief of police of 72353
a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police 72354
district, within the sheriff's or chief's respective territorial 72355
jurisdiction, or athe superintendent of the state highway patrol 72356
trooperor their designee, upon notification to the sheriff or 72357
chief of police of such action and of the location of the place of 72358
storage, may order into storage any motor vehicle, including an 72359
abandoned junk motor vehicle as defined in section 4513.63 of the 72360
Revised Code, that has come into the possession of the sheriff, 72361
chief of police, or state highway patrol trooperthe 72362
superintendent as a result of the performance of the sheriff's, 72363
chief's, or trooper'sstate highway patrol's duties or that has 72364
been left on a public street or other property open to the public 72365
for purposes of vehicular travel, or upon or within the 72366
right-of-way of any road or highway, for forty-eight hours or 72367
longer without notification to the sheriff or, chief of police, 72368
or the superintendent of the reasons for leaving the motor vehicle 72369
in such place, except that when such a motor vehicle constitutes 72370
an obstruction to traffic it may be ordered into storage 72371
immediately. The sheriff or, chief of police, superintendent, or 72372
their designee shall designate the place of storage of any motor 72373
vehicle so ordered removed.72374

       The sheriff or, chief of police, superintendent, or their 72375
designee immediately shall cause a search to be made of the 72376
records of the bureau of motor vehicles to ascertain the owner and 72377
any lienholder of a motor vehicle ordered into storage by the 72378
sheriff or, chief of police, or by a state highway patrol trooper72379
superintendent, or their designee, and, if known, shall send or 72380
cause to be sent notice to the owner or lienholder at the owner's 72381
or lienholder's last known address by certified mail with return 72382
receipt requested, that the motor vehicle will be declared a 72383
nuisance and disposed of if not claimed within ten days of the 72384
date of mailing of the notice. The owner or lienholder of the 72385
motor vehicle may reclaim it upon payment of any expenses or 72386
charges incurred in its removal and storage, and presentation of 72387
proof of ownership, which may be evidenced by a certificate of 72388
title or memorandum certificate of title to the motor vehicle. If 72389
the owner or lienholder of the motor vehicle reclaims it after a 72390
search of the records of the bureau has been conducted and after 72391
notice has been sent to the owner or lienholder as described in 72392
this section, and the search was conducted by the owner of the 72393
place of storage or the owner's employee, and the notice was sent 72394
to the motor vehicle owner by the owner of the place of storage or 72395
the owner's employee, the owner or lienholder shall pay to the 72396
place of storage a processing fee of twenty-five dollars, in 72397
addition to any expenses or charges incurred in the removal and 72398
storage of the vehicle.72399

       If the owner or lienholder makes no claim to the motor 72400
vehicle within ten days of the date of mailing of the notice, and 72401
if the vehicle is to be disposed of at public auction as provided 72402
in section 4513.62 of the Revised Code, the sheriff or, chief of 72403
police, superintendent, or their designee, without charge to any 72404
party, shall file with the clerk of courts of the county in which 72405
the place of storage is located an affidavit showing compliance 72406
with the requirements of this section. Upon presentation of the 72407
affidavit, the clerk, without charge, shall issue a salvage 72408
certificate of title, free and clear of all liens and 72409
encumbrances, to the sheriff or, chief of police, superintendent, 72410
or their designee. If the vehicle is to be disposed of to a motor 72411
vehicle salvage dealer or other facility as provided in section 72412
4513.62 of the Revised Code, the sheriff, chief of police, 72413
superintendent, or their designee shall execute in triplicate an 72414
affidavit, as prescribed by the registrar of motor vehicles, 72415
describing the motor vehicle and the manner in which it was 72416
disposed of, and that all requirements of this section have been 72417
complied with. The sheriff or, chief of police, the 72418
superintendent, or their designee shall retain the original of the 72419
affidavit for the sheriff's or, chief's, or superintendent's72420
records, and shall furnish two copies to the motor vehicle salvage 72421
dealer or other facility. Upon presentation of a copy of the 72422
affidavit by the motor vehicle salvage dealer, the clerk of 72423
courts, within thirty days of the presentation, shall issue to 72424
such owner a salvage certificate of title, free and clear of all 72425
liens and encumbrances.72426

       Whenever a motor vehicle salvage dealer or other facility 72427
receives an affidavit for the disposal of a motor vehicle as 72428
provided in this section, the dealer or facility shall not be 72429
required to obtain an Ohio certificate of title to the motor 72430
vehicle in the dealer's or facility's own name if the vehicle is 72431
dismantled or destroyed and both copies of the affidavit are 72432
delivered to the clerk of courts.72433

       Sec. 4513.62.  Unclaimed motor vehicles ordered into storage 72434
pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 4513.60 or section 4513.61 72435
of the Revised Code shall be disposed of at the order of the 72436
sheriff of the county or, the chief of police of the municipal 72437
corporation, township, or township or joint police district, the 72438
superintendent of the state highway patrol, or their designee to a 72439
motor vehicle salvage dealer or scrap metal processing facility as 72440
defined in section 4737.05 of the Revised Code, or to any other 72441
facility owned by or under contract with the county, municipal 72442
corporation, or township, for the disposal of such motor vehicles, 72443
or shall be sold by the sheriff, chief of police, superintendent, 72444
their designee, or licensed auctioneer at public auction, after 72445
giving notice thereof by advertisement, published once a week for 72446
two successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the 72447
county or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Any 72448
moneys accruing from the disposition of an unclaimed motor vehicle 72449
that are in excess of the expenses resulting from the removal and 72450
storage of the vehicle shall be credited to the general fund of 72451
the county, municipal corporation, township, or joint police 72452
district, or state as the case may be.72453

       Sec. 4701.03.  (A) The accountancy board annually shall elect 72454
a president, secretary, and treasurer from its members. The board 72455
may adopt and amend rules for the orderly conduct of its affairs 72456
and for the administration of this chapter. The board may adopt 72457
and amend rules defining the practice of public accounting, rules 72458
of professional conduct appropriate to establish and maintain a 72459
high standard of integrity and dignity in registrants and 72460
certificate holders under this chapter, and rules regulating the 72461
sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, 72462
professional association, corporation-for-profit, or other legal 72463
entity practice of public accounting. A majority of the board 72464
shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.72465

       (B) The board shall keep and hold open for public inspection 72466
all records of its proceedings.72467

       (C) The board may employ any clerks that are necessary to 72468
assist it in the performance of its duties and the keeping of its 72469
records. If the board employs an executive director, the board 72470
shall pay the executive director shall be paid in accordance with 72471
pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of section 124.152 of the Revised 72472
Code, or, if the director was employed and being paid on June 28, 72473
2003, in accordance with step 7 in pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of 72474
former section 124.152 of the Revised Code and continued to be so 72475
paid on June 29, 2003, the executive director shall be paid in 72476
accordance with pay range 18 of salary schedule E-1 for step seven 72477
only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.72478

       Sec. 4707.02. (A) No person shall act as an auction firm, 72479
auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special auctioneer within 72480
this state without a license issued by the department of 72481
agriculture. No auction shall be conducted in this state except by 72482
an auctioneer licensed by the department.72483

       The department shall not issue or renew a license if the 72484
applicant or licensee has been convicted of a felony or crime 72485
involving fraud or theft in this or another state at any time 72486
during the ten years immediately preceding application or renewal.72487

        (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 72488
following:72489

       (1) Sales at auction that either are required by law to be at 72490
auction, other than sales pursuant to a judicial order or decree, 72491
or are conducted by or under the direction of a public authority;72492

       (2) The owner of any real or personal property desiring to 72493
sell the property at auction, provided that the property was not 72494
acquired for the purpose of resale;72495

       (3) An auction mediation company;72496

       (4) An auction that is conducted in a course of study for 72497
auctioneers that is approved by the state auctioneers commission 72498
created under section 4707.03 of the Revised Code for purposes of 72499
student training and is supervised by a licensed auctioneer;72500

       (5)(a) An auction that is sponsored by a nonprofit or 72501
charitable organization that is registered in this state under 72502
Chapter 1702. or Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code, respectively, 72503
if the auction only involves the property of the members of the 72504
organization and the auction is part of a fair that is organized 72505
by an agricultural society under Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code 72506
or by the Ohio expositions commission under Chapter 991. of the 72507
Revised Code at which an auctioneer who is licensed under this 72508
chapter physically conducts the auction; or72509

       (b) Sales at an auction sponsored by a charitable, religious, 72510
or civic organization that is tax exempt under subsection 72511
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, or by a public school, 72512
chartered nonpublic school, or community school, if no person in 72513
the business of organizing, arranging, or conducting an auction 72514
for compensation and no consignor of consigned items sold at the 72515
auction, except such organization or school, receives compensation 72516
from the proceeds of the auction. As used in division (B)(5)(b) of 72517
this section, "compensation" means money, a thing of value other 72518
than participation in a charitable event, or a financial benefit.72519

       (6) A person licensed as a livestock dealer under Chapter 72520
943. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells livestock and uses 72521
an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter to conduct the 72522
auction;72523

       (7) A person licensed as a motor vehicle auction owner under 72524
Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells motor 72525
vehicles to a person licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised 72526
Code and who uses an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter 72527
to conduct the auction;72528

       (8) A person who sells real or personal property by means of 72529
the internet;72530

       (9) A bid calling contest that is approved by the commission 72531
and that is conducted for the purposes of the advancement or 72532
promotion of the auction profession in this state, provided that 72533
no compensation is paid to the sponsor of or participants in the 72534
contest other than a prize or award for winning the contest;72535

        (10) An auction at which the champion of a national or 72536
international bid calling contest appears, provided that both of 72537
the following apply:72538

        (a) The champion is not paid a commission.72539

        (b) The auction is conducted under the direct supervision of 72540
an auctioneer licensed under this chapter in order to ensure that 72541
the champion complies with this chapter and rules adopted under 72542
it.72543

       (C)(1) No person shall advertise or hold oneself out as an 72544
auction firm, auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special 72545
auctioneer without a license issued by the department of 72546
agriculture.72547

       (2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to an 72548
individual who is the subject of an advertisement regarding an 72549
auction conducted under division (B)(5)(b) of this section.72550

       Sec. 4707.073. (A) No corporation, limited liability company,72551
general or limited partnership, or unincorporated association 72552
shall act or hold itself out as an auctioneer without a valid 72553
auctioneer's license issued under this section. This section does 72554
not apply to a person who is issued a license under section 72555
4707.071 of the Revised Code.72556

       (B) The department of agriculture may grant an auctioneer's 72557
license to a corporation, limited liability company, general or 72558
limited partnership, or unincorporated association that is 72559
determined to be qualified by the department. Every applicant for 72560
a license under this section shall furnish to the department, on 72561
forms provided by the department, satisfactory proof that the 72562
applicant:72563

       (1) Is in good standing with the secretary of state if the 72564
applicant is a corporation;72565

       (2) Is of trustworthy character;72566

       (3) Has provided proof of financial responsibility as 72567
required in section 4707.11 of the Revised Code;72568

       (4) Is registered with the secretary of state or a local 72569
authority, as applicable, to do business in this state;72570

       (5) Has complied with any other requirement that the director 72571
establishes in rules adopted under section 4707.19 of the Revised 72572
Code.72573

       (C) An application submitted under this section shall list 72574
the names of all of the owners, directors, partners, or members of 72575
the applicant, as applicable, and shall indicate those that have 72576
an auctioneer's license issued under section 4707.07 of the 72577
Revised Code.72578

       (D)(1) The department shall not issue a license under this 72579
section unless one of the following applies, as applicable:72580

       (a)(1) If the applicant is a limited liability company or a72581
general or limited partnership, not less than fifty per cent of 72582
the members or general partners have a current license issued 72583
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.72584

       (b)(2) If the applicant is a corporation, not less than fifty 72585
per cent of the directors and the president or chief executive 72586
have a current license issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised 72587
Code.72588

       (c)(3) If the applicant is an unincorporated association, not 72589
less than fifty per cent of the members have a current license 72590
issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.72591

       Failure of a corporation, limited liability company,72592
partnership, or unincorporated association to maintain the 72593
applicable requirements of this division after the issuance of a 72594
license under this section may be sufficient cause for the 72595
revocation of the license under section 4707.15 of the Revised 72596
Code.72597

       (2) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 72598
section, a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 72599
that was issued a license under section 4707.07 of the Revised 72600
Code on or before the effective date of this section shall comply 72601
with the requirements established in division (D)(1) of this 72602
section. If such a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated 72603
association fails to comply with those requirements, the license 72604
of the corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 72605
immediately shall terminate.72606

       (E) Upon the issuance of a license under this section, a 72607
corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 72608
unincorporated association shall designate an individual from 72609
among its directors, partners, or members who is licensed under 72610
section 4707.07 of the Revised Code as its agent for purposes of 72611
communication with the department. If that individual ceases to be 72612
the agent, the corporation, limited liability company,72613
partnership, or unincorporated association shall notify the 72614
department not later than ten days after the day on which the 72615
individual ceases to be the agent. Upon notification to the 72616
department, the license of the corporation, limited liability 72617
company, partnership, or unincorporated association, as 72618
applicable, immediately shall terminate. If the corporation, 72619
limited liability company, partnership, or unincorporated 72620
association notifies the department of the designation of a new 72621
agent in accordance with the requirements of this division and 72622
pays a fee in the amount of ten dollars, the department shall 72623
issue the corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 72624
unincorporated association a new license.72625

       (F) This section does not preclude a corporation, limited 72626
liability company, partnership, or unincorporated association from 72627
selling real property at auction, provided that the requirements 72628
of this section and section 4707.021 and Chapter 4735. of the 72629
Revised Code are satisfied.72630

       (G) A person licensed as a real estate broker under Chapter 72631
4735. of the Revised Code shall not be required to obtain a 72632
license under this section if the person complies with sections 72633
4707.021 and 4707.22 of the Revised Code.72634

       Sec. 4707.10.  (A) The fee for each apprentice auctioneer's 72635
or auction firm license issued by the department of agriculture is 72636
one hundred dollars, and the annual renewal fee for any such 72637
license is one hundred dollars. All licenses expire annually on 72638
the last day of June of each year and shall be renewed according 72639
to the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 72640
Code, or the procedures of this section. Any licensee under this 72641
chapter who wishes to renew the licensee's license, but fails to 72642
do so before the first day of July shall reapply for licensure in 72643
the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements as for 72644
initial licensure, unless before the first day of September of the 72645
year of expiration, the former licensee pays to the department, in 72646
addition to the regular renewal fee, a late renewal penalty of one 72647
hundred dollars.72648

       (B)(1) Each person to whom the department issues an 72649
auctioneer's license or special auctioneer's license shall pay a 72650
licensure fee. Those licenses are biennial and expire in 72651
accordance with the schedule established in division (B)(2) of 72652
this section. If such a license is issued during the first year of 72653
a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of two 72654
hundred dollars. If the license is issued during the second year 72655
of a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of one 72656
hundred dollars. With respect to an auctioneer's license, the fees 72657
apply regardless of whether the license is issued to an individual 72658
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code or to a corporation, 72659
limited liability company, partnership, or association under 72660
section 4707.073 of the Revised Code.72661

       All auctioneer's licenses and special auctioneer's licenses 72662
expire on the last day of June of the biennium. The licenses shall 72663
be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedures of 72664
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code or the procedures in this 72665
section and upon the licensee's payment to the department of a 72666
renewal fee of two hundred dollars. A licensee who wishes to renew 72667
the licensee's license, but who fails to do so before the first 72668
day of July following the license's expiration, shall reapply for 72669
licensure in the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements 72670
as for the initial licensure unless before the first day of 72671
September following the expiration, the former licensee pays to 72672
the department, in addition to the regular renewal fee, a late 72673
renewal penalty of one hundred dollars.72674

       (2) The biennial expiration of an auctioneer's license or 72675
special auctioneer's license shall occur in accordance with the 72676
following schedule:72677

       (a) The license shall expire in odd-numbered years if the 72678
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 72679
with the letters "A" through "J" or with the letters "X" through 72680
"Z."72681

       (b) The license shall expire in even-numbered years if the 72682
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 72683
with the letters "K" through "W."72684

       (C) Any person who fails to renew the person's license before 72685
the first day of July is prohibited from engaging in any activity 72686
specified or comprehended in section 4707.01 of the Revised Code 72687
until such time as the person's license is renewed or a new 72688
license is issued. Renewal of a license between the first day of 72689
July and the first day of September does not relieve any person 72690
from complying with this division. The department may refuse to 72691
renew the license of or issue a new license to any person who 72692
violates this division.72693

       (D) The department shall prepare and deliver to each licensee 72694
a permanent license certificate and an identification card, the 72695
appropriate portion of which shall be carried on the person of the 72696
licensee at all times when engaged in any type of auction 72697
activity, and part of which shall be posted with the permanent 72698
certificate in a conspicuous location at the licensee's place of 72699
business.72700

       (E) Notice in writing shall be given to the department by 72701
each auctioneer or apprentice auctioneer licensee of any change of 72702
principal business location or any change or addition to the name 72703
or names under which business is conducted, whereupon the 72704
department shall issue a new license for the unexpired period. Any 72705
change of business location or change or addition of names without 72706
notification to the department shall automatically cancel any 72707
license previously issued. For each new auctioneerauctioneer's or 72708
apprentice auctioneerauctioneer's license issued upon the 72709
occasion of a change in business location or a change in or an 72710
addition of names under which business is conducted, the 72711
department may collect a fee of ten dollars for each change in 72712
location, or name or each added name unless the notification of 72713
the change occurs concurrently with the renewal application or 72714
unless otherwise provided in section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.72715

       Sec. 4709.11.  Every license issued pursuant to this chapter 72716
expires on the thirty-first day of August of each even-numbered 72717
year. Each licensee desiring to do so shall, on or before the 72718
first day of September of each even-numbered year, renew histhe 72719
licensee's license pursuant to the standard renewal procedure of 72720
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. Any holder of an expired 72721
license shall restore histhe holder's license before continuing 72722
the practice of barbering or the activity for which hethe holder72723
is licensed under this chapter and pay the appropriate restoration 72724
fee. If the person fails to restore histhe person's license 72725
within threesix years, hethe person shall pay any required 72726
restoration fee and take any examination required for the license 72727
under this chapter.72728

       Sec. 4715.36. As used in this section and sections 4715.361 72729
to 4715.374 of the Revised Code:72730

       (A) "Accredited dental hygiene school" means a dental hygiene 72731
school accredited by the American dental association commission on 72732
dental accreditation or a dental hygiene school whose educational 72733
standards are recognized by the American dental association 72734
commission on dental accreditation and approved by the state 72735
dental board.72736

       (B) "Authorizing dentist" means a dentist who authorizes a 72737
dental hygienist to perform dental hygiene services under section 72738
4715.365 of the Revised Code.72739

       (C) "Clinical evaluation" means a diagnosis and treatment 72740
plan formulated for an individual patient by a dentist.72741

       (D) "Dentist" means an individual licensed under this chapter 72742
to practice dentistry.72743

       (E) "Dental hygienist" means an individual licensed under 72744
this chapter to practice as a dental hygienist.72745

       (F) "Dental hygiene services" means the prophylactic, 72746
preventive, and other procedures that dentists are authorized by 72747
this chapter and rules of the state dental board to assign to 72748
dental hygienists, except for procedures while a patient is 72749
anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive subgingival 72750
curettage, the administration of local anesthesia, and the 72751
procedures specified in rules adopted by the board as described in 72752
division (C)(4) of section 4715.22 of the Revised Code.72753

       (G) "Facility" means any of the following:72754

       (1) A health care facility, as defined in section 4715.22 of 72755
the Revised Code;72756

       (2) A state correctional institution, as defined in section 72757
2967.01 of the Revised Code;72758

       (3) A comprehensive child development program that receives 72759
funds distributed under the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 499 (1981), 72760
42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended, and is licensed as a child day-care 72761
center;72762

       (4) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 72763
the Revised Code;72764

        (5) A public school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 72765
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 72766
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 72767
Code;72768

        (6) A nonpublic school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 72769
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 72770
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 72771
Code;72772

        (7) A federally qualified health center or federally 72773
qualified health center look-alike, as defined in section 3701.047 72774
of the Revised Code;72775

        (8) A shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in 72776
section 3113.33 of the Revised Code;72777

        (9) A facility operated by the department of youth services 72778
under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code;72779

        (10) A shelter for runaways, as defined in section 5119.64 of 72780
the Revised Code;72781

       (11) A foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the 72782
Revised Code;72783

       (12)(11) A nonprofit clinic, as defined in section 3715.87 of 72784
the Revised Code;72785

       (13)(12) The residence of one or more individuals receiving 72786
services provided by a home health agency, as defined in section 72787
5101.61 of the Revised Code;72788

       (14)(13) A dispensary;72789

       (15)(14) A health care facility, such as a clinic or 72790
hospital, of the United States department of veterans affairs;72791

       (16)(15) The residence of one or more individuals enrolled in 72792
a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component, as 72793
defined in section 5111.8515166.01 of the Revised Code;72794

       (17)(16) A facility operated by the board of health of a city 72795
or general health district or the authority having the duties of a 72796
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code;72797

       (18)(17) A women, infants, and children clinic;72798

       (19)(18) A mobile dental unit located at any location listed 72799
in divisions (G)(1) to (18)(17) of this section;72800

       (20)(19) Any other location, as specified by the state dental 72801
board in rules adopted under section 4715.372 of the Revised Code, 72802
that is in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage 72803
area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code and provides 72804
health care services to individuals who are medicaid recipients of 72805
medical assistance under the medicaid program established pursuant 72806
to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and to indigent and uninsured 72807
persons, as defined in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.72808

       Sec. 4715.372. (A) The state dental board shall adopt rules 72809
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 72810
to implement the oral health access supervision program, including 72811
rules that do all of the following:72812

       (1) For the purpose of division (G)(20)(19) of section 72813
4715.36 of the Revised Code, designate additional facilities at 72814
which a dental hygienist may be authorized to perform dental 72815
hygiene services under the oral health access supervision program;72816

       (2) For the purpose of section 4715.362 of the Revised Code, 72817
prescribe the application form and requirements for obtaining an 72818
oral health access supervision permit;72819

       (3) For the purpose of section 4715.363 of the Revised Code, 72820
prescribe the application form for a permit to practice as a 72821
dental hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a 72822
dentist;72823

       (4) For the purpose of division (B)(3) of section 4715.363 of 72824
the Revised Code and subject to division (B) of this section, 72825
establish standards for the course in the practice of dental 72826
hygiene under oral health access supervision;72827

       (5) For the purpose of section 4715.369 of the Revised Code, 72828
prescribe the form for renewal of an oral health access 72829
supervision permit;72830

       (6) For the purpose of section 4715.37 of the Revised Code, 72831
prescribe the form for renewal of a permit to practice as a dental 72832
hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a dentist.72833

       (B) The course in the practice of dental hygiene under oral 72834
health access supervision for which the board establishes 72835
standards under division (A)(4) of this section shall meet all of 72836
the following requirements:72837

       (1) Be eight hours in length;72838

       (2) Include, at a minimum, instruction in both of the 72839
following:72840

       (a) The treatment of geriatric patients, medically 72841
compromised patients, developmentally disabled patients, and 72842
pediatric patients;72843

       (b) Recordkeeping practices.72844

       (3) Be developed and offered by an institution accredited by 72845
the American dental association commission on dental accreditation 72846
or a program provided by a sponsor of continuing education 72847
approved by the board;72848

       (4) Include content that is separate and independent from the 72849
course content required for the completion of dental hygiene 72850
education from an accredited dental hygiene school.72851

       Sec. 4717.03.  (A) Members of the board of embalmers and 72852
funeral directors shall annually in July, or within thirty days 72853
after the senate's confirmation of the new members appointed in 72854
that year, meet and organize by selecting from among its members a 72855
president, vice-president, and secretary-treasurer. The board may 72856
hold other meetings as it determines necessary. A quorum of the 72857
board consists of four members, of whom at least three shall be 72858
members who are embalmers and funeral directors. The concurrence 72859
of at least four members is necessary for the board to take any 72860
action. The president and secretary-treasurer shall sign all 72861
licenses issued under this chapter and affix the board's seal to 72862
each license.72863

       (B) The board may appoint an individual who is not a member 72864
of the board to serve as executive director of the board. The 72865
executive director serves at the pleasure of the board and shall 72866
do all of the following:72867

       (1) Serve as the board's chief administrative officer;72868

       (2) Act as custodian of the board's records;72869

       (3) Execute all of the board's orders;72870

       (4) Employ staff who are not members of the board and who 72871
serve at the pleasure of the executive director to provide any 72872
assistance that the board considers necessary.72873

       (C) In executing the board's orders as required by division 72874
(B)(3) of this section, the executive director may enter the 72875
premises, establishment, office, or place of business of any 72876
embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a crematory facility in 72877
this state. The executive director may serve and execute any 72878
process issued by any court under this chapter..72879

       (C) The board may employ clerical or technical staff who are 72880
not members of the board and who serve at the pleasure of the 72881
board to provide any clerical or technical assistance the board 72882
considers necessary.(D) The boardexecutive director may employ 72883
necessary inspectors, who shall be licensed embalmers and funeral 72884
directors. AnyAn inspector employed by the boardexecutive 72885
director may enter the premises, establishment, office, or place 72886
of business of any embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a 72887
crematory facility in this state, for the purposes of inspecting 72888
the facility and premises; the license and registration of 72889
embalmers and funeral directors operating in the facility; and the 72890
license of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory. The 72891
inspector shall serve and execute any process issued by any court 72892
under this chapter, serve and execute any papers or process issued 72893
by the board or any officer or member of the board,facility and 72894
perform any other duties delegated to the inspector by the board 72895
or assigned to the inspector by the executive director. The 72896
executive director may enter the facility or premises of a funeral 72897
home, embalming facility, or crematory for the purpose of an 72898
inspection if accompanied by an inspector or, if an inspector is 72899
not available, when a situation presents a danger of immediate and 72900
serious harm to the public.72901

       (D)(E) The president of the board shall designate three of 72902
itsthe board's members to serve on the crematory review board, 72903
which is hereby created, for such time as the president finds 72904
appropriate to carry out the provisions of this chapter. Those 72905
members of the crematory review board designated by the president 72906
to serve and three members designated by the cemetery dispute 72907
resolution commission shall designate, by a majority vote, one 72908
person who is experienced in the operation of a crematory facility 72909
and who is not affiliated with a cemetery or a funeral home to 72910
serve on the crematory review board for such time as the crematory 72911
review board finds appropriate. Members serving on the crematory 72912
review board shall not receive any additional compensation for 72913
serving on the board, but may be reimbursed for their actual and 72914
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of official duties 72915
as members of the board. Members of the crematory review board 72916
shall designate one from among its members to serve as a 72917
chairperson for such time as the board finds appropriate. Costs 72918
associated with conducting an adjudicatory hearing in accordance 72919
with division (E)(F) of this section shall be paid from funds 72920
available to the board of embalmers and funeral directors.72921

       (E)(F) Upon receiving written notice from the board of 72922
embalmers and funeral directors of any of the following, the 72923
crematory review board shall conduct an adjudicatory hearing on 72924
the matter in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 72925
except as otherwise provided in this section or division (C) of 72926
section 4717.14 of the Revised Code:72927

       (1) Notice provided under division (H)(I) of this section of 72928
an alleged violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules 72929
adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 72930
crematory facilities or cremation;72931

       (2) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.14 of 72932
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72933
proposes to refuse to grant or renew, or to suspend or revoke, a 72934
license to operate a crematory facility;72935

       (3) Notice provided under division (C) of section 4717.14 of 72936
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72937
has issued an order summarily suspending a license to operate a 72938
crematory facility;72939

       (4) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.15 of 72940
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72941
proposes to issue a notice of violation and order requiring 72942
payment of a forfeiture for any violation described in divisions 72943
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code alleged in 72944
connection with a crematory facility or cremation.72945

       Nothing in division (E)(F) of this section precludes the 72946
crematory review board from appointing an independent examiner in 72947
accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code to conduct any 72948
adjudication hearing required under division (E)(F) of this 72949
section.72950

       The crematory review board shall submit a written report of 72951
findings and advisory recommendations, and a written transcript of 72952
its proceedings, to the board of embalmers and funeral directors. 72953
The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall serve a copy of 72954
the written report of the crematory review board's findings and 72955
advisory recommendations on the party to the adjudication or the 72956
party's attorney, by certified mail, within five days after 72957
receiving the report and advisory recommendations. A party may 72958
file objections to the written report with the board of embalmers 72959
and funeral directors within ten days after receiving the report. 72960
No written report is final or appealable until it is issued as a 72961
final order by the board of embalmers and funeral directors and 72962
entered on the record of the proceedings. The board of embalmers 72963
and funeral directors shall consider objections filed by the party 72964
prior to issuing a final order. After reviewing the findings and 72965
advisory recommendations of the crematory review board, the 72966
written transcript of the crematory review board's proceedings, 72967
and any objections filed by a party, the board of embalmers and 72968
funeral directors shall issue a final order in the matter. Any 72969
party may appeal the final order issued by the board of embalmers 72970
and funeral directors in a matter described in divisions (E)(F)(1) 72971
to (4) of this section in accordance with section 119.12 of the 72972
Revised Code, except that the appeal may be made to the court of 72973
common pleas in the county in which is located the crematory 72974
facility to which the final order pertains, or in the county in 72975
which the party resides.72976

       (F)(G) On its own initiative or on receiving a written 72977
complaint from any person whose identity is made known to the 72978
board of embalmers and funeral directors, the board shall 72979
investigate the acts or practices of any person holding or 72980
claiming to hold a license or registration under this chapter 72981
that, if proven to have occurred, would violate this chapter or 72982
any rules adopted under it. The board may compel witnesses by 72983
subpoena to appear and testify in relation to investigations 72984
conducted under this chapter and may require by subpoena duces 72985
tecum the production of any book, paper, or document pertaining to 72986
an investigation. If a person does not comply with a subpoena or 72987
subpoena duces tecum, the board may apply to the court of common 72988
pleas of any county in this state for an order compelling the 72989
person to comply with the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, or for 72990
failure to do so, to be held in contempt of court.72991

       (G)(H) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 72992
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 72993
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 72994
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 72995
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 72996
embalming, funeral directing, funeral homes, embalming facilities, 72997
or the operation of funeral homes or embalming facilities, it may, 72998
after providing the opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing, issue 72999
an order directing the person to cease the acts or practices that 73000
constitute the violation. The board shall conduct the adjudicatory 73001
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except 73002
that, notwithstanding the provisions of that chapter, the 73003
following shall apply:73004

       (1) The board shall send the notice informing the person of 73005
the person's right to a hearing by certified mail.73006

       (2) The person is entitled to a hearing only if the person 73007
requests a hearing and if the board receives the request within 73008
thirty days after the mailing of the notice described in division 73009
(G)(H)(1) of this section.73010

       (3) A stenographic record shall be taken, in the manner 73011
prescribed in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, at every 73012
adjudicatory hearing held under this section, regardless of 73013
whether the record may be the basis of an appeal to a court.73014

       (H)(I) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 73015
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 73016
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 73017
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 73018
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 73019
crematory facilities or cremation, the board shall send written 73020
notice of the alleged violation to the crematory review board. If, 73021
after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing in the matter 73022
conducted under division (E)(F) of this section, the board of 73023
embalmers and funeral directors finds that a person is in 73024
violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules adopted 73025
under this chapter governing or in connection with crematory 73026
facilities or cremation, the board may issue a final order under 73027
that division directing the person to cease the acts or practices 73028
that constitute the violation.73029

       (I)(J) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may bring 73030
a civil action to enjoin any violation or threatened violation of 73031
sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 of the Revised Code or a rule adopted 73032
under any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 73033
4717.23; division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or 73034
(F)(1) or (2), or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; 73035
division (D)(1) of section 4717.27; divisions (A) to (C) of 73036
section 4717.28, or division (D) or (E) of section 4717.31 of the 73037
Revised Code. The action shall be brought in the county where the 73038
violation occurred or the threatened violation is expected to 73039
occur. At the request of the board, the attorney general shall 73040
represent the board in any matter arising under this chapter.73041

       (J)(K) The board of embalmers and funeral directors and the 73042
crematory review board may issue subpoenas for funeral directors 73043
and embalmers or persons holding themselves out as such, for 73044
operators of crematory facilities or persons holding themselves 73045
out as such, or for any other person whose testimony, in the 73046
opinion of either board, is necessary. The subpoena shall require 73047
the person to appear before the appropriate board or any 73048
designated member of either board, upon any hearing conducted 73049
under this chapter. The penalty for disobedience to the command of 73050
such a subpoena is the same as for refusal to answer such a 73051
process issued under authority of the court of common pleas.73052

       (K)(L) All moneys received by the board of embalmers and 73053
funeral directors from any source shall be deposited in the state 73054
treasury to the credit of the occupational licensing and 73055
regulatory fund created in section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.73056

       (L)(M) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 73057
submit a written report to the governor on or before the first 73058
Monday of July of each year. This report shall contain a detailed 73059
statement of the nature and amount of the board's receipts and the 73060
amount and manner of its expenditures.73061

       Sec. 4717.06.  (A)(1) Any person who desires to obtain a 73062
license to operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or 73063
crematory facility shall apply to the board of embalmers and 73064
funeral directors on a form provided by the board. The application 73065
shall include the initial license fee set forth in section 4717.07 73066
of the Revised Code and proof satisfactory to the board that the 73067
funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility is in 73068
compliance with rules adopted by the board under section 4717.04 73069
of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the board of building 73070
standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code, and all other 73071
federal, state, and local requirements relating to the safety of 73072
the premises.73073

       (2) If the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 73074
facility to which the license application pertains is owned by a 73075
corporation or limited liability company, the application shall 73076
include the name and address of the corporation's or limited 73077
liability company's statutory agent appointed under section 73078
1701.07 or 1705.06 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a 73079
foreign corporation, the corporation's designated agent appointed 73080
under section 1703.041 of the Revised Code. If the funeral home, 73081
embalming facility, or crematory facility to which the application 73082
pertains is owned by a partnership, the application shall include 73083
the name and address of each of the partners. If, at any time 73084
after the submission of a license application or issuance of a 73085
license, the statutory or designated agent of a corporation or 73086
limited liability company owning a funeral home, embalming 73087
facility, or crematory facility or the address of the statutory or 73088
designated agent changes or, in the case of a partnership, any of 73089
the partners of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 73090
facility or the address of any of the partners changes, the 73091
applicant for or holder of the license to operate the funeral 73092
home, embalming facility, or crematory facility shall submit 73093
written notice to the board, within thirty days after the change, 73094
informing the board of the change and of any name or address of a 73095
statutory or designated agent or partner that has changed from 73096
that contained in the application for the license or the most 73097
recent notice submitted under division (A)(2) of this section.73098

       (B)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a funeral 73099
home only for the address at which the funeral home is operated. 73100
The funeral home license and licenses of the embalmers and funeral 73101
directors employed by the funeral home shall be displayed in a 73102
conspicuous place within the funeral home.73103

       (2) The funeral home shall have on the premises one of the 73104
following:73105

       (a) If embalming will take place at the funeral home, an 73106
embalming room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 73107
embalming room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and 73108
used only for the embalming, preparation, or holding of dead human 73109
bodies. The embalming room shall contain only the articles, 73110
facilities, and instruments necessary for those purposes.73111

       (b) If embalming will not take place at the funeral home, a 73112
holding room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 73113
holding room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and used 73114
only for the preparation, other than embalming, and holding of 73115
dead human bodies. The holding room shall contain only the 73116
articles and facilities necessary for those purposes.73117

       (3) Except as provided in division (B) of section 4717.11 of 73118
the Revised Code, a funeral home shall be established and operated 73119
only under the name of a holder of a funeral director's license 73120
issued by the board who is actually in charge of and ultimately 73121
responsible for the funeral home, and a funeral home license shall 73122
not include directional or geographical references in the name of 73123
the funeral home. The holder of the funeral home license shall be 73124
a funeral director licensed under this chapter who is actually in 73125
charge of and ultimately responsible for the funeral home. Nothing 73126
in division (B)(3) of this section prohibits the holder of a 73127
funeral home license from including directional or geographical 73128
references in promotional or advertising materials identifying the 73129
location of the funeral home.73130

       (4) Each funeral home shall be directly supervised by a 73131
funeral director licensed under this chapter, who shallmay73132
supervise onlymore than one funeral home.73133

       (C)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate an 73134
embalming facility only for the address at which the embalming 73135
facility is operated. The license shall be displayed in a 73136
conspicuous place within the facility.73137

       (2) The embalming facility shall be adequately equipped and 73138
maintained in a sanitary manner. The embalming room at such a 73139
facility shall contain only the articles, facilities, and 73140
instruments necessary for its stated purpose. The embalming room 73141
shall be kept in a clean and sanitary condition and used only for 73142
the care and preparation of dead human bodies.73143

       (3) An embalming facility license shall be issued only to an 73144
embalmer licensed under division (B) of section 4717.05 of the 73145
Revised Code, who is actually in charge of the facility.73146

       (D)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a crematory 73147
facility only for the address at which the crematory facility is 73148
located and operated. The license shall be displayed in a 73149
conspicuous place within the crematory facility.73150

       (2) The crematory facility shall be adequately equipped and 73151
maintained in a clean and sanitary manner. The crematory facility 73152
may be located in a funeral home, embalming facility, cemetery 73153
building, or other building in which the crematory facility may 73154
lawfully operate. If a crematory facility engages in the cremation 73155
of animals, the crematory facility shall cremate animals in a 73156
cremation chamber that also is not used to cremate dead human 73157
bodies or human body parts and shall not cremate animals in a 73158
cremation chamber used for the cremation of dead human bodies and 73159
human body parts. Cremation chambers that are used for the 73160
cremation of dead human bodies or human body parts and cremation 73161
chambers used for the cremation of animals may be located in the 73162
same area. 73163

       (3) A license to operate a crematory facility shall be issued 73164
to the person actually in charge of the crematory facility. This 73165
section does not require the individual who is actually in charge 73166
of the crematory facility to be an embalmer or funeral director 73167
licensed under this chapter.73168

       (4) Nothing in this section or rules adopted under section 73169
4717.04 of the Revised Code precludes the establishment and 73170
operation of a crematory facility on or adjacent to the property 73171
on which a cemetery, funeral home, or embalming facility is 73172
located.73173

       Sec. 4717.07.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 73174
directors shall charge and collect the following fees:73175

       (1) For the initial issuance or biennial renewal of an 73176
embalmer's or funeral director's license, one hundred fortyfifty73177
dollars;73178

       (2) For the issuance of an embalmer or funeral director 73179
registration, twenty-five dollars;73180

       (3) For filing an embalmer or funeral director certificate of 73181
apprenticeship, ten dollars;73182

       (4) For the application to take the examination for a license 73183
to practice as an embalmer or funeral director, or to retake a 73184
section of the examination, thirty-five dollars;73185

       (5) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 73186
funeral home, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial renewal 73187
of a license to operate a funeral home, twothree hundred fifty 73188
dollars;73189

       (6) For the reinstatement of a lapsed embalmer's or funeral 73190
director's license, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(1) 73191
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 73192
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement, but not more than 73193
one thousand dollars;73194

       (7) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 73195
funeral home, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(5) of 73196
this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 73197
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;73198

       (8) For the initial issuance of a license to operate an 73199
embalming facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 73200
renewal of a license to operate an embalming facility, twothree73201
hundred fifty dollars;73202

       (9) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate an 73203
embalming facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(8) 73204
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 73205
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;73206

       (10) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 73207
crematory facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 73208
renewal of a license to operate a crematory facility, twothree73209
hundred fifty dollars;73210

       (11) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 73211
crematory facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(10) 73212
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 73213
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;73214

       (12) For the issuance of a duplicate of a license issued 73215
under this chapter, fourten dollars.73216

       (B) In addition to the fees set forth in division (A) of this 73217
section, an applicant shall pay the examination fee assessed by 73218
any examining agency the board uses for any section of an 73219
examination required under this chapter.73220

       (C) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the 73221
board of embalmers and funeral directors may establish fees in 73222
excess of the amounts set forth in this section, provided that 73223
these fees do not exceed the amounts set forth in this section by 73224
more than fifty per cent.73225

       Sec. 4717.10.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 73226
directors may recognize licenses issued to embalmers and funeral 73227
directors by other states, and upon presentation of such licenses, 73228
may issue to the holder an embalmer's or funeral director's 73229
license under this chapter. The board shall charge the same fee as 73230
prescribed in section 4717.07 of the Revised Code to issue or 73231
renew such an embalmer's or funeral director's license. Such 73232
licenses shall be renewed annuallybiennially as provided in 73233
section 4717.08 of the Revised Code. The board shall not issue a 73234
license to any person under this section unless the applicant 73235
proves that the applicant, in the state in which the applicant is 73236
licensed, has complied with requirements substantially equal to 73237
those established in section 4717.05 of the Revised Code.73238

       (B) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may issue 73239
courtesy cards. A courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to 73240
undertake both the following acts in this state:73241

       (1) Prepare and complete those sections of a death 73242
certificate and other permits needed for disposition of deceased 73243
human remains in this state and sign and file such death 73244
certificates and permits;73245

       (2) Supervise and conduct funeral ceremonies and interments 73246
in this state.73247

       (C) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may 73248
determine under what conditions a courtesy card may be issued to 73249
funeral directors in bordering states after taking into account 73250
whether and under what conditions and fees such border states 73251
issue similar courtesy cards to funeral directors licensed in this 73252
state. Applicants for courtesy cards shall apply on forms 73253
prescribed by the board, pay an annuala biennial fee set by the 73254
board for initial applications and renewals, and adhere to such 73255
other requirements imposed by the board on courtesy cardholders.73256

       (D) No courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to undertake 73257
any of the following activities in this state:73258

       (1) Arranging funerals or disposition services with members 73259
of the public in this state;73260

       (2) Be employed by or under contract to a funeral home 73261
licensed in this state to perform funeral services in this state;73262

       (3) Advertise funeral or disposition services in this state;73263

       (4) Enter into or execute funeral or disposition contracts in 73264
this state;73265

       (5) Prepare or embalm deceased human remains in this state;73266

       (6) Arrange for or carry out the disinterment of human 73267
remains in this state.73268

       (E) As used in this section, "courtesy card" means a special 73269
permit that may be issued to a funeral director licensed in a 73270
state that borders this state and who does not hold a funeral 73271
director's license under this chapter.73272

       Sec. 4717.14.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 73273
directors may refuse to grant or renew, or may suspend or revoke, 73274
any license issued under this chapter or may require the holder of 73275
a license to take corrective action courses for any of the 73276
following reasons:73277

       (1) The license was obtained by fraud or misrepresentation 73278
either in the application or in passing the examination.73279

       (2) The applicant or licensee has been convicted of or has 73280
pleaded guilty to a felony or of any crime involving moral 73281
turpitude.73282

       (3) The applicant or licensee has purposely violated any 73283
provision of sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 or a rule adopted under 73284
any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 4717.23; 73285
division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or (F)(1) or (2), 73286
or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; division (D)(1) of 73287
section 4717.27; or divisions (A) to (C) of section 4717.28 of the 73288
Revised Code; any rule or order of the department of health or a 73289
board of health of a health district governing the disposition of 73290
dead human bodies; or any other rule or order applicable to the 73291
applicant or licensee.73292

       (4) The applicant or licensee has committed immoral or 73293
unprofessional conduct.73294

       (5) The applicant or licensee knowingly permitted an 73295
unlicensed person, other than a person serving an apprenticeship, 73296
to engage in the profession or business of embalming or funeral 73297
directing under the applicant's or licensee's supervision.73298

       (6) The applicant or licensee has been habitually 73299
intoxicated, or is addicted to the use of morphine, cocaine, or 73300
other habit-forming or illegal drugs.73301

       (7) The applicant or licensee has refused to promptly submit 73302
the custody of a dead human body upon the express order of the 73303
person legally entitled to the body.73304

       (8) The licensee loaned the licensee's own license, or the 73305
applicant or licensee borrowed or used the license of another 73306
person, or knowingly aided or abetted the granting of an improper 73307
license.73308

       (9) The applicant or licensee transferred a license to 73309
operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory from one 73310
owner or operator to another, or from one location to another, 73311
without notifying the board.73312

       (10) The applicant or licensee misled the public by using 73313
false or deceptive advertising.73314

       (B)(1) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 73315
refuse to grant or renew, or shall suspend or revoke, an 73316
embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming 73317
facility license only in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 73318
Revised Code.73319

       (2) The board shall send to the crematory review board 73320
written notice that it proposes to refuse to issue or renew, or 73321
proposes to suspend or revoke, a license to operate a crematory 73322
facility. If, after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing on 73323
the matter conducted under division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of 73324
the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and funeral directors 73325
finds that any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) 73326
to (10) of this section apply to the person named in its proposed 73327
action, the board may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 73328
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code refusing to issue or renew, or 73329
suspending or revoking, the person's license to operate a 73330
crematory facility.73331

       (C) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors 73332
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that any of 73333
the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) to (10) of this 73334
section apply to the holder of a license issued under this chapter 73335
and that the licensee's continued practice presents a danger of 73336
immediate and serious harm to the public, the board may suspend 73337
the licensee's license without a prior adjudicatory hearing. The 73338
executive director of the board shall prepare written allegations 73339
for consideration by the board.73340

       The board, after reviewing the written allegations, may 73341
suspend a license without a prior hearing.73342

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by a 73343
delivery system or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 73344
the Revised Code. Such an order is not subject to suspension by 73345
the court during the pendency of any appeal filed under section 73346
119.12 of the Revised Code. If the holder of an embalmer's, 73347
funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming facility license 73348
requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for 73349
the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than 73350
seven days, after the licensee has requested a hearing, unless the 73351
board and the licensee agree to a different time for holding the 73352
hearing.73353

       Upon issuing a written order of suspension to the holder of a 73354
license to operate a crematory facility, the board of embalmers 73355
and funeral directors shall send written notice of the issuance of 73356
the order to the crematory review board. The crematory review 73357
board shall hold an adjudicatory hearing on the order under 73358
division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code within 73359
fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the issuance 73360
of the order, unless the crematory review board and the licensee 73361
agree to a different time for holding the adjudicatory hearing.73362

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 73363
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 73364
adjudicatory order issued by the board of embalmers and funeral 73365
directors pursuant to this division and Chapter 119. of the 73366
Revised Code, or division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised 73367
Code, as applicable, becomes effective. The board of embalmers and 73368
funeral directors shall issue its final adjudicatory order within 73369
sixty days after the completion of its hearing or, in the case of 73370
the summary suspension of a license to operate a crematory 73371
facility, within sixty days after completion of the adjudicatory 73372
hearing by the crematory review board. A failure to issue the 73373
order within that time results in the dissolution of the summary 73374
suspension order, but does not invalidate any subsequent final 73375
adjudicatory order.73376

       (D) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors suspends 73377
or revokes a license held by a funeral director or a funeral home 73378
for any reason identified in division (A) of this section, the 73379
board may file a complaint with the court of common pleas in the 73380
county where the violation occurred requesting appointment of a 73381
receiver and the sequestration of the assets of the funeral home 73382
that held the suspended or revoked license or the licensed funeral 73383
home that employs the funeral director that held the suspended or 73384
revoked license. If the court of common pleas is satisfied with 73385
the application for a receivership, the court may appoint a 73386
receiver.73387

       The board or a receiver may employ and procure whatever 73388
assistance or advice is necessary in the receivership or 73389
liquidation and distribution of the assets of the funeral home, 73390
and, for that purpose, may retain officers or employees of the 73391
funeral home as needed. All expenses of the receivership or 73392
liquidation shall be paid from the assets of the funeral home and 73393
shall be a lien on those assets, and that lien shall be a priority 73394
to any other lien.73395

       (E) Any holder of a license issued under this chapter who has 73396
pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge or jury to be guilty 73397
of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in 73398
lieu of conviction entered against the individual in this state 73399
for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 73400
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 73401
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 73402
burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge 73403
or jury to be guilty of, or has had a judicial finding of 73404
eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction entered against 73405
the individual in another jurisdiction for any substantially 73406
equivalent criminal offense, is hereby suspended from practice 73407
under this chapter by operation of law, and any license issued to 73408
the individual under this chapter is hereby suspended by operation 73409
of law as of the date of the guilty plea, verdict or finding of 73410
guilt, or judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in lieu of 73411
conviction, regardless of whether the proceedings are brought in 73412
this state or another jurisdiction. The board shall notify the 73413
suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's license 73414
by the operation of this division by a delivery system or in 73415
person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If 73416
an individual whose license is suspended under this division fails 73417
to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board 73418
shall enter a final order revoking the license.73419

       (F) No person whose license has been suspended or revoked 73420
under or by the operation of this section shall practice embalming 73421
or funeral directing or operate a funeral home, embalming 73422
facility, or crematory facility until the board has reinstated the 73423
person's license.73424

       Sec. 4717.15.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 73425
directors, without the necessity for conducting a prior 73426
adjudication hearing, may issue a notice of violation to the 73427
holder of an embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or 73428
embalming facility license issued under this chapter who the board 73429
finds has committed any of the violations described in divisions 73430
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. The 73431
notice shall set forth the specific violation committed by the 73432
licensee and shall be sent by certified mail. The notice shall be 73433
accompanied by an order requiring the payment of the appropriate 73434
forfeiture prescribed in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 73435
section 4717.04 of the Revised Code and by a notice informing the 73436
licensee that the licensee is entitled to an adjudicatory hearing 73437
on the notice of violation and order if the licensee requests a 73438
hearing and if the board receives the request within thirty days 73439
after the mailing of the notice of violation and order. The board 73440
shall conduct any such adjudicatory hearing in accordance with 73441
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in 73442
this division.73443

       A licensee who receives a notice of violation and order under 73444
this division shall pay to the executive director of the board the 73445
full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 73446
days after the notice of violation and order were mailed to the 73447
licensee unless, within that time, the licensee submits a request 73448
for an adjudicatory hearing on the notice of violation and order. 73449
If such a request for an adjudicatory hearing is timely filed, the 73450
licensee need not pay the forfeiture to the executive director 73451
until after a final, nonappealable administrative or judicial 73452
decision is rendered on the order requiring payment of the 73453
forfeiture. If a final nonappealable administrative or judicial 73454
decision is rendered affirming the board's order, the licensee 73455
shall pay to the executive director of the board the full amount 73456
of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after 73457
notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A forfeiture is 73458
considered to be paid when the licensee's certified check is 73459
received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 73460
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 73461
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 73462
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 73463
considers appropriate.73464

       (B) The board shall send to the crematory review board 73465
written notice that it proposes to issue to the holder of a 73466
license to operate a crematory facility issued under this chapter 73467
a notice of violation and order requiring payment of a forfeiture 73468
specified in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 73469
4717.04 of the Revised Code. If, after the conclusion of the 73470
adjudicatory hearing on the matter conducted under division (E)(F)73471
of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and 73472
funeral directors finds that the licensee has committed any of the 73473
violations described in divisions (A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 73474
4717.04 of the Revised Code in connection with the operation of a 73475
crematory facility or cremation, the board of embalmers and 73476
funeral directors may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 73477
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code requiring payment of the 73478
appropriate forfeiture specified in rules adopted under division 73479
(A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. A licensee who 73480
receives such an order shall pay the full amount of the forfeiture 73481
to the executive director by certified check within thirty days 73482
after the order was sent to the licensee unless, within that time, 73483
the licensee files a notice of appeal in accordance with division73484
(E)(F) of section 4717.03 and section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 73485
If such a notice of appeal is timely filed, the licensee need not 73486
pay the forfeiture to the executive director until after a final, 73487
nonappealable judicial decision is rendered in the appeal. If a 73488
final, nonappealable judicial decision is rendered affirming the 73489
board's order, the licensee shall pay to the executive director 73490
the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 73491
days after notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A 73492
forfeiture is considered paid when the licensee's certified check 73493
is received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 73494
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 73495
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 73496
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 73497
considers appropriate.73498

       Sec. 4719.01.  (A) As used in sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of 73499
the Revised Code:73500

       (1) "Affiliate" means a business entity that is owned by, 73501
operated by, controlled by, or under common control with another 73502
business entity.73503

       (2) "Communication" means a written or oral notification or 73504
advertisement that meets both of the following criteria, as 73505
applicable:73506

       (a) The notification or advertisement is transmitted by or on 73507
behalf of the seller of goods or services and by or through any 73508
printed, audio, video, cinematic, telephonic, or electronic means.73509

       (b) In the case of a notification or advertisement other than 73510
by telephone, either of the following conditions is met:73511

       (i) The notification or advertisement is followed by a 73512
telephone call from a telephone solicitor or salesperson.73513

       (ii) The notification or advertisement invites a response by 73514
telephone, and, during the course of that response, a telephone 73515
solicitor or salesperson attempts to make or makes a sale of goods 73516
or services. As used in division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this section, 73517
"invites a response by telephone" excludes the mere listing or 73518
inclusion of a telephone number in a notification or 73519
advertisement.73520

       (3) "Gift, award, or prize" means anything of value that is 73521
offered or purportedly offered, or given or purportedly given by 73522
chance, at no cost to the receiver and with no obligation to 73523
purchase goods or services. As used in this division, "chance" 73524
includes a situation in which a person is guaranteed to receive an 73525
item and, at the time of the offer or purported offer, the 73526
telephone solicitor does not identify the specific item that the 73527
person will receive.73528

       (4) "Goods or services" means any real property or any 73529
tangible or intangible personal property, or services of any kind 73530
provided or offered to a person. "Goods or services" includes, but 73531
is not limited to, advertising; labor performed for the benefit of 73532
a person; personal property intended to be attached to or 73533
installed in any real property, regardless of whether it is so 73534
attached or installed; timeshare estates or licenses; and extended 73535
service contracts.73536

       (5) "Purchaser" means a person that is solicited to become or 73537
does become financially obligated as a result of a telephone 73538
solicitation.73539

       (6) "Salesperson" means an individual who is employed, 73540
appointed, or authorized by a telephone solicitor to make 73541
telephone solicitations but does not mean any of the following:73542

       (a) An individual who comes within one of the exemptions in 73543
division (B) of this section;73544

       (b) An individual employed, appointed, or authorized by a 73545
person who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of 73546
this section;73547

       (c) An individual under a written contract with a person who 73548
comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this 73549
section, if liability for all transactions with purchasers is 73550
assumed by the person so exempted.73551

       (7) "Telephone solicitation" means a communication to a 73552
person that meets both of the following criteria:73553

       (a) The communication is initiated by or on behalf of a 73554
telephone solicitor or by a salesperson.73555

       (b) The communication either represents a price or the 73556
quality or availability of goods or services or is used to induce 73557
the person to purchase goods or services, including, but not 73558
limited to, inducement through the offering of a gift, award, or 73559
prize.73560

       (8) "Telephone solicitor" means a person that engages in 73561
telephone solicitation directly or through one or more 73562
salespersons either from a location in this state, or from a 73563
location outside this state to persons in this state. "Telephone 73564
solicitor" includes, but is not limited to, any such person that 73565
is an owner, operator, officer, or director of, partner in, or 73566
other individual engaged in the management activities of, a 73567
business.73568

       (B) A telephone solicitor is exempt from the provisions of 73569
sections 4719.02 to 4719.18 and section 4719.99 of the Revised 73570
Code if the telephone solicitor is any one of the following:73571

       (1) A person engaging in a telephone solicitation that is a 73572
one-time or infrequent transaction not done in the course of a 73573
pattern of repeated transactions of a like nature;73574

       (2) A person engaged in telephone solicitation solely for 73575
religious or political purposes; a charitable organization, 73576
fund-raising counsel, or professional solicitor in compliance with 73577
the registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of 73578
the Revised Code; or any person or other entity exempt under 73579
section 1716.03 of the Revised Code from filing a registration 73580
statement under section 1716.02 of the Revised Code;73581

       (3) A person, making a telephone solicitation involving a 73582
home solicitation sale as defined in section 1345.21 of the 73583
Revised Code, that makes the sales presentation and completes the 73584
sale at a later, face-to-face meeting between the seller and the 73585
purchaser rather than during the telephone solicitation. However, 73586
if the person, following the telephone solicitation, causes 73587
another person to collect the payment of any money, this exemption 73588
does not apply.73589

       (4) A licensed securities, commodities, or investment broker, 73590
dealer, investment advisor, or associated person when making a 73591
telephone solicitation within the scope of the person's license. 73592
As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "licensed securities, 73593
commodities, or investment broker, dealer, investment advisor, or 73594
associated person" means a person subject to licensure or 73595
registration as such by the securities and exchange commission; 73596
the National Association of Securities Dealers or other 73597
self-regulatory organization, as defined by 15 U.S.C.A. 78c; by 73598
the division of securities under Chapter 1707. of the Revised 73599
Code; or by an official or agency of any other state of the United 73600
States.73601

       (5)(a) A person primarily engaged in soliciting the sale of a 73602
newspaper of general circulation;73603

       (b) As used in division (B)(5)(a) of this section, "newspaper 73604
of general circulation" includes, but is not limited to, both of 73605
the following:73606

       (i) A newspaper that is a daily law journal designated as an 73607
official publisher of court calendars pursuant to section 2701.09 73608
of the Revised Code;73609

       (ii) A newspaper or publication that has at least twenty-five 73610
per cent editorial, non-advertising content, exclusive of inserts, 73611
measured relative to total publication space, and an audited 73612
circulation to at least fifty per cent of the households in the 73613
newspaper's retail trade zone as defined by the audit.73614

       (6)(a) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that has a class of 73615
securities to which all of the following apply:73616

       (i) The class of securities is subject to section 12 of the 73617
"Securities Exchange Act of 1934," 15 U.S.C.A. 78l, and is 73618
registered or is exempt from registration under 15 U.S.C.A. 73619
78l(g)(2)(A), (B), (C), (E), (F), (G), or (H);73620

       (ii) The class of securities is listed on the New York stock 73621
exchange, the American stock exchange, or the NASDAQ national 73622
market system;73623

       (iii) The class of securities is a reported security as 73624
defined in 17 C.F.R. 240.11Aa3-1(a)(4).73625

       (b) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that formerly had a class 73626
of securities that met the criteria set forth in division 73627
(B)(6)(a) of this section if the issuer, or its subsidiary, has a 73628
net worth in excess of one hundred million dollars, files or its 73629
parent files with the securities and exchange commission an S.E.C. 73630
form 10-K, and has continued in substantially the same business 73631
since it had a class of securities that met the criteria in 73632
division (B)(6)(a) of this section. As used in division (B)(6)(b) 73633
of this section, "issuer" and "subsidiary" include the successor 73634
to an issuer or subsidiary.73635

       (7) A person soliciting a transaction regulated by the 73636
commodity futures trading commission, if the person is registered 73637
or temporarily registered for that activity with the commission 73638
under 7 U.S.C.A. 1 et. seq. and the registration or temporary 73639
registration has not expired or been suspended or revoked;73640

       (8) A person soliciting the sale of any book, record, audio 73641
tape, compact disc, or video, if the person allows the purchaser 73642
to review the merchandise for at least seven days and provides a 73643
full refund within thirty days to a purchaser who returns the 73644
merchandise or if the person solicits the sale on behalf of a 73645
membership club operating in compliance with regulations adopted 73646
by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 425;73647

       (9) A supervised financial institution or its subsidiary. As 73648
used in division (B)(9) of this section, "supervised financial 73649
institution" means a bank, trust company, savings and loan 73650
association, savings bank, credit union, industrial loan company, 73651
consumer finance lender, commercial finance lender, or institution 73652
described in section 2(c)(2)(F) of the "Bank Holding Company Act 73653
of 1956," 12 U.S.C.A. 1841(c)(2)(F), as amended, supervised by an 73654
official or agency of the United States, this state, or any other 73655
state of the United States; or a licensee or registrant under 73656
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19, 1321.51 to 1321.60, or 1321.71 to 73657
1321.83 of the Revised Code.73658

       (10)(a) An insurance company, association, or other 73659
organization that is licensed or authorized to conduct business in 73660
this state by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Title 73661
XXXIX of the Revised Code or Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, 73662
when soliciting within the scope of its license or authorization.73663

       (b) A licensed insurance broker, agent, or solicitor when 73664
soliciting within the scope of the person's license. As used in 73665
division (B)(10)(b) of this section, "licensed insurance broker, 73666
agent, or solicitor" means any person licensed as an insurance 73667
broker, agent, or solicitor by the superintendent of insurance 73668
pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.73669

       (11) A person soliciting the sale of services provided by a 73670
cable television system operating under authority of a 73671
governmental franchise or permit;73672

       (12) A person soliciting a business-to-business sale under 73673
which any of the following conditions are met:73674

       (a) The telephone solicitor has been operating continuously 73675
for at least three years under the same business name under which 73676
it solicits purchasers, and at least fifty-one per cent of its 73677
gross dollar volume of sales consists of repeat sales to existing 73678
customers to whom it has made sales under the same business name.73679

       (b) The purchaser business intends to resell the goods 73680
purchased.73681

       (c) The purchaser business intends to use the goods or 73682
services purchased in a recycling, reuse, manufacturing, or 73683
remanufacturing process.73684

       (d) The telephone solicitor is a publisher of a periodical or 73685
of magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications as 73686
defined in division (CC) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code 73687
and is soliciting sales of advertising, subscriptions, reprints, 73688
lists, information databases, conference participation or 73689
sponsorships, trade shows or media products related to the 73690
periodical or magazine, or other publishing services provided by 73691
the controlled circulation publication.73692

       (13) A person that, not less often than once each year, 73693
publishes and delivers to potential purchasers a catalog that 73694
complies with both of the following:73695

       (a) It includes all of the following:73696

       (i) The business address of the seller;73697

       (ii) A written description or illustration of each good or 73698
service offered for sale;73699

       (iii) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of the sale price of 73700
each good or service; shipping, handling, and other charges; and 73701
return policy.73702

       (b) One of the following applies:73703

       (i) The catalog includes at least twenty-four pages of 73704
written material and illustrations, is distributed in more than 73705
one state, and has an annual postage-paid mail circulation of not 73706
less than two hundred fifty thousand households;73707

       (ii) The catalog includes at least ten pages of written 73708
material or an equivalent amount of material in electronic form on 73709
the internet or an on-line computer service, the person does not 73710
solicit customers by telephone but solely receives telephone calls 73711
made in response to the catalog, and during the calls the person 73712
takes orders but does not engage in further solicitation of the 73713
purchaser. As used in division (B)(13)(b)(ii) of this section, 73714
"further solicitation" does not include providing the purchaser 73715
with information about, or attempting to sell, any other item in 73716
the catalog that prompted the purchaser's call or in a 73717
substantially similar catalog issued by the seller.73718

       (14) A political subdivision or instrumentality of the United 73719
States, this state, or any state of the United States;73720

       (15) A college or university or any other public or private 73721
institution of higher education in this state;73722

       (16) A public utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the 73723
Revised Code or a retail natural gas supplier as defined in 73724
section 4929.01 of the Revised Code, if the utility or supplier is 73725
subject to regulation by the public utilities commission, or the 73726
affiliate of the utility or supplier;73727

       (17) A person that solicits sales through a television 73728
program or advertisement that is presented in the same market area 73729
no fewer than twenty days per month or offers for sale no fewer 73730
than ten distinct items of goods or services; and offers to the 73731
purchaser an unconditional right to return any good or service 73732
purchased within a period of at least seven days and to receive a 73733
full refund within thirty days after the purchaser returns the 73734
good or cancels the service;73735

       (18)(a) A person that, for at least one year, has been 73736
operating a retail business under the same name as that used in 73737
connection with telephone solicitation and both of the following 73738
occur on a continuing basis:73739

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 73740
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 73741
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises.73742

       (ii) At least fifty-one per cent of the person's gross dollar 73743
volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at 73744
the person's business premises.73745

       (b) An affiliate of a person that meets the requirements in 73746
division (B)(18)(a) of this section if the affiliate meets all of 73747
the following requirements:73748

       (i) The affiliate has operated a retail business for a period 73749
of less than one year;73750

       (ii) The affiliate either displays goods and offers them for 73751
retail sale at the affiliate's business premises or offers 73752
services for sale and provides them at the affiliate's business 73753
premises;73754

       (iii) At least fifty-one per cent of the affiliate's gross 73755
dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or 73756
services at the affiliate's business premises.73757

       (c) A person that, for a period of less than one year, has 73758
been operating a retail business in this state under the same name 73759
as that used in connection with telephone solicitation, as long as 73760
all of the following requirements are met:73761

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 73762
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 73763
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises;73764

       (ii) The goods or services that are the subject of telephone 73765
solicitation are sold at the person's business premises, and at 73766
least sixty-five per cent of the person's gross dollar volume of 73767
retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the 73768
person's business premises;73769

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 73770
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 73771
telemarketing sales rule adopted by the federal trade commission 73772
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.73773

       (19) A person who performs telephone solicitation sales 73774
services on behalf of other persons and to whom one of the 73775
following applies:73776

       (a) The person has operated under the same ownership, 73777
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 73778
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its gross revenues from 73779
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 73780
within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section.73781

       (b) The person is an affiliate of one or more exempt persons 73782
and makes telephone solicitations on behalf of only the exempt 73783
persons of which it is an affiliate.73784

       (c) The person makes telephone solicitations on behalf of 73785
only exempt persons, the person and each exempt person on whose 73786
behalf telephone solicitations are made have entered into a 73787
written contract that specifies the manner in which the telephone 73788
solicitations are to be conducted and that at a minimum requires 73789
compliance with the telemarketing sales rule adopted by the 73790
federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and the person 73791
conducts the telephone solicitations in the manner specified in 73792
the written contract.73793

       (d) The person performs telephone solicitation for religious 73794
or political purposes, a charitable organization, a fund-raising 73795
council, or a professional solicitor in compliance with the 73796
registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of the 73797
Revised Code; and meets all of the following requirements:73798

       (i) The person has operated under the same ownership, 73799
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 73800
receives at least fifty-one per cent of its gross revenues from 73801
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 73802
within the exemption in division (B)(2) of this section;73803

       (ii) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 73804
the sale of an investment opportunity; 73805

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 73806
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 73807
telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission 73808
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.73809

       (20) A person that is a licensed real estate salesperson or 73810
broker under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code when soliciting 73811
within the scope of the person's license;73812

       (21)(a) Either of the following:73813

       (i) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 73814
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 73815
that solicits a sale of that nature on behalf of a publisher under 73816
a written agreement directly between the publisher and the person.73817

       (ii) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 73818
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 73819
that solicits a sale of that nature as authorized by a publisher 73820
under a written agreement directly with a publisher's 73821
clearinghouse provided the person is a resident of Ohio for more 73822
than three years and initiates all telephone solicitations from 73823
Ohio and the person conducts the solicitation and sale in 73824
compliance with 16 C.F.R. part 310, as adopted by the federal 73825
trade commission.73826

       (b) As used in division (B)(21) of this section, "periodical 73827
or magazine of general, paid circulation" excludes a periodical or 73828
magazine circulated only as part of a membership package or given 73829
as a free gift or prize from the publisher or person.73830

       (22) A person that solicits the sale of food, as defined in 73831
section 3715.01 of the Revised Code, or the sale of products of 73832
horticulture, as defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 73833
if the person does not intend the solicitation to result in, or 73834
the solicitation actually does not result in, a sale that costs 73835
the purchaser an amount greater than five hundred dollars.73836

       (23) A funeral director licensed pursuant to Chapter 4717. of 73837
the Revised Code when soliciting within the scope of that license, 73838
if both of the following apply:73839

       (a) The solicitation and sale are conducted in compliance 73840
with 16 C.F.R. part 453, as adopted by the federal trade 73841
commission, and with sections 1107.33 and 1345.21 to 1345.28 of 73842
the Revised Code;73843

       (b) The person provides to the purchaser of any preneed 73844
funeral contract a notice that clearly and conspicuously sets 73845
forth the cancellation rights specified in division (G) of section 73846
1107.33 of the Revised Code, and retains a copy of the notice 73847
signed by the purchaser.73848

       (24) A person, or affiliate thereof, licensed to sell or 73849
issue Ohio instruments designated as travelers checks pursuant to 73850
sections 1315.01 to 1315.18 of the Revised Code.73851

       (25) A person that solicits sales from its previous 73852
purchasers and meets all of the following requirements:73853

       (a) The solicitation is made under the same business name 73854
that was previously used to sell goods or services to the 73855
purchaser;73856

       (b) The person has, for a period of not less than three 73857
years, operated a business under the same business name as that 73858
used in connection with telephone solicitation;73859

       (c) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 73860
the sale of an investment opportunity;73861

       (d) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities 73862
according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the telemarketing 73863
sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 73864
part 310;73865

       (e) Neither the person nor any of its principals has been 73866
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has entered a plea of no 73867
contest for a felony or a theft offense as defined in sections 73868
2901.02 and 2913.01 of the Revised Code or similar law of another 73869
state or of the United States;73870

       (f) Neither the person nor any of its principals has had 73871
entered against them an injunction or a final judgment or order, 73872
including an agreed judgment or order, an assurance of voluntary 73873
compliance, or any similar instrument, in any civil or 73874
administrative action involving engaging in a pattern of corrupt 73875
practices, fraud, theft, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or 73876
misappropriation of property; the use of any untrue, deceptive, or 73877
misleading representation; or the use of any unfair, unlawful, 73878
deceptive, or unconscionable trade act or practice.73879

       (26) An institution defined as a home health agency in 73880
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code, that conducts all telephone 73881
solicitation activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 73882
310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal 73883
trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and engages in telephone 73884
solicitation only within the scope of the institution's 73885
certification, accreditation, contract with the department of 73886
aging, or status as a home health agency; and that meets one of 73887
the following requirements:73888

       (a) The institution is certified as a provider of home health 73889
services under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 49 Stat. 73890
620, 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;73891

       (b) The institution is accredited by either the joint 73892
commission on accreditation of health care organizations or the 73893
community health accreditation program;73894

       (c) The institution is providing passportPASSPORT services 73895
under the direction of the Ohio department of aging under section 73896
173.40sections 173.52 to 173.523 of the Revised Code;73897

       (d) An affiliate of an institution that meets the 73898
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section 73899
when offering for sale substantially the same goods and services 73900
as those that are offered by the institution that meets the 73901
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section.73902

       (27) A person licensed by the department of health pursuant 73903
to section 3712.04 or 3712.041 of the Revised Code to provide a 73904
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program when 73905
conducting telephone solicitations within the scope of the 73906
person's license and according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 73907
of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade 73908
commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310.73909

       Sec. 4723.18.  (A) The board of nursing shall authorize a 73910
licensed practical nurse to administer to an adult intravenous 73911
therapy if the nurse supplies evidence satisfactory to the board 73912
that all of the following are the case:73913

       (1) The nurse holds a current, valid license issued under 73914
this chapter to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse.73915

       (2) The nurse has been authorized under section 4723.18 of 73916
the Revised Code to administer medications.73917

        (3) The nurse successfully completed a course of study in the 73918
safe performance of intravenous therapy approved by the board 73919
pursuant to section 4723.19 of the Revised Code or by an agency in 73920
another jurisdiction that regulates the practice of nursing and 73921
has requirements for intravenous therapy course approval that are 73922
substantially similar to the requirements in division (B) of 73923
section 4723.19 of the Revised Code, as determined by the board.73924

       (4) The nurse has successfully completed a minimum of forty 73925
hours of training that includes all of the following:73926

       (a) The curriculum established by rules adopted by the board;73927

       (b) Training in the anatomy and physiology of the 73928
cardiovascular system, signs and symptoms of local and systemic 73929
complications in the administration of fluids and antibiotic 73930
additives, and guidelines for management of these complications;73931

       (c) Any other training or instruction the board considers 73932
appropriate;73933

       (d) A testing component that requires the nurse to perform a 73934
successful demonstration of the intravenous procedures, including 73935
all skills needed to perform them safely.73936

       (B) Except as provided in section 4723.181 of the Revised 73937
Code and subject to the restrictions in division (D) of this 73938
section, a licensed practical nurse may perform intravenous 73939
therapy on an adult patient only if authorized by the board 73940
pursuant to division (A) of this section and only at the direction 73941
of one of the following:73942

       (1) A licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist 73943
who, except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, is 73944
present and readily available at the facility where the 73945
intravenous therapy procedure is performed;73946

       (2) A registered nurse in accordance with division (C) of 73947
this section.73948

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section 73949
and section 4723.181 of the Revised Code, when a licensed 73950
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 73951
therapy performs an intravenous therapy procedure at the direction 73952
of a registered nurse, the registered nurse or another registered 73953
nurse shall be readily available at the site where the intravenous 73954
therapy is performed, and before the licensed practical nurse 73955
initiates the intravenous therapy, the registered nurse shall 73956
personally perform an on-site assessment of the adult patient who 73957
is to receive the intravenous therapy.73958

       (2) When a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board 73959
to perform intravenous therapy performs an intravenous therapy 73960
procedure in a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 73961
Code, or in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 73962
retarded as defined in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 73963
Code, at the direction of a registered nurse or licensed 73964
physician, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist, a registered nurse 73965
shall be on the premises of the home or facility or accessible by 73966
some form of telecommunication.73967

       (D) No licensed practical nurse shall perform any of the 73968
following intravenous therapy procedures:73969

       (1) Initiating or maintaining any of the following:73970

       (a) Blood or blood components;73971

       (b) Solutions for total parenteral nutrition;73972

       (c) Any cancer therapeutic medication including, but not 73973
limited to, cancer chemotherapy or an anti-neoplastic agent;73974

       (d) Solutions administered through any central venous line or 73975
arterial line or any other line that does not terminate in a 73976
peripheral vein, except that a licensed practical nurse authorized 73977
by the board to perform intravenous therapy may maintain the 73978
solutions specified in division (D)(6)(a) of this section that are 73979
being administered through a central venous line or peripherally 73980
inserted central catheter;73981

       (e) Any investigational or experimental medication.73982

       (2) Initiating intravenous therapy in any vein, except that a 73983
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 73984
intravenous therapy may initiate intravenous therapy in accordance 73985
with this section in a vein of the hand, forearm, or antecubital 73986
fossa;73987

       (3) Discontinuing a central venous, arterial, or any other 73988
line that does not terminate in a peripheral vein;73989

       (4) Initiating or discontinuing a peripherally inserted 73990
central catheter;73991

       (5) Mixing, preparing, or reconstituting any medication for 73992
intravenous therapy, except that a licensed practical nurse 73993
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may prepare 73994
or reconstitute an antibiotic additive;73995

       (6) Administering medication via the intravenous route, 73996
including all of the following activities:73997

       (a) Adding medication to an intravenous solution or to an 73998
existing infusion, except that a licensed practical nurse 73999
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may do any 74000
of the following:74001

       (i) Initiate an intravenous infusion containing one or more 74002
of the following elements: dextrose 5%, normal saline, lactated 74003
ringers, sodium chloride .45%, sodium chloride 0.2%, sterile 74004
water;74005

       (ii) Hang subsequent containers of the intravenous solutions 74006
specified in division (D)(6)(a)(i) of this section that contain 74007
vitamins or electrolytes, if a registered nurse initiated the 74008
infusion of that same intravenous solution;74009

       (iii) Initiate or maintain an intravenous infusion containing 74010
an antibiotic additive.74011

       (b) Injecting medication via a direct intravenous route, 74012
except that a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to 74013
perform intravenous therapy may inject heparin or normal saline to 74014
flush an intermittent infusion device or heparin lock including, 74015
but not limited to, bolus or push.74016

       (7) Changing tubing on any line including, but not limited 74017
to, an arterial line or a central venous line, except that a 74018
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 74019
intravenous therapy may change tubing on an intravenous line that 74020
terminates in a peripheral vein;74021

       (8) Programming or setting any function of a patient 74022
controlled infusion pump.74023

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (D) of this section, at 74024
the direction of a physician or a registered nurse, a licensed 74025
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 74026
therapy may perform the following activities for the purpose of 74027
performing dialysis:74028

       (1) The routine administration and regulation of saline 74029
solution for the purpose of maintaining an established fluid plan;74030

       (2) The administration of a heparin dose intravenously;74031

       (3) The administration of a heparin dose peripherally via a 74032
fistula needle;74033

       (4) The loading and activation of a constant infusion pump;74034

       (5) The intermittent injection of a dose of medication that 74035
is administered via the hemodialysis blood circuit and through the 74036
patient's venous access.74037

       (F) No person shall employ or direct a licensed practical 74038
nurse to perform an intravenous therapy procedure without first 74039
verifying that the licensed practical nurse is authorized by the 74040
board to perform intravenous therapy.74041

       Sec. 4723.35.  (A) As used in this section, "chemical 74042
dependency" means either of the following:74043

       (1) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 74044
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 74045
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 74046
others;74047

       (2) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 74048
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 74049
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 74050
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 74051
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 74052
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 74053
safety, or welfare or that of others.74054

       (B) The board of nursing may abstain from taking disciplinary 74055
action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code 74056
against an individual with a chemical dependency if it finds that 74057
the individual can be treated effectively and there is no 74058
impairment of the individual's ability to practice according to 74059
acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care. The board shall 74060
establish a chemical dependency monitoring program to monitor the 74061
registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, dialysis 74062
technicians, and certified community health workers against whom 74063
the board has abstained from taking action. The board shall 74064
develop the program, select the program's name, and designate a 74065
coordinator to administer the program.74066

       (C) Determinations regarding an individual's eligibility for 74067
admission to, continued participation in, and successful 74068
completion of the monitoring program shall be made by the board's 74069
supervising member for disciplinary matters in accordance with 74070
rules adopted under division (D) of this section.74071

       (D) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 74072
119. of the Revised Code that establish the following:74073

       (1) Eligibility requirements for admission to and continued 74074
participation in the monitoring program;74075

       (2) Terms and conditions that must be met to participate in 74076
and successfully complete the program;74077

       (3) Procedures for keeping confidential records regarding 74078
participants;74079

       (4) Any other requirements or procedures necessary to 74080
establish and administer the program.74081

       (E)(1) As a condition of being admitted to the monitoring 74082
program, an individual shall surrender to the program coordinator 74083
the license or certificate that the individual holds. While the 74084
surrender is in effect, the individual is prohibited from engaging 74085
in the practice of nursing, engaging in the provision of dialysis 74086
care, or engaging in the provision of services that were being 74087
provided as a certified community health worker.74088

       If the board's supervising member for disciplinary matters 74089
determines that a participant is capable of resuming practice 74090
according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care, the 74091
program coordinator shall return the participant's license or 74092
certificate. If the participant violates the terms and conditions 74093
of resumed practice, the coordinator shall require the participant 74094
to surrender the license or certificate as a condition of 74095
continued participation in the program. The coordinator may 74096
require the surrender only on the approval of the board's 74097
supervising member for disciplinary matters.74098

       The surrender of a license or certificate on admission to the 74099
monitoring program or while participating in the program does not 74100
constitute an action by the board under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 74101
of the Revised Code. The participant may rescind the surrender at 74102
any time and the board may proceed by taking action under section 74103
4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code.74104

       (2) If the program coordinator determines that a participant 74105
is significantly out of compliance with the terms and conditions 74106
for participation, the coordinator shall notify the board's 74107
supervising member for disciplinary matters and the supervising 74108
member shall determine whether to temporarily suspend the 74109
participant's license or certificate. The board shall notify the 74110
participant of the suspension by certified mail sent to the 74111
participant's last known address and shall refer the matter to the 74112
board for formal action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the 74113
Revised Code.74114

       (F) All of the following apply with respect to the receipt, 74115
release, and maintenance of records and information by the 74116
monitoring program:74117

       (1) The program coordinator shall maintain all program 74118
records in the board's office, and for each participant, shall 74119
retain the records for a period of two years following the 74120
participant's date of successful completion of the program.74121

       (2) When applying to participate in the monitoring program, 74122
the applicant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 74123
and release information necessary to determine whether the 74124
individual is eligible for admission. After being admitted, the 74125
participant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 74126
and release information necessary to determine whether the 74127
individual is eligible for continued participation in the program. 74128
Information that may be necessary for the board's supervising 74129
member for disciplinary matters to determine eligibility for 74130
admission or continued participation in the monitoring program 74131
includes, but is not limited to, information provided to and by 74132
employers, probation officers, law enforcement agencies, peer 74133
assistance programs, health professionals, and treatment 74134
providers. No entity with knowledge that the information has been 74135
provided to the monitoring program shall divulge that knowledge to 74136
any other person.74137

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, 74138
all records pertaining to an individual's application for or 74139
participation in the monitoring program, including medical 74140
records, treatment records, and mental health records, shall be 74141
confidential. The records are not public records for the purposes 74142
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and are not subject to 74143
discovery by subpoena or admissible as evidence in any judicial 74144
proceeding.74145

       (4) The board may disclose information regarding a 74146
participant's progress in the program to any person or government 74147
entity that the participant authorizes in writing to be given the 74148
information. In disclosing information under this division, the 74149
board shall not include any information that is protected under 74150
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any federal statute 74151
or regulation that provides for the confidentiality of medical, 74152
mental health, or substance abuse records.74153

       (G) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the board as a 74154
whole, its individual members, and its employees and 74155
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 74156
a result of disclosing information in accordance with division 74157
(F)(4) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, any 74158
person reporting to the program with regard to an individual's 74159
chemical dependence, or the progress or lack of progress of that 74160
individual with regard to treatment, is not liable for damages in 74161
any civil action as a result of the report.74162

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 74163
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 74164
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 74165
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 74166
prescribe issued under section 4723.4814723.48 of the Revised 74167
Code.74168

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 74169
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 74170
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 74171
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 74172
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.74173

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 74174
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 74175
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 74176
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 74177
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 74178
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 74179
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.74180

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 74181
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 74182
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 74183
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 74184

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 74185
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.74186

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 74187
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 74188
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.74189

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 74190
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 74191
twenty-four-hour period. 74192

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 74193
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 74194
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 74195
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 74196
the following locations:74197

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 74198
Revised Code;74199

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 74200
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 74201
part, one or more hospitals;74202

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 74203
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 74204
department of developmental disabilities;74205

        (d) A nursing home or residential care facility licensed 74206
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or by a political 74207
subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;74208

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 74209
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 74210
medicaid program;74211

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 74212
the Revised Code;74213

       (g) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 74214
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;74215

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 74216
3702.30 of the Revised Code;74217

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 74218
3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code;74219

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 74220
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;74221

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 74222
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;74223

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 74224
health of a city or general health district or the authority 74225
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 74226
the Revised Code;74227

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 74228
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 74229
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 74230
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 74231
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 74232
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 74233
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 74234
that site.74235

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 74236
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 74237
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 74238
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 74239
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.74240

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 74241
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 74242
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 74243
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 74244
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 74245
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 74246
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 74247
4729. of the Revised Code.74248

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 74249
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 74250
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 74251
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 74252
following conditions apply:74253

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 74254
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 74255
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 74256
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 74257
may be furnished.74258

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 74259
it.74260

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 74261
furnished.74262

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 74263
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 74264
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 74265
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 74266
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:74267

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 74268
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 74269
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 74270
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 74271
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 74272
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.74273

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 74274
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 74275
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 74276
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 74277
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 74278
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 74279
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.74280

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 74281
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 74282
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 74283
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 74284
Revised Code.74285

       Sec. 4725.03.  The governor, with the advice and consent of 74286
the senate, shall appoint a state board of optometry consisting of 74287
six nonmedical residents of this state, five of whom shall be 74288
persons actually engaged in the practice of optometry for five 74289
years preceding appointment and one of whom shall be a member of 74290
the public at least sixtyfifty years of age. Terms of office 74291
shall be five years, commencing on the twenty-sixth day of 74292
September and ending on the twenty-fifth day of September. Each 74293
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 74294
end of the term for which appointed. Any member appointed to fill 74295
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 74296
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 74297
remainder of the term. A member shall continue in office 74298
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 74299
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 74300
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No person shall serve as a 74301
member for more than two terms.74302

       Sec. 4725.16.  (A) Each certificate of licensure, topical 74303
ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, and therapeutic 74304
pharmaceutical agents certificate issued by the state board of 74305
optometry shall expire annually on the last day of December, and 74306
may be renewed in accordance with this section and the standard 74307
renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised 74308
Code.74309

       An optometrist seeking to continue to practice optometry 74310
shall file with the board an application for license renewal. The 74311
application shall be in such form and require such pertinent 74312
professional biographical data as the board may require.74313

       (B) All licensed optometrists shall annually complete 74314
continuing education in subjects relating to the practice of 74315
optometry, to the end that the utilization and application of new 74316
techniques, scientific and clinical advances, and the achievements 74317
of research will assure comprehensive care to the public. The 74318
board shall prescribe by rule the continuing optometric education 74319
that licensed optometrists must complete. The length of study 74320
shall be twenty-five clock hours each year, including ten clock 74321
hours of instruction in pharmacology to be completed by all 74322
licensed optometrists.74323

       Unless the continuing education required under this division 74324
is waived or deferred under division (D) of this section, the 74325
continuing education must be completed during the twelve-month 74326
period beginning on the first day of October and ending on the 74327
last day of September. If the board receives notice from a 74328
continuing education program indicating that an optometrist 74329
completed the program after the last day of September, and the 74330
optometrist wants to use the continuing education completed after 74331
that day to renew the license that expires on the last day of 74332
December of that year, the optometrist shall pay the penalty 74333
specified under section 4725.34 of the Revised Code for late 74334
completion of continuing education.74335

       At least once annually, the board shall post on its web site 74336
and shall mail, or send by electronic mail, to each licensed 74337
optometrist a list of courses approved in accordance with 74338
standards prescribed by board rule. Upon the request of a licensed 74339
optometrist, the executive director of the board shall supply a 74340
list of additional courses that the board has approved subsequent 74341
to the most recent web site posting, electronic mail transmission, 74342
or mailing of the list of approved courses.74343

       (C)(1) Annually, not later than the first day of November, 74344
the board shall mail or send by electronic mail a notice regarding 74345
license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible 74346
for renewal. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's last74347
most recent electronic mail or mailing address shown in the 74348
board's records. If the board knows that the optometrist has 74349
completed the required continuing optometric education for the 74350
year, the board may include with the notice an application for 74351
license renewal. 74352

       (2) Filing a license renewal application with the board shall 74353
serve as notice by the optometrist that the continuing optometric 74354
education requirement has been successfully completed. If the 74355
board finds that an optometrist has not completed the required 74356
continuing optometric education, the board shall disapprove the 74357
optometrist's application. The board's disapproval of renewal is 74358
effective without a hearing, unless a hearing is requested 74359
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 74360

       (3) The board shall refuse to accept an application for 74361
renewal from any applicant whose license is not in good standing 74362
or who is under disciplinary review pursuant to section 4725.19 of 74363
the Revised Code. 74364

       (4) Notice of an applicant's failure to qualify for renewal 74365
shall be served upon the applicant by mail. The notice shall be 74366
sent not later than the fifteenth day of November to the 74367
applicant's last address shown in the board's records.74368

       (D) In cases of certified illness or undue hardship, the 74369
board may waive or defer for up to twelve months the requirement 74370
of continuing optometric education, except that in such cases the 74371
board may not waive or defer the continuing education in 74372
pharmacology required to be completed by optometrists who hold 74373
topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificates or therapeutic 74374
pharmaceutical agents certificates. The board shall waive the 74375
requirement of continuing optometric education for any optometrist 74376
who is serving in the armed forces of the United States or who has 74377
received an initial certificate of licensure during the nine-month 74378
period which ended on the last day of September.74379

       (E) An optometrist whose renewal application has been 74380
approved may renew each certificate held by paying to the 74381
treasurer of state the fees for renewal specified under section 74382
4725.34 of the Revised Code. On payment of all applicable fees, 74383
the board shall issue a renewal of the optometrist's certificate 74384
of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, 74385
and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, as appropriate. 74386

       (F) Not later than the fifteenth day of December, the board 74387
shall email or mail a second notice regarding license renewal to 74388
each licensed optometrist who may be eligible for renewal but did 74389
not respond to the notice sent under division (C)(1) of this 74390
section. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's lastmost 74391
recent email or mailing address shown in the board's records. If 74392
an optometrist fails to file a renewal application after the 74393
second notice is sent, the board shall send a third notice 74394
regarding license renewal prior to any action under division (I) 74395
of this section to classify the optometrist's certificates as 74396
delinquent. 74397

       (G) The failure of an optometrist to apply for license 74398
renewal or the failure to pay the applicable annual renewal fees 74399
on or before the date of expiration, shall automatically work a 74400
forfeiture of the optometrist's authority to practice optometry in 74401
this state. 74402

       (H) The board shall accept renewal applications and renewal 74403
fees that are submitted from the first day of January to the last 74404
day of April of the year next succeeding the date of expiration. 74405
An individual who submits such a late renewal application or fee 74406
shall pay the late renewal fee specified in section 4725.34 of the 74407
Revised Code.74408

       (I)(1) If the certificates issued by the board to an 74409
individual have expired and the individual has not filed a 74410
complete application during the late renewal period, the 74411
individual's certificates shall be classified in the board's 74412
records as delinquent.74413

       (2) Any optometrist subject to delinquent classification may 74414
submit a written application to the board for reinstatement. For 74415
reinstatement to occur, the applicant must meet all of the 74416
following conditions:74417

       (a) Submit to the board evidence of compliance with board 74418
rules requiring continuing optometric education in a sufficient 74419
number of hours to make up for any delinquent compliance;74420

       (b) Pay the renewal fees for the year in which application 74421
for reinstatement is made and the reinstatement fee specified 74422
under division (A)(8) of section 4725.34 of the Revised Code;74423

       (c) Pass all or part of the licensing examination accepted by 74424
the board under section 4725.11 of the Revised Code as the board 74425
considers appropriate to determine whether the application for 74426
reinstatement should be approved;74427

       (d) If the applicant has been practicing optometry in another 74428
state or country, submit evidence that the applicant's license to 74429
practice optometry in the other state or country is in good 74430
standing.74431

       (3) The board shall approve an application for reinstatement 74432
if the conditions specified in division (I)(2) of this section are 74433
met. An optometrist who receives reinstatement is subject to the 74434
continuing education requirements specified under division (B) of 74435
this section for the year in which reinstatement occurs.74436

       Sec. 4729.51.  (A) No person other than a registered 74437
wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, 74438
sell, distribute, or deliver, at wholesale, dangerous drugs, 74439
except as follows:74440

       (1) A pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of 74441
dangerous drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal 74442
distributor of dangerous drugs may make occasional sales of 74443
dangerous drugs at wholesale;74444

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 74445
more than one establishment or place may transfer or deliver 74446
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 74447
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 74448
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 74449
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 74450
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or delivery.74451

       (B)(1) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 74452
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 74453
any person other than the following:74454

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 74455
a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;74456

       (b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 74457
Revised Code who holds a topical ocular pharmaceutical agents 74458
certificate;74459

       (c) A registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs;74460

       (d) A manufacturer of dangerous drugs;74461

       (e) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, a licensed 74462
terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;74463

       (f) Carriers or warehouses for the purpose of carriage or 74464
storage;74465

       (g) Terminal or wholesale distributors of dangerous drugs who 74466
are not engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs within this state;74467

       (h) An individual who holds a current license, certificate, 74468
or registration issued under Title 47XLVII of the Revised Code 74469
and has been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 74470
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 74471
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only with 74472
respect to insulin that will be used for the purpose of diabetes 74473
education and only if diabetes education is within the 74474
individual's scope of practice under statutes and rules regulating 74475
the individual's profession;74476

       (i) An individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 74477
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 74478
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only with 74479
respect to medical oxygen that will be used for the purpose of 74480
emergency care or treatment at the scene of a diving emergency;74481

       (j) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, 74482
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 74483
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 74484
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, or a 74485
professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised 74486
Code if the entity has a sole shareholder who is a licensed health 74487
professional authorized to prescribe drugs and is authorized to 74488
provide the professional services being offered by the entity;74489

        (k) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 74490
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 74491
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 74492
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, a 74493
partnership or a limited liability partnership formed under 74494
Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, or a professional association 74495
formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code, if, to be a 74496
shareholder, member, or partner, an individual is required to be 74497
licensed, certified, or otherwise legally authorized under Title 74498
XLVII of the Revised Code to perform the professional service 74499
provided by the entity and each such individual is a licensed 74500
health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.74501

       (2) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 74502
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 74503
any of the following:74504

       (a) A prescriber who is employed by a pain management clinic 74505
that is not licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 74506
with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 74507
4729.552 of the Revised Code;74508

       (b) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(j) of this 74509
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 74510
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 74511
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 74512
the Revised Code;74513

       (c) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(k) of this 74514
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 74515
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 74516
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 74517
the Revised Code.74518

        (3) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 74519
shall possess dangerous drugs for sale at wholesale, or sell such 74520
drugs at wholesale, to a licensed terminal distributor of 74521
dangerous drugs, except as follows:74522

       (a) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category I 74523
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I, as defined 74524
in division (A)(1) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;74525

       (b) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category II 74526
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I and category 74527
II, as defined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 4729.54 of 74528
the Revised Code;74529

       (c) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category III 74530
license, dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, and 74531
category III, as defined in divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of 74532
section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;74533

       (d) In the case of a terminal distributor with a limited 74534
category I, II, or III license, only the dangerous drugs specified 74535
in the certificate furnished by the terminal distributor in 74536
accordance with section 4729.60 of the Revised Code.74537

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, 74538
no person shall sell, at retail, dangerous drugs.74539

       (2) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 74540
person shall possess for sale, at retail, dangerous drugs.74541

       (3) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 74542
person shall possess dangerous drugs.74543

       (4) Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not 74544
apply to a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, a 74545
licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or a person who 74546
possesses, or possesses for sale or sells, at retail, a dangerous 74547
drug in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 4723., 4725., 74548
4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code.74549

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 74550
to an individual who holds a current license, certificate, or 74551
registration issued under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and has 74552
been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 74553
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 74554
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only to 74555
the extent that the individual possesses insulin or personally 74556
supplies insulin solely for the purpose of diabetes education and 74557
only if diabetes education is within the individual's scope of 74558
practice under statutes and rules regulating the individual's 74559
profession.74560

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 74561
to an individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 74562
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 74563
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only to the 74564
extent that the individual possesses medical oxygen or personally 74565
supplies medical oxygen for the purpose of emergency care or 74566
treatment at the scene of a diving emergency.74567

       (D) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 74568
purchase for the purpose of resale dangerous drugs from any person 74569
other than a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, 74570
except as follows:74571

       (1) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs may 74572
make occasional purchases of dangerous drugs for resale from a 74573
pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous 74574
drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal distributor of 74575
dangerous drugs;74576

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 74577
more than one establishment or place may transfer or receive 74578
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 74579
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 74580
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 74581
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 74582
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or receipt.74583

       (E) A pharmacy that is a licensed terminal distributor of 74584
dangerous drugs may operate a remote dispensing system in 74585
accordance with section 4729.542 of the Revised Code.74586

        (F) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 74587
engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at 74588
retail or maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous 74589
drugs for any purpose other than the distributor's personal use or 74590
consumption, at any establishment or place other than that or 74591
those described in the license issued by the state board of 74592
pharmacy to such terminal distributor.74593

       (F)(G) Nothing in this section shall be construed to 74594
interfere with the performance of official duties by any law 74595
enforcement official authorized by municipal, county, state, or 74596
federal law to collect samples of any drug, regardless of its 74597
nature or in whose possession it may be.74598

       Sec. 4729.54.  (A) As used in this section and section 74599
4729.541 of the Revised Code:74600

       (1) "Category I" means single-dose injections of intravenous 74601
fluids, including saline, Ringer's lactate, five per cent dextrose 74602
and distilled water, and other intravenous fluids or parenteral 74603
solutions included in this category by rule of the state board of 74604
pharmacy, that have a volume of one hundred milliliters or more 74605
and that contain no added substances, or single-dose injections of 74606
epinephrine to be administered pursuant to sections 4765.38 and 74607
4765.39 of the Revised Code.74608

       (2) "Category II" means any dangerous drug that is not 74609
included in category I or III.74610

       (3) "Category III" means any controlled substance that is 74611
contained in schedule I, II, III, IV, or V.74612

       (4) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 74613
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.74614

       (5) "Person" includes an emergency medical service 74615
organization.74616

       (6) "Schedule I, schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, and 74617
schedule V" mean controlled substance schedules I, II, III, IV, 74618
and V, respectively, as established pursuant to section 3719.41 of 74619
the Revised Code and as amended.74620

       (B)(1) A person who desires to be licensed as a terminal 74621
distributor of dangerous drugs shall file with the executive 74622
director of the state board of pharmacy a verified application. 74623
After it is filed, the application may not be withdrawn without 74624
approval of the board.74625

       (2) An application shall contain all the following that apply 74626
in the applicant's case:74627

       (a) Information that the board requires relative to the 74628
qualifications of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs set 74629
forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code;74630

       (b) A statement that the person wishes to be licensed as a 74631
category I, category II, category III, limited category I, limited 74632
category II, or limited category III terminal distributor of 74633
dangerous drugs;74634

       (c) If the person wishes to be licensed as a limited category 74635
I, limited category II, or limited category III terminal 74636
distributor of dangerous drugs, a notarized list of the dangerous 74637
drugs that the person wishes to possess, have custody or control 74638
of, and distribute, which list shall also specify the purpose for 74639
which those drugs will be used and their source;74640

       (d) If the person is an emergency medical service 74641
organization, the information that is specified in division (C)(1) 74642
of this section;74643

       (e) Except for an emergency medical service organization, the 74644
identity of the one establishment or place at which the person 74645
intends to engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous 74646
drugs at retail, and maintain possession, custody, or control of 74647
dangerous drugs for purposes other than the person's own use or 74648
consumption and any place at which the person intends to operate a 74649
remote dispensing system in accordance with section 4729.542 of 74650
the Revised Code;74651

       (f) If the application pertains to a pain management clinic, 74652
information that demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, 74653
compliance with division (A) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 74654
Code.74655

       (C)(1) An emergency medical service organization that wishes 74656
to be licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 74657
list in its application for licensure the following additional 74658
information:74659

       (a) The units under its control that the organization 74660
determines will possess dangerous drugs for the purpose of 74661
administering emergency medical services in accordance with 74662
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;74663

       (b) With respect to each such unit, whether the dangerous 74664
drugs that the organization determines the unit will possess are 74665
in category I, II, or III.74666

       (2) An emergency medical service organization that is 74667
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall file a 74668
new application for such licensure if there is any change in the 74669
number, or location of, any of its units or any change in the 74670
category of the dangerous drugs that any unit will possess.74671

       (3) A unit listed in an application for licensure pursuant to 74672
division (C)(1) of this section may obtain the dangerous drugs it 74673
is authorized to possess from its emergency medical service 74674
organization or, on a replacement basis, from a hospital pharmacy. 74675
If units will obtain dangerous drugs from a hospital pharmacy, the 74676
organization shall file, and maintain in current form, the 74677
following items with the pharmacist who is responsible for the 74678
hospital's terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license:74679

       (a) A copy of its standing orders or protocol;74680

       (b) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 74681
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 74682
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code, who are authorized to 74683
possess the drugs, which list also shall indicate the personnel 74684
who are authorized to administer the drugs.74685

       (D) Each emergency medical service organization that applies 74686
for a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license shall submit 74687
with its application the following:74688

       (1) A notarized copy of its standing orders or protocol, 74689
which orders or protocol shall be signed by a physician and 74690
specify the dangerous drugs that its units may carry, expressed in 74691
standard dose units;74692

       (2) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 74693
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 74694
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.74695

       An emergency medical service organization that is licensed as 74696
a terminal distributor shall notify the board immediately of any 74697
changes in its standing orders or protocol.74698

       (E) There shall be six categories of terminal distributor of 74699
dangerous drugs licenses, which categories shall be as follows:74700

       (1) Category I license. A person who obtains this license may 74701
possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 74702
dangerous drugs described in category I.74703

       (2) Limited category I license. A person who obtains this 74704
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 74705
only the dangerous drugs described in category I that were listed 74706
in the application for licensure.74707

       (3) Category II license. A person who obtains this license 74708
may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 74709
dangerous drugs described in category I and category II.74710

       (4) Limited category II license. A person who obtains this 74711
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 74712
only the dangerous drugs described in category I or category II 74713
that were listed in the application for licensure.74714

       (5) Category III license, which may include a pain management 74715
clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised 74716
Code. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody 74717
or control of, and distribute the dangerous drugs described in 74718
category I, category II, and category III. If the license includes 74719
a pain management clinic classification, the person may operate a 74720
pain management clinic.74721

       (6) Limited category III license. A person who obtains this 74722
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 74723
only the dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, or 74724
category III that were listed in the application for licensure.74725

       (F) Except for an application made on behalf of an animal 74726
shelter, if an applicant for licensure as a limited category I, 74727
II, or III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs intends to 74728
administer dangerous drugs to a person or animal, the applicant 74729
shall submit, with the application, a notarized copy of its 74730
protocol or standing orders, which protocol or orders shall be 74731
signed by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 74732
drugs, specify the dangerous drugs to be administered, and list 74733
personnel who are authorized to administer the dangerous drugs in 74734
accordance with federal law or the law of this state. An 74735
application made on behalf of an animal shelter shall include a 74736
notarized list of the dangerous drugs to be administered to 74737
animals and the personnel who are authorized to administer the 74738
drugs to animals in accordance with section 4729.532 of the 74739
Revised Code. After obtaining a terminal distributor license, a 74740
licensee shall notify the board immediately of any changes in its 74741
protocol or standing orders, or in such personnel.74742

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 74743
each applicant for licensure as a terminal distributor of 74744
dangerous drugs shall submit, with the application, a license fee 74745
determined as follows:74746

       (a) For a category I or limited category I license, 74747
forty-five dollars;74748

       (b) For a category II or limited category II license, one 74749
hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents;74750

       (c) For a category III license, including a license with a 74751
pain management clinic classification issued under section 74752
4729.552 of the Revised Code, or a limited category III license, 74753
one hundred fifty dollars.74754

       (2) For a professional association, corporation, partnership, 74755
or limited liability company organized for the purpose of 74756
practicing veterinary medicine, the fee shall be forty dollars.74757

       (3) Fees assessed under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this 74758
section shall not be returned if the applicant fails to qualify 74759
for registration.74760

       (H)(1) The board shall issue a terminal distributor of 74761
dangerous drugs license to each person who submits an application 74762
for such licensure in accordance with this section, pays the 74763
required license fee, is determined by the board to meet the 74764
requirements set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code, and 74765
satisfies any other applicable requirements of this section.74766

       (2) The license of a person other than an emergency medical 74767
service organization shall describe the one establishment or place 74768
at which the licensee may engage in the sale or other distribution 74769
of dangerous drugs at retail and maintain possession, custody, or 74770
control of dangerous drugs for purposes other than the licensee's 74771
own use or consumption and any place at which the person intends 74772
to operate a remote dispensing system in accordance with section 74773
4729.542 of the Revised Code. The one establishment or place and 74774
any place at which the person intends to operate a remote 74775
dispensing system shall be that which isthose described in the 74776
application for licensure.74777

       No such license shall authorize or permit the terminal 74778
distributor of dangerous drugs named in it to engage in the sale 74779
or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail or to maintain 74780
possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose 74781
other than the distributor's own use or consumption, at any 74782
establishment or place other than thatthose described in the 74783
license, except that an agent or employee of an animal shelter may 74784
possess and use dangerous drugs in the course of business as 74785
provided in division (D) of section 4729.532 of the Revised Code.74786

       (3) The license of an emergency medical service organization 74787
shall cover and describe all the units of the organization listed 74788
in its application for licensure.74789

       (4) The license of every terminal distributor of dangerous 74790
drugs shall indicate, on its face, the category of licensure. If 74791
the license is a limited category I, II, or III license, it shall 74792
specify, and shall authorize the licensee to possess, have custody 74793
or control of, and distribute only, the dangerous drugs that were 74794
listed in the application for licensure.74795

       (I) All licenses issued pursuant to this section shall be 74796
effective for a period of twelve months from the first day of 74797
January of each year. A license shall be renewed by the board for 74798
a like period, annually, according to the provisions of this 74799
section, and the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of 74800
the Revised Code. A person who desires to renew a license shall 74801
submit an application for renewal and pay the required fee on or 74802
before the thirty-first day of December each year. The fee 74803
required for the renewal of a license shall be the same as the fee 74804
paid for the license being renewed, and shall accompany the 74805
application for renewal.74806

       A license that has not been renewed during December in any 74807
year and by the first day of February of the following year may be 74808
reinstated only upon payment of the required renewal fee and a 74809
penalty fee of fifty-five dollars.74810

       (J)(1) No emergency medical service organization that is 74811
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 74812
to comply with division (C)(2) or (3) of this section.74813

       (2) No emergency medical service organization that is 74814
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 74815
to comply with division (D) of this section.74816

       (3) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 74817
possess, have custody or control of, or distribute dangerous drugs 74818
that the terminal distributor is not entitled to possess, have 74819
custody or control of, or distribute by virtue of its category of 74820
licensure.74821

       (4) No licensee that is required by division (F) of this 74822
section to notify the board of changes in its protocol or standing 74823
orders, or in personnel, shall fail to comply with that division.74824

       Sec. 4729.542.  (A) As used in this section, "remote 74825
dispensing system" means a mechanical system for dispensing drugs 74826
that is installed in a facility and communicates electronically 74827
with a pharmacy.74828

       (B) A pharmacy licensed under this chapter as a terminal 74829
distributor of dangerous drugs may use a remote dispensing system 74830
to assist in the distribution of dangerous drugs at a nursing home 74831
or residential care facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 74832
Revised Code if all of the following requirements are met:74833

       (1) The system has a documented and ongoing quality assurance 74834
program that monitors total system performance and requires one 74835
hundred per cent accuracy in drugs dispensed and their strength.74836

       (2) The system has security adequate to prevent unauthorized 74837
access to dangerous drugs.74838

       (3) Records kept by the system comply with requirements of 74839
the state board of pharmacy.74840

       (C) A pharmacist licensed under this chapter is not required 74841
to maintain supervision and control of a remote dispensing system 74842
or be physically present at the facility where the system is used 74843
to dispense drugs.74844

       (D) As part of the quality assurance program required by 74845
division (B)(1) of this section, the facility where the remote 74846
dispensing system is located shall complete periodic audits of 74847
controlled substances dispensed through the system.74848

       Sec. 4729.69. (A) The state board of pharmacy, in 74849
collaboration with the director of alcohol and drug addiction 74850
servicesmental health and addiction services and attorney 74851
general, shall establish and administer a drug take-back program 74852
under which drugs are collected from the community for the purpose 74853
of destruction or disposal of the drugs.74854

       (B) The program shall be established and administered in such 74855
a manner that it does both of the following:74856

       (1) Complies with any state or federal laws regarding the 74857
collection, destruction, or disposal of drugs;74858

       (2) Maintains the confidentiality of individuals who submit 74859
or otherwise provide drugs under the program.74860

       (C) In consultation with the director of alcohol and drug 74861
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services and 74862
attorney general, the board shall adopt rules governing the 74863
program. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 74864
119. of the Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the board shall 74865
specify all of the following:74866

       (1) The entities that may participate;74867

       (2) Guidelines and responsibilities for accepting drugs by 74868
participating entities;74869

       (3) Drugs that may be collected;74870

       (4) Record-keeping requirements;74871

       (5) Proper methods to destroy unused drugs;74872

       (6) Privacy protocols and security standards;74873

       (7) Drug transportation procedures;74874

       (8) The schedule, duration, and frequency of the collections 74875
of drugs, except that the first collection shall occur not later 74876
than one year after the effective date of this sectionMay 20, 74877
2011;74878

       (9) Any other standards and procedures the board considers 74879
necessary for purposes of governing the program.74880

       (D) In accordance with state and federal law, the board may 74881
adopt rules to allow an entity participating in the program to 74882
return any unused drugs to the pharmacy that originally dispensed 74883
the drug. The rules shall include procedures to be followed to 74884
maintain the confidentiality of the person for whom the drug was 74885
dispensed.74886

       (E) Rules adopted under this section may not do any of the 74887
following:74888

       (1) Require any entity to establish, fund, or operate a drug 74889
take-back program;74890

       (2) Establish any new licensing requirement or fee to 74891
participate in the program;74892

       (3) Require any entity to compile data on drugs collected.74893

       (F) The board may compile data on the amount and type of 74894
drugs collected under the program. For purposes of this division, 74895
the board may cooperate with a public or private entity in 74896
obtaining assistance in the compilation of data. An entity 74897
providing the assistance shall not be reimbursed under the program 74898
for any costs incurred in providing the assistance.74899

       (G) If the board compiles data under division (F) of this 74900
section, the board shall submit a report to the governor and, in 74901
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the general 74902
assembly. The report, to the extent possible, shall include the 74903
following information:74904

       (1) Total weight of drugs collected, both with and without 74905
packaging;74906

       (2) The weight of controlled substances;74907

       (3) The amount of all of the following as a per cent of total 74908
drugs collected:74909

       (a) Controlled substances;74910

       (b) Brand name drugs;74911

       (c) Generic drugs;74912

       (d) Prescription drugs;74913

       (e) Non-prescription drugs.74914

       (4) The amount of vitamins, herbal supplements, and personal 74915
care products collected;74916

       (5) If provided by the person who submitted or otherwise 74917
donated drugs to the program, the reasons why the drugs were 74918
returned or unused.74919

       (H) No entity is required to participate in a drug take-back 74920
program established under this section, and no entity shall be 74921
subject to civil liability or professional disciplinary action for 74922
declining to participate.74923

       (I) The board may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 74924
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 74925
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 74926
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.74927

       Sec. 4729.80. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 74928
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 74929
Revised Code, the board is authorized or required to provide 74930
information from the database in accordance with the following:74931

       (1) On receipt of a request from a designated representative 74932
of a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, 74933
or discipline of health care professionals with authority to 74934
prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs, the board may provide to 74935
the representative information from the database relating to the 74936
professional who is the subject of an active investigation being 74937
conducted by the government entity.74938

       (2) On receipt of a request from a federal officer, or a 74939
state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties 74940
include enforcing laws relating to drugs, the board shall provide 74941
to the officer information from the database relating to the 74942
person who is the subject of an active investigation of a drug 74943
abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, 74944
being conducted by the officer's employing government entity.74945

       (3) Pursuant to a subpoena issued by a grand jury, the board 74946
shall provide to the grand jury information from the database 74947
relating to the person who is the subject of an investigation 74948
being conducted by the grand jury.74949

       (4) Pursuant to a subpoena, search warrant, or court order in 74950
connection with the investigation or prosecution of a possible or 74951
alleged criminal offense, the board shall provide information from 74952
the database as necessary to comply with the subpoena, search 74953
warrant, or court order.74954

       (5) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the 74955
prescriber's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 74956
to the prescriber information from the database relating to a 74957
patient who is either of the following, if the prescriber 74958
certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the 74959
purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the 74960
subject of the request;74961

       (a) A current patient of the prescriber;74962

       (b) A potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral 74963
of the patient to the prescriber.74964

       (6) On receipt of a request from a pharmacist or the 74965
pharmacist's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 74966
to the pharmacist information from the database relating to a 74967
current patient of the pharmacist, if the pharmacist certifies in 74968
a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of the 74969
pharmacist's practice of pharmacy involving the patient who is the 74970
subject of the request.74971

       (7) On receipt of a request from an individual seeking the 74972
individual's own database information in accordance with the 74973
procedure established in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of 74974
the Revised Code, the board may provide to the individual the 74975
individual's own database information.74976

       (8) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a 74977
managed care organization that has entered into a data security 74978
agreement with the board required by section 5111.17105167.14 of 74979
the Revised Code, the board mayshall provide to the medical 74980
director information from the database relating to a medicaid 74981
recipient enrolled in the managed care organization, including 74982
information in the database related to prescriptions for the 74983
recipient that were not covered or reimbursed under a program 74984
administered by the department of medicaid.74985

       (9) On receipt of a request from the medicaid director of job 74986
and family services, the board mayshall provide to the director 74987
information from the database relating to a recipient of a program 74988
administered by the department of job and family services74989
medicaid, including information in the database related to 74990
prescriptions for the recipient that were not covered or paid by a 74991
program administered by the department. 74992

       (10) On receipt of a request from the administrator of 74993
workers' compensation, the board may provide to the administrator 74994
information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 74995
4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.74996

        (11) On receipt of a request from a requestor described in 74997
division (A)(1), (2), (5), or (6) of this section who is from or 74998
participating with another state's prescription monitoring 74999
program, the board may provide to the requestor information from 75000
the database, but only if there is a written agreement under which 75001
the information is to be used and disseminated according to the 75002
laws of this state.75003

       (B) The state board of pharmacy shall maintain a record of 75004
each individual or entity that requests information from the 75005
database pursuant to this section. In accordance with rules 75006
adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may 75007
use the records to document and report statistics and law 75008
enforcement outcomes.75009

        The board may provide records of an individual's requests for 75010
database information to the following:75011

        (1) A designated representative of a government entity that 75012
is responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of 75013
health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, 75014
or dispense drugs who is involved in an active investigation being 75015
conducted by the government entity of the individual who submitted 75016
the requests for database information;75017

        (2) A federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or 75018
any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to 75019
drugs and who is involved in an active investigation being 75020
conducted by the officer's employing government entity of the 75021
individual who submitted the requests for database information.75022

       (C) Information contained in the database and any information 75023
obtained from it is not a public record. Information contained in 75024
the records of requests for information from the database is not a 75025
public record. Information that does not identify a person may be 75026
released in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.75027

       (D) A pharmacist or prescriber shall not be held liable in 75028
damages to any person in any civil action for injury, death, or 75029
loss to person or property on the basis that the pharmacist or 75030
prescriber did or did not seek or obtain information from the 75031
database.75032

       Sec. 4729.81. If the state board of pharmacy establishes and 75033
maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 75034
Revised Code, the board shall review the information in the drug 75035
database. If the board determines from the review that a violation 75036
of law may have occurred, it shall notify the appropriate law 75037
enforcement agency or a government entity responsible for the 75038
licensure, regulation, or discipline of licensed health 75039
professionals authorized to prescribe drugs and supply information 75040
required by the agency or entity for an investigation of the 75041
violation of law that may have occurred. The board also shall 75042
notify the medicaid director if the board determines that the 75043
violation may have been committed by a provider of services under 75044
a program administered by the department of medicaid.75045

       Sec. 4729.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 4729.16, division 75046
(A) or (B) of section 4729.38, or section 4729.57 of the Revised 75047
Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each day's violation 75048
constitutes a separate offense.75049

       (B) Whoever violates section 4729.27, 4729.28, or 4729.36 of 75050
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 75051
Each day's violation constitutes a separate offense. If the 75052
offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 75053
violation of this chapter, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor 75054
of the second degree.75055

       (C) Whoever violates section 4729.32, 4729.33, or 4729.34 of 75056
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor.75057

       (D) Whoever violates division (A), (B), (D), or (E)(F) of 75058
section 4729.51 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 75059
the first degree.75060

       (E)(1) Whoever violates section 4729.37, division (C)(2) of 75061
section 4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 75062
4729.61 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth 75063
degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 75064
pleaded guilty to a violation of this chapter or a violation of 75065
Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty 75066
of a felony of the fourth degree.75067

       (2) If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 75068
violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 4729.51, 75069
division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of the Revised 75070
Code, if the violation involves the sale, offer to sell, or 75071
possession of a schedule I or II controlled substance, with the 75072
exception of marihuana, and if the court imposing sentence upon 75073
the offender finds that the offender as a result of the violation 75074
is a major drug offender, as defined in section 2929.01 of the 75075
Revised Code, and is guilty of a specification of the type 75076
described in section 2941.1410 of the Revised Code, the court, in 75077
lieu of the prison term authorized or required by division (E)(1) 75078
of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of the Revised 75079
Code and in addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense 75080
under sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 of the Revised Code, shall 75081
impose upon the offender, in accordance with division (B)(3) of 75082
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, the mandatory prison term 75083
specified in that division.75084

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 75085
of the Revised Code, the clerk of court shall pay any fine imposed 75086
for a violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 75087
4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of 75088
the Revised Code pursuant to division (A) of section 2929.18 of 75089
the Revised Code in accordance with and subject to the 75090
requirements of division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised 75091
Code. The agency that receives the fine shall use the fine as 75092
specified in division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code.75093

       (F) Whoever violates section 4729.531 of the Revised Code or 75094
any rule adopted thereunder or section 4729.532 of the Revised 75095
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.75096

       (G) Whoever violates division (C)(1) of section 4729.51 of 75097
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree. If 75098
the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 75099
a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. or 75100
3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 75101
the third degree.75102

       (H) Whoever violates division (C)(3) of section 4729.51 of 75103
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 75104
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 75105
to a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. 75106
or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 75107
the fifth degree.75108

       (I)(1) Whoever violates division (B) of section 4729.42 of 75109
the Revised Code is guilty of unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 75110
conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this section, 75111
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 75112
second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 75113
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of 75114
that section, unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a 75115
misdemeanor of the first degree on a second offense and a felony 75116
of the fifth degree on a third or subsequent offense.75117

       (2) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of section 4729.42 75118
of the Revised Code is guilty of permitting unauthorized 75119
pharmacy-related drug conduct. Except as otherwise provided in 75120
this section, permitting unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 75121
conduct is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender 75122
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 75123
of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of that section, permitting 75124
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 75125
first degree on a second offense and a felony of the fifth degree 75126
on a third or subsequent offense.75127

       (3) Whoever violates division (E) of section 4729.42 of the 75128
Revised Code is guilty of the offense of falsification under 75129
section 2921.13 of the Revised Code. In addition to any other 75130
sanction imposed for the violation, the offender is forever 75131
disqualified from engaging in any activity specified in division 75132
(B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.42 of the Revised Code and 75133
from performing any function as a health care professional or 75134
health care worker. As used in this division, "health care 75135
professional" and "health care worker" have the same meanings as 75136
in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.75137

       (4) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 75138
of the Revised Code or any other provision of law that governs the 75139
distribution of fines, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 75140
imposed pursuant to division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section 75141
to the state board of pharmacy if the board has adopted a written 75142
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of section 2925.03 75143
of the Revised Code that addresses fine moneys that it receives 75144
under Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code and if the policy also 75145
addresses fine moneys paid under this division. The state board of 75146
pharmacy shall use the fines so paid in accordance with the 75147
written internal control policy to subsidize the board's law 75148
enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses.75149

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 4729.86 of 75150
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 75151
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 75152
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 75153
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 75154
first degree.75155

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of section 4729.86 of 75156
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 75157
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 75158
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 75159
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the 75160
fifth degree.75161

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of section 4729.86 of 75162
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. If the 75163
offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 75164
violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 of 75165
the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fourth 75166
degree.75167

       (K) A person who violates division (C) of section 4729.552 of 75168
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 75169
If the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 75170
to a violation of division (C) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 75171
Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.75172

       Sec. 4730.411. (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 75173
of this section, a physician assistant may prescribe to a patient 75174
a schedule II controlled substance only if all of the following 75175
are the case:75176

       (1) The patient is in a terminal condition, as defined in 75177
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.75178

        (2) The physician assistant's supervising physician initially 75179
prescribed the substance for the patient.75180

        (3) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 75181
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 75182
twenty-four-hour period.75183

        (B) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 75184
(A) of this section do not apply if a physician assistant issues 75185
the prescription to the patient from any of the following 75186
locations:75187

        (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 75188
Revised Code;75189

       (2) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 75190
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 75191
part, one or more hospitals;75192

       (3) A health care facility operated by the department of 75193
mental health or the department of developmental disabilities;75194

        (4) A nursing home or residential care facility licensed 75195
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or by a political 75196
subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;75197

       (5) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 75198
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 75199
medicaid program;75200

        (6) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 75201
the Revised Code;75202

       (7) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 75203
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;75204

        (8) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 75205
3702.30 of the Revised Code;75206

       (9) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 75207
3702.51 of the Revised Code;75208

       (10) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 75209
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;75210

       (11) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 75211
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;75212

       (12) A health care office or facility operated by the board 75213
of health of a city or general health district or the authority 75214
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 75215
the Revised Code;75216

       (13) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 75217
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 75218
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 75219
direct patient care; and the physician assistant has entered into 75220
a supervisory agreement with at least one of the physician owners 75221
who practices primarily at that site.75222

       (C) A physician assistant shall not issue to a patient a 75223
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 75224
convenience care clinic even if the convenience care clinic is 75225
owned or operated by an entity specified in division (B) of this 75226
section.75227

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 75228
prescription issued by a physician assistant under division (B) of 75229
this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following 75230
for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil action, 75231
prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 75232
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 75233
4729. of the Revised Code.75234

       Sec. 4731.151.  (A) Naprapaths who received a certificate to 75235
practice from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to 75236
practice naprapathy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. 75237
Such naprapaths shall practice in accordance with rules adopted by 75238
the board.75239

       (B)(1) As used in this division:75240

       (a) "Mechanotherapy" means all of the following:75241

       (i) Examining patients by verbal inquiry;75242

       (ii) Examination of the musculoskeletal system by hand;75243

       (iii) Visual inspection and observation;75244

       (iv) Diagnosing a patient's condition only as to whether the 75245
patient has a disorder of the musculoskeletal system;75246

       (v) In the treatment of patients, employing the techniques of 75247
advised or supervised exercise; electrical neuromuscular 75248
stimulation; massage or manipulation; or air, water, heat, cold, 75249
sound, or infrared ray therapy only to those disorders of the 75250
musculoskeletal system that are amenable to treatment by such 75251
techniques and that are identifiable by examination performed in 75252
accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section and 75253
diagnosable in accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this 75254
section.75255

       (b) "Educational requirements" means the completion of a 75256
course of study appropriate for certification to practice 75257
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, as determined by 75258
rules adopted under this chapter.75259

       (2) Mechanotherapists who received a certificate to practice 75260
from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to practice 75261
mechanotherapy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. Such 75262
mechanotherapists shall practice in accordance with rules adopted 75263
by the board.75264

       A person authorized by this division to practice as a 75265
mechanotherapist may examine, diagnose, and assume responsibility 75266
for the care of patients with due regard for first aid and the 75267
hygienic and nutritional care of the patients. Roentgen rays shall 75268
be used by a mechanotherapist only for diagnostic purposes.75269

       (3) A person who holds a certificate to practice 75270
mechanotherapy and completed educational requirements in 75271
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, is entitled to use 75272
the title "doctor of mechanotherapy" and is a "physician" who 75273
performs "medical services" for the purposes of Chapters 4121. and 75274
4123. of the Revised Code and the medicaid program established 75275
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, and shall receive 75276
payment or reimbursement as provided under those chapters and that 75277
sectionprogram.75278

       Sec. 4731.23.  (A)(1)(a) The state medical board shall 75279
designate one or more attorneys at law who have been admitted to 75280
the practice of law, and who are classified as either 75281
administrative law attorney examiners or as administrative law 75282
attorney examiner administrators under the state job 75283
classification plan adopted under section 124.14 of the Revised 75284
Code, as hearing examiners, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised 75285
Code, to conduct any hearing which the medical board is empowered 75286
to hold or undertake pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 75287

       (b) Notwithstanding the requirement of division (A)(1)(a) of 75288
this section that the board designate as a hearing examiner an 75289
attorney who is classified as either an administrative law 75290
attorney examiner or an administrative law attorney examiner 75291
administrator, the board may, subject to controlling board 75292
approvalsection 127.16 of the Revised Code, enter into a personal 75293
service contract with an attorney admitted to the practice of law 75294
in this state to serve on a temporary basis as a hearing examiner.75295

       (2) The hearing examiner shall hear and consider the oral and 75296
documented evidence introduced by the parties and issue in writing 75297
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the board for 75298
their consideration within thirty days following the close of the 75299
hearing.75300

       (B) The board shall be given copies of the transcript of the 75301
record hearing and all exhibits and documents presented by the 75302
parties at the hearing.75303

       (C) The board shall, upon the favorable vote of three 75304
members, allow the parties or their counsel the opportunity to 75305
present oral arguments on the proposed findings of fact and 75306
conclusions of law of the hearing examiner prior to the board's 75307
final action.75308

       (D) The board shall render a decision and take action within 75309
sixty days following the receipt of the hearing examiner's 75310
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or within any 75311
longer period mutually agreed upon by the board and the 75312
certificate holder.75313

       (E) The final decision of the board in any hearing which the 75314
board is empowered to undertake shall be in writing and contain 75315
findings of fact and conclusions of law. Copies of the decision 75316
shall be delivered to the parties personally or by certified mail. 75317
The decision shall be final upon delivery or mailing, except that 75318
the certificate holder may appeal in the manner provided by 75319
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.75320

       Sec. 4731.65.  As used in sections 4731.65 to 4731.71 of the 75321
Revised Code:75322

       (A)(1) "Clinical laboratory services" means either of the 75323
following:75324

       (a) Any examination of materials derived from the human body 75325
for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, 75326
prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment or for the 75327
assessment of health;75328

       (b) Procedures to determine, measure, or otherwise describe 75329
the presence or absence of various substances or organisms in the 75330
body.75331

       (2) "Clinical laboratory services" does not include the mere 75332
collection or preparation of specimens.75333

       (B) "Designated health services" means any of the following:75334

       (1) Clinical laboratory services;75335

       (2) Home health care services;75336

       (3) Outpatient prescription drugs.75337

       (C) "Fair market value" means the value in arms-length 75338
transactions, consistent with general market value and:75339

       (1) With respect to rentals or leases, the value of rental 75340
property for general commercial purposes, not taking into account 75341
its intended use;75342

       (2) With respect to a lease of space, not adjusted to reflect 75343
the additional value the prospective lessee or lessor would 75344
attribute to the proximity or convenience to the lessor if the 75345
lessor is a potential source of referrals to the lessee.75346

       (D) "Governmental health care program" means any program 75347
providing health care benefits that is administered by the federal 75348
government, this state, or a political subdivision of this state, 75349
including the medicare program established under Title XVIII of 75350
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 75351
as amended, health care coverage for public employees, health care 75352
benefits administered by the bureau of workers' compensation, and 75353
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 75354
Revised Code.75355

       (E)(1) "Group practice" means a group of two or more holders 75356
of certificates under this chapter legally organized as a 75357
partnership, professional corporation or association, limited 75358
liability company, foundation, nonprofit corporation, faculty 75359
practice plan, or similar group practice entity, including an 75360
organization comprised of a nonprofit medical clinic that 75361
contracts with a professional corporation or association of 75362
physicians to provide medical services exclusively to patients of 75363
the clinic in order to comply with section 1701.03 of the Revised 75364
Code and including a corporation, limited liability company, 75365
partnership, or professional association described in division (B) 75366
of section 4731.226 of the Revised Code formed for the purpose of 75367
providing a combination of the professional services of 75368
optometrists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally 75369
authorized to practice optometry under Chapter 4725. of the 75370
Revised Code, chiropractors who are licensed, certificated, or 75371
otherwise legally authorized to practice chiropractic or 75372
acupuncture under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code, psychologists 75373
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 75374
practice psychology under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code, 75375
registered or licensed practical nurses who are licensed, 75376
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice nursing 75377
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, pharmacists who are 75378
licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 75379
practice pharmacy under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code, 75380
physical therapists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise 75381
legally authorized to practice physical therapy under sections 75382
4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised Code, occupational therapists 75383
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 75384
practice occupational therapy under sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 of 75385
the Revised Code, mechanotherapists who are licensed, 75386
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice 75387
mechanotherapy under section 4731.151 of the Revised Code, and 75388
doctors of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, 75389
or podiatric medicine and surgery who are licensed, certificated, 75390
or otherwise legally authorized for their respective practices 75391
under this chapter, to which all of the following apply:75392

       (a) Each physician who is a member of the group practice 75393
provides substantially the full range of services that the 75394
physician routinely provides, including medical care, 75395
consultation, diagnosis, or treatment, through the joint use of 75396
shared office space, facilities, equipment, and personnel.75397

       (b) Substantially all of the services of the members of the 75398
group are provided through the group and are billed in the name of 75399
the group and amounts so received are treated as receipts of the 75400
group.75401

       (c) The overhead expenses of and the income from the practice 75402
are distributed in accordance with methods previously determined 75403
by members of the group.75404

       (d) The group practice meets any other requirements that the 75405
state medical board applies in rules adopted under section 4731.70 75406
of the Revised Code.75407

       (2) In the case of a faculty practice plan associated with a 75408
hospital with a medical residency training program in which 75409
physician members may provide a variety of specialty services and 75410
provide professional services both within and outside the group, 75411
as well as perform other tasks such as research, the criteria in 75412
division (E)(1) of this section apply only with respect to 75413
services rendered within the faculty practice plan.75414

       (F) "Home health care services" and "immediate family" have 75415
the same meanings as in the rules adopted under section 4731.70 of 75416
the Revised Code.75417

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 75418
the Revised Code.75419

       (H) A "referral" includes both of the following:75420

       (1) A request by a holder of a certificate under this chapter 75421
for an item or service, including a request for a consultation 75422
with another physician and any test or procedure ordered by or to 75423
be performed by or under the supervision of the other physician;75424

       (2) A request for or establishment of a plan of care by a 75425
certificate holder that includes the provision of designated 75426
health services.75427

       (I) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 75428
3901.38 of the Revised Code.75429

       Sec. 4731.71.  The auditor of state may implement procedures 75430
to detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 75431
Code within governmental health care programs administered by the 75432
state. The auditor of state shall report any violation of either 75433
section to the state medical board and shall certify to the 75434
attorney general in accordance with section 131.02 of the Revised 75435
Code the amount of any refund owed to a state-administered 75436
governmental health care program under section 4731.69 of the 75437
Revised Code as a result of a violation. If a refund is owed to 75438
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 75439
Revised Code, the auditor of state also shall report the amount to 75440
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.75441

       The state medical board also may implement procedures to 75442
detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 75443
Code.75444

       Sec. 4734.41.  (A) As used in this section:75445

       (1) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:75446

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 75447
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 75448
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 75449
others;75450

       (b) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 75451
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 75452
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 75453
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 75454
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 75455
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 75456
safety, or welfare or that of others.75457

       (2) "Mental illness" means a recognized psychiatric or 75458
psychological condition, disorder, or syndrome that has been 75459
diagnosed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, professional clinical 75460
counselor, or independent social worker as a condition, disorder, 75461
or syndrome that may pose a danger to the person diagnosed or 75462
others or may prevent the person from practicing the person's 75463
profession according to acceptable and prevailing standards of 75464
care.75465

       (B) The state chiropractic board shall establish a chemical 75466
dependency and mental illness monitoring program. The program 75467
shall be made available to any individual under the board's 75468
jurisdiction who has a chemical dependency or mental illness and 75469
meets the board's eligibility requirements for admission to and 75470
continued participation in the program. The board shall develop 75471
the program and may designate a coordinator to administer it or 75472
enter into a contract for the program to be administered by 75473
another entity through a coordinator. The board shall adopt rules 75474
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish 75475
standards and procedure for operating the program.75476

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, all 75477
records of an individual's participation in the monitoring 75478
program, including medical records, chemical dependency records, 75479
and mental health records, shall be confidential, are not public 75480
records for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code, 75481
and are not subject to discovery by subpoena or admissble75482
admissible as evidence in any judicial proceeding. The program 75483
coordinator shall maintain all records as directed by the board.75484

       (D) The monitoring program's coordinator may disclose records 75485
or information regarding an individual's progress and status of 75486
participation in the program to the disciplinary section of the 75487
board and to any person or government entity that the program 75488
participant authorizes in writing to be given the records or 75489
information.75490

       In disclosing records or information under this division, the 75491
coordinator shall not include any record or information that is 75492
protected under section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any 75493
federal statute or regulation that provides for the 75494
confidentiality of mental health or substance abuse records.75495

       (E) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the monitoring 75496
program's coordinator, the board and the board's employees and 75497
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 75498
a result of disclosing records or information in accordance with 75499
division (D) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad 75500
faith, any person reporting to the program an individual's 75501
chemical dependency or mental illness, or the progress or lack of 75502
progress of that individual with regard to treatment, is not 75503
liable for damages in any civil action as a result of the report.75504

       (F) The board may abstain from taking formal disciplinary 75505
action under section 4734.31 of the Revised Code against an 75506
individual because of the individual's chemical dependency or 75507
mental illness, if the individual meets the eligibility 75508
requirements for admission into the monitoring program and all of 75509
the following occur:75510

       (1) The individual enters into a monitoring agreement with 75511
the coordinator of the program;75512

       (2) The individual complies with the terms and conditions for 75513
continued participation in the program, as specified in the 75514
monitoring agreement;75515

       (3) The individual successfully completes the terms and 75516
conditions of the monitoring agreement, including the condition 75517
that the individual attain the ability to practice in accordance 75518
with acceptable and prevailing standards of care applicable to the 75519
practice of chiropractic.75520

       Sec. 4745.01.  (A) "Standard renewal procedure," as used in 75521
Chapters 905., 907., 909., 911., 913., 915., 918., 921., 923., 75522
927., 942., 943., 953., 1321., 3710., 3713., 3719., 3742., 3748., 75523
3769., 3783., 3921., 3951., 4104., 4105., 4143., 4169., 4561., 75524
4703., 4707., 4709., 4713., 4715., 4717., 4723., 4725., 4727., 75525
4728., 4729., 4731., 4733., 4734., 4735., 4739., 4741., 4747., 75526
4749., 4752., 4753., 4755., 4757., 4758., 4759., 4761., 4766., 75527
4773., and 4775. of the Revised Code, means the license renewal 75528
procedures specified in this chapter.75529

       (B) "Licensing agency," as used in this chapter, means any 75530
department, division, board, section of a board, or other state 75531
governmental unit subject to the standard renewal procedure, as 75532
defined in this section, and authorized by the Revised Code to 75533
issue a license to engage in a specific profession, occupation, or 75534
occupational activity, or to have charge of and operate certain 75535
specified equipment, machinery, or premises.75536

       (C) "License," as used in this chapter, means a license, 75537
certificate, permit, card, or other authority issued or conferred 75538
by a licensing agency by authority of which the licensee has or 75539
claims the privilege to engage in the profession, occupation, or 75540
occupational activity, or to have control of and operate certain 75541
specific equipment, machinery, or premises, over which the 75542
licensing agency has jurisdiction.75543

       (D) "Licensee," as used in this chapter, means either the 75544
person to whom the license is issued or renewed by a licensing 75545
agency, or the person, partnership, or corporation at whose 75546
request the license is issued or renewed.75547

       (E) "Renewal" and "renewed," as used in this chapter and in 75548
the chapters of the Revised Code specified in division (A) of this 75549
section, includes the continuing licensing procedure provided in 75550
Chapter 3748. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it and 75551
in sections 1321.05 and 3921.33 of the Revised Code, and as 75552
applied to those continuing licenses any reference in this chapter 75553
to the date of expiration of any license shall be construed to 75554
mean the due date of the annual or other fee for the continuing 75555
license.75556

       Sec. 4751.01.  As used in sections 4751.01 to 4751.114751.1375557
of the Revised Code:75558

       (A) "Long-term services and supports settings" means any 75559
institutional or community-based setting in which medical, health, 75560
psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care 75561
services are provided to individuals on a post-acute care basis.75562

       (B) "Nursing home administrator" means any individual 75563
responsible for planning, organizing, directing, and managing the 75564
operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such 75565
function, whether or not such functions and duties are shared by 75566
one or more other persons.75567

       (B)(C) "Nursing home" means a nursing home as defined by or 75568
under the authority of section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, or a 75569
nursing home operated by a governmental agency.75570

       (C)(D) "Temporary license" means a license for a period not 75571
to exceed one hundred eighty days issued pursuant to division (B) 75572
of section 4751.06 of the Revised Code.75573

       (D)(E) "Valid license" means a license which is current and 75574
in good standing.75575

       Sec. 4751.02.  (A) No person shall operate a nursing home 75576
unless it is under the supervision of an administrator whose 75577
principal occupation is nursing home administration or hospital 75578
administration and who holds a valid nursing home administrator's 75579
license and registration, or a temporary license, issued pursuant 75580
to Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code.75581

       (B) No person other than a licensed and registered nursing 75582
home administrator or person holding a temporary license as 75583
required by Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code shall practice or 75584
offer to practice nursing home administration in this state. All 75585
nursing home administrators and temporary licensees shall comply 75586
with Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and the regulations adopted 75587
thereunder.75588

       (C) Every operator of a nursing home shall report to the 75589
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators75590
long-term services and supports the name and license number of 75591
each nursing home administrator for said home within ten days 75592
after the operator engages a nursing home administrator, and 75593
within ten days after a nursing home administrator is no longer 75594
engaged as such by such operator for said home.75595

       (D) Each individual who holds a nursing home administrator 75596
license or temporary license shall report histhe individual's75597
residence mailing address and the name and address of each place 75598
of employment to the board within ten days after any change.75599

       Sec. 4751.03.  (A) There is hereby established in the 75600
department of healthaging a board of examinersexecutives of 75601
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, which 75602
board shall be composed of ninethe following eleven members, 75603
eight of whom shall be representative of the professions and 75604
institutions concerned with care and treatment of chronically ill 75605
or infirm aged patients, and one of whom shall be a public member 75606
at least sixty years of age, provided that less than a majority of 75607
the board members shall be representative of a single profession 75608
or institutional category, and provided further that a person 75609
appointed as a noninstitutional member shall neither have nor 75610
acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home. For 75611
purposes of this section, nursing home administrators are 75612
considered representatives of institutions.75613

       Four members shall be nursing home administrators, owners of 75614
nursing homes or an officer of a corporation owning a nursing 75615
home. The director of health or his designated representative 75616
shall be a member. All:75617

       (1) Four members who are nursing home administrators, owners 75618
of nursing homes, or officers of corporations owning nursing 75619
homes, and who shall have an understanding of person-centered 75620
care, and experience with a range of long-term services and 75621
supports settings;75622

       (2)(a) Three members who work in long-term services and 75623
supports settings that are not nursing homes, and who shall have 75624
an understanding of person-centered care, and experience with a 75625
range of long-term services and supports settings;75626

       (b) At least one of the members described in division 75627
(A)(2)(a) of this section shall be a home health administrator, an 75628
owner of a home health agency, or an officer of a home health 75629
agency.75630

       (3) One member who is a member of the academic community;75631

       (4) One member who is a consumer of services offered in a 75632
long-term services and supports setting;75633

       (5) One member who is a representative of the department of 75634
health, designated by the director of health, who is involved in 75635
the nursing home survey and certification process;75636

       (6) One member who is a representative of the office of the 75637
state long-term care, designated by the state long-term care 75638
ombudsman.75639

       All members of the board shall be citizens of the United 75640
States and residents of this state. No member of the board who is 75641
appointed under divisions (A)(3) to (6) of this section may have 75642
or acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home or 75643
long-term services and supports settings.75644

       (B) The term of office for each appointed member of the board 75645
shall be for three years, commencing on the twenty-eighth day of 75646
May and ending on the twenty-seventh day of May. Each member shall 75647
serve from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 75648
for which he was appointed. No member shall serve more than two 75649
consecutive full terms.75650

       (C) Appointments to the board shall be made by the governor. 75651
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 75652
expiration of the term for which histhe member's predecessor was 75653
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any 75654
appointed member shall continue in office subsequent to the 75655
expiration date of histhe member's term until histhe member's75656
successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has 75657
elapsed, whichever occurs first.75658

       (D) The governor may remove any member of the board for 75659
misconduct, incapacity, incompetence, or neglect of duty after the 75660
member so charged has been served with a written statement of 75661
charges and has been given an opportunity to be heard.75662

       (E) Each member of the board, except the member designated by 75663
the director of health or hisand the member designated 75664
representativeby the ombudsman, shall be paid in accordance with 75665
section 124.15 of the Revised Code and each member shall be 75666
reimbursed for histhe member's actual and necessary expenses 75667
incurred in the discharge of such duties.75668

       (F) The board shall elect annually from its membership a75669
chairmanchairperson and a vice-chairmanvice-chairperson.75670

       (G) The board shall hold and conduct meetings quarterly and 75671
at such other times as its business requires. A majority of the 75672
board shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a 75673
majority of the members of the board is necessary for the board to 75674
act.75675

       (H) The board shall appoint a secretary who has no financial 75676
interest in a nursing homelong-term services and supports 75677
setting, and may employ and prescribe the powers and duties of 75678
such employees and consultants as are necessary to carry out this 75679
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Administrative, technical, 75680
or other services shall be performed, insofar as practicable, by 75681
personnel of the department of health.75682

       Sec. 4751.04.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 75683
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall:75684

       (1) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations 75685
prescribing standards which must be met by individuals in order to 75686
receive a license as a nursing home administrator, which standards 75687
shall be designed to ensure that nursing home administrators are 75688
of good character and are otherwise suitable, and who, by training 75689
and experience, are qualified to serve as nursing home 75690
administrators;75691

       (2) Develop and apply appropriate techniques, including 75692
examinations and investigations, for determining whether an 75693
individual meets such standards;75694

       (3) Issue licenses and registrations to individuals 75695
determined, after application of such techniques, to meet such 75696
standards, and revoke or suspend licenses or registrations 75697
previously issued by the board in any case where the individual 75698
holding such license or registration is determined to have failed 75699
substantially to conform to the requirements of such standards;75700

       (4) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations and 75701
procedures designed to ensure that individuals holding a temporary 75702
license, or licensed as nursing home administrators will, during 75703
any period that they serve as such, comply with Chapter 4751. of 75704
the Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;75705

       (5) Receive, investigate, and take appropriate action with 75706
respect to any charge or complaint filed with the board to the 75707
effect that any individual licensed as a nursing home 75708
administrator has failed to comply with Chapter 4751. of the 75709
Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;75710

       (6) Take such other actions as may be necessary to enable the 75711
state to meet the requirements set forth in the "Social Security 75712
Amendments of 1967," 81 Stat. 908 (1968), 42 U.S.C. 1396 g;75713

       (7) Pay all license and registration fees collected under 75714
Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code into the general operations75715
board of executives of long-term services and support fund created 75716
by section 3701.834751.14 of the Revised Code to be used in 75717
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 75718
under it;75719

       (8) Administer, or contract with a government or private 75720
entity to administer, examinations for licensure as a nursing home 75721
administrator. If the board contracts with a government or private 75722
entity to administer the examinations, the contract may authorize 75723
the entity to collect and keep, as all or part of the entity's 75724
compensation under the contract, any fee an applicant for 75725
licensure pays to take an examination. The entity is not required 75726
to deposit the fee into the state treasury;75727

       (9) Enter into a contract with the department of aging as 75728
required under section 4751.042 of the Revised Code;75729

       (10) Create opportunities for the education, training, and 75730
credentialing of nursing home administrators and others in 75731
leadership positions who practice in long-term services and 75732
supports settings or who direct the practices of others in those 75733
settings. In carrying out this function, the board shall do the 75734
following:75735

       (a) Identify core competencies and areas of knowledge that 75736
are appropriate for nursing home administrators and others working 75737
within the long-term services and supports settings system, with 75738
an emphasis on all of the following:75739

       (i) Leadership;75740

       (ii) Person-centered care;75741

       (iii) Principles of management within both the business and 75742
regulatory environments;75743

       (iv) An understanding of all post-acute settings, including 75744
transitions from acute settings and between post-acute settings.75745

       (b) Assist in the development of a strong, competitive market 75746
in Ohio for training, continuing education, and degree programs in 75747
long-term services and supports settings administration.75748

       (B) In the administration and enforcement of Chapter 4751. of 75749
the Revised Code, and the regulations adopted thereunder, the 75750
board is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and sections 75751
4743.01 and 4743.02 of the Revised Code except that a notice of 75752
appeal of an order of the board adopting, amending, or rescinding 75753
a rule or regulation does not operate as a stay of the effective 75754
date of such order as provided in section 119.11 of the Revised 75755
Code. The court, at its discretion, may grant a stay of any 75756
regulation in its application against the person filing the notice 75757
of appeal.75758

       Sec. 4751.041.  Except when the board of examinersexecutives75759
of nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports75760
considers it necessary, the board shall not disclose test 75761
materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in an 75762
examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that the 75763
board administers under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or 75764
contracts under that section with a private or government entity 75765
to administer.75766

       Sec. 4751.042.  (A) The board of executives of long-term 75767
services and supports shall enter into a written agreement with 75768
the department of aging for the department to serve as the board's 75769
fiscal agent. The fiscal agent shall be responsible for all the 75770
board's fiscal matters and financial transactions, as specified in 75771
the agreement. The written agreement shall specify the fees that 75772
the board shall pay to the fiscal agent for services performed 75773
under the agreement, and such fees shall be in proportion to the 75774
services performed for the board.75775

       (1) The agreement shall require the fiscal agent to provide 75776
the following services:75777

       (a) Preparation and processing of payroll and other personnel 75778
documents that the board approves;75779

       (b) Maintenance of ledgers of accounts and reports of account 75780
balances, and monitoring of budgets and allotment plans in 75781
consultation with the board;75782

       (c) Performance of other routine support services, specified 75783
in the agreement, that the fiscal agent considers appropriate to 75784
achieve efficiency.75785

       (2) The agreement may require the fiscal agent to provide the 75786
following services:75787

       (a) Any shared services between the board and the fiscal 75788
agent;75789

       (b) Any other services agreed to by the board and the 75790
department, including administrative or technical services.75791

       (B) The board, in conjunction and consultation with the 75792
fiscal agent, has the following authority and responsibility 75793
relative to fiscal matters:75794

       (1) Sole authority to expend funds from the board's accounts 75795
for programs and any other necessary expenses the board may incur;75796

       (2) Responsibility to cooperate with and inform the fiscal 75797
agent fully of all financial transactions.75798

       (C) The board shall follow all state procurement, fiscal, 75799
human resources, information technology, statutory, and 75800
administrative rule requirements.75801

       (D) In its role as fiscal agent for the board, the department 75802
shall serve as a contractor of the board, and does not assume 75803
responsibility for the debts or fiscal obligations of the board.75804

       Sec. 4751.05.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 75805
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, or a 75806
government or private entity under contract with the board to 75807
administer examinations for licensure as a nursing home 75808
administrator, shall admit to an examination any candidate who:75809

       (1) Pays the application fee of fifty dollars;75810

       (2) Submits evidence of good moral character and suitability;75811

       (3) Is at least eighteen years of age;75812

       (4) Has completed educational requirements and work 75813
experience satisfactory to the board;75814

       (5) Submits an application on forms prescribed by the board;75815

       (6) Pays the examination fee charged by the board or 75816
government or private entity.75817

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the rules 75818
adopted thereunder shall be construed to require an applicant for 75819
licensure or a temporary license, who is employed by an 75820
institution for the care and treatment of the sick to demonstrate 75821
proficiency in any medical techniques or to meet any medical 75822
educational qualifications or medical standards not in accord with 75823
the remedial care and treatment provided by the institution if the 75824
institution is all of the following:75825

       (1) Operated exclusively for patients who use spiritual means 75826
for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical care is 75827
inconsistent with their religious beliefs;75828

       (2) Accredited by a national accrediting organization;75829

       (3) Exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of 75830
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, 75831
as amended;75832

       (4) Providing twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the 75833
exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code 75834
from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised 75835
Code.75836

       (C) If a person fails three times to attain a passing grade 75837
on the examination, said person, before the person may again be 75838
admitted to examination, shall meet such additional education or 75839
experience requirements, or both, as may be prescribed by the 75840
board.75841

       Sec. 4751.06.  (A) An applicant for licensure as a nursing 75842
home administrator who has successfully completed the requirements 75843
of section 4751.05 of the Revised Code, passed the examination 75844
administered by the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home 75845
administratorslong-term services and supports or a government or 75846
private entity under contract with the board, and paid to the 75847
board an original license fee of two hundred fifty dollars shall 75848
be issued a license on a form provided by the board. Such license 75849
shall certify that the applicant has met the licensure 75850
requirements of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and is entitled 75851
to practice as a licensed nursing home administrator.75852

       (B) A temporary license for a period not to exceed one 75853
hundred eighty days may be issued to an individual temporarily 75854
filling the position of a nursing home administrator vacated by 75855
reason of death, illness, or other unexpected cause, pursuant to 75856
regulations adopted by the board.75857

       (C) The fee for a temporary license is one hundred dollars. 75858
Said fee must accompany the application for the temporary license.75859

       (D) Any license or temporary license issued by the board 75860
pursuant to this section shall be under the hand of the 75861
chairperson and the secretary of the board.75862

       (E) A duplicate of the original certificate of registration 75863
or license may be secured to replace one that has been lost or 75864
destroyed by submitting to the board a notarized statement 75865
explaining the conditions of the loss, mutilation, or destruction 75866
of the certificate or license and by paying a fee of twenty-five 75867
dollars.75868

       (F) A duplicate certificate of registration and license may 75869
be issued in the event of a legal change of name by submitting to 75870
the board a certified copy of the court order or marriage license 75871
establishing the change of name, by returning at the same time the 75872
original license and certificate of registration, and by paying a 75873
fee of twenty-five dollars.75874

       Sec. 4751.07.  (A) Every individual who holds a valid license 75875
as a nursing home administrator issued under division (A) of 75876
section 4751.06 of the Revised Code, shall immediately upon 75877
issuance thereof be registered with the board of examiners75878
executives of nursing home administratorslong-term services and 75879
supports and be issued a certificate of registration. Such 75880
individual shall annually apply to the board for a new certificate 75881
of registration on forms provided for such purpose prior to the 75882
expiration of the certificate of registration and shall at the 75883
same time submit satisfactory evidence to the board of having 75884
attended such continuing education programs or courses of study as 75885
may be prescribed in rules adopted by the board.75886

       (B) Upon making an application for a new certificate of 75887
registration such individual shall pay the annual registration fee 75888
of three hundred dollars.75889

       (C) Upon receipt of such application for registration and the 75890
registration fee required by divisions (A) and (B) of this 75891
section, the board shall issue a certificate of registration to 75892
such nursing home administrator.75893

       (D) The license of a nursing home administrator who fails to 75894
comply with this section shall automatically lapse.75895

       (E) A nursing home administrator who has been licensed and 75896
registered in this state who determines to temporarily abandon the 75897
practice of nursing home administration shall notify the board in 75898
writing immediately; provided, that such individual may thereafter 75899
register to resume the practice of nursing home administration 75900
within the state upon complying with the requirements of this 75901
section regarding annual registration.75902

       (F) Only an individual who has qualified as a licensed and 75903
registered nursing home administrator under Chapter 4751. of the 75904
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and who holds a 75905
valid current registration certificate pursuant to this section, 75906
may use the title "nursing home administrator," or the 75907
abbreviation "N.H.A." after the individual's name. No other person 75908
shall use such title or such abbreviation or any other words, 75909
letters, sign, card, or device tending to indicate or to imply 75910
that the person is a licensed and registered nursing home 75911
administrator.75912

       (G) Every person holding a valid license entitling the person 75913
to practice nursing home administration in this state shall 75914
display said license in the nursing home which is the person's 75915
principal place of employment, and while engaged in the practice 75916
of nursing home administration shall have at hand the current 75917
registration certificate.75918

       (H) Every person holding a valid temporary license shall have 75919
such license at hand while engaged in the practice of nursing home 75920
administration.75921

       Sec. 4751.08.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 75922
home administratorslong-term services and supports, in its 75923
discretion, and otherwise subject to Chapter 4751. of the Revised 75924
Code and the rules adopted by the board thereunder prescribing the 75925
qualifications for a nursing home administrator license, may 75926
license a nursing home administrator without examination if hethe 75927
nursing home administrator has a valid license issued by the 75928
proper authorities of any other state, upon payment of a fee of 75929
one hundred fifty dollars, and upon submission of evidence 75930
satisfactory to the board both:75931

       (A) That such other state maintained a system and standard of 75932
qualifications and examinations for a nursing home administrator 75933
license which were substantially equivalent to those required in 75934
this state at the time such other license was issued by such other 75935
state;75936

       (B) That such other state gives similar recognition to 75937
nursing home administrators licensed in this state.75938

       Sec. 4751.10.  The license or registration, or both, or the 75939
temporary license of any person practicing or offering to practice 75940
nursing home administration, shall be revoked or suspended by the 75941
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators75942
long-term services and supports if such licensee or temporary 75943
licensee:75944

       (A) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits, 75945
or other causes;75946

       (B) Has willfully or repeatedly violated any of the 75947
provisions of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the regulations 75948
adopted thereunder; or willfully or repeatedly acted in a manner 75949
inconsistent with the health and safety of the patients of the 75950
nursing home in which hethe licensee or temporary licensee is the 75951
administrator;75952

       (C) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the practice of nursing 75953
home administration or in histhe licensee's or temporary 75954
licensee's admission to such practice;75955

       (D) Has been convicted in a court of competent jurisdiction, 75956
either within or without this state, of a felony.75957

       Proceedings under this section shall be instituted by the 75958
board or shall be begun by filing with the board charges in 75959
writing and under oath.75960

       Sec. 4751.11.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 75961
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports may, 75962
in its discretion, reissue a license or registration, or both, to 75963
any person whose license or registration, or both, has been 75964
revoked.75965

       (B) Application for the reissuance of a license or 75966
registration, or both, shall not be made prior to one year after 75967
revocation and shall be made in such manner as the board may 75968
direct.75969

       (C) If a person convicted of a felony is subsequently 75970
pardoned by the governor of the state where such conviction was 75971
had or by the president of the United States, or receives a final 75972
release granted by the adult parole authority of this state or its 75973
equivalent agency of another state, the board may, in its 75974
discretion, on application of such person and on the submission of 75975
evidence satisfactory to the board restore to such person the 75976
nursing home administrator's license or registration, or both.75977

       Sec. 4751.12.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 75978
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the board of examinersexecutives of75979
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall 75980
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 75981
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 75982
Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.75983

       Sec. 4751.13.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 75984
home administratorslong-term services and supports shall comply 75985
with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.75986

       Sec. 4751.14.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 75987
the board of executives of long-term services and supports fund. 75988
The fund shall consist of license and registration fees collected 75989
under this chapter. Money in the fund shall be used by the board 75990
of executives of long-term services and supports to administer and 75991
enforce this chapter and the rules adopted under it. Investment 75992
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.75993

       Sec. 4753.071.  A person who is required to meet the 75994
supervised professional experience requirement of division (F) of 75995
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board of 75996
speech-language pathology and audiology an application for a 75997
conditional license. The application shall include a plan for the 75998
content of the supervised professional experience on a form the 75999
board shall prescribe. The board shall issue the conditional 76000
license to the applicant if the applicant meets the requirements 76001
of section 4753.06 of the Revised Code, other than the requirement 76002
to have obtained the supervised professional experience, and pays 76003
to the board the appropriate fee for a conditional license. An 76004
applicant may not begin employment until the conditional license 76005
has been issued.76006

       A conditional license authorizes an individual to practice 76007
speech-language pathology or audiology while completing the 76008
supervised professional experience as required by division (F) of 76009
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code. A person holding a 76010
conditional license may practice speech-language pathology or 76011
audiology while working under the supervision of a person fully 76012
licensed in accordance with this chapter. A conditional license is 76013
valid for eighteen months unless suspended or revoked pursuant to 76014
section 3123.47 or 4753.10 of the Revised Code.76015

       A person holding a conditional license may perform services 76016
for which reimbursementpayment will be sought under the medicare 76017
program established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 76018
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or the 76019
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 76020
Code but all requests for reimbursementpayment for such services 76021
shall be made by the person who supervises the person performing 76022
the services.76023

       Sec. 4755.481. (A) If a physical therapist evaluates and 76024
treats a patient without the prescription of, or the referral of 76025
the patient by, a person described in division (G)(1) of section 76026
4755.48 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:76027

       (1) The physical therapist shall, upon consent of the 76028
patient, inform the relevant person described in division (G)(1) 76029
of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code of the evaluation not later 76030
than five business days after the evaluation is made.76031

        (2) If the physical therapist determines, based on reasonable 76032
evidence, that no substantial progress has been made with respect 76033
to that patient during the thirty-day period immediately following 76034
the date of the patient's initial visit with the physical 76035
therapist, the physical therapist shall consult with or refer the 76036
patient to a person described in division (G)(1) of section 76037
4755.48 of the Revised Code, unless either of the following 76038
applies:76039

        (a) The evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided 76040
for fitness, wellness, or prevention purposes.76041

        (b) The patient previously was diagnosed with chronic, 76042
neuromuscular, or developmental conditions and the evaluation, 76043
treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms 76044
associated with one or more of those previously diagnosed 76045
conditions.76046

        (3) If the physical therapist determines that orthotic 76047
devices are necessary to treat the patient, the physical therapist 76048
shall be limited to the application of the following orthotic 76049
devices:76050

        (a) Upper extremity adaptive equipment used to facilitate the 76051
activities of daily living;76052

        (b) Finger splints;76053

        (c) Wrist splints;76054

        (d) Prefabricated elastic or fabric abdominal supports with 76055
or without metal or plastic reinforcing stays and other 76056
prefabricated soft goods requiring minimal fitting;76057

        (e) Nontherapeutic accommodative inlays;76058

        (f) Shoes that are not manufactured or modified for a 76059
particular individual;76060

        (g) Prefabricated foot care products;76061

       (h) Custom foot orthotics;76062

        (i) Durable medical equipment.76063

        (4) If, at any time, the physical therapist has reason to 76064
believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require 76065
treatment or services beyond the scope of practice of a physical 76066
therapist, the physical therapist shall refer the patient to a 76067
licensed health care practitioner acting within the practitioner's 76068
scope of practice.76069

        (B) Nothing in sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 76070
Code shall be construed to require reimbursement under any health 76071
insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement, any sickness 76072
and accident insurance policy, the medical assistancemedicaid76073
program as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, or the 76074
health partnership program or qualified health plans established 76075
pursuant to sections 4121.44 to 4121.442 of the Revised Code, for 76076
any physical therapy service rendered without the prescription of, 76077
or the referral of the patient by, a person described in division 76078
(G)(1) of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code.76079

       (C) For purposes of this section, "business day" means any 76080
calendar day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. 76081
"Legal holiday" has the same meaning as in section 1.14 of the 76082
Revised Code.76083

       Sec. 4758.10. (A) There is hereby created the chemical 76084
dependency professionals board.76085

       (B) The governor shall appoint all of the following voting 76086
members of the board with the advice and consent of the senate:76087

       (1) Four individuals who hold a valid independent chemical 76088
dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license or independent 76089
chemical dependency counselor license issued under this chapter, 76090
including at least two of whom have received at least a master's 76091
degree in a field related to chemical dependency counseling from 76092
an accredited educational institution;76093

       (2) Two individuals who hold a valid chemical dependency 76094
counselor III license issued under this chapter;76095

       (3) One individual who holds a valid chemical dependency 76096
counselor II license issued under this chapter;76097

       (4) Two individuals who hold a valid prevention specialist II 76098
certificate or prevention specialist I certificate issued under 76099
this chapter;76100

       (5) One individual who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of 76101
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 76102
medicine and surgery and has experience practicing in a field 76103
related to chemical dependency counseling;76104

       (6) Two individuals who represent the public and have not 76105
practiced chemical dependency counseling or alcohol and other drug 76106
prevention services and have not been involved in the delivery of 76107
chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and other drug 76108
prevention services. At least one of these individuals shall be at 76109
least sixtyfifty years of age. During their terms, the public 76110
members shall not practice chemical dependency counseling or 76111
alcohol and other drug prevention services or be involved in the 76112
delivery of chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and 76113
other drug prevention services.76114

       (C) Not later than ninety days after December 23, 2002, the 76115
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 76116
addiction services shall appoint an individual who represents the 76117
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 76118
and addiction services to serve as an ex officio member of the 76119
chemical dependency professionals board.76120

       (D) Not more than one-half of the voting members of the board 76121
may be of the same gender or members of the same political party. 76122
At least two voting members of the board shall be of African, 76123
Native American, Hispanic, or Asian descent.76124

       Sec. 4758.11. Of the initial appointees to the chemical 76125
dependency professionals board appointed by the governor under 76126
division (B) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code, four shall be 76127
appointed for terms ending one year after the effective date of 76128
this sectionDecember 23, 2002, four shall be appointed for terms 76129
ending two years after the effective date of this sectionDecember 76130
23, 2002, and four shall be appointed for terms ending three years 76131
after the effective date of this sectionDecember 23, 2002. After 76132
the initial appointments, terms of office shall be three years, 76133
each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as 76134
the term it succeeds.76135

       A voting member of the board shall hold office from the date 76136
of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 76137
appointed. A voting member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 76138
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 76139
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 76140
that term. A voting member shall continue in office after the 76141
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 76142
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 76143
whichever occurs first. Voting members may be reappointed, except 76144
that an individual who has held office for two consecutive full 76145
terms shall not be reappointed sooner than one year after the 76146
expiration of the second full term.76147

       The ex officio member of the board appointed by the director 76148
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 76149
services under division (C) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code 76150
shall serve at the pleasure of the director.76151

       Sec. 4761.01.  As used in this chapter:76152

       (A) "Respiratory care" means rendering or offering to render 76153
to individuals, groups, organizations, or the public any service 76154
involving the evaluation of cardiopulmonary function, the 76155
treatment of cardiopulmonary impairment, the assessment of 76156
treatment effectiveness, and the care of patients with 76157
deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary 76158
system. The practice of respiratory care includes:76159

       (1) Obtaining, analyzing, testing, measuring, and monitoring 76160
blood and gas samples in the determination of cardiopulmonary 76161
parameters and related physiologic data, including flows, 76162
pressures, and volumes, and the use of equipment employed for this 76163
purpose;76164

       (2) Administering, monitoring, recording the results of, and 76165
instructing in the use of medical gases, aerosols, and 76166
bronchopulmonary hygiene techniques, including drainage, 76167
aspiration, and sampling, and applying, maintaining, and 76168
instructing in the use of artificial airways, ventilators, and 76169
other life support equipment employed in the treatment of 76170
cardiopulmonary impairment and provided in collaboration with 76171
other licensed health care professionals responsible for providing 76172
care;76173

       (3) Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation and respiratory 76174
rehabilitation techniques;76175

       (4) Administering medications for the testing or treatment of 76176
cardiopulmonary impairment.76177

       (B) "Respiratory care professional" means a person who is 76178
licensed under this chapter to practice the full range of 76179
respiratory care services as defined in division (A) of this 76180
section.76181

       (C) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 76182
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 76183
osteopathic medicine and surgery.76184

       (D) "Registered nurse" means an individual licensed under 76185
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of 76186
nursing as a registered nurse.76187

       (E) "Hospital" means a facility that meets the operating 76188
standards of section 3727.02 of the Revised Code.76189

       (F) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 76190
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.76191

       Sec. 4906.20. (A) No person shall commence to construct an 76192
economically significant wind farm in this state without first 76193
having obtained a certificate from the power siting board. An 76194
economically significant wind farm with respect to which such a 76195
certificate is required shall be constructed, operated, and 76196
maintained in conformity with that certificate and any terms, 76197
conditions, and modifications it contains. A certificate shall be 76198
issued only pursuant to this section. The certificate may be 76199
transferred, subject to the approval of the board, to a person 76200
that agrees to comply with those terms, conditions, and 76201
modifications.76202

       (B) The board shall adopt rules governing the certificating 76203
of economically significant wind farms under this section. Initial 76204
rules shall be adopted within one hundred twenty days after June 76205
24, 2008.76206

       (1) The rules shall provide for an application process for 76207
certificating economically significant wind farms that is 76208
identical to the extent practicable to the process applicable to 76209
certificating major utility facilities under sections 4906.06, 76210
4906.07, 4906.08, 4906.09, 4906.10, 4906.11, and 4906.12 of the 76211
Revised Code and shall prescribe a reasonable schedule of 76212
application filing fees structured in the manner of the schedule 76213
of filing fees required for major utility facilities.76214

       (2) Additionally, the rules shall prescribe reasonable 76215
regulations regarding any wind turbines and associated facilities 76216
of an economically significant wind farm, including, but not 76217
limited to, their location, erection, construction, 76218
reconstruction, change, alteration, maintenance, removal, use, or 76219
enlargement and including erosion control, aesthetics, 76220
recreational land use, wildlife protection, interconnection with 76221
power lines and with regional transmission organizations, 76222
independent transmission system operators, or similar 76223
organizations, ice throw, sound and noise levels, blade shear, 76224
shadow flicker, decommissioning, and necessary cooperation for 76225
site visits and enforcement investigations. The rules also shall 76226
prescribe a minimum setback for a wind turbine of an economically 76227
significant wind farm. That minimum shall be equal to a horizontal 76228
distance, from the turbine's base to the property line of the wind 76229
farm property, equal to one and one-tenth times the total height 76230
of the turbine structure as measured from its base to the tip of 76231
its highest blade and be at least sevenone thousand two hundred 76232
fifty feet in horizontal distance from the tip of the turbine's 76233
nearest blade at ninety degrees to the exterior of the nearest, 76234
habitable, residential structure, if any, located on adjacent 76235
property at the time of the certification application. For a 76236
certification application filed before the effective date of the 76237
amendment of this section, including any amendment of that 76238
application filed on or after that effective date, the distance 76239
shall be seven hundred fifty feet instead of one thousand two 76240
hundred fifty feet. The setback shall apply in all cases except 76241
those in which all owners of property adjacent to the wind farm 76242
property waive application of the setback to that property 76243
pursuant to a procedure the board shall establish by rule and 76244
except in which, in a particular case, the board determines that a 76245
setback greater than the minimum is necessary.76246

       Sec. 5101.01. (A) As used in the Revised Code, the 76247
"department of public welfare" and the "department of human 76248
services" mean the department of job and family services and the 76249
"director of public welfare" and the "director of human services" 76250
mean the director of job and family services. WheneverExcept as 76251
provided in section 5160.011 of the Revised Code, whenever the 76252
department or director of public welfare or the department or 76253
director of human services is referred to or designated in any 76254
statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference 76255
or designation shall be deemed to refer to the department or 76256
director of job and family services, as the case may be.76257

       (B) As used in this chapter:76258

        (1) References to a county department of job and family 76259
services include a joint county department of job and family 76260
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.76261

        (2) References to a board of county commissioners include the 76262
board of directors of a joint county department of job and family 76263
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.76264

       Sec. 5101.101.  (A) This section establishes the order of 76265
priority to be followed by the department of job and family 76266
services when distributing funds for the purpose of providing 76267
family planning services, including funds the department receives 76268
through Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2337 76269
(1974), 42 U.S.C. 1397, as amended, and funds the department 76270
receives through Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 76271
Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended, to be used for 76272
purposes of providing Title XX social services. This section does 76273
not apply to payments made under the medicaid program.76274

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 76275
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 76276
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 76277
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 76278
funds:76279

       (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 76280
are operated by state or local government entities and that 76281
provide or are able to provide family planning services.76282

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 76283
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 76284
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 76285
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 76286
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 76287
priority:76288

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 76289
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 76290
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 76291
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;76292

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 76293
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;76294

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 76295
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 76296
services.76297

       Sec. 5101.11. This section does not apply to contracts 76298
entered into under section 5111.90 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code.76299

       (A) As used in this section:76300

       (1) "Entity" includes an agency, board, commission, or 76301
department of the state or a political subdivision of the state; a 76302
private, nonprofit entity; a school district; a private school; or 76303
a public or private institution of higher education.76304

       (2) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 76305
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 76306
implementing a program administered by the department of job and 76307
family services.76308

       (B) At the request of any public entity having authority to 76309
implement a program administered by the department of job and 76310
family services or any private entity under contract with a public 76311
entity to implement a program administered by the department, the 76312
department may seek to obtain federal financial participation for 76313
costs incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may 76314
be sought from programs operated pursuant to Title IV-A,of the 76315
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 601 et seq.; Title IV-E, and 76316
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 76317
U.S.C. 301, as amended670 et seq.; the Food and Nutrition Act of 76318
2008 (,7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.); and any other statute or regulation 76319
under which federal financial participation may be available, 76320
except that federal financial participation may be sought only for 76321
expenditures made with funds for which federal financial 76322
participation is available under federal law.76323

       (C) All funds collected by the department of job and family 76324
services pursuant to division (B) of this section shall be 76325
distributed to the entities that incurred the costs, except for 76326
any amounts retained by the department pursuant to division (D)(3) 76327
of this section.76328

       (D) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 76329
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 76330
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 76331
funds in accordance with rules adopted under division (F) of this 76332
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 76333
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 76334
of the following:76335

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 76336
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;76337

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 76338
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 76339
the department of job and family services or the entity, whichever 76340
party caused the disallowance or unavailability of federal 76341
financial participation, to assume responsibility for the 76342
expenditures;76343

       (3) Permit the department to retain not more than five per 76344
cent of the amount of the federal financial participation to be 76345
distributed to the entity;76346

       (4) Require the public entity to certify the availability of 76347
sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal financial 76348
participation it receives under this section;76349

       (5) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 76350
fixed or a continuing period of time;76351

       (6) Establish any other requirements determined by the 76352
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 76353
agreement.76354

       (E) An entity that receives federal financial participation 76355
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 76356
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 76357
the department of job and family services for the use of the funds 76358
to improve and expand the program.76359

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 76360
as necessary to implement this section, including rules for the 76361
distribution of federal financial participation pursuant to this 76362
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 76363
119. of the Revised Code. The director may adopt or amend any 76364
statewide plan required by the federal government for a program 76365
administered by the department, as necessary to implement this 76366
section.76367

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 76368
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 76369
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.76370

       Sec. 5101.141.  (A) As used in sections 5101.141 to 5101.1410 76371
of the Revised Code, "Title IV-E" means Title IV-E of the "Social 76372
Security Act," 94 Stat. 501, 42 U.S.C. 670 (1980), as amended.76373

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 76374
the single state agency to administer federal payments for foster 76375
care and adoption assistance made pursuant to Title IV-E. The 76376
director of job and family services shall adopt rules to implement 76377
this authority. Rules governing financial and administrative 76378
requirements applicable to public children services agencies and 76379
government entities that provide Title IV-E reimbursable placement 76380
services to children shall be adopted in accordance with section 76381
111.15 of the Revised Code, as if they were internal management 76382
rules. Rules governing requirements applicable to private child 76383
placing agencies and private noncustodial agencies and rules 76384
establishing eligibility, program participation, and other 76385
requirements concerning Title IV-E shall be adopted in accordance 76386
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. A public children services 76387
agency to which the department distributes Title IV-E funds shall 76388
administer the funds in accordance with those rules.76389

       (C)(1) The county, on behalf of each child eligible for 76390
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, shall make 76391
payments to cover the cost of providing all of the following:76392

       (a) The child's food, clothing, shelter, daily supervision, 76393
and school supplies;76394

       (b) The child's personal incidentals;76395

       (c) Reasonable travel to the child's home for visitation.76396

       (2) In addition to payments made under division (C)(1) of 76397
this section, the county may, on behalf of each child eligible for 76398
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, make payments 76399
to cover the cost of providing the following:76400

       (a) Liability insurance with respect to the child;76401

       (b) If the county is participating in the demonstration 76402
project established under division (A) of section 5101.142 of the 76403
Revised Code, services provided under the project.76404

       (3) With respect to a child who is in a child-care 76405
institution, including any type of group home designed for the 76406
care of children or any privately operated program consisting of 76407
two or more certified foster homes operated by a common 76408
administrative unit, the foster care maintenance payments made by 76409
the county on behalf of the child shall include the reasonable 76410
cost of the administration and operation of the institution, group 76411
home, or program, as necessary to provide the items described in 76412
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section.76413

       (D) To the extent that either foster care maintenance 76414
payments under division (C) of this section or Title IV-E adoption 76415
assistance payments for maintenance costs require the expenditure 76416
of county funds, the board of county commissioners shall report 76417
the nature and amount of each expenditure of county funds to the 76418
department.76419

       (E) The department shall distribute to public children 76420
services agencies that incur and report expenditures of the type 76421
described in division (D) of this section federal financial 76422
participation received for administrative and training costs 76423
incurred in the operation of foster care maintenance and adoption 76424
assistance programs. The department may withhold not more than 76425
three per cent of the federal financial participation received. 76426
The funds withheld may be used only to fund the following:76427

       (1) The Ohio child welfare training program established under 76428
section 5103.30 of the Revised Code;76429

       (2) The university partnership program for college and 76430
university students majoring in social work who have committed to 76431
work for a public children services agency upon graduation;76432

       (3) Efforts supporting organizational excellence, including 76433
voluntary activities to be accredited by a nationally recognized 76434
accreditation organization.76435

       The funds withheld shall be in addition to any administration 76436
and training cost for which the department is reimbursed through 76437
its own cost allocation plan.76438

       (F) All federal financial participation funds received by a 76439
county pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the 76440
county's children services fund created pursuant to section 76441
5101.144 of the Revised Code.76442

       (G) The department shall periodically publish and distribute 76443
the maximum amounts that the department will reimburse public 76444
children services agencies for making payments on behalf of 76445
children eligible for foster care maintenance payments.76446

       (H) The department, by and through its director, is hereby 76447
authorized to develop, participate in the development of, 76448
negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 76449
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 76450
provision of medical assistance and other social services to 76451
children in relation to whom all of the following apply:76452

       (1) They have special needs.76453

       (2) This state or another state that is a party to the 76454
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 76455
behalf.76456

       (3) They move into this state from another state or move out 76457
of this state to another state.76458

       Sec. 5101.16.  (A) As used in this section and sections 76459
5101.161 and 5101.162 of the Revised Code:76460

       (1) "Disability financial assistance" means the financial 76461
assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 76462
Code.76463

       (2) "Supplemental nutrition assistance program" means the 76464
program administered by the department of job and family services 76465
pursuant to section 5101.54 of the Revised Code.76466

       (3) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 76467
established by Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, excluding 76468
transportation services provided under that chapter.76469

       (4) "Ohio works first" means the program established by 76470
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.76471

       (5)(4) "Prevention, retention, and contingency" means the 76472
program established by Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.76473

       (6)(5) "Public assistance expenditures" means expenditures 76474
for all of the following:76475

       (a) Ohio works first;76476

       (b) County administration of Ohio works first;76477

       (c) Prevention, retention, and contingency;76478

       (d) County administration of prevention, retention, and 76479
contingency;76480

       (e) Disability financial assistance;76481

       (f) County administration of disability financial assistance;76482

       (g) County administration of the supplemental nutrition 76483
assistance program;76484

       (h) County administration of medicaid, excluding 76485
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 76486
the medicaid program.76487

       (7) "Title IV-A program" has the same meaning as in section 76488
5101.80 of the Revised Code.76489

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall pay the county 76490
share of public assistance expenditures in accordance with section 76491
5101.161 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C) 76492
of this section, a county's share of public assistance 76493
expenditures is the sum of all of the following for state fiscal 76494
year 1998 and each state fiscal year thereafter:76495

       (1) The amount that is twenty-five per cent of the county's 76496
total expenditures for disability financial assistance and county 76497
administration of that program during the state fiscal year ending 76498
in the previous calendar year that the department of job and 76499
family services determines are allowable.76500

       (2) The amount that is ten per cent, or other percentage 76501
determined under division (D) of this section, of the county's 76502
total expenditures for county administration of the supplemental 76503
nutrition assistance program and medicaid (excluding 76504
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 76505
the medicaid program) during the state fiscal year ending in the 76506
previous calendar year that the department determines are 76507
allowable, less the amount of federal reimbursement credited to 76508
the county under division (E) of this section for the state fiscal 76509
year ending in the previous calendar year;76510

       (3) A percentage of the actual amount of the county share of 76511
program and administrative expenditures during federal fiscal year 76512
1994 for assistance and services, other than child care, provided 76513
under Titles IV-A and IV-F of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 76514
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as those titles existed prior to the 76515
enactment of the "Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity 76516
Reconciliation Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 2105. The department of job 76517
and family services shall determine the actual amount of the 76518
county share from expenditure reports submitted to the United 76519
States department of health and human services. The percentage 76520
shall be the percentage established in rules adopted under 76521
division (F) of this section.76522

       (C)(1) If a county's share of public assistance expenditures 76523
determined under division (B) of this section for a state fiscal 76524
year exceeds one hundred five per cent of the county's share for 76525
those expenditures for the immediately preceding state fiscal 76526
year, the department of job and family services shall reduce the 76527
county's share for expenditures under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of 76528
this section so that the total of the county's share for 76529
expenditures under division (B) of this section equals one hundred 76530
five per cent of the county's share of those expenditures for the 76531
immediately preceding state fiscal year.76532

       (2) A county's share of public assistance expenditures 76533
determined under division (B) of this section may be increased 76534
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code and a sanction 76535
under section 5101.24 of the Revised Code. An increase made 76536
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code may cause the 76537
county's share to exceed the limit established by division (C)(1) 76538
of this section.76539

       (D)(1) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less 76540
than the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and 76541
division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to the county, the 76542
percentage to be used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this 76543
section is the product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which 76544
the numerator is the per capita tax duplicate of the county and 76545
the denominator is the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a 76546
whole. The department of job and family services shall compute the 76547
per capita tax duplicate for the state and for each county by 76548
dividing the tax duplicate for the most recent available year by 76549
the current estimate of population prepared by the department of76550
development services agency.76551

       (2) If the percentage of families in a county with an annual 76552
income of less than three thousand dollars is greater than the 76553
percentage of such families in the state and division (D)(1) of 76554
this section does not apply to the county, the percentage to be 76555
used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this section is the 76556
product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which the numerator is 76557
the percentage of families in the state with an annual income of 76558
less than three thousand dollars a year and the denominator is the 76559
percentage of such families in the county. The department of job 76560
and family services shall compute the percentage of families with 76561
an annual income of less than three thousand dollars for the state 76562
and for each county by multiplying the most recent estimate of 76563
such families published by the department of development services 76564
agency, by a fraction, the numerator of which is the estimate of 76565
average annual personal income published by the bureau of economic 76566
analysis of the United States department of commerce for the year 76567
on which the census estimate is based and the denominator of which 76568
is the most recent such estimate published by the bureau.76569

       (3) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less than 76570
the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and the 76571
percentage of families in the county with an annual income of less 76572
than three thousand dollars is greater than the percentage of such 76573
families in the state, the percentage to be used for the purpose 76574
of division (B)(2) of this section shall be determined as follows:76575

       (a) Multiply ten by the fraction determined under division 76576
(D)(1) of this section;76577

       (b) Multiply the product determined under division (D)(3)(a) 76578
of this section by the fraction determined under division (D)(2) 76579
of this section.76580

       (4) The department of job and family services shall 76581
determine, for each county, the percentage to be used for the 76582
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section not later than the 76583
first day of July of the year preceding the state fiscal year for 76584
which the percentage is used.76585

       (E) The department of job and family services shall credit to 76586
a county the amount of federal reimbursement the department 76587
receives from the United States departments of agriculture and 76588
health and human services for the county's expenditures for 76589
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program 76590
and medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for 76591
transportation services covered by the medicaid program) that the 76592
department determines are allowable administrative expenditures.76593

       (F)(1) The director of job and family services shall adopt 76594
rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to 76595
establish all of the following:76596

       (a) The method the department is to use to change a county's 76597
share of public assistance expenditures determined under division 76598
(B) of this section as provided in division (C) of this section;76599

       (b) The allocation methodology and formula the department 76600
will use to determine the amount of funds to credit to a county 76601
under this section;76602

       (c) The method the department will use to change the payment 76603
of the county share of public assistance expenditures from a 76604
calendar-year basis to a state fiscal year basis;76605

       (d) The percentage to be used for the purpose of division 76606
(B)(3) of this section, which shall, except as provided in section 76607
5101.163 of the Revised Code, meet both of the following 76608
requirements:76609

       (i) The percentage shall not be less than seventy-five per 76610
cent nor more than eighty-two per cent;76611

       (ii) The percentage shall not exceed the percentage that the 76612
state's qualified state expenditures is of the state's historic 76613
state expenditures as those terms are defined in 42 U.S.C. 76614
609(a)(7).76615

       (e) Other procedures and requirements necessary to implement 76616
this section.76617

       (2) The director of job and family services may amend the 76618
rule adopted under division (F)(1)(d) of this section to modify 76619
the percentage on determination that the amount the general 76620
assembly appropriates for Title IV-A programs makes the 76621
modification necessary. The rule shall be adopted and amended as 76622
if an internal management rule and in consultation with the 76623
director of budget and management.76624

       Sec. 5101.162.  Subject to available federal funds and 76625
appropriations made by the general assembly, the department of job 76626
and family services may, at its sole discretion, use available 76627
federal funds to reimburse county expenditures for county 76628
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program or 76629
medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for transportation 76630
services covered by the medicaid program) even though the county 76631
expenditures meet or exceed the maximum allowable reimbursement 76632
amount established by rules adopted under section 5101.161 of the 76633
Revised Code. The director of job and family services may adopt 76634
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 76635
Revised Code to implement this section.76636

       Sec. 5101.18. (A) When the director of job and family 76637
services adopts rules under section 5107.05 regarding income 76638
requirements for the Ohio works first program and under section 76639
5115.03 of the Revised Code regarding income and resource 76640
requirements for the disability financial assistance program, the 76641
director shall determine what payments shall be regarded or 76642
disregarded. In making this determination, the director shall 76643
consider:76644

       (1)(A) The source of the payment;76645

       (2)(B) The amount of the payment;76646

       (3)(C) The purpose for which the payment was made;76647

       (4)(D) Whether regarding the payment as income would be in 76648
the public interest;76649

       (5)(E) Whether treating the payment as income would be 76650
detrimental to any of the programs administered in whole or in 76651
part by the department of job and family services and whether such 76652
determination would jeopardize the receipt of any federal grant or 76653
payment by the state or any receipt of aid under Chapter 5107. of 76654
the Revised Code.76655

       (B) Any recipient of aid under Title XVI of the "Social 76656
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, 76657
whose money payment is discontinued as the result of a general 76658
increase in old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits 76659
under such act, shall remain a recipient for the purpose of 76660
receiving medical assistance through the medical assistance 76661
program established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code.76662

       Sec. 5101.181.  (A) As used in this section and section 76663
5101.182 of the Revised Code:76664

       (1) "Public, "public assistance" means any or all of the 76665
following:76666

       (a)(1) Ohio works first;76667

       (b)(2) Prevention, retention, and contingency; 76668

       (c)(3) Disability financial assistance;76669

       (d)(4) General assistance provided prior to July 17, 1995, 76670
under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code.76671

       (2) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 76672
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 76673
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 76674
provision of the Revised Code.76675

       (B) As part of the procedure for the determination of 76676
overpayment to a recipient of public assistance under Chapter 76677
5107., 5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code, the director of job 76678
and family services may furnish quarterly the name and social 76679
security number of each individual who receives public assistance 76680
to the director of administrative services, the administrator of 76681
the bureau of workers' compensation, and each of the state's 76682
retirement boards. Within fourteen days after receiving the name 76683
and social security number of an individual who receives public 76684
assistance, the director of administrative services, 76685
administrator, or board shall inform the auditor of state as to 76686
whether such individual is receiving wages or benefits, the amount 76687
of any wages or benefits being received, the social security 76688
number, and the address of the individual. The director of 76689
administrative services, administrator, boards, and any agent or 76690
employee of those officials and boards shall comply with the rules 76691
of the director of job and family services restricting the 76692
disclosure of information regarding recipients of public 76693
assistance. Any person who violates this provision shall 76694
thereafter be disqualified from acting as an agent or employee or 76695
in any other capacity under appointment or employment of any state 76696
board, commission, or agency.76697

       (C) The auditor of state may enter into a reciprocal 76698
agreement with the director of job and family services or 76699
comparable officer of any other state for the exchange of names, 76700
current or most recent addresses, or social security numbers of 76701
persons receiving public assistance under Title IV-A of the 76702
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 76703
amended601 et seq.76704

       (D) The auditor of state shall retain, for not less than two 76705
years, at least one copy of all information received under this 76706
section and sections 145.27, 742.41, 3307.20, 3309.22, 4123.27, 76707
5101.182, and 5505.04 of the Revised Code. 76708

        (E) On the request of the director of job and family 76709
services, the auditor of state may conduct an audit of an 76710
individual who receives medical assistance. If the auditor decides 76711
to conduct an audit, the auditor shall enter into an interagency 76712
agreement with the department of job and family services that 76713
specifies that the auditor agrees to comply with section 5101.271 76714
of the Revised Code with respect to any information the auditor 76715
receives pursuant to the audit.76716

       (F) The auditor shall review the information described in 76717
division (D) of this section to determine whether overpayments 76718
were made to recipients of public assistance under Chapters 5107., 76719
5108., and 5115. of the Revised Code. The auditor of state shall 76720
initiate action leading to prosecution, where warranted, of 76721
recipients who received overpayments by forwarding the name of 76722
each recipient who received overpayment, together with other 76723
pertinent information, to the director of job and family services, 76724
the attorney general, and the county director of job and family 76725
services and county prosecutor of the county through which public 76726
assistance was received.76727

       (G)(F) The auditor of state and the attorney general or their 76728
designees may examine any records, whether in computer or printed 76729
format, in the possession of the director of job and family 76730
services or any county director of job and family services. They 76731
shall provide safeguards which restrict access to such records to 76732
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 76733
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 76734
connection with the administration of the programs and shall 76735
comply with sectionssection 5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised 76736
Code and adopts rules ofadopted by the director of job and family 76737
services restricting the disclosure of information regarding 76738
recipients of public assistance or medical assistance. Any person 76739
who violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from 76740
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 76741
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 76742
agency.76743

       (H)(G) Costs incurred by the auditor of state in carrying out 76744
the auditor of state's duties under this section shall be borne by 76745
the auditor of state.76746

       Sec. 5101.183.  (A) Except as provided in section 5111.12 of 76747
the Revised Code, theThe director of job and family services, in 76748
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may adopt 76749
rules under which county family services agencies shall take 76750
action to recover the cost of the following benefits and services 76751
available under programs administered by the department of job and 76752
family services:76753

       (1) Benefits or services provided to any of the following:76754

       (a) Persons who were not eligible for the benefits or 76755
services but who secured the benefits or services through fraud or 76756
misrepresentation;76757

       (b) Persons who were eligible for the benefits or services 76758
but who intentionally diverted the benefits or services to other 76759
persons who were not eligible for the benefits or services.76760

       (2) Any benefits or services provided by a county family 76761
services agency for which recovery is required or permitted by 76762
federal law for the federal programs administered by the agency.76763

       (B) A county family services agency may bring a civil action 76764
against a recipient of benefits or services to recover any costs 76765
described in division (A) of this section.76766

       (C) A county family services agency shall retain any money it 76767
recovers under division (A) of this section and shall use the 76768
money to meet a family services duty, except that, if federal law 76769
requires the department of job and family services to return any 76770
portion of the money so recovered to the federal government, the 76771
county family services agency shall pay that portion to the 76772
department of job and family services.76773

       Sec. 5101.184.  (A) The director of job and family services 76774
shall work with the tax commissioner to collect overpayments of 76775
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 76776
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 76777
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 76778
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.76779

       Any overpayment of assistance, whether obtained by fraud or 76780
misrepresentation, as the result of an error by the recipient or 76781
by the agency making the payment, or in any other manner, may be 76782
collected under this section. Any reduction under section 5747.12 76783
or 5747.121 of the Revised Code to an income tax refund shall be 76784
made before a reduction under this section. No reduction shall be 76785
made under this section if the amount of the refund is less than 76786
twenty-five dollars after any reduction under section 5747.12 of 76787
the Revised Code. A reduction under this section shall be made 76788
before any part of the refund is contributed under section 76789
5747.113 of the Revised Code, or is credited under section 5747.12 76790
of the Revised Code against tax due in any subsequent year.76791

       The director and the tax commissioner, by rules adopted in 76792
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall establish 76793
procedures to implement this division. The procedures shall 76794
provide for notice to a recipient of assistance and an opportunity 76795
for the recipient to be heard before the recipient's income tax 76796
refund is reduced.76797

       (B) The director of job and family services may enter into 76798
agreements with the federal government to collect overpayments of 76799
assistance from refunds of federal income taxes that are payable 76800
to recipients of the overpayments.76801

       Sec. 5101.26.  As used in this section and in sections 76802
5101.27 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code:76803

       (A) "County agency" means a county department of job and 76804
family services or a public children services agency.76805

       (B) "Fugitive felon" means an individual who is fleeing to 76806
avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, 76807
under the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing, 76808
for a crime or an attempt to commit a crime that is a felony under 76809
the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing or, in 76810
the case of New Jersey, a high misdemeanor, regardless of whether 76811
the individual has departed from the individual's usual place of 76812
residence.76813

       (C) "Information" means records as defined in section 149.011 76814
of the Revised Code, any other documents in any format, and data 76815
derived from records and documents that are generated, acquired, 76816
or maintained by the department of job and family services, a 76817
county agency, or an entity performing duties on behalf of the 76818
department or a county agency.76819

       (D) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 76820
an agency that employs peace officers as defined in section 109.71 76821
of the Revised Code, the adult parole authority, a county 76822
department of probation, a prosecuting attorney, the attorney 76823
general, similar agencies of other states, federal law enforcement 76824
agencies, and postal inspectors. "Law enforcement agency" includes 76825
the peace officers and other law enforcement officers employed by 76826
the agency.76827

       (E) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 76828
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 76829
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 76830
provision of the Revised Code.76831

        (F) "Medical assistance recipient" means an applicant for or 76832
recipient or former recipient of medical assistance.76833

       (G) "Public assistance" means financial assistance or social 76834
services that are not medical assistance provided under a program 76835
administered by the department of job and family services or a 76836
county agency pursuant to Chapter 329., 5101., 5104., 5107., 76837
5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code or an executive order issued 76838
under section 107.17 of the Revised Code. "Public assistance" does 76839
not mean medical assistance provided under a medical assistance 76840
program, as defined in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.76841

       (H)(F) "Public assistance recipient" means an applicant for 76842
or recipient or former recipient of public assistance.76843

       Sec. 5101.272. (A) For the purposes of sectionssection76844
5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised Code, an authorization shall 76845
be made on a form that uses language understandable to the average 76846
person and contains all of the following:76847

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 76848
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 76849
fashion;76850

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 76851
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 76852
disclosure;76853

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 76854
or governmental entity to which the information may be released;76855

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 76856
disclosure of the information;76857

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 76858
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 76859
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 76860
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;76861

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 76862
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 76863
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;76864

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 76865
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 76866
was signed;76867

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 76868
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;76869

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 76870
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 76871
authorization in writing, along with one of the following:76872

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 76873
representative may revoke the authorization;76874

       (b) If the department of job and family services' privacy 76875
notice contains a description of how the individual or authorized 76876
representative may revoke the authorization, a reference to that 76877
privacy notice.76878

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 76879
eligibility for public assistance or medical assistance cannot be 76880
conditioned on signing the authorization unless the authorization 76881
is necessary for determining eligibility for the public assistance 76882
or medical assistance program.76883

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 76884
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 76885
division (C)(3) of section 5101.271 of the Revised Code may 76886
include a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 76887
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 76888
rules the director of job and family services adopts under section 76889
5101.30 of the Revised Code.76890

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 76891
section 5101.27 or 5101.271 of the Revised Code regarding the 76892
individual's receipt of public assistance or medical assistance76893
and does not wish to provide a statement of purpose, the statement 76894
"at request of the individual" is a sufficient description for 76895
purposes of division (A)(4) of this section.76896

       Sec. 5101.273.  The department of job and family services 76897
shall enter into any necessary agreements with the United States 76898
department of health and human services and neighboring states to 76899
join and participate as an active member in the public assistance 76900
reporting information system. The department may disclose 76901
information regarding a public assistance recipient or medical 76902
assistance recipient to the extent necessary to participate as an 76903
active member in the public assistance reporting information 76904
system.76905

       Sec. 5101.30.  (A) The director of job and family services 76906
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 76907
Code implementing sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code 76908
and governing the custody, use, disclosure, and preservation of 76909
the information generated or received by the department of job and 76910
family services, county agencies, other state and county entities, 76911
contractors, grantees, private entities, or officials 76912
participating in the administration of public assistance or 76913
medical assistance programs. The rules shall comply with 76914
applicable federal statutes and regulations. 76915

       (1) The rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the 76916
release of information which may include, among other conditions 76917
and procedures, both of the following:76918

        (a) Permitting providers of services or assistance under 76919
public assistance programs limited access to information that is 76920
essential for the providers to render services or assistance or to 76921
bill for services or assistance rendered. The department of aging, 76922
when investigating a complaint under section 173.20 of the Revised 76923
Code, shall be granted any limited access permitted in the rules 76924
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section.76925

        (b) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 76926
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 76927
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 76928
other duties on behalf of the department or county agency. A 76929
contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 76930
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section is bound by the 76931
director's rules, and disclosure of the information by the 76932
contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not authorized by the 76933
rules is a violation of section 5101.27 of the Revised Code.76934

       (2) The rules may define who is an "authorized 76935
representative" for purposes of sections 5101.27, 5101.271, and 76936
5101.272 of the Revised Code.76937

       (B) Whenever names, addresses, or other information relating 76938
to public assistance recipients is held by any agency other than 76939
the department or a county agency, that other agency shall adopt 76940
rules consistent with sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised 76941
Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, lists, or 76942
other information concerning those recipients.76943

       Sec. 5101.34.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 76944
of job and family services the Ohio commission on fatherhood. The 76945
commission shall consist of the following members:76946

       (1)(a) Four members of the house of representatives appointed 76947
by the speaker of the house, not more than two of whom are members 76948
of the same political party. Two of the members must be from 76949
legislative districts that include a county or part of a county 76950
that is among the one-third of counties in this state with the 76951
highest number per capita of households headed by females.76952

       (b) Two members of the senate appointed by the president of 76953
the senate, each from a different political party. One of the 76954
members must be from a legislative district that includes a county 76955
or part of a county that is among the one-third of counties in 76956
this state with the highest number per capita of households headed 76957
by females.76958

       (2) The governor, or the governor's designee;76959

       (3) One representative of the judicial branch of government 76960
appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court;76961

       (4) The directors of health, job and family services, 76962
rehabilitation and correction, alcohol and drug addiction services76963
mental health and addiction services, and youth services and the 76964
superintendent of public instruction, or their designees;76965

       (5) One representative of the Ohio family and children first 76966
cabinet council created under section 121.37 of the Revised Code 76967
appointed by the chairperson of the council;76968

       (6) Five representatives of the general public appointed by 76969
the governor. These members shall have extensive experience in 76970
issues related to fatherhood. 76971

       (B) The appointing authorities of the Ohio commission on 76972
fatherhood shall make initial appointments to the commission 76973
within thirty days after September 29, 1999. Of the initial 76974
appointments to the commission made pursuant to divisions (A)(3), 76975
(5), and (6) of this section, three of the members shall serve a 76976
term of one year and four shall serve a term of two years. Members 76977
so appointed subsequently shall serve two-year terms. A member 76978
appointed pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall serve 76979
on the commission until the end of the general assembly from which 76980
the member was appointed or until the member ceases to serve in 76981
the chamber of the general assembly in which the member serves at 76982
the time of appointment, whichever occurs first. The governor or 76983
the governor's designee shall serve on the commission until the 76984
governor ceases to be governor. The directors and superintendent 76985
or their designees shall serve on the commission until they cease, 76986
or the director or superintendent a designee represents ceases, to 76987
be director or superintendent. Each member shall serve on the 76988
commission from the date of appointment until the end of the term 76989
for which the member was appointed. Members may be reappointed.76990

       Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 76991
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 76992
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 76993
predecessor was appointed shall serve on the commission for the 76994
remainder of that term. A member shall continue to serve on the 76995
commission subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 76996
until the member's successor is appointed or until a period of 76997
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall 76998
serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for necessary 76999
expenses.77000

       Sec. 5101.35.  (A) As used in this section:77001

       (1)(a) "Agency" means the following entities that administer 77002
a family services program:77003

       (a)(i) The department of job and family services;77004

       (b)(ii) A county department of job and family services;77005

       (c)(iii) A public children services agency;77006

       (d)(iv) A private or government entity administering, in 77007
whole or in part, a family services program for or on behalf of 77008
the department of job and family services or a county department 77009
of job and family services or public children services agency.77010

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 77011
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 77012
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 77013
assistance programs, "agency" includes the department of medicaid.77014

       (2) "Appellant" means an applicant, participant, former 77015
participant, recipient, or former recipient of a family services 77016
program who is entitled by federal or state law to a hearing 77017
regarding a decision or order of the agency that administers the 77018
program.77019

       (3)(a) "Family services program" means assistance provided 77020
under aall of the following:77021

       (i) A Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of the 77022
Revised Code or;77023

       (ii) Programs that provide assistance under Chapter 5104., 77024
5111., or 5115. orof the Revised Code;77025

       (iii) Programs that provide assistance under section 5119.69,77026
5101.141, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.54, 5119.41, 5153.163, or 77027
5153.165 of the Revised Code,;77028

       (iv) Title XX social services provided under section 5101.46 77029
of the Revised Code, other than assistancesuch services provided 77030
under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code by the department of 77031
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 77032
of developmental disabilities, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 77033
and mental health services, or a county board of developmental 77034
disabilities.77035

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 77036
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 77037
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 77038
assistance programs, "family services program" includes medical 77039
assistance programs.77040

        (4) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 77041
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.77042

       (B) Except as provided by divisions (G) and (H) of this 77043
section, an appellant who appeals under federal or state law a 77044
decision or order of an agency administering a family services 77045
program shall, at the appellant's request, be granted a state 77046
hearing by the department of job and family services. This state 77047
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted under 77048
this section. The state hearing shall be recorded, but neither the 77049
recording nor a transcript of the recording shall be part of the 77050
official record of the proceeding. AExcept as provided in section 77051
5160.31 of the Revised Code, a state hearing decision is binding 77052
upon the agency and department, unless it is reversed or modified 77053
on appeal to the director of job and family services or a court of 77054
common pleas.77055

       (C) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, an 77056
appellant who disagrees with a state hearing decision may make an 77057
administrative appeal to the director of job and family services 77058
in accordance with rules adopted under this section. This 77059
administrative appeal does not require a hearing, but the director 77060
or the director's designee shall review the state hearing decision 77061
and previous administrative action and may affirm, modify, remand, 77062
or reverse the state hearing decision. An administrative appeal 77063
decision is the final decision of the department and, except as 77064
provided in section 5160.31 of the Revised Code, is binding upon 77065
the department and agency, unless it is reversed or modified on 77066
appeal to the court of common pleas.77067

       (D) An agency shall comply with a decision issued pursuant to 77068
division (B) or (C) of this section within the time limits 77069
established by rules adopted under this section. If a county 77070
department of job and family services or a public children 77071
services agency fails to comply within these time limits, the 77072
department may take action pursuant to section 5101.24 of the 77073
Revised Code. If another agency, other than the department of 77074
medicaid, fails to comply within the time limits, the department 77075
may force compliance by withholding funds due the agency or 77076
imposing another sanction established by rules adopted under this 77077
section.77078

       (E) An appellant who disagrees with an administrative appeal 77079
decision of the director of job and family services or the 77080
director's designee issued under division (C) of this section may 77081
appeal from the decision to the court of common pleas pursuant to 77082
section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be governed 77083
by section 119.12 of the Revised Code except that:77084

       (1) The person may appeal to the court of common pleas of the 77085
county in which the person resides, or to the court of common 77086
pleas of Franklin county if the person does not reside in this 77087
state.77088

       (2) The person may apply to the court for designation as an 77089
indigent and, if the court grants this application, the appellant 77090
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.77091

       (3) The appellant shall mail the notice of appeal to the 77092
department of job and family services and file notice of appeal 77093
with the court within thirty days after the department mails the 77094
administrative appeal decision to the appellant. For good cause 77095
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing notice 77096
of appeal, but such time shall not exceed six months from the date 77097
the department mails the administrative appeal decision. Filing 77098
notice of appeal with the court shall be the only act necessary to 77099
vest jurisdiction in the court.77100

       (4) The department shall be required to file a transcript of 77101
the testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the 77102
court orders the department to file the transcript. The court 77103
shall make such an order only if it finds that the department and 77104
the appellant are unable to stipulate to the facts of the case and 77105
that the transcript is essential to a determination of the appeal. 77106
The department shall file the transcript not later than thirty 77107
days after the day such an order is issued.77108

       (F) The department of job and family services shall adopt 77109
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 77110
implement this section, including rules governing the following:77111

       (1) State hearings under division (B) of this section. The 77112
rules shall include provisions regarding notice of eligibility 77113
termination and the opportunity of an appellant appealing a 77114
decision or order of a county department of job and family 77115
services to request a county conference with the county department 77116
before the state hearing is held.77117

       (2) Administrative appeals under division (C) of this 77118
section;77119

       (3) Time limits for complying with a decision issued under 77120
division (B) or (C) of this section;77121

       (4) Sanctions that may be applied against an agency under 77122
division (D) of this section.77123

       (G) The department of job and family services may adopt rules 77124
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 77125
an appeals process for an appellant who appeals a decision or 77126
order regarding a Title IV-A program identified under division 77127
(A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the 77128
Revised Code that is different from the appeals process 77129
established by this section. The different appeals process may 77130
include having a state agency that administers the Title IV-A 77131
program pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under 77132
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code administer the appeals 77133
process.77134

       (H) If an appellant receiving medicaid through a health 77135
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 77136
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code is appealing a denial of 77137
medicaid services based on lack of medical necessity or other 77138
clinical issues regarding coverage by the health insuring 77139
corporation, the person hearing the appeal may order an 77140
independent medical review if that person determines that a review 77141
is necessary. The review shall be performed by a health care 77142
professional with appropriate clinical expertise in treating the 77143
recipient's condition or disease. The department shall pay the 77144
costs associated with the review.77145

       A review ordered under this division shall be part of the 77146
record of the hearing and shall be given appropriate evidentiary 77147
consideration by the person hearing the appeal.77148

       (I) The requirements of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 77149
apply to a state hearing or administrative appeal under this 77150
section only to the extent, if any, specifically provided by rules 77151
adopted under this section.77152

       Sec. 5101.36.  Any application for public assistance gives a 77153
right of subrogation to the department of job and family services 77154
for any workers' compensation benefits payable to a person who is 77155
subject to a support order, as defined in section 3119.01 of the 77156
Revised Code, on behalf of the applicant, to the extent of any 77157
public assistance payments made on the applicant's behalf. If the 77158
director of job and family services, in consultation with a child 77159
support enforcement agency and the administrator of the bureau of 77160
workers' compensation, determines that a person responsible for 77161
support payments to a recipient of public assistance is receiving 77162
workers' compensation, the director shall notify the administrator 77163
of the amount of the benefit to be paid to the department of job 77164
and family services.77165

       For purposes of this section, "public assistance" means 77166
medical assistance provided through the medical assistance program 77167
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code; Ohio works 77168
first provided under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code; 77169
prevention, retention, and contingency benefits and services 77170
provided under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code; or disability 77171
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 77172
Code.77173

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:77174

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 77175
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.77176

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 77177
department of job and family services, a county department of job 77178
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 77179
healthmental health and addiction services, a board of alcohol, 77180
drug addiction, and mental health services; and with respect to 77181
the department of developmental disabilities, a county board of 77182
developmental disabilities.77183

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 77184
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 77185
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 77186
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 77187
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 77188
family of the person whose income is being determined.77189

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 77190
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 77191
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 77192
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 77193
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 77194
goals:77195

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 77196
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;77197

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 77198
reduction or prevention of dependency;77199

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 77200
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 77201
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;77202

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 77203
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 77204
forms of less intensive care;77205

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 77206
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 77207
services to individuals in institutions.77208

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 77209
appropriated as follows:77210

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 77211
job and family services;77212

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundredths per cent to the 77213
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;77214

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundredths per cent to the 77215
department of developmental disabilities.77216

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 77217
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 77218
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 77219
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 77220
state department shall take into account all of the following for 77221
each of its respective local agencies:77222

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 77223
respective local agency;77224

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 77225
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;77226

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 77227
utilize Title XX funds.77228

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 77229
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 77230
funds appropriated to the department. 77231

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 77232
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 77233
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 77234
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 77235
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 77236
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 77237
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 77238
as if they were internal management rules.77239

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 77240
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 77241
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:77242

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 77243
services;77244

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 77245
departments' respective local agencies;77246

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 77247
engaged in providing Title XX services. 77248

       (5) Title XX funds distributed for the purpose of providing 77249
family planning services shall be distributed by the respective 77250
local agencies according to the same order of priority that 77251
applies to the department of job and family services under section 77252
5101.101 of the Revised Code.77253

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare 77254
an annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on the 77255
intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 77256
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 77257
plan and following its completion.77258

       For each federal fiscal year, the department of job and 77259
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 77260
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 77261
for public inspection.77262

       The departments of mental healthmental health and addiction 77263
services and developmental disabilities shall prepare and submit 77264
to the department of job and family services the portions of each 77265
annual plan and report that apply to services for mental health 77266
and mental retardation and developmental disabilities. Each 77267
respective local agency of the three state departments shall 77268
submit information as necessary for the preparation of annual 77269
plans and reports.77270

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 77271
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 77272
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 77273
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 77274
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 77275
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 77276
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 77277
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 77278
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.77279

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 77280
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 77281
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 77282
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 77283
and family services. The department shall approve the county 77284
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 77285
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 77286
(B) of this section.77287

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 77288
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 77289
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 77290
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 77291
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 77292
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 77293
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.77294

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 77295
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 77296
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 77297
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 77298
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 77299
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 77300
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 77301
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 77302
that are the responsibility of the provider. 77303

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 77304
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 77305
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 77306
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 77307
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 77308
operational matters of the department or matters between the 77309
department and county departments of job and family services shall 77310
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 77311
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 77312
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 77313
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 77314
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.77315

       Sec. 5101.461. (A) As used in this section:77316

        (1) "Title IV-A" means Title IV-A of the "Social Security 77317
Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended.77318

        (2) "Title XX" has the same meaning as in section 5101.46 of 77319
the Revised Code.77320

        (B) To the extent authorized by federal law, the department 77321
of job and family services may use funds received through the 77322
Title IV-A temporary assistance for needy families block grant for 77323
purposes of providing Title XX social services. The amount used 77324
under this section shall not exceed the maximum amount permitted 77325
by federal law. The funds and provision of Title XX social 77326
services with the funds are not subject to section 5101.46 of the 77327
Revised Code.77328

       Funds distributed under this section for the purpose of 77329
providing family planning services shall be distributed by a 77330
county department of job and family services according to the same 77331
order of priority that applies to the department of job and family 77332
services under section 5101.101 of the Revised Code.77333

        (C) The department and any county department of job and 77334
family services may require an entity under contract to provide 77335
Title XX social services with funds used under this section to 77336
submit to an audit on the basis of alleged misuse or improper 77337
accounting of funds. If an audit is required, the social services 77338
provider shall reimburse the state department or county department 77339
for the cost it incurred in conducting the audit or having the 77340
audit conducted.77341

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 77342
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 77343
reimburse the state department or county department the amount of 77344
the adverse findings. The amount shall not be reimbursed with 77345
funds received under this section. The state department and county 77346
departments may terminate or refuse to enter into a contract with 77347
a social services provider to provide services with funds 77348
available pursuant to this section if there are adverse findings 77349
in an audit that are the responsibility of the provider.77350

        (D) The state department of job and family services may adopt 77351
rules to implement and carry out the purposes of this section. 77352
Rules governing financial and operational matters of the 77353
department or matters between the department and county 77354
departments of job and family services shall be adopted as 77355
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 77356
Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for services, program 77357
participation, and other matters pertaining to applicants and 77358
participants shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 77359
the Revised Code.77360

       Sec. 5101.47.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 77361
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services may 77362
accept applications, determine eligibility, redetermine 77363
eligibility, and perform related administrative activities for one 77364
or more of the following:77365

       (1) The medicaid program established by Chapter 5111. of the 77366
Revised Code;77367

       (2) The children's health insurance program parts I, II, and 77368
III provided for under sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised 77369
Code;77370

       (3) Publicly funded child care provided under Chapter 5104. 77371
of the Revised Code;77372

       (4)(2) The supplemental nutrition assistance program 77373
administered by the department pursuant to section 5101.54 of the 77374
Revised Code;77375

       (5)(3) Other programs administered by the department that the 77376
director of job and family services determines are supportive of 77377
children, adults, or families;77378

       (6)(4) Other programs administered by the department77379
regarding which the director determines administrative cost 77380
savings and efficiency may be achieved through the department 77381
accepting applications, determining eligibility, redetermining 77382
eligibility, or performing related administrative activities.77383

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 77384
may enter into agreements with one or more other state agencies, 77385
local government entities, or political subdivisions to accept 77386
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 77387
perform related administrative activities on behalf of the 77388
department with respect to the medicaid program and the children's 77389
health insurance program.77390

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 77391
complete an eligibility determination for a program specified in 77392
or pursuant to division (A) of this section, the face-to-face 77393
interview shall not be conducted by the department of job and 77394
family services.77395

       (D)(C) Subject to division (C)(B) of this section, if the 77396
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 77397
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 77398
activities for a program specified in or pursuant to division (A) 77399
of this section, both of the following apply:77400

       (1) An individual seeking services under the program may 77401
apply for the program to the department or to the entity that 77402
state law governing the program authorizes to accept applications 77403
for the program.77404

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 77405
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 77406
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 77407
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 77408
administrative activities for the program.77409

       (E)(D) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 77410
this section.77411

       Sec. 5101.49.  The department of job and family services 77412
shall administer funds received under the "Refugee Act of 1980," 77413
94 Stat. 102, 8 U.S.C.A. 1521, as amended. In administering the 77414
funds, the department may establish a refugee cash assistance 77415
program and a state legalization impact assistance program. The 77416
director of job and family services may adopt rules in accordance 77417
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code and issue appropriate 77418
orders as necessary for administration of these funds and 77419
programs.77420

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 77421
Revised Code:77422

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 77423
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 77424
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.77425

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 77426
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 77427
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 77428
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 77429
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 77430
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 77431
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 77432
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes a 77433
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 77434
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 77435
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, but 77436
does not include other institutions or facilities licensed by the 77437
state or facilities in which a person resides as a result of 77438
voluntary, civil, or criminal commitment. 77439

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 77440
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 77441
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 77442
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.77443

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 77444
adult resides.77445

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 77446
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 77447
physical harm or death to self or any other person.77448

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 77449
to an adult in an emergency.77450

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 77451
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 77452
personal benefit, profit, or gain.77453

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 77454
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 77455
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 77456
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.77457

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 77458
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 77459
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 77460
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 77461
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 77462
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 77463
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 77464
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 77465
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.77466

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 77467
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 77468
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 77469
meet the ordinary demands of life.77470

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 77471
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 77472
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 77473
provide such goods or services.77474

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 77475
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.77476

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 77477
disease suffered by an adult.77478

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 77479
county department of job and family services or its designated 77480
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 77481
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 77482
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 77483
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 77484
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 77485
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 77486
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 77487
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 77488
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.77489

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 77490
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 77491
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.77492

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:77493

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 77494
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 77495
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.77496

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 77497
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 77498
or organization that:77499

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 77500
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 77501
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 77502
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 77503
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 77504
care to outpatients;77505

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 77506
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 77507
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 77508
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 77509
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;77510

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 77511
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 77512
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 77513
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;77514

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 77515
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 77516
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 77517
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 77518
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 77519
and a utilization review plan and program;77520

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;77521

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 77522
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 77523
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 77524
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 77525
operations;77526

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 77527
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;77528

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 77529
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;77530

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 77531
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 77532
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 77533
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 77534
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and 77535
such facility shall comply with other provisions of this division 77536
not inconsistent with such accreditation or certification.77537

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 77538
provides community mental health services and is included in the 77539
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 77540
and mental health service district in which it is located.77541

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 77542
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 77543
facility.77544

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 77545
part of an institution operated in this state which:77546

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;77547

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 77548
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 77549
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 77550
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 77551
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 77552
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 77553
osteopathy;77554

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 77555
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 77556
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 77557
policies;77558

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;77559

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 77560
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 77561
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 77562
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 77563
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 77564
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 77565
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 77566
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 77567
amended.77568

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 77569
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 77570
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 77571
the patient's home:77572

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 77573
registered professional nurse;77574

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 77575
patient's attending physician;77576

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 77577
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 77578
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;77579

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 77580
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 77581
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;77582

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;77583

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 77584
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 77585
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 77586
physician;77587

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:77588

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 77589
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 77590
facility;77591

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 77592
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 77593
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 77594
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 77595
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.77596

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 77597
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 77598
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 77599
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 77600
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 77601
employee of a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2277602
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 77603
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 77604
unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing home, residential care 77605
facility, or home for the aging, as defined in section 3721.01 of 77606
the Revised Code, any senior service provider, any peace officer, 77607
coroner, member of the clergy, any employee of a community mental 77608
health facility, and any person engaged in social work or 77609
counseling having reasonable cause to believe that an adult is 77610
being abused, neglected, or exploited, or is in a condition which 77611
is the result of abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall immediately 77612
report such belief to the county department of job and family 77613
services. This section does not apply to employees of any hospital 77614
or public hospital as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 77615
Code.77616

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 77617
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 77618
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.77619

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 77620
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 77621
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 77622
Written reports shall include:77623

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 77624
is the subject of the report;77625

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 77626
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 77627
known;77628

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 77629
exploitation of the adult;77630

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 77631
been abused, neglected, or exploited.77632

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 77633
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 77634
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 77635
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 77636
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 77637
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 77638
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 77639
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 77640
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 77641
purpose.77642

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 77643
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 77644
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 77645
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 77646
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 77647
employee's having filed a report under this section.77648

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 77649
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 77650
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 77651
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 77652
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 77653
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 77654
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 77655
and to legal counsel for the adult.77656

       Sec. 5101.80. (A) As used in this section and in section 77657
5101.801 of the Revised Code:77658

       (1) "County family services agency" has the same meaning as 77659
in section 307.981 of the Revised Code.77660

       (2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.82 of 77661
the Revised Code.77662

       (3) "Title IV-A administrative agency" means both of the 77663
following:77664

       (a) A county family services agency or state agency 77665
administering a Title IV-A program under the supervision of the 77666
department of job and family services;77667

       (b) A government agency or private, not-for-profit entity 77668
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 77669
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program created under 77670
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.77671

        (4) "Title IV-A program" means all of the following that are 77672
funded in part with funds provided under the temporary assistance 77673
for needy families block grant established by Title IV-A of the 77674
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 77675
amended:77676

       (a) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 77677
5107. of the Revised Code;77678

       (b) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 77679
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code;77680

       (c) A program established by the general assembly or an 77681
executive order issued by the governor that is administered or 77682
supervised by the department of job and family services pursuant 77683
to section 5101.801 of the Revised Code;77684

       (d) The kinship permanency incentive program created under 77685
section 5101.802 of the Revised Code;77686

       (e) The Title IV-A demonstration program created under 77687
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code;77688

       (f) The Ohio parenting and pregnancy program created under 77689
section 5101.804 of the Revised Code;77690

       (g) A component of a Title IV-A program identified under 77691
divisions (A)(4)(a) to (e)(f) of this section that the Title IV-A 77692
state plan prepared under division (C)(1) of this section 77693
identifies as a component.77694

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 77695
the single state agency to administer and supervise the 77696
administration of Title IV-A programs. The Title IV-A state plan 77697
and amendments to the plan prepared under division (C) of this 77698
section are binding on Title IV-A administrative agencies. No 77699
Title IV-A administrative agency may establish, by rule or 77700
otherwise, a policy governing a Title IV-A program that is 77701
inconsistent with a Title IV-A program policy established, in rule 77702
or otherwise, by the director of job and family services.77703

       (C) The department of job and family services shall do all of 77704
the following:77705

       (1) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 77706
health and human services a Title IV-A state plan for Title IV-A 77707
programs;77708

       (2) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 77709
health and human services amendments to the Title IV-A state plan 77710
that the department determines necessary, including amendments 77711
necessary to implement Title IV-A programs identified in divisions 77712
(A)(4)(c) to (f)(g) of this section;77713

       (3) Prescribe forms for applications, certificates, reports, 77714
records, and accounts of Title IV-A administrative agencies, and 77715
other matters related to Title IV-A programs;77716

       (4) Make such reports, in such form and containing such 77717
information as the department may find necessary to assure the 77718
correctness and verification of such reports, regarding Title IV-A 77719
programs;77720

       (5) Require reports and information from each Title IV-A 77721
administrative agency as may be necessary or advisable regarding a 77722
Title IV-A program;77723

       (6) Afford a fair hearing in accordance with section 5101.35 77724
of the Revised Code to any applicant for, or participant or former 77725
participant of, a Title IV-A program aggrieved by a decision 77726
regarding the program;77727

       (7) Administer and expend, pursuant to Chapters 5104., 5107., 77728
and 5108. of the Revised Code and sections 5101.801, 5101.802, and77729
5101.803, and 5101.804 of the Revised Code, any sums appropriated 77730
by the general assembly for the purpose of those chapters and 77731
sections and all sums paid to the state by the secretary of the 77732
treasury of the United States as authorized by Title IV-A of the 77733
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 77734
amended;77735

       (8) Conduct investigations and audits as are necessary 77736
regarding Title IV-A programs;77737

       (9) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states 77738
relative to the provision of Ohio works first and prevention, 77739
retention, and contingency to residents and nonresidents;77740

       (10) Contract with a private entity to conduct an independent 77741
on-going evaluation of the Ohio works first program and the 77742
prevention, retention, and contingency program. The contract must 77743
require the private entity to do all of the following:77744

       (a) Examine issues of process, practice, impact, and 77745
outcomes;77746

       (b) Study former participants of Ohio works first who have 77747
not participated in Ohio works first for at least one year to 77748
determine whether they are employed, the type of employment in 77749
which they are engaged, the amount of compensation they are 77750
receiving, whether their employer provides health insurance, 77751
whether and how often they have received benefits or services 77752
under the prevention, retention, and contingency program, and 77753
whether they are successfully self sufficient;77754

       (c) Provide the department with reports at times the 77755
department specifies.77756

       (11) Not later than the last day of each January and July, 77757
prepare a report containing information on the following:77758

       (a) Individuals exhausting the time limits for participation 77759
in Ohio works first set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised 77760
Code.77761

       (b) Individuals who have been exempted from the time limits 77762
set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised Code and the reasons 77763
for the exemption.77764

       (D) The department shall provide copies of the reports it 77765
receives under division (C)(10) of this section and prepares under 77766
division (C)(11) of this section to the governor, the president 77767
and minority leader of the senate, and the speaker and minority 77768
leader of the house of representatives. The department shall 77769
provide copies of the reports to any private or government entity 77770
on request.77771

       (E) An authorized representative of the department or a 77772
county family services agency or state agency administering a 77773
Title IV-A program shall have access to all records and 77774
information bearing thereon for the purposes of investigations 77775
conducted pursuant to this section. An authorized representative 77776
of a government entity or private, not-for-profit entity 77777
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 77778
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program shall have 77779
access to all records and information bearing on the project for 77780
the purpose of investigations conducted pursuant to this section.77781

       Sec. 5101.801.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by the law 77782
enacted by the general assembly or executive order issued by the 77783
governor establishing the Title IV-A program, a Title IV-A program 77784
identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of 77785
section 5101.80 of the Revised Code shall provide benefits and 77786
services that are not "assistance" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 77787
260.31(a) and are benefits and services that 45 C.F.R. 260.31(b) 77788
excludes from the definition of assistance.77789

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided by the law enacted by the 77790
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 77791
establishing the Title IV-A program, the department of job and 77792
family services shall do either of the following regarding a Title 77793
IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or77794
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:77795

       (a) Administer the program or supervise a county family 77796
services agency's administration of the program;77797

       (b) Enter into an interagency agreement with a state agency 77798
for the state agency to administer the program under the 77799
department's supervision.77800

       (2) The department may enter into an agreement with a 77801
government entity and, to the extent permitted by federal law, a 77802
private, not-for-profit entity for the entity to receive funding 77803
for a project under the Title IV-A demonstration program created 77804
under section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.77805

       (3) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 77806
may enter into an agreement with a private, not-for-profit entity 77807
for the entity to receive funds under the Ohio parenting and 77808
pregnancy program created under section 5101.804 of the Revised 77809
Code.77810

       (C) The department may adopt rules governing Title IV-A 77811
programs identified under divisions (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), and (f), 77812
and (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code. Rules governing 77813
financial and operational matters of the department or between the 77814
department and county family services agencies shall be adopted as 77815
internal management rules adopted in accordance with section 77816
111.15 of the Revised Code. All other rules shall be adopted in 77817
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.77818

       (D) If the department enters into an agreement regarding a 77819
Title IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (e), or77820
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code pursuant to 77821
division (B)(1)(b) or (2) of this section, the agreement shall 77822
include at least all of the following:77823

       (1) A requirement that the state agency or entity comply with 77824
the requirements for the program or project, including all of the 77825
following requirements established by federal statutes and 77826
regulations, state statutes and rules, the United States office of 77827
management and budget, and the Title IV-A state plan prepared 77828
under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:77829

       (a) Eligibility;77830

       (b) Reports;77831

       (c) Benefits and services;77832

       (d) Use of funds;77833

       (e) Appeals for applicants for, and recipients and former 77834
recipients of, the benefits and services;77835

       (f) Audits.77836

       (2) A complete description of all of the following:77837

       (a) The benefits and services that the program or project is 77838
to provide;77839

       (b) The methods of program or project administration;77840

       (c) The appeals process under section 5101.35 of the Revised 77841
Code for applicants for, and recipients and former recipients of, 77842
the program or project's benefits and services;77843

       (d) Other requirements that the department requires be 77844
included.77845

       (3) Procedures for the department to approve a policy, 77846
established by rule or otherwise, that the state agency or entity 77847
establishes for the program or project before the policy is 77848
established;77849

       (4) Provisions regarding how the department is to reimburse 77850
the state agency or entity for allowable expenditures under the 77851
program or project that the department approves, including all of 77852
the following:77853

       (a) Limitations on administrative costs;77854

       (b) The department, at its discretion, doing either of the 77855
following:77856

       (i) Withholding no more than five per cent of the funds that 77857
the department would otherwise provide to the state agency or 77858
entity for the program or project;77859

       (ii) Charging the state agency or entity for the costs to the 77860
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, 77861
audits and other administrative functions associated with the 77862
program or project.77863

       (5) If the state agency or entity arranges by contract, 77864
grant, or other agreement for another entity to perform a function 77865
the state agency or entity would otherwise perform regarding the 77866
program or project, the state agency or entity's responsibilities 77867
for both of the following:77868

       (a) Ensuring that the other entity complies with the 77869
agreement between the state agency or entity and department and 77870
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules 77871
governing the use of funds for the program or project;77872

       (b) Auditing the other entity in accordance with requirements 77873
established by the United States office of management and budget.77874

       (6) The state agency or entity's responsibilities regarding 77875
the prompt payment, including any interest assessed, of any 77876
adverse audit finding, final disallowance of federal funds, or 77877
other sanction or penalty imposed by the federal government, 77878
auditor of state, department, a court, or other entity regarding 77879
funds for the program or project;77880

       (7) Provisions for the department to terminate the agreement 77881
or withhold reimbursement from the state agency or entity if 77882
either of the following occur:77883

       (a) The federal government disapproves the program or project 77884
or reduces federal funds for the program or project;77885

       (b) The state agency or entity fails to comply with the terms 77886
of the agreement.77887

       (8) Provisions for both of the following:77888

       (a) The department and state agency or entity determining the 77889
performance outcomes expected for the program or project;77890

       (b) An evaluation of the program or project to determine its 77891
success in achieving the performance outcomes determined under 77892
division (D)(8)(a) of this section.77893

       (E) To the extent consistent with the law enacted by the 77894
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 77895
establishing the Title IV-A program and subject to the approval of 77896
the director of budget and management, the director of job and 77897
family services may terminate a Title IV-A program identified 77898
under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 77899
5101.80 of the Revised Code or reduce funding for the program if 77900
the director of job and family services determines that federal or 77901
state funds are insufficient to fund the program. If the director 77902
of budget and management approves the termination or reduction in 77903
funding for such a program, the director of job and family 77904
services shall issue instructions for the termination or funding 77905
reduction. If a Title IV-A administrative agency is administering 77906
the program, the agency is bound by the termination or funding 77907
reduction and shall comply with the director's instructions.77908

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt 77909
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 77910
Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The rules are 77911
binding on each Title IV-A administrative agency.77912

       Sec. 5101.803.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 77913
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Title 77914
IV-A demonstration program to provide funding for innovative and 77915
promising prevention and intervention projects that meet one or 77916
more of the four purposes of the temporary assistance for needy 77917
families block grant as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601 and are for 77918
individuals with specific and multiple barriers to achieving or 77919
maintaining self-sufficiency and personal responsibility. The 77920
department of job and family services may provide funding for such 77921
projects to government entities and, to the extent permitted by 77922
federal law, private, not-for-profit entities with which the 77923
department enters into agreements under division (B)(2) of section 77924
5101.801 of the Revised Code.77925

       In accordance with criteria the department develops, the 77926
department may solicit proposals forfrom entities seeking to 77927
enter into an agreement with the department under division (B)(2) 77928
of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The department may enter 77929
into such agreements with entities that do both of the following:77930

       (1) Meet the proposals' criteria;77931

       (2) If the entity's proposed project does not potentially 77932
affect persons in each county of the state, provides the 77933
department evidence that the entity has notified, in writing, the 77934
county department of job and family services of each county where 77935
persons may be affected by the implementation of the project.77936

       (B) In developing the criteria, soliciting the proposals, and 77937
entering in the agreements, the department shall comply with all 77938
applicable federal and state laws, the Title IV-A state plan 77939
submitted to the United States secretary of health and human 77940
services under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code, amendments to 77941
the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States secretary 77942
under that section, and federal waivers the United States 77943
secretary grants.77944

       (C) The department shall begin implementation of the Title 77945
IV-A demonstration program no later than January 1, 2006.77946

       Sec. 5101.804.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 77947
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Ohio 77948
parenting and pregnancy program to provide services for pregnant 77949
women and parents or other relatives caring for children twelve 77950
months of age or younger that do both of the following:77951

       (1) Promote childbirth, parenting, and alternatives to 77952
abortion;77953

       (2) Meet one or more of the four purposes of the temporary 77954
assistance for needy families block grant as specified in 42 77955
U.S.C. 601. 77956

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 77957
job and family services may provide funds under the program to 77958
entities with which the department enters into agreements under 77959
division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. In 77960
accordance with criteria the department develops, the department 77961
may solicit proposals from entities seeking to provide services 77962
under the program. The department may enter into an agreement with 77963
an entity only if it meets all of the following conditions:77964

       (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;77965

       (2) Is an entity whose primary purpose is to promote 77966
childbirth, rather than abortion, through counseling and other 77967
services, including parenting and adoption support;77968

       (3) Provides services to pregnant women and parents or other 77969
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger, 77970
including clothing, counseling, diapers, food, furniture, health 77971
care, parenting classes, postpartum recovery, shelter, and any 77972
other supportive services, programs, or related outreach;77973

       (4) Does not charge pregnant women and parents or other 77974
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger a 77975
fee for any services received;77976

       (5) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 77977
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 77978
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 77979
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising;77980

       (6) Does not discriminate in its provision of services on the 77981
basis of race, religion, color, age, marital status, national 77982
origin, disability, or gender.77983

       (C) An entity that has entered into an agreement with the 77984
department under division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the 77985
Revised Code may enter into a subcontract with another entity 77986
under which the other entity provides all or part of the services 77987
described in division (B)(3) of this section. A subcontract may be 77988
entered into with another entity only if that entity meets all of 77989
the following conditions:77990

        (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;77991

        (2) Is physically and financially separate from any entity, 77992
or component of an entity, that engages in abortion activities;77993

        (3) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 77994
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 77995
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 77996
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising.77997

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 77998
under division (C) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code as 77999
necessary to implement the Ohio parenting and pregnancy program.78000

       Sec. 5103.02.  As used in sections 5103.03 to 5103.17 of the 78001
Revised Code:78002

       (A)(1) "Association" or "institution" includes anyall of the 78003
following:78004

       (a) Any incorporated or unincorporated organization, society, 78005
association, or agency, public or private, that receives or cares 78006
for children for two or more consecutive weeks; any78007

       (b) Any individual, including the operator of a foster home, 78008
who, for hire, gain, or reward, receives or cares for children for 78009
two or more consecutive weeks, unless the individual is related to 78010
them by blood or marriage; and any78011

       (c) Any individual not in the regular employ of a court, or 78012
of an institution or association certified in accordance with 78013
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, who in any manner becomes a 78014
party to the placing of children in foster homes, unless the 78015
individual is related to such children by blood or marriage, or is 78016
the appointed guardian of such children; provided, that any.78017

       (2) "Association" or "institution" does not include any of 78018
the following:78019

       (a) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 78020
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 78021
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 78022
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 78023
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 78024
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 78025
addiction services, or the department of developmental 78026
disabilities, or any;78027

       (b) Any individual who provides care for only a single-family 78028
group, placed there by their parents or other relative having 78029
custody, shall not be considered as being within the purview of 78030
these sections;78031

       (c) A therapeutic wilderness camp.78032

       (B) "Family foster home" means a foster home that is not a 78033
specialized foster home.78034

       (C) "Foster caregiver" means a person holding a valid foster 78035
home certificate issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.78036

       (D) "Foster home" means a private residence in which children 78037
are received apart from their parents, guardian, or legal 78038
custodian, by an individual reimbursed for providing the children 78039
nonsecure care, supervision, or training twenty-four hours a day. 78040
"Foster home" does not include care provided for a child in the 78041
home of a person other than the child's parent, guardian, or legal 78042
custodian while the parent, guardian, or legal custodian is 78043
temporarily away. Family foster homes and specialized foster homes 78044
are types of foster homes.78045

       (E) "Medically fragile foster home" means a foster home that 78046
provides specialized medical services designed to meet the needs 78047
of children with intensive health care needs who meet all of the 78048
following criteria:78049

       (1) Under rules adopted by the department of job and family 78050
servicesmedicaid director governing payment under Chapter 5111. 78051
of the Revised Codemedicaid payments for long-term care services, 78052
the children require a skilled level of care.78053

       (2) The children require the services of a doctor of medicine 78054
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 78055
instability of their medical conditions.78056

       (3) The children require the services of a registered nurse 78057
on a daily basis.78058

       (4) The children are at risk of institutionalization in a 78059
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 78060
for the mentally retarded.78061

       (F) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 78062
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 78063
agency that recommends that the department of job and family 78064
services take any of the following actions under section 5103.03 78065
of the Revised Code regarding a foster home:78066

       (1) Issue a certificate;78067

       (2) Deny a certificate;78068

       (3) Renew a certificate;78069

       (4) Deny renewal of a certificate;78070

       (5) Revoke a certificate.78071

       (G) "Specialized foster home" means a medically fragile 78072
foster home or a treatment foster home.78073

       (H) "Treatment foster home" means a foster home that 78074
incorporates special rehabilitative services designed to treat the 78075
specific needs of the children received in the foster home and 78076
that receives and cares for children who are emotionally or 78077
behaviorally disturbed, chemically dependent, mentally retarded, 78078
developmentally disabled, or who otherwise have exceptional needs.78079

       (I) "Therapeutic wilderness camp" means a structured, 78080
alternative residential setting for children who are experiencing 78081
emotional, behavioral, moral, social, or learning difficulties at 78082
home or school in which both of the following are the case:78083

       (1) The children spend the majority of their time, including 78084
overnight, either outdoors or in a primitive structure;78085

       (2) The children have been placed there by their parents or 78086
another relative having custody."78087

       Sec. 5103.0323.  (A) As used in this section, "government 78088
auditing standards" means the government auditing standards 78089
published by the comptroller general of the United States general 78090
accounting office"American institute of certified public 78091
accountants auditing standards" and "AICPA auditing standards" 78092
mean the auditing standards published by the American institute of 78093
certified public accountants.78094

       (B) The first time that a private child placing agency or 78095
private noncustodial agency seeks renewal of a certificate issued 78096
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, it shall provide the 78097
department of job and family services, as a condition of renewal, 78098
evidence of an independent financial statement audit of its first 78099
year of certification, unless the auditor of state has audited the 78100
agency during that year and the audit sets forth that no money has 78101
been illegally expended, converted, misappropriated, or is 78102
unaccounted for or sets forth findings that are inconsequential, 78103
as defined by governmentperformed by a licensed public accounting 78104
firm following applicable AICPA auditing standards for the most 78105
recent fiscal year. Thereafter, when an agency seeks renewal of 78106
its certificate, it shall provide the department evidence of an 78107
independent financial statement audit performed by a licensed 78108
public accounting firm following applicable AICPA auditing 78109
standards for the two most recent previous fiscal years it is 78110
possible for an independent audit to have been conducted, unless 78111
the auditor of state has audited the agency during those years and 78112
the audit sets forth that no money has been illegally expended, 78113
converted, misappropriated, or is unaccounted for or sets forth 78114
findings that are inconsequential, as defined by government 78115
auditing standards.78116

       (C) For an agency to be eligible for renewal, the independent 78117
audits must demonstrate that the agency operated in a fiscally 78118
accountable manner in accordance with state laws and rules and any 78119
agreement between the agency and a public children services 78120
agency.78121

       All audits required by this section shall be conducted in 78122
accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards78123
as determined by the department of job and family services.78124

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 78125
as necessary to implement this section. The director shall adopt 78126
the rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.78127

       Sec. 5103.13.  (A) As used in this section and section 78128
5103.131 of the Revised Code:78129

       (1)(a) "Children's crisis care facility" means a facility 78130
that has as its primary purpose the provision of residential and 78131
other care to either or both of the following:78132

       (i) One or more preteens voluntarily placed in the facility 78133
by the preteen's parent or other caretaker who is facing a crisis 78134
that causes the parent or other caretaker to seek temporary care 78135
for the preteen and referral for support services;78136

       (ii) One or more preteens placed in the facility by a public 78137
children services agency or private child placing agency that has 78138
legal custody or permanent custody of the preteen and determines 78139
that an emergency situation exists necessitating the preteen's 78140
placement in the facility rather than an institution certified 78141
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code or elsewhere.78142

       (b) "Children's crisis care facility" does not include either 78143
of the following:78144

        (i) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 78145
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 78146
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 78147
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 78148
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 78149
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 78150
addiction services, or the department of developmental 78151
disabilities;78152

        (ii) Any individual who provides care for only a 78153
single-family group, placed there by their parents or other 78154
relative having custody.78155

       (2) "Legal custody" and "permanent custody" have the same 78156
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.78157

       (3) "Preteen" means an individual under thirteen years of 78158
age.78159

       (B) No person shall operate a children's crisis care facility 78160
or hold a children's crisis care facility out as a certified 78161
children's crisis care facility unless there is a valid children's 78162
crisis care facility certificate issued under this section for the 78163
facility.78164

       (C) A person seeking to operate a children's crisis care 78165
facility shall apply to the director of job and family services to 78166
obtain a certificate for the facility. The director shall certify 78167
the person's children's crisis care facility if the facility meets 78168
all of the certification standards established in rules adopted 78169
under division (F) of this section and the person complies with 78170
all of the rules governing the certification of children's crisis 78171
care facilities adopted under that division. The issuance of a 78172
children's crisis care facility certificate does not exempt the 78173
facility from a requirement to obtain another certificate or 78174
license mandated by law.78175

       (D)(1) No certified children's crisis care facility shall do 78176
any of the following:78177

       (a) Provide residential care to a preteen for more than one 78178
hundred twenty days in a calendar year;78179

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1)(c) of this section and except 78180
as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, provide 78181
residential care to a preteen for more than sixty consecutive 78182
days;78183

       (c) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 78184
provide residential care to a preteen for more than seventy-two 78185
consecutive hours if a public children services agency or private 78186
child placing agency placed the preteen in the facility;78187

       (d) Fail to comply with section 2151.86 of the Revised Code.78188

       (2) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 78189
residential care to a preteen for up to ninety consecutive days, 78190
other than a preteen placed in the facility by a public children 78191
services agency or private child placing agency, if any of the 78192
following are the case:78193

       (a) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is enrolled in an 78194
alcohol and drug addiction program certified under section 3793.06 78195
of the Revised Codeservice or a community mental health service 78196
certified under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code;78197

        (b) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is an inpatient 78198
in a hospital;78199

        (c) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is incarcerated;78200

        (d) A physician has diagnosed the preteen's parent or other 78201
caretaker as medically incapacitated.78202

       (3) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 78203
residential care to a preteen placed in the facility by a public 78204
children services agency or private child placing agency for more 78205
than seventy-two consecutive hours if the director of job and 78206
family services or the director's designee issues the agency a 78207
waiver of the seventy-two consecutive hour limitation. The waiver 78208
may authorize the certified children's crisis care facility to 78209
provide residential care to the preteen for up to fourteen 78210
consecutive days.78211

       (E) The director of job and family services may suspend or 78212
revoke a children's crisis care facility's certificate pursuant to 78213
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if the facility violates division 78214
(D) of this section or ceases to meet any of the certification 78215
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 78216
section or the facility's operator ceases to comply with any of 78217
the rules governing the certification of children's crisis care 78218
facilities adopted under that division.78219

       (F) Not later than ninety days after September 21, 2006, the 78220
director of job and family services shall adopt rules pursuant to 78221
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the certification of 78222
children's crisis care facilities. The rules shall specify that a 78223
certificate shall not be issued to an applicant if the conditions 78224
at the children's crisis care facility would jeopardize the health 78225
or safety of the preteens placed in the facility.78226

       Sec. 5103.42.  Prior to the beginning of the fiscal biennium 78227
that first follows October 5, 2000, the public children services 78228
agencies of Athens, Cuyahoga, Franklin, Greene, Guernsey, 78229
Hamilton, Lucas, and Summit counties shall each establish and 78230
maintain a regional training center. Prior to the beginning of the 78231
fiscal biennium that first follows the effective date of this 78232
amendment, the public children services agency of Butler county 78233
shall establish and maintain a regional training center. At any 78234
time after the beginning of thatthe specified biennium, the 78235
department of job and family services, on the recommendation of 78236
the Ohio child welfare training program steering committee, may 78237
direct a public children services agency to establish and maintain 78238
a training center to replace the center established by an agency 78239
under this section. There may be no more and no less than eight 78240
centers in existence at any time. The department may make a grant 78241
to a public children services agency that establishes and 78242
maintains a regional training center under this section for the 78243
purpose of wholly or partially subsidizing the operation of the 78244
center. The department shall specify in the grant all of the 78245
center's duties, including the duties specified in section 78246
5103.422 of the Revised Code.78247

       The regional training center established by the public 78248
children services agency of Butler county under this section 78249
replaces the regional training center previously established by 78250
the public children services agency of Hamilton county under this 78251
section. 78252

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 78253
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 78254
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 78255
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 78256
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 78257
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 78258
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 78259

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 78260
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 78261
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 78262
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 78263
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 78264
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 78265
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 78266
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 78267
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 78268
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 78269
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 78270
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 78271
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 78272
administrator may request that the superintendent include 78273
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 78274
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 78275
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 78276
671.78277

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 78278
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 78279
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 78280
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 78281
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 78282
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 78283
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 78284
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 78285
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 78286
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 78287
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 78288
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 78289
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 78290
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 78291
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.78292

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 78293
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 78294
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 78295
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 78296
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 78297
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 78298
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 78299
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 78300
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 78301
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 78302
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 78303
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 78304
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 78305
this section.78306

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 78307
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 78308
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 78309
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 78310
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 78311
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 78312
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.78313

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 78314
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 78315
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 78316
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 78317
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 78318
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 78319
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 78320
employment.78321

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 78322
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 78323
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 78324
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 78325
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 78326
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 78327
or provider of the center or home.78328

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 78329
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 78330
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 78331
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 78332
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 78333
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 78334
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 78335
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 78336
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 78337
for employment.78338

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 78339
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 78340
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 78341
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 78342
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 78343
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 78344
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 78345
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 78346
records check or its representative; the department of job and 78347
family services or a county department of job and family services; 78348
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 78349
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 78350
applicant.78351

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 78352
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 78353
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 78354
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 78355
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 78356
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.78357

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 78358
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 78359
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 78360
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 78361
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 78362
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 78363
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 78364
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 78365
employment for that position.78366

       (G) As used in this section:78367

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 78368
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 78369
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 78370
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 78371
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 78372
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 78373
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 78374
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 78375
to a contract with another entity.78376

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 78377
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.78378

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 78379
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 78380
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 78381
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 78382
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 78383
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:78384

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 78385
center;78386

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 78387
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 78388
resides in a type A family day-care home.78389

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 78390
section, the director of a county department of job and family 78391
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 78392
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 78393
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 78394
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 78395
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 78396
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 78397
day-care home.78398

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 78399
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 78400
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 78401
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 78402
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 78403
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 78404
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 78405
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 78406
director of job and family services or the director of a county 78407
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 78408
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 78409
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 78410
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 78411
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 78412
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 78413
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 78414
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 78415
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 78416
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 78417
the director of job and family services or the director of a 78418
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 78419
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 78420
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 78421
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 78422
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 78423
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 78424
671. 78425

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 78426
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 78427
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 78428
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 78429
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 78430
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 78431
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.78432

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 78433
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 78434
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 78435
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 78436
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 78437
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 78438
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 78439
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 78440
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 78441
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.78442

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 78443
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 78444
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 78445
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 78446
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 78447
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 78448
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 78449
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 78450
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 78451
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 78452
certification.78453

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 78454
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 78455
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 78456
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 78457
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 78458
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 78459
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 78460
to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of section 78461
109.572 of the Revised Code.78462

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 78463
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 78464
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 78465
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 78466
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 78467
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 78468
section.78469

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 78470
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 78471
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 78472
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 78473
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 78474
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 78475
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 78476
representative, the director of job and family services, the 78477
director of a county department of job and family services, the 78478
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 78479
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 78480
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 78481
criminal records check.78482

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 78483
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 78484
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 78485
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 78486
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 78487
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.78488

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 78489
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.78490

       Sec. 5104.02.  (A) The director of job and family services is 78491
responsible for the licensing of child day-care centers and type A 78492
family day-care homes. Each entity operating a head start program 78493
shall meet the criteria for, and be licensed as, a child day-care 78494
center. The director is responsible for the enforcement of this 78495
chapter and of rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.78496

       No person, firm, organization, institution, or agency shall 78497
operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a child day-care 78498
center or type A family day-care home without a license issued 78499
under section 5104.03 of the Revised Code. The current license 78500
shall be posted in a conspicuous place in the center or type A 78501
home that is accessible to parents, custodians, or guardians and 78502
employees of the center or type A home at all times when the 78503
center or type A home is in operation.78504

       (B) A person, firm, institution, organization, or agency 78505
operating any of the following programs is exempt from the 78506
requirements of this chapter:78507

       (1) A program of child care that operates for two or less 78508
consecutive weeks;78509

       (2) Child care in places of worship during religious 78510
activities during which children are cared for while at least one 78511
parent, guardian, or custodian of each child is participating in 78512
such activities and is readily available;78513

       (3) Religious activities which do not provide child care;78514

       (4) Supervised training, instruction, or activities of 78515
children in specific areas, including, but not limited to: art; 78516
drama; dance; music; gymnastics, swimming, or another athletic 78517
skill or sport; computers; or an educational subject conducted on 78518
an organized or periodic basis no more than one day a week and for 78519
no more than six hours duration;78520

       (5) Programs in which the director determines that at least 78521
one parent, custodian, or guardian of each child is on the 78522
premises of the facility offering child care and is readily 78523
accessible at all times, except that child care provided on the 78524
premises at which a parent, custodian, or guardian is employed 78525
more than two and one-half hours a day shall be licensed in 78526
accordance with division (A) of this section;78527

       (6)(a) Programs that provide child care funded and regulated 78528
or operated and regulated by state departments other than the 78529
department of job and family services or the state board of 78530
education when the director of job and family services has 78531
determined that the rules governing the program are equivalent to 78532
or exceed the rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.78533

       Notwithstanding any exemption from regulation under this 78534
chapter, each state department shall submit to the director of job 78535
and family services a copy of the rules that govern programs that 78536
provide child care and are regulated or operated and regulated by 78537
the department. Annually, each state department shall submit to 78538
the director a report for each such program it regulates or 78539
operates and regulates that includes the following information:78540

       (i) The site location of the program;78541

       (ii) The maximum number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age 78542
children, or school-age children served by the program at one 78543
time;78544

       (iii) The number of adults providing child care for the 78545
number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age children, or school-age 78546
children;78547

       (iv) Any changes in the rules made subsequent to the time 78548
when the rules were initially submitted to the director.78549

       The director shall maintain a record of the child care 78550
information submitted by other state departments and shall provide 78551
this information upon request to the general assembly or the 78552
public.78553

       (b) Child care programs conducted by boards of education or 78554
by chartered nonpublic schools that are conducted in school 78555
buildings and that provide child care to school-age children only 78556
shall be exempt from meeting or exceeding rules promulgated 78557
pursuant to this chapter.78558

       (7) Any preschool program or school child program, except a 78559
head start program, that is subject to licensure by the department 78560
of education under sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised 78561
Code.78562

       (8) Any program providing child care that meets all of the 78563
following requirements and, on October 20, 1987, was being 78564
operated by a nonpublic school that holds a charter issued by the 78565
state board of education for kindergarten only:78566

       (a) The nonpublic school has given the notice to the state 78567
board and the director of job and family services required by 78568
Section 4 of Substitute House Bill No. 253 of the 117th general 78569
assembly;78570

       (b) The nonpublic school continues to be chartered by the 78571
state board for kindergarten, or receives and continues to hold a 78572
charter from the state board for kindergarten through grade five;78573

       (c) The program is conducted in a school building;78574

       (d) The program is operated in accordance with rules 78575
promulgated by the state board under sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 78576
of the Revised Code.78577

       (9) A youth development program operated outside of school 78578
hours by a community-based center to which all of the following 78579
apply:78580

       (a) The children enrolled in the program are under nineteen 78581
years of age and enrolled in or eligible to be enrolled in a grade 78582
of kindergarten or above.78583

       (b) The program provides informal child care and at least 78584
two, which is child care that does not require parental signature, 78585
permission, or notice for the child receiving the care to enter or 78586
leave the program;78587

       (c) The program provides any of the following supervised 78588
activities: educational, recreational, culturally enriching, 78589
social, and personal development activities.78590

       (c)(d) The program is eligible for participation in the child 78591
and adult care food program as an outside-school-hours care center 78592
pursuant to standards established under section 3313.813 of the 78593
Revised Code.78594

       (d)(e) The community-based center operating the program is 78595
exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) 78596
and (c)(3).78597

       Sec. 5104.021.  The director of job and family services may78598
not issue a child day-care center or type A family day-care home 78599
license to a youth development program that is exempted by 78600
division (B)(9) of section 5104.02 of the Revised Code from the 78601
requirements of this chapter if the youth development program 78602
applies for and meets all of the requirements for the license.78603

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 78604
institution, or agency desiring to establish a child day-care 78605
center or type A family day-care home shall apply for a license to 78606
the director of job and family services on such form as the 78607
director prescribes. The director shall provide at no charge to 78608
each applicant for licensure a copy of the child care license 78609
requirements in this chapter and a copy of the rules adopted 78610
pursuant to this chapter. The copies may be provided in paper or 78611
electronic form.78612

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to section 78613
5104.011 of the Revised Code and shall be paid at the time of 78614
application for a license to operate a center or type A home. Fees 78615
collected under this section shall be paid into the state treasury 78616
to the credit of the general revenue fund.78617

       (B) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 78618
director shall investigate and inspect the center or type A home 78619
to determine the license capacity for each age category of 78620
children of the center or type A home and to determine whether the 78621
center or type A home complies with this chapter and rules adopted 78622
pursuant to this chapter. When, after investigation and 78623
inspection, the director is satisfied that this chapter and rules 78624
adopted pursuant to it are complied with, subject to division (G) 78625
of this section, a provisional license shall be issued as soon as 78626
practicable in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. 78627
The provisional license shall be valid for twelve months from the 78628
date of issuance unless revoked.78629

       (C) The director shall investigate and inspect the center or 78630
type A home at least once during operation under the provisional 78631
license. If after the investigation and inspection the director 78632
determines that the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted 78633
pursuant to this chapter are met, subject to division (G) of this 78634
section, the director shall issue a license to the center or home.78635

       (D) The license or provisional license shall state the name 78636
of the licensee, the name of the administrator, the address of the 78637
center or type A home, and the license capacity for each age 78638
category of children. The license or provisional license shall 78639
include thereon, in accordance with section 5104.011 of the 78640
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 78641
suspecting that the center or type A home has violated a provision 78642
of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. A 78643
license or provisional license is valid only for the licensee, 78644
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 78645
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 78646
specified on the license or provisional license is the maximum 78647
number of children in each age category that may be cared for in 78648
the center or type A home at one time.78649

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 78650
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 78651
shall amend the current license or provisional license to reflect 78652
a change in an administrator, if the administrator meets the 78653
requirements of Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code and rules 78654
adopted pursuant to Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, or a change 78655
in license capacity for any age category of children as determined 78656
by the director of job and family services.78657

       (E) If the director revokes the license of a center or a type 78658
A home, the director shall not issue another license to the owner 78659
of the center or type A home until five years have elapsed from 78660
the date the license is revoked. 78661

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 78662
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 78663
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 78664
denied.78665

        (F) If during the application for licensure process the 78666
director determines that the license of the owner has been 78667
revoked, the investigation of the center or type A home shall 78668
cease. This action does not constitute denial of the application 78669
and may not be appealed under division (G) of this section. 78670

       (G) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 78671
centers or type A homes, refusal to license, and revocation of a 78672
license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 78673
Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any owner whose 78674
license is revoked may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of 78675
the Revised Code.78676

       (H) In no case shall the director issue a license or 78677
provisional license under this section for a type A home or center 78678
if the director, based on documentation provided by the 78679
appropriate county department of job and family services, 78680
determines that the applicant previously had been certified as a 78681
type B family day-care home, that the county department revoked 78682
that certification within the immediately preceding five years, 78683
that the revocation was based on the applicant's refusal or 78684
inability to comply with the criteria for certification, and that 78685
the refusal or inability resulted in a risk to the health or 78686
safety of children.78687

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 78688
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 78689
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 78690
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 78691
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 78692
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 78693
job and family services, the director of developmental 78694
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 78695
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 78696
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 78697
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.78698

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 78699
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 78700
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 78701
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 78702
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 78703
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 78704
type A home, a head start program, a certified type B home, or a 78705
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 78706
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, certified type B 78707
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 78708
members shall represent county departments of job and family 78709
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 78710
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 78711
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 78712
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 78713
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 78714
providers operating a certified type B home or type B home, or 78715
in-home aides.78716

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 78717
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 78718
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 78719
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 78720
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 78721
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 78722
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 78723
neglect of duty as a member of the council.78724

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 78725
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 78726
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 78727
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 78728
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 78729
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 78730
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 78731
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 78732
place of each meeting.78733

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 78734
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.78735

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 78736
on matters affecting the licensing of centers and type A homes and 78737
the certification of type B homes and in-home aides. The council 78738
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 78739
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 78740
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 78741
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 78742
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 78743
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 78744
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 78745
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 78746
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.78747

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 78748
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 78749
section.78750

       Sec. 5104.11.  (A)(1) Every person desiring to receive 78751
certification for a type B family day-care home to provide 78752
publicly funded child care shall apply for certification to the 78753
county director of job and family services on such forms as the 78754
director of job and family services prescribes. The county 78755
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant a copy of 78756
rules for certifying type B family day-care homes adopted pursuant 78757
to this chapter.78758

       (2) Except as provided in division (G)(1) of section 5104.011 78759
of the Revised Code, after receipt of an application for 78760
certification from a type B family day-care home, the county 78761
director of job and family services shall inspect the home. If it 78762
complies with this chapter and any applicable rules adopted under 78763
this chapter, the county department shall certify the type B 78764
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 78765
pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under it. The 78766
director of job and family services or a county director of job 78767
and family services may contract with a government entity or a 78768
private nonprofit entity for that entity to inspect and certify 78769
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The county 78770
department of job and family services, government entity, or 78771
nonprofit entity shall conduct the inspection prior to the 78772
issuance of a certificate for the type B home and, as part of that 78773
inspection, ensure that the type B home is safe and sanitary.78774

       (3)(a) On receipt of an application for certification for a 78775
type B family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 78776
or for renewal of such certification, the county department shall 78777
request from both of the followingthe public children services 78778
agency information concerning any abuse or neglect report made 78779
pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised Code of which the 78780
applicant, any other adult residing in the applicant's home, or a 78781
person designated by the applicant to be an emergency or 78782
substitute caregiver for the applicant is the subject:78783

       (i) The public children services agency, until the county 78784
department is notified by the department of job and family 78785
services that the uniform statewide automated child welfare 78786
information system has been finalized statewide; 78787

       (ii) Upon receipt of notification under division (D) of 78788
section 5101.13 of the Revised Code that the uniform statewide 78789
automated child welfare information system has been implemented 78790
statewide, the uniform statewide automated child welfare 78791
information system via the department.78792

       (b) The county department shall consider any information 78793
provided by the agency or the department pursuant to section 78794
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the county department determines 78795
that the information, when viewed within the totality of the 78796
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 78797
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 78798
or welfare of children, the county department shall deny the 78799
application for certification or renewal of certification, or 78800
revoke the certification of an authorized provider.78801

       (c) As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "public 78802
children services agency" means either an entity separate from the 78803
county department or the part of the county department that serves 78804
as the county's public children services agency, as appropriate.78805

       (4) Except as provided in division (A)(5) of this section, an 78806
authorized provider of a type B family day-care home that receives 78807
a certificate pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded 78808
child care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of 78809
the county department of job and family services that issues the 78810
certificate.78811

       (5) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 78812
determinations concerning the employment of an authorized provider 78813
of a type B family day-care home that receives a certificate 78814
pursuant to this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. 78815
of the Revised Code.78816

       (B)(1) If the county director of job and family services 78817
determines that the type B family day-care home complies with this 78818
chapter and any rules adopted under it, the county director shall 78819
issue to the provider a certificate to provide publicly funded 78820
child care, which. The certificate is valid for twelve months, 78821
unless revoked earlier. The county director may revoke the 78822
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 78823
authorized provider shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 78824
place in the certified type B home that is accessible to parents, 78825
custodians, or guardians at all times. The certificate shall state 78826
the name and address of the authorized provider, the maximum 78827
number of children who may be cared for at any one time in the 78828
certified type B home, the expiration date of the certification, 78829
and the name and telephone number of the county director who 78830
issued the certificate.78831

       (2) The county director may revoke a certificate to provide 78832
publicly funded child care in either of the following 78833
circumstances:78834

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 78835
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 78836
necessary;78837

        (b) The authorized provider does not comply with division 78838
(D)(2) of section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.78839

       (C)(1) The county director shall inspect every certified type 78840
B family day-care home at least twice within each twelve-month 78841
period of the operation of the certified type B home. A minimum of 78842
one inspection shall be unannounced and all inspections may be 78843
unannounced. Upon receipt of a complaint, the county director 78844
shall investigate the certified type B home, and division (C)(2) 78845
of this section applies regarding the complaint. The authorized 78846
provider shall permit the county director to inspect any part of 78847
the certified type B home. The county director shall prepare a 78848
written inspection report and furnish one copy to the authorized 78849
provider within a reasonable time after the inspection.78850

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 78851
(C)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigation that is 78852
required under that division, both of the following apply:78853

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 78854
harm while receiving child care at the certified type B family 78855
day-care home or that the noncompliance with law or act alleged in 78856
the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a substantial risk 78857
of physical harm to a child receiving child care at the home, the 78858
county director shall inspect the home.78859

       (b) If division (C)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 78860
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the 78861
certified type B family day-care home.78862

       (3) Division (C)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 78863
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a certified 78864
type B family day-care home that otherwise is imposed under this 78865
section, or any authority of the county director to inspect a home 78866
that otherwise is granted under this section when the county 78867
director believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted 78868
under the grant.78869

       (D) The county director of job and family services, in 78870
accordance with rules adopted pursuant to section 5104.052 of the 78871
Revised Code regarding fire safety and fire prevention, shall 78872
inspect each type B home that applies to be certified that is 78873
providing or is to provide publicly funded child care.78874

       (E) All materials that are supplied by the department of job 78875
and family services to type A family day-care home providers, type 78876
B family day-care home providers, in-home aides, persons who 78877
desire to be type A family day-care home providers, type B family 78878
day-care home providers, or in-home aides, and caretaker parents 78879
shall be written at no higher than the sixth grade reading level. 78880
The department may employ a readability expert to verify its 78881
compliance with this division.78882

       Sec. 5104.12.  (A) The county director of job and family 78883
services may certify in-home aides to provide publicly funded 78884
child care pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under 78885
it. Any in-home aide who receives a certificate pursuant to this 78886
section to provide publicly funded child care is an independent 78887
contractor and is not an employee of the county department of job 78888
and family services that issues the certificate.78889

       (B) Every person desiring to receive certification as an 78890
in-home aide shall apply for certification to the county director 78891
of job and family services on such forms as the director of job 78892
and family services prescribes. The county director shall provide 78893
at no charge to each applicant a copy of rules for certifying 78894
in-home aides adopted pursuant to this chapter.78895

       (C)(1) If the county director of job and family services 78896
determines that public funds are available and that the person 78897
complies with this chapter and any rules adopted under it, the 78898
county director shall certify the person as an in-home aide and 78899
issue the person a certificate to provide publicly funded child 78900
care for twelve months. The county director may revoke the 78901
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 78902
county director shall furnish a copy of the certificate to the 78903
parent, custodian, or guardian. The certificate shall state the 78904
name and address of the in-home aide, the expiration date of the 78905
certification, and the name and telephone number of the county 78906
director who issued the certificate.78907

       (2) The county director may revoke the certificate in either 78908
of the following circumstances:78909

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 78910
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 78911
necessary;78912

        (b) The in-home aide does not comply with division (D)(2) of 78913
section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.78914

       (D)(1) The county director of job and family services shall 78915
inspect every home of a child who is receiving publicly funded 78916
child care in the child's own home while the in-home aide is 78917
providing the services. Inspections may be unannounced. Upon 78918
receipt of a complaint, the county director shall investigate the 78919
in-home aide, shall investigate the home of a child who is 78920
receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own home, and 78921
division (D)(2) of this section applies regarding the complaint. 78922
The caretaker parent shall permit the county director to inspect 78923
any part of the child's home. The county director shall prepare a 78924
written inspection report and furnish one copy each to the in-home 78925
aide and the caretaker parent within a reasonable time after the 78926
inspection.78927

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 78928
(D)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigations that are 78929
required under that division, both of the following apply:78930

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 78931
harm while receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own 78932
home from an in-home aide or that the noncompliance with law or 78933
act alleged in the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a 78934
substantial risk of physical harm to a child receiving publicly 78935
funded child care in the child's own home from an in-home aide, 78936
the county director shall inspect the home of the child.78937

       (b) If division (D)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 78938
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the home 78939
of the child.78940

       (3) Division (D)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 78941
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a home of a 78942
child who is receiving publicly funded child care from an in-home 78943
aide that otherwise is imposed under this section, or any 78944
authority of the county director to inspect such a home that 78945
otherwise is granted under this section when the county director 78946
believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted under the 78947
grant.78948

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 78949
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 78950
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 78951
licensed type A family day-care home, certified type B family 78952
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 78953
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 78954
border state child care provider and the department of job and 78955
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 78956
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 78957
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 78958
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 78959
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 78960
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 78961
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 78962
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 78963
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 78964
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 78965
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 78966
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 78967
the expenditure of state or federal funds.78968

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 78969
specify at least the following:78970

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 78971
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 78972
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 78973
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 78974
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;78975

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 78976
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 78977
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 78978
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 78979
department of job and family services receives the individual's 78980
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 78981
determined;78982

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 78983
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 78984
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 78985
provider or a child care resource and referral service 78986
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 78987
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 78988
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 78989
referral service organization is required to complete required 78990
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 78991
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 78992
determinations;78993

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 78994
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 78995
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 78996
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 78997
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 78998
or certification;78999

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 79000
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 79001
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 79002
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 79003
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 79004
certificate, or other approval;79005

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 79006
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 79007
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;79008

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 79009
and federal funds.79010

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 79011
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 79012
department of job and family services shall give individuals 79013
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 79014
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 79015
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 79016
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 79017
child care may present these certificates for payment in 79018
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 79019
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 79020
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 79021
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 79022
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 79023
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 79024
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 79025
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 79026
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 79027
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 79028
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 79029
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 79030
eligible for publicly funded child care.79031

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 79032
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 79033
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 79034
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 79035
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 79036
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 79037
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 79038
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 79039
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 79040
child care to the child during that period.79041

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 79042
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 79043
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 79044
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 79045
through a point-of-service device issued to an eligible provider, 79046
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.79047

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 79048
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 79049
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 79050
the following:79051

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 79052
issued to a caretaker parent;79053

        (b) Falsify attendance records;79054

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 79055
that was not provided;79056

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 79057
care that was not provided.79058

       Sec. 5107.10.  (A) As used in this section:79059

       (1) "Countable income," "gross earned income," and "gross 79060
unearned income" have the meanings established in rules adopted 79061
under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.79062

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 79063
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, except that references to a 79064
person's family in the definition shall be deemed to be references 79065
to the person's assistance group.79066

       (3) "Gross income" means gross earned income and gross 79067
unearned income.79068

        (4) "Strike" means continuous concerted action in failing to 79069
report to duty; willful absence from one's position; or stoppage 79070
of work in whole from the full, faithful, and proper performance 79071
of the duties of employment, for the purpose of inducing, 79072
influencing, or coercing a change in wages, hours, terms, and 79073
other conditions of employment. "Strike" does not include a 79074
stoppage of work by employees in good faith because of dangerous 79075
or unhealthful working conditions at the place of employment that 79076
are abnormal to the place of employment.79077

       (B) Under the Ohio works first program, an assistance group 79078
shall receive, except as otherwise provided by this chapter, 79079
time-limited cash assistance. In the case of an assistance group 79080
that includes a minor head of household or adult, assistance shall 79081
be provided in accordance with the self-sufficiency contract 79082
entered into under section 5107.14 of the Revised Code.79083

       (C) To be eligible to participate in Ohio works first, an 79084
assistance group must meet all of the following requirements:79085

       (1) The assistance group, except as provided in division (E) 79086
of this section, must include at least one of the following:79087

       (a) A minor child who, except as provided in section 5107.24 79088
of the Revised Code, resides with a parent, or specified relative 79089
caring for the child, or, to the extent permitted by Title IV-A 79090
and federal regulations adopted until Title IV-A, resides with a 79091
guardian or custodian caring for the child;79092

       (b) A parent residing with and caring for the parent's minor 79093
child who receives supplemental security income under Title XVI of 79094
the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, 79095
as amended, or federal, state, or local adoption assistance;79096

       (c) A specified relative residing with and caring for a minor 79097
child who is related to the specified relative in a manner that 79098
makes the specified relative a specified relative and receives 79099
supplemental security income or federal, state, or local foster 79100
care or adoption assistance;79101

       (d) A woman at least six months pregnant.79102

       (2) The assistance group must meet the income requirements 79103
established by division (D) of this section.79104

       (3) No member of the assistance group may be involved in a 79105
strike.79106

       (4) The assistance group must satisfy the requirements for 79107
Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 5101.58, 79108
5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code.79109

       (5) The assistance group must meet requirements for Ohio 79110
works first established by rules adopted under section 5107.05 of 79111
the Revised Code.79112

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(4) of this section, 79113
to determine whether an assistance group is initially eligible to 79114
participate in Ohio works first, a county department of job and 79115
family services shall do the following:79116

       (a) Determine whether the assistance group's gross income 79117
exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. In 79118
making this determination, the county department shall disregard 79119
amounts that federal statutes or regulations and sections 5101.17 79120
and 5117.10 of the Revised Code require be disregarded. The 79121
assistance group is ineligible to participate in Ohio works first 79122
if the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 79123
disregarded, exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty 79124
guidelines.79125

       (b) If the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 79126
disregarded pursuant to division (D)(1)(a) of this section, does 79127
not exceed fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 79128
determine whether the assistance group's countable income is less 79129
than the payment standard. The assistance group is ineligible to 79130
participate in Ohio works first if the assistance group's 79131
countable income equals or exceeds the payment standard.79132

       (2) For the purpose of determining whether an assistance 79133
group meets the income requirement established by division 79134
(D)(1)(a) of this section, the annual revision that the United 79135
States department of health and human services makes to the 79136
federal poverty guidelines shall go into effect on the first day 79137
of July of the year for which the revision is made.79138

       (3) To determine whether an assistance group participating in 79139
Ohio works first continues to be eligible to participate, a county 79140
department of job and family services shall determine whether the 79141
assistance group's countable income continues to be less than the 79142
payment standard. In making this determination, the county 79143
department shall disregard the first two hundred fifty dollars and 79144
fifty per cent of the remainder of the assistance group's gross 79145
earned income. No amounts shall be disregarded from the assistance 79146
group's gross unearned income. The assistance group ceases to be 79147
eligible to participate in Ohio works first if its countable 79148
income, less the amounts disregarded, equals or exceeds the 79149
payment standard.79150

       (4) If an assistance group reapplies to participate in Ohio 79151
works first not more than four months after ceasing to 79152
participate, a county department of job and family services shall 79153
use the income requirement established by division (D)(3) of this 79154
section to determine eligibility for resumed participation rather 79155
than the income requirement established by division (D)(1) of this 79156
section.79157

       (E)(1) An assistance group may continue to participate in 79158
Ohio works first even though a public children services agency 79159
removes the assistance group's minor children from the assistance 79160
group's home due to abuse, neglect, or dependency if the agency 79161
does both of the following:79162

       (a) Notifies the county department of job and family services 79163
at the time the agency removes the children that it believes the 79164
children will be able to return to the assistance group within six 79165
months;79166

       (b) Informs the county department at the end of each of the 79167
first five months after the agency removes the children that the 79168
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the children 79169
is cooperating with the case plans prepared for the children under 79170
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and that the agency is making 79171
reasonable efforts to return the children to the assistance group.79172

       (2) An assistance group may continue to participate in Ohio 79173
works first pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section for not 79174
more than six payment months. This division does not affect the 79175
eligibility of an assistance group that includes a woman at least 79176
six months pregnant.79177

       Sec. 5107.14.  (A) An assistance group is ineligible to 79178
participate in Ohio works first unless the following enter into a 79179
written self-sufficiency contract with the county department of 79180
job and family services:79181

       (1) Each adult member of the assistance group;79182

       (2) The assistance group's minor head of household.79183

       (B) A self-sufficiency contract shall set forth the rights 79184
and responsibilities of the assistance group as applicants for and 79185
participants of Ohio works first. Each self-sufficiency contract 79186
shall include, based on appraisals conducted under section 5107.41 79187
of the Revised Code and assessments conducted under section 79188
5107.70 of the Revised Code, the following:79189

       (1) The assistance group's plan, developed under section 79190
5107.41 of the Revised Code, to achieve the goal of self 79191
sufficiency and personal responsibility through unsubsidized 79192
employment within the time limit for participating in Ohio works 79193
first established by section 5107.18 of the Revised Code;79194

       (2) Work activities, developmental activities, and 79195
alternative work activities to which members of the assistance 79196
group are assigned under sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 79197
Revised Code;79198

       (3) The responsibility of a caretaker member of the 79199
assistance group to cooperate in establishing a minor child's 79200
paternity and establishing, modifying, and enforcing a support 79201
order for the child in accordance with section 5107.22 of the 79202
Revised Code;79203

       (4) Other responsibilities that members of the assistance 79204
group must satisfy to participate in Ohio works first and the 79205
consequences for failure or refusal to satisfy the 79206
responsibilities;79207

       (5) An agreement that, except as otherwise provided in a 79208
waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the Revised Code, the 79209
assistance group will comply with the conditions of participating 79210
in Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 79211
5101.58, 5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code;79212

       (6) Assistance and services the county department will 79213
provide to the assistance group;79214

       (7) Assistance and services the child support enforcement 79215
agency and public children services agency will provide to the 79216
assistance group pursuant to a plan of cooperation entered into 79217
under section 307.983 of the Revised Code;79218

       (8) Other provisions designed to assist the assistance group 79219
in achieving self sufficiency and personal responsibility;79220

       (9) Procedures for assessing whether responsibilities are 79221
being satisfied and whether the contract should be amended;79222

       (10) Procedures for amending the contract.79223

       (C) No self-sufficiency contract shall include provisions 79224
regarding the LEAP program.79225

       (D) The county department shall provide without charge a copy 79226
of the self-sufficiency contract to each assistance group member 79227
who signs it.79228

       Sec. 5107.16.  (A) If a member of an assistance group fails 79229
or refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision 79230
of a self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 79231
of the Revised Code, a county department of job and family 79232
services shall sanction the assistance group as follows:79233

       (1) For a first failure or refusal, the county department 79234
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 79235
participate in Ohio works first for one payment month or until the 79236
failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;79237

       (2) For a second failure or refusal, the county department 79238
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 79239
participate in Ohio works first for three payment months or until 79240
the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;79241

       (3) For a third or subsequent failure or refusal, the county 79242
department shall deny or terminate the assistance group's 79243
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 79244
months or until the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is 79245
longer.79246

       (B) The director of job and family services shall establish 79247
standards for the determination of good cause for failure or 79248
refusal to comply in full with a provision of a self-sufficiency 79249
contract in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 79250
Code.79251

       (C) An assistance group member who fails or refuses, without 79252
good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 79253
self-sufficiency contract must complete all compliance activities 79254
specified in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 79255
Code in order for the failure or refusal to be considered to have 79256
ceased.79257

       (D) After sanctioning an assistance group under division (A) 79258
of this section, a county department of job and family services 79259
shall continue to work with the assistance group.79260

       (E) An adult eligible for medicaid pursuant to division 79261
(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code who is sanctioned 79262
under division (A)(3) of this section for a failure or refusal, 79263
without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 79264
self-sufficiency contract related to work responsibilities under 79265
sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code loses eligibility 79266
for medicaid unless the adult is otherwise eligible for medicaid 79267
pursuant to another division of section 5111.01 of the Revised 79268
Codean eligibility category other than the category associated 79269
with Title IV-A.79270

        An assistance group that would be participating in Ohio works 79271
first if not for a sanction under this section shall continue to 79272
be eligible for all of the following:79273

       (1) Publicly funded child care in accordance with division 79274
(A)(3) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;79275

       (2) Support services in accordance with section 5107.66 of 79276
the Revised Code;79277

       (3) To the extent permitted by the "Fair Labor Standards Act 79278
of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201, as amended, to participate 79279
in work activities, developmental activities, and alternative work 79280
activities in accordance with sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 79281
Revised Code.79282

       Sec. 5107.20.  As used in this section, "support" means child 79283
support, spousal support, and support for a spouse or a former 79284
spouse.79285

       Participation in Ohio works first constitutes an assignment 79286
to the department of job and family services of any rights members 79287
of an assistance group have to support from any other person, 79288
excluding medical support assigned pursuant to section 5101.59 of 79289
the Revised Code. The rights to support assigned to the department 79290
pursuant to this section constitute an obligation of the person 79291
who is responsible for providing the support to the state for the 79292
amount of cash assistance provided to the assistance group.79293

       The office of child support in the department of job and 79294
family services shall collect and distribute support payments owed 79295
to Ohio works first participants, whether assigned to the 79296
department or unassigned, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 79297
657 and regulations adopted under those statutes, state statutes, 79298
and rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.79299

       Upon implementation of centralized collection and 79300
disbursement under Chapter 3121. of the Revised Code, in 79301
accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 657 and regulations adopted 79302
under those statutes, the department shall deposit support 79303
payments it receives pursuant to this section into the state 79304
treasury to the credit of the child support collections fund or 79305
the child support administrative fund, both of which are hereby 79306
created. Money credited to the funds shall be used to make cash 79307
assistance payments under Ohio works first.79308

       Sec. 5107.24.  (A) As used in this section:79309

       (1) "Adult-supervised living arrangement" means a family 79310
setting approved, licensed, or certified by the department of job 79311
and family services, the department of mental healthmental health 79312
and addiction services, the department of developmental 79313
disabilities, the department of youth services, a public children 79314
services agency, a private child placing agency, or a private 79315
noncustodial agency that is maintained by a person age eighteen or 79316
older who assumes responsibility for the care and control of a 79317
minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor parent or 79318
provides the minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor 79319
parent supportive services, including counseling, guidance, and 79320
supervision. "Adult-supervised living arrangement" does not mean a 79321
public institution.79322

       (2) "Child of a minor parent" means a child born to a minor 79323
parent, except that the child ceases to be considered a child of 79324
minor parent when the minor parent attains age eighteen.79325

       (3) "Minor parent" means a parent who is under age eighteen 79326
and is not married.79327

       (4) "Pregnant minor" means a pregnant person who is under age 79328
eighteen and not married.79329

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 79330
and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal regulations 79331
adopted under Title IV-A, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or child 79332
of a minor parent must reside in a place of residence maintained 79333
by a parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the 79334
pregnant minor or minor parent as the parent's, guardian's, 79335
custodian's, or specified relative's own home to be eligible to 79336
participate in Ohio works first.79337

       (2) To the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 79338
regulations adopted under it, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or 79339
child of a minor parent is exempt from the requirement of division 79340
(B)(1) of this section if any of the following apply:79341

       (a) The minor parent or pregnant minor does not have a 79342
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative living or whose 79343
whereabouts are known.79344

       (b) No parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of 79345
the minor parent or pregnant minor will allow the pregnant minor, 79346
minor parent, or minor parent's child to live in the parent's, 79347
guardian's, custodian's, or specified relative's home.79348

       (c) The department of job and family services, a county 79349
department of job and family services, or a public children 79350
services agency determines that the physical or emotional health 79351
or safety of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 79352
child would be in jeopardy if the pregnant minor, minor parent, or 79353
minor parent's child lived in the same home as the parent, 79354
guardian, custodian, or specified relative.79355

       (d) The department of job and family services, a county 79356
department of job and family services, or a public children 79357
services agency otherwise determines that it is in the best 79358
interest of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 79359
child to waive the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section.79360

       (C) A pregnant minor, minor parent, or child of a minor 79361
parent exempt from the requirement of division (B)(1) of this 79362
section must reside in an adult-supervised living arrangement to 79363
be eligible to participate in Ohio works first.79364

       (D) The department of job and family services, whenever 79365
possible and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 79366
regulations adopted under it, shall provide cash assistance under 79367
Ohio works first to the parent, guardian, custodian, or specified 79368
relative of a pregnant minor or minor parent on behalf of the 79369
pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's child.79370

       Sec. 5107.26.  (A) As used in this section:79371

       (1) "Transitional, "transitional child care" means publicly 79372
funded child care provided under division (A)(3) of section 79373
5104.34 of the Revised Code.79374

       (2) "Transitional medicaid" means the medical assistance 79375
provided under section 5111.0115 of the Revised Code.79376

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each:79377

       (1) Each member of an assistance group participating in Ohio 79378
works first is ineligible to participate in the program for six 79379
payment months if a county department of job and family services 79380
determines that a member of the assistance group terminated the 79381
member's employment and each.79382

       (2) Each person who, on the day prior to the day a recipient 79383
begins to receive transitional child care or transitional 79384
medicaid, was a member of the recipient's assistance group is 79385
ineligible to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 79386
months if a county department determines that the recipient 79387
terminated the recipient's employment.79388

       (C) No assistance group member shall lose or be denied 79389
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first pursuant to 79390
division (B) of this section if the termination of employment was 79391
because an assistance group member or recipient of transitional 79392
child care or transitional medicaid secured comparable or better 79393
employment or the county department of job and family services 79394
certifies that the member or recipient terminated the employment 79395
with just cause.79396

       Just cause includes the following:79397

       (1) Discrimination by an employer based on age, race, sex, 79398
color, handicap, religious beliefs, or national origin;79399

       (2) Work demands or conditions that render continued 79400
employment unreasonable, such as working without being paid on 79401
schedule;79402

       (3) Employment that has become unsuitable due to any of the 79403
following:79404

       (a) The wage is less than the federal minimum wage;79405

       (b) The work is at a site subject to a strike or lockout, 79406
unless the strike has been enjoined under section 208 of the 79407
"Labor-Management Relations Act," 61 Stat. 155 (1947), 29 U.S.C.A. 79408
178, as amended, an injunction has been issued under section 10 of 79409
the "Railway Labor Act," 44 Stat. 586 (1926), 45 U.S.C.A. 160, as 79410
amended, or an injunction has been issued under section 4117.16 of 79411
the Revised Code;79412

       (c) The documented degree of risk to the member or 79413
recipient's health and safety is unreasonable;79414

       (d) The member or recipient is physically or mentally unfit 79415
to perform the employment, as documented by medical evidence or by 79416
reliable information from other sources.79417

       (4) Documented illness of the member or recipient or of 79418
another assistance group member of the member or recipient 79419
requiring the presence of the member or recipient;79420

       (5) A documented household emergency;79421

       (6) Lack of adequate child care for children of the member or 79422
recipient who are under six years of age.79423

       Sec. 5107.42.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 79424
(C) of this section, county departments of job and family services 79425
shall assign each minor head of household and adult participating 79426
in Ohio works first, other than a minor head of household 79427
participating in the LEAP program, to one or more work activities 79428
and developmental activities.79429

       If a county department assigns a minor head of household or 79430
adult to the work activity established under division (H) of 79431
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code, the county department shall 79432
make reasonable efforts to assign the minor head of household or 79433
adult to at least one other work activity at the same time. If a 79434
county department assigns a minor head of household or adult to 79435
the work activity established under section 5107.58 of the Revised 79436
Code, the county department shall assign the minor head of 79437
household or adult to at least one other work activity at the same 79438
time.79439

       A county department may not assign a minor head of household 79440
or adult to a work activity established under division (D) of 79441
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code for more than twelve months.79442

       (B) If a county department determines that a minor head of 79443
household or adult has a temporary or permanent barrier to 79444
participation in a work activity, it may assign the minor head of 79445
household or adult to one or more alternative work activities 79446
instead of assigning the minor head of household or adult to one 79447
or more work activities or developmental activities. A county 79448
department may not assign more than twenty per cent of minor heads 79449
of household and adults participating in Ohio works first to an 79450
alternative work activity. 79451

       County departments shall establish standards for determining 79452
whether a minor head of household or adult has a temporary or 79453
permanent barrier to participating in a work activity. The 79454
following are examples of circumstances that a county department 79455
may consider when it develops its standards:79456

       (1) A minor head of household or adult provides the county 79457
department documented evidence that one or more members of the 79458
assistance group have been the victim of domestic violence and are 79459
in imminent danger of suffering continued domestic violence;79460

       (2) A minor head of household or adult is actively 79461
participating in an alcohol or druga community addiction program79462
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 79463
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 79464
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code; 79465

       (3) An assistance group is homeless.79466

       (C) A county department may exempt a minor head of household 79467
or adult who is unmarried and caring for a minor child under 79468
twelve months of age from the work requirements of sections 79469
5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code for not more than twelve 79470
months. While exempt, the minor head of household or adult shall 79471
be disregarded in determining whether the county department is 79472
meeting the requirement of section 5107.44 of the Revised Code. 79473
The county department shall assign the exempt minor head of 79474
household or adult to at least one developmental activity for a 79475
number of hours a week the county department determines. The 79476
county department may assign the exempt minor head of household or 79477
adult to one or more work activities, in addition to developmental 79478
activities, for a number of hours the county department 79479
determines. Division (B) of section 5107.43 of the Revised Code 79480
does not apply to the exempt minor head of household or adult. 79481

       (D) A county department may reassign a minor head of 79482
household or adult when the county department determines 79483
reassignment will aid the assistance group in achieving self 79484
sufficiency and personal responsibility and shall make 79485
reassignments when circumstances requiring reassignment occur, 79486
including when a temporary barrier to participating in a work 79487
activity is eliminated. 79488

       A county department shall include assignments in the 79489
self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 of 79490
the Revised Code and shall amend the contract when a reassignment 79491
is made to include the reassignment in the contract.79492

       Sec. 5107.64.  County departments of job and family services 79493
shall establish and administer alternative work activities for 79494
minor heads of households and adults participating in Ohio works 79495
first. In establishing alternative work activities, county 79496
departments are not limited by the restrictions Title IV-A imposes 79497
on work activities. The following are examples of alternative work 79498
activities that a county department may establish:79499

       (A) Parenting classes and life-skills training;79500

       (B) Participation in an alcohol or druga community addiction 79501
programservices provider certified by the department of alcohol 79502
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services79503
under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;79504

       (C) In the case of a homeless assistance group, finding a 79505
home;79506

       (D) In the case of a minor head of household or adult with a 79507
disability, active work in an individual written rehabilitation 79508
plan with the rehabilitation services commission;79509

       (E) In the case of a minor head of household or adult who has 79510
been the victim of domestic violence, residing in a domestic 79511
violence shelter, receiving counseling or treatment related to the 79512
domestic violence, or participating in criminal justice activities 79513
against the domestic violence offender;79514

       (F) An education program under which a participant who does 79515
not speak English attends English as a second language course.79516

       Sec. 5115.20.  (A) The department of job and family services 79517
shall establish a disability advocacy program and each county 79518
department of job and family services shall establish a disability 79519
advocacy program unit or join with other county departments of job 79520
and family services to establish a joint county disability 79521
advocacy program unit. Through the program the department and 79522
county departments shall cooperate in efforts to assist applicants 79523
for and recipients of assistance under the disability financial 79524
assistance program, who might be eligible for supplemental 79525
security income benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security 79526
Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as amended, in 79527
applying for those benefits. 79528

       As part of their disability advocacy programs, the state 79529
department and county departments may enter into contracts for the 79530
services of persons and government entities that in the judgment 79531
of the department or county department have demonstrated expertise 79532
in representing persons seeking supplemental security income 79533
benefits. Each contract shall require the person or entity with 79534
which a department contracts to assess each person referred to it 79535
by the department to determine whether the person appears to be 79536
eligible for supplemental security income benefits, and, if the 79537
person appears to be eligible, assist the person in applying and 79538
represent the person in any proceeding of the social security 79539
administration, including any appeal or reconsideration of a 79540
denial of benefits. The department or county department shall 79541
provide to the person or entity with which it contracts all 79542
records in its possession relevant to the application for 79543
supplemental security income benefits. The department shall 79544
require a county department with relevant records to submit them 79545
to the person or entity.79546

       (B) Each applicant for or recipient of disability financial 79547
assistance who, in the judgment of the department of job and 79548
family services or a county department of job and family services79549
might be eligible for supplemental security benefits, shall, as a 79550
condition of eligibility for assistance, apply for such benefits 79551
if directed to do so by the department or county department.79552

       (C) With regard to applicants for and recipients of 79553
disability financial assistance, each county department of job and 79554
family services shall do all of the following:79555

       (1) Identify applicants and recipients who might be eligible 79556
for supplemental security income benefits;79557

       (2) Assist applicants and recipients in securing 79558
documentation of disabling conditions or refer them for such 79559
assistance to a person or government entity with which the 79560
department of job and family services or county department has 79561
contracted under division (A) of this section;79562

       (3) Inform applicants and recipients of available sources of 79563
representation, which may include a person or government entity 79564
with which the department or county department has contracted 79565
under division (A) of this section, and of their right to 79566
represent themselves in reconsiderations and appeals of social 79567
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 79568
security income benefits. The county department may require the 79569
applicants and recipients, as a condition of eligibility for 79570
assistance, to pursue reconsiderations and appeals of social 79571
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 79572
security income benefits, and shall assist applicants and 79573
recipients as necessary to obtain such benefits or refer them to a 79574
person or government entity with which the department or county 79575
department has contracted under division (A) of this section.79576

       (4) Require applicants and recipients who, in the judgment of 79577
the county department, are or may be aged, blind, or disabled, to 79578
apply for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 79579
Codethe medicaid program, make determinations when appropriate as 79580
to eligibility for medical assistancemedicaid, and refer their 79581
applications when necessary to the disability determination unit 79582
established in accordance with division (F) of this section for 79583
expedited review;79584

       (5) Require each applicant and recipient who in the judgment 79585
of the department or the county department might be eligible for 79586
supplemental security income benefits, as a condition of 79587
eligibility for disability financial assistance, to execute a 79588
written authorization for the secretary of health and human 79589
services to withhold benefits due that individual and pay to the 79590
director of job and family services or the director's designee an 79591
amount sufficient to reimburse the state and county shares of 79592
interim assistance furnished to the individual. For the purposes 79593
of division (C)(5) of this section, "benefits" and "interim 79594
assistance" have the meanings given in Title XVI of the "Social 79595
Security Act."79596

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 79597
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 79598
effective administration of the disability advocacy program. The 79599
rules shall include all of the following:79600

       (1) Methods to be used in collecting information from and 79601
disseminating it to county departments, including the following:79602

       (a) The number of individuals in the county who are disabled 79603
recipients of disability financial assistance;79604

       (b) The final decision made either by the social security 79605
administration or by a court for each application or 79606
reconsideration in which an individual was assisted pursuant to 79607
this section.79608

       (2) The type and process of training to be provided by the 79609
department of job and family services to the employees of the 79610
county department of job and family services who perform duties 79611
under this section;79612

       (3) Requirements for the written authorization required by 79613
division (C)(5) of this section.79614

       (E) The department of job and family services shall provide 79615
basic and continuing training to employees of the county 79616
department of job and family services who perform duties under 79617
this section. Training shall include but not be limited to all 79618
processes necessary to obtain federal disability benefits, and 79619
methods of advocacy.79620

       (F) The department of medicaid shall establish a disability 79621
determination unit and develop guidelines for expediting reviews 79622
of applications for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the 79623
Revised Codethe medicaid program for persons who have been 79624
referred to the unit under division (C)(4) of this section. The 79625
department of medicaid shall make determinations of eligibility 79626
for medical assistancemedicaid for any such person within the 79627
time prescribed by federal regulations.79628

       (G) The department of job and family services may, under 79629
rules the director of job and family services adopts in accordance 79630
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, pay a portion of the 79631
federal reimbursement described in division (C)(5) of this section 79632
to persons or government entities that assist or represent 79633
assistance recipients in reconsiderations and appeals of social 79634
security administration decisions denying them supplemental 79635
security income benefits.79636

       (H) The director of job and family services shall conduct 79637
investigations to determine whether disability advocacy programs 79638
are being administered in compliance with the Revised Code and the 79639
rules adopted by the director pursuant to this section.79640

       Sec. 5117.10.  (A) On or before the fifteenth day of January, 79641
the director of development shall pay each applicant determined 79642
eligible for a payment under divisions (A) and (B) of section 79643
5117.07 of the Revised Code one hundred twenty-five dollars.79644

       (B) The director may withhold from any payment to which a 79645
person would otherwise be entitled under division (A) of this 79646
section any amount that the director determines was erroneously 79647
received by such person in a preceding year under this or the 79648
program established under Am. Sub. H.B. 230, as amended by Am. 79649
H.B. 937, Am. Sub. H.B. 1073, Am. Sub. S.B. 493, and Am. Sub. S.B. 79650
523 of the 112th general assembly, provided the director has 79651
employed all other legal methods reasonably available to obtain 79652
reimbursement for the erroneous payment or credit prior to the 79653
commencement of the current program year.79654

       (C) Payments made under this section and credits granted 79655
under section 5117.09 of the Revised Code shall not be considered 79656
income for the purpose of determining eligibility or the level of 79657
benefits or assistance under section 329.042 or Chapters 5107., 79658
5111., and 5115. of the Revised Code; the medicaid program;79659
supplemental security income payments under Title XVI of the 79660
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 79661
amended; or any other program under which eligibility or the level 79662
of benefits or assistance is based upon need measured by income.79663

       Sec. 3793.01.        Sec. 5119.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:79664

       (1) "Addiction" means the chronic and habitual use of 79665
alcoholic beverages, the use of a drug of abuse as defined in 79666
section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, or the use of gambling by an 79667
individual to the extent that the individual no longer can control 79668
the individual's use of alcohol, the individual becomes physically 79669
or psychologically dependent on the drug, the individual's use of 79670
alcohol or drugs endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the 79671
individual or others, or the individual's gambling causes 79672
psychological, financial, emotional, marital, legal, or other 79673
difficulties endangering the health, safety, or welfare of the 79674
individual or others.79675

        (2) "Addiction services" means services, including 79676
intervention, for the treatment of persons with alcohol, drug, or 79677
gambling addictions, and for the prevention of such addictions.79678

        (3) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 79679
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 79680
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 79681
drug addiction.79682

        (4) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.79683

        (5) "Alcoholism" means the chronic and habitual use of 79684
alcoholic beverages by an individual to the extent that the 79685
individual no longer can control the individual's use of alcohol 79686
or endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the individual or 79687
others.79688

       (2) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.79689

       (3)(6) "Community addiction services provider" means an 79690
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 79691
provides community alcohol, drug addiction, or gambling addiction 79692
services that are certified by the department of mental health and 79693
addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.79694

        (7) "Community mental health services provider" means an 79695
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 79696
provides community mental health services that are certified by 79697
the department of mental health and addiction services under 79698
section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.79699

       (8) "Drug addiction" means the use of a drug of abuse, as 79700
defined in section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, by an individual 79701
to the extent that the individual becomes physically or 79702
psychologically dependent on the drug or endangers the health, 79703
safety, or welfare of the individual or others.79704

       (4) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 79705
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 79706
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 79707
drug addiction.79708

       (5) "Alcohol and drug addiction program" means a program that 79709
provides alcohol or drug addiction services and includes a 79710
facility or entity that operates such a program.79711

       (6)(9) "Gambling addiction" means the use of gambling by an 79712
individual to the extent that it causes psychological, financial, 79713
emotional, marital, legal, or other difficulties endangering the 79714
health, safety, or welfare of the individual or others.79715

        (7)(10) "Gambling addiction services" means services for the 79716
treatment of persons who have a gambling addiction and for the 79717
prevention of gambling addiction.79718

       (11) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed 79719
by the department of mental health and addiction services under 79720
section 5119.33 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 79721
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 79722
the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code.79723

        (12) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of 79724
thought, mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly 79725
impairs judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or 79726
ability to meet the ordinary demands of life.79727

        (13) "Mental health services" means services for the 79728
assessment, care, or treatment of persons who have a mental 79729
illness as defined in this section.79730

        (14)(a) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 79731
county with intent to remain there, except in either of the 79732
following circumstances:79733

        (i) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 79734
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 79735
"residence" means that county in which the person maintained the 79736
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 79737
the facility;79738

        (ii) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 79739
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 79740
"residence" means the county where the criminal charges were 79741
filed.79742

        (b) When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 79743
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health and 79744
addiction services for investigation and determination. Residence 79745
shall not be a basis for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 79746
mental health services to deny services to any person present in 79747
the board's service district, and the board shall provide services 79748
for a person whose residence is in dispute while residence is 79749
being determined and for a person in an emergency situation.79750

       (B) Any reference in this chapter to a board of alcohol, drug 79751
addiction, and mental health services also refers to an alcohol 79752
and drug addiction services board or a community mental health 79753
board in a service district in which an alcohol and drug addiction 79754
services board or a community mental health board has been 79755
established under section 340.021 or former section 340.02 of the 79756
Revised Code.79757

       Sec. 5119.04.  The department of mental healthmental health 79758
and addiction services and any institutions under its supervision 79759
or jurisdiction shall, where applicable, be in substantial 79760
compliance with standards set forth for psychiatric facilities by 79761
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations79762
or medical assistance standards under Title XIX of the "Social 79763
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or 79764
other applicable standards, except that the department and any 79765
institution under its supervision or jurisdiction shall be in 79766
substantial compliance with standards for physical facilities and 79767
equipment by July 1, 1989. The requirements of this section do not 79768
apply to any facility designated by the director of mental health 79769
for use as a psychiatric rehabilitation center.79770

       The requirements of this section are in addition to any other 79771
requirements established by the Revised Code and nothing in this 79772
section shall be construed to limit any rights, privileges, 79773
protections, or immunities which may exist under the constitution 79774
and laws of the United States or this state.79775

       Sec. 5119.27.        Sec. 5119.05.  Subject to the rules of the director 79776
of mental healthmental health and addiction services, each 79777
institution under the jurisdiction of the department shall be 79778
under the management and control of a managing officer to be known 79779
as a superintendentchief executive officer or by another 79780
appropriate title. Such managing officer shall be appointed by the 79781
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 79782
and shall be in the unclassified service and serve at the pleasure 79783
of the director. Each managing officer shall be of good moral 79784
character and have skill, ability, and experience in histhe 79785
managing officer's profession. Appointment to this position may be 79786
made from persons holding positions in the classified service in 79787
the department.79788

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 79789
executive chargeserve as the appointing authority of the 79790
institution forto which such managing officer is appointed. 79791
Subject to civil service rules, the managing officer shall have 79792
the power to appoint the necessaryand remove employees and he or 79793
the director may remove such employees for causeof the 79794
institution. On behalf of the institution, the managing officer 79795
has the authority and responsibility for entering into contracts 79796
and other agreements for the efficient operations of the 79797
institution.79798

       Sec. 5119.44.        Sec. 5119.051.  The department of mental health79799
mental health and addiction services shall keep in its office a 79800
proper and complete set of books and accounts with each 79801
institution, which shall clearly show the nature and amount of 79802
every expenditure authorized and made at such institution, and 79803
which shall contain an account of all appropriations made by the 79804
general assembly and of all other funds, together with the 79805
disposition of such funds.79806

       The department shall prescribe the form of vouchers, records, 79807
and methods of keeping accounts at each of the institutions, which 79808
shall be as nearly uniform as possible. The department may examine 79809
the records of each institution at any time.79810

       The department may authorize any of its bookeepers79811
bookkeepers, accountants, or employees to examine and check the 79812
records, accounts, and vouchers or take an inventory of the 79813
property of any institution, or do whatever is necessary, and pay 79814
the actual and reasonable expenses incurred in such service when 79815
an itemized account is filed and approved.79816

       Sec. 5119.43.        Sec. 5119.06.  The department of mental healthmental 79817
health and addiction services shall keep in its office, accessible 79818
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 79819
the order of the judge of a court of record, a record showing the 79820
name, residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and 79821
date of entrance or commitment of every patient in the 79822
institutions governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of 79823
discharge and the condition of such person at the time of leaving, 79824
and also a record of all transfers from one institution to 79825
another, and, if such person dies while in the care or custody of 79826
the department, the date and cause of death. These and such other 79827
facts as the department requires shall be furnished by the 79828
managing officer of each institution within twenty-four hours 79829
after the commitment, entrance, death, or discharge of a patient.79830

       In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a 79831
patient the managing officer shall make a special report to the 79832
department within twenty-four hours thereafter, giving the 79833
circumstances as fully as possible.79834

       Sec. 5119.42.        Sec. 5119.07.  A person, firm, or corporation may 79835
file a petition in the court of common pleas of the county in 79836
which a benevolent institution of the department of mental health 79837
and addiction services is located, in which petition the desire to 79838
erect or carry on at a less distance than that prescribed in 79839
section 3767.19 of the Revised Code shall be set forth, the 79840
business prohibited, the precise point of its establishment, and 79841
the reasons and circumstances, in its opinion, why the erection or 79842
carrying on thereofof the business would not annoy or endanger 79843
the health, convenience, or recovery of the patients of such 79844
institution. The petitioner shall give notice in a newspaper of 79845
general circulation in the county of the pendency and prayer of 79846
the petition for at least six consecutive weeks before the day set 79847
for hearing the petition and serve a written notice upon the 79848
superintendentmanaging officer of the institution at least thirty 79849
days before the day set for hearing the petition.79850

       If, upon the hearing of the petition, it appears that the 79851
notice has been given as required and the court is of the opinion 79852
that no good reason exists why such establishment may not be 79853
erected or such business carried on and that by the erection or 79854
carrying on thereofof the business at the point named, the 79855
institution will sustain no detriment, the court may issue an 79856
order granting the prayer of the petitioner. Thereafter the 79857
petitioner may locate such establishment or carry on such business 79858
at the point named in the petition.79859

       Sec. 5119.14.        Sec. 5119.08.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" 79860
has the same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.79861

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C) of this section, upon the 79862
recommendation of the director of mental healthmental health and 79863
addiction services, the managing officer of an institution under 79864
the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health 79865
and addiction services may designate one or more employees to be 79866
special police officers of the department. The special police 79867
officers shall take an oath of office, wear the badge of office, 79868
and give bond for the proper and faithful discharge of their 79869
duties in an amount that the director requires.79870

       (2) In accordance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code, 79871
the special police officers shall be required to complete 79872
successfully a peace officer basic training program approved by 79873
the Ohio peace officer training commission and to be certified by 79874
the commission. The cost of the training shall be paid by the 79875
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services.79876

       (3) Special police officers, on the premises of institutions 79877
under the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental 79878
health and addiction services and subject to the rules of the 79879
department, shall protect the property of the institutions and the 79880
persons and property of patients in the institutions, suppress 79881
riots, disturbances, and breaches of the peace, and enforce the 79882
laws of the state and the rules of the department for the 79883
preservation of good order. They may arrest any person without a 79884
warrant and detain the person until a warrant can be obtained 79885
under the circumstances described in division (F) of section 79886
2935.03 of the Revised Code.79887

       (C)(1) The managing officer of an institution under the 79888
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 79889
addiction services shall not designate an employee as a special 79890
police officer of the department pursuant to division (B)(1) of 79891
this section on a permanent basis, on a temporary basis, for a 79892
probationary term, or on other than a permanent basis if the 79893
employee previously has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to 79894
a felony.79895

       (2)(a) The managing officer of an institution under the 79896
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 79897
addiction services shall terminate the employment as a special 79898
police officer of the department of an employee designated as a 79899
special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 79900
that employee does either of the following:79901

       (i) Pleads guilty to a felony;79902

       (ii) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor pursuant to a negotiated 79903
plea agreement as provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of 79904
the Revised Code in which the employee agrees to surrender the 79905
certificate awarded to that employee under section 109.77 of the 79906
Revised Code.79907

       (b) The managing officer shall suspend from employment as a 79908
special police officer of the department an employee designated as 79909
a special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 79910
that employee is convicted, after trial, of a felony. If the 79911
special police officer files an appeal from that conviction and 79912
the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal 79913
is taken or if the special police officer does not file a timely 79914
appeal, the managing officer shall terminate the employment of 79915
that special police officer. If the special police officer files 79916
an appeal that results in that special police officer's acquittal 79917
of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal 79918
of the felony charge against that special police officer, the 79919
managing officer shall reinstate that special police officer. A 79920
special police officer of the department who is reinstated under 79921
division (C)(2)(b) of this section shall not receive any back pay 79922
unless that special police officer's conviction of the felony was 79923
reversed on appeal, or the felony charge was dismissed, because 79924
the court found insufficient evidence to convict the special 79925
police officer of the felony.79926

       (3) Division (C) of this section does not apply regarding an 79927
offense that was committed prior to January 1, 1997.79928

       (4) The suspension from employment, or the termination of the 79929
employment, of a special police officer under division (C)(2) of 79930
this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 79931
Revised Codeapplicable collective bargaining agreements.79932

       Sec. 5119.30.        Sec. 5119.09.  The attorney general shall attend to 79933
all suitsclaims instituted on behalf of or against the department 79934
of mental health and addiction services or any institution under 79935
the jurisdiction of the department of mental health and the 79936
managing officer thereof, except such institutions as are 79937
privately owned or operated under a license from the department of 79938
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and shall 79939
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 79940
of the Revised Code. The department of mental healthmental health 79941
and addiction services shall reimburse the attorney general for 79942
the compensation of assistant attorneys general required to 79943
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 79944
of the Revised code and shall also pay the costs of litigation 79945
incurred by the attorney general under that section.79946

       If a writ of habeas corpus is applied for, the clerk of the 79947
court shall give notice of the time and place of hearing to the 79948
attorney general.79949

       Sec. 5119.01.        Sec. 5119.10. (A) The director of mental health79950
mental health and addiction services is the chief executive and 79951
administrative officerappointing authority of the department of 79952
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The director 79953
may organize the department for its efficient operation, including 79954
creating divisions or offices as necessary. The director may 79955
establish procedures for the governance of the department, conduct 79956
of its employees and officers, performance of its business, and 79957
custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, 79958
books, documents, and property. Whenever the Revised Code imposes 79959
a duty upon or requires an action of the department or any of its 79960
institutions, the director or the director's designee shall 79961
perform the action or duty in the name of the department, except 79962
that the medical director appointed pursuant to section 5119.0779963
5119.11 of the Revised Code shall be responsible for decisions 79964
relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, quality 79965
assurance, and the clinical aspects of the following: licensure of 79966
hospitals and residential facilities, research, community 79967
addiction and mental health services plans, and certification and79968
delivery of mental health and addiction services.79969

       (B) The director shall:79970

       (A)(1) Adopt rules for the proper execution of the powers and 79971
duties of the department with respect to the institutions under 79972
its control, and require the performance of additional duties by 79973
the officers of the institutions as necessary to fully meet the 79974
requirements, intents, and purposes of this chapter. In case of an 79975
apparent conflict between the powers conferred upon any managing 79976
officer and those conferred by such sections upon the department, 79977
the presumption shall be conclusive in favor of the department.79978

       (B)(2) Adopt rules for the nonpartisan management of the 79979
institutions under the department's control. An officer or 79980
employee of the department or any officer or employee of any 79981
institution under its control who, by solicitation or otherwise, 79982
exerts influence directly or indirectly to induce any other 79983
officer or employee of the department or any of its institutions 79984
to adopt the exerting officer's or employee's political views or 79985
to favor any particular person, issue, or candidate for office 79986
shall be removed from the exerting officer's or employee's office 79987
or position, by the department in case of an officer or employee, 79988
and by the governor in case of the director.79989

       (C)(3) Appoint such employees, including the medical 79990
director, as are necessary for the efficient conduct of the 79991
department, and prescribe their titles and duties;79992

       (D)(4) Prescribe the forms of affidavits, applications, 79993
medical certificates, orders of hospitalization and release, and 79994
all other forms, reports, and records that are required in the 79995
hospitalization or admission and release of all persons to the 79996
institutions under the control of the department, or are otherwise 79997
required under this chapter or Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code;79998

       (E) Contract with hospitals licensed by the department under 79999
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code for the care and treatment of 80000
mentally ill patients, or with persons, organizations, or agencies 80001
for the custody, evaluation, supervision, care, or treatment of 80002
mentally ill persons receiving services elsewhere than within the 80003
enclosure of a hospital operated under section 5119.02 of the 80004
Revised Code;80005

       (F)(5) Exercise the powers and perform the duties relating to 80006
community addiction and mental health facilities and services that 80007
are assigned to the director under this chapter and Chapter 340. 80008
of the Revised Code;80009

       (G)(6) Develop and implement clinical evaluation and 80010
monitoring of services that are operated by the department;80011

       (H)(7) Adopt rules establishing standards for the performance 80012
of evaluations by a forensic center or other psychiatric program 80013
or facility of the mental condition of defendants ordered by the 80014
court under section 2919.271, or 2945.371 of the Revised Code, and 80015
for the treatment of defendants who have been found incompetent to 80016
stand trial and ordered by the court under section 2945.38, 80017
2945.39, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to receive 80018
treatment in facilities;80019

       (I)(8) On behalf of the department, have the authority and 80020
responsibility for entering into contracts and other agreements;80021
with providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities, both 80022
public and private, as necessary for the department to carry out 80023
its duties under this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 80024
5122. of the Revised Code. Chapter 125. of the Revised Code does 80025
not apply to contracts the director enters into under this section 80026
for services provided to individuals with mental illness by 80027
providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities not owned or 80028
operated by the department.80029

       (J) Prepare and publish regularly a state mental health plan 80030
that describes the department's philosophy, current activities, 80031
and long-term and short-term goals and activities;80032

       (K)(9) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 80033
Revised Code specifying the supplemental services that may be 80034
provided through a trust authorized by section 5815.28 of the 80035
Revised Code;80036

       (L)(10) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 80037
Revised Code establishing standards for the maintenance and 80038
distribution to a beneficiary of assets of a trust authorized by 80039
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.80040

       (C) The director may contract with hospitals licensed by the 80041
department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code for the care 80042
and treatment of mentally ill patients, or with persons, 80043
organizations, or agencies for the custody, evaluation, 80044
supervision, care, or treatment of mentally ill persons receiving 80045
services elsewhere than within the enclosure of a hospital 80046
operated under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code.80047

       Sec. 5119.07.        Sec. 5119.11. (A) The director of mental health80048
mental health and addiction services shall appoint a medical 80049
director who is a psychiatrist as defined in division (E) of 80050
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, is eligible or certified by 80051
the American board of psychiatry and neurology or the American 80052
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, and has at least 80053
five years of clinical and two years of administrative experience. 80054
The medical director shall also have certification or substantial 80055
training and experience in the field of addiction medicine or 80056
addiction psychiatry. The medical director shall be responsible 80057
for decisions relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, 80058
prevention, rehabilitation, quality assurance, and the clinical 80059
aspects of mental health and addiction services involving all of80060
the following: licensure80061

       (1) Licensure of hospitals and, residential facilities, 80062
research, community mental healthand outpatient facilities;80063

       (2) Research;80064

       (3) Community addiction and mental health services plans,;80065

       (4) Certification and delivery of mental health and addiction80066
services. The80067

       (B) The medical director shall also exercise clinical 80068
supervision of the chief clinical officers of hospitals and 80069
institutions under the jurisdiction of the department and shall 80070
review and approve decisions relating to the employment of the 80071
chief clinical officers. The medical director or histhe medical 80072
director's designee shall advise the director on matters relating 80073
to licensure, research, community mental health plans, and the 80074
certification and delivery of mental health and addiction services 80075
and community plans. The medical director shall participate in the 80076
development of guidelines for community addiction and mental 80077
health services plans. The director of mental healthmental 80078
health and addiction services may establish other duties of the 80079
medical director. The medical director shall participate in the 80080
development of guidelines for community mental health plans.80081

       Sec. 5119.02.        Sec. 5119.14.  (A) The department of mental health80082
mental health and addiction services shall maintain, operate, 80083
manage, and govern state institutions and other services for the 80084
care and treatment of mentally ill persons.80085

       (B)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 80086
addiction services may, with the approval of the governor,80087
designate allthe name and purpose of any institutions under its 80088
jurisdiction by appropriate respective names, regardless of 80089
present statutory designationand may change, with the approval of 80090
the governor, the designation and name when necessary.80091

       (C)(2) The department shall divide the state into districts 80092
for the purpose of designating the institution in which mentally 80093
ill persons are hospitalized and may change the districts.80094

       (3) Subject to section 5139.08 and pursuant to Chapter 5122. 80095
of the Revised Code and on the agreement of the departments of 80096
mental healthmental health and addiction services and youth 80097
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 80098
addiction services may receive from the department of youth 80099
services for psychiatric observation, diagnosis, or treatment any 80100
person eighteen years of age or older in the custody of the 80101
department of youth services. The departments shallmay enter into 80102
a written agreement specifying the procedures necessary to 80103
implement this division.80104

       (D)(C) The department of mental healthmental health and 80105
addiction services shall designate hospitals, facilities, and 80106
community mental health agenciesservices providers for the 80107
custody, care, and special treatment of, and authorize payment for 80108
such custody, care, and special treatment provided to, persons who 80109
are charged with a crime and who are found incompetent to stand 80110
trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.80111

       (E)(D) The department of mental healthmental health and 80112
addiction services may do allany of the following:80113

       (1) Require reports from the managing officer of any 80114
institution under the department's jurisdiction, relating to the 80115
admission, examination, comprehensive evaluation, diagnosis, 80116
release, or discharge of any patient;80117

       (2) Visit each institution regularly to review its operations 80118
and to investigate complaints made by any patient or by any person 80119
on behalf of a patient, provided these duties may be performed by 80120
a person designated by the director.80121

       (F) The department of mental health shall divide the state 80122
into districts for the purpose of designating the institution in 80123
which mentally ill persons are hospitalized, and may change the 80124
districts.80125

       (G)(E) The department of mental health and addiction services 80126
may provide or contract to provide addiction services for 80127
offenders incarcerated in the state prison system. 80128

       (F) In addition to the powers expressly conferred, the 80129
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services80130
shall have all powers and authority necessary for the full and 80131
efficient exercise of the executive, administrative, and fiscal 80132
supervision over the state institutions described in this section.80133

       (H) The department of mental health may provide for the 80134
custody, supervision, control, treatment, and training of mentally 80135
ill persons hospitalized elsewhere than within the enclosure of a 80136
hospital, if the department so determines with respect to any 80137
individual or group of individuals. In all such cases, the 80138
department shall ensure adequate and proper supervision for the 80139
protection of such persons and of the public.80140

       Sec. 5119.012.        Sec. 5119.141.  The department of mental health80141
mental health and addiction services has all the authority 80142
necessary to carry out its powers and duties under this chapter 80143
and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the Revised Code, 80144
including the authority to adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 80145
the Revised Code that may be necessary to carry out the purposes 80146
of this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the 80147
Revised Code.80148

       Sec. 5119.24.        Sec. 5119.15.  The department of mental healthmental 80149
health and addiction services may make such investigations as are 80150
necessary in the performance of its duties and to that end the 80151
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services80152
shall have the same power as a judge of a county court to 80153
administer oaths and to enforce the attendance and testimony of 80154
witnesses and the production of books or papers.80155

       The department shall keep a record of such investigations 80156
stating the time, place, charges or subject, witnesses summoned 80157
and examined, and its conclusions.80158

       In matters involving the conduct of an officer, a 80159
stenographic report of the evidence shall be taken and a copy of 80160
such report, with all documents introduced, kept on file at the 80161
office of the department.80162

       The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the 80163
same as in the court of common pleas, but no officer or employee 80164
of the institution under investigation is entitled to such fees.80165

       Any judge of the probate court or of the court of common 80166
pleas, upon application of the department, may compel the 80167
attendance of witnesses, the production of books or papers, and 80168
the giving of testimony before the department, by a judgment for 80169
contempt or otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before such 80170
courts.80171

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 80172
services may appoint and commission any competent agency or 80173
person, to serve without compensation, as a special agent, 80174
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 80175
the department. Specific credentials shall be given by the 80176
department to each person so designated. Each credential shall 80177
state the:80178

       (A) Name of the agent, investigator, or representative;80179

       (B) Agency with which such person is connected;80180

       (C) Purpose of appointment;80181

       (D) Date of expiration of appointment;80182

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.80183

       Sec. 3793.051.        Sec. 5119.161.  The department of alcohol and drug 80184
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 80185
conjunction with the department of job and family services, shall 80186
develop a joint state plan to improve the accessibility and 80187
timeliness of alcohol and drug addiction services for individuals 80188
identified by a public children services agency as in need of 80189
those services. The plan shall address the fact that Ohio works 80190
first participants may be among the persons receiving services 80191
under section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall require the 80192
department of job and family services to seek federal funds 80193
available under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 80194
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for the provision of the 80195
services to Ohio works first participants who are receiving 80196
services under section 340.15 of the Revised Code.80197

       The plan shall address the need and manner for sharing 80198
information and include a request for the general assembly to 80199
appropriate an amount of funds specified in the report to be used 80200
by the departments to pay for services under section 340.15 of the 80201
Revised Code. The departments shall review and amend the plan as 80202
necessary.80203

       Not later than the first day of July of each even-numbered 80204
year, the departments shall submit a report on the progress made 80205
under the joint state plan to the governor, president of the 80206
senate, and speaker of the house of representatives. The report 80207
shall include information on treatment capacity, needs 80208
assessments, and number of individuals who received services 80209
pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code.80210

       Sec. 3793.15.        Sec. 5119.17.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 80211
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 80212
accordance with division (B) of this section, shall give priority 80213
to developing, and promptly shall develop, with available public 80214
and private resources a program that does all of the following:80215

       (1) Provides a manner of identifying the aggregate number of 80216
pregnant women in this state who are addicted to a drug of abuse;80217

       (2) Provides for an effective means of intervention to 80218
eliminate the addiction of pregnant women to drugs of abuse prior 80219
to the birth of their children;80220

       (3) Provides for the continued monitoring of women who were 80221
addicted to a drug of abuse during their pregnancies, after the 80222
birth of their children, and for the availability of treatment and 80223
rehabilitation for those women;80224

       (4) Provides a manner of determining the aggregate number of 80225
children who are born in this state to women who are addicted, at 80226
the time of birth, to a drug of abuse, and of children who are 80227
born in this state with an addiction to or a dependency on a drug 80228
of abuse;80229

       (5) Provides for the continued monitoring of children who are 80230
born in this state to women who are addicted, at the time of 80231
birth, to a drug of abuse, or who are born in this state with an 80232
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse, after their birth;80233

       (6) Provides for the treatment and rehabilitation of any 80234
child who is born to a woman who is addicted, at the time of 80235
birth, to a drug of abuse, and of any child who is born with an 80236
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse.80237

       (B) In developing the program described in division (A) of 80238
this section, the department may obtain information from the 80239
department of health and the department of job and family 80240
services, and those departments shall cooperate with the 80241
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 80242
and addiction services in its development and implementation of 80243
the program.80244

       (C) Immediately upon its development of the program described 80245
in division (A) of this section, the department shall implement 80246
the program.80247

       (D) Any record or information that is obtained or maintained 80248
by the department in connection with the program described in 80249
division (A) of this section and could enable the identification 80250
of any woman or child described in division (A)(1) or (4) of this 80251
section is not a public record subject to inspection or copying 80252
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.80253

       Sec. 5119.071.        Sec. 5119.18.  An appointing authority may appoint a 80254
person who holds a certified or permanent position in the 80255
classified service within the department of mental healthmental 80256
health and addiction services to a position in the unclassified 80257
service within the department. A person appointed pursuant to this 80258
section to a position in the unclassified service shall retain the 80259
right to resume the position and status held by the person in the 80260
classified service immediately prior to the person's appointment 80261
to the position in the unclassified service, regardless of the 80262
number of positions the person held in the unclassified service. 80263
An employee's right to resume a position in the classified service 80264
may only be exercised when an appointing authority demotes the 80265
employee to a pay range lower than the employee's current pay 80266
range or revokes the employee's appointment to the unclassified 80267
service. An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 80268
the classified service when the employee is removed from the 80269
position in the unclassified service due to incompetence, 80270
inefficiency, dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, 80271
insubordination, discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of 80272
duty, violation of this chapter or Chapter 124. of the Revised 80273
Code, violation of the rules of the director of administrative 80274
services or the director of mental health, any other failure of 80275
good behavior, any other acts of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 80276
nonfeasance in office, or conviction of a felony. An employee also 80277
forfeits the right to resume a position in the classified service 80278
upon transfer to a different agency.80279

       Reinstatement to a position in the classified service shall 80280
be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 80281
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 80282
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 80283
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 80284
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 80285
to a position in the classified service within the department that 80286
the director of administrative services certifies is comparable in 80287
compensation to the position the person previously held in the 80288
classified service. Service in the position in the unclassified 80289
service shall be counted as service in the position in the 80290
classified service held by the person immediately prior to the 80291
person's appointment to the position in the unclassified service. 80292
When a person is reinstated to a position in the classified 80293
service as provided in this section, the person is entitled to all 80294
rights, status, and benefits accruing to the position in the 80295
classified service during the person's time of service in the 80296
position in the unclassified servicepursuant to division (D) of 80297
section 124.11 of the Revised Code.80298

       Sec. 5119.072.        Sec. 5119.181.  (A) No appointing officer shall 80299
appoint a person to fill a position in either the classified or 80300
unclassified service of the department of mental healthmental 80301
health and addiction services if the person has been convicted of 80302
or pleaded guilty to a violation of the following:80303

       (1) Any felony contained in the Revised Code, if the felony 80304
bears a direct and substantial relationship to the position being 80305
filled;80306

       (2) Any crime contained in the Revised Code constituting a 80307
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 80308
on subsequent offenses, if the crime bears a direct and 80309
substantial relationship to the position being filled;80310

       (3) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 80311
or the United States, if the law violated is substantially 80312
equivalent to any of the offenses described in division (A)(1) or 80313
(2) of this section.80314

       (B) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80315
services shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 80316
Revised Code, to implement this section.80317

       (C) The director or an appointing officer shall request the 80318
bureau of criminal identification and investigation created by 80319
section 109.51 of the Revised Code or, at histhe director's or 80320
appointing officer's discretion, any other state or federal 80321
agency, to supply himthe director or appointing officer with a 80322
written report regarding the criminal records of any applicant. 80323
For each investigation undertaken at the department's request 80324
under this section, the department shall pay a reasonable fee to 80325
the bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 80326
investigation. The amount of the fee shall be determined by the 80327
bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 80328
investigation and shall be sufficient to cover the costs of 80329
conducting the investigation. The report made by the bureau or 80330
other state or federal agency is not a public record for purposes 80331
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made 80332
available to any person, except the applicant, the director, the 80333
appointing officer or his designeethe appointing officer's 80334
designees, or any hearing officer involved in a case denying 80335
employment.80336

       (D) As used in this section, "applicant" means a person who 80337
is under final consideration for appointment to a position in the 80338
classified or unclassified service of the department of mental 80339
healthmental health and addiction services.80340

       Sec. 5119.08.        Sec. 5119.182.  The department of mental health shall80341
mental health and addiction services may require any of its 80342
employees and each officer and employee of every institution under 80343
its control who may be charged with custody or control of any 80344
money or property belonging to the state or who is required to 80345
give bond, to give a surety company bond, properly conditioned, in 80346
a sum to be fixed by the department which when approved by the 80347
department, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of 80348
state. The cost of such bonds, when approved by the department, 80349
shall be paid from funds available for the department. The bonds 80350
required or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of 80351
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80352
services, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.80353

       Sec. 5119.10.        Sec. 5119.184.  The department of mental health80354
mental health and addiction services may provide educational 80355
grants or tuition reimbursements to upgrade the education, 80356
training, and professional achievement of its employees, whenever 80357
it determines that provision of such grants or reimbursements is 80358
essential to the achievement of its goals. The department may 80359
enter into agreements with its employees for the purposes of this 80360
section. The agreements may require, as a condition of each grant 80361
or reimbursement, that the employee continue employment with the 80362
department or with another federal, state, or local public agency 80363
designated by the department for a period of time stated in the 80364
agreement. If an employee does not fulfill the employment 80365
requirement stated in the agreement, the department may take 80366
action to recover the amount of all educational grants or tuition 80367
reimbursements paid to the employee under this section, plus 80368
interest at the rate of ten per cent per year calculated from the 80369
date of payment of each grant or reimbursement.80370

       Sec. 5119.101.        Sec. 5119.185.  (A) As used in this section, 80371
"physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of 80372
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 80373
medicine and surgery.80374

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 80375
addiction services may establish a physician recruitment program 80376
under which the department agrees to repay all or part of the 80377
principal and interest of a government or other educational loan 80378
incurred by a physician who agrees to provide services to 80379
inpatients and outpatients of institutions under the department's 80380
administration. To be eligible to participate in the program, a 80381
physician must have attended a school that was, at the time of 80382
attendance, a medical school or osteopathic medical school in this 80383
country accredited by the liason committee on medical education or 80384
the American osteopathic association, or a medical school or 80385
osteopathic medical school located outside this country that was 80386
acknowledged by the world health organization and verified by a 80387
member state of that organization as operating within that state's 80388
jurisdiction.80389

       (C) The department shall enter into a contract with each 80390
physician it recruits under this section. Each contract shall 80391
include at least the following terms:80392

       (1) The physician agrees to provide a specified scope of 80393
medical or osteopathic medical services for a specified number of 80394
hours per week and a specified number of years to patients of one 80395
or more specified institutions administered by the department.80396

       (2) The department agrees to repay all or a specified portion 80397
of the principal and interest of a government or other educational 80398
loan taken by the physician for the following expenses if the 80399
physician meets the service obligation agreed to and the expenses 80400
were incurred while the physician was enrolled in, for up to a 80401
maximum of four years, a school that qualifies the physician to 80402
participate in the program:80403

       (a) Tuition;80404

       (b) Other educational expenses for specific purposes, 80405
including fees, books, and laboratory expenses, in amounts 80406
determined to be reasonable in accordance with rules adopted under 80407
division (D) of this section;80408

       (c) Room and board, in an amount determined to be reasonable 80409
in accordance with rules adopted under division (D) of this 80410
section.80411

       (3) The physician agrees to pay the department a specified 80412
amount, which shall be not less than the amount already paid by 80413
the department pursuant to its agreement, as damages if hethe 80414
physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to or 80415
fails to comply with other specified terms of the contract. The 80416
contract may vary the amount of damages based on the portion of 80417
the physician's service obligation that remains uncompleted as 80418
determined by the department.80419

       (4) Other terms agreed upon by the parties.80420

       (D) If the department elects to implement the physician 80421
recruitment program, it shall adopt rules in accordance with 80422
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 80423
following:80424

       (1) Criteria for designating institutions for which 80425
physicians will be recruited;80426

       (2) Criteria for selecting physicians for participation in 80427
the program;80428

       (3) Criteria for determining the portion of a physician's 80429
loan that the department will agree to repay;80430

       (4) Criteria for determining reasonable amounts of the 80431
expenses described in divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section;80432

       (5) Procedures for monitoring compliance by physicians with 80433
the terms of their contracts;80434

       (6) Any other criteria or procedures necessary to implement 80435
the program.80436

       Sec. 5119.11.        Sec. 5119.186.  (A) The director of mental health80437
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of an 80438
institution of the department may enter into an agreement with 80439
boards of trustees or boards of directors of one or more 80440
institutions of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to 80441
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code to establish, manage, 80442
and conduct collaborative training efforts for students enrolled 80443
in courses of studies for occupations or professions which may be 80444
determined by the director upon the approval of the medical 80445
director to be in occupations or professions needed to provide 80446
adequatethat involve the care and treatment for persons receiving 80447
mental health or addiction services.80448

       (B) Such collaborative training efforts may include but are 80449
not limited to programs in psychiatry, psychology, nursing, social 80450
work, counseling professions, and others considered appropriate by 80451
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80452
services. Any such program shall be approved or accredited by its 80453
respective professional organization or state board having 80454
jurisdiction over the profession.80455

       (1) The department shall require that the following be 80456
provided for in agreements between the department and institutions 80457
of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 80458
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code:80459

       (a) Establishment of inter-disciplinary committees to advise 80460
persons responsible for training programs. Each committee shall 80461
have representation drawn from the geographical community the 80462
institution of higher education or hospital serves and shall 80463
include representatives of agencies, boards, targeted populations 80464
as determined by the department, racial and ethnic minority 80465
groups, and publicly funded programs;80466

       (b) Funding procedures;80467

       (c) Specific outcomes and accomplishments that are expected 80468
or required of a program under such agreement;80469

       (d) The types of services to be provided under such 80470
agreement.80471

       (2) The department may require that the following be provided 80472
for in agreements between the department and institutions of 80473
higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 5119.2080474
5119.33 of the Revised Code:80475

       (a) Special arrangements for individual residents or trainees 80476
to encourage their employment in publicly funded settings upon 80477
completion of their training;80478

       (b) Procedures for the selection of residents or trainees to 80479
promote the admission, retention, and graduation of women, 80480
minorities, and handicappeddisabled persons;80481

       (c) Cross-cultural training and other subjects considered 80482
necessary to enhance training efforts and the care and treatment 80483
of patients and clients;80484

       (d) Funding of faculty positions oriented toward meeting the 80485
needs of publicly funded programs.80486

       Subject to appropriations by the general assembly, the 80487
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services has 80488
final approval of the funding of these collaborative training 80489
efforts.80490

       Sec. 5119.12.        Sec. 5119.187.  The courses of study for the 80491
instruction and training of all persons in institutions under the 80492
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 80493
addiction services shall be subject to the approval of the 80494
superintendent of public instruction.80495

       All teachers employed in institutions under the control of 80496
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 80497
services shall possess such educator licenses or have such 80498
qualifications and approval as the superintendent of public 80499
instruction, after consulting with the officers in charge of the 80500
institutions, prescribes for the various types of service in the 80501
institutions.80502

       Sec. 3793.16.        Sec. 5119.188.  (A) As used in this section, "state 80503
correctional institution" has the same meaning as in section 80504
2967.01 of the Revised Code.80505

       (B) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services80506
mental health and addiction services shall develop a program that 80507
is designed to educate and train the employees of each state 80508
correctional institution, the employees of each department of 80509
youth services institution, and other persons associated by 80510
contract or otherwise with each state correctional institution or 80511
each department of youth services institution, who will be 80512
responsible for the conduct of, or otherwise providing treatment 80513
or rehabilitation services pursuant to, a substance abuse 80514
treatment or rehabilitation program offered in the institution to 80515
adult prisoners or juvenile offenders. Upon the development of the 80516
educational and training program, the department of alcohol and 80517
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services80518
promptly shall commence its implementation. The department of80519
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 80520
services may charge to the department of rehabilitation and 80521
correction and to the department of youth services a reasonable 80522
annual fee that reflects the expenses incurred by it during the 80523
immediately preceding calendar year in preparing and offering the 80524
educational and training program during that year to the 80525
respective employees and other associated persons described in 80526
this division.80527

       The director of rehabilitation and correction and the 80528
director of youth services shall require the respective employees 80529
and other associated persons described in this division to attend 80530
and successfully complete the educational and training program 80531
developed pursuant to this division as a condition of their 80532
continuing to have responsibility for the conduct of, or their 80533
continuing to provide treatment or rehabilitation services 80534
pursuant to, any treatment or rehabilitation program that is 80535
offered in a state correctional institution or in a department of 80536
youth services institution to adult prisoners or juvenile 80537
offenders. If the department of alcohol and drug addiction 80538
servicesmental health and addiction services charges a reasonable 80539
annual fee as described in this division, the director involved 80540
shall cause that fee to be paid from any available funds of the 80541
department of rehabilitation and correction or any available funds 80542
of the department of youth services.80543

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 80544
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 80545
and addiction services jointly shall develop program 80546
specifications for the alcohol and drug addiction treatment 80547
programs offered in state correctional institutions.80548

       Sec. 3793.031.        Sec. 5119.201. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 80549
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services may 80550
acquire by purchase, lease, or otherwise such real and personal 80551
property rights in the name of the state as are necessary for the 80552
purposes of the department. The80553

       (B) When it is necessary for a state institution under the 80554
jurisdiction of the department to acquire any real estate, 80555
right-of-way, or easement in real estate in order to accomplish 80556
the purposes for which it was organized or is being conducted, and 80557
the department is unable to agree with the owner of such property 80558
upon the price to be paid for the property, such property may be 80559
appropriated in the manner provided for the appropriation of 80560
property for other state purposes.80561

       (C) The director, with the approval of the governor and the 80562
attorney general, may work with the department of administrative 80563
services to sell, lease, or exchange portions of real and personal 80564
property of the department when the sale, lease, or exchange is 80565
advantageous to the state. Money received from such sales, leases, 80566
or exchanges shall be credited to the general revenuethe 80567
department of mental health and addiction services trust fund, 80568
created in section 5119.46 of the Revised Code.80569

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 80570
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 80571
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 80572
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.80573

       Sec. 5119.06.        Sec. 5119.21. (A) The department of mental health80574
mental health and addiction services shall:80575

       (A)(1) To the extent the department has available resources 80576
and in consultation with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80577
mental health services, support a community support system80578
continuum of care in accordance with section 340.03Chapter 340.80579
of the Revised Code on a district or multi-district basis. The 80580
department shall define the essential elements of a community 80581
support systemcontinuum of care, shall assist in identifying 80582
resources, and may prioritize support for one or more of the 80583
elements.80584

       (B) Operate inpatient and other mental health services;80585

       (C)(2) Provide training, consultation, and technical 80586
assistance regarding mental health programs and addiction services 80587
and appropriate prevention, recovery, and mental health promotion 80588
activities, including those that are culturally sensitive80589
competent, to employees of the department, community mental health 80590
agencies and addiction services providers, boards of alcohol, drug 80591
addiction, and mental health services, and other agencies 80592
providing mental health and addiction services;80593

       (D)(3) To the extent the department has available resources, 80594
promote and support a full range of mental health and addiction80595
services that are available and accessible to all residents of 80596
this state, especially for severely mentally disabled children, 80597
adolescents, and adults, pregnant women, parents, guardians or 80598
custodians of children at risk of abuse or neglect, and other 80599
special target populations, including racial and ethnic 80600
minorities, as determined by the department;80601

       (E)(4) Develop standards and measures for evaluating the 80602
effectiveness of mental health and addiction services, including 80603
services that use methadone treatment, of gambling addiction 80604
services, and for increasing the accountability of mental health 80605
and alcohol and addiction services providers and of gambling 80606
addiction services providers;80607

       (5) Design and set criteria for the determination of severe 80608
mental disabilitypriority populations;80609

       (F) Establish standards for evaluation of mental health 80610
programs;80611

       (G)(6) Promote, direct, conduct, and coordinate scientific 80612
research, taking ethnic and racial differences into consideration, 80613
concerning the causes and prevention of mental illness and 80614
addiction, methods of providing effective services and treatment, 80615
and means of enhancing the mental health of and recovery from 80616
addiction of all residents of this state;80617

       (H)(7) Foster the establishment and availability of 80618
vocational rehabilitation services and the creation of employment 80619
opportunities for consumers of mental health and addiction80620
services, including members of racial and ethnic minorities;80621

       (I)(8) Establish a program to protect and promote the rights 80622
of persons receiving mental health and addiction services, 80623
including the issuance of guidelines on informed consent and other 80624
rights;80625

       (J) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 80626
addiction, and mental health services representatives and after 80627
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 80628
guidelines for the development of community mental health plans 80629
and the review and approval or disapproval of such plans submitted 80630
pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code;80631

       (K)(9) Promote the involvement of persons who are receiving 80632
or have received mental health or addiction services, including 80633
families and other persons having a close relationship to a person 80634
receiving mental healththose services, in the planning, 80635
evaluation, delivery, and operation of mental health and addiction80636
services;80637

       (L)(10) Notify and consult with the relevant constituencies 80638
that may be affected by rules, standards, and guidelines issued by 80639
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 80640
services. These constituencies shall include consumers of mental 80641
health and addiction services and their families, and may include 80642
public and private providers, employee organizations, and others 80643
when appropriate. Whenever the department proposes the adoption, 80644
amendment, or rescission of rules under Chapter 119. of the 80645
Revised Code, the notification and consultation required by this 80646
division shall occur prior to the commencement of proceedings 80647
under Chapter 119. The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 80648
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures for the 80649
notification and consultation required by this division.80650

       (M) In cooperation with board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80651
mental health services representatives, provide training regarding 80652
the provision of community-based mental health services to those 80653
department employees who are utilized in state-operated, 80654
community-based mental health services;80655

       (N)(11) Provide consultation to the department of 80656
rehabilitation and correction concerning the delivery of mental 80657
health and addiction services in state correctional institutions.80658

       (12) Promote and coordinate efforts in the provision of 80659
alcohol and drug addiction services and of gambling addiction 80660
services by other state agencies, as defined in section 1.60 of 80661
the Revised Code; courts; hospitals; clinics; physicians in 80662
private practice; public health authorities; boards of alcohol, 80663
drug addiction, and mental health services; alcohol and drug 80664
addiction services providers; law enforcement agencies; gambling 80665
addiction services providers; and related groups;80666

       (13) Provide to each court of record, and biennially update, 80667
a list of the treatment and education programs within that court's 80668
jurisdiction that the court may require an offender, sentenced 80669
pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, to attend;80670

       (14) Make the warning sign described in sections 3313.752, 80671
3345.41, and 3707.50 of the Revised Code available on the 80672
department's internet web site;80673

       (15) Provide a program of gambling addiction services on 80674
behalf of the state lottery commission, pursuant to an agreement 80675
entered into with the director of the commission under division 80676
(K) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code, and provide a program 80677
of gambling addiction services on behalf of the Ohio casino 80678
control commission, under an agreement entered into with the 80679
executive director of the commission under section 3772.062 of the 80680
Revised Code. Under Section 6(C)(3) of Article XV, Ohio 80681
Constitution, the department may enter into agreements with boards 80682
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including 80683
boards with districts in which a casino facility is not located, 80684
and nonprofit organizations to provide gambling addiction services 80685
and substance abuse services, and with state institutions of 80686
higher education or private nonprofit institutions that possess a 80687
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 80688
Revised Code to perform related research.80689

       (B) The department may accept and administer grants from 80690
public or private sources for carrying out any of the duties 80691
enumerated in this section.80692

       (C) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 80693
department shall adopt a rule defining the term "intervention" as 80694
it is used in this chapter in connection with alcohol and drug 80695
addiction services and in connection with gambling addiction 80696
services. The department may adopt other rules as necessary to 80697
implement the requirements of this chapter.80698

       Sec. 5119.61.        Sec. 5119.22. Any provision in this chapter that 80699
refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80700
services also refers to the community mental health board in an 80701
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district that 80702
has a community mental health board.80703

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80704
services with respect to all mental health and addiction80705
facilities and programsservices established and operated or 80706
provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code for mentally ill 80707
and emotionally disturbed persons, shall do all of the following:80708

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 80709
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapterthis 80710
chapter and Chapters 340. and sections 5119.61 to 5119.635122. of 80711
the Revised Code.80712

       (1) The rules shall include the following:80713

       (a) Rules governing a community mental health agency's 80714
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 80715
individual referred to the agency under division (D)(2) of section 80716
5119.69 of the Revised Code;80717

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 80718
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 80719
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80720
services regarding referrals of individuals with mental illness or 80721
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 80722
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and 80723
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 80724
individuals. .80725

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 80726
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 80727
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 80728
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 80729
entered into between the departments of job and family services 80730
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 80731
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. 80732

       (B) Review and evaluate, andthe continuum of care in each 80733
service district, taking into account the findings and 80734
recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80735
mental health services of the district served by the program80736
submitted under division (A)(4) of section 340.03 of the Revised 80737
Code and the requirements and priorities and plans of the state 80738
mental health plandepartment, including the needs of residents of 80739
the district now residing in state mental institutionscurrently 80740
receiving services in state-operated hospitals, and make 80741
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 80742
addiction, and mental health services;80743

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 80744
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 80745
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;80746

       (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 80747
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 80748
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 80749
5119.625119.23 of the Revised Code, for special programs or 80750
projects the director considers necessary but for which local 80751
funds are not available;80752

       (D) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 80753
addiction, and mental health service representatives and after 80754
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 80755
guidelines for the development of community mental health and 80756
addiction services plans and the review and approval or 80757
disapproval of such plans submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of 80758
the Revised Code.80759

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 80760
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 80761
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of its contracted services 80762
provided through its community mental health plan. The criteria 80763
shall include requirements ensuring appropriate service 80764
utilization. The department shall assess a board's evaluation of 80765
services and the compliance of each board with this section, 80766
Chapter 340. or section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other 80767
state or federal law and regulations. The department, in 80768
cooperation with the board, periodically shall review and evaluate 80769
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 80770
through each board. The department shall collect information that 80771
is necessary to perform these functions.80772

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 80773
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 80774
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 80775
operation of, a community mentalbehavioral health information 80776
system or systems. The department shall specify the information 80777
that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80778
mental health services for inclusion in the system or systems.80779

       Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 80780
shall submit information requested by the department in the form 80781
and manner and in accordance with time frames prescribed by the 80782
department. Information collected by the department shallmay80783
include, but not be limited to, all of the following:80784

       (1) Information regarding units ofon services provided in 80785
whole or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis 80786
and special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 80787
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 80788
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 80789
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;80790

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 80791
data regarding expenditures of federal, state, or local funds by80792
boards and community mental health agencies, including units of 80793
service provided, budgeted and actual expenses by type, and 80794
sources of funds;80795

       (3) Information about persons served under contract with a 80796
board.80797

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 80798
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 80799
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 80800
department shall not collect any personal information from the 80801
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 80802
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 80803
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 80804
administration, and oversight.80805

       (G)(1) Review each board's community mental health and 80806
addiction services plan, budget, and statement of services to be 80807
made available submitted pursuant to sectionsections 340.03 and 80808
340.08 of the Revised Code and approve or disapprove itthe plan, 80809
the budget, and the statement of services in whole or in part. 80810
Periodically, in consultation with representatives of boards and 80811
after considering the recommendations of the medical director, the 80812
director shall issue criteria for determining when a plan is 80813
complete, criteria for plan approval or disapproval, and 80814
provisions for conditional approval. The factors that the director 80815
considers may include, but are not limited to, the following:80816

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 80817
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 80818
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;80819

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 80820
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 80821
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 80822
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 80823
identified above;80824

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 80825
expenditure of funds.80826

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 80827
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 80828
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 80829
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 80830
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 80831
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 80832
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.80833

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 80834
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 80835
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 80836
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 80837
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 80838
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 80839
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 80840
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in partThe 80841
department may withhold all or part of the funds allocated to a 80842
board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, budget, or 80843
statement of services. Prior to a final decision to disapprove a 80844
plan, budget, or statement of services, or to withhold funds from 80845
a board, a representative of the director of mental health and 80846
addiction services shall meet with the board and discuss the 80847
reason for the action the department proposes to take and any 80848
corrective action that should be taken to make the plan, budget, 80849
or statement of services acceptable to the department. In 80850
addition, the department shall offer technical assistance to the 80851
board to assist it to make the plan, budget, or statement of 80852
services acceptable. The department shall give the board a 80853
reasonable time in which to revise the plan, budget, or statement 80854
of services. The board thereafter shall submit a revised plan, 80855
budget, or statement of services, or a new plan, budget, or 80856
statement of services.80857

       (2) If a board determines that it is necessary to amend the 80858
plan, budget, or statement of services that has been approved 80859
under this section, the board shall submit the proposed amendment 80860
to the department. The department may approve or disapprove all or 80861
part of the amendment.80862

       (3) If the director disapproves of all or part of any 80863
proposed amendment, the director shall provide the board an 80864
opportunity to present its position. The director shall inform the 80865
board of the reasons for the disapproval and of the criteria that 80866
must be met before the proposed amendment may be approved. The 80867
director shall give the board a reasonable time within which to 80868
meet the criteria and shall offer technical assistance to the 80869
board to help it meet the criteria.80870

       (4) The department shall establish procedures for the review 80871
of plans, budgets, and statements of services, and a timetable for 80872
submission and review of plans, budgets, and statements of 80873
services and for corrective action and submission of new or 80874
revised plans, budgets, and statements of services.80875

       Sec. 5119.62.        Sec. 5119.23.  (A) The department of mental health80876
mental health and addiction services shall establish a methodology 80877
for allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 80878
health services the funds appropriated by the general assembly to 80879
the department for the purpose of local mental health systemsand 80880
addiction services continuums of care. The department shall 80881
establish the methodology after notifying and consulting with 80882
relevant constituencies as required by division (L)(A)(10) of 80883
section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code. The methodology may 80884
provide for the funds to be allocated to boards on a district or 80885
multi-district basis. Subject80886

       (B) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623section 80887
5119.25 of the Revised Code, and to required submissions and 80888
approvals under section 340.08 of the Revised Code, the department 80889
shall allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 80890
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 80891
rules, and regulations.80892

       (B) The department may allocate to boards a portion of the 80893
funds appropriated by the general assembly to the department for 80894
the operation of state hospital services. If the department 80895
allocates the funds, the department shall do all of the following:80896

       (1) In consultation with the boards:80897

       (a) Annually determine the unit costs of providing state 80898
hospital services; and80899

       (b) Establish the methodology for allocating the funds to the 80900
boards.80901

       (2) Determine the type of unit costs of providing state 80902
hospital services to be included as a factor in the methodology 80903
and include that unit cost as a factor in the methodology;80904

       (3) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623 of the Revised 80905
Code, allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 80906
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 80907
rules, and regulations.80908

       (c) Not later than the first day of April of each year, the 80909
department shall notify each board of the department's estimate of 80910
the amount of funds to be allocated to the board under this 80911
section during the fiscal year beginning on the next July first. 80912
If the department makes an allocation under division (B) of this 80913
section, the department shall also notify each board of the unit 80914
costs of providing state hospital services for the upcoming fiscal 80915
year as determined under that division. Not later than the first 80916
day of May of each year, each board shall notify the department as 80917
to which of the following options it has elected for the upcoming 80918
fiscal year:80919

       (1) The board elects to accept distribution of the amount 80920
allocated to it under this section. Funds distributed to each 80921
board shall be used to supplement and not to supplant other state, 80922
local, or federal funds that are being used to support 80923
community-based programs for severely mentally disabled children, 80924
adolescents, and adults, unless the funds have been specifically 80925
designated for the initiation of programs in accordance with the 80926
community mental health plan developed and submitted under section 80927
340.03 and approved under section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. 80928
Notwithstanding section 131.33 of the Revised Code, any board may 80929
expend unexpended funds distributed to the board from 80930
appropriations for the purpose of local management of mental 80931
health services in the fiscal year following the fiscal year for 80932
which the appropriations are made, in accordance with the approved 80933
community mental health plan.80934

       (2) Subject to division (D) of this section, the board elects 80935
not to accept the amount allocated to it under this section, 80936
authorizes the department to determine the use of its allocation, 80937
and agrees to provide the department with a statement of projected 80938
utilization of state hospitals and other state-operated services 80939
by residents of its service district during the fiscal year.80940

       (D) No board shall elect the option in division (C)(2) of 80941
this section unless all of the following apply:80942

       (1) Either the total funds estimated by the department to be 80943
allocated to the board under this section for the next fiscal year 80944
are reduced by a substantial amount, as defined in guidelines 80945
adopted by the director of mental health under division (E) of 80946
this section, in comparison to the amount allocated for the 80947
current fiscal year, for reasons not related to performance or the 80948
board has experienced other circumstances specified in the 80949
guidelines.80950

        (2) The board provides the department written confirmation 80951
that the board has received input about the impact that the 80952
board's election will have on the mental health system in the 80953
board's district from all of the following:80954

       (a) Individuals who receive mental health services and such 80955
individuals' families;80956

       (b) Boards of county commissioners;80957

       (c) Judges of juvenile and probate courts;80958

       (d) County sheriffs, jail administrators, and other local law 80959
enforcement officials.80960

       (3) Not later than seven days before notifying the department 80961
of its election and after providing the department the written 80962
confirmation required by division (D)(2) of this section, the 80963
board conducts a public hearing on the issue.80964

       (E) For the purpose of division (D)(1) of this section, the 80965
director of mental health shall consult with the boards and other 80966
relevant constituencies to develop guidelines for determining what 80967
constitutes a substantial reduction of funds and what other 80968
circumstances qualify a board to elect the option in division 80969
(C)(2) of this section.80970

       (F) No board shall use state funds for the purpose of 80971
discouraging employees from seeking collective bargaining 80972
representation or encouraging employees to decertify a recognized 80973
collective bargaining agent.80974

       (G) The department shall charge against the allocation made 80975
to a board under division (B) of this section, if any, any 80976
unreimbursed costs for services provided by the department.80977

       (H) A board's use of funds allocated under this section is 80978
subject to audit by county, state, and federal authorities.80979

       (C) In consultation with boards, community mental health and 80980
addiction services providers, and persons receiving services, the 80981
department shall establish guidelines for the use of funds 80982
allocated and distributed under this section.80983

       Sec. 5119.621.        Sec. 5119.24.  (A) As used in this section, 80984
"administrative function" means a function related to one or more 80985
of the following:80986

       (1) Continuous quality improvement;80987

       (2) Utilization review;80988

       (3) Resource development;80989

       (4) Fiscal administration;80990

       (5) General administration;80991

       (6) Any other function related to administration that is 80992
required by Chapter 340. of the Revised Code.80993

       (B) Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80994
services shall submit an annual report to the department of mental 80995
healthmental health and addiction services specifying how the 80996
board used funds allocated to the board under section 5119.6280997
5119.23 of the Revised Code for administrative functions in the 80998
year preceding the report's submission. The director of mental 80999
healthmental health and addiction services shall establish the 81000
date by which the report must be submitted each year.81001

       Sec. 5119.622.        Sec. 5119.25. (A) The director of mental health81002
mental health and addiction services, in whole or in part, may 81003
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 81004
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.6281005
5119.23 of the Revised Code if the board fails to comply with 81006
Chapter 340. or section 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, or 5119.62181007
5119.22, 5119.24, 5119.36, or 5119.37 of the Revised Code or rules 81008
of the department of mental health regarding a community mental 81009
health servicemental health and addiction services. The81010

       (B) The director of mental health and addiction services may 81011
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 81012
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.23 81013
of the Revised Code if the board denies available service on the 81014
basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, marital 81015
status, sexual orientation, genetic information, or developmental 81016
disability, or age, disability, or military status as defined in 81017
section 4112.01 of the Revised Code.81018

       (C) The director shall identifyissue a notice identifying81019
the areas of noncompliance and the action necessary to achieve 81020
compliance. The director shallmay offer technical assistance to 81021
the board to achieve compliance. The director shall give the board 81022
a reasonable time within which to comply orshall have ten days 81023
from receipt of the notice of noncompliance to present its 81024
position that it is in compliance. Before withholding funds, the 81025
director or the director's designee shall hold a hearing shall be 81026
conductedwithin ten days of receipt of the board's position to 81027
determine if there are continuing violations and that either 81028
assistance is rejected or the board is unable to achieve 81029
compliance. Subsequent to the hearing process, if it is determined 81030
that compliance has not been achieved, the director may allocate 81031
all or part of the withheld funds to a public or private agency to 81032
provide the community mental health or community addiction service 81033
for which the board is not in compliance until the time that there 81034
is compliance. The director shallmay adopt rules in accordance 81035
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.81036

       Sec. 3793.14.        Sec. 5119.26.  Any person treated under this chapter 81037
or rules adopted under it shall retain histhe person's civil 81038
rights and liberties, including the right not to be experimented 81039
upon with treatment not accepted as good medical practice without 81040
histhe person's fully informed consent, the right as a patient81041
person receiving services to maintain the confidentiality of 81042
health and medical records, the right as a person detained for 81043
medical purposes to receive adequate and appropriate treatment, 81044
and the right to vote.81045

       Sec. 3793.13.        Sec. 5119.27.  (A) Records or information, other than 81046
court journal entries or court docket entries, pertaining to the 81047
identity, diagnosis, or treatment of any patientperson seeking or 81048
receiving services that are maintained in connection with the 81049
performance of any drug treatment program or services licensed by, 81050
or certified by, the director of alcohol and drug addiction 81051
services,mental health and addiction services under section 81052
3793.11 of the Revised Code,this chapter shall be kept 81053
confidential, may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the 81054
circumstances expressly authorized under this section, and may not 81055
otherwise be divulged in any civil, criminal, administrative, or 81056
legislative proceeding.81057

       (B) When the patientperson, with respect to whom any record 81058
or information referred to in division (A) of this section is 81059
maintained, gives consent in the form of a written release signed 81060
by the patientperson, the content of the record or information 81061
may be disclosed if the written release conforms to all of the 81062
following:81063

       (1) Specifically identifies the person, official, or entity 81064
to whom the information is to be provided;81065

       (2) Describes with reasonable specificity the record, 81066
records, or information to be disclosed; and81067

       (3) Describes with reasonable specificity the purposes of the 81068
disclosure and the intended use of the disclosed information.81069

       (C) A patientperson who is subject to a community control 81070
sanction, parole, or a post-release control sanction or who is 81071
ordered to rehabilitation in lieu of conviction, and who has 81072
agreed to participate in a drug treatment or rehabilitation 81073
program as a condition of the community control sanction, 81074
post-release control sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation, 81075
shall be considered to have consented to the release of records 81076
and information relating to the progress of treatment, frequency 81077
of treatment, adherence to treatment requirements, and probable 81078
outcome of treatment. Release of information and records under 81079
this division shall be limited to the court or governmental 81080
personnel having the responsibility for supervising the patient's81081
person's community control sanction, post-release control 81082
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation. A patientperson, 81083
described in this division, who refuses to allow disclosure may be 81084
considered in violation of the conditions of the patient's81085
person's community control sanction, post-release control 81086
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation.81087

       (D) Disclosure of a patient'sperson's record may be made 81088
without the patient'sperson's consent to qualified personnel for 81089
the purpose of conducting scientific research, management, 81090
financial audits, or program evaluation, but these personnel may 81091
not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient81092
person in any report of the research, audit, or evaluation, or 81093
otherwise disclose a patient'sperson's identity in any manner.81094

       (E) Upon the request of a prosecuting attorney or the 81095
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 81096
addiction services, a court of competent jurisdiction may order 81097
the disclosure of records or information referred to in division 81098
(A) of this section if the court has reason to believe that a 81099
treatment program or facility is being operated or used in a 81100
manner contrary to law. The use of any information or record so 81101
disclosed shall be limited to the prosecution of persons who are 81102
or may be charged with any offense related to the illegal 81103
operation or use of the drug treatment program or facility, or to 81104
the decision to withdraw the authority of a drug treatment program 81105
or facility to continue operation. For purposes of this division 81106
the court shall:81107

       (1) Limit disclosure to those parts of the patient'sperson's81108
record considered essential to fulfill the objective for which the 81109
order was granted;81110

       (2) Require, where appropriate, that all information be 81111
disclosed in chambers;81112

       (3) Include any other appropriate measures to keep disclosure 81113
to a minimum, consistent with the protection of the patients81114
persons seeking or receiving services, the physician-patient 81115
relationship, and the administration of the drug treatment and 81116
rehabilitation program.81117

       (F) As used in this section:81118

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 81119
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.81120

       (2) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 81121
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.81122

       Sec. 5119.28.  (A) All records, and reports, other than court 81123
journal entries or court docket entries, identifying a person and 81124
pertaining to the person's mental health condition, assessment, 81125
provision of care or treatment, or payment for assessment, care or 81126
treatment that are maintained in connection with any services 81127
certified by the department of mental health and addiction 81128
services, or any hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by 81129
the department, shall be kept confidential and shall not be 81130
disclosed by any person except:81131

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 81132
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 81133
guardian, consents;81134

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 81135
Chapter 340. or 5122., or Title XLVII of the Revised Code;81136

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 81137
mental health services, licensed facilities, and community mental 81138
health services providers may release necessary information to 81139
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 81140
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 81141
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the person;81142

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;81143

       (5) That a person shall be granted access to the person's own 81144
psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 81145
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 81146
reasons;81147

       (6) That the department of mental health and addiction 81148
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 81149
information with community mental health services providers and 81150
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 81151
relating to the person's care or services. Records and information 81152
that may be exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited 81153
to medication history, physical health status and history, 81154
financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary of 81155
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.81156

       (7) That the department of mental health and addiction 81157
services, hospitals and community providers operated by the 81158
department, hospitals licensed by the department under section 81159
5119.33 of the Revised Code, and community mental health services 81160
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 81161
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 81162
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 81163
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 81164
of the person;81165

       (8) That the department of mental health and addiction 81166
services and community mental health services providers may 81167
exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information with 81168
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for 81169
purposes of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the 81170
Revised Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 81171
services shall not access any personal information from the 81172
department or providers except as required or permitted by this 81173
section, or Chapter 340. or 5122. of the Revised Code for purposes 81174
related to payment, care coordination, health care operations, 81175
program and service evaluation, reporting activities, research, 81176
system administration, oversight, or other authorized purposes.81177

       (9) That a person's family member who is involved in the 81178
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 81179
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 81180
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 81181
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 81182
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 81183
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 81184
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 81185
information and does not object to the disclosure.81186

       (10) That community mental health services providers may 81187
exchange psychiatric records and certain other information with 81188
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 81189
and other providers in order to provide services to a person 81190
involuntarily committed to a board. Release of records under this 81191
division shall be limited to medication history, physical health 81192
status and history, financial status, summary of course of 81193
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if 81194
any.81195

       (11) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 81196
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 81197
information is necessary to administer the estate;81198

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 81199
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 81200
director of mental health and addiction services for the purpose 81201
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 81202
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 81203
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 81204
with the name of any person.81205

       (13) That records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, 81206
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 81207
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 81208
the person was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 81209
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 81210
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 81211
involuntary commitment under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.81212

       (14) That the department of mental health and addiction 81213
services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other 81214
mental health treatment records, and other pertinent information 81215
with the department of rehabilitation and correction and with the 81216
department of youth services to ensure continuity of care for 81217
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 81218
an institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction 81219
or the department of youth services and may exchange psychiatric 81220
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 81221
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 81222
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 81223
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 81224
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 81225
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 81226
release of records under this division is limited to records 81227
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 81228
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 81229
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.81230

       (15) That a community mental health services provider that 81231
ceases to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 81232
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 81233
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 81234
district in which the person resided at the time services were 81235
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 81236
transferred elsewhere at the person's request.81237

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 81238
(A)(3), (6), and (10) of this section, the custodian of the 81239
records shall attempt to obtain the person's consent for the 81240
disclosure.81241

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 81242
a person that is confidential pursuant to this section, except as 81243
authorized by law.81244

       Sec. 5119.57.        Sec. 5119.29. No later than January 1, 1998, theThe81245
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 81246
in conjunction with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 81247
health services and community mental health boards, shall develop 81248
a coordinated system for tracking and monitoring persons found not 81249
guilty by reason of insanity and committed pursuant to section 81250
2945.40 of the Revised Code who have been granted a conditional 81251
release and persons found incompetent to stand trial and committed 81252
pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code who have been 81253
granted a conditional release. The system shall do all of the 81254
following:81255

       (A) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 81256
persons;81257

       (B) Develop uniformity in monitoring those persons;81258

       (C) Develop a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 81259
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 81260
conditional release or decompensation occurs.81261

       Sec. 3793.18.        Sec. 5119.30.  The department of alcohol and drug 81262
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services promptly 81263
shall develop and maintain a program that continually provides the 81264
courts of this state with relevant information pertaining to 81265
alcohol and drug addiction services and programs available both 81266
within their jurisdictions and statewide in order to facilitate 81267
the ability of the courts to utilize treatment and rehabilitation 81268
alternatives in addition to or in lieu of imposing sentences of 81269
imprisonment upon appropriate offenders.81270

       Sec. 5119.23.        Sec. 5119.31.  The department of mental healthmental 81271
health and addiction services may examine into, with or without 81272
expert assistance, the question of the mental and physical 81273
condition of any person committed to or involuntarily confined in 81274
any hospital for the mentally ill, or restrained of his liberty at 81275
any place within this state by reason of alleged mental illness 81276
and may order and compel the discharge of any such person who is 81277
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 81278
order as defined in division (B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised 81279
Code and direct what disposition shall be made of himthe person. 81280
The order of discharge shall be signed by the director of mental 81281
healthmental health and addiction services. Upon receipt of such 81282
order by the superintendent or other person in charge of the 81283
building in which the person named in such order is confined, such 81284
person shall forthwith be discharged or otherwise disposed of 81285
according to the terms of said order, and any further or other 81286
detention of such person is unlawful. No such order shall be made 81287
in favor of any person committed and held for trial on a criminal 81288
charge, in confinement by an order of a judge or court made in a 81289
criminal proceeding, or in any case unless notice is given to the 81290
superintendent or other person having charge of the building in 81291
which the alleged mentally ill person is detained, and a 81292
reasonable opportunity is allowed the person in charge to justify 81293
further detention of the person confined.81294

       Sec. 5119.60.        Sec. 5119.32.  The department of mental healthmental 81295
health and addiction services is hereby designated as the state 81296
administrative agency for the alcohol, drug abuse and mental 81297
health servicessubstance abuse prevention treatment block grant 81298
and the community mental health services block grant authorized by 81299
the "Public Health Services Act," 95 Stat. 357, 543, 42 U.S.C. 81300
300x, as amended, and similar alcohol, drug abuse, or mental 81301
health programs that are specified in an appropriations act. The 81302
department shall establish and administer an annual plan to 81303
utilize federal block grant funds. The department shall consult 81304
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction services on the 81305
allocation of funds for alcohol and drug addiction services 81306
pursuant to Chapter 3793. of the Revised Code and shall notify the 81307
controlling board, which shall authorize the transfer of funds 81308
allocated to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 81309
services.81310

       Sec. 5119.20.        Sec. 5119.33.  The department of mental healthmental 81311
health and addiction services shall inspect and license all 81312
hospitals that receive mentally ill persons, except those 81313
hospitals managed by the department. No hospital may receive for 81314
care or treatment, either at public or private expense, any person 81315
who is or appears to be mentally ill, whether or not so 81316
adjudicated, unless the hospital has received a license from the 81317
department authorizing it to receive for care or treatment persons 81318
who are mentally ill or the hospital is managed by the department.81319

       No such license shall be granted to a hospital for the 81320
treatment of mentally ill persons unless the department is 81321
satisfied, after investigation, that the hospital is managed and 81322
operated by qualified persons and has on its staff one or more 81323
qualified physicians responsible for the medical care of the 81324
patients confined there. At least one such physician shall be a 81325
psychiatrist.81326

       The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 81327
Revised Code prescribing minimum standards for the operation of 81328
hospitals for the care and treatment of mentally ill persons and 81329
establishing standards and procedures for the issuance, renewal, 81330
or revocation of full, probationary, and interim licenses. No 81331
license shall be granted to any hospital established or used for 81332
the care of mentally ill persons unless such hospital is operating 81333
in accordance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 81334
section. A full license shall expire one year after the date of 81335
issuance, a probationary license shall expire at the time 81336
prescribed by rule adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 81337
Code by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 81338
services, and an interim license shall expire ninety days after 81339
the date of issuance. A full, probationary, or interim license may 81340
be renewed, except that an interim license may be renewed only 81341
twice. The department may fix reasonable fees for licenses and for 81342
license renewals. Such hospitals are subject to inspection and 81343
visitationon-site review by the department.81344

       Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised 81345
Code, neither the director of the department of mental health81346
mental health and addiction services; an employee of the 81347
department; a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 81348
services or agency employee of a community mental health services 81349
provider; nor any other public official shall hospitalize any 81350
mentally ill person for care or treatment in any hospital that is 81351
not licensed in accordance with this section.81352

       Any license issued by the department under this section may 81353
be revoked by the department for any of the following reasons:81354

       (A) The hospital is no longer a suitable place for the care 81355
or treatment of mentally ill persons.81356

       (B) The hospital refuses to be subject to inspection or 81357
visitationon-site review by the department.81358

       (C) The hospital has failed to furnish humane, kind, and 81359
adequate treatment and care.81360

       (D) The hospital fails to comply with the licensure rules of 81361
the department.81362

       The department may inspect, visitconduct an on-site review, 81363
and review the records of any hospital that the department has 81364
reason to believe is operating without a license.81365

       Sec. 5119.201.        Sec. 5119.331.  If the department of mental health81366
mental health and addiction services determines that a hospital 81367
not licensed by the department is receiving for care or treatment 81368
any person who is or appears to be mentally ill, the department 81369
may request in writing that the attorney general petition the 81370
court of common pleas in the county where the hospital is located 81371
to enjoin the hospital from continued operation in violation of 81372
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.81373

       Sec. 5119.202.        Sec. 5119.332.  No third-party payer shall directly 81374
or indirectly reimburse, nor shall any person be obligated to pay 81375
any hospital for psychiatric services for which a license is 81376
required under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code unless 81377
the hospital is licensed by the department of mental healthmental 81378
health and addiction services.81379

       As used in this section, "third-party payer" means a health 81380
insuring corporation licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised 81381
Code, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 81382
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 81383
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 81384
4123., or 5101. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.81385

       Sec. 5119.21.        Sec. 5119.333.  No person shall keep or maintain a 81386
hospital for the care or treatment of mentally ill persons unless 81387
it is licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 81388
and addiction services, as provided by section 5119.205119.33 of 81389
the Revised Code.81390

       Sec. 5119.22.        Sec. 5119.34.  (A) As used in this section and 81391
section 5119.221sections 5119.341 and 5119.342 of the Revised 81392
Code:81393

       (1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal preparation, 81394
laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, social and 81395
recreational activities, maintenance, security, and other services 81396
that do not constitute personal care services or skilled nursing 81397
care.81398

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 81399
and mental health services.81400

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 81401
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 81402
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.81403

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 81404
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 81405
of age.81406

       (5) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 81407
a community mental health agencyservices provider as defined in 81408
division (H) of section 5122.015119.01 of the Revised Code.81409

       (6) "Community mental health services" means any of the81410
mental health services listed incertified by the department 81411
pursuant to section 340.095119.36 of the Revised Code.81412

       (7) "Operator" means the person or persons, firm, 81413
partnership, agency, governing body, association, corporation, or 81414
other entity that is responsible for the administration and 81415
management of a residential facility and that is the applicant for 81416
a residential facility license.81417

        (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 81418
not limited to, the following:81419

       (a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;81420

       (b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 81421
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;81422

       (c) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 81423
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 81424
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 81425
this section.81426

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 81427
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 81428
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 81429
division (A)(8) of this section to be considered to be providing 81430
personal care services.81431

       (9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 81432
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:81433

        (a) Accommodations, supervision, personal care services, and 81434
community mental health services for one or more of the following81435
unrelated personsadults with mental illness or severe mental 81436
disabilities or to one or more unrelated children and adolescents 81437
with a serious emotional disturbance or who are in need of mental 81438
health services who are referred by or are receiving community 81439
mental health services from a community mental health agency,81440
services provider, hospital, or practitioner:81441

       (i) Adults with mental illness;81442

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;81443

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 81444
of mental health services.81445

        (b) Accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 81446
for only one or two unrelated adults; accommodations, supervision, 81447
and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; 81448
or accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one 81449
or two of the following unrelated persons:81450

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness who are referred 81451
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 81452
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner;81453

        (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities who 81454
are referred by or are receiving community mental health services 81455
from a community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner81456
to any of the following:81457

       (i) One or two unrelated persons with mental illness or 81458
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 81459
receiving mental health services from a community mental health 81460
services provider, hospital, or practitioner;81461

       (ii) One or two unrelated adults who are receiving 81462
residential state supplement payments; 81463

       (iii) Three to sixteen unrelated adults.81464

       (c) Room and board for five or more of the following81465
unrelated persons:81466

       (i) Adultsadults with mental illness or severe mental 81467
disability who are referred by or are receiving community mental 81468
health services from a community mental health agency,services 81469
provider, hospital, or practitioner;81470

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 81471
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 81472
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.81473

        (10) "Residential facility" does not include any of the 81474
following: 81475

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.2081476
5119.33 of the Revised Code;81477

       (b) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 81478
the Revised Code or otherwise regulated by the department of 81479
developmental disabilities;81480

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 81481
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;81482

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 81483
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 81484
for care of hospice patients;81485

       (e) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care program 81486
licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that is used 81487
exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;81488

       (f) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 81489
the aging as defined in section 3721.02 of the Revised Code;81490

       (g) An alcohol(f) Alcohol or drug addiction program as 81491
defined inservices certified pursuant to section 3793.015119.3681492
of the Revised Code;81493

       (h)(g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 81494
under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;81495

       (i)(h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 81496
from the department of development services agency under any 81497
program established to provide emergency shelter housing or 81498
transitional housing for the homeless;81499

       (j)(i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 81500
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 81501
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;81502

       (k)(j) A facility approved by the veterans administration 81503
under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 81504
1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used 81505
exclusively for the placement and care of veterans.81506

       (11) "Room and board" means the provision of sleeping and 81507
living space, meals or meal preparation, laundry services, 81508
housekeeping services, or any combination thereof.81509

       (12) "Residential state supplement" means the program 81510
administered under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code and related 81511
provisions of the Administrative Code under which the state 81512
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 81513
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the Social 81514
Security Act. Residential state supplement payments are used for 81515
the provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 81516
services to supplemental security income recipients the department 81517
of mental health and addition services determines are at risk of 81518
needing institutional care.81519

       (13) "Supervision" means any of the following:81520

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 81521
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 81522
daily living or other activities;81523

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 81524
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 81525
other self-care activities; 81526

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 81527

       (13)(14) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to 81528
the owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's 81529
or operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 81530
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 81531
the child of an aunt or uncle.81532

       (B) Nothing in division (A)(9) of this section shall be 81533
construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 81534
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 81535
without assistance.81536

       (C) Except in the case of a residential facility described in 81537
division (A)(9)(a) of this section, members of the staff of a 81538
residential facility shall not administer medication to the 81539
facility's residents, but may do any of the following:81540

       (1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 81541
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;81542

       (2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 81543
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 81544
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 81545
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 81546
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 81547
the container for the resident.81548

       (3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 81549
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 81550
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 81551
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 81552
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 81553
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 81554
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 81555
place the container to the mouth of the resident.81556

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 81557
a person operating or seeking to operate a residential facility 81558
shall apply for licensure of the facility to the department of 81559
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The 81560
application shall be submitted by the operator. When applying for 81561
the license, the applicant shall pay to the department the 81562
application fee specified in rules adopted under division (L)(K)81563
of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.81564

       The department shall send a copy of an application to the 81565
ADAMHS board serving the county in which the person operates or 81566
seeks to operate the facility. The ADAMHS board shall review the 81567
application and provide to the department any information about 81568
the applicant or the facility that the board would like the 81569
department to consider in reviewing the application.81570

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 81571
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 81572
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 81573
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 81574
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 81575
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:81576

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 81577
date the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 81578
services issued the order revoking or refusing to renew the 81579
facility's license.81580

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 81581
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 81582
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 81583
exploitation.81584

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 81585
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 81586
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 81587
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 81588
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 81589
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 81590
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 81591
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 81592
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 81593
district or zone.81594

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 81595
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 81596
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 81597
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 81598
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 81599
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 81600
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 81601
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 81602
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 81603
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 81604
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 81605
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 81606
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 81607
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 81608
zoning ordinance or resolution to:81609

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 81610
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 81611
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 81612
residential character of the neighborhood;81613

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 81614
regulation.81615

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 81616
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 81617
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 81618
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 81619
established by the political subdivision.81620

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 81621
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 81622
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 81623
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 81624
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 81625
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section.81626

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 81627
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 81628
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 81629
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 81630
division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political subdivision may 81631
consider the existence of such facilities for the purpose of 81632
limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities that meet 81633
the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section that 81634
are not existing and operating on September 10, 2012.81635

        (F)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 81636
addiction services shall inspect and license the operation of 81637
residential facilities. The department shall consider the past 81638
record of the facility and the applicant or licensee in arriving 81639
at its licensure decision. 81640

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 81641
licenses. A full license shall expire twoup to three years after 81642
the date of issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a 81643
shorter period of time as specified in rules adopted by the 81644
director of mental health under division (L)(K) of this section, 81645
and an interim license shall expire ninety days after the date of 81646
issuance. A license may be renewed in accordance with rules 81647
adopted by the director under division (L)(K) of this section. The 81648
renewal application shall be submitted by the operator. When 81649
applying for renewal of a license, the applicant shall pay to the 81650
department the renewal fee specified in rules adopted under 81651
division (L)(K) of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.81652

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 81653
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 81654
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 81655
compliance with rules adopted by the director pursuant to division 81656
(L)(K) of this section or if any facility operated by the 81657
applicant or licensee has been cited for repeated violations of 81658
statutes or rules during the period of previous licenses. 81659
Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 81660
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 81661
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.81662

       (G)(F) The department may issue an interim license to operate 81663
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 81664
met:81665

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 81666
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 81667
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 81668
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.81669

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 81670
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 81671
by the director under division (L)(K) of this section.81672

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 81673
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 81674
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 81675
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.81676

       (H)(G)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 81677
addiction services may conduct an inspection of a residential 81678
facility as follows:81679

       (a) Prior to issuance of a license for the facility;81680

       (b) Prior to renewal of the license;81681

       (c) To determine whether the facility has completed a plan of 81682
correction required pursuant to division (H)(G)(2) of this section 81683
and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the department 81684
and in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 81685
it;81686

       (d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;81687

       (e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 81688
necessary in order to determine whether the facility is in 81689
compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 81690
section.81691

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 81692
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility and 81693
its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall have 81694
access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any other 81695
documents relating to the operation of the residential facility, 81696
including records pertaining to residents, and shall have access 81697
to the facility in order to conduct interviews with the operator, 81698
staff, and residents. Following each inspection and review, the 81699
department shall complete a report listing any deficiencies, and 81700
including, when appropriate, a time table within which the 81701
operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department may 81702
require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing how 81703
the deficiencies will be corrected.81704

       (I)(H) No person shall do any of the following:81705

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 81706
a valid license;81707

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 81708
been granted a license;81709

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 81710
investigation of a residential facility;81711

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 81712
rules adopted pursuant to this section.81713

       (J)(I) The following may enter a residential facility at any 81714
time:81715

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health81716
mental health and addiction services;81717

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board under either of the 81718
following circumstances:81719

       (a) When a resident of the facility is receiving services 81720
from a community mental health agencyservices provider under 81721
contract with that ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS board;81722

       (b) When authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code.81723

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agencyservices 81724
provider under either of the following circumstances:81725

       (a) When the agencyservices provider has a clientperson 81726
receiving services residing in the facility;81727

       (b) When the agencyservices provider is acting as an agent 81728
of an ADAMHS board other than the board with which it is under 81729
contract.81730

       (4) Representatives of the state long-term care ombudsperson81731
ombudsman program when the facility provides accommodations, 81732
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 81733
unrelated adults or to one or two unrelated adults who are 81734
recipients under the residential state supplement program.81735

       The persons specified in division (J)(I) of this section 81736
shall be afforded access to examine and copy all records, 81737
accounts, and any other documents relating to the operation of the 81738
residential facility, including records pertaining to residents. 81739

       (K)(J) Employees of the department of mental healthmental 81740
health and addiction services may enter, for the purpose of 81741
investigation, any institution, residence, facility, or other 81742
structure which has been reported to the department as, or that 81743
the department has reasonable cause to believe is, operating as a 81744
residential facility without a valid license.81745

        (L)(K) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind 81746
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 81747
licensing and operation of residential facilities. The rules shall 81748
establish all of the following:81749

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 81750
cultural competency of treatment of and services for persons in 81751
residential facilities; 81752

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal, or revocation of 81753
the licenses of residential facilities; 81754

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 81755
prospective or current operators, staffemployees, and other 81756
individualsvolunteers who, if employed by a residential 81757
facility, wouldmay have unsuperviseddirect access to facility 81758
residents;81759

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 81760
facility license or renewing the license;81761

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 81762
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 81763
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 81764
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 81765
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 81766
notification;81767

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 81768
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 81769

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 81770
to residents' medication;81771

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;81772

       (9) The maximum number of residents who may be served in a 81773
residential facility; 81774

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 81775
procedures to protect such rights; 81776

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 81777
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 81778
community mental health agencyservices provider;81779

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 81780
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.81781

       (M)(L)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 81782
complaint reported as a violation of this section when the 81783
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 81784
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 81785
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 81786
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 81787
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 81788
jurisdiction.81789

       (2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(L)(1) 81790
of this section, or any person who participates in an 81791
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 81792
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 81793
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 81794
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.81795

       (N)(M)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 81796
addiction services may petition the court of common pleas of the 81797
county in which a residential facility is located for an order 81798
enjoining any person from operating a residential facility without 81799
a license or from operating a licensed facility when, in the 81800
director's judgment, there is a present danger to the health or 81801
safety of any of the occupants of the facility. The court shall 81802
have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing 81803
that the respondent named in the petition is operating a facility 81804
without a license or there is a present danger to the health or 81805
safety of any residents of the facility.81806

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 81807
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 81808
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 81809
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 81810
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 81811
residents. 81812

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 81813
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 81814
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 81815
attorney general for further action.81816

       (O)(N) The director may fine a person for violating division 81817
(I)(H) of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for 81818
a first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be 81819
one thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine 81820
shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 81821
Code.81822

       Sec. 5119.341. (A) Any person may operate a residential 81823
facility providing accommodations and personal care services for 81824
one to five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential 81825
facility that meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) 81826
of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code as a permitted use in any 81827
residential district or zone, including any single-family 81828
residential district or zone of any political subdivision. Such 81829
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 81830
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 81831
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 81832
zone.81833

       (B) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 81834
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 81835
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 81836
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the 81837
Revised Code as a permitted use in any multiple-family residential 81838
district or zone of any political subdivision, except that a 81839
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 81840
resolution establishing planned-unit developments as defined in 81841
section 519.021 of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities 81842
from such districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted 81843
a zoning ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 81844
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 81845
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 81846
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 81847
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 81848

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 81849
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 81850
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 81851
residential character of the neighborhood;81852

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 81853
regulation.81854

       (C) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not affect any 81855
right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate a 81856
residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised 81857
Code in a single-family residential district or zone under 81858
conditions established by the political subdivision.81859

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section 81860
and except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, a 81861
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 81862
resolution may limit the excessive concentration of licensed 81863
residential facilities that meet the criteria specified in 81864
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code.81865

       (2) Division (D)(1) of this section does not authorize a 81866
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 81867
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 81868
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 81869
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code. A 81870
political subdivision may consider the existence of such 81871
facilities for the purpose of limiting the excessive concentration 81872
of such facilities that meet the criteria specified in division 81873
(A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that are not 81874
existing and operating on September 10, 2012.81875

       Sec. 5119.221.        Sec. 5119.342.  (A) Upon petition by the director of 81876
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the court of 81877
common pleas or the probate court may appoint a receiver to take 81878
possession of and operate a residential facility licensed pursuant 81879
to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code, when conditions 81880
existing at the residential facility present a substantial risk of 81881
physical or mental harm to residents and no other remedies at law 81882
are adequate to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the 81883
residents.81884

       Petitions filed pursuant to this section shall include:81885

       (1) A description of the specific conditions existing at the 81886
residential facility which present a substantial risk of physical 81887
or mental harm to residents;81888

       (2) A statement of the absence of other adequate remedies at 81889
law;81890

       (3) The number of individuals residing at the facility;81891

       (4) A statement that the facts have been brought to the 81892
attention of the owner or licensee and that conditions have not 81893
been remedied within a reasonable period of time or that the 81894
conditions, though remedied periodically, habitually exist at the 81895
residential facility as a pattern or practice; and81896

       (5) The name and address of the person holding the license 81897
for the residential facility.81898

       (B) A court in which a petition is filed pursuant to this 81899
section shall notify the person holding the license for the 81900
facility of the filing. The department shall send notice of the 81901
filing to the following, as appropriate: the Ohio protection and 81902
advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code; 81903
facility owner; facility operator; board of alcohol, drug 81904
addiction, and mental health services; board of health; department 81905
of developmental disabilities; department of job and family 81906
services; facility residents; and residents' families and 81907
guardians. The court shall provide a hearing on the petition 81908
within five court days of the time it was filed, except that the 81909
court may appoint a receiver prior to that time if it determines 81910
that the circumstances necessitate such action.81911

       Following a hearing on the petition, and upon a determination 81912
that the appointment of a receiver is warranted, the court shall 81913
appoint a receiver and notify the department of mental health81914
mental health and addiction services and appropriate persons of 81915
this action.81916

       In setting forth the powers of the receiver, the court may 81917
generally authorize the receiver to do all that is prudent and 81918
necessary to safely and efficiently operate the residential 81919
facility within the requirements of state and federal law, but 81920
shall require the receiver to obtain court approval prior to 81921
making any single expenditure of more than five thousand dollars 81922
to correct deficiencies in the structure or furnishings of a 81923
facility. The court shall closely review the conduct of the 81924
receiver and shall require regular and detailed reports.81925

       (C) A receivership established pursuant to this section shall 81926
be terminated, following notification of the appropriate parties 81927
and a hearing, if the court determines either of the following:81928

       (1) The residential facility has been closed and the former 81929
residents have been relocated to an appropriate facility;81930

       (2) Circumstances no longer exist at the residential facility 81931
which present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to 81932
residents, and there is no deficiency in the residential facility 81933
that is likely to create a future risk of harm.81934

       Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, the court 81935
shall not terminate a receivership for a residential facility that 81936
has previously operated under another receivership unless the 81937
responsibility for the operation of the facility is transferred to 81938
an operator approved by the court and the department of mental 81939
healthmental health and addiction services.81940

       (D) Except for the department of mental healthmental health 81941
and addiction services or appropriate board of alcohol, drug 81942
addiction, and mental health services, no party or person 81943
interested in an action shall be appointed a receiver pursuant to 81944
this section.81945

       To assist the court in identifying persons qualified to be 81946
named as receivers, the director of the department of mental 81947
healthmental health and addiction services shall maintain a list 81948
of the names of such persons. The department of mental health81949
mental health and addiction services, the department of job and 81950
family services, and the department of health shall provide 81951
technical assistance to any receiver appointed pursuant to this 81952
section.81953

       Before entering upon the duties of receiver, the receiver 81954
must be sworn to perform the duties faithfully, and, with surety 81955
approved by the court, judge, or clerk, execute a bond to such 81956
person, and in such sum as the court or judge directs, to the 81957
effect that such receiver will faithfully discharge the duties of 81958
receiver in the action, and obey the orders of the court therein.81959

       (1) Under the control of the appointing court, a receiver may 81960
do the following:81961

       (a) Bring and defend actions in the appointee's name as 81962
receiver;81963

       (b) Take and keep possession of property.81964

       (2) The court shall authorize the receiver to do the 81965
following:81966

       (a) Collect payment for all goods and services provided to 81967
the residents or others during the period of the receivership at 81968
the same rate as was charged by the licensee at the time the 81969
petition for receivership was filed, unless a different rate is 81970
set by the court;81971

       (b) Honor all leases, mortgages, and secured transactions 81972
governing all buildings, goods, and fixtures of which the receiver 81973
has taken possession, but, in the case of a rental agreement only 81974
to the extent of payments that are for the use of the property 81975
during the period of the receivership, or, in the case of a 81976
purchase agreement, only to the extent that payments come due 81977
during the period of the receivership;81978

       (c) If transfer of residents is necessary, provide for the 81979
orderly transfer of residents by:81980

       (i) Cooperating with all appropriate state and local agencies 81981
in carrying out the transfer of residents to alternative community 81982
placements;81983

       (ii) Providing for the transportation of residents' 81984
belongings and records;81985

       (iii) Helping to locate alternative placements and develop 81986
plans for transfer;81987

       (iv) Encouraging residents or guardians to participate in 81988
transfer planning except when an emergency exists and immediate 81989
transfer is necessary.81990

       (d) Make periodic reports on the status of the residential 81991
facility to the court; the appropriate state agencies; and the 81992
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Each 81993
report shall be made available to residents, their guardians, and 81994
families.81995

       (e) Compromise demands or claims; and81996

       (f) Generally do such acts respecting the residential 81997
facility as the court authorizes.81998

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts which 81999
are necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver 82000
need not be competitively bid.82001

       Sec. 5119.611.        Sec. 5119.36. (A) A community mental health agency82002
services provider applicant or community addiction services 82003
provider applicant that seeks certification of its community 82004
mental health services or community addiction services shall 82005
submit an application to the director of mental healthmental 82006
health and addiction services. On receipt of the application, the 82007
director may visitconduct an on-site review and shall evaluate 82008
the agencyprovider to determine whether its services satisfy the 82009
standards established by rules adopted under division (C)(E) of 82010
this section. The director shall make the evaluation, and, if the 82011
director visitsconducts an on-site review of the agency82012
provider, shallmay make the visitreview, in cooperation with 82013
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 82014
with which the agencyprovider seeks to contract under division 82015
(A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.82016

       (B) Subject to section 5119.6125119.37 of the Revised Code, 82017
the director shall determine whether the services of an 82018
applicant's community mental health agencyapplicant satisfy the 82019
standards for certification of the services. If the director 82020
determines that a community mental health agency's services 82021
provider's or a community addiction services provider's services82022
satisfy the standards for certification and the agencyprovider82023
has paid the fee required under division (D) of this section, the 82024
director shall certify the services. No community mental health 82025
services provider or community addiction services provider shall 82026
be eligible to receive state or federal funds, or funds 82027
administered by an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82028
services board unless its services have been certified by the 82029
department.82030

       (C) If the director determines that a community mental health 82031
agency's services provider's or a community addiction services 82032
provider's services do not satisfy the standards for 82033
certification, the director shall identify the areas of 82034
noncompliance, specify what action is necessary to satisfy the 82035
standards, and may offer technical assistance to the provider and82036
to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82037
services so that the board may assist the agencyprovider in 82038
satisfying the standards. The director shall give the agency82039
provider a reasonable time within which to demonstrate that its 82040
services satisfy the standards or to bring the services into 82041
compliance with the standards. If the director concludes that the 82042
services continue to fail to satisfy the standards, the director 82043
may request that the board reallocate theany funds for the 82044
community mental health or addiction services the agencyprovider82045
was to provide to another community mental health agencyor 82046
addiction services provider whose community mental health or 82047
community addiction services satisfy the standards. If the board 82048
does not reallocate thosesuch funds in a reasonable period of 82049
time, the director may withhold state and federal funds for the 82050
community mental health services and allocate those funds directly 82051
to a community mental health agencyor community addiction 82052
services provider whose community mental health services satisfy 82053
the standards.82054

       (D) Each community mental health agencyservices provider or 82055
community addiction services provider seeking certification of its 82056
community mental health or addiction services under this section 82057
shall pay a fee for the certification required by this section, 82058
unless the provider is exempt under rules adopted under division 82059
(E) of this section. Fees shall be paid into the state treasury to 82060
the credit of the sale of goods and services fund created pursuant 82061
to section 5119.1615119.45 of the Revised Code.82062

       (E) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 82063
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 82064
shall do all of the following:82065

       (1) Establish certification standards for community mental 82066
health services, including assertive community treatment and 82067
intensive home-based mental health services,and addiction 82068
services that are consistent with nationally recognized applicable 82069
standards and facilitate participation in federal assistance 82070
programs. The rules shall include as certification standards only 82071
requirements that improve the quality of services or the health 82072
and safety of clients ofpersons receiving community mental health 82073
and addiction services. The standards shall address at a minimum 82074
all of the following:82075

       (a) Reporting major unusual incidents to the director;82076

       (b) Procedures for applicants for and clients ofpersons 82077
receiving community mental health and addiction services to file 82078
grievances and complaints;82079

       (c) Seclusion;82080

       (d) Restraint;82081

       (e) Development of written policies addressing the rights of 82082
clientspersons receiving services, including all of the 82083
following:82084

       (i) The right to a copy of the written policies addressing 82085
clientthe rights of persons receiving services;82086

       (ii) The right at all times to be treated with consideration 82087
and respect for the client'sperson's privacy and dignity;82088

       (iii) The right to have access to the client'sperson's own 82089
psychiatric, medical, or other treatment records unless access is 82090
specifically restricted in the client'sperson's treatment plan 82091
for clear treatment reasons;82092

       (iv) The right to have a client rights officer provided by 82093
the agencyservices provider or board of alcohol, drug addiction, 82094
and mental health services advise the clientperson of the 82095
client'sperson's rights, including the client'sperson's rights 82096
under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code if the clientperson is 82097
committed to the agencyprovider or board.82098

       (2) Establish standards for qualifications of mental health 82099
professionals as defined in section 340.02 of the Revised Code and 82100
personnel who provide the community mental health services;82101

       (3) Establish the process for certification of community 82102
mental health and addiction services;82103

       (4)(3) Set the amount of certification review fees based on a 82104
portion of the cost of performing the review;82105

       (5)(4) Specify the type of notice and hearing to be provided 82106
prior to a decision on whether to reallocate funds.82107

       Sec. 5119.613.        Sec. 5119.361. The director of mental healthmental 82108
health and addiction services shall require that each board of 82109
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services ensure that 82110
each community mental health agencyservices provider and 82111
community addiction services provider with which it contracts 82112
under division (A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to 82113
provide community mental health or addiction services establish 82114
grievance procedures consistent with rules adopted under section 82115
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code that are available to all 82116
applicants for and clients of thepersons seeking or receiving 82117
services from a community mental health or addiction services 82118
provider.82119

       Sec. 5119.612.        Sec. 5119.37.  (A) In lieu of a determination by the 82120
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services of 82121
whether the services of a community mental health agencyservices 82122
provider or a community addiction services provider satisfy the 82123
standards for certification under section 5119.6115119.36 of the 82124
Revised Code, the director shall accept appropriate accreditation 82125
of an applicant's mental health services, alcohol and drug 82126
addiction services, integrated mental health and alcohol and other 82127
drug addiction services, or integrated mental health and physical 82128
health services, or integrated alcohol and other drug addiction 82129
and physical health services being provided in this state from any 82130
of the following national accrediting organizations as evidence 82131
that the applicant satisfies the standards for certification:82132

       (1) The joint commission;82133

       (2) The commission on accreditation of rehabilitation 82134
facilities;82135

       (3) The council on accreditation.82136

       (B) If the director determines that an applicant's 82137
accreditation is current, is appropriate for the services for 82138
which the applicant is seeking certification, and the applicant 82139
meets any other requirements established under this section or in 82140
rules adopted under this section, the director shall certify the 82141
applicant's services that are accredited. Except as provided in 82142
division (C)(2) of this section, the director shall issue the 82143
certification without further evaluation of the services.82144

       (C) For purposes of this section, all of the following apply:82145

       (1) The director may review the accrediting organizations 82146
listed in division (A) of this section to evaluate whether the 82147
accreditation standards and processes used by the organizations 82148
are consistent with service delivery models the director considers 82149
appropriate for mental health services, alcohol or other drug 82150
addiction services, physical health services, or both. The 82151
director may communicate to an accrediting organization any 82152
identified concerns, trends, needs, and recommendations.82153

       (2) The director may visitconduct an on-site review or 82154
otherwise evaluate a community mental health agencyservices 82155
provider or a community addiction services provider at any time 82156
based on cause, including complaints made by or on behalf of 82157
consumerspersons receiving services and confirmed or alleged 82158
deficiencies brought to the attention of the director.82159

       (3) The director shall require a community mental health 82160
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 82161
provider to notify the director not later than ten days after any 82162
change in the agency'sprovider's accreditation status. The agency82163
provider may notify the director by providing a copy of the 82164
relevant document the agencyprovider received from the 82165
accrediting organization.82166

       (4) The director shall require a community mental health 82167
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 82168
provider to submit to the director reports of major unusual 82169
incidents.82170

       (5) The director may require a community mental health agency82171
services provider or a community addiction services provider to 82172
submit to the director cost reports pertaining to the agency82173
provider.82174

       (D) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 82175
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. In adopting 82176
the rules, the director shall do all of the following:82177

       (1) Specify the documentation that must be submitted as 82178
evidence of holding appropriate accreditation;82179

       (2) Establish a process by which the director may review the 82180
accreditation standards and processes used by the national 82181
accrediting organizations listed in division (A) of this section;82182

       (3) Specify the circumstances under which reports of major 82183
unusual incidents and agencyprovider cost reports must be 82184
submitted to the director;82185

       (4) Specify the circumstances under which the director may 82186
visitconduct an on-site review or otherwise evaluate a community 82187
mental health agencyservices provider and a community addiction 82188
services provider for cause;82189

       (5) Establish a process by which the director, based on 82190
deficiencies identified as a result of visitingconducting an 82191
on-site review or evaluating a community mental health agency82192
services provider or a community addiction services provider under 82193
division (C)(2) of this section, may take any of a range of 82194
corrective actions, with the most stringent being revocation of 82195
the certification of the agency'sprovider's services.82196

       Sec. 3793.10.        Sec. 5119.38.  A drivers' intervention program may be 82197
used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment for an offender 82198
sentenced pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) of section 4511.19 of the 82199
Revised Code, if it is certified by the director of alcohol and 82200
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services82201
pursuant to this section. No drivers' intervention program shall 82202
be used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment that is 82203
imposed pursuant to division (G)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of 82204
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.82205

       To qualify for certification by the director and to receive 82206
funds from the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 82207
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code in any amounts and at any 82208
times that the director determines are appropriate, a drivers' 82209
intervention program shall meet state minimum standards that the 82210
director shall establish by rule. The rules shall include, but are 82211
not limited to, standards governing program course hours and 82212
content, qualifications of program personnel, methods of 82213
identifying and testing participants to isolate participants with 82214
alcohol and drug abuse problems, referral of such persons to 82215
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers, 82216
the prompt notification of courts by program operators of the 82217
completion of the programs by persons required by courts to attend 82218
them, and record keeping, including methods of tracking 82219
participants for a reasonable time after they have left the 82220
program.82221

       The director shall issue a certificate to any qualified 82222
drivers' intervention program. The certificate is valid for three 82223
years.82224

       Sec. 3793.11.        Sec. 5119.39.  (A) No alcohol and drugcommunity82225
addiction programservices provider shall employ methadone 82226
treatment or prescribe, dispense, or administer methadone unless 82227
the program is licensed under this section. No alcohol and drug82228
community addiction programservices provider licensed under this 82229
section shall maintain methadone treatment in a manner 82230
inconsistent with this section and the rules adopted under it.82231

       (B) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program82232
services provider may apply to the department of alcohol and drug 82233
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services for a 82234
license to maintain methadone treatment. The department shall 82235
review all applications received.82236

       (C) The department may issue a license to maintain methadone 82237
treatment to an alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program82238
services provider only if all of the following apply:82239

       (1) The programprovider is operated by a private, nonprofit 82240
organization or by a government entity;82241

       (2) For at least two years immediately preceding the date of 82242
application, the programprovider has been fully certified under 82243
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;82244

       (3) The programprovider has not been denied a license to 82245
maintain methadone treatment or had its license withdrawn or 82246
revoked within the five-year period immediately preceding the date 82247
of application;82248

       (4) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 82249
programprovider is adequately staffed and equipped to maintain 82250
methadone treatment;82251

       (5) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 82252
programprovider will maintain methadone treatment in strict 82253
compliance with section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other 82254
laws relating to drug abuse, and the rules adopted by the 82255
department;82256

       (6) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, there 82257
is no public or private school, licensed child day-care center, or 82258
other child-serving agency within a radius of five hundred feet of 82259
the location where the program is to maintain methadone treatment.82260

        (D) The department may waive the requirement of division 82261
(C)(6) of this section if it receives, from each public or private 82262
school, licensed child day-care center, or other child-serving 82263
agency that is within the applicable radius of the location where 82264
the program is to maintain methadone treatment, a letter of 82265
support for the location. The department shall determine whether a 82266
letter of support is satisfactory for purposes of waiving the 82267
requirement.82268

       (E) A license to maintain methadone treatment shall expire 82269
one year from the date of issuance. Licenses may be renewed.82270

       (F) The department shall establish procedures and adopt rules 82271
for licensing, inspection, and supervision of alcohol and drug82272
community addiction programsservices providers that maintain 82273
methadone treatment. The rules shall establish standards for the 82274
control, storage, furnishing, use, and dispensing of methadone, 82275
prescribe minimum standards for the operation of the methadone 82276
treatment component of the program,provider's operations and 82277
comply with federal laws and regulations.82278

       All rules adopted under this division shall be adopted in 82279
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. All actions 82280
taken by the department regarding the licensing of programs82281
providers to maintain methadone treatment shall be conducted in 82282
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as 82283
provided in division (L) of this section.82284

       (G) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services82285
mental health and addiction services shall inspect all alcohol and 82286
drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed to 82287
maintain methadone treatment. Inspections shall be conducted at 82288
least annually and may be conducted more frequently. No person or 82289
government entity shall interfere with a state or local government 82290
official acting on behalf of the department while conducting an 82291
inspection.82292

       (H) An alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 82293
provider shall not administer or dispense methadone in a tablet, 82294
powder, or intravenous form. Methadone shall be administered or 82295
dispensed only in a liquid form intended for ingestion. A program82296
services provider shall not administer or dispense methadone to an 82297
individual for pain or other medical reasons.82298

       (I) As used in this division, "program sponsor" means a 82299
person who assumes responsibility for the operation and employees 82300
of the methadone treatment component of an alcohol and druga 82301
community addiction programservices provider.82302

        An alcohol and drugA community addiction programservices 82303
provider shall not employ an individual who receives methadone 82304
treatment from that programservices provider. A program shall not 82305
permit an individual to act as a programprovider sponsor, 82306
medical director, or director of the programprovider if the 82307
individual is receiving methadone treatment from any alcohol and 82308
drugcommunity addiction programservices provider.82309

       (J) The department may issue orders to assure compliance with 82310
section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other laws relating to 82311
drug abuse, and the rules adopted under this section. Subject to 82312
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code, the department may 82313
hold hearings, require the production of relevant matter, compel 82314
testimony, issue subpoenas, and make adjudications. Upon failure 82315
of a person without lawful excuse to obey a subpoena or to produce 82316
relevant matter, the department may apply to a court of common 82317
pleas for an order compelling compliance.82318

       (K) The department may refuse to issue, or may withdraw or 82319
revoke, a license to maintain methadone treatment. A license may 82320
be refused if an alcohol and druga community addiction program82321
services provider does not meet the requirements of division (C) 82322
of this section. A license may be withdrawn at any time the 82323
department determines that the program no longer meets the 82324
requirements for receiving the license. A license may be revoked 82325
in accordance with division (L) of this section.82326

        In the case of a license issued prior to the effective date 82327
of this amendmentDecember 20, 2012, the department shall not 82328
consider the requirement of division (C)(6) of this section in 82329
determining whether to renew, withdraw, or revoke the license.82330

        (L) If the department of alcohol and drug addiction services82331
mental health and addiction services finds reasonable cause to 82332
believe that an alcohol and druga community addiction program82333
services provider licensed under this section is in violation of 82334
any provision of section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, or of any 82335
other state or federal law or rule relating to drug abuse, the 82336
department may issue an order immediately revoking the license, 82337
subject to division (M) of this section. The department shall set 82338
a date not more than fifteen days later than the date of the order 82339
of revocation for a hearing on the continuation or cancellation of 82340
the revocation. For good cause, the department may continue the 82341
hearing on application of any interested party. In conducting 82342
hearings, the department has all the authority and power set forth 82343
in division (J) of this section. Following the hearing, the 82344
department shall either confirm or cancel the revocation. The 82345
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 82346
Revised Code, except that the programprovider shall not be 82347
permitted to maintain methadone treatment pending the hearing or 82348
pending any appeal from an adjudication made as a result of the 82349
hearing. Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 119. of the 82350
Revised Code to the contrary, a court shall not stay or suspend 82351
any order of revocation issued by the director under this division 82352
pending judicial appeal.82353

       (M) The department shall not revoke a license to maintain 82354
methadone treatment unless all clientsservices recipients82355
receiving methadone treatment from the alcohol and drugcommunity82356
addiction programservices provider are provided adequate 82357
substitute treatment. For purposes of this division, the 82358
department may transfer the clientsservices recipients to other 82359
programs licensed to maintain methadone treatment or replace any 82360
or all of the administrators and staff of the programprovider82361
with representatives of the department who shall continue on a 82362
provisional basis the methadone treatment component of the 82363
program.82364

       (N) Each time the department receives an application from an 82365
alcohol and druga community addiction programservices provider82366
for a license to maintain methadone treatment, issues or refuses 82367
to issue a license, or withdraws or revokes a license, the 82368
department shall notify the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 82369
mental health services of each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 82370
health service district in which the program is operatedprovider 82371
operates.82372

       (O) Whenever it appears to the department from files, upon 82373
complaint, or otherwise, that an alcohol and druga community82374
addiction programservices provider has engaged in any practice 82375
declared to be illegal or prohibited by section 3719.61 of the 82376
Revised Code, or any other state or federal laws or regulations 82377
relating to drug abuse, or when the department believes it to be 82378
in the best interest of the public and necessary for the 82379
protection of the citizens of the state, the department may 82380
request criminal proceedings by laying before the prosecuting 82381
attorney of the proper county any evidence of criminality which 82382
may come to its knowledge.82383

       (P) The department shall maintain a current list of alcohol 82384
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed 82385
by the department under this section and shall provide a copy of 82386
the current list to a judge of a court of common pleas who 82387
requests a copy for the use of the judge under division (H) of 82388
section 2925.03 of the Revised Code. The list of licensed alcohol 82389
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers shall 82390
identify each licensed programprovider by its name, its address, 82391
and the county in which it is located.82392

       Sec. 5119.061.        Sec. 5119.40.  (A) As used in this section, 82393
"mentally ill individual" and "specialized services" have the same 82394
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.82395

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 82396
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 82397
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 82398
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82399
shall determine in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the 82400
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1919(e)(7), 42 82401
U.S.C.A. 3011396r(e)(7), as amended, and regulations adopted 82402
under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act, 42 U.S.C. 1396r(f)(8)(A),82403
whether, because of the individual's physical and mental 82404
condition, a mentally ill individual seeking admission to a 82405
nursing facility requires the level of services provided by a 82406
nursing facility and, if the individual requires that level of 82407
services, whether the individual requires specialized services for 82408
mental illness. The determination required by this division shall 82409
be based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 82410
performed by a person or entity other than the department.82411

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 82412
a determination under this division (B)(1) of this section is not 82413
required for any of the following:82414

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 82415
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 82416
hospital for care;82417

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:82418

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 82419
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 82420
hospital;82421

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 82422
the condition for which care in the hospital was received;82423

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 82424
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 82425
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 82426
services.82427

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 82428
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 82429
stay.82430

       (3) A determination under division (B)(1) of this section is 82431
required for an individual described in division (B)(2)(a) or (b) 82432
of this section if the hospital from which the individual is 82433
transferred or directly admitted to a nursing facility is either 82434
of the following:82435

        (a) A hospital that the department maintains, operates, 82436
manages, and governs under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code for 82437
the care and treatment of mentally ill persons;82438

        (b) A free-standing hospital, or unit of a hospital, licensed 82439
by the department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code.82440

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 82441
(F)(E)(3) of this section, the department of mental healthmental 82442
health and addiction services shall review and determine for each 82443
resident of a nursing facility who is mentally ill, whether the 82444
resident, because of the resident's physical and mental condition, 82445
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and 82446
whether the resident requires specialized services for mental 82447
illness. The review and determination shall be conducted in 82448
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" 82449
and the regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act 82450
and based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 82451
performed by a person or entity other than the department. The 82452
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 82453
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 82454
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.82455

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 82456
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 82457
months before the date of a review and determination under 82458
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 82459
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 82460
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 82461
the department, in consultation with the resident's family or 82462
legal representative and care givers, shall do all of the 82463
following:82464

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 82465
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 82466
medical assistance;82467

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 82468
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 82469
institutional or noninstitutional setting;82470

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 82471
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 82472
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;82473

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 82474
services for the resident's mental illness in the setting chosen 82475
by the resident.82476

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 82477
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 82478
months before the date of the review and determination under 82479
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 82480
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 82481
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 82482
or if the resident is determined to require neither the level of 82483
services provided by a nursing facility nor specialized services 82484
for mental illness, the department shall act in accordance with 82485
its alternative disposition plan approved by the United States 82486
department of health and human services under section 82487
1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."82488

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 82489
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 82490
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 82491
for mental illness, the department of mental healthmental health 82492
and addiction services shall provide or arrange for the provision 82493
of the specialized services needed by the individual or resident 82494
while residing in a nursing facility.82495

       (E) The department of mental healthmental health and 82496
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 82497
119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following:82498

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 82499
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 82500
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 82501
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 82502
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 82503
Act."82504

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 82505
nursing facility resident being assessed;82506

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 82507
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 82508
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 82509
made.82510

       Sec. 5119.69.        Sec. 5119.41.  (A) As used in this section and 82511
section 5119.6915119.411 of the Revised Code:82512

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 82513
the department of aging is required to develop under section 82514
173.42 of the Revised Code.82515

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 82516
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 82517
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 82518
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 82519
particular area, that agency or entity.82520

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 82521
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.82522

       (4)(2) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 82523
means the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 82524
services or, if the department designates an entity under division 82525
(C) of this section for a particular area, the designated entity.82526

       (5)(3) "Residential state supplement program" means the 82527
program administered pursuant to this section.82528

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 82529
addiction services shall implement the residential state 82530
supplement program under which the state supplements the 82531
supplemental security income payments received by aged, blind, or 82532
disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 82533
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended1381 et seq. Residential 82534
state supplement payments shall be used for the provision of 82535
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services to social 82536
security, supplemental security income, and social security 82537
disability insurance recipients who the department determines are 82538
at risk of needing institutional care.82539

       (C) In implementing the program, the department may designate 82540
one or more entities to be responsible for providing 82541
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 82542
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 82543
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 82544
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 82545
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 82546
that capacity.82547

       (D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 82548
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:82549

       (1) Except as provided by division (H) of this section, the 82550
individual must reside in one of the following:82551

       (a) A home orresidential care facility, other than a nursing 82552
home or nursing home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the 82553
department of health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or an 82554
assisted living program as defined in section 5111.89 of the 82555
Revised Code;82556

       (b) A residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 82557
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code licensed by the 82558
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;82559

       (c) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 82560
health housing services certified by the department of mental 82561
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5119.61182562
5119.36 of the Revised Code and approved by a board of alcohol, 82563
drug addiction, and mental health services under division (A)(14) 82564
of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.82565

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 82566
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 82567
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 82568
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for social 82569
security payments, supplemental security income payments, or 82570
social security disability insurance benefits because of a mental 82571
disability, the residential state supplement administrative agency 82572
shall refer the individual to a community mental health agency82573
services provider for an assessment under division (A) of section 82574
340.091 of the Revised Code. 82575

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 82576
established by rules adopted under division (E) of this section.82577

       (E) The directorsdirector of mental healthmental health and 82578
addiction services and job and family servicesmedicaid director82579
shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 82580
Code as necessary to implement the residential state supplement 82581
program.82582

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 82583
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the medicaid82584
director of job and family services may adopt rules establishing 82585
standards for adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning 82586
the level of impairment a person must have so that the amount 82587
appropriated for the program by the general assembly is adequate 82588
for the number of eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit 82589
the eligibility of disabled persons solely on a basis classifying 82590
disabilities as physical or mental. The medicaid director of job 82591
and family services also may adopt rules that establish 82592
eligibility standards for aged, blind, or disabled individuals who 82593
reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 82594
(D)(1) of this section but who, because of their income, do not 82595
receive supplemental security income payments. The rules may 82596
provide that these individuals may include individuals who receive 82597
other types of benefits, including, social security payments or82598
social security disability insurance benefits provided under Title 82599
II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A.82600
401, as amendedet seq. Notwithstanding division (B) of this 82601
section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 82602
them.82603

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 82604
services may adopt rules establishing the method to be used to 82605
determine the amount an eligible individual will receive under the 82606
program. The amount the general assembly appropriates for the 82607
program may be a factor included in the method that director 82608
establishes. 82609

       (F) The county department of job and family services of the 82610
county in which an applicant for the residential state supplement 82611
program resides shall determine whether the applicant meets income 82612
and resource requirements for the program.82613

       (G) The department of mental healthmental health and 82614
addiction services shall maintain a waiting list of any 82615
individuals eligible for payments under this section but not 82616
receiving them because moneys appropriated to the department for 82617
the purposes of this section are insufficient to make payments to 82618
all eligible individuals. An individual may apply to be placed on 82619
the waiting list even though the individual does not reside in one 82620
of the homes or facilities specified in division (D)(1) of this 82621
section at the time of application. The director of mental health82622
mental health and addiction services, by rules adopted in 82623
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may specify 82624
procedures and requirements for placing an individual on the 82625
waiting list and priorities for the order in which individuals 82626
placed on the waiting list are to begin to receive residential 82627
state supplement payments. The rules specifying priorities may 82628
give priority to individuals placed on the waiting list on or 82629
after July 1, 2006, who receive social security payments, social 82630
security disability insurance, or supplemental security income 82631
benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 82632
1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as amendedet seq. The rules shall 82633
not affect the place on the waiting list of any person who was on 82634
the list on July 1, 2006. The rules specifying priorities may also 82635
set additional priorities based on living arrangement, such as 82636
whether an individual resides in a facility listed in division 82637
(D)(1) of this section or has been admitted to a nursing facility.82638

       (H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 82639
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 82640
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 82641
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 82642
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 82643
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 82644
November 15, 1990.82645

       (I) The department of mental healthcounty department of job 82646
and family services from which the person is receiving benefits82647
shall notify each person denied approval for payments under this 82648
section of the person's right to a hearing. On request, the 82649
hearing shall be provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 82650
Revised Code.82651

       Sec. 5119.691.        Sec. 5119.411. On a periodic schedule determined by 82652
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 82653
services, each residential state supplement administrative agency 82654
shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area that 82655
the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the residential 82656
state supplement program have been admitted to a nursing facility. 82657
IfThe department shall have a process in place to ensure that if82658
a residential state supplement administrative agency determines 82659
that such an individual has been admitted to a nursing facility, 82660
the agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 82661
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides 82662
about the determination. The administrator shall determinethere 82663
shall be a determination whether the residential state supplement 82664
program is appropriate for the individual and whether the 82665
individual would rather participate in the program than continue 82666
residing in the nursing facility. If the administrator determines82667
it is determined that the residential state supplement program is 82668
appropriate for the individual and the individual would rather 82669
participate in the program than continue residing in the nursing 82670
facility, the administrator shall so notify the department of 82671
mental health. On receipt of the notice from the administrator, 82672
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 82673
services shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 82674
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 82675
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (G) of 82676
section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code. Each quarter in which 82677
a waiting list is in place, the department of mental healthmental 82678
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 82679
budget and management the estimated increase in costs of the 82680
residential state supplement program resulting from enrollment of 82681
individuals in the program pursuant to this section.82682

       Sec. 5119.63.        Sec. 5119.42.  (A) As used in this section, "private, 82683
nonprofit organization" means a private association, organization, 82684
corporation, or other entity that is tax exempt under section 82685
501(a) and described in section 501(c) of the "Internal Revenue 82686
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501.82687

       (B) To the extent funds are available and on application by 82688
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 82689
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services may 82690
approve state reimbursement of, or state grants for, community 82691
mental health construction programs including residential housing 82692
for severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance 82693
use disorders. The director may also approve an application for 82694
reimbursement or a grant for such programs submitted by other 82695
governmental entities or by private, nonprofit organizations, 82696
after the application has been reviewed and recommended for 82697
approval or disapproval by the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 82698
and mental health services for the district from which the 82699
application came, and the application is consistent with the plan 82700
submitted by the board under division (A) of section 340.03 of the 82701
Revised Code and the budget and statement of services submitted by 82702
the board under divisions (A) and (B) of section 340.08 of the 82703
Revised Code.82704

       (C)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 82705
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 82706
119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for applying for 82707
state reimbursement of and state grants for community construction 82708
programs, including residential housing for severely mentally 82709
disabled persons and persons with substance use disorders and 82710
procedures and criteria for approval of such reimbursement and 82711
grants.82712

       (2) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 82713
services shall not approve state reimbursement or a state grant 82714
unless all of the following conditions are met:82715

       (a) The applicant includes with the application a plan 82716
specifying the services, in addition to housing, that will be 82717
provided to persons who will reside in the residential housing. 82718
Services specified may include any of the services listed82719
described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.82720

       (b) The director is satisfied that the residential housing 82721
for severely mentally disabled persons will be developed to 82722
promote the maximum practical integration of severely mentally 82723
disabled persons with persons at the same site who are not 82724
severely mentally disabled.82725

       (c) The use of any funds distributed pursuant to the 82726
reimbursement or grant will not subject any obligation from which 82727
the funds are derived to federal income taxation.82728

       (3) The director may enter into an agreement establishing 82729
terms for any reimbursement or grant approved under this division 82730
with the organization, board, or other government entity that is 82731
the recipient of the reimbursement or grant. Any such agreement is 82732
subject to any covenant or agreement pertaining to any obligation 82733
issued to provide funds for the reimbursement or grant.82734

       Sec. 5119.631.        Sec. 5119.421.  (A) This section applies to a board 82735
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, another 82736
governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit organization that 82737
received a grant or reimbursement under section 5119.635119.42 of 82738
the Revised Code for a facility on which the department of mental 82739
healthmental health and addiction services holds a security 82740
interest.82741

       (B) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82742
services, another governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit 82743
organization to which this section applies may apply to the 82744
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 82745
approval to sell its facility and acquire, construct, or renovate 82746
a replacement facility pursuant to this section. The director 82747
shall prescribe the form of the application. Before submitting an 82748
application to the director, a governmental entity or private, 82749
nonprofit organization must obtain approval of the application 82750
from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82751
services with jurisdiction over the service district in which the 82752
existing facility is located. The director shall approve an 82753
application for a replacement project upon determining that the 82754
project provides for the continuation of appropriate mental health 82755
and addiction services to the population served by the board, 82756
entity, or organization.82757

       (C) A board, entity, or organization that obtains approval 82758
for a project under division (B) of this section shall pay the 82759
proceeds of the sale of its facility to the director of mental 82760
healthmental health and addiction services. The director shall 82761
deposit the proceeds to the credit of the community capital 82762
replacement facilities fund.82763

       (D) When a board, entity, or organization that has sold its 82764
facility notifies the director of mental healthmental health and 82765
addiction services that it is ready to acquire, construct, or 82766
renovate a replacement facility, the director shall do one of the 82767
following:82768

       (1) If the replacement facility is located in the same 82769
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district as the 82770
original facility, and if the purposes for which the replacement 82771
facility will be used are the same as or similar to those for the 82772
original facility, the director shall pay to the board, entity, or 82773
organization from the community capital replacement facilities 82774
fund an amount equal to the lesser of an amount equal to the 82775
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 82776
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 82777
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. If the amount of 82778
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82779
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 82780
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 82781
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82782
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 82783
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 82784
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 82785
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.82786

       (2) If the replacement facility is located in a different 82787
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district than 82788
the original facility, or if the purposes for which the 82789
replacement facility will be used are not the same as or similar 82790
to those for the original facility, the director shall request 82791
controlling board approval for release of funds for the project. 82792
If the controlling board so approves, the director shall pay to 82793
the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 82794
replacement facilities fund the lesser of an amount equal to the 82795
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 82796
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 82797
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. ifIf the amount of 82798
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82799
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 82800
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 82801
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82802
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 82803
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 82804
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 82805
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.82806

       (E) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 82807
services and a board, entity, or organization shall enter into an 82808
agreement specifying the terms of any payment made to the board, 82809
entity, or organization under division (D) of this section. The 82810
terms may include provision for the department of mental health82811
mental health and addiction services to hold a security interest 82812
in the facility.82813

       (F)(1) When approving an application under division (B) of 82814
this section, the director of mental healthmental health and 82815
addiction services shall establish a deadline by which the board, 82816
entity, or organization must notify the director that it is ready 82817
to acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility. If the 82818
board, entity, or organization does not notify the director on or 82819
before the deadline, the director may cancel the project. Upon 82820
canceling the project, the director shall pay to the board, 82821
entity, or organization from the community capital replacement 82822
facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the proceeds of 82823
the sale of the original facility that exceeds the value of the 82824
state's security interest in the facility.82825

       (2) Notwithstanding the deadline established under division 82826
(F)(1) of this section, if at any time a board, entity, or 82827
organization notifies the director that it does not intend to 82828
acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility under this 82829
section, the director shall cancel the replacement project and pay 82830
to the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 82831
replacement facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the 82832
proceeds of the sale of the original facility that exceeds the 82833
value of the state's security interest in the facility.82834

       (G) If a replacement project is canceled after the sale of 82835
the original facility, the director of mental healthmental health 82836
and addiction services shall use funds equal to the value of the 82837
state's security interest in the original facility for additional 82838
grants or reimbursements under section 5119.635119.42 of the 82839
Revised Code. The director shall obtain the approval of the 82840
controlling board before releasing the additional grants or 82841
reimbursements.82842

       (H) The community capital replacement facilities fund is 82843
hereby created in the state treasury. The director of mental 82844
healthmental health and addiction services shall use the fund for 82845
the purposes of this section.82846

       Sec. 5119.16.        Sec. 5119.44.  As used in this section, "free clinic" 82847
has the same meaning as in section 2305.2341 of the Revised Code.82848

       (A) The department of mental healthmental health and 82849
addiction services may provide certain goods and services for the 82850
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 82851
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 82852
rehabilitation and correction, the department of youth services, 82853
and other state, county, or municipal agencies requesting such 82854
goods and services when the department of mental healthmental 82855
health and addiction services determines that it is in the public 82856
interest, and considers it advisable, to provide these goods and 82857
services. The department of mental healthmental health and 82858
addiction services also may provide goods and services to agencies 82859
operated by the United States government and to public or private 82860
nonprofit agencies, other than free clinics, that are funded in 82861
whole or in part by the state if the public or private nonprofit 82862
agencies are designated for participation in this program by the 82863
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services82864
for community addiction services providers and community mental 82865
health agenciesservices providers, the director of developmental 82866
disabilities for community mental retardation and developmental 82867
disabilities agencies, the director of rehabilitation and 82868
correction for community rehabilitation and correction agencies, 82869
or the director of youth services for community youth services 82870
agencies. 82871

       Designated community agencies or services providers shall 82872
receive goods and services through the department of mental health82873
mental health and addiction services only in those cases where the 82874
designating state agency certifies that providing such goods and 82875
services to the agency or services provider will conserve public 82876
resources to the benefit of the public and where the provision of 82877
such goods and services is considered feasible by the department 82878
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.82879

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 82880
addiction services may permit free clinics to purchase certain 82881
goods and services to the extent the purchases fall within the 82882
exemption to the Robinson-Patman Act, 15 U.S.C. 13 et seq., 82883
applicable to nonprofit institutions, in 15 U.S.C. 13c, as 82884
amended.82885

       (C) The goods and services that may be provided by the 82886
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82887
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may include:82888

       (1) Procurement, storage, processing, and distribution of 82889
food and professional consultation on food operations;82890

       (2) Procurement, storage, and distribution of medical and 82891
laboratory supplies, dental supplies, medical records, forms, 82892
optical supplies, and sundries, subject to section 5120.135 of the 82893
Revised Code;82894

       (3) Procurement, storage, repackaging, distribution, and 82895
dispensing of drugs, the provision of professional pharmacy 82896
consultation, and drug information services;82897

       (4) Other goods and services.82898

       (D) The department of mental healthmental health and 82899
addiction services may provide the goods and services designated 82900
in division (C) of this section to its institutions and to 82901
state-operated community-based mental health or addiction services 82902
providers.82903

       (E) After consultation with and advice from the director of 82904
developmental disabilities, the director of rehabilitation and 82905
correction, and the director of youth services, the department of 82906
mental healthmental health and addiction services may provide the 82907
goods and services designated in division (C) of this section to 82908
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 82909
rehabilitation and correction, and the department of youth 82910
services.82911

       (F) The cost of administration of this section shall be 82912
determined by the department of mental healthmental health and 82913
addiction services and paid by the agencies, services providers,82914
or free clinics receiving the goods and services to the department 82915
for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the mental 82916
healthoffice of support services fund, which is hereby created. 82917
The fund shall be used to pay the cost of administration of this 82918
section to the department.82919

       (G) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for goods 82920
and services provided under this section within thirty-one days 82921
after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 82922
management may transfer moneys from the state agency to the 82923
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services. 82924
The amount transferred shall not exceed the amount of overdue 82925
payments. Prior to making a transfer under this division, the 82926
office of budget and management shall apply any credits the state 82927
agency has accumulated in payments for goods and services provided 82928
under this section.82929

       (H) Purchases of goods and services under this section are 82930
not subject to section 307.86 of the Revised Code.82931

       Sec. 5119.161.        Sec. 5119.45.  Unless otherwise specifically 82932
provided by law, all moneys received by the department of mental 82933
healthmental health and addiction services from the sale of goods 82934
and services, including, but not limited to, shared service 82935
agreements with other governmental entities and nongovernmental 82936
entities, employee housing and cafeteria receipts, fees for 82937
copying services, and sales of other tangible personal property 82938
under the department's control, shall be paid into the state 82939
treasury to the credit of the sale of goods and services fund, 82940
which is hereby created. Moneys received by the department 82941
pursuant to section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised Code shall not 82942
be paid into the fund. The department shall use the moneys in the 82943
fund for paying operating expenses of the department.82944

       Sec. 5119.18.        Sec. 5119.46.  There is hereby created in the state 82945
treasury the department of mental healthmental health and 82946
addiction services trust fund. Not later than the first day of 82947
September of each year, the director of mental healthmental 82948
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 82949
budget and management the amount of all of the unexpended, 82950
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 82951
to the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 82952
services for the previous fiscal year, excluding funds 82953
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio public facilities 82954
commission. On receipt of the certification, the director of 82955
budget and management shall transfer cash to the trust fund in an 82956
amount up to, but not exceeding, the total of the amounts 82957
certified by the director of mental healthmental health and 82958
addiction services.82959

       In addition, the trust fund shall receive all amounts, 82960
subject to any provisions in bond documents, received from the 82961
sale or lease of lands and facilities by the department.82962

       All moneys in the trust fund shall be used by the department 82963
of mental healthmental health and addiction services to pay for 82964
expenditures the department incurs in performing any of its duties 82965
under this chapter. The use of moneys in the trust fund pursuant 82966
to this section does not represent an ongoing commitment to the 82967
continuation of the trust fund or to the use of moneys in the 82968
trust fund.82969

       Sec. 3793.032.        Sec. 5119.47.  The director of alcohol and drug 82970
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 82971
administer the problem casino gambling and addictions fund. The 82972
director shall use the money in the fund to support programs that 82973
provide gambling addiction services, alcohol and drug addiction 82974
programs that provide alcohol and drug addiction services, other 82975
programsservices that relate to gambling addiction and substance 82976
abuse, and research that relates to gambling addiction and 82977
substance abuse. Treatment and prevention services provided under 82978
programs supported by money in the fund under this section shall 82979
be services that are provided by alcohol and drug addiction 82980
treatment programs certified by the department of alcohol and 82981
drug addiction services or provided by counselors who are 82982
certified by the departmentmental health and addiction services. 82983
Prevention services provided under programssupported by money in 82984
the fund under this section shall be services that are provided by 82985
alcohol and drug addiction prevention programs certified by the 82986
department of alcohol and drug addiction services.82987

       The director shall prepare an annual report describing the 82988
use of the fund for these purposes. The director shall submit the 82989
report to the Ohio casino control commission, the speaker and 82990
minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and 82991
minority leader of the senate, the governor, and the joint 82992
committee on gaming and wagering.82993

       Sec. 3793.22.        Sec. 5119.49. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 82994
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 82995
collaborate with the state board of pharmacy and attorney general 82996
in the establishment and administration of a drug take-back 82997
program, as provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code.82998

       (B) The department may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 82999
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 83000
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 83001
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.83002

       Sec. 5119.34.        Sec. 5119.50.  The director of mental healthmental 83003
health and addiction services may accept, hold, and administer in 83004
trust on behalf of the state, if it is for the public interest, 83005
any grant, gift, devise, or bequest of money or property made to 83006
the state for the use or benefit of any institution described in 83007
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or for the use and 83008
benefit of mentally ill persons under its control. If the trust so 83009
provides, the money or property may be used for any work which the 83010
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services83011
is authorized to undertake.83012

       The department shall keep such gift, grant, devise, or 83013
bequest as a distinct property or fund and, if it is in money, 83014
shall invest it in the manner provided by law. The department may 83015
deposit in a proper trust company or savings bank any money left 83016
in trust during a specified life or lives and shall adopt rules 83017
governing the deposit, transfer, withdrawal, or investment of such 83018
money and the income thereof.83019

       The department shall, in the manner prescribed by the 83020
director of budget and management pursuant to section 126.21 of 83021
the Revised Code, account for all money or property received or 83022
expended under this section. The records, together with a 83023
statement certified by the depository showing the funds deposited 83024
there to the credit of the trust, shall be open to public 83025
inspection. The director of budget and management may require the 83026
department to file a report with himthe director on any 83027
particular portion, or the whole, of any trust property received 83028
or expended by it.83029

       The department shall, upon the expiration of any trust 83030
according to its terms, dispose of the funds or property held 83031
thereunder in the manner provided in the instrument creating the 83032
trust. If the instrument creating the trust failed to make any 83033
terms of disposition, or if no trust was in evidence, then the 83034
decedent patient's money, saving or commercial deposits, dividends 83035
or distributions, bonds, or any other interest-bearing debt 83036
certificate or stamp issued by the United States government shall 83037
escheat to the state. All such unclaimed intangible personal 83038
property of a former patient shall be retained by the managing 83039
officer in such institution for the period of one year, during 83040
which time every possible effort shall be made to find such former 83041
patient or histhe former patient's legal representative.83042

       If, after a period of one year from the time the patient has 83043
left the institution or has died, the managing officer has been 83044
unable to locate such person or histhe person's legal 83045
representative, then upon proper notice of such fact the director 83046
shall at that time formulate in writing a method of disposition on 83047
the minutes of the department authorizing the managing officer to 83048
convert such intangible personal property to cash to be paid into 83049
the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.83050

       The department shall include in its annual report a statement 83051
of all money and property and the terms and conditions relating 83052
thereto.83053

       Sec. 5119.17.        Sec. 5119.51.  (A) As used in this section, 83054
"supplemental services" has the same meaning as in section 5815.28 83055
of the Revised Code.83056

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 83057
services fund for individuals with mental illness. On the death of 83058
the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to section 5815.28 of 83059
the Revised Code, the portion of the remaining assets of the trust 83060
specified in the trust instrument shall be deposited to the credit 83061
of the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used for 83062
individuals with mental illness.83063

       Supplemental services may be provided through the department 83064
or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. 83065
In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 83066
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services83067
may adopt any rules necessary to implement this section.83068

       Sec. 5119.36.        Sec. 5119.52.  Each managing officer of an 83069
institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental 83070
healthmental health and addiction services as described in 83071
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code, with the approval of 83072
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 83073
services, may establish local institution funds designated as 83074
follows:83075

       (A) Industrial and entertainment fund created and maintained 83076
for the entertainment and welfare of the patients of the 83077
institution. The director shall establish rules for the operation 83078
of the industrial and entertainment fund.83079

       (B) Commissary fund created and maintained for the benefit of 83080
patients in the institution. Commissary revenue over and above 83081
operating costs and reserve shall be considered profits. All 83082
profits from the commissary fund operations shall be paid into the 83083
industrial and entertainment fund and used only for the 83084
entertainment and wel farewelfare of patients. The director shall 83085
establish rules for the operation of the commissary fund.83086

       Sec. 5119.33.        Sec. 5119.54.  The treasurer of state shall have 83087
charge of all funds under the jurisdiction of the department of 83088
mental healthmental health and addiction services and shall pay 83089
out the same only in accordance with this chapter.83090

       The department shall cause to be furnished a contract of 83091
indemnity to cover all funds received by it or by its managing 83092
officers, employees, or agents while the funds are in the 83093
possession of such managing officers, employees or agents. Such 83094
funds are designated as follows:83095

       (A) Funds which are due and payable to the treasurer of state 83096
as provided by Chapter 131. of the Revised Code;83097

       (B) Those funds which are held in trust by the managing 83098
officers, employees, or agents of the institution as local funds 83099
or accounts under the jurisdiction of the department.83100

       Such contract of indemnity shall be made payable to the state 83101
and the premium for such contract of indemnity may be paid from 83102
any of the moneys received for the use of the department under 83103
this chapter and Chapters 5121. and 5122. of the Revised Code.83104

       Funds collected from various sources, such as the sale of 83105
goods, and all miscellaneous articles, shall be transmitted on or 83106
before Monday of each week to the treasurer of state and a 83107
detailed statement of such collections shall be made to the 83108
department.83109

       Sec. 5119.351.        Sec. 5119.55.  The department of mental health83110
mental health and addiction services may pay an amount for 83111
personal use to each individual residing in a state institution as 83112
described in section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code who would 83113
be eligible for supplemental security income benefits at the 83114
reduced rate established by Title XVI of the "Social Security 83115
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1382, as amended1381 et 83116
seq., if the state plan for providing medical assistance under 83117
section 5111.01 of the Revised Code included reimbursement of83118
medicaid program covers services provided in such institutions. 83119
The amount paid by the department shall not exceed the reduced 83120
supplemental security income benefit rate established by Title XVI 83121
of the "Social Security Act."83122

       Sec. 5119.35.        Sec. 5119.56.  Money or property deposited with 83123
managing officers of institutions under the jurisdiction of the 83124
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services83125
by any patient under the department's control or by relatives, 83126
guardians, conservators, and others for the special benefit of 83127
such patient, as well as all other funds and all other income paid 83128
to the patient, histhe patient's estate, or on histhe patient's83129
behalf, or paid to the managing officer or to the institution as 83130
representative payee or otherwise paid on the patient's behalf, 83131
shall remain in the hands of such officers in appropriate accounts 83132
for use accordingly. The managing officer shall keep itemized book 83133
accounts of the receipt and disposition of such money and 83134
property, which book shall be open at all times to the inspection 83135
of the department. The director of mental healthmental health 83136
and addiction services shall adopt rules governing the deposit, 83137
transfer, withdrawal, or investment of the funds and the income 83138
thereof, as well as rules under which such funds and income shall 83139
be paid by managing officers for the support of the patients 83140
pursuant to Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code, or for their other 83141
needs.83142

       Whenever any patient confined in any state institution 83143
subject to the jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is 83144
discharged from such institution, and any personal funds of such 83145
person remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof and no 83146
demand for such funds is made upon such managing officer by the 83147
owner of the funds or histhe owner's legally appointed 83148
representative, the managing officer shall hold the funds in the 83149
personal deposit fund for a period of at least one year during 83150
which time the managing officer shall make every effort possible 83151
to locate the owner or histhe owner's legally appointed 83152
representative.83153

       If at the end of this period no demand has been made for the 83154
funds, the managing officer shall dispose of the funds as follows:83155

       (A) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 83156
dollars due for the support of a patient shall be paid in 83157
accordance with the provisions of Chapter 5121. of the Revised 83158
Code.83159

       (B) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 83160
dollars not due for the support of a patient shall be placed to 83161
the credit of the institution's local account designated as the 83162
"industrial and entertainment" fund.83163

       (C) The first ten dollars to the credit of a patient shall be 83164
placed to the credit of the institution's local account designated 83165
as the "industrial and entertainment" fund.83166

       Whenever any patient in any state institution subject to the 83167
jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is discharged 83168
from such institution, and any personal effects of such person 83169
remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof, and no demand 83170
is made upon such managing officer by the owner of the property or 83171
histhe owner's legally appointed representative, the managing 83172
officer shall hold and dispose of such property in the following 83173
manner.83174

       All the miscellaneous personal effects shall be held for a 83175
period of at least one year, during which time the managing 83176
officer shall make every effort possible to locate the owner or83177
histhe owner's legal representative. If at the end of this 83178
period, no demand has been made by the owner of the property or 83179
histhe owner's legal representative, the managing officer shall 83180
file with the county recorder of the county of commitment of such 83181
owner, all deeds, wills, contract mortgages, or assignments. The 83182
balance of the personal effects shall be sold at public auction 83183
after being duly advertised, and the funds turned over to the 83184
treasurer of state for credit to the general revenue fund. If any 83185
of the property is not of a type to be filed with the county 83186
recorder and is not salable at public auction, then the managing 83187
officer of the institution shall destroy such property.83188

       Sec. 5119.46.        Sec. 5119.60. In its annual report, theThe83189
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services83190
shall submit an annual report to the governor that shall describe 83191
the services the department offers and how appropriated funds have 83192
been spent. The report shall include theall of the following:83193

       (A) The utilization of state hospitals by each alcohol, drug 83194
addiction, and mental health service district, the;83195

       (B) The number of persons served by community addiction 83196
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 83197
department, with a breakdown into categories including age, sex, 83198
race, the type of drug to which the person is addicted, and any 83199
other categories the director of mental health and addiction 83200
services considers significant;83201

       (C) The number of severely mentally disabled persons served 83202
in each district, and the;83203

       (D) The number and types of services provided to severely 83204
mentally disabled persons through state-operated services and 83205
community mental health agenciesservices providers;83206

       (E) A report measuring the success of community addiction 83207
services providers, based on the measures for accountability 83208
developed by the department, including the percentage of persons 83209
served by such community addiction services providers who have not 83210
relapsed;83211

       (F) Any other information that the director considers 83212
significant or is requested by the governor.83213

       Sec. 3793.12.        Sec. 5119.61.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 83214
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 83215
collect and compile statistics and other information on the care 83216
and treatment of mentally disabled persons, and the care, 83217
treatment, and rehabilitation of alcoholics, drug dependent 83218
persons, and persons in danger of drug dependence in this state, 83219
including, without limitation, information on the number of such 83220
persons, the type of drug involved, the type of care, treatment, 83221
or rehabilitation prescribed or undertaken, and the success or 83222
failure of the care, treatment, or rehabilitation. The department 83223
shall collect information about services delivered and persons 83224
served as required for reporting and evaluation relating to state 83225
and federal funds expended for such purposes.83226

       (B) No alcohol or, drug addiction program, or mental health 83227
services provider shall fail to supply statistics and other 83228
information within its knowledge and with respect to its programs83229
services, upon request of the department.83230

       (C) Communications by a person seeking aid in good faith for 83231
alcoholism or drug dependence are confidential, and this section 83232
does not require the collection or permit the disclosure of 83233
information which reveals or comprises the identity of any person 83234
seeking aid.83235

       (D) Based on the information collected and compiled under 83236
division (A) of this section, the department shall develop a 83237
project to assess the outcomes of persons served by alcohol and 83238
drug addiction programsservices providers and mental health 83239
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 83240
department.83241

       Sec. 5119.50.        Sec. 5119.70.  The "interstate compact on mental 83242
health" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by 83243
the state of Ohio as a party thereto with any other state which 83244
has legally joined in the compact as follows:83245

INTERSTATE COMPACT ON MENTAL HEALTH
83246

       The contracting states solemnly agree that:83247

Article I
83248

       The party states find that the proper and expeditious 83249
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded can be 83250
facilitated by cooperative action, to the benefit of the patients, 83251
their families, and society as a whole. Further, the party states 83252
find that the necessity of and desirability for furnishing such 83253
care and treatment bears no primary relation to the residence or 83254
citizenship of the patient but that, on the contrary, the 83255
controlling factors of community safety and humanitarianism 83256
require that facilities and services be made available for all who 83257
are in need of them. Consequently, it is the purpose of this 83258
compact and of the party states to provide the necessary legal 83259
basis for the institutionalization or other appropriate care and 83260
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded under a system 83261
that recognizes the paramount importance of patient welfare and to 83262
establish the responsibilities of the party states in terms of 83263
such welfare.83264

Article II
83265

       As used in this compact:83266

       (a) "Sending state" shall mean a party state from which a 83267
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 83268
or from which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.83269

       (b) "Receiving state" shall mean a party state to which a 83270
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 83271
or to which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.83272

       (c) "Institution" shall mean any hospital or other facility 83273
maintained by a party state or political subdivision thereof for 83274
the care and treatment of mental illness or mental retardation.83275

       (d) "Patient" shall mean any person subject to or eligible as 83276
determined by the laws of the sending state, for 83277
institutionalization or other care, treatment, or supervision 83278
pursuant to the provisions of this compact.83279

       (e) "After-care" shall mean care, treatment and services 83280
provided a patient, as defined herein, or convalescent status or 83281
conditional release.83282

       (f) "Mental illness" shall mean mental disease to such extent 83283
that a person so afflicted requires care and treatment for his own 83284
welfare, or the welfare of others, or of the community.83285

       (g) "Mental retardation" shall mean mental retardation as 83286
defined by appropriate clinical authorities to such extent that a 83287
person so afflicted is incapable of managing himself and his 83288
affairs, but shall not include mental illness as defined herein.83289

       (h) "State" shall mean any state, territory or possession of 83290
the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth 83291
of Puerto Rico.83292

Article III
83293

       (a) Whenever a person physically present in any party state 83294
shall be in need of institutionalization by reason of mental 83295
illness or mental retardation, he shall be eligible for care and 83296
treatment in an institution in that state irrespective of his 83297
residence, settlement or citizenship qualifications.83298

       (b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this article to the 83299
contrary notwithstanding, any patient may be transferred to an 83300
institution in another state whenever there are factors based upon 83301
clinical determinations indicating that the care and treatment of 83302
said patient would be facilitated or improved thereby. Any such 83303
institutionalization may be for the entire period of care and 83304
treatment or for any portion or portions thereof. The factors 83305
referred to in this paragraph shall include the patient's full 83306
record with due regard for the location of the patient's family, 83307
character of the illness and probable duration thereof, and such 83308
other factors as shall be considered appropriate.83309

       (c) No state shall be obliged to receive any patient pursuant 83310
to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this article unless the 83311
sending state has given advance notice of its intention to send 83312
the patient; furnished all available medical and other pertinent 83313
records concerning the patient; given the qualified medical or 83314
other appropriate clinical authorities of the receiving state an 83315
opportunity to examine the patient if said authorities so wish; 83316
and unless the receiving state shall agree to accept the patient.83317

       (d) In the event that the laws of the receiving state 83318
establish a system of priorities for the admission of patients, an 83319
interstate patient under this compact shall receive the same 83320
priority as a local patient and shall be taken in the same order 83321
and at the same time that he would be taken if he were a local 83322
patient.83323

       (e) Pursuant to this compact, the determination as to the 83324
suitable place of institutionalization for a patient may be 83325
reviewed at any time and such further transfer of the patient may 83326
be made as seems likely to be in the best interest of the patient.83327

Article IV
83328

       (a) Whenever, pursuant to the laws of the state in which a 83329
patient is physically present, it shall be determined that the 83330
patient should receive after-care or supervision, such care or 83331
supervision may be provided in a receiving state. If the medical 83332
or other appropriate clinical authorities having responsibility 83333
for the care and treatment of the patient in the sending state 83334
shall have reason to believe that after-care in another state 83335
would be in the best interest of the patient and would not 83336
jeopardize the public safety, they shall request the appropriate 83337
authorities in the receiving state to investigate the desirability 83338
of affording the patient such after-care in said receiving state, 83339
and such investigation shall be made with all reasonable speed. 83340
The request for investigation shall be accompanied by complete 83341
information concerning the patient's intended place of residence 83342
and the identity of the person in whose charge it is proposed to 83343
place the patient, the complete medical history of the patient, 83344
and such other documents as may be pertinent.83345

       (b) If the medical or other appropriate clinical authorities 83346
having responsibility for the care and treatment of the patient in 83347
the sending state and the appropriate authorities in the receiving 83348
state find that the best interest of the patient would be served 83349
thereby, and if the public safety would not be jeopardized 83350
thereby, the patient may receive after-care or supervision in the 83351
receiving state.83352

       (c) In supervising, treating, or caring for a patient on 83353
after-care pursuant to the terms of this article, a receiving 83354
state shall employ the same standards of visitation, examination, 83355
care, and treatment that it employs for similar local patients.83356

Article V
83357

       Whenever a dangerous or potentially dangerous patient escapes 83358
from an institution in any party state, that state shall promptly 83359
notify all appropriate authorities within and without the 83360
jurisdiction of the escape in a manner reasonably calculated to 83361
facilitate the speedy apprehension of the escapee. Immediately 83362
upon the apprehension and identification of any such dangerous or 83363
potentially dangerous patient, he shall be detained in the state 83364
where found pending disposition in accordance with law.83365

Article VI
83366

       The duly accredited officers of any state party to this 83367
compact, upon the establishment of their authority and the 83368
identity of the patient, shall be permitted to transport any 83369
patient being moved pursuant to this compact through any and all 83370
states party to this compact, without interference.83371

Article VII
83372

       (a) No person shall be deemed a patient of more than one 83373
institution at any given time. Completion of transfer of any 83374
patient to an institution in a receiving state shall have the 83375
effect of making the person a patient of the institution in the 83376
receiving state.83377

       (b) The sending state shall pay all costs of and incidental 83378
to the transportation of any patient pursuant to this compact, but 83379
any two or more party states may, by making a specific agreement 83380
for that purpose, arrange for a different allocation of costs as 83381
among themselves.83382

       (c) No provision of this compact shall be construed to alter 83383
or affect any internal relationships among the departments, 83384
agencies and officers of and in the government of a party state, 83385
or between a party state and its subdivisions, as to the payment 83386
of costs, or responsibilities therefor.83387

       (d) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to prevent any 83388
party state or subdivision thereof from asserting any right 83389
against any person, agency or other entity in regard to costs for 83390
which such party state or subdivision thereof may be responsible 83391
pursuant to any provision of this compact.83392

       (e) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to invalidate 83393
any reciprocal agreement between a party state and a nonparty 83394
state relating to institutionalization, care or treatment of the 83395
mentally ill or mentally retarded, or any statutory authority 83396
pursuant to which such agreements may be made.83397

Article VIII
83398

       (a) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to abridge, 83399
diminish, or in any way impair the rights, duties, and 83400
responsibilities of any patient's guardian on his own behalf or in 83401
respect of any patient for whom he may serve, except that where 83402
the transfer of any patient to another jurisdiction makes 83403
advisable the appointment of a supplemental or substitute 83404
guardian, any court of competent jurisdiction in the receiving 83405
state may make such supplemental or substitute appointment and the 83406
court which appointed the previous guardian shall upon being duly 83407
advised of the new appointment, and upon the satisfactory 83408
completion of such accounting and other acts as such court may by 83409
law require, relieve the previous guardian of power and 83410
responsibility to whatever extent shall be appropriate in the 83411
circumstances; provided, however, that in the case of any patient 83412
having settlement in the sending state, the court of competent 83413
jurisdiction in the sending state shall have the sole discretion 83414
to relieve a guardian appointed by it or continue his power and 83415
responsibility, whichever it shall deem advisable. The court in 83416
the receiving state may, in its discretion, confirm or reappoint 83417
the person or persons previously serving as guardian in the 83418
sending state in lieu of making a supplemental or substitute 83419
appointment.83420

       (b) The term "guardian" as used in paragraph (a) of this 83421
article shall include any guardian, trustee, legal committee, 83422
conservator, or other person or agency however denominated who is 83423
charged by law with power to act for or responsibility for the 83424
person or property of a patient.83425

Article IX
83426

       (a) No provision of this compact except Article V shall apply 83427
to any person institutionalized while under sentence in a penal or 83428
correctional institution or while subject to trial on a criminal 83429
charge, or whose institutionalization is due to the commission of 83430
an offense for which, in the absence of mental illness or mental 83431
retardation, said person would be subject to incarceration in a 83432
penal or correctional institution.83433

       (b) To every extent possible, it shall be the policy of 83434
states party to this compact that no patient shall be placed or 83435
detained in any prison, jail or lockup, but such patient shall, 83436
with all expedition, be taken to a suitable institutional facility 83437
for mental illlness or mental retardation.83438

Article X
83439

       (a) Each party state shall appoint a "compact administrator" 83440
who, on behalf of his state, shall act as general coordinator of 83441
activities under the compact in his state and who shall receive 83442
copies of all reports, correspondence, and other documents 83443
relating to any patient processed under the compact by his state 83444
either in the capacity of sending or receiving state. The compact 83445
administrator or his duly designated representative shall be the 83446
official with whom other party states shall deal in any matter 83447
relating to the compact or any patient processed thereunder.83448

       (b) The compact administrators of the respective party states 83449
shall have power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations to 83450
carry out more effectively the terms and provisions of this 83451
compact.83452

Article XI
83453

       The duly constituted administrative authorities of any two or 83454
more party states may enter into supplementary agreements for the 83455
provision of any service or facility or for the maintenance of any 83456
institution on a joint or cooperative basis whenever the states 83457
concerned shall find that such agreements will improve services, 83458
facilities, or institutional care and treatment in the fields of 83459
mental illness or mental retardation. No such supplementary 83460
agreement shall be construed so as to relieve any party state of 83461
any obligation which it otherwise would have under other 83462
provisions of this compact.83463

Article XII
83464

       This compact shall enter into full force and effect as to any 83465
state when enacted by it into law and such states shall thereafter 83466
be a party thereto with any and all states legally joining 83467
therein.83468

Article XIII
83469

       (a) A state party to this compact may withdraw therefrom by 83470
enacting a statute repealing the same. Such withdrawal shall take 83471
effect one year after notice thereof has been communicated 83472
officially and in writing to the governors and compact 83473
administrators of all other party states. However, the withdrawal 83474
of any state shall not change the status of any patient who has 83475
been sent to said state or sent out of said state pursuant to the 83476
provisions of the compact.83477

       (b) Withdrawal from any agreement permitted by Article VII 83478
(b) as to costs or from any supplementary agreement made pursuant 83479
to Article XI shall be in accordance with the terms of such 83480
agreement.83481

Article XIV
83482

       This compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate 83483
the purposes thereof. The provisions of this compact shall be 83484
severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this 83485
compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any 83486
party state or of the United States or the applicability thereof 83487
to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, 83488
the validity of the remainder of this compact and the 83489
applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or 83490
circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this compact shall 83491
be held contrary to the constitution of any state party thereto, 83492
the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the 83493
remaining states and in full force and effect as to the state 83494
affected as to all severable matters.83495

       Sec. 5119.51.        Sec. 5119.71.  Pursuant to Article X of the compact 83496
set forth in section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code, the 83497
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services and 83498
the director of developmental disabilities each shall designate an 83499
officer who shall be the compact administrator for the department 83500
and who, acting jointly with like officers of other party states, 83501
shall adopt rules to carry out more effectively the terms of the 83502
compact. The compact administrators of each department shall serve 83503
subject to the pleasure of the governor and shall cooperate with 83504
all departments, agencies, and officers of and in the government 83505
of this state and its subdivisions in facilitating the proper 83506
administration of the compact or of any supplementary agreements 83507
entered into by this state thereunder. 83508

       Sec. 5119.52.        Sec. 5119.72.  The compact administrator may enter 83509
into supplementary agreements with appropriate officials of other 83510
states pursuant to articles VII and XI of the compact set forth in 83511
section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code. In the event that 83512
such supplementary agreements require or contemplate the use of 83513
any institution or facility of this state or require or 83514
contemplate the provision of any service by this state, no such 83515
agreement shall have force or effect until approved by the head of 83516
the department or agency under whose jurisdiction the institution 83517
or facility is operated or whose department or agency will be 83518
charged with the rendering of such service.83519

       Sec. 5119.53.        Sec. 5119.73.  Any payments necessary to discharge 83520
any financial obligations imposed upon the state of Ohio by the 83521
compact or by any supplementary agreement entered into thereunder, 83522
as provided in sections 5119.505119.70 to 5119.525119.72 of the 83523
Revised Code, shall be made from appropriated funds upon 83524
presentation to the director of budget and management of itemized 83525
vouchers approved by the compact administrator.83526

       Sec. 3793.31.        Sec. 5119.90. As used in sections 3793.315119.90 to 83527
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code:83528

       (A) "Alcohol and other drug abuse" means alcoholism or drug 83529
addiction.83530

       (B) "Another drug" means a controlled substance as defined in 83531
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code or a harmful intoxicant as 83532
defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.83533

       (C) "Board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 83534
services" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 83535
health services established under section 340.02 or 340.021 of the 83536
Revised Code.83537

       (D) "Danger" or "threat of danger to self, family, or others" 83538
means substantial physical harm or threat of substantial physical 83539
harm upon self, family, or others.83540

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3701.01 or 83541
3727.01 of the Revised Code but does not include either a hospital 83542
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 83543
addiction services or an inpatient unit licensed by the 83544
department.83545

       (F) "Intoxicated" means being under the influence of alcohol, 83546
another drug, or both alcohol and another drug and, as a result, 83547
having a significantly impaired ability to function.83548

       (G) "Petitioner" means a person who institutes a proceeding 83549
under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised 83550
Code.83551

       (H) "Probate court" means the probate division of the court 83552
of common pleas.83553

       (I) "Qualified health professional" means a person that is 83554
properly credentialed or licensed to conduct a drug and alcohol 83555
assessment and diagnosis under Ohio law.83556

       (J) "Residence" means the legal residence of a person as 83557
determined by applicable principles governing conflicts of law.83558

       (K) "Respondent" means a person alleged in a petition filed 83559
or hearing under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of 83560
the Revised Code to be a person who is suffering from alcohol and 83561
other drug abuse and who may be ordered under those sections to 83562
undergo treatment.83563

       (L) "Treatment" means services and programs for the care and 83564
rehabilitation of intoxicated persons and persons suffering from 83565
alcohol and other drug abuse. "Treatment" includes residential 83566
treatment, a halfway house setting, and an intensive outpatient or 83567
outpatient level of care.83568

       Sec. 3793.32.        Sec. 5119.91. A probate court may order involuntary 83569
treatment for a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 83570
pursuant to the procedures set forth in sections 3793.315119.9083571
to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.83572

       Sec. 3793.33.        Sec. 5119.92. No person shall be ordered to undergo 83573
treatment under sections 3793.315119.90 to 3793.395119.98 of the 83574
Revised Code unless all of the following apply to that person:83575

       (A) The person suffers from alcohol and other drug abuse.83576

       (B) The person presents an imminent danger or imminent threat 83577
of danger to self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and 83578
other drug abuse, or there exists a substantial likelihood of such 83579
a threat in the near future.83580

       (C) The person can reasonably benefit from treatment.83581

       Sec. 3793.34.        Sec. 5119.93. (A) A person may initiate proceedings 83582
for treatment for an individual suffering from alcohol and other 83583
drug abuse by filing a verified petition in the probate court and 83584
paying a filing fee in the same amount, if any, that is charged 83585
for the filing under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code of an 83586
affidavit seeking the hospitalization of a person. The petition 83587
and all subsequent court documents shall be entitled: "In the 83588
interest of (name of respondent)." A spouse, relative, or guardian 83589
of the individual concerning whom the petition is filed shall file 83590
the petition.83591

       (B) A petition filed under division (A) of this section shall 83592
set forth all of the following:83593

       (1) The petitioner's relationship to the respondent;83594

       (2) The respondent's name, residence address, and current 83595
location, if known;83596

       (3) The name and residence of the respondent's parents, if 83597
living and if known, or of the respondent's legal guardian, if any 83598
and if known;83599

       (4) The name and residence of the respondent's spouse, if any 83600
and if known;83601

       (5) The name and residence of the person having custody of 83602
the respondent, if any, or if no such person is known, the name 83603
and residence of a near relative or a statement that the person is 83604
unknown;83605

       (6) The petitioner's belief, including the factual basis for 83606
the belief, that the respondent is suffering from alcohol and 83607
other drug abuse and presents an imminent danger or imminent 83608
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated for 83609
alcohol or other drug abuse.83610

       (C)(1) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) 83611
of this section shall be accompanied by a certificate of a 83612
physician who has examined the respondent within two days prior to 83613
the day that the petition is filed in the probate court. The 83614
physician shall be authorized to practice medicine and surgery or 83615
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 83616
Revised Code. The physician's certificate shall set forth the 83617
physician's findings in support of the need to treat the 83618
respondent for alcohol or other drug abuse. The certificate shall 83619
indicate if the respondent presents an imminent danger or imminent 83620
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated. 83621
Further, the certificate shall indicate the type and length of 83622
treatment required and if the respondent can reasonably benefit 83623
from treatment. If the physician's certificate indicates that 83624
inpatient treatment is required, the certificate shall identify 83625
any inpatient facilities known to the physician that are able and 83626
willing to provide the recommended inpatient treatment.83627

        If the respondent refuses to undergo an examination with a 83628
physician concerning the respondent's possible need for treatment 83629
for alcohol or other drug abuse, the petition shall state that the 83630
respondent has refused all requests made by the petitioner to 83631
undergo a physician's examination. In that case, the petitioner 83632
shall not be required to provide a physician's certificate with 83633
the petition.83634

       (2) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 83635
this section shall contain a statement that the petitioner has 83636
arranged for treatment of the respondent. Further, the petition 83637
shall be accompanied by a statement from the person or facility 83638
who has agreed to provide the treatment that verifies that the 83639
person or facility has agreed to provide the treatment and the 83640
estimated cost of the treatment.83641

        (D) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 83642
this section shall be accompanied by both of the following:83643

       (1) A security deposit to be deposited with the clerk of the 83644
probate court that will cover half of the estimated cost of 83645
treatment of the respondent;83646

        (2) A guarantee, signed by the petitioner or another person 83647
authorized to file the petition obligating the guarantor to pay 83648
the costs of the examinations of the respondent conducted by the 83649
physician and qualified health professional under division (B)(5) 83650
of section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code, the costs of the 83651
respondent that are associated with a hearing conducted in 83652
accordance with section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code and 83653
that the court determines to be appropriate, and the costs of any 83654
treatment ordered by the court.83655

       Sec. 3793.35.        Sec. 5119.94. (A) Upon receipt of a petition filed 83656
under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and the payment 83657
of the appropriate filing fee, if any, the probate court shall 83658
examine the petitioner under oath as to the contents of the 83659
petition.83660

       (B) If, after reviewing the allegations contained in the 83661
petition and examining the petitioner under oath, it appears to 83662
the probate court that there is probable cause to believe the 83663
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the court shall 83664
do all of the following:83665

       (1) Schedule a hearing to be held within seven days to 83666
determine if there is clear and convincing evidence that the 83667
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment for alcohol and 83668
other drug abuse;83669

       (2) Notify the respondent, the legal guardian, if any and if 83670
known, and the spouse, parents, or nearest relative or friend of 83671
the respondent concerning the allegations and contents of the 83672
petition and of the date and purpose of the hearing;83673

       (3) Notify the respondent that the respondent may retain 83674
counsel and, if the person is unable to obtain an attorney, that 83675
the respondent may be represented by court-appointed counsel at 83676
public expense if the person is indigent. Upon the appointment of 83677
an attorney to represent an indigent respondent, the court shall 83678
notify the respondent of the name, address, and telephone number 83679
of the attorney appointed to represent the respondent.83680

        (4) Notify the respondent that the court shall cause the 83681
respondent to be examined not later than twenty-four hours before 83682
the hearing date by a physician for the purpose of a physical 83683
examination and by a qualified health professional for the purpose 83684
of a drug and alcohol addiction assessment and diagnosis. In 83685
addition, the court shall notify the respondent that the 83686
respondent may have an independent expert evaluation of the 83687
person's physical and mental condition conducted at the 83688
respondent's own expense.83689

        (5) Cause the respondent to be examined not later than 83690
twenty-four hours before the hearing date by a physician for the 83691
purpose of a physical examination and by a qualified health 83692
professional for the purpose of a drug and alcohol addiction 83693
assessment and diagnosis;83694

       (6) Conduct the hearing.83695

       (C) The physician and qualified health professional who 83696
examine the respondent pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section 83697
or who are obtained by the respondent at the respondent's own 83698
expense shall certify their findings to the court within 83699
twenty-four hours of the examinations. The findings of each 83700
qualified health professional shall include a recommendation for 83701
treatment if the qualified health professional determines that 83702
treatment is necessary.83703

       (D)(1) If upon completion of the hearing held under this 83704
section the probate court finds by clear and convincing evidence 83705
that the respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the 83706
court may order the treatment after considering the qualified 83707
health professionals' recommendations for treatment that have been 83708
submitted to the court under division (C) of this section. If the 83709
court orders the treatment under this division, the court shall 83710
order the treatment to be provided through an alcohol and druga 83711
community addiction programservices provider certified under 83712
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or by an individual 83713
licensed or certified by the state medical board under Chapter 83714
4731. of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals 83715
board under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code, the counselor, 83716
social worker, and marriage and family therapist board under 83717
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code, or a similar board of another 83718
state authorized to provide substance abuse treatment.83719

        (2) Failure of a respondent to undergo and complete any 83720
treatment ordered pursuant to this division is contempt of court. 83721
Any alcohol and drug addiction program or person providing 83722
treatment under this division shall notify the probate court of a 83723
respondent's failure to undergo or complete the ordered treatment.83724

       (E) If, at any time after a petition is filed under section 83725
3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code, the probate court finds that 83726
there is not probable cause to continue treatment or if the 83727
petitioner withdraws the petition, then the court shall dismiss 83728
the proceedings against the respondent.83729

       Sec. 3793.36.        Sec. 5119.95. (A) Following an examination by a 83730
qualified health professional and a certification by that 83731
professional that the person meets the criteria specified in 83732
section 3793.335119.92 of the Revised Code, a probate court may 83733
order the person hospitalized for a period not to exceed 83734
seventy-two hours if the court finds by clear and convincing 83735
evidence that the person presents an imminent threat of danger to 83736
self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and other drug 83737
abuse. However, if the hearing to be held under section 3793.3583738
5119.94 of the Revised Code will not be held within seventy-two 83739
hours, the court may order the person hospitalized until the 83740
hearing. In making its order, the court shall inform the person 83741
that the person may immediately make a reasonable number of 83742
telephone calls or use other reasonable means to contact an 83743
attorney, a licensed physician, or a qualified health 83744
professional, to contact any other person or persons to secure 83745
representation by counsel, or to obtain medical or psychological 83746
assistance and that the person will be provided assistance in 83747
making calls if the assistance is needed and requested.83748

       (B) Any person who has been admitted to a hospital under 83749
division (A) of this section shall be released from the hospital 83750
immediately upon the expiration of the time period established by 83751
the court for the hospitalization.83752

       (C) No person ordered hospitalized under this section shall 83753
be held in jail pending transportation to the hospital or 83754
evaluation unless the probate court previously has found the 83755
person to be in contempt of court for either failure to undergo 83756
treatment or failure to appear at the evaluation ordered pursuant 83757
to section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.83758

       Sec. 3793.37.        Sec. 5119.96. When a probate court is authorized to 83759
issue an order that the respondent be transported to a hospital, 83760
the court may issue a summons. If the respondent fails to attend 83761
an examination scheduled before the hearing under section 3793.3583762
5119.94 of the Revised Code, the court shall issue a summons. A 83763
summons so issued shall be directed to the respondent and shall 83764
command the respondent to appear at a time and place specified in 83765
the summons. If a respondent who has been summoned fails to appear 83766
at the hospital or the examination, the probate court may order 83767
the sheriff or any other peace officer to transport the respondent 83768
to a hospital on the list provided under section 3793.385119.9783769
of the Revised Code for treatment. The sheriff or any other peace 83770
officer, upon agreement of a person authorized by the peace 83771
officer, may authorize a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 83772
mental health services, a private agencyservices provider under 83773
contract with a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 83774
health services, or an ambulance service designated by a board of 83775
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to transport 83776
the respondent to the hospital. The transportation costs of the 83777
sheriff, other peace officer, ambulance service, or other private 83778
agencyservices provider under contract with the board of alcohol, 83779
drug addiction, and mental health services shall be included in 83780
the costs of treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse to be paid 83781
by the petitioner.83782

       Sec. 3793.38.        Sec. 5119.97. Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, 83783
and mental health services on at least an annual basis shall 83784
submit each of the following lists to the clerk of the probate 83785
court in each county served by the board:83786

       (A) A list of all hospitals in the counties served by the 83787
board that are able and willing to take respondents ordered to 83788
undergo seventy-two hours of treatment and observation pursuant to 83789
section 3793.365119.95 of the Revised Code;83790

       (B) A list of hospitals and treatment providers in the 83791
counties served by the board that are able and willing to provide 83792
treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse ordered pursuant to 83793
section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.83794

       Sec. 3793.39.        Sec. 5119.98. Sections 3793.12, 3793.135119.26, 83795
5119.27, and 3793.145119.61 of the Revised Code apply to a person 83796
who is ordered to undergo treatment under sections 3793.31 to 83797
3793.395119.90 to 5119.98 of the Revised Code.83798

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.215119.33383799
of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first 83800
degree.83801

       (B) Whoever violates division (B) of section 5119.61 of the 83802
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.83803

       (C) Whoever violates section 5119.27 or 5119.28 of the 83804
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.83805

       Sec. 5120.07.  (A) There is hereby created the ex-offender 83806
reentry coalition consisting of the following eighteenseventeen83807
members or their designees:83808

       (1) The director of rehabilitation and correction;83809

       (2) The director of aging;83810

       (3) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services83811
mental health and addiction services;83812

       (4) The director of development services;83813

       (5) The superintendent of public instruction;83814

       (6) The director of health;83815

       (7) The director of job and family services;83816

       (8) The director of mental health;83817

       (9) The director of developmental disabilities;83818

       (10)(9) The director of public safety;83819

       (11)(10) The director of youth services;83820

       (12)(11) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;83821

       (13)(12) A representative or member of the governor's staff;83822

       (14)(13) The director of the rehabilitation services 83823
commission;83824

       (15)(14) The director of the department of commerce;83825

       (16)(15) The executive director of a health care licensing 83826
board created under Title XLVII of the Revised Code, as appointed 83827
by the chairperson of the coalition;83828

       (17)(16) The director of veterans services;83829

       (18)(17) An ex-offender appointed by the director of 83830
rehabilitation and correction.83831

       (B) The members of the coalition shall serve without 83832
compensation. The director of rehabilitation and correction or the 83833
director's designee shall be the chairperson of the coalition.83834

       (C) In consultation with persons interested and involved in 83835
the reentry of ex-offenders into the community, including but not 83836
limited to, services providers, community-based organizations, and 83837
local governments, the coalition shall identify and examine social 83838
service barriers and other obstacles to the reentry of 83839
ex-offenders into the community. Not later than one year after 83840
April 7, 2009, and on or before the same date of each year 83841
thereafter, the coalition shall submit to the speaker of the house 83842
of representatives and the president of the senate a report, 83843
including recommendations for legislative action, the activities 83844
of the coalition, and the barriers affecting the successful 83845
reentry of ex-offenders into the community. The report shall 83846
analyze the effects of those barriers on ex-offenders and on their 83847
children and other family members in various areas, including but 83848
not limited to, the following:83849

       (1) Admission to public and other housing;83850

       (2) Child support obligations and procedures;83851

       (3) Parental incarceration and family reunification;83852

       (4) Social security benefits, veterans' benefits, food 83853
stamps, and other forms of public assistance;83854

       (5) Employment;83855

       (6) Education programs and financial assistance;83856

       (7) Substance abuse, mental health, and sex offender 83857
treatment programs and financial assistance and mental health 83858
services and financial assistance;83859

       (8) Civic and political participation;83860

       (9) Other collateral consequences under the Revised Code or 83861
the Ohio administrative code law that may result from a criminal 83862
conviction.83863

       (D)(1) The report shall also include the following 83864
information:83865

       (a) Identification of state appropriations for reentry 83866
programs;83867

       (b) Identification of other funding sources for reentry 83868
programs that are not funded by the state;83869

       (2) The coalition shall gather information about reentry 83870
programs in a repository maintained and made available by the 83871
coalition. Where available, the information shall include the 83872
following:83873

       (a) The amount of funding received;83874

       (b) The number of program participants;83875

       (c) The composition of the program, including program goals, 83876
methods for measuring success, and program success rate;83877

       (d) The type of post-program tracking that is utilized;83878

       (e) Information about employment rates and recidivism rates 83879
of ex-offenders.83880

       (E) The coalition shall cease to exist on December 31, 2014.83881

       Sec. 5120.09.  Under the supervision and control of the 83882
director of rehabilitation and correction, the division of 83883
business administration shall do all of the following:83884

       (A) Submit the budgets for the several divisions of the 83885
department of rehabilitation and correction, as prepared by the 83886
respective chiefs of those divisions, to the director. The 83887
director, with the assistance of the chief of the division of 83888
business administration, shall compile a departmental budget that 83889
contains all proposals submitted by the chiefs of the divisions 83890
and shall forward the departmental budget to the governor with 83891
comments and recommendations that the director considers 83892
necessary.83893

       (B) Maintain accounts and records and compile statistics that 83894
the director prescribes;83895

       (C) Under the control of the director, coordinate and make 83896
the necessary purchases and requisitions for the department and 83897
its divisions, except when goods and services are provided to the 83898
department as described in section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised 83899
Code;83900

       (D) Administer within this state federal criminal justice 83901
acts that the governor requires the department to administer. In 83902
order to improve the criminal justice system of this state, the 83903
division of business administration shall apply for, allocate, 83904
disburse, and account for grants that are made available pursuant 83905
to those federal criminal justice acts and grants that are made 83906
available from other federal government sources, state government 83907
sources, or private sources. As used in this division, "criminal 83908
justice system" and "federal criminal justice acts" have the same 83909
meanings as in section 5502.61 of the Revised Code.83910

       (E) Audit the activities of governmental entities, persons as 83911
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and other types of 83912
nongovernmental entities that are financed in whole or in part by 83913
funds that the department allocates or disburses and that are 83914
derived from grants described in division (D) of this section;83915

       (F) Enter into contracts, including contracts with federal, 83916
state, or local governmental entities, persons as defined in 83917
section 1.59 of the Revised Code, foundations, and other types of 83918
nongovernmental entities, that are necessary for the department to 83919
carry out its duties and that neither the director nor another 83920
section of the Revised Code authorizes another division of the 83921
department to enter;83922

       (G) Exercise other powers and perform other duties that the 83923
director may assign to the division of business administration.83924

       Sec. 5120.135.  (A) As used in this section, "laboratory 83925
services" includes the performance of medical laboratory analysis; 83926
professional laboratory and pathologist consultation; the 83927
procurement, storage, and distribution of laboratory supplies; and 83928
the performance of phlebotomy services.83929

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 83930
provide laboratory services to the departments of mental health83931
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 83932
youth services, and rehabilitation and correction. The department 83933
of rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory 83934
services to other state, county, or municipal agencies and to 83935
private persons that request laboratory services if the department 83936
of rehabilitation and correction determines that the provision of 83937
laboratory services is in the public interest and considers it 83938
advisable to provide such services. The department of 83939
rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory services 83940
to agencies operated by the United States government and to public 83941
and private entities funded in whole or in part by the state if 83942
the director of rehabilitation and correction designates them as 83943
eligible to receive such services.83944

       The department of rehabilitation and correction shall provide 83945
laboratory services from a laboratory that complies with the 83946
standards for certification set by the United States department of 83947
health and human services under the "Clinical Laboratory 83948
Improvement Amendments of 1988," 102 Stat. 293, 42 U.S.C.A. 263a. 83949
In addition, the laboratory shall maintain accreditation or 83950
certification with an appropriate accrediting or certifying 83951
organization as considered necessary by the recipients of its 83952
laboratory services and as authorized by the director of 83953
rehabilitation and correction.83954

       (C) The cost of administering this section shall be 83955
determined by the department of rehabilitation and correction and 83956
shall be paid by entities that receive laboratory services to the 83957
department for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the 83958
laboratory services fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall 83959
be used to pay the costs the department incurs in administering 83960
this section.83961

       (D) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for 83962
laboratory services provided to it by the department of 83963
rehabilitation and correction under this section within thirty-one 83964
days after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 83965
management may transfer moneys from that state agency to the 83966
department of rehabilitation and correction for deposit to the 83967
credit of the laboratory services fund. The amount transferred 83968
shall not exceed the amount of the overdue payments. Prior to 83969
making a transfer under this division, the office shall apply any 83970
credits the state agency has accumulated in payment for laboratory 83971
services provided under this section.83972

       Sec. 5120.17.  (A) As used in this section:83973

       (1) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 83974
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 83975
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 83976
meet the ordinary demands of life.83977

       (2) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization" means a 83978
mentally ill person to whom any of the following applies because 83979
of the person's mental illness:83980

       (a) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 83981
to the person as manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts 83982
at, suicide or serious self-inflicted bodily harm.83983

       (b) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 83984
to others as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other 83985
violent behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 83986
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 83987
other evidence of present dangerousness.83988

       (c) The person represents a substantial and immediate risk of 83989
serious physical impairment or injury to the person as manifested 83990
by evidence that the person is unable to provide for and is not 83991
providing for the person's basic physical needs because of the 83992
person's mental illness and that appropriate provision for those 83993
needs cannot be made immediately available in the correctional 83994
institution in which the inmate is currently housed.83995

       (d) The person would benefit from treatment in a hospital for 83996
the person's mental illness and is in need of treatment in a 83997
hospital as manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a 83998
grave and imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the 83999
person.84000

       (3) "Psychiatric hospital" means all or part of a facility 84001
that is operated and managed by the department of mental health84002
mental health and addiction services to provide psychiatric 84003
hospitalization services in accordance with the requirements of 84004
this section pursuant to an agreement between the directors of 84005
rehabilitation and correction and mental healthmental health and 84006
addiction services or, is licensed by the department of mental 84007
healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to section 84008
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code as a psychiatric hospital and 84009
is accredited by a healthcare accrediting organization approved by 84010
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84011
services and the psychiatric hospital is any of the following:84012

       (a) Operated and managed by the department of rehabilitation 84013
and correction within a facility that is operated by the 84014
department of rehabilitation and correction;84015

       (b) Operated and managed by a contractor for the department 84016
of rehabilitation and correction within a facility that is 84017
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction;84018

       (c) Operated and managed in the community by an entity that 84019
has contracted with the department of rehabilitation and 84020
correction to provide psychiatric hospitalization services in 84021
accordance with the requirements of this section.84022

       (4) "Inmate patient" means an inmate who is admitted to a 84023
psychiatric hospital.84024

       (5) "Admitted" to a psychiatric hospital means being accepted 84025
for and staying at least one night at the psychiatric hospital.84026

       (6) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 84027
objectives and goals for an inmate patient that is based on the 84028
needs of the inmate patient and that is established by the 84029
treatment team, with the active participation of the inmate 84030
patient and with documentation of that participation. "Treatment 84031
plan" includes all of the following:84032

       (a) The specific criteria to be used in evaluating progress 84033
toward achieving the objectives and goals;84034

       (b) The services to be provided to the inmate patient during 84035
the inmate patient's hospitalization;84036

       (c) The services to be provided to the inmate patient after 84037
discharge from the hospital, including, but not limited to, 84038
housing and mental health services provided at the state 84039
correctional institution to which the inmate patient returns after 84040
discharge or community mental health services.84041

       (7) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 84042
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 84043
Revised Code.84044

       (8) "Emergency transfer" means the transfer of a mentally ill 84045
inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate presents an 84046
immediate danger to self or others and requires hospital-level 84047
care.84048

       (9) "Uncontested transfer" means the transfer of a mentally 84049
ill inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate has the 84050
mental capacity to, and has waived, the hearing required by 84051
division (B) of this section.84052

       (10)(a) "Independent decision-maker" means a person who is 84053
employed or retained by the department of rehabilitation and 84054
correction and is appointed by the chief or chief clinical officer 84055
of mental health services as a hospitalization hearing officer to 84056
conduct due process hearings.84057

       (b) An independent decision-maker who presides over any 84058
hearing or issues any order pursuant to this section shall be a 84059
psychiatrist, psychologist, or attorney, shall not be specifically 84060
associated with the institution in which the inmate who is the 84061
subject of the hearing or order resides at the time of the hearing 84062
or order, and previously shall not have had any treatment 84063
relationship with nor have represented in any legal proceeding the 84064
inmate who is the subject of the order.84065

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, if 84066
the warden of a state correctional institution or the warden's 84067
designee believes that an inmate should be transferred from the 84068
institution to a psychiatric hospital, the department shall hold a 84069
hearing to determine whether the inmate is a mentally ill person 84070
subject to hospitalization. The department shall conduct the 84071
hearing at the state correctional institution in which the inmate 84072
is confined, and the department shall provide qualified 84073
independent assistance to the inmate for the hearing. An 84074
independent decision-maker provided by the department shall 84075
preside at the hearing and determine whether the inmate is a 84076
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.84077

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, prior 84078
to the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, 84079
the warden or the warden's designee shall give written notice to 84080
the inmate that the department is considering transferring the 84081
inmate to a psychiatric hospital, that it will hold a hearing on 84082
the proposed transfer at which the inmate may be present, that at 84083
the hearing the inmate has the rights described in division (B)(3) 84084
of this section, and that the department will provide qualified 84085
independent assistance to the inmate with respect to the hearing. 84086
The department shall not hold the hearing until the inmate has 84087
received written notice of the proposed transfer and has had 84088
sufficient time to consult with the person appointed by the 84089
department to provide assistance to the inmate and to prepare for 84090
a presentation at the hearing.84091

       (3) At the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 84092
section, the department shall disclose to the inmate the evidence 84093
that it relies upon for the transfer and shall give the inmate an 84094
opportunity to be heard. Unless the independent decision-maker 84095
finds good cause for not permitting it, the inmate may present 84096
documentary evidence and the testimony of witnesses at the hearing 84097
and may confront and cross-examine witnesses called by the 84098
department.84099

       (4) If the independent decision-maker does not find clear and 84100
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 84101
subject to hospitalization, the department shall not transfer the 84102
inmate to a psychiatric hospital but shall continue to confine the 84103
inmate in the same state correctional institution or in another 84104
state correctional institution that the department considers 84105
appropriate. If the independent decision-maker finds clear and 84106
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 84107
subject to hospitalization, the decision-maker shall order that 84108
the inmate be transported to a psychiatric hospital for 84109
observation and treatment for a period of not longer than thirty 84110
days. After the hearing, the independent decision-maker shall 84111
submit to the department a written decision that states one of the 84112
findings described in division (B)(4) of this section, the 84113
evidence that the decision-maker relied on in reaching that 84114
conclusion, and, if the decision is that the inmate should be 84115
transferred, the reasons for the transfer.84116

       (C)(1) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 84117
hospital under an emergency transfer order if the chief clinical 84118
officer of mental health services of the department or that 84119
officer's designee and either a psychiatrist employed or retained 84120
by the department or, in the absence of a psychiatrist, a 84121
psychologist employed or retained by the department determines 84122
that the inmate is mentally ill, presents an immediate danger to 84123
self or others, and requires hospital-level care.84124

       (2) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 84125
hospital under an uncontested transfer order if both of the 84126
following apply:84127

       (a) A psychiatrist employed or retained by the department 84128
determines all of the following apply:84129

       (i) The inmate has a mental illness or is a mentally ill 84130
person subject to hospitalization.84131

       (ii) The inmate requires hospital care to address the mental 84132
illness.84133

       (iii) The inmate has the mental capacity to make a reasoned 84134
choice regarding the inmate's transfer to a hospital.84135

       (b) The inmate agrees to a transfer to a hospital.84136

       (3) The written notice and the hearing required under 84137
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section are not required for an 84138
emergency transfer or uncontested transfer under division (C)(1) 84139
or (2) of this section.84140

       (4) After an emergency transfer under division (C)(1) of this 84141
section, the department shall hold a hearing for continued 84142
hospitalization within five working days after admission of the 84143
transferred inmate to the psychiatric hospital. The department 84144
shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division (F) of this 84145
section at the same intervals as required for inmate patients who 84146
are transported to a psychiatric hospital under division (B)(4) of 84147
this section.84148

       (5) After an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of 84149
this section, the inmate may withdraw consent to the transfer in 84150
writing at any time. Upon the inmate's withdrawal of consent, the 84151
hospital shall discharge the inmate, or, within five working days, 84152
the department shall hold a hearing for continued hospitalization. 84153
The department shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division 84154
(F) of this section at the same time intervals as required for 84155
inmate patients who are transported to a psychiatric hospital 84156
under division (B)(4) of this section.84157

       (D)(1) If an independent decision-maker, pursuant to division 84158
(B)(4) of this section, orders an inmate transported to a 84159
psychiatric hospital or if an inmate is transferred pursuant to 84160
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, the staff of the 84161
psychiatric hospital shall examine the inmate patient when 84162
admitted to the psychiatric hospital as soon as practicable after 84163
the inmate patient arrives at the hospital and no later than 84164
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival. The attending 84165
physician responsible for the inmate patient's care shall give the 84166
inmate patient all information necessary to enable the patient to 84167
give a fully informed, intelligent, and knowing consent to the 84168
treatment the inmate patient will receive in the hospital. The 84169
attending physician shall tell the inmate patient the expected 84170
physical and medical consequences of any proposed treatment and 84171
shall give the inmate patient the opportunity to consult with 84172
another psychiatrist at the hospital and with the inmate advisor.84173

       (2) No inmate patient who is transported or transferred 84174
pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) or (2) of this section to a 84175
psychiatric hospital within a facility that is operated by the 84176
department of rehabilitation and correction shall be subjected to 84177
any of the following procedures:84178

       (a) Convulsive therapy;84179

       (b) Major aversive interventions;84180

       (c) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;84181

       (d) Psychosurgery.84182

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 84183
ensure that an inmate patient hospitalized pursuant to this 84184
section receives or has all of the following:84185

       (1) Receives sufficient professional care within twenty days 84186
of admission to ensure that an evaluation of the inmate patient's 84187
current status, differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and 84188
description of the current treatment plan have been formulated and 84189
are stated on the inmate patient's official chart;84190

       (2) Has a written treatment plan consistent with the 84191
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals of treatment;84192

       (3) Receives treatment consistent with the treatment plan;84193

       (4) Receives periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 84194
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed thirty days;84195

       (5) Is provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 84196
disease or injury;84197

       (6) Receives humane care and treatment, including, without 84198
being limited to, the following:84199

       (a) Access to the facilities and personnel required by the 84200
treatment plan;84201

       (b) A humane psychological and physical environment;84202

       (c) The right to obtain current information concerning the 84203
treatment program, the expected outcomes of treatment, and the 84204
expectations for the inmate patient's participation in the 84205
treatment program in terms that the inmate patient reasonably can 84206
understand;84207

       (d) Opportunity for participation in programs designed to 84208
help the inmate patient acquire the skills needed to work toward 84209
discharge from the psychiatric hospital;84210

       (e) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 84211
medication and from unnecessary restraints or isolation;84212

       (f) All other rights afforded inmates in the custody of the 84213
department consistent with rules, policy, and procedure of the 84214
department.84215

       (F) The department shall hold a hearing for the continued 84216
hospitalization of an inmate patient who is transported or 84217
transferred to a psychiatric hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) 84218
or (C)(1) of this section prior to the expiration of the initial 84219
thirty-day period of hospitalization. The department shall hold 84220
any subsequent hearings, if necessary, not later than ninety days 84221
after the first thirty-day hearing and then not later than each 84222
one hundred and eighty days after the immediately prior hearing. 84223
An independent decision-maker shall conduct the hearings at the 84224
psychiatric hospital in which the inmate patient is confined. The 84225
inmate patient shall be afforded all of the rights set forth in 84226
this section for the hearing prior to transfer to the psychiatric 84227
hospital. The department may not waive a hearing for continued 84228
commitment. A hearing for continued commitment is mandatory for an 84229
inmate patient transported or transferred to a psychiatric 84230
hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) of this section 84231
unless the inmate patient has the capacity to make a reasoned 84232
choice to execute a waiver and waives the hearing in writing. An 84233
inmate patient who is transferred to a psychiatric hospital 84234
pursuant to an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of this 84235
section and who has scheduled hearings after withdrawal of consent 84236
for hospitalization may waive any of the scheduled hearings if the 84237
inmate has the capacity to make a reasoned choice and executes a 84238
written waiver of the hearing.84239

       If upon completion of the hearing the independent 84240
decision-maker does not find by clear and convincing evidence that 84241
the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 84242
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order the 84243
inmate patient's discharge from the psychiatric hospital. If the 84244
independent decision-maker finds by clear and convincing evidence 84245
that the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 84246
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order that 84247
the inmate patient remain at the psychiatric hospital for 84248
continued hospitalization until the next required hearing.84249

       If at any time prior to the next required hearing for 84250
continued hospitalization, the medical director of the hospital or 84251
the attending physician determines that the treatment needs of the 84252
inmate patient could be met equally well in an available and 84253
appropriate less restrictive state correctional institution or 84254
unit, the medical director or attending physician may discharge 84255
the inmate to that facility.84256

       (G) An inmate patient is entitled to the credits toward the 84257
reduction of the inmate patient's stated prison term pursuant to 84258
Chapters 2967. and 5120. of the Revised Code under the same terms 84259
and conditions as if the inmate patient were in any other 84260
institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction.84261

       (H) The adult parole authority may place an inmate patient on 84262
parole or under post-release control directly from a psychiatric 84263
hospital.84264

       (I) If an inmate patient who is a mentally ill person subject 84265
to hospitalization is to be released from a psychiatric hospital 84266
because of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 84267
term, the director of rehabilitation and correction or the 84268
director's designee, at least fourteen days before the expiration 84269
date, may file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 84270
the Revised Code with the probate court in the county where the 84271
psychiatric hospital is located or the probate court in the county 84272
where the inmate will reside, alleging that the inmate patient is 84273
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 84274
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 84275
court order, whichever is applicable. The proceedings in the 84276
probate court shall be conducted pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 84277
5123. of the Revised Code except as modified by this division.84278

       Upon the request of the inmate patient, the probate court 84279
shall grant the inmate patient an initial hearing under section 84280
5122.141 of the Revised Code or a probable cause hearing under 84281
section 5123.75 of the Revised Code before the expiration of the 84282
stated prison term. After holding a full hearing, the probate 84283
court shall make a disposition authorized by section 5122.15 or 84284
5123.76 of the Revised Code before the date of the expiration of 84285
the stated prison term. No inmate patient shall be held in the 84286
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction past 84287
the date of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 84288
term.84289

       (J) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall set 84290
standards for treatment provided to inmate patients.84291

       (K) A certificate, application, record, or report that is 84292
made in compliance with this section and that directly or 84293
indirectly identifies an inmate or former inmate whose 84294
hospitalization has been sought under this section is 84295
confidential. No person shall disclose the contents of any 84296
certificate, application, record, or report of that nature or any 84297
other psychiatric or medical record or report regarding a mentally 84298
ill inmate unless one of the following applies:84299

       (1) The person identified, or the person's legal guardian, if 84300
any, consents to disclosure, and the chief clinical officer or 84301
designee of mental health services of the department of 84302
rehabilitation and correction determines that disclosure is in the 84303
best interests of the person.84304

       (2) Disclosure is required by a court order signed by a 84305
judge.84306

       (3) An inmate patient seeks access to the inmate patient's 84307
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access is specifically 84308
restricted in the treatment plan for clear treatment reasons.84309

       (4) Hospitals and other institutions and facilities within 84310
the department of rehabilitation and correction may exchange 84311
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with other 84312
hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the department, but the 84313
information that may be released about an inmate patient is 84314
limited to medication history, physical health status and history, 84315
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 84316
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.84317

       (5) An inmate patient's family member who is involved in 84318
planning, providing, and monitoring services to the inmate patient 84319
may receive medication information, a summary of the inmate 84320
patient's diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and 84321
personnel available to assist the inmate patient and family if the 84322
attending physician determines that disclosure would be in the 84323
best interest of the inmate patient. No disclosure shall be made 84324
under this division unless the inmate patient is notified of the 84325
possible disclosure, receives the information to be disclosed, and 84326
does not object to the disclosure.84327

       (6) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 84328
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 84329
treatment records, and other pertinent information with county 84330
sheriffs' offices, hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the 84331
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services84332
and with community mental health agenciesservices providers and 84333
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with 84334
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84335
services has a current agreement for patient care or services to 84336
ensure continuity of care. Disclosure under this division is 84337
limited to records regarding a mentally ill inmate's medication 84338
history, physical health status and history, summary of course of 84339
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 84340
any. No office, department, agency, provider, or board shall 84341
disclose the records and other information unless one of the 84342
following applies:84343

       (a) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 84344
disclosure and consents to the disclosure.84345

       (b) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 84346
disclosure, an attempt to gain the consent of the inmate is made, 84347
and the office, department, agency, or board documents the attempt 84348
to gain consent, the inmate's objections, if any, and the reasons 84349
for disclosure in spite of the inmate's objections.84350

       (7) Information may be disclosed to staff members designated 84351
by the director of rehabilitation and correction for the purpose 84352
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 84353
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards.84354

       The name of an inmate patient shall not be retained with the 84355
information obtained during the evaluations.84356

       (L) The director of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 84357
rules setting forth guidelines for the procedures required under 84358
divisions (B), (C)(1), and (C)(2) of this section.84359

       Sec. 5120.171.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 84360
correction shall have exclusive direction and control of the care 84361
and treatment of seriously mentally ill inmates who are in the 84362
department's custody. The department shall enter into any 84363
arrangements it considers desirable on such matters, including but 84364
not limited to both of the following:84365

       (1) The monitoring of such services by another state agency 84366
or agencies;84367

       (2) Adopting joint standards for the provision and monitoring 84368
of mental health services with the department of mental health84369
mental health and addiction services and other state agencies.84370

       (B) In order to implement its duties imposed by division (A) 84371
of this section, the department of rehabilitation and correction 84372
may enter into a contract for the provision of the mental health 84373
services described in that division.84374

       Sec. 5120.652.  To participate in the prison nursery program, 84375
each eligible inmate selected by the department shall do all the 84376
following:84377

       (A) Agree in writing to do all the following:84378

       (1) Comply with any program, educational, counseling, and 84379
other requirements established for the program by the department 84380
of rehabilitation and correction;84381

       (2) If eligible, have the child participate in the medicaid 84382
program or a health insurance program;84383

       (3) Accept the normal risks of childrearing;84384

       (4) Abide by any court decisions regarding the allocation of 84385
parental rights and responsibilities with respect to the child.84386

       (B) Assign to the department any rights to support from any 84387
other person, excluding support assigned pursuant to section 84388
5107.20 of the Revised Code and medical support assigned pursuant 84389
to section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;84390

       (C) Specify with whom the child is to be placed in the event 84391
the inmate's participation in the program is terminated for a 84392
reason other than release from imprisonment.84393

       Sec. 5120.654.  (A) The rights to support assigned by an 84394
inmate pursuant to section 5120.652 of the Revised Code constitute 84395
an obligation of the person who is responsible for providing the 84396
support to the department of rehabilitation and correction for the 84397
support provided the inmate and child pursuant to the prison 84398
nursery program. The division of child support in the department 84399
of job and family services shall collect support payments made 84400
pursuant to the assignment and forward them to the department of 84401
rehabilitation and correction.84402

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 84403
receive the following:84404

       (1) Money that is assigned or donated on behalf of, and 84405
public assistance provided under Ohio works first to, a specific 84406
inmate or child participating in the prison nursery program;84407

       (2) Money assigned or donated to establish and maintain the 84408
prison nursery program.84409

       (C) The amounts described in division (B)(1) of this section 84410
shall be placed in the individual nursery account created and 84411
maintained under section 5120.655 of the Revised Code for the 84412
inmate and child for whom the money was received. The money 84413
described in division (B)(2) of this section shall be deposited in 84414
the appropriate prison nursery program fund.84415

       Sec. 5121.051.  All outstanding liability of relatives for 84416
the support of any patient or resident in a benevolent institution 84417
under the control of the department of mental healthmental health 84418
and addiction services or the department of developmental 84419
disabilities accrued prior to January 1, 1956, including the 84420
liability of the patient personally, is hereby canceled, provided 84421
that this section does not abrogate any written agreements or 84422
security arrangement for the payment of support charges entered 84423
into between the state and any patient or liable relative prior to 84424
such date.84425

       Sec. 5121.30. As used in sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the 84426
Revised Code:84427

       (A) "Community mental health services client" or "client" 84428
means a person receiving state-operated community mental health 84429
services.84430

       (B) "Countable assets" means all of the following:84431

       (1) Cash;84432

       (2) Bank deposits;84433

       (3) Securities;84434

       (4) Individual retirement accounts;84435

       (5) Qualified employer plans, including 401(k) and Keogh 84436
plans;84437

       (6) Annuities;84438

       (7) Funds in a trust created under section 5815.28 of the 84439
Revised Code;84440

       (8) Investment property and income;84441

       (9) The cash surrender values of life insurance policies;84442

       (10) Assets acquired by gift, bequest, devise, or 84443
inheritance;84444

       (11) Any other asset determined by the department of mental 84445
healthmental health and addiction services to be equivalent to 84446
the assets enumerated in this division.84447

       (C)(B) "Federal poverty level" or "FPL" means the income 84448
level represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by 84449
the United States department of health and human services in 84450
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 84451
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 84452
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 84453
being determined.84454

       (D)(C) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty 84455
guidelines as revised annually by the United States department of 84456
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 84457
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 84458
U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 84459
the family of the person whose income is being determined.84460

       (E)(D) "Hospital" means an institution, hospital, or other 84461
place established, controlled, or supervised by the department of 84462
mental healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 84463
5119. of the Revised Code.84464

       (F)(E) "Liable relative" means all of the following:84465

       (1) A patient's spouse;84466

       (2) A patient's mother or father, or both, if the patient is 84467
under eighteen years of age;84468

       (3) A patient's guardian.84469

       (G)(F) "Patient" means a person admitted to a hospital for 84470
inpatient care or treatment, including a person transferred to a 84471
hospital from a state correctional institution or a person under 84472
indictment or conviction who has been transferred to a hospital.84473

       Sec. 5121.32.  On an annual basis, the department of mental 84474
healthmental health and addiction services shall determine both 84475
of the following using generally accepted governmental accounting 84476
principles:84477

       (A) The applicable per diem charge for each hospital operated 84478
by the department; 84479

       (B) The ancillary per diem rate for each hospital operated by 84480
the department.84481

       In determining a hospital's applicable per diem charge and 84482
ancillary per diem rate, the department shall consider the average 84483
actual per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient at the 84484
hospital or, at the department's discretion, the average actual 84485
per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient in a unit of 84486
the hospital.84487

       Sec. 5121.33.  Except as provided in sections 5121.35, 84488
5121.43, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, and 5121.52 of the Revised 84489
Code, the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84490
services shall, for each billing cycle, charge a patient, 84491
patient's estate, or liable relative an amount equal to the sum of 84492
the following:84493

       (A) The applicable per diem charge multiplied by the number 84494
of days the patient was admitted to the hospital;84495

       (B) An amount that was previously billed but not paid.84496

       Sec. 5121.34.  (A) A patient, patient's estate, and patient's 84497
liable relatives shall be jointly and severally liable for amounts 84498
charged by the department of mental healthmental health and 84499
addiction services in accordance with section 5121.33 or 5121.35 84500
of the Revised Code. In no case shall any of the foregoing persons 84501
be liable for more than one hundred per cent of the full sum 84502
charged under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code.84503

       (B) Collections of support payments shall be made by the 84504
department and, subject to meeting prior requirements for payment 84505
and crediting of such collections and other available receipts, in 84506
accordance with the bond proceedings applicable to obligations 84507
issued pursuant to section 154.20 of the Revised Code. The 84508
collections and other available receipts designated by the 84509
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 84510
deposit in the special accounts, together with insurance contract 84511
payments provided for in section 5121.43 of the Revised Code, 84512
shall be remitted to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 84513
state treasury to the credit of the mental health operating fund, 84514
which is hereby created, to be used for the general purposes of 84515
the department. The department shall make refunds of overpayment 84516
of support charges from the mental health operating fund.84517

       Sec. 5121.35.  The department of mental healthmental health 84518
and addiction services shall charge a patient, patient's estate, 84519
or liable relative an amount discounted from the amount the 84520
department charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code if 84521
the department determines through the application process 84522
described in section 5121.36 of the Revised Code or through the 84523
financial assessment process described in section 5121.37 of the 84524
Revised Code that the patient, estate, or relative is eligible for 84525
a discount.84526

       Sec. 5121.36. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 84527
relative may apply for a discount by completing an application 84528
form prescribed by the director of mental healthmental health and 84529
addiction services. The department of mental healthmental health 84530
and addiction services may require a patient, estate, or relative 84531
to furnish any of the following with an application form:84532

       (1) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 84533
federal income tax return for the year preceding the date of 84534
application or, if that is not yet available, the preceding year;84535

       (2) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 84536
employee tax withholding return (form W-2) for the year preceding 84537
the date of application;84538

       (3) Any other relevant documents prescribed by the director 84539
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.84540

       (B) To be considered, an application must be submitted to the 84541
department not later than ninety days after the date the patient 84542
is admitted to a hospital.84543

       (C) From the information provided by a patient, estate, or 84544
relative, the department shall determine whether the department 84545
will charge the person a discounted amount in accordance with 84546
sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of the Revised Code. In making this 84547
determination, the department shall consider whether the patient 84548
is covered by an insurance policy or other contract that provides 84549
for payment of expenses and treatment for mental illness. If the 84550
department determines that the patient has coverage, the 84551
department shall require payment in accordance with section 84552
5121.43 of the Revised Code.84553

       (D) The department shall notify the patient, executor or 84554
administrator of the patient's estate, or liable relative who 84555
submitted the application form in writing regarding whether that 84556
person will be charged a discounted amount and the per diem rate 84557
to be charged.84558

       (E) In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, 84559
the department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or 84560
change the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 84561
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 84562
was acquired after the application form was submitted. Within a 84563
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 84564
affected by a modification or change.84565

       Sec. 5121.37. After a patient's admittance to a hospital, the 84566
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services84567
shall conduct a financial assessment to determine whether the 84568
patient, patient's estate, or liable relative will be charged an 84569
amount discounted from the amount the department charges under 84570
section 5121.33 of the Revised Code. The department shall make 84571
the determination in accordance with sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 84572
of the Revised Code.84573

       If a discounted rate is to be charged, the department shall 84574
notify the person whose financial condition was assessed. The 84575
notice shall specify the per diem rate to be charged.84576

       In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, the 84577
department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or change 84578
the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 84579
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 84580
was acquired after the assessment was conducted. Within a 84581
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 84582
affected by a modification or change.84583

       Sec. 5121.38.  The department of mental healthmental health 84584
and addiction services may subpoena witnesses, take testimony 84585
under oath, and examine any public records relating to the income 84586
and other assets of a patient or of a relative liable for such 84587
patient's support. All information, conclusions, and 84588
recommendations shall be submitted to the department by the 84589
investigating agent of the department.84590

       Sec. 5121.40. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 84591
relative may be eligible to be charged an amount discounted from 84592
the amount the department of mental healthmental health and 84593
addiction services charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised 84594
Code if the patient, estate, or relative has countable assets with 84595
a total value that is not greater than an amount equal to fifty 84596
per cent of the difference between the following:84597

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 84598
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 84599
level for the state;84600

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 84601
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 84602
level for the state. For purposes of determining family size, the 84603
patient is one dependent. One additional dependent shall be 84604
included for each of the following circumstances and persons:84605

       (a) The patient or liable relative is legally blind or deaf.84606

       (b) The patient or liable relative is of sixty-five years of 84607
age or older.84608

       (c) Each child under eighteen years of age for which the 84609
patient or liable relative has legal custody;84610

       (d) The patient's or liable relative's spouse. 84611

       (B) A patient, estate, or relative may, not later than ninety 84612
days after the patient's admission to a hospital, surrender the 84613
value of countable assets sufficient to reduce countable assets to 84614
not more than the limit described in division (A) of this section.84615

       Sec. 5121.42. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 84616
section, a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative shall 84617
cease to be eligible for a discount under sectionssection 5121.36 84618
or 5121.37 of the Revised Code on accumulation of countable assets 84619
in excess of an amount equal to fifty per cent of the difference 84620
between the following:84621

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 84622
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 84623
level for the state;84624

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 84625
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 84626
level for the state.84627

       (B) Money needed to meet the patient's needs and burial fund 84628
as determined by a needs assessment conducted by the department of 84629
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 84630
rules adopted under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 84631
shall be excluded from any determination the department makes 84632
under division (A) of this section.84633

       Sec. 5121.43. If a patient is covered by an insurance policy 84634
or other contract that provides for payment of expenses for care 84635
and treatment for mental illness at or from a hospital under the 84636
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 84637
addiction services, sections 5121.33 to 5121.55 of the Revised 84638
Code are inapplicable to the extent that the policy or contract is 84639
in force. Any insurance carrier or other third party payor 84640
providing coverage for such care and treatment shall pay for the 84641
patient's support obligation in amounts equal to the lesser of 84642
amounts charged by the department under section 5121.33 of the 84643
Revised Code or the benefits provided under the policy or other 84644
contract. Whether or not an insured, owner of, or other person 84645
having an interest in such policy or other contract is liable for 84646
support payments, the insured, policy owner, or other person shall 84647
assign payment directly to the department of all assignable 84648
benefits under the policy or other contract and shall pay to the 84649
department, within ten days of receipt, all insurance or other 84650
benefits received as reimbursement or payment for expenses 84651
incurred by the patient or for any other reason. If the insured, 84652
policy owner, or other person refuses to assign payment to the 84653
department or refuses to pay received reimbursements or payments 84654
to the department within ten days of receipt, the total liability 84655
of the insured, policy owner, or other person for the services is 84656
an amount equal to the per diem charge for the hospital where the 84657
patient was admitted multiplied by the number of days the patient 84658
was admitted.84659

       In no event shall this total liability exceed the 84660
department's actual cost of providing care and treatment to a 84661
patient. The department may disqualify patients and liable 84662
relatives who have retained third party funds from future 84663
discounts. The department may request that the attorney general 84664
petition a court of competent jurisdiction to compel the insured, 84665
owner of, or other person having an interest in the policy or 84666
contract to comply with the assignment requirements in this 84667
section.84668

       Sec. 5121.44. The department of mental healthmental health 84669
and addiction services may enter into an extended payment 84670
agreement with a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative who 84671
has notified the department that the patient, estate, or relative 84672
cannot reasonably pay an amount the department has charged. In no 84673
case shall the department take a security interest, mortgage, or 84674
lien against the principal family residence of a patient or liable 84675
relative.84676

       Sec. 5121.45. (A) For purposes of this section, "delinquent 84677
payment" means an amount owed by a patient, patient's estate, or 84678
liable relative to the department of mental healthmental health 84679
and addiction services for which the person has failed to do 84680
either of the following not later than ninety days after the 84681
service associated with the charge was incurred:84682

       (1) Make payment in full;84683

       (2) Make a payment in accordance with the terms of an 84684
agreement entered into under section 5121.44 of the Revised Code.84685

       (B) An action to enforce the collection of a delinquent 84686
payment shall be commenced not later than six years after the 84687
later of the following:84688

       (1) The last date the department received money to satisfy 84689
the delinquent payment;84690

       (2) The date the charge was due.84691

       (C) In all actions to enforce the collection of delinquent 84692
payments, a court of record shall receive into evidence the proof 84693
of claim document made by the state together with all debts and 84694
credits. The proof of claim document shall be prima-facie evidence 84695
of the facts stated in the document.84696

       Sec. 5121.46. The department of mental healthmental health 84697
and addiction services shall not charge a liable relative under 84698
sections 5121.33 and 5121.35 of the Revised Code who has done 84699
either of the following:84700

       (A) Paid all amounts charged by the department for the care 84701
and treatment of a particular patient for fifteen consecutive 84702
years;84703

       (B) Paid amounts charged by the department for the care and 84704
treatment of more than one patient for a total of fifteen 84705
consecutive years.84706

       Sec. 5121.47. Irrespective of the number of patients for 84707
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84708
services may charge a liable relative under sections 5121.33 or84709
and 5121.35 of the Revised Code, the department shall not charge a 84710
liable relative or group of liable relatives who are members of 84711
the same family unit for the support of more than one patient 84712
during the same period of time.84713

       Sec. 5121.49. (A) Any person who has been charged under 84714
section 5121.33 or 5121.35 of the Revised Code may petition the 84715
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services84716
to do the following:84717

       (1) Release the person from a charge;84718

       (2) Modify or cancel a charge.84719

       (B) The department shall respond to a petition in writing and 84720
inform the petitioner of whether a release, modification, or 84721
cancellation has been approved.84722

       Sec. 5121.50. When a patient is committed to a hospital 84723
pursuant to judicial proceedings, the judge ordering the 84724
commitment shall:84725

       (A) Make a reliable report on the financial condition of the 84726
patient and of each liable relative, as provided in rules adopted 84727
by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 84728
services;84729

       (B) Certify the report required under division (A) of this 84730
section to the managing officer of the hospital. The managing 84731
officer shall thereupon enter in the managing officer's records 84732
the name and address of any guardian appointed and of any relative 84733
liable for the patient's support.84734

       Sec. 5121.51.  In case the estate of any patient in a 84735
hospital is sufficient for the patient's support and no guardian 84736
has been appointed for such estate, the agent of the department of 84737
mental healthmental health and addiction services shall petition 84738
the probate court of the proper county to appoint a guardian.84739

       Sec. 5121.52.  On the death of a person who is a patient, or 84740
has been a patient in a hospital, or on the death of a person 84741
responsible under section 5121.34 of the Revised Code for the 84742
support of a patient, the department of mental healthmental 84743
health and addiction services may waive the presentation of any 84744
claim for support against the estate of such decedent, when in its 84745
judgment an otherwise dependent person will be directly benefited 84746
by the estate. Claims against an estate for support of a patient 84747
are subject to section 5815.28 and Chapter 2117. of the Revised 84748
Code, and shall be treated, and may be barred, the same as the 84749
claims of other creditors of the estate, pursuant to that section 84750
or chapter.84751

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84752
services may accept from a guardian or trustee of a patient a 84753
contract agreeing to pay to the state from the property of the 84754
guardian's or trustee's ward before or at the death of the ward a 84755
fixed annual amount for the support of the ward while the ward is 84756
a patient, with interest at four per cent per annum. A copy of the 84757
contract shall be filed in the probate court of the proper county 84758
and duly entered as a part of the records concerning the ward.84759

       Sec. 5121.55. The cost for support of a client of 84760
state-operated community mental health services is an amount 84761
determined using guidelines the department of mental healthmental 84762
health and addiction services shall issue. The guidelines shall be 84763
based on cost findings and rate-settings applicable to such 84764
services.84765

       Sec. 5122.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapter 5119. of 84766
the Revised Code:84767

       (A) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 84768
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 84769
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 84770
meet the ordinary demands of life.84771

       (B) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 84772
order" means a mentally ill person who, because of the person's 84773
illness:84774

       (1) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to self as 84775
manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts at, suicide or 84776
serious self-inflicted bodily harm;84777

       (2) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to others 84778
as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent 84779
behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 84780
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 84781
other evidence of present dangerousness;84782

       (3) Represents a substantial and immediate risk of serious 84783
physical impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence 84784
that the person is unable to provide for and is not providing for 84785
the person's basic physical needs because of the person's mental 84786
illness and that appropriate provision for those needs cannot be 84787
made immediately available in the community; or84788

       (4) Would benefit from treatment in a hospital for the 84789
person's mental illness and is in need of such treatment as 84790
manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a grave and 84791
imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the person.84792

       (C)(1) "Patient" means, subject to division (C)(2) of this 84793
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 84794
involuntarily to a hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 84795
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code subsequent to a 84796
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetence to 84797
stand trial or under this chapter, who is under observation or 84798
receiving treatment in such place.84799

       (2) "Patient" does not include a person admitted to a 84800
hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 84801
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the reference 84802
in this chapter to patient, or the context in which the reference 84803
occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 2945.37 to 84804
2945.402 of the Revised Code.84805

       (D) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed under the 84806
laws of this state to practice medicine or a medical officer of 84807
the government of the United States while in this state in the 84808
performance of the person's official duties.84809

       (E) "Psychiatrist" means a licensed physician who has 84810
satisfactorily completed a residency training program in 84811
psychiatry, as approved by the residency review committee of the 84812
American medical association, the committee on post-graduate 84813
education of the American osteopathic association, or the American 84814
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, or who on July 1, 84815
1989, has been recognized as a psychiatrist by the Ohio state 84816
medical association or the Ohio osteopathic association on the 84817
basis of formal training and five or more years of medical 84818
practice limited to psychiatry.84819

       (F) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed by 84820
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84821
services under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, and 84822
any institution, hospital, or other place established, controlled, 84823
or supervised by the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 84824
Code.84825

       (G) "Public hospital" means a facility that is tax-supported 84826
and under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health84827
mental health and addiction services.84828

       (H) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 84829
an agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 84830
provides community mental health services that are certified by 84831
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services84832
under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.84833

       (I) "Licensed clinical psychologist" means a person who holds 84834
a current valid psychologist license issued under section 4732.12 84835
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, and in addition, meets either of 84836
the following criteria:84837

       (1) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 84838
(B) of section 4732.10 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 84839
two years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent as 84840
determined by rule of the state board of psychology, at least one 84841
year of which shall be a predoctoral internship, in clinical 84842
psychological work in a public or private hospital or clinic or in 84843
private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of mental 84844
illness or mental retardation under the supervision of a 84845
psychologist who is licensed or who holds a diploma issued by the 84846
American board of professional psychology, or whose qualifications 84847
are substantially similar to those required for licensure by the 84848
state board of psychology when the supervision has occurred prior 84849
to enactment of laws governing the practice of psychology;84850

       (2) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 84851
(B) of section 4732.15 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 84852
four years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent 84853
as determined by rule of the state board of psychology, in 84854
clinical psychological work in a public or private hospital or 84855
clinic or in private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of 84856
mental illness or mental retardation under supervision, as set 84857
forth in division (I)(1) of this section.84858

       (J) "Health officer" means any public health physician; 84859
public health nurse; or other person authorized by or designated 84860
by a city health district; a general health district; or a board 84861
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to perform 84862
the duties of a health officer under this chapter.84863

       (K) "Chief clinical officer" means the medical director of a 84864
hospital, or a community mental health agencyservices provider, 84865
or a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 84866
or, if there is no medical director, the licensed physician 84867
responsible for the treatment a hospital or community mental 84868
health agencyservices provider provides. The chief clinical 84869
officer may delegate to the attending physician responsible for a 84870
patient's care the duties imposed on the chief clinical officer by 84871
this chapter. Within a community mental health agencyservices 84872
provider, the chief clinical officer shall be designated by the 84873
governing body of the agencyservices provider and shall be a 84874
licensed physician or licensed clinical psychologist who 84875
supervises diagnostic and treatment services. A licensed physician 84876
or licensed clinical psychologist designated by the chief clinical 84877
officer may perform the duties and accept the responsibilities of 84878
the chief clinical officer in the chief clinical officer's 84879
absence.84880

       (L) "Working day" or "court day" means Monday, Tuesday, 84881
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a 84882
holiday.84883

       (M) "Indigent" means unable without deprivation of 84884
satisfaction of basic needs to provide for the payment of an 84885
attorney and other necessary expenses of legal representation, 84886
including expert testimony.84887

       (N) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 84888
commitment, hospitalization, continued hospitalization or 84889
commitment, or discharge is being sought in any proceeding under 84890
this chapter.84891

       (O) "Ohio protection and advocacy system" has the same 84892
meaning as in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code.84893

       (P) "Independent expert evaluation" means an evaluation 84894
conducted by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or 84895
licensed physician who has been selected by the respondent or the 84896
respondent's counsel and who consents to conducting the 84897
evaluation.84898

       (Q) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 84899
pleas.84900

       (R) "Expunge" means:84901

       (1) The removal and destruction of court files and records, 84902
originals and copies, and the deletion of all index references;84903

       (2) The reporting to the person of the nature and extent of 84904
any information about the person transmitted to any other person 84905
by the court;84906

       (3) Otherwise insuring that any examination of court files 84907
and records in question shall show no record whatever with respect 84908
to the person;84909

       (4) That all rights and privileges are restored, and that the 84910
person, the court, and any other person may properly reply that no 84911
such record exists, as to any matter expunged.84912

       (S) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 84913
county with intent to remain there, except that:84914

       (1) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 84915
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 84916
residence means that county in which the person maintained the 84917
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 84918
the facility;84919

       (2) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 84920
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 84921
residence means the county where the criminal charges were filed.84922

       When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 84923
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health84924
mental health and addiction services for investigation and 84925
determination. Residence shall not be a basis for a board's 84926
denying services to any person present in the board's service 84927
district, and the board shall provide services for a person whose 84928
residence is in dispute while residence is being determined and 84929
for a person in an emergency situation.84930

       (T) "Admission" to a hospital or other place means that a 84931
patient is accepted for and stays at least one night at the 84932
hospital or other place.84933

       (U) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 84934
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 84935
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 84936
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 84937
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 84938
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 84939
which a person was found guilty.84940

       (V) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 84941
objectives and goals for an individual established by the 84942
treatment team, with specific criteria to evaluate progress 84943
towards achieving those objectives. The active participation of 84944
the patient in establishing the objectives and goals shall be 84945
documented. The treatment plan shall be based on patient needs and 84946
include services to be provided to the patient while the patient 84947
is hospitalized and after the patient is discharged. The treatment 84948
plan shall address services to be provided upon discharge, 84949
including but not limited to housing, financial, and vocational 84950
services.84951

       (W) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 84952
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.84953

       (X) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 84954
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.84955

       Sec. 5122.03.  A patient admitted under section 5122.02 of 84956
the Revised Code who requests release in writing, or whose release 84957
is requested in writing by the patient's counsel, legal guardian, 84958
parent, spouse, or adult next of kin shall be released forthwith, 84959
except that when:84960

       (A) The patient was admitted on the patient's own application 84961
and the request for release is made by a person other than the 84962
patient, release may be conditional upon the agreement of the 84963
patient; or84964

       (B) The chief clinical officer of the hospital, within three 84965
court days from the receipt of the request for release, files or 84966
causes to be filed with the court of the county where the patient 84967
is hospitalized or of the county where the patient is a resident, 84968
an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. Release 84969
may be postponed until the hearing held under section 5122.141 of 84970
the Revised Code. A telephone communication within three court 84971
days from the receipt of the request for release from the chief 84972
clinical officer to the court, indicating that the required 84973
affidavit has been mailed, is sufficient compliance with the time 84974
limit for filing such affidavit.84975

       Unless the patient is released within three days from the 84976
receipt of the request by the chief clinical officer, the request 84977
shall serve as a request for an initial hearing under section 84978
5122.141 of the Revised Code. If the court finds that the patient 84979
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 84980
order, all provisions of this chapter with respect to involuntary 84981
hospitalization apply to such person.84982

       Judicial proceedings for hospitalization shall not be 84983
commenced with respect to a voluntary patient except pursuant to 84984
this section.84985

       Sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the Revised Code apply to 84986
persons received in a hospital operated by the department of84987
mental healthmental health and addiction services on a voluntary 84988
application.84989

       The chief clinical officer of the hospital shall provide 84990
reasonable means and arrangements for informing patients of their 84991
rights to release as provided in this section and for assisting 84992
them in making and presenting requests for release or for a 84993
hearing under section 5122.141 of the Revised Code.84994

       Before a patient is released from a public hospital, the 84995
chief clinical officer shall, when possible, notify the board of 84996
the patient's county of residence of the patient's pending release 84997
after the chief clinical officer has informed the patient that the 84998
board will be so notified.84999

       Sec. 5122.10.  Any psychiatrist, licensed clinical 85000
psychologist, licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, 85001
police officer, or sheriff may take a person into custody, or the 85002
chief of the adult parole authority or a parole or probation 85003
officer with the approval of the chief of the authority may take a 85004
parolee, an offender under a community control sanction or a 85005
post-release control sanction, or an offender under transitional 85006
control into custody and may immediately transport the parolee, 85007
offender on community control or post-release control, or offender 85008
under transitional control to a hospital or, notwithstanding 85009
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, to a general hospital 85010
not licensed by the department of mental healthmental health and 85011
addiction services where the parolee, offender on community 85012
control or post-release control, or offender under transitional 85013
control may be held for the period prescribed in this section, if 85014
the psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed 85015
physician, health officer, parole officer, police officer, or 85016
sheriff has reason to believe that the person is a mentally ill 85017
person subject to hospitalization by court order under division 85018
(B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, and represents a 85019
substantial risk of physical harm to self or others if allowed to 85020
remain at liberty pending examination.85021

       A written statement shall be given to such hospital by the 85022
transporting psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, 85023
licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, police 85024
officer, chief of the adult parole authority, parole or probation 85025
officer, or sheriff stating the circumstances under which such 85026
person was taken into custody and the reasons for the 85027
psychiatrist's, licensed clinical psychologist's, licensed 85028
physician's, health officer's, parole officer's, police officer's, 85029
chief of the adult parole authority's, parole or probation 85030
officer's, or sheriff's belief. This statement shall be made 85031
available to the respondent or the respondent's attorney upon 85032
request of either.85033

       Every reasonable and appropriate effort shall be made to take 85034
persons into custody in the least conspicuous manner possible. A 85035
person taking the respondent into custody pursuant to this section 85036
shall explain to the respondent: the name,and professional 85037
designation, and agency affiliation of the person taking the 85038
respondent into custody; that the custody-taking is not a criminal 85039
arrest; and that the person is being taken for examination by 85040
mental health professionals at a specified mental health facility 85041
identified by name.85042

       If a person taken into custody under this section is 85043
transported to a general hospital, the general hospital may admit 85044
the person, or provide care and treatment for the person, or both, 85045
notwithstanding section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, but 85046
by the end of twenty-four hours after arrival at the general 85047
hospital, the person shall be transferred to a hospital as defined 85048
in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.85049

       A person transported or transferred to a hospital or 85050
community mental health agencyservices provider under this 85051
section shall be examined by the staff of the hospital or agency85052
services provider within twenty-four hours after arrival at the 85053
hospital or agencyservices provider. If to conduct the 85054
examination requires that the person remain overnight, the 85055
hospital or agencyservices provider shall admit the person in an 85056
unclassified status until making a disposition under this section. 85057
After the examination, if the chief clinical officer of the 85058
hospital or agencyservices provider believes that the person is 85059
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 85060
order, the chief clinical officer shall release or discharge the 85061
person immediately unless a court has issued a temporary order of 85062
detention applicable to the person under section 5122.11 of the 85063
Revised Code. After the examination, if the chief clinical officer 85064
believes that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 85065
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer may 85066
detain the person for not more than three court days following the 85067
day of the examination and during such period admit the person as 85068
a voluntary patient under section 5122.02 of the Revised Code or 85069
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. If 85070
neither action is taken and a court has not otherwise issued a 85071
temporary order of detention applicable to the person under 85072
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer 85073
shall discharge the person at the end of the three-day period 85074
unless the person has been sentenced to the department of 85075
rehabilitation and correction and has not been released from the 85076
person's sentence, in which case the person shall be returned to 85077
that department.85078

       Sec. 5122.11.  Proceedings for the hospitalization of a 85079
person pursuant to sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code 85080
shall be commenced by the filing of an affidavit in the manner and 85081
form prescribed by the department of mental healthmental health 85082
and addiction services, by any person or persons with the court, 85083
either on reliable information or actual knowledge, whichever is 85084
determined to be proper by the court. This section does not apply 85085
to the hospitalization of a person pursuant to section 2945.39, 85086
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code.85087

       The affidavit shall contain an allegation setting forth the 85088
specific category or categories under division (B) of section 85089
5122.01 of the Revised Code upon which the jurisdiction of the 85090
court is based and a statement of alleged facts sufficient to 85091
indicate probable cause to believe that the person is a mentally 85092
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order. The 85093
affidavit may be accompanied, or the court may require that the 85094
affidavit be accompanied, by a certificate of a psychiatrist, or a 85095
certificate signed by a licensed clinical psychologist and a 85096
certificate signed by a licensed physician stating that the person 85097
who issued the certificate has examined the person and is of the 85098
opinion that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 85099
hospitalization by court order, or shall be accompanied by a 85100
written statement by the applicant, under oath, that the person 85101
has refused to submit to an examination by a psychiatrist, or by a 85102
licensed clinical psychologist and licensed physician.85103

       Upon receipt of the affidavit, if a judge of the court or a 85104
referee who is an attorney at law appointed by the court has 85105
probable cause to believe that the person named in the affidavit 85106
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 85107
order, the judge or referee may issue a temporary order of 85108
detention ordering any health or police officer or sheriff to take 85109
into custody and transport the person to a hospital or other place 85110
designated in section 5122.17 of the Revised Code, or may set the 85111
matter for further hearing.85112

       The person may be observed and treated until the hearing 85113
provided for in section 5122.141 of the Revised Code. If no such 85114
hearing is held, the person may be observed and treated until the 85115
hearing provided for in section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.85116

       Sec. 5122.12.  After receipt of the affidavit required by 85117
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall cause written 85118
notice by mail or otherwise of any hearing as the court directs to 85119
be given to the following persons:85120

       (A) The respondent;85121

       (B) The respondent's legal guardian, if any, the respondent's 85122
spouse, if any, and the respondent's parents, if the respondent is 85123
a minor, if these persons' addresses are known to the court or can 85124
be obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;85125

       (C) The person who filed the affidavit;85126

       (D) Any one person designated by the respondent; but if the 85127
respondent does not make a selection, the notice shall be sent to 85128
the adult next of kin other than the person who filed the 85129
affidavit if that person's address is known to the court or can be 85130
obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;85131

       (E) The respondent's counsel;85132

       (F) The director, chief clinical officer, or the respective 85133
designee of the hospital, board, agencycommunity mental health 85134
services provider, or facility to which the person has been 85135
committed;85136

       (G) The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85137
services serving the respondent's county of residence or an agency85138
a services provider the board designates.85139

       Any person entitled to notice under this section, with the 85140
exception of the respondent, may waive the notice.85141

       A copy of the affidavit and temporary order of detention 85142
shall be served with the notice to the parties and to respondent's 85143
counsel, if counsel has been appointed or retained.85144

       Sec. 5122.13.  Upon receipt of the affidavit required by 85145
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall refer the 85146
affidavit to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 85147
health services or an agencycommunity mental health services 85148
provider the board designates to assist the court in determining 85149
whether the respondent is subject to hospitalization and whether 85150
alternative services are available, unless the agencyservices 85151
provider or board has already performed such screening. The board 85152
or agencyservices provider shall review the allegations of the 85153
affidavit and other information relating to whether or not the 85154
person named in the affidavit or statement is a mentally ill 85155
person subject to hospitalization by court order, and the 85156
availability of appropriate treatment alternatives.85157

       The person who conducts the investigation shall promptly make 85158
a report to the court, in writing, in open court or in chambers, 85159
as directed by the court and a full record of the report shall be 85160
made by the court. The report is not admissible as evidence for 85161
the purpose of establishing whether or not the respondent is a 85162
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, but 85163
shall be considered by the court in its determination of an 85164
appropriate placement for any person after that person is found to 85165
be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.85166

       The court, prior to the hearing under section 5122.141 of the 85167
Revised Code, shall release a copy of the investigative report to 85168
the respondent's counsel.85169

       Nothing in this section precludes a judge or referee from 85170
issuing a temporary order of detention pursuant to section 5122.11 85171
of the Revised Code.85172

       Sec. 5122.15.  (A) Full hearings shall be conducted in a 85173
manner consistent with this chapter and with due process of law. 85174
The hearings shall be conducted by a judge of the probate court or 85175
a referee designated by a judge of the probate court and may be 85176
conducted in or out of the county in which the respondent is held. 85177
Any referee designated under this division shall be an attorney.85178

       (1) With the consent of the respondent, the following shall 85179
be made available to counsel for the respondent:85180

       (a) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 85181
custody or control of the state or prosecutor;85182

       (b) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 85183
custody or control of the hospital in which the respondent 85184
currently is held, or in which the respondent has been held 85185
pursuant to this chapter;85186

       (c) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 85187
custody or control of any hospital, facility, or person not 85188
included in division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.85189

       (2) The respondent has the right to attend the hearing and to 85190
be represented by counsel of the respondent's choice. The right to 85191
attend the hearing may be waived only by the respondent or counsel 85192
for the respondent after consultation with the respondent.85193

       (3) If the respondent is not represented by counsel, is 85194
absent from the hearing, and has not validly waived the right to 85195
counsel, the court shall appoint counsel immediately to represent 85196
the respondent at the hearing, reserving the right to tax costs of 85197
appointed counsel to the respondent, unless it is shown that the 85198
respondent is indigent. If the court appoints counsel, or if the 85199
court determines that the evidence relevant to the respondent's 85200
absence does not justify the absence, the court shall continue the 85201
case.85202

       (4) The respondent shall be informed that the respondent may 85203
retain counsel and have independent expert evaluation. If the 85204
respondent is unable to obtain an attorney, the respondent shall 85205
be represented by court-appointed counsel. If the respondent is 85206
indigent, court-appointed counsel and independent expert 85207
evaluation shall be provided as an expense under section 5122.43 85208
of the Revised Code.85209

       (5) The hearing shall be closed to the public, unless counsel 85210
for the respondent, with the permission of the respondent, 85211
requests that the hearing be open to the public.85212

       (6) If the hearing is closed to the public, the court, for 85213
good cause shown, may admit persons who have a legitimate interest 85214
in the proceedings. If the respondent, the respondent's counsel, 85215
or the designee of the director or of the chief clinical officer 85216
objects to the admission of any person, the court shall hear the 85217
objection and any opposing argument and shall rule upon the 85218
admission of the person to the hearing.85219

       (7) The affiant under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code 85220
shall be subject to subpoena by either party.85221

       (8) The court shall examine the sufficiency of all documents 85222
filed and shall inform the respondent, if present, and the 85223
respondent's counsel of the nature and content of the documents 85224
and the reason for which the respondent is being detained, or for 85225
which the respondent's placement is being sought.85226

       (9) The court shall receive only reliable, competent, and 85227
material evidence.85228

       (10) Unless proceedings are initiated pursuant to section 85229
5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code or proceedings are 85230
initiated regarding a resident of the service district of a board 85231
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that elects 85232
under division (C)(2) of section 5119.62 of the Revised Code not 85233
to accept the amount allocated to it under that section, an 85234
attorney that the board designates shall present the case 85235
demonstrating that the respondent is a mentally ill person subject 85236
to hospitalization by court order. The attorney shall offer 85237
evidence of the diagnosis, prognosis, record of treatment, if any, 85238
and less restrictive treatment plans, if any. In proceedings 85239
pursuant to section 5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code and in 85240
proceedings in which the respondent is a resident of a service 85241
district of a board that elects under division (C)(2) of section 85242
5119.62 of the Revised Code not to accept the amount allocated to 85243
it under that section, the attorney general shall designate an 85244
attorney who shall present the case demonstrating that the 85245
respondent is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 85246
court order. The attorney shall offer evidence of the diagnosis, 85247
prognosis, record of treatment, if any, and less restrictive 85248
treatment plans, if any.85249

       (11) The respondent or the respondent's counsel has the right 85250
to subpoena witnesses and documents and to examine and 85251
cross-examine witnesses.85252

       (12) The respondent has the right, but shall not be 85253
compelled, to testify, and shall be so advised by the court.85254

       (13) On motion of the respondent or the respondent's counsel 85255
for good cause shown, or on the court's own motion, the court may 85256
order a continuance of the hearing.85257

       (14) If the respondent is represented by counsel and the 85258
respondent's counsel requests a transcript and record, or if the 85259
respondent is not represented by counsel, the court shall make and 85260
maintain a full transcript and record of the proceeding. If the 85261
respondent is indigent and the transcript and record is made, a 85262
copy shall be provided to the respondent upon request and be 85263
treated as an expense under section 5122.43 of the Revised Code.85264

       (15) To the extent not inconsistent with this chapter, the 85265
Rules of Civil Procedure are applicable.85266

       (B) Unless, upon completion of the hearing the court finds by 85267
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 85268
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, it shall 85269
order the respondent's discharge immediately.85270

       (C) If, upon completion of the hearing, the court finds by 85271
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 85272
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 85273
shall order the respondent for a period not to exceed ninety days 85274
to any of the following:85275

       (1) A hospital operated by the department of mental health85276
mental health and addiction services if the respondent is 85277
committed pursuant to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;85278

       (2) A nonpublic hospital;85279

       (3) The veterans' administration or other agency of the 85280
United States government;85281

       (4) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85282
services or agencyservices provider the board designates;85283

       (5) Receive private psychiatric or psychological care and 85284
treatment;85285

       (6) Any other suitable facility or person consistent with the 85286
diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment needs of the respondent.85287

       (D) Any order made pursuant to division (C)(2), (3), (5), or 85288
(6) of this section shall be conditioned upon the receipt by the 85289
court of consent by the hospital, facility, agency, or person to 85290
accept the respondent.85291

       (E) In determining the place to which, or the person with 85292
whom, the respondent is to be committed, the court shall consider 85293
the diagnosis, prognosis, preferences of the respondent and the 85294
projected treatment plan for the respondent and shall order the 85295
implementation of the least restrictive alternative available and 85296
consistent with treatment goals. If the court determines that the 85297
least restrictive alternative available that is consistent with 85298
treatment goals is inpatient hospitalization, the court's order 85299
shall so state.85300

       (F) During such ninety-day period the hospital; facility; 85301
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; 85302
agencyservices provider the board designates; or person shall 85303
examine and treat the individual. If, at any time prior to the 85304
expiration of the ninety-day period, it is determined by the 85305
hospital, facility, board, agencyservices provider, or person 85306
that the respondent's treatment needs could be equally well met in 85307
an available and appropriate less restrictive environment, both of 85308
the following apply:85309

       (1) The respondent shall be released from the care of the 85310
hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or person 85311
immediately and shall be referred to the court together with a 85312
report of the findings and recommendations of the hospital, agency85313
services provider, facility, or person; and85314

       (2) The hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or 85315
person shall notify the respondent's counsel or the attorney 85316
designated by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 85317
health services or, if the respondent was committed to a board or 85318
an agencya services provider designated by the board, it shall 85319
place the respondent in the least restrictive environment 85320
available consistent with treatment goals and notify the court and 85321
the respondent's counsel of the placement.85322

       The court shall dismiss the case or order placement in the 85323
least restrictive environment.85324

       (G)(1) Except as provided in divisions (G)(2) and (3) of this 85325
section, any person who has been committed under this section, or 85326
for whom proceedings for hospitalization have been commenced 85327
pursuant to section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, may apply at any 85328
time for voluntary admission to the hospital, facility, agencyor 85329
services provider that the board designates, or person to which 85330
the person was committed. Upon admission as a voluntary patient 85331
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, agencyservices 85332
provider, or other facility, or the person immediately shall 85333
notify the court, the patient's counsel, and the attorney 85334
designated by the board, if the attorney has entered the 85335
proceedings, in writing of that fact, and, upon receipt of the 85336
notice, the court shall dismiss the case. 85337

       (2) A person who is found incompetent to stand trial or not 85338
guilty by reason of insanity and who is committed pursuant to 85339
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 85340
Code shall not voluntarily commit the person pursuant to this 85341
section until after the final termination of the commitment, as 85342
described in division (J) of section 2945.401 of the Revised Code.85343

       (H) If, at the end of the first ninety-day period or any 85344
subsequent period of continued commitment, there has been no 85345
disposition of the case, either by discharge or voluntary 85346
admission, the hospital, facility, board, agencyservices 85347
provider, or person shall discharge the patient immediately, 85348
unless at least ten days before the expiration of the period the 85349
attorney the board designates or the prosecutor files with the 85350
court an application for continued commitment. The application of 85351
the attorney or the prosecutor shall include a written report 85352
containing the diagnosis, prognosis, past treatment, a list of 85353
alternative treatment settings and plans, and identification of 85354
the treatment setting that is the least restrictive consistent 85355
with treatment needs. The attorney the board designates or the 85356
prosecutor shall file the written report at least three days prior 85357
to the full hearing. A copy of the application and written report 85358
shall be provided to the respondent's counsel immediately.85359

       The court shall hold a full hearing on applications for 85360
continued commitment at the expiration of the first ninety-day 85361
period and at least every two years after the expiration of the 85362
first ninety-day period.85363

       Hearings following any application for continued commitment 85364
are mandatory and may not be waived.85365

       Upon request of a person who is involuntarily committed under 85366
this section, or the person's counsel, that is made more than one 85367
hundred eighty days after the person's last full hearing, 85368
mandatory or requested, the court shall hold a full hearing on the 85369
person's continued commitment. Upon the application of a person 85370
involuntarily committed under this section, supported by an 85371
affidavit of a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist, 85372
alleging that the person no longer is a mentally ill person 85373
subject to hospitalization by court order, the court for good 85374
cause shown may hold a full hearing on the person's continued 85375
commitment prior to the expiration of one hundred eighty days 85376
after the person's last full hearing. Section 5122.12 of the 85377
Revised Code applies to all hearings on continued commitment.85378

       If the court, after a hearing for continued commitment finds 85379
by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 85380
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 85381
may order continued commitment at places specified in division (C) 85382
of this section.85383

       (I) Unless the admission is pursuant to section 5120.17 or 85384
5139.08 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer of the 85385
hospital or agencyservices provider admitting a respondent 85386
pursuant to a judicial proceeding, within ten working days of the 85387
admission, shall make a report of the admission to the board of 85388
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 85389
respondent's county of residence.85390

       (J) A referee appointed by the court may make all orders that 85391
a judge may make under this section and sections 5122.11 and 85392
5122.141 of the Revised Code, except an order of contempt of 85393
court. The orders of a referee take effect immediately. Within 85394
fourteen days of the making of an order by a referee, a party may 85395
file written objections to the order with the court. The filed 85396
objections shall be considered a motion, shall be specific, and 85397
shall state their grounds with particularity. Within ten days of 85398
the filing of the objections, a judge of the court shall hold a 85399
hearing on the objections and may hear and consider any testimony 85400
or other evidence relating to the respondent's mental condition. 85401
At the conclusion of the hearing, the judge may ratify, rescind, 85402
or modify the referee's order.85403

       (K) An order of the court under division (C), (H), or (J) of 85404
this section is a final order.85405

       (L) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 85406
board designates, may place an unconsenting respondent in an 85407
inpatient setting from a less restrictive placement, the board or 85408
agencyservices provider shall do all of the following:85409

       (1) Determine that the respondent is in immediate need of 85410
treatment in an inpatient setting because the respondent 85411
represents a substantial risk of physical harm to the respondent 85412
or others if allowed to remain in a less restrictive setting;85413

       (2) On the day of placement in the inpatient setting or on 85414
the next court day, file with the court a motion for transfer to 85415
an inpatient setting or communicate to the court by telephone that 85416
the required motion has been mailed;85417

       (3) Ensure that every reasonable and appropriate effort is 85418
made to take the respondent to the inpatient setting in the least 85419
conspicuous manner possible;85420

       (4) Immediately notify the board's designated attorney and 85421
the respondent's attorney.85422

       At the respondent's request, the court shall hold a hearing 85423
on the motion and make a determination pursuant to division (E) of 85424
this section within five days of the placement.85425

       (M) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 85426
board designates, may move a respondent from one residential 85427
placement to another, the board or agencyservices provider shall 85428
consult with the respondent about the placement. If the respondent 85429
objects to the placement, the proposed placement and the need for 85430
it shall be reviewed by a qualified mental health professional who 85431
otherwise is not involved in the treatment of the respondent.85432

       Sec. 5122.17.  Pending his removal to a hospital, a person 85433
taken into custody or ordered to be hospitalized pursuant to this 85434
chapter may be detained for not more than forty-eight hours in a 85435
licensed rest or nursing home, a licensed or unlicensed hospital, 85436
a community mental health agencyservices provider, or a county 85437
home, but hethe person shall not be detained in a nonmedical 85438
facility used for detention of persons charged with or convicted 85439
of penal offenses unless the court finds that a less restrictive 85440
alternative cannot be made available.85441

       Sec. 5122.18.  Whenever a person has been involuntarily 85442
detained at or admitted to a hospital, community mental health 85443
agencyservices provider, or other facility at the request of 85444
anyone other than the person's legal guardian, spouse, or next of 85445
kin under this chapter, the chief clinical officer of the 85446
hospital, agencyservices provider, or other facility in which the 85447
person is temporarily detained under section 5122.17 of the 85448
Revised Code shall immediately notify the person's legal guardian, 85449
spouse or next of kin, and counsel, if these persons can be 85450
ascertained through exercise of reasonable diligence. If a person 85451
voluntarily remains at or is admitted to a hospital, agency85452
services provider, or other facility, such notification shall not 85453
be given without histhe person's consent. The chief clinical 85454
officer of the hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 85455
facility shall inform a person voluntarily remaining at or 85456
admitted to a hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 85457
facility that hethe person may authorize such notification.85458

       Sec. 5122.19.  Every person transported to a hospital or 85459
community mental health agencyservices provider pursuant to 85460
sections 5122.11 to 5122.16 of the Revised Code, shall be examined 85461
by the staff of the hospital or agencyservices provider as soon 85462
as practicable after his arrival at the hospital or agency85463
services provider. Such an examination shall be held within 85464
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival, and if the chief 85465
clinical officer fails after such an examination to certify that 85466
in histhe chief clinical officer's opinion the person is a 85467
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the 85468
person shall be immediately released.85469

       Sec. 5122.20.  The director of mental healthmental health 85470
and addiction services or the director's designee may transfer, or 85471
authorize the transfer of, an involuntary patient, or a consenting 85472
voluntary patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.02 or 85473
sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code, from one public 85474
hospital to another, or to a hospital, community mental health 85475
agencyservices provider, or other facility offering treatment or 85476
other services for mental illness, if the medical director of the 85477
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services85478
determines that it would be consistent with the medical needs of 85479
the patient to do so. If such a transfer is made to a private 85480
facility, the transfer shall be conditioned upon the consent of 85481
the facility.85482

       Before an involuntary patient may be transferred to a more 85483
restrictive setting, the chief clinical officer shall file a 85484
motion with the court requesting the court to amend its order of 85485
placement issued under section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. At the 85486
patient's request, the court shall hold a hearing on the motion at 85487
which the patient has the same rights as at a full hearing under 85488
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. The hearing shall be held 85489
within ten days after the date on which the respondent was 85490
transferred to the more restrictive setting or on which the motion 85491
was filed, whichever is earlier. On the motion of the respondent, 85492
the respondent's counsel, or the chief clinical officer, or on its 85493
own motion, and for good cause shown, the court may order a 85494
continuance of the hearing for up to ten days.85495

       Whenever an involuntary patient is transferred, written 85496
notice of the transfer shall be given to the patient's legal 85497
guardian, parents, spouse, and counsel, or, if none is known, to 85498
the patient's nearest known relative or friend. If the patient is 85499
a minor, the department, before making such a transfer, shall make 85500
a minute of the order for the transfer and the reason for it upon 85501
its record and shall send a certified copy at least seven days 85502
prior to the transfer to the person shown by its record to have 85503
had the care or custody of the minor immediately prior to the 85504
minor's commitment. Whenever a consenting voluntary patient is 85505
transferred, the notification shall be given only at the patient's 85506
request. The chief clinical officer shall advise a voluntary 85507
patient who is being transferred that the patient may decide if 85508
the notification shall be given. In all such transfers, due 85509
consideration shall be given to the wishes of the patient, and the 85510
relationship of the patient to the patient's family, legal 85511
guardian, or friends, so as to maintain the relationship and 85512
encourage visits beneficial to the patient.85513

       When a voluntary patient whose medical or psychological needs 85514
are found by the chief clinical officer to warrant a transfer 85515
refuses to be transferred to an alternate facility, the chief 85516
clinical officer may file an affidavit for a hearing under section 85517
5122.11 of the Revised Code.85518

       Sec. 5122.21.  (A) The chief clinical officer shall as 85519
frequently as practicable, and at least once every thirty days, 85520
examine or cause to be examined every patient, and, whenever the 85521
chief clinical officer determines that the conditions justifying 85522
involuntary hospitalization or commitment no longer obtain, shall 85523
discharge the patient not under indictment or conviction for crime 85524
and immediately make a report of the discharge to the department 85525
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. The chief 85526
clinical officer may discharge a patient who is under an 85527
indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a community control 85528
sanction, or a post-release control sanction or on parole ten days 85529
after written notice of intent to discharge the patient has been 85530
given by personal service or certified mail, return receipt 85531
requested, to the court having criminal jurisdiction over the 85532
patient. Except when the patient was found not guilty by reason of 85533
insanity and the defendant's commitment is pursuant to section 85534
2945.40 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer has final 85535
authority to discharge a patient who is under an indictment, a 85536
sentence of imprisonment, a community control sanction, or a 85537
post-release control sanction or on parole.85538

       (B) After a finding pursuant to section 5122.15 of the 85539
Revised Code that a person is a mentally ill person subject to 85540
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer of the 85541
hospital or agencycommunity mental health services provider to 85542
which the person is ordered or to which the person is transferred 85543
under section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, may grant a discharge 85544
without the consent or authorization of any court.85545

       Upon discharge, the chief clinical officer shall notify the 85546
court that caused the judicial hospitalization of the discharge 85547
from the hospital.85548

       Sec. 5122.23.  The chief clinical officer of a public 85549
hospital shall immediately report to the department of mental 85550
healthmental health and addiction services and the board of 85551
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 85552
patient's county of residence the removal, death, escape, 85553
discharge, or trial visit of any patient hospitalized under 85554
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code, or the return of such an 85555
escaped or visiting patient to the department, the probate judge 85556
of the county from which such patient was hospitalized, and the 85557
probate judge of the county of residence of such patient. In case 85558
of death, the chief clinical officer also shall notify one or more 85559
of the nearest relatives of the deceased patient, if known to him85560
the chief clinical officer, by letter, telegram, or telephone. If 85561
the place of residence of such relative is unknown to the chief 85562
clinical officer, immediately upon receiving notification the 85563
probate judge shall in the speediest manner possible notify such 85564
relatives, if known to himthe probate judge.85565

       The chief clinical officer of a public hospital, upon the 85566
request of the probate judge of the county from which a patient 85567
was hospitalized or the probate judge of the county of residence 85568
of such a patient, shall make a report to the judge of the 85569
condition of any patient under the care, treatment, custody, or 85570
control of the chief clinical officer.85571

       Sec. 5122.25.  Upon the request of a hospital, person, board,85572
agencycommunity mental health services provider, or facility who 85573
has custody of a patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.15 85574
of the Revised Code, or on the order of the court, such patient 85575
may be called for a rehearing at such place within the county of 85576
histhe patient's residence or the county where such patient is 85577
hospitalized as the court designates. The hearing shall be 85578
conducted pursuant to section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.85579

       Sec. 5122.26.  (A) If a patient is absent without leave, on a 85580
verbal or written order issued within five days of the time of the 85581
unauthorized absence by the department of mental healthmental 85582
health and addiction services, the chief clinical officer of the 85583
hospital from which the patient is absent without leave, or the 85584
court of either the county from which the patient was committed or 85585
in which the patient is found, any health or police officer or 85586
sheriff may take the patient into custody and transport the 85587
patient to the hospital in which the patient was hospitalized or 85588
to a place that is designated in the order. The officer 85589
immediately shall report such fact to the agencyentity that 85590
issued the order.85591

       The chief clinical officer of a hospital may discharge a 85592
patient who is under an indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a 85593
community control sanction, or a post-release control sanction or 85594
on parole and who has been absent without leave for more than 85595
thirty days but shall give written notice of the discharge to the 85596
court with criminal jurisdiction over the patient. The chief 85597
clinical officer of a hospital may discharge any other patient who 85598
has been absent without leave for more than fourteen days.85599

       The chief clinical officer shall take all proper measures for 85600
the apprehension of an escaped patient. The expense of the return 85601
of an escaped patient shall be borne by the hospital where the 85602
patient is hospitalized.85603

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, no patient 85604
hospitalized under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code whose absence 85605
without leave was caused or contributed to by the patient's mental 85606
illness shall be subject to a charge of escape.85607

       (2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to any 85608
person who was hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a 85609
facility under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 85610
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 85611
2945.402 of the Revised Code and who escapes from the facility, 85612
from confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 85613
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 85614
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 85615
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside the facility, 85616
in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code.85617

       Sec. 5122.27.  The chief clinical officer of the hospital or 85618
the chief clinical officer's designee shall assure that all 85619
patients hospitalized or committed pursuant to this chapter shall:85620

       (A) Receive, within twenty days of their admission sufficient 85621
professional care to assure that an evaluation of current status, 85622
differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and description of the 85623
current treatment plan is stated on the official chart;85624

       (B) Have a written treatment plan consistent with the 85625
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals which shall be 85626
provided, upon request of the patient or patient's counsel, to the 85627
patient's counsel and to any private physician or licensed 85628
clinical psychologist designated by the patient or the patient's 85629
counsel or to the Ohio protection and advocacy system;85630

       (C) Receive treatment consistent with the treatment plan. The 85631
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services85632
shall set standards for treatment provided to such patients, 85633
consistent wherever possible with standards set by the joint 85634
commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.85635

       (D) Receive periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 85636
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed ninety days;85637

       (E) Be provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 85638
disease or injury;85639

       (F) Receive humane care and treatment, including without 85640
limitation, the following:85641

       (1) The least restrictive environment consistent with the 85642
treatment plan;85643

       (2) The necessary facilities and personnel required by the 85644
treatment plan;85645

       (3) A humane psychological and physical environment;85646

       (4) The right to obtain current information concerning the 85647
patient's treatment program and expectations in terms that the 85648
patient can reasonably understand;85649

       (5) Participation in programs designed to afford the patient 85650
substantial opportunity to acquire skills to facilitate return to 85651
the community or to terminate an involuntary commitment;85652

       (6) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 85653
medication;85654

       (7) Freedom from restraints or isolation unless it is stated 85655
in a written order by the chief clinical officer or the chief 85656
clinical officer's designee, or the patient's individual physician 85657
or psychologist in a private or general hospital.85658

       If the chief clinical officer of the hospital is unable to 85659
provide the treatment required by divisions (C), (E), and (F) of 85660
this section for any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 85661
5122. of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer shall 85662
immediately notify the patient, the court, the Ohio protection and 85663
advocacy system, the director of mental healthmental health and 85664
addiction services, and the patient's counsel and legal guardian, 85665
if known. If within ten days after receipt of such notification by 85666
the director, the director is unable to effect a transfer of the 85667
patient, pursuant to section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, to a 85668
hospital, community mental health agencyservices provider, or 85669
other medical facility where treatment is available, or has not 85670
received an order of the court to the contrary, the involuntary 85671
commitment of any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 5122. 85672
of the Revised Code and defined as a mentally ill person subject 85673
to hospitalization by court order under division (B)(4) of section 85674
5122.01 of the Revised Code shall automatically be terminated.85675

       Sec. 5122.271.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 85676
and (E) of this section, the chief clinical officer or, in a 85677
nonpublic hospital, the attending physician responsible for a 85678
patient's care shall provide all information, including expected 85679
physical and medical consequences, necessary to enable any patient 85680
of a hospital for the mentally ill to give a fully informed, 85681
intelligent, and knowing consent, the opportunity to consult with 85682
independent specialists and counsel, and the right to refuse 85683
consent for any of the following:85684

       (1) Surgery;85685

       (2) Convulsive therapy;85686

       (3) Major aversive interventions;85687

       (4) Sterilizations;85688

       (5) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;85689

       (6) Psycho-surgery.85690

       (B) No patient shall be subjected to any of the procedures 85691
listed in divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section until both the 85692
patient's informed, intelligent, and knowing consent and the 85693
approval of the court have been obtained, except that court 85694
approval is not required for a legally competent and voluntary 85695
patient in a nonpublic hospital.85696

       (C) If, after providing the information required under 85697
division (A) of this section to the patient, the chief clinical 85698
officer or attending physician concludes that a patient is 85699
physically or mentally unable to receive the information required 85700
for surgery under division (A)(1) of this section, or has been 85701
adjudicated incompetent, the information may be provided to the 85702
patient's natural or court-appointed guardian, who may give an 85703
informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent.85704

       If a patient is physically or mentally unable to receive the 85705
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 85706
section and has no guardian, the information, the recommendation 85707
of the chief clinical officer, and the concurring judgment of a 85708
licensed physician who is not a full-time employee of the state 85709
may be provided to the court in the county in which the hospital 85710
is located, which may approve the surgery. Before approving the 85711
surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection and advocacy 85712
system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised Code, and shall 85713
notify the patient of the rights to consult with counsel, to have 85714
counsel appointed by the court if the patient is indigent, and to 85715
contest the recommendation of the chief clinical officer.85716

       (D) If, in a medical emergency, and after providing the 85717
information required under division (A) of this section to the 85718
patient, it is the judgment of one licensed physician that delay 85719
in obtaining surgery would create a grave danger to the health of 85720
the patient, it may be administered without the consent of the 85721
patient or the patient's guardian if the necessary information is 85722
provided to the patient's spouse or next of kin to enable that 85723
person to give informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent. 85724
If no spouse or next of kin can reasonably be contacted, or if the 85725
spouse or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, the 85726
surgery may be performed upon the written authorization of the 85727
chief clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, upon the 85728
written authorization of the attending physician responsible for 85729
the patient's care, and after the approval of the court has been 85730
obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court approval would 85731
create a grave danger to the life of the patient, the chief 85732
clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, the attending 85733
physician responsible for the patient's care may authorize 85734
surgery, in writing, without court approval. If the surgery is 85735
authorized without court approval, the chief clinical officer or 85736
the attending physician who made the authorization and the 85737
physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 85738
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 85739
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 85740
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 85741
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 85742
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 85743
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the patient's file and be 85744
given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the patient, to 85745
the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and to the Ohio 85746
protection and advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of 85747
the Revised Code.85748

       (E) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 85749
patient continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 85750
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 85751
aversive interventions may be applied if approved by the director 85752
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. Major 85753
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary patient 85754
without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent of 85755
the patient or the patient's guardian.85756

       (F) Unless there is substantial risk of physical harm to self 85757
or others, or other than under division (D) of this section, this 85758
chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory medical, 85759
psychological, or psychiatric treatment of any patient who is 85760
being treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in 85761
accordance with a recognized religious method of healing without 85762
specific court authorization.85763

       (G) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 85764
not include defibrillation.85765

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 85766
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 85767
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 85768
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 85769
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 85770
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 85771
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 85772
any person except:85773

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 85774
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 85775
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 85776
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 85777
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;85778

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter, Chapters 85779
340. or 5119., Title XLVII, or section 5123.601 of the Revised 85780
Code;85781

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 85782
mental health services, and community mental health agencies85783
services providers may release necessary medical information to 85784
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 85785
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 85786
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the patient;85787

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;85788

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 85789
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 85790
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 85791
reasons;85792

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 85793
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85794
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 85795
information with other hospitals, institutions, and facilities of 85796
the department, and with community mental health agenciesservices 85797
providers and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85798
services with which the department has a current agreement for 85799
patient care or services. Records and information that may be 85800
released pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 85801
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 85802
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 85803
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.85804

       (7) That hospitals within the department,and other 85805
institutions and facilities within the department, hospitals 85806
licensed by the department under section 5119.20 of the Revised 85807
Code, and community mental health agencies may exchange 85808
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with payers 85809
and other providers of treatment and health services if the 85810
purpose of the exchange is to facilitate continuity of care for a 85811
patient or for the emergency treatment of an individual;85812

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 85813
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 85814
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 85815
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 85816
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 85817
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 85818
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 85819
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 85820
information and does not object to the disclosure.85821

       (9) That community mental health agenciesservices providers85822
may exchange psychiatric records and certain other information 85823
with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85824
services and other agenciesservices providers in order to 85825
provide services to a person involuntarily committed to a board. 85826
Release of records under this division shall be limited to 85827
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 85828
status, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 85829
needs, and discharge summary, if any.85830

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 85831
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 85832
information is necessary to administer the estate;85833

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 85834
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 85835
deceased patient upon request of that relative;85836

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 85837
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 85838
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 85839
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 85840
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 85841
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 85842
patient.85843

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 85844
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 85845
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 85846
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 85847
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 85848
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 85849
involuntary commitment under this chapter.85850

       (14)(13) That the department of mental healthmental health 85851
and addiction services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization 85852
records, other mental health treatment records, and other 85853
pertinent information with the department of rehabilitation and 85854
correction and with the department of youth services to ensure 85855
continuity of care for inmates or offenders who are receiving 85856
mental health services in an institution of the department of 85857
rehabilitation and correction or the department of youth services 85858
and may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 85859
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with 85860
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 85861
community mental health services providers to ensure continuity of 85862
care for inmates or offenders who are receiving mental health 85863
services in an institution and are scheduled for release within 85864
six months. The department shall not disclose those records unless 85865
the inmate or offender is notified, receives the information, and 85866
does not object to the disclosure. The release of records under 85867
this division is limited to records regarding an inmate's or 85868
offender's medication history, physical health status and history, 85869
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 85870
discharge summary, if any.85871

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 85872
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 85873
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 85874
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 85875
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 85876
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 85877
elsewhere at the patient's request.85878

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 85879
(A)(3), (6), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the records 85880
shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the disclosure. 85881
No person shall reveal the contents of a medical record of a 85882
patient except as authorized by law.85883

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 85884
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 85885
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 85886
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 85887
criminal nor civil liability.85888

       Sec. 5122.311. (A) Notwithstanding any provision of the 85889
Revised Code to the contrary, if, on or after the effective date 85890
of this sectionApril 8, 2004, an individual is found by a court 85891
to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 85892
order or becomes an involuntary patient other than one who is a 85893
patient only for purposes of observation, the probate judge who 85894
made the adjudication or the chief clinical officer of the 85895
hospital, agencycommunity mental health services provider, or 85896
facility in which the person is an involuntary patient shall 85897
notify the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, on 85898
the form described in division (C) of this section, of the 85899
identity of the individual. The notification shall be transmitted 85900
by the judge or the chief clinical officer not later than seven 85901
days after the adjudication or commitment.85902

       (B) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation 85903
shall compile and maintain the notices it receives under division 85904
(A) of this section and shall use them for the purpose of 85905
conducting incompetency records checks pursuant to section 311.41 85906
of the Revised Code. The notices and the information they contain 85907
are confidential, except as provided in this division, and are not 85908
public records.85909

       (C) The attorney general, by rule adopted under Chapter 119. 85910
of the Revised Code, shall prescribe and make available to all 85911
probate judges and all chief clinical officers a form to be used 85912
by them for the purpose of making the notifications required by 85913
division (A) of this section.85914

       Sec. 5122.32.  (A) As used in this section:85915

       (1) "Quality assurance committee" means a committee that is 85916
appointed in the central office of the department of mental health85917
mental health and addiction services by the director of mental 85918
healthmental health and addiction services, a committee of a 85919
hospital or community setting program, a committee established 85920
pursuant to section 5119.47 of the Revised Code of the department 85921
of mental health appointed by the managing officer of the hospital 85922
or program, or a duly authorized subcommittee of a committee of 85923
that nature and that is designated to carry out quality assurance 85924
program activities.85925

       (2) "Quality assurance program" means a comprehensive program 85926
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85927
services to systematically review and improve the quality of 85928
medical and mental health services within the department and its 85929
hospitals and community setting programs, the safety and security 85930
of persons receiving medical and mental health services within the 85931
department and its hospitals and community setting programs, and 85932
the efficiency and effectiveness of the utilization of staff and 85933
resources in the delivery of medical and mental health services 85934
within the department and its hospitals and community setting 85935
programs. "Quality assurance program" includes the central office 85936
quality assurance committees, morbidity and mortality review 85937
committees, quality assurance programs of community setting 85938
programs, quality assurance committees of hospitals operated by 85939
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85940
services, and the office of licensure and certification of the 85941
department.85942

       (3) "Quality assurance program activities" include collecting 85943
or compiling information and reports required by a quality 85944
assurance committee, receiving, reviewing, or implementing the 85945
recommendations made by a quality assurance committee, and 85946
credentialing, privileging, infection control, tissue review, peer 85947
review, utilization review including access to patient care 85948
records, patient care assessment records, and medical and mental 85949
health records, medical and mental health resource management, 85950
mortality and morbidity review, and identification and prevention 85951
of medical or mental health incidents and risks, whether performed 85952
by a quality assurance committee or by persons who are directed by 85953
a quality assurance committee.85954

       (4) "Quality assurance records" means the proceedings, 85955
discussion, records, findings, recommendations, evaluations, 85956
opinions, minutes, reports, and other documents or actions that 85957
emanate from quality assurance committees, quality assurance 85958
programs, or quality assurance program activities. "Quality 85959
assurance records" does not include aggregate statistical 85960
information that does not disclose the identity of persons 85961
receiving or providing medical or mental health services in 85962
department of mental health institutionsmental health and 85963
addiction services hospitals or community setting programs .85964

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 85965
quality assurance records are confidential and are not public 85966
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall be 85967
used only in the course of the proper functions of a quality 85968
assurance program. 85969

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 85970
person who possesses or has access to quality assurance records 85971
and who knows that the records are quality assurance records shall 85972
willfully disclose the contents of the records to any person or 85973
entity.85974

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 85975
quality assurance record shall be subject to discovery in, and is 85976
not admissible in evidence, in any judicial or administrative 85977
proceeding.85978

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 85979
member of a quality assurance committee or a person who is 85980
performing a function that is part of a quality assurance program 85981
shall be permitted or required to testify in a judicial or 85982
administrative proceeding with respect to quality assurance 85983
records or with respect to any finding, recommendation, 85984
evaluation, opinion, or other action taken by the committee, 85985
member, or person.85986

       (3) Information, documents, or records otherwise available 85987
from original sources are not to be construed as being unavailable 85988
for discovery or admission in evidence in a judicial or 85989
administrative proceeding merely because they were presented to a 85990
quality assurance committee. No person testifying before a quality 85991
assurance committee or person who is a member of a quality 85992
assurance committee shall be prevented from testifying as to 85993
matters within the person's knowledge, but the witness cannot be 85994
asked about the witness' testimony before the quality assurance 85995
committee or about an opinion formed by the person as a result of 85996
the quality assurance committee proceedings.85997

       (D)(1) A person who, without malice and in the reasonable 85998
belief that the information is warranted by the facts known to the 85999
person, provides information to a person engaged in quality 86000
assurance program activities is not liable for damages in a civil 86001
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property to any 86002
person as a result of providing the information.86003

       (2) A member of a quality assurance committee, a person 86004
engaged in quality assurance program activities, and an employee 86005
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 86006
services shall not be liable in damages in a civil action for 86007
injury, death, or loss to person or property to any person for any 86008
acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct within the scope of 86009
the functions of the quality assurance program.86010

       (3) Nothing in this section shall relieve any institution or 86011
individual from liability arising from the treatment of a patient.86012

       (E) Quality assurance records may be disclosed, and testimony 86013
may be provided concerning quality assurance records, only to the 86014
following persons or entities:86015

       (1) Persons who are employed or retained by the department of 86016
mental healthmental health and addiction services and who have 86017
authority to evaluate or implement the recommendations of a 86018
state-operated hospital, community setting program, or central 86019
office quality assurance committee;86020

       (2) Public or private agencies or organizations if needed to 86021
perform a licensing or accreditation function related to 86022
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services86023
hospitals or community setting programs, or to perform monitoring 86024
of a hospital or program of that nature as required by law.86025

       (F) A disclosure of quality assurance records pursuant to 86026
division (E) of this section does not otherwise waive the 86027
confidential and privileged status of the disclosed quality 86028
assurance records.86029

       (G) Nothing in this section shall limit the access of the 86030
Ohio protection and advocacy system to records or personnel as 86031
required under section 5123.601 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 86032
this section shall limit the admissibility of documentary or 86033
testimonial evidence in an action brought by the Ohio protection 86034
and advocacy system in its own name or on behalf of a client.86035

       Sec. 5122.33.  The department of mental healthmental health 86036
and addiction services may prescribe the form of applications, 86037
reports, records, and medical certificates provided for under this 86038
chapter, and the information required to be contained therein; 86039
require reports from the chief clinical officer of any public 86040
hospital relating to the admission, examination, diagnosis, 86041
release, or discharge of any patient; visit each such hospital 86042
regularly to review the admission procedures of all new patients 86043
admitted between visits; investigate by personal visit complaints 86044
made by any patient or by any person on behalf of a patient; and 86045
adopt such rules as are reasonably necessary to effectuate the 86046
provisions of this chapter.86047

       Sec. 5122.34.  (A) Persons, including, but not limited to, 86048
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 86049
community mental health agenciesservices providers, acting in 86050
good faith, either upon actual knowledge or information thought by 86051
them to be reliable, who procedurally or physically assist in the 86052
hospitalization or discharge, determination of appropriate 86053
placement, or in judicial proceedings of a person under this 86054
chapter, do not come within any criminal provisions, and are free 86055
from any liability to the person hospitalized or to any other 86056
person. 86057

       (B) Regardless of whether any affirmative action has been 86058
taken under this chapter with respect to a mental health client or 86059
patient and except as otherwise provided in section 2305.51 of the 86060
Revised Code, no person shall be liable for any harm that results 86061
to any other person as a result of failing to disclose any 86062
confidential information about the mental health client or 86063
patient, or failing to otherwise attempt to protect such other 86064
person from harm by such client or patient. 86065

       (C) This section applies to expert witnesses who testify at 86066
hearings under this chapter.86067

       (D) The immunity from liability conferred by this section is 86068
in addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by 86069
any other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.86070

       Sec. 5122.341.  (A) As used in this section:86071

       (1) "Facility or agencyprovider" means, in the context of a 86072
person committed to the department of mental healthmental health 86073
and addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 86074
Revised Code, any entity in which the department of mental health86075
mental health and addiction services places such a person. 86076

       (2) "Person committed to the department" means a person 86077
committed to the department of mental healthmental health and 86078
addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 86079
Revised Code.86080

       (B) No member of a board of directors, or employee, of a 86081
facility or agencyprovider in which the department of mental 86082
healthmental health and addiction services places a person 86083
committed to the department is liable for injury or damages caused 86084
by any action or inaction taken within the scope of the board 86085
member's official duties or employee's employment relating to the 86086
commitment of, and services provided to, the person committed to 86087
the department, unless the action or inaction constitutes willful 86088
or wanton misconduct. A board member's or employee's action or 86089
inaction does not constitute willful or wanton misconduct if the 86090
board member or employee acted in good faith and reasonably under 86091
the circumstances and with the knowledge reasonably attributable 86092
to the board member or employee.86093

       The immunity from liability conferred by this section is in 86094
addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by any 86095
other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.86096

       Sec. 5122.39.  (A) Mentally ill minors shall remain under the 86097
natural guardianship of their parents, notwithstanding 86098
hospitalization pursuant to this chapter, unless parental rights 86099
have been terminated pursuant to a court finding that the minor is 86100
neglected or dependent. Where a mentally ill minor is found to be 86101
dependent or neglected, the public children's services agency in 86102
the county of residence has final guardianship authority and 86103
responsibility.86104

       (B) In no case shall the guardianship of a mentally ill 86105
person be assigned to the chief medical officer or any staff 86106
member of a hospital, board, or agencyprovider from which the 86107
person is receiving mental health services.86108

       Sec. 5122.43.  (A) Costs, fees, and expenses of all 86109
proceedings held under this chapter shall be paid as follows:86110

       (1) To police and health officers, other than sheriffs or 86111
their deputies, the same fees allowed to constables, to be paid 86112
upon the approval of the probate judge;86113

       (2) To sheriffs or their deputies, the same fees allowed for 86114
similar services in the court of common pleas;86115

       (3) To physicians or licensed clinical psychologists acting 86116
as expert witnesses and to other expert witnesses designated by 86117
the court, an amount determined by the court;86118

       (4) To other witnesses, the same fees and mileage as for 86119
attendance at the court of common pleas, to be paid upon the 86120
approval of the probate judge;86121

       (5) To a person, other than the sheriff or the sheriff's 86122
deputies, for taking a mentally ill person to a hospital or 86123
removing a mentally ill person from a hospital, the actual 86124
necessary expenses incurred, specifically itemized, and approved 86125
by the probate judge;86126

       (6) To assistants who convey mentally ill persons to the 86127
hospital when authorized by the probate judge, a fee set by the 86128
probate court, provided the assistants are not drawing a salary 86129
from the state or any political subdivision of the state, and 86130
their actual necessary expenses incurred, provided that the 86131
expenses are specifically itemized and approved by the probate 86132
judge;86133

       (7) To an attorney appointed by the probate division for an 86134
indigent who allegedly is a mentally ill person pursuant to any 86135
section of this chapter, the fees that are determined by the 86136
probate division. When those indigent persons are before the 86137
court, all filing and recording fees shall be waived.86138

       (8) To a referee who is appointed to conduct proceedings 86139
under this chapter that involve a respondent whose domicile is or, 86140
before the respondent's hospitalization, was not the county in 86141
which the proceedings are held, compensation as fixed by the 86142
probate division, but not more than the compensation paid for 86143
similar proceedings for respondents whose domicile is in the 86144
county in which the proceedings are held;86145

       (9) To a court reporter appointed to make a transcript of 86146
proceedings under this chapter, the compensation and fees allowed 86147
in other cases under section 2101.08 of the Revised Code.86148

       (B) A county shall pay for the costs, fees, and expenses 86149
described in division (A) of this section with money appropriated 86150
pursuant to section 2101.11 of the Revised Code. A county may seek 86151
reimbursement from the department of mental healthmental health 86152
and addiction services by submitting a request and certification 86153
by the county auditor of the costs, fees, and expenses to the 86154
department within two months of the date the costs, fees, and 86155
expenses are incurred by the county.86156

       Each fiscal year, based on past allocations, historical 86157
utilization, and other factors the department considers 86158
appropriate, the department shall allocate for each county an 86159
amount for reimbursements under this section. The total of all the 86160
allocations shall equal the amount appropriated for the fiscal 86161
year to the department specifically for the purposes of this 86162
section.86163

       On receipt, the department shall review each request for 86164
reimbursement and prepare a voucher for the amount of the costs, 86165
fees, and expenses incurred by the county, provided that the total 86166
amount of money paid to all counties in each fiscal year shall not 86167
exceed the total amount of moneys specifically appropriated to the 86168
department for these purposes. 86169

       The department's total reimbursement to each county shall be 86170
the lesser of the full amount requested or the amount allocated 86171
for the county under this division. In addition, the department 86172
shall distribute any surplus remaining from the money appropriated 86173
for the fiscal year to the department for the purposes of this 86174
section as follows to counties whose full requests exceed their 86175
allocations:86176

       (1) If the surplus is sufficient to reimburse such counties 86177
the full amount of their requests, each such county shall receive 86178
the full amount of its request;86179

       (2) If the surplus is insufficient, each such county shall 86180
receive a percentage of the surplus determined by dividing the 86181
difference between the county's full request and its allocation by 86182
the difference between the total of the full requests of all such 86183
counties and the total of the amounts allocated for all such 86184
counties. 86185

       The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 86186
119. of the Revised Code to implement the payment of costs, fees, 86187
and expenses under this section.86188

       Sec. 5122.44.  As used in sections 5122.44 to 5122.47 of the 86189
Revised Code:86190

       (A) "Compilation" means a written list of the following 86191
information, as the department of mental healthmental health and 86192
addiction services is able to reasonably ascertain, for every 86193
patient who was buried, entombed, or inurned prior to the 86194
effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005, in a cemetery 86195
located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds of a public 86196
hospital:86197

       (1) Name;86198

       (2) Date of birth;86199

       (3) Date of death or burial;86200

       (4) Specific physical location of the burial, entombment, or 86201
inurnment, including the plot or grave site number if available.86202

       (B) "Patient" means an individual who died while admitted to 86203
a public hospital that was under the control of the department of 86204
mental healthmental health and addiction services.86205

       (C) "Record" has the same meaning as in section 149.011 of 86206
the Revised Code.86207

       (D) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 86208
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 86209
any function of state government.86210

       Sec. 5122.45.  The department of mental healthmental health 86211
and addiction services shall create a separate compilation for 86212
each cemetery located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds 86213
of a public hospital that is under the control of the department 86214
on the effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005. The 86215
compilation shall be created within a reasonable time not 86216
exceeding three years after the effective date of this section86217
March 31, 2005. The department shall use its best efforts to 86218
create the most complete compilations possible using records in 86219
the department's possession and records obtained in accordance 86220
with section 5122.46 of the Revised Code.86221

       Sec. 5122.46.  The Ohio historical society and each state 86222
agency shall, at the request of the department of mental health86223
mental health and addiction services, provide the department 86224
access to records and information in the possession of the 86225
historical society or state agency for purposes of creating 86226
compilations.86227

       Sec. 5122.47.  The department of mental healthmental health 86228
and addiction services shall deposit a copy of each compilation 86229
with the Ohio historical society and the state library as soon as 86230
a compilation is completed. The department shall not disclose any 86231
record or information used to create a compilation except as 86232
provided in sections 149.43 and 5122.31 of the Revised Code.86233

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:86234

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 86235
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 86236
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 86237
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 86238
residents of the institution.86239

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 86240
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 86241
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 86242
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 86243
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 86244
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 86245
for residents of the institution.86246

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 86247
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 86248
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 86249
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 86250
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 86251
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 86252
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 86253
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 86254
such other specialists as the individual case may require.86255

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 86256
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 86257
development of residents.86258

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 86259
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 86260
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 86261
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 86262
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 86263
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 86264
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 86265
structured education and training.86266

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 86267
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 86268
city or general health district.86269

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 86270
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(A)(1) 86271
of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code provided under the 86272
medicaid waiver components the department of developmental 86273
disabilities administers pursuant to section 5111.8715166.21 of 86274
the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 5123.0412 of the 86275
Revised Code, home and community-based services provided under the 86276
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 86277
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 86278
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter, and 86279
Chapters 5124. and 5126. of the Revised Code, only to the extent, 86280
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.87186281
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.86282

       (H) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 86283
the Revised Code.86284

       (I) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 86285
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 86286
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 86287
including expert testimony.86288

       (I)(J) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 86289
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 86290
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 86291
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 86292
retarded.86293

       (J)(K) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 86294
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 86295
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 86296
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 86297
government of the United States while in the performance of the 86298
officer's official duties.86299

       (K)(L) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by 86300
the director of developmental disabilities to be in executive 86301
control of an institution for the mentally retarded under the 86302
jurisdiction of the department.86303

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 86304
the Revised Code.86305

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 86306
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 86307
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 86308
requires.86309

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 86310
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 86311
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 86312
during the developmental period.86313

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 86314
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 86315
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 86316
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 86317
conditions exist:86318

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 86319
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 86320
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 86321
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 86322
needs is not available in the community;86323

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 86324
habilitation in an institution.86325

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 86326
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 86327
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 86328
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 86329
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 86330
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 86331
in mental retardation published by the American association on 86332
mental retardation.86333

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 86334
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 86335
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 86336
Revised Code.86337

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 86338
that is characterized by all of the following:86339

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 86340
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 86341
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 86342
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.86343

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.86344

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.86345

       (4) It results in one of the following:86346

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 86347
least one developmental delay or an established risk;86348

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 86349
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 86350
established risk;86351

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 86352
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 86353
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 86354
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 86355
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 86356
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 86357
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.86358

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 86359
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 86360
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 86361
individually planned and coordinated for the person.86362

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 86363
developmental disability.86364

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 86365
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.86366

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 86367
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 86368
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 86369
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 86370
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 86371
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 86372
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 86373
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 86374
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 86375
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 86376
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 86377
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 86378
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 86379
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 86380
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 86381
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 86382
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 86383
or the department of developmental disabilities, the residence of 86384
the person shall be considered as though the person were residing 86385
in the county in which the person was living prior to the person's 86386
entrance into the institution or home. Settlement once acquired 86387
shall continue until a person has been continuously absent from 86388
Ohio for a period of one year or has acquired a legal residence in 86389
another state. A woman who marries a man with legal settlement in 86390
any county immediately acquires the settlement of her husband. The 86391
legal settlement of a minor is that of the parents, surviving 86392
parent, sole parent, parent who is designated the residential 86393
parent and legal custodian by a court, other adult having 86394
permanent custody awarded by a court, or guardian of the person of 86395
the minor, provided that:86396

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 86397
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 86398
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 86399
settlement obtained by the marriage.86400

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 86401
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 86402
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 86403
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 86404
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 86405
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 86406
legal settlement in this state.86407

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 86408
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 86409
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 86410
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 86411
parent for a period of one year.86412

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 86413
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 86414
institution.86415

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(U)(2) of 86416
this section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 86417
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 86418
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 86419
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 86420
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 86421
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.86422

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 86423
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 86424
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 86425
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 86426
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 86427
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.86428

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 86429
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 86430
proceeding under this chapter.86431

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 86432
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 86433
holiday.86434

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 86435
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 86436
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 86437
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 86438
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 86439
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 86440
which a person was found guilty.86441

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 86442
pleas.86443

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 86444
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.86445

       Sec. 5123.021.  (A) As used in this section, "mentally 86446
retarded individual" and "specialized services" have the same 86447
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.86448

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 86449
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 86450
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 86451
department of developmental disabilities shall determine in 86452
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act," 86453
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and regulations 86454
adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act whether, because 86455
of the individual's physical and mental condition, a mentally 86456
retarded individual seeking admission to a nursing facility 86457
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and, 86458
if the individual requires that level of services, whether the 86459
individual requires specialized services for mental retardation.86460

       (2) A determination under this division is not required for 86461
any of the following:86462

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 86463
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 86464
hospital for care;86465

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:86466

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 86467
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 86468
hospital;86469

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 86470
the condition for which the individual received care in the 86471
hospital;86472

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 86473
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 86474
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 86475
services.86476

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 86477
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 86478
stay.86479

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (F)(3) 86480
of this section, the department of developmental disabilities 86481
shall review and determine, for each resident of a nursing 86482
facility who is mentally retarded, whether the resident, because 86483
of the resident's physical and mental condition, requires the 86484
level of services provided by a nursing facility and whether the 86485
resident requires specialized services for mental retardation. The 86486
review and determination shall be conducted in accordance with 86487
section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" and the 86488
regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act. The 86489
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 86490
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 86491
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.86492

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 86493
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 86494
months before the date of a review and determination under 86495
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 86496
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 86497
is determined to require specialized services for mental 86498
retardation, the department, in consultation with the resident's 86499
family or legal representative and care givers, shall do all of 86500
the following:86501

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 86502
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 86503
medical assistance;86504

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 86505
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 86506
institutional or noninstitutional setting;86507

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 86508
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 86509
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;86510

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 86511
services for the resident's mental retardation in the setting 86512
chosen by the resident.86513

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 86514
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 86515
months before the date of the review and determination under 86516
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 86517
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 86518
is determined to require specialized services for mental 86519
retardation, or if the resident is determined to require neither 86520
the level of services provided by a nursing facility nor 86521
specialized services for mental retardation, the department shall 86522
act in accordance with its alternative disposition plan approved 86523
by the United States department of health and human services under 86524
section 1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."86525

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 86526
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 86527
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 86528
for mental retardation, the department of developmental 86529
disabilities shall provide or arrange for the provision of the 86530
specialized services needed by the individual or resident while 86531
residing in a nursing facility.86532

       (E) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 86533
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do 86534
all of the following:86535

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 86536
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 86537
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 86538
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 86539
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 86540
Act."86541

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 86542
nursing facility resident being assessed;86543

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 86544
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 86545
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 86546
made.86547

       Sec. 5123.022. It(A) As used in this section:86548

       (1) "Community employment" means competitive employment that 86549
takes place in an integrated setting.86550

       (2) "Competitive employment" means full-time or part-time 86551
work in the competitive labor market in which payment is at or 86552
above the minimum wage but not less than the customary wage and 86553
level of benefits paid by the employer for the same or similar 86554
work performed by persons who are not disabled.86555

       (3) "Integrated setting" means a setting typically found in 86556
the community where individuals with developmental disabilities 86557
interact with individuals who do not have disabilities to the same 86558
extent that individuals in comparable positions who are not 86559
disabled interact with other individuals, including in employment 86560
settings in which employees interact with the community through 86561
technology.86562

       (B) It is hereby declared to be the policy of this state that 86563
employment services for individuals with developmental 86564
disabilities be directed at placement whenever possible of each 86565
individual in a position in the community in which the individual 86566
is integrated with the employer's other workers who are not 86567
developmentally disabledemployment. TheEvery individual with a 86568
developmental disability is presumed capable of community 86569
employment unless proven otherwise through an individualized 86570
assessment process.86571

       The departments of developmental disabilities, education, 86572
medicaid, job and family services, and mental healthmental health 86573
and addiction services; the rehabilitation services commission ; 86574
and each other state agency that provides employment services to 86575
individuals with developmental disabilities shall implement this86576
the policy of this state and ensure that it is followed whenever 86577
employment services are provided to individuals with developmental 86578
disabilities.86579

       The department of developmental disabilities shall coordinate 86580
the actions taken by state agencies to comply with the state's 86581
policy. Agencies shall collaborate within their divisions and with 86582
each other to ensure that state programs, policies, procedures, 86583
and funding support competitive and integrated employment of 86584
individuals with developmental disabilities. State agencies shall 86585
share information with the department, and the department shall 86586
track progress toward full implementation of the policy. The 86587
department, in coordination with any task force established by the 86588
governor, shall compile data and annually submit to the governor a 86589
report on implementation of the policy.86590

       The department and state agencies may adopt rules to 86591
implement the state's policy.86592

       (C) The state's policy articulated in this section is 86593
intended to promote the right of each individual with a 86594
developmental disability to informed choice; however, nothing in 86595
this section requires any employer to give preference in hiring to 86596
an individual because the individual has a disability.86597

       Sec. 5123.023.  (A) The director of developmental 86598
disabilities may establish an employment first task force 86599
consisting of the departments of developmental disabilities, 86600
education, medicaid, job and family services, and mental health 86601
and addiction services; and the opportunities for Ohioans with 86602
disabilities agency. The purpose of the task force shall be to 86603
improve the coordination of the state's efforts to address the 86604
needs of individuals with developmental disabilities who seek 86605
community employment as defined in section 5123.022 of the Revised 86606
Code.86607

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities may enter 86608
into interagency agreements with any of the government entities on 86609
the task force. The interagency agreements may specify either or 86610
both of the following:86611

       (1) The roles and responsibilities of the government entities 86612
that are members of the task force, including any money to be 86613
contributed by those entities;86614

       (2) The projects and activities of the task force.86615

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 86616
employment first taskforce fund. Any money received by the task 86617
force from its members shall be credited to the fund. The 86618
department of developmental disabilities shall use the fund to 86619
support the work of the task force.86620

       (D) The task force shall cease to exist on January 1, 2020. 86621
Any money, assets, or employees of the department of developmental 86622
disabilities that on that date are dedicated to the work of the 86623
task force shall be reallocated by the department for employment 86624
services for individuals with developmental disabilities.86625

       Sec. 5123.03.  (A) The department of developmental 86626
disabilities shall do all of the following:86627

       (1) Maintain, operate, manage, and govern all state 86628
institutions for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 86629
retarded;86630

       (2) Designate all such institutions by appropriate names;86631

       (3) Provide and designate facilities for the custody, care, 86632
and special treatment of persons of the following classes:86633

       (a) Dangerous persons in state institutions for the mentally 86634
retarded who represent a serious threat to the safety of the other 86635
patients of the institution;86636

       (b) Persons charged with crimes who are found incompetent to 86637
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity and who are also 86638
mentally retarded persons subject to institutionalization by court 86639
order.86640

       (4) Have control of all institutions maintained in part by 86641
the state for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 86642
retarded;86643

       (5) Administer the laws relative to persons in such 86644
institutions in an efficient, economical, and humane manner;86645

       (6) Ascertain by actual examinations and inquiry whether 86646
institutionalizations are made according to law.86647

       (B) The department may do any of the following:86648

       (1) Subject to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code, receive 86649
from the department of youth services for observation, diagnosis, 86650
care, habilitation, or placement any children in the custody of 86651
the department of youth services;86652

       (2) Receive for observation any minor from a public 86653
institution other than an institution under the jurisdiction of 86654
the department of developmental disabilities, from a private 86655
charitable institution, or from a person having legal custody of 86656
such a minor, upon such terms as are proper;86657

       (3) Receive from the department of mental healthmental 86658
health and addiction services any patient in the custody of the 86659
department who is transferred to the department of developmental 86660
disabilities upon such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon 86661
by the two departments.86662

       (C) In addition to the powers and duties expressly conferred 86663
by this section, the department may take any other action 86664
necessary for the full and efficient executive, administrative, 86665
and fiscal supervision of the state institutions described in this 86666
section.86667

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 86668
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 86669
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 86670
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 86671
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 86672
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 86673
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 86674
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 86675
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 86676
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 86677
this section on to another provider of these services.86678

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 86679
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 86680
administration and oversight fund, both of , which areis hereby 86681
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 86682
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 86683
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 86684
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 86685
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 86686
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 86687
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 86688
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 86689
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 86690
purposes:86691

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 86692
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 86693
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 86694
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 86695
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 86696
and other resources the departments needdepartment needs and 86697
dedicatededicates solely to the following duties associated with 86698
the services:86699

       (a) Eligibility determinations;86700

       (b) Training;86701

       (c) Fiscal management;86702

       (d) Claims processing;86703

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;86704

       (f) Other duties the departments identifydepartment 86705
identifies.86706

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 86707
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 86708
Code for the services.86709

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 86710
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 86711
both of the following: 86712

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 86713
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 86714
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 86715
administration and oversight fund; 86716

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 86717
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 86718
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund. 86719

       (D) The departmentsdepartment shall submit an annual report 86720
to the director of budget and management certifying how the 86721
departmentsdepartment spent the money in the ODDD administration 86722
and oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund86723
for the purposes specified in division (B) of this section.86724

       Sec. 5123.0417. (A) The director of developmental 86725
disabilities shall establish one or more programs for individuals 86726
under twenty-two years of age who have intensive behavioral needs, 86727
including such individuals with a primary diagnosis of autism 86728
spectrum disorder. The programs may include one or more medicaid 86729
waiver components that the director administers pursuant to 86730
section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code. The programs may do 86731
one or more of the following:86732

        (1) Establish models that incorporate elements common to 86733
effective intervention programs and evidence-based practices in 86734
services for children with intensive behavioral needs;86735

       (2) Design a template for individualized education plans and 86736
individual service plans that provide consistent intervention 86737
programs and evidence-based practices for the care and treatment 86738
of children with intensive behavioral needs;86739

        (3) Disseminate best practice guidelines for use by families 86740
of children with intensive behavioral needs and professionals 86741
working with such families;86742

       (4) Develop a transition planning model for effectively 86743
mainstreaming school-age children with intensive behavioral needs 86744
to their public school district;86745

        (5) Contribute to the field of early and effective 86746
identification and intervention programs for children with 86747
intensive behavioral needs by providing financial support for 86748
scholarly research and publication of clinical findings.86749

        (B) The director of developmental disabilities shall 86750
collaborate with the medicaid director of job and family services86751
and consult with the executive director of the Ohio center for 86752
autism and low incidence and university-based programs that 86753
specialize in services for individuals with developmental 86754
disabilities when establishing programs under this section.86755

       Sec. 5123.09.  Subject to the rules of the department of 86756
developmental disabilities, each institution under the 86757
jurisdiction of the department shall be under the control of a 86758
managing officer to be known as a superintendent or by other 86759
appropriate title. The managing officer shall be appointed by the 86760
director of developmental disabilities and shall be in the 86761
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the director. 86762
Each managing officer shall be of good moral character and have 86763
skill, ability, and experience in the managing officer's 86764
profession. Appointment to the position of managing officer of an 86765
institution may be made from persons holding positions in the 86766
classified service in the department.86767

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 86768
executive charge of the institution for which the managing officer 86769
is appointed, except as provided in section 5119.165119.44 of the 86770
Revised Code. Subject to civil service rules and rules adopted by 86771
the department, the managing officer shall appoint the necessary 86772
employees, and the managing officer or the director may remove 86773
those employees for cause. A report of all appointments, 86774
resignations, and discharges shall be filed with the appropriate 86775
division at the close of each month.86776

       After conference with the managing officer of each 86777
institution, the director shall determine the number of employees 86778
to be appointed to the various institutions and clinics.86779

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 86780
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 86781
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 86782
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.86783

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 86784
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 86785
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 86786
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 86787
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 86788
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 86789
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.86790

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 86791
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 86792
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 86793
5126.01 of the Revised Code.86794

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 86795
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code (, including a 86796
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 86797
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 86798
Act," 79 Stat. 344 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as amended)86799
ICF/MR, and a respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 86800
the Revised Code.86801

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 86802
beds that are available for respite care and for making 86803
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 86804
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 86805
the mentally retardedICFs/MR shall report vacant beds to the 86806
department but shall not be required to accept respite care 86807
clients.86808

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 86809
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 86810
Revised Code for both of the following:86811

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 86812
disabilities of respite care homes;86813

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 86814
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 86815
the following:86816

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 86817
care services;86818

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 86819
in the provision of respite care services;86820

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.86821

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in sections 5123.19 to 5123.20 of 86822
the Revised Code:86823

       (1) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 86824
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 86825
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 86826
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 86827
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 86828
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 86829
support is received for rendering such service from any 86830
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.86831

        (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 86832
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 86833
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.86834

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 86835
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 86836
which the license was issued under this section.86837

       (4)(3) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 86838
county, or township.86839

       (5)(4) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 86840
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 86841
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 86842
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 86843
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 86844
provide supported living.86845

       (6)(5)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(5)(b) of this 86846
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 86847
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 86848
for the mentally retardedan ICF/MR, in which an individual with 86849
mental retardation or a developmental disability resides.86850

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 86851
following:86852

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 86853
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 86854
resides;86855

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 86856
the Revised Code;86857

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 86858
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;86859

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 86860
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 86861
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.86862

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 86863
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 86864
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 86865
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5103.03, 5119.205119.33, 86866
or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 86867
Code. 86868

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 86869
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 86870
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 86871
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 86872
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 86873
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 86874
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 86875
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 86876
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 86877
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 86878
period specified by the director, unless the license is 86879
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.86880

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 86881
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 86882
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 86883
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 86884
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 86885
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 86886
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 86887
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 86888
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 86889
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 86890
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 86891
imposed, all of the following apply:86892

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 86893
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 86894
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 86895
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 86896
residents of a residential facility.86897

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 86898
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 86899
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 86900
of this section is not given.86901

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 86902
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 86903
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 86904
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 86905
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 86906
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 86907
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 86908
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 86909
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 86910
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 86911
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.86912

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 86913
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 86914
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 86915
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 86916
the basis for the order has been corrected.86917

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 86918
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 86919
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 86920
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 86921
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 86922
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 86923
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 86924
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 86925
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 86926
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 86927
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 86928
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 86929
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 86930
adopted under such a provision.86931

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 86932
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 86933
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 86934
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 86935
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 86936
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 86937
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 86938
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 86939
the letter to each of the following:86940

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;86941

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 86942
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;86943

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 86944
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.86945

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 86946
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 86947
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 86948
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 86949
physical or psychological harm to the residents.86950

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 86951
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 86952
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 86953
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 86954
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 86955
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 86956
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 86957
agencies.86958

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 86959
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 86960
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 86961
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 86962
the hearing.86963

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 86964
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 86965
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 86966
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 86967
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 86968
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 86969
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 86970
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 86971
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 86972
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 86973
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 86974
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 86975
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 86976
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 86977
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 86978
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 86979
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 86980
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.86981

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 86982
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 86983
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 86984
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.86985

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 86986
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 86987
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 86988
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 86989
which case all of the following apply:86990

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 86991
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 86992
Revised Code.86993

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 86994
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 86995
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.86996

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 86997
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 86998
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 86999
director.87000

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 87001
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 87002
than ten days after the last of the following:87003

       (i) The close of the hearing;87004

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 87005
hearing examiner receives the transcript;87006

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 87007
examiner receives the briefs.87008

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 87009
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 87010
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 87011
days after the report is filed.87012

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 87013
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 87014
to the report and recommendations.87015

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 87016
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 87017
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 87018
recommendations.87019

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 87020
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 87021
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 87022
the order has been corrected.87023

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 87024
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 87025
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 87026
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 87027
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 87028
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 87029
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 87030
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.87031

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 87032
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 87033
and regulating the operation of residential facilities. The rules 87034
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 87035
for the mentally retardedICFs/MR may differ from those for other 87036
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 87037
following:87038

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 87039
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 87040
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 87041
each license when it is issued or renewed;87042

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 87043
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 87044
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 87045
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;87046

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 87047
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 87048
of the Revised Code;87049

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;87050

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 87051
personnel;87052

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 87053
facilities;87054

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 87055
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 87056
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 87057
or manage residential facilities;87058

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 87059
particular type of residential facility;87060

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 87061
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;87062

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 87063
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;87064

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 87065
under this section.87066

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 87067
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 87068
residential facility for which application is made. The director 87069
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 87070
residential facility at least once during the period the license 87071
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 87072
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 87073
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 87074
services provided there.87075

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 87076
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 87077
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 87078
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 87079
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 87080
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 87081
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 87082
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 87083
designee in conducting the survey.87084

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 87085
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 87086
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 87087
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 87088
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 87089
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 87090
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 87091
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 87092
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 87093
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 87094
any person who requests it.87095

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 87096
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 87097
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 87098
facility by an authorized representative of the department.87099

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 87100
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 87101
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 87102
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 87103
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 87104
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 87105
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.197 of 87106
the Revised Code.87107

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 87108
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 87109
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 87110
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 87111
is not the owner of the building.87112

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 87113
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 87114
notification to the department of any significant change in the 87115
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 87116
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 87117
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 87118
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 87119
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 87120
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 87121
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 87122
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 87123
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 87124
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 87125
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 87126
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 87127
119. of the Revised Code.87128

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 87129
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 87130
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 87131
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 87132
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 87133
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 87134
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 87135
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 87136
jurisdiction.87137

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 87138
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 87139
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 87140
the department under this division.87141

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 87142
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 87143
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 87144
losing their license.87145

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 87146
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 87147
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 87148
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:87149

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 87150
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 87151
municipal corporation;87152

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 87153
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 87154
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 87155
township trustees.87156

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 87157
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 87158
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 87159
which to comment on the proposed issuance.87160

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 87161
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 87162
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 87163
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 87164
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 87165
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 87166
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 87167
specified time, the director shall make written findings 87168
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 87169
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 87170
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 87171
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 87172
license.87173

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 87174
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 87175
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 87176
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 87177
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 87178
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 87179
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 87180
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 87181
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 87182
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 87183
zone.87184

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 87185
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 87186
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 87187
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 87188
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 87189
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 87190
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 87191
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 87192
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 87193
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 87194
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 87195
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 87196
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 87197
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 87198
zoning ordinance or resolution to:87199

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 87200
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 87201
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 87202
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;87203

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 87204
regulation;87205

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 87206
facilities.87207

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 87208
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 87209
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 87210
regulations and building standards and regulations.87211

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 87212
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 87213
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 87214
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 87215
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 87216
effect without any substantive modification.87217

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 87218
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 87219
section if either of the following is the case:87220

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 87221
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 87222
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 87223
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 87224
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 87225
interim license.87226

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 87227
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 87228
facility.87229

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 87230
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 87231
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 87232
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 87233
permanent license.87234

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 87235
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 87236
fifty days.87237

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 87238
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 87239
administer the issuance of interim licenses.87240

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 87241
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 87242
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 87243
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 87244
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 87245
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 87246
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 87247
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 87248
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.87249

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 87250
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 87251
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 87252
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 87253
residential facility without a license issued under this section.87254

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 87255
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 87256
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 87257
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 87258
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 87259
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 87260
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 87261
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 87262
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.87263

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 87264
on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, an 87265
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR87266
pursuant to a nursing home license issued under Chapter 3721. of 87267
the Revised Code shall do both of the following as a condition of 87268
continuing to operate the facilityICF/MR on and after July 1, 87269
2013:87270

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 87271
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 87272
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility87273
ICF/MR;87274

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 87275
facility license for the facilityICF/MR.87276

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 87277
for the mentally retardedICF/MR shall cease to be valid at the 87278
earliest of the following:87279

        (1) The date that the facility'sICF/MR's nursing home 87280
license is revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised 87281
Code;87282

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 87283
for the facilityICF/MR under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;87284

        (3) July 1, 2013.87285

        (C) Except for existing nursing home beds not certified as 87286
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR beds 87287
and relocated in accordance with a move authorized by a 87288
certificate of need under Chapter 3702. of the Revised Code, no 87289
bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 87290
retardedICF/MR that is licensed as a nursing home on the 87291
effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, may be used as 87292
part of a nursing home on and after the earlier of the following:87293

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 87294
for the facilityICF/MR under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;87295

        (2) July 1, 2013.87296

       Sec. 5123.197.  Neither an applicant for an initial 87297
residential facility license under section 5123.19 of the Revised 87298
Code nor an applicant for a modification of an existing 87299
residential facility license under that section is required to 87300
obtain approval of a plan for the proposed new residential 87301
facility or modification to the existing residential facility 87302
pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code if all of the 87303
following apply:87304

       (A) The new residential facility or modification to the 87305
existing residential facility is to serve individuals who have 87306
diagnoses or special care needs for which a medicaid reimbursement87307
payment rate is set pursuant to section 5111.2585124.153 of the 87308
Revised Code;87309

       (B) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 87310
director and director of developmental disabilities determine that 87311
there is a need under the medicaid program for the proposed new 87312
residential facility or modification to the existing residential 87313
facility and that approving the application for the initial 87314
residential facility license or modification to the existing 87315
residential facility license is fiscally prudent for the medicaid 87316
program;87317

       (C) The director of budget and management notifies the 87318
directors of job and family servicesmedicaid director and 87319
director of developmental disabilities that the director of budget 87320
and management agrees with the directors' determination under 87321
division (B) of this section.87322

       Sec. 5123.198. (A) As used in this section, "date of the 87323
commitment" means the date that an individual specified in 87324
division (B) of this section begins to reside in a state-operated 87325
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR after 87326
being committed to the facilityICF/MR pursuant to sections 87327
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code.87328

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 87329
whenever a resident of a residential facility is committed to a 87330
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 87331
retardedICF/MR pursuant to sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the 87332
Revised Code, the department of developmental disabilities, 87333
pursuant to an adjudication order issued in accordance with 87334
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall reduce by one the number 87335
of residents for which the residential facility in which the 87336
resident resided is licensed. 87337

       (C) The department shall not reduce under division (B) of 87338
this section the number of residents for which a residential 87339
facility is licensed if any of the following are the case:87340

       (1) The resident of the residential facility who is committed 87341
to a state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 87342
retardedICF/MR resided in the residential facility because of the 87343
closure, on or after June 26, 2003, of another state-operated 87344
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR;87345

       (2) The residential facility admits within ninety days of the 87346
date of the commitment an individual who resides on the date of 87347
the commitment in a state-operated intermediate care facility for 87348
the mentally retardedICF/MR or another residential facility;87349

       (3) The department fails to do either of the following within 87350
ninety days of the date of the commitment:87351

       (a) Identify an individual to whom all of the following 87352
applies:87353

       (i) Resides on the date of the commitment in a state-operated 87354
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR or 87355
another residential facility;87356

       (ii) Has indicated to the department an interest in 87357
relocating to the residential facility or has a parent or guardian 87358
who has indicated to the department an interest for the individual 87359
to relocate to the residential facility;87360

       (iii) The department determines the individual has needs that 87361
the residential facility can meet.87362

       (b) Provide the residential facility with information about 87363
the individual identified under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 87364
that the residential facility needs in order to determine whether 87365
the facility can meet the individual's needs.87366

       (4) If the department completes the actions specified in 87367
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 87368
days after the date of the commitment and except as provided in 87369
division (D) of this section, the residential facility does all of 87370
the following not later than ninety days after the date of the 87371
commitment:87372

       (a) Evaluates the information provided by the department;87373

       (b) Assesses the identified individual's needs;87374

       (c) Determines that the residential facility cannot meet the 87375
identified individual's needs.87376

       (5) If the department completes the actions specified in 87377
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 87378
days after the date of the commitment and the residential facility 87379
determines that the residential facility can meet the identified 87380
individual's needs, the individual, or a parent or guardian of the 87381
individual, refuses placement in the residential facility.87382

       (D) The department may reduce under division (B) of this 87383
section the number of residents for which a residential facility 87384
is licensed even though the residential facility completes the 87385
actions specified in division (C)(4) of this section not later 87386
than ninety days after the date of the commitment if all of the 87387
following are the case:87388

       (1) The department disagrees with the residential facility's 87389
determination that the residential facility cannot meet the 87390
identified individual's needs.87391

       (2) The department issues a written decision pursuant to the 87392
uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and discharges 87393
established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of section 87394
5123.19 of the Revised Code that the residential facility should 87395
admit the identified individual.87396

       (3) After the department issues the written decision 87397
specified in division (D)(2) of this section, the residential 87398
facility refuses to admit the identified individual.87399

       (E) A residential facility that admits, refuses to admit, 87400
transfers, or discharges a resident under this section shall 87401
comply with the uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and 87402
discharges established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of 87403
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.87404

       (F) The department of developmental disabilities may notify 87405
the department of job and family services of any reduction under 87406
this section in the number of residents for which a residential 87407
facility that is an intermediate care facility for the mentally 87408
retarded is licensed. On receiving the notice, the department of 87409
job and family services may transfer to the department of 87410
developmental disabilities the savings in the nonfederal share of 87411
medicaid expenditures for each fiscal year after the year of the 87412
commitment to be used for costs of the resident's care in the 87413
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 87414
retarded. In determining the amount saved, the department of job 87415
and family services shall consider medicaid payments for the 87416
remaining residents of the facility in which the resident resided.87417

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 87418
section, if an individual receiving supported living or home and 87419
community-based services funded by a county board of developmental 87420
disabilities is committed to a state-operated intermediate care 87421
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR pursuant to sections 87422
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the county board is 87423
responsible for the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures for 87424
the individual's care in the state-operated facilityICF/MR. The 87425
department of developmental disabilities shall collect the amount 87426
of the nonfederal share from the county board by either 87427
withholding that amount from funds the department has otherwise 87428
allocated to the county board or submitting an invoice for payment 87429
of that amount to the county board.87430

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply under any of 87431
the following circumstances:87432

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 87433
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported living, 87434
commences funding of supported living for an individual who 87435
resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 87436
mentally retardedICF/MR on the date of the commitment or another 87437
eligible individual designated by the department.87438

        (2) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 87439
date of the commitment of a person receiving home and 87440
community-based services, commences funding of home and 87441
community-based services for an individual who resides in a 87442
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 87443
retardedICF/MR on the date of the commitment or another eligible 87444
individual designated by the department.87445

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 87446
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 87447
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 87448
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 87449
that case.87450

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:87451

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 87452
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 87453
sheriff.87454

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 87455
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 87456
defined in that section.87457

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 87458
the Revised Code.87459

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 87460
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 87461
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 87462
department under this section and reports received from county 87463
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 87464
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 87465
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.87466

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 87467
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 87468
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 87469
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 87470
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 87471
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 87472
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 87473
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 87474
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 87475
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 87476
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 87477
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 87478
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 87479
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 87480
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 87481
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 87482
department and to the county board.87483

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 87484
report under division (C)(1) of this section:87485

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 87486
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 87487
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 87488
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 87489
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 87490
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 87491
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of a 87492
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 87493
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and person 87494
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or employee 87495
of a community mental health facility;87496

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 87497
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 87498
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;87499

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 87500
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 87501
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 87502
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 87503
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 87504
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 87505
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 87506
of the Revised Code;87507

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 87508
an institution or branch institution of the department of 87509
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 87510
Code;87511

       (e) A member of the clergy who is employed in a position that 87512
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 87513
mental retardation or another developmental disability, while 87514
acting in an official or professional capacity in that position, 87515
or a person who is employed in a position that includes providing 87516
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 87517
another developmental disability and who, while acting in an 87518
official or professional capacity, renders spiritual treatment 87519
through prayer in accordance with the tenets of an organized 87520
religion.87521

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 87522
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.87523

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 87524
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 87525
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 87526
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 87527
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 87528
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 87529
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 87530
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 87531
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 87532
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 87533
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 87534
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:87535

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 87536
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.87537

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 87538
of the communication or any observations made during that 87539
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 87540
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 87541
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 87542
of the client or patient.87543

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 87544
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 87545
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 87546
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 87547
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 87548
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.87549

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 87550
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 87551
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 87552
following:87553

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 87554
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 87555
custodian, if known;87556

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 87557
developmental disability;87558

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 87559
investigation of the report.87560

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 87561
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 87562
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 87563
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 87564
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 87565
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 87566
reports.87567

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 87568
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 87569
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 87570
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 87571
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 87572
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 87573
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 87574
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 87575
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 87576
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 87577
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 87578
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 87579
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 87580
be made to the department and to the county board.87581

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 87582
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 87583
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 87584
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 87585
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 87586
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 87587
director's designee.87588

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 87589
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 87590
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 87591
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 87592
agency.87593

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 87594
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 87595
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 87596
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 87597
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 87598
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 87599
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 87600
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 87601
section.87602

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 87603
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 87604
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 87605
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 87606
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 87607
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 87608
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 87609
board's receipt of the report.87610

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 87611
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 87612
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 87613
under this section.87614

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 87615
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 87616
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 87617
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 87618
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 87619
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 87620
Revised Code.87621

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 87622
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 87623
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 87624
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 87625
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 87626
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 87627
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 87628
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 87629
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 87630
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 87631
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 87632
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 87633
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 87634
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 87635
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 87636
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 87637
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 87638
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 87639
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 87640
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 87641
the department.87642

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 87643
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 87644
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 87645
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 87646
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 87647
its findings to the county board.87648

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 87649
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 87650
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 87651
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 87652
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 87653
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 87654
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 87655
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 87656
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 87657
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.87658

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 87659
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 87660
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 87661
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 87662
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 87663
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 87664
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 87665
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 87666
there is another reasonable basis for the action.87667

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 87668
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 87669
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 87670
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 87671
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 87672
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 87673
disabilities.87674

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 87675
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 87676
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 87677
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 87678
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 87679
submitted pursuant to this section.87680

       Sec. 5123.86.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 87681
(E), and (F) of this section, the chief medical officer shall 87682
provide all information, including expected physical and medical 87683
consequences, necessary to enable any resident of an institution 87684
for the mentally retarded to give a fully informed, intelligent, 87685
and knowing consent if any of the following procedures are 87686
proposed:87687

       (1) Surgery;87688

       (2) Convulsive therapy;87689

       (3) Major aversive interventions;87690

       (4) Sterilization;87691

       (5) Experimental procedures;87692

       (6) Any unusual or hazardous treatment procedures.87693

       (B) No resident shall be subjected to any of the procedures 87694
listed in division (A)(4), (5), or (6) of this section without the 87695
resident's informed consent.87696

       (C) If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive 87697
the information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 87698
section, or has been adjudicated incompetent, the information may 87699
be provided to the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, 87700
including an agency providing guardianship services under contract 87701
with the department of developmental disabilities under sections 87702
5123.55 to 5123.59 of the Revised Code, who may give the informed, 87703
intelligent, and knowing written consent for surgery. Consent for 87704
surgery shall not be provided by a guardian who is an officer or 87705
employee of the department of mental healthmental health and 87706
addiction services or the department of developmental 87707
disabilities.87708

       If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive the 87709
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 87710
section and has no guardian, then the information, the 87711
recommendation of the chief medical officer, and the concurring 87712
judgment of a licensed physician who is not a full-time employee 87713
of the state may be provided to the court in the county in which 87714
the institution is located, which may approve the surgery. Before 87715
approving the surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection 87716
and advocacy system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised 87717
Code, and shall notify the resident of the resident's rights to 87718
consult with counsel, to have counsel appointed by the court if 87719
the resident is indigent, and to contest the recommendation of the 87720
chief medical officer.87721

       (D) If, in the judgment of two licensed physicians, delay in 87722
obtaining consent for surgery would create a grave danger to the 87723
health of a resident, emergency surgery may be performed without 87724
the consent of the resident if the necessary information is 87725
provided to the resident's guardian, including an agency providing 87726
guardianship services under contract with the department of 87727
developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 5123.59 of 87728
the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next of kin to 87729
enable that person or agency to give an informed, intelligent, and 87730
knowing written consent.87731

       If the guardian, spouse, or next of kin cannot be contacted 87732
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 87733
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 87734
the emergency surgery may be performed upon the written 87735
authorization of the chief medical officer and after court 87736
approval has been obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court 87737
approval would create a grave danger to the life of the resident, 87738
the chief medical officer may authorize surgery, in writing, 87739
without court approval. If the surgery is authorized without court 87740
approval, the chief medical officer who made the authorization and 87741
the physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 87742
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 87743
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 87744
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 87745
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 87746
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 87747
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the resident's file and 87748
shall be given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the 87749
resident, to the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and 87750
to the Ohio protection and advocacy system created by section 87751
5123.60 of the Revised Code.87752

       (E)(1) If it is the judgment of two licensed physicians, as 87753
described in division (E)(2) of this section, that a medical 87754
emergency exists and delay in obtaining convulsive therapy creates 87755
a grave danger to the life of a resident who is both mentally 87756
retarded and mentally ill, convulsive therapy may be administered 87757
without the consent of the resident if the resident is physically 87758
or mentally unable to receive the information required for 87759
convulsive therapy and if the necessary information is provided to 87760
the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, including an 87761
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 87762
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 87763
5123.59 of the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next 87764
of kin to enable that person or agency to give an informed, 87765
intelligent, and knowing written consent. If neither the 87766
resident's guardian, spouse, nor next of kin can be contacted 87767
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 87768
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 87769
convulsive therapy may be performed upon the written authorization 87770
of the chief medical officer and after court approval has been 87771
obtained.87772

       (2) The two licensed physicians referred to in division 87773
(E)(1) of this section shall not be associated with each other in 87774
the practice of medicine or surgery by means of a partnership or 87775
corporate arrangement, other business arrangement, or employment. 87776
At least one of the physicians shall be a psychiatrist as defined 87777
in division (E) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.87778

       (F) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 87779
resident continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 87780
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 87781
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary 87782
resident without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written 87783
consent of the resident or the resident's guardian, including an 87784
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 87785
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 87786
5123.59 of the Revised Code.87787

       (G)(1) This chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory 87788
medical or psychiatric treatment of any resident who is being 87789
treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with 87790
a recognized religious method of healing.87791

       (2) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 87792
not include defibrillation.87793

       Sec. 5124.01.  As used in this chapter:87794

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 87795
either of the following:87796

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 87797
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 87798
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 87799
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 87800
owes;87801

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 87802
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 87803
section.87804

       (B) "Allowable costs" means an ICF/MR's costs that the 87805
department of developmental disabilities determines are 87806
reasonable. Fines paid under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code 87807
are not allowable costs.87808

       (C) "Capital costs" means an ICF/MR's costs of ownership and 87809
costs of nonextensive renovation.87810

       (D) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 87811
section 5124.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 87812
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to an ICF/MR 87813
resident.87814

       (E) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 87815
the operator of an ICF/MR in the place of the exiting operator.87816

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 87817
following:87818

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 87819
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 87820
corporation from a sole proprietorship;87821

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 87822
interest in the operation of the ICF/MR to the entering operator, 87823
regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the real property 87824
or personal property associated with the ICF/MR is also 87825
transferred;87826

       (c) A lease of the ICF/MR to the entering operator or the 87827
exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's lease;87828

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 87829
the partnership;87830

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 87831
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:87832

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 87833
partnership's dissolution under state law.87834

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 87835
not constitute a change in operator.87836

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 87837
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 87838
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 87839
more other corporations to form a new corporation.87840

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 87841
operator:87842

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage an ICF/MR as the 87843
operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 87844
operating and management decisions;87845

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 87846
of real property or personal property associated with an ICF/MR if 87847
an entering operator does not become the operator in place of an 87848
exiting operator;87849

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 87850
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 87851
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 87852
same corporation continues to be the operator.87853

       (F) "Cost center" means the following:87854

       (1) Capital costs;87855

       (2) Direct care costs;87856

       (3) Indirect care costs;87857

       (4) Other protected costs.87858

       (G) "Costs of nonextensive renovations" means the actual 87859
expense incurred by an ICF/MR for depreciation or amortization and 87860
interest on renovations that are not extensive renovations.87861

       (H)(1) "Costs of ownership" means the actual expenses 87862
incurred by an ICF/MR for all of the following:87863

       (a) Subject to division (H)(2) of this section, depreciation 87864
and interest on any capital assets that cost five hundred dollars 87865
or more per item, including the following:87866

       (i) Buildings;87867

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 87868
nonextensive renovations under section 5124.17 of the Revised 87869
Code;87870

       (iii) Equipment;87871

       (iv) Extensive renovations;87872

       (v) Transportation equipment.87873

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 87874
leasehold improvements;87875

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;87876

       (d) Except as provided in division (Z) of this section, lease 87877
and rent of land, building, and equipment.87878

       (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 87879
dollars per item may be considered costs of ownership in 87880
accordance with an ICF/MR provider's practice.87881

       (I)(1) "Date of licensure" means the following:87882

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR that was originally licensed as 87883
a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the date 87884
that it was originally so licensed, regardless that it was 87885
subsequently licensed as a residential facility under section 87886
5123.19 of the Revised Code;87887

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR that was originally licensed as 87888
a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, 87889
the date it was originally so licensed;87890

       (c) In the case of an ICF/MR that was not required by law to 87891
be licensed as a nursing home or residential facility when it was 87892
originally operated as a residential facility, the date it first 87893
was operated as a residential facility, regardless of the date the 87894
ICF/MR was first licensed as a nursing home or residential 87895
facility.87896

       (2) If, after an ICF/MR's original date of licensure, more 87897
residential facility beds are added to the ICF/MR or all or part 87898
of the ICF/MR undergoes an extensive renovation, the ICF/MR has a 87899
different date of licensure for the additional beds or extensively 87900
renovated portion of the ICF/MR. This does not apply, however, to 87901
additional beds when both of the following apply:87902

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the ICF/MR 87903
that was constructed at the same time as the continuing beds 87904
already located in that part of the ICF/MR;87905

       (b) The part of the ICF/MR in which the additional beds are 87906
located was constructed as part of the ICF/MR at a time when the 87907
ICF/MR was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home or 87908
residential facility.87909

       (3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 87910
applies in determinations of ICFs/MR's medicaid payment rates but 87911
does not apply in determinations of ICFs/MR's franchise permit 87912
fees under sections 5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.87913

       (J) "Desk-reviewed" means that an ICF/MR's costs as reported 87914
on a cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the 87915
Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review under section 87916
5124.108 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 87917
allowable costs.87918

       (K) "Developmental center" means a residential facility that 87919
is maintained and operated by the department of developmental 87920
disabilities.87921

       (L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 87922
incurred by an ICF/MR:87923

       (1) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, 87924
and nurse aides employed by the ICF/MR;87925

       (2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 87926
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, physical 87927
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 87928
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 87929
habilitation staff (including habilitation supervisors), qualified 87930
intellectual disability professionals, program directors, social 87931
services staff, activities staff, off-site day programming, 87932
psychologists, psychology assistants, social workers, counselors, 87933
and other persons holding degrees qualifying them to provide 87934
therapy;87935

       (3) Costs of purchased nursing services;87936

       (4) Costs of training and staff development, employee 87937
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 87938
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 87939
rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, for 87940
personnel listed in divisions (L)(1), (2), and (3) of this 87941
section;87942

       (5) Costs of quality assurance;87943

       (6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 87944
care;87945

       (7) Allocated direct care home office costs;87946

       (8) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 87947
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the 87948
Revised Code.87949

       (M) "Downsized ICF/MR" means an ICF/MR that permanently 87950
reduced its medicaid-certified capacity pursuant to a plan 87951
approved by the department of developmental disabilities under 87952
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code.87953

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 87954
the entering operator becomes the operator of the ICF/MR.87955

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 87956
that the last of the residents of the ICF/MR resides in the 87957
ICF/MR.87958

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 87959
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 87960
agreement for the ICF/MR or the last day that such a provider 87961
agreement is in effect when the department cancels or refuses to 87962
revalidate it.87963

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary termination" means the day 87964
the ICF/MR ceases to accept medicaid recipients.87965

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 87966
that will become the operator of an ICF/MR when a change of 87967
operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.87968

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:87969

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 87970
ICF/MR on the effective date of a change of operator;87971

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 87972
ICF/MR on the effective date of a facility closure;87973

       (3) An operator of an ICF/MR that is undergoing or has 87974
undergone a voluntary termination;87975

       (4) An operator of an ICF/MR that is undergoing or has 87976
undergone an involuntary termination.87977

       (T)(1) "Extensive renovation" means the following:87978

       (a) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 87979
which both of the following apply:87980

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;87981

       (ii) It meets the definition of "extensive renovation" 87982
established in rules that were adopted by the director of job and 87983
family services and in effect on December 22, 1992.87984

       (b) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 87985
which all of the following apply:87986

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;87987

       (ii) Except as provided in division (T)(2) of this section, 87988
it costs more than sixty-five per cent and not more than 87989
eighty-five per cent of the cost of constructing a new bed;87990

       (iii) It extends the useful life of the assets for at least 87991
ten years.87992

       (2) The department of developmental disabilities may treat a 87993
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 87994
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 87995
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 87996
construction of new beds.87997

       (3) For the purpose of division (T)(1)(b)(ii) of this 87998
section, the cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to 87999
be forty thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of 88000
inflation from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year 88001
during which the extensive renovation is completed, using the 88002
consumer price index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for 88003
the north central region, as published by the United States bureau 88004
of labor statistics.88005

       (U)(1) Subject to divisions (U)(2) and (3) of this section, 88006
"facility closure" means either of the following:88007

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 88008
building, that houses the facility as an ICF/MR that results in 88009
the relocation of all of the facility's residents;88010

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 88011
houses an ICF/MR to a different use with any necessary license or 88012
other approval needed for that use being obtained and one or more 88013
of the facility's residents remaining in the facility to receive 88014
services under the new use. 88015

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 88016
following:88017

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the ICF/MR 88018
by constructing a new ICF/MR or transferring the ICF/MR's license 88019
to another ICF/MR;88020

       (b) The ICF/MR's residents relocating to another of the 88021
operator's ICFs/MR;88022

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 88023
ICF/MR's medicaid certification that may result in the transfer of 88024
part of the ICF/MR's survey findings to another of the operator's 88025
ICFs/MR;88026

       (d) Any action the department of developmental disabilities 88027
takes regarding the ICF/MR's license under section 5123.19 of the 88028
Revised Code.88029

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the ICF/MR's 88030
residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation and one or 88031
more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified bed in the 88032
ICF/MR not later than thirty days after the evacuation occurs.88033

       (V) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 88034
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.88035

       (W) "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 88036
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.88037

       (X) "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning 88038
as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.88039

       (Y) "ICF/MR services" means ICF/IID services as defined in 42 88040
C.F.R. 440.150.88041

       (Z)(1) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs 88042
incurred by an ICF/MR other than capital costs, direct care costs, 88043
and other protected costs. "Indirect care costs" includes costs of 88044
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 88045
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 88046
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 88047
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 88048
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 88049
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 88050
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 88051
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repair expenses, 88052
help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, start-up 88053
costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 88054
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 88055
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 88056
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs, as specified in 88057
rules adopted under section 5124.03of the Revised Code, for 88058
personnel listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (H) of 88059
this section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of 88060
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 88061
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 88062
administrative and general costs on the ICF/MR's cost report for 88063
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.88064

       (2) For the purpose of division (Z)(1) of this section, an 88065
operating lease shall be construed in accordance with generally 88066
accepted accounting principles.88067

       (AA) "Inpatient days" means both of the following:88068

       (1) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 88069
source, occupies a bed in an ICF/MR that is included in the 88070
ICF/MR's medicaid-certified capacity;88071

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 88072
of the Revised Code.88073

       (BB) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 88074
and "ICF/MR" mean an intermediate care facility for the mentally 88075
retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(d), 88076
42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).88077

       (CC) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 88078
medicaid's termination of, cancellation of, or refusal to 88079
revalidate the operator's provider agreement for the ICF/MR when 88080
such action is not taken at the operator's request.88081

       (DD) "Low resource utilization resident" means a medicaid 88082
recipient residing in an ICF/MR who is placed in the typical 88083
adaptive needs and nonsignificant behaviors classification 88084
pursuant to the resident assessment instrument and grouper 88085
methodology established in rules authorized by sections 5124.191 88086
and 5124.192 of the Revised Code.88087

       (EE) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 88088
provided in division (UU)(2)(b) of this section, expenditures that 88089
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 88090
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 88091
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 88092
includes the costs of ordinary repairs such as painting and 88093
wallpapering.88094

       (FF) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of an 88095
ICF/MR's beds that are certified for participation in medicaid as 88096
ICF/IID beds.88097

       (GG) "Medicaid days" means both of the following:88098

       (1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 88099
recipient eligible for ICF/MR services occupies a bed in an ICF/MR 88100
that is included in the ICF/MR's medicaid-certified capacity;88101

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 88102
of the Revised Code. 88103

       (HH)(1) "New ICF/MR" means an ICF/MR for which the provider 88104
obtains an initial provider agreement following the director of 88105
health's medicaid certification of the ICF/MR, including such an 88106
ICF/MR that replaces one or more ICFs/MR for which a provider 88107
previously held a provider agreement.88108

       (2) "New ICF/MR" does not mean either of the following:88109

       (a) An ICF/MR for which the entering operator seeks a 88110
provider agreement pursuant to section 5124.511 or 5124.512 or 88111
(pursuant to section 5124.515) section 5124.07 of the Revised 88112
Code;88113

       (b) A downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR.88114

       (II) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 88115
3721.01 of the Revised Code.88116

       (JJ) "Operator" means the person or government entity 88117
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for 88118
an ICF/MR.88119

       (KK) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 88120
ICF/MR for medical supplies; real estate, franchise, and property 88121
taxes; natural gas, fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and 88122
refuse and hazardous medical waste collection; allocated other 88123
protected home office costs; and any additional costs defined as 88124
other protected costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 88125
the Revised Code.88126

       (LL)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 88127
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 88128
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 88129
regarding an ICF/MR:88130

       (a) The land on which the ICF/MR is located;88131

       (b) The structure in which the ICF/MR is located;88132

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 88133
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 88134
which the ICF/MR is located;88135

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 88136
which the ICF/MR is located.88137

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 88138
related to an ICF/MR and purchased at public issue or a regulated 88139
lender that has made a loan related to the ICF/MR unless the 88140
holder or lender operates the ICF/MR directly or through a 88141
subsidiary.88142

       (MM) "Partially converted ICF/MR" means an ICF/MR that 88143
converted some, but not all, of its beds to providing home and 88144
community-based services under the individual options waiver 88145
pursuant to section 5124.60 of the Revised Code. 88146

       (NN)(1) Except as provided in divisions (NN)(2) and (3) of 88147
this section, "per diem" means an ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, 88148
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 88149
divided by the facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting 88150
period.88151

       (2) When determining capital costs for the purpose of section 88152
5124.17 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/MR's actual, 88153
allowable capital costs in a cost-reporting period divided by the 88154
greater of the facility's inpatient days for that period or the 88155
number of inpatient days the ICF/MR would have had during that 88156
period if its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.88157

       (3) When determining indirect care costs for the purpose of 88158
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/MR's 88159
actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost-reporting period 88160
divided by the greater of the ICF/MR's inpatient days for that 88161
period or the number of inpatient days the ICF/MR would have had 88162
during that period if its occupancy rate had been eighty-five per 88163
cent.88164

       (OO) "Provider" means an operator with a valid provider 88165
agreement.88166

       (PP) "Provider agreement" means a provider agreement, as 88167
defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that is between 88168
the department of medicaid and the operator of an ICF/MR for the 88169
provision of ICF/MR services under the medicaid program.88170

       (QQ) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 88171
provided in an ICF/MR by registered nurses, licensed practical 88172
nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the ICF/MR.88173

       (RR) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 88174
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 88175
resident care facilities and activities, including normal standby 88176
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 88177
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 88178
provider and from time to time for the same provider.88179

       (SS) "Related party" means an individual or organization 88180
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 88181
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 88182
by, a provider.88183

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 88184
party.88185

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 88186
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 88187
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 88188
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 88189
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 88190
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 88191
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 88192
provider and another organization from which the provider 88193
purchases or leases real property.88194

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 88195
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 88196
direct the actions or policies of an organization.88197

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 88198
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 88199
all of the following conditions are met:88200

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.88201

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 88202
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 88203
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 88204
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.88205

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 88206
other ICFs/MR from outside organizations and are not a basic 88207
element of resident care ordinarily furnished directly to 88208
residents by the ICFs/MR.88209

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 88210
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 88211
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 88212
supplier.88213

       (TT) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 88214
to an owner of an ICF/MR by one of the following relationships:88215

       (1) Spouse;88216

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;88217

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;88218

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;88219

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 88220
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;88221

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;88222

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 88223
sister.88224

       (UU)(1) "Renovation" means the following:88225

       (a) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 88226
which both of the following apply:88227

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;88228

       (ii) It meets the definition of "renovation" established in 88229
rules that were adopted by the director of job and family services 88230
and in effect on December 22, 1992.88231

       (b) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 88232
which both of the following apply:88233

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;88234

       (ii) It betters, improves, or restores the ICF/MR beyond its 88235
current functional capacity through a structural change that costs 88236
at least five hundred dollars per bed.88237

       (2) A renovation started on or after July 1, 1993, may 88238
include both of the following:88239

       (a) A betterment, improvement, restoration, or replacement of 88240
assets that are affixed to a building and have a useful life of at 88241
least five years;88242

       (b) Costs that otherwise would be considered maintenance and 88243
repair expenses if they are an integral part of the structural 88244
change that makes up the renovation project.88245

       (3) "Renovation" does not mean construction of additional 88246
space for beds that will be added to an ICF/MR's licensed capacity 88247
or medicaid-certified capacity.88248

       (VV) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in 88249
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.88250

       (WW) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 88251
of an ICF/MR resident who has an interest or responsibility in the 88252
resident's welfare.88253

       (XX) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 88254
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq.88255

       (YY) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social Security 88256
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395, et seq.88257

       (ZZ) "Voluntary termination" means an operator's voluntary 88258
election to terminate the participation of an ICF/MR in the 88259
medicaid program but to continue to provide service of the type 88260
provided by a residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 88261
of the Revised Code.88262

       Sec. 5111.226.        Sec. 5124.02. Subject, if needed, to the approval 88263
of the United States secretary of health and human services, the88264
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall enter 88265
into a contract with the department of developmental disabilities 88266
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code that provides 88267
for the department of developmental disabilities to assume the 88268
powers and duties of the department of job and family services88269
medicaid with regard to the medicaid program's coverage of ICF/MR88270
services provided by intermediate care facilities for the 88271
mentally retarded. The contract shall include a schedule for the 88272
assumption of the powers and duties. Except as otherwise 88273
authorized by the United States secretary of health and human 88274
services, no provision of the contract may violate a federal law 88275
or regulation governing the medicaid program. Once the contract 88276
goes into effect, all references to the department of job and 88277
family services, and all references to the director of job and 88278
family services, with regard to intermediate care facilities for 88279
the mentally retarded that are in law enacted by the general 88280
assembly shall be deemed to be references to the department of 88281
developmental disabilities and director of developmental 88282
disabilities, respectively, to the extent necessary to implement 88283
the terms of the contract.88284

       Sec. 5124.03.  To the extent authorized by rules authorized 88285
by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 88286
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 88287
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 88288
chapter.88289

       Sec. 5124.05.  The medicaid program shall cover ICF/MR 88290
services when all of the following apply:88291

       (A) The ICF/MR services are provided to a medicaid recipient 88292
eligible for the services.88293

       (B) The ICF/MR services are provided by an ICF/MR for which 88294
the provider has a valid provider agreement.88295

       (C) Federal financial participation is available for the 88296
ICF/MR services.88297

       Sec. 5124.06.  (A) Subject to section 5124.072 of the Revised 88298
Code, an ICF/MR operator is eligible to enter into a provider 88299
agreement for an ICF/MR if all of the following apply:88300

       (1) The ICF/MR is certified by the director of health for 88301
participation in medicaid;88302

       (2) The ICF/MR is licensed by the director of developmental 88303
disabilities as a residential facility;88304

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, the operator and 88305
ICF/MR comply with all applicable state and federal statutes and 88306
rules.88307

       (B) A state rule that requires an ICF/MR operator to have 88308
received approval of a plan for the proposed ICF/MR pursuant to 88309
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 88310
operator being eligible to receive medicaid payments for ICF/MR 88311
services the ICF/MR provides does not apply if, under former 88312
section 5123.193 of the Revised Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 88313
of the 128th general assembly or section 5123.197 of the Revised 88314
Code, a residential facility license was obtained or modified for 88315
the ICF/MR without obtaining approval of such a plan.88316

       Sec. 5124.07.  (A) Except as provided in section 5124.072 of 88317
the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall enter into a 88318
provider agreement with an ICF/MR operator who applies, and is 88319
eligible, for the provider agreement.88320

       (B) A provider agreement shall require the department of 88321
developmental disabilities, pursuant to its agreement with the 88322
department of medicaid under section 5124.02 of the Revised Code, 88323
to make medicaid payments to the provider in accordance with this 88324
chapter for ICF/MR services the ICF/MR provides to its residents 88325
who are medicaid recipients eligible for ICF/MR services.88326

       (C) A provider agreement shall require the provider to do all 88327
of the following:88328

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 88329
provided in section 5124.06 of the Revised Code;88330

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 88331
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 88332
department of developmental disabilities issues an audit report in 88333
accordance with section 5124.109 of the Revised Code, six years 88334
after all appeal rights relating to the audit report are 88335
exhausted;88336

       (3) File reports as the department of developmental 88337
disabilities requires;88338

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of the ICF/MR's 88339
services for inspection and audit by the department of 88340
developmental disabilities;88341

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department of 88342
developmental disabilities, department of health, and any other 88343
state or local authority having authority to inspect;88344

       (6) Supply to the department of developmental disabilities 88345
such information as it requires concerning the ICF/MR's services 88346
to residents who are, or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;88347

       (7) Comply with section 5124.08 of the Revised Code.88348

       (D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions that 88349
are consistent with law and considered necessary by the department 88350
of medicaid or the department of developmental disabilities.88351

       Sec. 5124.071.  An ICF/MR operator may enter into provider 88352
agreements for more than one ICF/MR.88353

       Sec. 5124.072.  The department of medicaid, in accordance 88354
with rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, may 88355
elect not to enter into, not to revalidate, or to terminate an 88356
ICF/MR provider agreement when the department determines that such 88357
an agreement would not be in the best interests of medicaid 88358
recipients or the state. The department shall not revalidate an 88359
ICF/MR provider agreement if the provider fails to maintain 88360
eligibility for the provider agreement as provided in section 88361
5124.06 of the Revised Code.88362

       Sec. 5124.08.  (A) Every provider agreement with an ICF/MR 88363
provider shall do both of the following:88364

       (1) Except as provided by division (B) of this section, 88365
include any part of the ICF/MR that meets federal and state 88366
standards for medicaid certification;88367

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:88368

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 88369
color, sex, creed, or national origin;88370

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 88371
refusing to do either of the following:88372

       (i) Admit as a resident of the ICF/MR an individual because 88373
the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/MR) become, a 88374
medicaid recipient if less than eighty per cent of the ICF/MR's 88375
residents are medicaid recipients;88376

       (ii) Retain as a resident of the ICF/MR an individual because 88377
the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/MR) become, a 88378
medicaid recipient.88379

       (B) Unless otherwise required by federal law, an ICF/MR bed 88380
is not required to be included in a provider agreement if the bed 88381
is designated for respite care under a medicaid waiver component 88382
operated pursuant to a waiver sought under section 5166.20 of the 88383
Revised Code.88384

       (C) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this 88385
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of an ICF/MR shall 88386
be considered a resident of the ICF/MR during any hospital stays 88387
totaling less than twenty-five days during any twelve-month 88388
period. A medicaid recipient identified by the department of 88389
developmental disabilities or its designee as requiring the level 88390
of care of an ICF/MR shall not be subject to a maximum period of 88391
absences during which the recipient is considered to be an ICF/MR 88392
resident if prior authorization of the department for visits with 88393
relatives and friends and participation in therapeutic programs is 88394
obtained in accordance with rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 88395
the Revised Code.88396

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider from doing 88397
any of the following:88398

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 88399
religious or denominational ICF/MR, giving preference to persons 88400
of the same religion or denomination;88401

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 88402
contracted to provide continuing care;88403

       (3) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 88404
ICF/MR for not less than one year as private pay residents and who 88405
subsequently become medicaid recipients but refusing to admit as a 88406
resident an individual who is, or may (as a resident of the 88407
ICF/MR) become, a medicaid recipient, if all of the following 88408
apply:88409

       (a) The provider does not refuse to retain a resident who has 88410
resided in the provider's ICF/MR for not less than one year as a 88411
private pay resident because the resident becomes a medicaid 88412
recipient, except as necessary to comply with division (D)(3)(b) 88413
of this section.88414

       (b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under division 88415
(D)(3) of this section does not at any time exceed ten per cent of 88416
all the ICF/MR's residents.88417

       (c) On July 1, 1980, all the ICF/MR's residents were private 88418
pay residents.88419

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 88420
obligations imposed by this section.88421

       Sec. 5124.081.  An ICF/MR resident has a cause of action 88422
against the provider of the ICF/MR for breach of the provider 88423
agreement obligations or other duties imposed by section 5124.08 88424
of the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the resident, 88425
or on the resident's behalf by the resident's sponsor, by the 88426
filing of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the 88427
county in which the ICF/MR is located or in the court of common 88428
pleas of Franklin county.88429

       If a court of common pleas finds that a provider has breached 88430
a provider agreement obligation or other duty imposed by section 88431
5124.08 of the Revised Code, the court may do one or more of the 88432
following:88433

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice;88434

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary;88435

       (C) Award to a resident and a sponsor that brings the action 88436
on behalf of a resident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 88437
attorney's fees.88438

       Sec. 5124.10.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 88439
section and division (E)(2) of section 5124.101 of the Revised 88440
Code, each ICF/MR provider shall file with the department of 88441
developmental disabilities an annual cost report for each of the 88442
provider's ICFs/MR for which the provider has a valid provider 88443
agreement. The cost report for a year shall cover the calendar 88444
year or portion of the calendar year during which the ICF/MR 88445
participated in the medicaid program. Except as provided in 88446
division (E) of this section, the cost report is due not later 88447
than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or portion of 88448
the calendar year, that the cost report covers.88449

       (B)(1) If an ICF/MR undergoes a change of provider that the 88450
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 88451
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is not an arms length 88452
transaction, the new provider shall file the ICF/MR's cost report 88453
in accordance with division (A) of this section and the cost 88454
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 88455
the new provider operated the ICF/MR and the portion of the 88456
calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 88457
ICF/MR.88458

       (2) If an ICF/MR undergoes a change of provider that the 88459
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 88460
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is an arms length 88461
transaction, the new provider shall file with the department a 88462
cost report for the ICF/MR not later than, except as provided in 88463
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the 88464
ICF/MR's first three full calendar months of operation under the 88465
new provider. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 88466
with the ICF/MR's first day of operation under the new provider 88467
and ends on the first day of the month immediately following the 88468
first three full months of operation under the new provider.88469

       (C) If the medicaid payment rate for a new ICF/MR was most 88470
recently determined in accordance with section 5124.151 of the 88471
Revised Code, the provider shall file with the department a cost 88472
report for the new ICF/MR not later than, except as provided in 88473
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the new 88474
ICF/MR's first three full calendar months of operation. The cost 88475
report shall cover the period that begins with the ICF/MR's first 88476
day of operation and ends on the first day of the month 88477
immediately following the first three full months of operation.88478

       (D) An ICF/MR provider is not required to file a cost report 88479
for an ICF/MR for a calendar year in accordance with division (A) 88480
of this section if the provider files a cost report for the ICF/MR 88481
under division (B)(2) or (C) of this section and that cost report 88482
covers a period that begins after the first day of October of that 88483
calendar year. The provider shall file a cost report for the 88484
ICF/MR in accordance with division (A) of this section for the 88485
immediately following calendar year.88486

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 88487
extension to file a cost report under this section or section 88488
5124.101 of the Revised Code if the provider provides the 88489
department a written request for the extension and the department 88490
determines that there is good cause for the extension.88491

       Sec. 5124.101. (A) The provider of an ICF/MR that becomes a 88492
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR may file with the 88493
department of developmental disabilities a cost report covering 88494
the period specified in division (B) of this section if the ICF/MR 88495
has both of the following on the day it becomes a downsized ICF/MR 88496
or partially converted ICF/MR:88497

       (1) A medicaid-certified capacity that is at least ten per 88498
cent less than its medicaid-certified capacity on the day 88499
immediately preceding the day it becomes a downsized ICF/MR or 88500
partially converted ICF/MR;88501

       (2) At least five fewer beds certified as ICF/MR beds than it 88502
has on the day immediately preceding the day it becomes a 88503
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR.88504

       (B) A cost report filed under division (A) of this section 88505
shall cover the period that begins with the day that the ICF/MR 88506
becomes a downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR and ends 88507
on the first day of the month immediately following the first 88508
three full months of operation as a downsized ICF/MR or partially 88509
converted ICF/MR.88510

       (C) The department shall refuse to accept a cost report filed 88511
under division (A) of this section if either of the following 88512
apply:88513

       (1) Except as provided in division (E) of section 5124.10 of 88514
the Revised Code, the provider fails to file the cost report with 88515
the department not later than ninety days after the last day of 88516
the period the cost report covers;88517

       (2) The cost report is incomplete or inadequate.88518

       (D) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 88519
division (A) of this section, the department shall determine the 88520
ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate in accordance with this chapter 88521
using that cost report. The provider shall be paid that rate for 88522
ICF/MR services the ICF/MR provides during the period that begins 88523
and ends as follows:88524

       (1) The period begins on the following:88525

       (a) The day that the ICF/MR becomes a downsized ICF/MR or 88526
partially converted ICF/MR if that day is the first day of a 88527
month;88528

       (b) The first day of the month immediately following the 88529
month that the ICF/MR becomes a downsized ICF/MR or partially 88530
converted ICF/MR if division (D)(1)(a) of this section does not 88531
apply.88532

       (2) The period ends on the first day of the fiscal year for 88533
which the ICF/MR begins to be paid a rate determined using a cost 88534
report that division (E) of this section requires be filed in 88535
accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised 88536
Code.88537

       (E)(1) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 88538
division (A) of this section for an ICF/MR that becomes a 88539
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR on or before the 88540
first day of October of a calendar year, the provider also shall 88541
file a cost report for the ICF/MR in accordance with division (A) 88542
of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code for the portion of that 88543
calendar year that the ICF/MR operated as a downsized ICF/MR or 88544
partially converted ICF/MR.88545

       (2) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 88546
division (A) of this section for an ICF/MR that becomes a 88547
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR after the first day 88548
of October of a calendar year, the provider is not required to 88549
file a cost report for that calendar year in accordance with 88550
division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code. The provider 88551
shall file a cost report for the ICF/MR in accordance with 88552
division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code for the 88553
immediately following calendar year.88554

       Sec. 5124.102.  No ICF/MR provider shall report fines paid 88555
under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code in a cost report filed 88556
under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised Code.88557

       Sec. 5124.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 88558
form prescribed under section 5124.104 of the Revised Code and in 88559
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.88560

       Sec. 5124.104.  The department of developmental disabilities 88561
shall do all of the following:88562

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 88563
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 88564
reporting costs on the form;88565

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 88566
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 88567
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;88568

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.88569

       Sec. 5124.105.  The department of developmental disabilities 88570
shall develop an addendum to the cost report form that an ICF/MR 88571
provider may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 88572
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 88573
determining an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate. If the department 88574
does not consider such costs in determining an ICF/MR's medicaid 88575
payment rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of the 88576
determination in accordance with section 5124.38 of the Revised 88577
Code. If the department subsequently includes such costs in an 88578
ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate, the department shall pay the 88579
provider interest at a reasonable rate established in rules 88580
adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code for the period 88581
that the rate excluded the costs.88582

       Sec. 5124.106.  If an ICF/MR provider required by section 88583
5124.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the ICF/MR 88584
fails to file the cost report by the date it is due or the date, 88585
if any, to which the due date is extended pursuant to division (E) 88586
of that section, or files an incomplete or inadequate report for 88587
the ICF/MR under that section, the department of developmental 88588
disabilities shall provide immediate written notice to the 88589
provider that the provider agreement for the ICF/MR will be 88590
terminated in thirty days unless the provider submits a complete 88591
and adequate cost report for the ICF/MR within thirty days. During 88592
the thirty-day termination period or any additional time allowed 88593
for an appeal of the proposed termination of a provider agreement, 88594
the provider shall be paid the ICF/MR's then current per medicaid 88595
day payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which ICFs/MR's per 88596
medicaid day payment rates are reduced during fiscal year 2013 in 88597
accordance with division (A)(2) of section 5111.26 of the Revised 88598
Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the Revised Code by H.B. 59 88599
of the 130th general assembly) as that section existed on the day 88600
immediately preceding the effective date of this section. On the 88601
first day of each July, the department shall adjust the amount of 88602
the reduction in effect during the previous twelve months to 88603
reflect the rate of inflation during the preceding twelve months, 88604
as shown in the consumer price index for all items for all urban 88605
consumers for the north central region, published by the United 88606
States bureau of labor statistics.88607

       Sec. 5124.107.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 88608
this section and not later than three years after an ICF/MR 88609
provider files a cost report with the department of developmental 88610
disabilities under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the Revised 88611
Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the provider 88612
discovers a material error in the cost report or additional 88613
information to be included in the cost report. The department 88614
shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and notify the 88615
provider of its determination.88616

       (B) An ICF/MR provider may not amend a cost report if the 88617
department has notified the provider that an audit of the cost 88618
report or a cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost 88619
reporting period is to be conducted under section 5124.109 of the 88620
Revised Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 88621
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 88622
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 88623
final settlement of the cost report.88624

       Sec. 5124.108.  The department of developmental disabilities 88625
shall conduct a desk review of all cost reports it receives under 88626
sections 5124.10, 5124.101, and 5124.522 of the Revised Code. 88627
Based on the desk review, the department shall make a preliminary 88628
determination of whether the reported costs are allowable costs. 88629
The department shall notify each ICF/MR provider of whether any of 88630
the reported costs are preliminarily determined not to be 88631
allowable costs, the medicaid payment rate determined under this 88632
chapter as a result of the determination regarding allowable 88633
costs, and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. 88634
The department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation 88635
and submit additional information.88636

       Sec. 5124.109.  (A) The department of developmental 88637
disabilities may conduct an audit, as defined in rules adopted 88638
under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, of any cost report 88639
filed under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised 88640
Code. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 88641
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 88642
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 88643
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 88644
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 88645
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 88646
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors.88647

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 88648
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 88649
department, or auditors employed by the department.88650

        The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 88651
ICFs/MR by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 88652
shall be effective for one to two years.88653

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 88654
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The 88655
department shall issue the audit report not later than three years 88656
after the earlier of the following:88657

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;88658

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 88659
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.88660

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 88661
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 88662
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 88663
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 88664
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 88665
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 88666
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 88667
Revised Code.88668

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 88669
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 88670
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 88671
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 88672
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 88673
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 88674
The manual and program shall do both of the following:88675

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 88676
whom all of the following apply:88677

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 88678
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 88679
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 88680
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 88681
operation of ICFs/MR in this state.88682

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 88683
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.88684

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 88685
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 88686
standards produced by the United States government accountability 88687
office.88688

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 88689
of the following:88690

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 88691
XIX;88692

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 88693
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 88694
accountants;88695

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 88696
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 88697
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 88698
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 88699
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 88700
care;88701

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 88702
the department;88703

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 88704
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 88705
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 88706
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 88707
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 88708
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 88709
provider's ICF/MR is entitled.88710

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 88711
employment of a member of an auditor's family by an ICF/MR that 88712
the auditor does not audit does not constitute a direct or 88713
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 88714
operation of the ICF/MR.88715

       Sec. 5111.224.        Sec. 5124.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 88716
sections 5111.205124.151 to 5111.3315124.155 of the Revised Code 88717
and by division (B) of this section, the paymentstotal per 88718
medicaid day payment rate that the department of job and family 88719
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall agree to makepay to the88720
an ICF/MR provider of an intermediate care facility for the 88721
mentally retarded pursuant to a provider agreementfor ICF/MR 88722
services the provider's ICF/MR provides during a fiscal year shall 88723
equal the sum of all of the following:88724

       (1) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 88725
determined for the ICF/MR under section 5124.17 of the Revised 88726
Code;88727

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 88728
determined for the facilityICF/MR under section 5111.235124.1988729
of the Revised Code;88730

       (2)(3) The per medicaid day payment rate for indirect care 88731
costs determined for the ICF/MR under section 5124.21 of the 88732
Revised Code;88733

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for other protected 88734
costs determined for the facilityICF/MR under section 5111.23588735
5124.23 of the Revised Code;88736

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs determined for the 88737
facility under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code;88738

       (4) The rate for capital costs determined for the facility 88739
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code.88740

       (B) The department shall adjust the total rate otherwise 88741
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 88742
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 88743
payments to ICF/MR providers of intermediate care facilities for 88744
the mentally retarded.88745

       (C) In addition to paying an ICF/MR provider the total rate 88746
determined for the provider's ICF/MR under divisions (A) and (B) 88747
of this section for a fiscal year, the department, in accordance 88748
with section 5124.25 of the Revised Code, may pay the provider a 88749
rate add-on for pediatric ventilator-dependent outlier ICF/MR 88750
services if the rate add-on is to be paid under that section and 88751
the department approves the provider's application for the rate 88752
add-on. The rate add-on is not to be part of the ICF/MR's total 88753
rate.88754

       Sec. 5111.255.        Sec. 5124.151.  (A) The department of job and family 88755
services shall establish initial rates for an intermediate care 88756
facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of licensure 88757
that is on or after January 1, 1993, including a facility that 88758
replaces one or more existing facilities, or for an intermediate 88759
care facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of 88760
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 88761
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 88762
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 88763
shall not be the initial rate for ICF/MR services provided by a 88764
new ICF/MR. Instead, the initial total per medicaid day payment 88765
rate for ICF/MR services provided by a new ICF/MR shall be 88766
determined in the following manner:88767

       (1) The initial rate for capital costs shall be determined 88768
under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code using the greater of the 88769
new ICF/MR's actual inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate of 88770
eighty per cent. 88771

       (2) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be 88772
determined as follows:88773

       (a) If there are no cost or resident assessment data for the 88774
new ICF/MR as necessary to calculatedetermine a rate under 88775
section 5111.235124.19 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be 88776
determined as follows:88777

       (i) Determine the median cost per case-mix unit calculated88778
determined under division (B)(1) of that section 5124.19 of the 88779
Revised Code for the relevantnew ICF/MR's peer group for the 88780
calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 88781
paid, multiplied;88782

       (ii) Multiply the amount determined under division 88783
(A)(2)(a)(i) of this section by the median annual average case-mix 88784
score for the new ICF/MR's peer group for that period and;88785

       (iii) Adjust the product determined under division 88786
(A)(2)(a)(ii) of this section by the rate of inflation estimated 88787
under division (B)(3)(D) of that section 5124.19 of the Revised 88788
Code. This rate shall be recalculated to reflect the facility's 88789
actual quarterly average case-mix score, in accordance with that 88790
section, after it submits its first quarterly assessment data that 88791
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance 88792
with rules authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the 88793
Revised Code. If the facility's first two quarterly submissions do 88794
not contain assessment data that qualifies for use in calculating 88795
a case-mix score, the department shall continue to calculate the 88796
rate using the median annual case-mix score for the peer group in 88797
lieu of an assigned quarterly case-mix score. The department shall 88798
assign a case-mix score or, if necessary, a cost per case-mix unit 88799
under division (D) of section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for any 88800
subsequent submissions that do not contain assessment data that 88801
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score.88802

       (b) If the facilitynew ICF/MR is a replacement facility88803
ICF/MR and the facilityICF/MR or facilitiesICFs/MR that are 88804
being replaced are in operation immediately before the replacement 88805
facilitynew ICF/MR opens, the rate shall be the same as the rate 88806
for the replaced facilityICF/MR or facilitiesICFs/MR, 88807
proportionate to the number of ICF/MR beds in each replaced 88808
facilityICF/MR. If one or more of the replaced facilities is88809

       (c) If the new ICF/MR is a replacement ICF/MR and the ICF/MR 88810
or ICFs/MR that are being replaced are not in operation 88811
immediately before the replacement facilitynew ICF/MR opens, its 88812
proportionthe rate shall be determined under division 88813
(A)(1)(2)(a) of this section.88814

       (2)(3) The initial rate for indirect care costs shall be the 88815
maximum rate for the new ICF/MR's peer group as determined for the 88816
fiscal year in accordance with division (C) of section 5124.21 of 88817
the Revised Code.88818

       (4) The initial rate for other protected costs shall be one 88819
hundred fifteen per cent of the median rate for intermediate care 88820
facilities for the mentally retarded calculatedICFs/MR determined88821
for the fiscal year under section 5111.2355124.23 of the Revised 88822
Code.88823

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs shall be the applicable 88824
maximum rate for the facility's peer group as specified in 88825
division (B) of section 5111.241 of the Revised Code.88826

       (4) The rate for capital costs shall be determined under 88827
section 5111.251 of the Revised Code using the greater of actual 88828
inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate of eighty per cent. 88829

       (B) If a new ICF/MR's initial rate for direct care costs is 88830
determined under division (A)(2)(a) of this section, the 88831
department shall redetermine the rate in accordance with section 88832
5124.19 of the Revised Code to reflect the new ICF/MR's actual 88833
quarterly case-mix score, after the provider, in accordance with 88834
section 5124.191 of the Revised Code, submits the first quarterly 88835
resident assessment data for the ICF/MR that qualifies for use in 88836
determining a case-mix score. If the first two quarterly 88837
submissions for the ICF/MR do not contain resident assessment data 88838
that qualifies for use in determining a case-mix score, the 88839
department shall continue to determine the ICF/MR's rate using the 88840
median annual case-mix score for the peer group in lieu of an 88841
assigned quarterly case-mix score. The department shall assign a 88842
case-mix score or, if necessary, a cost per case-mix unit under 88843
division (B) of section 5124.192 of the Revised Code for any 88844
subsequent submissions that do not contain resident assessment 88845
data that qualifies for use in determining a case-mix score.88846

       (C) The department shall adjust the rates establisheda new 88847
ICF/MR's initial total per medicaid day payment rate determined88848
under division (A) of this section at both of the following 88849
times:88850

       (1) Effective the first day of July, to reflect new rate 88851
calculationsdeterminations for all facilitiesICFs/MR under 88852
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter;88853

       (2) Following the provider's submission of the facility's88854
ICF/MR's cost report under division (A)(1)(b)(C) of section 88855
5111.265124.10 of the Revised Code.88856

       The department shall pay the rate adjusted based on the cost 88857
report beginning the first day of the calendar quarter that begins 88858
more than ninety days after the department receives the cost 88859
report.88860

       Sec. 5124.152.  The total per medicaid day payment rate 88861
determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 88862
paid for ICF/MR services provided on or after July 1, 2014, to low 88863
resource utilization residents. Instead, the total per medicaid 88864
day payment rate for such ICF/MR services shall be a flat rate set 88865
in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.88866

       Sec. 5124.153.  (A) The total per medicaid day payment rate 88867
determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 88868
paid for ICF/MR services provided by an ICF/MR, or discrete unit 88869
of an ICF/MR, designated by the department of developmental 88870
disabilities as an outlier ICF/MR or unit. Instead, the provider 88871
of a designated outlier ICF/MR or unit shall be paid each fiscal 88872
year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the department 88873
shall prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 88874
established in rules authorized by this section.88875

       (B) The department may designate an ICF/MR, or discrete unit 88876
of an ICF/MR, as an outlier ICF/MR or unit if the ICF/MR or unit 88877
serves residents who have either of the following:88878

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 88879
resources that are not measured adequately by the resident 88880
assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by section 88881
5124.191 of the Revised Code;88882

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs that are specified in 88883
rules authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 88884
consideration under this section.88885

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 88886
costs incurred by a designated outlier ICF/MR or unit shall not be 88887
considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 88888
ICFs/MR or units.88889

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 88890
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 88891
implement this section.88892

       (1)(a) The rules shall do both of the following:88893

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 88894
apply when designating an ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, 88895
as an outlier ICF/MR or unit;88896

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 88897
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 88898
fiscal year for ICF/MR services provided by a designated outlier 88899
ICF/MR or unit.88900

       (b) The rules adopted under division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 88901
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/MR and 88902
units shall do both of the following:88903

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 88904
costs of an ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, would be paid 88905
by the rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code;88906

       (ii) Specify the minimum number of ICF/MR beds that an 88907
ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, must have to be designated 88908
an outlier ICF/MR or unit.88909

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 88910
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/MR and 88911
units shall not limit the designation to ICFs/MR, or discrete 88912
units of ICFs/MR, located in large cities.88913

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 88914
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 88915
the rates of designated outlier ICFs/MR and units shall provide 88916
for the methodology to consider the historical costs of providing 88917
ICF/MR services to the residents of designated outlier ICFs/MR and 88918
units.88919

       (2)(a) The rules may do both of the following:88920

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier ICF/MR or unit, an 88921
ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, that serves residents who 88922
have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral problems;88923

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier ICF/MR or unit receive 88924
authorization from the department before admitting or retaining a 88925
resident.88926

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 88927
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 88928
designated outlier ICF/MR or unit to admit or retain a resident, 88929
the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 88930
will apply when granting the authorization.88931

       Sec. 5124.154.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 88932
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 88933
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 88934
shall not be paid for ICF/MR services that an ICF/MR not 88935
designated as an outlier ICF/MR or unit provides to a resident who 88936
meets the criteria for admission to a designated outlier ICF/MR or 88937
unit, as specified in rules authorized by section 5124.153 of the 88938
Revised Code. Instead, the provider of an ICF/MR providing ICF/MR 88939
services to such a resident shall be paid each fiscal year a total 88940
per medicaid day payment rate that the department shall 88941
prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 88942
established in rules authorized by this section.88943

       (B) The director of developmental disabilities may adopt 88944
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to implement this 88945
section. The rules may require that an ICF/MR receive 88946
authorization from the department before admitting or retaining a 88947
resident who meets the criteria for admission to a designated 88948
outlier ICF/MR or unit. If the director adopts such rules, the 88949
rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 88950
will apply when granting the authorization.88951

       Sec. 5111.291.        Sec. 5124.155. Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 to 88952
5111.331 of the Revised CodeThe department of developmental 88953
disabilities is not required to pay the total per medicaid day 88954
payment rates determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 88955
for ICF/MR services provided by developmental centers. Instead, 88956
the department of job and family services may computedetermine88957
the ratemedicaid payment rates for intermediate care facilities 88958
for the mentally retarded operated by the department of88959
developmental disabilities or the department of mental health88960
centers according to the reasonable cost principles of Title 88961
XVIII.88962

       Sec. 5111.251.        Sec. 5124.17.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the88963
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities88964
shall pay a provider forprospectively determine each of the 88965
provider's eligible intermediate care facilities for the mentally 88966
retarded for its reasonable capital costs, aICF/MR's per 88967
resident permedicaid day payment rate established prospectively 88968
each fiscal year for each intermediate care facility for the 88969
mentally retardedfor reasonable capital costs. Except as 88970
otherwise provided in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 88971
Codethis chapter, thean ICF/MR's rate shall be based on the 88972
facility'sICF/MR's capital costs for the calendar year preceding 88973
the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. TheSubject to 88974
section 5124.28, an ICF/MR's rate shall equal the sum of the 88975
following:88976

       (1) The facility'sICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 88977
per diem costcosts of ownership for the immediately preceding 88978
cost reporting period, limited as provided in divisions (B) and88979
(C) and (F) of this section;88980

       (2) Any efficiency incentive determined under division (B) of 88981
this section;88982

       (3) Any amounts forThe ICF/MR's per medicaid day payment for 88983
the ICF/MR's per diem capitalized costs of nonextensive88984
renovations determined under division (D)(1) of this section if 88985
the ICF/MR qualifies for a payment for such costs as specified in 88986
division (D)(2) of this section;88987

       (4) Any amounts for return on equity determined under 88988
division (H) of this section(3) The ICF/MR's per medicaid day 88989
efficiency incentive payment determined under division (E) of this 88990
section.88991

       Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line method 88992
over forty years or over a different period approved by the 88993
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 88994
the straight line method over a period designated by the director 88995
of job and family services in rules adopted under section 5111.02 88996
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 88997
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 88998
by the department of job and family services. Any rules authorized 88999
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 89000
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 89001
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 89002
government agency shall not be included in costs of ownership or 89003
renovation unless that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 89004
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code is used to reimburse the 89005
government agency. 89006

       (B) The department of job and family services shall pay to a 89007
provider for each of the provider's eligible intermediate care 89008
facilities for the mentally retarded an efficiency incentive equal 89009
to fifty per cent of the difference between any desk-reviewed, 89010
actual, allowable cost of ownership and the applicable limit on 89011
cost of ownership payments under division (C) of this section. For 89012
purposes of computing the efficiency incentive, depreciation for 89013
costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency shall be 89014
considered as a cost of ownership, and the applicable limit under 89015
division (C) of this section shall apply both to facilities with 89016
more than eight beds and facilities with eight or fewer beds. The 89017
efficiency incentive paid to a provider for a facility with eight 89018
or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per patient day, 89019
adjusted annually for the inflation rate for the twelve-month 89020
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 89021
preceding the calendar year that precedes the fiscal year for 89022
which the efficiency incentive is determined and ending on the 89023
thirtieth day of the following June, using the consumer price 89024
index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north 89025
central region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 89026
statistics.89027

       (C) CostThe costs of ownership paymentsper diem payment 89028
rates for intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded89029
ICFs/MR with more than eight beds shall not exceed the following 89030
limits:89031

       (1) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure prior to 89032
January 1, l958, not exceeding two dollars and fifty cents per 89033
patient day;89034

       (2) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89035
December 31, l957, but prior to January 1, l968, not exceeding:89036

       (a) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89037
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or more 89038
per bed;89039

       (b) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89040
of construction was less than three thousand five hundred dollars 89041
per bed.89042

       (3) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89043
December 31, l967, but prior to January 1, l976, not exceeding:89044

       (a) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89045
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 89046
more per bed;89047

       (b) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89048
of construction was less than five thousand one hundred fifty 89049
dollars per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars 89050
per bed;89051

       (c) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89052
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 89053
per bed.89054

       (4) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89055
December 31, l975, but prior to January 1, l979, not exceeding:89056

       (a) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89057
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or more per 89058
bed;89059

       (b) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89060
of construction was less than six thousand eight hundred dollars 89061
per bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per 89062
bed;89063

       (c) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89064
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 89065
less per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per 89066
bed;89067

       (d) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89068
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 89069
per bed.89070

       (5) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89071
December 31, l978, but prior to January 1, l980, not exceeding:89072

       (a) Six dollars per patient day if the cost of construction 89073
was seven thousand six hundred twenty-five dollars or more per 89074
bed;89075

       (b) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89076
of construction was less than seven thousand six hundred 89077
twenty-five dollars per bed but exceeds six thousand eight hundred 89078
dollars per bed;89079

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89080
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or less per 89081
bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per bed;89082

       (d) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89083
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 89084
less but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per bed;89085

       (e) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 89086
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 89087
per bed.89088

       (6) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89089
December 31, 1979, but prior to January 1, 1981, not exceeding:89090

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 89091
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 89092
of developmental disabilities;89093

       (b) Six dollars per patient day if the beds were originally 89094
licensed as nursing home beds by the department of health.89095

       (7) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89096
December 31, 1980, but prior to January 1, 1982, not exceeding:89097

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 89098
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 89099
of developmental disabilities;89100

       (b) Six dollars and forty-five cents per patient day if the 89101
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 89102
department of health.89103

       (8) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89104
December 31, 1981, but prior to January 1, 1983, not exceeding:89105

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 89106
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 89107
of developmental disabilities;89108

       (b) Six dollars and seventy-nine cents per patient day if the 89109
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 89110
department of health.89111

       (9) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89112
December 31, 1982, but prior to January 1, 1984, not exceeding:89113

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 89114
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 89115
of developmental disabilities;89116

       (b) Seven dollars and nine cents per patient day if the beds 89117
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 89118
health.89119

       (10) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89120
December 31, 1983, but prior to January 1, 1985, not exceeding:89121

       (a) Twelve dollars and twenty-four cents per patient day if 89122
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 89123
the department of developmental disabilities;89124

       (b) Seven dollars and twenty-three cents per patient day if 89125
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 89126
department of health.89127

       (11) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89128
December 31, 1984, but prior to January 1, 1986, not exceeding:89129

       (a) Twelve dollars and fifty-three cents per patient day if 89130
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 89131
the department of developmental disabilities;89132

       (b) Seven dollars and forty cents per patient day if the beds 89133
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 89134
health.89135

       (12) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89136
December 31, 1985, but prior to January 1, 1987, not exceeding:89137

       (a) Twelve dollars and seventy cents per patient day if the 89138
beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by the 89139
department of developmental disabilities;89140

       (b) Seven dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the beds 89141
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 89142
health.89143

       (13) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89144
December 31, 1986, but prior to January 1, 1988, not exceeding:89145

       (a) Twelve dollars and ninety-nine cents per patient day if 89146
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 89147
the department of developmental disabilities;89148

       (b) Seven dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day if 89149
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 89150
department of health.89151

       (14) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89152
December 31, 1987, but prior to January 1, 1989, not exceeding 89153
thirteen dollars and twenty-six cents per patient day;89154

       (15) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89155
December 31, 1988, but prior to January 1, 1990, not exceeding 89156
thirteen dollars and forty-six cents per patient day;89157

       (16) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89158
December 31, 1989, but prior to January 1, 1991, not exceeding 89159
thirteen dollars and sixty cents per patient day;89160

       (17) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89161
December 31, 1990, but prior to January 1, 1992, not exceeding 89162
thirteen dollars and forty-nine cents per patient day;89163

       (18) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89164
December 31, 1991, but prior to January 1, 1993, not exceeding 89165
thirteen dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day;89166

       (19) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 89167
December 31, 1992, not exceeding fourteen dollars and twenty-eight 89168
cents per patient day.89169

       (C)(1) The costs of ownership per diem payment rate for an 89170
ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the following 89171
limits:89172

       (a) Eighteen dollars and thirty cents as adjusted for 89173
inflation pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section if any of 89174
the following apply to the ICF/MR:89175

       (i) The ICF/MR has a date of licensure, or was granted 89176
project authorization by the department of developmental 89177
disabilities, before July 1, 1993.89178

       (ii) The ICF/MR has a date of licensure, or was granted 89179
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 89180
and the provider demonstrates that the provider made substantial 89181
commitments of funds for the ICF/MR before that date.89182

       (iii) The ICF/MR has a date of licensure, or was granted 89183
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 89184
the provider made no substantial commitment of funds for the 89185
ICF/MR before that date, and the department of job and family 89186
services or department of developmental disabilities gave prior 89187
approval for the ICF/MR's construction.89188

       (b) If division (C)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to 89189
the ICF/MR, the amount that would apply to the ICF/MR under 89190
division (B) of this section if it had more than eight beds.89191

       (2) The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent payment rate 89192
specified in division (C)(1)(a) of this section shall be increased 89193
as follows:89194

       (a) For the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 89195
1, 1993, by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 89196
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 89197
Swift;89198

       (b) For each fiscal year thereafter, in accordance with 89199
division (F) of this section.89200

       (D)(1) Beginning January 1, 1981, regardless of the original 89201
date of licensure, the department of job and family services shall 89202
pay apayment rate for the per diem capitalized costs of 89203
nonextensive renovations to intermediate care facilities for the 89204
mentally retarded made after January 1, l981, to a qualifying 89205
ICF/MR, shall not exceedingexceed six dollars per patient89206
medicaid day using 1980 as the base year and adjusting the amount 89207
annually until June 30, 1993, for fluctuations in construction 89208
costs calculated by the department using the "Dodge building cost 89209
indexes, northeastern and north central states," published by 89210
Marshall and Swift. The payment rate shall be further adjusted in 89211
accordance with division (F) of this section. The payment provided 89212
for in this division is the only payment that shall be made for 89213
thean ICF/MR's capitalized costs of a nonextensive renovation of 89214
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded89215
renovations. Nonextensive renovation costsCosts of nonextensive 89216
renovations shall not be included in costcosts of ownership, and 89217
a nonextensive renovation shall not affect the date of licensure 89218
for purposes of division (B) or (C) of this section. This division 89219
applies to nonextensive renovations regardless of whether they are 89220
made by an owner or a lessee. If the tenancy of a lessee that has 89221
made nonextensive renovations ends before the depreciation expense 89222
for the renovation costs of nonextensive renovations has been 89223
fully reported, the former lessee shall not report the 89224
undepreciated balance as an expense.89225

       For a nonextensive renovation to qualify(2) An ICF/MR 89226
qualifies for a payment under this division, bothfor costs of 89227
nonextensive renovations if all of the following conditions must 89228
be metapply:89229

       (1)(a) The ICF/MR has eight or fewer beds.89230

       (b) At least five years have elapsed since the ICF/MR's date 89231
of licensure or date of an extensive renovation of the portion of 89232
the facilityICF/MR that is proposed to be nonextensively89233
renovated, except that this condition does not apply ifunless the 89234
nonextensive renovation is necessary to meet the requirements of 89235
federal, state, or local statutes, ordinances, rules, or policies.89236

       (2)(c) The provider has obtained prior approval from the 89237
department of job and family services. The provider shall submit89238
of the ICF/MR does both of the following:89239

       (i) Submits to the department a plan that describes in detail 89240
the changes in capital assets to be accomplished by means of the 89241
nonextensive renovation and the timetable for completing the 89242
project. The time for completion of the project, which shall be no89243
not more than eighteen months after the nonextensive renovation 89244
begins;89245

       (ii) Obtains prior approval from the department for the 89246
nonextensive renovation. The89247

       (3) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 89248
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 89249
the Revised Code that specify criteria and procedures for prior 89250
approval of nonextensive renovation projects. No provider shall 89251
separate a project with the intent to evade the characterization 89252
of the project as a renovation or as an extensive renovation. No 89253
provider shall increase the scope of a project after it is 89254
approved by the department of job and family services unless the 89255
increase in scope is approved by the department.89256

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(2) of this section, an 89257
ICF/MR's per medicaid day efficiency incentive payment rate shall 89258
equal the following percentage of the difference between the 89259
ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable per diem costs of 89260
ownership and the applicable limit on costs of ownership payment 89261
rates established by division (B) of this section:89262

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 89263
twenty-five per cent;89264

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, fifty 89265
per cent.89266

       (2) The efficiency incentive payment rate for an ICF/MR with 89267
eight or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per medicaid 89268
day, adjusted annually in accordance with division (F) of this 89269
section. For the purpose of determining an ICF/MR's efficiency 89270
incentive payment rate, both of the following apply:89271

       (a) Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 89272
government agency shall be considered as a cost of ownership;89273

       (b) The applicable limit under division (B) of this section 89274
shall apply both to ICFs/MR with more than eight beds and ICFs/MR 89275
with eight or fewer beds.89276

       (F) The amounts specified in divisions (B), (C) and, (D), and 89277
(E) of this section shall be adjusted beginning July 1, 1993, for 89278
the estimated inflation rate for the twelve-month period beginning 89279
on the first day of July of the calendar year immediately89280
preceding the calendar year that immediately precedes the fiscal 89281
year for which rate will be paid and ending on the thirtieth day 89282
of the following June, using the consumer price index for shelter 89283
costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as 89284
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics.89285

       (F)(1) For facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates 89286
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 89287
department of developmental disabilities before July 1, 1993, and 89288
for facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates of licensure 89289
or have been granted project authorization after that date if the 89290
providers of the facilities demonstrate that they made substantial 89291
commitments of funds on or before that date, cost of ownership 89292
shall not exceed eighteen dollars and thirty cents per resident 89293
per day. The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent amount shall be 89294
increased by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 89295
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 89296
Swift, during the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 89297
1, 1993, and by the change in the consumer price index for shelter 89298
costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as 89299
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 89300
annually thereafter.89301

       (2) For facilities with eight or fewer beds that have dates 89302
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 89303
department of developmental disabilities on or after July 1, 1993, 89304
for which substantial commitments of funds were not made before 89305
that date, cost of ownership payments shall not exceed the 89306
applicable amount calculated under division (F)(1) of this 89307
section, if the department of job and family services gives prior 89308
approval for construction of the facility. If the department does 89309
not give prior approval, cost of ownership payments shall not 89310
exceed the amount specified in division (C) of this section.89311

       (3)(G) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) and (F)(1) and 89312
(2) of this section, the total payment rate for costcosts of 89313
ownership, cost of ownership efficiency incentive, and capitalized 89314
costs of nonextensive renovations, and the efficiency incentive89315
for an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded89316
ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the sum of the 89317
limitations specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section.89318

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 89319
5111.241 of the Revised Code, the director of job and family 89320
services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code 89321
that provide for a calculation of a combined maximum payment limit 89322
for indirect care costs and cost of ownership for intermediate 89323
care facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer 89324
beds.89325

       (H) The department of job and family services shall pay a 89326
provider for each of the provider's eligible proprietary 89327
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a return on 89328
the facility's net equity computed at the rate of one and one-half 89329
times the average of interest rates on special issues of public 89330
debt obligations issued to the federal hospital insurance trust 89331
fund for the cost reporting period. No facility's return on net 89332
equity paid under this division shall exceed one dollar per 89333
patient day. 89334

       In calculating the rate for return on net equity, the 89335
department shall use the greater of the facility's inpatient days 89336
during the applicable cost reporting period or the number of 89337
inpatient days the facility would have had during that period if 89338
its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.(1) For the 89339
purpose of determining ICFs/MR's medicaid payment rates for 89340
capital costs:89341

       (a) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 89342
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 89343
department.89344

       (b) Components and equipment shall be depreciated using the 89345
straight line method over a period designated by the director of 89346
developmental disabilities in rules adopted under section 5124.03 89347
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 89348
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 89349
by the department.89350

       (2) Any rules authorized by division (H)(1) of this section 89351
that specify useful lives of buildings, components, or equipment 89352
apply only to assets acquired on or after July 1, 1993. 89353
Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency 89354
shall not be included in costs of ownership or costs of 89355
nonextensive renovations unless that part of the payment under 89356
this chapter is used to reimburse the government agency.89357

       (I)(1) Except as provided in division (I)(2) of this section, 89358
if a provider leases or transfers an interest in a facilityan 89359
ICF/MR to another provider who is a related party, the related 89360
party's allowable costcosts of ownership shall include the lesser 89361
of the following:89362

       (a) The annual lease expense or actual cost of ownership, 89363
whichever is applicable;89364

       (b) The reasonable cost to the lessor or provider making the 89365
transfer.89366

       (2) If a provider leases or transfers an interest in a 89367
facilityan ICF/MR to another provider who is a related party, 89368
regardless of the date of the lease or transfer, the related 89369
party's allowable cost of ownership shall include the annual lease 89370
expense or actual cost of ownership, whichever is applicable, 89371
subject to the limitations specified in divisions (B) to (H) of 89372
this section, if all of the following conditions are met:89373

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;89374

       (b) In the case of a lease, if the lessor retains any 89375
ownership interest, it is, except as provided in division 89376
(I)(2)(d)(ii) of this section, in only the real property and any 89377
improvements on the real property;89378

       (c) In the case of a transfer, the provider making the 89379
transfer retains, except as provided in division (I)(2)(d)(iv) of 89380
this section, no ownership interest in the facilityICF/MR;89381

       (d) The department of job and family services determines that 89382
the lease or transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to 89383
rules adopted under section 5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code. 89384
The rules shall provide that a lease or transfer is an arm's 89385
length transaction if all of the following, as applicable, apply:89386

       (i) In the case of a lease, once the lease goes into effect, 89387
the lessor has no direct or indirect interest in the lessee or, 89388
except as provided in division (I)(2)(b) of this section, the 89389
facilityICF/MR itself, including interest as an owner, officer, 89390
director, employee, independent contractor, or consultant, but 89391
excluding interest as a lessor.89392

       (ii) In the case of a lease, the lessor does not reacquire an 89393
interest in the facilityICF/MR except through the exercise of a 89394
lessor's rights in the event of a default. If the lessor 89395
reacquires an interest in the facilityICF/MR in this manner, the 89396
department shall treat the facilityICF/MR as if the lease never 89397
occurred when the department calculatesdetermines its 89398
reimbursement ratespayment rate for capital costs.89399

       (iii) In the case of a transfer, once the transfer goes into 89400
effect, the provider that made the transfer has no direct or 89401
indirect interest in the provider that acquires the facility89402
ICF/MR or the facilityICF/MR itself, including interest as an 89403
owner, officer, director, employee, independent contractor, or 89404
consultant, but excluding interest as a creditor.89405

       (iv) In the case of a transfer, the provider that made the 89406
transfer does not reacquire an interest in the facilityICF/MR89407
except through the exercise of a creditor's rights in the event of 89408
a default. If the provider reacquires an interest in the facility89409
ICF/MR in this manner, the department shall treat the facility89410
ICF/MR as if the transfer never occurred when the department 89411
calculatesdetermines its reimbursement ratespayment rate for 89412
capital costs.89413

       (v) The lease or transfer satisfies any other criteria 89414
specified in the rules.89415

       (e) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 89416
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 89417
or provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years 89418
of age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the 89419
same facilityICF/MR, allowable cost of ownership was determined 89420
most recently under this division.89421

       Sec. 5111.23.        Sec. 5124.19.  (A)(1) The department of job and 89422
family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall pay a provider 89423
forprospectively determine each of the provider's eligible 89424
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/MR's89425
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 89426
established prospectively for each facility. The department shall 89427
establish each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterlyas 89428
follows:89429

       (a) Multiply the lesser of the following by the ICF/MR's 89430
case-mix score determined or assigned under section 5124.192 of 89431
the Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 89432
immediately preceding calendar quarter:89433

       (i) The ICF/MR's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar year 89434
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89435
paid, as determined under division (B) of this section;89436

       (ii) The maximum cost per case-mix unit for the ICF/MR's peer 89437
group for the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as set 89438
under division (C) of this section;89439

       (b) Adjust the product determined under division (A)(1)(a) of 89440
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) 89441
of this section and modified under division (D)(2) of this 89442
section.89443

       (2) Except as otherwise directed by law enacted by the 89444
general assembly, the department shall prospectively determine 89445
each ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs for each quarter of every 89446
fiscal year.89447

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 89448
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 89449
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 89450
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 89451
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 89452
all of the following:89453

       (1) Determine each facility'san ICF/MR's cost per case-mix 89454
unit for the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year 89455
in which the rate will be paid by dividing, the facility's89456
department shall divide the ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, 89457
allowable, per diem direct care costs for that calendar year by 89458
its annual average case-mix score determined under section 89459
5111.2325124.192 of the Revised Code for the same calendar year.89460

       (2)(a) Set(C)(1) For each fiscal year for which a rate will 89461
be paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix 89462
unit for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 89463
mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight beds specified in 89464
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 89465
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 89466
of this section for the facilityICF/MR in the peer group that has 89467
the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 89468
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 89469
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 89470
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 89471
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this sectionabove 89472
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 89473
section for the ICF/MR that has the median number of medicaid days 89474
for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/MR with more than eight beds 89475
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 89476
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 89477
the medicaid days for such ICFs/MR for calendar year 1992.89478

       (b) Set(2) For each fiscal year for which a rate will be 89479
paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix unit 89480
for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 89481
mentally retardedICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds specified in 89482
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 89483
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 89484
of this section for the facilityICF/MR in the peer group that has 89485
the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 89486
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 89487
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 89488
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 89489
percentage calculated under division (E)(3) of this sectionabove 89490
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 89491
section for the ICF/MR that has the median number of medicaid days 89492
for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds 89493
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 89494
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 89495
the medicaid days for such ICFs/MR for calendar year 1992.89496

       (c)(3) In calculatingdetermining the maximum cost per 89497
case-mix unit under divisions (B)(2)(a)(C)(1) and (b)(2) of this 89498
section for each peer group, the department shall exclude from its 89499
calculationsdeterminations the cost per case-mix unit of any 89500
facilityICF/MR in the peer group that participated in the 89501
medicaid program under the same operatorprovider for less than 89502
twelve months during the calendar year immediately preceding the 89503
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid.89504

       (3) Estimate(4) The department shall not reset a peer 89505
group's maximum cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year under 89506
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section based on additional 89507
information that it receives after it sets the maximum for that 89508
fiscal year. The department shall reset a peer group's maximum 89509
cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year only if it made an error 89510
in setting the maximum for that fiscal year based on information 89511
available to the department at the time it originally sets the 89512
maximum for that fiscal year.89513

       (D)(1) The department shall estimate the rate of inflation 89514
for the eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July 89515
of the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which thea rate 89516
will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the 89517
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, using the index 89518
specified in division (C) of this section. If the estimated 89519
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period is different from the 89520
actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using the same 89521
index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the 89522
inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) of this section for 89523
the following fiscal year.89524

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 89525
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 89526
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 89527
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 89528
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 89529
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 89530
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 89531
percentage based on information available at the time of the 89532
original calculation.89533

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 89534
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:89535

       (1) The(a) Subject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, 89536
the employment cost index for total compensation, health services 89537
component, published by the United States bureau of labor 89538
statistics;89539

       (2)(b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 89540
to publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 89541
section, the index that is subsequently published by the bureau 89542
and covers nursing facilities'the staff costs of ICFs/MR.89543

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 89544
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 89545
year:89546

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 89547
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 89548
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 89549
immediately preceding calendar quarter: 89550

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 89551
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 89552
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;89553

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 89554
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 89555
group under division (B)(2) of this section; 89556

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 89557
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 89558
of this section.89559

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 89560
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 89561
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day 89562
for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for 89563
the mentally retarded with more than eight beds that would result 89564
in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care 89565
costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for 89566
such facilities for calendar year 1992.89567

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 89568
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 89569
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day for 89570
calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for the 89571
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that would result in 89572
payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care costs 89573
for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for such 89574
facilities for calendar year 1992.89575

       (F)(2) If the estimated inflation rate for the eighteen-month 89576
period specified in division (D)(1) of this section is different 89577
from the actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using 89578
the same index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted 89579
from the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) of this 89580
section for the following fiscal year.89581

       (E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 89582
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 89583
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 89584
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight 89585
beds and intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded89586
peer groups of ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds, based on findings 89587
of significant per diem direct care cost differences due to 89588
geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify peer 89589
groups based on findings of significant per diem direct care cost 89590
differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.89591

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 89592
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 89593
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 89594
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 89595
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 89596
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 89597
section.89598

       Sec. 5124.191.  Each calendar quarter, each ICF/MR provider 89599
shall compile complete assessment data for each resident of each 89600
of the provider's ICFs/MR, regardless of payment source, who is in 89601
the ICF/MR, or on hospital or therapeutic leave from the ICF/MR, 89602
on the last day of the quarter. A resident assessment instrument 89603
specified in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised 89604
Code shall be used to compile the resident assessment data. Each 89605
provider shall submit the resident assessment data to the 89606
department of developmental disabilities not later than fifteen 89607
days after the end of the calendar quarter for which the data is 89608
compiled. The resident assessment data shall be submitted to the 89609
department through the medium or media specified in rules adopted 89610
under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.89611

       Sec. 5124.192.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 89612
this section, the department of developmental disabilities shall 89613
do both of the following:89614

       (1) For each calendar quarter, determine a case-mix score for 89615
each ICF/MR using the resident assessment data submitted to the 89616
department under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code and the 89617
grouper methodology prescribed in rules authorized by this 89618
section;89619

       (2) After the end of each calendar year and in accordance 89620
with rules authorized by this section, determine an annual average 89621
case-mix score for each ICF/MR using the ICF/MR's quarterly 89622
case-mix scores for that calendar year.89623

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 89624
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 89625
assign to an ICF/MR a case-mix score that is five per cent less 89626
than the ICF/MR's case-mix score for the immediately preceding 89627
calendar quarter if any of the following apply:89628

       (a) The provider does not timely submit complete and accurate 89629
resident assessment data necessary to determine the ICF/MR's 89630
case-mix score for the calendar quarter;89631

       (b) The ICF/MR was subject to an exception review under 89632
section 5124.193 of the Revised Code for the immediately preceding 89633
calendar quarter;89634

       (c) The ICF/MR was assigned a case-mix score for the 89635
immediately preceding calendar quarter.89636

       (2) Before assigning a case-mix score to an ICF/MR due to the 89637
submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the department 89638
shall permit the provider to correct the data. The department may 89639
assign the case-mix score if the provider fails to submit the 89640
corrected resident assessment data not later than eighty days 89641
after the end of the calendar quarter to which the data pertains 89642
or later due date specified in rules authorized by this section.89643

       (3) If, for more than six months during a calendar year, a 89644
provider is paid a rate determined for an ICF/MR using a case-mix 89645
score assigned to the ICF/MR under division (B)(1) of this 89646
section, the department may assign the ICF/MR a cost per case-mix 89647
unit that is five per cent less than the ICF/MR's actual or 89648
assigned cost per case-mix unit for the immediately preceding 89649
calendar year. The department may use the assigned cost per 89650
case-mix unit, instead of determining the ICF/MR's actual cost per 89651
case-mix unit in accordance with section 5124.19 of the Revised 89652
Code, to establish the ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs for the 89653
fiscal year immediately following the calendar year for which the 89654
cost per case-mix unit is assigned.89655

       (4) The department shall take action under division (B)(1), 89656
(2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with rules 89657
authorized by this section. The department shall not take an 89658
action that affects medicaid payment rates for prior payment 89659
periods except in accordance with sections 5124.41 and 5124.42 of 89660
the Revised Code.89661

       (C) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 89662
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 89663
implement this section.89664

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:89665

       (a) Prescribe a grouper methodology to be used when 89666
determining the case-mix scores for ICFs/MR;89667

       (b) Specify the process for determining the annual average 89668
case-mix scores for ICFs/MR;89669

       (c) Establish procedures under which resident assessment data 89670
is to be reviewed for accuracy and providers are to be notified of 89671
any data that requires correction;89672

       (d) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident 89673
assessment data and, if necessary, specify a due date for 89674
corrections that is later than the due date specified in division 89675
(B)(2) of this section.89676

       (e) Specify when and how the department will assign a 89677
case-mix score or cost per case-mix unit to an ICF/MR under 89678
division (B) of this section if information necessary to calculate 89679
the ICF/MR's case-mix score is not provided or corrected in 89680
accordance with the procedures established by the rules.89681

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 89682
rules may provide for excluding case-mix scores assigned to an 89683
ICF/MR under division (B) of this section from the determination 89684
of the ICF/MR's annual average case-mix score and the maximum cost 89685
per case-mix unit for the ICF/MR's peer group.89686

       Sec. 5124.193.  (A) The department of developmental 89687
disabilities may, pursuant to rules authorized by this section, 89688
conduct an exception review of resident assessment data submitted 89689
by an ICF/MR provider under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code. 89690
The department may conduct an exception review based on the 89691
findings of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the 89692
department of health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the 89693
provider.89694

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the ICF/MR by 89695
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 89696
by the department. The professionals may review resident 89697
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 89698
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 89699
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 89700
scores.89701

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 89702
date of an ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs that is based on 89703
the resident assessment data being reviewed and the review results 89704
in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified in the rules 89705
authorized by this section, the department, in accordance with the 89706
rules authorized by this section, may use the findings to 89707
redetermine individual resident case-mix scores, the ICF/MR's 89708
case-mix score for the quarter, and the ICF/MR's annual average 89709
case-mix score. The department may use the ICF/MR's redetermined 89710
quarterly and annual average case-mix scores to determine the 89711
ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 89712
quarter or quarters.89713

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 89714
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 89715
an ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 89716
resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider is 89717
pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 89718
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 89719
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 89720
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 89721
Revised Code.89722

       (D)(1) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 89723
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 89724
implement this section. The rules shall establish an exception 89725
review program that does all of the following:89726

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XIX;89727

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 89728
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 89729
accurately;89730

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 89731
exception review from doing either of the following:89732

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 89733
employment with the department, having or being committed to 89734
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 89735
ownership, financing, or operation of ICFs/MR in this state;89736

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 89737
professional.89738

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 89739
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 89740
by an ICF/MR that the professional does not review does not 89741
constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 89742
ownership, financing, or operation of the ICF/MR.89743

       Sec. 5111.233.        Sec. 5124.194.  The costs of day programming shall 89744
be part of the direct care costs of an intermediate care facility 89745
for the mentally retardedICF/MR as off-site day programming if 89746
the area in which the day programming is provided is not certified 89747
by the director of health as an intermediate care facility for the 89748
mentally retardedICF/MR under Title XIX and regardless of either 89749
of the following:89750

       (A) Whether or not the area in which the day programming is 89751
provided is less than two hundred feet away from the intermediate 89752
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR;89753

       (B) Whether or not the day programming is provided by an 89754
individual who, or organization that, is a related party to the 89755
provider of the intermediate care facility for the mentally 89756
retardedICF/MR.89757

       Sec. 5111.241.        Sec. 5124.21.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the89758
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities89759
shall pay a provider forprospectively determine each of the 89760
provider's eligible intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89761
retarded aICF/MR's per resident permedicaid day payment rate 89762
for indirect care costs established prospectively each fiscal year 89763
for each facility. TheSubject to section 5124.28 of the Revised 89764
Code, an ICF/MR's rate for each intermediate care facility for the 89765
mentally retarded shall be the sum of the following, but shall not 89766
exceedlesser of the individual rate determined under division (B) 89767
of this section and the maximum rate establisheddetermined for 89768
the facility'sICF/MR's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 89769
section.89770

       (B) An ICF/MR's individual rate is the sum of the following:89771

       (1) The facility'sICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 89772
per diem indirect care costs from the calendar year immediately89773
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, adjusted 89774
for the inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(1) of this 89775
section;89776

       (2) An efficiency incentive in the following amount:89777

       (a) For fiscal years ending in even-numbered calendar years:89778

       (i) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 89779
mentally retarded withIf the ICF/MR has more than eight beds, 89780
the following:89781

       (i) For fiscal year 2014, seven and one-tenth per cent of the 89782
maximum rate established for the facility'sICF/MR's peer group 89783
under division (B)(C) of this section;89784

       (ii) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 89785
mentally retarded withFor fiscal years 2015 and 2016 and each 89786
fiscal year thereafter ending in an even-numbered calendar year, 89787
three and fifty-five hundredths per cent of the maximum rate 89788
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of this 89789
section;89790

       (iii) For fiscal year 2017 and each fiscal year thereafter 89791
ending in an odd-numbered calendar year, the amount calculated for 89792
the immediately preceding fiscal year under division (B)(2)(a)(ii) 89793
of this section.89794

       (b) If the ICF/MR has eight or fewer beds, the following:89795

       (i) For each fiscal year ending in an even-numbered calendar 89796
year, seven per cent of the maximum rate established for the 89797
facility'sICF/MR's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 89798
section;89799

       (b)(ii) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 89800
calendar yearsyear, the amount calculated for the immediately89801
preceding fiscal year under division (A)(B)(2)(a)(b)(i) of this 89802
section.89803

       (B)(C)(1) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each 89804
peer group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89805
retardedICFs/MR with more than eight beds specified in rules 89806
adopted under division (D) of this section shall be determined as 89807
follows:89808

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 89809
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 89810
shall be the rate that is no less than twelve and four-tenths per 89811
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 89812
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 89813
mentally retarded with more than eight bedsICFs/MR in the peer89814
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/MR in the peer group whose 89815
indirect care costs for that period are more than three standard 89816
deviations from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 89817
diem indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for 89818
the mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight beds,) for the 89819
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 89820
rate will be paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under 89821
division (C)(D)(1) of this section.89822

       (b) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 89823
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group is 89824
the peer group's maximum rate for the previous fiscal year, 89825
adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(2) 89826
of this section.89827

       (2) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each peer 89828
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded89829
ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under 89830
division (D) of this section shall be determined as follows:89831

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 89832
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 89833
shall be the rate that is no less than ten and three-tenths per 89834
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 89835
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 89836
mentally retarded with eight or fewer bedsICFs/MR in the peer89837
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/MR in the peer group whose 89838
indirect care costs are more than three standard deviations from 89839
the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem indirect care 89840
cost for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89841
retardedICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds,) for the calendar year 89842
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89843
paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under division 89844
(C)(D)(1) of this section.89845

       (b) For each fiscal years that endyear ending in an89846
odd-numbered calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such89847
peer group is the peer group's maximum rate for the previous 89848
fiscal year, adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under 89849
division (C)(D)(2) of this section.89850

       (3) The department shall not recalculateredetermine a 89851
maximum rate for indirect care costs under division (B)(C)(1) or 89852
(2) of this section based on additional information that it 89853
receives after the maximum rate is set. The department shall 89854
recalculateredetermine the maximum rate for indirect care costs 89855
only if it made an error in computing the maximum rate based on 89856
the information available to the department at the time of the 89857
original calculation.89858

       (C)(D)(1) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 89859
(A)(B)(1), (B)(C)(1)(a), and (B)(C)(2)(a) of this section, the 89860
department shall estimate the rate of inflation for the 89861
eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July of the 89862
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 89863
rate will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December 89864
of the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the 89865
rate of inflation, the department shall use the following:89866

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the89867
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 89868
north central region, published by the United States bureau of 89869
labor statistics;89870

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 89871
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 89872
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 89873
department determines is appropriate.89874

       (2) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 89875
(B)(C)(1)(b) and (B)(C)(2)(b) of this section, the department 89876
shall estimate the rate of inflation for the twelve-month period 89877
beginning on the first day of January of the fiscal year 89878
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89879
paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal 89880
year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the rate of 89881
inflation, the department shall use the following:89882

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the89883
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 89884
north central region, published by the United States bureau of 89885
labor statistics;89886

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 89887
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(2)(a) of this 89888
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 89889
department determines is appropriate.89890

       (3) If an inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(1) 89891
or (2) of this section is different from the actual inflation rate 89892
for the relevant time period, as measured using the same index, 89893
the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation 89894
rate estimated pursuant to this division for the following fiscal 89895
year.89896

       (D)(E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 89897
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 89898
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 89899
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight 89900
beds, and peer groups of intermediate care facilities for the 89901
mentally retardedICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds, based on 89902
findings of significant per diem indirect care cost differences 89903
due to geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify 89904
peer groups based on findings of significant per diem indirect 89905
care cost differences due to other factors, including case-mix.89906

       Sec. 5111.235.        Sec. 5124.23. (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the89907
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities89908
shall pay a provider forprospectively determine each of the 89909
provider's eligible intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89910
retarded aICF/MR's per resident permedicaid day payment rate 89911
for other protected costs established prospectively each fiscal 89912
year for each facility. TheAn ICF/MR's rate for each facility89913
shall be the facility'sICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 89914
per diem other protected costs from the calendar year immediately89915
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, all 89916
adjusted for the estimated inflation rate for the eighteen-month 89917
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 89918
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89919
paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of that fiscal 89920
year. The department shall estimate inflation using the index 89921
specified in division (B) of this section. If the estimated 89922
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period is different from the 89923
actual inflation rate for that period, the difference shall be 89924
added to or subtracted from the inflation rate estimated for the 89925
following year.89926

       (B) The department shall use the following index for the 89927
purpose of division (A) of this section:89928

       (1) TheSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the89929
consumer price index for all urban consumers for nonprescription 89930
drugs and medical supplies, as published by the United States 89931
bureau of labor statistics;89932

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 89933
publish the index specified in division (B)(1) of this section, 89934
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 89935
nonprescription drugs and medical supplies.89936

       Sec. 5124.25.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this section, 89937
the department of developmental disabilities may pay a medicaid 89938
rate add-on to an ICF/MR provider for outlier ICF/MR services the 89939
ICF/MR provides to qualifying ventilator-dependent residents on or 89940
after July 1, 2014, if the provider applies to the department of 89941
developmental disabilities to receive the rate add-on and the 89942
department approves the application. The department of 89943
developmental disabilities may approve a provider's application if 89944
all of the following apply:89945

       (1) The provider submits to the department of developmental 89946
disabilities a best practices protocol for providing outlier 89947
ICF/MR services under this section and the department of 89948
developmental disabilities determines that the protocol is 89949
acceptable;89950

       (2) The provider executes with the department of medicaid an 89951
addendum to its provider agreement for the ICF/MR regarding the 89952
outlier ICF/MR services;89953

       (3) The provider and ICF/MR meet all other eligibility 89954
requirements for the rate add-on established in rules authorized 89955
by this section. 89956

       (B) An ICF/MR that has been approved by the department of 89957
developmental disabilities to provider outlier ICF/MR services 89958
under this section shall provide the services in accordance with 89959
both of the following:89960

       (1) The best practices protocol the department of 89961
developmental disabilities determined is acceptable;89962

       (2) Requirements regarding the services established in rules 89963
authorized by this section.89964

       (C) To qualify to receive outlier ICF/MR services from an 89965
ICF/MR under this section, a resident of the ICF/MR must be a 89966
medicaid recipient, be under twenty-two years of age, be dependent 89967
on a ventilator, and meet all other eligibility requirements 89968
established in rules authorized by this section.89969

       (D) The department of developmental disabilities shall 89970
negotiate the amount of the medicaid payment rate add-on, if any, 89971
to be paid under this section, or the method by which that amount 89972
is to be determined, with the department of medicaid. The 89973
department of developmental disabilities shall not pay the rate 89974
add-on unless the department has approved the amount of the rate 89975
add-on or method by which the amount is to be determined.89976

       Sec. 5124.28.  Notwithstanding any provision of section 89977
5124.17 or 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the director of 89978
developmental disabilities may adopt rules under section 5124.03 89979
of the Revised Code that provide for the determination of a 89980
combined maximum payment limit for indirect care costs and costs 89981
of ownership for ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds.89982

       Sec. 5111.263.        Sec. 5124.29.  Except as otherwise provided in 89983
section 5111.2645124.30 of the Revised Code, the department of 89984
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities, in determining 89985
whether an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's89986
ICF/MR's direct care costs and indirect care costs are allowable, 89987
shall place no limit on specific categories of reasonable costs 89988
other than compensation of owners, compensation of relatives of 89989
owners, and compensation of administrators.89990

       Compensation cost limits for owners and relatives of owners 89991
shall be based on compensation costs for individuals who hold 89992
comparable positions but who are not owners or relatives of 89993
owners, as reported on facilityICFs/MR's cost reports. As used in 89994
this section, "comparable position" means the position that is 89995
held by the owner or the owner's relative, if that position is 89996
listed separately on the cost report form, or if the position is 89997
not listed separately, the group of positions that is listed on 89998
the cost report form and that includes the position held by the 89999
owner or the owner's relative. In the case of an owner or owner's 90000
relative who serves the facilityICFs/MR in a capacity such as 90001
corporate officer, proprietor, or partner for which no comparable 90002
position or group of positions is listed on the cost report form, 90003
the compensation cost limit shall be based on civil service 90004
equivalents and shall be specified in rules adopted under section 90005
5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code.90006

       Compensation cost limits for administrators shall be based on 90007
compensation costs for administrators who are not owners or 90008
relatives of owners, as reported on facilityICFs/MR's cost 90009
reports. Compensation cost limits for administrators of four or 90010
more intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded90011
ICFs/MR shall be the same as the limits for administrators of 90012
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR90013
with one hundred fifty or more beds.90014

       Sec. 5124.30.  Except as provided in section 5124.17 of the 90015
Revised Code, the costs of goods, services, and facilities, 90016
furnished to an ICF/MR provider by a related party are includable 90017
in the allowable costs of the provider at the reasonable cost to 90018
the related party.90019

       Sec. 5124.31.  The department of developmental disabilities 90020
shall adjust medicaid payment rates determined under this chapter 90021
to account for reasonable additional costs that must be incurred 90022
by ICFs/MR to comply with requirements of federal or state 90023
statutes, rules, or policies enacted or amended after January 1, 90024
1992, or with orders issued by state or local fire authorities.90025

       Sec. 5124.32.  The department of developmental disabilities 90026
shall not reduce an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate determined 90027
under this chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower 90028
rate to any resident who is not eligible for medicaid.90029

       Sec. 5124.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to an ICF/MR 90030
provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged from the 90031
ICF/MR.90032

       Sec. 5111.33.        Sec. 5124.34. Reimbursement to a(A) The department 90033
of developmental disabilities shall pay an ICF/MR provider of an 90034
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 90035
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code shall include 90036
payments to the provider, at a rate equal to the percentageone 90037
hundred per cent of the per residenttotal per medicaid day rates 90038
that the department of job and family services has established90039
payment rate determined for the provider's facilityICF/MR under 90040
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for the fiscal 90041
year for which the cost of services is reimbursed,this chapter to 90042
reserve a bed for a resident who is a medicaid recipient during a 90043
temporary absence under conditions prescribed by the department, 90044
to include hospitalization for an acute condition, visits with 90045
relatives and friends, and participation in therapeutic programs 90046
outside the facility, when theif all of the following apply:90047

       (1) The recipient is temporarily absent from the ICF/MR for a 90048
reason that makes the absence qualified for payments under this 90049
section as specified in rules authorized by this section;90050

       (2) The resident's plan of care provides for suchthe absence 90051
and federal;90052

       (3) Federal financial participation in the payments is 90053
available for the payments. The90054

       (B) The maximum period during which medicaid payments may be 90055
made to reserve a bed shall not exceed the maximum period 90056
specified underin federal regulations, and shall not be more 90057
than thirty days during any calendar year for hospital stays, 90058
visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 90059
therapeutic programs.90060

       Recipientsprograms. However, a resident shall not be subject 90061
to a maximum period during which payments may be made to reserve a 90062
bed in an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if 90063
prior authorization of the department is obtained for hospital 90064
stays, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 90065
therapeutic programs. The90066

       (C)(1) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 90067
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 90068
the Revised Code establishingas necessary to implement this 90069
section, including rules that do the following:90070

       (a) Specify the reasons for which a temporary absence from an 90071
ICF/MR makes the absence qualify for payments under this section;90072

       (b) Establish conditions under which prior authorization may 90073
be obtained for the purpose of division (B) of this section.90074

       (2) The rules authorized by division (C)(1)(a) of this 90075
section shall include the following as reasons for which a 90076
temporary absence from an ICF/MR qualifies for payments under this 90077
section:90078

       (a) Hospitalization for acute conditions;90079

       (b) Visits with relatives and friends;90080

       (c) Participation in therapeutic programs outside the ICF/MR.90081

       Sec. 5124.35.  Medicaid payments may be made for ICF/MR 90082
services provided not later than thirty days after the effective 90083
date of an involuntary termination of the ICF/MR that provides the 90084
services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient who 90085
is eligible for the services and resided in the ICF/MR before the 90086
effective date of the involuntary termination.90087

       Sec. 5124.37.  The department of developmental disabilities 90088
shall make its best efforts each year to determine ICFs/MR's 90089
medicaid payment rates under this chapter in time to pay the rates 90090
by August fifteenth of each fiscal year. If the department is 90091
unable to calculate the rates so that they can be paid by that 90092
date, the department shall pay each provider the rate calculated 90093
for the provider's ICFs/MR under those sections at the end of the 90094
previous fiscal year. If the department also is unable to 90095
calculate the rates to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 90096
of September and the fifteenth day of October, the department 90097
shall pay the previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. 90098
The department may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal 90099
year's rate paid for any ICF/MR pursuant to this section at the 90100
request of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated 90101
for the current fiscal year to make the payments due by the 90102
fifteenth day of November.90103

       If an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate paid under this section 90104
is lower than the rate calculated for it for the current fiscal 90105
year, the department shall pay the provider the difference between 90106
the two rates for the number of days for which the provider is 90107
paid the lower rate. If an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate paid 90108
under this section is higher than the rate calculated for it for 90109
the current fiscal year, the provider shall refund to the 90110
department the difference between the two rates for the number of 90111
days for which the provider is paid the higher rate.90112

       Sec. 5124.38.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 90113
shall establish a process under which an ICF/MR provider, or a 90114
group or association of ICF/MR providers, may seek reconsideration 90115
of medicaid payment rates established under this chapter, 90116
including a rate for direct care costs redetermined before the 90117
effective date of the rate as a result of an exception review 90118
conducted under section 5124.193 of the Revised Code. Except as 90119
provided in divisions (B) to (D) of this section, the only issue 90120
that a provider, group, or association may raise in the rate 90121
reconsideration is whether the rate was calculated in accordance 90122
with this chapter and the rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 90123
the Revised Code. The provider, group, or association may submit 90124
written arguments or other materials that support its position. 90125
The provider, group, or association and department shall take 90126
actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 90127
specified in rules authorized by this section.90128

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 90129
reconsideration, that the rate established for one or more ICFs/MR 90130
is less than the rate to which the ICF/MR is entitled, the 90131
department shall increase the rate. If the department has paid the 90132
incorrect rate for a period of time, the department shall pay the 90133
provider of the ICF/MR the difference between the amount the 90134
provider was paid for that period for the ICF/MR and the amount 90135
the provider should have been paid for the ICF/MR.90136

       (B)(1) The department, through the rate reconsideration 90137
process, may increase during a fiscal year the medicaid payment 90138
rate determined for an ICF/MR under this chapter if the provider 90139
demonstrates that the ICF/MR's actual, allowable costs have 90140
increased because of any of the following extreme circumstances:90141

       (a) A natural disaster;90142

       (b) A nonextensive renovation approved under division (D) of 90143
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code;90144

       (c) If the ICF/MR has an appropriate claims management 90145
program, an increase in the ICF/MR's workers' compensation 90146
experience rating of greater than five per cent;90147

       (d) If the ICF/MR is an inner-city ICF/MR, increased security 90148
costs;90149

       (e) A change of ownership that results from bankruptcy, 90150
foreclosure, or findings by the department of health of violations 90151
of medicaid certification requirements;90152

       (f) Other extreme circumstances specified in rules authorized 90153
by this section.90154

       (2) An ICF/MR may qualify for a rate increase under this 90155
division only if its per diem, actual, allowable costs have 90156
increased to a level that exceeds its total rate. An increase 90157
under this division is subject to any rate limitations or maximum 90158
rates established by this chapter for specific cost centers. Any 90159
rate increase granted under this division shall take effect on the 90160
first day of the first month after the department receives the 90161
request.90162

       (C) The department, through the rate reconsideration process, 90163
may increase an ICF/MR's rate as determined under this chapter if 90164
the department, in the department's sole discretion, determines 90165
that the rate as determined under those sections works an extreme 90166
hardship on the ICF/MR.90167

       (D) When beds certified for the medicaid program are added to 90168
an existing ICF/MR or replaced at the same site, the department, 90169
through the rate reconsideration process, shall increase the 90170
ICF/MR's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by any 90171
applicable limitation under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code, 90172
to account for the costs of the beds that are added or replaced. 90173
The department shall make this increase one month after the first 90174
day of the month after the department receives sufficient 90175
documentation of the costs. Any rate increase granted under this 90176
division after June 30, 1993, shall remain in effect until the 90177
effective date of a rate for capital costs determined under 90178
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code that includes costs incurred 90179
for a full calendar year for the bed addition or bed replacement. 90180
The ICF/MR shall report double accumulated depreciation in an 90181
amount equal to the depreciation included in the rate adjustment 90182
on its cost report for the first year of operation. During the 90183
term of any loan used to finance a project for which a rate 90184
adjustment is granted under this division, if the ICF/MR is 90185
operated by the same provider, the provider shall subtract from 90186
the interest costs it reports on its cost report an amount equal 90187
to the difference between the following:90188

       (1) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 90189
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;90190

       (2) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 90191
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 90192
for the ICF/MR during the same calendar year.90193

       (E) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 90194
reconsideration process is not subject to any administrative 90195
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 90196
Revised Code.90197

       (F) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 90198
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 90199
implement this section.90200

       Sec. 5124.40.  If an ICF/MR provider properly amends a cost 90201
report for an ICF/MR under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code 90202
and the amended report shows that the provider received a lower 90203
medicaid payment rate under the original cost report than the 90204
provider was entitled to receive, the department of developmental 90205
disabilities shall adjust the provider's rate for the ICF/MR 90206
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 90207
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 90208
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report.90209

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 90210
assessment data conducted pursuant to section 5124.193 of the 90211
Revised Code after the effective date of an ICF/MR's rate for 90212
direct care costs that is based on the resident assessment data, 90213
that inaccurate resident assessment data resulted in the provider 90214
receiving a lower rate for the ICF/MR than the provider was 90215
entitled to receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the 90216
provider's rate for the ICF/MR accordingly. The department shall 90217
make payments to the provider using the adjusted rate for the 90218
remainder of the calendar quarter for which the resident 90219
assessment data is used to determine the rate, beginning one month 90220
after the first day of the month after the exception review is 90221
completed.90222

       Sec. 5124.41.  (A) The department of developmental 90223
disabilities shall redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate 90224
for an ICF/MR using revised information if any of the following 90225
results in a determination that the provider received a higher 90226
medicaid payment rate for the ICF/MR than the provider was 90227
entitled to receive:90228

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the ICF/MR 90229
under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code;90230

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 90231
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;90232

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 90233
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 90234
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 90235
ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs that is based on the resident 90236
assessment data.90237

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 90238
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 90239
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 90240
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 90241
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 90242
made:90243

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 90244
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be not greater than one and 90245
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.90246

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 90247
subsequent calendar year:90248

       (a) The interest shall be not greater than two times the 90249
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was not more 90250
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 90251
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 90252
to determine a rate.90253

       (b) The interest shall be not greater than two and one-half 90254
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 90255
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 90256
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 90257
was used to determine a rate.90258

       Sec. 5124.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 90259
by this chapter, the department of developmental disabilities may 90260
impose the following penalties on an ICF/MR provider:90261

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 90262
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 90263
sixty days after the request, a fine of not more than the greater 90264
of the following:90265

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;90266

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 90267
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 90268
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 90269
which the costs were used to determine a rate.90270

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 90271
of a facility closure or voluntary termination as required by 90272
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 90273
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 90274
operator as required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code, a 90275
fine of not more than the current average bank prime rate plus 90276
four per cent of the last two monthly payments.90277

       Sec. 5124.43.  For the purposes of sections 5124.41 and 90278
5124.42 of the Revised Code, the department of developmental 90279
disabilities shall determine the current average bank prime rate 90280
using statistical release H.15, "selected interest rates," a 90281
weekly publication of the federal reserve board, or any successor 90282
publication. If statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases 90283
to contain the bank prime rate information or ceases to be 90284
published, the department shall request a written statement of the 90285
average bank prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland 90286
or the federal reserve board.90287

       Sec. 5124.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 90288
section, the department of developmental disabilities shall deduct 90289
the following from the next available medicaid payment the 90290
department makes to an ICF/MR provider who continues to 90291
participate in medicaid:90292

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 90293
interest charged, under section 5124.41 of the Revised Code;90294

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 90295
section 5124.42 of the Revised Code.90296

       (B) The department and an ICF/MR provider may enter into an 90297
agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) of this 90298
section is taken in installments from payments the department 90299
makes to the provider.90300

       Sec. 5124.45.  The department of developmental disabilities 90301
shall transmit to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 90302
general revenue fund amounts collected from the following:90303

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 90304
5124.41 of the Revised Code;90305

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 90306
5124.42 of the Revised Code.90307

       Sec. 5124.46.  All of the following are subject to an 90308
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 90309
Revised Code:90310

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of 90311
developmental disabilities makes as the result of an audit under 90312
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;90313

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 90314
of resident assessment data conducted for an ICF/MR under section 90315
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 90316
ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs that is based 90317
on the resident assessment data;90318

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 90319
5124.523 of the Revised Code;90320

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5124.42 90321
of the Revised Code or section 5124.523 of the Revised Code.90322

       Sec. 5124.50.  An exiting operator or owner of an ICF/MR 90323
participating in the medicaid program shall provide the department 90324
of developmental disabilities and department of medicaid written 90325
notice of a facility closure or voluntary termination not less 90326
than ninety days before the effective date of the facility closure 90327
or voluntary termination. The written notice shall be provided to 90328
the department of developmental disabilities and department of 90329
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 90330
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.90331

       The written notice shall include all of the following:90332

       (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 90333
operator's authorized agent;90334

       (B) The name of the ICF/MR that is the subject of the written 90335
notice;90336

       (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 90337
for the ICF/MR that is the subject of the written notice;90338

       (D) The effective date of the facility closure or voluntary 90339
termination;90340

       (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 90341
representative.90342

       Sec. 5124.51.  (A) An exiting operator or owner and entering 90343
operator shall provide the department of developmental 90344
disabilities and department of medicaid written notice of a change 90345
of operator if the ICF/MR participates in the medicaid program and 90346
the entering operator seeks to continue the ICF/MR's 90347
participation. The written notice shall be provided to the 90348
department of developmental disabilities and department of 90349
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 90350
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The written 90351
notice shall be provided to the department of developmental 90352
disabilities and department of medicaid not later than forty-five 90353
days before the effective date of the change of operator if the 90354
change of operator does not entail the relocation of residents. 90355
The written notice shall be provided to the department of 90356
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid not later 90357
than ninety days before the effective date of the change of 90358
operator if the change of operator entails the relocation of 90359
residents. 90360

       The written notice shall include all of the following:90361

       (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 90362
operator's authorized agent;90363

       (2) The name of the ICF/MR that is the subject of the change 90364
of operator;90365

       (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 90366
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the ICF/MR 90367
that is the subject of the change of operator;90368

       (4) The name of the entering operator;90369

       (5) The effective date of the change of operator;90370

       (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 90371
ICF/MR's operator, including through sale, lease, merger, or other 90372
action;90373

       (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 90374
ICF/MR's operator involves more than one step, a description of 90375
each step;90376

       (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 90377
and entering operator for the department of medicaid to process a 90378
provider agreement for the entering operator;90379

       (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 90380
department of developmental disabilities and department of 90381
medicaid should send initial correspondence regarding the change 90382
of operator;90383

       (10) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 90384
representative.90385

       (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 90386
immediately shall provide the department of developmental 90387
disabilities and department of medicaid notice of any changes to 90388
information included in a written notice of a change of operator 90389
that occur after that notice is provided to the department of 90390
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid. The notice 90391
of the changes shall be provided to the department of 90392
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid in 90393
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 90394
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.90395

       Sec. 5124.511.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 90396
provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into effect 90397
at 12:01 a.m. on the effective date of the change of operator if 90398
all of the following requirements are met:90399

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 90400
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code on or 90401
before the date required by that section.90402

       (B) The department receives both of the following in 90403
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 90404
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code and not later than ten days 90405
after the effective date of the change of operator:90406

       (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 90407
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 90408
rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code;90409

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 90410
documents specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the 90411
Revised Code.90412

       (C) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 90413
provider agreement for the ICF/MR as provided in section 5124.06 90414
of the Revised Code.90415

       Sec. 5124.512.  (A) The department of medicaid may enter into 90416
a provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into 90417
effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date determined under division (B) of 90418
this section if all of the following are the case:90419

       (1) The department receives a properly completed written 90420
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code.90421

       (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 90422
in accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 90423
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, a completed application for a 90424
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 90425
rules adopted under that section.90426

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 90427
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules 90428
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, all forms and 90429
documents specified in rules adopted under that section.90430

       (4) One or more of the following apply:90431

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 90432
after the time required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code;90433

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 90434
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 90435
operator;90436

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 90437
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 90438
operator.90439

       (5) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 90440
provider agreement for the ICF/MR as provided in section 5124.06 90441
of the Revised Code.90442

       (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 90443
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 90444
follows:90445

       (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 90446
time to process the change of operator and give the department 90447
sufficient time to assure no duplicate payments are made and make 90448
the withholding required by section 5124.521 of the Revised Code.90449

       (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 90450
of the following:90451

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;90452

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 90453
5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this section;90454

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 90455
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of this 90456
section.90457

       (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 90458
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 90459
section:90460

       (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 90461
the relocation of residents;90462

       (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 90463
relocation of residents.90464

       Sec. 5124.513.  A provider that enters into a provider 90465
agreement with the department of medicaid under section 5124.511 90466
or 5124.512 of the Revised Code shall do all of the following:90467

       (A) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 90468
regulations;90469

       (B) Comply with section 5124.07 of the Revised Code and all 90470
other applicable state statutes and rules;90471

       (C) Comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting 90472
operator's provider agreement, including all of the following:90473

       (1) Any plan of correction;90474

       (2) Compliance with health and safety standards;90475

       (3) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 90476
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;90477

       (4) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 90478
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;90479

       (5) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 90480
department;90481

       (6) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of the 90482
provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance periods, 90483
accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification for 90484
correction of contract violations, and history of deficiencies.90485

       Sec. 5124.514.  In the case of a change of operator, the 90486
exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 90487
ICF/MR for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 90488
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 90489
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 90490
section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised Code.90491

       Sec. 5124.515.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 90492
provider agreement as provided in section 5124.07 of the Revised 90493
Code, rather than section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised 90494
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 90495
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 90496
division (C) of section 5124.513 of the Revised Code. The 90497
department may not enter into the provider agreement unless the 90498
department of health certifies the ICF/MR under Title XIX. The 90499
effective date of the provider agreement shall not precede any of 90500
the following:90501

       (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 90502
ICF/MR;90503

       (B) The effective date of the change of operator;90504

       (C) The date the requirement of section 5124.51 of the 90505
Revised Code is satisfied.90506

       Sec. 5124.516.  The director of developmental disabilities 90507
may adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code 90508
governing adjustments to the medicaid reimbursement rate for an 90509
ICF/MR that undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment 90510
resulting from a change of operator shall be effective before the 90511
effective date of the entering operator's provider agreement. This 90512
is the case regardless of whether the provider agreement is 90513
entered into under section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, 90514
pursuant to section 5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.90515

       Sec. 5124.517.  The department of developmental disabilities' 90516
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 90517
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 90518
Code shall not affect either of the following:90519

       (A) A determination by the department of developmental 90520
disabilities or department of medicaid of whether or when a change 90521
of operator occurs;90522

       (B) The department of medicaid's determination of the 90523
effective date of an entering operator's provider agreement under 90524
section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, pursuant to section 90525
5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.90526

       Sec. 5124.52.  (A) On receipt of a written notice under 90527
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of a facility closure or 90528
voluntary termination, on receipt of a written notice under 90529
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 90530
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 90531
of developmental disabilities shall estimate the amount of any 90532
overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 90533
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 90534
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 90535
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 90536
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 90537
franchise permit fee.90538

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 90539
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 90540
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 90541
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the director of 90542
developmental disabilities shall establish in rules authorized by 90543
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The methodology shall provide 90544
for estimating all of the following that the department determines 90545
are applicable:90546

       (1) Refunds due the department under section 5124.41 of the 90547
Revised Code;90548

       (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 90549
for medicare and medicaid services;90550

       (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 90551
right of appeal has been exhausted;90552

       (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 90553
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 90554
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 90555
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 90556
medicaid program;90557

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.90558

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 90559
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 90560
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 90561
the notice under section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of the 90562
facility closure or voluntary termination; the department receives 90563
the notice under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of the change 90564
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 90565
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 90566
estimate.90567

       Sec. 5124.521.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B), (C), 90568
and (D) of this section, the department of developmental 90569
disabilities may withhold from payment due an exiting operator 90570
under the medicaid program the total amount specified in the 90571
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 90572
Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to the 90573
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 90574
services under the medicaid program.90575

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 90576
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 90577
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 90578
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 90579
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 90580
(F) of this section:90581

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 90582
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 90583
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 90584
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 90585
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 90586
the department shall not make the withholding.90587

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 90588
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 90589
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 90590
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 90591
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 90592
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 90593
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 90594
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 90595
assumes liability.90596

       (C) In the case of a voluntary termination or facility 90597
closure and subject to division (E) of this section, the following 90598
shall apply regarding a withholding under division (A) of this 90599
section if the exiting operator or an affiliated operator executes 90600
a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of 90601
division (F) of this section:90602

       (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 90603
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 90604
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 90605
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 90606
determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, the 90607
department shall not make the withholding.90608

       (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 90609
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 90610
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 90611
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 90612
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 90613
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 90614
Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 90615
affiliated operator assumes liability.90616

       (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 90617
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 90618
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 90619
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 90620
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 90621
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 90622
successor liability agreement:90623

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 90624
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 90625
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 90626
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 90627
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 90628
the department shall not make the withholding.90629

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 90630
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 90631
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 90632
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 90633
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 90634
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 90635
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 90636
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 90637
assumes liability.90638

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 90639
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 90640
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 90641
must apply:90642

       (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 90643
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 90644
agreement for the ICF/MR that is the subject of the involuntary 90645
termination, voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of 90646
operator;90647

       (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 90648
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 90649
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 90650
termination or facility closure under section 5124.50 of the 90651
Revised Code or the notice of the change of operator under section 90652
5124.51 of the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment 90653
made to the exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to 90654
the exiting operator's or affiliated operator's one or more 90655
provider agreements, other than the provider agreement for the 90656
ICF/MR that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 90657
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator, 90658
must equal at least ninety per cent of the sum of the following:90659

       (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 90660
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 90661
the ICF/MR that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 90662
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator;90663

       (b) Whichever of the following apply:90664

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 90665
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 90666
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 90667
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 90668
successor liability agreements;90669

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 90670
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 90671
zero.90672

       (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 90673
section must comply with all of the following:90674

       (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 90675
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 90676
the following as specified in the agreement:90677

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 90678
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 90679
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 90680
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;90681

       (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 90682
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 90683
exiting operator owes.90684

       (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 90685
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.90686

       (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 90687
under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code the actual amount of 90688
debt the exiting operator owes the department and United States 90689
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 90690
program, may deduct the lesser of the following from medicaid 90691
payments made to the operator who executes the successor liability 90692
agreement:90693

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 90694
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 90695
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 90696
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;90697

       (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 90698
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 90699
agreement.90700

       (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 90701
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 90702
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 90703
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 90704
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 90705
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 90706
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 90707
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 90708
this state.90709

       (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 90710
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 90711
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 90712
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 90713
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 90714
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 90715
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 90716
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 90717
claims fund.90718

       (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 90719
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 90720
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 90721
division (C) of section 5124.52 of the Revised Code.90722

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 90723
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 90724
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 90725
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 90726
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 90727
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 90728
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 90729
developmental disabilities for deposit into the appropriate fund. 90730
The additional amount that the operator is required to pay shall 90731
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the attorney 90732
general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the Revised 90733
Code.90734

       Sec. 5124.522.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 90735
this section, an exiting operator shall file with the department 90736
of developmental disabilities a cost report not later than ninety 90737
days after the last day the exiting operator's provider agreement 90738
is in effect. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 90739
with the day after the last day covered by the operator's most 90740
recent previous cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 90741
5124.101 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the exiting 90742
operator's provider agreement is in effect. The cost report shall 90743
include, as applicable, all of the following:90744

       (1) The sale price of the ICF/MR;90745

       (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 90746
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 90747
the buyer;90748

       (3) Any other information the department requires.90749

       (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 90750
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 90751
accordance with division (A) of this section.90752

       Sec. 5124.523.  If an exiting operator required by section 90753
5124.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost report with the 90754
department of developmental disabilities fails to file the cost 90755
report in accordance with that section, all payments under the 90756
medicaid program for the period the cost report is required to 90757
cover are deemed overpayments until the date the department 90758
receives the properly completed cost report. The department may 90759
impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one hundred dollars 90760
for each calendar day the properly completed cost report is late.90761

       Sec. 5124.524.  The department of developmental disabilities 90762
may not provide an exiting operator final payment under the 90763
medicaid program until the department receives all properly 90764
completed cost reports the exiting operator is required to file 90765
under sections 5124.10 and 5124.522 of the Revised Code.90766

       Sec. 5124.525.  The department of developmental disabilities 90767
shall determine the actual amount of debt an exiting operator owes 90768
the department and the United States centers for medicare and 90769
medicaid services under the medicaid program by completing all 90770
final fiscal audits not already completed and performing all other 90771
appropriate actions the department determines to be necessary. The 90772
department shall issue an initial debt summary report on this 90773
matter not later than sixty days after the date the exiting 90774
operator files the properly completed cost report required by 90775
section 5124.522 of the Revised Code with the department or, if 90776
the department waives the cost report requirement for the exiting 90777
operator, sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 90778
report requirement. The initial debt summary report becomes the 90779
final debt summary report thirty-one days after the department 90780
issues the initial debt summary report unless the exiting 90781
operator, or an affiliated operator who executes a successor 90782
liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, 90783
requests a review before that date.90784

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 90785
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 90786
Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 90787
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 90788
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 90789
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 90790
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 90791
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 90792
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 90793
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5124.521 of 90794
the Revised Code, the department shall issue the revised debt 90795
summary report not later than ninety days after the date the 90796
department receives the timely request for the review unless the 90797
department and exiting operator or affiliated operator agree to a 90798
later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 90799
information to the department explaining what the operator 90800
contests before and during the review, including documentation of 90801
the amount of any debt the department owes the operator. The 90802
exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit additional 90803
information to the department not later than thirty days after the 90804
department issues the revised debt summary report. The revised 90805
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 90806
thirty-one days after the department issues the revised debt 90807
summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated operator 90808
timely submits additional information to the department. If the 90809
exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits additional 90810
information to the department, the department shall consider the 90811
additional information and issue a final debt summary report not 90812
later than sixty days after the department issues the revised debt 90813
summary report unless the department and exiting operator or 90814
affiliated operator agree to a later date.90815

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 90816
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 90817
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 90818
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 90819
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 90820
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.90821

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 90822
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 90823
Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 90824
Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final debt 90825
summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged overpayment 90826
made under the medicaid program to the exiting operator. The 90827
adjudication shall be consolidated with any other uncompleted 90828
adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the final debt 90829
summary report.90830

       Sec. 5124.526.  The department of developmental disabilities 90831
shall release the actual amount withheld under division (A) of 90832
section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, less any amount the exiting 90833
operator owes the department and United States centers for 90834
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, as 90835
follows:90836

       (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 90837
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 90838
than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files the 90839
properly completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the 90840
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the exiting operator 90841
files the properly completed cost report;90842

       (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 90843
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 90844
sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a properly 90845
completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the Revised 90846
Code, not later than the following:90847

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 90848
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 90849
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 90850
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90851
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 90852
adjudication on or before the deadline;90853

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 90854
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 90855
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90856
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 90857
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 90858
adjudication.90859

       (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 90860
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 90861
than sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 90862
report requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, 90863
sixty-one days after the date the department waives the cost 90864
report requirement;90865

       (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 90866
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 90867
sixty days after the date the department waives the cost report 90868
requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, not later 90869
than the following:90870

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 90871
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 90872
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 90873
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90874
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 90875
adjudication on or before the deadline;90876

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 90877
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 90878
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90879
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 90880
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 90881
adjudication.90882

       Sec. 5124.527.  The department of developmental disabilities, 90883
at its sole discretion, may release the amount withheld under 90884
division (A) of section 5124.521 of the Revised Code if the 90885
exiting operator submits to the department written notice of a 90886
postponement of a change of operator, facility closure, or 90887
voluntary termination and the transactions leading to the change 90888
of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination are 90889
postponed for at least thirty days but less than ninety days after 90890
the date originally proposed for the change of operator, facility 90891
closure, or voluntary termination as reported in the written 90892
notice required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. 90893
The department shall release the amount withheld if the exiting 90894
operator submits to the department written notice of a 90895
cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, facility 90896
closure, or voluntary termination and the transactions leading to 90897
the change of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination 90898
are canceled or postponed for more than ninety days after the date 90899
originally proposed for the change of operator, facility closure, 90900
or voluntary termination as reported in the written notice 90901
required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. A 90902
written notice shall be provided to the department in accordance 90903
with the method specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 90904
of the Revised Code.90905

       After the department receives a written notice regarding a 90906
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure or voluntary 90907
termination, the exiting operator or owner shall provide new 90908
written notice to the department under section 5124.50 of the 90909
Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a facility 90910
closure or voluntary termination at a future time. After the 90911
department receives a written notice regarding a cancellation or 90912
postponement of a change of operator, the exiting operator or 90913
owner and entering operator shall provide new written notice to 90914
the department under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code regarding 90915
any transactions leading to a change of operator at a future time.90916

       Sec. 5124.528.  (A) All amounts withheld under section 90917
5124.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an exiting operator 90918
under the medicaid program shall be deposited into the medicaid 90919
payment withholding fund created by the controlling board pursuant 90920
to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. Money in the fund shall be 90921
used as follows:90922

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 90923
to the exiting operator under section 5124.526 or 5124.527 of the 90924
Revised Code;90925

       (2) To pay the department of medicaid or department of 90926
developmental disabilities, and United States centers for medicare 90927
and medicaid services, the amount an exiting operator owes the 90928
department of medicaid or department of developmental disabilities 90929
and United States centers under the medicaid program.90930

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 90931
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 90932
into the appropriate fund.90933

       Sec. 5124.53.  The director of developmental disabilities 90934
shall adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to 90935
implement sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The 90936
rules shall specify all of the following:90937

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 90938
required by sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code are to 90939
be provided;90940

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 90941
department under sections 5124.511 and 5124.512 of the Revised 90942
Code, which shall include, in the case of such forms and documents 90943
provided by entering operators, all the fully executed leases, 90944
management agreements, merger agreements and supporting documents, 90945
and fully executed sales contracts and any other supporting 90946
documents culminating in the change of operator;90947

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 90948
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.90949

       Sec. 5111.874.        Sec. 5124.60.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 90950
5111.8710 of the Revised Code:90951

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 90952
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.90953

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 90954
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 90955
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 90956
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 90957
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 90958
retarded services.90959

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 90960
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 90961
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 90962
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 90963
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 90964
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 90965
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.90966

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 90967
5123.19 of the Revised Code.90968

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 90969
available for home and community-based services and subject to 90970
sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of the Revised 90971
Code, the operator of an intermediate care facility for the 90972
mentally retardedICF/MR may convert some or all of the beds in 90973
the facilityICF/MR from providing ICF/MR services to providing 90974
home and community-based services if all of the following 90975
requirements are met:90976

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health and 90977
developmental disabilities at least ninety days' notice of the 90978
operator's intent to make the conversion.90979

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 90980
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 90981
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 90982
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.90983

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's90984
ICF/MR's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's90985
ICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to cease providing 90986
ICF/MR services and inform each resident that the resident may do 90987
either of the following:90988

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 90989
another facilityICF/MR that is an intermediate care facility for 90990
the mentally retarded willing and able to accept the resident if 90991
the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;90992

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 90993
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 90994
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 90995
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 90996
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.90997

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 90998
the facility'sICF/MR's beds, the operator notifies each of the 90999
facility'sICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to 91000
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MR services to 91001
providing home and community-based services and inform each 91002
resident that the resident may do either of the following:91003

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 91004
services ICF/MR that is willing and able to provide the services 91005
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 91006
services;91007

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 91008
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 91009
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 91010
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 91011
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.91012

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 91013
and community-based services, including the following:91014

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 91015
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 91016
facility;91017

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 91018
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 91019
facility's license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 91020
of the Revised Code.91021

       (6) The director of developmental disabilities approves the 91022
conversion.91023

       (C)(B) A decision by the director of developmental 91024
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 91025
of beds is final. In making a decision, the director shall 91026
consider all of the following:91027

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facilityICF/MR if some but not 91028
all of the beds are converted;91029

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistancemedicaid91030
program;91031

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.91032

       (D)(C) The notice provided to the directors under division 91033
(B)(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 91034
facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 91035
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 91036
of the facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted and how many 91037
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MR services. The notice 91038
to the director of developmental disabilities shall specify 91039
whether the operator wishes to surrender the facility'sICF/MR's91040
license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the 91041
Revised Code.91042

       (E)(D)(1) If the director of developmental disabilities 91043
approves a conversion under division (C)(B) of this section, the 91044
director of health shall do the following:91045

       (a) Terminate the ICF/MR's medicaid certification of the 91046
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 91047
specifies that all of the facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be 91048
converted;91049

       (b) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/MR's 91050
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 91051
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 91052
be converted. 91053

       (2) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 91054
of job and family services of the termination or reduction. On 91055
receipt of the director of health's notice, the medicaid director 91056
of job and family services shall do the following:91057

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 91058
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MR services at the 91059
facilityICF/MR if the facility'sICF/MR's certification was 91060
terminated;91061

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 91062
reflect the facility'sICF/MR's reduced certified91063
medicaid-certified capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/MR's 91064
medicaid-certified capacity is reduced. 91065

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(D)(2)(a) 91066
of this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a 91067
hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid91068
director of job and family services terminates the medicaid 91069
provider agreement.91070

       Sec. 5111.875.        Sec. 5124.61. (A) For the purpose of increasing the 91071
number of slots available for home and community-based services 91072
and subject to sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of 91073
the Revised Code, a person who acquires, through a request for 91074
proposals issued by the director of developmental disabilities, a 91075
residential facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 91076
mentally retarded andan ICF/MR for which thea residential 91077
facility license as a residential facility was previously 91078
surrendered or revoked may convert some or all of the facility's91079
ICF/MR's beds from providing ICF/MR services to providing home and 91080
community-based services if all of the following requirements are 91081
met:91082

       (1) The person provides the directors of health, job and 91083
family services, and developmental disabilities and medicaid 91084
director at least ninety days' notice of the person's intent to 91085
make the conversion.91086

       (2) The person complies with the requirements of sections 91087
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 91088
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 91089
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.91090

       (3) If the person intends to convert all of the facility's91091
ICF/MR's beds, the person notifies each of the facility's91092
ICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to cease providing 91093
ICF/MR services and informs each resident that the resident may do 91094
either of the following:91095

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 91096
another facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 91097
mentally retardedICF/MR willing and able to accept the resident 91098
if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;91099

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 91100
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 91101
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 91102
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 91103
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.91104

       (4) If the person intends to convert some but not all of the 91105
facility'sICF/MR's beds, the person notifies each of the 91106
facility'sICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to 91107
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MR services to 91108
providing home and community-based services and inform each 91109
resident that the resident may do either of the following:91110

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 91111
ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide the services 91112
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 91113
services;91114

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 91115
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 91116
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 91117
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 91118
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.91119

       (5) The person meets the requirements for providing home and 91120
community-based services at a residential facility.91121

       (B) The notice provided to the directors under division 91122
(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 91123
facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 91124
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 91125
of the facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted and how many 91126
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MR services.91127

       (C) On receipt of a notice under division (A)(1) of this 91128
section, the director of health shall do the following:91129

       (1) Terminate the ICF/MR's medicaid certification of the 91130
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 91131
specifies that all of the facility's beds are to be converted;91132

       (2) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/MR's 91133
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 91134
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 91135
be converted.91136

       (D) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 91137
of job and family services of the termination or reduction under 91138
division (C) of this section. On receipt of the director of 91139
health's notice, the medicaid director of job and family services91140
shall do the following:91141

       (1) Terminate the person's medicaid provider agreement that 91142
authorizes the person to provide ICF/MR services at the facility91143
ICF/MR if the facility'sICF/MR's medicaid certification was 91144
terminated;91145

       (2) Amend the person's medicaid provider agreement to reflect 91146
the facility'sICF/MR's reduced certifiedmedicaid-certified91147
capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/MR's medicaid-certified91148
capacity is reduced.91149

       The person is not entitled to notice or a hearing under 91150
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid director of 91151
job and family services terminates or amends the medicaid provider 91152
agreement.91153

       Sec. 5111.876.        Sec. 5124.62.  Subject to section 5111.8775124.6391154
of the Revised Code, the director of developmental disabilities 91155
may request that the medicaid director of job and family services91156
seek the approval of the United States secretary of health and 91157
human services to increase the number of slots available for home 91158
and community-based services by a number not exceeding the number 91159
of beds that were part of the licensed capacity of a residential 91160
facility that had its license revoked or surrendered under section 91161
5123.19 of the Revised Code if the residential facility was an 91162
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR at the 91163
time of the license revocation or surrender. The revocation or 91164
surrender may have occurred before, or may occur on or after, June 91165
24, 2008. The request may include beds the director of 91166
developmental disabilities removed from such a residential 91167
facility's licensed capacity before transferring ownership or 91168
operation of the residential facility pursuant to a request for 91169
proposals.91170

       Sec. 5111.877.        Sec. 5124.63. The medicaid director of job and 91171
family services may seek approval from the United States secretary 91172
of health and human services for not more than a total of five 91173
hundred slots for home and community-based services for the 91174
purposes of sections 5111.8745124.60, 5111.8755124.61, and 91175
5111.8765124.62 of the Revised Code.91176

       Sec. 5111.878.        Sec. 5124.64. Not more than a total of five hundred 91177
beds may be converted from providing ICF/MR services to providing 91178
home and community-based services under sections 5111.8745124.6091179
and 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised Code.91180

       Sec. 5111.879.        Sec. 5124.65. No person or government entity may 91181
reconvert a bed to be used for ICF/MR services if the bed was 91182
converted to use for home and community-based services under 91183
section 5111.8745124.60 or 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised Code. 91184
This prohibition applies regardless of either of the following:91185

       (A) The bed is part of the licensed capacity of a residential 91186
facility.91187

       (B) The bed has been sold, leased, or otherwise transferred 91188
to another person or government entity.91189

       Sec. 5124.99.  Whoever violates section 5124.102 or division 91190
(E) of section 5124.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less 91191
than five hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for 91192
the first offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more 91193
than five thousand dollars for each subsequent offense.91194

       Fines paid under this section shall be deposited in the state 91195
treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.91196

       Sec. 5126.01.  As used in this chapter:91197

       (A) As used in this division, "adult" means an individual who 91198
is eighteen years of age or over and not enrolled in a program or 91199
service under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and an individual 91200
sixteen or seventeen years of age who is eligible for adult 91201
services under rules adopted by the director of developmental 91202
disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.91203

       (1) "Adult services" means services provided to an adult 91204
outside the home, except when they are provided within the home 91205
according to an individual's assessed needs and identified in an 91206
individual service plan, that support learning and assistance in 91207
the area of self-care, sensory and motor development, 91208
socialization, daily living skills, communication, community 91209
living, social skills, or vocational skills.91210

       (2) "Adult services" includes all of the following:91211

       (a) Adult day habilitation services;91212

       (b) Adult day care;91213

       (c) Prevocational services;91214

       (d) Sheltered employment;91215

       (e) Educational experiences and training obtained through 91216
entities and activities that are not expressly intended for 91217
individuals with mental retardation and developmental 91218
disabilities, including trade schools, vocational or technical 91219
schools, adult education, job exploration and sampling, unpaid 91220
work experience in the community, volunteer activities, and 91221
spectator sports;91222

       (f) Community employment services and supported employment 91223
services.91224

       (B)(1) "Adult day habilitation services" means adult services 91225
that do the following:91226

       (a) Provide access to and participation in typical activities 91227
and functions of community life that are desired and chosen by the 91228
general population, including such activities and functions as 91229
opportunities to experience and participate in community 91230
exploration, companionship with friends and peers, leisure 91231
activities, hobbies, maintaining family contacts, community 91232
events, and activities where individuals without disabilities are 91233
involved;91234

       (b) Provide supports or a combination of training and 91235
supports that afford an individual a wide variety of opportunities 91236
to facilitate and build relationships and social supports in the 91237
community.91238

       (2) "Adult day habilitation services" includes all of the 91239
following:91240

       (a) Personal care services needed to ensure an individual's 91241
ability to experience and participate in vocational services, 91242
educational services, community activities, and any other adult 91243
day habilitation services;91244

       (b) Skilled services provided while receiving adult day 91245
habilitation services, including such skilled services as behavior 91246
management intervention, occupational therapy, speech and language 91247
therapy, physical therapy, and nursing services;91248

       (c) Training and education in self-determination designed to 91249
help the individual do one or more of the following: develop 91250
self-advocacy skills, exercise the individual's civil rights, 91251
acquire skills that enable the individual to exercise control and 91252
responsibility over the services received, and acquire skills that 91253
enable the individual to become more independent, integrated, or 91254
productive in the community;91255

       (d) Recreational and leisure activities identified in the 91256
individual's service plan as therapeutic in nature or assistive in 91257
developing or maintaining social supports;91258

       (e) Counseling and assistance provided to obtain housing, 91259
including such counseling as identifying options for either rental 91260
or purchase, identifying financial resources, assessing needs for 91261
environmental modifications, locating housing, and planning for 91262
ongoing management and maintenance of the housing selected;91263

       (f) Transportation necessary to access adult day habilitation 91264
services;91265

       (g) Habilitation management, as described in section 5126.14 91266
of the Revised Code.91267

       (3) "Adult day habilitation services" does not include 91268
activities that are components of the provision of residential 91269
services, family support services, or supported living services.91270

       (C) "Appointing authority" means the following:91271

       (1) In the case of a member of a county board of 91272
developmental disabilities appointed by, or to be appointed by, a 91273
board of county commissioners, the board of county commissioners;91274

       (2) In the case of a member of a county board appointed by, 91275
or to be appointed by, a senior probate judge, the senior probate 91276
judge.91277

       (D) "Community employment," "competitive employment," and 91278
"integrated setting" have the same meanings as in section 5123.022 91279
of the Revised Code.91280

       (E) "Community employment services" or "supported employment 91281
services" means job training and other services related to 91282
employment outside a sheltered workshop. "Community employment 91283
services" or "supported employment services" include all of the 91284
following:91285

       (1) Job training resulting in the attainment of competitive 91286
workcommunity employment, supported work in a typical work 91287
environment, or self-employment;91288

       (2) Supervised work experience through an employer paid to 91289
provide the supervised work experience;91290

       (3) Ongoing work in a competitive work environment at a wage 91291
commensurate with workers without disabilitiescommunity 91292
employment;91293

       (4) Ongoing supervision by an employer paid to provide the 91294
supervision.91295

       (E)(F) As used in this division, "substantial functional 91296
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 91297
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 91298
Revised Code.91299

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 91300
that is characterized by all of the following:91301

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 91302
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 91303
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 91304
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;91305

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two;91306

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely;91307

       (4) It results in one of the following:91308

       (a) In the case of a person under age three, at least one 91309
developmental delay or an established risk;91310

       (b) In the case of a person at least age three but under age 91311
six, at least two developmental delays or an established risk;91312

       (c) In the case of a person age six or older, a substantial 91313
functional limitation in at least three of the following areas of 91314
major life activity, as appropriate for the person's age: 91315
self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, 91316
self-direction, capacity for independent living, and, if the 91317
person is at least age sixteen, capacity for economic 91318
self-sufficiency.91319

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 91320
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 91321
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 91322
individually planned and coordinated for the person.91323

       (F)(G) "Early childhood services" means a planned program of 91324
habilitation designed to meet the needs of individuals with mental 91325
retardation or other developmental disabilities who have not 91326
attained compulsory school age.91327

       (G)(H)(1) "Environmental modifications" means the physical 91328
adaptations to an individual's home, specified in the individual's 91329
service plan, that are necessary to ensure the individual's 91330
health, safety, and welfare or that enable the individual to 91331
function with greater independence in the home, and without which 91332
the individual would require institutionalization.91333

       (2) "Environmental modifications" includes such adaptations 91334
as installation of ramps and grab-bars, widening of doorways, 91335
modification of bathroom facilities, and installation of 91336
specialized electric and plumbing systems necessary to accommodate 91337
the individual's medical equipment and supplies.91338

       (3) "Environmental modifications" does not include physical 91339
adaptations or improvements to the home that are of general 91340
utility or not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the 91341
individual, including such adaptations or improvements as 91342
carpeting, roof repair, and central air conditioning.91343

       (H)(I) "Family support services" means the services provided 91344
under a family support services program operated under section 91345
5126.11 of the Revised Code.91346

       (I)(J) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 91347
the facility or agency assists an individual with mental 91348
retardation or other developmental disability in acquiring and 91349
maintaining those life skills that enable the individual to cope 91350
more effectively with the demands of the individual's own person 91351
and environment, and in raising the level of the individual's 91352
personal, physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 91353
Habilitation includes, but is not limited to, programs of formal, 91354
structured education and training.91355

       (J)(K) "Home and community-based services" means 91356
medicaid-funded home and community-based services specified in 91357
division (B)(1) of section 5111.87 of the Revised Code and 91358
provided under the medicaid waiver components the department of 91359
developmental disabilities administers pursuant tohas the same 91360
meaning as in section 5111.8715123.01 of the Revised Code. 91361
However, home and community-based services provided under the 91362
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 91363
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 91364
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 91365
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 91366
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.91367

       (K)(L) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 91368
the Revised Code.91369

       (M) "Immediate family" means parents, grandparents, brothers, 91370
sisters, spouses, sons, daughters, aunts, uncles, mothers-in-law, 91371
fathers-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, and 91372
daughters-in-law.91373

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 91374
the Revised Code.91375

       (M)(N) "Medicaid case management services" means case 91376
management services provided to an individual with mental 91377
retardation or other developmental disability that the state 91378
medicaid plan requires.91379

       (N)(O) "Mental retardation" means a mental impairment 91380
manifested during the developmental period characterized by 91381
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 91382
concurrently with deficiencies in the effectiveness or degree with 91383
which an individual meets the standards of personal independence 91384
and social responsibility expected of the individual's age and 91385
cultural group.91386

       (O)(P) "Residential services" means services to individuals 91387
with mental retardation or other developmental disabilities to 91388
provide housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, and 91389
related support services necessary for the health, safety, and 91390
welfare of the individuals and the advancement of their quality of 91391
life. "Residential services" includes program management, as 91392
described in section 5126.14 of the Revised Code.91393

       (P)(Q) "Resources" means available capital and other assets, 91394
including moneys received from the federal, state, and local 91395
governments, private grants, and donations; appropriately 91396
qualified personnel; and appropriate capital facilities and 91397
equipment.91398

       (Q)(R) "Senior probate judge" means the current probate judge 91399
of a county who has served as probate judge of that county longer 91400
than any of the other current probate judges of that county. If a 91401
county has only one probate judge, "senior probate judge" means 91402
that probate judge.91403

       (R)(S) "Service and support administration" means the duties 91404
performed by a service and support administrator pursuant to 91405
section 5126.15 of the Revised Code.91406

       (S)(T)(1) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive 91407
equipment, supplies, and supports" means equipment, supplies, and 91408
supports that enable an individual to increase the ability to 91409
perform activities of daily living or to perceive, control, or 91410
communicate within the environment.91411

       (2) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive equipment, 91412
supplies, and supports" includes the following:91413

       (a) Eating utensils, adaptive feeding dishes, plate guards, 91414
mylatex straps, hand splints, reaches, feeder seats, adjustable 91415
pointer sticks, interpreter services, telecommunication devices 91416
for the deaf, computerized communications boards, other 91417
communication devices, support animals, veterinary care for 91418
support animals, adaptive beds, supine boards, prone boards, 91419
wedges, sand bags, sidelayers, bolsters, adaptive electrical 91420
switches, hand-held shower heads, air conditioners, humidifiers, 91421
emergency response systems, folding shopping carts, vehicle lifts, 91422
vehicle hand controls, other adaptations of vehicles for 91423
accessibility, and repair of the equipment received.91424

       (b) Nondisposable items not covered by medicaid that are 91425
intended to assist an individual in activities of daily living or 91426
instrumental activities of daily living.91427

       (T)(U) "Supportive home services" means a range of services 91428
to families of individuals with mental retardation or other 91429
developmental disabilities to develop and maintain increased 91430
acceptance and understanding of such persons, increased ability of 91431
family members to teach the person, better coordination between 91432
school and home, skills in performing specific therapeutic and 91433
management techniques, and ability to cope with specific 91434
situations.91435

       (U)(V)(1) "Supported living" means services provided for as 91436
long as twenty-four hours a day to an individual with mental 91437
retardation or other developmental disability through any public 91438
or private resources, including moneys from the individual, that 91439
enhance the individual's reputation in community life and advance 91440
the individual's quality of life by doing the following:91441

       (a) Providing the support necessary to enable an individual 91442
to live in a residence of the individual's choice, with any number 91443
of individuals who are not disabled, or with not more than three 91444
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 91445
unless the individuals are related by blood or marriage;91446

       (b) Encouraging the individual's participation in the 91447
community;91448

       (c) Promoting the individual's rights and autonomy;91449

       (d) Assisting the individual in acquiring, retaining, and 91450
improving the skills and competence necessary to live successfully 91451
in the individual's residence.91452

       (2) "Supported living" includes the provision of all of the 91453
following:91454

       (a) Housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, 91455
professional services, and any related support services necessary 91456
to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of the individual 91457
receiving the services;91458

       (b) A combination of lifelong or extended-duration 91459
supervision, training, and other services essential to daily 91460
living, including assessment and evaluation and assistance with 91461
the cost of training materials, transportation, fees, and 91462
supplies;91463

       (c) Personal care services and homemaker services;91464

       (d) Household maintenance that does not include modifications 91465
to the physical structure of the residence;91466

       (e) Respite care services;91467

       (f) Program management, as described in section 5126.14 of 91468
the Revised Code.91469

       Sec. 5126.026.  Except as otherwise provided in this section 91470
and section 5126.0218 of the Revised Code, a member of a county 91471
board of developmental disabilities may be reappointed to the 91472
county board. Prior to making a reappointment, the appointing 91473
authority shall ascertain, through written communication with the 91474
board, that the member being considered for reappointment meets 91475
the requirements of sections 5126.022 and 5126.0218 of the Revised 91476
Code.91477

        A member who has served during each of three consecutive 91478
terms shall not be reappointed for a subsequent term until two 91479
years after ceasing to be a member of the county board, except 91480
that a member who has served for ten years or less within three 91481
consecutive terms may be reappointed for a subsequent term before 91482
becoming ineligible for reappointment for two years.91483

       If, however, a county board experiences extenuating 91484
circumstances that would severely restrict the board from being 91485
able to fill a pending vacancy of a board member who will become 91486
ineligible for service on the board after serving three 91487
consecutive terms, the appointing authority may request a waiver 91488
from the director of developmental disabilities to allow that 91489
member to serve an additional four-year term subsequent to serving 91490
three consecutive four-year terms. The director shall determine if 91491
the extenuating circumstances associated with the board warrant 91492
the granting of such a waiver.91493

       Sec. 5126.05.  (A) Subject to the rules established by the 91494
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of 91495
the Revised Code for programs and services offered pursuant to 91496
this chapter, and subject to the rules established by the state 91497
board of education pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 91498
for programs and services offered pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 91499
Revised Code, the county board of developmental disabilities 91500
shall:91501

       (1) Administer and operate facilities, programs, and services 91502
as provided by this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 91503
and establish policies for their administration and operation;91504

       (2) Coordinate, monitor, and evaluate existing services and 91505
facilities available to individuals with mental retardation and 91506
developmental disabilities;91507

       (3) Provide early childhood services, supportive home 91508
services, and adult services, according to the plan and priorities 91509
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;91510

       (4) Provide or contract for special education services 91511
pursuant to Chapters 3317. and 3323. of the Revised Code and 91512
ensure that related services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the 91513
Revised Code, are available according to the plan and priorities 91514
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;91515

       (5) Adopt a budget, authorize expenditures for the purposes 91516
specified in this chapter and do so in accordance with section 91517
319.16 of the Revised Code, approve attendance of board members 91518
and employees at professional meetings and approve expenditures 91519
for attendance, and exercise such powers and duties as are 91520
prescribed by the director;91521

       (6) Submit annual reports of its work and expenditures, 91522
pursuant to sections 3323.09 and 5126.12 of the Revised Code, to 91523
the director, the superintendent of public instruction, and the 91524
board of county commissioners at the close of the fiscal year and 91525
at such other times as may reasonably be requested;91526

       (7) Authorize all positions of employment, establish 91527
compensation, including but not limited to salary schedules and 91528
fringe benefits for all board employees, approve contracts of 91529
employment for management employees that are for a term of more 91530
than one year, employ legal counsel under section 309.10 of the 91531
Revised Code, and contract for employee benefits;91532

       (8) Provide service and support administration in accordance 91533
with section 5126.15 of the Revised Code;91534

       (9) Certify respite care homes pursuant to rules adopted 91535
under section 5123.171 of the Revised Code by the director of 91536
developmental disabilities;91537

       (10) Implement an employment first policy that clearly 91538
identifies community employment as the desired outcome for every 91539
individual of working age who receives services from the board;91540

       (11) Set benchmarks for improving community employment 91541
outcomes;91542

       (12) Establish a list of services, from least to most 91543
integrated, that improve community employment outcomes.91544

       (B) To the extent that rules adopted under this section apply 91545
to the identification and placement of children with disabilities 91546
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, they shall be consistent 91547
with the standards and procedures established under sections 91548
3323.03 to 3323.05 of the Revised Code.91549

       (C) Any county board may enter into contracts with other such 91550
boards and with public or private, nonprofit, or profit-making 91551
agencies or organizations of the same or another county, to 91552
provide the facilities, programs, and services authorized or 91553
required, upon such terms as may be agreeable, and in accordance 91554
with this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and rules 91555
adopted thereunder and in accordance with sections 307.86 and 91556
5126.071 of the Revised Code.91557

       (D) A county board may combine transportation for children 91558
and adults enrolled in programs and services offered under Chapter 91559
5126. of the Revised Code with transportation for children 91560
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 and91561
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 of the Revised 91562
Code.91563

       (E) A county board may purchase all necessary insurance 91564
policies, may purchase equipment and supplies through the 91565
department of administrative services or from other sources, and 91566
may enter into agreements with public agencies or nonprofit 91567
organizations for cooperative purchasing arrangements.91568

       (F) A county board may receive by gift, grant, devise, or 91569
bequest any moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the 91570
purposes for which the board is established and hold, apply, and 91571
dispose of the moneys, lands, and property according to the terms 91572
of the gift, grant, devise, or bequest. All money received by 91573
gift, grant, bequest, or disposition of lands or property received 91574
by gift, grant, devise, or bequest shall be deposited in the 91575
county treasury to the credit of such board and shall be available 91576
for use by the board for purposes determined or stated by the 91577
donor or grantor, but may not be used for personal expenses of the 91578
board members. Any interest or earnings accruing from such gift, 91579
grant, devise, or bequest shall be treated in the same manner and 91580
subject to the same provisions as such gift, grant, devise, or 91581
bequest.91582

       (G) The board of county commissioners shall levy taxes and 91583
make appropriations sufficient to enable the county board of 91584
developmental disabilities to perform its functions and duties, 91585
and may utilize any available local, state, and federal funds for 91586
such purpose.91587

       Sec. 5126.051.  (A) To the extent that resources are 91588
available, a county board of developmental disabilities shall 91589
provide for or arrange residential services and supported living 91590
for individuals with mental retardation and developmental 91591
disabilities.91592

       A county board may acquire, convey, lease, or sell property 91593
for residential services and supported living and enter into loan 91594
agreements, including mortgages, for the acquisition of such 91595
property. A county board is not required to comply with provisions 91596
of Chapter 307. of the Revised Code providing for competitive 91597
bidding or sheriff sales in the acquisition, lease, conveyance, or 91598
sale of property under this division, but the acquisition, lease, 91599
conveyance, or sale must be at fair market value determined by 91600
appraisal of one or more disinterested persons appointed by the 91601
board.91602

       Any action taken by a county board under this division that 91603
will incur debt on the part of the county shall be taken in 91604
accordance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. A county board 91605
shall not incur any debt on the part of the county without the 91606
prior approval of the board of county commissioners.91607

       (B)(1) To the extent that resources are available, in 91608
addition to sheltered employment and work activities provided asa 91609
county board shall provide or arrange for the provision of adult 91610
services pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5126.05 of the 91611
Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities may 91612
provide or arrange forincluding job training, vocational 91613
evaluation, and community employment services to mentally retarded 91614
and developmentally disabled individuals who are age eighteen and 91615
older and not enrolled in a program or service under Chapter 3323. 91616
of the Revised Code or age sixteen or seventeen and eligible for 91617
adult services under rules adopted by the director of 91618
developmental disabilities under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 91619
These services shall be provided in accordance with the 91620
individual's individual service or habilitation plan and shall 91621
include support services specified in the plan.91622

       (2) A county board may, in cooperation with the Ohio 91623
rehabilitation services commission, seek federal funds for job 91624
training and community employment services.91625

       (3) A county board may contract with any agency, board, or 91626
other entity that is accredited by the commission on accreditation 91627
of rehabilitation facilities to provide services. A county board 91628
that is accredited by the commission on accreditation of 91629
rehabilitation facilities may provide services for which it is 91630
certified by the commission.91631

       (C) To the extent that resources are available, a county 91632
board may provide services to an individual with mental 91633
retardation or other developmental disability in addition to those 91634
provided pursuant to this section, section 5126.05 of the Revised 91635
Code, or any other section of this chapter. The services shall be 91636
provided in accordance with the individual's habilitation or 91637
service plan and may be provided in collaboration with other 91638
entities of state or local government.91639

       Sec. 5126.054.  (A) Each county board of developmental 91640
disabilities shall, by resolution, develop a three-calendar year 91641
plan that includes the following three components:91642

       (1) An assessment component that includes all of the 91643
following:91644

       (a) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 91645
other developmental disability residing in the county who need the 91646
level of care provided by an intermediate care facility for the 91647
mentally retardedICF/MR, may seek home and community-based 91648
services, and are given priority on a waiting list established for 91649
the services pursuant to section 5126.042 of the Revised Code; the 91650
service needs of those individuals; and the projected annualized 91651
cost for services;91652

       (b) The source of funds available to the county board to pay 91653
the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures that the county 91654
board is required by sections 5126.059 and 5126.0510 of the 91655
Revised Code to pay;91656

       (c) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 91657
department of developmental disabilities requires as a condition 91658
of approving the component under section 5123.046 of the Revised 91659
Code.91660

       (2) A preliminary implementation component that specifies the 91661
number of individuals to be provided, during the first year that 91662
the plan is in effect, home and community-based services pursuant 91663
to the waiting list priority given to them under section 5126.042 91664
of the Revised Code and the types of home and community-based 91665
services the individuals are to receive;91666

       (3) A component that provides for the implementation of 91667
medicaid case management services and home and community-based 91668
services for individuals who begin to receive the services on or 91669
after the date the plan is approved under section 5123.046 of the 91670
Revised Code. A county board shall include all of the following in 91671
the component:91672

       (a) If the department of developmental disabilities or 91673
department of job and family servicesmedicaid requires, an 91674
agreement to pay the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures 91675
that the county board is required by sections 5126.059 and 91676
5126.0510 of the Revised Code to pay;91677

       (b) How the services are to be phased in over the period the 91678
plan covers, including how the county board will serve individuals 91679
who have priority on a waiting list established under section 91680
5126.042 of the Revised Code;91681

       (c) Any agreement or commitment regarding the county board's 91682
funding of home and community-based services that the county board 91683
has with the department at the time the county board develops the 91684
component;91685

       (d) Assurances adequate to the department that the county 91686
board will comply with all of the following requirements:91687

       (i) To provide the types of home and community-based services 91688
specified in the preliminary implementation component required by 91689
division (A)(2) of this section to at least the number of 91690
individuals specified in that component;91691

       (ii) To use any additional funds the county board receives 91692
for the services to improve the county board's resource 91693
capabilities for supporting such services available in the county 91694
at the time the component is developed and to expand the services 91695
to accommodate the unmet need for those services in the county;91696

       (iii) To employ or contract with a business manager or enter 91697
into an agreement with another county board of developmental 91698
disabilities that employs or contracts with a business manager to 91699
have the business manager serve both county boards. No 91700
superintendent of a county board may serve as the county board's 91701
business manager.91702

       (iv) To employ or contract with a medicaid services manager 91703
or enter into an agreement with another county board of 91704
developmental disabilities that employs or contracts with a 91705
medicaid services manager to have the medicaid services manager 91706
serve both county boards. No superintendent of a county board may 91707
serve as the county board's medicaid services manager.91708

       (e) Programmatic and financial accountability measures and 91709
projected outcomes expected from the implementation of the plan;91710

       (f) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 91711
department requires as a condition of approving the component 91712
under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code.91713

       (B) A county board whose plan developed under division (A) of 91714
this section is approved by the department under section 5123.046 91715
of the Revised Code shall update and renew the plan in accordance 91716
with a schedule the department shall develop.91717

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 91718
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 91719
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 91720
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 91721
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 91722
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 91723
services:91724

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 91725
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 91726
shall do all of the following:91727

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 91728
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 91729
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 91730
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 91731
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR provides;91732

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 91733
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 91734
hearing underappeals pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 91735
Revised Code, present, with the department of developmental 91736
disabilities or department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 91737
whichever denies the application, the reasons for the 91738
recommendation and denial at the hearing;91739

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 91740
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 91741
servicesmedicaid the services that should be included in the 91742
individual's individualized service plan and, if either department 91743
approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 91744
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.87191745
5166.20 of the Revised Code because of the county board's 91746
recommendation, present, with the department that made the 91747
approval, reduction, denial, or termination, the reasons for the 91748
recommendation and approval, reduction, denial, or termination at 91749
a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made under section 5101.3591750
5160.31 of the Revised Code.91751

       (2) Perform any duties assigned to the county board in rules 91752
adopted under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding the 91753
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 91754
the services and, at a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made91755
under section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code, present 91756
evidence of the process for appropriate assistance in choosing 91757
providers;91758

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 91759
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 91760
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 91761
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 91762
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 91763
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 91764
requires;91765

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 91766
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 91767
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 91768
county board provides the services, the department of 91769
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.91770

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 91771
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 91772
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 91773
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 91774
servicesmedicaid approve the plan, and implement the plan unless 91775
either department disapproves it. The individualized service plan 91776
shall include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, 91777
provider, and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines 91778
the amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under 91779
the plan.91780

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 91781
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;91782

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 91783
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 91784
Code that concern the individual.91785

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 91786
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 91787
of the following:91788

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 91789
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 91790
Revised Code;91791

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;91792

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 91793
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid91794
and the United States department of health and human services;91795

       (4) The department of job and family services'medicaid's91796
supervision under its authority under section 5111.01 of the 91797
Revised Code to act as the single state medicaid agency;91798

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.91799

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 91800
family servicesmedicaid shall communicate with and provide 91801
training to county boards regarding medicaid local administrative 91802
authority granted by this section. The communication and training 91803
shall include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 91804
established by the United States department of health and human 91805
services that the departments determine appropriate for 91806
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 91807
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 91808
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 91809
establish.91810

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 91811
administrative authority granted under this section but may 91812
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 91813
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 91814
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 91815
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 91816
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 91817
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 91818
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 91819
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 91820
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 91821
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 91822
responsibilities.91823

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 91824
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 91825
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid, 91826
reply to, and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or 91827
fiscal audit or program violation exception that a state or 91828
federal audit or review discovers. The department of job and 91829
family servicesmedicaid shall timely notify the department of 91830
developmental disabilities and the county board of any adverse 91831
findings. After receiving the notice, the county board, in 91832
conjunction with the department of developmental disabilities, 91833
shall cooperate fully with the department of job and family 91834
servicesmedicaid and timely prepare and send to the department a 91835
written plan of correction or response to the adverse findings. 91836
The county board is liable for any adverse findings that result 91837
from an action it takes or fails to take in its implementation of 91838
medicaid local administrative authority.91839

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 91840
department of job and family servicesmedicaid determines that a 91841
county board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 91842
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 91843
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 91844
following:91845

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 91846
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 91847
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;91848

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 91849
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 91850
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 91851
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 91852
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 91853
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.91854

       Sec. 5126.131.  (A)(1) Each regional council established 91855
under section 5126.13 of the Revised Code shall file with the 91856
department of developmental disabilities an annual cost report 91857
detailing the regional council's income and expenditures.91858

       (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 91859
file with the department an annual cost report detailing the 91860
board's income and expenditures.91861

       (B)(1)(a) Unless the department establishes a later date for 91862
all regional council cost reports, each council shall file its 91863
cost report not later than the last day of April. At the written 91864
request of a regional council, the department may grant a 91865
fourteen-day extension for filing the cost report.91866

       (b) Unless the department establishes a later date for all 91867
county board cost reports, each board shall file its cost report 91868
not later than the last day of May. At the written request of a 91869
board, the department may grant a fourteen-day extension for 91870
filing the board's cost report.91871

       (2) The cost report shall contain information on the previous 91872
calendar year's income and expenditures. Once filed by a regional 91873
council or board, no changes may be made to the cost report, 91874
including the submission of additional documentation, except as 91875
otherwise provided in this section.91876

       (C) Each cost report filed under this section by a regional 91877
council or board shall be audited by the department or an entity 91878
designated by the department. The department or designated entity 91879
shall notify the regional council or board of the date on which 91880
the audit is to begin. The department may permit a regional 91881
council or board to submit changes to the cost report before the 91882
audit begins.91883

       If the department or designated entity determines that a 91884
filed cost report is not auditable, it shall provide written 91885
notification to the regional council or board of the cost report's 91886
deficiencies and may request additional documentation. If the 91887
department or designated entity requests additional documentation, 91888
the regional council or board shall be given sixty days after the 91889
request is made to provide the additional documentation. After 91890
sixty days, the department or designated entity shall determine 91891
whether the cost report is auditable with any additional 91892
documentation provided and shall notify the regional council or 91893
board of its determination. The determination of the department or 91894
designated entity is final.91895

       (D) The department or designated entity shall certify its 91896
audit as complete and file a copy of the certified audit in the 91897
office of the clerk of the governing body, executive officer of 91898
the governing body, and chief fiscal officer of the audited 91899
regional council or board. Changes may not be made to a cost 91900
report once the department or designated entity files the 91901
certified audit. The cost report is not a public record under 91902
section 149.43 of the Revised Code until copies of the cost report 91903
are filed pursuant to this section.91904

       (E) The department may withhold any funds that it distributes 91905
to a regional council or board as subsidy payments if either of 91906
the following is the case:91907

       (1) The cost report is not timely filed by the regional 91908
council or board with the department in accordance with division 91909
(B) of this section.91910

       (2) The cost report is determined not auditable under 91911
division (C) of this section after the department or designated 91912
entity gives the regional council or board sixty days to provide 91913
additional documentation.91914

       (F) Cost reports shall be retained by regional councils and 91915
boards for seven years. The department shall provide annual 91916
training to regional council and board employees regarding cost 91917
reports required by this section.91918

       (G) The department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91919
Revised Code, may adopt any rules necessary to implement this 91920
section.91921

       Sec. 5126.24.  (A) As used in this section:91922

       (1) "License" means an educator license issued by the state 91923
board of education under section 3319.22 of the Revised Code or a 91924
certificate issued by the department of developmental 91925
disabilities.91926

       (2) "Teacher" means a person employed by a county board of 91927
developmental disabilities in a position that requires a license.91928

       (3) "Nonteaching employee" means a person employed by a 91929
county board of developmental disabilities in a position that does 91930
not require a license.91931

       (4) "Years of service" includes all service described in 91932
division (A) of section 3317.133317.14 of the Revised Code.91933

       (B) Subject to rules established by the director of 91934
developmental disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 91935
Code, each county board of developmental disabilities shall 91936
annually adopt separate salary schedules for teachers and 91937
nonteaching employees.91938

       (C) The teachers' salary schedule shall provide for 91939
increments based on training and years of service. The board may 91940
establish its own service requirements provided no teacher 91941
receives less than the salary the teacher would be paid under 91942
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code if the teacher were employed 91943
by a school district board of education and provided full credit 91944
for a minimum of five years of actual teaching and military 91945
experience as defined in division (A) of such section is given to 91946
each teacher.91947

       Each teacher who has completed training that would qualify 91948
the teacher for a higher salary bracket pursuant to this section 91949
shall file by the fifteenth day of September with the fiscal 91950
officer of the board, satisfactory evidence of the completion of 91951
such additional training. The fiscal officer shall then 91952
immediately place the teacher, pursuant to this section, in the 91953
proper salary bracket in accordance with training and years of 91954
service. No teacher shall be paid less than the salary to which 91955
the teacher would be entitled under section 3317.13 of the Revised 91956
Code if the teacher were employed by a school district board of 91957
education.91958

       The superintendent of each county board, on or before the 91959
fifteenth day of October of each year, shall certify to the state 91960
board of education the name of each teacher employed, on an annual 91961
salary, in each special education program operated pursuant to 91962
section 3323.09 of the Revised Code during the first full school 91963
week of October. The superintendent further shall certify, for 91964
each teacher, the number of years of training completed at a 91965
recognized college, the degrees earned from a college recognized 91966
by the state board, the type of license held, the number of months 91967
employed by the board, the annual salary, and other information 91968
that the state board may request.91969

       (D) The nonteaching employees' salary schedule established by 91970
the board shall be based on training, experience, and 91971
qualifications with initial salaries no less than salaries in 91972
effect on July 1, 1985. Each board shall prepare and may amend 91973
from time to time, specifications descriptive of duties, 91974
responsibilities, requirements, and desirable qualifications of 91975
the classifications of employees required to perform the duties 91976
specified in the salary schedule. All nonteaching employees shall 91977
be notified of the position classification to which they are 91978
assigned and the salary for the classification. The compensation 91979
of all nonteaching employees working for a particular board shall 91980
be uniform for like positions except as compensation would be 91981
affected by salary increments based upon length of service.91982

       On the fifteenth day of October of each year the nonteaching 91983
employees' salary schedule and list of job classifications and 91984
salaries in effect on that date shall be filed by each board with 91985
the superintendent of public instruction. If such salary schedule 91986
and classification plan is not filed, the superintendent of public 91987
instruction shall order the board to file such schedule and list 91988
forthwith. If this condition is not corrected within ten days 91989
after receipt of the order from the superintendent, no money shall 91990
be distributed to the board under Chapter 3317. of the Revised 91991
Code until the superintendent has satisfactory evidence of the 91992
board's full compliance with such order.91993

       Sec. 5139.03.  The department of youth services shall control 91994
and manage all state institutions or facilities established or 91995
created for the training or rehabilitation of delinquent children 91996
committed to the department, except where the control and 91997
management of an institution or facility is vested by law in 91998
another agency. The department shall employ, in addition to other 91999
personnel authorized under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code, 92000
sufficient personnel to maintain food service and buildings and 92001
grounds operations.92002

       The department of youth services shall, insofar as 92003
practicable, purchase foods and other commodities incident to food 92004
service operations from the department of mental healthmental 92005
health and addiction services. The department of youth services 92006
may enter into agreements with the department of mental health92007
mental health and addiction services providing for assistance and 92008
consultation in the construction of, or major modifications to, 92009
capital facilities of the department of youth services.92010

       The directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 92011
services and of youth services shall enter into written agreements 92012
to implement this section. Such directors may, from time to time, 92013
amend any agreements entered into under this section for the 92014
purposes of making more efficient use of personnel, taking 92015
advantage of economies in quantity purchasing, or for any other 92016
purpose which is mutually advantageous to both the department of 92017
youth services and the department of mental healthmental health 92018
and addiction services.92019

       The department of youth services may transfer any of its 92020
excess or surplus supplies to a community corrections facility. 92021
These supplies shall remain the property of the department for a 92022
period of five years from the date of the transfer. After the 92023
five-year period, the supplies shall become the property of the 92024
facility.92025

       Sec. 5139.04.  The department of youth services shall do all 92026
of the following:92027

       (A) Support service districts through a central 92028
administrative office that shall have as its administrative head a 92029
deputy director who shall be appointed by the director of the 92030
department. When a vacancy occurs in the office of that deputy 92031
director, an assistant deputy director shall act as that deputy 92032
director until the vacancy is filled. The position of deputy 92033
director and assistant deputy director described in this division 92034
shall be in the unclassified civil service of the state.92035

       (B) Receive custody of all children committed to it under 92036
Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code, cause a study to be made of 92037
those children, and issue any orders, as it considers best suited 92038
to the needs of any of those children and the interest of the 92039
public, for the treatment of each of those children;92040

       (C) Obtain personnel necessary for the performance of its 92041
duties;92042

       (D) Adopt rules that regulate its organization and operation, 92043
that implement sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 92044
Revised Code, and that pertain to the administration of other 92045
sections of this chapter;92046

       (E) Submit reports of its operations to the governor and the 92047
general assembly by the thirty-first day of January of each 92048
odd-numbered year;92049

       (F) Conduct a program of research in diagnosis, training, and 92050
treatment of delinquent children to evaluate the effectiveness of 92051
the department's services and to develop more adequate methods;92052

       (G) Develop a standard form for the disposition investigation 92053
report that a juvenile court is required pursuant to section 92054
2152.18 of the Revised Code to complete and provide to the 92055
department when the court commits a child to the legal custody of 92056
the department;92057

       (H) Allow the state public defender the access authorized 92058
under division (I) of section 120.06 of the Revised Code in order 92059
to fulfill the department's constitutional obligation to provide 92060
juveniles who have been committed to the department's care access 92061
to the courts.92062

        (I) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 92063
this chapter.92064

       Sec. 5139.08.  The department of youth services may enter 92065
into an agreement with the director of rehabilitation and 92066
correction pursuant to which the department of youth services, in 92067
accordance with division (C)(2) of section 5139.06 and section 92068
5120.162 of the Revised Code, may transfer to a correctional 92069
medical center established by the department of rehabilitation and 92070
correction, children who are within its custody for diagnosis or 92071
treatment of an illness, physical condition, or other medical 92072
problem. The department of youth services may enter into any other 92073
agreements with the director of job and family services, the 92074
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 92075
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 92076
rehabilitation and correction, with the courts having probation 92077
officers or other public officials, and with private agencies or 92078
institutions for separate care or special treatment of children 92079
subject to the control of the department of youth services. The 92080
department of youth services may, upon the request of a juvenile 92081
court not having a regular probation officer, provide probation 92082
services for such court.92083

       Upon request by the department of youth services, any public 92084
agency or group care facility established or administered by the 92085
state for the care and treatment of children and youth shall, 92086
consistent with its functions, accept and care for any child whose 92087
custody is vested in the department in the same manner as it would 92088
be required to do if custody had been vested by a court in such 92089
agency or group care facility. If the department has reasonable 92090
grounds to believe that any child or youth whose custody is vested 92091
in it is mentally ill or mentally retarded, the department may 92092
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.76 of the Revised 92093
Code. The department's affidavit for admission of a child or youth 92094
to such institution shall be filed with the probate court of the 92095
county from which the child was committed to the department. Such 92096
court may request the probate court of the county in which the 92097
child is held to conduct the hearing on the application, in which 92098
case the court making such request shall bear the expenses of the 92099
proceeding. If the department files such an affidavit, the child 92100
or youth may be kept in such institution until a final decision on 92101
the affidavit is made by the appropriate court.92102

       Sec. 5139.34.  (A) Funds may be appropriated to the 92103
department of youth services for the purpose of granting state 92104
subsidies to counties. A county or the juvenile court that serves 92105
a county shall use state subsidies granted to the county pursuant 92106
to this section only in accordance with divisions (B)(2)(a) and 92107
(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code and the rules 92108
pertaining to the state subsidy funds that the department adopts 92109
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code. 92110
The department shall not grant financial assistance pursuant to 92111
this section for the provision of care and services for children 92112
in a placement facility unless the facility has been certified, 92113
licensed, or approved by a state or national agency with 92114
certification, licensure, or approval authority, including, but 92115
not limited to, the department of job and family services, 92116
department of education, department of mental healthmental health 92117
and addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, 92118
or American correctional association. For the purposes of this 92119
section, placement facilities do not include a state institution 92120
or a county or district children's home.92121

       The department also shall not grant financial assistance 92122
pursuant to this section for the provision of care and services 92123
for children, including, but not limited to, care and services in 92124
a detention facility, in another facility, or in out-of-home 92125
placement, unless the minimum standards applicable to the care and 92126
services that the department prescribes in rules adopted pursuant 92127
to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code have been 92128
satisfied.92129

       (B) The department of youth services shall apply the 92130
following formula to determine the amount of the annual grant that 92131
each county is to receive pursuant to division (A) of this 92132
section, subject to the appropriation for this purpose to the 92133
department made by the general assembly:92134

       (1) Each county shall receive a basic annual grant of fifty 92135
thousand dollars.92136

       (2) The sum of the basic annual grants provided under 92137
division (B)(1) of this section shall be subtracted from the total 92138
amount of funds appropriated to the department of youth services 92139
for the purpose of making grants pursuant to division (A) of this 92140
section to determine the remaining portion of the funds 92141
appropriated. The remaining portion of the funds appropriated 92142
shall be distributed on a per capita basis to each county that has 92143
a population of more than twenty-five thousand for that portion of 92144
the population of the county that exceeds twenty-five thousand.92145

       (C)(1) Prior to a county's receipt of an annual grant 92146
pursuant to this section, the juvenile court that serves the 92147
county shall prepare, submit, and file in accordance with division 92148
(B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code an annual grant 92149
agreement and application for funding that is for the combined 92150
purposes of, and that satisfies the requirements of, this section 92151
and section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 92152
subject matters described in division (B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 92153
of the Revised Code or in the rules that the department adopts to 92154
implement that division, the annual grant agreement and 92155
application for funding shall address fiscal accountability and 92156
performance matters pertaining to the programs, care, and services 92157
that are specified in the agreement and application and for which 92158
state subsidy funds granted pursuant to this section will be used.92159

       (2) The county treasurer of each county that receives an 92160
annual grant pursuant to this section shall deposit the state 92161
subsidy funds so received into the county's felony delinquent care 92162
and custody fund created pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 92163
5139.43 of the Revised Code. Subject to exceptions prescribed in 92164
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code that may apply to the 92165
disbursement, the department shall disburse the state subsidy 92166
funds to which a county is entitled in a lump sum payment that 92167
shall be made in July of each calendar year.92168

       (3) Upon an order of the juvenile court that serves a county 92169
and subject to appropriation by the board of county commissioners 92170
of that county, a county treasurer shall disburse from the 92171
county's felony delinquent care and custody fund the state subsidy 92172
funds granted to the county pursuant to this section for use only 92173
in accordance with this section, the applicable provisions of 92174
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code, and the county's approved 92175
annual grant agreement and application for funding.92176

       (4) The moneys in a county's felony delinquent care and 92177
custody fund that represent state subsidy funds granted pursuant 92178
to this section are subject to appropriation by the board of 92179
county commissioners of the county; shall be disbursed by the 92180
county treasurer as required by division (C)(3) of this section; 92181
shall be used in the manners referred to in division (C)(3) of 92182
this section; shall not revert to the county general fund at the 92183
end of any fiscal year; shall carry over in the felony delinquent 92184
care and custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next 92185
fiscal year; shall be in addition to, and shall not be used to 92186
reduce, any usual annual increase in county funding that the 92187
juvenile court is eligible to receive or the current level of 92188
county funding of the juvenile court and of any programs, care, or 92189
services for alleged or adjudicated delinquent children, unruly 92190
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 92191
risk of becoming delinquent children, unruly children, or juvenile 92192
traffic offenders; and shall not be used to pay for the care and 92193
custody of felony deliquentsdelinquents who are in the care and 92194
custody of an institution pursuant to a commitment, recommitment, 92195
or revocation of a release on parole by the juvenile court of that 92196
county or who are in the care and custody of a community 92197
corrections facility pursuant to a placement by the department 92198
with the consent of the juvenile court as described in division 92199
(E) of section 5139.36 of the Revised Code.92200

       (5) As a condition of the continued receipt of state subsidy 92201
funds pursuant to this section, each county and the juvenile court 92202
that serves each county that receives an annual grant pursuant to 92203
this section shall comply with divisions (B)(3)(b), (c), and (d) 92204
of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code.92205

       Sec. 5145.162.  (A) There is hereby created the office of 92206
enterprise development advisory council of directors for prison 92207
labor consistingboard to advise and assist the department of 92208
rehabilitation and correction with the creation of training 92209
programs and jobs for inmates and releasees through partnerships 92210
with private sector businesses. The board shall consist of at 92211
least five appointed members and the executive director of the 92212
office of the correctional institution inspection committee, who 92213
shall serve as an ex officio member. Each member shall have 92214
experience in labor relations, marketing, business management, or 92215
business. The members and chairperson shall be appointed by the 92216
governordirector of the department of rehabilitation and 92217
correction. Within thirty days after April 9, 1981, the governor 92218
shall make the initial appointments to the council of directors. 92219
Of the initial appointments made to the council of directors, two 92220
shall be for a term ending one year after April 9, 1981, two shall 92221
be for a term ending two years after that date, and one shall be 92222
for a term ending three years after that date. After the 92223
expiration of the initial terms, the terms of office for the 92224
members shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day 92225
of the same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. 92226
Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until 92227
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any 92228
vacancy on the advisory council shall be filled by the governor. 92229
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 92230
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 92231
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the predecessor's 92232
term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the 92233
expiration date of the member's term until a successor takes 92234
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 92235
occurs first.92236

       (B) Each member of the advisory council, while engaged in the 92237
performance of the business of the advisory council,board shall 92238
receive no compensation but may be reimbursed for expenses 92239
actually and necessarily incurred in the performance of official 92240
duties of the board. Members of the board who are state employees 92241
shall be reimbursed for expenses pursuant to travel rules 92242
promulgated by the office of budget and management.92243

       (C) The advisory councilboard shall adopt procedures for the 92244
conduct of the board's meetings. The board shall meet within two 92245
weeks after the initial members have been appointed at a time and 92246
place determined by the governor. At its first meeting, the 92247
advisory council shall elect a chairperson and shall adopt rules 92248
for its procedures. The advisory council shall elect a new 92249
chairperson annually at its January meeting. The advisory council 92250
shall meet at least once every January and at least once every two 92251
months thereafterquarter, and otherwise shall meet at the call of 92252
the chairperson or upon the written request of at least a quorum 92253
of the members. Threedirector of the department of rehabilitation 92254
and correction. Sixty per cent of the members constitutesshall 92255
constitute a quorum, and no action. No transaction of the board's 92256
business shall be taken without the concurrence of a quorum of the 92257
members. The board may have committees with persons who are not 92258
members of the board but whose experience and expertise is 92259
relevant and useful to the work of the committee.92260

       (D) The advisory councilboard shall advise and assist the 92261
department of rehabilitation and correction when the department 92262
adopts rules pursuant to division (B) of section 5145.03 of the 92263
Revised Code, establishes prices for goods, products, services, or 92264
labor produced or supplied by prisoners, and otherwise establishes 92265
and administers the program for employment of prisoners 92266
established by the department pursuant to division (A) of section 92267
5145.16 of the Revised Code. The department shall consider the 92268
advice and assistance of the advisory council that is provided 92269
pursuant to this section, and shall cooperate with the advisory 92270
council. The advisory council may recommendhave the following 92271
duties:92272

       (1) Solicit business proposals offering job training, 92273
apprenticeship, education programs, and employment opportunities 92274
for inmates and releasees;92275

       (2) Provide information and input to the office of enterprise 92276
development to support the job training and employment program of 92277
inmates and releasees and any additional, related duties as 92278
requested by the director of the department of rehabilitation and 92279
correction;92280

       (3) Recommend to the general assemblyoffice of enterprise 92281
development any further legislation, administrative rule, or 92282
department policy change that itthe board believes is necessary 92283
to implement the department's program of employment of prisoners;92284

       (4) Promote public awareness of the office of enterprise 92285
development and the office's employment program;92286

       (5) Familiarize itself and the public with avenues to access 92287
the office of enterprise development on employment program 92288
concerns;92289

       (6) Advocate for the needs and concerns of the office of 92290
enterprise development in local communities, counties, and the 92291
state;92292

       (7) Play an active role in the office of enterprise 92293
development's efforts to reduce recidivism in the state by doing 92294
all of the following:92295

       (a) Providing input and making recommendations for the 92296
office's consideration in monitoring employment program compliance 92297
and effectiveness;92298

       (b) Making suggestions on the appropriate priorities for the 92299
office's grant award criteria;92300

       (c) Being a liaison between the office and constituents of 92301
the board's members;92302

       (d) Working to develop constituent groups interested in 92303
employment program issues;92304

       (8) Aid in the employment program development process by 92305
playing a leadership role in professional associations by 92306
discussing employment program issues.92307

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 92308
initially screen each proposal obtained under division (D)(1) of 92309
this section to ensure that the proposal is a viable venture to 92310
pursue. If the department determines that a proposal is a viable 92311
venture to pursue, the department shall submit the proposal to the 92312
board for objective review against established guidelines. The 92313
board shall determine whether to recommend the implementation of 92314
the program to the department.92315

       Sec. 5145.18.  Any printing or binding performed in a state 92316
correctional institution may be performed for the use of the 92317
institution, the departments of mental healthmental health and 92318
addiction services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation 92319
and correction, the department of public safety in connection with 92320
the registration of motor vehicles, and for any other purpose 92321
authorized by division (B) of section 5145.03 and by sections 92322
5145.16 and 5145.161 of the Revised Code.92323

       Sec. 5153.16.  (A) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of 92324
the Revised Code, in accordance with rules adopted under section 92325
5153.166 of the Revised Code, and on behalf of children in the 92326
county whom the public children services agency considers to be in 92327
need of public care or protective services, the public children 92328
services agency shall do all of the following:92329

       (1) Make an investigation concerning any child alleged to be 92330
an abused, neglected, or dependent child;92331

       (2) Enter into agreements with the parent, guardian, or other 92332
person having legal custody of any child, or with the department 92333
of job and family services, department of mental healthmental 92334
health and addiction services, department of developmental 92335
disabilities, other department, any certified organization within 92336
or outside the county, or any agency or institution outside the 92337
state, having legal custody of any child, with respect to the 92338
custody, care, or placement of any child, or with respect to any 92339
matter, in the interests of the child, provided the permanent 92340
custody of a child shall not be transferred by a parent to the 92341
public children services agency without the consent of the 92342
juvenile court;92343

       (3) Accept custody of children committed to the public 92344
children services agency by a court exercising juvenile 92345
jurisdiction;92346

       (4) Provide such care as the public children services agency 92347
considers to be in the best interests of any child adjudicated to 92348
be an abused, neglected, or dependent child the agency finds to be 92349
in need of public care or service;92350

       (5) Provide social services to any unmarried girl adjudicated 92351
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child who is pregnant 92352
with or has been delivered of a child;92353

       (6) Make available to the bureau for children with medical 92354
handicaps of the department of health at its request any 92355
information concerning a crippled child found to be in need of 92356
treatment under sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the Revised Code 92357
who is receiving services from the public children services 92358
agency;92359

       (7) Provide temporary emergency care for any child considered 92360
by the public children services agency to be in need of such care, 92361
without agreement or commitment;92362

       (8) Find certified foster homes, within or outside the 92363
county, for the care of children, including handicapped children 92364
from other counties attending special schools in the county;92365

       (9) Subject to the approval of the board of county 92366
commissioners and the state department of job and family services, 92367
establish and operate a training school or enter into an agreement 92368
with any municipal corporation or other political subdivision of 92369
the county respecting the operation, acquisition, or maintenance 92370
of any children's home, training school, or other institution for 92371
the care of children maintained by such municipal corporation or 92372
political subdivision;92373

       (10) Acquire and operate a county children's home, establish, 92374
maintain, and operate a receiving home for the temporary care of 92375
children, or procure certified foster homes for this purpose;92376

       (11) Enter into an agreement with the trustees of any 92377
district children's home, respecting the operation of the district 92378
children's home in cooperation with the other county boards in the 92379
district;92380

       (12) Cooperate with, make its services available to, and act 92381
as the agent of persons, courts, the department of job and family 92382
services, the department of health, and other organizations within 92383
and outside the state, in matters relating to the welfare of 92384
children, except that the public children services agency shall 92385
not be required to provide supervision of or other services 92386
related to the exercise of parenting time rights granted pursuant 92387
to section 3109.051 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code or 92388
companionship or visitation rights granted pursuant to section 92389
3109.051, 3109.11, or 3109.12 of the Revised Code unless a 92390
juvenile court, pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code, or 92391
a common pleas court, pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 92392
3113.31 of the Revised Code, requires the provision of supervision 92393
or other services related to the exercise of the parenting time 92394
rights or companionship or visitation rights;92395

       (13) Make investigations at the request of any superintendent 92396
of schools in the county or the principal of any school concerning 92397
the application of any child adjudicated to be an abused, 92398
neglected, or dependent child for release from school, where such 92399
service is not provided through a school attendance department;92400

       (14) Administer funds provided under Title IV-E of the 92401
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 501 (1980), 42 U.S.C.A. 671, as 92402
amended, in accordance with rules adopted under section 5101.141 92403
of the Revised Code;92404

       (15) In addition to administering Title IV-E adoption 92405
assistance funds, enter into agreements to make adoption 92406
assistance payments under section 5153.163 of the Revised Code;92407

       (16) Implement a system of safety and risk assessment, in 92408
accordance with rules adopted by the director of job and family 92409
services, to assist the public children services agency in 92410
determining the risk of abuse or neglect to a child;92411

       (17) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of 92412
county commissioners under section 307.983 of the Revised Code and 92413
comply with each fiscal agreement the board enters into under 92414
section 307.98 of the Revised Code that include family services 92415
duties of public children services agencies and contracts the 92416
board enters into under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the 92417
Revised Code that affect the public children services agency;92418

       (18) Make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of an 92419
alleged or adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent child from 92420
the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of the child 92421
from the child's home, or make it possible for the child to return 92422
home safely, except that reasonable efforts of that nature are not 92423
required when a court has made a determination under division 92424
(A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code;92425

       (19) Make reasonable efforts to place the child in a timely 92426
manner in accordance with the permanency plan approved under 92427
division (E) of section 2151.417 of the Revised Code and to 92428
complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent 92429
placement of the child;92430

       (20) Administer a Title IV-A program identified under 92431
division (A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised 92432
Code that the department of job and family services provides for 92433
the public children services agency to administer under the 92434
department's supervision pursuant to section 5101.801 of the 92435
Revised Code;92436

       (21) Administer the kinship permanency incentive program 92437
created under section 5101.802 of the Revised Code under the 92438
supervision of the director of job and family services;92439

       (22) Provide independent living services pursuant to sections 92440
2151.81 to 2151.84 of the Revised Code;92441

       (23) File a missing child report with a local law enforcement 92442
agency upon becoming aware that a child in the custody of the 92443
public children services agency is or may be missing.92444

       (B) The public children services agency shall use the system 92445
implemented pursuant to division (A)(16) of this section in 92446
connection with an investigation undertaken pursuant to division 92447
(F)(1) of section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to assess both of 92448
the following:92449

       (1) The ongoing safety of the child;92450

       (2) The appropriateness of the intensity and duration of the 92451
services provided to meet child and family needs throughout the 92452
duration of a case.92453

       (C) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised 92454
Code, in accordance with rules of the director of job and family 92455
services, and on behalf of children in the county whom the public 92456
children services agency considers to be in need of public care or 92457
protective services, the public children services agency may do 92458
the following:92459

       (1) Provide or find, with other child serving systems, 92460
specialized foster care for the care of children in a specialized 92461
foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, 92462
certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;92463

       (2)(a) Except as limited by divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of 92464
this section, contract with the following for the purpose of 92465
assisting the agency with its duties:92466

       (i) County departments of job and family services;92467

       (ii) Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 92468
services;92469

       (iii) County boards of developmental disabilities;92470

       (iv) Regional councils of political subdivisions established 92471
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code;92472

       (v) Private and government providers of services;92473

       (vi) Managed care organizations and prepaid health plans.92474

       (b) A public children services agency contract under division 92475
(C)(2)(a) of this section regarding the agency's duties under 92476
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code may not provide for the 92477
entity under contract with the agency to perform any service not 92478
authorized by the department's rules.92479

       (c) Only a county children services board appointed under 92480
section 5153.03 of the Revised Code that is a public children 92481
services agency may contract under division (C)(2)(a) of this 92482
section. If an entity specified in division (B) or (C) of section 92483
5153.02 of the Revised Code is the public children services agency 92484
for a county, the board of county commissioners may enter into 92485
contracts pursuant to section 307.982 of the Revised Code 92486
regarding the agency's duties.92487

       Sec. 5160.01.  As used in this chapter:92488

       (A) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 92489
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 92490
1396n(h)(2)(B). A dual eligible individual is a medicare-medicaid 92491
enrollee (MME).92492

       (B) "Exchange" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 155.20.92493

       (C) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 92494
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 92495
implementing a medical assistance program.92496

       (D) "Medical assistance program" means all of the following:92497

       (1) The medicaid program;92498

       (2) The children's health insurance program;92499

       (3) The refugee medical assistance program;92500

       (4) Any other program that provides medical assistance and 92501
state statutes authorize the department of medicaid to administer.92502

       (E) "Medical assistance recipient" means a recipient of a 92503
medical assistance program. To the extent appropriate in the 92504
context, "medical assistance recipient" includes an individual 92505
applying for a medical assistance program, a former medical 92506
assistance recipient, or both.92507

       (F) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 92508
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.92509

       (G) "Refugee medical assistance program" means the program 92510
that the department of medicaid administers pursuant to section 92511
5160.50 of the Revised Code.92512

       Sec. 5160.011.  References to the department or director of 92513
public welfare, department or director of human services, 92514
department or director of job and family services, office of 92515
medical assistance, or medical assistance director in any statute, 92516
rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the 92517
department of medicaid or medicaid director, as the case may be, 92518
to the extent the reference is about a duty or authority of the 92519
department of medicaid or medicaid director regarding a medical 92520
assistance program.92521

       Sec. 5160.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 92522
necessary to implement this chapter.92523

       Sec. 5160.021.  (A) When the medicaid director is authorized 92524
by a statute to adopt a rule, the director shall adopt the rule in 92525
accordance with the following:92526

       (1) Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if either of the 92527
following applies:92528

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 92529
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.92530

       (b) Unless division (A)(2)(b) of this section applies, the 92531
statute authorizing the rule does not specify the procedure for 92532
the rule's adoption.92533

       (2) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, excluding divisions 92534
(D) and (E) of that section, if either of the following applies:92535

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 92536
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 92537
and, by the terms of division (D) of that section, division (D) of 92538
that section does not apply to the rule.92539

       (b) The statute authorizing the rule does not specify the 92540
procedure for the rule's adoption and the rule concerns the 92541
day-to-day staff procedures and operations of the department of 92542
medicaid or financial and operational matters between the 92543
department and a person or government entity receiving a grant 92544
from the department.92545

       (3) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, including divisions 92546
(D) and (E) of that section, if the statute authorizing the rule 92547
requires that the rule be adopted in accordance with that section 92548
and the rule is not exempt from the application of division (D) of 92549
that section.92550

       (B) Except as otherwise required by a statute, the adoption 92551
of a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code does 92552
not make the department of medicaid subject to the notice, 92553
hearing, or other requirements of sections 119.06 to 119.13 of the 92554
Revised Code.92555

       Sec. 5160.03.  The medicaid director is the executive head of 92556
the department of medicaid. All duties conferred on the department 92557
by law or order of the director are under the director's control 92558
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the director 92559
adopts.92560

       Sec. 5160.04.  The medicaid director shall appoint one 92561
assistant director for the department of medicaid. The assistant 92562
director shall exercise powers, and perform duties, as ordered by 92563
the medicaid director. The assistant director shall act as the 92564
medicaid director in the medicaid director's absence or disability 92565
and when the position of medicaid director is vacant.92566

       Sec. 5160.05.  The medicaid director may appoint such 92567
employees as are necessary for the efficient operation of the 92568
department of medicaid. The director may prescribe the title and 92569
duties of the employees.92570

       Sec. 5160.051.  If the medicaid director determines that a 92571
position with the department of medicaid can best be filled in 92572
accordance with division (A)(2) of section 124.30 of the Revised 92573
Code or without regard to a residency requirement established by a 92574
rule adopted by the director of administrative services, the 92575
medicaid director shall provide the director of administrative 92576
services certification of the determination.92577

       Sec. 5160.052.  The department of medicaid shall collaborate 92578
with the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 92579
and investigation to develop procedures and formats necessary to 92580
produce the notices described in division (C) of section 109.5721 92581
of the Revised Code in a format that is acceptable for use by the 92582
department. The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 92583
5160.02 of the Revised Code necessary for such collaboration. Any 92584
such rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of 92585
the Revised Code as if they were internal management rules.92586

       The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 92587
of the Revised Code necessary for utilizing the information 92588
received pursuant to section 109.5721 of the Revised Code. The 92589
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 92590
Revised Code.92591

       Sec. 5160.06.  The medicaid director may require any of the 92592
employees of the department of medicaid who may be charged with 92593
custody or control of any public money or property or who is 92594
required to give bond, to give a bond, properly conditioned, in a 92595
sum to be fixed by the director which when approved by the 92596
director, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state. 92597
The cost of such bonds, when approved by the director, shall be 92598
paid from funds available for the department. The bonds required 92599
or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of the 92600
director, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.92601

       Sec. 5160.10.  The medicaid director may expend funds 92602
appropriated or available to the department of medicaid from 92603
persons and government entities. For purposes of this section, the 92604
director may enter into contracts or agreements with persons and 92605
government entities and make grants to persons and government 92606
entities. To the extent permitted by federal law, the director may 92607
advance funds to a grantee when necessary for the grantee to 92608
perform duties under the grant as specified by the director.92609

       The director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 of the 92610
Revised Code as necessary to define terms and adopt procedures and 92611
other provisions necessary to implement this section.92612

       Sec. 5160.11.  The state health care grants fund is hereby 92613
created in the state treasury. Money the department of medicaid 92614
receives from private foundations in support of pilot projects 92615
that promote exemplary programs that enhance programs the 92616
department administers shall be credited to the fund. The 92617
department may expend the money on such projects, may use the 92618
money, to the extent allowable, to match federal financial 92619
participation in support of such projects, and shall comply with 92620
requirements the foundations have stipulated in their agreements 92621
with the department as to the purposes for which the money may be 92622
expended.92623

       Sec. 5160.12.  (A) As used in this section, "entity" includes 92624
an agency, board, commission, or department of the state or a 92625
political subdivision of the state; a private, nonprofit entity; a 92626
school district; a private school; or a public or private 92627
institution of higher education.92628

       (B) This section does not apply to contracts entered into 92629
under section 5162.32 or 5162.35 of the Revised Code.92630

       (C) At the request of any public entity having authority to 92631
implement a program administered by the department of medicaid or 92632
any private entity under contract with a public entity to 92633
implement a program administered by the department, the department 92634
may seek to obtain federal financial participation for costs 92635
incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may be 92636
sought from programs operated pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social 92637
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., and any other statute or 92638
regulation under which federal financial participation may be 92639
available, except that federal financial participation may be 92640
sought only for expenditures made with funds for which federal 92641
financial participation is available under federal law.92642

       (D) All funds collected by the department pursuant to 92643
division (C) of this section shall be distributed to the entities 92644
that incurred the costs.92645

       (E) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 92646
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 92647
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 92648
funds in accordance with rules authorized by division (H) of this 92649
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 92650
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 92651
of the following:92652

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 92653
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;92654

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 92655
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 92656
the department or the entity, whichever party caused the 92657
disallowance or unavailability of federal financial participation, 92658
to assume responsibility for the expenditures;92659

       (3) Require the entity to certify to the department the 92660
availability of sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal 92661
financial participation the entity receives under this section;92662

       (4) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 92663
fixed or a continuing period of time;92664

       (5) Establish any other requirements determined by the 92665
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 92666
agreement.92667

       (F) An entity that receives federal financial participation 92668
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 92669
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 92670
the department for the use of the funds to improve and expand the 92671
program.92672

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 92673
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 92674
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.92675

       (H) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 92676
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 92677
section, including rules for the distribution of federal financial 92678
participation pursuant to this section. The rules shall be adopted 92679
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.92680

       Sec. 5160.13.  The department of medicaid may enter into 92681
contracts with private entities to maximize federal revenue 92682
without the expenditure of state money. In selecting private 92683
entities with which to contract, the department shall engage in a 92684
request for proposals process. The department, subject to the 92685
approval of the controlling board, may also directly enter into 92686
contracts with public entities providing revenue maximization 92687
services.92688

       Sec. 5160.16.  The department of medicaid may appoint and 92689
commission any competent person to serve as a special agent, 92690
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 92691
and on behalf of the department. Specific credentials shall be 92692
given by the department to each person so designated, and each 92693
credential shall state the following:92694

       (A) The person's name;92695

       (B) The agency with which the person is connected;92696

       (C) The purpose of the appointment;92697

       (D) The date the appointment expires, if appropriate;92698

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.92699

       Sec. 5160.20.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct any 92700
audits or investigations that are necessary in the performance of 92701
the department's duties, and to that end, the department has the 92702
same power as a judge of a county court to administer oaths and to 92703
enforce the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the 92704
production of books or papers.92705

       The department shall keep a record of the department's audits 92706
and investigations stating the time, place, charges, or subject; 92707
witnesses summoned and examined; and the department's conclusions.92708

       Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for 92709
under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.92710

       (B) Any judge of any division of the court of common pleas, 92711
on application of the department, may compel the attendance of 92712
witnesses, the production of books or papers, and the giving of 92713
testimony before the department, by a judgment for contempt or 92714
otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before those courts.92715

       (C) Until an audit report is formally released by the 92716
department, the audit report or any working paper or other 92717
document or record prepared by the department and related to the 92718
audit that is the subject of the audit report is not a public 92719
record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.92720

       (D) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 92721
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 92722
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 92723
111.15 of the Revised Code as if they were internal management 92724
rules.92725

       Sec. 5160.21.  On the request of the medicaid director, the 92726
auditor of state may conduct an audit of any medical assistance 92727
recipient. If the auditor decides to conduct an audit under this 92728
section, the auditor shall enter into an interagency agreement 92729
with the department of medicaid that specifies that the auditor 92730
agrees to comply with section 5160.45 of the Revised Code with 92731
respect to any information the auditor receives pursuant to the 92732
audit.92733

       Sec. 5160.22.  (A) The auditor of state and attorney general, 92734
or their designees, may examine any records, whether in computer 92735
or printed format, in the possession of the medicaid director or 92736
any county director of job and family services, regarding medical 92737
assistance programs. The auditor of state and attorney general 92738
shall do both of the following regarding the records:92739

       (1) Provide safeguards that restrict access to the records to 92740
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 92741
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 92742
connection with the administration of the programs;92743

       (2) Comply, and ensure that their designees comply, with 92744
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code and rules of the medicaid 92745
director restricting the disclosure of information regarding 92746
medical assistance recipients.92747

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with the restriction 92748
specified in division (A) of this section is disqualified from 92749
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 92750
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 92751
agency.92752

       Sec. 5160.23.  The auditor of state is responsible for the 92753
costs the auditor incurs in carrying out the auditor's duties 92754
under sections 5160.21 and 5160.22 of the Revised Code.92755

       Sec. 5160.30.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 92756
(C) of this section, the department of medicaid may accept 92757
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 92758
perform related administrative activities for medical assistance 92759
programs.92760

       (B) The department may enter into agreements with one or more 92761
agencies of the federal government, the state, other states, and 92762
local governments of this or other states to accept applications, 92763
determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and perform 92764
related administrative activities on behalf of the department with 92765
respect to medical assistance programs.92766

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 92767
complete an eligibility determination for a medical assistance 92768
program, the department shall not conduct the face-to-face 92769
interview.92770

       (D) Subject to division (C) of this section, if the 92771
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 92772
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 92773
activities for a medical assistance program, both of the following 92774
apply:92775

       (1) An individual may apply for the medical assistance 92776
program to the department or an agency authorized by an agreement 92777
entered into under division (B) of this section to accept the 92778
individual's application;92779

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 92780
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 92781
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 92782
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 92783
administrative activities for the medical assistance program.92784

       Sec. 5160.31.  (A) A medical assistance recipient may appeal 92785
a decision regarding the recipient's eligibility for a medical 92786
assistance program or services available to the recipient under a 92787
medical assistance program.92788

       (B) Regarding appeals authorized by this section, the 92789
department of medicaid shall do one or more of the following:92790

       (1) Administer an appeals process similar to the appeals 92791
process established under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;92792

        (2) Contract with the department of job and family services 92793
pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code to provide for the 92794
department of job and family services to hear the appeals in 92795
accordance with section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;92796

        (3) Delegate authority to hear appeals to an exchange or 92797
exchange appeals entity.92798

       (C) If a medical assistance recipient files an appeal as 92799
authorized by this section, the department of medicaid may do 92800
either or both of the following:92801

       (1) Take corrective action regarding the matter being 92802
appealed before a hearing decision regarding the matter is issued;92803

       (2) If a hearing decision, administrative appeal decision, or 92804
court ruling is against the recipient, take action in favor of the 92805
recipient despite the contrary decision or ruling, unless, in the 92806
case of a court's ruling, the ruling prohibits the department from 92807
taking the action.92808

       Sec. 5101.571.        Sec. 5160.35.  As used in sections 5101.5715160.3592809
to 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code:92810

       (A) "Information" means all of the following:92811

       (1) An individual's name, address, date of birth, and social 92812
security number;92813

       (2) The group or plan number, or other identifier, assigned 92814
by a third party to a policy held by an individual or a plan in 92815
which the individual participates and the nature of the coverage;92816

       (3) Any other data the medicaid director of job and family 92817
services specifies in rules adopted underauthorized by section 92818
5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code.92819

       (B) "Medical assistance" means medical items or services 92820
provided under any of the following:92821

       (1) Medicaid, as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised 92822
Code;92823

       (2) The children's health insurance program part I, part II, 92824
and part III established under sections 5101.50, 5101.51, and 92825
5101.52 of the Revised Code.92826

       (C) "Medical support" means support specified as support for 92827
the purpose of medical care by order of a court or administrative 92828
agency.92829

       (D) "Public assistance" means medical assistance or 92830
assistance under the Ohio works first program established under 92831
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.92832

       (E)(C)(1) Subject to division (E)(C)(2) of this section, and 92833
except as provided in division (E)(C)(3) of this section, "third 92834
party" means all of the following:92835

       (a) A person authorized to engage in the business of sickness 92836
and accident insurance under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code;92837

       (b) A person or governmental entity providing coverage for 92838
medical services or items to individuals on a self-insurance 92839
basis;92840

       (c) A health insuring corporation as defined in section 92841
1751.01 of the Revised Code;92842

       (d) A group health plan as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1167;92843

       (e) A service benefit plan as referenced in 42 U.S.C. 92844
1396a(a)(25);92845

       (f) A managed care organization;92846

       (g) A pharmacy benefit manager;92847

       (h) A third party administrator;92848

       (i) Any other person or governmental entity that is, by law, 92849
contract, or agreement, responsible for the payment or processing 92850
of a claim for a medical item or service for a publicmedical92851
assistance recipient or participant.92852

       (2) Except when otherwise provided by the "Social Security 92853
Act," section 1862(b), 42 U.S.C. 1395y(b), a person or 92854
governmental entity listed in division (E)(C)(1) of this section 92855
is a third party even if the person or governmental entity limits 92856
or excludes payments for a medical item or service in the case of 92857
a public assistance recipient.92858

       (3) "Third party" does not include the program for medically 92859
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 92860
Revised Code.92861

       Sec. 5160.36.  Enrollment in a medical assistance program 92862
gives a right of subrogation to the department of medicaid for any 92863
workers' compensation benefits payable to a person who is subject 92864
to a support order, as defined in section 3119.01 of the Revised 92865
Code, on behalf of the medical assistance recipient, to the extent 92866
of any payments made under the medical assistance program on the 92867
recipient's behalf. If the department, in consultation with a 92868
child support enforcement agency and the administrator of the 92869
bureau of workers' compensation, determines that a person 92870
responsible for support payments to a medical assistance recipient 92871
is receiving workers' compensation, the department shall notify 92872
the administrator of the amount of the benefit to be paid to the 92873
department.92874

       Sec. 5101.58.        Sec. 5160.37. (A) The acceptance of publicA medical 92875
assistance recipient's enrollment in a medical assistance program92876
gives an automatic right of recovery to the department of job and 92877
family servicesmedicaid and a county department of job and family 92878
services against the liability of a third party for the cost of 92879
medical assistance paid on behalf of the public assistance92880
recipient or participant. When an action or claim is brought 92881
against a third party by a publicmedical assistance recipient or 92882
participant, any payment, settlement or compromise of the action 92883
or claim, or any court award or judgment, is subject to the 92884
recovery right of the department of job and family services92885
medicaid or county department of job and family services. Except 92886
in the case of a medical assistance recipient or participant who 92887
receives medical assistance through a medicaid managed care 92888
organization, the department's or county department's claim shall 92889
not exceed the amount of medical assistance paid by athe 92890
department or county department on behalf of the recipient or 92891
participant. A payment, settlement, compromise, judgment, or award 92892
that excludes the cost of medical assistance paid for by athe 92893
department or county department shall not preclude a department 92894
from enforcing its rights under this section.92895

       (B) In the case of a medical assistance recipient or 92896
participant who receives medical assistance through a medicaid92897
managed care organization, the amount of the department's or 92898
county department's claim shall be the amount the medicaid managed 92899
care organization pays for medical assistance rendered to the 92900
recipient or participant, even if that amount is more than the 92901
amount athe department or county department pays to the medicaid92902
managed care organization for the recipient's or participant's92903
medical assistance.92904

        (C) A medical assistance recipient or participant, and the 92905
recipient's or participant's attorney, if any, shall cooperate 92906
with the departments. In furtherance of this requirement, the 92907
medical assistance recipient or participant, or the recipient's or 92908
participant's attorney, if any, shall, not later than thirty days 92909
after initiating informal recovery activity or filing a legal 92910
recovery action against a third party, provide written notice of 92911
the activity or action to the department of job and family 92912
services whenmedicaid or county department if it has paid for92913
medical assistance under medicaid has been paida medical 92914
assistance program.92915

       (D) The written notice that must be given under division (C) 92916
of this section shall disclose the identity and address of any 92917
third party against whom the medical assistance recipient or 92918
participant has or may have a right of recovery.92919

       (E) No settlement, compromise, judgment, or award or any 92920
recovery in any action or claim by a medical assistance recipient 92921
or participant where the departments havedepartment or county 92922
department has a right of recovery shall be made final without 92923
first giving the appropriate departmentsdepartment or county 92924
department written notice as described in division (C) of this 92925
section and a reasonable opportunity to perfect theirits rights 92926
of recovery. If the departments aredepartment or county 92927
department is not given the appropriate written notice, the 92928
medical assistance recipient or participant and, if there is one, 92929
the recipient's or participant's attorney, are liable to reimburse 92930
the departmentsdepartment or county department for the recovery 92931
received to the extent of medical assistance payments made by the 92932
departmentsdepartment or county department.92933

       (F) The departmentsdepartment or county department shall be 92934
permitted to enforce theirits recovery rights against the third 92935
party even though theyit accepted prior payments in discharge of 92936
theirits rights under this section if, at the time the 92937
departmentsdepartment or county department received such 92938
payments, they wereit was not aware that additional medical 92939
expenses had been incurred but had not yet been paid by the 92940
departmentsdepartment or county department. The third party 92941
becomes liable to the department of job and family services or 92942
county department of job and family services as soon as the third 92943
party is notified in writing of the valid claims for recovery 92944
under this section.92945

        (G)(1) Subject to division (G)(2) of this section, the right 92946
of recovery of athe department or county department does not 92947
apply to that portion of any judgment, award, settlement, or 92948
compromise of a claim, to the extent of attorneys' fees, costs, or 92949
other expenses incurred by a medical assistance recipient or 92950
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 92951
compromise, or to the extent of medical, surgical, and hospital 92952
expenses paid by such recipient or participant from the 92953
recipient's or participant's own resources.92954

        (2) Reasonable attorneys' fees, not to exceed one-third of 92955
the total judgment, award, settlement, or compromise, plus costs 92956
and other expenses incurred by the medical assistance recipient or 92957
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 92958
compromise, shall first be deducted from the total judgment, 92959
award, settlement, or compromise. After fees, costs, and other 92960
expenses are deducted from the total judgment, award, settlement, 92961
or compromise, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid92962
or appropriate county department of job and family services shall 92963
receive no less than one-half of the remaining amount, or the 92964
actual amount of medical assistance paid, whichever is less.92965

       (H) A right of recovery created by this section may be 92966
enforced separately or jointly by the department of job and family 92967
servicesmedicaid or the appropriate county department of job and 92968
family services. To enforce theirits recovery rights, the 92969
departmentsdepartment or county department may do any of the 92970
following:92971

       (1) Intervene or join in any action or proceeding brought by 92972
the medical assistance recipient or participant or on the 92973
recipient's or participant's behalf against any third party who 92974
may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;92975

       (2) Institute and pursue legal proceedings against any third 92976
party who may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;92977

       (3) Initiate legal proceedings in conjunction with any 92978
injured, diseased, or disabled medical assistance recipient or 92979
participant or the recipient's or participant's attorney or 92980
representative.92981

       (I) A medical assistance recipient or participant shall not 92982
assess attorney fees, costs, or other expenses against the 92983
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a county 92984
department of job and family services when the department or 92985
county department enforces its right of recovery created by this 92986
section.92987

       (J) The right of recovery given to the department under this 92988
section does not include rights to support from any other person 92989
assigned to the state under sections 5107.20 and 5115.07 of the 92990
Revised Code, but includes payments made by a third party under 92991
contract with a person having a duty to support.92992

       (K) The department of medicaid may assign to a medical 92993
assistance provider the right of recovery given to the department 92994
under this section with respect to any claim for which the 92995
department has notified the provider that the department intends 92996
to recoup the department's prior payment for the claim.92997

       Sec. 5160.371.  In addition to the requirement of division 92998
(C) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to cooperate with the 92999
department of medicaid and county department of job and family 93000
services, a medical assistance recipient and the recipient's 93001
attorney, if any, shall cooperate with each medical provider of 93002
the recipient. Cooperation with a medical provider shall consist 93003
of disclosing to the provider all information the recipient and 93004
attorney, if any, possess that would assist the provider in 93005
determining each third party that is responsible for the payment 93006
or processing of a claim for medical assistance provided to the 93007
recipient. If disclosure is not made in accordance with this 93008
section, the recipient and the recipient's attorney, if any, are 93009
liable to reimburse the department or county department for the 93010
amount that would have been paid by a third party had the third 93011
party been disclosed to the provider by the recipient or the 93012
recipient's attorney.93013

       Sec. 5101.59.        Sec. 5160.38.  (A) The application for, or acceptance 93014
ofenrollment in, publica medical assistance program constitutes 93015
an automatic assignment of certain rights specified in division 93016
(B) of this section to the department of job and family services93017
medicaid. This assignment includes the rights of the applicant,93018
medical assistance recipient, or participant and also the rights 93019
of any other member of the assistance group for whom the 93020
applicant, recipient, or participant can legally make an 93021
assignment.93022

       (B) Pursuant to this section, the applicant,a medical 93023
assistance recipient, or participant assigns to the department any 93024
rights to medical support available to the applicant, recipient, 93025
or participant or for other members of the recipient's assistance 93026
group under an order of a court or administrative agency, and any 93027
rights to payments by a liable third party for the cost of medical 93028
assistance paid on behalf of a public assistancethe recipient or 93029
participantor other members of the assistance group. The 93030
recipient or participant shall cooperate with the department in 93031
obtaining such payments.93032

       Medicare benefits shall not be assigned pursuant to this 93033
section. Benefits assigned to the department by operation of this 93034
section are directly reimbursable to the department by liable 93035
third parties.93036

       (C) Refusal by the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, 93037
or participant to cooperate in obtaining medical assistance paid 93038
for self or any other member of the recipient's assistance group 93039
renders the applicant, recipient, or participant ineligible for 93040
publica medical assistance program, unless cooperation is waived 93041
by the department. Eligibility shall continue for any individual 93042
who cannot legally assign the individual's own rights and who 93043
would have been eligible for publica medical assistance program93044
but for the refusal to assign the individual's rights or to 93045
cooperate as required by this section by another person legally 93046
able to assign the individual's rights.93047

       (D) If the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, or 93048
participant or any member of the recipient's assistance group 93049
becomes ineligible for publica medical assistance program, the 93050
department shall restore to the applicant, recipient, participant,93051
or member of the assistance group member any future rights to 93052
benefits assigned under this section.93053

       (E) The rights of assignment given to the department under 93054
this section do not include rights to support assigned under 93055
section 5107.20 or 5115.07 of the Revised Code.93056

       Sec. 5101.572.        Sec. 5160.39.  (A) A third party shall cooperate 93057
with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid in 93058
identifying individuals for the purpose of establishing third 93059
party liability pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 93060
as amendedregarding medical assistance programs.93061

       (B) In furtherance of the requirement in division (A) of this 93062
section and to allow the department to determine any period that 93063
the individual or the individual's spouse or dependent may have 93064
been covered by the third party and the nature of the coverage, a 93065
third party shall provide, as the department so chooses, 93066
information or access to information, or both, in the third 93067
party's electronic data system on the department's request and in 93068
accordance with division (C) of this section.93069

       (C)(1) If the department chooses to receive information 93070
directly, the third party shall provide the information under all 93071
of the following circumstances:93072

       (a) In a medium, format, and manner prescribed by the 93073
director of job and family services in rules adopted under93074
authorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code;93075

       (b) Free of charge;93076

       (c) Not later than the end of the thirtieth day after the 93077
department makes its request, unless a different time is agreed to 93078
by the director in writing.93079

       (2) If the department chooses to receive access to 93080
information, the third party shall provide access by a method 93081
prescribed by the director of job and family services in rules 93082
adopted underauthorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the 93083
Revised Code. In facilitating access, the department may enter 93084
into a trading partner agreement with the third party to permit 93085
the exchange of information via "ASC X 12N 270/271 Health Care 93086
Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response" transactions.93087

       (D) All of the following apply with respect to information 93088
provided by a third party to the department under this section:93089

       (1) The information is confidential and not a public record 93090
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.93091

       (2) The release of information to the department is not to be 93092
considered a violation of any right of confidentiality or contract 93093
that the third party may have with covered persons including, but 93094
not limited to, contractees, beneficiaries, heirs, assignees, and 93095
subscribers.93096

       (3) The third party is immune from any liability that it may 93097
otherwise incur through its release of information to the 93098
department.93099

       The department of job and family services shall limit its use 93100
of information gained from third parties to purposes directly 93101
connected with the administration of the medicaid program and the 93102
child support program authorized by Title IV-D of the "Social 93103
Security Act.," 42 U.S.C. 651 et seq.93104

       (E) No third party shall disclose to other parties or make 93105
use of any information regarding medical assistance recipients of 93106
aid under Chapter 5107. or 5111. of the Revised Code that it 93107
obtains from the department, except in the manner provided for by 93108
the director of job and family services in administrative rules 93109
authorized by section 5160.43 of the Revised Code.93110

       Sec. 5101.573.        Sec. 5160.40. (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) 93111
of this section, a third party shall do all of the following:93112

       (1) Accept the department of job and family services'93113
medicaid's right of recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the 93114
Revised Code and the assignment of rights to the department that 93115
are described in section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;93116

       (2) Respond to an inquiry by the department regarding a claim 93117
for payment of a medical item or service that was submitted to the 93118
third party not later than six years after the date of the 93119
provision of such medical item or service;93120

       (3) Not charge a fee to do either of the following for a 93121
claim described in division (A)(2) of this section:93122

       (a) Determine whether the claim should be paid;93123

       (b) Process the claim.93124

       (4) Pay a claim described in division (A)(2) of this section;93125

       (5) Not deny a claim submitted by the department solely on 93126
the basis of the date of submission of the claim, type or format 93127
of the claim form, or a failure by the medical assistance 93128
recipient who is the subject of the claim to present proper 93129
documentation of coverage at the time of service, if both of the 93130
following are truehave occurred:93131

       (a) The claim was submitted by the department not later than 93132
six years after the date of the provision of the medical item or 93133
service.93134

       (b) An action by the department to enforce its right of 93135
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code on the 93136
claim was commenced not later than six years after the 93137
department's submission of the claim.93138

       (6) Consider the department's payment of a claim for a 93139
medical item or service to be the equivalent of the medical 93140
assistance recipient having obtained prior authorization for the 93141
item or service from the third party;93142

       (7) Not deny a claim described in division (A)(6) of this 93143
section that is submitted by the department solely on the basis of 93144
the medical assistance recipient's failure to obtain prior 93145
authorization for the medical item or service.93146

       (B) For purposes of the requirements in division (A) of this 93147
section, a third party shall treat a medicaid managed care 93148
organization as the department for a claim in which both of the 93149
following are true:93150

       (1) Theif the individual who is the subject of the claim 93151
received a medical item or service through a medicaid managed care 93152
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 93153
of job and family services under section 5111.17 of the Revised 93154
Code;93155

       (2) Theand the department has assigned its right of recovery 93156
for the claim to the medicaid managed care organization.93157

       (C) If the department of medicaid, as permitted by division 93158
(K) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code, assigns to a medical 93159
assistance provider the department's right of recovery for a claim 93160
for which it has notified the provider that it intends to recoup 93161
its prior payment for a claim, a third party shall treat the 93162
provider as the department and shall pay the provider the greater 93163
of the following:93164

        (1) The amount the department intends to recoup from the 93165
provider for the claim.93166

        (2) If the third party and the provider have an agreement 93167
that requires the third party to pay the provider at the time the 93168
provider presents the claim to the third party, the amount that is 93169
to be paid under that agreement.93170

        (D) The time limitations associated with the requirements in 93171
divisions (A)(2) and (5) of this section apply only to submissions 93172
of claims to, and payments of claims by, a health insurer to which 93173
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(25)(I), 42 U.S.C. 93174
1396a(a)(25)(I), applies.93175

       Sec. 5101.574.        Sec. 5160.41.  No third party shall consider whether 93176
an individual is eligible for or receivesenrolled in a medical 93177
assistance program when either of the following applies:93178

       (A) The individual seeks to obtain a policy or enroll in a 93179
plan or program operated or administered by the third party;93180

       (B) The individual, or a person or governmental entity on the 93181
individual's behalf, seeks payment for a medical item or service 93182
provided to the individual.93183

       Sec. 5101.575.        Sec. 5160.42. (A) If a third party violates section 93184
5101.5725160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the 93185
Revised Code, a governmental entity that is responsible for 93186
issuing a license, certificate of authority, registration, or 93187
approval that authorizes the third party to do business in this 93188
state may impose a fine against the third party or deny, revoke, 93189
or terminate the third party's license, certificate, registration, 93190
or approval to do business in this state. The governmental entity 93191
shall determine which sanction is to be imposed. All actions to 93192
impose the sanction shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. 93193
of the Revised Code.93194

       (B) In addition to the sanctions that may be imposed under 93195
division (A) of this section for a violation of section 5101.57293196
5160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the Revised 93197
Code, the attorney general may petition a court of common pleas to 93198
enjoin the violation.93199

       Sec. 5101.591.        Sec. 5160.43. (A) Except as provided in division (B) 93200
of this section, theThe medicaid director of job and family 93201
services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under 93202
section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to implement sections 5101.57193203
5160.35 to 5101.595160.43 of the Revised Code, including rules 93204
that specify what constitutes cooperating with efforts to obtain 93205
support or payments, or medical assistance payments, and when 93206
cooperation may be waived. 93207

       (B) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 93208
Chapter 119.under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to do all 93209
of the following:93210

       (1) For purposes of the definition of "information" in 93211
division (A) of section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, any 93212
data other than the data specified in that division that should be 93213
included in the definition.93214

       (2) For purposes of division (C)(1)(a) of section 5101.57293215
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the medium, format, and manner in 93216
which a third party must provide information to the department.93217

       (3) For purposes of division (C)(2) of section 5101.57293218
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the method by which a third party 93219
must provide the department with access to information.93220

       (C) Rules authorized by division (A) of this section may be 93221
adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 93222
Rules authorized by division (B) of this section shall be adopted 93223
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.93224

       Sec. 5101.271.        Sec. 5160.45. (A) As used in sections 5160.45 to 93225
5160.481 of the Revised Code, "information" means all of the 93226
following:93227

       (1) Records, as defined in section 149.011 of the Revised 93228
Code;93229

       (2) Any other documents in any format;93230

       (3) Data derived from records and documents that are 93231
generated, acquired, or maintained by the department of medicaid, 93232
a county department of job and family services, or an entity 93233
performing duties on behalf of the department or a county 93234
department.93235

       (B) Except as permitted by this section, section 5101.27393236
5160.47, or rules adopted underauthorized by section 5101.3093237
5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised Code, or when required by 93238
federal law, no person or government entity shall use or disclose 93239
information regarding a medical assistance recipient for any 93240
purpose not directly connected with the administration of thea93241
medical assistance program.93242

       (B)(C) Both of the following shall be considered to be 93243
purposes directly connected with the administration of thea93244
medical assistance program:93245

       (1) Treatment, payment, or other operations or activities 93246
authorized by 42 C.F.R. Chapter IV;93247

       (2) Any administrative function or duty the department of job 93248
and family servicesmedicaid performs alone or jointly with a 93249
federal government entity, another state government entity, or a 93250
local government entity implementing a provision of federal law.93251

       (C)(D) The department or a county agencydepartment of job 93252
and family services may disclose information regarding a medical 93253
assistance recipient to any of the following:93254

       (1) The recipient or the recipient's authorized 93255
representative;93256

       (2) The recipient's legal guardian in accordance with 93257
division (C) of section 2111.13 of the Revised Code;93258

       (3) The attorney of the recipient, if the department or 93259
county agencydepartment has obtained authorization from the 93260
recipient,or the recipient's authorized representative, or the 93261
recipient's legal guardian that meets all requirements of the 93262
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. 93263
L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1955, 42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended,93264
regulations promulgated by the United States department of health 93265
and human services to implement the act, section 5101.2725160.4693266
of the Revised Code, and any rules the director of job and family 93267
services adopts underauthorized by section 5101.305160.48 of the 93268
Revised Code;93269

       (4) A health information or health records management entity 93270
that has executed with the department a business associate 93271
agreement required by 45 C.F.R 164.502(e)(2) and has been 93272
authorized by the recipient,or the recipient's authorized 93273
representative, or the recipient's legal guardian to receive the 93274
recipient's electronic health records in accordance with rules the 93275
director of job and family services adopts underauthorized by93276
section 5101.305160.48 of the Revised Code;93277

       (5) A court if pursuant to a written order of the court. 93278

       (D)(E) The department may receive from county departments of 93279
job and family services information regarding any medical 93280
assistance recipient for purposes of training and verifying the 93281
accuracy of eligibility determinations for a medical assistance 93282
program. The department may assemble information received under 93283
this division into a report if the report is in a form specified 93284
by the department. Information received and assembled into a 93285
report under this division shall remain confidential and not be 93286
subject to disclosure pursuant to section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the 93287
Revised Code.93288

       (E)(F) The department shall notify courts in this state 93289
regarding its authority, under division (C)(D)(5) of this section, 93290
to disclose information regarding a medical assistance recipient 93291
pursuant to a written court order.93292

       Sec. 5160.46.  (A) For the purposes of section 5160.45 of the 93293
Revised Code, an authorization shall be made on a form that uses 93294
language understandable to the average person and contains all of 93295
the following:93296

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 93297
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 93298
fashion;93299

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 93300
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 93301
disclosure;93302

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 93303
or government entity to which the information may be released;93304

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 93305
disclosure of the information;93306

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 93307
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 93308
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 93309
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;93310

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 93311
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 93312
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;93313

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 93314
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 93315
was signed;93316

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 93317
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;93318

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 93319
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 93320
authorization in writing, along with either of the following:93321

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 93322
representative may revoke the authorization;93323

       (b) If the department of medicaid has established a privacy 93324
notice that contains a description of how the individual or 93325
authorized representative may revoke the authorization, a 93326
reference to the privacy notice.93327

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 93328
eligibility for a medical assistance program cannot be conditioned 93329
on signing the authorization unless the authorization is necessary 93330
for determining eligibility for the program.93331

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 93332
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 93333
division (D)(3) of section 5160.45 of the Revised Code may include 93334
a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 93335
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 93336
rules authorized by section 5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised 93337
Code.93338

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 93339
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code regarding the individual's 93340
enrollment in a medical assistance program and does not wish to 93341
provide a statement of purpose, the statement "at request of the 93342
individual" is a sufficient description for purposes of division 93343
(A)(4) of this section.93344

       Sec. 5160.47.  The department of medicaid shall enter into 93345
any necessary agreements with the United States department of 93346
health and human services and neighboring states to join and 93347
participate as an active member in the public assistance reporting 93348
information system. The department may disclose information 93349
regarding a medical assistance recipient to the extent necessary 93350
to participate as an active member in the system.93351

       Sec. 5160.48.  (A) The medicaid director shall adopt rules 93352
under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code implementing sections 93353
5160.45 to 5160.481 of the Revised Code and governing the custody, 93354
use, disclosure, and preservation of the information generated or 93355
received by the department of medicaid, county departments of job 93356
and family services, other state and county entities, contractors, 93357
grantees, private entities, or officials participating in the 93358
administration of medical assistance programs. The rules shall be 93359
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 93360
rules may define who is an "authorized representative" for 93361
purposes of sections 5160.45 and 5160.46 of the Revised Code. The 93362
rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the release of 93363
information, which may include both of the following:93364

       (1) Permitting a provider of a service under a medical 93365
assistance program limited access to information that is essential 93366
for the provider to render the service or to bill for the service 93367
rendered;93368

       (2) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 93369
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 93370
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 93371
other duties on behalf of the department or a county department.93372

       (B) The department of aging, when investigating a complaint 93373
under section 173.20 of the Revised Code, shall be granted any 93374
limited access permitted in the rules authorized by division 93375
(A)(1) of this section.93376

       A contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 93377
pursuant to the rules authorized by division (A)(2) of this 93378
section is bound by the director's rules. Disclosure of the 93379
information by the contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not 93380
authorized by the rules is a violation of section 5160.45 of the 93381
Revised Code. 93382

       Sec. 5160.481.  Whenever names, addresses, or other 93383
information relating to medical assistance recipients is held by 93384
any agency other than the department of medicaid or a county 93385
department of job and family services, that other agency shall 93386
adopt rules consistent with sections 5160.45 to 5160.481 of the 93387
Revised Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, 93388
lists, or other information concerning those recipients.93389

       Sec. 5160.50.  The department of medicaid shall administer 93390
the refugee medical assistance program authorized by the 93391
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 8 U.S.C. 93392
1522(e).93393

       Sec. 5160.52.  The medicaid director may provide for the 93394
department of medicaid to develop, participate in the development 93395
of, negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 93396
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 93397
provision of medical assistance to children in relation to whom 93398
all of the following apply:93399

       (A) They have special needs.93400

       (B) This state or another state that is a party to the 93401
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 93402
behalf.93403

       (C) They move into this state from another state or move out 93404
of this state to another state.93405

       Sec. 5160.99.  Whoever violates division (B) of section 93406
5160.45 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 93407
first degree.93408

       Sec. 5161.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code, "children's 93409
health insurance program" and, when used as an acronym for the 93410
children's health insurance program, "CHIP" mean the program of 93411
child health assistance authorized by Title XXI of the "Social 93412
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq. CHIP part I, CHIP part II, 93413
and CHIP part III, as authorized by this chapter, are components 93414
of CHIP. Any reference in statute enacted by the general assembly 93415
to medicaid or the medicaid program also means CHIP to the extent, 93416
if any, that CHIP is provided under the medicaid program.93417

       (B) As used in this chapter, "federal poverty line" means the 93418
official poverty line defined by the United States office of 93419
management and budget based on the most recent data available from 93420
the United States bureau of the census and revised by the United 93421
States secretary of health and human services pursuant to the 93422
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 93423
U.S.C. 9902(2).93424

       Sec. 5101.502.        Sec. 5161.02.  The medicaid director of job and 93425
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 93426
the Revised Code as necessary for the efficient administration of 93427
the children's health insurance program part I, including rules 93428
that establish all of the following:93429

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services93430
the program will be reimbursedpay for health benefits coverage;93431

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 93432
reimbursable under the programpayment;93433

       (C) The amount of reimbursementpayment, or the method by 93434
which the amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable93435
service included in the health benefits coverage.93436

       Sec. 5101.50.        Sec. 5161.05. (A) As used in sections 5101.50 to 93437
5101.529 of the Revised Code:93438

       (1) "Children's health insurance program" means the program 93439
authorized by Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 93440
552 (1997), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa.93441

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 93442
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.93443

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 93444
continue to operate the component of the children's health 93445
insurance program initially authorized by an executive order 93446
issued under section 107.17 of the Revised Code as long as federal 93447
financial participation is available for the program. If operated, 93448
the programcomponent shall provide health assistance topay for 93449
part or all of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured 93450
individuals under nineteen years of age with family incomes not 93451
exceeding one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty 93452
guidelinesline. In accordance with 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa, the 93453
director may provide for the health assistance to meet the 93454
requirements of 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc, to be provided under the 93455
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 93456
Code, or to be a combination of both.93457

       Sec. 5101.501.        Sec. 5161.06. Health assistance provided underThe 93458
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by93459
section 5101.505161.05 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 93460
children's health insurance programCHIP part I.93461

       Sec. 5101.51.        Sec. 5161.10.  In accordance with federal law 93462
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid93463
director of job and family services may submit a state child 93464
health plan to the United States secretary of health and human 93465
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.51693466
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 93467
of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured individuals 93468
under nineteen years of age with family incomes above one hundred 93469
fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not 93470
exceeding two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines93471
line. If the director submits the plan, the director shall include 93472
both of the followingstipulate in the plan:93473

       (A) The health assistance will not begin before January 1, 93474
2000.93475

       (B) The health assistancethat the payments will be available 93476
only while federal financial participation is available for it93477
them. 93478

       Sec. 5101.511.        Sec. 5161.11. Health assistance provided underThe 93479
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by93480
section 5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 93481
children's health insurance programCHIP part II. 93482

       Sec. 5101.512.        Sec. 5161.12.  If the medicaid director of job and 93483
family services submits a state child health plan to the United 93484
States secretary of health and human services under section 93485
5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code and the secretary approves the 93486
plan, the director shall implement the children's health insurance 93487
programCHIP part II in accordance with the plan. The director may 93488
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 93489
necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 93490
including rules that establish all of the following:93491

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 93492
will be reimbursed;93493

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 93494
reimbursable under the program;93495

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 93496
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.93497

       Sec. 5101.52.        Sec. 5161.15.  In accordance with federal law 93498
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid93499
director of job and family services may submit a request for a 93500
federal waiver to the United States secretary of health and human 93501
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.52693502
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 93503
of the cost of health benefits coverage for individuals under 93504
nineteen years of age with family incomes above two hundred per 93505
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not exceeding 93506
three hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline. If 93507
the director submits the planwaiver request, the director shall 93508
stipulate in the planrequest that the health assistancepayments93509
will be available only while federal financial participation is 93510
available for it and that health assistance shall not begin before 93511
January 1, 2008them.93512

       Sec. 5101.521.        Sec. 5161.16. Health assistance provided underThe 93513
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by93514
section 5101.525161.15 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 93515
children's health insurance programCHIP part III.93516

       Sec. 5101.522.        Sec. 5161.17.  If the medicaid director of job and 93517
family services submits a waiver request to the United States 93518
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.5293519
5161.15 of the Revised Code and the secretary grants the waiver, 93520
the director shall implement the children's health insurance 93521
programCHIP part III in accordance with the waiver. The director 93522
may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 93523
Code as necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 93524
including rules that establish all of the following:93525

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 93526
will be reimbursed;93527

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 93528
reimbursable under the program;93529

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 93530
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.93531

       Sec. 5101.524.        Sec. 5161.20.  In accordance with the "Social 93532
Security Act," section 2101, 42 U.S.C. 1397aa, the director of job 93533
and family services shall provide for health assistance under the 93534
children's health insurance program part III to meetshall 93535
provide payments for obtaining health benefits coverage through 93536
any of the following:93537

       (A) Obtaining coverage that meets the requirements the 93538
"Social Security Act," section 2103, of 42 U.S.C. 1397cc, to be 93539
provided;93540

       (B) Providing benefits under the medicaid program established 93541
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, or to be a;93542

       (C) A combination of bothdivisions (A) and (B) of this 93543
section.93544

       Sec. 5101.516.        Sec. 5161.22.  If the medicaid director of job and 93545
family services determines that federal financial participation 93546
for the children's health insurance programCHIP part II, part 93547
III, or both parts is insufficient to provide health assistance 93548
topay for part or all of the costs of health benefits coverage 93549
for all the individuals the director anticipates are eligible for 93550
the programpart or parts, the director may refuse to accept new 93551
applications for the programpart or parts or may make the 93552
program's eligibility requirements more restrictive for the part 93553
or parts.93554

       Sec. 5101.517.        Sec. 5161.24.  To the extent permitted by the 93555
"Social Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc(e), the 93556
medicaid director of job and family services may require an 93557
individual receiving health assistance under the children's health 93558
insurance programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP93559
part II to pay a premium, deductible, coinsurance payment, or 93560
other cost-sharing expense. 93561

       Sec. 5101.527.        Sec. 5161.25. To the extent permitted by the "Social 93562
Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C. 1397cc(e), the medicaid93563
director of job and family services shall require an individual 93564
receiving health assistance under the children's health insurance 93565
programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP part III to 93566
pay the following as a term of participation in the program93567
enrollment:93568

       (A) A premium of not less than forty dollars per month for a 93569
family with one individual receiving health assistance under93570
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;93571

       (B) A premium of not less than eighty dollars per month for a 93572
family with two individuals receiving health assistance under93573
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;93574

       (C) A premium of not less than one hundred twenty dollars per 93575
month for a family with three or more individuals receiving health 93576
assistance underseeking to enroll, or who are enrolled, in the 93577
programpart.93578

       Sec. 5101.519.        Sec. 5161.27.  A completed application for medical 93579
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid shall 93580
be treated as an application for health assistance under the 93581
children's health insurance program part II if the application is 93582
for an assistance group that includes a child under nineteen years 93583
of age and is denied.93584

       Sec. 5101.513.        Sec. 5161.30.  The medicaid director of job and 93585
family services may contract with a government entity or person to 93586
perform the director's administrative duties regarding the 93587
children's health insurance programCHIP part I, part II, part 93588
III, two of the parts, or all three parts, other than the duty to 93589
submit a state child health plan to the United States secretary of 93590
health and human services under section 5101.515161.10 of the 93591
Revised Code, the duty to submit a waiver request under section 93592
5161.15 of the Revised Code, and the duty to adopt rules under 93593
section 5101.5125161.02 of the Revised Code.93594

       Sec. 5101.5110.        Sec. 5161.35.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 93595
family services may submit a waiver request to the United States 93596
secretary of health and human services to provide health 93597
assistance to any individual who meets all of the following 93598
requirements:93599

       (1) Is the parent of a child who is under nineteen years of 93600
age who, resides with the parent, and is eligible for health 93601
assistance underenrolled in the children's health insurance 93602
program part I or II or the medicaid program established under 93603
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;93604

       (2) Is uninsured;93605

       (3) Has a family income that does not exceed one hundred per 93606
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline.93607

       (B) A waiver request the director submits under division (A) 93608
of this section may seek federal funds allotted to the state under 93609
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 558 (1997)93610
section 2104, 42 U.S.C.A. 1397dd, as amended, that are not 93611
otherwise used to fund the children's health insurance program 93612
parts I and II.93613

       (C) If a waiver request the director submits under division 93614
(A) of this section is granted, the director may adopt rules in 93615
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for 93616
the efficient administration of the program authorization by the 93617
waiver.93618

       Sec. 5162.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:93619

       (1) "Medicaid" and "medicaid program" mean the program of 93620
medical assistance established by Title XIX of the "Social 93621
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., including any medical 93622
assistance provided under the medicaid state plan or a federal 93623
medicaid waiver granted by the United States secretary of health 93624
and human services.93625

       (2) "Medicare" and "medicare program" mean the federal health 93626
insurance program established by Title XVIII of the "Social 93627
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.93628

       (B) As used in this chapter:93629

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 93630
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.93631

       (2) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 93632
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.93633

       (3) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 93634
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 93635
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 93636
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 93637
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 93638
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).93639

       (4) "Healthy start component" means the component of the 93640
medicaid program that covers pregnant women and children and is 93641
identified in rules adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised 93642
Code as the healthy start component.93643

       (5) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 93644
the Revised Code.93645

       (6) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 93646
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.93647

       (7) "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 93648
5164.01 of the Revised Code.93649

       (8) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 93650
5164.01 of the Revised Code.93651

       (9) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 93652
5165.01 of the Revised Code.93653

       (10) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 93654
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 93655
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 93656
geographical area smaller than that of the state.93657

       (11) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 93658
5164.01 of the Revised Code.93659

       (12) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 93660
5164.01 of the Revised Code.93661

       (13) "Qualified medicaid school provider" means the board of 93662
education of a city, local, or exempted village school district, 93663
the governing authority of a community school established under 93664
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state school for the deaf, 93665
and the state school for the blind to which both of the following 93666
apply:93667

       (a) It holds a valid provider agreement.93668

       (b) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 93669
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 93670
rules authorized by section 5162.364 of the Revised Code.93671

       (14) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 93672
agency, other than the department of medicaid, established by the 93673
laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state 93674
government.93675

       (15) "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment 93676
to a medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid 93677
payment to that provider.93678

       Sec. 5162.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 93679
necessary to implement this chapter.93680

       Sec. 5162.021.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules under 93681
sections 5160.02, 5162.02, 5163.03, 5164.04, 5165.05, 5166.02, and 93682
5167.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to authorize the 93683
directors of other state agencies to adopt rules regarding 93684
medicaid components, or aspects of medicaid components, the other 93685
state agencies administer pursuant to contracts entered into under 93686
section 5162.35 of the Revised Code.93687

       Sec. 5162.022.  The medicaid director's rules governing 93688
medicaid are binding on other state agencies and political 93689
subdivisions that administer one or more components of the 93690
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, pursuant 93691
to contracts entered into under section 5162.35 of the Revised 93692
Code. No state agency or political subdivision may establish, by 93693
rule or otherwise, a policy governing medicaid that is 93694
inconsistent with a medicaid policy established, in rule or 93695
otherwise, by the director.93696

       Sec. 5111.01.        Sec. 5162.03. (A) As used in this chapter:93697

       "Children's health insurance program" means the children's 93698
health insurance program part I, children's health insurance 93699
program part II, and children's health insurance program part III 93700
authorized by sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised Code.93701

       "Medical assistance program" or "medicaid" means the program 93702
that is authorized by this chapter and provided by the office of 93703
medical assistance under this chapter, Title XIX of the "Social 93704
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as 93705
amended, and the waivers of Title XIX requirements granted to the 93706
office by the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 93707
United States department of health and human services.93708

       (B) There is hereby established the office of medical 93709
assistance as a work unit within the department of job and family 93710
services. The chief of the office shall hold the title of medical 93711
assistance director. Notwithstanding section 5101.06 of the 93712
Revised Code, the governor shall appoint the medical assistance 93713
director and the medical assistance director shall serve at the 93714
governor's pleasure. The medical assistance director is not an 93715
assistant director of the department of job and family services 93716
for purposes of section 121.05 or 5101.03 of the Revised Code or 93717
any other purpose.93718

       Subject to appropriations for the medicaid program and 93719
children's health insurance program, the department of job and 93720
family services shall provide staff and support services as 93721
necessary for the operation of the office of medical assistance.93722

       If a statute, rule, contract, or other legal authority 93723
requires the director of job and family services or department of 93724
job and family services to take an action regarding the medicaid 93725
program or children's health insurance program, the medical 93726
assistance director or office of medical assistance shall take the 93727
action in place of the director of job and family services or 93728
department of job and family services. If a statute, rule, 93729
contract, or other legal authority permits the director of job and 93730
family services or department of job and family services to take 93731
an action regarding the medicaid program or children's health 93732
insurance program, the medical assistance director or office of 93733
medical assistance shall take the action in place of the director 93734
of job and family services or department of job and family 93735
services if the action is to be taken.93736

       The officeFor the purpose of the "Social Security Act," 93737
section 1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the department of 93738
medical assistancemedicaid shall act as the single state agency 93739
to supervise the administration of the medicaid program. As the 93740
single state agency, the officedepartment shall comply with 42 93741
C.F.R. 431.10(e) and all other federal requirements applicable to 93742
the single state agency. The office's rules governing medicaid are 93743
binding on other agencies that administer components of the 93744
medicaid program. No agency may establish, by rule or otherwise, a 93745
policy governing medicaid that is inconsistent with a medicaid 93746
policy established, in rule or otherwise, by the medical 93747
assistance director.93748

       (C) The office of medical assistance may provide medical 93749
assistance under the medicaid program as long as federal funds are 93750
provided for such assistance, to the following:93751

       (1) Families with children that meet either of the following 93752
conditions:93753

       (a) The family meets the income, resource, and family 93754
composition requirements in effect on July 16, 1996, for the 93755
former aid to dependent children program as those requirements 93756
were established by Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, federal 93757
waivers granted pursuant to requests made under former section 93758
5101.09 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted by the department 93759
or any changes the department makes to those requirements in 93760
accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of section 114 of the "Personal 93761
Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996," 93762
110 Stat. 2177, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396u-1, for the purpose of 93763
implementing section 5111.0120 of the Revised Code. An adult loses 93764
eligibility for medicaid under division (C)(1)(a) of this section 93765
pursuant to division (E) of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code.93766

       (b) The family does not meet the requirements specified in 93767
division (C)(1)(a) of this section but is eligible for medicaid 93768
pursuant to section 5101.18 of the Revised Code.93769

       (2) Aged, blind, and disabled persons who meet the following 93770
conditions:93771

       (a) Receive federal aid under Title XVI of the "Social 93772
Security Act," or are eligible for but are not receiving such aid, 93773
provided that the income from all other sources for individuals 93774
with independent living arrangements shall not exceed one hundred 93775
seventy-five dollars per month. The income standards hereby 93776
established shall be adjusted annually at the rate that is used by 93777
the United States department of health and human services to 93778
adjust the amounts payable under Title XVI.93779

       (b) Do not receive aid under Title XVI, but meet any of the 93780
following criteria:93781

       (i) Would be eligible to receive such aid, except that their 93782
income, other than that excluded from consideration as income 93783
under Title XVI, exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of 93784
this section, and incurred expenses for medical care, as 93785
determined under federal regulations applicable to section 209(b) 93786
of the "Social Security Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 1381, 42 93787
U.S.C. 1396a(f), as amended, equal or exceed the amount by which 93788
their income exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of this 93789
section;93790

       (ii) Received aid for the aged, aid to the blind, or aid for 93791
the permanently and totally disabled prior to January 1, 1974, and 93792
continue to meet all the same eligibility requirements;93793

       (iii) Are eligible for medicaid pursuant to section 5101.18 93794
of the Revised Code.93795

       (3) Persons to whom federal law requires, as a condition of 93796
state participation in the medicaid program, that medicaid be 93797
provided;93798

       (4) Persons under age twenty-one who meet the income 93799
requirements for the Ohio works first program established under 93800
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code but do not meet other 93801
eligibility requirements for the program. The medical assistance 93802
director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 93803
Revised Code specifying which Ohio works first requirements shall 93804
be waived for the purpose of providing medicaid eligibility under 93805
division (C)(4) of this section.93806

       (D) If sufficient funds are appropriated for the medicaid 93807
program, the office of medical assistance may provide medical 93808
assistance under the medicaid program to persons in groups 93809
designated by federal law as groups to which a state, at its 93810
option, may provide medical assistance under the medicaid program.93811

       (E) The office of medical assistance may expand eligibility 93812
for the medicaid program to include individuals under age nineteen 93813
with family incomes at or below one hundred fifty per cent of the 93814
federal poverty guidelines, except that the eligibility expansion 93815
shall not occur unless the office receives the approval of the 93816
federal government. The office may implement the eligibility 93817
expansion authorized under this division on any date selected by 93818
the office, but not sooner than January 1, 1998.93819

       (F) In addition to any other authority or requirement to 93820
adopt rules under this chapter, the medical assistance director 93821
may adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 93822
Code as the director considers necessary to establish standards, 93823
procedures, and other requirements regarding the provision of 93824
medical assistance under the medicaid program. The rules may 93825
establish requirements to be followed in applying for medicaid, 93826
making determinations of eligibility for medicaid, and verifying 93827
eligibility for medicaid. The rules may include special conditions 93828
as the office determines appropriate for making applications, 93829
determining eligibility, and verifying eligibility for any medical 93830
assistance that the office may provide under the medicaid program 93831
pursuant to division (E) of this section and section 5111.014 or 93832
5111.0120 of the Revised Code.93833

       Sec. 5111.98.        Sec. 5162.031.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 93834
family services may do all of the following as necessary for the 93835
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to fulfill the 93836
duties it has, as the single state agency for the medicaid 93837
program, under the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and 93838
Modernization Act of 2003" Pub. L. No. 108-173, 117 Stat. 2066:93839

       (1) Adopt rules in accordance with division (B) of this 93840
section;93841

       (2) Assign duties to county departments of job and family 93842
services;93843

       (3) Make payments to the United States department of health 93844
and human services from appropriations made to the department of 93845
job and family servicesmedicaid for this purpose.93846

       (B) Rules adopted underauthorized by division (A)(1) of this 93847
section shall be adopted as follows:93848

       (1) If the rules concern the department's duties regarding 93849
servicemedicaid providers, in accordance with Chapter 119.under 93850
sections 5164.02 and 5165.02 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;93851

       (2) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 93852
individuals' eligibility for medicaid services, in accordance with93853
under section 111.155163.02 of the Revised Code;93854

       (3) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 93855
financial and operational matters between the department and 93856
county departments of job and family services, in accordance with93857
under section 111.155162.02 of the Revised Code as if the rules 93858
were internal management rules.93859

       Sec. 5111.102.        Sec. 5162.04. As used in this section, "state 93860
agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.23 of the Revised 93861
Code.93862

       No provision of Title LI of the Revised Code or any other law 93863
of this state that incorporates any provision of federal Medicaid93864
medicaid law, Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 79 Stat. 286 93865
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, or that may be construed as requiring the 93866
state, a state agency, or any state official or employee to comply 93867
with that federal provision, shall be construed as creating a 93868
cause of action to enforce such state law beyond the causes of 93869
action available under federal law for enforcement of the 93870
provision of federal law.93871

       Sec. 5162.05.  The medicaid program shall be implemented in 93872
accordance with all of the following:93873

       (A) The medicaid state plan approved by the United States 93874
secretary of health and human services, including amendments to 93875
the plan approved by the United States secretary;93876

       (B) Federal medicaid waivers granted by the United States 93877
secretary, including amendments to waivers approved by the United 93878
States secretary;93879

       (C) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 93880
grants, that establish requirements for components of the medicaid 93881
program;93882

       (D) Except as otherwise authorized by a federal medicaid 93883
waiver granted by the United States secretary, all applicable 93884
federal statutes, regulations, and policy guidances;93885

       (E) All applicable state statutes.93886

       Sec. 5162.06.  (A) Notwithstanding any other state statute, 93887
no component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid program 93888
shall be implemented without all of the following:93889

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, if the 93890
component, or aspect of the component, requires federal approval, 93891
receipt of the federal approval;93892

       (2) Sufficient federal financial participation for the 93893
component or aspect of the component;93894

       (3) Sufficient nonfederal funds for the component or aspect 93895
of the component that qualify as funds needed to obtain the 93896
federal financial participation.93897

        (B) A component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid 93898
program that requires federal approval may begin to be implemented 93899
before receipt of the federal approval if federal law authorizes 93900
implementation to begin before receipt of the federal approval. 93901
Implementation shall cease if the federal approval is ultimately 93902
denied.93903

       Sec. 5162.07.  The medicaid director shall seek federal 93904
approval for all components, and aspects of components, of the 93905
medicaid program for which federal approval is needed, except that 93906
the director is permitted rather than required to seek federal 93907
approval for components, and aspects of components, that state 93908
statutes permit rather than require be implemented. Federal 93909
approval shall be sought in the following forms as appropriate:93910

       (A) The medicaid state plan;93911

       (B) Amendments to the medicaid state plan;93912

       (C) Federal medicaid waivers;93913

       (D) Amendments to federal medicaid waivers;93914

       (E) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 93915
grants.93916

       Sec. 5111.10.        Sec. 5162.10.  The medicaid director of job and 93917
family services may conduct reviews of the medicaid program. The 93918
reviews may include physical inspections of records and sites 93919
where medicaid-fundedmedicaid services are provided and 93920
interviews of medicaid providers and medicaid recipients of the 93921
services. If the director determines pursuant to a review that a 93922
person or government entity has violated a rule governing the 93923
medicaid program, the director may establish a corrective action 93924
plan for the violator and impose fiscal, administrative, or both 93925
types of sanctions on the violator in accordance with rules 93926
governing the medicaid programadopted under section 5162.02 of 93927
the Revised Code. 93928

       Sec. 5111.915.        Sec. 5162.11.  (A) The department of job and family 93929
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an agreement with the 93930
department of administrative services for the department of 93931
administrative services to contract through competitive selection 93932
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code with a vendor to 93933
perform an assessment of the data collection and data warehouse 93934
functions of the medicaid data warehouse system, including the 93935
ability to link the data sets of all agencies serving medicaid 93936
recipients. 93937

       The assessment of the data system shall include functions 93938
related to fraud and abuse detection, program management and 93939
budgeting, and performance measurement capabilities of all 93940
agencies serving medicaid recipients, including the departments of 93941
aging, alcohol and drug addiction services, health, job and family 93942
services, medicaid, mental healthmental health and addiction 93943
services, and developmental disabilities.93944

       The department of administrative services shall enter into 93945
this contract within thirty days after September 29, 2005. The 93946
contract shall require the vendor to complete the assessment 93947
within ninety days after September 29, 2005.93948

       A qualified vendor with whom the department of administrative 93949
services contracts to assess the data system shall also assist the 93950
medicaid agencies in the definition of the requirements for an 93951
enhanced data system or a new data system and assist the 93952
department of administrative services in the preparation of a 93953
request for proposal to enhance or develop a data system.93954

       (B) Based on the assessment performed pursuant to division 93955
(A) of this section, the department of administrative services 93956
shall seek a qualified vendor through competitive selection 93957
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code to develop or 93958
enhance a data collection and data warehouse system for the 93959
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and all agencies 93960
serving medicaid recipients.93961

       Within ninety days after September 29, 2005, theThe93962
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall seek enhanced 93963
federal fundingfinancial participation for ninety per cent of 93964
the funds required to establish or enhance the data system. The 93965
department of administrative services shall not award a contract 93966
for establishing or enhancing the data system until the department 93967
of job and family servicesmedicaid receives approval from the 93968
secretary of the United States departmentsecretary of health and 93969
human services for the ninety per cent federal matchfinancial 93970
participation.93971

       Sec. 5162.12.  (A) The medicaid director may enter into a 93972
contract with one or more persons to receive and process, on the 93973
director's behalf, requests for medicaid recipient or claims 93974
payment data, data from reports of audits conducted under section 93975
5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts or analyses of any of 93976
the foregoing data made by persons who intend to use the items for 93977
commercial or academic purposes. 93978

       (B) At a minimum, a contract entered into under this section 93979
shall do both of the following:93980

       (1) Authorize the contracting person to engage in the 93981
activities described in division (A) of this section for 93982
compensation, which must be stated as a percentage of the fees 93983
paid by persons who are provided the items;93984

       (2) Specify the schedule of fees the contracting person is to 93985
charge for the items.93986

       (C) Except as required by federal or state law and subject to 93987
division (E) of this section, both of the following conditions 93988
apply with respect to a request for data described in division (A) 93989
of this section:93990

       (1) The request shall be made through a person who has 93991
entered into a contract with the medicaid director under this 93992
section. 93993

       (2) An item prepared pursuant to the request may be provided 93994
to the department of medicaid and is confidential and not subject 93995
to disclosure under section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the Revised Code.93996

       (D) The medicaid director shall use fees the director 93997
receives pursuant to a contract entered into under this section to 93998
pay obligations specified in contracts entered under this section. 93999
Any money remaining after the obligations are paid shall be 94000
deposited in the health care services administration fund created 94001
under section 5162.54 of the Revised Code. 94002

       (E) This section does not apply to requests for medicaid 94003
recipient or claims payment data, data from reports of audits 94004
conducted under section 5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts 94005
or analyses of any of the foregoing data that are for any of the 94006
following purposes:94007

       (1) Treatment of medicaid recipients;94008

       (2) Payment of medicaid claims; 94009

       (3) Establishment or management of medicaid third party 94010
liability pursuant to sections 5160.35 to 5160.43 of the Revised 94011
Code;94012

       (4) Compliance with the terms of an agreement the medicaid 94013
director enters into for purposes of administering the medicaid 94014
program;94015

       (5) Compliance with an operating protocol the executive 94016
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 94017
director's designee adopts under division (D) of section 191.06 of 94018
the Revised Code.94019

       Sec. 5111.09.        Sec. 5162.13.  On or before the first day of January 94020
of each year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid94021
shall submit to the speaker and minority leader of the house of 94022
representatives and the president and minority leader of the 94023
senate, and shall make available to the public, a report on the 94024
effectiveness of the Ohio works first program established under 94025
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and the medical assistance94026
medicaid program established under this chapter in meeting the 94027
health care needs of low-income pregnant women, infants, and 94028
children. The report shall include: the estimated number of 94029
persons eligible for health care services to pregnant women, 94030
infants, and children under the programseligible for the 94031
program; the actual number of eligible persons servedenrolled in 94032
the program; the number of prenatal, postpartum, and child health 94033
visits; a report on birth outcomes, including a comparison of 94034
low-birthweight births and infant mortality rates of program 94035
participantsmedicaid recipients with the general female 94036
child-bearing and infant population in this state; and a 94037
comparison of the prenatal, delivery, and child health costs of 94038
the programsprogram with such costs of similar programs in other 94039
states, where available.94040

       Sec. 5111.091.        Sec. 5162.131.  Semiannually, the medicaid director 94041
of job and family services shall submit to the president and 94042
minority leader of the senate, speaker and minority leader of the 94043
house of representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing 94044
committees of the senate and house of representatives with primary 94045
responsibility for legislation making biennial appropriations a 94046
report on the establishment and implementation of programs 94047
designed to control the increase of the cost of the medicaid 94048
program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, and 94049
promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one report 94050
shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and the 94051
subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last day 94052
of December.94053

       Sec. 5111.092.        Sec. 5162.132. (A) Not later than January 1, 2010, 94054
and each year thereafterAnnually, the department of job and 94055
family servicesmedicaid shall prepare a report on the 94056
department's efforts to minimize fraud, waste, and abuse in the 94057
medicaid program.94058

       (B) Each report shall be made available on the department's 94059
web site. The department shall submit a copy of each report to the 94060
governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 94061
Code, the general assembly. Copies of the report also shall be 94062
made available to the public on request.94063

       Sec. 5111.101.        Sec. 5162.15. (A) As used in this section;94064

        "Agent" and "contractor" include any agent, contractor, 94065
subcontractor, or other person who, on behalf of an entity, 94066
furnishes or authorizes the furnishing of health care items or94067
medicaid services under the medicaid program, performs billing or 94068
coding functions, or is involved in monitoring of health care that 94069
an entity provides.94070

       "Employee" includes any officer or employee (including 94071
management employees) of an entity.94072

       "Entity" includes a governmental entity or an organization, 94073
unit, corporation, partnership, or other business arrangement, 94074
including any medicaid managed care organization, irrespective of 94075
the form of business structure or arrangement by which it exists, 94076
whether for-profit or not-for-profit. "Entity" does not include a 94077
government entity that administers one or more components of the 94078
medicaid program, unless the government entity receives medicaid 94079
payments for providing items ormedicaid services.94080

       "Federal health care programs" has the same meaning as in the 94081
"Social Security Act," section 1128B, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7b(f).94082

       (B) Each entity that receives or makes in a federal fiscal 94083
year payments under the medicaid program, either through the 94084
medicaid state medicaid plan or a federal medicaid waiver, 94085
totaling at least five million dollars shall, as a condition of 94086
receiving such payments, do all of the following not later than 94087
the first day of the succeeding calendar year:94088

       (1) Establish written policies for all of the entity's 94089
employees, contractors, and agents that provide detailed 94090
information about the role of all of the following in preventing 94091
and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse in federal health care 94092
programs:94093

       (a) Federal false claims law under 31 U.S.C. 3729 to 3733;94094

       (b) Federal administrative remedies for false claims and 94095
statements available under 31 U.S.C. 3801 to 3812;94096

       (c) Sections 124.341, 2913.40, 2913.401, and 2921.13 of the 94097
Revised Code and any other state laws pertaining to civil or 94098
criminal penalties for false claims and statements;94099

       (d) Whistleblower protections under the laws specified in 94100
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.94101

       (2) Include as part of the written policies required by 94102
division (B)(1) of this section detailed provisions regarding the 94103
entity's policies and procedures for preventing and detecting 94104
fraud, waste, and abuse.94105

       (3) Disseminate the written policies required by division 94106
(B)(1) of this section to each of the entity's employees, 94107
contractors, and agents in a paper or electronic form and make the 94108
written policies readily available to the entity's employees, 94109
contractors, and agents.94110

       (4) If the entity has an employee handbook, include in the 94111
employee handbook a specific discussion of the laws specified in 94112
division (B)(1) of this section, the rights of employees to be 94113
protected as whistleblowers, and the entity's policies and 94114
procedures for preventing and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse.94115

       (5) Require the entity's contractors and agents to adopt the 94116
entity's written policies required by division (B)(1) of this 94117
section.94118

       (C) An entity that furnishes items ormedicaid services at 94119
multiple locations or under multiple contractual or other payment 94120
arrangements is required to comply with division (B) of this 94121
section if the entity receives in a federal fiscal year medicaid 94122
payments totaling in the aggregate at least five million dollars. 94123
This applies regardless of whether the entity submits claims for 94124
medicaid payments using multiple provider identification or tax 94125
identification numbers.94126

       Sec. 5111.0112.        Sec. 5162.20.  (A) The directordepartment of job 94127
and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a cost-sharing 94128
program underrequirements for the medicaid program. In 94129
instituting the cost-sharing program, the director shall comply 94130
with federal law. The cost-sharing programrequirements shall 94131
establishinclude a copayment requirement for at least dental 94132
services, vision services, nonemergency emergency department 94133
services, and prescriptionprescribed drugs, other than generic 94134
drugs. The cost-sharing programrequirements also shall establish94135
include requirements regarding premiums, enrollment fees, 94136
deductions, and similar charges. The director shall adopt rules 94137
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code governing the 94138
cost-sharing program.94139

       (B) The cost-sharing program shall, to the extent permitted 94140
by federal law, provide for all of the following with regard to 94141
any providers participating in the medicaid program:94142

        (1) No provider shall refuse to provide a service to a 94143
medicaid recipient who is unable to pay a required copayment for 94144
the service.94145

        (2) Division (B)(1) of this section shall not be considered 94146
to do either of the following with regard to a medicaid recipient 94147
who is unable to pay a required copayment:94148

       (a) Relieve the medicaid recipient from the obligation to pay 94149
a copayment;94150

        (b) Prohibit the provider from attempting to collect an 94151
unpaid copayment.94152

       (3)(C) Except as provided in division (C)(F) of this section, 94153
no provider shall waive a medicaid recipient's obligation to pay 94154
the provider a copayment.94155

       (4)(D) No provider or drug manufacturer, including the 94156
manufacturer's representative, employee, independent contractor, 94157
or agent, shall pay any copayment on behalf of a medicaid 94158
recipient.94159

       (5)(E) If it is the routine business practice of thea94160
provider to refuse service to any individual who owes an 94161
outstanding debt to the provider, the provider may consider an 94162
unpaid copayment imposed by the cost-sharing programrequirements94163
as an outstanding debt and may refuse service to a medicaid 94164
recipient who owes the provider an outstanding debt. If the 94165
provider intends to refuse service to a medicaid recipient who 94166
owes the provider an outstanding debt, the provider shall notify 94167
the individualrecipient of the provider's intent to refuse 94168
servicesservice.94169

       (C)(F) In the case of a provider that is a hospital, the 94170
cost-sharing program shall permit the hospital to take action to 94171
collect a copayment by providing, at the time services are 94172
rendered to a medicaid recipient, notice that a copayment may be 94173
owed. If the hospital provides the notice and chooses not to take 94174
any further action to pursue collection of the copayment, the 94175
prohibition against waiving copayments specified in division 94176
(B)(3)(C) of this section does not apply.94177

       (D)(G) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 94178
workcollaborate with a state agency that is administering, 94179
pursuant to a contract entered into under section 5111.915162.3594180
of the Revised Code, one or more components of the medicaid 94181
program, or one or more aspects of a component, of the medicaid 94182
program as necessary for the state agency to apply the 94183
cost-sharing programrequirements to the components or aspects of 94184
the medicaid programa component that the state agency 94185
administers.94186

       Sec. 5111.11.        Sec. 5162.21.  (A) As used in this section and 94187
section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code:94188

       (1) "Estate" includes both of the following:94189

       (a) All real and personal property and other assets to be 94190
administered under Title XXI of the Revised Code and property that 94191
would be administered under that title if not for section 2113.03 94192
or 2113.031 of the Revised Code;94193

        (b) Any other real and personal property and other assets in 94194
which an individual had any legal title or interest at the time of 94195
death (to the extent of the interest), including assets conveyed 94196
to a survivor, heir, or assign of the individual through joint 94197
tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living 94198
trust, or other arrangement.94199

        (2) "Institution" means a nursing facility, intermediate care 94200
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, or a medical 94201
institution.94202

        (3) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 94203
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 94204
5111.20 of the Revised Code.94205

       (4) "Permanently institutionalized individual" means an 94206
individual to whom all of the following apply:94207

        (a) Is an inpatient in an institution;94208

        (b) Is required, as a condition of the medicaid program 94209
paying for the individual's services in the institution, to spend 94210
for costs of medical or nursing care all of the individual's 94211
income except for an amount for personal needs specified by the 94212
department of job and family servicesmedicaid;94213

        (c) Cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from the 94214
institution and return home as determined by the department of job 94215
and family servicesmedicaid.94216

       (5)(4) "Qualified state long-term care insurance partnership 94217
program" means the program established under section 5111.1894218
5164.86 of the Revised Code.94219

       (6)(5) "Time of death" shall not be construed to mean a time 94220
after which a legal title or interest in real or personal property 94221
or other asset may pass by survivorship or other operation of law 94222
due to the death of the decedent or terminate by reason of the 94223
decedent's death.94224

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 94225
job and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a medicaid estate 94226
recovery program under which the department shall, except as 94227
provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, and subject to 94228
division (D) of this section, do all of the following:94229

        (1) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 94230
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of a permanently 94231
institutionalized individual of any age, seek adjustment or 94232
recovery from the individual's estate or on the sale of property 94233
of the individual or spouse that is subject to a lien imposed 94234
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code;94235

        (2) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 94236
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of an individual fifty-five 94237
years of age or older who is not a permanently institutionalized 94238
individual, seek adjustment or recovery from the individual's 94239
estate;94240

       (3) Seek adjustment or recovery from the estate of other 94241
individuals as permitted by federal law.94242

        (C)(1) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 94243
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 94244
individual's estate or on the sale of property of a permanently 94245
institutionalized individual that is subject to a lien imposed 94246
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code or under 94247
division (B)(2) or (3) of this section from an individual's estate 94248
while either of the following are alive:94249

        (a) The spouse of the permanently institutionalized 94250
individual or individual;94251

        (b) The son or daughter of a permanently institutionalized 94252
individual or individual if the son or daughter is under age 94253
twenty-one or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 94254
U.S.C. 1382c, is considered blind or disabled.94255

        (2) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 94256
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 94257
individual's home that is subject to a lien imposed under section 94258
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code while either of the 94259
following lawfully reside in the home:94260

        (a) The permanently institutionalized individual's sibling 94261
who resided in the home for at least one year immediately before 94262
the date of the permanently institutionalized individual's 94263
admission to the institution and on a continuous basis since that 94264
time;94265

        (b) The permanently institutionalized individual's son or 94266
daughter who provided care to the permanently institutionalized 94267
individual that delayed the permanently institutionalized 94268
individual's institutionalization and resided in the home for at 94269
least two years immediately before the date of the permanently 94270
institutionalized individual's admission to the institution and on 94271
a continuous basis since that time.94272

        (D) In the case of a participant of the qualified state 94273
long-term care insurance partnership program, adjustment or 94274
recovery required by this section may be reduced in accordance 94275
with rules adopted underauthorized by division (G) of this 94276
section.94277

        (E) The department shall, in accordance with procedures and 94278
criteria established in rules adopted underauthorized by division 94279
(G) of this section, waive seeking an adjustment or recovery 94280
otherwise required by this section if the medicaid director of job 94281
and family services determines that adjustment or recovery would 94282
work an undue hardship. The department may limit the duration of 94283
the waiver to the period during which the undue hardship exists.94284

       (F) For the purpose of determining whether an individual 94285
meets the definition of "permanently institutionalized individual" 94286
established for this section, a rebuttable presumption exists that 94287
the individual cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from 94288
an institution and return home if either of the following is the 94289
case:94290

       (1) The individual declares that he or she does not intend to 94291
return home.94292

       (2) The individual has been an inpatient in an institution 94293
for at least six months.94294

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 94295
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 94296
medicaid estate recovery program, including rules thatRules 94297
adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised Code shall do both of 94298
the following: 94299

        (1) For the purpose of division (D) of this section and 94300
consistent with the "Social Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C),94301
42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(1)(C), provide for reducing an adjustment or 94302
recovery in the case of a participant of the qualified state 94303
long-term care insurance partnership program;94304

        (2) For the purpose of division (E) of this section and 94305
consistent with the standards specified by the United States 94306
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 94307
Act," section 1917(b)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(3), establish 94308
procedures and criteria for waiving adjustment or recovery due to 94309
an undue hardship.94310

       Sec. 5111.111.        Sec. 5162.211.  (A) Except as provided in division 94311
(B) of this section and section 5111.125162.23 of the Revised 94312
Code, no lien may be imposed against the property of an individual 94313
before the individual's death on account of medicaid services 94314
correctly paid or to be paid on the individual's behalf.94315

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 94316
department of job and family servicesmedicaid may impose a lien 94317
against the real property of a medicaid recipient who is a 94318
permanently institutionalized individual and against the real 94319
property of the recipient's spouse, including any real property 94320
that is jointly held by the recipient and spouse. The lien may be 94321
imposed on account of medicaid paid or to be paid on the 94322
recipient's behalf.94323

        (C) No lien may be imposed under division (B) of this section 94324
against the home of a medicaid recipient if any of the following 94325
lawfully resides in the home:94326

        (1) The recipient's spouse;94327

        (2) The recipient's son or daughter who is under twenty-one 94328
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 94329
U.S.C. 1382c, considered to be blind or disabled;94330

        (3) The recipient's sibling who has an equity interest in the 94331
home and resided in the home for at least one year immediately 94332
before the date of the recipient's admission to the institution.94333

        (D) The medicaid director of job and family services or a 94334
person designated by the director shall sign a certificate to 94335
effectuate a lien required to be imposed under this section. The 94336
county department of job and family services shall file for 94337
recording and indexing the certificate, or a certified copy, in 94338
the real estate mortgage records in the office of the county 94339
recorder in every county in which real property of the recipient 94340
or spouse is situated. From the time of filing the certificate in 94341
the office of the county recorder, the lien attaches to all real 94342
property of the recipient or spouse described in the certificate 94343
for all amounts for which adjustment or recovery may be made under 94344
section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code and, except as 94345
provided in division (E) of this section, shall remain a lien 94346
until satisfied.94347

       Upon filing the certificate in the office of the recorder, 94348
all persons are charged with notice of the lien and the rights of 94349
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid thereunder.94350

       The county recorder shall keep a record of every certificate 94351
filed showing its date, the time of filing, the name and residence 94352
of the recipient or spouse, and any release, waivers, or 94353
satisfaction of the lien.94354

       The priority of the lien shall be established in accordance 94355
with state and federal law.94356

       The department may waive the priority of its lien to provide 94357
for the costs of the last illness as determined by the department, 94358
administration, attorney fees, administrator fees, a sum for the 94359
payment of the costs of burial, which shall be computed by 94360
deducting from five hundred dollars whatever amount is available 94361
for the same purpose from all other sources, and a similar sum for 94362
the spouse of the decedent.94363

       (E) A lien imposed with respect to a medicaid recipient under 94364
this section shall dissolve on the recipient's discharge from the 94365
institution and return home.94366

       Sec. 5111.112.        Sec. 5162.212.  The department of job and family 94367
servicesmedicaid shall certify amounts due under the medicaid 94368
estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.115162.2194369
of the Revised Code to the attorney general pursuant to section 94370
131.02 of the Revised Code. The attorney general may enter into a 94371
contract with any person or government entity to collect the 94372
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general.94373

        The attorney general, in entering into a contract under this 94374
section, shall comply with all of the requirements that must be 94375
met for the state to receive federal financial participation for 94376
the costs incurred in entering into the contract and carrying out 94377
actions under the contract. The contract may provide for the 94378
person or government entity with which the attorney general 94379
contracts to be compensated from the property recovered under the 94380
medicaid estate recovery program or may provide for another manner 94381
of compensation agreed to by the parties to the contract.94382

        Regardless of whether the attorney general collects the 94383
amounts due under the medicaid estate recovery program or 94384
contracts with a person or government entity to collect the 94385
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general, the amounts due 94386
shall be collected in accordance with applicable requirements of 94387
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules.94388

       Sec. 5111.113.        Sec. 5162.22.  (A) As used in this section:94389

       (1) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 94390
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 94391
act as a commissioner.94392

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of the 94393
Revised Code.94394

       (3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 94395
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 94396
carea residential facility or home and that the facility or home 94397
manages for the resident.94398

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 94399
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 94400
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 94401
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.94402

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 94403
section, the owner or operator of a home or residential facility 94404
shall transfer to the department of job and family services94405
medicaid the money in the personal needs allowance account of a 94406
resident of the home or facility who was a medicaid recipient of 94407
the medical assistance program no earlier than sixty days but not 94408
later than ninety days after the resident dies. The home or 94409
facility shall transfer the money even though the owner or 94410
operator of the facility or home has not been issued letters 94411
testamentary or letters of administration concerning the 94412
resident's estate.94413

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of a home or 94414
residential facility who has died have not been paid and the only 94415
resource the resident had that could be used to pay for the 94416
expenses is the money in the resident's personal needs allowance 94417
account, or all other resources of the resident are inadequate to 94418
pay the full cost of the expenses, the money in the resident's 94419
personal needs allowance account shall be used to pay for the 94420
expenses rather than being transferred to the department of job 94421
and family servicesmedicaid pursuant to division (B) of this 94422
section.94423

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of a home 94424
or residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 94425
administration are issued, or an application for release from 94426
administration is filed under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, 94427
concerning the resident's estate, the owner or operator of the 94428
home or facility shall transfer the money in the resident's 94429
personal needs allowance account to the administrator, executor, 94430
commissioner, or person who filed the application for release from 94431
administration.94432

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 94433
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 94434
(D) of this section discharges and releases the home or 94435
residential facility, and the owner or operator of the home, from 94436
any claim for the money from any source.94437

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of a home or 94438
residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 94439
administration are issued, or an application for release from 94440
administration under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code is filed, 94441
concerning the resident's estate, the department of job and family 94442
servicesmedicaid shall transfer the funds to the administrator, 94443
executor, commissioner, or person who filed the application, 94444
unless the department is entitled to recover the money under the 94445
medicaid estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.1194446
5162.21 of the Revised Code.94447

       Sec. 5111.12.        Sec. 5162.23.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 94448
family services shall establishadopt rules under whichsection 94449
5162.02 of the Revised Code permitting county departments of job 94450
and family services mayto take action to recover benefits 94451
incorrectly paid on behalf of medicaid recipients of medical 94452
assistance. The rules shall provide for recovery by the following 94453
methods:94454

       (1) Soliciting voluntary payments from recipients or from 94455
persons holding property in which a recipient has a legal or 94456
equitable interest;94457

       (2) Obtaining a lien on property pursuant to division (B) of 94458
this section.94459

       (B) A county department of job and family services may bring 94460
a civil action in a court of common pleas against a medicaid94461
recipient of medical assistance for the recovery of any medical 94462
assistance benefitsmedicaid payments determined by the court to 94463
have been paid incorrectly on behalf of the recipient. All persons 94464
holding property in which the recipient has a legal or equitable 94465
interest may be joined as parties. The court may issue 94466
pre-judgment orders, including injunctive relief or attachment 94467
under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code, for the preservation of 94468
real or personal property in which the recipient may have a legal 94469
or equitable interest. If the court determines that benefits94470
medicaid payments were paidmade incorrectly and issues a judgment 94471
to that effect, the county department may obtain a lien upon 94472
property of the recipient in accordance with Chapter 2329. of the 94473
Revised Code.94474

       (C) The county department of job and family services shall 94475
retain fifty per cent of the balance remaining after deduction 94476
from the recovery of the amount required to be returned to the 94477
federal government and shall pay the other fifty per cent of the 94478
balance to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.94479

       (D) Recovery of medical assistance benefitsmedicaid payments94480
incorrectly paid tomade on behalf of a medicaid recipient may not 94481
be accomplished by reducing the amount of benefits the recipient 94482
is entitled to receive under another government assistance 94483
program.94484

       (E) The remedies provided pursuant to this section do not 94485
affect any other remedies county departments of job and family 94486
services may have to recover benefits incorrectly paid on behalf 94487
of medicaid recipients of medical assistance.94488

       Sec. 5111.121.        Sec. 5162.24.  (A) As used in this section, "third 94489
party" has the same meaning as in section 5101.5715160.35 of the 94490
Revised Code.94491

       (B) In addition to the authority granted under section 94492
5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 94493
family servicesmedicaid may, to the extent necessary to reimburse 94494
its costs, garnish the wages, salary, or other employment income 94495
of, and withhold amounts from state tax refunds to, any person to 94496
whom both of the following apply:94497

       (1) The person is required by a court or administrative order 94498
to provide coverage of the cost of health care services to a child 94499
eligible for medical assistance under this chaptermedicaid.94500

       (2) The person has received payment from a third party for 94501
the costs of such services but has not used the payment to 94502
reimburse either the other parent or guardian of the child or the 94503
provider of the services.94504

       (C) Claims for current and past due child support shall take 94505
priority over claims under division (B) of this section.94506

       Sec. 5162.31.  Local funds, whether from public or private 94507
sources, expended by a county department of job and family 94508
services for administration of the healthy start component shall 94509
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 94510
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 94511
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 94512
financial participation for the medicaid program. This section 94513
does not affect the amount of funds a county is entitled to 94514
receive under sections 5101.16 and 5101.161 of the Revised Code.94515

       Sec. 5111.90.        Sec. 5162.32. (A) As used in sections 5111.90 to 94516
5111.93 of the Revised Code:94517

       (1) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 94518
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 94519
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 94520
geographical area smaller than that of the state.94521

       (2) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 94522
agency, other than the department of job and family services, 94523
established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any 94524
function of state government.94525

       (B) To the extent permitted by Title XIX of the "Social 94526
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, 94527
and regulations adopted under that title, theThe department of 94528
job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with 94529
political subdivisions to use funds of the political subdivision 94530
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under the medicaid 94531
program. The determination and provision of federal financial 94532
reimbursementparticipation to a subdivision entering into a 94533
contract under this section shall be determined by the department, 94534
subject to section 5111.925162.40 of the Revised Code, approval 94535
by the United States secretary of health and human services, and 94536
the availability of federal financial participation.94537

       Sec. 5111.91.        Sec. 5162.35. The department of job and family 94538
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with one or more other 94539
state agencies or political subdivisions to have the state agency 94540
or political subdivision administer one or more components of the 94541
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, under the 94542
department's supervision. A state agency or political subdivision 94543
that enters into such a contract shall comply with the terms of 94544
the contract and any rules the medicaid director of job and family 94545
services has adopted governing the component, or aspect of the 94546
component, that the state agency or political subdivision is to 94547
administer, including any rules establishing review, audit, and 94548
corrective action plan requirements. A contract with a state 94549
agency shall be in the form of an interagency agreement.94550

       A state agency or political subdivision that enters into a 94551
contract with the department under this section shall reimburse 94552
the department for the nonfederal share of the cost to the 94553
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, a 94554
fiscal audit of the component of the medicaid program, or aspect 94555
of the component, that the state agency or political subdivision 94556
administers if rules governing the component, or aspect of the 94557
component, require that a fiscal audit be conducted.94558

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the medicaid 94559
administrative reimbursement fund. The department shall use money 94560
in the fund to pay for the nonfederal share of the cost of a 94561
fiscal audit for which a state agency or political subdivision is 94562
required by this section to reimburse the department. The 94563
department shall deposit the reimbursements into the fund.94564

       Sec. 5111.71.        Sec. 5162.36. (A) As used in sections 5111.71 to 94565
5111.715 of the Revised Code, "qualified medicaid school provider" 94566
means the board of education of a city, local, or exempted village 94567
school district, the governing authority of a community school 94568
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state 94569
school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind to which 94570
both of the following apply:94571

       (1) It holds a valid medicaid provider agreement.94572

       (2) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 94573
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 94574
rules adopted under section 5111.715 of the Revised Code.94575

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 94576
submit a state medicaid plan amendment to the United States 94577
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of creating94578
create, in accordance with sections 5111.715162.36 to 5111.71594579
5162.364 of the Revised Code, the medicaid school component of the 94580
medicaid program. The director shall create the medicaid school 94581
component on receipt of the United States secretary's approval of 94582
the amendment.94583

       Sec. 5111.711.        Sec. 5162.361.  A qualified medicaid school provider 94584
participating in the medicaid school component of the medicaid 94585
program may submit a claim to the department of job and family 94586
servicesmedicaid for federal financial participation for 94587
providing, in schools, services covered by the medicaid school 94588
component to medicaid recipients who are eligible for the 94589
services. No qualified medicaid school provider may submit such a 94590
claim before the provider incurs the cost of providing the 94591
service.94592

       The claim shall include certification of the qualified 94593
medicaid school provider's expenditures for the service. The 94594
certification shall show that the money the qualified medicaid 94595
school provider used for the expenditures was nonfederal money the 94596
provider may legally use for providing the service and that the 94597
amount of the expenditures was sufficient to pay the full cost of 94598
the service.94599

       Except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.715162.36 to 94600
5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under94601
authorized by sections 5111.7135162.363 and 5111.7155162.364 of 94602
the Revised Code, a qualified medicaid school provider is subject 94603
to all conditions of participation in the medicaid program that 94604
generally apply to providers of goods and services under the 94605
medicaid program, including conditions regarding audits and 94606
recovery of overpayments.94607

       Sec. 5111.712.        Sec. 5162.362.  The department of job and family 94608
servicesmedicaid shall seek federal financial participation for 94609
each claim a qualified medicaid school provider properly submits 94610
to the department under section 5111.7115162.361 of the Revised 94611
Code. The department shall disburse the federal financial 94612
participation the department receives from the federal government 94613
for such a claim to the qualified medicaid school provider that 94614
submitted the claim. The department may not pay the qualified 94615
medicaid school provider the nonfederal share of the cost of the 94616
services for which the claim was submitted.94617

       Sec. 5111.713.        Sec. 5162.363.  The department of job and family 94618
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an interagency agreement with 94619
the department of education under section 5111.915162.35 of the 94620
Revised Code that provides for the department of education to 94621
administer the medicaid school component of the medicaid program 94622
other than the aspects of the component that sections 5111.7194623
5162.36 to 5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code require the 94624
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to administer. The 94625
interagency agreement may include a provision that provides for 94626
the department of education to pay to the department of job and 94627
family servicesmedicaid the nonfederal share of a portion of the 94628
administrative expenses the department of job and family services94629
medicaid incurs in administering the aspects of the component that 94630
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers.94631

       TheTo the extent authorized by rules authorized by section 94632
5162.021 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall 94633
establish, in rules adopted under Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of 94634
the Revised Code, a process by which qualified medicaid school 94635
providers participating in the medicaid school component pay to 94636
the department of education the nonfederal share of the 94637
department's expenses incurred in administering the component. The 94638
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 94639
Revised Code.94640

       Sec. 5111.715.        Sec. 5162.364.  The medicaid director of job and 94641
family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 94642
5162.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement the medicaid 94643
school component of the medicaid program, including rules that 94644
establish or specify all of the following:94645

       (A) Conditions a board of education of a city, local, or 94646
exempted school district, governing authority of a community 94647
school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the 94648
state school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind must 94649
meet to participate in the component;94650

       (B) Services the component covers;94651

       (C) ReimbursementPayment rates for the services the 94652
component covers.94653

       The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 94654
the Revised Code.94655

       Sec. 5111.911.        Sec. 5162.37. Any contract the department of job and 94656
family servicesmedicaid enters into with the department of mental 94657
health or department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 94658
health and addiction services under section 5111.915162.35 of the 94659
Revised Code is subject to the approval of the director of budget 94660
and management and shall require or specify all of the following:94661

        (A) In the case of a contract with the department of mental 94662
health, thatThat section 5111.9125162.371 of the Revised Code 94663
be complied with;94664

        (B) In the case of a contract with the department of alcohol 94665
and drug addiction services, that section 5111.913 of the Revised 94666
Code be complied with;94667

       (C) How providers will be paid for providing the services;94668

        (D)(C) The department of mental health's or department of 94669
alcohol and drug addiction services' responsibilities of the 94670
department of mental health and addiction services with regard to 94671
providers, including program oversight and quality assurance.94672

       Sec. 5111.912.        Sec. 5162.371. If the department of job and family 94673
servicesmedicaid enters into a contract with the department of 94674
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 94675
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 94676
family servicesmedicaid shall pay the nonfederal share of any 94677
medicaid payment to a provider for services under the component, 94678
or aspect of the component, the department of mental healthmental 94679
health and addiction services administers. If necessary, the 94680
director of job and family services shall submit a medicaid state 94681
plan amendment to the United States secretary of health and human 94682
services regarding the department of job and family services' duty 94683
under this section.94684

       Sec. 5111.92.        Sec. 5162.40.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division 94685
(B) of this section, if a state agency or political subdivision 94686
administers one or more components of the medicaid program that 94687
the United States department of health and human services 94688
approved, and for which federal financial participation was 94689
initially obtained, prior to January 1, 2002, or administers one 94690
or more aspects of such a component, the department of job and 94691
family servicesmedicaid may retain or collect not more than ten 94692
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 94693
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 94694
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 94695
component. If the department retains or collects a percentage of 94696
such federal financial participation, the percentage the 94697
department retains or collects shall be specified in a contract 94698
the department enters into with the state agency or political 94699
subdivision under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.94700

       (2) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, if a 94701
state agency or political subdivision administers one or more 94702
components of the medicaid program that the United States 94703
department of health and human services approved on or after 94704
January 1, 2002, or administers one or more aspects of such a 94705
component, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid94706
shall retain or collect not less than three and not more than ten 94707
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 94708
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 94709
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 94710
component. The percentage the department retains or collects shall 94711
be specified in a contract the department enters into with the 94712
state agency or political subdivision under section 5111.9194713
5162.35 of the Revised Code.94714

       (B) The department of job and family services may retain or 94715
collect a percentage of federal financial participation under 94716
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section only to the extent 94717
permitted by federal statutes and regulations.94718

       (C) All amounts the department retains or collects under this 94719
section shall be deposited into the health care services 94720
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 94721
Revised Code.94722

       Sec. 5111.93.        Sec. 5162.41.  The department of job and family 94723
servicesmedicaid may retain or collect a percentage of the 94724
federal financial participation included in a supplemental 94725
medicaid payment to one or more medicaid providers owned or 94726
operated by a state agency or political subdivision that brings 94727
the payment to such provider or providers to the upper payment 94728
limit established by 42 C.F.R. 447.272. If the department retains 94729
or collects a percentage of that federal financial participation, 94730
the departmentmedicaid director shall adopt a rule under Chapter 94731
119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code specifying the percentage 94732
the department is to retain or collect. All amounts the department 94733
retains or collects under this section shall be deposited into the 94734
health care services administration fund created under section 94735
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.94736

       Sec. 5111.943.        Sec. 5162.50. (A) The health care - federal fund is 94737
hereby created in the state treasury. All of the following shall 94738
be credited to the fund:94739

       (1) Funds that division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the 94740
Revised Code requires be credited to the fund;94741

       (2) The federal share of all rebates paid by drug 94742
manufacturers to the department of job and family services94743
medicaid in accordance with a rebate agreement required by the 94744
"Social Security Act," section 1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;94745

       (3) The federal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 94746
drug manufacturers to the department of job and family services94747
medicaid in accordance with the supplemental drug rebate program 94748
established under section 5111.0815164.755 of the Revised Code;94749

       (4) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 94750
by the controlling board, the federal share of all other 94751
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries.94752

       (B) All money credited to the health care - federal fund 94753
pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised 94754
Code shall be used solely for distributing funds to hospitals 94755
under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code. The department 94756
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall use all other money 94757
credited to the fund to pay for other medicaid services and 94758
contracts.94759

       Sec. 5111.941.        Sec. 5162.52.  (A) The health care/medicaid support 94760
and recoveries fund is hereby created in the state treasury. All 94761
of the following shall be credited to the fund:94762

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 94763
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 94764
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries;94765

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 94766
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 94767
Stat. 1330-148 (1987)section 1923, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended,94768
under the medicaid program to state mental health hospitals 94769
maintained and operated by the department of mental healthmental 94770
health and addiction services under division (A) of section 94771
5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code;94772

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services94773
medicaid receives from another state agency for medicaid services 94774
pursuant to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues 94775
required to be deposited into the health care services 94776
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 94777
Revised Code;94778

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 94779
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 94780
verification services necessary for compliance with the 94781
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304;94782

       (5) The nonfederal share of all rebates paid by drug 94783
manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance with a 94784
rebate agreement required by the "Social Security Act," section 94785
1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;94786

       (6) The nonfederal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 94787
drug manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance 94788
with the supplemental drug rebate program established under 94789
section 5164.755 of the Revised Code.94790

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 94791
use money credited to the health care/medicaid support and 94792
recoveries fund to pay for medicaid services and contracts.94793

       Sec. 5111.94.        Sec. 5162.54.  (A) As used in this section, "vendor 94794
offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment to a medicaid 94795
provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid payment to that 94796
provider.94797

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 94798
care services administration fund. Except as provided in division 94799
(C) of this section, all the following shall be deposited into the 94800
fund:94801

       (1) Amounts deposited into the fund pursuant to sections 94802
5111.925162.12, 5162.40, and 5111.935162.41 of the Revised Code;94803

       (2) The amount of the state share of all money the department 94804
of job and family services, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal 94805
year thereafter,medicaid recovers each fiscal year pursuant to a 94806
tort action under the department's right of recovery under section 94807
5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code that exceeds the state share 94808
of all money the department, in fiscal year 2002, recovers 94809
pursuant to a tort action under that right of recovery;94810

       (3) Subject to division (D)(B) of this section, the amount of 94811
the state share of all money the department of job and family 94812
servicesmedicaid, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal year 94813
thereafter, recovers through audits of medicaid providers that 94814
exceeds the state share of all money the department, in fiscal 94815
year 2002, recovers through such audits;94816

       (4) Amounts from assessments on hospitals under section 94817
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and intergovernmental 94818
transfers by governmental hospitals under section 5112.075168.0794819
of the Revised Code that are deposited into the fund in accordance 94820
with the law;94821

       (5) Amounts that the department of education pays to the 94822
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, if any, pursuant 94823
to an interagency agreement entered into underauthorized by94824
section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code;94825

       (6) The application fees charged to providers under section 94826
5111.0635164.31 of the Revised Code;94827

       (7) The fines collected under section 5111.2715165.1010 of 94828
the Revised Code;94829

       (8) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 94830
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 94831
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 94832
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 94833
be credited to the health care/medicaid support and recoveries 94834
fund under section 5162.52 of the Revised Code.94835

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the health care services 94836
administration fund in violation of federal statutes or 94837
regulations.94838

       (D)(B) In determining under division (B)(A)(3) of this 94839
section the amount of money the department, in a fiscal year, 94840
recovers through audits of medicaid providers, the amount 94841
recovered in the form of vendor offset shall be excluded.94842

       (E)(C) The directordepartment of job and family services94843
medicaid shall use funds available in the health care services 94844
administration fund to pay for costs associated with the 94845
administration of the medicaid program.94846

       Sec. 5111.945.        Sec. 5162.56. There is created in the state treasury 94847
the health care special activities fund. The department of job and 94848
family servicesmedicaid shall deposit all funds it receives 94849
pursuant to the administration of the medicaid program into the 94850
fund, other than any such funds that are required by law to be 94851
deposited into another fund. The department shall use the money in 94852
the fund to pay for expenses related to the services provided 94853
under, and the administration of, the medicaid program.94854

       Sec. 5111.944.        Sec. 5162.58. (A) As used in this section:94855

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 94856
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 94857
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).94858

       "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" means 94859
the demonstration project authorized by section 5111.981 of the 94860
Revised Code.94861

       "Medicare program" means the program created under Title 94862
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 94863
1395, as amended.94864

       (B) There is created in the state treasury the integrated 94865
care delivery systems fund. If the terms of the federal approval 94866
for the dual eligible integrated care demonstration project 94867
authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised Code provide for the 94868
state to receive a portion of the amounts that the demonstration 94869
project saves the medicare program, such amounts shall be 94870
deposited into the fund. The department of job and family services94871
medicaid shall use the money in the fund to further develop 94872
integrated delivery systems and improved care coordination for 94873
dual eligible individuals.94874

       Sec. 5162.60.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 94875
treasury the managed care performance payment fund. The fund shall 94876
consist of all of the following:94877

       (1) Amounts transferred to it by the director of budget and 94878
management for the purpose of the managed care performance payment 94879
program established under section 5167.30 of the Revised Code;94880

       (2) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 94881
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 94882
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 94883
adopted under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code;94884

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.94885

       (B) Amounts in the fund may be used for the following:94886

        (1) To make performance payments to medicaid managed care 94887
organizations in accordance with section 5167.30 of the Revised 94888
Code;94889

       (2) To meet obligations specified in the provider agreements;94890

       (3) To pay for medicaid services provided by a medicaid 94891
managed care organization;94892

       (4) To reimburse a medicaid managed care organization that 94893
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 94894
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 94895
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if that organization 94896
comes into compliance with those standards or requirements.94897

       Sec. 5162.62.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 94898
the medicaid administrative reimbursement fund. The department of 94899
medicaid shall use money in the fund to pay for the nonfederal 94900
share of the cost of a fiscal audit for which a state agency or 94901
political subdivision is required by section 5162.35 of the 94902
Revised Code to reimburse the department. The department shall 94903
deposit the reimbursements into the fund.94904

       Sec. 5111.714.        Sec. 5162.64.  (A) There is hereby created in the 94905
state treasury the medicaid school program administrative fund. 94906

       (B) Both of the following shall be deposited into the 94907
medicaid school program administrative fund:94908

       (1) The federal funds the department of education receives 94909
for the expenses the department incurs in administering the 94910
medicaid school component of the medicaid program created under 94911
section 5162.36 of the Revised Code;94912

       (2) The money the department collects from qualified medicaid 94913
school providers in the process established in rules adopted under94914
authorized by section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code.94915

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the medicaid school 94916
program administrative fund in violation of federal statutes or 94917
regulations.94918

       (D) The department of education shall use money in the 94919
medicaid school program administrative fund for both of the 94920
following purposes:94921

       (1) Paying for the expenses the department incurs in 94922
administering the medicaid school component of the medicaid 94923
program;94924

       (2) Paying a qualified medicaid school provider a refund for 94925
any overpayment the provider makes to the department under the 94926
process established in rules adopted underauthorized by section 94927
5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code if the process results in an 94928
overpayment.94929

       Sec. 5111.62.        Sec. 5162.66. TheAs used in this section, 94930
"deficiency" has the same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the 94931
Revised Code.94932

       The proceeds of all fines, including interest, collected 94933
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 94934
Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 94935
residents protection fund, which is hereby created. The proceeds 94936
of all fines, including interest, collected under section 173.42 94937
of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to 94938
the credit of the residents protection fund.94939

        Money in the fund shall be used for the protection of the 94940
health or property of residents of nursing facilities in which the 94941
department of health finds deficiencies, including payment for the 94942
costs of relocation of residents to other facilities, maintenance 94943
of operation of a facility pending correction of deficiencies or 94944
closure, and reimbursement of residents for the loss of money 94945
managed by the facility under section 3721.15 of the Revised Code. 94946
Money in the fund may also be used to make payments under section 94947
5111.5115165.78 of the Revised Code.94948

       The fund shall be maintained and administered by the 94949
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under rules 94950
developed in consultation with the departments of health and aging 94951
and adopted by the director of job and family services under 94952
Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 94953
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.94954

       Sec. 5163.01. As used in this chapter:94955

       "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as in 94956
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.94957

       "Healthy start component" has the same meaning as in section 94958
5162.01 of the Revised Code.94959

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" and 94960
"ICF/MR" have the same meanings as in section 5124.01 of the 94961
Revised Code.94962

       "Mandatory eligibility groups" means the groups of 94963
individuals that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 94964
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 94965
for the medicaid program.94966

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 94967
5164.01 of the Revised Code.94968

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 94969
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.94970

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 94971
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.94972

       "Optional eligibility groups" means the groups of individuals 94973
who may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 94974
medicaid waiver and for whom the medicaid program receives federal 94975
financial participation.94976

       "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 94977
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5163.02 of the 94978
Revised Code.94979

       "Supplemental security income program" means the program 94980
established by Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 94981
1381 et seq.94982

       Sec. 5111.011.        Sec. 5163.02. (A) The medicaid director of job and 94983
family services shall adopt rules establishingas necessary to 94984
implement this chapter. The rules shall establish eligibility 94985
requirements for the medicaid program. The rules may establish 94986
requirements for applying for medicaid and determining and 94987
verifying eligibility for medicaid. The rules shall be adopted 94988
pursuant toin accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 94989
and shall be consistent with federal and state law. The rules 94990
shall include rules that do all of the following:94991

       (1) Establish standards consistent with federal law for 94992
allocating income and resources as income and resources of the 94993
spouse, children, parents, or stepparents of a recipient of or 94994
applicant for medicaid;94995

       (2) Define the term "resources" as used in division (A)(1) of 94996
this section;94997

       (3) Specify the number of months that is to be used for the 94998
purpose of the term "look-back date" used in section 5111.0116 of 94999
the Revised Code;95000

       (4) Establish processes to be used to determine both of the 95001
following:95002

       (a) The date an institutionalized individual's ineligibility 95003
for services under section 5111.0116 of the Revised Code is to 95004
begin;95005

       (b) The number of months an institutionalized individual's 95006
ineligibility for such services is to continue.95007

       (5) For the purpose of division (C) of section 5111.0116 of 95008
the Revised Code, establish procedures for granting waivers of all 95009
or a portion of the period of ineligibility that an 95010
institutionalized individual would otherwise be subject to under 95011
that section and additional reasons for which such waivers may be 95012
granted;95013

       (6) Define the term "other medicaid-funded long-term care 95014
services" as used in sections 5111.0117 and 5111.0118 of the 95015
Revised Code;95016

       (7) For the purpose of division (C)(2)(c) of section 95017
5111.0117 of the Revised Code, establish the process to determine 95018
whether the child of an aged, blind, or disabled individual is 95019
financially dependent on the individual for housing.95020

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of state law, including 95021
statutes, administrative rules, common law, and court rules, 95022
regarding real or personal property or domestic relations, the 95023
standards established under rules adopted under division (A)(1) of95024
this section shall be used to determine eligibility for medicaid.95025

       Sec. 5163.03.  (A) Subject to sections 5163.04 and 5163.05 of 95026
the Revised Code, the medicaid program shall cover all mandatory 95027
eligibility groups.95028

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 95029
eligibility groups that state statutes require the medicaid 95030
program to cover.95031

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 95032
eligibility groups to which either of the following applies:95033

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 95034
cover the optional eligibility group.95035

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 95036
program may cover the optional eligibility group.95037

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any eligibility 95038
group that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 95039
covering.95040

       Sec. 5163.04.  The medicaid program shall not cover the group 95041
described in the "Social Security Act," section 95042
1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII).95043

       This section does not affect the medicaid eligibility of any 95044
individual who enrolls in the metrohealth care plus medicaid 95045
waiver component on or after February 5, 2013.95046

       Sec. 5163.05.  The medicaid program's eligibility 95047
requirements for aged, blind, and disabled individuals may be more 95048
restrictive than the eligibility requirements for the supplemental 95049
security income program. Any such more restrictive eligibility 95050
requirements shall be consistent with the 209(b) option described 95051
in the "Social Security Act," section 1902(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(f).95052

       Sec. 5163.06.  Beginning January 1, 2014, the medicaid 95053
director may alter the eligibility requirements for, and terminate 95054
the medicaid program's coverage of, one or more optional 95055
eligibility groups or subgroups, including the following:95056

       (A) Children placed with adoptive parents who may be covered 95057
by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 95058
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII);95059

       (B) Low income women and children who may be covered by 95060
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 95061
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX);95062

       (C) Employed individuals with disabilities who may be covered 95063
by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 95064
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV);95065

       (D) Employed individuals with medically improved disabilities 95066
who may be covered by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security 95067
Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVI), 42 U.S.C. 95068
1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVI);95069

       (E) Independent foster care adolescents who may be covered by 95070
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 95071
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII);95072

       (F) Pregnant women who may be determined presumptively 95073
eligible for medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," 95074
section 1920, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-1;95075

       (G) Children who may be determined presumptively eligible for 95076
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1920A, 42 95077
U.S.C. 1396r-1a.95078

       Sec. 5163.061.  If the medicaid director alters the 95079
eligibility requirements for, or terminates the medicaid program's 95080
coverage of, an optional eligibility group or subgroup pursuant to 95081
section 5163.06 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:95082

       (A) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 95083
for which the eligibility requirements are altered:95084

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 95085
altered eligibility requirements, in medicaid as part of the group 95086
or subgroup shall remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that 95087
effective date unless the individual meets the altered eligibility 95088
requirements for the group or subgroup or meets the eligibility 95089
requirements for another eligibility group or subgroup.95090

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the altered 95091
eligibility requirements, no individual may enroll in medicaid as 95092
part of the group or subgroup unless the individual meets the 95093
altered eligibility requirements for the group or subgroup or 95094
meets the eligibility requirements for another eligibility group 95095
or subgroup.95096

       (B) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 95097
whose medicaid coverage is terminated:95098

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 95099
termination, in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup shall 95100
remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that effective date 95101
unless the individual meets the eligibility requirements for 95102
another eligibility group or subgroup.95103

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the termination, no 95104
individual may enroll in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup 95105
but may enroll in medicaid as part of another group or subgroup 95106
for which the individual meets the eligibility requirements.95107

       (C) The department of medicaid shall take actions as the 95108
department determines necessary, including requiring actions from 95109
county departments of job and family services, to do both of the 95110
following:95111

       (1) Inform medicaid recipients about the altered eligibility 95112
requirements or termination of the medicaid program's coverage of 95113
the group or subgroup;95114

       (2) In the case of medicaid recipients who will cease to be 95115
eligible for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup because of 95116
the altered eligibility requirements or termination of the group's 95117
or subgroup's coverage, offer to assist the recipients with the 95118
following:95119

       (a) To continue to be enrolled in medicaid as part of another 95120
eligibility group or subgroup for which they meet the eligibility 95121
requirements;95122

       (b) Transition to other health coverage options available to 95123
them.95124

       (D) Regarding appeals authorized by section 5160.31 of the 95125
Revised Code:95126

       (1) No individual may appeal a denial of medicaid eligibility 95127
as part of a group or subgroup whose medicaid coverage is 95128
terminated if the denial is for medicaid eligibility that would 95129
begin or continue on or after the effective date of the 95130
termination.95131

       (2) An individual may initiate or continue, on or after the 95132
effective date of the termination, an appeal concerning the 95133
individual's eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or 95134
subgroup if the decision being appealed concerns the individual's 95135
eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup before 95136
the effective date of the termination.95137

       (3) An appeal initiated or continued pursuant to division 95138
(D)(2) of this section may not result in the appellant being 95139
enrolled, or continuing to be enrolled, in medicaid as part of the 95140
group or subgroup on or after the effective date of the 95141
termination.95142

       (E) The altered eligibility requirements or termination of 95143
the medicaid program's coverage of the group or subgroup has no 95144
effect on either of the following:95145

       (1) An automatic right of recovery given under section 95146
5160.37 of the Revised Code;95147

       (2) An automatic assignment of rights under section 5160.38 95148
of the Revised Code.95149

       (F) All rules, standards, guidelines, or orders regarding the 95150
group or subgroup issued by the medicaid director before the 95151
effective date of the altered eligibility requirements or 95152
termination of the medicaid program's coverage of the group or 95153
subgroup shall be used for the purpose of determining the state's 95154
legal obligations for claims related to the group or subgroup that 95155
arise from any of the following:95156

       (1) Eligibility determinations regarding enrollment in 95157
medicaid before that effective date;95158

       (2) Claims for payment for medicaid services provided before 95159
that effective date;95160

       (3) Recoveries of erroneous medicaid payments.95161

       Sec. 5163.07.  (A) As used in this section, "actual income" 95162
means the amount of an individual's income before any disregarded 95163
amounts or other deductions are applied pursuant to an income 95164
eligibility methodology.95165

       (B) In transitioning to the use of modified adjusted gross 95166
income and household income methodologies to determine an 95167
individual's income eligibility for the medicaid program pursuant 95168
to the "Social Security Act," section 1902(e)(14), 42 U.S.C. 95169
1396a(e)(14), and except as provided in division (C) of this 95170
section, the medicaid director shall provide for both of the 95171
following to qualify for the medicaid program:95172

       (1) All individuals who would qualify for medicaid pursuant 95173
to former section 5111.0110 or 5111.0120 of the Revised Code using 95174
the applicable income eligibility methodology in effect on the day 95175
immediately preceding the effective date of this section;95176

       (2) All individuals who would qualify for medicaid pursuant 95177
to the optional eligibility group specified in the "Social 95178
Security Act," section 1902(a)(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI), 42 U.S.C. 95179
1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI), using the applicable income eligibility 95180
methodology in effect on the day immediately preceding the 95181
effective date of this section.95182

       (C) An individual whose actual income exceeds one hundred 95183
thirty-eight per cent of the federal poverty line may not qualify 95184
for medicaid pursuant to division (B) of this section.95185

       Sec. 5163.08.  The medicaid director shall implement the 95186
option authorized by the "Social Security Act," section 95187
1925(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-6(a)(5), regarding the single 95188
twelve-month eligibility period for transitional medicaid.95189

       Sec. 5111.15.        Sec. 5163.20.  If a medicaid recipient of medical 95190
assistance is the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to 95191
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code, then, notwithstanding any 95192
contrary provision of this chapter or of a rule adopted pursuant 95193
to this chapterunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code, 95194
divisions (C) and (D) of that section shall apply in determining 95195
the assets or resources of the recipient, the recipient's estate, 95196
the settlor, or the settlor's estate and to claims arising under 95197
this chapter against the recipient, the recipient's estate, the 95198
settlor, or the settlor's estate.95199

       Sec. 5111.151.        Sec. 5163.21. (A)(1) This section applies only to 95200
either of the following:95201

       (a) Initial eligibility determinations for the medicaid 95202
program made by the department of job and family services pursuant 95203
to section 5101.47 of the Revised Code or by a county department 95204
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.012 of the 95205
Revised Code;95206

       (b) An appeal from aan initial eligibility determination 95207
described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section pursuant to 95208
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code. 95209

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this 95210
section, this section shall not be used by a court to determine 95211
the effect of a trust on an individual's initial eligibility for 95212
the medicaid program. 95213

       (b) The prohibition in division (A)(2)(a) of this section 95214
does not apply to an appeal described in division (A)(1)(b) of 95215
this section.95216

        (B) As used in this section:95217

        (1) "Trust" means any arrangement in which a grantor 95218
transfers real or personal property to a trust with the intention 95219
that it be held, managed, or administered by at least one trustee 95220
for the benefit of the grantor or beneficiaries. "Trust" includes 95221
any legal instrument or device similar to a trust.95222

        (2) "Legal instrument or device similar to a trust" includes, 95223
but is not limited to, escrow accounts, investment accounts, 95224
partnerships, contracts, and other similar arrangements that are 95225
not called trusts under state law but are similar to a trust and 95226
to which all of the following apply:95227

        (a) The property in the trust is held, managed, retained, or 95228
administered by a trustee.95229

        (b) The trustee has an equitable, legal, or fiduciary duty to 95230
hold, manage, retain, or administer the property for the benefit 95231
of the beneficiary.95232

        (c) The trustee holds identifiable property for the 95233
beneficiary.95234

        (3) "Grantor" is a person who creates a trust, including all 95235
of the following:95236

        (a) An individual;95237

        (b) An individual's spouse;95238

        (c) A person, including a court or administrative body, with 95239
legal authority to act in place of or on behalf of an individual 95240
or an individual's spouse;95241

        (d) A person, including a court or administrative body, that 95242
acts at the direction or on request of an individual or the 95243
individual's spouse.95244

        (4) "Beneficiary" is a person or persons, including a 95245
grantor, who benefits in some way from a trust.95246

        (5) "Trustee" is a person who manages a trust's principal and 95247
income for the benefit of the beneficiaries.95248

        (6) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 95249
Revised Code and includes an individual, corporation, business 95250
trust, estate, trust, partnership, and association.95251

        (7) "Applicant" is an individual who applies for medicaid or 95252
the individual's spouse.95253

        (8) "Recipient" is an individual who receives medicaid or the 95254
individual's spouse.95255

        (9) "Revocable trust" is a trust that can be revoked by the 95256
grantor or the beneficiary, including all of the following, even 95257
if the terms of the trust state that it is irrevocable:95258

        (a) A trust that provides that the trust can be terminated 95259
only by a court;95260

        (b) A trust that terminates on the happening of an event, but 95261
only if the event occurs at the direction or control of the 95262
grantor, beneficiary, or trustee.95263

        (10) "Irrevocable trust" is a trust that cannot be revoked by 95264
the grantor or terminated by a court and that terminates only on 95265
the occurrence of an event outside of the control or direction of 95266
the beneficiary or grantor.95267

        (11) "Payment" is any disbursal from the principal or income 95268
of the trust, including actual cash, noncash or property 95269
disbursements, or the right to use and occupy real property.95270

        (12) "Payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 95271
recipient" is a payment to any person resulting in a direct or 95272
indirect benefit to the applicant or recipient.95273

        (13) "Testamentary trust" is a trust that is established by a 95274
will and does not take effect until after the death of the person 95275
who created the trust.95276

        (C)(1) If an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 95277
trust, the applicant or recipient shall submit a complete copy of 95278
the trust instrument to the county department of job and family 95279
services and the department of medicaid. A copy shall be 95280
considered complete if it contains all pages of the trust 95281
instrument and all schedules, attachments, and accounting 95282
statements referenced in or associated with the trust. The copy is 95283
confidential and is not subject to disclosure under section 149.43 95284
of the Revised Code.95285

        (2) On receipt of a copy of a trust instrument or otherwise 95286
determining that an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 95287
trust, the county department of job and family services shall 95288
determine what type of trust it is and shall treat the trust in 95289
accordance with the appropriate provisions of this section and 95290
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 95291
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing trusts. The county 95292
department of job and family services may determine that any of 95293
the following is the case regarding the trust or portion of the 95294
trust:95295

        (a) IsIt is a resource available to the applicant or 95296
recipient;95297

        (b) ContainsIt contains income available to the applicant or 95298
recipient;95299

        (c) Constitutes both items described in divisionsDivisions95300
(C)(1)(2)(a) and (b) of this section are both applicable;95301

        (d) Is neither an item described inNeither division 95302
(C)(1)(2)(a) nor (C)(1)(b) of this section is applicable.95303

       (2)(3) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, a 95304
trust or portion of a trust that is a resource available to the 95305
applicant or recipient or contains income available to the 95306
applicant or recipient shall be counted for purposes of 95307
determining medicaid eligibility.95308

        (D)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 95309
trust shall be considered a medicaid qualifying trust if all of 95310
the following apply:95311

       (a) The trust was established on or prior to August 10, 1993.95312

       (b) The trust was not established by a will.95313

       (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient.95314

       (d) The applicant or recipient is or may become the 95315
beneficiary of all or part of the trust.95316

       (e) Payment from the trust is determined by one or more 95317
trustees who are permitted to exercise any discretion with respect 95318
to the distribution to the applicant or recipient.95319

       (2) If a trust meets the requirement of division (D)(1) of 95320
this section, the amount of the trust that is considered by the 95321
county department of job and family services to be a resource 95322
available to the applicant or recipient shall be the maximum 95323
amount of payments permitted under the terms of the trust to be 95324
distributed to the applicant or recipient, assuming the full 95325
exercise of discretion by the trustee or trustees. The maximum 95326
amount shall include only amounts that are permitted to be 95327
distributed but are not distributed from either the income or 95328
principal of the trust.95329

       (3) Amounts that are actually distributed from a medicaid 95330
qualifying trust to a beneficiary for any purpose shall be treated 95331
in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job and 95332
family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code95333
governing income.95334

       (4) Availability of a medicaid qualifying trust shall be 95335
considered without regard to any of the following:95336

       (a) Whether or not the trust is irrevocable or was 95337
established for purposes other than to enable a grantor to qualify 95338
for medicaid, medical assistance for covered families and 95339
children, or as a qualified medicare beneficiary, specified 95340
low-income medicare beneficiary, qualifying individual-1, or 95341
qualifying individual-2;95342

       (b) Whether or not the trustee actually exercises discretion.95343

       (5) If any real or personal property is transferred to a 95344
medicaid qualifying trust that is not distributable to the 95345
applicant or recipient, the transfer shall be considered an 95346
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 95347
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 95348
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 95349
Code.95350

       (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 95351
disposition of assets involving a medicaid qualifying trust shall 95352
be the date on which the applicant or recipient is both 95353
institutionalized and first applies for medicaid.95354

       (E)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 95355
trust shall be considered a self-settled trust if all of the 95356
following apply:95357

        (a) The trust was established on or after August 11, 1993.95358

        (b) The trust was not established by a will.95359

        (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient, 95360
spouse of an applicant or recipient, or a person, including a 95361
court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place 95362
of or on behalf of an applicant, recipient, or spouse, or acting 95363
at the direction or on request of an applicant, recipient, or 95364
spouse.95365

        (2) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 95366
this section and is a revocable trust shall be treated by the 95367
county department of job and family services as follows:95368

        (a) The corpus of the trust shall be considered a resource 95369
available to the applicant or recipient.95370

        (b) Payments from the trust to or for the benefit of the 95371
applicant or recipient shall be considered unearned income of the 95372
applicant or recipient.95373

        (c) Any other payments from the trust shall be considered an 95374
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 95375
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 95376
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 95377
Code.95378

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 95379
this section and is an irrevocable trust shall be treated by the 95380
county department of job and family services as follows:95381

        (a) If there are any circumstances under which payment from 95382
the trust could be made to or for the benefit of the applicant or 95383
recipient, including a payment that can be made only in the 95384
future, the portion from which payments could be made shall be 95385
considered a resource available to the applicant or recipient. The 95386
county department of job and family services shall not take into 95387
account when payments can be made.95388

        (b) Any payment that is actually made to or for the benefit 95389
of the applicant or recipient from either the corpus or income 95390
shall be considered unearned income.95391

        (c) If a payment is made to someone other than to the 95392
applicant or recipient and the payment is not for the benefit of 95393
the applicant or recipient, the payment shall be considered an 95394
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 95395
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 95396
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 95397
Code.95398

        (d) The date of the disposition shall be the later of the 95399
date of establishment of the trust or the date of the occurrence 95400
of the event.95401

        (e) When determining the value of the disposed asset under 95402
this provision, the value of the trust shall be its value on the 95403
date payment to the applicant or recipient was foreclosed.95404

        (f) Any income earned or other resources added subsequent to 95405
the foreclosure date shall be added to the total value of the 95406
trust.95407

        (g) Any payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 95408
recipient after the foreclosure date but prior to the application 95409
date shall be subtracted from the total value. Any other payments 95410
shall not be subtracted from the value.95411

        (h) Any addition of assets after the foreclosure date shall 95412
be considered a separate disposition.95413

        (4) If a trust is funded with assets of another person or 95414
persons in addition to assets of the applicant or recipient, the 95415
applicable provisions of this section and rules adopted by the 95416
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 95417
Revised Code governing trusts shall apply only to the portion of 95418
the trust attributable to the applicant or recipient.95419

        (5) The availability of a self-settled trust shall be 95420
considered without regard to any of the following:95421

        (a) The purpose for which the trust is established;95422

        (b) Whether the trustees have exercised or may exercise 95423
discretion under the trust;95424

        (c) Any restrictions on when or whether distributions may be 95425
made from the trust;95426

        (d) Any restrictions on the use of distributions from the 95427
trust.95428

        (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 95429
dispositions of assets involving a self-settled trust shall be the 95430
date on which the applicant or recipient is both institutionalized 95431
and first applies for medicaid.95432

        (F) The principal or income from any of the following shall 95433
not be a resource available to the applicant or recipient:95434

        (1)(a) A special needs trust that meets all of the following 95435
requirements:95436

        (i) The trust contains assets of an applicant or recipient 95437
under sixty-five years of age and may contain the assets of other 95438
individuals.95439

        (ii) The applicant or recipient is disabled as defined in 95440
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 95441
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code.95442

        (iii) The trust is established for the benefit of the 95443
applicant or recipient by a parent, grandparent, legal guardian, 95444
or a court.95445

        (iv) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant or 95446
recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 95447
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid95448
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.95449

        (b) If a special needs trust meets the requirements of 95450
division (F)(1)(a) of this section and has been established for a 95451
disabled applicant or recipient under sixty-five years of age, the 95452
exemption for the trust granted pursuant to division (F) of this 95453
section shall continue after the disabled applicant or recipient 95454
becomes sixty-five years of age if the applicant or recipient 95455
continues to be disabled as defined in rules adopted by the 95456
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 95457
Revised Code. Except for income earned by the trust, the grantor 95458
shall not add to or otherwise augment the trust after the 95459
applicant or recipient attains sixty-five years of age. An 95460
addition or augmentation of the trust by the applicant or 95461
recipient with the applicant's own assets after the applicant or 95462
recipient attains sixty-five years of age shall be treated as an 95463
improper disposition of assets.95464

        (c) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 95465
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 95466
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 95467
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code95468
governing in-kind income.95469

        (d) Transfers of assets to a special needs trust shall not be 95470
treated as an improper transfer of resources. An asset held prior 95471
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 95472
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 95473
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 95474
the individual.95475

        (2)(a) A qualifying income trust that meets all of the 95476
following requirements:95477

        (i) The trust is composed only of pension, social security, 95478
and other income to the applicant or recipient, including 95479
accumulated interest in the trust.95480

        (ii) The income is received by the individual and the right 95481
to receive the income is not assigned or transferred to the trust.95482

        (iii) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant 95483
or recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 95484
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid95485
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.95486

        (b) No resources shall be used to establish or augment the 95487
trust.95488

        (c) If an applicant or recipient has irrevocably transferred 95489
or assigned the applicant's or recipient's right to receive income 95490
to the trust, the trust shall not be considered a qualifying 95491
income trust by the county department of job and family services.95492

        (d) Income placed in a qualifying income trust shall not be 95493
counted in determining an applicant's or recipient's eligibility 95494
for medicaid. The recipient of the funds may place any income 95495
directly into a qualifying income trust without those funds 95496
adversely affecting the applicant's or recipient's eligibility for 95497
medicaid. Income generated by the trust that remains in the trust 95498
shall not be considered as income to the applicant or recipient.95499

        (e) All income placed in a qualifying income trust shall be 95500
combined with any income available to the individual that is not 95501
placed in the trust to arrive at a base income figure to be used 95502
for spend down calculations.95503

        (f) The base income figure shall be used for post-eligibility 95504
deductions, including personal needs allowance, monthly income 95505
allowance, family allowance, and medical expenses not subject to 95506
third party payment. Any income remaining shall be used toward 95507
payment of patient liability. Payments made from a qualifying 95508
income trust shall not be combined with the base income figure for 95509
post-eligibility calculations.95510

        (g) The base income figure shall be used when determining the 95511
spend down budget for the applicant or recipient. Any income 95512
remaining after allowable deductions are permitted as provided 95513
under rules adopted by the department of job and family services95514
under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code shall be considered the 95515
applicant's or recipient's spend down liability.95516

        (3)(a) A pooled trust that meets all of the following 95517
requirements:95518

        (i) The trust contains the assets of the applicant or 95519
recipient of any age who is disabled as defined in rules adopted 95520
by the department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 95521
of the Revised Code.95522

        (ii) The trust is established and managed by a nonprofit 95523
organization.95524

        (iii) A separate account is maintained for each beneficiary 95525
of the trust but, for purposes of investment and management of 95526
funds, the trust pools the funds in these accounts.95527

        (iv) Accounts in the trust are established by the applicant 95528
or recipient, the applicant's or recipient's parent, grandparent, 95529
or legal guardian, or a court solely for the benefit of 95530
individuals who are disabled.95531

        (v) The trust requires that, to the extent that any amounts 95532
remaining in the beneficiary's account on the death of the 95533
beneficiary are not retained by the trust, the trust pay to the 95534
state the amounts remaining in the trust up to an amount equal to 95535
the total amount of medicaid paidpayments made on behalf of the 95536
beneficiary.95537

        (b) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 95538
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 95539
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 95540
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code95541
governing in-kind income.95542

        (c) Transfers of assets to a pooled trust shall not be 95543
treated as an improper disposition of assets. An asset held prior 95544
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 95545
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 95546
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 95547
the applicant or recipient.95548

        (4) A supplemental services trust that meets the requirements 95549
of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code and to which all of the 95550
following apply:95551

        (a) A person may establish a supplemental services trust 95552
pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code only for another 95553
person who is eligible to receive services through one of the 95554
following agencies:95555

        (i) The department of developmental disabilities;95556

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities;95557

        (iii) The department of mental healthmental health and 95558
addiction services;95559

        (iv) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 95560
services.95561

        (b) A county department of job and family services shall not 95562
determine eligibility for another agency's program. An applicant 95563
or recipient shall do one of the following:95564

        (i) Provide documentation from one of the agencies listed in 95565
division (F)(4)(a) of this section that establishes that the 95566
applicant or recipient was determined to be eligible for services 95567
from the agency at the time of the creation of the trust;95568

        (ii) Provide an order from a court of competent jurisdiction 95569
that states that the applicant or recipient was eligible for 95570
services from one of the agencies listed in division (F)(4)(a) of 95571
this section at the time of the creation of the trust.95572

        (c) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 95573
does not exceed the maximum amount permitted. The maximum amount 95574
permitted in calendar year 2006 is two hundred twenty-two thousand 95575
dollars. Each year thereafter, the maximum amount permitted is the 95576
prior year's amount plus two thousand dollars.95577

        (d) A county department of job and family services shall 95578
review the trust to determine whether it complies with the 95579
provisions of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.95580

        (e) Payments from supplemental services trusts shall be 95581
exempt as long as the payments are for supplemental services as 95582
defined in rules adopted by the department of job and family 95583
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code. All 95584
supplemental services shall be purchased by the trustee and shall 95585
not be purchased through direct cash payments to the beneficiary.95586

        (f) If a trust is represented as a supplemental services 95587
trust and a county department of job and family services 95588
determines that the trust does not meet the requirements provided 95589
in division (F)(4) of this section and section 5815.28 of the 95590
Revised Code, the county department of job and family services 95591
shall not consider it an exempt trust.95592

        (G)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 95593
trust shall be considered a trust established by an individual for 95594
the benefit of the applicant or recipient if all of the following 95595
apply:95596

        (a) The trust is created by a person other than the applicant 95597
or recipient.95598

        (b) The trust names the applicant or recipient as a 95599
beneficiary.95600

        (c) The trust is funded with assets or property in which the 95601
applicant or recipient has never held an ownership interest prior 95602
to the establishment of the trust.95603

        (2) Any portion of a trust that meets the requirements of 95604
division (G)(1) of this section shall be a resource available to 95605
the applicant or recipient only if the trust permits the trustee 95606
to expend principal, corpus, or assets of the trust for the 95607
applicant's or recipient's medical care, care, comfort, 95608
maintenance, health, welfare, general well being, or any 95609
combination of these purposes.95610

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 95611
this section shall be considered a resource available to the 95612
applicant or recipient even if the trust contains any of the 95613
following types of provisions:95614

        (a) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 95615
payments that would supplant or replace medicaid or other public 95616
assistance;95617

        (b) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 95618
payments that would impact or have an effect on the applicant's or 95619
recipient's right, ability, or opportunity to receive medicaid or 95620
other public assistance;95621

        (c) A provision that attempts to prevent the trust or its 95622
corpus or principal from being a resource available to the 95623
applicant or recipient.95624

        (4) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 95625
this section shall not be counted as a resource available to the 95626
applicant or recipient if at least one of the following 95627
circumstances applies:95628

        (a) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 95629
trustee to preserve a portion of the trust for another beneficiary 95630
or remainderman, that portion of the trust shall not be counted as 95631
a resource available to the applicant or recipient. Terms of a 95632
trust that grant discretion to preserve a portion of the trust 95633
shall not qualify as a clear statement requiring the trustee to 95634
preserve a portion of the trust.95635

        (b) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 95636
trustee to use a portion of the trust for a purpose other than 95637
medical care, care, comfort, maintenance, welfare, or general well 95638
being of the applicant or recipient, that portion of the trust 95639
shall not be counted as a resource available to the applicant or 95640
recipient. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to limit the use 95641
of a portion of the trust shall not qualify as a clear statement 95642
requiring the trustee to use a portion of the trust for a 95643
particular purpose.95644

        (c) If a trust contains a clear statement limiting the 95645
trustee to making fixed periodic payments, the trust shall not be 95646
counted as a resource available to the applicant or recipient and 95647
payments shall be treated in accordance with rules adopted by the 95648
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 95649
Revised Code governing income. Terms of a trust that grant 95650
discretion to limit payments shall not qualify as a clear 95651
statement requiring the trustee to make fixed periodic payments.95652

        (d) If a trust contains a clear statement that requires the 95653
trustee to terminate the trust if it is counted as a resource 95654
available to the applicant or recipient, the trust shall not be 95655
counted as such. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to 95656
terminate the trust do not qualify as a clear statement requiring 95657
the trustee to terminate the trust.95658

        (e) If a person obtains a judgment from a court of competent 95659
jurisdiction that expressly prevents the trustee from using part 95660
or all of the trust for the medical care, care, comfort, 95661
maintenance, welfare, or general well being of the applicant or 95662
recipient, the trust or that portion of the trust subject to the 95663
court order shall not be counted as a resource available to the 95664
applicant or recipient.95665

        (f) If a trust is specifically exempt from being counted as a 95666
resource available to the applicant or recipient by a provision of 95667
the Revised Code, rules, or federal law, the trust shall not be 95668
counted as such.95669

        (g) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 95670
from a court demonstrating that the applicant or recipient was 95671
unsuccessful in a civil action against the trustee to compel 95672
payments from the trust, the trust shall not be counted as a 95673
resource available to the applicant or recipient.95674

        (h) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 95675
from a court demonstrating that in a civil action against the 95676
trustee the applicant or recipient was only able to compel limited 95677
or periodic payments, the trust shall not be counted as a resource 95678
available to the applicant or recipient and payments shall be 95679
treated in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job 95680
and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code95681
governing income.95682

        (i) If an applicant or recipient provides written 95683
documentation showing that the cost of a civil action brought to 95684
compel payments from the trust would be cost prohibitive, the 95685
trust shall not be counted as a resource available to the 95686
applicant or recipient.95687

        (5) Any actual payments to the applicant or recipient from a 95688
trust that meet the requirements of division (G)(1) of this 95689
section, including trusts that are not counted as a resource 95690
available to the applicant or recipient, shall be treated as 95691
provided in rules adopted by the department of job and family 95692
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing 95693
income. Payments to any person other than the applicant or 95694
recipient shall not be considered income to the applicant or 95695
recipient. Payments from the trust to a person other than the 95696
applicant or recipient shall not be considered an improper 95697
disposition of assets.95698

       Sec. 5111.181.        Sec. 5163.22.  (A) The general assembly hereby finds 95699
that the state has an insurable interest in medical assistance95700
medicaid recipients because of the state's statutory right to 95701
recover from the estate of a recipient state funds used to provide 95702
the recipient with medical care andmedicaid services.95703

       (B) As used in this section:95704

       (1) "Beneficiary" means the person or entity designated in a 95705
life insurance policy to receive the proceeds of the policy on the 95706
death of the insured or maturity of the policy.95707

       (2) "Owner" means the person who has the right to designate 95708
the beneficiary of a life insurance policy and to change the 95709
designation.95710

       (C) Notwithstanding section 5111.011 of the Revised Code, the95711
The value of a life insurance policy that would otherwise be 95712
considered a resource in determining eligibility for the medical 95713
assistancemedicaid program shall be excluded from any 95714
determination of a person's eligibility for the medical assistance95715
medicaid program if the owner designates the department of job and 95716
family servicesmedicaid as beneficiary of the policy. The 95717
department may pay premiums to keep the policy in force. Premiums 95718
paid by the department are medical assistancemedicaid payments 95719
correctly paid on behalf of a medical assistancemedicaid95720
recipient and subject to recovery under section 5111.115162.21 of 95721
the Revised Code.95722

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 95723
deposit the proceeds of a life insurance policy that do not exceed 95724
the amount the department may recover against the property and 95725
estate of the owner under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised 95726
Code into the general revenue fund. The director shall pay any 95727
remaining proceeds to the person designated by the owner. If the 95728
owner failed to designate a person, the director shall pay the 95729
remaining proceeds to the surviving spouse, or, if there is no 95730
surviving spouse, to the estate of the owner.95731

       (E) If the owner designates the department of job and family 95732
servicesmedicaid as the policy's beneficiary, the department 95733
shall notify the owner that the owner may designate a person to 95734
receive proceeds of the policy that exceed the amount the 95735
department may recover against the owner's property and estate 95736
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code. The designation 95737
shall be made on a form provided by the department.95738

       (F) The department of job and family services shall not 95739
implement this section if implementation would violate any federal 95740
requirement unless the department receives a waiver of the 95741
requirement from the United States department of health and human 95742
services.95743

       Sec. 5111.0116.        Sec. 5163.30.  (A) As used in this section:95744

       (1) "Assets" include all of an individual's income and 95745
resources and those of the individual's spouse, including any 95746
income or resources the individual or spouse is entitled to but 95747
does not receive because of action by any of the following:95748

       (a) The individual or spouse;95749

       (b) A person or government entity, including a court or 95750
administrative agency, with legal authority to act in place of or 95751
on behalf of the individual or spouse;95752

       (c) A person or government entity, including a court or 95753
administrative agency, acting at the direction or on the request 95754
of the individual or spouse.95755

       (2) "Home and community-based services" means home and 95756
community-based services furnished under a medicaid waiver granted 95757
by the United States secretary of health and human services under 95758
the "Social Security Act," section 1915(c) or (d), 42 U.S.C. 95759
1396n(c) or (d).95760

       (3) "Institutionalized individual" means a resident of a 95761
nursing facility, an inpatient in a medical institution for whom a 95762
payment is made based on a level of care provided in a nursing 95763
facility, or an individual described in the "Social Security Act," 95764
section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI).95765

       (4) "Look-back date" means the date that is a number of 95766
months specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.0295767
of the Revised Code immediately before either of the following:95768

       (a) The date an individual becomes an institutionalized 95769
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that 95770
date;95771

       (b) The date an individual applies for medicaid while an 95772
institutionalized individual.95773

       (5) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 95774
5111.20 of the Revised Code.95775

       (6) "Nursing facility equivalent services" means services 95776
that are covered by the medicaid program, equivalent to nursing 95777
facility services, provided by an institution that provides the 95778
same level of care as a nursing facility, and provided to an 95779
inpatient of the institution who is a medicaid recipient eligible 95780
for medicaid-covered nursing facility equivalent services.95781

       (7) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 95782
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 95783
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 95784
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.95785

       (8)(6) "Undue hardship" means being deprived of either of the 95786
following:95787

       (a) Medical care such that an individual's health or life is 95788
endangered;95789

       (b) Food, clothing, shelter, or other necessities of life.95790

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 95791
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code, 95792
an institutionalized individual is ineligible for nursing facility 95793
services, nursing facility equivalent services, and home and 95794
community-based services if the individual or individual's spouse 95795
disposes of assets for less than fair market value on or after the 95796
look-back date. The institutionalized individual's ineligibility 95797
shall begin on a date determined in accordance with rules adopted 95798
under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code and shall 95799
continue for a number of months determined in accordance with such 95800
rules.95801

       (C) An institutionalized individual may be granted a waiver 95802
of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility to which the 95803
individual would otherwise be subjected under division (B) of this 95804
section if the ineligibility would cause an undue hardship for the 95805
individual. An institutionalized individual shall be granted a 95806
waiver of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility if the 95807
administrator of the nursing facility in which the individual 95808
resides has notified the individual of a proposed transfer or 95809
discharge under section 3721.16 of the Revised Code due to failure 95810
to pay for the care the nursing facility has provided to the 95811
individual, the individual or the individual's sponsor requests a 95812
hearing on the proposed transfer or discharge in accordance with 95813
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, and the transfer or 95814
discharge is upheld by a final determination that is not subject 95815
to further appeal. Waivers shall be granted in accordance with 95816
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.95817

       (D) To secure compliance with this section, the medicaid95818
director of job and family services may require an individual, as 95819
a condition of initial or continued eligibility for medicaid, to 95820
provide documentation of the individual's assets up to five years 95821
before the date the individual becomes an institutionalized 95822
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that date 95823
or the date the individual applies for medicaid while an 95824
institutionalized individual. Documentation may include tax 95825
returns, records from financial institutions, and real property 95826
records.95827

       Sec. 5111.0117.        Sec. 5163.31.  (A) As used in this section and 95828
section 5111.0118 of the Revised Code:95829

       (1) "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for 95830
the mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program 95831
that an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 95832
provides to a resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient 95833
eligible for medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the 95834
mentally retarded services.95835

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 95836
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.95837

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 95838
5111.20 of the Revised Code.95839

       (4) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 95840
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 95841
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 95842
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.95843

       (5) "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 95844
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5111.011 of the 95845
Revised Code.95846

       (B) Except as provided by division (C)(A) of this section and 95847
for the purpose of determining whether an aged, blind, or disabled 95848
individual is eligible for nursing facility services, ICF/MR 95849
services, or other medicaid-funded long-term care services, the 95850
medicaid director of job and family services may consider an aged, 95851
blind, or disabled individual's real property to not be the 95852
individual's homestead or principal place of residence once the 95853
individual has resided in a nursing facility, intermediate care 95854
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, or other medical 95855
institution for at least thirteen months.95856

       (C)(B) Division (B)(A) of this section does not apply to an 95857
individual if any of the following reside in the individual's real 95858
property that, because of this division, continues to be 95859
considered the individual's homestead or principal place of 95860
residence:95861

       (1) The individual's spouse;95862

       (2) The individual's child if any of the following apply:95863

       (a) The child is under twenty-one years of age.95864

       (b) The child is considered blind or disabled under the 95865
"Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 U.S.C. 1382c.95866

       (c) The child is financially dependent on the individual for 95867
housing as determined in accordance with rules adopted under 95868
section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.95869

       (3) The individual's sibling if the sibling has a verified 95870
equity interest in the real property and resided in the real 95871
property for at least one year immediately before the date the 95872
individual was admitted to the nursing facility, intermediate care 95873
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, or other medical 95874
institution.95875

       Sec. 5111.0118.        Sec. 5163.32.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 95876
this section, no individual shall qualify for nursing facility 95877
services or other medicaid-funded long-term care services if the 95878
individual's equity interest in the individual's home exceeds five 95879
hundred thousand dollars. The medicaid director of job and family 95880
services shall increase this amount effective January 1, 2011, and 95881
the first day of each year thereafter, by the percentage increase 95882
in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; 95883
United States city average), rounded to the nearest one thousand 95884
dollars.95885

       (B) This section does not apply to an individual if either of 95886
the following applies:95887

       (1) Either of the following lawfully reside in the 95888
individual's home:95889

       (a) The individual's spouse;95890

       (b) The individual's child if the child is under twenty-one 95891
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 95892
U.S.C. 1382c, considered blind or disabled.95893

       (2) The individual qualifies, pursuant to the process 95894
established under division (C) of this section, for a waiver of 95895
this section due to a demonstrated hardship.95896

       (C) The director shall establish a process by which 95897
individuals may obtain a waiver of this section due to a 95898
demonstrated hardship. The process shall be consistent with the 95899
process for such waivers established by the United States 95900
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 95901
Act," section 1917(f)(4), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(f)(4).95902

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 95903
an individual from using a reverse mortgage or home equity loan to 95904
reduce the individual's total equity interest in the home.95905

       Sec. 5111.114.        Sec. 5163.33. As used in this section, "nursing 95906
facility" and "intermediate care facility for the mentally 95907
retarded" have the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the 95908
Revised Code.95909

       (A) In determining the amount of income that a medicaid95910
recipient of medical assistance must apply monthly toward payment 95911
of the cost of care in a nursing facility or intermediate care 95912
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, thea county department 95913
of job and family services shall deduct from the recipient's 95914
monthly income a monthly personal needs allowance in accordance 95915
with section 1902 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 95916
(1935)section 1902(q), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396a, as amended1396a(q).95917

       For(B) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, the 95918
monthly personal needs allowance shall be as follows:95919

       (1) Prior to January 1, 2014, not less than forty dollars for 95920
an individual resident and not less than eighty dollars for a 95921
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 95922
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 95923
determining eligibility;95924

       (2) For calendar year 2014, not less than forty-five dollars 95925
for an individual resident and not less than ninety dollars for a 95926
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 95927
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 95928
determining eligibility;95929

       (3) For calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter, 95930
not less than fifty dollars for an individual resident and not 95931
less than one hundred dollars for a married couple if both spouses 95932
are residents of a nursing facility and their incomes are 95933
considered available to each other in determining eligibility.95934

       For(C) In the case of a resident of an intermediate care 95935
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, the monthly personal 95936
needs allowance shall be forty dollars unless the resident has 95937
earned income, in which case the monthly personal needs allowance 95938
shall be determined by the state department of job and family 95939
servicesmedicaid, or the department's designee, but shall not 95940
exceed one hundred five dollars.95941

       Sec. 5111.013.        Sec. 5163.40.  (A) The provision of medical 95942
assistance to pregnant women and young children who are eligible 95943
for medical assistance under division (C)(3) of section 5111.01 of 95944
the Revised Code, but who are not otherwise eligible for medical 95945
assistance under that section, shall be known as the healthy start 95946
program.95947

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 95948
do all of the following with regard to the application procedures 95949
for the healthy start component of the medicaid program:95950

       (1) Establish a short application form for the program95951
component that requires the applicant to provide no more 95952
information than is necessary for making determinations of 95953
eligibility for the healthy start programcomponent, except that 95954
the form may require applicants to provide their social security 95955
numbers. The form shall include a statement, which must be signed 95956
by the applicant, indicating that she does not choose at the time 95957
of making application for the programcomponent to apply for 95958
assistance provided under any other program administered by the 95959
department or the department of job and family services and that 95960
she understands that she is permitted at any other time to apply 95961
at the county department of job and family services of the county 95962
in which she resides for any other assistance administered by the 95963
department or the department of job and family services.95964

       (2) To the extent permitted by federal law, doDo one or both 95965
of the following:95966

       (a) Distribute the application form for the programcomponent95967
to each public or private entity that serves as a women, infants, 95968
and children clinic or as a child and family health clinic and to 95969
each administrative body for such clinics and train employees of 95970
each such agencyclinic or entityadministrative body to provide 95971
applicants assistance in completing the form;95972

       (b) In cooperation with the department of health, develop 95973
arrangements under which employees of county departments of job 95974
and family services are stationed at public or private agencies or95975
entities selected by the department of job and family services95976
medicaid that serve as women, infants, and children clinics; child 95977
and family health clinics; or administrative bodies for such 95978
clinics for the purpose both of assisting applicants for the 95979
programcomponent in completing the application form and of making 95980
determinations at that location of eligibility for the program95981
component.95982

       (3) Establish performance standards by which a county 95983
department of job and family services' level of enrollment of 95984
persons potentially eligible for the programcomponent can be 95985
measured, and establish acceptable levels of enrollment for each 95986
county department.95987

       (4) Direct any county department of job and family services 95988
whose rate of enrollment of potentially eligible enrollees in the 95989
programcomponent is below acceptable levels established under 95990
division (B)(A)(3) of this section to implement corrective 95991
action. Corrective action may include but is not limited to any 95992
one or more of the following to the extent permitted by federal 95993
law:95994

       (a) Establishing formal referral and outreach methods with 95995
local health departments and local entities receiving funding 95996
through the bureau of maternal and child health;95997

       (b) Designating a specialized intake unit within the county 95998
department for healthy start applicants;95999

       (c) Establishing abbreviated timeliness requirements to 96000
shorten the time between receipt of an application and the 96001
scheduling of an initial application interview;96002

       (d) Establishing a system for telephone scheduling of intake 96003
interviews for applicants;96004

       (e) Establishing procedures to minimize the time an applicant 96005
must spend in completing the application and eligibility 96006
determination process, including permitting applicants to complete 96007
the process at times other than the regular business hours of the 96008
county department and at locations other than the offices of the 96009
county department.96010

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law, local funds, 96011
whether from public or private sources, expended by a county 96012
department for administration of the healthy start program shall 96013
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 96014
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 96015
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 96016
funds for medical assistance, except that this division shall not 96017
affect the amount of funds the county is entitled to receive under 96018
section 5101.16, 5101.161, or 5111.012 of the Revised Code.96019

       (D)(B) A county department of job and family services that 96020
maintains offices at more than one location shall accept 96021
applications for the healthy start programcomponent at all of 96022
those locations.96023

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 96024
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as necessary 96025
to implement this section.96026

       Sec. 5111.0119.        Sec. 5163.45.  (A)(1) As used in this section, 96027
subject to division (A)(2) of this section, "state or local 96028
correctional facility" means any of the following:96029

       (a) A "state correctional institution," as defined in section 96030
2967.01 of the Revised Code;96031

       (b) A "local correctional facility," as defined in section 96032
2903.13 of the Revised Code;96033

       (c) A correctional facility that is privately operated and 96034
managed pursuant to section 9.06 of the Revised Code.96035

       (2) "State or local correctional facility" does not include 96036
any facility operated directly by or at the direction of the 96037
department of youth services.96038

       (B) If a person who is confined in a state or local 96039
correctional facility was a medicaid recipient immediately prior 96040
to being confined in the facility, all of the following apply:96041

       (1) The person's eligibility for medicaid while so confined 96042
shall be suspended due to the confinement.96043

       (2) No medicaid payment shall be made for any care, services, 96044
or supplies provided to the person during the suspension described 96045
in division (B)(1) of this section. 96046

       (3) The suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 96047
section shall end upon the release of the person from the 96048
confinement.96049

       (4) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 96050
person shall not be required to reapply or undergo a 96051
redetermination of eligibility for medicaid when the suspension 96052
described in division (B)(1) of this section ends. 96053

       (C) A person may be disenrolled from medicaid any time after 96054
the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this section ends 96055
if the person is no longer eligible for medicaid. A person may be 96056
required to undergo a redetermination of eligibility for medicaid 96057
any time after the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 96058
section ends if it is time or past time for the person's 96059
eligibility redetermination or the person's circumstances have 96060
changed in a manner warranting a redetermination.96061

       (D) The department of job and family services shall take the 96062
steps necessary to begin implementation of this section not later 96063
than September 1, 2009.96064

       Sec. 5164.01.  As used in this chapter:96065

       (A) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment 96066
services" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," 96067
section 1905(r), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).96068

       (B) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 96069
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.96070

       (C) "Healthcheck" means the component of the medicaid program 96071
that provides early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and 96072
treatment services.96073

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 96074
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 96075
Revised Code.96076

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 96077
the Revised Code. 96078

       (F) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 96079
the Revised Code.96080

       (G) "Mandatory services" means the health care services and 96081
items that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 96082
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 96083
for the medicaid program.96084

       (H) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 96085
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.96086

       (I) "Medicaid provider" means a person or government entity 96087
with a valid provider agreement to provide medicaid services to 96088
medicaid recipients. To the extent appropriate in the context, 96089
"medicaid provider" includes a person or government entity 96090
applying for a provider agreement, a former medicaid provider, or 96091
both.96092

       (J) "Medicaid services" means either or both of the 96093
following:96094

       (1) Mandatory services;96095

       (2) Optional services that the medicaid program covers.96096

       (K) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 96097
5165.01 of the Revised Code.96098

       (L) "Optional services" means the health care services and 96099
items that may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 96100
medicaid waiver and for which the medicaid program receives 96101
federal financial participation.96102

       (M) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 96103
440.120.96104

       (N) "Provider agreement" means an agreement to which all of 96105
the following apply:96106

       (1) It is between a medicaid provider and the department of 96107
medicaid;96108

       (2) It provides for the medicaid provider to provide medicaid 96109
services to medicaid recipients;96110

       (3) It complies with 42 C.F.R. 431.107(b).96111

       (O) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 96112
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.96113

       Sec. 5111.02.        Sec. 5164.02. (A) The director of job and family 96114
services shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under96115
medicaid director shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this 96116
chapter. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 96117
119. of the Revised Code establishing the amount, duration, and 96118
scope of medicaid services. The rules shall be consistent with 96119
federal and state law. The rules may be different for different 96120
medicaid services. The96121

       (B) The rules shall establish all of the following:96122

        (A) The conditions under which the medicaid program shall 96123
cover and reimburse medicaid services;96124

        (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to each medicaid 96125
service(1) The amount, duration, and scope of the medicaid 96126
services covered by the medicaid program;96127

       (C)(2) The payment amount of reimbursementfor each medicaid 96128
service or, in lieu of amountsthe payment amount, methodsthe 96129
method by which amounts arethe payment amount is to be determined 96130
for each medicaid service;96131

        (D)(3) Procedures for enforcing the rules adopted under this 96132
section that provide due process protections, including procedures 96133
for corrective action plans for, and imposing financial and 96134
administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities that 96135
violate the rules.96136

       (C) The rules may be different for different medicaid 96137
services.96138

       (D) The medicaid director is not required to adopt a rule 96139
establishing the payment amount for a medicaid service if the 96140
director adopts a rule establishing the method by which the 96141
payment amount is to be determined for the medicaid service and 96142
makes the payment amount available on the internet web site 96143
maintained by the department of medicaid.96144

       Sec. 5164.03.  (A) The medicaid program shall cover all 96145
mandatory services.96146

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 96147
services that state statutes require the medicaid program to 96148
cover.96149

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 96150
services to which either of the following applies:96151

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 96152
cover the optional service;96153

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 96154
program may cover the optional service.96155

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any optional 96156
services that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 96157
covering.96158

       Sec. 5111.04.        Sec. 5164.05.  (A) As used in this section:96159

       (1) "Outpatient health facility" means a facility that 96160
provides comprehensive primary health services by or under the 96161
direction of a physician at least five days per week on a 96162
forty-hour per week basis to outpatients, is operated by the board 96163
of health of a city or general health district or another public 96164
agency or by a nonprofit private agency or organization under the 96165
direction and control of a governing board that has no 96166
health-related responsibilities other than the direction and 96167
control of one or more such outpatient health facilities, and 96168
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its operating funds 96169
from public sources, except that it does not include an outpatient 96170
hospital facility or a federally qualified health center as 96171
defined in Sec. 1905(l) (2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 103 96172
Stat. 2264 (1989)section 1905(l)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C.A.96173
1396d(l)(2)(B).96174

       (2) "Comprehensive primary health services" means preventive, 96175
diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, or palliative items or 96176
services that include all of the following:96177

       (a) Services of physicians, physician assistants, and 96178
certified nurse practitioners;96179

       (b) Diagnostic laboratory and radiological services;96180

       (c) Preventive health services, such as children's eye and 96181
ear examinations, perinatal services, well child services, and 96182
family planning services;96183

       (d) Arrangements for emergency medical services;96184

       (e) Transportation services.96185

       (3) "Certified nurse practitioner" has the same meaning as in 96186
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.96187

       (B) OutpatientSubject to division (C) of this section, the 96188
medicaid program shall cover comprehensive primary health services 96189
provided by outpatient health facilities are a separate category 96190
of medical care provider under the rules governing the 96191
administration of the medical assistance program established under 96192
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codewith valid provider 96193
agreements. Rates of reimbursement for items and services provided 96194
by an outpatient health facility under this section shall be 96195
prospectively determined by theThe department of job and family 96196
servicesmedicaid shall prospectively determine the medicaid 96197
payment rates for such comprehensive primary health services not 96198
less often than once each year,. The rates shall not be subject to 96199
retroactive adjustment based on actual costs incurred, and. The 96200
rates shall not exceed the maximum fee schedule or rates of 96201
payment, limitations based on reasonable costs or customary 96202
charges, and limitations based on combined payments received for 96203
furnishing comparable services, as are applicable to outpatient 96204
hospital facilities under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act96205
medicare program." In determining rates of reimbursementan 96206
outpatient health facility's rate prospectively, the department 96207
shall take into account the historic expenses of the facility, the 96208
operating requirements and services offered by the facility, and 96209
the geographical location of the facility, shall provide 96210
incentives for the efficient and economical utilization of the 96211
facility's resources, and shall ensure that the facility does not 96212
discriminate between classes of persons for whom or by whom 96213
payment for items andthe services is made.96214

       (C) AAn outpatient health facility does not qualify for 96215
classification as an outpatient health facilitymedicaid payments96216
under this section unless it:96217

       (1) Has health and medical care policies developed with the 96218
advice of and subject to review by an advisory committee of 96219
professional personnel, including one or more physicians, one or 96220
more dentists if dental care is provided, and one or more 96221
registered nurses;96222

       (2) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 96223
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 96224
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 96225
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;96226

       (3) Requires that the care of every patient be under the 96227
supervision of a physician, provides for medical care in case of 96228
emergency, has in effect a written agreement with one or more 96229
hospitals and one or more other outpatient facilities, and has an 96230
established system for the referral of patients to other resources 96231
and a utilization review plan and program;96232

       (4) Maintains clinical records on all patients;96233

       (5) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 96234
in compliance with applicable laws and rules and under the 96235
supervision of a registered nurse, and has a registered nurse on 96236
duty at all times when the facility is in operation;96237

       (6) Follows approved methods and procedures for the 96238
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;96239

       (7) Maintains the accounting and record-keeping system 96240
required under federal laws and regulations for the determination 96241
of reasonable and allowable costs.96242

       Sec. 5111.029.        Sec. 5164.06. The medicaid program shall cover 96243
occupational therapy services provided by an occupational 96244
therapist licensed under section 4755.08 of the Revised Code. 96245
Coverage shall not be limited to services provided in a hospital 96246
or nursing facility. Any licensed occupational therapist may enter 96247
into a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 96248
family servicesmedicaid to provide occupational therapy services 96249
under the medicaid program.96250

       Sec. 5111.018.        Sec. 5164.07.  (A) The provision of medical 96251
assistance under this chaptermedicaid program shall include 96252
coverage of inpatient care and follow-up care for a mother and her 96253
newborn as follows:96254

       (1) The medical assistance medicaid program shall cover a 96255
minimum of forty-eight hours of inpatient care following a normal 96256
vaginal delivery and a minimum of ninety-six hours of inpatient 96257
care following a cesarean delivery. Services covered as inpatient 96258
care shall include medical, educational, and any other services 96259
that are consistent with the inpatient care recommended in the 96260
protocols and guidelines developed by national organizations that 96261
represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing professionals.96262

       (2) The medical assistancemedicaid program shall cover a 96263
physician-directed source of follow-up care. Services covered as 96264
follow-up care shall include physical assessment of the mother and 96265
newborn, parent education, assistance and training in breast or 96266
bottle feeding, assessment of the home support system, performance 96267
of any medically necessary and appropriate clinical tests, and any 96268
other services that are consistent with the follow-up care 96269
recommended in the protocols and guidelines developed by national 96270
organizations that represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing 96271
professionals. The coverage shall apply to services provided in a 96272
medical setting or through home health care visits. The coverage 96273
shall apply to a home health care visit only if the health care 96274
professional who conducts the visit is knowledgeable and 96275
experienced in maternity and newborn care.96276

       When a decision is made in accordance with division (B) of 96277
this section to discharge a mother or newborn prior to the 96278
expiration of the applicable number of hours of inpatient care 96279
required to be covered, the coverage of follow-up care shall apply 96280
to all follow-up care that is provided within forty-eight hours 96281
after discharge. When a mother or newborn receives at least the 96282
number of hours of inpatient care required to be covered, the 96283
coverage of follow-up care shall apply to follow-up care that is 96284
determined to be medically necessary by the health care 96285
professionals responsible for discharging the mother or newborn.96286

       (B) Any decision to shorten the length of inpatient stay to 96287
less than that specified under division (A)(1) of this section 96288
shall be made by the physician attending the mother or newborn, 96289
except that if a nurse-midwife is attending the mother in 96290
collaboration with a physician, the decision may be made by the 96291
nurse-midwife. Decisions regarding early discharge shall be made 96292
only after conferring with the mother or a person responsible for 96293
the mother or newborn. For purposes of this division, a person 96294
responsible for the mother or newborn may include a parent, 96295
guardian, or any other person with authority to make medical 96296
decisions for the mother or newborn.96297

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, in 96298
administering the medical assistancemedicaid program, may not do 96299
either of the following:96300

       (1) Terminate the participationprovider agreement of a 96301
health care professional or health care facility as a provider 96302
under the program solely for making recommendations for inpatient 96303
or follow-up care for a particular mother or newborn that are 96304
consistent with the care required to be covered by this section;96305

       (2) Establish or offer monetary or other financial incentives 96306
for the purpose of encouraging a person to decline the inpatient 96307
or follow-up care required to be covered by this section.96308

       (D) This section does not do any of the following:96309

       (1) Require the medical assistancemedicaid program to cover 96310
inpatient or follow-up care that is not received in accordance 96311
with the program's terms pertaining to the health care 96312
professionals and facilities from which an individuala medicaid 96313
recipient is authorized to receive health care services.96314

       (2) Require a mother or newborn to stay in a hospital or 96315
other inpatient setting for a fixed period of time following 96316
delivery;96317

       (3) Require a child to be delivered in a hospital or other 96318
inpatient setting;96319

       (4) Authorize a nurse-midwife to practice beyond the 96320
authority to practice nurse-midwifery in accordance with Chapter 96321
4723. of the Revised Code;96322

       (5) Establish minimum standards of medical diagnosis, care, 96323
or treatment for inpatient or follow-up care for a mother or 96324
newborn. A deviation from the care required to be covered under 96325
this section shall not, on the basis of this section, give rise to 96326
a medical claim or derivative medical claim, as those terms are 96327
defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.96328

       Sec. 5111.024.        Sec. 5164.08.  (A) As used in this section, 96329
"screening mammography" means a radiologic examination utilized to 96330
detect unsuspected breast cancer at an early stage in asymptomatic 96331
women and includes the x-ray examination of the breast using 96332
equipment that is dedicated specifically for mammography, 96333
including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, screens, 96334
film, and cassettes, and that has an average radiation exposure 96335
delivery of less than one rad mid-breast. "Screening mammography" 96336
includes two views for each breast. The term also includes the 96337
professional interpretation of the film.96338

       "Screening mammography" does not include diagnostic 96339
mammography.96340

       (B) In addition to any other services required to be included 96341
in the program or for which federal approval is received, the 96342
medical assistanceThe medicaid program shall includecover both 96343
of the following if approval for use of federal funds is granted 96344
to the department by the federal agency responsible for 96345
distributing funds under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 96346
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:96347

       (1) Effective July 1, 1993, screeningScreening mammography 96348
to detect the presence of breast cancer in adult women;96349

       (2) Effective January 1, 1993, cytologicCytologic screening 96350
for the presence of cervical cancer.96351

       (C) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 96352
screening mammography pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 96353
shall be provided in accordance with all of the following:96354

       (1) If a woman is at least thirty-five years of age but under 96355
forty years of age, one screening mammography;96356

       (2) If a woman is at least forty years of age but under fifty 96357
years of age, either of the following:96358

       (a) One screening mammography every two years;96359

       (b) If a licensed physician has determined that the woman has 96360
risk factors to breast cancer, one screening mammography every 96361
year.96362

       (3) If a woman is at least fifty years of age but under 96363
sixty-five years of age, one screening mammography every year.96364

       (D) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 96365
screening mammographies pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 96366
section shall be provided only for screening mammographies that 96367
are performed in a facility or mobile mammography screening unit 96368
that is accredited under the American college of radiology 96369
mammography accreditation program or in a hospital as defined in 96370
section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.96371

       (E) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 96372
cytologic screenings pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 96373
shall be provided only for cytologic screenings that are processed 96374
and interpreted in a laboratory certified by the college of 96375
American pathologists or in a hospital as defined in section 96376
3727.01 of the Revised Code.96377

       Sec. 5111.023.        Sec. 5164.15.  (A) As used in this section:96378

       (1) "Community mental health agencyservices provider or 96379
facility" means a community mental health agencyservices provider96380
or facility that has its community mental health services 96381
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 96382
addiction services under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised 96383
Code or by the department of job and family services under section 96384
5103.03 of the Revised Code.96385

        (2) "Mental health professional" means a person qualified to 96386
work with mentally ill persons under the standards established by 96387
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services96388
pursuant to section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.96389

        (B) The state medicaid planprogram may include provision of96390
cover the following mental health services when provided by 96391
community mental health agenciesservices providers or facilities:96392

       (1) Outpatient mental health services, including, but not 96393
limited to, preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, 96394
and palliative interventions rendered to individuals in an 96395
individual or group setting by a mental health professional in 96396
accordance with a plan of treatment appropriately established, 96397
monitored, and reviewed;96398

       (2) Partial-hospitalization mental health services rendered 96399
by persons directly supervised by a mental health professional;96400

       (3) Unscheduled, emergency mental health services of a kind 96401
ordinarily provided to persons in crisis when rendered by persons 96402
supervised by a mental health professional;96403

       (4) Subject to receipt of federal approval, assertive96404
Assertive community treatment and intensive home-based mental 96405
health services.96406

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 96407
enter into a separate contract with the department of mental 96408
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5111.9196409
5162.35 of the Revised Code with regard to the component ofmental 96410
health services the medicaid program provided for bycovers 96411
pursuant to this section.96412

       Sec. 5111.027.        Sec. 5164.20. If the medicaid program provides 96413
prescription drug services to medicaid recipients, theThe 96414
medicaid program shall not provide reimbursement for prescription96415
cover prescribed drugs for treatment of erectile dysfunction.96416

       Sec. 5111.042.        Sec. 5164.25.  The departments of developmental 96417
disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid may approve, 96418
reduce, deny, or terminate a medicaid service included in the 96419
individualized service plan developed for a medicaid recipient 96420
with mental retardation or other developmental disability who is 96421
eligible for medicaid case management services. If either 96422
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service, 96423
that department shall timely notify the medicaid recipient that 96424
the recipient may request a hearing underappeal pursuant to96425
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.96426

       Sec. 5111.016.        Sec. 5164.26. (A) As used in this section, 96427
"healthcheck" has the same meaning as in section 3313.714 of the 96428
Revised Code.96429

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 96430
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 96431
establishingestablish a combination of written and oral methods 96432
designed to provide information about healthcheck to all persons 96433
eligible for the program or their parents or guardians. The 96434
department shall ensure that its methods of providing information 96435
are effective. The methods shall comply with federal law and 96436
regulations.96437

       Each county department of job and family services or other96438
entity that distributes or accepts applications for medical 96439
assistancemedicaid shall prominently display a notice that 96440
complies with the rules adoptedmethods of providing information 96441
about healthcheck established under this divisionsection.96442

       Sec. 5164.30.  No person or government entity may participate 96443
in the medicaid program as a medicaid provider without a valid 96444
provider agreement with the department of medicaid.96445

       Sec. 5111.053.        Sec. 5164.301. (A) As used in this section, "group 96446
practice" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the 96447
Revised Code.96448

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 96449
establish a process by which a physician assistant may enter into 96450
a medicaid provider agreement.96451

       (C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, a claim 96452
for reimbursementmedicaid payment for a medicaid service provided 96453
by a physician assistant to a medicaid recipient may be submitted 96454
by the physician assistant who provided the service or the 96455
physician, group practice, clinic, or other health care facility 96456
that employs the physician assistant.96457

       (2) A claim for reimbursementmedicaid payment may be 96458
submitted by the physician assistant who provided the service only 96459
if the physician assistant has a valid provider agreement. When 96460
submitting the claim, the physician assistant shall use only the 96461
medicaid provider number the department has assigned to the 96462
physician assistant.96463

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 96464
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code to implement this 96465
section.96466

       Sec. 5111.063.        Sec. 5164.31. (A) For the purpose of raising funds 96467
necessary to pay the expenses of implementing the provider 96468
screening requirements of subpart E of 42 C.F.R. Part 455 and 96469
except as provided in division (B) of this section, the department 96470
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall chargecollect an 96471
application fee tofrom a medicaid provider seeking to enter into 96472
or renew a medicaid provider agreement, unless the provider is 96473
exempt from paying the application fee under 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a)96474
before doing any of the following:96475

       (1) Entering into a provider agreement with a medicaid 96476
provider that seeks initial enrollment as a provider;96477

       (2) Entering into a provider agreement with a former medicaid 96478
provider that seeks re-enrollment as a provider;96479

       (3) Revalidating a medicaid provider's continued enrollment 96480
as a provider. The96481

       (B) The department is not to collect an application fee from 96482
a medicaid provider that is exempt from paying the fee under 42 96483
C.F.R. 455.460(a).96484

       (C) The application fees shall be deposited into the health 96485
care services administration fund created under section 5111.9496486
5162.54 of the Revised Code. Application fees are nonrefundable 96487
when collected in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a).96488

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 96489
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0296490
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section, 96491
including a rule establishing the amount of the application fee 96492
that is chargedto be collected under this section. The amount of 96493
the application fee shall not be set at an amount that is more 96494
than necessary to pay for the expenses of implementing the 96495
provider screening requirements.96496

       Sec. 5111.028.        Sec. 5164.32.  (A) Pursuant to section 5111.02 of 96497
the Revised Code, the director of job and family services shall 96498
adopt rules establishing procedures for the use of time-limited 96499
provider agreements under the medicaid program. Except as provided 96500
in division (E) of this section, all provider agreements shall be 96501
time-limited in accordance with the procedures established in the 96502
rules.96503

       The department of job and family services shall phase-in the 96504
use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to this section 96505
during a period commencing not later than January 1, 2008, and 96506
ending January 1, 2015.96507

       (B) In the use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant 96508
to this section, all of the following apply:96509

       (1) Each medicaid provider agreement shall expire not later 96510
than sevenfive years from theits effective date of the 96511
agreement.96512

       (2) During the phase-in period specified in division (A) of 96513
this section, the department may provide for the conversion of. If96514
a provider agreement without a time limitentered into before the 96515
effective date of this amendment does not have a time limit, the 96516
department of medicaid shall convert the agreement to a provider 96517
agreement with a time limit. The department may take an action to 96518
convert the provider agreement by sending a notice by regular mail 96519
to the address of the provider on record with the department 96520
advising the provider of the conversion.96521

       (3) The department may make the effective date of a provider 96522
agreement retroactive for a period not to exceed one year from the 96523
date of the provider's application for the agreement, as long as 96524
the provider met all medicaid program requirements during that 96525
period.96526

       (C)(B) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 96527
5164.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 96528
section. The rules for use of time-limited provider agreements 96529
pursuant to this section shall be consistent with subpart E of 42 96530
C.F.R. Part 455 and include a process for re-enrollment of 96531
providersrevalidating medicaid providers' continued enrollments 96532
as providers. All of the following apply to the re-enrollment96533
revalidation process:96534

       (1) The department of job and family services may terminate a 96535
time-limited provider agreement or deny re-enrollmentshall refuse 96536
to revalidate a provider's provider agreement when athe provider 96537
fails to file ando either of the following:96538

       (a) File a complete application for re-enrollment96539
revalidation within the time and in the manner required under the 96540
re-enrollmentrevalidation process;96541

       (b) Provide required supporting documentation not later than 96542
thirty days after the date the provider timely applies for 96543
revalidation.96544

       (2) If a provider files an application for re-enrollment96545
revalidation within the time and in the manner required under the 96546
re-enrollmentrevalidation process and timely provides required 96547
supporting documentation, but the provider agreement expires 96548
before the department acts on the application or before the 96549
effective date of the department's decision on the application, 96550
the provider, subject to division (B)(3) of this section, may 96551
continue operating under the terms of the expired provider 96552
agreement until the effective date of the department's decision.96553

       (3) A decision by the department to approve an application 96554
for re-enrollment becomes effective on the date of the 96555
department's decision. A decision by the department to deny 96556
re-enrollment shall take effect not sooner than thirty days after 96557
the date the department mails written notice of the decision to 96558
the provider. The department shall specify in the notice the date 96559
on which the provider is required to cease operating under the 96560
provider agreementIf a provider continues operating under the 96561
terms of an expired provider agreement pursuant to division (B)(2) 96562
of this section and the department denies the provider's 96563
application for revalidation, medicaid payments shall not be made 96564
for services or items the provider provides during the period 96565
beginning on the date the provider agreement expired and ending on 96566
the effective date of a subsequent provider agreement, if any, the 96567
department enters into with the provider.96568

       (D) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 96569
department is not required to take the actions specified in 96570
division (C)(1) of this section by issuing an order pursuant to an 96571
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 96572
Revised Code.96573

       (E) The use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to 96574
this section does not apply to provider agreements issued to the 96575
following, including any provider agreements issued to the 96576
following that are otherwise time-limited under the medicaid 96577
program:96578

       (1) A managed care organization under contract with the 96579
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;96580

       (2) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 96581
Revised Code;96582

       (3) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 96583
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;96584

       (4) A hospital.96585

       Sec. 5164.33.  (A) The medicaid director may do the following 96586
for any reason permitted or required by federal law:96587

       (1) Deny or terminate a provider agreement;96588

       (2) Exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, or 96589
other entity from participation in the medicaid program.96590

       (B) No individual, provider, or entity excluded from 96591
participation in the medicaid program under this section shall do 96592
any of the following:96593

       (1) Own, or provide services to, any other medicaid provider 96594
or risk contractor;96595

       (2) Arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 96596
recipients during the period of exclusion;96597

       (3) During the period of exclusion, receive direct payments 96598
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 96599
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 96600
rebates from or through any other medicaid provider or risk 96601
contractor.96602

       (C) An individual, provider, or entity excluded from 96603
participation in the medicaid program under this section may 96604
request a reconsideration of the exclusion. The director shall 96605
adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code governing 96606
the process for requesting a reconsideration.96607

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the applicability of 96608
section 5164.38 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.96609

       Sec. 5111.032.        Sec. 5164.34. (A) As used in this section:96610

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 96611
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.96612

       (2) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 96613
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 96614
the Revised Code.96615

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 96616
medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount 96617
designated in rules adopted underauthorized by this section.96618

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 96619
requirement" means the following:96620

       (a) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who is 96621
notified under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider 96622
or applicant is subject to a criminal records check;96623

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 96624
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a medicaid96625
provider or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division 96626
(E)(1)(a) of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer 96627
or prospective officer, or board member or prospective board 96628
member is specified in information given to the provider or 96629
applicant under division (E)(1) of this section;96630

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a medicaid96631
provider or applicant to be a provider if both of the following 96632
apply:96633

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 96634
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 96635
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 96636
section.96637

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 96638
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 96639
prospective employee.96640

        (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 96641
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 96642
family services.96643

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:96644

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 96645
this section for a medicaid provider or applicant to be a 96646
provider, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 96647
the department's designee;96648

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 96649
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 96650
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 96651
employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider or 96652
applicant to be a provider, the provider or applicant.96653

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 96654
subject to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 96655
3721.121, 5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169, or 5164.341 of the 96656
Revised Code or any individual who is subject to a database review 96657
or criminal records check under section 173.394173.38, 3701.881, 96658
or 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.96659

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do 96660
any of the following:96661

       (1) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 96662
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 96663
havingobtaining or maintaining a medicaid provider agreement;96664

       (2) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 96665
provider require an owner or prospective owner, officer or 96666
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 96667
of the provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as 96668
a condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 96669
provider or applicant;96670

       (3) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 96671
provider do the following:96672

       (a) If so required by rules adopted underauthorized by this 96673
section, determine pursuant to a database review conducted under 96674
division (F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or 96675
prospective employee of the provider or applicant is included in a 96676
database;96677

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 96678
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 96679
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 96680
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 96681
employee of the provider or applicant.96682

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall deny 96683
or terminate a medicaid provider's medicaid provider agreement or 96684
deny an applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement96685
if the provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal 96686
records check requirement and either of the following applies:96687

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 96688
records check after being given the information specified in 96689
division (G)(1) of this section.96690

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96691
this section, the provider or applicant is found by the criminal 96692
records check to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 96693
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 96694
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 96695
conviction,or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date 96696
the applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in 96697
lieu of conviction.96698

       (2) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 96699
permit a person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the 96700
provider or applicant if the person is a person subject to the 96701
criminal records check requirement and either of the following 96702
applies:96703

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 96704
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 96705
this section.96706

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96707
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 96708
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 96709
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 96710
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,96711
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 96712
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.96713

       (3) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 96714
employ a person if any of the following apply:96715

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 96716
items under thebeing a medicaid programprovider, thea medicare 96717
program operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security 96718
Actprovider," or provider for any other federal health care 96719
program.96720

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 96721
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 96722
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 96723
adopted underauthorized by this section regarding the database 96724
review prohibit the provider or applicant from employing a person 96725
included in the database.96726

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 96727
check requirement, either of the following applies:96728

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 96729
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 96730
this section.96731

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96732
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 96733
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 96734
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 96735
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,96736
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 96737
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.96738

       (E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 96739
inform each medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider96740
whether the provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records 96741
check. For providers with valid provider agreements, the 96742
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 96743
underauthorized by this section. For applicantsproviders 96744
applying to be medicaid providers, the information shall be given 96745
at the time of initial application. When the information is given, 96746
the department or the department's designee shall specify the 96747
following:96748

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's owners or 96749
prospective owners, officers or prospective officers, or board 96750
members or prospective board members are subject to a criminal 96751
records check;96752

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 96753
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 96754
section.96755

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted underauthorized by96756
this section, a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider96757
that is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement 96758
shall do the following:96759

       (a) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(a) of 96760
this section that the person is required to submit to a criminal 96761
records check as a condition of being an owner, officer, or board 96762
member of the provider or applicant;96763

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 96764
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 96765
section.96766

       (F)(1) If a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider96767
is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement, the 96768
department or the department's designee shall require the conduct 96769
of a criminal records check by the superintendent of the bureau of 96770
criminal identification and investigation. A medicaid provider or 96771
applicant to be a provider shall require the conduct of a criminal 96772
records check by the superintendent with respect to each of the 96773
persons specified under division (E)(1)(a) of this section. With 96774
respect to each employee and prospective employee specified under 96775
division (E)(1)(b) of this section, a medicaid provider or 96776
applicant to be a provider shall do the following:96777

       (a) If rules adopted underauthorized by this section require 96778
the provider or applicant to conduct a database review to 96779
determine whether the employee or prospective employee is included 96780
in a database, conduct the database review in accordance with the 96781
rules;96782

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 96783
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 96784
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 96785
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 96786
superintendent.96787

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 96788
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 96789
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 96790
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 96791
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 96792
information about the person from the federal bureau of 96793
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 96794
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 96795
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 96796
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 96797
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 96798
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 96799
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 96800
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 96801
records check of the person.96802

       (G) Criminal records checks required by this section shall be 96803
obtained as follows:96804

       (1) The responsible entity shall provide each person subject 96805
to the criminal records check requirement information about 96806
accessing and completing the form prescribed pursuant to division 96807
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard 96808
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 96809
section.96810

       (2) The person subject to the criminal records check 96811
requirement shall submit the required form and one complete set of 96812
the person's fingerprint impressions directly to the 96813
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 96814
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 96815
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 96816
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.96817

       (3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 96818
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 96819
person subject to the criminal records check requirement shall 96820
instruct the superintendent to submit the report of the criminal 96821
records check directly to the responsible entity. If the 96822
department or the department's designee is not the responsible 96823
entity, the department or designee may require the responsible 96824
entity to submit the report to the department or designee.96825

       (H)(1) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider may 96826
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 96827
required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the 96828
criminal records check if both of the following apply:96829

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 96830
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.96831

        (b) The person submits a request for the criminal records 96832
check not later than five business days after the person begins 96833
conditional employment.96834

       (2) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider that 96835
employs a person conditionally under division (H)(1) of this 96836
section shall terminate the person's employment if the results of 96837
the criminal records check request are not obtained within the 96838
period ending sixty days after the date the request is made. 96839
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 96840
obtained, if the results indicate that the person has been 96841
convicted of,or has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible 96842
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 96843
offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate the person's 96844
employment unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under96845
authorized by this section exist that permit the provider or 96846
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant96847
chooses to employ the person.96848

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 96849
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 96850
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 96851
person other than the following:96852

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 96853
check or the person's representative;96854

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 96855
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 96856
the medicaid program;96857

       (3) The department's designee;96858

       (4) The medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who 96859
required the person who is the subject of the criminal records 96860
check to submit to the criminal records check;96861

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive, 96862
from the subject of the criminal records check, home and 96863
community-based services available under the medicaid state plan;96864

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 96865
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:96866

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 96867
agreement;96868

        (b) A person's denial of employment, termination of 96869
employment, or employment or unemployment benefits;96870

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 96871
program.96872

       (J) The medicaid director of job and family services may 96873
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0296874
of the Revised Code to implement this section. If the director 96875
adopts such rules, the rules shall designate the times at which a 96876
criminal records check must be conducted under this section. The 96877
rules may do any of the following:96878

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 96879
criminal records check under this section;96880

        (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 96881
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 96882
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 96883
medicaid provider or applicant is found by a criminal records 96884
check to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 96885
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 96886
disqualifying offense;96887

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 96888
applicant to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, 96889
owner, officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when 96890
the person is found by a criminal records check conducted pursuant 96891
to this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 96892
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 96893
for a disqualifying offense;96894

       (4) Specify all of the following:96895

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 96896
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 96897
whether an employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider 96898
or applicant to be a provider is included in a database;96899

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;96900

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;96901

       (d) The circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 96902
applicant to be a provider is prohibited from employing a person 96903
who is found by the database review to be included in a database.96904

       Sec. 5111.034.        Sec. 5164.341.  (A) As used in this section:96905

        "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date of 96906
the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 96907
sixty days after September 26, 2003.96908

        "Applicant" means a person who has applied for a medicaid96909
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 96910
an independent provider under a home and community-based medicaid 96911
waiver component administered by the department of job and family 96912
servicesmedicaid.96913

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 96914
109.572 of the Revised Code.96915

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 96916
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 96917
Revised Code.96918

       "Independent provider" means a person who has a medicaid96919
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 96920
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 96921
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 96922
and family servicesmedicaid. 96923

        "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 96924
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.96925

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or the 96926
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 96927
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 96928
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 96929
applies:96930

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 96931
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 96932
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 96933
to do either of the following:96934

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 96935
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 96936
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 96937
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 96938
to division (C)(2) of that section;96939

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 96940
report of the criminal records check required by this section 96941
directly to the department or the department's designee.96942

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96943
this section, the applicant or independent provider is found by a 96944
criminal records check required by this section to have been 96945
convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 96946
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 96947
offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,or the date of 96948
entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or independent 96949
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 96950
conviction.96951

       (C)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 96952
inform each applicant, at the time of initial application for a 96953
medicaid provider agreement, that the applicant is required to 96954
provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that 96955
a criminal records check is required to be conducted as a 96956
condition of the department's approving the application.96957

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 96958
department's designee shall inform each independent provider on or 96959
before the time of the anniversary date of the medicaid provider 96960
agreement that the independent provider is required to provide a 96961
set of the independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that 96962
a criminal records check is required to be conducted.96963

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 96964
require an applicant to complete a criminal records check prior to 96965
entering into a medicaid provider agreement with the applicant. 96966
The department or the department's designee shall require an 96967
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 96968
annually. If an applicant or independent provider for whom a 96969
criminal records check is required by this section does not 96970
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 96971
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 96972
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 96973
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 96974
identification and investigation has requested information about 96975
the applicant or independent provider from the federal bureau of 96976
investigation in a criminal records check, the department or the 96977
department's designee shall request that the applicant or 96978
independent provider obtain through the superintendent a criminal 96979
records request from the federal bureau of investigation as part 96980
of the criminal records check of the applicant or independent 96981
provider. Even if an applicant or independent provider for whom a 96982
criminal records check request is required by this section 96983
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 96984
five-year period, the department or the department's designee may 96985
request that the applicant or independent provider obtain 96986
information through the superintendent from the federal bureau of 96987
investigation in the criminal records check.96988

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 96989
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 96990
a criminal records check is required by this section:96991

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 96992
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 96993
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 96994
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 96995
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;96996

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 96997
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 96998
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 96999
the department's designee.97000

       (3) Each applicant and independent provider for whom a 97001
criminal records check is required by this section shall pay to 97002
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 97003
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 97004
Revised Code for the criminal records check conducted of the 97005
applicant or independent provider.97006

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 97007
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 97008
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 97009
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 97010
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 97011
to any person other than the following:97012

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 97013
check or the person's representative;97014

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 97015
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 97016
the medicaid program;97017

       (3) The department's designee;97018

       (4) An individual who receivesreceiving or deciding whether 97019
to receive home and community-based services from the person who 97020
is the subject of the criminal records check;97021

        (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 97022
involved in a case dealing with either of the following:97023

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 97024
to the criminal records check;97025

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 97026
program.97027

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 97028
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0297029
of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules shall 97030
specify circumstances under which the department or the 97031
department's designee may either approve an applicant's 97032
application or allow an independent provider to maintain an 97033
existing medicaid provider agreement even though the applicant or 97034
independent provider is found by a criminal records check required 97035
by this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 97036
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 97037
for a disqualifying offense.97038

       Sec. 5111.033.        Sec. 5164.342.  (A) As used in this section:97039

        "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration 97040
for employment with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or 97041
temporary position that involves providing home and 97042
community-based services..97043

        "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the same 97044
meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 97045
Revised Code.97046

       "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 97047
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.97048

        "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 97049
109.572 of the Revised Code.97050

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 97051
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 97052
Revised Code.97053

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 97054
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 97055
providing home and community-based services.97056

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 97057
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.97058

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 97059
provides home and community-based services under a home and 97060
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 97061
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, other than 97062
such a person or government entity that is certified under the 97063
medicare program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent 97064
provider as defined in section 5111.0345164.341 of the Revised 97065
Code.97066

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 97067
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 97068
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code. If a waiver agency also is a 97069
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 97070
long-term care subcontractor, the waiver agency may provide for 97071
applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal 97072
records checks in accordance with section 173.394173.38 of the 97073
Revised Code rather than this section.97074

        (C) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 97075
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 97076
community-based services if any of the following apply:97077

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 97078
section reveals any of the following:97079

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 97080
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 97081
section;97082

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 97083
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 97084
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 97085
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 97086
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 97087
such a resident;97088

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 97089
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under97090
authorized by this section and the rules prohibit the waiver 97091
agency from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 97092
employee included in such a database in a position that involves 97093
providing home and community-based services.97094

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 97095
and notification required by divisions (F)(2)(a) and (b) of this 97096
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 97097
following:97098

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 97099
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 97100
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 97101
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 97102
division (C)(2) of that section;97103

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 97104
report of the criminal records check required by this section 97105
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.97106

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by97107
this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 97108
records check required by this section to have been convicted of,97109
or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention 97110
in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of 97111
the date of the conviction,or date of entry of the guilty plea, 97112
or the date the applicant or employee was found eligible for 97113
intervention in lieu of conviction.97114

       (D) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 97115
employment in a position that involves providing home and 97116
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 97117
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:97118

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 97119
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 97120
agency is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 97121
employing the applicant in the position;97122

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 97123
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 97124
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 97125
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 97126
impressions as part of the criminal records check.97127

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 97128
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 97129
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 97130
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under97131
authorized by this section. If rules adopted underauthorized by97132
this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 97133
agency shall conduct a database review of an employee in 97134
accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ 97135
the employee in a position that involves providing home and 97136
community-based services. A database review shall determine 97137
whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the 97138
following:97139

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 97140
the United States general services administration pursuant to 97141
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 97142
the federal web site known as the system for award management;97143

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 97144
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 97145
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 97146
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 97147
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 97148
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 97149
amended;97150

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 97151
5123.52 of the Revised Code;97152

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 97153
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 97154
the Revised Code;97155

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 97156
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;97157

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 97158
3721.32 of the Revised Code;97159

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 97160
underauthorized by this section.97161

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 97162
position that involves providing home and community-based 97163
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 97164
the applicant to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 97165
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 97166
records check of the applicant. If rules adopted underauthorized 97167
by this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 97168
agency shall require an employee to request that the 97169
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 97170
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 97171
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 97172
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 97173
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 97174
prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the 97175
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 97176
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 97177
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 97178
required by this section does not present proof of having been a 97179
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 97180
to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide 97181
evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has 97182
requested information about the applicant or employee from the 97183
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 97184
chief administrator shall require the applicant or employee to 97185
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 97186
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 97187
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 97188
records check request is required by this section presents proof 97189
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 97190
the chief administrator may require the applicant or employee to 97191
request that the superintendent include information from the 97192
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.97193

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 97194
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check is 97195
required by this section:97196

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 97197
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 97198
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 97199
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 97200
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;97201

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 97202
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 97203
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.97204

       (3) A waiver agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 97205
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 97206
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for any 97207
criminal records check required by this section. However, a waiver 97208
agency may require an applicant to pay to the bureau the fee for a 97209
criminal records check of the applicant. If the waiver agency pays 97210
the fee for an applicant, it may charge the applicant a fee not 97211
exceeding the amount the waiver agency pays to the bureau under 97212
this section if the waiver agency notifies the applicant at the 97213
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 97214
fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be 97215
considered for employment.97216

       (G)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an applicant 97217
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 97218
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 97219
both of the following apply:97220

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of 97221
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 97222
involves providing home and community-based services.97223

        (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requires the 97224
applicant to request a criminal records check regarding the 97225
applicant in accordance with division (F)(1) of this section not 97226
later than five business days after the applicant begins 97227
conditional employment.97228

       (2) A waiver agency that employs an applicant conditionally 97229
under division (G)(1) of this section shall terminate the 97230
applicant's employment if the results of the criminal records 97231
check, other than the results of any request for information from 97232
the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 97233
period ending sixty days after the date the request for the 97234
criminal records check is made. Regardless of when the results of 97235
the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate 97236
that the applicant has been convicted of,or has pleaded guilty 97237
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 97238
conviction for a disqualifying offense, the waiver agency shall 97239
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstances 97240
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by this section exist 97241
that permit the waiver agency to employ the applicant and the 97242
waiver agency chooses to employ the applicant.97243

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 97244
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 97245
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 97246
shall not be made available to any person other than the 97247
following:97248

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 97249
criminal records check or the representative of the applicant or 97250
employee;97251

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency that 97252
requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal records 97253
check or the administrator's representative;97254

       (3) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 97255
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 97256
the medicaid program;97257

       (4) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 97258
waiver agency also is a community-based long-term care agency97259
provider or community-based long-term care subcontractor;97260

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive 97261
home and community-based services from the subject of the criminal 97262
records check;97263

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 97264
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:97265

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;97266

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 97267
employee;97268

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 97269
program.97270

       (I) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 97271
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0297272
of the Revised Code to implement this section. 97273

       (1) The rules may do the following:97274

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 97275
criminal records checks under this section;97276

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 97277
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 97278
or more classes of employees from the requirements;97279

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 97280
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 97281
database review conducted under this section.97282

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:97283

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 97284
this section;97285

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 97286
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 97287
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 97288
be conducted;97289

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 97290
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 97291
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 97292
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 97293
included in one or more of those databases;97294

        (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 97295
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 97296
required by this section to have been convicted of,or have97297
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 97298
of conviction for a disqualifying offense.97299

       (J) The amendments made by H.B. 487 of the 129th general 97300
assembly to this section do not preclude the department of job 97301
and family servicesmedicaid from taking action against a person 97302
for failure to comply with former division (H) of this section as 97303
that division existed on the day preceding the effective date of 97304
this amendmentJanuary 1, 2013.97305

       Sec. 5111.03.        Sec. 5164.35.  (A) As used in this section, "owner" 97306
means any person having at least five per cent ownership in a 97307
medicaid provider.97308

       (B)(1) No medicaid provider of services or goods contracting 97309
with the department of job and family services pursuant to the 97310
medicaid program shall, bydo any of the following:97311

       (a) By deception, obtain or attempt to obtain payments under 97312
this chapterthe medicaid program to which the provider is not 97313
entitled pursuant to the provider's provider agreement, or the 97314
rules of the federal government or the department of job and 97315
family servicesmedicaid director relating to the program. No 97316
provider shall willfully;97317

       (b) Willfully receive payments to which the provider is not 97318
entitled, or willfully;97319

       (c) Willfully receive payments in a greater amount than that 97320
to which the provider is entitled; nor shall any provider falsify97321

       (d) Falsify any report or document required by state or 97322
federal law, rule, or provider agreement relating to medicaid 97323
payments. As used in this section, a97324

       (2) A medicaid provider engages in "deception" for the 97325
purpose of this section when the provider, acting with actual 97326
knowledge of the representation or information involved, acting in 97327
deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the representation 97328
or information involved, or acting in reckless disregard of the 97329
truth or falsity of the representation or information involved, 97330
deceives another or causes another to be deceived by any false or 97331
misleading representation, by withholding information, by 97332
preventing another from acquiring information, or by any other 97333
conduct, act, or omission that creates, confirms, or perpetuates a 97334
false impression in another, including a false impression as to 97335
law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact. 97336
No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to show, for 97337
purposes of this section, that a medicaid provider has engaged in 97338
deception.97339

       (B)(C) Any medicaid provider who violates division (A)(B) of 97340
this section shall be liable, in addition to any other penalties 97341
provided by law, for all of the following civil penalties:97342

       (1) Payment of interest on the amount of the excess payments 97343
at the maximum interest rate allowable for real estate mortgages 97344
under section 1343.01 of the Revised Code on the date the payment 97345
was made to the provider for the period from the date upon which 97346
payment was made, to the date upon which repayment is made to the 97347
state;97348

       (2) Payment of an amount equal to three times the amount of 97349
any excess payments;97350

       (3) Payment of a sum of not less than five thousand dollars 97351
and not more than ten thousand dollars for each deceptive claim or 97352
falsification;97353

       (4) All reasonable expenses which the court determines have 97354
been necessarily incurred by the state in the enforcement of this 97355
section.97356

       (C) As used in this division, "intermediate care facility for 97357
the mentally retarded" and "nursing facility" have the same 97358
meanings given in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.97359

       (D) In addition to the civil penalties provided in division 97360
(B)(C) of this section, the medicaid director of job and family 97361
services, upon the conviction of, or the entry of a judgment in 97362
either a criminal or civil action against, a medicaid provider or 97363
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 97364
employee in an action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the 97365
Revised Code, shall terminate the provider's provider agreement 97366
between the department and the provider and stop reimbursement97367
payment to the provider for medicaid services rendered from the 97368
date of conviction or entry of judgment. As used in this division, 97369
"owner" means any person having at least five per cent ownership 97370
in the medicaid provider. No such medicaid provider, owner, 97371
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 97372
own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid provider or 97373
risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order medicaid services 97374
for medicaid recipients, nor shall such provider, owner, officer, 97375
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee receive 97376
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department97377
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 97378
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 97379
rebates from or through any participatingother medicaid provider 97380
or risk contractor. The provider agreement shall not be terminated 97381
or reimbursement, and payment shall not be terminated, if the 97382
medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate that the provider or 97383
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 97384
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 97385
the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or civil 97386
action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised Code. 97387
Nothing in this division prohibits any owner, officer, authorized 97388
agent, associate, manager, or employee of a medicaid provider from 97389
entering into a medicaid provider agreement if the person can 97390
demonstrate that the person had no knowledge of an action of the 97391
medicaid provider the person was formerly associated with that 97392
resulted in the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or 97393
civil action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised 97394
Code.97395

        Nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 97396
mentally retardedand ICF/MR providers whose provider agreements 97397
are terminated pursuant to this section may continue to receive 97398
reimbursementmedicaid payments for up to thirty days after the 97399
effective date of the termination if the provider makes reasonable 97400
efforts to transfer medicaid recipients to another facility or to 97401
alternate care and if federal funds arefinancial participation is97402
provided for such reimbursementthe payments.97403

       (D) For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 97404
director of job and family services may deny a provider agreement 97405
or terminate a provider agreement.97406

       For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 97407
director may exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, 97408
or other entity from participation in the medicaid program. No 97409
individual, provider, or entity excluded under this division shall 97410
own or provide services to any other medicaid provider or risk 97411
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 97412
recipients during the period of exclusion, nor, during the period 97413
of exclusion, shall such individual, provider, or entity receive 97414
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 97415
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 97416
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 97417
participating provider or risk contractor. An excluded individual, 97418
provider, or entity may request a reconsideration of the 97419
exclusion. The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 97420
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the process for 97421
requesting a reconsideration.97422

       Nothing in this division limits the applicability of section 97423
5111.06 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.97424

       (E) Any provider of services or goods contracting with the 97425
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 97426
"Social Security Act," who, without intent, obtains payments under 97427
this chapter in excess of the amount to which the provider is 97428
entitled, thereby becomes liable for payment of interest on the 97429
amount of the excess payments at the maximum real estate mortgage 97430
rate on the date the payment was made to the provider for the 97431
period from the date upon which payment was made to the date upon 97432
which repayment is made to the state.97433

       (F)(E) The attorney general on behalf of the state may 97434
commence proceedings to enforce this section in any court of 97435
competent jurisdiction; and the attorney general may settle or 97436
compromise any case brought under this section with the approval 97437
of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid. 97438
Notwithstanding any other provision of law providing a shorter 97439
period of limitations, the attorney general may commence a 97440
proceeding to enforce this section at any time within six years 97441
after the conduct in violation of this section terminates.97442

       (G) The authority, under state and federal law, of the 97443
department of job and family services or a county department of 97444
job and family services to recover excess payments made to a 97445
provider is not limited by the availability of remedies under 97446
sections 5111.11 and 5111.12 of the Revised Code for recovering 97447
benefits paid on behalf of recipients of medical assistance.97448

       The penalties under this chapter apply to any overpayment, 97449
billing, or falsification occurring on and after April 24, 1978.97450
(F) All moneys collected by the state pursuant to this section 97451
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 97452
general revenue fund.97453

       Sec. 5111.035.        Sec. 5164.36.  (A) As used in this section:97454

       (1) "CreditableCredible allegation of fraud" has the same 97455
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 455.2, except that for purposes of this 97456
section any reference in that regulation to the "state" or the 97457
"state medicaid agency" means the department of job and family 97458
servicesmedicaid.97459

       (2) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.032 of 97460
the Revised Code.97461

       (3) "Owner" has the same meaning as in section 5111.03197462
5164.37 of the Revised Code.97463

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 97464
in rules adoptedauthorized by the department of job and family 97465
services under division (J) of this section, on determining there 97466
is a creditablecredible allegation of fraud for which an 97467
investigation is pending under the medicaid program against a 97468
medicaid provider, the department of medicaid shall suspend the 97469
provider agreement held by the provider. Subject to division (C) 97470
of this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 97471
reimbursementpayments to the provider for services rendered.97472

       (2)(a) The suspension shall continue in effect until either 97473
of the following is the case:97474

       (i) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 97475
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the medicaid provider;97476

       (ii) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 97477
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 97478
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty.97479

       (b) If the department commences a process to terminate the 97480
suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall also continue 97481
in effect until the termination process is concluded.97482

       (3) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 97483
department is not required to take action under division (B)(1) of 97484
this section by issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication in 97485
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97486

       (4) When subject to a suspension under this section, a 97487
medicaid provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 97488
manager, or employee shall not own or provide services to any 97489
other medicaid provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, 97490
or order services to any other medicaid provider or risk 97491
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 97492
recipients during the period of suspension. During the period of 97493
suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, 97494
associate, manager, or employee shall not receive reimbursement in 97495
the form of direct payments from the departmentunder the medicaid 97496
program or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of 97497
salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or 97498
through any participatingother medicaid provider or risk 97499
contractor.97500

       (C) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement or 97501
terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (B) of 97502
this section if the medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate 97503
through the submission of written evidence that the provider or 97504
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 97505
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 97506
the creditablecredible allegation of fraud. 97507

       (D) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayment under 97508
division (B) of this section applies only to payments for medicaid 97509
services rendered subsequent to the date on which the notice 97510
required by division (E) of this section is sent. Claims for 97511
reimbursementpayment of medicaid services rendered by the 97512
medicaid provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be 97513
subject to prepayment review procedures whereby the department 97514
reviews claims to determine whether they are supported by 97515
sufficient documentation, are in compliance with state and federal 97516
statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.97517

       (E) After suspending a provider agreement under division (B) 97518
of this section, the department shall, as specified in 42 C.F.R. 97519
455.23(b), send notice of the suspension to the affected medicaid97520
provider or owner in accordance with the following timeframes:97521

       (1) Not later than five days after the suspension, unless a 97522
law enforcement agency makes a written request to temporarily 97523
delay the notice;97524

       (2) If a law enforcement agency makes a written request to 97525
temporarily delay the notice, not later than thirty days after the 97526
suspension occurs subject to the conditions specified in division 97527
(F) of this section. 97528

       (F) A written request for a temporary delay described in 97529
division (E)(2) of this section may be renewed in writing by a law 97530
enforcement agency not more than two times except that under no 97531
circumstances shall the notice be issued more than ninety days 97532
after the suspension occurs.97533

       (G) The notice required by division (E) of this section shall 97534
do all of the following:97535

       (1) State that payments are being suspended in accordance 97536
with this section and 42 C.F.R. 455.23;97537

       (2) Set forth the general allegations related to the nature 97538
of the conduct leading to the suspension, except that it is not 97539
necessary to disclose any specific information concerning an 97540
ongoing investigation;97541

       (3) State that the suspension continues to be in effect until 97542
either of the following is the case:97543

       (a) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 97544
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the provider;97545

       (b) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 97546
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 97547
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, 97548
if the department commences a process to terminate the suspended 97549
provider agreement, until the termination process is concluded.97550

       (4) Specify, if applicable, the type or types of medicaid 97551
claims or business units of the medicaid provider that are 97552
affected by the suspension;97553

       (5) Inform the medicaid provider or owner of the opportunity 97554
to submit to the department, not later than thirty days after 97555
receiving the notice, a request for reconsideration of the 97556
suspension in accordance with division (H) of this section.97557

       (H)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (H)(2) 97558
of this section, a medicaid provider or owner subject to a 97559
suspension under this section may request a reconsideration of the 97560
suspension. The request shall be made not later than thirty days 97561
after receipt of a notice required by division (E) of this 97562
section. The reconsideration is not subject to an adjudication 97563
hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97564

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the medicaid provider or 97565
owner shall submit written information and documents to the 97566
department. The information and documents may pertain to any of 97567
the following issues:97568

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 97569
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 97570
of an indictment in a related criminal case.97571

       (b) If there has been an indictment in a related criminal 97572
case, whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted from 97573
an offense specified in division (E) of section 5111.0315164.3797574
of the Revised Code. 97575

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 97576
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 97577
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 97578
that resulted in the suspension under this section or an 97579
indictment in a related criminal case.97580

       (I) The department shall review the information and documents 97581
submitted in a request made under division (H) of this section for 97582
reconsideration of a suspension. After the review, the suspension 97583
may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in part. The 97584
department shall notify the affected provider or owner of the 97585
results of the review. The review and notification of its results 97586
shall be completed not later than forty-five days after receiving 97587
the information and documents submitted in a request for 97588
reconsideration.97589

       (J) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97590
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules97591
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 97592
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 97593
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.97594

       Sec. 5111.031.        Sec. 5164.37. (A) As used in this section:97595

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 97596
5111.0345164.341 of the Revised Code.97597

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 97598
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 97599
5111.20 of the Revised Code.97600

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 97601
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 97602
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 97603
retardedICF/MR.97604

       (4)(3) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 97605
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.97606

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 97607
contrary, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 97608
take action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 97609
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 97610
manager, or employee.97611

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 97612
rules adoptedauthorized by the department under division (H) of97613
this section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that 97614
is issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 97615
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 97616
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 97617
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 97618
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 97619
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 97620
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 97621
reimbursementpayments to the provider for medicaid services 97622
rendered.97623

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 97624
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 97625
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 97626
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 97627
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 97628
also continue in effect until the termination process is 97629
concluded. 97630

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 97631
department is not required to take action under this division by 97632
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 97633
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97634

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 97635
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 97636
shall not own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid 97637
provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order 97638
medicaid services for medicaid recipients during the period of 97639
suspension. During the period of suspension, the provider, owner, 97640
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 97641
not receive reimbursement in the form of direct payments from97642
under the departmentmedicaid program or indirect payments of 97643
medicaid funds in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, 97644
kickbacks, or rebates from or through any participatingother 97645
medicaid provider or risk contractor.97646

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 97647
or terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (C) of 97648
this section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 97649
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 97650
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 97651
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 97652
indictment.97653

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayments97654
applies only to payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent 97655
to the date on which the notice required under division (F) of 97656
this section is sent. Claims for reimbursementpayment for 97657
medicaid services rendered by the provider prior to the issuance 97658
of the notice may be subject to prepayment review procedures 97659
whereby the department reviews claims to determine whether they 97660
are supported by sufficient documentation, are in compliance with 97661
state and federal statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.97662

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 97663
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 97664
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 97665
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 97666
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 97667
relates to or results from either of the following:97668

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care,medicaid97669
services, or supplies under the medicaid program;97670

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 97671
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care,97672
medicaid services, or supplies under the medicaid program.97673

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 97674
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 97675
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 97676
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute a 97677
disqualifying offense as defined in section 5111.0325164.34 of 97678
the Revised Code.97679

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 97680
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 97681
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 97682
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 97683
following:97684

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 97685
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 97686
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;97687

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 97688
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 97689
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 97690
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 97691
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 97692
until the termination process is concluded;97693

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 97694
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 97695
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 97696
of this section. 97697

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 97698
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 97699
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 97700
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 97701
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 97702
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 97703
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97704

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 97705
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 97706
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 97707
issues:97708

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 97709
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 97710
of the indictment;97711

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 97712
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;97713

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 97714
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 97715
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 97716
that resulted in the indictment.97717

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 97718
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 97719
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 97720
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 97721
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 97722
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 97723
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 97724
reconsideration.97725

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97726
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules97727
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 97728
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 97729
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.97730

       Sec. 5111.06.        Sec. 5164.38.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in 97731
sections 5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:97732

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 97733
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 97734
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 97735
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 97736
amended.97737

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 97738
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.97739

       (c)(1) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) 97740
of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.97741

       (2) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 97742
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.97743

       (3) "Revalidate" means to approve a medicaid provider's 97744
continued enrollment as a medicaid provider in accordance with the 97745
revalidation process established in rules authorized by section 97746
5164.32 of the Revised Code.97747

       (B) This section does not apply to either of the following:97748

       (a)(1) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 97749
job and family servicesmedicaid with respect to entering into or 97750
refusing to enter into a contract with a managed care organization 97751
pursuant to section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code;97752

       (b)(2) Any action taken by the department under sections 97753
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.97754

       (B)(C) Except as provided in division (D)(E) of this section 97755
and section 5111.9145164.58 of the Revised Code, the department 97756
shall do eitherany of the following by issuing an order pursuant 97757
to an adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 97758
the Revised Code:97759

       (1) Enter into or refuse to enter into a provider agreement 97760
with a medicaid provider, or suspend,;97761

       (2) Revalidate or refuse to revalidate a medicaid provider's 97762
provider agreement;97763

       (3) Suspend or terminate, renew, or refuse to renew an 97764
existinga medicaid provider's provider agreement with a provider;97765

       (2)(4) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 97766
medicaid provider.97767

       (C)(D) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of 97768
an adjudication order under division (B)(C) of this section may 97769
appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in 97770
accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.97771

       (D)(E) The department is not required to comply with division 97772
(B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section whenever any of the 97773
following occur:97774

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid97775
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a 97776
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 97777
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 97778
government other than the department of job and family services97779
medicaid, and the license, permit, certificate, or certification 97780
has been denied, revoked, not renewed, suspended, or otherwise 97781
limited.97782

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid97783
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain 97784
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 97785
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 97786
government other than the department of job and family services97787
medicaid, and the provider has not obtained the license, permit, 97788
certificate, or certification.97789

       (3) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 97790
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is97791
terminated, or not renewed duerevalidated, because of or 97792
pursuant to theany of the following:97793

       (a) The termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 97794
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 97795
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 97796
of this state other than the department of job and family services97797
medicaid, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 97798
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 97799
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 97800
of another state.97801

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97802
renewed pursuant to division (C);97803

       (b) Division (D) or (F)(E) of section 5111.035164.35 of the 97804
Revised Code.97805

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97806
renewed due to the;97807

       (c) The provider's termination, suspension, or exclusion from 97808
the medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 97809
Security Act" or from another state's medicaid program and, in 97810
either case, the termination, suspension, or exclusion is binding 97811
on the provider's participation in the medicaid program in this 97812
state.97813

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97814
renewed due to the;97815

       (d) The provider's pleading guilty to or being convicted of a 97816
criminal activity materially related to either the medicare or 97817
medicaid program;97818

       (e) The provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, 97819
associate, manager, or employee having been convicted of one of 97820
the offenses that caused the provider's provider agreement to be 97821
suspended pursuant to section 5164.36 of the Revised Code;97822

       (f) The provider's failure to provide the department the 97823
national provider identifier assigned the provider by the national 97824
provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.97825

       (7)(4) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 97826
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is97827
terminated, or suspended, as a result of action by the United 97828
States department of health and human services and that action is 97829
binding on the provider's medicaid participation in the medicaid 97830
program.97831

       (8)(5) Pursuant to either section 5111.0315164.36 or 97832
5111.0355164.37 of the Revised Code, the medicaid provider's97833
provider agreement is suspended and payments to the provider are 97834
suspended pending indictment of the provider.97835

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97836
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 97837
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 97838
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 97839
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.97840

       (10)(6) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 97841
agreement is denied because the provider's application was not 97842
complete;97843

       (7) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is converted 97844
under section 5111.0285164.32 of the Revised Code from a 97845
provider agreement that is not time-limited to a provider 97846
agreement that is time-limited.97847

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 97848
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 97849
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 97850
for re-enrollment(8) Unless the medicaid provider is a nursing 97851
facility or ICF/MR, the provider's provider agreement is not 97852
revalidated pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 5111.02897853
5164.32 of the Revised Code.97854

       (12)(9) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is 97855
suspended or, terminated, or an application for enrollment or 97856
re-enrollment is denied, for anynot revalidated because of either 97857
of the following:97858

       (a) Any reason authorized or required by one or more of the 97859
following: 42 C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 97860
455.450.97861

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 97862
because the;97863

       (b) The provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 97864
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.97865

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97866
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 97867
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 97868
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.97869

       (F) In the case of a medicaid provider described in division 97870
(D)(13)(E)(3)(f), (6), (7), or (14)(9)(b) of this section, the 97871
department may take its proposed action against a provider 97872
agreement by sending a notice explaining the proposed action to 97873
the provider. The notice shall be sent to the medicaid provider's 97874
address on record with the department. The notice may be sent by 97875
regular mail.97876

       (E)(G) The department may withhold payments for medicaid97877
services rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid 97878
program during the pendency of proceedings initiated under 97879
division (B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. If the 97880
proceedings are initiated under division (B)(2)(C)(4) of this 97881
section, the department may withhold payments only to the extent 97882
that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal audit as 97883
being due the state. This division does not apply if the 97884
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 97885
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 97886
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 97887
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 97888
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 97889
5111.20 of the Revised CodeICFs/MR.97890

       Sec. 5111.062.        Sec. 5164.39. In any action taken by the department 97891
of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.065164.3897892
or 5111.0615164.57 of the Revised Code or any other provision of 97893
this chapterstate statute governing the medicaid program that 97894
requires the department to give notice of an opportunity for a 97895
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, if 97896
the department gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 97897
the medicaid provider or other entity subject to the notice does 97898
not request a hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance 97899
with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the department is not 97900
required to hold a hearing. The medicaid director of job and 97901
family service may proceed by issuing a final adjudication order 97902
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97903

       Sec. 5111.05.        Sec. 5164.45.  (A) The department of job and family 97904
servicesmedicaid may contract with any person or persons as a 97905
fiscal agent for the examination, processing, and determination of 97906
medical assistancemedicaid claims under this chapter. The 97907
contracting party may provide any of the following services, as 97908
required by the contract:97909

       (1) Design and operate medicaid management information 97910
systems, including the provision of data processing services;97911

       (2) Determine the amounts of payments to be made upon claims 97912
for medical assistancemedicaid;97913

       (3) Prepare and furnish to the department lists and computer 97914
tapes of such claims for payment;97915

       (4) In addition to audits which may be conducted by the 97916
department and by the auditor of state, make audits of providers 97917
and the claims of medicaid providers of medical assistance97918
according to the standards set forth in the contract;97919

       (5) Assist medicaid providers of medical assistance in the 97920
development of procedures relating to utilization practices, make 97921
studies of the effectiveness of such procedures and methods for 97922
their improvement, implement and enforce standards of medical 97923
policy, and assist in the application of safeguards against 97924
unnecessary utilization;97925

       (6) Assist any institution, facility, or agency to qualify as 97926
a medicaid provider of medical assistance;97927

       (7) Establish and maintain fiscal records for the medical 97928
assistancemedicaid program;97929

       (8) Perform statistical and research studies;97930

       (9) Develop and implement programs for medical assistance97931
medicaid cost containment;97932

       (10) Perform such other duties as are necessary to carry out 97933
the medical assistancemedicaid program.97934

       (B) The department of job and family services may contract 97935
with any person or persons as an insuring agent for the 97936
examination, processing, and determination of medical assistance97937
medicaid claims, as provided in division (A) of this section, and 97938
for the payment of medical assistancemedicaid claims through an 97939
underwritten program in which the state pays the insuring agent a 97940
monthly premium and the insuring agent pays for medicalmedicaid97941
services authorized under the state's medical assistance program. 97942
The person with whom the department contracts, with respect to the 97943
awarding, provisions, and performance of such contract, shall not 97944
be subject to the provisions of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or 97945
to regulation by the department of insurance, nor to taxation as 97946
an insurance company pursuant to section 5725.18 or 5729.03 of the 97947
Revised Code. A contract with an insuring agent shall specify the 97948
qualifications, including capital and surplus requirements, and 97949
other conditions with which the insuring agent must comply.97950

       (C) In entering into a contract under this section, the 97951
department, in cooperation with the director of budget and 97952
management, shall determine that the contracting party is 97953
qualified to perform the required services and shall follow 97954
applicable procedures required of the department of administrative 97955
services in sections 125.07 to 125.11 of the Revised Code. A 97956
contract shall be awarded to the bidder who, with due 97957
consideration to the bidder's experience and financial capability, 97958
offers the lowest and best bid to the state for control of the 97959
costs of the medical assistancemedicaid program consistent with 97960
meeting the obligations under that program for fair and equitable 97961
treatment of medicaid recipients and medicaid providers of medical 97962
services. Any arrangement whereby funds are paid to an insuring or 97963
fiscal agent for administrative functions under this section 97964
shall, for the purposes of section 125.081 of the Revised Code, be 97965
deemed to be a contract or purchase by the department of 97966
administrative services; however, money to be used by an insuring 97967
agent to pay for medicalmedicaid services authorized under the 97968
state's medical assistance program shall not be deemed a contract 97969
or purchase within the meaning of such section.97970

       Sec. 5111.052.        Sec. 5164.46.  (A) As used in this section, 97971
"electronic claims submission process" means any of the following:97972

       (1) Electronic interchange of data;97973

       (2) Direct entry of data through an internet-based mechanism 97974
implemented by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;97975

       (3) Any other process for the electronic submission of claims 97976
that is specified in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of 97977
the Revised Code.97978

       (B) Not later than January 1, 2013, and except as provided in 97979
division (C) of this section, each medicaid provider of services 97980
to medicaid recipients shall do both of the following:97981

       (1) Use only an electronic claims submission process to 97982
submit to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid97983
claims for medicaid reimbursementpayment for medicaid services 97984
provided to medicaid recipients;97985

       (2) Arrange to receive medicaid reimbursementpayment from 97986
the department by means of electronic funds transfer.97987

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any of the 97988
following:97989

       (1) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 97990
Revised Code;97991

       (2) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 97992
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised CodeICF/MR;97993

       (3) A medicaid managed care organization under contract with 97994
the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;97995

       (4) Any other medicaid provider or type of medicaid provider 97996
designated in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of the 97997
Revised Code.97998

       (D) The department shall not process a medicaid claim 97999
submitted on or after January 1, 2013, unless the claim is 98000
submitted through an electronic claims submission process in 98001
accordance with this section.98002

       (E) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 98003
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as the 98004
director considers necessary to implement this section.98005

       Sec. 5111.054.        Sec. 5164.47.  (A) As used in this section:98006

       (1) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 98007
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 98008
implementing the medicaid program.98009

       (2), "OCHSPS" means the private, not-for-profit corporation 98010
known as the Ohio children's hospital solutions for patient 98011
safety, which was formed for the purpose of improving pediatric 98012
patient care in this state, which performs functions that are 98013
included within the functions of a peer review committee as 98014
defined in section 2305.25 of the Revised Code, and which consists 98015
of all of the following members: Akron children's hospital, 98016
Cincinnati children's hospital medical center, Cleveland clinic 98017
children's hospital, Dayton children's medical center, mercy 98018
children's hospital, nationwide children's hospital, rainbow 98019
babies & children's hospital, and Toledo children's hospital.98020

       (B) If, as authorized by section 5101.105160.10 of the 98021
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid 98022
director chooses to contract with a person to perform either or 98023
both of the following services, itthe director may contract with 98024
any qualified person, including OCHSPS, to perform the service or 98025
services on the department's behalf of the department of medicaid:98026

       (1) Review and analyze claims for medical assistance made 98027
under this chaptermedicaid services provided to children in 98028
accordance with all state and federal laws governing the 98029
confidentiality of patient-identifying information;98030

       (2) Perform quality assurance and quality review functions, 98031
other than those described in division (B)(1) of this section, 98032
related to medical assistance made under this chaptermedicaid 98033
services provided to children. 98034

       The functions specified in division (B)(2) of this section 98035
may include those recommended by the best evidence for advancing 98036
child health in Ohio now (BEACON) council. 98037

       (C) If the departmentdirector enters into a contract with 98038
OCHSPS for OCHSPS to perform either or both of the services 98039
described in division (B) of this section, OCHSPS shall, only for 98040
purposes of section 5101.115160.12 of the Revised Code, be 98041
considered a public entity and the departmentdirector shall seek 98042
federal financial participation for costs incurred by OCHSPS in 98043
performing the service or services.98044

       Sec. 5111.051.        Sec. 5164.48.  The medicaid director of job and 98045
family services may submit a medicaid state plan amendment or 98046
request for a federal waiver to the United States secretary of 98047
health and human services as necessary to implement, at the 98048
director's discretion, a system under which medicaid payments for 98049
medical assistance provided under the medicaid programservices98050
are made to an organization on behalf of themedicaid providers of 98051
the medical assistance. The system may not provide for an 98052
organization to receive an amount that exceeds, in aggregate, the 98053
amount the departmentmedicaid program would have paid directly to 98054
themedicaid providers if not for this section.98055

       Sec. 5164.55.  The department of medicaid may conduct final 98056
fiscal audits of medicaid providers in accordance with the 98057
applicable requirements set forth in federal laws and regulations 98058
and determine any amounts the provider may owe the state. When 98059
conducting final fiscal audits, the department shall consider 98060
generally accepted auditing standards, which include the use of 98061
statistical sampling.98062

       Sec. 5111.022.        Sec. 5164.56.  Under the medicaid program, any 98063
amount determined to be owed the state by a final fiscal audit 98064
conducted pursuant to division (D) of section 5111.0215164.55 of 98065
the Revised Code, upon the issuance of an adjudication order 98066
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that contains a 98067
finding that there is a preponderance of the evidence that thea 98068
medicaid provider will liquidate assets or file bankruptcy in 98069
order to prevent payment of the amount determined to be owed the 98070
state, becomes a lien upon the real and personal property of the 98071
provider. Upon failure of the provider to pay the amount to the 98072
state, the medicaid director of job and family services shall file 98073
notice of the lien, for which there shall be no charge, in the 98074
office of the county recorder of the county in which it is 98075
ascertained that the provider owns real or personal property. The 98076
director shall notify the provider by mail of the lien, but 98077
absence of proof that the notice was sent does not affect the 98078
validity of the lien. The lien is not valid as against the claim 98079
of any mortgagee, pledgee, purchaser, judgment creditor, or other 98080
lienholder of record at the time the notice is filed.98081

       If the provider acquires real or personal property after 98082
notice of the lien is filed, the lien shall not be valid as 98083
against the claim of any mortgagee, pledgee, subsequent bona fide 98084
purchaser for value, judgment creditor, or other lienholder of 98085
record to such after-acquired property unless the notice of lien 98086
is refiled after the property is acquired by the provider and 98087
before the competing lien attaches to the after-acquired property 98088
or before the conveyance to the subsequent bona fide purchaser for 98089
value.98090

       When the amount has been paid, the provider may record with 98091
the recorder notice of the payment. For recording such notice of 98092
payment, the recorder shall charge and receive from the provider a 98093
base fee of one dollar for services and a housing trust fund fee 98094
of one dollar pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.98095

       In the event of a distribution of athe provider's assets 98096
pursuant to an order of any court under the law of this state 98097
including any receivership, assignment for benefit of creditors, 98098
adjudicated insolvency, or similar proceedings, amounts then or 98099
thereafter due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program98100
have the same priority as provided by law for the payment of taxes 98101
due the state and shall be paid out of the receivership trust fund 98102
or other such trust fund in the same manner as provided for claims 98103
for unpaid taxes due the state.98104

       If the attorney general finds after investigation that any 98105
amount due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program is 98106
uncollectable, in whole or in part, the attorney general shall 98107
recommend to the director the cancellation of all or part of the 98108
claim. The director may thereupon effect the cancellation.98109

       Sec. 5111.061.        Sec. 5164.57. (A) As used in this section, 98110
"adjudication" has the same meaning as in section 119.01 of the 98111
Revised Code.98112

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(B)(2) of this 98113
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 98114
recover a medicaid payment or portion of a payment made to a 98115
medicaid provider to which the provider is not entitled if the 98116
department notifies the provider of the overpayment during the 98117
five-year period immediately following the end of the state fiscal 98118
year in which the overpayment was made.98119

       (2) In the case of a hospital medicaid provider, if the 98120
department determines as a result of a medicare or medicaid cost 98121
report settlement that the provider received an amount under the 98122
medicaid program to which the provider is not entitled, the 98123
department may recover the overpayment if the department notifies 98124
the provider of the overpayment during the later of the following:98125

       (a) The five-year period immediately following the end of the 98126
state fiscal year in which the overpayment was made;98127

       (b) The one-year period immediately following the date the 98128
department receives from the United States centers for medicare 98129
and medicaid services a completed, audited, medicare cost report 98130
for the provider that applies to the state fiscal year in which 98131
the overpayment was made.98132

       (B)(C) Among the overpayments that may be recovered under 98133
this section are the following:98134

       (1) Payment for a medicaid service, or a day of service, not 98135
rendered;98136

       (2) Payment for a day of service at a full per diem rate that 98137
should have been paid at a percentage of the full per diem rate;98138

       (3) Payment for a medicaid service, or day of service, that 98139
was paid by, or partially paid by, a third party, as defined in 98140
section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, and the third 98141
party's payment or partial payment was not offset against the 98142
amount paid by the medicaid program to reduce or eliminate the 98143
amount that was paid by the medicaid program;98144

       (4) Payment when a medicaid recipient's responsibility for 98145
payment was understated and resulted in an overpayment to the 98146
provider.98147

       (C)(D) The department may recover an overpayment under this 98148
section prior to or after any of the following:98149

       (1) Adjudication of a final fiscal audit that section 5111.0698150
5164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be conducted in accordance 98151
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;98152

       (2) Adjudication of a finding under any other provision of 98153
this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the 98154
rules adopted under itthose statutes;98155

       (3) Expiration of the time to issue a final fiscal audit that 98156
section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be 98157
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;98158

       (4) Expiration of the time to issue a finding under any other 98159
provision of this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 98160
program or the rules adopted under itthose statutes.98161

       (D)(E)(1) Subject to division (D)(E)(2) of this section, the 98162
recovery of an overpayment under this section does not preclude 98163
the department from subsequently doing the following:98164

       (a) Issuing a final fiscal audit in accordance with Chapter 98165
119. of the Revised Code, as required under section 5111.0698166
5164.38 of the Revised Code;98167

       (b) Issuing a finding under any other provision of this 98168
chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the rules 98169
adopted under itthose statutes.98170

       (2) A final fiscal audit or finding issued subsequent to the 98171
recovery of an overpayment under this section shall be reduced by 98172
the amount of the prior recovery, as appropriate.98173

       (E)(F) Nothing in this section limits the department's 98174
authority to recover overpayments pursuant to any other provision 98175
of the Revised Code.98176

       Sec. 5111.914.        Sec. 5164.58. (A) As used in this section, 98177
"provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.06 of the 98178
Revised Code.98179

       (B) If a state agency that enters into a contract with the 98180
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 98181
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code identifies that a medicaid 98182
overpayment has been made to a medicaid provider, the state agency 98183
may commence actions to recover the overpayment on behalf of the 98184
department.98185

       (C)(B) In recovering an overpayment pursuant to this section, 98186
a state agency shall comply with the following procedures:98187

       (1) The state agency shall attempt to recover the overpayment 98188
by notifying the medicaid provider of the overpayment and 98189
requesting voluntary repayment. Not later than five business days 98190
after notifying the medicaid provider, the state agency shall 98191
notify the department in writing of the overpayment. The state 98192
agency may negotiate a settlement of the overpayment and notify 98193
the department of the settlement. A settlement negotiated by the 98194
state agency is not valid and shall not be implemented until the 98195
department has given its written approval of the settlement.98196

       (2) If the state agency is unable to obtain voluntary 98197
repayment of an overpayment, the agency shall give the medicaid98198
provider notice of an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with 98199
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the medicaid provider timely 98200
requests a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the 98201
Revised Code, the state agency shall conduct the hearing to 98202
determine the legal and factual validity of the overpayment. On 98203
completion of the hearing, the state agency shall submit its 98204
hearing officer's report and recommendation and the complete 98205
record of proceedings, including all transcripts, to the medicaid98206
director of job and family services for final adjudication. The 98207
director may issue a final adjudication order in accordance with 98208
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The state agency shall pay any 98209
attorney's fees imposed under section 119.092 of the Revised Code. 98210
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay any 98211
attorney's fees imposed under section 2335.39 of the Revised Code.98212

       (D)(C) In any action taken by a state agency under this 98213
section that requires the agency to give notice of an opportunity 98214
for a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 98215
if the agency gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 98216
the medicaid provider subject to the notice does not request a 98217
hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance with section 98218
119.07 of the Revised Code, the agency is not required to hold a 98219
hearing. The agency may request that the medicaid director of job 98220
and family services issue a final adjudication order in accordance 98221
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.98222

       (E)(D) This section does not preclude the department of job 98223
and family servicesmedicaid from adjudicating a final fiscal 98224
audit under section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code, 98225
recovering overpayments under section 5111.0615164.57 of the 98226
Revised Code, or making findings or taking other actions 98227
authorized by this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 98228
program.98229

       Sec. 5164.59.  The department of medicaid may deduct from 98230
medicaid payments for medicaid services rendered by a medicaid 98231
provider any amounts the provider owes the state as the result of 98232
incorrect medicaid payments the department has made to the 98233
provider.98234

       Sec. 5164.60.  Any medicaid provider who, without intent, 98235
obtains payments under the medicaid program in excess of the 98236
amount to which the provider is entitled is liable for payment of 98237
interest on the amount of the excess payments at the maximum 98238
interest rate allowable for real estate mortgages under section 98239
1343.01 of the Revised Code on the date the payment was made to 98240
the provider for the period from the date on which payment was 98241
made to the date on which repayment is made to the state.98242

       Sec. 5164.61.  The authority, under state and federal law, of 98243
the department of medicaid or a county department of job and 98244
family services to recover excess medicaid payments made to a 98245
medicaid provider is not limited by the availability of remedies 98246
under sections 5162.21 and 5162.23 of the Revised Code for 98247
recovering benefits paid on behalf of medicaid recipients.98248

       Sec. 5111.021.        Sec. 5164.70. Under the medicaid program:98249

       (A) Except as otherwise required by federal statute or 98250
regulation, the department of job and family services shall not 98251
reimburse a medical providerno medicaid payment for any medical 98252
assistance rendered under the program an amount that exceeds98253
medicaid service shall exceed the following:98254

       (1)(A) If the medicaid provider is a hospital, nursing 98255
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded98256
ICF/MR, the limits established under Subpart C of 42 C.F.R. Part 98257
447;98258

       (2)(B) If the medicaid provider is other than a provider 98259
described in division (A)(1) of this section, the authorized 98260
reimbursementpayment limits for the same service under the 98261
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 98262
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.98263

       (B) Reimbursement for freestanding medical laboratory charges 98264
shall not exceed the customary and usual fee for laboratory 98265
profiles.98266

       (C) The department may deduct from payments for services 98267
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program any 98268
amounts the provider owes the state as the result of incorrect 98269
medicaid payments the department has made to the provider.98270

       (D) The department may conduct final fiscal audits in 98271
accordance with the applicable requirements set forth in federal 98272
laws and regulations and determine any amounts the provider may 98273
owe the state. When conducting final fiscal audits, the department 98274
shall consider generally accepted auditing standards, which 98275
include the use of statistical sampling.98276

       (E) The number of days of inpatient hospital care for which 98277
reimbursement is made on behalf of a medicaid recipient to a 98278
hospital that is not paid under a diagnostic-related-group 98279
prospective payment system shall not exceed thirty days during a 98280
period beginning on the day of the recipient's admission to the 98281
hospital and ending sixty days after the termination of that 98282
hospital stay, except that the department may make exceptions to 98283
this limitation. The limitation does not apply to children 98284
participating in the program for medically handicapped children 98285
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code.98286

       (F) The division of any reimbursement between a collaborating 98287
physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse specialist, certified 98288
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner for services 98289
performed by the nurse shall be determined and agreed on by the 98290
nurse and collaborating physician or podiatrist. In no case shall 98291
reimbursement exceed the payment that the physician or podiatrist 98292
would have received had the physician or podiatrist provided the 98293
entire service.98294

       Sec. 5164.71.  Medicaid payments for freestanding medical 98295
laboratory charges shall not exceed the customary and usual fee 98296
for laboratory profiles.98297

       Sec. 5164.72.  The number of days of inpatient hospital care 98298
for which a medicaid payment is made on behalf of a medicaid 98299
recipient to a hospital that is not paid under a 98300
diagnostic-related-group prospective payment system shall not 98301
exceed thirty days during a period beginning on the day of the 98302
recipient's admission to the hospital and ending sixty days after 98303
the termination of that hospital stay, except that the department 98304
of medicaid may make exceptions to this limitation. The limitation 98305
does not apply to children participating in the program for 98306
medically handicapped children established under section 3701.023 98307
of the Revised Code.98308

       Sec. 5164.73.  The division of any medicaid payment between a 98309
collaborating physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse 98310
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 98311
practitioner for services performed by the nurse shall be 98312
determined and agreed on by the nurse and collaborating physician 98313
or podiatrist. In no case shall the medicaid payment exceed the 98314
medicaid payment that the physician or podiatrist would have 98315
received had the physician or podiatrist provided the entire 98316
service.98317

       Sec. 5111.19.        Sec. 5164.74.  The medicaid director of job and 98318
family services shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the 98319
Revised Code governing the calculation and payment of, and the 98320
allocation of payments for, graduate medical education costs 98321
associated with medicaid services rendered to medicaid recipients 98322
after June 30, 1994. Subject to section 5111.1915164.741 of the 98323
Revised Code, the rules shall provide for reimbursementpayment98324
of graduate medical education costs associated with medicaid98325
services rendered to medicaid recipients, including recipients 98326
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 98327
with the department office under section 5111.17 of the Revised 98328
Code, that the department of medicaid determines are allowable and 98329
reasonable.98330

       If the department requires a managed care organization to pay 98331
a provider for graduate medical education costs associated with 98332
the delivery of services to medicaid recipients enrolled in the 98333
organization, the department shall include in its payment to the 98334
organization an amount sufficient for the organization to pay such 98335
costs. If the department does not include in its payments to the 98336
managed care organization amounts for graduate medical education 98337
costs of providers, all of the following apply:98338

       (A) Except as provided in section 5111.191 of the Revised 98339
Code, the department shall pay the provider for graduate medical 98340
education costs associated with the delivery of services to 98341
medicaid recipients enrolled in the organization;98342

       (B) No provider shall seek reimbursement from the 98343
organization for such costs;98344

       (C) The organization is not required to pay providers for 98345
such costs.98346

       Sec. 5111.191.        Sec. 5164.741.  (A) Except as provided in division 98347
(B) of this section, the department of job and family services98348
medicaid may deny medicaid payment to a hospital for direct 98349
graduate medical education costs associated with the delivery of 98350
medicaid services to any medicaid recipient if the hospital 98351
refuses without good cause to contract with a medicaid managed 98352
care organization that serves participants in the care management 98353
system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Code who 98354
are required to be enrolled in a managed care organization and the 98355
managed care organization serves the area in which the hospital is 98356
located.98357

       (B) A hospital is not subject to division (A) of this section 98358
if all of the following are the case:98359

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 98360
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 98361
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 98362
health insuring corporation.98363

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 98364
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 98365
participants specified in division (B)(1) of this section.98366

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 98367
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 98368
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 98369
insuring corporation.98370

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 98371
specify in the rules adopted under section 5111.195164.02 of the 98372
Revised Code what constitutes good cause for a hospital to refuse 98373
to contract with a medicaid managed care organization.98374

       Sec. 5111.086.        Sec. 5164.75.  As used in this section, "federal 98375
upper reimbursement limit" means the limit established pursuant to 98376
section 1927(e) of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-151 98377
(1990)section 1927(e), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8(e), as amended.98378

       The medicaid payment for a drug that is subject to a federal 98379
upper reimbursement limit shall not exceed, in the aggregate, the 98380
federal upper reimbursement limit for the drug. The director of 98381
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 98382
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.98383

       Sec. 5111.082.        Sec. 5164.751. (A) As used in this section:98384

       (1) "State, "state maximum allowable cost" means the per unit 98385
amount the department of job and family services reimburses98386
medicaid program pays a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 98387
for a prescriptionprescribed drug included in the state maximum 98388
allowable cost program established under division (B) of this 98389
section. "State maximum allowable cost" excludes dispensing fees 98390
and copayments, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing charges, if 98391
any.98392

        (2) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 98393
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.98394

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 98395
establish a state maximum allowable cost program for purposes of 98396
managing reimbursementmedicaid payments to terminal distributors 98397
of dangerous drugs for prescriptionprescribed drugs identified by 98398
the director pursuant to this division. The director shall do all 98399
of the following with respect to the program:98400

        (1) Identify and create a list of prescription prescribed98401
drugs to be included in the program.98402

        (2) Update the list of prescriptionprescribed drugs 98403
described in division (B)(1) of this section on a weekly basis.98404

        (3) Review the state maximum allowable cost for each 98405
prescribed drug included on the list described in division (B)(1) 98406
of this section on a weekly basis.98407

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 98408
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.98409

       Sec. 5111.07.        Sec. 5164.752. Commencing inIn July, 1986, andof98410
every second July thereaftereven-numbered year, the department 98411
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall initiate a private98412
confidential survey of retail pharmacy operationsthe cost of 98413
dispensing drugs incurred by terminal distributors of dangerous 98414
drugs in thethis state. The survey shall be used as the basis for 98415
establishing a current maximumthe medicaid program's dispensing 98416
fee for licensed pharmacists who are providers of drugs under this 98417
chapter. Theterminal distributors in accordance with section 98418
5164.753 of the Revised Code. The survey shall be completed and 98419
its results published not later than the last day of October of 98420
the year in which it is conducted.98421

        Each terminal distributor that is a provider of drugs under 98422
the medicaid program shall participate in the survey. Except as 98423
necessary to publish the survey's results, a terminal 98424
distributor's responses to the survey are confidential and not a 98425
public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.98426

        The survey shall be conducted in conformance with the 98427
requirements set forth in 42 C.F.R. 447.331 through 447.333, as 98428
amended or superseded, and447.500 to 447.518. The survey shall 98429
include operational data and direct prescription expenses, 98430
professional services and personnel costs, and usual and 98431
customary overhead expenses, and profit data of the retail 98432
pharmaciesterminal distributors surveyed. The survey shall be 98433
completed and its results published no later than the last day of 98434
October of the year in which the survey is conducted, and the98435
survey shall compute and report the cost of dispensing fees on a 98436
basis of the usual and customary charges by retail pharmacies98437
terminal distributors to their customers for dispensing drugs. The 98438
director of job and family services shall take into account the 98439
results of the survey in establishing a dispensing fee.98440

       Sec. 5111.071.        Sec. 5164.753. Commencing inIn December, 1986, and98441
of every second December thereaftereven-numbered year, the 98442
medicaid director of job and family services shall establish a 98443
dispensing fee, effective the following JanuaryJuly, for licensed 98444
pharmaciststerminal distributors of dangerous drugs who are 98445
providers of drugs under this chapterthe medicaid program. TheIn 98446
establishing the dispensing fee, the director shall take into 98447
consideration the results of the survey conducted under section 98448
5111.075164.752 of the Revised Code and the extent to which each 98449
terminal distributor participates in the medicaid program as a 98450
provider of drugs.98451

       Sec. 5111.0114.        Sec. 5164.754. (A) As used in this section, 98452
"dangerous drug" and "manufacturer of dangerous drugs" have the 98453
same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.98454

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 98455
enter into or administer an agreement or cooperative arrangement 98456
with other states to create or join a multiple-state prescription 98457
drug purchasing program for the purpose of negotiating with 98458
manufacturers of dangerous drugs to receive discounts or rebates 98459
for dangerous drugs dispensed undercovered by the medicaid 98460
program.98461

       Sec. 5111.081.        Sec. 5164.755.  The medicaid director of job and 98462
family services, in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of 98463
the Revised Code, may establish and implement a supplemental drug 98464
rebate program under which drug manufacturers may be required to 98465
provide the department of job and family servicesmedicaid a 98466
supplemental rebate as a condition of having the drug 98467
manufacturers' drug products covered by the medicaid program 98468
without prior approval. The department may receive a supplemental 98469
rebate negotiated under the program for a drug dispensed to a 98470
medicaid recipient pursuant to a prescription or a drug purchased 98471
by a medicaid provider for administration to a medicaid recipient 98472
in the provider's primary place of business. If necessary, the 98473
director may apply to the United States secretary of health and 98474
human services for a waiver of federal statutes and regulations to 98475
establish the supplemental drug rebate program.98476

       If the director establishes a supplemental drug rebate 98477
program, the director shall consult with drug manufacturers 98478
regarding the establishment and implementation of the program.98479

       Sec. 5101.31.        Sec. 5164.756. Any record, data, pricing information, 98480
or other information regarding a drug rebate agreement or a 98481
supplemental drug rebate agreement for the medicaid program 98482
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code that the 98483
department of job and family servicesmedicaid receives from a 98484
pharmaceutical manufacturer or creates pursuant to negotiation of 98485
the agreement is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 98486
Revised Code and shall be treated by the department as 98487
confidential information.98488

       Sec. 5111.083.        Sec. 5164.757. (A) As used in this section, 98489
"licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" has 98490
the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.98491

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 98492
establish anacquire or specify technologies to provide 98493
information regarding medicaid recipient eligibility, claims 98494
history, and drug coverage to medicaid providers through 98495
electronic health record and e-prescribing system for the 98496
medicaid program under whichapplications.98497

        If such technologies are acquired or specified, the 98498
e-prescribing applications shall enable a medicaid provider who 98499
is a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs 98500
shallto use an electronic system to prescribe a drug for a 98501
medicaid recipient when required to do so by division (C) of this 98502
section. The e-prescribingpurpose of the electronic system shall98503
is to eliminate the need for such medicaid providers to makeissue98504
prescriptions for medicaid recipients by handwriting or telephone. 98505
The e-prescribing systemtechnologies acquired or specified by the 98506
director also shall provide such medicaid providers with an 98507
up-to-date, clinically relevant drug information database and a 98508
system of electronically monitoring medicaid recipients' medical 98509
history, drug regimen compliance, and fraud and abuse.98510

       (C) If the director establishes an e-prescribing system under 98511
division (B) of this section, the director shall do all of the 98512
following:98513

       (1) Require that a medicaid provider who is a licensed health 98514
professional authorized to prescribe drugs use the e-prescribing 98515
system during a fiscal year if the medicaid provider was one of 98516
the ten medicaid providers who, during the calendar year that 98517
precedes that fiscal year, issued the most prescriptions for 98518
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services;98519

       (2) Before the beginning of each fiscal year, determine the 98520
ten medicaid providers that issued the most prescriptions for 98521
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services during the 98522
calendar year that precedes the upcoming fiscal year and notify 98523
those medicaid providers that they must use the e-prescribing 98524
system for the upcoming fiscal year;98525

       (3) Seek the most federal financial participation available 98526
for the development and implementation of the e-prescribing 98527
system.98528

       Sec. 5111.085.        Sec. 5164.758. Not later than July 1, 2012, the 98529
department of job and family servicesThe medicaid director shall 98530
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0298531
of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated services program 98532
for medicaid recipients who are found to have obtained 98533
prescriptionprescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a 98534
frequency or in an amount that is not medically necessary. The 98535
program shall be implemented in a manner that is consistent with 98536
section 1915(a)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 98537
(1981)section 1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 98538
42 C.F.R. 431.54(e).98539

       Sec. 5111.08.        Sec. 5164.759.  In accordance with subsection (g) of 98540
section 1927 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 320 (1935)98541
section 1927(g), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-8(g), as amended, the 98542
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish an 98543
outpatient drug use review program to assure that prescriptions 98544
obtained by medicaid recipients of medical assistance under this 98545
chapter are appropriate, medically necessary, and unlikely to 98546
cause adverse medical results.98547

       Sec. 5111.084.        Sec. 5164.7510.  (A) There is hereby established the 98548
pharmacy and therapeutics committee of the department of job and 98549
family servicesmedicaid. The committee shall assist the 98550
department with developing and maintaining a preferred drug list 98551
for the medicaid program.98552

       The committee shall review and recommend to the medicaid98553
director of job and family services the drugs that should be 98554
included on the preferred drug list. The recommendations shall be 98555
made based on the evaluation of competent evidence regarding the 98556
relative safety, efficacy, and effectiveness of prescription98557
prescribed drugs within a class or classes of prescription98558
prescribed drugs.98559

       (B) The committee shall consist of ten members and shall be 98560
appointed by the medicaid director of job and family services. The 98561
director shall seek recommendations for membership from relevant 98562
professional organizations. A candidate for membership recommended 98563
by a professional organization shall have professional experience 98564
working with medicaid recipients.98565

       The membership of the committee shall include:98566

       (1) Three pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the 98567
Revised Code;98568

       (2) Two doctors of medicine and two doctors of osteopathy who 98569
hold certificates to practice issued under Chapter 4731. of the 98570
Revised Code, one of whom is a family practice physician;98571

       (3) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 98572
Revised Code;98573

       (4) A pharmacologist who has a doctoral degree;98574

       (5) A psychiatrist who holds a certificate to practice issued 98575
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code and specializes in 98576
psychiatry.98577

       (C) The committee shall elect from among its members a 98578
chairperson. Five committee members constitute a quorum.98579

       The committee shall establish guidelines necessary for the 98580
committee's operation.98581

       The committee may establish one or more subcommittees to 98582
investigate and analyze issues consistent with the duties of the 98583
committee under this section. The subcommittees may submit 98584
proposals regarding the issues to the committee and the committee 98585
may adopt, reject, or modify the proposals.98586

       A vote by a majority of a quorum is necessary to make 98587
recommendations to the director. In the case of a tie, the 98588
chairperson shall decide the outcome.98589

       (D) The director shall act on the committee's recommendations 98590
not later than thirty days after the recommendation is posted on 98591
the department's web site under division (F) of this section. If 98592
the director does not accept a recommendation of the committee, 98593
the director shall present the basis for this determination not 98594
later than fourteen days after making the determination or at the 98595
next scheduled meeting of the committee, whichever is sooner. 98596

       (E) An interested party may request, and shall be permitted, 98597
to make a presentation or submit written materials to the 98598
committee during a committee meeting. The presentation or other 98599
materials shall be relevant to an issue under consideration by the 98600
committee and any written material, including a transcript of 98601
testimony to be given on the day of the meeting, may be submitted 98602
to the committee in advance of the meeting.98603

       (F) The department shall post the following on the 98604
department's web site:98605

       (1) Guidelines established by the committee under division 98606
(C) of this section;98607

       (2) A detailed committee agenda not later than fourteen days 98608
prior to the date of a regularly scheduled meeting and not later 98609
than seventy-two hours prior to the date of a special meeting 98610
called by the committee;98611

       (3) Committee recommendations not later than seven days after 98612
the meeting at which the recommendation was approved;98613

       (4) The director's final determination as to the 98614
recommendations made by the committee under this section.98615

       Sec. 5111.025.        Sec. 5164.76. (A) In rules adopted under section 98616
5111.025164.02 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job 98617
and family services shall modify the manner or establish a new 98618
manner in which the following are paid under medicaid:98619

        (1) Community mental health agenciesservice providers or 98620
facilities for providing community mental health services included 98621
incovered by the state medicaid planprogram pursuant to section 98622
5111.0235164.15 of the Revised Code;98623

        (2) Providers of alcohol and drug addiction services for 98624
providing alcohol and drug addiction services included incovered 98625
by the medicaid program pursuant to rules adopted under section 98626
5111.02 of the Revised Code.98627

       (B) The director's authority to modify the manner, or to 98628
establish a new manner, for medicaid to pay for the services 98629
specified in division (A) of this section is not limited by any 98630
rules adopted under section 5111.02 or 5119.615119.22 or 5164.0298631
of the Revised Code that are in effect on June 26, 2003, and 98632
govern the way medicaid pays for those services. This is the case 98633
regardless of what state agency adopted the rules.98634

       Sec. 5111.0213.        Sec. 5164.77.  (A) As used in this section:98635

       (1) "Aide services" means all of the following:98636

       (a) Home health aide services available under the home health 98637
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);98638

       (b) Home care attendant services available under a home and 98639
community-based services medicaid waiver component;98640

       (c) Personal care aide services available under a home and 98641
community-based services medicaid waiver component.98642

       (2) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 98643
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 98644
Revised Code.98645

       (3) "Independent provider" means an individual who personally 98646
provides aide services or nursing services and is not employed by, 98647
under contract with, or affiliated with another entity that 98648
provides those services.98649

       (4)(3) "Nursing services" means all of the following:98650

       (a) Nursing services available under the home health services 98651
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);98652

       (b) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 98653
440.80;98654

       (c) Nursing services available under a home and 98655
community-based services medicaid waiver component.98656

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 98657
do bothall of the following:98658

       (1) Effective October 1, 2011, reduce the medicaid program's 98659
first-hour-unit price for aide services to ninety-seven per cent 98660
of the price paid on June 30, 2011, and for nursing services to 98661
ninety-five per cent of the price paid on June 30, 2011;98662

       (2) Effective October 1, 2011, pay for a service that is an 98663
aide service or a nursing service provided by an independent 98664
provider eighty per cent of the price it pays for the same service 98665
provided by a provider that is not an independent provider;98666

       (3) Not sooner than July 1, 2012, adjust the medicaid 98667
reimbursementpayment rates for aide services and nursing services 98668
in a manner that reflects, at a minimum, labor market data, 98669
education and licensure status, home health agency and independent 98670
provider status, and length of service visit.98671

       (C) The department shall strive to have the adjustment made 98672
under division (B)(3) of this section go into effect on July 1, 98673
2012. The reductions made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 98674
section shall remain in effect until the adjustment made under 98675
division (B)(3) of this section goes into effect.98676

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 98677
under sections 5111.02 and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as 98678
necessary to implement this section.98679

       Sec. 5111.0212.        Sec. 5164.80.  As necessary to comply with section 98680
1902(a)(13)(A) of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 507 (1997)98681
section 1902(a)(13)(A), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(13)(A), as amended, and 98682
any other federal law that requires public notice of proposed 98683
changes to reimbursementpayment rates for medical assistance 98684
provided under the medicaid programservices, the medicaid98685
director of job and family services shall give public notice in 98686
the register of Ohio of any change to a method or standard used to 98687
determine the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for medical 98688
assistancea medicaid service.98689

       Sec. 5111.0214.        Sec. 5164.82. The department of job and family 98690
servicesmedicaid shall not knowingly make a medicaid payment for 98691
a provider-preventable condition for which federal financial 98692
participation is prohibited by regulations adopted under section 98693
2702 of the "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 98694
Stat. 318 (2010)section 2702, 42 U.S.C. 1396b-1. The director of 98695
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 98696
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.98697

       Sec. 5164.83. (A) As used in this section:98698

       (1) "Core competencies," "direct care services," and "direct 98699
care worker" have the same meanings as in section 191.061 of the 98700
Revised Code.98701

       (2) "Direct payment" means payment by the medicaid program 98702
for direct care services provided by a direct care worker to a 98703
medicaid recipient that is delivered directly to the worker.98704

       (3) "Indirect payment" means payment by the medicaid program 98705
for direct care services provided by a direct care worker to a 98706
medicaid recipient that is delivered to a third party but later 98707
transferred to the worker.98708

       (B) The department of medicaid shall not do either of the 98709
following unless a direct care worker demonstrates core 98710
competencies in accordance with section 191.061 of the Revised 98711
Code:98712

       (1) Permit a direct or indirect payment to be made to the 98713
worker for a direct care service provided by the worker on or 98714
after October 1, 2015;98715

       (2) Enter into a provider agreement with the direct care 98716
worker on or after October 1, 2015. 98717

       Sec. 5111.13.        Sec. 5164.85.  (A) As used in this section, 98718
"cost-effective" and "group health plan" have the same meanings as 98719
in section 1906 of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 98720
(1990)section 1906, 42 U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, and any 98721
regulations adopted under that section.98722

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 98723
submit a medicaid state plan amendment to the United States 98724
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of 98725
implementingimplement a program pursuant to section 1906 of the 98726
"Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 (1990)section 1906, 42 98727
U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, for the enrollment of medicaid-eligible 98728
individuals in group health plans when the department determines 98729
that enrollment is cost-effective.98730

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 98731
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 98732
to implement this section.98733

       Sec. 5111.18.        Sec. 5164.86. Not later than September 1, 2007, the98734
The medicaid director of job and family services shall establish 98735
a qualified state long-term care insurance partnership program 98736
consistent with the definition of that term in the "Social 98737
Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 98738
1396p(b)(1)(C)(iii). An individual participating in the program 98739
who is subject to the medicaid estate recovery program instituted 98740
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code shall be 98741
eligible for the reduced adjustment or recovery under division (D) 98742
of that section.98743

        The director of job and family services may adopt rules in 98744
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to 98745
implement this section.98746

       Sec. 5111.14.        Sec. 5164.88. The medicaid director of job and family 98747
services may submit to the United States secretary of health and 98748
human services an amendment to the medicaid state plan in order to98749
implement within the medicaid program a system under which 98750
medicaid recipients with chronic conditions are provided with 98751
coordinated care through health homes, as authorized by section 98752
1945 of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 319 (2010)section 98753
1945, 42 U.S.C. 1396w-4.98754

       The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 98755
Revised Code to implement this section.98756

       Sec. 5111.141.        Sec. 5164.89.  The department of job and family 98757
servicesmedicaid may require county departments of job and 98758
family services to provide case management of nonemergency 98759
transportation services provided under the medical assistance98760
medicaid program. County departments shall provide the case 98761
management if required by the department in accordance with rules 98762
adopted by the director of job and family servicesunder section 98763
5164.02 of the Revised Code.98764

       The department shall determine, for the purposes of claiming 98765
federal reimbursement under the medical assistance program98766
financial participation, whether it will claim expenditures for 98767
nonemergency transportation services as administrative or program 98768
expenditures.98769

       Sec. 5111.96.        Sec. 5164.90.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 98770
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 98771
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 98772
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 98773
the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005" (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 98774
amended).98775

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 98776
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 98777
servicesmedicaid, the director of job and family services98778
medicaid may operate the helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) 98779
choice demonstration component of the medicaid program to 98780
transition medicaid recipients who qualify for the demonstration 98781
component to community settings. The director may adopt rules in 98782
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 98783
administration and operation of the demonstration component.98784

       Sec. 5111.981.        Sec. 5164.91. (A) As used in this section and 98785
section 5111.982 of the Revised Code:98786

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 98787
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 98788
1396n(h)(2)(B).98789

       "Medicare" means the program created in the "Social Security 98790
Act," Title XVIII, 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq., as amended.98791

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the medical 98792
assistanceThe medicaid director may implement a demonstration 98793
project called the integrated care delivery system to test and 98794
evaluate the integration of the care that dual eligible 98795
individuals receive under medicare and medicaid. No provision of 98796
Title LI of the Revised Code applies to the integrated care 98797
delivery system if that provision implements or incorporates a 98798
provision of federal law governing medicaid and that provision of 98799
federal law does not apply to the system.98800

       (C) Before implementing the integrated care delivery system 98801
under division (B) of this section, the director shall obtain the 98802
approval of the United States secretary of health and human 98803
services in the form of a federal medicaid waiver, medicaid state 98804
plan amendment, or demonstration grant. The director is required 98805
to seek the federal approval only if the director seeks to 98806
implement the integrated care delivery system. The director shall 98807
implement the integrated care delivery system in accordance with 98808
the terms of the federal approval, including the terms regarding 98809
the duration of the system.98810

       Sec. 5111.0210.        Sec. 5164.92.  As used in this section, "advanced 98811
diagnostic imaging services" means magnetic resonance imaging 98812
services, computed tomography services, positron emission 98813
tomography services, cardiac nuclear medicine services, and 98814
similar imaging services.98815

       Not later than January 1, 2010, theThe department of job and 98816
family servicesmedicaid shall implement evidence-based, best 98817
practice guidelines or protocols and decision support tools for 98818
advanced diagnostic imaging services available undercovered by98819
the fee-for-service component of the medicaid program.98820

       Sec. 5111.0215.        Sec. 5164.93. (A) The department of job and family 98821
servicesmedicaid may establish a program under which it provides 98822
incentive payments, as authorized by the "Health Information 98823
Technology for Economic and Clinical HealthSocial Security Act," 98824
123 Stat. 489 (2009)section 1903(a)(3)(F) and (t), 42 U.S.C. 98825
1396b(a)(3)(F) and 1396b(t), as amended, to encourage the adoption 98826
and use of electronic health record technology by medicaid 98827
providers who are identified under that federal law as eligible 98828
professionals.98829

       (B) After the department has made a determination regarding 98830
the amount of a medicaid provider's electronic health record 98831
incentive payment or the denial of an incentive payment, the 98832
department shall notify the provider. The provider may request 98833
that the department reconsider its determination.98834

       A request for reconsideration shall be submitted in writing 98835
to the department not later than fifteen days after the provider 98836
receives notification of the determination. The request shall be 98837
accompanied by written materials setting forth the basis for, and 98838
supporting, the reconsideration request.98839

       On receipt of a timely request, the department shall 98840
reconsider the determination. On the basis of the written 98841
materials accompanying the request, the department may uphold, 98842
reverse, or modify its original determination. The department 98843
shall mail to the provider by certified mail a written notice of 98844
the reconsideration decision.98845

       In accordance with Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code, the 98846
medicaid provider may appeal the reconsideration decision by 98847
filing a notice of appeal with the court of common pleas of 98848
Franklin county. The notice shall identify the decision being 98849
appealed and the specific grounds for the appeal. The notice of 98850
appeal shall be filed not later than fifteen days after the 98851
department mails its notice of the reconsideration decision. A 98852
copy of the notice of appeal shall be filed with the department 98853
not later than three days after the notice is filed with the 98854
court.98855

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services may 98856
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5162.0298857
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The 98858
rules, if any, shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 98859
the Revised Code.98860

       Sec. 5111.20.        Sec. 5165.01.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 98861
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter:98862

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 98863
either of the following:98864

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 98865
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 98866
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 98867
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 98868
owes;98869

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 98870
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 98871
section.98872

       (B) "Allowable costs" are thosea nursing facility's costs 98873
determined bythat the department of job and family services to be98874
medicaid determines are reasonable and do not include fines. Fines98875
paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.615165.89 and section 98876
5111.995165.99 of the Revised Code are not allowable costs.98877

       (B)(C) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable 98878
costs incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, 98879
tax costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" 98880
includes, but is not limited to, costs of activities, social 98881
services, pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, 98882
qualified mental retardation professionals, program directors, 98883
medical and habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence 98884
supplies, food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 98885
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 98886
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 98887
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 98888
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 98889
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, maintenance 98890
and repairs, help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, 98891
start-up costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 98892
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 98893
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 98894
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 98895
rules adopted by the director of job and family services under 98896
section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed 98897
in this division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the 98898
cost of equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 98899
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 98900
administrative and general costs on the nursing facility's cost 98901
report for the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.98902

       (C)(D)(1) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in 98903
the case of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 98904
retarded, costs of nonextensive renovationthe actual expense 98905
incurred by a nursing facility for all of the following:98906

        (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 98907
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:98908

        (i) Buildings;98909

        (ii) Building improvements;98910

        (iii) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 98911
equipment;98912

        (iv) Transportation equipment.98913

        (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 98914
leasehold improvements;98915

        (c) Amortization of financing costs;98916

        (d) Lease and rent of land, buildings, and equipment.98917

        (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 98918
dollars per item may be considered capital costs in accordance 98919
with a provider's practice.98920

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 98921
all of the following:98922

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 98923
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:98924

       (i) Buildings;98925

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 98926
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 98927
Code;98928

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 98929
equipment;98930

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 98931
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;98932

       (v) Transportation equipment.98933

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 98934
leasehold improvements;98935

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;98936

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 98937
and rent of land, building, and equipment.98938

        The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 98939
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 98940
provider's practice.98941

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 98942
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 98943
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 98944
renovations that are not extensive renovations.98945

       (D)(E) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be 98946
construed in accordance with generally accepted accounting 98947
principles.98948

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 98949
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 98950
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 98951
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 98952
retarded.98953

       (F) "Case-mix score" means a measure determined under section 98954
5165.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care resources 98955
needed to provide care and habilitation to a nursing facility 98956
resident.98957

       (G) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 98958
the operator of a nursing facility in the place of the exiting 98959
operator.98960

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 98961
following:98962

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 98963
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 98964
corporation from a sole proprietorship;98965

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 98966
interest in the operation of the nursing facility to the entering 98967
operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the 98968
real property or personal property associated with the nursing 98969
facility is also transferred;98970

       (c) A lease of the nursing facility to the entering operator 98971
or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's 98972
lease;98973

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 98974
the partnership;98975

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 98976
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:98977

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 98978
partnership's dissolution under state law.98979

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 98980
not constitute a change in operator.98981

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 98982
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 98983
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 98984
more other corporations to form a new corporation.98985

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 98986
operator:98987

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing facility as 98988
the operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 98989
operating and management decisions;98990

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 98991
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 98992
facility if an entering operator does not become the operator in 98993
place of an exiting operator;98994

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 98995
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 98996
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 98997
same corporation continues to be the operator.98998

       (H) "Cost center" means the following:98999

       (1) Ancillary and support costs;99000

       (2) Capital costs;99001

       (3) Direct care costs;99002

       (4) Tax costs.99003

       (I) "Custom wheelchair" means a wheelchair to which both of 99004
the following apply:99005

       (1) It has been measured, fitted, or adapted in consideration 99006
of either of the following:99007

       (a) The body size or disability of the individual who is to 99008
use the wheelchair;99009

       (b) The individual's period of need for, or intended use of, 99010
the wheelchair.99011

       (2) It has customized features, modifications, or components, 99012
such as adaptive seating and positioning systems, that the 99013
supplier who assembled the wheelchair, or the manufacturer from 99014
which the wheelchair was ordered, added or made in accordance with 99015
the instructions of the physician of the individual who is to use 99016
the wheelchair.99017

       (J)(1) "Date of licensure," for ameans the following:99018

       (a) In the case of a nursing facility originallythat was 99019
required by law to be licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 99020
3721. of the Revised Code when it originally began to be operated 99021
as a nursing home, means the date specific beds werethe nursing 99022
facility was originally so licensed as nursing home beds under 99023
that chapter, regardless of whether they were subsequently 99024
licensed as residential facility beds under section 5123.19 of the 99025
Revised Code. For a facility originally licensed as a residential 99026
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, "date of 99027
licensure" means the date specific beds were originally licensed 99028
as residential facility beds under that section.;99029

       If(b) In the case of a nursing home beds licensed under 99030
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or residential facility beds 99031
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code werefacility 99032
that was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home when 99033
they wereit originally used to providebegan to be operated as a99034
nursing home or residential facility services, "date of licensure" 99035
means the date the bedsit first were used to providebegan to be 99036
operated as a nursing home or residential facility services, 99037
regardless of the date the present provider obtained licensure99038
nursing facility was first licensed as a nursing home.99039

       (2) If a facility adds, after a nursing facility's original 99040
date of licensure, more nursing home beds or residential facility 99041
beds or extensively renovatesall or part of the facility after 99042
its original date of licensureare added to the nursing facility, 99043
it will havethe nursing facility has a different date of 99044
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 99045
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space. This does 99046
not apply, however, to additional beds when both of the following 99047
apply:99048

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the nursing 99049
facility that was constructed at the same time as the previously 99050
licensedcontinuing beds butalready located in that part of the 99051
nursing facility;99052

       (b) The part of the nursing facility in which the additional 99053
beds are located was constructed as part of the nursing facility 99054
at a time when the nursing facility was not required by law to be99055
licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the Revised 99056
Code at that timeas a nursing home.99057

       (2)(3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 99058
applies in determinations of thenursing facilities' medicaid 99059
reimbursement rate for a nursing facility or intermediate care 99060
facility for the mentally retardedpayment rates but does not 99061
apply in determinations of thenursing facilities' franchise 99062
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 99063
for the mentally retardedfees.99064

       (G)(K) "Desk-reviewed" means that a nursing facility's costs 99065
as reported on a cost report submitted under section 5111.2699066
5165.10 of the Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review 99067
under division (A) of section 5111.275165.108 of the Revised Code 99068
and preliminarily determined to be allowable costs.99069

       (H)(L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 99070
incurred by a nursing facility:99071

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 99072
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the nursing facility;99073

       (b)(2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 99074
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 99075
provided in division (H)(2)(L)(8) of this section, other persons 99076
holding degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;99077

       (c)(3) Costs of purchased nursing services;99078

       (d)(4) Costs of quality assurance;99079

       (e)(5) Costs of training and staff development, employee 99080
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 99081
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 99082
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 99083
accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.02 of the Revised 99084
Code, for personnel listed in divisions (H)(L)(1)(a), (b)(2), and 99085
(d)(4), and (8) of this section;99086

       (f)(6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to 99087
direct care;99088

       (g)(7) Allocated direct care home office costs.99089

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 99090
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 99091
include costs;99092

       (8) Costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 99093
supervisors), medical supplies, oxygen, over-the-counter pharmacy 99094
products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 99095
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 99096
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 99097
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 99098
universal precautions supplies.;99099

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 99100
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 99101
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:99102

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 99103
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 99104
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 99105
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 99106
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 99107
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 99108
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;99109

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 99110
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 99111
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 99112
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 99113
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section. 99114

       (4)(9) Costs of wheelchairs other than the following:99115

       (a) Custom wheelchairs;99116

       (b) Repairs to and replacements of custom wheelchairs and 99117
parts that are made in accordance with the instructions of the 99118
physician of the individual who uses the custom wheelchair.99119

       (10) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 99120
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.0299121
5165.02 of the Revised Code.99122

       (I)(M) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 99123
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.99124

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 99125
the entering operator becomes the operator of the nursing 99126
facility.99127

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 99128
that the last of the residents of the nursing facility resides in 99129
the nursing facility.99130

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 99131
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 99132
agreement for the nursing facility.99133

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of 99134
participation" means the day the nursing facility ceases to accept 99135
new medicaid residents other than the individuals who reside in 99136
the nursing facility on the day before the effective date of the 99137
voluntary withdrawal of participation.99138

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 99139
that will become the operator of a nursing facility when a change 99140
of operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.99141

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:99142

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 99143
nursing facility on the effective date of a change of operator;99144

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 99145
nursing facility on the effective date of a facility closure;99146

       (3) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 99147
has undergone a voluntary withdrawal of participation;99148

       (4) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 99149
has undergone an involuntary termination.99150

       (T)(1) Subject to divisions (T)(2) and (3) of this section, 99151
"facility closure" means either of the following:99152

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 99153
building, that houses the facility as a nursing facility that 99154
results in the relocation of all of the nursing facility's 99155
residents;99156

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 99157
houses a nursing facility to a different use with any necessary 99158
license or other approval needed for that use being obtained and 99159
one or more of the nursing facility's residents remaining in the 99160
building, or part of the building, to receive services under the 99161
new use.99162

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 99163
following:99164

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the 99165
nursing facility by constructing a new nursing facility or 99166
transferring the nursing facility's license to another nursing 99167
facility;99168

       (b) The nursing facility's residents relocating to another of 99169
the operator's nursing facilities;99170

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 99171
nursing facility's medicaid certification that may result in the 99172
transfer of part of the nursing facility's survey findings to 99173
another of the operator's nursing facilities;99174

       (d) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 99175
nursing facility's license under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 99176
Code.99177

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the nursing 99178
facility's residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation 99179
and one or more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified 99180
bed in the nursing facility not later than thirty days after the 99181
evacuation occurs.99182

       (U) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 99183
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.99184

       (J)(V) "Franchise permit fee" means the following: 99185

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 99186
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code;99187

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 99188
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 99189
of the Revised Code.99190

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 99191
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 99192
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 99193
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 99194
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 99195
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 99196
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 99197
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 99198
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 99199
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 99200
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 99201
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 99202
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 99203
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 99204
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 99205
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 99206
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 99207
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 99208
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 99209
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 99210
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 99211
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 99212
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 99213
period ending December 31, 1992. 99214

       (L)(W) "Inpatient days" means the following: 99215

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 99216
following:99217

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident, regardless of 99218
payment source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility that is 99219
included in the nursing facility's certifiedmedicaid-certified99220
capacity under Title XIX;99221

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 99222
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 99223

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 99224
mentally retarded, both of the following:99225

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 99226
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 99227
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 99228
capacity under Title XIX;99229

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 99230
of the Revised Code. 99231

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 99232
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 99233
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 99234
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 99235
Title XIX.99236

       (N)(X) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 99237
medicaid's termination of the operator's provider agreement for 99238
the nursing facility when the termination is not taken at the 99239
operator's request.99240

       (Y) "Low resource utilization resident" means a medicaid 99241
recipient residing in a nursing facility who, for purposes of 99242
calculating the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for 99243
direct care costs, is placed in either of the two lowest resource 99244
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 99245
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 99246
data.99247

       (Z) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 99248
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section,a nursing facility's99249
expenditures that are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in 99250
a normally efficient working condition and that do not extend the 99251
useful life of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and 99252
repair expenses" includes but is not limited to the costcosts of 99253
ordinary repairs such as painting and wallpapering.99254

       (O)(AA) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of a 99255
nursing facility's beds that are certified for participation in 99256
medicaid as nursing facility beds.99257

       (BB) "Medicaid days" means the following: 99258

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 99259
following:99260

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 99261
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 99262
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 99263
certifiedmedicaid-certified capacity under Title XIX;99264

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 99265
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 99266

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 99267
mentally retarded, both of the following: 99268

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 99269
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 99270
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 99271
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 99272
certified capacity under Title XIX; 99273

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 99274
of the Revised Code. 99275

       (P)(CC)(1) "New nursing facility" means a nursing facility 99276
for which the provider obtains an initial provider agreement 99277
following medicaid certification of the nursing facility by the 99278
director of health, including such a nursing facility that 99279
replaces one or more nursing facilities for which a provider 99280
previously held a provider agreement.99281

       (2) "New nursing facility" does not mean a nursing facility 99282
for which the entering operator seeks a provider agreement 99283
pursuant to section 5165.511 or 5165.512 or (pursuant to section 99284
5165.515) section 5165.07 of the Revised Code.99285

       (DD) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 99286
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 99287
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 99288
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 99289
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 99290
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 99291
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 99292
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIIIhas the 99293
same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1919(a), 42 99294
U.S.C. 1396r(a).99295

       (Q)(EE) "Nursing facility services" has the same meaning as 99296
in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(f).99297

       (FF) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 99298
3721.01 of the Revised Code.99299

       (GG) "Operator" means the person or government entity 99300
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 99301
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99302
retarded.99303

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 99304
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 99305
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 99306
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 99307
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 99308
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 99309
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.99310

       (S)(HH)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 99311
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 99312
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 99313
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 99314
mentally retarded:99315

       (a) The land on which the nursing facility is located;99316

       (b) The structure in which the nursing facility is located;99317

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 99318
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 99319
which the nursing facility is located;99320

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 99321
which the nursing facility is located.99322

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 99323
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 99324
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 99325
lender that has made a loan related to the nursing facility unless 99326
the holder or lender operates the nursing facility directly or 99327
through a subsidiary.99328

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."99329

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 99330
section, "per(II) "Per diem" means a nursing facility's or 99331
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, 99332
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 99333
divided by the nursing facility's inpatient days for that cost 99334
reporting period.99335

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 99336
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 99337
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 99338
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 99339
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 99340
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 99341
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 99342
had been eighty-five per cent. 99343

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 99344
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 99345
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 99346
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 99347
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 99348
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 99349
had been ninety-five per cent.99350

       (V)(JJ) "Provider" means an operator with a provider 99351
agreement.99352

       (W)(KK) "Provider agreement" means a contractprovider 99353
agreement, as defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that 99354
is between the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 99355
the operator of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 99356
for the mentally retarded for the provision of nursing facility 99357
services or intermediate care facility services for the mentally 99358
retarded under the medicaid program.99359

       (X)(LL) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 99360
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 99361
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 99362
nursing facility.99363

       (Y)(MM) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that 99364
is appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation 99365
of patient care facilities and activities, including normal 99366
standby costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays 99367
for a given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from 99368
provider to provider and from time to time for the same provider.99369

       (Z)(NN) "Related party" means an individual or organization 99370
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 99371
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 99372
by, the provider.99373

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 99374
party.99375

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 99376
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 99377
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 99378
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 99379
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 99380
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 99381
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 99382
provider and another organization from which the provider 99383
purchases or leases real property.99384

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 99385
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 99386
direct the actions or policies of an organization.99387

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 99388
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 99389
all of the following conditions are met:99390

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.99391

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 99392
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 99393
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 99394
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.99395

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 99396
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 99397
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 99398
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 99399
by thenursing facilities.99400

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 99401
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 99402
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 99403
supplier.99404

       (AA)(OO) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is 99405
related to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care 99406
facility for the mentally retarded by one of the following 99407
relationships:99408

       (1) Spouse;99409

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;99410

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;99411

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;99412

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 99413
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;99414

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;99415

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 99416
sister.99417

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:99418

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 99419
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 99420
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 99421
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 99422
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.99423

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 99424
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 99425
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993: 99426

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 99427
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 99428
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 99429
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 99430
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 99431
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 99432
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 99433
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 99434
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 99435
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 99436
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 99437
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 99438
capacity. 99439

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 99440
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 99441
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 99442
life of the assets for at least ten years. 99443

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 99444
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 99445
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 99446
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 99447
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 99448
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 99449
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 99450
statistics. 99451

       The department of job and family services may treat a 99452
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 99453
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 99454
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 99455
construction of new beds.99456

       (CC)(PP) "Residents' rights advocate" has the same meaning as 99457
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.99458

       (QQ) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in 99459
the "Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).99460

       (RR) "Sponsor" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 99461
the Revised Code.99462

       (SS) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 99463
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 99464
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.99465

       (DD)(TT) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 99466
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.99467

       (EE)(UU) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 99468
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 99469
seq.99470

       (VV) "Voluntary withdrawal of participation" means an 99471
operator's voluntary election to terminate the participation of a 99472
nursing facility in the medicaid program but to continue to 99473
provide service of the type provided by a nursing facility.99474

       Sec. 5111.201.        Sec. 5165.011. Whenever(A) Except as provided in 99475
division (B) of this section, whenever "skilled nursing facility," 99476
"intermediate care facility," or "dual skilled nursing and 99477
intermediate care facility" is referred to or designated in any 99478
statute, rule, contract, provider agreement, or other document 99479
pertaining to the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 99480
reference or designation is deemed to refer to a nursing facility, 99481
except that a.99482

       (B) A reference to or designation of an "intermediate care 99483
facility for the mentally retarded" or "ICF/MR" is not deemed to 99484
refer to a nursing facility.99485

       Sec. 5165.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 99486
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 99487
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.99488

       Sec. 5111.202.        Sec. 5165.03.  (A) As used in this section:99489

       (1) "Dementia" includes Alzheimer's disease or a related 99490
disorder.99491

       (2) "Serious mental illness" means "serious mental illness," 99492
as defined by the United States department of health and human 99493
services in regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(i) of99494
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 99495
1919(e)(7)(G)(i), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1396r(e)(7)(G)(i).99496

       (3) "Mentally ill individual" means an individual who has a 99497
serious mental illness other than either of the following:99498

       (a) A primary diagnosis of dementia;99499

       (b) A primary diagnosis that is not a primary diagnosis of 99500
dementia and a primary diagnosis of something other than a serious 99501
mental illness.99502

       (4) "Mentally retarded individual" means an individual who is 99503
mentally retarded or has a related condition, as described in 99504
section 1905(d) of the "Social Security Act.," section 1905(d), 42 99505
U.S.C. 1396d(d).99506

       (5) "Specialized services" means the services specified by 99507
the United States department of health and human services in 99508
regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii) of the 99509
"Social Security Act.," section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 99510
1396r(e)(7)(G)(iii).99511

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 99512
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally ill 99513
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 99514
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services99515
has determined both of the following under section 5119.06199516
5119.40 of the Revised Code:99517

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 99518
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 99519
physical and mental condition;99520

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 99521
mental illness.99522

       (2) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 99523
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally retarded 99524
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 99525
department of developmental disabilities has determined both of 99526
the following under section 5123.021 of the Revised Code:99527

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 99528
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 99529
physical and mental condition;99530

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 99531
mental retardation.99532

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 99533
not make medicaid payments under the medical assistance program to 99534
a nursing facility on behalf of any individual who is admitted to 99535
the facility in violation of division (B) of this section for the 99536
period beginning on the date of admission and ending on the date 99537
the requirements of division (B) of this section are met.99538

       (D) A determination under division (B) of this section is not 99539
required for any individual who is exempted from the requirement 99540
that a determination be made by division (B)(2) of section 99541
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 99542
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services99543
under division (E)(3) of that section, or by division (B)(2) of 99544
section 5123.021 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 99545
department of developmental disabilities under division (E)(3) of 99546
that section.99547

       Sec. 5111.203.        Sec. 5165.031. Regardless of whether or not an 99548
applicantAn individual who applies for admission to a nursing 99549
facility or resident ofresides in a nursing facility is an 99550
applicant for or recipient of medical assistance, the department 99551
of job and family services shall provide notice and an opportunity 99552
for a hearing to any applicant for admission to a nursing facility 99553
or resident of a nursing facility who ismay appeal if adversely 99554
affected by a determination made by the department of mental 99555
healthmental health and addiction services under section 99556
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or by the department of 99557
developmental disabilities under section 5123.021 of the Revised 99558
Code. The hearing shall be conducted in the same manner as 99559
hearings conducted underIf the individual is an applicant for or 99560
recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal pursuant to 99561
section 5160.31 of the Revised Code. If the individual is not an 99562
applicant for or recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal 99563
pursuant to a process the department of medicaid shall establish, 99564
which shall be similar to the appeals process established by99565
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code. The department of medicaid 99566
shall provide notice of the right to appeal to individuals 99567
adversely affected by determinations made under sections 5119.40 99568
and 5123.021 of the Revised Code. Any decision made by the 99569
department of job and family services on the basis of the hearing99570
such an appeal is binding on the department of mental health99571
mental health and addiction services and the department of 99572
developmental disabilities.99573

       Sec. 5111.204.        Sec. 5165.04.  (A) As used in this section, 99574
"representative" means a person acting on behalf of an applicant 99575
for or recipient of medicaid. A representative may be a family 99576
member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other person 99577
chosen to act on behalf of an applicant or recipient.99578

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 99579
require each applicant for or recipient of medicaid who applies or 99580
intends to apply for admission to a nursing facility or resides in 99581
a nursing facility to undergo an assessment to determine whether 99582
the applicant or recipient needs the level of care provided by a 99583
nursing facility. The assessment may be performed concurrently 99584
with a long-term care consultation provided under section 173.42 99585
of the Revised Code.99586

       To the maximum extent possible, the assessment shall be based 99587
on information from the resident assessment instrument specified 99588
in rules adoptedauthorized by the director of job and family 99589
services under division (E) of section 5111.2325165.191 of the 99590
Revised Code. The assessment shall also be based on criteria and 99591
procedures established in rules adopted underauthorized by99592
division (F) of this section and information provided by the 99593
person being assessed or the person's representative. 99594

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or if the 99595
assessment is performed by an agency under contract with the 99596
department pursuant to division (G) of this section, the agency, 99597
shall, not later than the time the level of care determination 99598
based on the assessment is required to be provided under division 99599
(C) of this section, give written notice of its conclusions and 99600
the basis for them to the person assessed and, if the department 99601
of job and family services or agency under contract with the 99602
department has been informed that the person has a representative, 99603
to the representative.99604

       (C) The department of job and family services or agency under 99605
contract with the department, whichever performs the assessment, 99606
shall provide a level of care determination based on the 99607
assessment as follows:99608

       (1) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 99609
for admission to a nursing facility while hospitalized, not later 99610
than one of the following:99611

       (a) One working day after the person or the person's 99612
representative submits the application or notifies the department 99613
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 99614
required for providing the level of care determination, as 99615
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 99616
this section;99617

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 99618
representative.99619

       (2) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 99620
for admission to a nursing facility who is not hospitalized, not 99621
later than one of the following:99622

       (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 99623
representative submits the application or notifies the department 99624
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 99625
required for providing the level of care determination, as 99626
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 99627
this section;99628

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 99629
representative.99630

       (3) In the case of a person who resides in a nursing 99631
facility, not later than one of the following:99632

        (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 99633
representative submits an application for medical assistance99634
medicaid and submits all information required for providing the 99635
level of care determination, as specified in rules adopted under99636
authorized by division (F)(2) of this section;99637

        (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 99638
representative.99639

        (4) In the case of an emergency, as specified in rules 99640
adopted underauthorized by division (F)(4) of this section, 99641
within the number of days specified in the rules.99642

       (D) A person assessed under this section or the person's 99643
representative may request a state hearing to disputeappeal the 99644
conclusions reached by the department of job and family services99645
or agency under contract with the department on the basis of the 99646
assessment. The request for a state hearingappeal shall be made 99647
in accordance withpursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 99648
Revised Code. The department of job and family services or agency 99649
under contract with the department shall provide to the person or 99650
the person's representative and the nursing facility written 99651
notice of the person's right to request a state hearing. The 99652
notice shall include an explanation of the procedure for 99653
requesting a state hearing. If a state hearing is requested, the 99654
state shall be represented in the hearing by the department of job 99655
and family services or the agency under contract with the 99656
department, whichever performed the assessment.99657

       (E) A nursing facility that admits or retains a person 99658
determined pursuant to an assessment required under this section 99659
not to need the level of care provided by the nursing facility 99660
shall not be reimbursedpaid under the medicaid program for the 99661
person's care.99662

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 99663
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.0299664
of the Revised Code to implement and administer this section. The 99665
rules shall include all of the following:99666

       (1) Criteria and procedures to be used in determining whether 99667
admission to a nursing facility or continued stay in a nursing 99668
facility is appropriate for the person being assessed;99669

       (2) Information the person being assessed or the person's 99670
representative must provide to the department or agency under 99671
contract with the department for purposes of the assessment and 99672
providing a level of care determination based on the assessment;99673

       (3) Circumstances under which a person is not required to be 99674
assessed;99675

       (4) Circumstances that constitute an emergency for purposes 99676
of division (C)(4) of this section and the number of days within 99677
which a level of care determination must be provided in the case 99678
of an emergency.99679

       (G) Pursuant to section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, 99680
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into 99681
contracts in the form of interagency agreements with one or more 99682
other state agencies to perform the assessments required under 99683
this section. The interagency agreements shall specify the 99684
responsibilities of each agency in the performance of the 99685
assessments.99686

       Sec. 5111.21.        Sec. 5165.06. (A) In order to beSubject to section 99687
5165.072 of the Revised Code, an operator is eligible for medicaid 99688
payments, the operator ofto enter into a provider agreement for a 99689
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99690
retarded shall doif all of the following apply:99691

       (1) Enter into a provider agreement with the department as 99692
provided in section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised 99693
Code(A) The nursing facility is certified by the director of 99694
health for participation in medicaid;99695

       (2) Apply for and maintain a valid license to operate(B) The 99696
nursing facility is licensed by the director of health as a 99697
nursing home if so required by law;99698

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section,(C) The operator 99699
and nursing facility comply with all applicable state and federal 99700
laws and rules.99701

       (B) A state rule that requires the operator of an 99702
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded to have 99703
received approval of a plan for the proposed facility pursuant to 99704
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 99705
operator being eligible for medicaid payments for the facility 99706
does not apply if, under former section 5123.193 of the Revised 99707
Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th general assembly 99708
or section 5123.197 of the Revised Code, a residential facility 99709
license was obtained or modified for the facility without 99710
obtaining approval of such a plan.99711

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 99712
the operator of a nursing facility that elects to obtain and 99713
maintain eligibility for payments under the medicaid program shall 99714
qualify all of the facility's medicaid-certified beds in the 99715
medicare program established by Title XVIII. The director of job 99716
and family services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 99717
Revised Code to establish the time frame in which a nursing 99718
facility must comply with this requirement.99719

       (2) The department of veterans services is not required to 99720
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 99721
the agency maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 99722
Revised Code in the medicare program.99723

       Sec. 5111.22.        Sec. 5165.07. (A) Except as provided in section 99724
5165.072 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 99725
enter into a provider agreement with a nursing facility operator 99726
who applies, and is eligible, for the provider agreement.99727

       (B) A provider agreement between the department of job and 99728
family services and the provider of a nursing facility or 99729
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall contain99730
require the following provisions:99731

       (A) The department agrees to make medicaid payments to the 99732
provider, as provided in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 99733
Revised Code,in accordance with this chapter for medicaid-covered99734
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides to a 99735
resident of theits residents who are medicaid recipients eligible 99736
for nursing facility who is a medicaid recipientservices. No 99737
payment shall be made for the day a medicaid recipient is 99738
discharged from the facility.99739

       (B) The(C) A provider agreement shall require the provider 99740
agrees to do all of the following:99741

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 99742
provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code;99743

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 99744
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 99745
department issues an audit report in accordance with division (B) 99746
of section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised Code, six years after 99747
all appeal rights relating to the audit report are exhausted;99748

       (3) File reports as required by the department;99749

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of itsthe nursing 99750
facility's services for inspection and audit by the department;99751

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department, the 99752
department of health, and any other state or local authority 99753
having authority to inspect;99754

       (6) Supply to the department such information as it requires 99755
concerning the nursing facility's services to residents who are,99756
or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;99757

       (7) Comply with section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised Code.99758

       The(D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions 99759
that are consistent with law and considered necessary by the 99760
department.99761

       A provider agreement shall be effective for no longer than 99762
twelve months, except that if federal statute or regulations 99763
authorize a longer term, it may be effective for a longer term so 99764
authorized. A provider agreement may be renewed only if the 99765
facility is certified by the department of health for 99766
participation in the medicaid program.99767

       The department of job and family services, in accordance with 99768
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, may elect 99769
not to enter into, not to renew, or to terminate a provider 99770
agreement when the department determines that such an agreement 99771
would not be in the best interests of medicaid recipients or of 99772
the state.99773

       Sec. 5111.223.        Sec. 5165.071. TheA nursing facility operator of a 99774
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99775
retarded may enter into provider agreements for more than one 99776
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99777
retarded.99778

       Sec. 5165.072.  The department of medicaid, in accordance 99779
with rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, may 99780
elect not to enter into, not to revalidate, or to terminate a 99781
nursing facility provider agreement when the department determines 99782
that such an agreement would not be in the best interests of 99783
medicaid recipients or the state. The department shall not 99784
revalidate a nursing facility provider agreement if the provider 99785
fails to maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 99786
provided in section 5165.06 of the Revised Code.99787

       Sec. 5111.30.        Sec. 5165.073.  The department of job and family 99788
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the provider agreement with a 99789
nursing facility provider that does not comply with the 99790
requirements of section 3721.071 of the Revised Code for the 99791
installation of fire extinguishing and fire alarm systems.99792

       Sec. 5111.31.        Sec. 5165.08.  (A) Every provider agreement with the99793
a nursing facility provider of a nursing facility or intermediate 99794
care facility for the mentally retarded shall do both of the 99795
following:99796

       (1) Except as provided by division (B)(1) of this section, 99797
include any part of the nursing facility that meets federal and 99798
state standards for medicaid certification;99799

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:99800

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 99801
color, sex, creed, or national origin;99802

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 99803
refusing to retaindo either of the following:99804

       (i) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5165.82 of 99805
the Revised Code, admit as a resident of the nursing facility an 99806
individual because the individual is, or may (as a resident of the 99807
nursing facility) become, a medicaid recipient if less than eighty 99808
per cent of the nursing facility's residents are medicaid 99809
recipients;99810

       (ii) Retain as a patient any personresident of the nursing 99811
facility an individual because the personindividual is, becomes,99812
or may (as a resident of the nursing facility) become, as a 99813
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient. For the 99814
purposes of this division, a medicaid recipient who is a patient 99815
in a facility shall be considered a patient in the facility during 99816
any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days during any 99817
twelve-month period. Recipients who have been identified by the 99818
department of job and family services or its designee as requiring 99819
the level of care of an intermediate care facility for the 99820
mentally retarded shall not be subject to a maximum period of 99821
absences during which they are considered patients if prior 99822
authorization of the department for visits with relatives and 99823
friends and participation in therapeutic programs is obtained 99824
under rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.99825

       (2) Except as provided by division (B)(1) of this section, 99826
include any part of the facility that meets standards for 99827
certification of compliance with federal and state laws and rules 99828
for participation in the medicaid program.99829

       (3) Prohibit the provider from discriminating against any 99830
patient on the basis of race, color, sex, creed, or national 99831
origin.99832

       (4) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5111.55 of 99833
the Revised Code, prohibit the provider from failing or refusing 99834
to accept a patient because the patient is, becomes, or may, as a 99835
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient if less than 99836
eighty per cent of the patients in the facility are medicaid 99837
recipients.99838

       (B)(1) Except as provided by division (B)(2) of this section, 99839
the followingbeds added during the period beginning July 1, 1987, 99840
and ending July 1, 1993, to a nursing home licensed under Chapter 99841
3721. of the Revised Code are not required to be included in a 99842
provider agreement unless otherwise required by federal law:99843

       (a) Beds added during the period beginning July 1, 1987, and 99844
ending July 1, 1993, to a nursing home licensed under Chapter 99845
3721. of the Revised Code;99846

       (b) Beds in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 99847
retarded that are designated for respite care under a medicaid 99848
waiver component operated pursuant to a waiver sought under 99849
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code.99850

        (2) If a provider chooses to include a bed specified in 99851
division (B)(1)(a) of this section in a provider agreement, the 99852
bed may not be removed from the provider agreement unless the 99853
provider withdraws the nursing facility in which the bed is 99854
located from the medicaid program.99855

       (C) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this 99856
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of a nursing 99857
facility shall be considered a resident of the nursing facility 99858
during any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days 99859
during any twelve-month period.99860

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider thatfrom 99861
doing any of the following:99862

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 99863
religious or denominational nursing facility or intermediate care 99864
facility for the mentally retarded from giving preference to 99865
persons of the same religion or denomination. Nothing in this 99866
section shall bar any provider from giving;99867

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 99868
contracted to provide continuing care.99869

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar the provider of;99870

       (3) If the nursing facility is a county home organized under 99871
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code from, admitting residents 99872
exclusively from the county in which the county home is located.99873

       (E) No provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care 99874
facility for the mentally retarded for which a provider agreement 99875
is in effect shall violate the provider contract obligations 99876
imposed under this section.99877

       (F) Nothing in divisions (A) and (C) of this section shall 99878
bar a provider from retaining patients;99879

       (4) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 99880
nursing facility for not less than one year as private pay 99881
patients and who subsequently become medicaid recipients, but 99882
refusing to accept as a patientresident any person who is, or 99883
may,(as a patient inresident of the nursing facility,) become a 99884
medicaid recipient, if all of the following apply:99885

       (1)(a) The provider does not refuse to retain any patient99886
resident who has resided in the provider's nursing facility for 99887
not less than one year as a private pay patientresident because 99888
the patientresident becomes a medicaid recipient, except as 99889
necessary to comply with division (F)(2)(D)(4)(b) of this section;99890

       (2)(b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under this99891
division (D)(4) of this section does not at any time exceed ten 99892
per cent of all the patientsresidents in the nursing facility;99893

       (3)(c) On July 1, 1980, all the patientsresidents in the 99894
nursing facility were private pay patientsresidents.99895

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 99896
obligations imposed by this section.99897

       Sec. 5111.32.        Sec. 5165.081. Any patientA nursing facility 99898
resident has a cause of action against thea nursing facility99899
provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 99900
the mentally retarded for breach of the provider agreement 99901
obligations or other duties imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of 99902
the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the patient99903
resident, or on the patient'sresident's behalf by the patient's99904
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, as either is 99905
defined under section 3721.10 of the Revised Code, by the filing 99906
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 99907
which the nursing facility is located, or in the court of common 99908
pleas of Franklin county.99909

       If thea court of common pleas finds that a breach of the99910
provider has breached a provider agreement obligationsobligation 99911
or other duty imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised 99912
Code has occurred, the court may enjoindo one or more of the 99913
following:99914

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice, order;99915

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary, and 99916
award;99917

       (C) Award to the patienta resident and a personsponsor or 99918
public agencygovernment entity that brings anthe action on 99919
behalf of a patientresident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 99920
attorney's fees.99921

       Sec. 5165.082.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 99922
this section, the operator of a nursing facility that elects to 99923
have the nursing facility participate in the medicaid program 99924
shall qualify all of the nursing facility's medicaid-certified 99925
beds in the medicare program. The medicaid director may adopt 99926
rules under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code to establish the 99927
time frame in which a nursing facility must comply with this 99928
requirement.99929

       (B) The department of veterans services is not required to 99930
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 99931
the department maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 99932
Revised Code in the medicare program.99933

       Sec. 5111.26.        Sec. 5165.10.  (A)(1)(a) Except as provided in 99934
division (A)(1)(b)(D) of this section, each nursing facility99935
provider shall file with the department of job and family services99936
medicaid an annual cost report for each of the provider's nursing 99937
facilities and intermediate care facilities for the mentally 99938
retarded that participate in the medicaid program. A provider 99939
shall prepare the reports in accordance with guidelines 99940
established by the department. AThe cost report for a year shall 99941
cover athe calendar year or the portion of athe calendar year 99942
during which the nursing facility participated in the medicaid 99943
program. A provider shall file the reports withinExcept as 99944
provided in division (E) of this section, the cost report is due 99945
not later than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or 99946
portion of the calendar year, that the cost report covers. The 99947
department, for good cause, may grant a fourteen-day extension of 99948
the time for filing cost reports upon written request from a 99949
provider. The director of job and family services shall prescribe, 99950
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, the 99951
cost reporting form and a uniform chart of accounts for the 99952
purpose of cost reporting, and shall distribute cost reporting 99953
forms or computer software for electronic submission of the cost 99954
report to each provider at least sixty days before the reporting 99955
date.99956

       (b) If rates for a provider's nursing facility or 99957
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded were most 99958
recently established under section 5111.254 or 5111.255 of the 99959
Revised Code, the provider shall submit a cost report for that 99960
facility no later than ninety days after the end of the facility's 99961
first three full calendar months of operation. If a nursing 99962
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 99963
undergoes a change of provider that the department determines, in 99964
accordance with rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised 99965
Code, is an arm's length transaction, the new provider shall 99966
submit a cost report for that facility not later than ninety days 99967
after the end of the facility's first three full calendar months 99968
of operation under the new provider. The provider of a facility 99969
that opens or undergoes a change of provider that is an arm's 99970
length transaction after the first day of October in any calendar 99971
year is not required to file a cost report for that calendar year.99972

       (c)(B) If a nursing facility undergoes a change of provider 99973
that the department determines, in accordance with rules adopted 99974
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, is not an arms99975
arm's length transaction, the new provider shall file athe 99976
nursing facility's cost report underin accordance with division 99977
(A)(1)(a) of this section for the facility. Theand the cost 99978
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 99979
the new provider operated the nursing facility and the portion of 99980
the calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 99981
nursing facility.99982

       (2) If a provider required to submit a cost report for a 99983
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99984
retarded does not file the report within the required time period 99985
or within fourteen days thereafter if an extension is granted 99986
under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, or files an incomplete 99987
or inadequate report for the facility, the department shall 99988
provide immediate written notice to the provider that the provider 99989
agreement for the facility will be terminated in thirty days 99990
unless the provider submits a complete and adequate cost report 99991
for the facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day 99992
termination period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of 99993
the proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider 99994
shall be paid the facility's then current per resident per day 99995
rate, minus two dollars. On July 1, 1994, the department shall 99996
adjust the two-dollar reduction to reflect the rate of inflation 99997
during the preceding twelve months, as shown in the consumer price 99998
index for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 99999
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics. 100000
On July 1, 1995, and the first day of July of each year 100001
thereafter, the department shall adjust the amount of the 100002
reduction in effect during the previous twelve months to reflect 100003
the rate of inflation during the preceding twelve months, as shown 100004
in the same index.100005

       (B) No provider shall report fines paid under sections 100006
5111.35 to 5111.62 or section 5111.99 of the Revised Code in any 100007
cost report filed under this section.100008

       (C) The department shall develop an addendum to the cost 100009
report form that a provider may use to set forth costs that the 100010
provider believes may be disputed by the department. Any costs 100011
reported by the provider on the addendum may be considered by the 100012
department in setting the facility's rate. If the department does 100013
not consider the costs listed on the addendum in setting the 100014
facility's rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of that 100015
determination under section 5111.29 of the Revised Code. If the 100016
department subsequently includes the costs listed in the addendum 100017
in the facility's rate, the department shall pay the provider 100018
interest at a reasonable rate established in rules adopted under 100019
section 5111.02 of the Revised Code for the time that the rate 100020
paid excluded the costs.If the medicaid payment rate for a new 100021
nursing facility was most recently determined in accordance with 100022
section 5165.151 of the Revised Code, the provider shall file with 100023
the department a cost report for the new nursing facility not 100024
later than, except as provided in division (E) of this section, 100025
ninety days after the end of the new nursing facility's first 100026
three full calendar months of operation. The cost report shall 100027
cover the period that begins with the nursing facility's first day 100028
of operation and ends on the first day of the month immediately 100029
following the first three full months of operation.100030

       (D) A nursing facility provider is not required to file a 100031
cost report for a nursing facility for a calendar year in 100032
accordance with division (A) of this section if the provider files 100033
a cost report for the nursing facility under division (C) of this 100034
section and that cost report covers a period that begins after the 100035
first day of October of that calendar year. The provider shall 100036
file a cost report for the nursing facility in accordance with 100037
division (A) of this section for the immediately following 100038
calendar year.100039

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 100040
extension to file a cost report under this section if the provider 100041
provides the department a written request for the extension and 100042
the department determines that there is good cause for the 100043
extension.100044

       Sec. 5111.266.        Sec. 5165.101.  A nursing facility provider of a 100045
nursing facility filing the nursing facility's cost report with 100046
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 100047
5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the Revised Code shall report as a 100048
nonreimbursable expense the cost of the nursing facility's 100049
franchise permit fee.100050

       Sec. 5165.102.  No nursing facility provider shall report 100051
fines paid under sections 5165.60 to 5165.89 or section 5165.99 of 100052
the Revised Code in a cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 100053
5165.522 of the Revised Code.100054

       Sec. 5165.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 100055
form prescribed under section 5165.104 of the Revised Code and in 100056
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.100057

       Sec. 5165.104.  The department of medicaid shall do all of 100058
the following:100059

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 100060
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 100061
reporting costs on the form;100062

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 100063
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 100064
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;100065

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.100066

       Sec. 5165.105.  The department of medicaid shall develop an 100067
addendum to the cost report form that a nursing facility provider 100068
may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 100069
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 100070
determining a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate. If the 100071
department does not consider such costs in determining a nursing 100072
facility's medicaid payment rate, the provider may seek 100073
reconsideration of the determination in accordance with section 100074
5165.38 of the Revised Code. If the department subsequently 100075
includes such costs in a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate, 100076
the department shall pay the provider interest at a reasonable 100077
rate established in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 100078
Revised Code for the period that the rate excluded the costs.100079

       Sec. 5165.106.  If a nursing facility provider required by 100080
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the 100081
nursing facility fails to file the cost report by the date it is 100082
due or the date, if any, to which the due date is extended 100083
pursuant to division (E) of that section, or files an incomplete 100084
or inadequate report for the nursing facility under that section, 100085
the department of medicaid shall provide immediate written notice 100086
to the provider that the provider agreement for the nursing 100087
facility will be terminated in thirty days unless the provider 100088
submits a complete and adequate cost report for the nursing 100089
facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day termination 100090
period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of the 100091
proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider shall 100092
be paid the nursing facility's then current per medicaid day 100093
payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which nursing facility's 100094
per medicaid day payment rates are reduced during fiscal year 2013 100095
in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 5111.26 of the 100096
Revised Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the Revised Code by 100097
H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) as that section existed on 100098
the day immediately preceding the effective date of this section. 100099
On the first day of each July, the department shall adjust the 100100
amount of the reduction in effect during the previous twelve 100101
months to reflect the rate of inflation during the preceding 100102
twelve months, as shown in the consumer price index for all items 100103
for all urban consumers for the north central region, published by 100104
the United States bureau of labor statistics.100105

       Sec. 5111.261.        Sec. 5165.107.  (A) Except as provided in division 100106
(B) of this section and not later than three years after a nursing 100107
facility provider files a cost report with the department of job 100108
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.265165.10 of the 100109
Revised Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the 100110
provider discovers a material error in the cost report or 100111
additional information to be included in the cost report. The 100112
department shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and 100113
notify the provider of its determination.100114

       (B) A provider may not amend a cost report if the department 100115
has notified the provider that an audit of the cost report or a 100116
cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost reporting period 100117
is to be conducted under section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised 100118
Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 100119
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 100120
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 100121
final settlement of the cost report.100122

       Sec. 5111.27.        Sec. 5165.108.  (A) The department of job and family 100123
servicesmedicaid shall conduct a desk review of each cost report 100124
it receives under section 5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the 100125
Revised Code. Based on the desk review, the department shall make 100126
a preliminary determination of whether the reported costs are 100127
allowable costs. The department shall notify each nursing facility100128
provider of whether any of the reported costs are preliminarily 100129
determined not to be allowable, the medicaid payment rate 100130
calculationdetermined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 100131
Revised Codethis chapter that results from that determination, 100132
and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. The 100133
department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation and 100134
submit additional information.100135

       (B) The department may conduct an audit, as defined by rule 100136
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, of any cost 100137
report. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 100138
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 100139
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 100140
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 100141
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 100142
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 100143
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors. An audit shall 100144
be conducted by auditors under contract with or employed by the 100145
department. The department shall notify a provider of the findings 100146
of an audit by issuing an audit report. An audit report regarding 100147
a nursing facility shall include notice of any fine imposed under 100148
section 5111.271 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue 100149
the audit report no later than three years after the cost report 100150
is filed, or upon the completion of a desk or field audit on the 100151
report or a report for a subsequent cost reporting period, 100152
whichever is earlier.100153

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 100154
facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 100155
shall be effective for one to two years. The department shall 100156
establish an audit manual and program which shall require that all 100157
field audits, conducted either pursuant to a contract or by 100158
department employees:100159

       (1) Comply with the applicable rules prescribed pursuant to 100160
Titles XVIII and XIX;100161

       (2) Consider generally accepted auditing standards prescribed 100162
by the American institute of certified public accountants;100163

       (3) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 100164
included in the report examined during the audit are allowable and 100165
are presented in accordance with state and federal laws and 100166
regulations, and whether, in all material respects, allowable 100167
costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient care;100168

       (4) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, during 100169
the period of the auditors' professional engagement or employment 100170
and during the period covered by the cost reports, do not have nor 100171
are committed to acquire any direct or indirect financial interest 100172
in the ownership, financing, or operation of a nursing facility or 100173
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded in this 100174
state;100175

       (5) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, as a 100176
condition of the contract or employment, shall not audit any 100177
facility that has been a client of the firm or auditor;100178

       (6) Are conducted by auditors who are otherwise independent 100179
as determined by the standards of independence included in the 100180
government auditing standards produced by the United States 100181
government accountability office;100182

       (7) Are completed within the time period specified by the 100183
department;100184

       (8) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 100185
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 100186
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 100187
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 100188
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 100189
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 100190
provider's facility is entitled.100191

       For the purposes of division (B)(4) of this section, 100192
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 100193
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 100194
that the auditor does not review does not constitute a direct or 100195
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 100196
operation of the facility.100197

       (C) The department, pursuant to rules adopted under section 100198
5111.02 of the Revised Code, may conduct an exception review of 100199
assessment data submitted under section 5111.232 of the Revised 100200
Code. The department may conduct an exception review based on the 100201
findings of a certification survey conducted by the department of 100202
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.100203

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the facility by 100204
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 100205
by the department of job and family services. The professionals 100206
may review resident assessment forms and supporting documentation, 100207
conduct interviews, and observe residents to identify any patterns 100208
or trends of inaccurate assessments and resulting inaccurate 100209
case-mix scores.100210

       The rules shall establish an exception review program that 100211
requires that exception reviews do all of the following:100212

       (1) Comply with Titles XVIII and XIX;100213

       (2) Provide a written summary that states whether the 100214
resident assessment forms have been completed accurately;100215

       (3) Are conducted by health professionals who, during the 100216
period of their professional engagement or employment with the 100217
department, neither have nor are committed to acquire any direct 100218
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 100219
operation of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 100220
the mentally retarded in this state;100221

       (4) Are conducted by health professionals who, as a condition 100222
of their engagement or employment with the department, shall not 100223
review any provider that has been a client of the professional.100224

       For the purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, 100225
employment of a member of a health professional's family by a 100226
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 100227
retarded that the professional does not review does not constitute 100228
a direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, 100229
financing, or operation of the facility.100230

       If an exception review is conducted before the effective date 100231
of the rate that is based on the case-mix data subject to the 100232
review and the review results in findings that exceed tolerance 100233
levels specified in the rules adopted under this division, the 100234
department, in accordance with those rules, may use the findings 100235
to recalculate individual resident case-mix scores, quarterly 100236
average facility case-mix scores, and annual average facility 100237
case-mix scores. The department may use the recalculated quarterly 100238
and annual facility average case-mix scores to calculate the 100239
facility's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 100240
quarter or quarters.100241

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 100242
audit disallowance or exception review finding that is made after 100243
the effective date of the rate that is based on the cost or 100244
case-mix data. Where the provider is pursuing judicial or 100245
administrative remedies in good faith regarding the disallowance 100246
or finding, the department shall not withhold from the provider's 100247
current payments any amounts the department claims to be due from 100248
the provider pursuant to section 5111.28 of the Revised Code.100249

       (E) The department shall not reduce rates calculated under 100250
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code on the basis that 100251
the provider charges a lower rate to any resident who is not 100252
eligible for the medicaid program.100253

       (F) The department shall adjust the rates calculated under 100254
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code to account for 100255
reasonable additional costs that must be incurred by intermediate 100256
care facilities for the mentally retarded to comply with 100257
requirements of federal or state statutes, rules, or policies 100258
enacted or amended after January 1, 1992, or with orders issued by 100259
state or local fire authorities.100260

       Sec. 5165.109.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct an 100261
audit, as defined in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 100262
Revised Code, of any cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 100263
5165.522 of the Revised Code. The decision whether to conduct an 100264
audit and the scope of the audit, which may be a desk or field 100265
audit, may be determined based on prior performance of the 100266
provider, a risk analysis, or other evidence that gives the 100267
department reason to believe that the provider has reported costs 100268
improperly. A desk or field audit may be performed annually, but 100269
is required whenever a provider does not pass the risk analysis 100270
tolerance factors.100271

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 100272
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 100273
department, or auditors employed by the department. 100274

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 100275
nursing facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by 100276
bidding shall be effective for one to two years.100277

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 100278
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The audit 100279
report shall include notice of any fine imposed under section 100280
5165.1010 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue the 100281
audit report not later than three years after the earlier of the 100282
following:100283

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;100284

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 100285
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.100286

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 100287
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 100288
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 100289
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 100290
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 100291
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 100292
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 100293
Revised Code.100294

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 100295
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 100296
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 100297
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 100298
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 100299
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 100300
The manual and program shall do both of the following:100301

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 100302
whom all of the following apply:100303

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 100304
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 100305
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 100306
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 100307
operation of nursing facilities in this state.100308

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 100309
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.100310

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 100311
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 100312
standards produced by the United States government accountability 100313
office.100314

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 100315
of the following:100316

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 100317
XVIII and Title XIX;100318

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 100319
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 100320
accountants;100321

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 100322
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 100323
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 100324
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 100325
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 100326
care;100327

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 100328
the department;100329

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 100330
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 100331
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 100332
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 100333
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 100334
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 100335
provider's nursing facility is entitled.100336

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 100337
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 100338
facility that the auditor does not audit does not constitute a 100339
direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, 100340
or operation of the nursing facility.100341

       Sec. 5111.271.        Sec. 5165.1010.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 100342
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 100343
fine the provider of a nursing facility if the report of an audit 100344
conducted under division (B) of section 5111.275165.109 of the 100345
Revised Code regarding a cost report for the nursing facility 100346
includes either of the following:100347

       (1) Adverse findings that exceed three per cent of the total 100348
amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported 100349
in the cost report;100350

       (2) Adverse findings that exceed twenty per cent of 100351
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 100352
cost center reported in the cost report.100353

       (B) A fine issued under this section shall equal the greatest 100354
of the following:100355

       (1) If the adverse findings exceed three per cent but do not 100356
exceed ten per cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable100357
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report, the greater 100358
of three per cent of those reported costs or ten thousand dollars;100359

       (2) If the adverse findings exceed ten per cent but do not 100360
exceed twenty per cent of the total amount of 100361
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 100362
cost report, the greater of six per cent of those reported costs 100363
or twenty-five thousand dollars;100364

       (3) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent of the 100365
total amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs 100366
reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per cent of those 100367
reported costs or fifty thousand dollars;100368

       (4) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent but do not 100369
exceed twenty-five per cent of medicaid-reimbursable100370
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 100371
the cost report, the greater of three per cent of the total amount 100372
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 100373
cost report or ten thousand dollars;100374

       (5) If the adverse findings exceed twenty-five per cent but 100375
do not exceed thirty per cent of medicaid-reimbursable100376
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 100377
the cost report, the greater of six per cent of the total amount 100378
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 100379
cost report or twenty-five thousand dollars;100380

       (6) If the adverse findings exceed thirty per cent of 100381
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 100382
cost center reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per 100383
cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable100384
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report or fifty 100385
thousand dollars.100386

       (C) Fines paid under this section shall be deposited into the 100387
health care services administration fund created under section 100388
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.100389

       (D) The department may not collect a fine under this section 100390
until all appeal rights relating to the audit report that is the 100391
basis for the fine are exhausted.100392

       Sec. 5111.222.        Sec. 5165.15.  (A) As used in this section, "low 100393
resource utilization resident" means a medicaid recipient residing 100394
in a nursing facility who, for purposes of calculating the nursing 100395
facility's medicaid reimbursement rate for direct care costs, is 100396
placed in either of the two lowest resource utilization groups, 100397
excluding any resource utilization group that is a default group 100398
used for residents with incomplete assessment data.100399

       (B) Except as otherwise provided by sections 5111.205165.151100400
to 5111.3315165.156 and 5165.34 of the Revised Code and by 100401
division (C) of this section, the total per medicaid day payment100402
rate that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 100403
agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a nursing 100404
facility pursuant to a provider agreementprovider for nursing 100405
facility services the provider's nursing facility provides during 100406
a fiscal year shall equal the sum of all of the following:100407

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 100408
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;100409

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for ancillary and 100410
support costs determined for the nursing facility's ancillary and 100411
support cost peer groupfacility under section 5111.245165.16 of 100412
the Revised Code;100413

        (3)(2) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 100414
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.17 of the 100415
Revised Code;100416

       (3) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 100417
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.19 of the 100418
Revised Code;100419

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs 100420
determined for the nursing facility under section 5111.2425165.21100421
of the Revised Code;100422

       (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 100423
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;100424

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 100425
nursing facility, the nursing facility's critical access incentive 100426
payment paid to the nursing facility under section 5111.246100427
5165.23 of the Revised Code;100428

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 100429
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25quality 100430
incentive payment paid to the nursing facility under section 100431
5165.25 of the Revised Code.100432

       (C) The total rate determined under division (B) of this 100433
section shall not be paid for nursing facility services provided 100434
to low resource utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for 100435
nursing facility services that a nursing facility provides to low 100436
resource utilization residents shall be one hundred thirty dollars 100437
per medicaid day.100438

       (D)(B) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 100439
nursing facility's total rate determined under division (B) or 100440
(C)(A) of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay 100441
the provider a quality bonus under section 5111.2455165.26 of the 100442
Revised Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing 100443
facility is a qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that 100444
section, for that fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part 100445
of the total rate.100446

       Sec. 5111.254.        Sec. 5165.151.  (A) The department of job and family 100447
services shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with 100448
a first date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, 100449
including a facility that replaces one or more existing 100450
facilities, or for a nursing facility with a first date of 100451
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 100452
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 100453
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 100454
shall not be the initial rate for nursing facility services 100455
provided by a new nursing facility. Instead, the initial total per 100456
medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility services provided 100457
by a new nursing facility shall be determined in the following 100458
manner:100459

       (1) The initial rate for ancillary and support costs shall be 100460
the rate for the new nursing facility's peer group determined 100461
under division (D) of section 5165.16 of the Revised Code.100462

       (2) The initial rate for capital costs shall be the rate for 100463
the new nursing facility's peer group determined under division 100464
(D) of section 5165.17 of the Revised Code;100465

       (3) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be the 100466
product of the cost per case-mix unit determined under division 100467
(D) of section 5111.2315165.19 of the Revised Code for the new 100468
nursing facility's peer group and the new nursing facility's 100469
case-mix score determined under division (B) of this section. For 100470
the purpose of division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing 100471
facility's case-mix score shall be the following:100472

       (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 100473
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 100474
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 100475
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 100476
the nursing facility's peer group;100477

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 100478
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 100479
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 100480
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 100481
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 100482
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 100483
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 100484
replacement nursing facilities.100485

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 100486
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 100487
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.100488

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 100489
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 100490
5111.25 of the Revised Code.100491

       (4) The initial rate for tax costs shall be the median rate 100492
for tax costs for the new nursing facility's peer group in which 100493
the nursing facility is placed under division (C) of section 100494
5111.245165.16 of the Revised Code.100495

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 100496
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.2445165.25 of the 100497
Revised Code.100498

       (B) For the purpose of division (A)(3) of this section, a new 100499
nursing facility's case-mix score shall be the following:100500

       (1) Unless the new nursing facility replaces an existing 100501
nursing facility that participated in the medicaid program 100502
immediately before the new nursing facility begins participating 100503
in the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score 100504
for the new nursing facility's peer group;100505

       (2) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 100506
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 100507
before the new nursing facility begins participating in the 100508
medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 100509
determined under section 5165.192 of the Revised Code for the 100510
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 100511
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and new 100512
nursing facilities.100513

       (C) Subject to division (C)(D) of this section, the 100514
department shall adjust the rates established under division (A) 100515
of this section effective the first day of July, to reflect new 100516
rate calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 100517
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.100518

       (C)(D) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under 100519
this section for a new nursing facility using the median annual 100520
average case-mix score for the new nursing facility's peer group, 100521
the rate shall be redetermined to reflect the replacementnew100522
nursing facility's actual semiannual average case-mix score 100523
determined under section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code 100524
after the new nursing facility submits its first two quarterly 100525
assessment data that qualify for use in calculating a case-mix 100526
score in accordance with rules authorized by division (E) of100527
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code. If the new nursing 100528
facility's quarterly submissions do not qualify for use in 100529
calculating a case-mix score, the department shall continue to use 100530
the median annual average case-mix score for the new nursing 100531
facility's peer group in lieu of the new nursing facility's 100532
semiannual case-mix score until the new nursing facility submits 100533
two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for use in 100534
calculating a case-mix score.100535

       Sec. 5165.152.  The total per medicaid day payment rate 100536
determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 100537
paid for nursing facility services provided to low resource 100538
utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for such nursing 100539
facility services shall be one hundred thirty dollars per medicaid 100540
day.100541

       Sec. 5111.258.        Sec. 5165.153.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 100542
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 100543
Revised Code), the director of job and family services shall adopt 100544
rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that establish a 100545
methodology for calculating the prospective rates that will be 100546
paid each fiscal year to a provider for each of the provider's 100547
eligible nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities for 100548
the mentally retarded, and discrete units of the provider's 100549
nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 100550
mentally retarded, that serve residents who have diagnosesThe 100551
total per medicaid day payment rate determined under section 100552
5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be paid for nursing facility 100553
services provided by a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a 100554
nursing facility, designated by the department of medicaid as an 100555
outlier nursing facility or unit. Instead, the provider of a 100556
designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall be paid each 100557
fiscal year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the 100558
department shall prospectively determine in accordance with a 100559
methodology established in rules authorized by this section.100560

       (B) The department may designate a nursing facility, or 100561
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 100562
facility or unit if the nursing facility or unit serves residents 100563
who have either of the following:100564

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 100565
resources that are not measured adequately by the applicable100566
resident assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by 100567
section 5111.2325165.191 of the Revised Code, or who have 100568
diagnoses;100569

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs specified in the rules 100570
authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 100571
consideration under this section. The facilities and units of 100572
facilities whose rates are established under this division may 100573
include, but shall not be limited to, any of the following:100574

       (1) In the case of nursing facilities, facilities and units 100575
of facilities that serve medically fragile pediatric residents, 100576
residents who are dependent on ventilators, or residents who have 100577
severe traumatic brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or 100578
end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome;100579

       (2) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 100580
mentally retarded, facilities and units of facilities that serve 100581
residents who have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral 100582
problems.100583

       The department shall use the methodology established under 100584
this division to pay for services rendered by such facilities and 100585
units after June 30, 1993.100586

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter 100587
(except section 5165.156 of the Revised Code), the costs incurred 100588
by a designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall not be 100589
considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 100590
nursing facilities or units.100591

       (D) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 100592
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 100593
section.100594

       (1)(a) The rules authorized by this division shall specifydo 100595
both of the following:100596

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 100597
apply when designating facilities and units that qualify for 100598
calculation of rates under this divisiona nursing facility, or 100599
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 100600
facility or unit;100601

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 100602
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 100603
fiscal year for nursing facility services provided by a designated 100604
outlier nursing facility or unit. The criteria shall include100605

       (b) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 100606
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 100607
facilities and units shall do both of the following:100608

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 100609
costs of thea nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing 100610
facility, would be paid by rates establisheda rate determined100611
under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331section 5165.15 of the Revised 100612
Code, and shall establish a;100613

       (ii) Specify the minimum bed size for anumber of nursing 100614
facility beds that a nursing facility, or discrete unit to qualify 100615
toof a nursing facility, must have its rates established under 100616
this divisionto be designated an outlier nursing facility or 100617
unit, which may vary based on the diagnoses or special care needs 100618
of the residents served by the nursing facility or unit. The 100619
criteria shall not be designed to require that residents be served 100620
only in100621

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 100622
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 100623
facilities and units shall not limit the designation to nursing100624
facilities, or discrete units of nursing facilities, located in 100625
large cities. The100626

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 100627
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 100628
the rates of designated outlier nursing facilities and units shall 100629
provide for the methodology established by the rules shallto100630
consider the historical costs of providing carenursing facility 100631
services to the residents of thedesignated outlier nursing100632
facilities orand units.100633

       (2)(a) The rules may requiredo both of the following:100634

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier nursing facility or 100635
unit, a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing facility, 100636
that serves medically fragile pediatric residents; residents who 100637
are dependent on ventilators; residents who have severe traumatic 100638
brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or end-stage acquired 100639
immunodeficiency syndrome; or residents with other diagnoses or 100640
special care needs specified in the rules;100641

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier nursing facility 100642
designated under this division or containing a unit designated 100643
under this division receive authorization from the department to 100644
admitbefore admitting or retainretaining a resident to the 100645
facility or unit and.100646

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 100647
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 100648
designated outlier nursing facility or unit to admit or retain a 100649
resident, the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the 100650
department will apply when granting that authorization.100651

       Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 to 100652
5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 100653
Revised Code), the costs incurred by facilities or units whose 100654
rates are established under this division shall not be considered 100655
in establishing payment rates for other facilities or units.100656

       (B) The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 100657
Revised Code under which the department, notwithstanding any other 100658
provision of sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code 100659
(except section 5111.259 of the Revised Code), may adjust the 100660
rates determined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 100661
Code for a facility that serves a resident who has a diagnosis or 100662
special care need that, in the rules authorized by division (A) of 100663
this section, would qualify a facility or unit of a facility to 100664
have its rate determined under that division, but who is not in 100665
such a unit. The rules may require that a facility that qualifies 100666
for a rate adjustment under this division receive authorization 100667
from the department to admit or retain a resident who qualifies 100668
the facility for the rate adjustment and shall specify the 100669
criteria and procedures the department will apply when granting 100670
that authorization.100671

       Sec. 5165.154.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 100672
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 100673
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 100674
shall not be paid for nursing facility services that a nursing 100675
facility not designated as an outlier nursing facility or unit 100676
provides to a resident who meets the criteria for admission to a 100677
designated outlier nursing facility or unit, as specified in rules 100678
authorized by section 5165.153 of the Revised Code. Instead, the 100679
provider of a nursing facility providing nursing facility services 100680
to such a resident shall be paid each fiscal year a total per 100681
medicaid day payment rate that the department of medicaid shall 100682
prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 100683
established in rules authorized by this section.100684

       (B) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 100685
5165.02 of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 100686
may require that a nursing facility receive authorization from the 100687
department before admitting or retaining a resident who meets the 100688
criteria for admission to a designated outlier nursing facility or 100689
unit. If the director adopts such rules, the rules shall specify 100690
the criteria and procedures the department will apply when 100691
granting the authorization.100692

       Sec. 5111.225.        Sec. 5165.155.  (A) As used in this section:100693

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 100694
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 100695
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).100696

       "Medicaid, "medicaid maximum allowable amount" means one 100697
hundred per cent of a nursing facility's total per diemmedicaid 100698
day payment rate for a medicaid day.100699

       (B) TheInstead of paying the total per medicaid day payment 100700
rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code, the100701
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay the 100702
provider of a nursing facility the lesser of the following for 100703
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides on or 100704
after January 1, 2012, to a dual eligible individual who is 100705
eligible for nursing facility services under the medicaid program 100706
and post-hospital extended care services under Part A of Title 100707
XVIII:100708

       (1) The coinsurance amount for the services as provided under 100709
Part A of Title XVIII;100710

       (2) The medicaid maximum allowable amount for the services, 100711
less the amount paid under Part A of Title XVIII for the services.100712

       Sec. 5111.259.        Sec. 5165.156. The medicaid director of job and 100713
family services may submit a request to the United States 100714
secretary of health and human services for approval to establish a 100715
centers of excellence component of the medicaid program. The 100716
purpose of the centers of excellence component is to increase the 100717
efficiency and quality of nursing facility services provided to 100718
medicaid recipients with complex nursing facility service needs. 100719
If federal approval for the centers of excellence component is 100720
granted, theThe director may adopt rules under section 5111.02100721
5165.02 of the Revised Code governing the component, including 100722
rules that establish a method of determining the medicaid 100723
reimbursementpayment rates for nursing facilities providing 100724
nursing facility services to medicaid recipients participating in 100725
the component. The rules may specify the extent to which, if any, 100726
of the provisions of section 5111.258sections 5165.153 and 100727
5165.154 of the Revised Code are to apply to the centers of 100728
excellence component. If such rules are adopted, the nursing 100729
facilities that provide nursing facility services to medicaid 100730
recipients participating in the centers of excellence component 100731
shall be paid for those services in accordance with the method 100732
established in the rules notwithstanding anything to the contrary 100733
in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331instead of the total per medicaid 100734
day payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised 100735
Code.100736

       Sec. 5111.24.        Sec. 5165.16. (A) As used in this section:100737

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:100738

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 100739
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 100740
this section of each peer group's rate for ancillary and support 100741
costs, calendar year 2003;100742

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 100743
calendar year the department selects.100744

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 100745
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for ancillary and 100746
support costs using information from cost reports for an 100747
applicable calendar year that is later than the applicable 100748
calendar year used for the previous determination of such rates.100749

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 100750
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible100751
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 100752
payment rate for ancillary and support costs determined for the. 100753
A nursing facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined100754
under division (D) of this section for the nursing facility's peer 100755
group. However, for the period beginning October 1, 2013, and 100756
ending on the first day of the first rebasing, the rate for a 100757
nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be the 100758
rate determined for the following:100759

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 100760
the nursing facilities in peer group three;100761

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 100762
nursing facilities in peer group four. 100763

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate100764
rates for ancillary and support costs, the department shall 100765
establish six peer groups.100766

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 100767
shall be composed as follows:100768

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100769
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 100770
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 100771
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100772
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 100773
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100774
shall be placed in peer group two.100775

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100776
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 100777
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 100778
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 100779
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 100780
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 100781
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100782
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 100783
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100784
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 100785
group four.100786

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100787
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 100788
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 100789
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 100790
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 100791
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 100792
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 100793
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 100794
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 100795
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100796
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 100797
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100798
shall be placed in peer group six.100799

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 100800
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 100801
except as follows:100802

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 100803
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 100804
peer group three rather than peer group five.100805

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 100806
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 100807
group four rather than peer group six. 100808

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for ancillary 100809
and support costs for each peer group established under division 100810
(C) of this section. The department is not required to conduct a 100811
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 100812
implement the amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 100813
and Sub. H.B. 303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate 100814
for ancillary and support costs determined under this division for 100815
a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until the 100816
department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate 100817
for ancillary and support costs, the department shall do all of 100818
the following:100819

        (a) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, determine the 100820
rate for ancillary and support costs for each nursing facility in 100821
the peer group for the applicable calendar year by using the 100822
greater of the nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 100823
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 100824
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 100825
occupancy rate had been ninety per cent;100826

        (b) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, identify 100827
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 100828
percentile of the rate for ancillary and support costs for the 100829
applicable calendar year determined under division (D)(1)(a) of 100830
this section;100831

        (c) Multiply the rate for ancillary and support costs 100832
determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this section for the 100833
nursing facility identified under division (D)(1)(b) of this 100834
section by the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month period 100835
beginning on the first day of July of the applicable calendar year 100836
and ending the last day of December of the calendar year 100837
immediately following the applicable calendar year using the 100838
following:100839

       (i) Until the first rebasing occurs, the consumer price index 100840
for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 100841
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 100842
as that index existed on July 1, 2005;100843

       (ii) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 100844
in division (D)(1)(c)(iii) of this section, the consumer price 100845
index for all items for all urban consumers for the midwest 100846
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics;100847

       (iii) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 100848
to publish the index specified in division (D)(1)(c)(ii) of this 100849
section, the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers 100850
urban consumers' prices for items for the region that includes 100851
this state.100852

       (d) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 100853
calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section by five and 100854
eight hundredths per cent.100855

        (2) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 100856
occupancy rate under division (D)(1)(a) of this section, the 100857
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 100858
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity unless the nursing 100859
facility also removes the beds from its licensed bed capacity.100860

       (3) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 100861
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:100862

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 100863
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 100864
applicable calendar year;100865

        (b) Nursing facilities whose ancillary and support costs are 100866
more than one standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, 100867
actual, allowable, per diem ancillary and support cost for all 100868
nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group for the 100869
applicable calendar year.100870

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 100871
for ancillary and support costs under this division based on 100872
additional information that it receives after the rate is 100873
determined. The department shall redetermine a peer group's rate 100874
for ancillary and support costs only if the department made an 100875
error in determining the rate based on information available to 100876
the department at the time of the original determination.100877

       Sec. 5111.25.        Sec. 5165.17.  (A) As used in this section:100878

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:100879

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 100880
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 100881
this section of each peer group's rate for capital costs, calendar 100882
year 2003;100883

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 100884
calendar year the department selects.100885

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 100886
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for capital costs 100887
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 100888
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 100889
previous determination of such rates.100890

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 100891
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible100892
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 100893
payment rate for capital costs determined for the. A nursing 100894
facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined under 100895
division (D) of this section. However, for the period beginning 100896
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 100897
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 100898
Stark county shall be the rate determined for the following:100899

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 100900
the nursing facilities in peer group three;100901

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 100902
nursing facilities in peer group four. 100903

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate100904
rates for capital costs, the department shall establish six peer 100905
groups.100906

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 100907
shall be composed as follows:100908

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100909
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 100910
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 100911
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100912
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 100913
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100914
shall be placed in peer group two.100915

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100916
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 100917
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 100918
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 100919
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 100920
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 100921
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100922
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 100923
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100924
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 100925
group four.100926

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100927
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 100928
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 100929
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 100930
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 100931
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 100932
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 100933
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 100934
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 100935
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100936
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 100937
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100938
shall be placed in peer group six.100939

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 100940
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 100941
except as follows:100942

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 100943
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 100944
peer group three rather than peer group five.100945

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 100946
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 100947
group four rather than peer group six. 100948

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for capital 100949
costs for each peer group established under division (C) of this 100950
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 100951
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 100952
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 100953
303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate for capital 100954
costs determined under this division for a peer group shall be 100955
used for subsequent years until the department conducts a 100956
rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate for capital costs, the 100957
department shall do both of the following:100958

       (a) Determine the rate for capital costs for the nursing 100959
facility in the peer group that is at the twenty-fifth percentile 100960
of the rate for capital costs for the applicable calendar year;100961

       (b) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 100962
calculated under division (D)(1)(a) of this section by five and 100963
eight hundredths per cent. 100964

       (2) To identify the nursing facility in a peer group that is 100965
at the twenty-fifth percentile of the rate for capital costs for 100966
the applicable calendar year, the department shall do both of the 100967
following:100968

        (a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, use the 100969
greater of each nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 100970
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 100971
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 100972
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent;100973

        (b) Exclude both of the following:100974

        (i) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 100975
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 100976
applicable calendar year;100977

        (ii) Nursing facilities whose capital costs are more than one 100978
standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 100979
per diem capital cost for all nursing facilities in the nursing 100980
facility's peer group for the applicable calendar year.100981

       (3) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 100982
occupancy rate under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the 100983
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 100984
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity after June 30, 2005, 100985
unless the nursing facility also removes the beds from its 100986
licensed bed capacity.100987

       (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 100988
for capital costs under this division based on additional 100989
information that it receives after the rate is determined. The 100990
department shall redetermine a peer group's rate for capital costs 100991
only if the department made an error in determining the rate based 100992
on information available to the department at the time of the 100993
original determination.100994

       (E) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 100995
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 100996
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 100997
the straight-line method over a period designated in rules adopted 100998
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, consistent with 100999
the guidelines of the American hospital association, or over a 101000
different period approved by the department. Any rules authorized 101001
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 101002
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 101003
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 101004
government agency shall not be included in capital costs unless 101005
that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 101006
Revised Codethis chapter is used to reimburse the government 101007
agency.101008

       (F) The capital cost basis of nursing facility assets shall 101009
be determined in the following manner:101010

        (1) Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this section, 101011
for purposes of calculating the rates to be paid for facilities 101012
with dates of licensure on or before June 30, 1993, the capital 101013
cost basis of each asset shall be equal to the desk-reviewed, 101014
actual, allowable, capital cost basis that is listed on the 101015
facility's cost report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 101016
year during which the rate will be paid.101017

       (2) For facilities with dates of licensure after June 30, 101018
1993, the capital cost basis shall be determined in accordance 101019
with the principles of the medicare program established under 101020
Title XVIII, except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.20 to 101021
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.101022

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, if 101023
a provider transfers an interest in a facility to another provider 101024
after June 30, 1993, there shall be no increase in the capital 101025
cost basis of the asset if the providers are related parties or 101026
the provider to which the interest is transferred authorizes the 101027
provider that transferred the interest to continue to operate the 101028
facility under a lease, management agreement, or other 101029
arrangement. If the previous sentence does not prohibit the 101030
adjustment of the capital cost basis under this division, the 101031
basis of the asset shall be adjusted by one-half of the change in 101032
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 101033
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 101034
the time that the transferor held the asset.101035

       (4) If a provider transfers an interest in a facility to 101036
another provider who is a related party, the capital cost basis of 101037
the asset shall be adjusted as specified in division (F)(3) of 101038
this section if all of the following conditions are met:101039

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;101040

       (b) Except as provided in division (F)(4)(c)(ii) of this 101041
section, the provider making the transfer retains no ownership 101042
interest in the facility;101043

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 101044
the transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules 101045
adopted under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The 101046
rules shall provide that a transfer is an arm's length transaction 101047
if all of the following apply:101048

       (i) Once the transfer goes into effect, the provider that 101049
made the transfer has no direct or indirect interest in the 101050
provider that acquires the facility or the facility itself, 101051
including interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, 101052
independent contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a 101053
creditor.101054

       (ii) The provider that made the transfer does not reacquire 101055
an interest in the facility except through the exercise of a 101056
creditor's rights in the event of a default. If the provider 101057
reacquires an interest in the facility in this manner, the 101058
department shall treat the facility as if the transfer never 101059
occurred when the department calculates its reimbursement rates 101060
for capital costs.101061

       (iii) The transfer satisfies any other criteria specified in 101062
the rules.101063

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 101064
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a 101065
provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years of 101066
age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the same 101067
facility, the capital cost basis was adjusted most recently under 101068
division (F)(4) of this section or actual, allowable cost of 101069
ownershipcapital costs was determined most recently under 101070
division (G)(9) of this section.101071

       (G) As used in this division:101072

       "Imputed interest" means the lesser of the prime rate plus 101073
two per cent or ten per cent.101074

       "Lease expense" means lease payments in the case of an 101075
operating lease and depreciation expense and interest expense in 101076
the case of a capital lease. 101077

       "New lease" means a lease, to a different lessee, of a 101078
nursing facility that previously was operated under a lease.101079

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 101080
facility that was effective on May 27, 1992, the entire lease 101081
expense is an actual, allowable capital cost during the term of 101082
the existing lease. The entire lease expense also is an actual, 101083
allowable capital cost if a lease in existence on May 27, 1992, is 101084
renewed under either of the following circumstances:101085

       (a) The renewal is pursuant to a renewal option that was in 101086
existence on May 27, 1992;101087

       (b) The renewal is for the same lease payment amount and 101088
between the same parties as the lease in existence on May 27, 101089
1992.101090

       (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 101091
facility that was in existence but not operated under a lease on 101092
May 27, 1992, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 101093
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 101094
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 101095
the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 101096
capital asset cost basis, adjusted by one-half of the change in 101097
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 101098
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 101099
the time the lessor held each asset until the beginning of the 101100
lease.101101

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 101102
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 101103
is initially operated under a lease, actual, allowable capital 101104
costs shall include the annual lease expense if there was a 101105
substantial commitment of money for construction of the facility 101106
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993. If there was not 101107
a substantial commitment of money after December 22, 1992, and 101108
before July 1, 1993, actual, allowable capital costs shall include 101109
the lesser of the annual lease expense or the sum of the 101110
following:101111

       (a) The annual depreciation expense that would be calculated 101112
at the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 101113
capital asset cost basis;101114

       (b) The greater of the lessor's actual annual amortization of 101115
financing costs and interest expense at the inception of the lease 101116
or the imputed interest expense calculated at the inception of the 101117
lease using seventy per cent of the lessor's historical capital 101118
asset cost basis.101119

       (4) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 101120
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 101121
was not initially operated under a lease and has been in existence 101122
for ten years, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 101123
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 101124
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 101125
the inception of the lease using the entire historical capital 101126
asset cost basis of one-half of the change in the consumer price 101127
index for all items for all urban consumers, as published by the 101128
United States bureau of labor statistics, during the time the 101129
lessor held each asset until the beginning of the lease.101130

       (5) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 101131
of a facility that was operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, 101132
actual, allowable capital costs shall include the lesser of the 101133
annual new lease expense or the annual old lease payment. If the 101134
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the old lease 101135
payment from the beginning of the old lease shall be adjusted by 101136
one-half of the change in the consumer price index for all items 101137
for all urban consumers, as published by the United States bureau 101138
of labor statistics, from the beginning of the old lease to the 101139
beginning of the new lease.101140

       (6) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 101141
of a facility that was not in existence or that was in existence 101142
but not operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, actual, allowable 101143
capital costs shall include the lesser of annual new lease expense 101144
or the annual amount calculated for the old lease under division 101145
(G)(2), (3), (4), or (6) of this section, as applicable. If the 101146
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the lessor's 101147
historical capital asset cost basis shall be, for purposes of 101148
calculating the annual amount under division (G)(2), (3), (4), or 101149
(6) of this section, adjusted by one-half of the change in the 101150
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 101151
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, from 101152
the beginning of the old lease to the beginning of the new lease.101153

       In the case of a lease under division (G)(3) of this section 101154
of a facility for which a substantial commitment of money was made 101155
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993, the old lease 101156
payment shall be adjusted for the purpose of determining the 101157
annual amount.101158

       (7) For any revision of a lease described in division (G)(1), 101159
(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section, or for any subsequent 101160
lease of a facility operated under such a lease, other than 101161
execution of a new lease, the portion of actual, allowable capital 101162
costs attributable to the lease shall be the same as before the 101163
revision or subsequent lease.101164

       (8) Except as provided in division (G)(9) of this section, if 101165
a provider leases an interest in a facility to another provider 101166
who is a related party or previously operated the facility, the 101167
related party's or previous operator's actual, allowable capital 101168
costs shall include the lesser of the annual lease expense or the 101169
reasonable cost to the lessor.101170

       (9) If a provider leases an interest in a facility to another 101171
provider who is a related party, regardless of the date of the 101172
lease, the related party's actual, allowable capital costs shall 101173
include the annual lease expense, subject to the limitations 101174
specified in divisions (G)(1) to (7) of this section, if all of 101175
the following conditions are met:101176

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;101177

       (b) If the lessor retains an ownership interest, it is, 101178
except as provided in division (G)(9)(c)(ii) of this section, in 101179
only the real property and any improvements on the real property;101180

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 101181
the lease is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules adopted 101182
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 101183
provide that a lease is an arm's length transaction if all of the 101184
following apply:101185

       (i) Once the lease goes into effect, the lessor has no direct 101186
or indirect interest in the lessee or, except as provided in 101187
division (G)(9)(b) of this section, the facility itself, including 101188
interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, independent 101189
contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a lessor.101190

       (ii) The lessor does not reacquire an interest in the 101191
facility except through the exercise of a lessor's rights in the 101192
event of a default. If the lessor reacquires an interest in the 101193
facility in this manner, the department shall treat the facility 101194
as if the lease never occurred when the department calculates its 101195
reimbursement rates for capital costs.101196

       (iii) The lease satisfies any other criteria specified in the 101197
rules.101198

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 101199
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 101200
who is at least sixty-five years of age, not less than twenty 101201
years have elapsed since, for the same facility, the capital cost 101202
basis was adjusted most recently under division (F)(4) of this 101203
section or actual, allowable capital costs were determined most 101204
recently under division (G)(9) of this section.101205

       (10) This division does not apply to leases of specific items 101206
of equipment.101207

       Sec. 5111.231.        Sec. 5165.19. (A) As used in this section:101208

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:101209

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 101210
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 101211
this section of each peer group's cost per case-mix unit, calendar 101212
year 2003;101213

        (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 101214
calendar year the department selects.101215

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 101216
this section of each peer groups'group's cost per case-mix unit 101217
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 101218
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 101219
previous determination of such costs.101220

        (B) TheSemiannually, the department of job and family 101221
servicesmedicaid shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the 101222
provider's eligible nursing facilities afacility's per resident 101223
permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs determined 101224
semiannually by multiplying the cost per case-mix unit determined 101225
under division (D) of this section for the facility's peer group 101226
by the facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under 101227
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per 101228
case-mix unit determined under division (D) of this section for 101229
the facility's peer group. However, for the period beginning 101230
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 101231
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 101232
Stark county shall be determined semiannually by multiplying the 101233
facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under section 101234
5165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per case-mix unit 101235
determined under division (D) of this section for the nursing 101236
facilities in peer group two.101237

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate101238
rates for direct care costs, the department shall establish three 101239
peer groups.101240

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 101241
shall be composed as follows:101242

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 101243
counties shall be placed in peer group one: Brown, Butler, 101244
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren.101245

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 101246
counties shall be placed in peer group two: Ashtabula, Champaign, 101247
Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, Franklin, 101248
Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, Lorain, 101249
Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, Ottawa, 101250
Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, Union, 101251
and Wood.101252

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 101253
counties shall be placed in peer group three: Adams, Allen, 101254
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 101255
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 101256
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 101257
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 101258
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 101259
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 101260
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot.101261

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 101262
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 101263
except that each nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark 101264
county shall be placed in peer group two rather than peer group 101265
three.101266

        (D)(1) The department shall determine a cost per case-mix 101267
unit for each peer group established under division (C) of this 101268
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 101269
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 101270
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 101271
303, both of the 129th general assembly, and H.B... of the 130th 101272
general assembly, the cost per case-mix unit determined under this 101273
division for a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until 101274
the department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's 101275
cost per case-mix unit, the department shall do all of the 101276
following:101277

        (a) Determine the cost per case-mix unit for each nursing 101278
facility in the peer group for the applicable calendar year by 101279
dividing each facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 101280
diem direct care costs for the applicable calendar year by the 101281
facility's annual average case-mix score determined under section 101282
5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code for the applicable calendar 101283
year;101284

        (b) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, identify 101285
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 101286
percentile of the cost per case-mix units determined under 101287
division (D)(1)(a) of this section;101288

        (c) Calculate the amount that is two per cent above the cost 101289
per case-mix unit determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this 101290
section for the nursing facility identified under division 101291
(D)(1)(b) of this section;101292

        (d) Using the index specified in division (D)(3) of this 101293
section, multiply the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 101294
period beginning on the first day of July of the applicable 101295
calendar year and ending the last day of December of the calendar 101296
year immediately following the applicable calendar year by the 101297
amount calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section;101298

       (e) Until the first rebasing occurs, add one dollar and 101299
eighty-eightfifty-six cents to the amount calculated under 101300
division (D)(1)(d) of this section;101301

       (f) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 101302
calculated under division (D)(1)(e) of this section by five and 101303
eight hundredths per cent.101304

        (2) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 101305
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:101306

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 101307
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 101308
applicable calendar year;101309

        (b) Nursing facilities whose cost per case-mix unit is more 101310
than one standard deviation from the mean cost per case-mix unit 101311
for all nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group 101312
for the applicable calendar year.101313

        (3) The following index shall be used for the purpose of the 101314
calculation made under division (D)(1)(d) of this section:101315

       (a) Until the first rebasing occurs, the employment cost 101316
index for total compensation, health services component, published 101317
by the United States bureau of labor statistics, as the index 101318
existed on July 1, 2005;101319

       (b) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 101320
in division (D)(3)(c) of this section, the employment cost index 101321
for total compensation, nursing and residential care facilities 101322
occupational group, published by the United States bureau of labor 101323
statistics;101324

       (c) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 101325
publish the index specified in division (D)(3)(b) of this section, 101326
the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers nursing 101327
facilities' staff costs.101328

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's cost 101329
per case-mix unit under this division based on additional 101330
information that it receives after the peer group's per case-mix 101331
unit is determined. The department shall redetermine a peer 101332
group's cost per case-mix unit only if it made an error in 101333
determining the peer group's cost per case-mix unit based on 101334
information available to the department at the time of the 101335
original determination.101336

       Sec. 5165.191.  Each calendar quarter, each nursing facility 101337
provider shall compile complete assessment data for each resident 101338
of each of the provider's nursing facilities, regardless of 101339
payment source, who is in the nursing facility, or on hospital or 101340
therapeutic leave from the nursing facility, on the last day of 101341
the quarter. A resident assessment instrument specified in rules 101342
authorized by this section shall be used to compile the resident 101343
assessment data. Each provider shall submit the resident 101344
assessment data to the department of health and, if required by 101345
the rules, the department of medicaid. The resident assessment 101346
data shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end 101347
of the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled. If the 101348
resident assessment data is to be submitted to the department of 101349
medicaid, it shall be submitted to the department through the 101350
medium or media specified in the rules.101351

       Rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code shall 101352
do all of the following:101353

       (A) In a manner consistent with the "Social Security Act," 101354
section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), specify a resident 101355
assessment instrument to be used by nursing facility providers 101356
under this section;101357

       (B) Specify whether nursing facility providers must submit 101358
the resident assessment data to the department of medicaid;101359

       (C) If the rules specify that nursing facility providers must 101360
submit the resident assessment data to the department, specify the 101361
medium or media through which the data is to be submitted.101362

       Sec. 5111.232.        Sec. 5165.192.  (A)(1) TheExcept as provided in 101363
division (B) of this section and in accordance with the process 101364
specified in rules authorized by this section, the department of 101365
job and family servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:101366

       (a) Every quarter, determine the following two case-mix 101367
scores for each nursing facility:101368

       (i) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 101369
who is a medicaid recipient and is not a low resource utilization 101370
resident;101371

        (ii) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 101372
regardless of payment source.101373

       (b) Every six months, determine a semiannual and annual101374
average case-mix scoresscore for each nursing facilitiesfacility101375
by using all of the following:quarterly case-mix scores 101376
determined for the nursing facility pursuant to division 101377
(A)(1)(a)(i) of this section;101378

        (c) After the end of each calendar year, determine an annual 101379
average case-mix score for each nursing facility by using the 101380
quarterly case-mix scores determined for the nursing facility 101381
pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(ii) of this section.101382

        (2) When determining case-mix scores under division (A)(1) of 101383
this section, the department shall use all of the following:101384

        (a) Data from a resident assessment instrument specified in 101385
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.025165.191 of the 101386
Revised Code pursuant to section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social 101387
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r(e)(5), as 101388
amended, for the following residents:101389

        (i) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 101390
year 2012, each resident who is a medicaid recipient;101391

        (ii) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 101392
year 2013 and thereafter, each resident who is a medicaid 101393
recipient and not placed in either of the two lowest resource 101394
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 101395
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 101396
data;101397

       (iii) When determining annual average case-mix scores, each 101398
resident regardless of payment source.101399

        (b) Except as provided in rules authorized by divisions 101400
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section, the case-mix values established 101401
by the United States department of health and human services;101402

       (c) Except as modified in rules authorized by division 101403
(A)(2)(c) of this section, the grouper methodology used on June 101404
30, 1999, by the United States department of health and human 101405
services for prospective payment of skilled nursing facilities 101406
under the medicare program established by Title XVIII.101407

       (2) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 101408
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that do any of the 101409
following:101410

       (a) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 101411
(A)(1)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 101412
differentials that are specific to this state;101413

       (b) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 101414
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 101415
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 101416
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;101417

       (c) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 101418
(A)(1)(c) of this section as follows:101419

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 101420
to case-mix categories under the methodology;101421

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 101422
methodology;101423

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 101424
States department of health and human services makes after June 101425
30, 1999;101426

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 101427
necessary.101428

       (B) The department shall determine case-mix scores for 101429
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded using data 101430
for each resident, regardless of payment source, from a resident 101431
assessment instrument and grouper methodology prescribed in rules 101432
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code and expressed in 101433
case-mix values established by the department in those rules.101434

       (C) Each calendar quarter, each provider shall compile 101435
complete assessment data, from the resident assessment instrument 101436
specified in rules authorized by division (A) or (B) of this 101437
section, for each resident of each of the provider's facilities, 101438
regardless of payment source, who was in the facility or on 101439
hospital or therapeutic leave from the facility on the last day of 101440
the quarter. Providers of a nursing facility shall submit the data 101441
to the department of health and, if required by rules, the 101442
department of job and family services. Providers of an 101443
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall submit 101444
the data to the department of job and family services. The data 101445
shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end of 101446
the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled.101447

       Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 101448
department, every six months and after the end of each calendar 101449
year, shall calculate a semiannual and annual average case-mix 101450
score for each nursing facility using the facility's quarterly 101451
case-mix scores for that six-month period or calendar year. Also 101452
except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 101453
department, after the end of each calendar year, shall calculate 101454
an annual average case-mix score for each intermediate care 101455
facility for the mentally retarded using the facility's quarterly 101456
case-mix scores for that calendar year. The department shall make 101457
the calculations pursuant to procedures specified in rules adopted 101458
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.101459

       (D)(1) If aSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 101460
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 101461
assign to a nursing facility a case-mix score that is five per 101462
cent less than the nursing facility's case-mix score for the 101463
immediately preceding calendar quarter if any of the following 101464
apply:101465

       (a) The provider does not timely submit informationcomplete 101466
and accurate resident assessment data necessary to determine the 101467
nursing facility's case-mix score for athe calendar quarter 101468
necessary to calculate a facility's case-mix score, or submits 101469
incomplete or inaccurate information for a calendar quarter, the 101470
department may assign the facility a quarterly average case-mix 101471
score that is five per cent less than the facility's quarterly 101472
average case-mix score for the preceding calendar quarter. If the;101473

       (b) The nursing facility was subject to an exception review 101474
under division (C) of section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code 101475
for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the department may 101476
assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is five per cent 101477
less than the score determined by the exception review. If the;101478

       (c) The nursing facility was assigned a quarterly average101479
case-mix score for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the 101480
department may assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is 101481
five per cent less than that score assigned for the preceding 101482
quarter.101483

       The department may use a quarterly average case-mix score 101484
assigned under division (D)(1) of this section, instead of a 101485
quarterly average case-mix score calculated based on the 101486
provider's submitted information, to calculate the facility's rate 101487
for direct care costs being established under section 5111.23 or101488
5111.231 of the Revised Code for one or more months, as specified 101489
in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, of the 101490
quarter for which the rate established under section 5111.23 or101491
5111.231 of the Revised Code will be paid.101492

       (2) Before taking action under division (D)(1) of this 101493
sectionassigning a case-mix score to a nursing facility due to 101494
the submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the 101495
department shall permit the provider a reasonable period of time, 101496
specified in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, to 101497
correct the informationdata. In the case of an intermediate care 101498
facility for the mentally retarded, the department shall not 101499
assign a quarterly average case-mix score due to late submission 101500
of corrections to assessment information unless the provider fails 101501
to submit corrected information prior to the eighty-first day 101502
after the end of the calendar quarter to which the information 101503
pertains. In the case of a nursing facility, theThe department 101504
shall notmay assign a quarterly averagethe case-mix score due to 101505
late submission of corrections to assessment information unlessif101506
the provider fails to submit the corrected information prior to101507
resident assessment data not later than the earlier of the 101508
forty-sixthforty-fifth day after the end of the calendar quarter 101509
to which the informationdata pertains or the deadline for 101510
submission of such corrections established by regulations adopted 101511
by the United States department of health and human services under 101512
TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX.101513

       (2)(3) If, for more than six months in a calendar year, a 101514
provider is paid a rate determined for a nursing facility 101515
calculated using a quarterly average case-mix score assigned to 101516
the nursing facility under division (D)(B)(1) of this section for 101517
more than six months in a calendar year, the department may assign 101518
the nursing facility a cost per case-mix unit that is five per 101519
cent less than the nursing facility's actual or assigned cost per 101520
case-mix unit for the immediately preceding calendar year. The 101521
department may use the assigned cost per case-mix unit, instead of 101522
calculatingdetermining the nursing facility's actual cost per 101523
case-mix unit in accordance with section 5111.23 or 5111.231101524
5165.19 of the Revised Code, to establish the nursing facility's 101525
rate for direct care costs for the following fiscal year 101526
immediately following the calendar year for which the cost per 101527
case-mix unit is assigned.101528

       (3)(4) The department shall take action under division 101529
(D)(B)(1) or, (2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with 101530
rules authorized by division (E) of this section. The department 101531
shall not take an action that affects rates for prior payment 101532
periods except in accordance with sections 5111.275165.41 and 101533
5111.285165.42 of the Revised Code.101534

       (E)(C) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 101535
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code thatas necessary to implement 101536
this section.101537

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:101538

       (1) Specify whether providers of a nursing facility must 101539
submit the assessment data to the department of job and family 101540
services;101541

       (2) Specify the medium or media through which the completed 101542
assessment data shall be submitted;101543

       (3)(a) Specify the process for determining the semiannual and 101544
annual average case-mix scores for nursing facilities;101545

       (b) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 101546
(A)(2)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 101547
differentials that are specific to this state;101548

       (c) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 101549
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 101550
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 101551
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;101552

       (d) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 101553
(A)(2)(c) of this section as follows:101554

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 101555
to case-mix categories under the methodology;101556

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 101557
methodology;101558

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 101559
States department of health and human services makes after June 101560
30, 1999;101561

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 101562
necessary.101563

       (e) Establish procedures under which theresident assessment 101564
data shall be reviewed for accuracy and providers shall be 101565
notified of any data that requires correction;101566

       (4)(f) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident101567
assessment data and specify a reasonable period of time by which 101568
providers shall submit the corrections. The procedures may limit 101569
the content of corrections by providers of nursing facilities in 101570
the manner required by regulations adopted by the United States 101571
department of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII 101572
and Title XIX.101573

       (5)(g) Specify when and how the department will assign 101574
case-mix scores or costs per case-mix unit to a nursing facility101575
under division (D)(B) of this section if information necessary to 101576
calculate the nursing facility's case-mix score is not provided or 101577
corrected in accordance with the procedures established by the 101578
rules. Notwithstanding101579

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 101580
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter, the rules also may 101581
provide for the following:101582

       (a) Exclusion of case-mix scores assigned under division (D) 101583
of this section from calculation of an intermediate care facility 101584
for the mentally retarded's annual average case-mix score and the 101585
maximum cost per case-mix unit for the facility's peer group;101586

       (b) Exclusionexclusion of case-mix scores assigned to a 101587
nursing facility under division (D)(B) of this section from 101588
calculationthe determination of athe nursing facility's 101589
semiannual or annual average case-mix score and the cost per 101590
case-mix unit for the nursing facility's peer group.101591

       Sec. 5165.193.  (A) The department of medicaid may, pursuant 101592
to rules authorized by this section, conduct an exception review 101593
of resident assessment data submitted by a nursing facility 101594
provider under section 5165.191 of the Revised Code. The 101595
department may conduct an exception review based on the findings 101596
of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the department of 101597
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.101598

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the nursing facility 101599
by appropriate health professionals under contract with or 101600
employed by the department. The professionals may review resident 101601
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 101602
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 101603
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 101604
scores.101605

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 101606
date of a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is 101607
based on the resident assessment data being reviewed and the 101608
review results in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified 101609
in the rules authorized by this section, the department, in 101610
accordance with those rules, may use the findings to redetermine 101611
individual resident case-mix scores, the nursing facility's 101612
case-mix score for the quarter, and the nursing facility's annual 101613
average case-mix score. The department may use the nursing 101614
facility's redetermined quarterly and annual average case-mix 101615
scores to determine the nursing facility's rate for direct care 101616
costs for the appropriate calendar quarter or quarters.101617

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 101618
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 101619
a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on 101620
the resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider 101621
is pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 101622
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 101623
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 101624
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 101625
Revised Code.101626

       (D)(1) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 101627
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 101628
section. The rules shall establish an exception review program 101629
that does all of the following:101630

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XVIII 101631
and Title XIX;101632

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 101633
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 101634
accurately;101635

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 101636
exception review from doing either of the following:101637

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 101638
employment with the department, having or being committed to 101639
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 101640
ownership, financing, or operation of nursing facilities in this 101641
state;101642

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 101643
professional.101644

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 101645
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 101646
by a nursing facility that the professional does not review does 101647
not constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 101648
ownership, financing, or operation of the nursing facility.101649

       Sec. 5111.242.        Sec. 5165.21. (A) As used in this section:101650

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:101651

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 101652
services'medicaid's initial determination under this section of 101653
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;101654

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 101655
calendar year the department selects.101656

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (C)(B)101657
of this section of each nursing facility's rate for tax costs 101658
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 101659
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 101660
previous determination of such rates.101661

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 101662
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 101663
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 101664
(C) of this section.101665

        (C) The department of medicaid shall determine theeach 101666
nursing facility's per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs for 101667
each nursing facility. The department is not required to conduct a 101668
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 101669
implement the amendments made to this section by Sub. H.B. 303 of 101670
the 129th general assembly, the rate for tax costs determined 101671
under this division for a nursing facility shall be used for 101672
subsequent years until the department conducts a rebasing. To 101673
determine a nursing facility's rate for tax costs and except as 101674
provided in division (D)(C) of this section, the department shall 101675
do both of the following:101676

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 101677
allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year by the 101678
number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if 101679
its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 101680
applicable calendar year;101681

       (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 101682
calculated under division (C)(B)(1) of this section by five and 101683
eight hundredths per cent.101684

       (D)(C) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 101685
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 101686
the department shall determine, as follows, its rate for tax costs 101687
for the period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first 101688
day of the fiscal year for which the department first conducts a 101689
rebasing:101690

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 101691
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 101692
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 101693
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 101694
2004;101695

        (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 101696
calculated under division (D)(C)(1) of this section by five and 101697
eight hundredths per cent.101698

       Sec. 5111.246.        Sec. 5165.23.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department 101699
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine the101700
critical access incentive payment to the provider offor each 101701
nursing facility that qualifies as a critical access nursing 101702
facility. To qualify as a critical access nursing facility for a 101703
fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet all of the following 101704
requirements:101705

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 101706
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 101707
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 543101708
section 1391, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.101709

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 101710
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 101711
immediately preceding the fiscal year.101712

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 101713
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 101714
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year.101715

       (4) The nursing facility must have been awarded at least five 101716
points for meeting accountability measures under section 5165.25 101717
of the Revised Code for the fiscal year and at least one of the 101718
five points must have been awarded for meeting the following:101719

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, the accountability measures 101720
identified in divisions (C)(10), (11), (12), and (13) of section 101721
5165.25 of the Revised Code;101722

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 101723
accountability measures identified in divisions (D)(9), (10), 101724
(11), (12), and (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.101725

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 101726
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 101727
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 101728
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 101729
divisions (B)(A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.2225165.15 of 101730
the Revised Code.101731

       Sec. 5111.244.        Sec. 5165.25.  (A) As used in this section:101732

       (1) "Applicable percentage" means, for the accountability 101733
measures identified in divisions (C)(10) to (13) of this section, 101734
the following: 101735

       (a) For fiscal year 2013, whichever of the following applies: 101736

       (i) The percentage that the department of job and family 101737
services specifies for an accountability measure pursuant to 101738
division (E)(1)(b) or (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section; 101739

       (ii) The percentage specified for an accountability measure 101740
in division (E)(2)(b), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section. 101741

       (b) For fiscal year 2014, whichever of the following applies: 101742

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 101743
section; 101744

       (ii) The percentage that the department specifies for an 101745
accountability measure pursuant to division (F)(3)(a) of this 101746
section. 101747

       (c) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, whichever of the 101748
following applies:101749

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 101750
section;101751

       (ii) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(3)(b) of 101752
this section.101753

       (2) "Complaint surveys" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 101754
488.30.101755

       (3)(2) "Customer satisfaction survey" means the annual survey 101756
of long-term care facilities required by section 173.47 of the 101757
Revised Code.101758

       (4)(3) "Deficiency" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 101759
488.301.101760

       (4) "Exempted hospital discharge" has the same meaning as in 101761
42 C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(i).101762

       (5) "Family satisfaction survey" means a customer 101763
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 101764
that contains the results of information obtained from the 101765
families of a nursing facility's residents.101766

       (6) "Minimum data set" means the standardized, uniform 101767
comprehensive assessment of nursing facility residents that is 101768
used to identify potential problems, strengths, and preferences of 101769
residents and is part of the resident assessment instrument 101770
required by section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social Security Act," 101 101771
Stat. 1330-197 (1987)section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), 101772
as amended.101773

       (7) "National voluntary consensus standards for nursing 101774
homes" means measures used to determine the quality of care 101775
provided by nursing facilities as endorsed by the national quality 101776
forum.101777

       (8) "Nurse aide" has the same meaning as in section 3721.21 101778
of the Revised Code.101779

       (9)(8) "Resident satisfaction survey" means a customer 101780
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 101781
that contains the results of information obtained from a nursing 101782
facility's residents.101783

       (10)(9) "Room mirror" means a mirror that is located in 101784
either of the following rooms:101785

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 101786
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 101787
bathroom;101788

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 101789
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.101790

       (11)(10) "Room sink" means a sink that is located in either 101791
of the following rooms:101792

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 101793
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 101794
bathroom;101795

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 101796
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.101797

       (12)(11) "Standard survey" has the same meaning as in 42 101798
C.F.R. 488.301.101799

       (12) "Special focus facility list" means the list of nursing 101800
facilities that the United States department of health and human 101801
services creates under the special focus facility program required 101802
by the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 U.S.C. 101803
1396r(f)(10).101804

       (13) "Substantial wall" means a permanent structure that 101805
reaches from floor to ceiling and divides a semiprivate room into 101806
two distinct living spaces, each with its own window.101807

       (14) "Table B of the special focus facility list" means the 101808
table included in the special focus facility list that identifies 101809
nursing facilities that have not improved.101810

       (B)(1) Each fiscal year, the department of job and family 101811
servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine each nursing facility's101812
quality incentive payment to the provider of each nursing facility 101813
that is awarded one or more points for meeting accountability 101814
measures under division (C) of this section. Subject to division101815
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section, the per medicaid day 101816
amount of a quality incentive payment paid to a nursing facility101817
provider shall be the product of the following:101818

       (a) The number of points the provider's nursing facility is 101819
awarded for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of101820
this section;101821

       (b) Three dollars and twenty-nine cents. 101822

       (2) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 101823
the provider of a nursing facility provider for a fiscal year 2014101824
shall be sixteen dollars and forty-four cents per medicaid day.101825

       (3) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 101826
a nursing facility provider for fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal 101827
year thereafter shall be the following:101828

       (a) Sixteen dollars and forty-four cents if at least one of 101829
the points awarded to the nursing facility for meeting 101830
accountability measures is for an accountability measure 101831
identified in division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), or (14) of this 101832
section;101833

       (b) Thirteen dollars and sixteen cents if division (B)(3)(a) 101834
of this section does not apply.101835

        (C) SubjectFor fiscal year 2014 only and subject to 101836
divisions (D),division (E), and (F) of this section, the 101837
department shall award each nursing facility participating in the 101838
medicaid program one point for each of the following 101839
accountability measures the facility meets:101840

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 101841
survey is at least eighty-six.101842

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 101843
survey is at least eighty-eight.101844

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 101845
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.101846

       (4) The facility had neither of the following on the 101847
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 101848
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101849
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 101850
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101851
year for which the point is to be awarded:101852

       (a) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 101853
greater than F;101854

       (b) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 101855
care.101856

       (5) The facility offers at least fifty per cent of its 101857
residents at least one of the following dining choices for at 101858
least one meal each day:101859

       (a) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 101860
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;101861

       (b) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 101862
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 101863
residents' directions, from the buffet;101864

       (c) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 101865
on a serving dish and shared by residents;101866

       (d) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 101867
period to choose when to have a meal;101868

       (e) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 101869
meals from the facility any time of the day.101870

       (6) At least fifty per cent of the facility's residents are 101871
able to take a bath or shower as often as they choose.101872

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 101873
its resident satisfaction survey:101874

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101875
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 101876
least eighty-nine;101877

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101878
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 101879
morning, at least seventy-six.101880

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 101881
its family satisfaction survey:101882

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101883
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 101884
least eighty-eight;101885

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101886
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 101887
morning, at least seventy-five.101888

       (9) All of the following apply to the facility:101889

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 101890
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 101891
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 101892
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 101893
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 101894
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' healthcare101895
health care teams that the facility, residents, and residents' 101896
sponsors consider appropriate.101897

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 101898
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 101899
records.101900

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 101901
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 101902
development of the residents' individual plans of care.101903

       (10) Not more than the applicable percentagethirteen and 101904
thirty-five hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 101905
residents report severe to moderate pain during the minimum data 101906
set assessment process.101907

       (11) Not more than the applicable percentagefive and 101908
seventy-three hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay, 101909
high-risk residents have been assessed as having one or more stage 101910
two, three, or four pressure ulcers during the minimum data set 101911
assessment process.101912

       (12) Not more than the applicable percentageone and 101913
fifty-two hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 101914
residents were physically restrained as reported during the 101915
minimum data set assessment process.101916

       (13) Less than the applicable percentageseven and 101917
seventy-eight hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 101918
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 101919
minimum data set assessment process.101920

       (14) The facility uses a tool for tracking residents' 101921
admissions to hospitals.101922

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 101923
medicaid-certified beds are in private rooms.101924

       (16) The facility has accessible resident bathrooms, all of 101925
which meet at least two of the following standards and at least 101926
some of which meet all of the following standards:101927

       (a) There are room mirrors that are accessible to residents 101928
in wheelchairs, can be adjusted so as to be visible to residents 101929
who are seated or standing, or both.101930

       (b) There are room sinks that are accessible to residents in 101931
wheelchairs and have clearance for wheelchairs.101932

       (c) There are room sinks that have faucets with adaptive or 101933
easy-to-use lever or paddle handles.101934

       (17) The facility does both of the following:101935

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 101936
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 101937
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;101938

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101939
families of residents.101940

       (18) The facility has a score of at least ninety on its 101941
resident satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 101942
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 101943
with personal belongings.101944

       (19) The facility has a score of at least ninety-five on its 101945
family satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 101946
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 101947
with personal belongings.101948

       (20) The facility does both of the following:101949

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 101950
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 101951
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than eight 101952
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;101953

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101954
families of residents.101955

       (21) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 101956
seventy-five per cent.101957

       (22) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 101958
higher than sixty-five per cent.101959

       (23) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 101960
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 101961
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 101962
conference.101963

       (D) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter and 101964
subject to division (E) of this section, the department shall 101965
award each nursing facility participating in the medicaid program 101966
one point for each of the following accountability measures the 101967
facility meets:101968

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 101969
survey is at least eighty-seven and five-tenths.101970

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 101971
survey is at least eighty-five and nine-tenths.101972

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 101973
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.101974

       (4) Both of the following apply to the facility:101975

       (a) The facility had not been listed on table B of the 101976
special focus facility list for eighteen or more consecutive 101977
months during any time during the calendar year immediately 101978
preceding the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded.101979

       (b) The facility had neither of the following on the 101980
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 101981
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101982
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 101983
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101984
year for which the point is to be awarded:101985

       (i) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 101986
greater than F;101987

       (ii) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 101988
care.101989

       (5) The facility does all of the following:101990

       (a) Offers at least fifty per cent of its residents at least 101991
one of the following dining choices for at least two meals each 101992
day:101993

       (i) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 101994
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;101995

       (ii) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 101996
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 101997
residents' directions, from the buffet;101998

       (iii) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 101999
on a serving dish and shared by residents;102000

       (iv) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 102001
period to choose when to have a meal;102002

       (v) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 102003
meals from the facility any time of the day.102004

       (b) Maintains a written policy specifying the manner or 102005
manners in which residents' dining choices for meals are offered;102006

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 102007
families of residents.102008

       (6) The facility does all of the following:102009

       (a) Enables at least fifty per cent of the facility's 102010
residents to take a bath or shower when they choose;102011

       (b) Maintains a written policy regarding residents' choices 102012
in bathing;102013

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 102014
families of residents.102015

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 102016
its resident satisfaction survey:102017

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 102018
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 102019
least eighty-nine;102020

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 102021
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 102022
morning, at least seventy-six.102023

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 102024
its family satisfaction survey:102025

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 102026
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 102027
least eighty-eight;102028

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 102029
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 102030
morning, at least seventy-five.102031

       (9) Not more than thirteen and thirty-five hundredths per 102032
cent of the facility's long-stay residents report severe to 102033
moderate pain during the minimum data set assessment process.102034

       (10) Not more than five and sixteen hundredths per cent of 102035
the facility's long-stay, high-risk residents have been assessed 102036
as having one or more stage two, three, or four pressure ulcers 102037
during the minimum data set assessment process.102038

       (11) Not more than one and fifty-two hundredths per cent of 102039
the facility's long-stay residents were physically restrained as 102040
reported during the minimum data set assessment process.102041

       (12) Less than seven per cent of the facility's long-stay 102042
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 102043
minimum data set assessment process.102044

       (13) The facility does both of the following:102045

       (a) Uses a tool for tracking residents' admissions to 102046
hospitals;102047

       (b) Annually reports to the department data on hospital 102048
admissions by month for all residents.102049

       (14) Both of the following apply:102050

       (a) At least ninety-five per cent of the facility's long-stay 102051
residents are vaccinated against pneumococcal pneumonia, decline 102052
the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the vaccination is 102053
medically contraindicated.102054

       (b) At least ninety-three per cent of the facility's 102055
long-stay residents are vaccinated against seasonal influenza, 102056
decline the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the 102057
vaccination is medically contraindicated.102058

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 102059
medicaid-certified beds are in either, or in a combination of 102060
both, of the following:102061

       (a) Private rooms;102062

       (b) Semiprivate rooms to which all of the following apply:102063

       (i) Each room provides a distinct territory for each resident 102064
occupying the room.102065

       (ii) Each distinct territory has a window and is separated by 102066
a substantial wall from the other distinct territories in the 102067
room.102068

       (iii) Each resident is able to enter and exit the distinct 102069
territory of the resident's room without entering or exiting 102070
another resident's distinct territory.102071

       (iv) Complete visual privacy for each distinct territory may 102072
be obtained by drawing a curtain or other screen.102073

       (16) The facility obtains at least a ninety-five per cent 102074
compliance rate with requesting resident reviews required by 42 102075
C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(ii) for individuals who are exempted hospital 102076
discharges.102077

       (17) The facility does both of the following:102078

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 102079
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 102080
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than twelve 102081
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;102082

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 102083
families of residents.102084

       (18) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 102085
seventy-five per cent.102086

       (19) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 102087
higher than sixty-five per cent.102088

       (20) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 102089
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 102090
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 102091
conference.102092

       (21) All of the following apply to the facility:102093

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 102094
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 102095
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 102096
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 102097
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 102098
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' health care 102099
teams that the facility, residents, and residents' sponsors 102100
consider appropriate.102101

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 102102
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 102103
records.102104

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 102105
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 102106
development of the residents' individual plans of care.102107

       (22) The facility does both of the following:102108

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 102109
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 102110
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;102111

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 102112
families of residents.102113

       (E)(1) To be awarded a point for meeting an accountability 102114
measure under division (C) or (D) of this section other than the 102115
accountability measure identified in divisiondivisions (C)(4) and 102116
(D)(4)(b) of this section, a nursing facility must meet the 102117
accountability measure in the calendar year immediately preceding 102118
the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded. However, a 102119
nursing facility must meet the accountability measures specified 102120
in divisions (C)(3), (5), (6), (9), (14) to (17), (20), (22), and 102121
(23) of this section in the period beginning January 1, 2012, and 102122
ending March 31, 2012, to be awarded points for those 102123
accountability measures for fiscal year 2013.102124

       (2) The department shall award points pursuant to division102125
divisions (C)(1), (7), orand (18) and (D)(1) and (7) of this 102126
section to a nursing facility only if a resident satisfaction 102127
survey was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for 102128
the nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding 102129
the fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.102130

       (3) The department shall award points pursuant to division102131
divisions (C)(2), (8), orand (19) and (D)(2) and (8) of this 102132
section to a nursing facility only if a family satisfaction survey 102133
was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for the 102134
nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding the 102135
fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.102136

       (4) The department shall award points pursuant to divisions 102137
(D)(21) and (22) of this section only for fiscal year 2015.102138

       (5) Not later than July 1, 2013, the department shall adjust 102139
the score used for the purpose of division (C)(8)(b) of this 102140
section in a manner that causes at least fifty per cent of nursing 102141
facilities to meet division (C)(8)(b) of this section.102142

       (E) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 102143
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2013, the 102144
following apply:102145

       (1) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 102146
medicare and medicaid services makes calculations using the 3.0 102147
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 102148
facilities meet those accountability measures, the department 102149
shall do both of the following: 102150

       (a) Rely on those calculations; 102151

       (b) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 102152
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 102153
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 102154
points for meeting those accountability measures.102155

       (2) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 102156
medicare and medicaid services does not make calculations using 102157
the 3.0 version of the minimum data set that indicate whether 102158
nursing facilities meet those accountability measures, the 102159
department shall do either of the following: 102160

       (a) Do both of the following:102161

       (i) Make the calculations using the 3.0 version of the 102162
minimum data set in accordance with the national voluntary 102163
consensus standards for nursing homes;102164

       (ii) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 102165
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 102166
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 102167
points for meeting those accountability measures. 102168

       (b) Do all of the following:102169

       (i) Rely on the most recent calculations the United States 102170
centers for medicare and medicaid services made using the 2.0 102171
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 102172
facilities meet those accountability measures;102173

       (ii) Use four per cent as the applicable percentage for the 102174
accountability measure identified in division (C)(10) of this 102175
section;102176

       (iii) Use nine per cent as the applicable percentage for the 102177
accountability measure identified in division (C)(11) of this 102178
section; 102179

       (iv) Use two per cent as the applicable percentage for the 102180
accountability measure identified in division (C)(12) of this 102181
section;102182

       (v) Use ten per cent as the applicable percentage for the 102183
accountability measure identified in division (C)(13) of this 102184
section.102185

       (F) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 102186
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2014 and 102187
thereafter, the department shall do the following: 102188

       (1) Rely on calculations the United States centers for 102189
medicare and medicaid services makes using the 3.0 version of the 102190
minimum data set that indicate whether nursing facilities meet 102191
those accountability measures; 102192

       (2) If the department takes action pursuant to division 102193
(E)(1) of this section for fiscal year 2013, continue to use the 102194
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 102195
(E)(1)(b) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 102196
measures; 102197

       (3) If the department takes action pursuant to division 102198
(E)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2013, do the following:102199

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, specify the percentages to be used 102200
for the purposes of those accountability measures and, in 102201
specifying the percentages, provide for at least fifty per cent of 102202
nursing facilities to earn points for meeting those accountability 102203
measures; 102204

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, continue to use the 102205
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 102206
(F)(3)(a) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 102207
measures.Not later than July 1, 2014, the department shall 102208
submit, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 102209
recommendations to the general assembly for accountability 102210
measures to replace the accountability measures identified in 102211
divisions (D)(21) and (22) of this section.102212

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 102213
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 102214
implement this section.102215

       The rulesRules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised 102216
Code may specify what is meant by "some" as that word is used in 102217
division (C)(16) of this section.102218

       Sec. 5111.245.        Sec. 5165.26.  (A) As used in this section:102219

       (1) "Budgeted amount for quality incentive payments for a 102220
fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year as 102221
follows:102222

        (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the 102223
immediately preceding fiscal year by sixteen dollars and 102224
forty-four cents;102225

        (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 102226
that was paid under section 5165.25 of the Revised Code to all 102227
nursing facility providers for the immediately preceding fiscal 102228
year;102229

        (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(1)(b) 102230
of this section from the product calculated under division 102231
(A)(1)(a) of this section;102232

        (d) Add thirty million dollars to the difference calculated 102233
under division (A)(1)(c) of this section.102234

        (2) "Point days for a fiscal year" means the product of the 102235
following:102236

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 102237
the fiscal year;102238

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 102239
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.102240

       (2)(3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 102241
that qualifies for a quality bonus for a fiscal year as determined 102242
under division (B) of this section.102243

       (3)(4) "Quality bonus points for a fiscal year" means the 102244
amount determined by subtracting five from the number of points 102245
awarded to a qualifying nursing facility for meeting 102246
accountability measures under division (C) of section 5111.244102247
5165.25 of the Revised Code for a fiscal year.102248

       (4) "Residual budgeted amount for quality incentive payments 102249
for a fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year 102250
as follows:102251

       (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the fiscal 102252
year by sixteen dollars and forty-four cents;102253

       (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 102254
that was paid under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code to all 102255
nursing facility providers for the fiscal year;102256

       (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(4)(b) 102257
of this section from the product calculated under division 102258
(A)(4)(a) of this section.102259

       (B) TheNot later than the first day of November of each 102260
fiscal year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid102261
shall pay a nursing facility provider a quality bonus for athe102262
fiscal year if both of the following apply:102263

       (1) The provider's nursing facility is awarded more than five 102264
points for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of102265
section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code for the fiscal year 102266
and the following applies:102267

        (1) For fiscal year 2014, at least two of the points are 102268
awarded to the nursing facility pursuant to division (C)(10), 102269
(11), (12), (13), or (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.102270

        (2) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, at 102271
least two of the points are awarded to the nursing facility 102272
pursuant to division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), (13), or (14) of 102273
section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.102274

       (2) The residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 102275
payments for the fiscal year is greater than zero.102276

       (C) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 102277
qualifying nursing facility for a fiscal year shall equal the 102278
product of the following:102279

       (1) The quality bonus per medicaid day for the fiscal year 102280
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 102281
division (D) of this section;102282

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 102283
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.102284

       (D) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 102285
medicaid day for a fiscal year shall be the product of the 102286
following: 102287

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for the 102288
fiscal year;102289

       (2) The quality bonus per point for the fiscal year 102290
determined under division (E) of this section.102291

       (E) The quality bonus per point for a fiscal year shall be 102292
determined as follows:102293

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 102294
facility's point days for the fiscal year;102295

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 102296
point days for the fiscal year;102297

       (3) Divide the residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 102298
payments for the fiscal year by the sum determined under division 102299
(E)(2) of this section.102300

       (F) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 102301
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 102302
Code.102303

       (G) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 102304
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 102305
implement this section.102306

       Sec. 5111.257.        Sec. 5165.28.  If a provider of a nursing facility 102307
adds or replaces one or more medicaid certified beds to or at the 102308
nursing facility, or renovates one or more of the nursing 102309
facility's beds, the medicaid payment rate for the added, 102310
replaced, or renovated beds shall be the same as the medicaid 102311
payment rate for the nursing facility's existing beds.102312

       Sec. 5111.265.        Sec. 5165.29.  If one or more medicaid-certified 102313
beds are relocated from one nursing facility to another nursing 102314
facility owned by a different person or government entity and the 102315
application for the certificate of need authorizing the relocation 102316
is filed with the director of health on or after the effective 102317
date of this sectionJuly 1, 2005, amortization of the cost of 102318
acquiring operating rights for the relocated beds is not an 102319
allowable cost for the purpose of determining the nursing 102320
facility's medicaid reimbursementpayment rate.102321

       Sec. 5111.264.        Sec. 5165.30.  Except as provided in section 5111.25 102322
or 5111.2515165.17 of the Revised Code, the costs of goods, 102323
services, and facilities, furnished to a nursing facility provider 102324
by a related party are includable in the allowable costs of the 102325
provider at the reasonable cost to the related party.102326

       Sec. 5165.32.  The department of medicaid shall not reduce a 102327
nursing facility's medicaid payment rate determined under this 102328
chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower rate to any 102329
resident who is not eligible for medicaid.102330

       Sec. 5165.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to a nursing 102331
facility provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged 102332
from the nursing facility.102333

       Sec. 5111.331.        Sec. 5165.34.  (A) The department of job and family 102334
servicesmedicaid may make medicaid payments to a nursing 102335
facility provider of a nursing facility under sections 5111.20 to 102336
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter to reserve a bed for a 102337
recipient during a temporary absence under conditions prescribed 102338
by the department, to include hospitalization for an acute 102339
condition, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 102340
therapeutic programs outside the facility, when the resident's 102341
plan of care provides for such absence and federal financial102342
participation infor the payments is available.102343

       (B) The maximum period for which payments may be made to 102344
reserve a bed in a nursing facility shall not exceed thirty days 102345
in a calendar year.102346

       (C) The department shall establish the per diemmedicaid day 102347
payment rates to be paid to providers of nursing facilities for 102348
reserving beds under this section. In establishing the per diem102349
medicaid day payment rates, the department shall do the following:102350

       (1) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 102351
during calendar year 2011, set the per diem rate at an amount not 102352
exceeding fifty per cent of the per diem rate the provider would 102353
be paid if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility 102354
that day;102355

       (2) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 102356
during calendar year 2012 and each calendar year thereafter, set 102357
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate at an amount equal to the 102358
following:102359

       (a)(1) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 102360
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year exceeding 102361
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of 102362
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 102363
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 102364
day;102365

       (b)(2) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 102366
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year not exceeding 102367
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding eighteen per cent of 102368
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 102369
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 102370
day.102371

       (D) For the purpose of setting a nursing facility's per 102372
medicaid day payment rate to reserve a bed for a day during the 102373
period beginning on the effective date of this amendment and 102374
ending December 31, 2013, the department shall determine the 102375
nursing facility's occupancy rate by using information reported on 102376
the nursing facility's cost report for calendar year 2012. For the 102377
purpose of setting a nursing facility's per medicaid day payment 102378
rate to reserve a bed for January 1, 2014, or thereafter, the 102379
department shall determine the nursing facility's occupancy rate 102380
by using information reported on the nursing facility's cost 102381
report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 102382
the reservation falls.102383

       Sec. 5111.212.        Sec. 5165.35. As used in this section, "effective 102384
date of an involuntary termination" and "involuntary termination" 102385
have the same meanings as in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code.102386

       Medicaid payments may be made for nursing facility services 102387
and intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services102388
provided not later than thirty days after the effective date of an 102389
involuntary termination of the nursing facility that provides the 102390
services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient who 102391
is eligible for the services and resided in the nursing facility 102392
before the effective date of the involuntary termination.102393

       Sec. 5111.221.        Sec. 5165.37.  The department of job and family 102394
servicesmedicaid shall make its best efforts each year to 102395
calculate nursing facilities' medicaid payment rates under 102396
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter in 102397
time to use them to makepay the payments due to providersrates102398
by the fifteenth day of August of each fiscal year. If the 102399
department is unable to calculate the rates so that they can be 102400
paid by that date, the department shall pay each provider the rate 102401
calculated for the provider's nursing facilities and intermediate 102402
care facilities for the mentally retarded under those sections102403
this chapter at the end of the previous fiscal year. If the 102404
department also is unable to calculate the rates to make the 102405
payments duepay the rates by the fifteenth day of September and 102406
the fifteenth day of October, the department shall pay the 102407
previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. The department 102408
may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal year's rate paid 102409
for any nursing facility pursuant to this section at the request 102410
of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated for the 102411
current fiscal year to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 102412
of November.102413

       If the rate paid to a provider for a nursing facility 102414
pursuant to this section is lower than the rate calculated for the 102415
nursing facility for the current fiscal year, the department shall 102416
pay the provider the difference between the two rates for the 102417
number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing102418
facility pursuant to this section. If the rate paid for a nursing102419
facility pursuant to this section is higher than the rate 102420
calculated for it for the current fiscal year, the provider shall 102421
refund to the department the difference between the two rates for 102422
the number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing102423
facility pursuant to this section.102424

       Sec. 5111.29.        Sec. 5165.38. (A) The medicaid director of job and 102425
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 102426
the Revised Code that establish a process under which a nursing 102427
facility provider, or a group or association of nursing facility102428
providers, may seek reconsideration of medicaid payment rates 102429
established under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 102430
Codethis chapter, including a rate for direct care costs 102431
recalculated before the effective date of the rate as a result of 102432
an exception review of resident assessment informationdata102433
conducted under section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code. The102434

       (1) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2) to (4) of this 102435
section, the only issue that a provider, group, or association may 102436
raise in the rate reconsideration shall be whether the rate was 102437
calculated in accordance with sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 102438
Revised Codethis chapter and the rules adopted under section 102439
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall permit a102440
provider, group, or association tomay submit written arguments or 102441
other materials that support its position. The rules shall specify102442
provider, group, or association and department of medicaid shall 102443
take actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 102444
within which the provider, group, or association and the 102445
department must actspecified in rules authorized by this section. 102446
If102447

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 102448
reconsideration, that the rate establisheddetermined for one or 102449
more nursing facilities of a provider is less than the rate to 102450
which the nursing facility is entitled, the department shall 102451
increase the rate. If the department has paid the incorrect rate 102452
for a period of time, the department shall pay the provider the 102453
difference between the amount the provider was paid for that 102454
period for the nursing facility and the amount the provider should 102455
have been paid for the nursing facility.102456

       (2) The rules shall provide that during a fiscal year, the 102457
department, by means of the rate reconsideration process, may 102458
increase the rate determined for an intermediate care facility for 102459
the mentally retarded as calculated under sections 5111.20 to 102460
5111.331 of the Revised Code if the provider of the facility 102461
demonstrates that the facility's actual, allowable costs have 102462
increased because of extreme circumstances. A facility may qualify 102463
for a rate increase only if the facility's per diem, actual, 102464
allowable costs have increased to a level that exceeds its total 102465
rate. The rules shall specify the circumstances that would justify 102466
a rate increase under division (A)(2) of this section. The rules 102467
shall provide that the extreme circumstances include natural 102468
disasters, renovations approved under division (D) of section 102469
5111.251 of the Revised Code, an increase in workers' compensation 102470
experience rating of greater than five per cent for a facility 102471
that has an appropriate claims management program, increased 102472
security costs for an inner-city facility, and a change of 102473
ownership that results from bankruptcy, foreclosure, or findings 102474
of violations of certification requirements by the department of 102475
health. An increase under division (A)(2) of this section is 102476
subject to any rate limitations or maximum rates established by 102477
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for specific cost 102478
centers. Any rate increase granted under division (A)(2) of this 102479
section shall take effect on the first day of the first month 102480
after the department receives the request.102481

       (3) The rules shall provide that the department, through the 102482
rate reconsideration process, may increase an intermediate care 102483
facility for the mentally retarded's rate as calculated under 102484
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code if the 102485
department, in the department's sole discretion, determines that 102486
the rate as calculated under those sections works an extreme 102487
hardship on the facility.102488

       (4) The rules shall provide that when beds certified for the 102489
medicaid program are added to an existing intermediate care 102490
facility for the mentally retarded or replaced at the same site, 102491
the department, through the rate reconsideration process, shall 102492
increase the intermediate care facility for the mentally 102493
retarded's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by 102494
any applicable limitation under section 5111.251 of the Revised 102495
Code, to account for the costs of the beds that are added or 102496
replaced. The department shall make this increase one month after 102497
the first day of the month after the department receives 102498
sufficient documentation of the costs. Any rate increase granted 102499
under division (A)(4) of this section after June 30, 1993, shall 102500
remain in effect until the effective date of a rate calculated 102501
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code that includes costs 102502
incurred for a full calendar year for the bed addition or bed 102503
replacement. The facility shall report double accumulated 102504
depreciation in an amount equal to the depreciation included in 102505
the rate adjustment on its cost report for the first year of 102506
operation. During the term of any loan used to finance a project 102507
for which a rate adjustment is granted under division (A)(4) of 102508
this section, if the facility is operated by the same provider, 102509
the provider shall subtract from the interest costs it reports on 102510
its cost report an amount equal to the difference between the 102511
following:102512

       (a) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 102513
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;102514

       (b) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 102515
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 102516
for the facility during the same calendar year.102517

       (5) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 102518
reconsideration process shall not be subject to any administrative 102519
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 102520
Revised Code.102521

       (B) All of the following are subject to an adjudication 102522
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:102523

       (1) Any audit disallowance that the department makes as the 102524
result of an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised Code;102525

       (2) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 102526
of resident assessment information conducted under section 5111.27 102527
of the Revised Code after the effective date of the facility's 102528
rate that is based on the assessment information;102529

       (3) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 102530
5111.683 of the Revised Code;102531

       (4) Any penalty the department imposes under division (C) of 102532
section 5111.28 of the Revised Code or section 5111.683 of the 102533
Revised Code.102534

       Sec. 5111.28.        Sec. 5165.40. (A) If a nursing facility provider 102535
properly amends itsa cost report for the nursing facility under 102536
section 5111.2615165.107 of the Revised Code and the amended 102537
report shows that the provider received a lower medicaid payment102538
rate under the original cost report than itthe provider was 102539
entitled to receive, the department of job and family services102540
medicaid shall adjust the provider's rate for the nursing facility102541
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 102542
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 102543
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report. 102544
If102545

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 102546
assessment informationdata conducted pursuant to section 5165.193 102547
of the Revised Code after the effective date of thea nursing 102548
facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 102549
resident assessment informationdata, that inaccurate resident102550
assessment informationdata resulted in the provider receiving a 102551
lower rate for the nursing facility than it was entitled to 102552
receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the provider's 102553
rate accordingly and. The department shall make payments to the 102554
provider using the adjusted rate for the remainder of the calendar 102555
quartersix-month period for which the resident assessment 102556
informationdata is used to determine the rate, beginning one 102557
month after the first day of the month after the exception review 102558
is completed.102559

       (B) If the provider properly amends its cost report under 102560
section 5111.261 of the Revised Code, the department makes a 102561
finding based on an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised 102562
Code, or the department makes a finding based on an exception 102563
review of resident assessment information conducted under section 102564
5111.27 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the rate 102565
for direct care costs that is based on the assessment information, 102566
any of which results in a determination that the provider has 102567
received a higher rate than it was entitled to receive, the 102568
department shall recalculate the provider's rate using the revised 102569
information. The department shall apply the recalculated rate to 102570
the periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to 102571
determine the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund 102572
the amount of the overpayment.102573

       In addition to requiring a refund under this division, the 102574
department may charge the provider interest at the applicable rate 102575
specified in this division from the time the overpayment was made.102576

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 102577
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 102578
one-half times the average bank prime rate.102579

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 102580
subsequent calendar years:102581

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 102582
average bank prime rate if the overpayment was equal to or less 102583
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 102584
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 102585
to establish a rate.102586

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 102587
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 102588
greater than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 102589
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 102590
was used to establish a rate.102591

       (C) The department also may impose the following penalties:102592

       (1) If a provider does not furnish invoices or other 102593
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 102594
sixty days after the request, no more than the greater of one 102595
thousand dollars per audit or twenty-five per cent of the 102596
cumulative amount by which the costs for which documentation was 102597
not furnished increased the total medicaid payments to the 102598
provider during the fiscal year for which the costs were used to 102599
establish a rate;102600

       (2) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 102601
of a facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 102602
withdrawal of participation in the medicaid program as required by 102603
section 5111.66 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 102604
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 102605
operator as required by section 5111.67 of the Revised Code, no 102606
more than the current average bank prime rate plus four per cent 102607
of the last two monthly payments.102608

       (D) If the provider continues to participate in the medicaid 102609
program, the department shall deduct any amount that the provider 102610
is required to refund under this section, and the amount of any 102611
interest charged or penalty imposed under this section, from the 102612
next available payment from the department to the provider. The 102613
department and the provider may enter into an agreement under 102614
which the amount, together with interest, is deducted in 102615
installments from payments from the department to the provider. 102616

       (E) The department shall transmit refunds and penalties to 102617
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund.102618

       (F) For the purpose of this section, the department shall 102619
determine the average bank prime rate using statistical release 102620
H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of the 102621
federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 102622
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 102623
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 102624
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 102625
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 102626
federal reserve board.102627

       Sec. 5165.41.  (A) The department of medicaid shall 102628
redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate for a nursing 102629
facility using revised information if any of the following results 102630
in a determination that the provider received a higher medicaid 102631
payment rate for the nursing facility than the provider was 102632
entitled to receive:102633

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the 102634
nursing facility under section 5165.107 of the Revised Code;102635

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 102636
section 5165.109 of the Revised Code;102637

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 102638
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 102639
5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 102640
nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 102641
resident assessment data;102642

       (4) The department makes a finding based on a post-payment 102643
review conducted under section 5165.49 of the Revised Code.102644

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 102645
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 102646
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 102647
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 102648
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 102649
made:102650

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 102651
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 102652
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.102653

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 102654
subsequent calendar year:102655

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 102656
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was no more 102657
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 102658
for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.102659

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 102660
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 102661
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 102662
provider for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.102663

       Sec. 5165.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 102664
by this chapter, the department of medicaid may impose the 102665
following penalties on a nursing facility provider:102666

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 102667
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 102668
sixty days after the request, a fine of no more than the greater 102669
of the following:102670

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;102671

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 102672
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 102673
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 102674
which the costs were used to determine a rate.102675

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 102676
of a facility closure or voluntary withdrawal of participation in 102677
the medicaid program as required by section 5165.50 of the Revised 102678
Code, or an exiting operator or owner and entering operator fail 102679
to provide notice of a change of operator as required by section 102680
5165.51 of the Revised Code, a fine of not more than the current 102681
average bank prime rate plus four per cent of the last two monthly 102682
payments.102683

       Sec. 5165.43.  For the purposes of sections 5165.41 and 102684
5165.42 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 102685
determine the current average bank prime rate using statistical 102686
release H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of 102687
the federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 102688
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 102689
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 102690
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 102691
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 102692
federal reserve board.102693

       Sec. 5165.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 102694
section, the department of medicaid shall deduct the following 102695
from the next available medicaid payment the department makes to a 102696
nursing facility provider who continues to participate in 102697
medicaid:102698

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 102699
interest charged, under section 5165.41 of the Revised Code;102700

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 102701
section 5165.42 of the Revised Code.102702

       (B) The department and a nursing facility provider may enter 102703
into an agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) 102704
of this section is taken in installments from payments the 102705
department makes to the provider.102706

       Sec. 5165.45.  The department of medicaid shall transmit to 102707
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund 102708
amounts collected from the following:102709

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 102710
5165.41 of the Revised Code;102711

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 102712
5165.42 of the Revised Code.102713

       Sec. 5165.46.  All of the following are subject to an 102714
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 102715
Revised Code:102716

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of medicaid 102717
makes as the result of an audit under section 5165.109 of the 102718
Revised Code;102719

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 102720
of resident assessment data conducted for a nursing facility under 102721
section 5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of 102722
the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs 102723
that is based on the resident assessment data;102724

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 102725
5165.523 of the Revised Code;102726

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5165.42 102727
of the Revised Code or section 5165.523 of the Revised Code.102728

       Sec. 5111.262.        Sec. 5165.47. No person, other than thea nursing 102729
facility provider of a nursing facility, shall submit a claim for 102730
medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided to a 102731
nursing facility resident if the service is included in a medicaid 102732
payment made to the nursing facility provider of a nursing 102733
facility under sections 5111.20 to 5111.33 of the Revised Code102734
this chapter or in the reimbursableallowable expenses reported 102735
on a provider's cost report for a nursing facility. No nursing 102736
facility provider of a nursing facility shall submit a separate 102737
claim for medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided 102738
to a resident of the nursing facility if the service is included 102739
in a medicaid payment made to the provider under sections 5111.20 102740
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter or in the 102741
reimbursableallowable expenses on the provider's cost report for 102742
the nursing facility.102743

       Sec. 5111.0211.        Sec. 5165.48. As used in this section, "nursing 102744
facility" and "provider" have the same meanings as in section 102745
5111.20 of the Revised Code.102746

       The provider of a nursing facility is not required to submit 102747
a claim to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid102748
regarding the medicare cost-sharing expenses of a resident of the 102749
nursing facility who, under federal law, is eligible to have the 102750
medicaid program pay for a part of the cost-sharing expenses if 102751
the provider determines that, under rules adopted under section 102752
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, the nursing facility would 102753
not receive a medicaid payment for any part of the medicare 102754
cost-sharing expenses. In such a situation, a claim for the 102755
medicare cost-sharing expenses shall be considered to have been 102756
adjudicated at no payment.102757

       Sec. 5165.49.  The department of medicaid may conduct a 102758
post-payment review of a claim submitted by a nursing facility 102759
provider and paid by the medicaid program to determine whether the 102760
provider was overpaid. The department shall provide the provider a 102761
written summary of the review's results. The review's results are 102762
not subject to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised 102763
Code; however, the provider may request that the medicaid director 102764
reconsider the review's results. The director shall reconsider the 102765
review's results on receipt of a request made in good faith. The 102766
department shall not deduct any amounts the department claims to 102767
be due from the provider as a result of the review from the 102768
provider's medicaid payments pursuant to section 5165.44 of the 102769
Revised Code until the conclusion of the director's 102770
reconsideration, if any, of the review.102771

       Sec. 5111.66.        Sec. 5165.50. An exiting operator or owner of a 102772
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 102773
retarded participating in the medicaid program shall provide the 102774
department of job and family servicesmedicaid written notice of a 102775
facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal 102776
of participation not less than ninety days before the effective 102777
date of the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 102778
withdrawal of participation. The written notice shall be provided 102779
to the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 102780
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102781
Revised Code.102782

       The written notice shall include all of the following:102783

        (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 102784
operator's authorized agent;102785

        (B) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 102786
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 102787
written notice;102788

        (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 102789
for the nursing facility that is the subject of the written 102790
notice;102791

        (D) The effective date of the facility closure, voluntary 102792
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation;102793

        (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 102794
representative.102795

       Sec. 5111.661.        Sec. 5165.501. An operator shall comply with section 102796
1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)102797
section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F) if the operator's 102798
nursing facility undergoes a voluntary withdrawal of 102799
participation.102800

       Sec. 5111.67.        Sec. 5165.51. (A) An exiting operator or owner and 102801
entering operator shall provide the department of job and family 102802
servicesmedicaid written notice of a change of operator if the 102803
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 102804
retarded participates in the medicaid program and the entering 102805
operator seeks to continue the nursing facility's participation. 102806
The written notice shall be provided to the department in 102807
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under102808
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code. The 102809
written notice shall be provided to the department not later than 102810
forty-five days before the effective date of the change of 102811
operator if the change of operator does not entail the relocation 102812
of residents. The written notice shall be provided to the 102813
department not later than ninety days before the effective date of 102814
the change of operator if the change of operator entails the 102815
relocation of residents. 102816

       The written notice shall include all of the following:102817

        (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 102818
operator's authorized agent;102819

        (2) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 102820
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 102821
change of operator;102822

        (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 102823
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the nursing102824
facility that is the subject of the change of operator;102825

        (4) The name of the entering operator;102826

        (5) The effective date of the change of operator;102827

        (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 102828
nursing facility's operator, including through sale, lease, 102829
merger, or other action;102830

        (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 102831
nursing facility's operator involves more than one step, a 102832
description of each step;102833

        (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 102834
and entering operator for the department to process a provider 102835
agreement for the entering operator;102836

        (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 102837
department should send initial correspondence regarding the change 102838
of operator;102839

       (10) If the nursing facility also participates in the 102840
medicare program, notification of whether the entering operator 102841
intends to accept assignment of the exiting operator's medicare 102842
provider agreement;102843

       (11) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 102844
representative.102845

        (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 102846
immediately shall provide the department written notice of any 102847
changes to information included in a written notice of a change of 102848
operator that occur after that notice is provided to the 102849
department. The notice of the changes shall be provided to the 102850
department in accordance with the method specified in rules 102851
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102852
Revised Code.102853

       Sec. 5111.671.        Sec. 5165.511. The department of job and family 102854
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 102855
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the 102856
effective date of the change of operator if all of the following 102857
requirements are met:102858

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 102859
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code on 102860
or before the date required by that section.102861

        (B) The department receives both of the following in 102862
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under102863
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code and not 102864
later than ten days after the effective date of the change of 102865
operator:102866

        (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 102867
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 102868
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102869
Revised Code;102870

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 102871
documents specified in rules adopted underauthorized by section 102872
5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code.102873

        (C) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 102874
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.102875

       Sec. 5111.672.        Sec. 5165.512. (A) The department of job and family 102876
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 102877
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date 102878
determined under division (B) of this section if all of the 102879
following are the case:102880

        (1) The department receives a properly completed written 102881
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code.102882

        (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 102883
in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under102884
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, a 102885
completed application for a provider agreement and all other forms 102886
and documents specified in rules adopted under that section. 102887

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 102888
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted 102889
underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, 102890
all forms and documents specified in rules adopted under that 102891
section.102892

        (4) One or more of the following apply:102893

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 102894
after the time required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised 102895
Code;102896

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 102897
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 102898
operator;102899

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 102900
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 102901
operator.102902

        (5) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 102903
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.102904

        (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 102905
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 102906
follows:102907

        (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 102908
time to process the change of operator, assure no duplicate 102909
payments are made, and make the withholding required by section 102910
5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code.102911

        (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 102912
of the following:102913

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;102914

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 102915
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this 102916
section;102917

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 102918
section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of 102919
this section.102920

        (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 102921
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 102922
section:102923

        (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 102924
the relocation of residents;102925

        (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 102926
relocation of residents.102927

       Sec. 5111.673.        Sec. 5165.513. A provider that enters into a 102928
provider agreement with the department of job and family services102929
medicaid under section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of 102930
the Revised Code shall do all of the following:102931

        (A) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 102932
regulations;102933

        (B) Comply with section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code 102934
and all other applicable state statutes and rules;102935

        (C) Comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting 102936
operator's provider agreement, including, but not limited to, all 102937
of the following:102938

        (1) Any plan of correction;102939

        (2) Compliance with health and safety standards;102940

        (3) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 102941
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;102942

        (4) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 102943
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;102944

        (5) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 102945
department;102946

        (6) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of the 102947
provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance periods, 102948
accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification for 102949
correction of contract violations, and history of deficiencies.102950

       Sec. 5111.674.        Sec. 5165.514. In the case of a change of operator, 102951
the exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 102952
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 102953
retarded for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 102954
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 102955
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 102956
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 102957
Code.102958

       Sec. 5111.675.        Sec. 5165.515. The department of job and family 102959
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement as provided 102960
in section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code, rather than 102961
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 102962
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 102963
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 102964
division (C) of section 5111.6735165.513 of the Revised Code. The 102965
department may not enter into the provider agreement unless the 102966
department of health certifies the nursing facility or 102967
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under Title 102968
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 102969
1396, as amendedfor participation in medicaid. The effective date 102970
of the provider agreement shall not precede any of the following:102971

        (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 102972
nursing facility;102973

        (B) The effective date of the change of operator;102974

        (C) The date the requirement of section 5111.675165.51 of 102975
the Revised Code is satisfied.102976

       Sec. 5111.676.        Sec. 5165.516. The medicaid director of job and 102977
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.102978
under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code governing adjustments 102979
to the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for a nursing facility 102980
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that 102981
undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment resulting from 102982
a change of operator shall be effective before the effective date 102983
of the entering operator's provider agreement. This is the case 102984
regardless of whether the provider agreement is entered into under 102985
section 5111.6715165.511, section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant 102986
to section 5111.6755165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the 102987
Revised Code.102988

       Sec. 5111.677.        Sec. 5165.517. Neither of the followingThe 102989
department of health's determination that a change of operator has 102990
or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under Chapter 3721. 102991
of the Revised Code shall not affect the department of job and 102992
family services'medicaid's determination of whether or when a 102993
change of operator occurs or the effective date of an entering 102994
operator's provider agreement under section 5111.6715165.511, 102995
section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant to section 5111.675102996
5165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code:102997

       (A) The department of health's determination that a change of 102998
operator has or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under 102999
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;103000

        (B) The department of developmental disabilities' 103001
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 103002
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 103003
Code.103004

       Sec. 5111.68.        Sec. 5165.52. (A) On receipt of a written notice 103005
under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a facility 103006
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 103007
participation, on receipt of a written notice under section 103008
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 103009
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 103010
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall estimate the amount of 103011
any overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 103012
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 103013
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 103014
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 103015
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 103016
franchise permit fee. 103017

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 103018
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 103019
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 103020
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the medicaid103021
director of job and family services shall establish in rules 103022
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 103023
Revised Code. The methodology shall provide for estimating all of 103024
the following that the department determines are applicable:103025

        (1) Refunds due the department under section 5111.275165.41103026
of the Revised Code;103027

        (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 103028
for medicare and medicaid services;103029

        (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 103030
right of appeal has been exhausted;103031

        (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 103032
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 103033
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 103034
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 103035
medicaid program;103036

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.103037

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 103038
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 103039
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 103040
the notice under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of 103041
the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 103042
withdrawal of participation; the department receives the notice 103043
under section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of the change 103044
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 103045
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 103046
estimate.103047

       Sec. 5111.681.        Sec. 5165.521. (A) Except as provided in divisions 103048
(B), (C), and (D) of this section, the department of job and 103049
family servicesmedicaid may withhold from payment due an exiting 103050
operator under the medicaid program the total amount specified in 103051
the notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52103052
of the Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to 103053
the department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 103054
services under the medicaid program.103055

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 103056
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 103057
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 103058
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 103059
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 103060
(F) of this section:103061

        (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 103062
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 103063
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 103064
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 103065
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 103066
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.103067

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 103068
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 103069
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 103070
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 103071
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 103072
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 103073
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 103074
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 103075
operator assumes liability.103076

        (C) In the case of a voluntary termination, voluntary 103077
withdrawal of participation, or facility closure and subject to 103078
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 103079
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 103080
operator or an affiliated operator executes a successor liability 103081
agreement meeting the requirements of division (F) of this 103082
section:103083

        (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 103084
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 103085
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 103086
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 103087
determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code, 103088
the department shall not make the withholding.103089

        (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 103090
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 103091
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 103092
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 103093
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 103094
notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of 103095
the Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 103096
affiliated operator assumes liability.103097

        (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 103098
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 103099
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 103100
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 103101
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 103102
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 103103
successor liability agreement:103104

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 103105
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 103106
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 103107
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 103108
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 103109
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.103110

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 103111
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 103112
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 103113
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 103114
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 103115
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 103116
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 103117
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 103118
operator assumes liability.103119

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 103120
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 103121
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 103122
must apply:103123

        (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 103124
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 103125
agreement for the nursing facility or intermediate care facility 103126
for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 103127
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 103128
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;103129

        (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 103130
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 103131
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 103132
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, or facility 103133
closure under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code or the 103134
notice of the change of operator under section 5111.675165.51 of 103135
the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment made to the 103136
exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to the exiting 103137
operator's or affiliated operator's one or more provider 103138
agreements, other than the provider agreement for the nursing 103139
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded103140
that is the subject of the involuntary termination, voluntary 103141
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, facility 103142
closure, or change of operator, must equal at least ninety per 103143
cent of the sum of the following:103144

        (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 103145
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 103146
the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 103147
mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 103148
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 103149
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;103150

        (b) Whichever of the following apply:103151

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 103152
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 103153
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 103154
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 103155
successor liability agreements;103156

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 103157
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 103158
zero.103159

        (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 103160
section must comply with all of the following:103161

        (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 103162
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 103163
the following as specified in the agreement:103164

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 103165
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 103166
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 103167
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;103168

        (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 103169
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 103170
exiting operator owes.103171

        (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 103172
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.103173

        (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 103174
under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code the actual 103175
amount of debt the exiting operator owes the department and United 103176
States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 103177
medicaid program, may deduct the lesser of the following from 103178
medicaid payments made to the operator who executes the successor 103179
liability agreement:103180

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 103181
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 103182
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 103183
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;103184

        (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 103185
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 103186
agreement.103187

        (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 103188
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 103189
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 103190
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 103191
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 103192
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 103193
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 103194
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 103195
this state.103196

        (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 103197
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 103198
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 103199
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 103200
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 103201
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 103202
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 103203
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 103204
claims fund.103205

        (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 103206
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 103207
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 103208
division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code. 103209

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 103210
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 103211
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 103212
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 103213
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 103214
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 103215
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 103216
job and family servicesmedicaid for deposit into the appropriate 103217
fund. The additional amount that the operator is required to pay 103218
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 103219
attorney general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the 103220
Revised Code.103221

       Sec. 5111.682.        Sec. 5165.522. (A) Except as provided in division 103222
(B) of this section, an exiting operator shall file with the 103223
department of job and family servicesmedicaid a cost report not 103224
later than ninety days after the last day the exiting operator's 103225
provider agreement is in effect or, in the case of a voluntary 103226
withdrawal of participation, the effective date of the voluntary 103227
withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall cover the 103228
period that begins with the day after the last day covered by the 103229
operator's most recent previous cost report required by section 103230
5111.265165.10 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the 103231
exiting operator's provider agreement is in effect or, in the case 103232
of a voluntary withdrawal of participation, the effective date of 103233
the voluntary withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall 103234
include, as applicable, all of the following:103235

        (1) The sale price of the nursing facility or intermediate 103236
care facility for the mentally retarded;103237

        (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 103238
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 103239
the buyer;103240

        (3) Any other information the department requires.103241

        (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 103242
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 103243
accordance with division (A) of this section.103244

       Sec. 5111.683.        Sec. 5165.523. If an exiting operator required by 103245
section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost 103246
report with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103247
fails to file the cost report in accordance with that section, all 103248
payments under the medicaid program for the period the cost report 103249
is required to cover are deemed overpayments until the date the 103250
department receives the properly completed cost report. The 103251
department may impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one 103252
hundred dollars for each calendar day the properly completed cost 103253
report is late.103254

       Sec. 5111.684.        Sec. 5165.524. The department of job and family 103255
servicesmedicaid may not provide an exiting operator final 103256
payment under the medicaid program until the department receives 103257
all properly completed cost reports the exiting operator is 103258
required to file under sections 5111.265165.10 and 5111.682103259
5165.522 of the Revised Code.103260

       Sec. 5111.685.        Sec. 5165.525. The department of job and family 103261
servicesmedicaid shall determine the actual amount of debt an 103262
exiting operator owes the department and the United States centers 103263
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program by 103264
completing all final fiscal audits not already completed and 103265
performing all other appropriate actions the department determines 103266
to be necessary. The department shall issue an initial debt 103267
summary report on this matter not later than sixty days after the 103268
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost report 103269
required by section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code with the 103270
department or, if the department waives the cost report 103271
requirement for the exiting operator, sixty days after the date 103272
the department waives the cost report requirement. The initial 103273
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 103274
thirty-one days after the department issues the initial debt 103275
summary report unless the exiting operator, or an affiliated 103276
operator who executes a successor liability agreement under 103277
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests a review 103278
before that date.103279

        The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 103280
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 103281
the Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 103282
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 103283
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 103284
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 103285
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 103286
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 103287
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 103288
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5111.681103289
5165.521 of the Revised Code, the department shall issue the 103290
revised debt summary report not later than ninety days after the 103291
date the department receives the timely request for the review 103292
unless the department and exiting operator or affiliated operator 103293
agree to a later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator 103294
may submit information to the department explaining what the 103295
operator contests before and during the review, including 103296
documentation of the amount of any debt the department owes the 103297
operator. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 103298
additional information to the department not later than thirty 103299
days after the department issues the revised debt summary report. 103300
The revised debt summary report becomes the final debt summary 103301
report thirty-one days after the department issues the revised 103302
debt summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated 103303
operator timely submits additional information to the department. 103304
If the exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits 103305
additional information to the department, the department shall 103306
consider the additional information and issue a final debt summary 103307
report not later than sixty days after the department issues the 103308
revised debt summary report unless the department and exiting 103309
operator or affiliated operator agree to a later date.103310

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 103311
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 103312
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 103313
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 103314
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 103315
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.103316

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 103317
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 103318
the Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 103319
the Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final 103320
debt summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged 103321
overpayment made under the medicaid program to the exiting 103322
operator. The adjudication shall be consolidated with any other 103323
uncompleted adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the 103324
final debt summary report.103325

       Sec. 5111.686.        Sec. 5165.526. The department of job and family 103326
servicesmedicaid shall release the actual amount withheld under 103327
division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 103328
less any amount the exiting operator owes the department and 103329
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 103330
medicaid program, as follows:103331

        (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 103332
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 103333
not later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator 103334
files the properly completed cost report required by section 103335
5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code, sixty-one days after the 103336
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost 103337
report;103338

        (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 103339
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 103340
later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a 103341
properly completed cost report required by section 5111.682103342
5165.522 of the Revised Code, not later than the following:103343

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 103344
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 103345
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 103346
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 103347
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 103348
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;103349

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 103350
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 103351
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 103352
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 103353
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 103354
adjudication.103355

        (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 103356
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 103357
not later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 103358
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 103359
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the department waives 103360
the cost report requirement;103361

        (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 103362
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 103363
later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 103364
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 103365
Revised Code, not later than the following:103366

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 103367
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 103368
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 103369
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 103370
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 103371
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;103372

        (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 103373
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 103374
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 103375
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 103376
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 103377
adjudication.103378

       Sec. 5111.687.        Sec. 5165.527. The department of job and family 103379
servicesmedicaid, at its sole discretion, may release the amount 103380
withheld under division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the 103381
Revised Code if the exiting operator submits to the department 103382
written notice of a postponement of a change of operator, facility 103383
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 103384
participation and the transactions leading to the change of 103385
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 103386
withdrawal of participation are postponed for at least thirty days 103387
but less than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 103388
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,103389
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 103390
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67103391
5165.51 of the Revised Code. The department shall release the 103392
amount withheld if the exiting operator submits to the department 103393
written notice of a cancellation or postponement of a change of 103394
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 103395
withdrawal of participation and the transactions leading to the 103396
change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or 103397
voluntary withdrawal of participation are canceled or postponed 103398
for more than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 103399
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,103400
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 103401
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67103402
5165.51 of the Revised Code. A written notice shall be provided to 103403
the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 103404
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 103405
Revised Code.103406

        After the department receives a written notice regarding a 103407
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure, voluntary 103408
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation, the exiting 103409
operator or owner shall provide new written notice to the 103410
department under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code 103411
regarding any transactions leading to a facility closure, 103412
voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation at 103413
a future time. After the department receives a written notice 103414
regarding a cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, 103415
the exiting operator or owner and entering operator shall provide 103416
new written notice to the department under section 5111.675165.51103417
of the Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a change 103418
of operator at a future time.103419

       Sec. 5111.688.        Sec. 5165.528. (A) All amounts withheld under 103420
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an 103421
exiting operator under the medicaid program shall be deposited 103422
into the medicaid payment withholding fund created by the 103423
controlling board pursuant to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. 103424
Money in the fund shall be used as follows:103425

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 103426
to the exiting operator under section 5111.6865165.526 or 103427
5111.6875165.527 of the Revised Code;103428

       (2) To pay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103429
and United States centers for medicare and medicaid services the 103430
amount an exiting operator owes the department and United States 103431
centers under the medicaid program.103432

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 103433
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 103434
into the appropriate department fund.103435

       Sec. 5111.689.        Sec. 5165.53.  The medicaid director of job and 103436
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 103437
the Revised Code to implement sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.689103438
5165.53 of the Revised Code, including rules applicable to an 103439
exiting operator that provides written notification under section 103440
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a voluntary withdrawal of 103441
participation. Rules adopted under this section shall comply with 103442
section 1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 103443
(1965)section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F), regarding 103444
restrictions on transfers or discharges of nursing facility 103445
residents in the case of a voluntary withdrawal of participation. 103446
The rules may prescribe a medicaid reimbursementpayment103447
methodology and other procedures that are applicable after the 103448
effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of participation that 103449
differ from the reimbursementpayment methodology and other 103450
procedures that would otherwise apply. The rules shall specify all 103451
of the following: 103452

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 103453
required by sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.6895165.53 of the 103454
Revised Code are to be provided;103455

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 103456
department of medicaid under sections 5111.6715165.511 and 103457
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code, which shall include, in the 103458
case of such forms and documents provided by entering operators, 103459
all the fully executed leases, management agreements, merger 103460
agreements and supporting documents, and fully executed sales 103461
contracts and any other supporting documents culminating in the 103462
change of operator;103463

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 103464
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.103465

       Sec. 5111.35.        Sec. 5165.60.  As used in this section, "a resident's 103466
rights" means the rights of a nursing facility resident under 103467
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code and subsection (c) 103468
of section 1819 or 1919 of, the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 103469
620 (1935)sections 1819(c) and 1919(c), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 103470
amended1395i-3(c) and 1396r(c), and federal regulations issued 103471
under those subsectionssections of the "Social Security Act."103472

       As used in sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 103473
Revised Code:103474

       (A) "Certification requirements" means the requirements for 103475
nursing facilities established under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 103476
"Social Security Act.," sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 103477
and 1396r.103478

       (B) "Compliance" means substantially meeting all applicable 103479
certification requirements.103480

       (C) "Contracting agency" means a state agency that has 103481
entered into a contract with the department of job and family 103482
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.385165.63 of the Revised 103483
Code.103484

       (D)(1) "Deficiency" means a finding cited by the department 103485
of health during a survey, on the basis of one or more actions, 103486
practices, situations, or incidents occurring at a nursing 103487
facility, that constitutes a severity level three finding, 103488
severity level four finding, scope level three finding, or scope 103489
level four finding. Whenever the finding is a repeat finding, 103490
"deficiency" also includes any finding that is a severity level 103491
two and scope level one finding, a severity level two and scope 103492
level two finding, or a severity level one and scope level two 103493
finding.103494

       (2) "Cluster of deficiencies" means deficiencies that result 103495
from noncompliance with two or more certification requirements and 103496
are causing or resulting from the same action, practice, 103497
situation, or incident.103498

       (E) "Emergency" means either of the following:103499

       (1) A deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates a 103500
condition of immediate jeopardy;103501

       (2) An unexpected situation or sudden occurrence of a serious 103502
or urgent nature that creates a substantial likelihood that one or 103503
more residents of a nursing facility may be seriously harmed if 103504
allowed to remain in the facility, including the following:103505

       (a) A flood or other natural disaster, civil disaster, or 103506
similar event;103507

       (b) A labor strike that suddenly causes the number of staff 103508
members in a nursing facility to be below that necessary for 103509
resident care.103510

       (F) "Finding" means a finding of noncompliance with 103511
certification requirements determined by the department of health 103512
under section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code.103513

       (G) "Immediate jeopardy" means that one or more residents of 103514
a nursing facility are in imminent danger of serious physical or 103515
life-threatening harm.103516

       (H) "Medicaid eligible resident" means a person who is a 103517
resident of a nursing facility, or is applying for admission to a 103518
nursing facility, and is eligible to receive financial assistance103519
for nursing facility services under the medical assistance103520
medicaid program for the care the person receives in such a 103521
facility.103522

       (I) "Noncompliance" means failure to substantially meet all 103523
applicable certification requirements.103524

       (J) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 103525
5111.20 of the Revised Codeincludes a skilled nursing facility to 103526
the extent the context requires.103527

       (K) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 103528
furnishes nursing facility services under a medical assistance 103529
program provider agreement.103530

       (L) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 103531
department of job and family services and a provider for the 103532
provision of nursing facility services under the medicaid program.103533

       (M) "Repeat finding" or "repeat deficiency" means a finding 103534
or deficiency cited pursuant to a survey, to which both of the 103535
following apply:103536

       (1) The finding or deficiency involves noncompliance with the 103537
same certification requirement, and the same kind of actions, 103538
practices, situations, or incidents caused by or resulting from 103539
the noncompliance, as were cited in the immediately preceding 103540
standard survey or another survey conducted subsequent to the 103541
immediately preceding standard survey of the facility. For 103542
purposes of this division, actions, practices, situations, or 103543
incidents may be of the same kind even though they involve 103544
different residents, staff, or parts of the facility.103545

       (2) The finding or deficiency is cited subsequent to a 103546
determination by the department of health that the finding or 103547
deficiency cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, or 103548
another survey conducted subsequent to the immediately preceding 103549
standard survey, had been corrected.103550

       (N)(L)(1) "Scope level one finding" means a finding of 103551
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 103552
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 103553
noncompliance affect one or a very limited number of facility 103554
residents and involve one or a very limited number of facility 103555
staff members.103556

       (2) "Scope level two finding" means a finding of 103557
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 103558
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 103559
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 103560
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 103561
members, but the number or percentage of facility residents 103562
affected or staff members involved and the number or frequency of 103563
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 103564
succession does not establish any reasonable degree of 103565
predictability of similar actions, situations, practices, or 103566
incidents occurring in the future.103567

       (3) "Scope level three finding" means a finding of 103568
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 103569
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 103570
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 103571
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 103572
members, and the number or percentage of facility residents 103573
affected or staff members involved or the number or frequency of 103574
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 103575
succession establishes a reasonable degree of predictability of 103576
similar actions, situations, practices, or incidents occurring in 103577
the future.103578

       (4) "Scope level four finding" means a finding of 103579
noncompliance by a nursing facility causing or resulting from 103580
actions, situations, practices, or incidents that involve a 103581
sufficient number or percentage of facility residents or staff 103582
members or occur with sufficient regularity over time that the 103583
noncompliance can be considered systemic or pervasive in the 103584
facility.103585

       (O)(M)(1) "Severity level one finding" means a finding of 103586
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has not caused and, if 103587
continued, is unlikely to cause physical harm to a facility 103588
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 103589
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 103590
emotional harm to the resident.103591

       (2) "Severity level two finding" means a finding of 103592
noncompliance by a nursing facility that, if continued over time, 103593
will cause, or is likely to cause, physical harm to a facility 103594
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 103595
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 103596
emotional harm to the resident.103597

       (3) "Severity level three finding" means a finding of 103598
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused physical harm 103599
to a facility resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or 103600
a violation of a resident's rights that results in physical, 103601
mental, or emotional harm to the resident.103602

       (4) "Severity level four finding" means a finding of 103603
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused 103604
life-threatening harm to a facility resident or caused a 103605
resident's death.103606

       (P)(N) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 103607
of the Revised Code.103608

       (Q)(O) "Substandard care" means care furnished in a facility 103609
in which the department of health has cited a deficiency or 103610
deficiencies that constitute one of the following:103611

       (1) A severity level four finding, regardless of scope;103612

       (2) A severity level three and scope level four finding, in 103613
the quality of care provided to residents;103614

       (3) A severity level three and scope level three finding, in 103615
the quality of care provided to residents.103616

       (R)(P)(1) "Survey" means a survey of a nursing facility 103617
conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the Revised Code.103618

       (2) "Standard survey" means a survey conducted by the 103619
department of health under division (A) of section 5111.395165.64103620
of the Revised Code and includes an extended survey.103621

       (3) "Follow-up survey" means a survey conducted by the 103622
department of health to determine whether a nursing facility has 103623
substantially corrected deficiencies cited in a previous survey.103624

       Sec. 5111.36.        Sec. 5165.61.  The medicaid director of job and 103625
family services may adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 5165.02103626
of the Revised Code that are consistent with regulations, 103627
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 103628
of health and human services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 103629
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)sections 1819 and 1919, 103630
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 1396r, and necessary for 103631
administration and enforcement of sections 5111.355165.60 to 103632
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the secretary does not 103633
issue appropriate regulations for enforcement of those sections 103634
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act" on or before December 103635
13, 1990, the medicaid director of job and family services may 103636
adopt, under Chapter 119.section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, 103637
rules that are consistent with those sections and with sections 103638
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.103639

       Sec. 5111.37.        Sec. 5165.62.  The department of job and family 103640
servicesmedicaid is hereby authorized to enforce sections 103641
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. The 103642
department may enforce the sections directly or through 103643
contracting agencies. The department and agencies shall enforce 103644
the sections in accordance with the requirements of sections 1819 103645
and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)103646
sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 103647
1396r, that apply to nursing facilities; with regulations, 103648
guidelines, and procedures adopted by the United States secretary 103649
of health and human services for the enforcement of those sections 103650
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act"; and with the rules 103651
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.365165.61 of the Revised 103652
Code. The department and agencies shall enforce sections 5111.35103653
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code for purposes of the 103654
medicare program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," only 103655
to the extent prescribed by the regulations, guidelines, and 103656
procedures issued by the secretary under section 1819 of that act103657
the "Social Security Act," section 1819, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3.103658

       Sec. 5111.38.        Sec. 5165.63.  The department of job and family 103659
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with other state 103660
agencies pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code that 103661
authorize the agencies to perform all or part of the duties 103662
assigned to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103663
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 103664
Code. Each contract shall specify the duties the agency is 103665
authorized to perform and the sections of the Revised Code under 103666
which the agency is authorized to perform those duties.103667

       Sec. 5111.39.        Sec. 5165.64.  (A) The department of health shall 103668
conduct a survey, titled a standard survey, of every nursing 103669
facility in this state on a statewide average of not more than 103670
once every twelve months. Each nursing facility shall undergo a 103671
standard survey at least once every fifteen months as a condition 103672
of meeting certification requirements. The department may extend a 103673
standard survey; such a survey is titled an extended survey.103674

       (B) The department may conduct surveys in addition to 103675
standard surveys when it considers them necessary.103676

       (C) The department shall conduct surveys in accordance with 103677
the regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued by the United 103678
States secretary of health and human services under TitlesTitle103679
XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 103680
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, sections 5111.405165.65 to 103681
5111.425165.68 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under 103682
section 3721.022 of the Revised Code.103683

       Sec. 5111.40.        Sec. 5165.65.  (A) At the conclusion of each survey, 103684
the department of health survey team shall conduct an exit 103685
interview with the administrator or other person in charge of the 103686
nursing facility and any other facility staff members designated 103687
by the administrator or person in charge of the facility. During 103688
the exit interview, at the request of the administrator or other 103689
person in charge of the facility, the survey team shall provide 103690
one of the following, as selected by the survey team:103691

       (1) Copies of all survey notes and any other written 103692
materials created during the survey;103693

       (2) A written summary of the survey team's recommendations 103694
regarding findings of noncompliance with certification 103695
requirements;103696

       (3) An audio or audiovisual recording of the interview. If 103697
the survey team selects this option, at least two copies of the 103698
recording shall be made and the survey team shall select one copy 103699
to be kept by the survey team for use by the department of health.103700

       (B) All expenses of copying under division (A)(1) of this 103701
section or recording under division (A)(3) of this section, 103702
including the cost of the copy of the recording kept by the survey 103703
team, shall be paid by the facility.103704

       Sec. 5111.41.        Sec. 5165.66.  (A) Except as provided in section 103705
3721.17 of the Revised Code, a finding shall be cited only on the 103706
basis of a survey and a determination that one or more actions, 103707
practices, situations, or incidents at a nursing facility caused 103708
or resulted from the facility's failure to comply with one or more 103709
certification requirements. The department of health shall 103710
determine whether the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 103711
can be justified by either of the following:103712

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 103713
from a resident exercising the resident's rights guaranteed under 103714
the laws of the United States or of this state;103715

       (2) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 103716
from a facility following the orders of a person licensed under 103717
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine or surgery 103718
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.103719

       (B) If the department of health determines both that the 103720
actions, practices, situations, or incidents cannot be justified 103721
by the factors identified in division (A) of this section and that 103722
one or more of the following are applicable, the department shall 103723
declare that the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 103724
constitute a finding:103725

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents could 103726
have been prevented by one or more persons involved in the 103727
facility's operation;103728

       (2) No person involved in the facility's operation identified 103729
the actions, practices, situations, or incidents prior to the 103730
survey;103731

       (3) Prior to the survey, no person involved in the facility's 103732
operation initiated action to correct the noncompliance caused by 103733
or resulting in the actions, practices, situations, or incidents;103734

       (4) The facility does not have in effect, if needed, a 103735
contingency plan that is reasonably calculated to prevent 103736
physical, mental, or emotional harm to residents while permanent 103737
corrective action is being taken.103738

       (C) The department of health shall determine the severity 103739
level and scope level of each finding.103740

       (D) A deficiency that is substantially corrected within the 103741
time limits specified in sections 5111.525165.79 to 103742
5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code and for which no remedy is 103743
imposed, shall be counted as a deficiency for the purpose of 103744
determining whether a deficiency is a repeat deficiency.103745

       (E) Whenever the department of health determines that during 103746
the period between two surveys a finding existed at the facility, 103747
but the facility substantially corrected it prior to the second 103748
survey, the department shall cite it. However, the department of 103749
job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall 103750
impose a remedy only as provided in division (C) of section 103751
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code.103752

       (F) Immediately upon determining the severity and scope of a 103753
finding at a nursing facility, the department of health shall 103754
notify the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any 103755
contracting agency of the finding, the severity and scope of the 103756
finding, and whether the finding creates immediate jeopardy. 103757
Immediately upon determining that an emergency exists at a 103758
facility that does not result from a deficiency that creates 103759
immediate jeopardy, the department of health shall notify the 103760
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any contracting 103761
agency.103762

       Sec. 5111.411.        Sec. 5165.67.  The results of a survey of a nursing 103763
facility that is conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the 103764
Revised Code, including any statement of deficiencies and all 103765
findings and deficiencies cited in the statement on the basis of 103766
the survey, shall be used solely to determine the nursing 103767
facility's compliance with certification requirements or with this 103768
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code. Those results of a 103769
survey, that statement of deficiencies, and the findings and 103770
deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be used in any 103771
court or in any action or proceeding that is pending in any court 103772
and are not admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding 103773
unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an administrative 103774
action by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 103775
contracting agency under this chapter or is an action by any 103776
department or agency of the state to enforce this chapter or 103777
another chapter of the Revised Code.103778

       Nothing in this section prohibits the results of a survey, a 103779
statement of deficiencies, or the findings and deficiencies cited 103780
in that statement on the basis of the survey under this section 103781
from being used in a criminal investigation or prosecution.103782

       Sec. 5111.42.        Sec. 5165.68.  (A) Not later than ten days after an 103783
exit interview, the department of health shall deliver to the 103784
nursing facility a detailed statement, titled a statement of 103785
deficiencies, setting forth all findings and deficiencies cited on 103786
the basis of the survey, including any finding cited pursuant to 103787
division (E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code. The 103788
statement shall indicate the severity and scope level of each 103789
finding and fully describe the incidents or other facts that form 103790
the basis of the department's determination of the existence of 103791
each finding and deficiency. A failure by the survey team to 103792
completely disclose in the exit interview every finding that may 103793
result from the survey does not affect the validity of any finding 103794
or deficiency cited in the statement of deficiencies. On request 103795
of the facility, the department shall provide a copy of any 103796
written worksheet or other document produced by the survey team in 103797
making recommendations regarding scope and severity levels of 103798
findings and deficiencies.103799

       (B) At the same time the department of health delivers a 103800
statement of deficiencies, it also shall deliver to the facility a 103801
separate written notice that states all of the following:103802

       (1) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103803
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.57103804
5165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid 103805
eligible residents admitted on and after the effective date of the 103806
order if the facility does not substantially correct, within 103807
ninety days after the exit interview, the deficiency or 103808
deficiencies cited in the statement of deficiencies in accordance 103809
with the plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.43103810
5165.69 of the Revised Code;103811

       (2) If a condition of substandard care has been cited on the 103812
basis of a standard survey and a condition of substandard care was 103813
also cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, that the 103814
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 103815
agency will issue an order under section 5111.575165.84 of the 103816
Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid eligible residents 103817
admitted on and after the effective date of the order if a 103818
condition of substandard care is cited on the basis of the next 103819
standard survey;103820

       (3) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103821
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.58103822
5165.88 of the Revised Code terminating the facility's 103823
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program if either 103824
of the following applies:103825

       (a) The facility does not substantially correct the 103826
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 103827
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 103828
Revised Code within six months after the exit interview.103829

       (b) The facility substantially corrects the deficiency or 103830
deficiencies within the six-month period, but after correcting it, 103831
the department of health, based on a follow-up survey conducted 103832
during the remainder of the six-month period, determines that the 103833
facility has failed to maintain compliance with certification 103834
requirements.103835

       Sec. 5111.43.        Sec. 5165.69. (A) Whenever a nursing facility 103836
receives a statement of deficiencies under section 5111.425165.68103837
of the Revised Code, the facility shall submit to the department 103838
of health for its approval a plan of correction for each finding 103839
cited in the statement. The plan shall describeinclude all of the 103840
following:103841

       (1) Detailed descriptions of the actions the facility will 103842
take to correct each finding and specify the, including actions 103843
the facility will take to protect residents situated similarly to 103844
the residents affected by the causes of the findings;103845

       (2) The date by which each finding will be corrected. In the 103846
case of;103847

       (3) A detailed description of an ongoing monitoring and 103848
improvement process to be used at the facility that is focused on 103849
preventing any recurrence of the causes of the findings;103850

       (4) If the plan concerns a finding assigned a severity level 103851
indicating that a resident was harmed or immediate jeopardy 103852
exists, all of the following:103853

       (a) Detailed analyses of the facts and circumstances of the 103854
finding, including identification of its root cause;103855

       (b) A detailed explanation of how the corrective actions 103856
described pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section relate to 103857
the root cause of the finding identified pursuant to division 103858
(A)(4)(a) of this section;103859

       (c) A detailed explanation of the relationship between the 103860
ongoing monitoring and improvement process described pursuant to 103861
division (A)(3) of this section and the root cause of the finding 103862
identified pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section.103863

       (5) If the plan concerns a finding cited pursuant to division 103864
(E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code, the plan shall 103865
describea description of the actions the facility took to correct 103866
the finding and the date on which it was corrected.103867

       (B)(1) The department shall approve any plan, and any 103868
modification of an existing plan a nursing facility submits to the 103869
department, that conformsdoes both of the following:103870

       (a) Conforms to the requirements for approval of plans of 103871
corrections, and modifications, established in the regulations, 103872
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 103873
of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title103874
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 103875
301, as amended;103876

       (b) Includes all the information required by division (A) of 103877
this section. The department also shall approve any modification 103878
of an existing plan submitted by a facility, if the plan as 103879
modified conforms to those regulations, guidelines, and 103880
procedures. The103881

       (2) The department shall consult with the department of 103882
medicaid, department of aging, and office of the state long-term 103883
care ombudsman program when determining whether a plan, or 103884
modification of an existing plan, to which division (A)(4) of this 103885
section applies conforms to the requirements for approval. The103886
department shall not reject a facility's plan of correction or 103887
modification on the ground that the facility disputes the finding, 103888
if the plan or modification is reasonably calculated to correct 103889
the finding.103890

       (C) A facility that complies with this section shall not be 103891
considered to have admitted the existence of a finding cited by 103892
the department.103893

       Sec. 5111.44.        Sec. 5165.70.  The department of health may appoint 103894
employees of the department to conduct on-site monitoring of a 103895
nursing facility whenever a finding is cited, including any 103896
finding cited pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.415165.66103897
of the Revised Code, or an emergency is found to exist. 103898
Appointment of monitors under this section is not subject to 103899
appeal under section 5111.605165.87 or any other section of the 103900
Revised Code. No employee of a facility for which monitors are 103901
appointed, no person employed by the facility within the previous 103902
two years, and no person who currently has a consulting or other 103903
contract with the department or the facility, shall be appointed 103904
as a monitor under this section. Every monitor appointed under 103905
this section shall have the professional qualifications necessary 103906
to monitor correction of the finding or elimination of the 103907
emergency.103908

       Sec. 5111.45.        Sec. 5165.71.  (A) If the department of health cites 103909
a deficiency or deficiencies that was not substantially corrected 103910
before a survey and that does not constitute a severity level four 103911
finding or create immediate jeopardy, the department of job and 103912
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall permit the 103913
nursing facility to continue participating in the medical 103914
assistancemedicaid program for up to six months after the exit 103915
interview, if all of the following apply:103916

       (1) The facility meets the requirements, established in 103917
regulations issued by the United States secretary of health and 103918
human services under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 103919
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for certification 103920
of nursing facilities that have a deficiency.103921

       (2) The department of health has approved a plan of 103922
correction submitted by the facility under section 5111.435165.69103923
of the Revised Code for each deficiency.103924

       (3) The provider agrees to repay the department of job and 103925
family servicesmedicaid, in accordance with section 5111.58103926
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the federal share of all payments 103927
made by the department to the facility during the six-month period 103928
following the exit interview if the facility does not within the 103929
six-month period substantially correct the deficiency or 103930
deficiencies in accordance with the plan of correction submitted 103931
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103932

       (B) If any of the conditions in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of 103933
this section do not apply, the department of job and family 103934
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall issue an order 103935
terminating the facility's participation in the medical assistance103936
medicaid program. An order issued under this division is subject 103937
to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The order shall 103938
not take effect prior to the later of the thirtieth day after it 103939
is delivered to the facility or, if the order is appealed, the 103940
date on which a final adjudication order upholding the termination 103941
becomes effective pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.103942

       (C) At the time the department of job and family services103943
medicaid or contracting agency issues an order under division (B) 103944
of this section terminating a nursing facility's participation in 103945
the medical assistancemedicaid program, it may also impose, 103946
subject to section 5111.505165.76 of the Revised Code, other 103947
remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 of the 103948
Revised Code.103949

       Sec. 5111.46.        Sec. 5165.72.  (A) If the department of health cites 103950
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 103951
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 103952
level four finding, the department of job and family services103953
medicaid or contracting agency shall, subject to sections 5111.52103954
5165.79 to 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose a remedy 103955
for the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The department or 103956
agency may act under either division (A)(1) or (2) of this 103957
section:103958

       (1) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 103959
following remedies:103960

       (a) Issue an order terminating the nursing facility's 103961
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program.103962

       (b) Do either of the following:103963

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 103964
temporary manager of the facility.103965

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103966
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 103967
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 103968
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 103969
appointment as the court considers necessary.103970

       (c) Do either of the following:103971

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103972
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 103973
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;103974

       (ii) Impose a fine.103975

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103976
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103977
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103978
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103979
department or agency.103980

       (2) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 103981
following remedies:103982

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 103983
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;103984

       (b) Do either of the following:103985

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 103986
temporary manager of the facility;103987

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103988
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 103989
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 103990
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 103991
appointment as the court considers necessary.103992

       (c) Do either of the following:103993

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103994
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 103995
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;103996

       (ii) Impose a fine.103997

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103998
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103999
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 104000
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 104001
department or agency;104002

       (e) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 104003
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 104004
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 104005
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104006

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104007
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 104008
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 104009
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 104010
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 104011
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 104012
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 104013
receives the order, that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104014
for which the order was issued has been substantially corrected, 104015
the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey to 104016
determine whether the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has 104017
been substantially corrected. The order shall take effect and the 104018
facility's participation shall terminate on the twentieth day 104019
after the exit interview, unless the facility has substantially 104020
corrected the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 104021
constituted a severity level four finding or did not receive 104022
notice from the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104023
contracting agency within five days after the exit interview. In 104024
the latter case, the order shall take effect and the facility's 104025
participation shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the 104026
facility received the order.104027

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency or cluster 104028
of deficiencies pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.41104029
5165.66 of the Revised Code that constituted a severity level four 104030
finding, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 104031
contracting agency shall, subject to section 5111.565165.83 of 104032
the Revised Code, impose a fine. The fine shall be in effect for a 104033
period equal to the number of days the deficiency or cluster of 104034
deficiencies existed at the facility.104035

       Sec. 5111.47.        Sec. 5165.73.  If the department of health cites a 104036
deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially 104037
corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity level three 104038
and scope level three or four finding, the department of job and 104039
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 104040
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 104041
impose one or more of the following remedies:104042

       (A) Do either of the following:104043

       (1) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104044
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 104045
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;104046

       (2) Impose a fine.104047

       (B) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104048
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 104049
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 104050
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 104051
department or agency;104052

       (C) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 104053
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 104054
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 104055
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104056

       Sec. 5111.48.        Sec. 5165.74.  (A) If the department of health cites 104057
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 104058
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 104059
level three and scope level two finding, the department of job and 104060
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 104061
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 104062
impose one or more of the following remedies:104063

       (1) Do either of the following:104064

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104065
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 104066
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;104067

       (b) Impose a fine.104068

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104069
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 104070
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 104071
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 104072
department or agency;104073

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 104074
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 104075
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 104076
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104077

       (B) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 104078
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 104079
before a survey and constitutes a severity level three and scope 104080
level one finding, the department of job and family services104081
medicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 5111.55104082
5165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose one or 104083
more of the following remedies:104084

       (1) Impose a fine;104085

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104086
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 104087
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 104088
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 104089
department or agency;104090

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 104091
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 104092
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 104093
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104094

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 104095
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 104096
before a survey and constitutes a severity level two and a scope 104097
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 104098
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 104099
5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose 104100
one or more of the following remedies:104101

       (1) Impose a fine;104102

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104103
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 104104
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 104105
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 104106
department or agency;104107

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 104108
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 104109
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 104110
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104111

       (D) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 104112
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 104113
before a survey, constitutes a severity level two and scope level 104114
one or two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job 104115
and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 104116
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 104117
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 104118
facility and approved by the department of health under section 104119
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104120

       (E) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 104121
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 104122
before a survey and constitutes a severity level one and scope 104123
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 104124
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an order 104125
requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster of 104126
deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 104127
facility and approved by the department of health under section 104128
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104129

       (F) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 104130
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 104131
before a survey, constitutes a severity level one and scope level 104132
two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job and 104133
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 104134
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 104135
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 104136
facility and approved by the department of health under section 104137
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.104138

       Sec. 5111.49.        Sec. 5165.75.  (A) In determining which remedies to 104139
impose under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.48104140
5165.74 of the Revised Code, including whether a fine should be 104141
imposed, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 104142
contracting agency shall do both of the following:104143

       (1) Impose the remedies that are most likely to achieve 104144
correction of deficiencies, encourage sustained compliance with 104145
certification requirements, and protect the health, safety, and 104146
rights of facility residents, but that are not directed at 104147
punishment of the facility;104148

       (2) Consider all of the following:104149

       (a) The presence or absence of immediate jeopardy;104150

       (b) The relationships of groups of deficiencies to each 104151
other;104152

       (c) The facility's history of compliance with certification 104153
requirements generally and in the specific area of the deficiency 104154
or deficiencies;104155

       (d) Whether the deficiency or deficiencies are directly 104156
related to resident care;104157

       (e) The corrective, long-term compliance, resident 104158
protective, and nonpunitive outcomes sought by the department or 104159
agency;104160

       (f) The nature, scope, and duration of the noncompliance with 104161
certification requirements;104162

       (g) The existence of repeat deficiencies;104163

       (h) The category of certification requirements with which the 104164
facility is out of compliance;104165

       (i) Any period of noncompliance with certification 104166
requirements that occurred between two certifications by the 104167
department of health that the facility was in compliance with 104168
certification requirements;104169

       (j) The facility's degree of culpability;104170

       (k) The accuracy, extent, and availability of facility 104171
records;104172

       (l) The facility's financial condition, exclusive of any 104173
moneys donated to a facility that is an organization described in 104174
subsection 501(c)(3) and is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of 104175
the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 104176
1;104177

       (m) Any adverse effect that the action or fine would have on 104178
the health and safety of facility residents;104179

       (n) If the noncompliance that resulted in the citation of a 104180
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies existed before a change in 104181
ownership of the facility, whether the new owner or owners have 104182
had sufficient time to correct the noncompliance.104183

       (B) Whenever the department or agency imposes remedies under 104184
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104185
the Revised Code, it shall provide a written statement to the 104186
nursing facility that specifies all of the following:104187

       (1) The effective date of each remedy;104188

       (2) The deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which each 104189
remedy is imposed;104190

       (3) The severity and scope of the deficiency or cluster of 104191
deficiencies;104192

       (4) The rationale, including all applicable factors specified 104193
in division (A) of this section, for imposing the remedies.104194

       Sec. 5111.50.        Sec. 5165.76.  At the time the department of job and 104195
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency, under section 104196
5111.455165.71, 5111.465165.72, or 5111.515165.77 of the 104197
Revised Code, issues an order terminating a nursing facility's 104198
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 104199
department or agency may also impose a fine, in accordance with 104200
sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 and 5111.565165.83 of 104201
the Revised Code, to be collected in the event the termination 104202
order does not take effect. The department or agency shall not 104203
collect this fine if the termination order takes effect.104204

       Sec. 5111.51.        Sec. 5165.77.  (A) If the department of health finds 104205
during a survey that an emergency exists at a nursing facility, as 104206
the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates 104207
immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family services104208
medicaid or a contracting agency shall impose one or more of the 104209
remedies described in division (A)(1) of this section and, in 104210
addition, may take one or both of the actions described in 104211
division (A)(2) of this section.104212

       (1) The department or agency shall impose one or more of the 104213
following remedies:104214

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 104215
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;104216

       (b) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 104217
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 104218
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 104219
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 104220
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 104221
settings, or otherwise eliminate the condition of immediate 104222
jeopardy. If the court grants such an order, injunction, or 104223
relief, it may appoint a special master empowered to implement the 104224
court's judgment under the court's direct supervision.104225

       (c) Issue an order terminating the facility's participation 104226
in the medical assistancemedicaid program;104227

       (d) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 104228
temporary manager of the facility.104229

       (2) The department or agency may do one or both of the 104230
following:104231

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 104232
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 104233
effective date of the order;104234

       (b) Impose remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.48104235
5165.74 of the Revised Code appropriate to the severity and scope 104236
of the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, except that the 104237
department or agency shall not impose a fine for the same 104238
deficiency for which the department or agency has issued an order 104239
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.104240

       (B) If the department of health, department of job and family 104241
servicesmedicaid, or a contracting agency finds on the basis of a 104242
survey or other visit to the facility by representatives of that 104243
department or agency that an emergency exists at a facility that 104244
is not the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 104245
constitutes immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family 104246
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may do either of the 104247
following:104248

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 104249
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;104250

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 104251
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 104252
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 104253
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 104254
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 104255
settings, or otherwise eliminate the emergency. If the court 104256
grants such an order, injunction, or relief, it may appoint a 104257
special master empowered to implement the court's judgment under 104258
the court's direct supervision.104259

       (C)(1) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 104260
(2), or (B)(2) of this section, the department of job and family 104261
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall give written notice 104262
to the facility specifying all of the following:104263

       (a) The nature of the emergency, including the nature of any 104264
deficiency or deficiencies that caused the emergency;104265

       (b) The nature of the action the department or agency intends 104266
to take unless the department of health determines that the 104267
facility, in the absence of state intervention, possesses the 104268
capacity to eliminate the emergency;104269

       (c) The rationale for taking the action.104270

       (2) If the department of health determines that the facility 104271
does not possess the capacity to eliminate the emergency in the 104272
absence of state intervention, the department of job and family 104273
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may immediately take 104274
action under division (A) or (B) of this section. If the 104275
department of health determines that the facility possesses the 104276
capacity to eliminate the emergency, the department of job and 104277
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall direct the 104278
facility to eliminate the emergency within five days after the 104279
facility's receipt of the notice. At the end of the five-day 104280
period, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey 104281
that focuses on the emergency. If the department of health 104282
determines that the facility has eliminated the emergency within 104283
the time period, the department of job and family services104284
medicaid or contracting agency shall not act under division 104285
(A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2)(a), or (B)(2) of this section. If the 104286
department of health determines that the facility has failed to 104287
eliminate the emergency within the five-day period, the department 104288
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 104289
take appropriate action under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 104290
(2), or (B)(2) of this section.104291

       (3) Until the written notice required by division (C)(1) of 104292
this section is actually delivered, no action taken by the 104293
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104294
agency under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2), or (B)(2) of 104295
this section shall have any legal effect. In addition to the 104296
written notice, the department of health survey team shall give 104297
oral notice to the facility, at the time of the survey, concerning 104298
any recommendations the survey team intends to make that could 104299
form the basis of a determination that an emergency exists.104300

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104301
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 104302
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 104303
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 104304
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 104305
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 104306
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 104307
receives the order, that the condition of immediate jeopardy for 104308
which the order was issued has been eliminated, the department of 104309
health shall conduct a follow-up survey to determine whether the 104310
immediate jeopardy has been eliminated. The order shall take 104311
effect and the facility's participation shall terminate on the 104312
twentieth day after the exit interview, unless the facility has 104313
eliminated the immediate jeopardy or did not receive notice from 104314
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104315
agency within five days after the exit interview. In the latter 104316
case, the order shall take effect and the facility's participation 104317
shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the facility received 104318
the order.104319

       (E) Any action taken by the department of job and family 104320
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency under division 104321
(A)(1)(c), (d), or (2)(a) of this section is subject to appeal 104322
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that the department 104323
or agency may take such action prior to and during the pendency of 104324
any proceeding under that chapter. No action taken by a facility 104325
under division (C) of this section to eliminate an emergency cited 104326
by the department of health shall be considered an admission by 104327
the facility of the existence of an emergency.104328

       Sec. 5165.771.  (A) As used in this section:104329

       "SFF list" means the list of nursing facilities that the 104330
United States department of health and human services creates 104331
under the special focus facility program. 104332

       "Special focus facility program" means the program conducted 104333
by the United States secretary of health and human services 104334
pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 104335
U.S.C. 1396r(f)(10).104336

       "Table A" means the table included in the SFF list that 104337
identifies nursing facilities that are newly added to the SFF 104338
list.104339

       "Table B" means the table included in the SFF list that 104340
identifies nursing facilities that have not improved.104341

       "Table C" means the table included in the SFF list that 104342
identifies nursing facilities that have shown improvement.104343

       "Table D" means the table included in the SFF list that 104344
identifies nursing facilities that have recently graduated from 104345
the special focus facility program.104346

       (B) The department of medicaid shall issue an order 104347
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medicaid 104348
program if any of the following apply:104349

       (1) The nursing facility is listed in table A or table B on 104350
the effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table 104351
C not later than twelve months after the effective date of this 104352
section;104353

       (2) The nursing facility is listed in table A, table B, or 104354
table C on the effective date of this section and fails to be 104355
placed in table D not later than twenty-four months after the 104356
effective date of this section;104357

       (3) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 104358
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table C 104359
not later than twelve months after the nursing facility is placed 104360
in table A;104361

       (4) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 104362
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table D 104363
not later than twenty-four months after the nursing facility is 104364
placed in table A.104365

       (C) An order issued under this section is not subject to 104366
appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.104367

       (D) To help a nursing facility avoid having its participation 104368
in the medicaid program terminated pursuant to division (B) of 104369
this section, the department of aging shall provide the nursing 104370
facility technical assistance through the nursing home quality 104371
initiative established under section 173.60 of the Revised Code at 104372
least four months before the department of medicaid would be 104373
required to terminate the nursing facility's participation.104374

       Sec. 5111.511.        Sec. 5165.78.  (A) If the department of job and 104375
family servicesmedicaid determines that a nursing facility is 104376
experiencing or is likely to experience a serious financial loss 104377
or failure that jeopardizes or is likely to jeopardize the health, 104378
safety, and welfare of its residents, the department, subject to 104379
the provider's consent, may appoint a temporary resident safety 104380
assurance manager in the nursing facility to take actions the 104381
department determines are appropriate to ensure the health, 104382
safety, and welfare of the residents.104383

       (B) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 104384
under this section is vested with the authority necessary to take 104385
actions the department of job and family servicesmedicaid104386
determines are appropriate to ensure the health, safety, and 104387
welfare of the residents.104388

       (C) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 104389
under this section may use any of the following funds to pay for 104390
costs the manager incurs on behalf of the nursing facility:104391

       (1) Medicaid payments made in accordance with the provider 104392
agreement for the nursing facility;104393

       (2) Funds from the residents protection fund that the 104394
department provides the manager under section 5111.625162.66 of 104395
the Revised Code;104396

       (3) Other funds the department determines are appropriate if 104397
such use of the funds is consistent with the appropriations that 104398
authorize the use of the funds and all other state and federal 104399
laws governing the use of the funds.104400

       (D) The provider is liable to the department for the amount 104401
of any payments the department makes to the temporary resident 104402
safety assurance manager, other than payments specified in 104403
division (C)(1) of this section. The department may recover the 104404
amount the provider owes the department by doing any of the 104405
following:104406

       (1) Offsetting medicaid payments made to the provider in 104407
accordance with the provider agreement;104408

       (2) Placing a lien on any of the provider's real and personal 104409
property;104410

       (3) Initiating other collection actions.104411

       (E) No action the department takes under this section is 104412
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.104413

       (F) In rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.36104414
5165.61 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job and 104415
family services may establish all of the following:104416

       (1) Qualifications persons must meet to be appointed 104417
temporary resident safety assurance managers under this section;104418

       (2) Procedures for maintaining a list of qualified temporary 104419
resident safety assurance managers;104420

       (3) Procedures consistent with federal law for paying for the 104421
services of temporary resident safety assurance managers;104422

       (4) Accounting and reporting requirements for temporary 104423
resident safety assurance managers;104424

       (5) Other procedures and requirements the director determines 104425
are necessary to implement this section.104426

       Sec. 5111.52.        Sec. 5165.79.  (A) As used in this section, 104427
"terminating" includes not renewing.104428

       (B) A nursing facility's participation in the medical 104429
assistancemedicaid program shall be terminated under sections 104430
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code as 104431
follows:104432

       (1) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 104433
terminating the facility's participation, it shall issue an order 104434
terminating the facility's provider agreement.104435

       (2) If the department of health, acting as a contracting 104436
agency, is terminating the facility's participation, it shall 104437
issue an order terminating certification of the facility's 104438
compliance with certification requirements. When the department of 104439
health terminates certification, the department of job and family 104440
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the facility's provider 104441
agreement. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 104442
not required to provide an adjudication hearing when it terminates 104443
a provider agreement following termination of certification by the 104444
department of health.104445

       (3) If a state agency other than the department of health, 104446
acting as a contracting agency, is terminating the facility's 104447
participation, it shall notify the department of job and family 104448
servicesmedicaid, and the department of job and family services104449
medicaid shall issue an order terminating the facility's provider 104450
agreement. The contracting agency shall conduct any administrative 104451
proceedings concerning the order.104452

       (C) If the following conditions are met, the department of 104453
job and family servicesmedicaid may make medical assistance104454
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for a period not exceeding 104455
thirty days after the effective date of termination under sections 104456
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code of the 104457
facility's participation in the medical assistancemedicaid104458
program:104459

       (1) The payments are for medicaid eligible residents admitted 104460
to the facility prior to the effective date of the termination;104461

       (2) The provider is making reasonable efforts to transfer 104462
medicaid eligible residents to other care settings.104463

       The period during which payments may be made under this 104464
division begins on the later of the effective date of the 104465
termination or, if the facility has appealed a termination order, 104466
the date of issuance of the adjudication order upholding 104467
termination.104468

       Sec. 5111.53.        Sec. 5165.80.  (A) Whenever a nursing facility is 104469
closed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 104470
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid104471
or contracting agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly 104472
transfer of all residents, including residents who are not 104473
medicaid eligible residents, to other appropriate care settings. 104474
Whenever a nursing facility's participation in the medical 104475
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under sections 5111.35104476
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department or 104477
agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly transfer of all 104478
medicaid eligible residents or, if the termination results in the 104479
closure of the facility, of all residents. The provider and all 104480
persons involved in the facility's operation shall cooperate with 104481
and assist in the transfer of residents.104482

       (B) After a nursing facility's participation in the medical 104483
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under section 5111.45104484
5165.71, 5111.465165.72, 5111.515165.77, 5165.771, or 5111.58104485
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 104486
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may appoint a temporary 104487
manager subject to the continuing consent of the provider, or may 104488
apply to the common pleas court of the county in which the 104489
facility is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary for 104490
the appointment of a special master, to ensure the transfer of 104491
medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care settings 104492
and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility.104493

       Sec. 5111.54.        Sec. 5165.81.  (A) A temporary manager of a nursing 104494
facility appointed by the department of job and family services104495
medicaid or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60 to 104496
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall meet all of the 104497
following qualifications:104498

       (1) Be licensed as a nursing home administrator under Chapter 104499
4751. of the Revised Code;104500

       (2) Have demonstrated competence as a nursing home 104501
administrator;104502

       (3) Have had no disciplinary action taken against the 104503
temporary manager by any licensing board or professional society 104504
in this state.104505

       (B) The salary of a temporary manager or special master 104506
appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 104507
Revised Code shall be paid by the facility and set by the 104508
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104509
agency, in the case of a temporary manager, or by the court, in 104510
the case of a special master, at a rate not to exceed the maximum 104511
allowable compensation for an administrator under the medical 104512
assistancemedicaid program. The extent to which this compensation 104513
is allowable under the medical assistancemedicaid program is 104514
subject to and limited by this chapter and rules of the department104515
adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code.104516

       Subject to division (C) of this section, any costs incurred 104517
on behalf of a nursing facility by a temporary manager or special 104518
master appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89104519
of the Revised Code shall be paid by the facility. The 104520
allowability of these costs under the medical assistancemedicaid104521
program shall be subject to and governed by this chapter and the104522
rules of the departmentadopted under section 5165.02 of the 104523
Revised Code. This division does not prohibit a facility from 104524
applying for or receiving any waiver of cost ceilings available 104525
under the rules of the department.104526

       (C) No temporary manager or special master appointed under 104527
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code 104528
shall enter into any employment contract on behalf of a facility, 104529
or purchase any capital goods using facility funds totaling more 104530
than ten thousand dollars, unless the temporary manager or special 104531
master has obtained prior approval for the contract or purchase 104532
from either the provider or the court.104533

       (D)(1) A temporary manager appointed for a nursing facility 104534
under section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code is hereby 104535
vested, subject to division (C) of this section, with the legal 104536
authority necessary to correct any deficiency or cluster of 104537
deficiencies at a facility, bring the facility into compliance 104538
with certification requirements, and otherwise ensure the health 104539
and safety of the residents.104540

       (2) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.51104541
5165.77 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 104542
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to eliminate the 104543
emergency, bring the facility into compliance with certification 104544
requirements, and otherwise ensure the health and safety of the 104545
residents.104546

       (3) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.53104547
5165.80 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 104548
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to ensure the 104549
transfer of medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care 104550
settings and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility, 104551
and to otherwise ensure the health and safety of the residents.104552

       (E) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of 104553
section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary 104554
manager or apply for a special master, the department of job and 104555
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall order the 104556
facility to substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies 104557
within five days after receiving the statement and inform the 104558
facility, in the statement it provides pursuant to division (B) of 104559
section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code, of the order and 104560
that it will not take that action unless the facility fails to 104561
substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that 104562
five-day period. At the end of the five-day period, the department 104563
of health shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the 104564
deficiency or deficiencies. If the department of health determines 104565
that the facility has substantially corrected the deficiency or 104566
deficiencies within that time, the department of job and family 104567
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall not appoint a 104568
temporary manager or apply for a special master. If the department 104569
of health determines that the facility has failed to substantially 104570
correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that time, the 104571
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104572
agency may proceed with appointment of the temporary manager or 104573
application for a special master. Until the statement required 104574
under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code 104575
is actually delivered, no action taken by the department or agency 104576
to appoint a temporary manager or apply for a temporary manager 104577
under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 of 104578
the Revised Code shall have any legal effect. No action taken by a 104579
facility under this division to substantially correct a deficiency 104580
or deficiencies shall be considered an admission by the facility 104581
of the existence of a deficiency or deficiencies.104582

       (F) Appointment of a temporary manager under division 104583
(A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division 104584
(A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code shall 104585
expire at the end of the seventh day following the appointment. If 104586
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104587
agency finds that the deficiency or deficiencies that prompted the 104588
appointment under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46104589
5165.72 of the Revised Code cannot be substantially corrected, or 104590
the condition of immediate jeopardy that prompted the appointment 104591
under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised 104592
Code cannot be eliminated, prior to the expiration of the 104593
appointment, it may take one of the following actions:104594

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 104595
provider, a temporary manager for the facility;104596

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 104597
the facility is located for an order appointing a special master 104598
who, under the authority and direct supervision of the court and 104599
subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this section, may take such 104600
additional actions as are necessary to correct the deficiency or 104601
deficiencies or eliminate the condition of immediate jeopardy and 104602
bring the facility into compliance with certification 104603
requirements.104604

       (G) The court, on finding that the deficiency or deficiencies 104605
for which a special master was appointed under division (F)(2) of 104606
this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46104607
5165.72 of the Revised Code has been substantially corrected, or 104608
the emergency for which a special master was appointed under 104609
division (F)(2) of this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(2) of 104610
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code has been eliminated, 104611
that the facility has been brought into compliance with 104612
certification requirements, and that the provider has established 104613
the management capability to ensure continued compliance with the 104614
certification requirements, shall immediately terminate its 104615
jurisdiction over the facility and return control and management 104616
of the facility to the provider. If the deficiency or deficiencies 104617
cannot be substantially corrected, or the emergency cannot be 104618
eliminated practicably within a reasonable time following 104619
appointment of the special master, the court may order the special 104620
master to close the facility and transfer all residents to other 104621
nursing facilities or other appropriate care settings.104622

       (H) This section does not apply to temporary resident safety 104623
assurance managers appointed under section 5111.5115165.78 of the 104624
Revised Code.104625

       Sec. 5111.55.        Sec. 5165.82.  (A) An order issued under section 104626
5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51104627
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment104628
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible 104629
residents admitted after its effective date, or an order issued 104630
under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74104631
of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a 104632
nursing facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted after 104633
the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses or 104634
special care needs, shall also apply to individuals admitted to 104635
the facility on and after the effective date of the order who are 104636
not medicaid eligible residents but become medicaid eligible 104637
residents after admission. Such an order shall not apply to any of 104638
the following:104639

       (1) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 104640
facility on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 104641
the order and continues to be a medicaid eligible resident on and 104642
after that date;104643

       (2) An individual who was a resident of the facility on the 104644
day immediately preceding the effective date of the order, 104645
continues to be a resident on and after that date, and becomes 104646
medicaid eligible on or after that date;104647

       (3) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 104648
facility prior to the effective date of the order, is temporarily 104649
absent from the facility on that or a subsequent date due to 104650
hospitalization or participation in therapeutic programs outside 104651
the facility, and chooses to return to the facility;104652

       (4) An individual who was a resident of the facility prior to 104653
the effective date of the order, is temporarily absent from the 104654
facility on that or a subsequent date due to hospitalization or 104655
participation in therapeutic programs outside the facility, 104656
becomes medicaid eligible on or after that date, and chooses to 104657
return to the facility.104658

       (B) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72 of the 104659
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing 104660
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after its 104661
effective date, or denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 104662
for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 104663
of the order who have specified diagnoses or special care needs 104664
shall not take effect prior to the fifth day after the order is 104665
delivered to the facility. Such an order issued under section 104666
5111.475165.73 or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code shall not 104667
take effect prior to the twentieth day after it is delivered to 104668
the facility.104669

       (C) No nursing facility that has received an order under 104670
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51104671
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment104672
medicaid payments for all new admissions of medicaid eligible 104673
residents shall admit a medicaid eligible resident on or after the 104674
effective date of the order, unless the resident is described in 104675
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, until the order is 104676
terminated pursuant to this section. No nursing facility that has 104677
received an order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 104678
or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 104679
payments to a nursing facility for new admissions of medicaid 104680
eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special care needs 104681
shall admit such a resident on or after the effective date of the 104682
order, unless the resident is described in division (A)(3) or (4) 104683
of this section, until the order is terminated pursuant to this 104684
section.104685

       (D) In the case of an order imposed under division (B) of 104686
section 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code, the department or 104687
agency shall appoint monitors in accordance with section 5111.44104688
5165.70 of the Revised Code to conduct on-site monitoring.104689

       (E)(1) A facility may give written notice to the department 104690
of health whenever any of the following apply:104691

       (a) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 104692
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104693
the Revised Code, either of the following is the case:104694

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 104695
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104696
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 104697
which the order was issued.104698

       (ii) The facility has reduced the severity or scope of all of 104699
the deficiencies to a level at which sections 5111.465165.72 to 104700
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code do not authorize the order.104701

       (b) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 104702
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code, the facility has 104703
eliminated the immediate jeopardy.104704

       (c) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 104705
payments issued under division (A) of section 5111.575165.84 of 104706
the Revised Code, the facility has completed implementation of the 104707
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 104708
the Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 104709
which the order was issued.104710

       (d) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 104711
payments issued under division (B) of section 5111.575165.84 of 104712
the Revised Code, both of the following are the case:104713

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 104714
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104715
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 104716
which the order was issued.104717

       (ii) The facility is in compliance with certification 104718
requirements and has provided adequate assurance that it will 104719
remain in compliance with them.104720

       (2) Within ten working days after it receives the notice 104721
under division (E)(1) of this section, the department of health 104722
shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the cited 104723
deficiency or deficiencies, unless the department is able to 104724
determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the facility, 104725
that the facility has completed the applicable action described in 104726
divisions (E)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. If the department of 104727
health makes that determination on the basis of the documentation, 104728
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104729
agency shall terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments104730
as of the date the facility completed the applicable action, as 104731
subsequently verified by the department of health. If the 104732
department of health conducts a follow-up survey, the department 104733
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 104734
terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments as of the 104735
date the department of health makes the determination that the 104736
facility completed the applicable action.104737

       (F) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104738
contracting agency shall provide public notice implementing an 104739
order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.48104740
5165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code 104741
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility under the 104742
medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible residents by 104743
publishing in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 104744
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 104745
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 104746
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 104747
date of order), (name of facility) is no longer authorized to 104748
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Immediately following 104749
termination of any such order, the department or agency shall 104750
publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 104751
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 104752
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 104753
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 104754
date of termination), (name of facility) is hereby authorized to 104755
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Neither the department nor the 104756
contracting agency shall issue public notice of an order under 104757
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104758
the Revised Code denying payment to a nursing facility for 104759
medicaid eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special 104760
care needs; public notice is not required for such an order to 104761
take effect.104762

       (G) A facility that complies with division (E) of this 104763
section shall not be considered to have admitted to the existence 104764
of the deficiency that constitutes the basis of the department's 104765
or agency's order.104766

       Sec. 5111.56.        Sec. 5165.83.  (A) As used in this section, 104767
"certified beds" means beds certified under Title XVIII or Title104768
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 104769
301, as amended.104770

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104771
a contracting agency imposes a fine on a nursing facility under 104772
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104773
the Revised Code, it may impose one or more of the following:104774

       (1) One hundred sixty per cent of the amount calculated under 104775
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 104776
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 104777
level four finding;104778

       (2) One hundred forty per cent of the amount calculated under 104779
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 104780
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 104781
level three finding;104782

       (3) One hundred twenty per cent of the amount calculated 104783
under division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster 104784
of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 104785
level two finding;104786

       (4) The amount calculated under division (C) of this section 104787
for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a 104788
severity level four and scope level one finding or any deficiency 104789
or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level three 104790
and scope level four finding;104791

       (5) Ninety per cent of the amount calculated under division 104792
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104793
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level three 104794
finding;104795

       (6) Eighty per cent of the amount calculated under division 104796
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104797
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level two 104798
finding;104799

       (7) Seventy per cent of the amount calculated under division 104800
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104801
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level one 104802
finding;104803

       (8) Fifty per cent of the amount calculated under division 104804
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104805
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level four 104806
finding;104807

       (9) Forty per cent of the amount calculated under division 104808
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104809
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level three 104810
finding.104811

       (C) The amount subject to division (B) of this section shall 104812
be the product of multiplying two dollars and fifty cents for each 104813
day the fine is in effect by the total number of licensed nursing 104814
home beds or certified beds, whichever is greater, in the facility 104815
as of the date the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 104816
the reason for the fine was cited.104817

       (D)(1) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104818
contracting agency shall not impose on a facility, at any one 104819
time, more than four fines as a result of any one survey.104820

       (2) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104821
contracting agency shall not impose more than one fine based on a 104822
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. However, if the department 104823
of health, in a follow-up or other subsequent survey, finds a 104824
change in the scope or severity of the deficiency or cluster of 104825
deficiencies, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid104826
or contracting agency may increase or decrease the fine in 104827
accordance with division (B) of this section to reflect the change 104828
in scope or severity. The department or agency shall give the 104829
facility written notice of the change in the amount of the fine. 104830
The change shall take effect on the date the follow-up or other 104831
subsequent survey is completed.104832

       If the department of health finds that a deficiency is a 104833
repeat deficiency, the department of job and family services104834
medicaid or contracting agency may impose a fine that is one 104835
hundred per cent greater than the fine specified in division (B) 104836
of this section for the deficiency.104837

       (E) The total amount of fines the department of job and 104838
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may impose on a 104839
facility in a single calendar year shall not exceed five hundred 104840
dollars for each licensed nursing home bed or certified bed, 104841
whichever is greater in number, in the facility.104842

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 104843
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104844
agency shall not impose a fine under section 5111.465165.72, 104845
5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code if the 104846
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is substantially corrected 104847
within twenty days after the nursing facility receives the 104848
statement provided under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75104849
of the Revised Code. The department or agency shall inform the 104850
nursing facility in that statement that the fine will not be 104851
imposed if the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is 104852
substantially corrected within the twenty-day period.104853

       (2) If a nursing facility has substantially corrected a 104854
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies within six months after the 104855
exit interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a 104856
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, but after correcting it has 104857
been cited for the same deficiency or cluster of deficiencies by 104858
the department of health on the basis of a subsequent survey 104859
conducted during the remainder of the six-month period, the 104860
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104861
agency may impose a fine beginning on the date of the exit 104862
interview of the subsequent survey.104863

       (G) Whenever a facility believes that it has completed 104864
implementation of the plan of correction it submitted under 104865
section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code and substantially 104866
corrected the cited deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 104867
the basis for a fine, it may give written notice to that effect to 104868
the department of health. After receiving the notice, the 104869
department shall conduct a follow-up survey of the facility that 104870
focuses on the deficiency or cluster, unless the department is 104871
able to determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the 104872
facility, that the facility has substantially corrected the 104873
deficiency or cluster. If, based on the follow-up survey, the 104874
department establishes that the facility had not completed 104875
implementation of the plan of correction at the time the 104876
department received the notice, any fine based on the deficiency 104877
or cluster shall be doubled effective from the date the department 104878
received the notice. A facility that complies with this division 104879
shall not be considered to have admitted the existence of the 104880
deficiency or cluster that is the basis for the fine.104881

       (H) Except for a fine imposed under division (C) of section 104882
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code and as provided in division 104883
(F)(2) of this section, the department of job and family services104884
medicaid or contracting agency shall impose a fine only if the 104885
facility fails to give notice under division (G) of this section 104886
within twenty days after it receives the statement required by 104887
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code or if 104888
the department of health determines, based on a follow-up survey, 104889
that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which the fine 104890
is proposed has not been substantially corrected within the 104891
twenty-day period. The fine shall be imposed effective on the 104892
twenty-first day after the facility receives the statement under 104893
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code. The 104894
fine shall remain in effect until the earliest of the following:104895

       (1) The date the department of health receives notice under 104896
division (G) of this section, unless the department determines, on 104897
the basis of a follow-up survey, that the deficiency or cluster of 104898
deficiencies that is the basis for the fine has not been 104899
substantially corrected as of that date;104900

       (2) The date on which the department of health makes a 104901
determination, on the basis of a follow-up survey, that the 104902
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has been substantially 104903
corrected;104904

       (3) The date the facility substantially corrected the 104905
deficiency or cluster, as subsequently determined by the 104906
department of health on the basis of documentation provided by the 104907
facility.104908

       (I) Any fine imposed by the department of job and family 104909
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency under this section is 104910
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 104911
facility does not request a hearing under Chapter 119. of the 104912
Revised Code and either pays or agrees in writing to pay the fine 104913
when payment becomes due under division (J) of this section, the 104914
department or agency shall reduce the fine by fifty per cent. The 104915
department or agency may compromise any claim for payment of a 104916
fine under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 104917
Revised Code.104918

       (J) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104919
contracting agency shall collect interest on fines, at the rate 104920
per calendar month that equals one-twelfth of the rate per year 104921
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code for the calendar 104922
year that includes the month for which the interest charge 104923
accrues. Payment of a fine is due, and interest begins to accrue 104924
on the unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 104925
department or agency issues a final adjudication order imposing 104926
the fine. If the deficiency or deficiencies on which the fine is 104927
based have not been corrected when the final adjudication order is 104928
issued, the payment is due, and interest begins to accrue on the 104929
unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 104930
deficiency or deficiencies are corrected and the department or 104931
agency mails a notice specifying the amount of the fine to the 104932
facility.104933

       (K) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104934
contracting agency shall collect fines and interest imposed under 104935
this section through one of the following means:104936

       (1) A lump sum payment from the provider;104937

       (2) Periodic payments for a period not to exceed twelve 104938
months, in accordance with a schedule approved by the department 104939
or agency;104940

       (3) Appropriately reducing the amounts of medicaid payments 104941
made to the facility for carenursing facility services provided 104942
to medicaid eligible residents for a period not to exceed twelve 104943
months following the date on which payment of the fine becomes due 104944
under division (J) of this section. An amount equal to the amount 104945
by which each payment is reduced shall be deposited to the credit 104946
of the residents protection fund in accordance with section 104947
5111.625162.66 of the Revised Code.104948

       Sec. 5111.57.        Sec. 5165.84.  (A) The department of job and family 104949
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall issue an order 104950
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility for all 104951
medicaid eligible residents admitted to the facility on or after 104952
the effective date of the order, if the facility has failed to 104953
substantially correct within ninety days after the exit interview 104954
a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies in accordance with the 104955
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 104956
the Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 104957
basis of a follow-up survey.104958

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104959
contracting agency shall issue an order denying paymentmedicaid 104960
payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible residents 104961
admitted to the facility on or after the effective date of the 104962
order, if during three consecutive standard surveys conducted 104963
after December 13, 1990, the department of health has found a 104964
condition of substandard care in a facility.104965

       (C) An order issued under division (A) or (B) of this section 104966
shall take effect on the later of the date the facility receives 104967
the order or the date the public notice required under division 104968
(F) of section 5111.555165.82 of the Revised Code is published. 104969
The order is subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 104970
Code; however the order may take effect prior to or during the 104971
pendency of any hearing under that chapter. In that case, the 104972
department or agency shall provide the facility an opportunity for 104973
a hearing in accordance with section 5111.605165.87 of the 104974
Revised Code.104975

       Sec. 5111.58.        Sec. 5165.85.  (A) If a nursing facility notifies the 104976
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 104977
agency, at any time during the six-month period following the exit 104978
interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a deficiency 104979
or deficiencies, that the deficiency or deficiencies have been 104980
substantially corrected in accordance with the plan of correction 104981
submitted and approved under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104982
Revised Code, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up 104983
survey to determine whether the deficiency or deficiencies have 104984
been substantially corrected in accordance with the plan.104985

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 104986
contracting agency shall terminate a nursing facility's 104987
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program whenever 104988
the facility has not substantially corrected, within six months 104989
after the exit interview of the survey on the basis of which it 104990
was cited, a deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the 104991
plan of correction submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104992
Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 104993
basis of a follow-up survey.104994

       (C) Unless the facility has substantially corrected the 104995
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 104996
correction, as determined by the department of health on the basis 104997
of a follow-up survey, the department of job and family services104998
medicaid or contracting agency shall deliver to the facility, at 104999
least thirty days prior to the day that is six months after the 105000
exit interview, a written order terminating the facility's 105001
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program. The 105002
order shall take effect and the facility's participation shall 105003
terminate on the day that is six months after the exit interview. 105004
The order shall not take effect if, after it is delivered to the 105005
facility and prior to the effective date of the order, the 105006
department of health determines on the basis of a follow-up survey 105007
that the facility has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies.105008

       An order issued under this section is subject to appeal under 105009
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; however, the order may take 105010
effect prior to or during the pendency of any hearing under that 105011
chapter. In that case, the department of job and family services105012
medicaid or contracting agency shall provide the facility an 105013
opportunity for a hearing in accordance with section 5111.60105014
5165.87 of the Revised Code.105015

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 105016
whenever the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 105017
contracting agency terminates a facility's participation in the 105018
medical assistancemedicaid program pursuant to this section, the 105019
provider shall repay the department the federal share of all 105020
medicaid payments made by the department to the facility under the 105021
medical assistance program during the six-month period following 105022
the exit interview of the survey that was the basis for citing the 105023
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The provider shall repay 105024
the department within thirty days after the department repays to 105025
the federal government the federal share of medicaid payments made 105026
to the facility during that six-month period.105027

       (E) A provider is not required to repay the department of job 105028
and family servicesmedicaid if either of the following is the 105029
case:105030

       (1) The facility has brought an appeal under Chapter 119. of 105031
the Revised Code of termination of its participation in the 105032
medical assistancemedicaid program, except that the provider 105033
shall repay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid105034
within thirty days after the facility exhausts its right to appeal 105035
under that chapter.105036

       (2) The facility complied with the plan of correction 105037
approved by the department of health and the obligation to repay 105038
resulted from the department's failure to provide timely 105039
verification to the United States department of health and human 105040
services of the facility's compliance with the plan of correction.105041

       (F) If a provider's obligation to repay the department of job 105042
and family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section 105043
results from disallowance of federal financial participation by 105044
the United States department of health and human services, the 105045
provider shall not be required to repay the department of job and 105046
family servicesmedicaid until the federal disallowance becomes 105047
final.105048

       (G) Any fines paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.62105049
5165.89 of the Revised Code during any period for which the 105050
facility is required to repay the department of job and family 105051
servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section shall be 105052
offset against the amount the provider is required to repay the 105053
department for that period.105054

       (H) Prior to a change of ownership of a facility for which a 105055
provider has an obligation to repay the department of job and 105056
family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section that 105057
has not become final, or has become final but not been paid, the 105058
department may do one or more of the following:105059

       (1) Require the provider to place money in escrow, or obtain 105060
a bond, in sufficient amount to indemnify the state against the 105061
provider's failure to repay the department after the change of 105062
ownership occurs;105063

       (2) Place a lien on the facility's real property;105064

       (3) Use any method to recover the medicaid payments that is 105065
available to the attorney general to recover payments on behalf of 105066
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.105067

       Sec. 5111.59.        Sec. 5165.86.  The department of job and family 105068
servicesmedicaid, the department of health, and any contracting 105069
agency shall deliver a written notice, statement, or order to a 105070
nursing facility under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.415165.66105071
and 5111.435165.69 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code by 105072
certified mail or hand delivery. If the notice, statement, or 105073
order is mailed, it shall be addressed to the administrator of the 105074
facility as indicated in the department's or agency's records. If 105075
it is hand delivered, it shall be delivered to a person at the 105076
facility who would appear to the average prudent person to have 105077
authority to accept it.105078

       Delivery of written notice by a nursing facility to the 105079
department of health, the department of job and family services105080
medicaid, or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60105081
to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall be by certified mail 105082
or hand delivery to the appropriate department or the agency.105083

       Sec. 5111.60.        Sec. 5165.87.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) 105084
of this section, the following remedies are subject to appeal 105085
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:105086

       (1) An order issued under section 5111.455165.71, 5111.46105087
5165.72, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 105088
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 105089
assistancemedicaid program;105090

       (2) Appointment of a temporary manager of a facility under 105091
division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72, or 105092
division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;105093

       (3) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47105094
5165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of 105095
the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 105096
under the medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible 105097
residents admitted after the effective date of the order;105098

       (4) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47105099
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying payment105100
medicaid payments to a facility under the medical assistance 105101
program for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 105102
effective date of the order who have certain diagnoses or special 105103
care needs specified by the department or agency;105104

       (5) A fine imposed under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47105105
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code.105106

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 105107
contracting agency may do any of the following prior to or during 105108
the pendency of any proceeding under Chapter 119. of the Revised 105109
Code:105110

       (1) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 105111
5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 105112
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 105113
assistancemedicaid program;105114

       (2) Appoint a temporary manager under division (A)(1)(b) or 105115
(2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division (A)(1)(d) of section 105116
5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;105117

       (3) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 105118
5111.475165.73, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the 105119
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility for 105120
all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 105121
of the order;105122

       (4) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72105123
or 5111.475165.73 or division (A), (B), or (C) of section 105124
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 105125
payments to a facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted 105126
after the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses 105127
or special care needs.105128

       (C) Whenever the department or agency imposes a remedy listed 105129
in division (B) of this section prior to or during the pendency of 105130
a proceeding, all of the following apply:105131

       (1) The provider against whom the action is taken shall have 105132
ten days after the date the facility actually receives the notice 105133
specified in section 119.07 of the Revised Code to request a 105134
hearing.105135

       (2) The hearing shall commence within thirty days after the 105136
date the department or agency receives the provider's request for 105137
a hearing.105138

       (3) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted from day to day, 105139
except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, unless other 105140
interruptions are agreed to by the provider and the department or 105141
agency.105142

       (4) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 105143
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations within 105144
ten days after the close of the hearing.105145

       (5) The provider shall have five days after the date the 105146
hearing officer files the report and recommendations within which 105147
to file objections to the report and recommendations.105148

       (6) Not later than fifteen days after the date the hearing 105149
officer files the report and recommendations, the medicaid105150
director of job and family services or the director of the 105151
contracting agency shall issue an order approving, modifying, or 105152
disapproving the report and recommendations of the hearing 105153
examiner.105154

       (D) If the department or agency imposes more than one remedy 105155
as the result of deficiencies cited in a single survey, the 105156
proceedings for all of the remedies shall be consolidated. If any 105157
of the remedies are imposed during the pendency of a hearing, as 105158
permitted by division (B) of this section, the consolidated 105159
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with division (C) of this 105160
section. The consolidation of the remedies for purposes of a 105161
hearing does not affect the effective dates prescribed in sections 105162
5111.355165.60 to 5111.585168.85 of the Revised Code.105163

       (E) If a contracting agency conducts administrative 105164
proceedings pertaining to remedies imposed under sections 5111.35105165
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department of 105166
job and family servicesmedicaid shall not be considered a party 105167
to the proceedings.105168

       Sec. 5111.61.        Sec. 5165.88.  (A)(1) Except as required by court 105169
order, as necessary for the administration or enforcement of any 105170
statute relating to nursing facilities, or as provided in division 105171
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services105172
medicaid and any contracting agency shall not release any of the 105173
following information without the permission of the individual or 105174
the individual's legal representative:105175

       (a) The identity of any resident of a nursing facility;105176

       (b) The identity of any individual who submits a complaint 105177
about a nursing facility;105178

       (c) The identity of any individual who provides the 105179
department or agency with information about a nursing facility and 105180
has requested confidentiality;105181

       (d) Any information that reasonably would tend to disclose 105182
the identity of any individual described in division (A)(1)(a) to 105183
(c) of this section.105184

       (2) An agency or individual to whom the department or 105185
contracting agency is required, by court order or for the 105186
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 105187
facilities, to release information described in division (A)(1) of 105188
this section shall not release the information without the 105189
permission of the individual who would be or would reasonably tend 105190
to be identified, or of the individual's legal representative, 105191
unless the agency or individual is required to release it by 105192
division (C) of this section, by court order, or for the 105193
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 105194
facilities.105195

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any 105196
record that identifies an individual described in division (A)(1) 105197
of this section or that reasonably would tend to identify such an 105198
individual is not a public record for the purposes of section 105199
149.43 of the Revised Code, and is not subject to inspection and 105200
copying under section 1347.08 of the Revised Code.105201

       (C) If the department or a contracting agency, or an agency 105202
or individual to whom the department or contracting agency was 105203
required by court order or for administration or enforcement of a 105204
statute relating to nursing facilities to release information 105205
described in division (A)(1) of this section, uses information in 105206
any administrative or judicial proceeding against a facility that 105207
reasonably would tend to identify an individual described in 105208
division (A)(1) of this section, the department, agency, or 105209
individual shall disclose that information to the facility. 105210
However, the department, agency, or individual shall not disclose 105211
information that directly identifies an individual described in 105212
divisions (A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, unless the individual 105213
is to testify in the proceedings.105214

       (D) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint 105215
about a nursing facility with the department or a contracting 105216
agency, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 105217
complaint, when the allegation is made for the purpose of 105218
incriminating another.105219

       Sec. 5111.63.        Sec. 5165.89. For the purposes of this section, 105220
"facility," "medicare," and "medicaid" have the same meanings as 105221
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.105222

       The department of health shall be the designee of the 105223
department of job and family servicesmedicaid for the purpose of 105224
conducting a hearing pursuant to section 3721.162 of the Revised 105225
Code concerning a nursing facility's decision to transfer or 105226
discharge a resident if the resident is a medicaid recipient or 105227
medicare beneficiary.105228

       Sec. 5111.99.        Sec. 5165.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (B) of105229
section 5111.265165.102 or division (E) of section 5111.31105230
5165.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less than five 105231
hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for the first 105232
offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more than five 105233
thousand dollars for each subsequent offense. Fines paid under 105234
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 105235
credit of the general revenue fund.105236

       (B) Whoever violates division (D) of section 5111.615165.88105237
of the Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 105238
misdemeanor of the first degree.105239

       Sec. 5166.01.  As used in this chapter:105240

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 105241
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 105242
of medicaid or, if a state agency or political subdivision 105243
contracts with the department under section 5162.35 of the Revised 105244
Code to administer the component, that state agency or political 105245
subdivision.105246

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 105247
5160.01 of the Revised Code.105248

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 105249
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 105250
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 105251
hospital services, nursing facility services, or ICF/MR services.105252

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 105253
Revised Code.105254

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 105255
section 5168.40 of the Revised Code.105256

       "ICDS participant" means a dual eligible individual who 105257
participates in the integrated care delivery system.105258

       "ICF/MR" and "ICF/MR services" have the same meanings as in 105259
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.105260

       "Integrated care delivery system" and "ICDS" mean the 105261
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 105262
Code.105263

       "Level of care determination" means a determination of 105264
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 105265
hospital, nursing facility, or ICF/MR and whether the individual, 105266
if determined to need that level of care, would receive hospital 105267
services, nursing facility services, or ICF/MR services if not for 105268
a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component.105269

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 105270
5164.01 of the Revised Code. 105271

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 105272
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 105273
department of health and human services under the "Social Security 105274
Act," section 1115 or 1915, 42 U.S.C. 1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid 105275
waiver component" does not include a care management system 105276
established under section 5167.03 of the Revised Code.105277

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 105278
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.105279

       "Ohio home care waiver program" means the home and 105280
community-based services medicaid waiver component that is known 105281
as Ohio home care and was created pursuant to section 5166.11 of 105282
the Revised Code.105283

       "Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program" means the home 105284
and community-based services medicaid waiver component that is 105285
known as Ohio transitions II aging carve-out and was created 105286
pursuant to section 5166.11 of the Revised Code.105287

       "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 105288
5164.01 of the Revised Code.105289

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 105290
licensed by the department of mental health and addiction services 105291
under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code, or an institution 105292
certified by the department of job and family services under 105293
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, that serves children and 105294
either has more than sixteen beds or is part of a campus of 105295
multiple facilities or institutions that, combined, have a total 105296
of more than sixteen beds.105297

       "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 105298
5165.01 of the Revised Code.105299

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 105300
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 105301
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.105302

       Sec. 5111.85.        Sec. 5166.02.  (A) As used in this section and 105303
sections 5111.851 to 5111.856 of the Revised Code:105304

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 105305
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 105306
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 105307
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 105308
mentally retarded services.105309

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 105310
Revised Code.105311

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" has 105312
the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.105313

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 105314
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 105315
department of health and human services under section 1115 or 1915 105316
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 105317
1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid waiver component" does not include a care 105318
management system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised 105319
Code.105320

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 105321
of the Revised Code.105322

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may105323
shall adopt rules underin accordance with Chapter 119. of the 105324
Revised Code governing medicaid waiver components that. The rules 105325
may establish all of the following:105326

       (1) Eligibility requirements for the medicaid waiver 105327
components;105328

       (2) The type, amount, duration, and scope of medicaid105329
services the medicaid waiver components providecover;105330

       (3) The conditions under which the medicaid waiver components 105331
cover medicaid services;105332

       (4) The amountamounts the medicaid waiver components pay for 105333
medicaid services or the methodmethods by which the amount is105334
amounts are determined;105335

       (5) The mannermanners in which the medicaid waiver 105336
components pay for medicaid services;105337

       (6) Safeguards for the health and welfare of medicaid 105338
recipients receiving medicaid services under a medicaid waiver 105339
component;105340

       (7) Procedures for prioritizing and approving for enrollment 105341
individuals who are eligible for a home and community-based 105342
services medicaid waiver component and choose to be enrolled in 105343
the component;105344

       (8) Procedures for enforcing the rules, including 105345
establishing corrective action plans for, and imposing financial 105346
and administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities 105347
that violate the rules. Sanctions shall include terminating 105348
medicaid provider agreements. The procedures shall include due 105349
process protections.105350

       (9) Other policies necessary for the efficient administration 105351
of the medicaid waiver components.105352

       (C)(B) The director of job and family services may adopt 105353
different rules for the different medicaid waiver components. The 105354
rules shall be consistent with the terms of the waiver authorizing 105355
the medicaid waiver component.105356

       (D)(C) The following apply to procedures established under 105357
division (B)(A)(7) of this section:105358

       (1) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 105359
component of the PASSPORT program shall be consistent with section 105360
173.401173.521 of the Revised Code. 105361

       (2) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 105362
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 105363
section 173.542 of the Revised Code.105364

       (3) Any such procedures established for the Ohio home care 105365
waiver program shall be consistent with section 5111.8625166.121105366
of the Revised Code.105367

       (3)(4) Any such procedures established for the unified 105368
long-term services and support medicaid waiver program shall be 105369
consistent with section 5111.8655166.141 of the Revised Code.105370

        (4) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 105371
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 105372
section 5111.894 of the Revised Code.105373

       Sec. 5111.84.        Sec. 5166.03. The medicaid director of job and family 105374
services may not submit a request to the United States secretary 105375
of health and human services for a medicaid waiver under section 105376
1115 of the "Social Security Act of 1935," section 1115, 42 U.S.C. 105377
1315, unless the director provides the speaker of the house of 105378
representatives and president of the senate written notice of the 105379
director's intent to submit the request at least ten days before 105380
the date the director submits the request to the United States 105381
secretary. The notice shall include a detailed explanation of the 105382
medicaid waiver the director proposes to seek.105383

       Sec. 5111.851.        Sec. 5166.04. (A) As used in sections 5111.851 to 105384
5111.855 of the Revised Code:105385

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 105386
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 105387
of job and family services or, if a state agency or political 105388
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91 105389
of the Revised Code to administer the component, that state agency 105390
or political subdivision.105391

        "Level of care determination" means a determination of 105392
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 105393
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 105394
mentally retarded and whether the individual, if determined to 105395
need that level of care, would receive hospital, nursing facility, 105396
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 105397
if not for a home and community-based services medicaid waiver 105398
component.105399

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 105400
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 105401
5111.70 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code.105402

       "Skilled nursing facility" means a facility certified as a 105403
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 105404
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.105405

       (B) The following requirements apply to each home and 105406
community-based services medicaid waiver component:105407

       (1)(A) Only an individual who qualifies for a component shall 105408
receive that component's medicaid services.105409

       (2)(B) A level of care determination shall be made as part of 105410
the process of determining whether an individual qualifies for a 105411
component and shall be made each year after the initial 105412
determination if, during such a subsequent year, the 105413
administrative agency determines there is a reasonable indication 105414
that the individual's needs have changed.105415

       (3)(C) A written plan of care or individual service plan 105416
based on an individual assessment of the medicaid services that an 105417
individual needs to avoid needing admission to a hospital, nursing 105418
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded105419
ICF/MR shall be created for each individual determined eligible 105420
for a component.105421

       (4)(D) Each individual determined eligible for a component 105422
shall receive that component's medicaid services in accordance 105423
with the individual's level of care determination and written plan 105424
of care or individual service plan.105425

       (5)(E) No individual may receive medicaid services under a 105426
component while the individual is a hospital inpatient or resident 105427
of a skilled nursing facility, nursing facility, or intermediate 105428
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR.105429

       (6)(F) No individual may receive prevocational, educational, 105430
or supported employment services under a component if the 105431
individual is eligible for such services that are funded with 105432
federal funds provided under 29 U.S.C. 730 or the "Individuals 105433
with Disabilities Education Act," 111 Stat. 37 (1997), 20 U.S.C. 105434
1400, as amended.105435

       (7)(G) Safeguards shall be taken to protect the health and 105436
welfare of individuals receiving medicaid services under a 105437
component, including safeguards established in rules adopted under 105438
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code and safeguards 105439
established by licensing and certification requirements that are 105440
applicable to the providers of that component's medicaid services.105441

        (8)(H) No medicaid services may be provided under a component 105442
by a provider that is subject to standards that the "Social 105443
Security Act," section 1616(e)(1), 42 U.S.C. 1382e(e)(1), requires 105444
be established if the provider fails to comply with the standards 105445
applicable to the provider.105446

       (9)(I) Individuals determined to be eligible for a component, 105447
or such individuals' representatives, shall be informed of that 105448
component's medicaid services, including any choices that the 105449
individual or representative may make regarding the component's 105450
medicaid services, and given the choice of either receiving 105451
medicaid services under that component or, as appropriate, 105452
hospital services, nursing facility services, or intermediate care 105453
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR services.105454

       (10) No individual shall lose eligibility for services under 105455
a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise disrupted, 105456
on the basis that the individual also receives services under the 105457
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.105458

       (11) No individual shall lose eligibility for services under 105459
a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise disrupted, 105460
on the basis that the individual's income or resources increase to 105461
an amount above the eligibility limit for the component if the 105462
individual is participating in the medicaid buy-in for workers 105463
with disabilities program and the amount of the individual's 105464
income or resources does not exceed the eligibility limit for the 105465
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.105466

       (12) No individual receiving services under a component shall 105467
be required to pay any cost sharing expenses for the services for 105468
any period during which the individual also participates in the 105469
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.105470

       Sec. 5111.852.        Sec. 5166.05.  The department of job and family 105471
servicesmedicaid may review and approve, modify, or deny written 105472
plans of care and individual service plans that section 5111.851105473
5166.04 of the Revised Code requires be created for individuals 105474
determined eligible for a home and community-based services 105475
medicaid waiver component. If a state agency or political 105476
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91105477
5162.35 of the Revised Code to administer a home and 105478
community-based services medicaid waiver component and approves, 105479
modifies, or denies a written plan of care or individual service 105480
plan pursuant to the agency's or subdivision's administration of 105481
the component, the department may review the agency's or 105482
subdivision's approval, modification, or denial and order the 105483
agency or subdivision to reverse or modify the approval, 105484
modification, or denial. The state agency or political subdivision 105485
shall comply with the department's order.105486

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall be 105487
granted full and immediate access to any records the department 105488
needs to implement its duties under this section.105489

       Sec. 5111.853.        Sec. 5166.06.  Each administrative agency shall 105490
maintain, for a period of time the department of job and family 105491
servicesmedicaid shall specify, financial records documenting 105492
the costs of medicaid services provided under the home and 105493
community-based services medicaid waiver components that the 105494
agency administers, including records of independent audits. The 105495
administrative agency shall make the financial records available 105496
on request to the United States secretary of health and human 105497
services, United States comptroller general, and their designees.105498

       Sec. 5111.854.        Sec. 5166.07.  Each administrative agency is 105499
financially accountable for funds expended for medicaid services 105500
provided undercovered by the home and community-based services 105501
medicaid waiver components that the agency administers.105502

       Sec. 5111.855.        Sec. 5166.08.  Each state agency and political 105503
subdivision that enters into a contract with the department of job 105504
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of the 105505
Revised Code to administer a home and community-based services 105506
medicaid waiver component, or one or more aspects of such a 105507
component, shall provide the department a written assurance that 105508
the agency or subdivision will not violate any of the requirements 105509
of sections 5111.855166.01 to 5111.8545166.07 of the Revised 105510
Code.105511

       Sec. 5111.856.        Sec. 5166.10.  To the extent necessary for the 105512
efficient and economical administration of medicaid waiver 105513
components, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 105514
transfer an individual enrolled in a medicaid waiver component 105515
administered by the department to another medicaid waiver 105516
component the department administers if the individual is eligible 105517
for the medicaid waiver component and the transfer does not 105518
jeopardize the individual's health or safety.105519

       Sec. 5111.86.        Sec. 5166.11. (A) As used in this section:105520

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 105521
the Revised Code.105522

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105523
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105524

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 105525
5111.20 of the Revised Code.105526

       (4), "Ohio home care program" means the program the 105527
department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers that 105528
provides state plan services and medicaid waiver component 105529
services pursuant to rules adopted under sections 5111.01 and 105530
5111.02 of the Revised Codefor the medicaid program and a 105531
medicaid waiver that went into effect July 1, 1998.105532

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services105533
medicaid may submit requests to the United States secretary of 105534
health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of the "Social 105535
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 105536
to obtain waivers of federal medicaid requirements that would 105537
otherwise be violated in the creation and implementation ofcreate 105538
and administer two or more medicaid waiver components under which 105539
home and community-based services are provided to eligible 105540
individuals who need the level of care provided by a nursing 105541
facility or hospital. In administering the requestsmedicaid 105542
waiver components, the directordepartment may specify the 105543
following:105544

        (1) The maximum number of individuals who may be enrolled in 105545
each of the medicaid waiver components included in the requests;105546

        (2) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 105547
year for each individual enrolled in the medicaid waiver 105548
components;105549

        (3) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 105550
year for all individuals enrolled in the medicaid waiver 105551
components;105552

        (4) Any other requirements the directordepartment selects 105553
for the medicaid waiver components.105554

       (C) If the secretary approves the medicaid waivers requested 105555
under this section, the director may create and implement the 105556
medicaid waiver components in accordance with the provisions of 105557
the approved waivers. The department of job and family services 105558
shall administer the medicaid waiver components.105559

       (D) After the first of any of the medicaid waiver components 105560
createdthat the department administers under this section begins 105561
to enroll eligible individuals, the directordepartment may 105562
submit to the United States secretary of health and human services 105563
an amendment to a medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care 105564
program authorizing the department to cease enrollingto enroll105565
additional individuals in thata medicaid waiver component of the 105566
Ohio home care program. If the secretary approves the amendment, 105567
the director may cease to enroll additional individuals in that 105568
medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care program.105569

       Sec. 5111.861.        Sec. 5166.12.  (A) As used in this section:105570

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105571
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105572

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 105573
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 105574
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.105575

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 105576
created the Ohio home care program. The program shall provide home 105577
and community-based services. The department of job and family 105578
services medicaid shall administer the program.105579

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 105580
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 105581
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 105582
determine whether the Ohio home care waiver program should 105583
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 105584
terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio home care 105585
waiver program should be terminated, the program shall cease to 105586
exist on a date the departments shall specify.105587

       Sec. 5111.862.        Sec. 5166.121.  (A) As used in this section:105588

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 105589
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.105590

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 105591
of the Revised Code.105592

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 105593
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.105594

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 105595
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 105596
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 105597
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 105598
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 105599
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions 105600
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.105601

       (B) Subject to division (C) ofUnless the Ohio home care 105602
waiver program is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615165.12105603
of the Revised Code, the department of job and family services105604
medicaid shall establish a home first component for the Ohio home 105605
care waiver program. An individual is eligible for the Ohio home 105606
care waiver program's home first component if the individual has 105607
been determined to be eligible for the Ohio home care waiver105608
program and at least one of the following applies:105609

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 105610
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 105611
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 105612
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 105613
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.105614

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 105615
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 105616
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 105617
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 105618
waiver program.105619

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 105620
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 105621
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 105622
home care waiver program.105623

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 105624
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 105625
for the Ohio home care waiver program but is at risk of imminent 105626
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 105627
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.105628

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 105629
the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.105630

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 105631
waiver program, the individual participates in the money follows 105632
the person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 105633
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 105634
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 105635
inpatient hospital setting.105636

       (C)(B) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 105637
first component of the Ohio home care waiver program shall be 105638
enrolled in the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules 105639
adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code.105640

       Sec. 5111.863.        Sec. 5166.13. (A) As used in this section:105641

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105642
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105643

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 105644
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 105645
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.105646

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 105647
created the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program. The 105648
program shall provide home and community-based services. The 105649
department of job and family services shall administer the 105650
program.105651

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 105652
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 105653
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 105654
determine whether the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 105655
should continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component 105656
or be terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio 105657
transitions II aging carve-out program should be terminated, the 105658
program shall cease to exist on a date the departments shall 105659
specify.105660

       Sec. 5111.864.        Sec. 5166.14. (A) As used in this section:105661

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105662
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105663

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 105664
of the Revised Code.105665

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services105666
medicaid shall submit a request to the United States secretary of 105667
health and human services pursuant to section 1915n of the "Social 105668
Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 105669
to obtain approval to create a unified long-term services and 105670
support medicaid waiver component to provide home and 105671
community-based services to eligible individuals of any age who 105672
require the level of care provided by nursing facilities. The 105673
directordepartment of job and family servicesmedicaid shall work105674
collaborate with the directordepartment of aging in seeking 105675
approval of the unified long-term services and support medicaid 105676
waiver component and, if the approval is obtained, in creating and 105677
implementing the component.105678

       If the request to create the unified long-term services and 105679
support medicaid waiver component is approved, theThe medicaid105680
director of job and family services, workingshall collaborate105681
with the director of aging, shall adoptwhen adopting rules under 105682
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code to implement the 105683
component. The rules may authorize the director of aging to adopt 105684
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 105685
governing aspects of the unified long-term services and support 105686
medicaid waiver component.105687

       Sec. 5111.865.        Sec. 5166.141. (A) As used in this section, 105688
"unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver program" 105689
or "program" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 105690
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.105691

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 105692
services approves the request submitted under section 5111.864 of 105693
the Revised Code to create the unified long-term services and 105694
support medicaid waiver program, theThe department of job and 105695
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a home first component 105696
for the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver105697
program. The home first component shall be similar to the home 105698
first component of the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 105699
program established under section 173.401173.521 of the Revised 105700
Code, the home first component of the Ohio home care program 105701
established under section 5111.862 of the Revised Code, and the 105702
home first component of the medicaid-funded component of the 105703
assisted living program established under section 5111.894173.542105704
of the Revised Code, and the home first component of the Ohio home 105705
care waiver program established under section 5166.121 of the 105706
Revised Code.105707

       Sec. 5166.16.  (A) As used in this section, "ODA or MCD 105708
medicaid waiver component" means all of the following: 105709

       (1) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 105710
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 105711
of the Revised Code;105712

       (2) The choices program, unless it is terminated pursuant to 105713
division (B) of section 173.53 of the Revised Code;105714

       (3) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 105715
program, unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of 105716
section 173.54 of the Revised Code;105717

       (4) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 105718
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code;105719

       (5) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 105720
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code.105721

       (B) The medicaid director may create a home and 105722
community-based services medicaid waiver component as part of the 105723
integrated care delivery system. If the ICDS medicaid waiver 105724
component is created, both of the following apply:105725

       (1) The department of medicaid shall administer it;105726

       (2) When it begins to accept enrollments, no ICDS participant 105727
who is eligible for the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall be 105728
enrolled in an ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component regardless of 105729
whether the participant prefers to remain or be enrolled in an ODA 105730
or MCD medicaid waiver component.105731

       (C) A dual eligible individual who is eligible for an ODA or 105732
MCD medicaid waiver component may enroll in the component before 105733
the individual becomes an ICDS participant. The dual eligible 105734
individual shall disenroll from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver 105735
component and enroll in the ICDS medicaid waiver component once 105736
the individual becomes an ICDS participant and it is possible to 105737
enroll the individual in the ICDS medicaid waiver component. The 105738
disenrollment from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component and 105739
enrollment into the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall occur 105740
regardless of whether the individual prefers to remain enrolled in 105741
the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component.105742

       (D) An ICDS participant's disenrollment from an ODA or MCD 105743
medicaid waiver component and enrollment in the ICDS medicaid 105744
waiver component resulting from division (B)(2) or (C) of this 105745
section shall be accomplished without a disruption in the 105746
participant's services under the components.105747

       Sec. 5111.87.        Sec. 5166.20. (A) As used in this section and section 105748
5111.871 of the Revised Code:105749

       (1) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 105750
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.105751

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105752
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105753

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services105754
medicaid may apply to the United States secretary of health and 105755
human services for both ofcreate the following:105756

       (1) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 105757
and community-based services are provided to individuals with 105758
mental retardation or other developmental disability as an 105759
alternative to placement in an intermediate care facility for the 105760
mentally retardedICFs/MR;105761

        (2) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 105762
and community-based services are provided in the form of any of 105763
the following:105764

        (a) Early intervention and supportive services for children 105765
under three years of age who have developmental delays or 105766
disabilities the directordepartment determines are significant;105767

        (b) Therapeutic services for children who have autism;105768

        (c) Specialized habilitative services for individuals who are 105769
eighteen years of age or older and have autism. 105770

       (C)(B) No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 105771
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) or (c) of this section shall 105772
provide services that are available under another medicaid waiver 105773
component. No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 105774
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) of this section shall provide 105775
services to an individual that the individual is eligible to 105776
receive through an individualized education program as defined in 105777
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.105778

        (D)(C) The director of developmental disabilities orand105779
director of health may request that the directordepartment of job 105780
and family services apply formedicaid create one or more medicaid 105781
waiverswaiver components under this section.105782

       (E)(D) Before applying forcreating a medicaid waiver 105783
component under this section, the directordepartment of job and 105784
family servicesmedicaid shall seek, accept, and consider public 105785
comments.105786

       Sec. 5111.871.        Sec. 5166.21.  The department of job and family 105787
servicesmedicaid shall enter into a contract with the department 105788
of developmental disabilities under section 5111.915162.35 of the 105789
Revised Code with regard to one or more of the medicaid waiver 105790
components establishedcreated by the department of job and 105791
family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.875166.20 of the 105792
Revised Code. Subject, if needed, to the approval of the United 105793
States secretary of health and human services, theThe contract 105794
shall include the medicaid waiver component known as the 105795
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. The contract shall 105796
provide for the department of developmental disabilities to 105797
administer the components in accordance with the terms of the 105798
federal medicaid waivers authorizing the components. The contract 105799
shall include a schedule for the department of developmental 105800
disabilities to begin administering the transitions developmental 105801
disabilities waiver. The directors of job and family services and 105802
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 105803
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the components.105804

       If the department of developmental disabilities or the 105805
department of job and family servicesmedicaid denies an 105806
individual's application for home and community-based services 105807
provided under any of these medicaid components, the department 105808
that denied the services shall give timely notice to the 105809
individual that the individual may request a hearing underappeal 105810
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.105811

       The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 105812
family servicesmedicaid may approve, reduce, deny, or terminate a 105813
medicaid service included in the individualized service plan 105814
developed for a medicaid recipient eligible for home and 105815
community-based services provided under any of these medicaid 105816
components. The departments shall consider the recommendations a 105817
county board of developmental disabilities makes under division 105818
(A)(1)(c) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code. If either 105819
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a medicaid105820
service, that department shall give timely notice to the medicaid 105821
recipient that the recipient may request a hearing underappeal 105822
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.105823

       If supported living, as defined in section 5126.01 of the 105824
Revised Code, is to be provided as a medicaid service under any of 105825
these components, any person or government entity with a current, 105826
valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 105827
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code may provide 105828
the medicaid service.105829

       If a medicaid service is to be provided under any of these 105830
components by a residential facility, as defined in section 105831
5123.19 of the Revised Code, any person or government entity with 105832
a current, valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 105833
license under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code may provide the 105834
medicaid service.105835

       Sec. 5111.872.        Sec. 5166.22.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this 105836
section, when the department of developmental disabilities 105837
allocates enrollment numbers to a county board of developmental 105838
disabilities for home and community-based services specified in 105839
division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code 105840
and provided under any of the medicaid waiver components that the 105841
department administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 105842
Revised Code, the department shall consider all of the following:105843

       (1) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 105844
other developmental disability who are on a waiting list the 105845
county board establishes under section 5126.042 of the Revised 105846
Code for those services and are given priority on the waiting 105847
list;105848

       (2) The implementation component required by division (A)(3) 105849
of section 5126.054 of the Revised Code of the county board's plan 105850
approved under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code;105851

       (3) Anything else the department considers necessary to 105852
enable county boards to provide those services to individuals in 105853
accordance with the priority requirements for waiting lists 105854
established under section 5126.042 of the Revised Code for those 105855
services.105856

       (B) Division (A) of this section applies to home and 105857
community-based services provided under the medicaid waiver 105858
component known as the transitions developmental disabilities 105859
waiver only to the extent, if any, provided by the contract 105860
required by section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code regarding 105861
the waivercomponent.105862

       Sec. 5111.873.        Sec. 5166.23.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 105863
section, the medicaid director of job and family services shall 105864
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5166.02105865
of the Revised Code establishing the amount of reimbursement105866
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 105867
reimbursement are to be determined for home and community-based 105868
services specified in division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.87105869
5166.20 of the Revised Code and provided under the components of 105870
the medicaid program that the department of developmental 105871
disabilities administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 105872
Revised Code. With respect to these rules, all of the following 105873
apply:105874

       (1) The rules shall establish procedures for the department 105875
of developmental disabilities to follow in arranging for the 105876
initial and ongoing collection of cost information from a 105877
comprehensive, statistically valid sample of persons and 105878
government entities providing the services at the time the 105879
information is obtained.105880

       (2) The rules shall establish procedures for the collection 105881
of consumer-specific information through an assessment instrument 105882
the department of developmental disabilities shall provide to the 105883
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.105884

       (3) With the information collected pursuant to divisions 105885
(A)(1) and (2) of this section, an analysis of that information, 105886
and other information the director determines relevant, the rules 105887
shall establish reimbursementpayment standards that do all of the 105888
following:105889

       (a) Assure that reimbursement ispayment amounts are105890
consistent with efficiency, economy, and quality of care;105891

       (b) Consider the intensity of consumer resource need;105892

       (c) Recognize variations in different geographic areas 105893
regarding the resources necessary to assure the health and welfare 105894
of consumers;105895

       (d) Recognize variations in environmental supports available 105896
to consumers.105897

       (B) As part of the process of adopting rules underauthorized 105898
by this section, the director shall consult with the director of 105899
developmental disabilities, representatives of county boards of 105900
developmental disabilities, persons who provide the home and 105901
community-based services, and other persons and government 105902
entities the director identifies.105903

       (C) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 105904
director and director of developmental disabilities shall review 105905
the rules adopted underauthorized by this section at times they 105906
determine are necessary to ensure that the amount of reimbursement105907
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 105908
reimbursement are to be determined continue to meet the 105909
reimbursementpayment standards established under division (A)(3) 105910
of this section.105911

       (D) This section applies to home and community-based services 105912
provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 105913
transitions developmental disabilities waiver only to the extent, 105914
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.871105915
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waivercomponent.105916

       Sec. 5111.88.        Sec. 5166.30.  (A) As used in sections 5111.88105917
5166.30 to 5111.88115166.3010 of the Revised Code:105918

       (1) "Adult" means an individual at least eighteen years of 105919
age.105920

       (2) "Appropriate director" means the following:105921

       (a) The medicaid director in the context of all of the 105922
following:105923

       (i) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 105924
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code; 105925

       (ii) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 105926
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code;105927

       (iii) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 105928
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.105929

       (b) The director of aging in the context of the 105930
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, unless it is 105931
terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 105932
Revised Code.105933

       (3) "Authorized representative" means the following:105934

       (a) In the case of a consumer who is a minor, the consumer's 105935
parent, custodian, or guardian;105936

       (b) In the case of a consumer who is an adult, an individual 105937
selected by the consumer pursuant to section 5111.88105166.3010105938
of the Revised Code to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 105939
regarding home care attendant services.105940

       (3)(4) "Authorizing health care professional" means a health 105941
care professional who, pursuant to section 5111.8875166.307 of 105942
the Revised Code, authorizes a home care attendant to assist a 105943
consumer with self-administration of medication, nursing tasks, or 105944
both.105945

       (4)(5) "Consumer" means an individual to whom all of the 105946
following apply:105947

       (a) The individual is enrolled in a participating medicaid 105948
waiver component.105949

       (b) The individual has a medically determinable physical 105950
impairment to which both of the following apply:105951

       (i) It is expected to last for a continuous period of not 105952
less than twelve months.105953

       (ii) It causes the individual to require assistance with 105954
activities of daily living, self-care, and mobility, including 105955
either assistance with self-administration of medication or the 105956
performance of nursing tasks, or both.105957

       (c) In the case of an individual who is an adult, the 105958
individual is mentally alert and is, or has an authorized 105959
representative who is, capable of selecting, directing the actions 105960
of, and dismissing a home care attendant.105961

       (d) In the case of an individual who is a minor, the 105962
individual has an authorized representative who is capable of 105963
selecting, directing the actions of, and dismissing a home care 105964
attendant.105965

       (5)(6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in 105966
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.105967

       (6)(7) "Custodian" has the same meaning as in section 105968
2151.011 of the Revised Code.105969

       (7)(8) "Gastrostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 105970
catheter that terminates in the stomach.105971

       (8)(9) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 105972
of the Revised Code.105973

       (9)(10) "Health care professional" means a physician or 105974
registered nurse.105975

       (10)(11) "Home care attendant" means an individual holding a 105976
valid medicaid provider agreement in accordance with section 105977
5111.8815166.301 of the Revised Code that authorizes the 105978
individual to provide home care attendant services to consumers.105979

       (11)(12) "Home care attendant services" means all of the 105980
following as provided by a home care attendant:105981

       (a) Personal care aide services;105982

       (b) Assistance with the self-administration of medication;105983

       (c) Assistance with nursing tasks.105984

       (12)(13) "Jejunostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 105985
catheter that terminates in the jejunum.105986

       (13) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105987
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105988

       (14) "Medication" means a drug as defined in section 4729.01 105989
of the Revised Code.105990

       (15) "Minor" means an individual under eighteen years of age.105991

       (16) "Participating medicaid waiver component" means both105992
all of the following:105993

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 105994
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 105995
of the Revised Code;105996

       (b) The Ohio home care waiver program created under, unless 105997
it is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615166.12 of the 105998
Revised Code;105999

       (b)(c) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 106000
created under, unless it is terminated pursuant to section 106001
5111.8635166.13 of the Revised Code;106002

       (d) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 106003
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.106004

       (17) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 106005
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 106006
osteopathic medicine and surgery.106007

       (18) "Practice of nursing as a registered nurse," "practice 106008
of nursing as a licensed practical nurse," and "registered nurse" 106009
have the same meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. 106010
"Registered nurse" includes an advanced practice registered nurse, 106011
as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.106012

       (19) "Schedule II," "schedule III," "schedule IV," and 106013
"schedule V" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 106014
Revised Code.106015

       (B) The director of job and family services may submit 106016
requests to the United States secretary of health and human 106017
services to amend the federal medicaid waivers authorizing the 106018
participatingParticipating medicaid waiver components to have 106019
those componentsmay cover home care attendant services in 106020
accordance with sections 5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 of 106021
the Revised Code and rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02106022
of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding sections 5111.881 to 106023
5111.8811 of the Revised Code, those sections shall be implemented 106024
regarding a participating medicaid waiver component only if the 106025
secretary approves a waiver amendment for the component.106026

       Sec. 5111.881.        Sec. 5166.301.  The medicaid director of job and 106027
family services shall enter into a medicaid provider agreement 106028
with an individual to authorize the individual to provide home 106029
care attendant services to consumers if the individual does both 106030
of the following:106031

       (A) Agrees to comply with the requirements of sections 106032
5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 and rules adopted under 106033
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code;106034

       (B) Provides the director evidence satisfactory to the 106035
director of all of the following:106036

       (1) That the individual either meets the personnel 106037
qualifications specified in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 for home health aides 106038
or has successfully completed at least one of the following:106039

       (a) A competency evaluation program or training and 106040
competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the 106041
director of health under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code;106042

       (b) A training program approved by the department of job and 106043
family servicesappropriate director that includes training in at 106044
least all of the following and provides training equivalent to a 106045
training and competency evaluation program specified in division 106046
(B)(1)(a) of this section or meets the requirements of 42 C.F.R. 106047
484.36(a):106048

       (i) Basic home safety;106049

       (ii) Universal precautions for the prevention of disease 106050
transmission, including hand-washing and proper disposal of bodily 106051
waste and medical instruments that are sharp or may produce sharp 106052
pieces if broken;106053

       (iii) Personal care aide services;106054

       (iv) The labeling, counting, and storage requirements for 106055
schedule II, III, IV, and V medications.106056

       (2) That the individual has obtained a certificate of 106057
completion of a course in first aid from a first aid course to 106058
which all of the following apply:106059

       (a) It is not provided solely through the internet.106060

       (b) It includes hands-on training provided by a first aid 106061
instructor who is qualified to provide such training according to 106062
standards set in rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02 of 106063
the Revised Code.106064

       (c) It requires the individual to demonstrate successfully 106065
that the individual has learned the first aid taught in the 106066
course.106067

       (3) That the individual meets any other requirements for the 106068
medicaid provider agreement specified in rules adopted under 106069
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.106070

       Sec. 5111.882.        Sec. 5166.302.  A home care attendant shall complete 106071
not less than twelve hours of in-service continuing education 106072
regarding home care attendant services each year and provide the 106073
appropriate director of job and family services evidence 106074
satisfactory to the appropriate director that the attendant 106075
satisfied this requirement. The evidence shall be submitted to the 106076
appropriate director not later than the annual anniversary of the 106077
issuance of the home care attendant's initial medicaid provider 106078
agreement.106079

       Sec. 5111.883.        Sec. 5166.303.  A home care attendant shall do all 106080
of the following:106081

       (A) Maintain a clinical record for each consumer to whom the 106082
attendant provides home care attendant services in a manner that 106083
protects the consumer's privacy;106084

       (B) Participate in a face-to-face visit every ninety days 106085
with all of the following to monitor the health and welfare of 106086
each of the consumers to whom the attendant provides home care 106087
attendant services:106088

       (1) The consumer;106089

       (2) The consumer's authorized representative, if any;106090

       (3) A registered nurse who agrees to answer any questions 106091
that the attendant, consumer, or authorized representative has 106092
about consumer care needs, medications, and other issues.106093

       (C) Document the activities of each visit required by 106094
division (B) of this section in the consumer's clinical record 106095
with the assistance of the registered nurse.106096

       Sec. 5111.884.        Sec. 5166.304.  (A) A home care attendant may assist 106097
a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of medication 106098
only after the attendant does both of the following:106099

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, completes 106100
consumer-specific training in how to provide the assistance that 106101
the authorizing health care professional authorizes the attendant 106102
to provide to the consumer;106103

       (2) At the request of the consumer, consumer's authorized 106104
representative, or authorizing health care professional, 106105
successfully demonstrates that the attendant has learned how to 106106
provide the authorized assistance to the consumer.106107

       (B) The training required by division (A)(1) of this section 106108
shall be provided by either of the following:106109

       (1) The authorizing health care professional;106110

       (2) The consumer or consumer's authorized representative in 106111
cooperation with the authorizing health care professional.106112

       Sec. 5111.885.        Sec. 5166.305.  A home care attendant shall comply 106113
with both of the following when assisting a consumer with nursing 106114
tasks or self-administration of medication:106115

       (A) The written consent of the consumer or consumer's 106116
authorized representative provided to the appropriate director of 106117
job and family services under section 5111.8865166.306 of the 106118
Revised Code;106119

       (B) The authorizing health care professional's written 106120
authorization provided to the appropriate director under section 106121
5111.8875166.307 of the Revised Code.106122

       Sec. 5111.886.        Sec. 5166.306.  To consent to a home care attendant 106123
assisting a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 106124
medication, the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 106125
shall provide the appropriate director of job and family services106126
a written statement signed by the consumer or authorized 106127
representative under which the consumer or authorized 106128
representative consents to both of the following:106129

       (A) Having the attendant assist the consumer with nursing 106130
tasks or self-administration of medication;106131

       (B) Assuming responsibility for directing the attendant when 106132
the attendant assists the consumer with nursing tasks or 106133
self-administration of medication.106134

       Sec. 5111.887.        Sec. 5166.307.  To authorize a home care attendant 106135
to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 106136
medication, a health care professional shall provide the 106137
appropriate director of job and family services a written 106138
statement signed by the health care professional that includes all 106139
of the following:106140

       (A) The consumer's name and address;106141

       (B) A description of the nursing tasks or self-administration 106142
of medication with which the attendant is to assist the consumer, 106143
including, in the case of assistance with self-administration of 106144
medication, the name and dosage of the medication;106145

       (C) The times or intervals when the attendant is to assist 106146
the consumer with the self-administration of each dosage of the 106147
medication or nursing tasks;106148

       (D) The dates the attendant is to begin and cease providing 106149
the assistance;106150

       (E) A list of severe adverse reactions the attendant must 106151
report to the health care professional should the consumer 106152
experience one or more of the reactions;106153

       (F) At least one telephone number at which the attendant can 106154
reach the health care professional in an emergency;106155

       (G) Instructions the attendant is to follow when assisting 106156
the consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 106157
medication, including instructions for maintaining sterile 106158
conditions and for storage of task-related equipment and supplies;106159

       (H) The health care professional's attestation of both of the 106160
following:106161

       (1) That the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 106162
has demonstrated to the health care professional the ability to 106163
direct the attendant;106164

       (2) That the attendant has demonstrated to the health care 106165
professional the ability to provide the consumer assistance with 106166
nursing tasks or self-administration of medication that the health 106167
care professional has specifically authorized the attendant to 106168
provide and that the consumer or consumer's authorized 106169
representative has indicated to the health care professional that 106170
the consumer or authorized representative is satisfied with the 106171
attendant's demonstration.106172

       Sec. 5111.888.        Sec. 5166.308.  When authorizing a home care 106173
attendant to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or 106174
self-administration of medication, a health care professional may 106175
not authorize a home care attendant to do any of the following:106176

       (A) Perform a task that is outside of the health care 106177
professional's scope of practice;106178

       (B) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 106179
medication, including a schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or 106180
schedule V drug unless both of the following apply:106181

        (1) The medication is administered orally, topically, or via 106182
a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, including through any of 106183
the following:106184

        (a) In the case of an oral medication, a metered dose 106185
inhaler;106186

        (b) In the case of a topical medication, including a 106187
transdermal medication, either of the following:106188

        (i) An eye, ear, or nose drop or spray;106189

        (ii) A vaginal or rectal suppository.106190

        (c) In the case of a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, 106191
only through a pre-programmed pump.106192

        (2) The medication is in its original container and the label 106193
attached to the container displays all of the following:106194

       (a) The consumer's full name in print;106195

       (b) The medication's dispensing date, which must not be more 106196
than twelve months before the date the attendant assists the 106197
consumer with self-administration of the medication;106198

       (c) The exact dosage and means of administration that match 106199
the health care professional's authorization to the attendant.106200

       (C) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 106201
schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or schedule V medication 106202
unless, in addition to meeting the requirements of division (B) of 106203
this section, all of the following apply:106204

       (1) The medication has a warning label on its container.106205

       (2) The attendant counts the medication in the consumer's or 106206
authorized representative's presence when the medication is 106207
administered to the consumer and records the count on a form used 106208
for the count as specified in rules adopted under section 106209
5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.106210

       (3) The attendant recounts the medication in the consumer's 106211
or authorized representative's presence at least monthly and 106212
reconciles the recount on a log located in the consumer's clinical 106213
record.106214

       (4) The medication is stored separately from all other 106215
medications and is secured and locked at all times when not being 106216
administered to the consumer to prevent unauthorized access.106217

       (D) Perform an intramuscular injection;106218

       (E) Perform a subcutaneous injection unless it is for a 106219
routine dose of insulin;106220

       (F) Program a pump used to deliver a medication unless the 106221
pump is used to deliver a routine dose of insulin;106222

       (G) Insert, remove, or discontinue an intravenous access 106223
device;106224

       (H) Engage in intravenous medication administration;106225

       (I) Insert or initiate an infusion therapy;106226

       (J) Perform a central line dressing change.106227

       Sec. 5111.889.        Sec. 5166.309.  A home care attendant who provides 106228
home care attendant services to a consumer in accordance with the 106229
authorizing health care professional's authorization does not 106230
engage in the practice of nursing as a registered nurse or in the 106231
practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse in violation of 106232
section 4723.03 of the Revised Code.106233

       A consumer or the consumer's authorized representative shall 106234
report to the appropriate director of job and family services if a 106235
home care attendant engages in the practice of nursing as a 106236
registered nurse or the practice of nursing as a licensed 106237
practical nurse beyond the authorizing health care professional's 106238
authorization. The appropriate director shall forward a copy of 106239
each report to the board of nursing.106240

       Sec. 5111.8810.        Sec. 5166.3010.  A consumer who is an adult may 106241
select an individual to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 106242
regarding home care attendant services by submitting a written 106243
notice of the consumer's selection of an authorized representative 106244
to the appropriate director of job and family services. The 106245
notice shall specifically identify the individual the consumer 106246
selects as authorized representative and may limit what the 106247
authorized representative may do on the consumer's behalf 106248
regarding home care attendant services. A consumer may not select 106249
the consumer's home care attendant to be the consumer's authorized 106250
representative.106251

       Sec. 5111.97.        Sec. 5166.35.  (A) As used in this section:106252

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 106253
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 106254
Revised Code.106255

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 106256
5111.20 of the Revised Code.106257

       (B) To the extent funds are available, theThe medicaid106258
director of job and family services may establish the Ohio access 106259
success project to help medicaid recipients make the transition 106260
from residing in a nursing facilityfacilities to residing in a106261
community settingsettings. The project may be established as a 106262
separate nonmedicaid program or integrated into a new or existing 106263
home and community-based services medicaid waiver component. The 106264
director shall permit any medicaid recipient of medicaid-funded106265
receiving nursing facility services to apply for participation in 106266
the project, but may limit the number of project participants. 106267

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 106268
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 106269
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 106270
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 106271
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 106272
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 106273
medicaid-fundedbegins to receive nursing facility services.106274

       (C)(B) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a 106275
medicaid recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:106276

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 106277
medicaid-fundedreceiving nursing facility services, at the time 106278
of applying for the project benefits.106279

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 106280
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 106281
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 106282
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 106283
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 106284
facility.106285

       (3) If the project is integrated into a home and 106286
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the medicaid 106287
recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment criteria.106288

        (D)(C) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 106289
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 106290
payment of all of the following:106291

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;106292

       (2) Rental deposits;106293

       (3) Utility deposits;106294

       (4) Moving expenses;106295

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 106296
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 106297
a community setting.106298

       (E)(D) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid 106299
program, no participant may receive more than two thousand 106300
dollars' worth of benefits under the project.106301

       (F)(E) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid106302
enters into a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management 106303
services regarding the project, the contract may provide for a 106304
portion of a participant's benefits under the project to be paid 106305
to the contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion 106306
to be paid to the contracting entity.106307

       (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 106308
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 106309
the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, 106310
as amended, to create a home and community-based services medicaid 106311
waiver component to serve individuals who meet the criteria for 106312
participation in the Ohio access success project.106313

       (H)(F) The director may adopt rules in accordance with 106314
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 106315
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 106316
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 106317
shall be adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised 106318
Code.106319

       Sec. 5167.01.  As used in this chapter:106320

       (A) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 106321
3719.01 of the Revised Code.106322

       (B) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 106323
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.106324

       (C) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in the 106325
"Social Security Act," section 1932(b)(2), 42 U.S.C. 106326
1396u-2(b)(2).106327

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 106328
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 106329
Revised Code.106330

       (E) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 106331
organization under contract with the department of medicaid 106332
pursuant to section 5167.10 of the Revised Code.106333

       (F) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 106334
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.106335

       (G) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 106336
5165.01 of the Revised Code.106337

       (H) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 106338
5164.01 of the Revised Code.106339

        (I) "Provider" means any person or government entity that 106340
furnishes services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a medicaid 106341
managed care organization, regardless of whether the person or 106342
entity has a provider agreement.106343

       (J) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 106344
5164.01 of the Revised Code.106345

       Sec. 5167.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 106346
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 106347
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106348

       Sec. 5111.16.        Sec. 5167.03. (A) As part of the medicaid program, 106349
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish 106350
a care management system. The department shall submit, if 106351
necessary, applications to the United States department of health 106352
and human services for waivers of federal medicaid requirements 106353
that would otherwise be violated in the implementation of the 106354
system.106355

       (B) The department shall implement the care management system 106356
in some or all counties and shall designate the medicaid 106357
recipients who are required or permitted to participate in the 106358
system. In the department's implementation of the system and 106359
designation of participants, all of the following apply:106360

       (1) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 106361
basis of being included in the category identified by the 106362
department as covered families and children, the department shall 106363
implement the care management system in all counties. All 106364
individuals included in the category shall be designated for 106365
participation, except for individuals included in one or more of 106366
the medicaid recipient groups specified in 42 C.F.R. 438.50(d). 106367
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 106368
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 106369
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 106370
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.106371

       (2) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 106372
basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 106373
(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 106374
shall implement the care management system in all counties. Except 106375
as provided in division (C) of this section, all individuals 106376
included in the category shall be designated for participation. 106377
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 106378
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 106379
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 106380
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.106381

        (3) Alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 106382
covered by medicaid shall not be included in any component of the 106383
care management system when the nonfederal share of the cost of 106384
those services is provided by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 106385
and mental health services or a state agency other than the 106386
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, but the recipients 106387
of those services may otherwise be designated for participation in 106388
the system.106389

        (C)(1) In designating participants who receive medicaid on 106390
the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, the department shall 106391
not include any of the following, except as provided under 106392
division (C)(2) of this section:106393

        (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;106394

        (b) Individuals who are institutionalized;106395

        (c) Individuals who become eligible for medicaid by spending 106396
down their income or resources to a level that meets the medicaid 106397
program's financial eligibility requirements;106398

        (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 106399
medicaid program and the medicare program established under Title 106400
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 106401
1395, as amendedindividuals;106402

        (e) Individuals to the extent that they are receiving 106403
medicaid services through a medicaid waiver component, as defined 106404
in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.106405

       (2) If any necessary waiver of federal medicaid requirements 106406
is granted, theThe department may designate any of the following 106407
individuals who receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, 106408
blind, or disabled as individuals who are permitted or required to 106409
participate in the care management system:106410

       (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;106411

        (b) Individuals who reside in a nursing facility, as defined 106412
in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;106413

       (c) Individuals who, as an alternative to receiving nursing 106414
facility services, are participating in a home and community-based 106415
services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5111.85 106416
of the Revised Code;106417

       (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 106418
medicaid program and the medicare programindividuals.106419

       (D) Subject to division (B) of this section, the department 106420
may do both of the following under the care management system:106421

       (1) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 106422
health care services from providers designated by the department;106423

       (2) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 106424
health care services through medicaid managed care organizations 106425
under contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of 106426
the Revised Code.106427

       (E)(1) The department shall prepare an annual report on the 106428
care management system. The report shall address the department's 106429
ability to implement the system, including all of the following 106430
components:106431

       (a) The required designation of participants included in the 106432
category identified by the department as covered families and 106433
children;106434

       (b) The required designation of participants included in the 106435
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;106436

       (c) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.106437

       (2) The department shall submit each annual report to the 106438
general assembly. The first report shall be submitted not later 106439
than October 1, 2007.106440

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 106441
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 106442
this section.106443

       Sec. 5111.161.        Sec. 5167.031.  (A) As used in this section:106444

       (1) "Children's care network" means any of the following:106445

       (a) A children's hospital;106446

       (b) A group of children's hospitals;106447

       (c) A group of pediatric physicians.106448

       (2) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 106449
2151.86 of the Revised Code.106450

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid106451
includes in the care management system, pursuant to section 106452
5111.165167.03 of the Revised Code, individuals under twenty-one 106453
years of age who are included in the category of individuals who 106454
receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, 106455
as specified in division (C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised 106456
Code, the department shall develop a system tomay recognize 106457
entities as pediatric accountable care organizations. The purpose 106458
of the recognition system shall be to meet the complex medical and 106459
behavioral needs of disabled children through new approaches to 106460
care coordination. The department shall implement the recognition 106461
system not later than July 1, 2012.106462

       An entity recognized by the department as a pediatric 106463
accountable care organization may develop innovative partnerships 106464
between relevant groups and may contract directly or subcontract 106465
with the state to provide care coordination and other services to 106466
the medicaid recipients under twenty-one years of age described in 106467
this division who are permitted or required to participate in the 106468
care management system. 106469

       (C)(1) To be recognized by the department as a pediatric 106470
accountable care organization, an entity shall meet the standards 106471
established in rules adopted under this sectionby the department. 106472
Unless required by sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient 106473
Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and 106474
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010)106475
section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj, the regulations adopted pursuant 106476
to those sections, and the laws of this state, the department 106477
shall not require that an entity be a health insuring corporation 106478
as a condition of receiving the department's recognition.106479

       (2) Any of the following entities may receive the 106480
department's recognition, if the standards for recognition have 106481
been met:106482

       (a) A children's care network;106483

       (b) A children's care network that may include one or more 106484
other entities, including, but not limited to, health insuring 106485
corporations or other managed care organizations;106486

       (c) Any other entity the department determines is qualified.106487

       (D) The departmentmedicaid director shall consult with all 106488
of the following in adopting rules underauthorized by division 106489
(E) of this section necessary for an entity to be recognized by 106490
the department as a pediatric accountable care organization:106491

       (1) The superintendent of insurance;106492

       (2) Children's hospitals;106493

       (3) ManagedMedicaid managed care organizations under 106494
contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;106495

       (4) Any other relevant entities, as determined necessary by 106496
the department, with interests in pediatric accountable care 106497
organizations.106498

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 106499
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 106500
section. In adopting the rules under section 5167.02 of the 106501
Revised Code, the departmentmedicaid director shall do all of the 106502
following:106503

       (1) Establish application procedures to be followed by an 106504
entity seeking recognition as a pediatric accountable care 106505
organization;106506

       (2) Ensure that the standards for recognition as a pediatric 106507
accountable care organization are the same as and do not conflict 106508
with those specified in sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the 106509
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) 106510
and Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 106511
(2010)section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj or the regulations adopted 106512
pursuant to those sections;106513

       (3) Establish requirements regarding the access to pediatric 106514
specialty care provided through or by a pediatric accountable care 106515
organization;106516

       (4) Establish accountability and financial requirements for 106517
an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable care organization;106518

       (5) Establish quality improvement initiatives consistent with 106519
any state medicaid quality plan established by the department;106520

       (6) Establish transparency and consumer protection 106521
requirements for an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable 106522
care organization;106523

       (7) Establish a process for sharing data.106524

       (F) This section does not limit the authority of the 106525
department of insurance to regulate the business of insurance in 106526
this state.106527

       Sec. 5167.032.  (A) The department of medicaid shall prepare 106528
an annual report on the care management system established under 106529
this chapter. The report shall address the department's ability to 106530
implement the system, including all of the following components:106531

       (1) The required designation of participants included in the 106532
category identified by the department as covered families and 106533
children;106534

       (2) The required designation of participants included in the 106535
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;106536

       (3) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.106537

       (B) The department shall submit each annual report to the 106538
general assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 106539
Code.106540

       Sec. 5111.17.        Sec. 5167.10.  (A) The department of job and family 106541
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with managed care 106542
organizations, including health insuring corporations, under which 106543
the organizations are authorized to provide, or arrange for the 106544
provision of, health care services to medical assistancemedicaid106545
recipients who are required or permitted to obtain health care 106546
services through managed care organizations as part of the care 106547
management system established under section 5111.165167.03 of the 106548
Revised Code.106549

       (B) The(1) Subject to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 106550
the department or its actuary shall base the hospital inpatient 106551
capital payment portion of the payment made to managed care 106552
organizations on data for services provided to all recipients 106553
enrolled in managed care organizations with which the department 106554
contracts, as reported by hospitals on relevant cost reports 106555
submitted pursuant to rules adopted under this section 5167.02 of 106556
the Revised Code.106557

       (2)(a) The hospital inpatient capital payment portion of the 106558
payment made to medicaid managed care organizations shall not 106559
exceed any maximum rate established by the department pursuant to 106560
rules adopted under this section.106561

        (b) If a maximum rate is established, a medicaid managed care 106562
organization shall not compensate hospitals for inpatient capital 106563
costs in an amount that exceeds that rate. 106564

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 106565
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 106566
this section. 106567

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 106568
allow a medicaid managed care organization to use providers to 106569
render care upon completion of the medicaid managed care 106570
organization's credentialing process.106571

       Sec. 5111.177.        Sec. 5167.11.  When contracting under section 106572
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a health insuring 106573
corporation that holds a certificate of authority under Chapter 106574
1751. of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 106575
servicesmedicaid shall require the health insuring corporation to 106576
provide a grievance process for medicaid recipients in accordance 106577
with 42 C.F.R. 438, subpart F.106578

       Sec. 5111.172.        Sec. 5167.12.  (A) When contracting under section 106579
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a managed care 106580
organization that is a health insuring corporation, the department 106581
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall require the health 106582
insuring corporation to provide coverage of prescription106583
prescribed drugs for medicaid recipients enrolled in the health 106584
insuring corporation. In providing the required coverage, the 106585
health insuring corporation may, subject to the department's 106586
approval and the limitations specified in division (B) of this 106587
section, use strategies for the management of drug utilization.106588

       (B) The department shall not permit a health insuring 106589
corporation to impose a prior authorization requirement in the 106590
case of a drug to which all of the following apply:106591

       (1) The drug is an antidepressant or antipsychotic.106592

       (2) The drug is administered or dispensed in a standard 106593
tablet or capsule form, except that in the case of an 106594
antipsychotic, the drug also may be administered or dispensed in a 106595
long-acting injectable form.106596

       (3) The drug is prescribed by either of the following:106597

       (a) A physician whom the health insuring corporation, 106598
pursuant to division (C) of section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised 106599
Code, has credentialed to provide care as a psychiatrist;106600

       (b) A psychiatrist practicing at a community mental health 106601
agencyservices provider certified by the department of mental 106602
healthmental health and addiction services under section 106603
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.106604

       (4) The drug is prescribed for a use that is indicated on the 106605
drug's labeling, as approved by the federal food and drug 106606
administration.106607

       (C) As used in this division, "controlled substance" has the 106608
same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.106609

        The department shall permit a health insuring corporation to 106610
develop and implement a pharmacy utilization management program 106611
under which prior authorization through the program is established 106612
as a condition of obtaining a controlled substance pursuant to a 106613
prescription.106614

       Sec. 5167.121. (A) A medicaid managed care organization or 106615
its third party administrator shall provide advance notice of both 106616
of the following:106617

       (1) In the case of any provider, termination of the 106618
provider's status as a managed care network provider unless the 106619
termination is implemented because of fraud, illegal conduct, 106620
bankruptcy, insolvency, or any other reason specified by contract 106621
with the provider for which notification is not required;106622

       (2) In the case of a pharmacy provider, removal of a 106623
prescribed drug from the formulary or preferred drug list used by 106624
the organization or administrator or any change in the terms 106625
governing access to the drug.106626

       (B) The minimum period of specified advance notice to be 106627
provided under this section shall be either the period specified 106628
in the contract with the provider or, if there is no period 106629
specified in the contract, ninety days. The organization or 106630
administrator shall notify the provider in the same manner it 106631
notifies the provider for other purposes.106632

       Sec. 5111.179.        Sec. 5167.13.  Each contract the department of job 106633
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 106634
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 106635
shall require the managed care organization to implement a 106636
coordinated services program for medicaid recipients enrolled in 106637
the organization who are found to have obtained prescription106638
prescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a frequency or in 106639
an amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 106640
implemented in a manner that is consistent with section 1915(a)(2) 106641
of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 (1981)section 106642
1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 42 C.F.R. 106643
431.54(e).106644

       Sec. 5111.1710.        Sec. 5167.14.  Each contract the department of job 106645
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 106646
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 106647
shall require the managed care organization to enter into a data 106648
security agreement with the state board of pharmacy governing the 106649
managed care organization's use of the board's drug database 106650
established and maintained under section 4729.75 of the Revised 106651
Code.106652

       This section does not apply if the board no longer maintains 106653
the drug database.106654

       Sec. 5111.162.        Sec. 5167.20.  (A) As used in this section:106655

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 106656
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 106657
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.106658

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 106659
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 106660
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 106661
Revised Code.106662

       (B) Except as provided in division (C)(B) of this section, 106663
when a participant in the care management system established under 106664
section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter is enrolled in a 106665
medicaid managed care organization and the organization refers the 106666
participant to receive services, other than emergency services 106667
provided on or after January 1, 2007, at a hospital that 106668
participates in the medicaid program but is not under contract 106669
with the organization, the hospital shall provide the service for 106670
which the referral was made and shall accept from the 106671
organization, as payment in full, the amount derived from the 106672
reimbursementpayment rate used by the department to reimbursepay106673
other hospitals of the same type for providing the same service to 106674
a medicaid recipient who is not enrolled in a medicaid managed 106675
care organization.106676

       (C)(B) A hospital is not subject to division (B)(A) of this 106677
section if all of the following are the case:106678

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 106679
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 106680
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 106681
health insuring corporation;106682

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 106683
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 106684
participants specified in division (C)(B)(1) of this section;106685

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 106686
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 106687
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 106688
insuring corporation.106689

       (D)(C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 106690
adopt rules under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code specifying 106691
the circumstances under which a medicaid managed care organization 106692
is permitted to refer a participant in the care management system 106693
to a hospital that is not under contract with the organization. 106694
The director may adopt any other rules necessary to implement this 106695
section. All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 106696
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106697

       Sec. 5111.163.        Sec. 5167.201. (A) As used in this section:106698

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 106699
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 106700
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.106701

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 106702
as in section 5111.162 of the Revised Code.106703

       (3) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 106704
furnishes emergency services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a 106705
medicaid managed care organization, regardless of whether the 106706
person, institution, or entity has a provider agreement with the 106707
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 106708
"Social Security Act."106709

       (B) When a participant in the care management system 106710
established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter106711
is enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization and receives 106712
emergency services on or after January 1, 2007, from a provider 106713
that is not under contract with the organization, the provider 106714
shall accept from the organization, as payment in full, not more 106715
than the amounts (less any payments for indirect costs of medical 106716
education and direct costs of graduate medical education) that the 106717
provider could collect if the participant received medicaid other 106718
than through enrollment in a managed care organization.106719

       An agreement entered into by a participant, a participant's 106720
parent, or a participant's legal guardian that requires payment 106721
for emergency services in violation of this section is void and 106722
unenforceable.106723

       Sec. 5111.982.        Sec. 5167.21.  (A) As used in this section:106724

       (1) "Covered skilled nursing facility services" has the same 106725
meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1888(e)(2)(A), 42 106726
U.S.C. 1395yy(e)(2)(A).106727

       (2) "Current medicare fee-for-service rate" means the 106728
fee-for-service rate in effect for a covered skilled nursing 106729
facility service under medicare at the time the service is 106730
provided.106731

       (3) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in the 106732
"Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).106733

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 106734
medicaid managed care organization shall pay a skilled nursing 106735
facility at least the current medicare fee-for-service rate, 106736
without deduction for any coinsurance, for covered skilled nursing 106737
facility services that the skilled nursing facility provides to a 106738
dual eligible individual if the medicaid managed care organization 106739
is responsible for the payment under the terms of a contract that 106740
the medicaid managed care organization, medical assistance106741
medicaid director, and United States secretary of health and human 106742
services jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery 106743
system authorized by section 5111.9815164.91 of the Revised Code.106744

       (C) A medicaid managed care organization is required to pay 106745
the rate specified in division (B) of this section for covered 106746
skilled nursing facility services only if all of the following 106747
apply:106748

       (1) The United States secretary agrees to the payment rate as 106749
part of the contract that the medicaid managed care organization, 106750
medical assistancemedicaid director, and United States secretary 106751
jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery system;106752

       (2) The medicaid managed care organization receives a federal 106753
capitation payment that is an actuarially sufficient amount for 106754
the costs that the medicaid managed care organization incurs in 106755
paying the rate;106756

       (3) No state funds are used for any part of the costs that 106757
the medicaid managed care organization incurs in paying the rate;106758

       (4) The integrated care delivery system provides for dual 106759
eligible individuals to receive the covered skilled nursing 106760
facility services as part of the system.106761

       Sec. 5111.178.        Sec. 5167.25. (A) The medicaid director of job and 106762
family services shall determine whether a waiver of federal 106763
medicaid requirements is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 106764
section 3901.3814 of the Revised Code. If the director determines 106765
a waiver is necessary, the department of job and family services106766
medicaid shall apply to the United States secretary of health and 106767
human services for the waiver.106768

       (B)(1) If the director determines that section 3901.3814 of 106769
the Revised Code can be implemented without a waiver or a waiver 106770
is granted, the department shall notify the department of 106771
insurance that the section can be implemented. Implementation of 106772
the section shall be effective eighteen months after the notice is 106773
sent.106774

        (2) At the time the notice is given under division (B)(1) of 106775
this section, the department shall also give notice to each health 106776
insuring corporation that provides coverage to medicaid 106777
recipients. The notice shall inform the corporation that sections 106778
3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3814 of the Revised Code apply to 106779
claims for services rendered to recipients on the date determined 106780
under division (B)(1) of this section, instead of the prompt 106781
payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46. That date shall be 106782
specified in the notice.106783

       Sec. 5111.175.        Sec. 5167.26. For the purpose of determining the 106784
amount the department of job and family servicesmedicaid pays 106785
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code and 106786
the amount of disproportionate share hospital payments paid by the 106787
medicare program established under Title XVIII ofpursuant to the 106788
"Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)section 1915, 42 U.S.C. 106789
1396n, as amended, a medicaid managed care organization under 106790
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 106791
Revised Code authorizing the organization to provide, or arrange 106792
for the provision of, hospital services to medicaid recipients106793
shall keep detailed records for each hospital with which it 106794
contracts about, including records regarding the cost to the 106795
hospital of providing thehospital services for the organization, 106796
payments made by the organization to the hospital for the 106797
services, utilization of hospital services by medicaid recipients 106798
enrolled in the organization, and other utilization data required 106799
by the department.106800

       Sec. 5111.1711.        Sec. 5167.30.  (A)(1) The department of job and 106801
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a managed care 106802
performance payment program. Under the program, the department may 106803
provide payments to medicaid managed care organizations under 106804
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 106805
Revised Code that meet performance standards established by the 106806
department.106807

       (2) In establishing performance standards, the department may 106808
consult any of the following:106809

       (a) Any quality measurements developed under the pediatric 106810
quality measures program established pursuant to the "Social 106811
Security Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9a;106812

       (b) Any core set of adult health quality measures for 106813
medicaid eligible adults used for purposes of the "Social Security 106814
Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b, and any adult health 106815
quality used for purposes of the medicaid quality measurement 106816
program when the program is established under 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b106817
that section of the "Social Security Act";106818

       (c) The most recent healthcare effectiveness data and 106819
information set and quality measurement tool established by the 106820
national committee for quality assurance.106821

       (3) The standards that must be met to receive the payments 106822
may be specified in the contract the department enters into with a 106823
medicaid managed care organization.106824

       (4) If a medicaid managed care organization meets the 106825
performance standards established by the department, the 106826
department shall make one or more performance payments to the 106827
organization. The amount of each performance payment, the number 106828
of payments, and the schedule for making the payments shall be 106829
established by the department. The payments shall be discontinued 106830
if the department determines that the organization no longer meets 106831
the performance standards. The department shall not make or 106832
discontinue payments based on any performance standard that has 106833
been in effect as part of the organization's contract for less 106834
than six months.106835

       (B) For purposes of the program, the department shall 106836
establish an amount that is to be withheld each time a premium 106837
payment is made to a medicaid managed care organization. The 106838
amount shall be established as a percentage of each premium 106839
payment. The percentage shall be the same for all medicaid managed 106840
care organizations under contract with the department. The sum of 106841
all withholdings under this division shall not exceed onetwo per 106842
cent of the total of all premium payments made to all medicaid106843
managed care organizations under contract with the department.106844

       Each medicaid managed care organization shall agree to the 106845
withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 106846
medicaid provider agreement with the department.106847

       When the amount is established and each time the amount is 106848
modified thereafter, the department shall certify the amount to 106849
the director of budget and management and begin withholding the 106850
amount from each premium the department pays to a medicaid managed 106851
care organization.106852

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the managed 106853
care performance payment fund. The fund shall consist of amounts 106854
transferred to it by the director of budget and management for the 106855
purpose of the program. All investment earnings of the fund shall 106856
be credited to the fund. Amounts in the fund shall be used solely 106857
to make performance payments to managed care organizations in 106858
accordance with this section.106859

       (D) The department may adopt rules as necessary to implement 106860
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 106861
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106862

       Sec. 5111.171.        Sec. 5167.31.  The department of job and family 106863
servicesmedicaid may provide financial incentive awards to 106864
medicaid managed care organizations under contract with the 106865
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that 106866
meet or exceed performance standards specified in provider 106867
agreements or rules adopted by the departmentmedicaid director 106868
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The department may 106869
specify in a contract with a medicaid managed care organization 106870
the amounts of financial incentive awards, methodology for 106871
distributing awards, types of awards, and standards for 106872
administration by the department.106873

       Sec. 5111.173.        Sec. 5167.40.  The department of job and family 106874
servicesmedicaid shall appoint a temporary manager for a 106875
medicaid managed care organization under contract with the 106876
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code if the 106877
department determines that the medicaid managed care organization 106878
has repeatedly failed to meet substantive requirements specified 106879
in section 1903(m) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 106880
(1965)sections 1903(m) and 1932, 42 U.S.C. 1396b(m), as amended; 106881
section 1932 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C.and 1396u-2, as 106882
amended; or 42 C.F.R. 438 Part I. The appointment of a temporary 106883
manager does not preclude the department from imposing other 106884
sanctions available to the department against the medicaid managed 106885
care organization.106886

       The medicaid managed care organization shall pay all costs of 106887
having the temporary manager perform the temporary manager's 106888
duties, including all costs the temporary manager incurs in 106889
performing those duties. If the temporary manager incurs costs or 106890
liabilities on behalf of the medicaid managed care organization, 106891
the medicaid managed care organization shall pay those costs and 106892
be responsible for those liabilities. 106893

       The appointment of a temporary manager is not subject to 106894
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but the managed care 106895
organization may request a reconsideration of the appointment. 106896
Reconsiderations shall be requested and conducted in accordance 106897
with rules the director of job and family servicesmedicaid 106898
director shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. ofunder 106899
section 5167.02 of the Revised Code.106900

       The appointment of a temporary manager does not cause the 106901
medicaid managed care organization to lose the right to appeal, in 106902
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, any proposed 106903
termination or any decision not to renewrevalidate the medicaid106904
managed care organization's medicaid provider agreement or the 106905
right to initiate the sale of the medicaid managed care 106906
organization or its assets.106907

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 106908
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 106909
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 106910
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106911

       Sec. 5111.174.        Sec. 5167.41.  The department of job and family 106912
servicesmedicaid may disenroll some or all medicaid recipients 106913
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 106914
with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised 106915
Code if the department proposes to terminate or not to renew106916
revalidate the contract and determines that the recipients' access 106917
to medically necessary services is jeopardized by the proposal to 106918
terminate or not to renewrevalidate the contract. The 106919
disenrollment is not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 106920
but the medicaid managed care organization may request a 106921
reconsideration of the disenrollment. Reconsiderations shall be 106922
requested and conducted in accordance with rules the medicaid106923
director of job and family services shall adopt in accordance with 106924
Chapter 119.under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The 106925
request for, or conduct of, a reconsideration regarding a proposed 106926
disenrollment shall not delay the disenrollment.106927

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 106928
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 106929
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 106930
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 106931

       Sec. 5112.01.        Sec. 5168.01.  As used in sections 5112.035168.01 to 106932
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code:106933

       (A) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 106934
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 106935
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 106936
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.106937

       (B) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 106938
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 106939
of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.106940

       (C) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 106941
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 106942
adopted under section 5168.02 of the Revised Code.106943

       (D) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 106944
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 106945
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 106946
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 106947
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 106948
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).106949

       (E) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 106950
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 106951
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.106952

       (F)(1) "Hospital" means a nonfederal hospital to which either 106953
of the following applies:106954

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 106955
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 106956
pediatric general hospital, and provides inpatient hospital 106957
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10;106958

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program 106959
established by Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 106960
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, as a cancer hospital and 106961
is exempt from the medicare prospective payment system.106962

       (2) "Hospital" does not include a hospital operated by a 106963
health insuring corporation that has been issued a certificate of 106964
authority under section 1751.05 of the Revised Code or a hospital 106965
that does not charge patients for services.106966

       (2) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 106967
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 106968
adopted under section 5112.03 of the Revised Code.106969

       (B) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 106970
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 106971
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 106972
Act."106973

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 106974
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 106975
of the "Social Security Act."106976

       (D) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 106977
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 106978
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.106979

       (E)(G) "Indigent care pool" means the sum of the following:106980

       (1) The total of assessments to be paid in a program year by 106981
all hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, 106982
less the assessments deposited into the legislative budget 106983
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 106984
and into the health care services administration fund created 106985
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;106986

       (2) The total amount of intergovernmental transfers required 106987
to be made in the same program year by governmental hospitals 106988
under section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, less the amount 106989
of transfers deposited into the legislative budget services fund 106990
under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code and into the 106991
health care services administration fund created under section 106992
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;106993

       (3) The total amount of federal matching funds that will be 106994
made available in the same program year as a result of funds 106995
distributed by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid106996
to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.106997

       (F)(H) "Intergovernmental transfer" means any transfer of 106998
money by a governmental hospital under section 5112.075168.07 of 106999
the Revised Code.107000

       (G) "Medical assistance program" means the program of medical 107001
assistance established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code 107002
and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act."107003

       (H)(I) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 107004
5164.01 of the Revised Code.107005

       (J) "Program year" means a period beginning the first day of 107006
October, or a later date designated in rules adopted under section 107007
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code, and ending the thirtieth day 107008
of September, or an earlier date designated in rules adopted under 107009
that section.107010

       (I)(K) "Registered beds" means the total number of hospital 107011
beds registered with the department of health, as reported in the 107012
most recent "directory of registered hospitals" published by the 107013
department of health.107014

       (J)(L) "Third-party payer" means any person or government 107015
entity that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to or 107016
on behalf of an individual for health care services. "Third-party 107017
payer" does not include a hospital.107018

       (M) "Total facility costs" means the total costs for all 107019
services rendered to all patients, including the direct, indirect, 107020
and overhead cost to the hospital of all services, supplies, 107021
equipment, and capital related to the care of patients, regardless 107022
of whether patients are enrolled in a health insuring corporation, 107023
excluding costs associated with providing skilled nursing services 107024
in distinct-part nursing facility units, as shown on the 107025
hospital's cost report filed under section 5112.045168.05 of the 107026
Revised Code. Effective October 1, 1993, if rules adopted under 107027
section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code so provide, "total 107028
facility costs" may exclude costs associated with providing care 107029
to recipients of any of the governmental programs listed in 107030
division (B) of that section.107031

       (K)(N) "Uncompensated care" means bad debt and charity care.107032

       Sec. 5112.03.        Sec. 5168.02.  (A) The director of job and family 107033
services shall adopt, and may amend and rescind,medicaid director 107034
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 107035
Code for the purpose of administering sections 5112.015168.01 to 107036
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all 107037
of the following:107038

       (1) Define as a "disproportionate share hospital" any 107039
hospital included under subsection (b) of section 1923 of the 107040
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1923(b), 42 107041
U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(b), as amended, and any other hospital the 107042
director determines appropriate;107043

       (2) Prescribe the form for submission of cost reports under 107044
section 5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code;107045

       (3) Establish, in accordance with division (A) of section 107046
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, the assessment rate or rates 107047
to be applied to hospitals under that section;107048

       (4) Establish schedules for hospitals to pay installments on 107049
their assessments under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised 107050
Code and for governmental hospitals to pay installments on their 107051
intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of the 107052
Revised Code;107053

       (5) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 107054
made under division (B)(2)(b) of section 5112.065168.06 of the 107055
Revised Code in the amount of installments on their assessment;107056

       (6) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 107057
made under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised 107058
Code in the total amount of their assessment and to adjust for the 107059
remainder of the program year the amount of the installments on 107060
the assessments;107061

       (7) Establish, in accordance with section 5112.085168.09 of 107062
the Revised Code, the methodology for paying hospitals under that 107063
section.107064

       The director shall consult with hospitals when adopting the 107065
rules required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section in 107066
order to minimize hospitals' cash flow difficulties.107067

       (B) Rules adopted under this section may provide that "total 107068
facility costs" excludes costs associated with any of the 107069
following:107070

       (1) Recipients of the medical assistance programMedicaid 107071
recipients;107072

       (2) Recipients of disability financial assistance provided 107073
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;107074

       (3) Recipients of the program for medically handicapped 107075
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;107076

       (4) Recipients of the medicare program established under 107077
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 107078
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:Medicare beneficiaries;107079

       (5) Recipients of Title V of the "Social Security Act," 42 107080
U.S.C. 701 et seq.,;107081

       (6) Any other category of costs deemed appropriate by the 107082
director in accordance with Title XIX of the "Social Security 107083
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., and the rules adopted under that 107084
title.107085

       Sec. 5112.05.        Sec. 5168.03.  The requirements of sections 5112.06107086
5168.06 to 5112.095168.09 of the Revised Code apply only as long 107087
as the United States health care financing administration 107088
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.06107089
5168.06 of the Revised Code is a permissible health care-related 107090
tax pursuant to section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 107091
Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 107092
amended. Whenever the department of job and family services107093
medicaid is informed that the assessment is an impermissible 107094
health care-related tax, the department shall promptly refund to 107095
each hospital the amount of money currently in the hospital care 107096
assurance program fund created by section 5112.185168.11 of the 107097
Revised Code that has been paid by the hospital under section 107098
5112.065168.06 or 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, plus any 107099
investment earnings on that amount.107100

       Sec. 5112.10.        Sec. 5168.04.  The department of job and family 107101
servicesmedicaid shall operate the hospital care assurance 107102
program established by sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14107103
of the Revised Code on a program year basis. The department shall 107104
complete all program requirements on or before the thirtieth day 107105
of September each year.107106

       Sec. 5112.04.        Sec. 5168.05.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) 107107
of this section, each hospital, on or before the first day of July 107108
of each year or at a later date approved by the medicaid director 107109
of job and family services, shall submit to the department of job 107110
and family servicesmedicaid a financial statement for the 107111
preceding calendar year that accurately reflects the income, 107112
expenses, assets, liabilities, and net worth of the hospital, and 107113
accompanying notes. A hospital that has a fiscal year different 107114
from the calendar year shall file its financial statement within 107115
one hundred eighty days of the end of its fiscal year or at a 107116
later date approved by the director of job and family services. 107117
The financial statement shall be prepared by an independent 107118
certified public accountant and reflect an official audit report 107119
prepared in a manner consistent with generally accepted accounting 107120
principles. The financial statement shall, to the extent that the 107121
hospital has sufficient financial records, show bad debt and 107122
charity care separately from courtesy care and contractual 107123
allowances.107124

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 107125
hospital, within one hundred eighty days after the end of the 107126
hospital's cost reporting period, shall submit to the department a 107127
cost report in a format prescribed in rules adopted by the 107128
director of job and family services under section 5112.035168.02107129
of the Revised Code. The department shall grant a hospital an 107130
extension of the one hundred eighty day period if the health care 107131
financing administration of the United States department of health 107132
and human services extends the date by which the hospital must 107133
submit its cost report for the hospital's cost reporting period.107134

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 107135
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code specifying 107136
financial information that must be submitted by hospitals for 107137
which no financial statement or cost report is available. The 107138
rules shall specify deadlines for submitting the information. Each 107139
such hospital shall submit the information specified in the rules 107140
not later than the deadline specified in the rules.107141

       Sec. 5112.06.        Sec. 5168.06.  (A) For the purpose of distributing 107142
funds to hospitals under the medical assistancemedicaid program 107143
pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the 107144
Revised Code and depositing funds into the legislative budget 107145
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 107146
and into the health care services administration fund created 107147
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 107148
imposed an assessment on all hospitals. Each hospital's assessment 107149
shall be based on total facility costs. All hospitals shall be 107150
assessed according to the rate or rates established each program 107151
year by the department of job and family services in rules adopted 107152
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code. The department 107153
shall assess all hospitals uniformly and in a manner consistent 107154
with federal statutes and regulations. During any program year, 107155
the department shall not assess any hospital more than two per 107156
cent of the hospital's total facility costs.107157

       The department shall establish an assessment rate or rates 107158
each program year that will do both of the following:107159

       (1) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 107160
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce a program of 107161
sufficient size to pay a substantial portion of the indigent care 107162
provided by hospitals;107163

       (2) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 107164
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce amounts for 107165
distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that do not 107166
exceed, in the aggregate, the limits prescribed by the United 107167
States health care financing administration under subsection (f) 107168
of section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)107169
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.107170

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 107171
each hospital shall pay its assessment in periodic installments in 107172
accordance with a schedule established by the director of job and 107173
family services in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of 107174
the Revised Code.107175

       (2) The installments shall be equal in amount, unless either 107176
of the following applies:107177

       (a) The department makes adjustments during a program year 107178
under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised Code 107179
in the total amount of hospitals' assessments;107180

       (b) The medicaid director of job and family services107181
determines that adjustments in the amounts of installments are 107182
necessary for the administration of sections 5112.015168.01 to 107183
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code and that unequal installments 107184
will not create cash flow difficulties for hospitals.107185

       (3) The director may adopt rules under section 5112.03107186
5168.02 of the Revised Code establishing alternate schedules for 107187
hospitals to pay assessments under this section in order to reduce 107188
hospitals' cash flow difficulties.107189

       Sec. 5112.07.        Sec. 5168.07.  (A) The department of job and family 107190
servicesmedicaid may require governmental hospitals to make 107191
intergovernmental transfers each program year for the purpose of 107192
distributing funds to hospitals under the medical assistance107193
medicaid program pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.21107194
5168.14 of the Revised Code and depositing funds into the 107195
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 107196
the Revised Code and into the health care services administration 107197
fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code. 107198
The department shall not require transfers in an amount that, when 107199
combined with hospital assessments paid under section 5112.06107200
5168.06 of the Revised Code and federal matching funds, produce 107201
amounts for distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that, 107202
in the aggregate, exceed limits prescribed by the United States 107203
health care financing administration under subsection (f) of 107204
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)107205
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.107206

       (B) Before or during each program year, the department shall 107207
notify each governmental hospital of the amount of the 107208
intergovernmental transfer it is required to make during the 107209
program year. Each governmental hospital shall make 107210
intergovernmental transfers as required by the department under 107211
this section in periodic installments, executed by electronic fund 107212
transfer, in accordance with a schedule established in rules 107213
adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.107214

       Sec. 5112.09.        Sec. 5168.08.  (A) Before or during each program 107215
year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 107216
mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt requested, 107217
the preliminary determination of the amount that the hospital is 107218
assessed under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code during 107219
the program year. The preliminary determination of a hospital's 107220
assessment shall be calculated for a cost-reporting period that is 107221
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 107222
Revised Code.107223

       The department shall consult with hospitals each year when 107224
determining the date on which it will mail the preliminary 107225
determinations in order to minimize hospitals' cash flow 107226
difficulties.107227

       If no hospital submits a request for reconsideration under 107228
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 107229
constitutes the final reconciliation of each hospital's assessment 107230
under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. The final 107231
reconciliation is subject to adjustments under division (D) of 107232
this section.107233

       (B) Not later than fourteen days after the preliminary 107234
determinations are mailed, any hospital may submit to the 107235
department a written request to reconsider the preliminary 107236
determinations. The request shall be accompanied by written 107237
materials setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. If one 107238
or more hospitals submit a request, the department shall hold a 107239
public hearing not later than thirty days after the preliminary 107240
determinations are mailed to reconsider the preliminary 107241
determinations. The department shall mail to each hospital a 107242
written notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at 107243
least ten days prior to the hearing. On the basis of the evidence 107244
submitted to the department or presented at the public hearing, 107245
the department shall reconsider and may adjust the preliminary 107246
determinations. The result of the reconsideration is the final 107247
reconciliation of the hospital's assessment under section 5112.06107248
5168.06 of the Revised Code. The final reconciliation is subject 107249
to adjustments under division (D) of this section.107250

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 107251
notice of its assessment for the program year under the final 107252
reconciliation. A hospital may appeal the final reconciliation of 107253
its assessment to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 107254
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 107255
accordance with the schedules required by division (B) of section 107256
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, any amount of its assessment 107257
that is not in dispute into the hospital care assurance program 107258
fund created in section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised Code.107259

       (D) In the course of any program year, the department may 107260
adjust the assessment rate or rates established in rules pursuant 107261
to section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code or adjust the 107262
amounts of intergovernmental transfers required under section 107263
5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code and, as a result of the 107264
adjustment, adjust each hospital's assessment and 107265
intergovernmental transfer, to reflect refinements made by the 107266
United States health care financing administration during that 107267
program year to the limits it prescribed under subsection (f) of 107268
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)107269
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended. When 107270
adjusted, the assessment rate or rates must comply with division 107271
(A) of section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. An adjusted 107272
intergovernmental transfer must comply with division (A) of 107273
section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code. The department shall 107274
notify hospitals of adjustments made under this division and 107275
adjust for the remainder of the program year the installments paid 107276
by hospitals under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.075168.07 of 107277
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 107278
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.107279

       Sec. 5112.08.        Sec. 5168.09.  The medicaid director of job and 107280
family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.035168.02 of 107281
the Revised Code establishing a methodology to pay hospitals that 107282
is sufficient to expend all money in the indigent care pool. Under 107283
the rules:107284

       (A) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 107285
classify similar hospitals into groups and allocate funds for 107286
distribution within each group.107287

       (B) The department shall establish a method of allocating 107288
funds to hospitals, taking into consideration the relative amount 107289
of indigent care provided by each hospital or group of hospitals. 107290
The amount to be allocated shall be based on any combination of 107291
the following indicators of indigent care that the director 107292
considers appropriate:107293

       (1) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 107294
recipients of the medical assistance program, including recipients 107295
enrolled in health insuring corporations;107296

       (2) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 107297
low-income patients in addition to medicaid recipients of the 107298
medical assistance program, which may include recipients of Title 107299
V of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 107300
301701 et seq., as amended, and recipients of disability107301
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 107302
Code;107303

       (3) The amount of uncompensated care provided by the hospital 107304
or group of hospitals;107305

       (4) Other factors that the director considers to be 107306
appropriate indicators of indigent care.107307

       (C) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital or 107308
group of hospitals in a manner that first may provide for an 107309
additional distribution to individual hospitals that provide a 107310
high proportion of indigent care in relation to the total care 107311
provided by the hospital or in relation to other hospitals. The 107312
department shall establish a formula to distribute the remainder 107313
of the funds. The formula shall be consistent with section 1923 of107314
the "Social Security Act," section 1923, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4, as 107315
amended,and shall be based on any combination of the indicators 107316
of indigent care listed in division (B) of this section that the 107317
director considers appropriate.107318

       (D) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital in 107319
installments not later than ten working days after the deadline 107320
established in rules for each hospital to pay an installment on 107321
its assessment under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. 107322
In the case of a governmental hospital that makes 107323
intergovernmental transfers, the department shall pay an 107324
installment under this section not later than ten working days 107325
after the earlier of that deadline or the deadline established in 107326
rules for the governmental hospital to pay an installment on its 107327
intergovernmental transfer. If the amount in the hospital care 107328
assurance program fund created under section 5112.185168.11 of 107329
the Revised Code and the portion of the health care - federal fund 107330
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code that is 107331
credited to that fund pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.18107332
5168.11 of the Revised Code are insufficient to make the total 107333
distributions for which hospitals are eligible to receive in any 107334
period, the department shall reduce the amount of each 107335
distribution by the percentage by which the amount and portion are 107336
insufficient. The department shall distribute to hospitals any 107337
amounts not distributed in the period in which they are due as 107338
soon as moneys are available in the funds.107339

       Sec. 5112.11.        Sec. 5168.10.  Except for moneys deposited into the 107340
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 107341
the Revised Code and the health care services administration fund 107342
created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, the 107343
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall not use money 107344
paid to the department under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.07107345
5168.07 of the Revised Code or money that the department pays to 107346
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code to 107347
replace any funds appropriated by the general assembly for the 107348
medical assistancemedicaid program.107349

       Sec. 5112.18.        Sec. 5168.11.  (A) Except as provided in section 107350
5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code, all payments of assessments 107351
by hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and 107352
all intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of 107353
the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 107354
credit of the hospital care assurance program fund, hereby 107355
created. All investment earnings of the hospital care assurance 107356
program fund shall be credited to the fund. The department of job 107357
and family servicesmedicaid shall maintain records that show the 107358
amount of money in the hospital care assurance program fund at any 107359
time that has been paid by each hospital and the amount of any 107360
investment earnings on that amount. All moneys credited to the 107361
hospital care assurance program fund shall be used solely to make 107362
payments to hospitals under division (D) of this section and 107363
section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.107364

       (B) All federal matching funds received as a result of the 107365
department distributing funds from the hospital care assurance 107366
program fund to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the 107367
Revised Code shall be credited to the health care - federal fund 107368
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code. 107369

       (C) All distributions of funds to hospitals under section 107370
5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code are conditional on:107371

       (1) Expiration of the time for appeals under section 5112.09107372
5168.08 of the Revised Code without the filing of an appeal, or on 107373
court determinations, in the event of appeals, that the hospital 107374
is entitled to the funds;107375

       (2) The sum of the following being sufficient to distribute 107376
the funds after the final determination of any appeals:107377

       (a) The available money in the hospital care assurance 107378
program fund;107379

       (b) The available portion of the money in the health care - 107380
federal fund that is credited to that fund pursuant to division 107381
(B) of this section.107382

       (3) The hospital's compliance with section 5112.175168.14 of 107383
the Revised Code.107384

       (D) If an audit conducted by the department of the amounts of 107385
payments made and funds received by hospitals under sections 107386
5112.065168.06, 5112.075168.07, and 5112.085168.09 of the 107387
Revised Code identifies amounts that, due to errors by the 107388
department, a hospital should not have been required to pay but 107389
did pay, should have been required to pay but did not pay, should 107390
not have received but did receive, or should have received but did 107391
not receive, the department shall:107392

       (1) Make payments to any hospital that the audit reveals paid 107393
amounts it should not have been required to pay or did not receive 107394
amounts it should have received;107395

       (2) Take action to recover from a hospital any amounts that 107396
the audit reveals it should have been required to pay but did not 107397
pay or that it should not have received but did receive.107398

       Payments made under division (D)(1) of this section shall be 107399
made from the hospital care assurance program fund. Amounts 107400
recovered under division (D)(2) of this section shall be deposited 107401
to the credit of that fund. Any hospital may appeal the amount the 107402
hospital is to be paid under division (D)(1) or the amount that is 107403
to be recovered from the hospital under division (D)(2) of this 107404
section to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.107405

       Sec. 5112.19.        Sec. 5168.12.  From the first installment of 107406
assessments paid under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code 107407
and intergovernmental transfers made under section 5112.075168.07107408
of the Revised Code during each program year beginning in an 107409
odd-numbered calendar year, the department of job and family 107410
servicesmedicaid shall deposit into the state treasury to the 107411
credit of the legislative budget services fund, which is hereby 107412
created, a total amount equal to the amount by which the biennial 107413
appropriation from that fund exceeds the amount of unexpended, 107414
unencumbered moneys in that fund. All investment earnings of the 107415
legislative budget services fund shall be credited to that fund. 107416
Money in the legislative budget services fund shall be used solely 107417
to pay the expenses of the legislative budget office of the 107418
legislative service commission.107419

       Sec. 5112.21.        Sec. 5168.13.  Except as specifically required by 107420
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.195168.14 of the Revised Code, 107421
information filed under those sections shall not include any 107422
patient-identifying material. Information that includes 107423
patient-identifying material is not a public record under section 107424
149.43 of the Revised Code, and no patient-identifying material 107425
shall be released publicly by the department of job and family 107426
servicesmedicaid or by any person under contract with the 107427
department who has access to such information.107428

       Sec. 5112.17.        Sec. 5168.14.  (A) As used in this section:107429

       (1) "Federal poverty guideline" means the official poverty 107430
guideline as revised annually by the United States secretary of 107431
health and human services in accordance with section 673 of the 107432
"Community Service Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511 (1981), 42 107433
U.S.C.A. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 107434
the family of the person whose income is being determined.107435

       (2) "Third-party payer" means any private or public entity or 107436
program that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to 107437
or on behalf of an individual for health care services. 107438
"Third-party payer" does not include a hospital.107439

       (B) Each hospital that receives funds distributed under 107440
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code 107441
shall provide, without charge to the individual, basic, medically 107442
necessary hospital-level services to individuals who are residents 107443
of this state, are not medicaid recipients of the medical 107444
assistance program, and whose income is at or below the federal 107445
poverty guidelineline. Recipients of disability financial 107446
assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code 107447
qualify for services under this section. The medicaid director of 107448
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.03107449
5168.02 of the Revised Code specifying the hospital services to be 107450
provided under this section.107451

       (C)(B) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent 107452
a hospital from requiring an individual to apply for eligibility 107453
under the medical assistancemedicaid program before the hospital 107454
processes an application under this section. Hospitals may bill 107455
any third-party payer for services rendered under this section. 107456
Hospitals may bill the medical assistancemedicaid program, in 107457
accordance with Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codestate statutes 107458
governing the medicaid program and the rules adopted under that 107459
chapterthose statutes, for medicaid services rendered under this 107460
section if the individual becomes a medicaid recipient of the 107461
program. Hospitals may bill individuals for services under this 107462
section if all of the following apply:107463

       (1) The hospital has an established post-billing procedure 107464
for determining the individual's income and canceling the charges 107465
if the individual is found to qualify for services under this 107466
section.107467

       (2) The initial bill, and at least the first follow-up bill, 107468
is accompanied by a written statement that does all of the 107469
following:107470

       (a) Explains that individuals with income at or below the 107471
federal poverty guidelineline are eligible for services without 107472
charge;107473

       (b) Specifies the federal poverty guidelineline for 107474
individuals and families of various sizes at the time the bill is 107475
sent;107476

       (c) Describes the procedure required by division (C)(1) of 107477
this section.107478

       (3) The hospital complies with any additional rules the 107479
department adoptsadopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 107480
Revised Code.107481

       Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, a hospital 107482
providing care to an individual under this section is subrogated 107483
to the rights of any individual to receive compensation or 107484
benefits from any person or governmental entity for the hospital 107485
goods and services rendered.107486

       (D)(C) Each hospital shall collect and report to the 107487
department of medicaid, in the form and manner prescribed by the 107488
department, information on the number and identity of patients 107489
served pursuant to this section.107490

       (E)(D) This section applies beginning May 22, 1992, 107491
regardless of whether the department has adopted rules specifying 107492
the services to be provided have been adopted. Nothing in this 107493
section alters the scope or limits the obligation of any 107494
governmental entity or program, including the program awarding 107495
reparations to victims of crime under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 107496
of the Revised Code and the program for medically handicapped 107497
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 107498
to pay for hospital services in accordance with state or local 107499
law.107500

       Sec. 5112.40.        Sec. 5168.20.  As used in sections 5112.405168.20 to 107501
5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code:107502

       (A) "Applicable assessment percentage" means the percentage 107503
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.465168.26 of the 107504
Revised Code that is used in calculating a hospital's assessment 107505
under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code.107506

       (B) "Assessment program year" means the twelve-month period 107507
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 107508
the last day of September of the following calendar year.107509

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the period of time used by 107510
a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of the medicare 107511
program.107512

       (D) "Federal fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 107513
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 107514
the last day of September of the following calendar year.107515

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 107516
"hospital" means a hospital to which any of the following applies:107517

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 107518
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 107519
pediatric general hospital and provides inpatient hospital 107520
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10.107521

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program as 107522
a cancer hospital and is exempt from the medicare prospective 107523
payment system.107524

       (c) The hospital is a psychiatric hospital licensed under 107525
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.107526

       (2) "Hospital" does not include either of the following:107527

       (a) A federal hospital;107528

       (b) A hospital that does not charge any of its patients for 107529
its services.107530

       (F) "Hospital care assurance program" means the program 107531
established under sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of 107532
the Revised Code.107533

       (G) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 107534
the Revised Code.107535

       (H) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 107536
XVIII of the Social Security Act.107537

       (I) "State fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 107538
beginning the first day of July of a calendar year and ending the 107539
last day of June of the following calendar year.107540

       (J)(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (J)(H)(2) and (3) 107541
of this section, "total facility costs" means the total costs to a 107542
hospital for all care provided to all patients, including the 107543
direct, indirect, and overhead costs to the hospital of all 107544
services, supplies, equipment, and capital related to the care of 107545
patients, regardless of whether patients are enrolled in a health 107546
insuring corporation.107547

       (2) "Total facility costs" excludes all of the following of a 107548
hospital's costs as shown on the cost-reporting data used for 107549
purposes of determining the hospital's assessment under section 107550
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code:107551

       (a) Skilled nursing services provided in distinct-part 107552
nursing facility units;107553

       (b) Home health services;107554

       (c) Hospice services;107555

       (d) Ambulance services;107556

       (e) Renting durable medical equipment;107557

       (f) Selling durable medical equipment.107558

       (3) "Total facility costs" excludes any costs excluded from a 107559
hospital's total facility costs pursuant to rules, if any, adopted 107560
under division (B)(1) of section 5112.465168.26 of the Revised 107561
Code.107562

       Sec. 5112.41.        Sec. 5168.21.  (A) For the purposes specified in 107563
section 5112.455168.25 of the Revised Code and subject to 107564
section 5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 107565
imposed an assessment on all hospitals each assessment program 107566
year. The amount of a hospital's assessment for an assessment 107567
program year shall equal the applicable assessment percentage of 107568
the hospital's total facility costs for the period of time 107569
specified in division (B) of this section. The amount of a 107570
hospital's total facility costs shall be derived from 107571
cost-reporting data for the hospital submitted to the department 107572
of job and family servicesmedicaid for purposes of the hospital 107573
care assurance program. If a hospital has not submitted that 107574
cost-reporting data to the department, the amount of a hospital's 107575
total facility costs shall be derived from other financial 107576
statements that the hospital shall provide to the department as 107577
directed by the department. The cost-reporting data or financial 107578
statements used to determine a hospital's assessment is subject to 107579
the same type of adjustments made to the cost-reporting data under 107580
the hospital care assurance program.107581

       (B) The period of time specified in this division is the 107582
hospital's cost reporting period that ends in the state fiscal 107583
year that ends in the federal fiscal year that precedes the 107584
federal fiscal year that precedes the assessment program year for 107585
which the assessment is imposed. 107586

       (C) The assessment imposed by this section on a hospital is 107587
in addition to the assessment imposed by section 5112.065168.06107588
of the Revised Code.107589

       Sec. 5112.42.        Sec. 5168.22.  (A) Before or during each assessment 107590
program year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid107591
shall mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt 107592
requested, the preliminary determination of the amount that the 107593
hospital is assessed under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 107594
Code for the assessment program year. Except as provided in 107595
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 107596
becomes the final determination for the assessment program year 107597
fifteen days after the preliminary determination is mailed to the 107598
hospital.107599

       (B) A hospital may request that the department reconsider the 107600
preliminary determination mailed to the hospital under division 107601
(A) of this section by submitting to the department a written 107602
request for a reconsideration not later than fourteen days after 107603
the hospital's preliminary determination is mailed to the 107604
hospital. The request must be accompanied by written materials 107605
setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. On receipt of the 107606
timely request, the department shall reconsider the preliminary 107607
determination and may adjust the preliminary determination on the 107608
basis of the written materials accompanying the request. The 107609
result of the reconsideration is the final determination of the 107610
hospital's assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 107611
Code for the assessment program year.107612

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 107613
notice of the final determination of its assessment for the 107614
assessment program year. A hospital may appeal the final 107615
determination to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 107616
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 107617
accordance with section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, any 107618
amount of its assessment that is not in dispute.107619

       Sec. 5112.43.        Sec. 5168.23.  Unless rules adopted under section 107620
5112.465168.26 of the Revised Code establish a different payment 107621
schedule, each hospital shall pay the amount it is assessed under 107622
section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 107623
following payment schedule:107624

       (A) Twenty-eight per cent of a hospital's assessment is due 107625
on the last business day of October of each assessment program 107626
year.107627

       (B) Thirty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 107628
the last business day of February of each assessment program year.107629

       (C) Forty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 107630
the last business day of May of each assessment program year.107631

       Sec. 5112.44.        Sec. 5168.24.  The department of job and family 107632
servicesmedicaid may audit a hospital to ensure that the hospital 107633
properly pays the amount it is assessed under section 5112.41107634
5168.21 of the Revised Code. The department shall take action to 107635
recover from a hospital any amount the audit reveals that the 107636
hospital should have paid but did not pay.107637

       Sec. 5112.45.        Sec. 5168.25.  There is hereby created in the state 107638
treasury the hospital assessment fund. All installment payments 107639
made by hospitals under section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised 107640
Code and all recoveries the department of job and family services107641
medicaid makes under section 5112.445168.24 of the Revised Code 107642
shall be deposited into the fund. All investment earnings of the 107643
fund shall be credited to the fund. The department shall use money 107644
in the fund to pay for the costs of the medicaid program, 107645
including the program's administrative costs.107646

       Sec. 5112.46.        Sec. 5168.26.  (A) The director of job and family 107647
services shall adopt, amend, and rescindmedicaid director shall 107648
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 107649
necessary to implement sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.485168.28107650
of the Revised Code, including rules that specify the percentage 107651
of hospitals' total facility costs to be used in calculating 107652
hospitals' assessments under section 5112.415168.21 of the 107653
Revised Code.107654

       (B) The rules adopted under this section may do the 107655
following:107656

       (1) Provide that a hospital's total facility costs for the 107657
purpose of the assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the 107658
Revised Code exclude any of the following:107659

       (a) A hospital's costs associated with providing care to 107660
recipients of any of the following:107661

       (i) The medicaid program;107662

       (ii) The medicare program;107663

       (iii) The disability financial assistance program established 107664
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;107665

       (iv) The program for medically handicapped children 107666
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;107667

       (v) Services provided under the maternal and child health 107668
services block grant established under Title V of the "Social 107669
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 701 et seq.107670

       (b) Any other category of hospital costs the director deems 107671
appropriate under federal law and regulations governing the 107672
medicaid program.107673

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide for the 107674
percentage of hospitals' total facility costs used in calculating 107675
hospitals' assessments to vary for different hospitals;107676

       (3) To reduce hospitals' cash flow difficulties, establish a 107677
schedule for hospitals to pay their assessments that is different 107678
from the schedule established under section 5112.435168.23 of the 107679
Revised Code.107680

       (C) Before adopting rules authorized by division (B)(2) of 107681
this section that establish varied percentages to be used in 107682
calculating hospitals' assessments, the director shall obtain a 107683
waiver from the United States secretary of health and human 107684
services under section 1903(w)(3)(E) of the "Social Security Act," 107685
105 Stat. 1796 (1991)section 1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 107686
1396b(w)(3)(E), as amended, if the varied percentages would cause 107687
the assessments to not be imposed uniformly.107688

       Sec. 5112.47.        Sec. 5168.27.  The medicaid director of job and 107689
family services shall implement the assessment imposed by section 107690
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in a manner that does not 107691
cause a reduction in federal financial participation for the 107692
medicaid program under the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w),107693
42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).107694

       Sec. 5112.48.        Sec. 5168.28.  If the United States secretary of 107695
health and human services determines that the assessment imposed 107696
by section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code is an 107697
impermissible health care-related tax under the "Social Security 107698
Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), the medicaid director 107699
of job and family services shall take all necessary actions to 107700
cease implementation of sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.47107701
5168.27 of the Revised Code and shall promptly refund to each 107702
hospital the amount of money in the hospital assessment fund at 107703
the time the refund is to be made that the hospital paid under 107704
section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, plus any 107705
corresponding investment earnings on that amount.107706

       Sec. 3721.50.        Sec. 5168.40.  As used in sections 3721.505168.40 to 107707
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code:107708

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:107709

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 107710
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 107711
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;107712

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 107713
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 107714
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 107715
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 107716
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 107717
beds.107718

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 107719
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 107720
exiting operator.107721

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 107722
following:107723

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 107724
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 107725
corporation from a sole proprietorship;107726

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 107727
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 107728
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 107729
of the real property or personal property associated with the 107730
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;107731

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 107732
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 107733
operator's lease;107734

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 107735
the partnership;107736

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 107737
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:107738

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 107739
partnership's dissolution under state law.107740

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 107741
not constitute a change in operator.107742

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 107743
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 107744
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 107745
more other corporations to form a new corporation.107746

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 107747
operator:107748

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 107749
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 107750
approval of daily operating and management decisions;107751

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 107752
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 107753
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 107754
operator in place of an exiting operator;107755

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 107756
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 107757
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 107758
same corporation continues to be the operator.107759

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 107760
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 107761
hospital.107762

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 107763
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 107764
effective date of a change of operator.107765

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 107766
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 107767
date of a change of operator.107768

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:107769

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 107770
cents;107771

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 107772
eleven dollars and sixty-seven centsrate determined in accordance 107773
with section 5168.41 of the Revised Code.107774

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 107775
the Revised Code.107776

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 107777
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:107778

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 107779
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 107780
beds;107781

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 107782
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.107783

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 107784
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 107785
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 107786
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), that is to be used in determining whether a 107787
class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any portion of 107788
the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If the 107789
indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, the 107790
indirect guarantee percentage is the following:107791

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 107792
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;107793

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 107794
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.107795

       (J) "Medicaid days" has the same meaning as in section 107796
5111.01 of the Revised Code.107797

       (K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII.107798

       (L)and "Nursingnursing facility" hashave the same meaning107799
meanings as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.107800

       (M)(K)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:107801

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 107802
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 107803
licensed as a nursing home;107804

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 107805
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;107806

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 107807
certified as a nursing facility.107808

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include either of the following:107809

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 107810
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;107811

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 107812
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code. 107813

       (N)(L) "Operator" means the person or government entity 107814
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 107815
nursing home or hospital.107816

       (O)(M) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 107817
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.107818

       (P)(N) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 107819
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 107820
seq.107821

       Sec. 5168.41.  (A) The franchise permit fee rate shall be 107822
determined for each fiscal year as follows:107823

       (1) Determine the estimated total net patient revenues for 107824
all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for the fiscal 107825
year;107826

       (2) Multiply the estimated total net patient revenues 107827
determined under division (A)(1) of this section by the lesser of 107828
the following:107829

       (a) The indirect guarantee percentage;107830

       (b) Six per cent.107831

       (3) Divide the product determined under division (A)(2) of 107832
this section by the number of days in the fiscal year;107833

       (4) Determine the sum of the following:107834

       (a) The total number of beds in all nursing homes and 107835
hospital long-term care units that are subject to the franchise 107836
permit fee for the fiscal year;107837

       (b) The total number of nursing home beds that are exempt 107838
from the franchise permit fee for the fiscal year because of the 107839
waiver obtained pursuant to section 5168.43 of the Revised Code.107840

       (5) Divide the quotient determined under division (A)(3) of 107841
this section by the sum determined under division (A)(4) of this 107842
section.107843

       (B) In determining the estimated total net patient revenues 107844
for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for a 107845
fiscal year, the department of medicaid shall use at least all of 107846
the following:107847

       (1) Information from medicaid cost reports filed under 107848
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code that are the most recent at 107849
the time the determination is made;107850

       (2) The projected total medicaid payment rates for nursing 107851
facility services for the fiscal year;107852

       (3) The projected total number of medicaid days for the 107853
fiscal year.107854

       Sec. 3721.51.        Sec. 5168.42.  The department of job and family 107855
servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:107856

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 107857
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 107858
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56107859
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 107860
fee on each nursing home in an amount equal to the franchise 107861
permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:107862

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 107863
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 107864
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 107865
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 107866
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 107867
Code;107868

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 107869
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 107870
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 107871
the Revised Code.107872

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 107873
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 107874
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56107875
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 107876
fee on each hospital in an amount equal to the franchise permit 107877
fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:107878

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 107879
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 107880
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 107881
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 107882
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 107883
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 107884
Code;107885

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 107886
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 107887
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 107888
the Revised Code.107889

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 107890
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 107891
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 107892
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 107893
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 107894
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 107895
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 107896
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 107897
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:107898

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 107899
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 107900
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 107901
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;107902

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 107903
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 107904
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 107905
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 107906
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 107907
fiscal year.107908

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 107909
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 107910
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is 107911
an impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of107912
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 107913
U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 107914
implementation of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of 107915
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 107916
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.107917

       Sec. 3721.511.        Sec. 5168.43.  (A) Not later than four months after 107918
July 17, 2009, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid107919
shall apply to the United States secretary of health and human 107920
services for a waiver under the "Social Security Act," section 107921
1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(3)(E), as necessary to do both 107922
of the following regarding the franchise permit fee assessed under 107923
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code:107924

       (1) Reduce the franchise permit fee rate to zero dollars for 107925
each nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the 107926
Revised Code to which either of the following applies:107927

       (a) The nursing home:107928

       (i) Is exempt from state taxation under section 140.08 of the 107929
Revised Code or is exempt from state taxation as a home for the 107930
aged as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised Code;107931

       (ii) Is exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 107932
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;107933

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare; and107934

       (iv) Provides services for the life of each resident without 107935
regard to the resident's ability to secure payment for the 107936
services.107937

       (b) The nursing home:107938

       (i) Has had a written affiliation agreement with a university 107939
in this state for education and research related to Alzheimer's 107940
disease for each of the twenty years preceding July 17, 2009, and 107941
has such an agreement on July 17, 2009;107942

       (ii) Was constructed pursuant to a certificate of need 107943
granted under Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 256 of the 116th general 107944
assembly; and107945

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare.107946

       (2) For each nursing facility with more than two hundred beds 107947
certified as nursing facility beds under Title XIX, reduce the 107948
franchise permit fee rate for a number of the nursing facility's 107949
beds specified by the department to the amount necessary to obtain 107950
approval of the waiver sought under this section.107951

       (B) The effective date of the waiver sought under this 107952
section shall be the first day of the quarter beginning after the 107953
United States secretary approves the waiver.107954

       Sec. 3721.512.        Sec. 5168.44.  If the United States secretary of 107955
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 107956
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 107957
family servicesmedicaid shall, for each nursing home and hospital 107958
that qualifies for a reduction of its franchise permit fee rate 107959
under the waiver, reduce the franchise permit fee rate in 107960
accordance with the terms of the waiver. For purposes of the first 107961
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 107962
shall determine the amount of the reduction not later than the 107963
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 107964
and hospital qualifying for the reduction notice of the reduction 107965
not later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 107966
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. For 107967
purposes of subsequent fiscal years, the department shall make 107968
such determinations and mail such notices in accordance with 107969
section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised Code.107970

       Sec. 3721.513.        Sec. 5168.45.  (A) If the United States secretary of 107971
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 107972
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 107973
family servicesmedicaid may do both of the following regarding 107974
the franchise permit fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of 107975
the Revised Code:107976

       (1) Determine how much money the franchise permit fee would 107977
have raised in a fiscal year if not for the waiver;107978

       (2) For each nursing home and hospital subject to the 107979
franchise permit fee, other than a nursing home or hospital that 107980
has its franchise permit fee rate reduced under section 3721.512107981
5168.44 of the Revised Code, uniformly increase the amount of the 107982
franchise permit fee rate for a fiscal year to an amount that will 107983
have the franchise permit fee raise an amount of money that does 107984
not exceed the amount determined under division (A)(1) of this 107985
section for that fiscal year.107986

       (B) If the department increases the franchise permit fee rate 107987
in accordance with division (A) of this section for the first 107988
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 107989
shall determine the amount of the increase not later than the 107990
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 107991
and hospital subject to the increase notice of the increase not 107992
later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 107993
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. If 107994
the department increases the franchise permit fee rate in 107995
accordance with division (A) of this section for a subsequent 107996
fiscal year, the department shall make such determinations and 107997
mail such notices in accordance with section 3721.535168.47 of 107998
the Revised Code.107999

       Sec. 3721.52.        Sec. 5168.46.  The department of health shall do all 108000
of the following:108001

       (A) For the purpose of the determinations made under 108002
divisions (A) and (B) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised 108003
Code and not later than the first day of each June, report to the 108004
department of job and family servicesmedicaid the following:108005

       (1) For each nursing home, the number of beds in the nursing 108006
home licensed on the preceding first day of May under section 108007
3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code or certified on that date 108008
under Title XVIII or Title XIX;108009

       (2) For each hospital, the number of beds in the hospital 108010
registered on the preceding first day of May pursuant to section 108011
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility or 108012
long-term care beds or licensed on that date under section 3721.02 108013
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code as nursing home beds.108014

       (B) For the purpose of the redetermination under section 108015
3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and not later than the 108016
fifteenth day of each January, report to the department of job and 108017
family servicesmedicaid, for each nursing home and hospital, the 108018
number of beds for which a bed surrender occurred during the 108019
period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding calendar 108020
year and ending on the first day of January of the calendar year 108021
in which the redetermination is made.108022

       Sec. 3721.53.        Sec. 5168.47.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 108023
of September of each year, the department of job and family 108024
servicesmedicaid shall determine the annual franchise permit fee 108025
for each nursing home and hospital in accordance with section 108026
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code and any adjustments made in 108027
accordance with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of 108028
the Revised Code.108029

       (B) Not later than the first day of October of each year, the 108030
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 108031
the amount of the franchise permit fee that has been determined 108032
for the nursing home or hospital.108033

       (C) Subject to section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 108034
each nursing home and hospital shall pay its fee under section 108035
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code, as adjusted in accordance 108036
with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 108037
Revised Code, to the department in four installment payments not 108038
later than forty-five days after the last day of each October, 108039
December, March, and June.108040

       Sec. 3721.531.        Sec. 5168.48. (A) Not later than the last day of 108041
February of each year, the department of job and family services108042
medicaid shall redetermine each nursing home's and hospital's 108043
franchise permit fee if one or more bed surrenders occur during 108044
the period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding 108045
calendar year and ending on the first day of January of the 108046
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.108047

        (B) In redetermining nursing homes' and hospitals' franchise 108048
permit fees under this section, the department shall do both of 108049
the following:108050

        (1) Provide for the redetermination to be conducted in a 108051
manner consistent with the terms of the waiver sought under 108052
section 3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code; 108053

       (2) Recalculate each nursing home's and hospital's franchise 108054
permit fee in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 108055
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code with the following changes:108056

        (a) In the case of a nursing home or hospital for which one 108057
or more bed surrenders occurred during the period beginning on the 108058
first day of May of the preceding calendar year and ending on the 108059
first day of January of the calendar year in which the 108060
redetermination is made, the number of beds included in the 108061
calculation for the purpose of division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of 108062
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code shall exclude the beds 108063
for which bed surrenders occurred during that period.108064

        (b) The number of days used in the calculation under division 108065
(A)(2) or (B)(2) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code 108066
shall be the number of days in the first half of the calendar year 108067
in which the redetermination is made.108068

        (c) The franchise permit fee rate shall reflect adjustments 108069
made under sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 108070
Revised Code.108071

        (C) Not later than the first day of March of each year, the 108072
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 108073
the amount of its redetermined franchise permit fee.108074

        (D) Each nursing home and hospital shall pay its redetermined 108075
fee to the department in two installment payments not later than 108076
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 108077
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.108078

       Sec. 3721.532.        Sec. 5168.49.  If a nursing home or hospital 108079
undergoes a change of operator during a fiscal year, the 108080
responsibility for paying the franchise permit fee that was 108081
determined for the nursing home or hospital under section 3721.53108082
5168.47 of the Revised Code, or redetermined for the nursing home 108083
or hospital under section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 108084
for that fiscal year shall be divided proportionally. The exiting 108085
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 108086
that is for the part of the fiscal year that ends on the day 108087
before the effective date of the change of operator. The entering 108088
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 108089
that is for the part of the fiscal year that begins on the 108090
effective date of the change of operator. The department of job 108091
and family servicesmedicaid is not required to mail a notice to 108092
the entering operator regarding the amount of that fiscal year's 108093
fee for which the entering operator is responsible.108094

       Sec. 3721.533.        Sec. 5168.50.  No nursing home or hospital shall 108095
directly bill its residents for the franchise permit fee paid 108096
under section 3721.535168.47 or 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised 108097
Code or otherwise directly pass the fee through to its residents.108098

       Sec. 3721.54.        Sec. 5168.51.  If a nursing home or hospital fails to 108099
pay the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when 108100
due, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may assess 108101
a five per cent penalty on the amount due for each month or 108102
fraction thereof the installment is overdue.108103

       Sec. 3721.541.        Sec. 5168.52.  (A) In addition to assessing a 108104
penalty pursuant to section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised Code, 108105
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do any of 108106
the following if a nursing facility or hospital fails to pay the 108107
full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:108108

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 108109
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 108110
Code from a medicaid payment due the nursing facility or hospital 108111
until the nursing facility or hospital pays the installment and 108112
penalty;108113

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 108114
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 108115
Code from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 108116
hospital;108117

       (3) Terminate the nursing facility or hospital's medicaid 108118
provider agreement.108119

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 108120
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 108121
nursing facility or hospital and without conducting an 108122
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.108123

       Sec. 3721.55.        Sec. 5168.53.  (A) A nursing home or hospital may 108124
appeal the fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of the 108125
Revised Code, as adjusted under section 3721.5125168.44 or 108126
3721.5135168.45 of the Revised Code, and redetermined under 108127
section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code solely on the grounds 108128
that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid committed 108129
a material error in determining or redetermining the amount of the 108130
fee. A request for an appeal must be received by the department 108131
not later than fifteen days after the date the department mails 108132
the notice of the fee and must include written materials setting 108133
forth the basis for the appeal.108134

       (B) If a nursing home or hospital submits a request for an 108135
appeal within the time required under division (A) of this 108136
section, the department of job and family services shall hold a 108137
public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after the 108138
date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 108139
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 108140
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 108141
to the nursing home or hospital. The department may hear all the 108142
requested appeals in one public hearing.108143

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 108144
any other evidence submitted by the nursing home or hospital, the 108145
department may adjust a fee. The department's decision is final.108146

       Sec. 3721.56.        Sec. 5168.54.  (A) There is hereby created in the 108147
state treasury the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. All 108148
payments and penalties paid by nursing homes and hospitals under 108149
sections 3721.535168.47, 3721.5315168.48, and 3721.545168.51108150
of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 108151
shall also consist of money deposited into it pursuant to sections 108152
3769.08 and 3769.26 of the Revised Code. Subject to division (B) 108153
of section 3769.08 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 108154
family servicesmedicaid shall use the money in the fund to make 108155
medicaid payments to providers of nursing facility services and 108156
providers of home and community-based services. Money in the fund 108157
may also be used for the residential state supplement program 108158
established under section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code.108159

        (B) Any money remaining in the nursing home franchise permit 108160
fee fund after payments specified in division (A) of this section 108161
are made shall be retained in the fund. Any interest or other 108162
investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be credited 108163
to the fund and used to make medicaid payments in accordance with 108164
division (A) of this section.108165

       Sec. 3721.57.        Sec. 5168.55.  The department of job and family 108166
servicesmedicaid may make any investigation it considers 108167
appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill its duties 108168
under sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 108169
Code. At the request of the department, the attorney general shall 108170
aid in any such investigations. The attorney general shall 108171
institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the enforcement 108172
of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 108173
Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, the 108174
county prosecutor of the county in which a nursing home or 108175
hospital that has failed to comply with sections 3721.505168.40108176
to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is located shall institute 108177
and prosecute any necessary action against the nursing home or 108178
hospital.108179

       Sec. 3721.58.        Sec. 5168.56.  The medicaid director of job and 108180
family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 108181
of the Revised Code to do both of the following:108182

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of job and family 108183
servicesmedicaid will take to cease implementation of sections 108184
3721.50 through 3721.575168.40 to 5168.56 of the Revised Code if 108185
the United States centers for medicare and medicaid services 108186
determines that the franchise permit fee established by those 108187
sections is an impermissible health-care related tax under section 108188
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)108189
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;108190

       (B) Establish any requirements or procedures the director 108191
considers necessary to implement sections 3721.505168.40 to 108192
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.108193

       Sec. 5112.30.        Sec. 5168.60.  As used in sections 5112.305168.60 to 108194
5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code:108195

       (A) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:108196

       (1) For fiscal year 20122014, seventeeneighteen dollars and 108197
ninety-ninetwenty-four cents;108198

       (2) For fiscal year 20132015 and each fiscal year 108199
thereafter, eighteen dollars and thirty-twoseventeen cents.108200

       (B) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 108201
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 108202
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 108203
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), as amended, that is to be used in determining 108204
whether a class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any 108205
portion of the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If 108206
the indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, 108207
the indirect guarantee percentage is the following:108208

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 108209
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;108210

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 108211
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.108212

       (C) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded108213
ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of the 108214
Revised Code, except that, until August 1, 2009, it does not 108215
include any such facility operated by the department of 108216
developmental disabilities.108217

       (D) "MedicaidMedicaid-certified capacity" has the same 108218
meaning as in section 5111.015124.01 of the Revised Code. 108219

       (E) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 108220
5124.01 of the Revised Code.108221

       Sec. 5112.31.        Sec. 5168.61.  The department of job and family 108222
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do all of the 108223
following:108224

       (A) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code 108225
and divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 108226
specified in section 5112.3715168.69 of the Revised Code, assess 108227
for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility for the 108228
mentally retardedICF/MR a franchise permit fee equal to the 108229
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 108230
following:108231

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 108232
"Social Security Act"ICF/MR's medicaid-certified capacity on the 108233
first day of May of the calendar year in which the assessment is 108234
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 5112.335168.63 of 108235
the Revised Code;108236

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.108237

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 108238
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 108239
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 108240
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded108241
ICFs/MR for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 108242
the total number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 108243
retardedICFs/MR receive enhanced medicaid payments or other 108244
state payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their 108245
total franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:108246

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 108247
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 108248
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 108249
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR for 108250
that fiscal year;108251

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 108252
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 108253
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 108254
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 108255
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.108256

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 108257
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 108258
sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code 108259
would be an impermissible health care-related tax under section 108260
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)108261
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all 108262
necessary actions to cease implementation of those sections in 108263
accordance with rules adopted under section 5112.395168.71 of the 108264
Revised Code.108265

       Sec. 5112.32.        Sec. 5168.62.  For the purpose of the franchise 108266
permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 108267
Code and not later than the first day of each June, the department 108268
of developmental disabilities shall:108269

       (A) Not later than August 1, 1993, report to the department 108270
of job and family services the number of beds in each intermediate 108271
care facility for the mentally retarded certified on July 1, 1993, 108272
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 108273
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;108274

       (B) Not later than June 1, 1994, and the first day of each 108275
June thereafter, report to the department of job and family 108276
servicesmedicaid the number of beds in each such facility 108277
certifiedICF/MR on the preceding first day of May under that 108278
title.108279

       Sec. 5112.33.        Sec. 5168.63.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 108280
of August of each year, the department of job and family services108281
developmental disabilities shall determine the annual franchise 108282
permit fee for each intermediate care facility for the mentally 108283
retardedICF/MR in accordance with section 5112.315168.61 of the 108284
Revised Code.108285

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 108286
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 108287
the mentally retardedICF/MR notice of the amount of the franchise 108288
permit fee the facilityICF/MR has been assessed under section 108289
5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code.108290

       (C) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code, 108291
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR108292
shall pay its fee under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 108293
Code to the department in quarterly installment payments not later 108294
than forty-five days after the last day of each September, 108295
December, March, and June.108296

       Sec. 5112.331.        Sec. 5168.64.  (A) If, during the period beginning 108297
on the first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first 108298
day of January of the immediately following calendar year, the 108299
operator of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 108300
retardedICF/MR converts, pursuant to section 5111.8745124.60 of 108301
the Revised Code, one or more of the facility'sICF/MR's beds to 108302
providing home and community-based services, the department of 108303
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do the 108304
following:108305

       (1) If the facility'sICF/MR's medicaid certification is 108306
terminated because of the conversion, terminate the facility's108307
ICF/MR's franchise permit fee effective on the first day of the 108308
quarter immediately following the quarter in which the department 108309
receives the notice of the conversion from the director of health;108310

       (2) If the facility's certifiedICF/MR's medicaid-certified108311
capacity under medicaid is reduced because of the conversion, 108312
redetermine the facility'sICF/MR's franchise permit fee in 108313
accordance with division (B) of this section for the second half 108314
of the fiscal year for which the fee is assessed. 108315

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 108316
mentally retarded'sICF/MR's franchise permit fee, the department 108317
shall multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 108318
following:108319

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 108320
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act"ICF/MR's 108321
medicaid-certified capacity as of the date the conversion takes 108322
effect;108323

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 108324
for which the redetermination is made.108325

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded108326
ICF/MR shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under 108327
division (B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later 108328
than forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 108329
fiscal year for which the redetermination is made.108330

       Sec. 5112.34.        Sec. 5168.65.  If an intermediate care facility for 108331
the mentally retardedICF/MR fails to pay the full amount of an 108332
installment when due, the department of job and family services108333
developmental disabilities may assess a five per cent penalty on 108334
the amount due for each month or fraction thereof the installment 108335
is overdue.108336

       Sec. 5112.341.        Sec. 5168.66.  (A) In addition to assessing a 108337
penalty pursuant to section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code, 108338
the department of job and family servicesdevelopmental 108339
disabilities may do any of the following if an intermediate care 108340
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR fails to pay the full 108341
amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:108342

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 108343
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 108344
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/MR until the 108345
facilityICF/MR pays the installment and penalty;108346

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 108347
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 108348
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/MR;108349

       (3) TerminateProvide for the department of medicaid to 108350
terminate the facility's medicaidICF/MR's provider agreement.108351

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 108352
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 108353
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR and 108354
without conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 108355
Revised Code.108356

       Sec. 5112.35.        Sec. 5168.67.  (A) An intermediate care facility for 108357
the mentally retardedICF/MR may appeal the franchise permit fee 108358
imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code solely 108359
on the grounds that the department of job and family services108360
developmental disabilities committed a material error in 108361
determining the amount of the fee. A request for an appeal must be 108362
received by the department not later than fifteen days after the 108363
date the department mails the notice of the fee and must include 108364
written materials setting forth the basis for the appeal.108365

       (B) If an intermediate care facility for the mentally 108366
retardedICF/MR submits a request for an appeal within the time 108367
required under division (A) of this section, the department shall 108368
hold a public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after 108369
the date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 108370
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 108371
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 108372
to the facilityICF/MR. The department may hear all requested 108373
appeals in one public hearing.108374

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 108375
any other evidence submitted by the intermediate care facility for 108376
the mentally retardedICF/MR, the department may adjust a fee. The 108377
department's decision is final.108378

       Sec. 5112.37.        Sec. 5168.68.  There is hereby created in the state 108379
treasury the home and community-based services for the mentally 108380
retarded and developmentally disabled fund. All installment 108381
payments and penalties paid by an intermediate care facility for 108382
the mentally retardedICF/MR under sections 5112.335168.63 and 108383
5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 108384
fund. As soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 108385
medicaid director of job and family services shall certify to the 108386
director of budget and management the amount of money that is in 108387
the fund as of the last day of that quarter. On receipt of a 108388
certification, the director of budget and management shall 108389
transfer the amount so certified from the home and community-based 108390
services for the mentally retarded and developmentally disabled 108391
fund to the department of developmental disabilities operating and 108392
services fund created under section 5112.3715168.69 of the 108393
Revised Code.108394

       Sec. 5112.371.        Sec. 5168.69. There is hereby created in the state 108395
treasury the department of developmental disabilities operating 108396
and services fund. The fund shall consist of the money transferred 108397
to it under section 5112.375168.68 of the Revised Code. The money 108398
in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs that 108399
the department of developmental disabilities administers and the 108400
department's administrative expenses.108401

       Sec. 5112.38.        Sec. 5168.70.  The department of job and family 108402
servicesdevelopmental disabilities may make any investigation it 108403
considers appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill 108404
its duties under sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of 108405
the Revised Code. At the request of the department, the attorney 108406
general shall aid in any such investigations. The attorney general 108407
shall institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the 108408
enforcement of sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the 108409
Revised Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, 108410
the county prosecutor of the county in which an intermediate care 108411
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR that has failed to 108412
comply with those sections is located shall institute and 108413
prosecute any necessary action against the facilityICF/MR.108414

       Sec. 5112.39.        Sec. 5168.71. TheTo the extent authorized by rules 108415
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director 108416
of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall adopt 108417
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do 108418
both of the following:108419

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of developmental 108420
disabilities will take to cease implementation of sections 5112.30108421
5168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code if the United 108422
States secretary of health and human services determines that the 108423
franchise permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the 108424
Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 108425
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 108426
(1991)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;108427

       (B) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 108428
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.305168.60108429
to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code.108430

       Sec. 5112.99.        Sec. 5168.99.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 108431
family services shall impose a penalty for each day that a 108432
hospital fails to report the information required under section 108433
5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code on or before the dates 108434
specified in that section. The amount of the penalty shall be 108435
established by the director in rules adopted under section 5112.03108436
5168.02 of the Revised Code.108437

       (B) In addition to any other remedy available to the 108438
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 108439
collect unpaid assessments and transfers under sections 5112.01108440
5168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, the director 108441
shall impose a penalty of ten per cent of the amount due on any 108442
hospital that fails to pay assessments or make intergovernmental 108443
transfers by the dates required by rules adopted under section 108444
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.108445

       (C) In addition to any other remedy available to the 108446
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 108447
collect unpaid assessments imposed under section 5112.415168.21108448
of the Revised Code, the director shall impose a penalty of ten 108449
per cent of the amount due on any hospital that fails to pay the 108450
assessment by the date it is due.108451

       (D) The director shall waive the penalties provided for in 108452
this section for good cause shown by the hospital.108453

       (E) All penalties imposed under this section shall be 108454
deposited into the health care administration fund created by 108455
section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.108456

       Sec. 5112.991.        Sec. 5168.991.  The department of job and family 108457
servicesmedicaid may offset the amount of a hospital's unpaid 108458
penalty imposed under section 5112.995168.99 of the Revised Code 108459
from one or more payments due the hospital under the medicaid 108460
program. The total amount that may be offset from one or more 108461
payments shall not exceed the amount of the unpaid penalty.108462

       Sec. 5302.221. (A) As used in this section:108463

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21108464
of the Revised Code.108465

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 108466
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.108467

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 108468
shall prescribe a form on which a beneficiary of a transfer on 108469
death designation affidavit as provided in section 5302.22 of the 108470
Revised Code, who survives the deceased owner of the real property 108471
or an interest in the real property or that is in existence on the 108472
date of death of the deceased owner, or that beneficiary's 108473
representative is to indicate both of the following:108474

       (1) Whether the deceased owner was either of the following:108475

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 108476
program;108477

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 108478
recovery program.108479

       (2) Whether the real property or interest in the real 108480
property was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the 108481
medicaid estate recovery program.108482

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 108483
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the beneficiary 108484
of a transfer on death designation affidavit or the beneficiary's 108485
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 108486
the medicaid estate recovery program before recording the transfer 108487
of the real property or interest in the real property under 108488
section 5302.222 of the Revised Code.108489

       Sec. 5309.082. (A) As used in this section:108490

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21108491
of the Revised Code.108492

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 108493
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.108494

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 108495
shall prescribe a form on which a surviving tenant under a 108496
survivorship tenancy or such a surviving tenant's representative 108497
is to indicate both of the following:108498

       (1) Whether the deceased survivorship tenant was either of 108499
the following:108500

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 108501
program;108502

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 108503
recovery program.108504

       (2) Whether the registered land under a survivorship tenancy 108505
was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the medicaid 108506
estate recovery program.108507

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 108508
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the surviving 108509
tenant under a survivorship tenancy or the surviving tenant's 108510
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 108511
the medicaid estate recovery program before registering the title 108512
in the surviving tenants under section 5309.081 of the Revised 108513
Code.108514

       Sec. 5505.12.  (A) The state highway patrol retirement board 108515
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 108516
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 108517
and funding requirements of the state highway patrol retirement 108518
system as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 108519
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 108520
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 108521
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 108522
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:108523

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;108524

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 108525
used in the valuation;108526

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 108527
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 108528
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 108529
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 108530
contributing to the retirement system;108531

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 108532
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 108533
accrued pension liabilities;108534

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 108535
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 108536
the last annual actuarial valuation;108537

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 108538
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 108539
objectives established by the board.108540

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 108541
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 108542
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 108543
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 108544
upon its availability and not later than the first day of July 108545
following the year for which the valuation was made.108546

       (B) At such times as the state highway patrol retirement 108547
board determines, and at least once in each five-year period after 108548
January 1, 1966, the board shall have prepared by or under the 108549
supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of the 108550
mortality, service, and other experience of the members, 108551
retirants, and beneficiaries to update the actuarial assumptions 108552
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 108553
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 108554
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 108555
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 108556
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 108557
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 108558
shall include all of the following:108559

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 108560
experience observed over the period of the investigation;108561

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 108562
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 108563
this section;108564

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 108565
changes in actuarial assumptions;108566

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 108567
the investigation required by division (F) of this section, a 108568
report of the result of that investigation.108569

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 108570
study council and the standing committees of the house of 108571
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 108572
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 108573
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.108574

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 108575
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 108576
rates of contributions provided by section 5505.15 of the Revised 108577
Code.108578

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 108579
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 108580
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 108581
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 108582
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 108583
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 108584
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 108585
which shall include all of the following:108586

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 108587
evaluated;108588

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 108589
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;108590

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 108591
in the report;108592

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 108593
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 108594
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 108595
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 108596
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 108597
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 108598
not to exceed thirty years;108599

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 108600
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 108601
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 108602
board.108603

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 108604
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 108605
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 108606
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 108607
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 108608
retirement study council.108609

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 108610
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 108611
provision of benefits under section 5505.28 of the Revised Code. 108612
The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, and the 108613
thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The report 108614
shall include the following:108615

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 108616
provided;108617

       (2) A summary of the benefits;108618

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 108619
benefits;108620

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 108621
the benefits;108622

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 108623
funding method used to provide the benefits;108624

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 108625
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;108626

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 108627
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 108628
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 108629
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 108630
fiscal year;108631

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 108632
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 108633
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 108634
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;108635

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 108636
comparability of the report required under this division;108637

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 108638
section 5505.28 of the Revised Code.108639

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 108640
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 108641
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 108642
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 108643
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 108644
following the year for which the report was made.108645

       (F) At least once in each five-year period, the board shall 108646
have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 108647
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 108648
established under section 5505.50 of the Revised Code. The 108649
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 108650
impact, if any, on the retirement system of offering the plan to 108651
members.108652

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 108653
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 108654
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 108655
impact on the retirement system and, if so, recommendations on how 108656
to modify the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If 108657
the actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative 108658
financial impact on the retirement system, the board shall modify 108659
the plan. If the board modifies the plan, the rights and 108660
obligations of members who have already elected to participate 108661
shall not be altered.108662

       The state's contributions to the employer accumulation fund 108663
shall not be increased to offset any negative financial impact of 108664
the deferred retirement option plan.108665

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 108666
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 108667
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 108668
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 108669
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 108670
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 108671
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 108672
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 108673
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 108674
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.108675

       Sec. 5507.46. (A) Prior to January 1, 2014:108676

       (1) A wireless service provider or reseller, not later than 108677
the last day of each month, shall remit the full amount of all 108678
wireless 9-1-1 charges it collected under division (A) of section 108679
5507.42 of the Revised Code for the second preceding calendar 108680
month to the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator, with the exception of charges 108681
equivalent to the amount authorized as a billing and collection 108682
fee under division (A)(2) of this section. In doing so, the 108683
provider or reseller may remit the requisite amount in any 108684
reasonable manner consistent with its existing operating or 108685
technological capabilities, such as by customer address, location 108686
associated with the wireless telephone number, or another 108687
allocation method based on comparable, relevant data. If the 108688
wireless service provider or reseller receives a partial payment 108689
for a bill from a wireless service subscriber, the wireless 108690
service provider or reseller shall apply the payment first against 108691
the amount the subscriber owes the wireless service provider or 108692
reseller and shall remit to the coordinator such lesser amount, if 108693
any, as results from that invoice.108694

       (2) A wireless service provider or reseller may retain as a 108695
billing and collection fee two per cent of the total wireless 108696
9-1-1 charges it collects in a month and shall account to the 108697
coordinator for the amount retained.108698

       (3) The coordinator shall return to, or credit against the 108699
next month's remittance of, a wireless service provider or 108700
reseller the amount of any remittances the coordinator determines 108701
were erroneously submitted by the provider or reseller.108702

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:108703

       (1) Each seller of a prepaid wireless calling service, 108704
wireless service provider, and reseller shall, on or before the 108705
twenty-third day of each month, except as provided in divisions 108706
(B)(2) and (3) of this section, do both of the following: 108707

       (a) Make and file a return for the preceding month, in the 108708
form prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the amount of the 108709
wireless 9-1-1 charges due under section 5507.42 of the Revised 108710
Code for that month; 108711

        (b) Remit the full amount due, as shown on the return, with 108712
the exception of charges equivalent to the amount authorized as a 108713
collection fee under division (B)(4) of this section.108714

       (2) The commissioner may grant one or more thirty-day 108715
extensions for making and filing returns and remitting amounts 108716
due. 108717

       (3) If a seller is required to collect prepaid wireless 9-1-1 108718
charges in amounts that do not merit monthly returns, the 108719
commissioner may authorize the seller to make and file returns 108720
less frequently. The commissioner shall ascertain whether this 108721
authorization is warranted upon the basis of administrative costs 108722
to the state. 108723

       (4) A wireless service provider, reseller, and seller may 108724
each retain as a collection fee three per cent of the total 108725
wireless 9-1-1 charges required to be collected under section 108726
5507.42 of the Revised Code, and shall account to the tax 108727
commissioner for the amount retained.108728

       (5) The return required under division (B)(1)(a) of this 108729
section shall be filed electronically using the Ohio business 108730
gateway, as defined in section 718.051 of the Revised Code, the 108731
Ohio telefile system, or any other electronic means prescribed by 108732
the tax commissioner. Remittance of the amount due shall be made 108733
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner. A 108734
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller may apply to the 108735
commissioner on a form prescribed by the commissioner to be 108736
excused from either electronic requirement of this division. For 108737
good cause shown, the commissioner may excuse the provider, 108738
reseller, or seller from either or both of the requirements and 108739
may permit the provider, reseller, or seller to file returns or 108740
make remittances by nonelectronic means.108741

       (C)(1) Prior to January 1, 2014, each subscriber on which a 108742
wireless 9-1-1 charge is imposed under division (A) of section 108743
5507.42 of the Revised Code is liable to the state for the amount 108744
of the charge. If a wireless service provider or reseller fails to 108745
collect the charge under that division from a subscriber of 108746
prepaid wireless service, or fails to bill any other subscriber 108747
for the charge, the wireless service provider or reseller is 108748
liable to the state for the amount not collected or billed. If a 108749
wireless service provider or reseller collects charges under that 108750
division and fails to remit the money to the coordinator, the 108751
wireless service provider or reseller is liable to the state for 108752
any amount collected and not remitted. 108753

       (2) Beginning January 1, 2014:108754

       (a) Each subscriber or consumer on which a wireless 9-1-1 108755
charge is imposed under section 5507.42 of the Revised Code is 108756
liable to the state for the amount of the charge. If a wireless 108757
service provider or reseller fails to bill or collect the charge, 108758
or if a seller fails to collect the charge, the provider, 108759
reseller, or seller is liable to the state for the amount not 108760
billed or collected. If a provider, reseller, or seller fails to 108761
remit money to the tax commissioner as required under this 108762
section, the provider, reseller, or seller is liable to the state 108763
for the amount not remitted, regardless of whether the amount was 108764
collected. 108765

       (b) No provider of a prepaid wireless calling service shall 108766
be liable to the state for any wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under 108767
division (B)(1) of section 5507.42 of the Revised Code that was 108768
not collected or remitted.108769

       (D) Prior to January 1, 2014:108770

       (1) If the public utilities commission has reason to believe 108771
that a wireless service provider or reseller has failed to bill, 108772
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by 108773
divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this section or has retained more 108774
than the amount authorized under division (A)(2) of this section, 108775
and after written notice to the provider or reseller, the 108776
commission may audit the provider or reseller for the sole purpose 108777
of making such a determination. The audit may include, but is not 108778
limited to, a sample of the provider's or reseller's billings, 108779
collections, remittances, or retentions for a representative 108780
period, and the commission shall make a good faith effort to reach 108781
agreement with the provider or reseller in selecting that sample.108782

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider or 108783
reseller, the commission, by order after completion of the audit, 108784
may make an assessment against the provider or reseller if, 108785
pursuant to the audit, the commission determines that the provider 108786
or reseller has failed to bill, collect, or remit the wireless 108787
9-1-1 charge as required by divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this 108788
section or has retained more than the amount authorized under 108789
division (A)(2) of this section. The assessment shall be in the 108790
amount of any remittance that was due and unpaid on the date 108791
notice of the audit was sent by the commission to the provider or 108792
reseller or, as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount 108793
under division (A)(2) of this section retained by the provider or 108794
reseller as of that date.108795

       (3) The portion of any assessment not paid within sixty days 108796
after the date of service by the commission of the assessment 108797
notice under division (D)(2) of this section shall bear interest 108798
from that date until paid at the rate per annum prescribed by 108799
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest may be 108800
collected by making an assessment under division (D)(2) of this 108801
section. An assessment under this division and any interest due 108802
shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 charge 108803
imposed under division (A) of section 5507.42 of the Revised Code.108804

       (4) An assessment is final and due and payable and shall be 108805
remitted to the commission unless the assessed party petitions for 108806
rehearing under section 4903.10 of the Revised Code. The 108807
proceedings of the commission specified in division (D)(4) of this 108808
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 108809
Revised Code, except that the court of appeals of Franklin county 108810
has exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate 108811
an order of the commission under division (D)(2) of this section. 108812
The court shall hear and determine such appeal in the same manner 108813
and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court hears and 108814
determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code.108815

       The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 108816
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such an appeal 108817
may be made by the commission or the person to whom the order 108818
under division (D)(2) of this section was issued and shall proceed 108819
as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in Chapter 108820
2505. of the Revised Code.108821

        (5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 108822
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 108823
copy of the commission's entry making the assessment final may be 108824
filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas in 108825
the county in which the place of business of the assessed party is 108826
located. If the party maintains no place of business in this 108827
state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office 108828
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 108829
Immediately upon the filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for 108830
the state against the assessed party in the amount shown on the 108831
entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book 108832
entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 charges" and shall 108833
have the same effect as other judgments. The judgment shall be 108834
executed upon the request of the commission.108835

       (6) An assessment under this division does not discharge a 108836
subscriber's liability to reimburse the provider or reseller for 108837
the wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under division (A) of section 108838
5507.42 of the Revised Code. If, after the date of service of the 108839
audit notice under division (D)(1) of this section, a subscriber 108840
pays a wireless 9-1-1 charge for the period covered by the 108841
assessment, the payment shall be credited against the assessment.108842

       (7) All money collected by the commission under division (D) 108843
of this section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, for 108844
deposit to the credit of the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance 108845
fund.108846

       (E) Beginning January 1, 2014:108847

       (1) If the tax commissioner has reason to believe that a 108848
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 108849
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 108850
section and section 5507.42 of the Revised Code or has retained 108851
more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of this 108852
section, and after written notice to the provider, reseller, or 108853
seller, the tax commissioner may audit the provider, reseller, or 108854
seller for the sole purpose of making such a determination. The 108855
audit may include, but is not limited to, a sample of the 108856
provider's, reseller's, or seller's billings, collections, 108857
remittances, or retentions for a representative period, and the 108858
tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 108859
with the provider, reseller, or seller in selecting that sample. 108860

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider, 108861
reseller, or seller, the tax commissioner, after completion of the 108862
audit, may make an assessment against the provider, reseller, or 108863
seller if, pursuant to the audit, the tax commissioner determines 108864
that the provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 108865
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 108866
section and section 5507.42 of the Revised Code or has retained 108867
more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of this 108868
section. The assessment shall be in the amount of any remittance 108869
that was due and unpaid on the date notice of the audit was sent 108870
by the tax commissioner to the provider, reseller, or seller or, 108871
as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount under division 108872
(B)(4) of this section retained by the provider, reseller, or 108873
seller as of that date.108874

       (3) The portion of any assessment consisting of wireless 108875
9-1-1 charges due and not paid within sixty days after the date of 108876
service by the tax commissioner ofthat the assessment noticewas 108877
made under division (E)(2) of this section shall bear interest 108878
from that date until paid at the rate per annum prescribed by 108879
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest may be 108880
collected by making an assessment under division (E)(2) of this 108881
section. An assessment under this division and any interest due 108882
shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 charges 108883
imposed under section 5507.42 of the Revised Code.108884

       (4) The portion of the assessment not paid within sixty days 108885
after the day the assessment was issued shall bear interest at the 108886
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 108887
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 108888
paid. Interest shall be remitted in the same manner as the 9-1-1 108889
charges and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 108890
under division (E) of this section.108891

       (5) Unless the provider, reseller, or seller assessed files 108892
with the tax commissioner within sixty days after service of the 108893
notice of assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a 108894
written petition for reassessment, signed by the party assessed or 108895
that party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 108896
assessment shall become final and the amount of the assessment 108897
shall be due and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer 108898
of state, for deposit to the next generation 9-1-1 fund, which is 108899
created under section 5507.54 of the Revised Code. The petition 108900
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 108901
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 108902
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 108903
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 108904
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.108905

       (6)(5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 108906
the assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a 108907
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 108908
of the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county in which 108909
the business of the assessed party is conducted. If the party 108910
assessed maintains no place of business in this state, the 108911
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 108912
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 108913
Immediately upon the filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for 108914
the state against the assessed party in the amount shown on the 108915
final assessment. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 108916
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 108917
charges" and shall have the same effect as other judgments. The 108918
judgment shall be executed upon the request of the tax 108919
commissioner.108920

       (7)(6) If the commissioner determines that the commissioner 108921
erroneously has refunded a wireless 9-1-1 charge to any person, 108922
the commissioner may make an assessment against that person for 108923
recovery of the erroneously refunded charge.108924

       (8)(7) An assessment under division (E) of this section does 108925
not discharge a subscriber's or consumer's liability to reimburse 108926
the provider, reseller, or seller for a wireless 9-1-1 charge. If, 108927
after the date of service of the audit notice under division 108928
(E)(1) of this section, a subscriber or consumer pays a wireless 108929
9-1-1 charge for the period covered by the assessment, the payment 108930
shall be credited against the assessment.108931

       Sec. 5511.03.  The director of transportation shall examine 108932
the existing highway facilities serving the several hospitals, 108933
educational institutions, and correctional and other similar 108934
institutions belonging to the state, and located outside municipal 108935
corporations. Where the director finds that any such state 108936
institution is not located on a state highway or connected with a 108937
highway by a suitable road, affording in its present condition 108938
adequate transportation facilities to those having occasion to 108939
visit such institution, the director may establish a state highway 108940
leading to such institution from a convenient point on an existing 108941
highway. Where the director finds that any such institution is not 108942
served by adequate highway facilities connecting it with the 108943
railroad delivery point from which it principally obtains fuel, 108944
provisions, and supplies, the director may establish a highway 108945
connecting such institution and railroad delivery point. 108946
Limitations imposed on the mileage of state highways shall not 108947
apply to highways established under this section.108948

       The director may construct at state expense all highways 108949
established under authority of this section and pay the entire 108950
cost thereof from the state highway operating fund. Such highways 108951
shall be maintained by the department of transportation and the 108952
cost shall be paid from the highway operating fund of the 108953
department.108954

       The directors of transportation, mental healthmental health 108955
and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 108956
rehabilitation and correction may cooperate in the establishment, 108957
construction, reconstruction, maintenance, and repair of roads 108958
within the limits of state institutions. The cost shall be paid 108959
from funds appropriated for highway purposes and from the funds 108960
appropriated to the department of mental healthmental health and 108961
addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, or 108962
the department of rehabilitation and correction for capital 108963
improvements or maintenance in such proportion as may be agreed 108964
upon by the directors of transportation, mental healthmental 108965
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 108966
rehabilitation and correction.108967

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:108968

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 108969
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 108970
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 108971
of the Revised Code.108972

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 108973
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 108974
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 108975
Code.108976

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 108977
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 108978
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 108979
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.108980

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 108981
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 108982
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 108983
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:108984

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 108985
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:108986

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or 108987
residential facility.108988

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 108989
association, or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal 108990
nature, that is organized and operated not for profit, is not 108991
formed for the pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings 108992
or any part of whose net earnings is not distributable to, its 108993
members, trustees, officers, or other private persons, and is 108994
exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of the 108995
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.108996

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 108997
or national origin.108998

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 108999
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 109000
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 109001
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 109002
unreasonably high.109003

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 109004
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 109005
the full cost of the services.109006

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 109007
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 109008
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 109009
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "residential 109010
facility" under division (A)(3) of this section regardless of 109011
whether it is licensed as such a home or facility; and that is 109012
provided at no charge to individuals on account of their service 109013
without compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or 109014
educational institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and 109015
are members of the corporation, association, or trust that owns 109016
the place of residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of 109017
this section, "compensation" does not include furnishing room and 109018
board, clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or 109019
other de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.109020

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 109021
application, only to those homes or parts of homes that meet the 109022
standards and provide the services specified in this section.109023

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 109024
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 109025
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 109026
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 109027
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 109028
resources to do so.109029

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 109030
association, or trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of this 109031
section is granted a certificate of need pursuant to section 109032
3702.52 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 109033
modify a nursing home, or is given approval pursuant to section 109034
3791.04 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 109035
modify a residential care facility or residential facility and if 109036
the corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the 109037
tax commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure 109038
and continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated 109039
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 109040
of this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 109041
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 109042
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 109043
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 109044
approval is given.109045

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 109046
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 109047
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 109048
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 109049
following events:109050

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 109051
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 109052
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 109053
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 109054
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 109055
of this section;109056

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 109057
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 109058
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 109059
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;109060

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 109061
granted by the director of health within one year following 109062
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 109063
the home or facility;109064

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 109065
granted by the director of health within four years following the 109066
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 109067
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;109068

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 109069
nursing home, residential care facility, or residential facility.109070

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 109071
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 109072
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 109073
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 109074
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 109075
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 109076
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 109077
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 109078
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 109079
care facility, or residential facility from qualifying as a "home 109080
for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant to 109081
division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the requirements 109082
of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.109083

       Sec. 5703.052.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 109084
treasury the tax refund fund, from which refunds shall be paid for 109085
taxes illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any 109086
other reason overpaid, that are levied by Chapter 4301., 4305., 109087
5726., 5728., 5729., 5731., 5733., 5735., 5739., 5741., 5743., 109088
5747., 5748., 5749., 5751., or 5753. and sections 3737.71, 109089
3905.35, 3905.36, 4303.33, 5707.03, 5725.18, 5727.28, 5727.38, 109090
5727.81, and 5727.811 of the Revised Code. Refunds for fees 109091
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 109092
reason overpaid, that are levied by sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 109093
of the Revised Code also shall be paid from the fund. Refunds for 109094
amounts illegally or erroneously assessed or collected by the tax 109095
commissioner, or for any other reason overpaid, that are due under 109096
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the fund. 109097
However, refunds for taxes levied under section 5739.101 of the 109098
Revised Code shall not be paid from the tax refund fund, but shall 109099
be paid as provided in section 5739.104 of the Revised Code.109100

       (B)(1) Upon certification by the tax commissioner to the 109101
treasurer of state of a tax refund, a fee refund, or an other109102
another amount refunded, or by the superintendent of insurance of 109103
a domestic or foreign insurance tax refund, the treasurer of state 109104
shall place the amount certified to the credit of the fund. The 109105
certified amount transferred shall be derived from currentthe109106
receipts of the same tax, fee, or other amount from which the 109107
refund arose. If current receipts from the tax, fee, or other 109108
amount from which the refund arose are inadequate to make the 109109
transfer of the amount so certified, the treasurer of state shall 109110
transfer such certified amount from current receipts of the sales 109111
tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.109112

       (2) When the treasurer of state provides for the payment of a 109113
refund of a tax, fee, or other amount from the current receipts of 109114
the sales tax, and thea refund is for a tax, fee, or other amount 109115
that is not levied by the state, the tax commissioner shall 109116
recover the amount of that refund from the next distribution of 109117
that tax, fee, or other amount that otherwise would be made to the 109118
taxing jurisdiction. If the amount to be recovered would exceed 109119
twenty-five per cent of the next distribution of that tax, fee, or 109120
other amount, the commissioner may spread the recovery over more 109121
than one future distribution, taking into account the amount to be 109122
recovered and the amount of the anticipated future distributions. 109123
In no event may the commissioner spread the recovery over a period 109124
to exceed twenty-four months.109125

       Sec. 5703.059. (A) The tax commissioner may adopt rules 109126
requiring returns, including any accompanying schedule or 109127
statement, for any of the following taxes to be filed 109128
electronically using the Ohio business gateway as defined in 109129
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, filed telephonically using 109130
the system known as the Ohio telefile system, or filed by any 109131
other electronic means prescribed by the commissioner:109132

       (1) Employer income tax withholding under Chapter 5747. of 109133
the Revised Code;109134

       (2) Motor fuel tax under Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;109135

       (3) Cigarette and tobacco product tax under Chapter 5743. of 109136
the Revised Code;109137

       (4) Severance tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code;109138

       (5) Use tax under Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code;109139

       (6) Commercial activity tax under Chapter 5751. of the 109140
Revised Code;109141

       (7) Financial institutions tax under Chapter 5726. of the 109142
Revised Code.109143

       (B) The tax commissioner may adopt rules requiring any 109144
payment of tax shown on such a return to be due to be made 109145
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner.109146

       (C) A rule adopted under this section does not apply to 109147
returns or reports filed or payments made before six months after 109148
the effective date of the rule. The commissioner shall publicize 109149
any new electronic filing requirement on the department's web 109150
site. The commissioner shall educate the public of the requirement 109151
through seminars, workshops, conferences, or other outreach 109152
activities.109153

       (D) Any person required to file returns and make payments 109154
electronically under rules adopted under this section may apply to 109155
the commissioner, on a form prescribed by the commissioner, to be 109156
excused from that requirement. For good cause shown, the 109157
commissioner may excuse the applicant from the requirement and 109158
permit the applicant to file the returns or reports or make the 109159
payments required under this section by nonelectronic means.109160

       (E) Beginning July 1, 2014, and thereafter for each year that 109161
the department of taxation has published at least one method 109162
acceptable to the tax commissioner for filing returns required 109163
under section 5747.08 of the Revised Code electronically, the 109164
department shall publish on the department's official web site a 109165
method for any individual, trust, or pass-through entity, 109166
including individuals, trusts, and pass-through entities filing an 109167
income tax return in this state for the first time, to register 109168
electronically for that method of filing.109169

       Sec. 5703.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 109170
(C) of this section, no agent of the department of taxation, 109171
except in the agent's report to the department or when called on 109172
to testify in any court or proceeding, shall divulge any 109173
information acquired by the agent as to the transactions, 109174
property, or business of any person while acting or claiming to 109175
act under orders of the department. Whoever violates this 109176
provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an 109177
officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or 109178
employment of the department.109179

       (B)(1) For purposes of an audit pursuant to section 117.15 of 109180
the Revised Code, or an audit of the department pursuant to 109181
Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, or an audit, pursuant to that 109182
chapter, the objective of which is to express an opinion on a 109183
financial report or statement prepared or issued pursuant to 109184
division (A)(7) or (9) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code, the 109185
officers and employees of the auditor of state charged with 109186
conducting the audit shall have access to and the right to examine 109187
any state tax returns and state tax return information in the 109188
possession of the department to the extent that the access and 109189
examination are necessary for purposes of the audit. Any 109190
information acquired as the result of that access and examination 109191
shall not be divulged for any purpose other than as required for 109192
the audit or unless the officers and employees are required to 109193
testify in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal 109194
process. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be 109195
disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other 109196
capacity under appointment or employment of the auditor of state.109197

       (2) For purposes of an internal audit pursuant to section 109198
126.45 of the Revised Code, the officers and employees of the 109199
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 109200
management charged with conductingdirecting the internal audit 109201
shall have access to and the right to examine any state tax 109202
returns and state tax return information in the possession of the 109203
department to the extent that the access and examination are 109204
necessary for purposes of the internal audit. Any information 109205
acquired as the result of that access and examination shall not be 109206
divulged for any purpose other than as required for the internal 109207
audit or unless the officers and employees are required to testify 109208
in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal process. 109209
Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified 109210
from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity 109211
under appointment or employment of the office of internal auditing109212
audit.109213

        (3) As provided by section 6103(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue 109214
Code, any federal tax returns or federal tax information that the 109215
department has acquired from the internal revenue service, through 109216
federal and state statutory authority, may be disclosed to the 109217
auditor of state or the office of internal auditingaudit solely 109218
for purposes of an audit of the department.109219

       (4) For purposes of Chapter 3739. of the Revised Code, an 109220
agent of the department of taxation may share information with the 109221
division of state fire marshal that the agent finds during the 109222
course of an investigation.109223

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit any of the 109224
following:109225

       (1) Divulging information contained in applications, 109226
complaints, and related documents filed with the department under 109227
section 5715.27 of the Revised Code or in applications filed with 109228
the department under section 5715.39 of the Revised Code;109229

       (2) Providing information to the office of child support 109230
within the department of job and family services pursuant to 109231
section 3125.43 of the Revised Code;109232

       (3) Disclosing to the motor vehicle repair board any 109233
information in the possession of the department that is necessary 109234
for the board to verify the existence of an applicant's valid 109235
vendor's license and current state tax identification number under 109236
section 4775.07 of the Revised Code;109237

       (4) Providing information to the administrator of workers' 109238
compensation pursuant to sections 4123.271 and 4123.591 of the 109239
Revised Code;109240

       (5) Providing to the attorney general information the 109241
department obtains under division (J) of section 1346.01 of the 109242
Revised Code;109243

       (6) Permitting properly authorized officers, employees, or 109244
agents of a municipal corporation from inspecting reports or 109245
information pursuant to rules adopted under section 5745.16 of the 109246
Revised Code;109247

       (7) Providing information regarding the name, account number, 109248
or business address of a holder of a vendor's license issued 109249
pursuant to section 5739.17 of the Revised Code, a holder of a 109250
direct payment permit issued pursuant to section 5739.031 of the 109251
Revised Code, or a seller having a use tax account maintained 109252
pursuant to section 5741.17 of the Revised Code, or information 109253
regarding the active or inactive status of a vendor's license, 109254
direct payment permit, or seller's use tax account;109255

       (8) Releasing invoices or invoice information furnished under 109256
section 4301.433 of the Revised Code pursuant to that section;109257

       (9) Providing to a county auditor notices or documents 109258
concerning or affecting the taxable value of property in the 109259
county auditor's county. Unless authorized by law to disclose 109260
documents so provided, the county auditor shall not disclose such 109261
documents;109262

       (10) Providing to a county auditor sales or use tax return or 109263
audit information under section 333.06 of the Revised Code;109264

       (11) Subject to section 4301.441 of the Revised Code, 109265
disclosing to the appropriate state agency information in the 109266
possession of the department of taxation that is necessary to 109267
verify a permit holder's gallonage or noncompliance with taxes 109268
levied under Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;109269

       (12) Disclosing to the department of natural resources 109270
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 109271
is necessary for the department of taxation to verify the 109272
taxpayer's compliance with division (A)(1), (5), (6), (8), or (9) 109273
of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and information received 109274
pursuant to section 1509.50 of the Revised Code concerning the 109275
amount due under that sectionor to allow the department of 109276
natural resources to enforce Chapter 1509. of the Revised Code;109277

       (13) Disclosing to the department of job and family services, 109278
industrial commission, and bureau of workers' compensation 109279
information in the possession of the department of taxation solely 109280
for the purpose of identifying employers that misclassify 109281
employees as independent contractors or that fail to properly 109282
report and pay employer tax liabilities. The department of 109283
taxation shall disclose only such information that is necessary to 109284
verify employer compliance with law administered by those 109285
agencies.109286

       (14) Disclosing to the Ohio casino control commission 109287
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 109288
is necessary to verify a casino operator's compliance with section 109289
5747.063 or 5753.02 of the Revised Code and sections related 109290
thereto;109291

       (15) Disclosing to the state lottery commission information 109292
in the possession of the department of taxation that is necessary 109293
to verify a lottery sales agent's compliance with section 5747.064 109294
of the Revised Code.109295

       Sec. 5703.37.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of 109296
this section, whenever service of a notice or order is required in 109297
the manner provided in this section, a copy of the notice or order 109298
shall be served upon the person affected thereby either by 109299
personal service, by certified mail, or by a delivery service 109300
authorized under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code that 109301
notifies the tax commissioner of the date of delivery.109302

       (2) In lieu of serving a copy of a notice or order through 109303
one of the means provided in division (A)(1) of this section, the 109304
commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the person affected 109305
thereby through alternative means as provided in this section, 109306
including, but not limited to, delivery by secure electronic mail 109307
as provided in division (F) of this section. Delivery by such 109308
means satisfies the requirements for delivery under this section.109309

       (B)(1)(a) If certified mail is returned because of an 109310
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall first utilize 109311
reasonable means to ascertain a new last known address, including 109312
the use of a change of address service offered by the United 109313
States postal service or an authorized delivery service under 109314
section 5703.056 of the Revised Code. If, after using reasonable 109315
means, the commissioner is unable to ascertain a new last known 109316
address, the assessment is final for purposes of section 131.02 of 109317
the Revised Code sixty days after the notice or order sent by 109318
certified mail is first returned to the commissioner, and the 109319
commissioner shall certify the notice or order, if applicable, to 109320
the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 109321
Revised Code.109322

       (b) Notwithstanding certification to the attorney general 109323
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section, once the commissioner or 109324
attorney general, or the designee of either, makes an initial 109325
contact with the person to whom the notice or order is directed, 109326
the person may protest an assessment by filing a petition for 109327
reassessment within sixty days after the initial contact. The 109328
certification of an assessment under division (B)(1)(a) of this 109329
section is prima-facie evidence that delivery is complete and that 109330
the notice or order is served.109331

       (2) If mailing of a notice or order by certified mail is 109332
returned for some cause other than an undeliverable address or if 109333
a person does not access an electronic notice or order within the 109334
time provided in division (F) of this section, the commissioner 109335
shall resend the notice or order by ordinary mail. The notice or 109336
order shall show the date the commissioner sends the notice or 109337
order and include the following statement:109338

       "This notice or order is deemed to be served on the addressee 109339
under applicable law ten days from the date this notice or order 109340
was mailed by the commissioner as shown on the notice or order, 109341
and all periods within which an appeal may be filed apply from and 109342
after that date."109343

       Unless the mailing is returned because of an undeliverable 109344
address, the mailing of that information is prima-facie evidence 109345
that delivery of the notice or order was completed ten days after 109346
the commissioner sent the notice or order by ordinary mail and 109347
that the notice or order was served.109348

       If the ordinary mail is subsequently returned because of an 109349
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall proceed under 109350
division (B)(1)(a) of this section. A person may challenge the 109351
presumption of delivery and service under this division in 109352
accordance with division (C) of this section.109353

       (C)(1) A person disputing the presumption of delivery and 109354
service under division (B) of this section bears the burden of 109355
proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the address to 109356
which the notice or order was sent was not an address with which 109357
the person was associated at the time the commissioner originally 109358
mailed the notice or order by certified mail. For the purposes of 109359
this section, a person is associated with an address at the time 109360
the commissioner originally mailed the notice or order if, at that 109361
time, the person was residing, receiving legal documents, or 109362
conducting business at the address; or if, before that time, the 109363
person had conducted business at the address and, when the notice 109364
or order was mailed, the person's agent or the person's affiliate 109365
was conducting business at the address. For the purposes of this 109366
section, a person's affiliate is any other person that, at the 109367
time the notice or order was mailed, owned or controlled at least 109368
twenty per cent, as determined by voting rights, of the 109369
addressee's business.109370

       (2) If the person elects to protest an assessment certified 109371
to the attorney general for collection, the person must do so 109372
within sixty days after the attorney general's initial contact 109373
with the person. The attorney general may enter into a compromise 109374
with the person under sections 131.02 and 5703.06 of the Revised 109375
Code if the person does not file a petition for reassessment with 109376
the commissioner.109377

       (D) Nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner or the 109378
commissioner's designee from delivering a notice or order by 109379
personal service.109380

       (E) Collection actions taken pursuant to section 131.02 of 109381
the Revised Code upon any assessment being challenged under 109382
division (B)(1)(b) of this section shall be stayed upon the 109383
pendency of an appeal under this section. If a petition for 109384
reassessment is filed pursuant to this section on a claim that has 109385
been certified to the attorney general for collection, the claim 109386
shall be uncertified.109387

       (F) The commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the 109388
person affected by the notice or order through secure electronic 109389
means only with the person's consent. The commissioner must inform 109390
the recipient, electronically or by mail, that a notice or order 109391
is available for electronic review and provide instructions to 109392
access and print the notice or order. The recipient's electronic 109393
access of the notice or order satisfies the requirements for 109394
delivery under this section. If the recipient fails to access the 109395
notice or order electronically within ten business days, then the 109396
commissioner shall inform the recipient a second time, 109397
electronically or by mail, that a notice or order is available for 109398
electronic review and provide instructions to access and print the 109399
notice or order. If the recipient fails to access the notice or 109400
order electronically within ten business days of the second 109401
notification, the notice or order shall be served upon the person 109402
through one of the means provided in division (A)(1)(B)(2) of this 109403
section. 109404

       (G) As used in this section:109405

       (1) "Last known address" means the address the department has 109406
at the time the document is originally sent by certified mail, or 109407
any address the department can ascertain using reasonable means 109408
such as the use of a change of address service offered by the 109409
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 109410
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code.109411

       (2) "Undeliverable address" means an address to which the 109412
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 109413
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code is not able to deliver 109414
a notice or order, except when the reason for nondelivery is 109415
because the addressee fails to acknowledge or accept the notice or 109416
order.109417

       Sec. 5703.75.  This section applies to any tax payable to the 109418
state and administered by the tax commissioner. If the total 109419
amount of any such tax shown to be due on a return, amended 109420
return, or notice does not exceed one dollar, the taxpayer shall 109421
not be required to remit the amount due. If the total amount of a 109422
taxpayer's overpayment of any such tax does not exceed one dollar, 109423
the tax commissioner shall not be required to refund the 109424
overpayment.109425

       Sec. 5703.76. Any payment or distribution of money that the 109426
tax commissioner is required by law to make to a political 109427
subdivision of this state, an officer thereof, or a political 109428
party shall be made by electronic funds transfer. The commissioner 109429
shall promulgate any rules necessary to administer this section.109430

       Sec. 5703.82. (A) Not later than April 1, 2009, the 109431
department of taxation shall acquire the necessary hardware, 109432
software, and services to establish and implement a tax discovery 109433
data system to increase the efficiency of tax collections in the 109434
state. The system must be fully integrated and pre-staged for the 109435
purposes of assisting in revenue analysis, discovering 109436
noncompliant taxpayers, and collecting taxes from those taxpayers. 109437
The system shall consolidate tax data from various mainframe 109438
systems and operate as a single tax discovery data system. The 109439
department shall contract, pursuant to a competitive bidding 109440
process, for the necessary hardware, software, and services to 109441
implement the tax discovery data system.109442

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 109443
discovery project fund. All money to the credit of the fund shall 109444
be used to pay the costs of implementing and operating the tax 109445
discovery data system and to defray the costs incurred by the 109446
department of taxation in administering the system.109447

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2009, on or before the first day of 109448
January, April, July, and October of each calendar year, the tax 109449
commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of budget 109450
and management the amount needed to pay the costs of operating the 109451
tax discovery data system in the previous calendar quarter and the 109452
costs incurred in the previous calendar quarter by the department 109453
of taxation in administering the system. The director shall 109454
provide for payment from the general revenue fund to the discovery 109455
project fund of the amount so certified.109456

       Sec. 5703.90.  If any tax administered by the tax 109457
commissioner remains unpaid after the date the tax is due, the 109458
commissioner may issue an assessment for the unpaid tax, and for 109459
any related penalties and interest, against any person liable for 109460
the amount due, including, but not limited to, a person that is 109461
jointly and severally liable for the amount under Chapter 5726., 109462
5748., 5749., or 5751. of the Revised Code, a partner liable for 109463
the tax liability of a partnership, a director, shareholder, or 109464
officer of a corporation that has dissolved or had its articles of 109465
incorporation canceled by the secretary of state, or any other 109466
person liable for the tax liability of another person under the 109467
Revised Code. The commissioner shall issue the assessment in 109468
accordance with any other provision of the Revised Code applicable 109469
to assessments for the tax for which the person to be assessed is 109470
liable.109471

       Sec. 5705.01.  As used in this chapter:109472

       (A) "Subdivision" means any county; municipal corporation; 109473
township; township police district; joint police district; 109474
township fire district; joint fire district; joint ambulance 109475
district; joint emergency medical services district; fire and 109476
ambulance district; joint recreation district; township waste 109477
disposal district; township road district; community college 109478
district; technical college district; detention facility district; 109479
a district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a 109480
combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of 109481
the Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and 109482
mental health service district; a drainage improvement district 109483
created under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a lake 109484
facilities authority created under Chapter 353. of the Revised 109485
Code; a union cemetery district; a county school financing 109486
district; a city, local, exempted village, cooperative education, 109487
or joint vocational school district; or a regional student 109488
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 109489
Code.109490

       (B) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 109491
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 109492
Ohio Constitution.109493

       (C) "Taxing authority" or "bond issuing authority" means, in 109494
the case of any county, the board of county commissioners; in the 109495
case of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 109496
authority of the municipal corporation; in the case of a city, 109497
local, exempted village, cooperative education, or joint 109498
vocational school district, the board of education; in the case of 109499
a community college district, the board of trustees of the 109500
district; in the case of a technical college district, the board 109501
of trustees of the district; in the case of a detention facility 109502
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 109503
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 109504
2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, the joint board of county 109505
commissioners of the district; in the case of a township, the 109506
board of township trustees; in the case of a joint police 109507
district, the joint police district board; in the case of a joint 109508
fire district, the board of fire district trustees; in the case of 109509
a joint recreation district, the joint recreation district board 109510
of trustees; in the case of a joint-county alcohol, drug 109511
addiction, and mental health service district, the district's 109512
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; in 109513
the case of a joint ambulance district or a fire and ambulance 109514
district, the board of trustees of the district; in the case of a 109515
union cemetery district, the legislative authority of the 109516
municipal corporation and the board of township trustees, acting 109517
jointly as described in section 759.341 of the Revised Code; in 109518
the case of a drainage improvement district, the board of county 109519
commissioners of the county in which the drainage district is 109520
located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the board of 109521
directors; in the case of a joint emergency medical services 109522
district, the joint board of county commissioners of all counties 109523
in which all or any part of the district lies; and in the case of 109524
a township police district, a township fire district, a township 109525
road district, or a township waste disposal district, the board of 109526
township trustees of the township in which the district is 109527
located. "Taxing authority" also means the educational service 109528
center governing board that serves as the taxing authority of a 109529
county school financing district as provided in section 3311.50 of 109530
the Revised Code, and the board of directors of a regional student 109531
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 109532
Code.109533

       (D) "Fiscal officer" in the case of a county, means the 109534
county auditor; in the case of a municipal corporation, the city 109535
auditor or village clerk, or an officer who, by virtue of the 109536
charter, has the duties and functions of the city auditor or 109537
village clerk, except that in the case of a municipal university 109538
the board of directors of which have assumed, in the manner 109539
provided by law, the custody and control of the funds of the 109540
university, the chief accounting officer of the university shall 109541
perform, with respect to the funds, the duties vested in the 109542
fiscal officer of the subdivision by sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 109543
of the Revised Code; in the case of a school district, the 109544
treasurer of the board of education; in the case of a county 109545
school financing district, the treasurer of the educational 109546
service center governing board that serves as the taxing 109547
authority; in the case of a township, the township fiscal officer; 109548
in the case of a joint police district, the treasurer of the 109549
district; in the case of a joint fire district, the clerk of the 109550
board of fire district trustees; in the case of a joint ambulance 109551
district, the clerk of the board of trustees of the district; in 109552
the case of a joint emergency medical services district, the 109553
person appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of 109554
section 307.053 of the Revised Code; in the case of a fire and 109555
ambulance district, the person appointed as fiscal officer 109556
pursuant to division (B) of section 505.375 of the Revised Code; 109557
in the case of a joint recreation district, the person designated 109558
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 109559
union cemetery district, the clerk of the municipal corporation 109560
designated in section 759.34 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 109561
children's home district, educational service center, general 109562
health district, joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 109563
health service district, county library district, detention 109564
facility district, district organized under section 2151.65 of the 109565
Revised Code, a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 109566
and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a metropolitan park district 109567
for which no treasurer has been appointed pursuant to section 109568
1545.07 of the Revised Code, the county auditor of the county 109569
designated by law to act as the auditor of the district; in the 109570
case of a metropolitan park district which has appointed a 109571
treasurer pursuant to section 1545.07 of the Revised Code, that 109572
treasurer; in the case of a drainage improvement district, the 109573
auditor of the county in which the drainage improvement district 109574
is located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the fiscal 109575
officer designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code; in 109576
the case of a regional student education district, the fiscal 109577
officer appointed pursuant to section 3313.83 of the Revised Code; 109578
and in all other cases, the officer responsible for keeping the 109579
appropriation accounts and drawing warrants for the expenditure of 109580
the moneys of the district or taxing unit.109581

       (E) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 109582
property, asset, or improvement with an estimated life or 109583
usefulness of five years or more, including land and interests 109584
therein, and reconstructions, enlargements, and extensions thereof 109585
having an estimated life or usefulness of five years or more.109586

       (F) "Current operating expenses" and "current expenses" mean 109587
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 109588
permanent improvements, and except payments for interest, sinking 109589
fund, and retirement of bonds, notes, and certificates of 109590
indebtedness of the subdivision.109591

       (G) "Debt charges" means interest, sinking fund, and 109592
retirement charges on bonds, notes, or certificates of 109593
indebtedness.109594

       (H) "Taxing unit" means any subdivision or other governmental 109595
district having authority to levy taxes on the property in the 109596
district or issue bonds that constitute a charge against the 109597
property of the district, including conservancy districts, 109598
metropolitan park districts, sanitary districts, road districts, 109599
and other districts.109600

       (I) "District authority" means any board of directors, 109601
trustees, commissioners, or other officers controlling a district 109602
institution or activity that derives its income or funds from two 109603
or more subdivisions, such as the educational service center, the 109604
trustees of district children's homes, the district board of 109605
health, a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 109606
service district's board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 109607
health services, detention facility districts, a joint recreation 109608
district board of trustees, districts organized under section 109609
2151.65 of the Revised Code, combined districts organized under 109610
sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, and other such 109611
boards.109612

       (J) "Tax list" and "tax duplicate" mean the general tax lists 109613
and duplicates prescribed by sections 319.28 and 319.29 of the 109614
Revised Code.109615

       (K) "Property" as applied to a tax levy means taxable 109616
property listed on general tax lists and duplicates.109617

       (L) "Association library district" means a territory, the 109618
boundaries of which are defined by the state library board 109619
pursuant to division (I) of section 3375.01 of the Revised Code, 109620
in which a library association or private corporation maintains a 109621
free public library.109622

       (M) "Library district" means a territory, the boundaries of 109623
which are defined by the state library board pursuant to section 109624
3375.01 of the Revised Code, in which the board of trustees of a 109625
county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public 109626
library maintains a free public library.109627

       (N) "Qualifying library levy" means either of the following:109628

       (1) A levy for the support of a library association or 109629
private corporation that has an association library district with 109630
boundaries that are not identical to those of a subdivision;109631

       (2) A levy proposed under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 109632
for the support of the board of trustees of a public library that 109633
has a library district with boundaries that are not identical to 109634
those of a subdivision.109635

       (O) "School library district" means a school district in 109636
which a free public library has been established that is under the 109637
control and management of a board of library trustees as provided 109638
in section 3375.15 of the Revised Code.109639

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 109640
districts or, county school financing districts, or lake 109641
facilities authorities.109642

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 109643
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 109644
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 109645
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 109646
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 109647
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 109648
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 109649
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 109650
for any of the following purposes:109651

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 109652
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 109653
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 109654
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 109655
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 109656
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;109657

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 109658
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 109659
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;109660

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 109661
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 109662
prior to January 1, 1925;109663

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 109664
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;109665

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 109666
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 109667
Revised Code;109668

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 109669
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 109670
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;109671

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 109672
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 109673
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;109674

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;109675

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 109676
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 109677
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 109678
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 109679
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 109680
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 109681
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 109682
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 109683
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 109684
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 109685
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 109686
department or firefighting company;109687

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 109688
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 109689
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 109690
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 109691
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 109692
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 109693
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 109694
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 109695
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 109696
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 109697
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;109698

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 109699
detention facility;109700

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 109701
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 109702
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 109703
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;109704

       (M) For regional planning;109705

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 109706
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 109707
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 109708
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 109709
sections;109710

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 109711
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 109712
floods;109713

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 109714
facilities;109715

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 109716
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 109717
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 109718
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 109719
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 109720
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 109721
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;109722

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 109723
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 109724
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 109725
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;109726

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 109727
pollution;109728

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;109729

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 109730
service, or both;109731

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 109732
or refuse, including yard waste;109733

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 109734
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 109735
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;109736

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 109737
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;109738

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 109739
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 109740
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;109741

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 109742
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 109743
Revised Code;109744

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 109745
museum of art, science, or history;109746

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 109747
as defined in section 5507.01 of the Revised Code;109748

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 109749
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 109750
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 109751
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 109752
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.109753

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 109754
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 109755
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;109756

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 109757
office of economic development, for any economic development 109758
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 109759
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 109760
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 109761
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 109762
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 109763
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 109764
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 109765
operations and expenses;109766

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 109767
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 109768
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 109769
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 109770
of the Revised Code;109771

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 109772
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 109773
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 109774
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 109775
supply improvement;109776

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 109777
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 109778
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 109779
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 109780
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 109781
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 109782
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 109783
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 109784
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 109785
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 109786
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 109787
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 109788
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 109789
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 109790
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 109791
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 109792
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 109793
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 109794
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 109795
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 109796
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 109797
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 109798
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 109799
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 109800
thousand.109801

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 109802
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 109803
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 109804
of the Revised Code;109805

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 109806
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 109807
township.109808

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 109809
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 109810
only to counties.109811

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 109812
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;109813

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 109814
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 109815
Revised Code;109816

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 109817
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold, and 109818
the operating expenses of, agricultural fairs operated by a county 109819
agricultural society or independent agricultural society under 109820
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code. This division applies only to a 109821
county.109822

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 109823
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 109824
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 109825
necessary for the foregoing improvements;109826

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 109827
(OO) of this section.109828

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 109829
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.109830

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 109831
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 109832
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 109833
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 109834
to supervise and enforce the easements.109835

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 109836
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.109837

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 109838
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 109839
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.109840

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 109841
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 109842
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 109843
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 109844
organized;109845

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 109846
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 109847
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;109848

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 109849
created under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 109850
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 109851
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 109852
a county.109853

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 109854
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 109855
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 109856
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 109857
municipal corporation;109858

       (YY) For any combination of the purposes specified in 109859
divisions (NN), (VV), and (WW) of this section. This division 109860
applies only to a county.109861

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 109862
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 109863
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 109864
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 109865
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 109866
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 109867
division under which the resolution is adopted.109868

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 109869
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 109870
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 109871
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 109872
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 109873
number not exceeding five, except as follows:109874

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 109875
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 109876
indebtedness.109877

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 109878
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:109879

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 109880
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 109881
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 109882
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;109883

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 109884
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 109885
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 109886
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 109887
or under both of those sections.109888

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 109889
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:109890

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 109891
(KK) of this section;109892

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 109893
district.109894

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 109895
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 109896
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 109897
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.109898

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 109899
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 109900
number of years not exceeding ten.109901

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 109902
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 109903
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 109904
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 109905
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 109906
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 109907
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 109908
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 109909
decreased by a designated amount.109910

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 109911
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 109912
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 109913
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 109914
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 109915
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 109916
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 109917
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 109918
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 109919
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.109920

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 109921
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 109922
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 109923
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 109924
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 109925
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 109926
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 109927
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 109928
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 109929
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 109930
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 109931
such obligations have been specifically described in the 109932
resolution.109933

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 109934
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 109935
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 109936
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 109937
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 109938
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 109939
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 109940
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.109941

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 109942
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 109943
than that provided for in the notice of election.109944

       When the electors of a subdivision or, in the case of a 109945
qualifying library levy for the support of a library association 109946
or private corporation, the electors of the association library 109947
district, have approved a tax levy under this section, the taxing 109948
authority of the subdivision may anticipate a fraction of the 109949
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes in accordance 109950
with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 of the Revised Code.109951

       Sec. 5705.192.  (A) For the purposes of this section only, 109952
"taxing authority" includes a township board of park commissioners 109953
appointed under section 511.18 of the Revised Code.109954

       (B) A taxing authority may propose to replace an existing 109955
levy that the taxing authority is authorized to levy, regardless 109956
of the section of the Revised Code under which the authority is 109957
granted, except a school district emergency levy proposed pursuant 109958
to sections 5705.194 to 5705.197 of the Revised Code. The taxing 109959
authority may propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety 109960
at the rate at which it is authorized to be levied; may propose to 109961
replace a portion of the existing levy at a lesser rate; or may 109962
propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety and increase 109963
the rate at which it is levied. If the taxing authority proposes 109964
to replace an existing levy, the proposed levy shall be called a 109965
replacement levy and shall be so designated on the ballot. Except 109966
as otherwise provided in this division, a replacement levy shall 109967
be limited to the purpose of the existing levy, and shall appear 109968
separately on the ballot from, and shall not be conjoined with, 109969
the renewal of any other existing levy. In the case of an existing 109970
school district levy imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised 109971
Code for the purpose specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 109972
of the Revised Code, or in the case of an existing school district 109973
levy imposed under section 5705.217 of the Revised Code for the 109974
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 109975
of permanent improvements, the replacement for that existing levy 109976
may be for the same purpose or for the purpose of general 109977
permanent improvements as defined in section 5705.21 of the 109978
Revised Code.109979

        The resolution proposing a replacement levy shall specify the 109980
purpose of the levy; its proposed rate expressed in mills; whether 109981
the proposed rate is the same as the rate of the existing levy, a 109982
reduction, or an increase; the extent of any reduction or increase 109983
expressed in mills; the first calendar year in which the levy will 109984
be due; and the term of the levy, expressed in years or, if 109985
applicable, that it will be levied for a continuing period of 109986
time.109987

       The sections of the Revised Code governing the maximum rate 109988
and term of the existing levy, the contents of the resolution that 109989
proposed the levy, the adoption of the resolution, the 109990
arrangements for the submission of the question of the levy, and 109991
notice of the election also govern the respective provisions of 109992
the proposal to replace the existing levy, except as provided in 109993
divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section:109994

        (1) In the case of an existing school district levy that is109995
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code for the purpose 109996
specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code 109997
or under section 5705.17 of the Revised Code for the acquistion, 109998
construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing of permanent 109999
improvements, and that is to be replaced by a levy for general 110000
permanent improvements, the maximum term of the replacement levy 110001
is not limited to the term of the existing levy and may be for a 110002
continuing period of time.110003

       (2) The date on which the election is held shall be as 110004
follows:110005

       (a) For the replacement of a levy with a fixed term of years, 110006
the date of the general election held during the last year the 110007
existing levy may be extended on the real and public utility 110008
property tax list and duplicate, or the date of any election held 110009
in the ensuing year;110010

       (b) For the replacement of a levy imposed for a continuing 110011
period of time, the date of any election held in any year after 110012
the year the levy to be replaced is first approved by the 110013
electors, except that only one election on the question of 110014
replacing the levy may be held during any calendar year.110015

       The failure by the electors to approve a proposal to replace 110016
a levy imposed for a continuing period of time does not terminate 110017
the existing continuing levy.110018

       (3) In the case of an existing school district levy imposed 110019
under division (B) of section 5705.21, division (C) of section 110020
5705.212, or division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, 110021
the rates allocated to the municipal school district and to 110022
partnering community schools each may be increased or decreased or 110023
remain the same, and the total rate may be increased, decreased, 110024
or remain the same.110025

       (C) The form of the ballot at the election on the question of 110026
a replacement levy shall be as follows:110027

       "A replacement of a tax for the benefit of .......... (name 110028
of subdivision or public library) for the purpose of .......... 110029
(the purpose stated in the resolution) at a rate not exceeding 110030
.......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts 110031
to .......... (rate expressed in dollars and cents) for each one 110032
hundred dollars in valuation, for .......... (number of years levy 110033
is to run, or that it will be levied for a continuous period of 110034
time)110035

        110036

 FOR THE TAX LEVY 110037
 AGAINST THE TAX LEVY  " 110038

        110039

       If the replacement levy is proposed by a municipal school 110040
district to replace an existing tax levied under division (B) of 110041
section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or division 110042
(J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of the 110043
ballot shall be modified by adding, after the phrase "each one 110044
dollar of valuation," the following: "(of which ...... mills is to 110045
be allocated to partnering community schools)."110046

       If the proposal is to replace an existing levy and increase 110047
the rate of the existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 110048
changed by adding the words ".......... mills of an existing levy 110049
and an increase of .......... mills, to constitute" after the 110050
words "a replacement of." If the proposal is to replace only a 110051
portion of an existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 110052
changed by adding the words "a portion of an existing levy, being 110053
a reduction of .......... mills, to constitute" after the words "a 110054
replacement of." If the existing levy is imposed under division 110055
(B) of section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or 110056
division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of 110057
the ballot also shall state the portion of the total increased 110058
rate or of the total rate as reduced that is to be allocated to 110059
partnering community schools. 110060

       If the tax is to be placed on the tax list of the current tax 110061
year, the form of the ballot shall be modified by adding at the 110062
end of the form the phrase ", commencing in .......... (first year 110063
the replacement tax is to be levied), first due in calendar year 110064
.......... (first calendar year in which the tax shall be due)."110065

       The question covered by the resolution shall be submitted as 110066
a separate proposition, but may be printed on the same ballot with 110067
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 110068
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 110069
submitted at the same election.110070

       (D) Two existing levies, or any portion of those levies, may 110071
be combined into one replacement levy, so long as both of the 110072
existing levies are for the same purpose and either both are due 110073
to expire the same year or both are for a continuing period of 110074
time. The question of combining all or portions of the two 110075
existing levies into the replacement levy shall appear as one 110076
ballot proposition before the electors. If the electors approve 110077
the ballot proposition, all or the stated portions of the two 110078
existing levies are replaced by one replacement levy.110079

       (E) A levy approved in excess of the ten-mill limitation 110080
under this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In 110081
the first year of a levy approved under this section, the levy 110082
shall be extended on the tax lists after the February settlement 110083
succeeding the election at which the levy was approved. If the 110084
levy is to be placed on the tax lists of the current year, as 110085
specified in the resolution providing for its submission, the 110086
result of the election shall be certified immediately after the 110087
canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, which 110088
shall forthwith make the necessary levy and certify it to the 110089
county auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for 110090
collection. After the first year, the levy shall be included in 110091
the annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 110092
commission.110093

       If notes are authorized to be issued in anticipation of the 110094
proceeds of the existing levy, notes may be issued in anticipation 110095
of the proceeds of the replacement levy, and such issuance is 110096
subject to the terms and limitations governing the issuance of 110097
notes in anticipation of the proceeds of the existing levy.110098

       (F) This section does not authorize a tax to be levied in any 110099
year after the year in which revenue is not needed for the purpose 110100
for which the tax is levied.110101

       Sec. 5705.217.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 110102
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 110103
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 110104
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 110105
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 110106
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 110107
necessary to levy an additional tax in excess of that limitation 110108
for the purposes of providing funds for current operating expenses 110109
and for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 110110
and financing ofgeneral permanent improvements as defined in 110111
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code; and that the question of the 110112
tax shall be submitted to the electors of the district at a 110113
special election. The tax may be levied for a specified number of 110114
years not exceeding five or, if the tax is for current operating 110115
expenses or for general, on-going permanent improvements, for a 110116
continuing period of time. The resolution shall specify the 110117
proposed tax rate, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 110118
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 110119
continuing period of time. The resolution shall apportion the 110120
annual rate of the tax between current operating expenses and 110121
permanent improvements. The apportionment may but need not be the 110122
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 110123
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 110124
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment.110125

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the special 110126
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after 110127
certification of the resolution to the board of elections and 110128
shall be consistent with the requirements of section 3501.01 of 110129
the Revised Code. The resolution shall go into immediate effect 110130
upon its passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than 110131
that provided in the notice of election. The board of education 110132
shall certify a copy of the resolution to the board of elections 110133
immediately after its adoption. Section 5705.25 of the Revised 110134
Code governs the arrangements and form of the ballot for the 110135
submission of the question to the electors.110136

       If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in 110137
favor of the tax, the board of education may make the levy at the 110138
additional rate, or at any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill 110139
limitation. If the tax is for a continuing period of time, it may 110140
be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised 110141
Code.110142

       A board of education may adopt a resolution to renew one or 110143
more existing levies imposed under this section, or to increase or 110144
decrease the rate of a tax levied under this section, for the 110145
purpose of providing funds for either current expenses and general 110146
permanent improvements or solely for general permanent 110147
improvements.110148

       (B)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 110149
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 110150
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 110151
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 110152
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 110153
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 110154
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.110155

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 110156
general permanent improvements having a specific purposelevied 110157
under this section for a specified number of years, the board of 110158
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 110159
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 110160
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 110161
remaining to be collected in each year over a specified period of 110162
five years, not exceeding the number of years for which the tax 110163
was levied, after issuance of the notes.110164

       (3) After the approval of a tax for general, on-going110165
permanent improvements levied under this section for a continuing 110166
period of time, the board of education may anticipate a fraction 110167
of the proceeds of such tax and issue anticipation notes in a 110168
principal amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the total 110169
estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in each year over a 110170
specified period of years, not exceeding ten, after issuance of 110171
the notes.110172

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 110173
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 110174
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 110175
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 110176
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 110177
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (B)(3) 110178
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 110179
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 110180
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 110181
issuance.110182

       (C) The submission of a question to the electors under this 110183
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 110184
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 110185
Code.110186

       Sec. 5705.218.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 110187
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 110188
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that it 110189
may be necessary for the school district to issue general 110190
obligation bonds for permanent improvements. The resolution shall 110191
state all of the following:110192

       (1) The necessity and purpose of the bond issue;110193

       (2) The date of the special election at which the question 110194
shall be submitted to the electors;110195

       (3) The amount, approximate date, estimated rate of interest, 110196
and maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds 110197
may be paid;110198

       (4) The necessity of levying a tax outside the ten-mill 110199
limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory 110200
securities.110201

       On adoption of the resolution, the board shall certify a copy 110202
of it to the county auditor. The county auditor promptly shall 110203
estimate and certify to the board the average annual property tax 110204
rate required throughout the stated maturity of the bonds to pay 110205
debt charges on the bonds, in the same manner as under division 110206
(C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code.110207

       (B) After receiving the county auditor's certification under 110208
division (A) of this section, the board of education of the city, 110209
local, or exempted village school district, by a vote of 110210
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 110211
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 110212
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 110213
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 110214
necessary to issue general obligation bonds of the school district 110215
for permanent improvements and to levy an additional tax in excess 110216
of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and 110217
any anticipatory securities; that it is necessary for a specified 110218
number of years or for a continuing period of time to levy 110219
additional taxes in excess of the ten-mill limitation to provide 110220
funds for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 110221
and financing of permanent improvements or to pay for current 110222
operating expenses, or both; and that the question of the bonds 110223
and taxes shall be submitted to the electors of the school 110224
district at a special election, which shall not be earlier than 110225
ninety days after certification of the resolution to the board of 110226
elections, and the date of which shall be consistent with section 110227
3501.01 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall specify all of 110228
the following:110229

       (1) The county auditor's estimate of the average annual 110230
property tax rate required throughout the stated maturity of the 110231
bonds to pay debt charges on the bonds;110232

       (2) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for current 110233
operating expenses, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 110234
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 110235
continuing period of time;110236

       (3) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for permanent 110237
improvements, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 110238
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 110239
continuing period of time.110240

       The resolution shall apportion the annual rate of the tax 110241
between current operating expenses and permanent improvements, if 110242
both taxes are proposed. The apportionment may but need not be the 110243
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 110244
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 110245
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment. The 110246
resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its passage, and no 110247
publication of it is necessary other than that provided in the 110248
notice of election. The board of education shall certify a copy of 110249
the resolution, along with copies of the auditor's estimate and 110250
its resolution under division (A) of this section, to the board of 110251
elections immediately after its adoption.110252

       (C) The board of elections shall make the arrangements for 110253
the submission to the electors of the school district of the 110254
question proposed under division (B) or (J) of this section, and 110255
the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the 110256
same manner as regular elections in the district for the election 110257
of county officers. The resolution shall be put before the 110258
electors as one ballot question, with a favorable vote indicating 110259
approval of the bond issue, the levy to pay debt charges on the 110260
bonds and any anticipatory securities, the current operating 110261
expenses levy, the permanent improvements levy, and the levy for 110262
the current expenses of a municipal school district and of 110263
partnering community schools, as those levies may be proposed. The 110264
board of elections shall publish notice of the election in a 110265
newspaper of general circulation in the school district once a 110266
week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of 110267
the Revised Code, prior to the election. If a board of elections 110268
operates and maintains a web site, that board also shall post 110269
notice of the election on its web site for thirty days prior to 110270
the election. The notice of election shall state all of the 110271
following:110272

       (1) The principal amount of the proposed bond issue;110273

       (2) The permanent improvements for which the bonds are to be 110274
issued;110275

       (3) The maximum number of years over which the principal of 110276
the bonds may be paid;110277

       (4) The estimated additional average annual property tax rate 110278
to pay the debt charges on the bonds, as certified by the county 110279
auditor;110280

       (5) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 110281
current operating expenses and, if the question is proposed under 110282
division (J) of this section, the portion of the rate to be 110283
allocated to the school district and the portion to be allocated 110284
to partnering community schools;110285

       (6) The number of years the current operating expenses tax 110286
will be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing 110287
period of time;110288

       (7) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 110289
permanent improvements;110290

       (8) The number of years the permanent improvements tax will 110291
be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing period 110292
of time;110293

       (9) The time and place of the special election.110294

       (D) The form of the ballot for an election under this section 110295
is as follows:110296

       "Shall the .......... school district be authorized to do the 110297
following:110298

       (1) Issue bonds for the purpose of .......... in the 110299
principal amount of $......, to be repaid annually over a maximum 110300
period of ...... years, and levy a property tax outside the 110301
ten-mill limitation, estimated by the county auditor to average 110302
over the bond repayment period ...... mills for each one dollar of 110303
tax valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in cents or 110304
dollars and cents, such as "36 cents" or "$1.41") for each $100 of 110305
tax valuation, to pay the annual debt charges on the bonds, and to 110306
pay debt charges on any notes issued in anticipation of those 110307
bonds?"110308

       If either a levy for permanent improvements or a levy for 110309
current operating expenses is proposed, or both are proposed, the 110310
ballot also shall contain the following language, as appropriate:110311

       "(2) Levy an additional property tax to provide funds for the 110312
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 110313
of permanent improvements at a rate not exceeding ....... mills 110314
for each one dollar of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... 110315
(rate expressed in cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of 110316
tax valuation, for ...... (number of years of the levy, or a 110317
continuing period of time)?110318

       (3) Levy an additional property tax to pay current operating 110319
expenses at a rate not exceeding ....... mills for each one dollar 110320
of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... (rate expressed in 110321
cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of tax valuation, for 110322
....... (number of years of the levy, or a continuing period of 110323
time)?110324

        110325

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 110326
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 110327

        110328

       If the question is proposed under division (J) of this 110329
section, the form of the ballot shall be modified as prescribed by 110330
division (J)(4) of this section.110331

       (E) The board of elections promptly shall certify the results 110332
of the election to the tax commissioner and the county auditor of 110333
the county in which the school district is located. If a majority 110334
of the electors voting on the question vote for it, the board of 110335
education may proceed with issuance of the bonds and with the levy 110336
and collection of the property tax or taxes at the additional rate 110337
or any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill limitation. Any 110338
securities issued by the board of education under this section are 110339
Chapter 133. securities, as that term is defined in section 133.01 110340
of the Revised Code.110341

       (F)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 110342
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 110343
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 110344
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 110345
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 110346
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 110347
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.110348

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 110349
permanent improvements having a specific purpose, the board of 110350
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 110351
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 110352
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 110353
remaining to be collected in each year over a period of five years 110354
after issuance of the notes.110355

       (3) After the approval of a tax under this section for 110356
general, on-going permanent improvements as defined under this110357
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the board of education may 110358
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax and issue 110359
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 110360
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in 110361
each year over a specified period of years, not exceeding ten, 110362
after issuance of the notes.110363

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 110364
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 110365
division (F)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 110366
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 110367
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 110368
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (F)(3) 110369
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 110370
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 110371
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 110372
issuance.110373

       (G) A tax for current operating expenses or for permanent 110374
improvements levied under this section for a specified number of 110375
years may be renewed or replaced in the same manner as a tax for 110376
current operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied 110377
under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for current 110378
operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied under this 110379
section for a continuing period of time may be decreased in 110380
accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised Code.110381

       (H) The submission of a question to the electors under this 110382
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 110383
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 110384
Code.110385

       (I) A school district board of education proposing a ballot 110386
measure under this section to generate local resources for a 110387
project under the school building assistance expedited local 110388
partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code may 110389
combine the questions under division (D) of this section with a 110390
question for the levy of a property tax to generate moneys for 110391
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under that 110392
project as prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code.110393

       (J)(1) After receiving the county auditor's certification 110394
under division (A) of this section, the board of education of a 110395
municipal school district, by a vote of two-thirds of all its 110396
members, may declare by resolution that it is necessary to levy a 110397
tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of paying 110398
the current expenses of the school district and of partnering 110399
community schools, as defined in section 5705.21 of the Revised 110400
Code; that it is necessary to issue general obligation bonds of 110401
the school district for permanent improvements of the district and 110402
to levy an additional tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation to 110403
pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory securities; and 110404
that the question of the bonds and taxes shall be submitted to the 110405
electors of the school district at a special election, which shall 110406
not be earlier than ninety days after certification of the 110407
resolution to the board of elections, and the date of which shall 110408
be consistent with section 3505.01 of the Revised Code.110409

       The levy of taxes for the current expenses of a partnering 110410
community school under division (J) of this section and the 110411
distribution of proceeds from the tax by a municipal school 110412
district to partnering community schools is hereby determined to 110413
be a proper public purpose.110414

        (2) The tax for the current expenses of the school district 110415
and of partnering community schools is subject to the requirements 110416
of divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 5705.21 of the 110417
Revised Code.110418

        (3) In addition to the required specifications of the 110419
resolution under division (B) of this section, the resolution 110420
shall express the rate of the tax in mills per dollar of taxable 110421
value, state the number of the mills to be levied for the current 110422
expenses of the partnering community schools and the number of the 110423
mills to be levied for the current expenses of the school 110424
district, specify the number of years (not exceeding ten) the tax 110425
will be levied or that it will be levied for a continuing period 110426
of time, and state the first year the tax will be levied.110427

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 110428
passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than that 110429
provided in the notice of election. The board of education shall 110430
certify a copy of the resolution, along with copies of the 110431
auditor's estimate and its resolution under division (A) of this 110432
section, to the board of elections immediately after its adoption.110433

        (4) The form of the ballot shall be modified by replacing the 110434
ballot form set forth in division (D)(3) of this section with the 110435
following:110436

        "Levy an additional property tax for the purpose of the 110437
current expenses of the school district and of partnering 110438
community schools at a rate not exceeding ...... (insert the 110439
number of mills) mills for each one dollar of valuation (of which 110440
...... (insert the number of mills to be allocated to partnering 110441
community schools) mills is to be allocated to partnering 110442
community schools), which amounts to ...... (insert the rate 110443
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 110444
valuation, for ...... (insert the number of years the levy is to 110445
be imposed, or that it will be levied for a continuing period of 110446
time)?110447

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 110448
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 110449

        (5) After the approval of a tax for the current expenses of 110450
the school district and of partnering community schools under 110451
division (J) of this section, and prior to the time the first 110452
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 110453
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy 110454
for the current expenses of the school district and issue 110455
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 110456
cent of the estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected during 110457
the first year of the levy and allocated to the school district. 110458
The portion of levy proceeds to be allocated to partnering 110459
community schools shall not be included in the estimated proceeds 110460
anticipated under this division and shall not be used to pay debt 110461
charges on any anticipation notes.110462

        The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 110463
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 110464
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 110465
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 110466
issuance.110467

        (6) A tax for the current expenses of the school district and 110468
of partnering community schools levied under division (J) of this 110469
section for a specified number of years may be renewed or replaced 110470
in the same manner as a tax for the current expenses of a school 110471
district and of partnering community schools levied under division 110472
(B) of section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for the current 110473
expenses of the school district and of partnering community 110474
schools levied under this division for a continuing period of time 110475
may be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the 110476
Revised Code.110477

        (7) The proceeds from the issuance of the general obligation 110478
bonds under division (J) of this section shall be used solely to 110479
pay for permanent improvements of the school district and not for 110480
permanent improvements of partnering community schools.110481

       Sec. 5705.221.  (A) At any time, the board of county 110482
commissioners of any county by a majority vote of the full 110483
membership may declare by resolution and certify to the board of 110484
elections of the county that the amount of taxes which may be 110485
raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on the current tax 110486
duplicate will be insufficient to provide the necessary 110487
requirements of the county's alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 110488
health service district established pursuant to Chapter 340. of 110489
the Revised Code, or the county's contribution to a joint-county 110490
district of which the county is a part, and that it is necessary 110491
to levy a tax in excess of such limitation for the operation of 110492
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers110493
and community mental health programsservices providers and the 110494
acquisition, construction, renovation, financing, maintenance, and 110495
operation of alcohol and drug addiction facilities and mental 110496
health facilities.110497

       Such resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the 110498
Revised Code, except that the increased rate may be in effect for 110499
any number of years not exceeding ten.110500

       The resolution shall be certified and submitted in the manner 110501
provided in section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except that it 110502
may be placed on the ballot in any election, and shall be 110503
certified to the board of elections not less than ninety days 110504
before the election at which it will be voted upon.110505

       If the majority of the electors voting on a levy to 110506
supplement general fund appropriations for the support of the 110507
comprehensive alcohol and drugcommunity addiction and mental 110508
health programservices providers vote in favor of the levy, the 110509
board may levy a tax within the county at the additional rate 110510
outside the ten-mill limitation during the specified or continuing 110511
period, for the purpose stated in the resolution.110512

       (B) When electors have approved a tax levy under this 110513
section, the board of county commissioners may anticipate a 110514
fraction of the proceeds of the levy and, from time to time, issue 110515
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 110516
of the Revised Code.110517

       (C) The county auditor who is the fiscal officer of the 110518
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, upon 110519
receipt of a resolution from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 110520
and mental health services, shall establish for the district a 110521
capital improvements account or a reserve balance account, or 110522
both, as specified in the resolution. The capital improvements 110523
account shall be a contingency fund for the necessary acquisition, 110524
replacement, renovation, or construction of facilities and movable 110525
and fixed equipment. Upon the request of the board, funds not 110526
needed to pay for current expenses may be appropriated to the 110527
capital improvements account, in amounts such that the account 110528
does not exceed twenty-five per cent of the replacement value of 110529
all capital facilities and equipment currently used by the board 110530
for programs and services. Other funds which are available for 110531
current capital expenses from federal, state, or local sources may 110532
also be appropriated to this account.110533

       The reserve balance account shall contain those funds that 110534
are not needed to pay for current operating expenses and not 110535
deposited in the capital improvements account but that will be 110536
needed to pay for operating expenses in the future. Upon the 110537
request of a board, such funds shall be appropriated to the 110538
reserve balance account. Payments from the capital improvements 110539
account and the reserve balance account shall be made by the 110540
county treasurer who is the custodian of funds for the district 110541
upon warrants issued by the county auditor who is the fiscal 110542
officer of the district pursuant to orders of the board.110543

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 110544
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 110545
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 110546
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 110547
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 110548
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 110549
election. In the case of a qualifying library levy, the board 110550
shall submit the question to the electors of the library district 110551
or association library district. Except as otherwise provided in 110552
this division, a resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless 110553
of the section of the Revised Code under which the tax was 110554
imposed, shall not be placed on the ballot unless the question is 110555
submitted at the general election held during the last year the 110556
tax to be renewed or replaced may be extended on the real and 110557
public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election 110558
held in the ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence 110559
does not apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew 110560
part of an existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 110561
of the Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose 110562
of making appropriations for one or more of the following 110563
purposes: for public assistance, human or social services, relief, 110564
welfare, hospitalization, health, and support of general 110565
hospitals. The limitation of the second preceding sentence also 110566
does not apply to a resolution that proposes to renew two or more 110567
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 110568
Revised Code, in which case the question shall be submitted on the 110569
date of the general or primary election held during the last year 110570
at least one of the levies to be renewed may be extended on the 110571
real and public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any 110572
election held during the ensuing year. For purposes of this 110573
section, a levy shall be considered to be an "existing levy" 110574
through the year following the last year it can be placed on that 110575
tax list and duplicate.110576

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 110577
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 110578
library district, or association library district, and the 110579
election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the same 110580
manner as regular elections in such subdivision, library district, 110581
or association library district for the election of county 110582
officers. Notice of the election shall be published in a newspaper 110583
of general circulation in the subdivision, library district, or 110584
association library district once a week for two consecutive 110585
weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior 110586
to the election. If the board of elections operates and maintains 110587
a web site, the board of elections shall post notice of the 110588
election on its web site for thirty days prior to the election. 110589
The notice shall state the purpose, the proposed increase in rate 110590
expressed in dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of 110591
valuation as well as in mills for each one dollar of valuation, 110592
the number of years during which the increase will be in effect, 110593
the first month and year in which the tax will be levied, and the 110594
time and place of the election.110595

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 110596
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:110597

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 110598
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 110599
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 110600
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 110601
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 110602
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 110603
levy is to run).110604

        110605

 For the Tax Levy 110606
 Against the Tax Levy  " 110607

        110608

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 110609
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 110610
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.110611

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 110612
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 110613
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 110614
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 110615
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 110616
shall be due)."110617

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 110618
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 110619
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 110620
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 110621
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 110622
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 110623
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 110624
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 110625
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 110626
a decrease in the proposed levy.110627

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 110628
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 110629
Revised Code, the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of 110630
this section shall be modified by substituting for the words "an 110631
additional tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of 110632
levies to be renewed) existing taxes."110633

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 110634
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 110635
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 110636
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 110637
of township)." 110638

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 110639
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 110640
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 110641
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 110642
submitted at the same election.110643

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 110644
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 110645
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 110646
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 110647
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 110648
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 110649
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 110650
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 110651
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 110652
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 110653
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 110654
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.110655

       Sec. 5705.412.  (A) As used in this section, "qualifying 110656
contract" means any agreement for the expenditure of money under 110657
which aggregate payments from the funds included in the school 110658
district's five-year forecast under section 5705.391 of the 110659
Revised Code will exceed the lesser of the following amounts:110660

       (1) Five hundred thousand dollars;110661

       (2) One per cent of the total revenue to be credited in the 110662
current fiscal year to the district's general fund, as specified 110663
in the district's most recent certificate of estimated resources 110664
certified under section 5705.36 of the Revised Code.110665

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 5705.41 of the Revised Code, 110666
no school district shall adopt any appropriation measure, make any 110667
qualifying contract, or increase during any school year any wage 110668
or salary schedule unless there is attached thereto a certificate, 110669
signed as required by this section, that the school district has 110670
in effect the authorization to levy taxes including the renewal or 110671
replacement of existing levies which, when combined with the 110672
estimated revenue from all other sources available to the district 110673
at the time of certification, are sufficient to provide the 110674
operating revenues necessary to enable the district to maintain 110675
all personnel and programs for all the days set forth in its 110676
adopted school calendars for the current fiscal year and for a 110677
number of days in succeeding fiscal years equal to the number of 110678
days instruction was held or is scheduled for the current fiscal 110679
year, as follows:110680

       (a) A certificate attached to an appropriation measure under 110681
this section shall cover only the fiscal year in which the 110682
appropriation measure is effective and shall not consider the 110683
renewal or replacement of an existing levy as the authority to 110684
levy taxes that are subject to appropriation in the current fiscal 110685
year unless the renewal or replacement levy has been approved by 110686
the electors and is subject to appropriation in the current fiscal 110687
year. 110688

       (b) A certificate attached, in accordance with this section, 110689
to any qualifying contract shall cover the term of the contract. 110690

       (c) A certificate attached under this section to a wage or 110691
salary schedule shall cover the term of the schedule.110692

       If the board of education has not adopted a school calendar 110693
for the school year beginning on the first day of the fiscal year 110694
in which a certificate is required, the certificate attached to an 110695
appropriation measure shall include the number of days on which 110696
instruction was held in the preceding fiscal year and other 110697
certificates required under this section shall include that number 110698
of days for the fiscal year in which the certificate is required 110699
and any succeeding fiscal years that the certificate must cover. 110700

       The certificate shall be signed by the treasurer and 110701
president of the board of education and the superintendent of the 110702
school district, unless the district is in a state of fiscal 110703
emergency declared under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code. In 110704
that case, the certificate shall be signed by a member of the 110705
district's financial planning and supervision commission who is 110706
designated by the commission for this purpose.110707

       (2) In lieu of the certificate required under division (B) of 110708
this section, an alternative certificate stating the following may 110709
be attached:110710

        (a) The contract is a multi-year contract for materials, 110711
equipment, or nonpayroll services essential to the education 110712
program of the district;110713

        (b) The multi-year contract demonstrates savings over the 110714
duration of the contract as compared to costs that otherwise would 110715
have been demonstrated in a single year contract, and the terms 110716
will allow the district to reduce the deficit it is currently 110717
facing in future years as demonstrated in its five-year forecast 110718
adopted in accordance with section 5705.391 of the Revised Code.110719

        The certificate shall be signed by the treasurer and 110720
president of the board of education and the superintendent of the 110721
school district, unless the district is in a state of fiscal 110722
emergency declared under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code. In 110723
that case, the certificate shall be signed by a member of the 110724
district's financial planning and supervision commission who is 110725
designated by the commission for this purpose. 110726

       (C) Every qualifying contract made or wage or salary schedule 110727
adopted or put into effect without such a certificate shall be 110728
void, and no payment of any amount due thereon shall be made. 110729

       (D) The department of education and the auditor of state 110730
jointly shall adopt rules governing the methods by which 110731
treasurers, presidents of boards of education, superintendents, 110732
and members of financial planning and supervision commissions 110733
shall estimate revenue and determine whether such revenue is 110734
sufficient to provide necessary operating revenue for the purpose 110735
of making certifications required by this section.110736

       (E) The auditor of state shall be responsible for determining 110737
whether school districts are in compliance with this section. At 110738
the time a school district is audited pursuant to section 117.11 110739
of the Revised Code, the auditor of state shall review each 110740
certificate issued under this section since the district's last 110741
audit, and the appropriation measure, contract, or wage and salary 110742
schedule to which such certificate was attached. If the auditor of 110743
state determines that a school district has not complied with this 110744
section with respect to any qualifying contract or wage or salary 110745
schedule, the auditor of state shall notify the prosecuting 110746
attorney for the county, the city director of law, or other chief 110747
law officer of the school district. That officer may file a civil 110748
action in any court of appropriate jurisdiction to seek a 110749
declaration that the contract or wage or salary schedule is void, 110750
to recover for the school district from the payee the amount of 110751
payments already made under it, or both, except that the officer 110752
shall not seek to recover payments made under any collective 110753
bargaining agreement entered into under Chapter 4117. of the 110754
Revised Code. If the officer does not file such an action within 110755
one hundred twenty days after receiving notice of noncompliance 110756
from the auditor of state, any taxpayer may institute the action 110757
in the taxpayer's own name on behalf of the school district.110758

       (F) This section does not apply to any contract or increase 110759
in any wage or salary schedule that is necessary in order to 110760
enable a board of education to comply with division (B) of section 110761
3317.13 of the Revised Code, provided the contract or increase 110762
does not exceed the amount required to be paid to be in compliance 110763
with such division.110764

       (G) Any officer, employee, or other person who expends or 110765
authorizes the expenditure of any public funds or authorizes or 110766
executes any contract or schedule contrary to this section, 110767
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds on the 110768
void contract or schedule, or issues a certificate under this 110769
section which contains any false statements is liable to the 110770
school district for the full amount paid from the district's funds 110771
on the contract or schedule. The officer, employee, or other 110772
person is jointly and severally liable in person and upon any 110773
official bond that the officer, employee, or other person has 110774
given to the school district to the extent of any payments on the 110775
void claim, not to exceed ten thousand dollars. However, no 110776
officer, employee, or other person shall be liable for a mistaken 110777
estimate of available resources made in good faith and based upon 110778
reasonable grounds. If an officer, employee, or other person is 110779
found to have complied with rules jointly adopted by the 110780
department of education and the auditor of state under this 110781
section governing methods by which revenue shall be estimated and 110782
determined sufficient to provide necessary operating revenue for 110783
the purpose of making certifications required by this section, the 110784
officer, employee, or other person shall not be liable under this 110785
section if the estimates and determinations made according to 110786
those rules do not, in fact, conform with actual revenue. The 110787
prosecuting attorney of the county, the city director of law, or 110788
other chief law officer of the district shall enforce this 110789
liability by civil action brought in any court of appropriate 110790
jurisdiction in the name of and on behalf of the school district. 110791
If the prosecuting attorney, city director of law, or other chief 110792
law officer of the district fails, upon the written request of any 110793
taxpayer, to institute action for the enforcement of the 110794
liability, the attorney general, or the taxpayer in the taxpayer's 110795
own name, may institute the action on behalf of the subdivision.110796

       (H)(G) This section does not require the attachment of an 110797
additional certificate beyond that required by section 5705.41 of 110798
the Revised Code for current payrolls of, or contracts of 110799
employment with, any employees or officers of the school district.110800

       This section does not require the attachment of a certificate 110801
to a temporary appropriation measure if all of the following 110802
apply:110803

       (1) The amount appropriated does not exceed twenty-five per 110804
cent of the total amount from all sources available for 110805
expenditure from any fund during the preceding fiscal year;110806

       (2) The measure will not be in effect on or after the 110807
thirtieth day following the earliest date on which the district 110808
may pass an annual appropriation measure;110809

       (3) An amended official certificate of estimated resources 110810
for the current year, if required, has not been certified to the 110811
board of education under division (B) of section 5705.36 of the 110812
Revised Code.110813

       Sec. 5705.55.  (A) The board of directors of a lake 110814
facilities authority, by a vote of two-thirds of all its members, 110815
may at any time declare by resolution that the amount of taxes 110816
which may be raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on 110817
the current tax duplicate will be insufficient to provide an 110818
adequate amount for the necessary requirements of the authority, 110819
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of such limitation 110820
for any of the purposes specified in divisions (A), (B), (F), and 110821
(H) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, and that the question 110822
of such additional tax levy shall be submitted by the board to the 110823
electors residing within the boundaries of the impacted lake 110824
district on the day of a primary or general election. The 110825
resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, 110826
except that the tax levy may be in effect for no more than five 110827
years, as set forth in the resolution, unless the levy is for the 110828
payment of debt charges, and the total number of mills levied for 110829
each dollar of taxable valuation that may be levied under this 110830
section for any tax year shall not exceed one mill. If the levy is 110831
for the payment of debt charges, the levy shall be for the life of 110832
the bond indebtedness.110833

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the 110834
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after the 110835
adoption and certification of the resolution to the board of 110836
elections. The resolution shall not include a levy on the current 110837
tax list and duplicate unless the election is to be held at or 110838
prior to the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November of 110839
the current tax year.110840

       The resolution shall be certified to the board of elections 110841
of the proper county or counties not less than ninety days before 110842
the date of the election. The resolution shall go into immediate 110843
effect upon its passage, and no publication of the resolution 110844
shall be necessary other than that provided in the notice of 110845
election. Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code shall govern the 110846
arrangements for the submission of such question and other matters 110847
concerning the election, to which that section refers, except that 110848
the election shall be held on the date specified in the 110849
resolution. If a majority of the electors voting on the question 110850
so submitted in an election vote in favor of the levy, the board 110851
of directors may forthwith make the necessary levy within the 110852
boundaries of the impacted lake district at the additional rate in 110853
excess of the ten-mill limitation on the tax list, for the purpose 110854
stated in the resolution. The tax levy shall be included in the 110855
next annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 110856
commission.110857

       (B) The form of the ballot in an election held on the 110858
question of levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall 110859
be as follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of 110860
state:110861

       "A tax for the benefit of (name of lake facilities authority) 110862
.......... for the purpose of .......... at a rate not exceeding 110863
......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to 110864
(rate expressed in dollars and cents) ............ for each one 110865
hundred dollars of valuation, for ............ (life of 110866
indebtedness or number of years the levy is to run).110867

        110868

 For the Tax Levy 110869
 Against the Tax Levy  " 110870

        110871

       (C) On approval of the levy, notes may be issued in 110872
anticipation of the collection of the proceeds of the tax levy, 110873
other than the proceeds to be received for the payment of bond 110874
debt charges, in the amount and manner and at the times as are 110875
provided in section 5705.193 of the Revised Code, for the issuance 110876
of notes by a county in anticipation of the proceeds of a tax 110877
levy. The lake facilities authority may borrow money in 110878
anticipation of the collection of current revenues as provided in 110879
section 133.10 of the Revised Code.110880

       (D) If a tax is levied under this section in a tax year, no 110881
other taxing authority of a subdivision or taxing unit, including 110882
a port authority, may levy a tax on property in the impacted lake 110883
district in the same tax year if the purpose of the levy is 110884
substantially the same as the purpose for which the lake 110885
facilities authority of the impacted lake district was created.110886

       Sec. 5709.17.  The following property shall be exempted from 110887
taxation:110888

       (A) Real estate held or occupied by an association or 110889
corporation, organized or incorporated under the laws of this 110890
state relative to soldiers' memorial associations, monumental 110891
building associations, or cemetery associations or corporations, 110892
which in the opinion of the trustees, directors, or managers 110893
thereof is necessary and proper to carry out the object intended 110894
for such association or corporation;110895

       (B) Real estate and tangible personal property held or 110896
occupied by a veterans' organization that qualifies for exemption 110897
from taxation under section 501(c)(19) or 501(c)(23) of the 110898
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 110899
amended, and is incorporated under the laws of this state or the 110900
United States, except real estate held by such organization for 110901
the production of rental or other income in excess of the 110902
designated amount, before accounting for any cost or expense 110903
incurred in the production of such income. For the purposes of 110904
this division, the designated amount equals seven thousand five 110905
hundred dollars in tax year 2002, and shall be increased by two 110906
hundred fifty dollars each year thereafter until tax year 2012, 110907
when it shall equal ten thousand dollars. For tax years 2013 and 110908
thereafter, the designated amount shall equal ten thousand 110909
dollars.110910

       (C) Tangible personal property held by a corporation 110911
chartered under 112 Stat. 1335, 36 U.S.C.A. 40701, described in 110912
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and exempt from 110913
taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code shall 110914
be exempt from taxation if it is property obtained as described in 110915
112 Stat. 1335-1341, 36 U.S.C.A. Chapter 407.110916

       (D) Real estate held or occupied by a fraternal organization 110917
and used primarily for meetings of and the administration of the 110918
fraternal organization. As used in this division, "fraternal 110919
organization" means a domestic fraternal society, order, or 110920
association operating under the lodge, council, or grange system 110921
that qualifies for exemption from taxation under section 110922
501(c)(5), 501(c)(8), or 501(c)(10) of the "Internal Revenue Code 110923
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended; that provides 110924
financial support for charitable purposes, as defined in division 110925
(B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code; and that has been 110926
operating in this state with a state governing body for at least 110927
one hundred years.110928

       Sec. 5709.212.  (A) With every application for an exempt 110929
facility certificate filed pursuant to section 5709.21 of the 110930
Revised Code, the applicant shall pay a fee equal to one-half of 110931
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 110932
exceed two thousand dollars. One-half of the fee received with 110933
applications for exempt facility certificates shall be credited to 110934
the exempt facility administrative fund, which is hereby created 110935
in the state treasury, for appropriation to the department of 110936
taxation for use in administering sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of 110937
the Revised Code. If the director of environmental protection is 110938
required to provide the opinion for an application, one-half of 110939
the fee shall be credited to the non-Title V clean air fund 110940
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code for use in 110941
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code, unless the 110942
application is for an industrial water pollution control facility. 110943
If the application is for an industrial water pollution control 110944
facility, one-half of the fee shall be credited to the surface 110945
water protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised 110946
Code for use in administering section 5709.211 of the Revised 110947
Code. If the director of development is required to provide the 110948
opinion for an application, one-half of the fee for each exempt 110949
facility application shall be credited to the exempt facility 110950
inspection fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, 110951
for appropriation to the department of development for use in 110952
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code.110953

       An applicant is not entitled to any tax exemption under 110954
section 5709.25 of the Revised Code until the fee required by this 110955
section is paid. The fee required by this section is not 110956
refundable, and is due with the application for an exempt facility 110957
certificate even if an exempt facility certificate ultimately is 110958
not issued or is withdrawn. Any application submitted without 110959
payment of the fee shall be deemed incomplete until the fee is 110960
paid.110961

       (B) The application fee imposed under division (A) of this 110962
section for a jointly owned facility shall be equal to one-half of 110963
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 110964
exceed two thousand dollars for each facility that is the subject 110965
of the application.110966

       Sec. 5709.75. (A) Any township that receives service payments 110967
in lieu of taxes under section 5709.74 of the Revised Code shall 110968
establish a township public improvement tax increment equivalent 110969
fund into which those payments shall be deposited. If the board of 110970
township trustees has adopted a resolution under division (C) of 110971
section 5709.73 of the Revised Code, the township shall establish 110972
at least one account in that fund with respect to resolutions 110973
adopted under division (B) of that section, and one account with 110974
respect to each incentive district created by a resolution adopted 110975
under division (C) of that section. If a resolution adopted under 110976
division (C) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code also 110977
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 110978
within the incentive district, the township shall establish 110979
separate accounts for the service payments designated for public 110980
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 110981
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.110982

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of 110983
this section, money deposited in an account of the township public 110984
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used by the 110985
township to pay the costs of public infrastructure improvements 110986
designated in or the housing renovations authorized by the 110987
resolution with respect to which the account is established, 110988
including any interest on and principal of the notes; in the case 110989
of an account established with respect to a resolution adopted 110990
under division (C) of that section, money in the account shall be 110991
used to finance the public infrastructure improvements designated, 110992
or the housing renovations authorized, for each incentive district 110993
created in the resolution. Money in an account shall not be used 110994
to finance or support housing renovations that take place after 110995
the incentive district has expired.110996

       (C)(1)(a) A township may distribute money in such an account 110997
to any school district in which the exempt property is located in 110998
an amount not to exceed the amount of real property taxes that 110999
such school district would have received from the improvement if 111000
it were not exempt from taxation. The resolution establishing the 111001
fund shall set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that 111002
will be distributed to any affected school district.111003

       (b) A township also may distribute money in such an account 111004
as follows:111005

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 111006
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.73 of 111007
the Revised Code;111008

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 111009
Revised Code.111010

       (2) Money from an account in a township public improvement 111011
tax increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 111012
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution was 111013
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code that prompted 111014
the establishment of the account, even if the resolution was 111015
adopted prior to March 30, 2006.111016

       (D) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 111017
under division (B) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code before 111018
January 1, 1995, and that, with respect to property exempted under 111019
such a resolution, is party to a hold-harmless or service111020
agreement, may appropriate and expend unencumbered money in the 111021
fund to pay current public safety expenses of the township. A 111022
township appropriating and expending money under this division 111023
shall reimburse the fund for the sum so appropriated and expended 111024
not later than the day the exemption granted under the resolution 111025
expires. For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless 111026
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 111027
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 111028
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 111029
one hundred per cent of the tax revenue the school district would 111030
have received from improvements to parcels designated in the 111031
resolution were it not for the exemption granted by the 111032
resolution.111033

       (E) Any incidental surplusunencumbered money remaining in 111034
the township public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or 111035
an account of that fund upon dissolution of the account or fund 111036
shall be transferred to the general fund of the township.111037

       Sec. 5725.18.  (A) An annual franchise tax on the privilege 111038
of being an insurance company is hereby levied on each domestic 111039
insurance company. In the month of May, annually, the treasurer of 111040
state shall charge for collection from each domestic insurance 111041
company a franchise tax in the amount computed in accordance with 111042
the following, as applicable:111043

       (1) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is a 111044
health insuring corporation, one per cent of all premium rate 111045
payments received, exclusive of payments received under the 111046
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 111047
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,111048
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 111049
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 111050
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 111051
reflected in its annual report for the preceding calendar year;111052

       (2) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is not 111053
a health insuring corporation, one and four-tenths per cent of the 111054
gross amount of premiums received from policies covering risks 111055
within this state, exclusive of premiums received under the 111056
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 111057
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,111058
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 111059
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 111060
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 111061
reflected in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year, 111062
and, if the company operates a health insuring corporation as a 111063
line of business, one per cent of all premium rate payments 111064
received from that line of business, exclusive of payments 111065
received under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 111066
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 111067
301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received pursuant to 111068
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 111069
5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 111070
2009, as reflected in its annual statement for the preceding 111071
calendar year.111072

       Domestic insurance companies, including health insuring 111073
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 111074
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 111075
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 111076
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 111077
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 111078
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid111079
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 111080
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 111081
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.111082

       (B) The gross amount of premium rate payments or premiums 111083
used to compute the applicable tax in accordance with division (A) 111084
of this section is subject to the deductions prescribed by section 111085
5729.03 of the Revised Code for foreign insurance companies. The 111086
objects of such tax are those declared in section 5725.24 of the 111087
Revised Code, to which only such tax shall be applied.111088

       (C) In no case shall such tax be less than two hundred fifty 111089
dollars.111090

       Sec. 5725.34.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 111091
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 111092
Code.111093

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 111094
section 5725.18 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 111095
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 111096
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 111097
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 111098
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 111099
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 111100
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 111101
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 111102
required under section 5725.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 111103
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 111104
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 111105
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 111106
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 111107
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 111108
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 111109
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 111110
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.111111

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 111112
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 111113
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 111114
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 111115
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 111116
during that period.111117

       Sec. 5726.20. (A) The tax commissioner may make an 111118
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 111119
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or 111120
report or pay any tax as required by this chapter. The reporting 111121
person for a taxpayer shall file the annual report required under 111122
section 5726.02 of the Revised Code and remit the tax imposed by 111123
this chapter. Each person included in the annual report of the 111124
taxpayer is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed by 111125
this chapter and any penalties and interest thereon. If the 111126
reporting person fails, for any reason, to file and remit any tax, 111127
the amount due may be collected by assessment against the 111128
reporting person and against any or all other persons required to 111129
be included in the annual report of the taxpayer in the manner 111130
provided by this sectionas provided in section 5703.90 of the 111131
Revised Code. The commissioner shall make the assessment in the 111132
manner provided in this section. The commissioner shall give the 111133
person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in 111134
section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 111135
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 111136
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 111137
the petition.111138

       (B) No assessment shall be made or issued against a person 111139
under this section more than four years after the later of the 111140
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 111141
filed or the date such report was filed. Such time limit may be 111142
extended if both the person and the commissioner consent in 111143
writing to the extension or if an agreement waiving or extending 111144
the time limit has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 111145
of the Revised Code. Any such extension shall extend the four-year 111146
time limit prescribed in division (A) of section 5726.30 of the 111147
Revised Code for the same period of time. There shall be no bar or 111148
limit to an assessment against a person that fails to file a 111149
report subject to assessment as required by this chapter, or that 111150
files a fraudulent report.111151

       (C) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 111152
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 111153
commissioner, either in person or by certified mail, a written 111154
petition for reassessment signed by the person or the person's 111155
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 111156
shall become final, and the amount of the assessment is due and 111157
payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 111158
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 111159
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 111160
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 111161
If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 111162
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 111163
Code.111164

       (D)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 111165
the assessment, including any accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 111166
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 111167
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 111168
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 111169
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 111170
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.111171

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 111172
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 111173
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 111174
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 111175
financial institution tax" and shall have the same effect as other 111176
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 111177
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 111178
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.111179

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 111180
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 111181
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 111182
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 111183
of the Revised Code from the date the tax commissioner issues the 111184
assessment until the date the assessment is paid or until it is 111185
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 111186
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 111187
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 111188
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 111189
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 111190
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 111191
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 111192
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 111193
under this section.111194

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 111195
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 111196
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 111197
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 111198
the person liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 111199
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 111200
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 111201
division (D) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 111202
shall be served on the person assessed or the person's authorized 111203
agent in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised 111204
Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. 111205
The total amount assessed shall be immediately due and payable, 111206
unless the person assessed files a petition for reassessment in 111207
accordance with division (C) of this section and provides security 111208
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 111209
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 111210
or partial payment of the assessment shall not prejudice the 111211
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.111212

       (F) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 111213
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 111214
this section. Such amounts shall be considered as revenue arising 111215
from the tax imposed by this chapter.111216

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information indicating 111217
that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay under this 111218
chapter exceeds the amount the reporting person for the taxpayer 111219
paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's 111220
gross receipts over a representative period of time to ascertain 111221
the amount of tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the 111222
audit. The tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to 111223
reach agreement with the taxpayer in selecting a representative 111224
sample. The tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if 111225
the commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.111226

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 111227
not known to the tax commissioner, the secretary of state is 111228
hereby deemed to be that person's agent for purposes of service of 111229
process or notice of any assessment, action, or proceedings 111230
instituted in this state against the person under this chapter. 111231
Such process or notice shall be served on such person by the 111232
commissioner or by an agent of the commissioner by leaving a true 111233
and attested copy of the process or notice at the office of the 111234
secretary of state at least fifteen days before the return day of 111235
such process or notice, and by sending a copy of the process or 111236
notice to such person by ordinary mail, with an endorsement 111237
thereon of the service upon the secretary of state, addressed to 111238
such person at the person's last known address.111239

       Sec. 5726.52. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 111240
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 111241
Code.111242

       (B) A taxpayer may claim a refundable credit against the tax 111243
imposed by this chapter for each person included in the annual 111244
report of a taxpayer that is a certificate owner of a 111245
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 111246
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 111247
of the dollar amount indicated on each certificate, but shall not 111248
exceed fiveten million dollars for each certificate.111249

       The credit shall be claimed for the calendar year specified 111250
in the certificate and in the order required under section 5726.98 111251
of the Revised Code. If the credit exceeds the amount of tax 111252
otherwise due in that year, the excess shall be refunded to the 111253
taxpayer, provided that, if any amount of the credit is refunded, 111254
the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied to reduce 111255
the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed three million 111256
dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward any balance of the credit 111257
in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not more than 111258
five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed in any 111259
such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year. A taxpayer 111260
may claim against the tax imposed by this chapter any unused 111261
portion of the credit authorized under section 5725.151 of the 111262
Revised Code, but only to the extent of the five-year carry 111263
forward period authorized by that section.111264

       (C) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 111265
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 111266
following the end of the year to which the credit was applied, and 111267
shall make the certificate available for inspection by the tax 111268
commissioner upon the request of the commissioner during that 111269
period.111270

       Sec. 5727.26.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 111271
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 111272
possession, against any natural gas company or combined company 111273
that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 111274
additional charge as required by sections 5727.24 to 5727.29 of 111275
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the company assessed 111276
written notice of the assessment as provided in section 5703.37 of 111277
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 111278
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 111279
hearing on the petition. A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may 111280
be added to all amounts assessed under this section. The tax 111281
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 111282
remission of the penalty.111283

       (B) Unless the company assessed, within sixty days after 111284
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 111285
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 111286
petition signed by the company's authorized agent having knowledge 111287
of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the 111288
assessment is due and payable from the company assessed to the 111289
treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the objections of 111290
the company assessed, but additional objections may be raised in 111291
writing if received by the commissioner prior to the date shown on 111292
the final determination.111293

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 111294
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 111295
Code.111296

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 111297
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 111298
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 111299
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 111300
court of common pleas in the county in which the natural gas 111301
company's or combined company's principal place of business is 111302
located, or in the office of the clerk of court of common pleas of 111303
Franklin county.111304

       Immediately on the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter 111305
judgment for the state against the company assessed in the amount 111306
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 111307
loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the public 111308
utility excise tax on natural gas and combined companies," and 111309
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 111310
issue upon the judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, 111311
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 111312
made under the judgment.111313

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety111314
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 111315
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 111316
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 111317
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 111318
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 111319
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 111320
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 111321
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 111322
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 111323
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 111324
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 111325
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 111326
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 111327
section.111328

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 111329
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 111330
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 111331
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the company 111332
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 111333
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 111334
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 111335
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 111336
on the company assessed or the company's authorized agent in the 111337
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 111338
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 111339
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the company 111340
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 111341
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 111342
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 111343
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 111344
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 111345
consideration of the petition for reassessment.111346

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 111347
treasurer of state all amounts that the tax commissioner receives 111348
under this section, and such amounts shall be considered revenue 111349
arising from the tax imposed by section 5727.24 of the Revised 111350
Code.111351

       (F) No assessment shall be made or issued against a natural 111352
gas company or combined company for the tax imposed by section 111353
5727.24 of the Revised Code more than four years after the return 111354
date for the period in which the tax was reported, or more than 111355
four years after the return for the period was filed, whichever is 111356
later.111357

       Sec. 5727.75.  (A) For purposes of this section: 111358

       (1) "Qualified energy project" means an energy project 111359
certified by the director of development services pursuant to this 111360
section. 111361

       (2) "Energy project" means a project to provide electric 111362
power through the construction, installation, and use of an energy 111363
facility. 111364

       (3) "Alternative energy zone" means a county declared as such 111365
by the board of county commissioners under division (E)(1)(b) or 111366
(c) of this section. 111367

       (4) "Full-time equivalent employee" means the total number of 111368
employee-hours for which compensation was paid to individuals 111369
employed at a qualified energy project for services performed at 111370
the project during the calendar year divided by two thousand 111371
eighty hours. 111372

       (5) "Solar energy project" means an energy project composed 111373
of an energy facility using solar panels to generate electricity. 111374

       (B)(1) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy 111375
project using renewable energy resources is exempt from taxation 111376
for tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, and 2014through 2019 if all of 111377
the following conditions are satisfied: 111378

       (a) On or before December 31, 20132018, the owner or a 111379
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of the project 111380
submits an application to the power siting board for a certificate 111381
under section 4906.20 of the Revised Code, or if that section does 111382
not apply, submits an application for any approval, consent, 111383
permit, or certificate or satisfies any condition required by a 111384
public agency or political subdivision of this state for the 111385
construction or initial operation of an energy project. 111386

       (b) Construction or installation of the energy facility 111387
begins on or after January 1, 2009, and before January 1, 2014111388
2019. For the purposes of this division, construction begins on 111389
the earlier of the date of application for a certificate or other 111390
approval or permit described in division (B)(1)(a) of this 111391
section, or the date the contract for the construction or 111392
installation of the energy facility is entered into. 111393

       (c) For a qualified energy project with a nameplate capacity 111394
of five megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of a 111395
county in which property of the project is located has adopted a 111396
resolution under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to 111397
approve the application submitted under division (E) of this 111398
section to exempt the property located in that county from 111399
taxation. A board's adoption of a resolution rejecting an 111400
application or its failure to adopt a resolution approving the 111401
application does not affect the tax-exempt status of the qualified 111402
energy project's property that is located in another county. 111403

       (2) If tangible personal property of a qualified energy 111404
project using renewable energy resources was exempt from taxation 111405
under this section beginning in any of tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, 111406
or 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, or 2019, and the certification 111407
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked, the 111408
tangible personal property of the qualified energy project is 111409
exempt from taxation for tax year 20152020 and all ensuing tax 111410
years if the property was placed into service before January 1, 111411
20152020, as certified in the construction progress report 111412
required under division (F)(2) of this section. Tangible personal 111413
property that has not been placed into service before that date is 111414
taxable property subject to taxation. An energy project for which 111415
certification has been revoked is ineligible for further exemption 111416
under this section. Revocation does not affect the tax-exempt 111417
status of the project's tangible personal property for the tax 111418
year in which revocation occurs or any prior tax year.111419

       (C) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy project 111420
using clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 111421
cogeneration technology is exempt from taxation for the first tax 111422
year that the property would be listed for taxation and all 111423
subsequent years if all of the following circumstances are met: 111424

       (1) The property was placed into service before January 1, 111425
20192024. Tangible personal property that has not been placed 111426
into service before that date is taxable property subject to 111427
taxation. 111428

       (2) For such a qualified energy project with a nameplate 111429
capacity of five megawatts or greater, a board of county 111430
commissioners of a county in which property of the qualified 111431
energy project is located has adopted a resolution under division 111432
(E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to approve the application 111433
submitted under division (E) of this section to exempt the 111434
property located in that county from taxation. A board's adoption 111435
of a resolution rejecting the application or its failure to adopt 111436
a resolution approving the application does not affect the 111437
tax-exempt status of the qualified energy project's property that 111438
is located in another county. 111439

       (3) The certification for the qualified energy project issued 111440
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked. An 111441
energy project for which certification has been revoked is 111442
ineligible for exemption under this section. Revocation does not 111443
affect the tax-exempt status of the project's tangible personal 111444
property for the tax year in which revocation occurs or any prior 111445
tax year. 111446

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, real 111447
property of a qualified energy project is exempt from taxation for 111448
any tax year for which the tangible personal property of the 111449
qualified energy project is exempted under this section. 111450

       (E)(1)(a) A person may apply to the director of development 111451
services for certification of an energy project as a qualified 111452
energy project on or before the following dates: 111453

       (i) December 31, 20132018, for an energy project using 111454
renewable energy resources; 111455

       (ii) December 31, 20152020, for an energy project using 111456
clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 111457
cogeneration technology. 111458

       (b) The director shall forward a copy of each application for 111459
certification of an energy project with a nameplate capacity of 111460
five megawatts or greater to the board of county commissioners of 111461
each county in which the project is located and to each taxing 111462
unit with territory located in each of the affected counties. Any 111463
board that receives from the director a copy of an application 111464
submitted under this division shall adopt a resolution approving 111465
or rejecting the application unless it has adopted a resolution 111466
under division (E)(1)(c) of this section. A resolution adopted 111467
under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section may require an 111468
annual service payment to be made in addition to the service 111469
payment required under division (G) of this section. The sum of 111470
the service payment required in the resolution and the service 111471
payment required under division (G) of this section shall not 111472
exceed nine thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 111473
located in the county. The resolution shall specify the time and 111474
manner in which the payments required by the resolution shall be 111475
paid to the county treasurer. The county treasurer shall deposit 111476
the payment to the credit of the county's general fund to be used 111477
for any purpose for which money credited to that fund may be used.111478

       The board shall send copies of the resolution by certified 111479
mail to the owner of the facility and the director within thirty 111480
days after receipt of the application, or a longer period of time 111481
if authorized by the director. 111482

       (c) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 111483
declaring the county to be an alternative energy zone and 111484
declaring all applications submitted to the director of 111485
development services under this division after the adoption of the 111486
resolution, and prior to its repeal, to be approved by the board. 111487

       All tangible personal property and real property of an energy 111488
project with a nameplate capacity of five megawatts or greater is 111489
taxable if it is located in a county in which the board of county 111490
commissioners adopted a resolution rejecting the application 111491
submitted under this division or failed to adopt a resolution 111492
approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this 111493
section. 111494

       (2) The director shall certify an energy project if all of 111495
the following circumstances exist: 111496

       (a) The application was timely submitted. 111497

       (b) For an energy project with a nameplate capacity of five 111498
megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of at least 111499
one county in which the project is located has adopted a 111500
resolution approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or 111501
(c) of this section. 111502

       (c) No portion of the project's facility was used to supply 111503
electricity before December 31, 2009. 111504

       (3) The director shall deny a certification application if 111505
the director determines the person has failed to comply with any 111506
requirement under this section. The director may revoke a 111507
certification if the director determines the person, or subsequent 111508
owner or lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of 111509
the qualified energy project, has failed to comply with any 111510
requirement under this section. Upon certification or revocation, 111511
the director shall notify the person, owner, or lessee, the tax 111512
commissioner, and the county auditor of a county in which the 111513
project is located of the certification or revocation. Notice 111514
shall be provided in a manner convenient to the director. 111515

       (F) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 111516
transaction of a qualified energy project shall do each of the 111517
following: 111518

       (1) Comply with all applicable regulations; 111519

       (2) File with the director of development services a 111520
certified construction progress report before the first day of 111521
March of each year during the energy facility's construction or 111522
installation indicating the percentage of the project completed, 111523
and the project's nameplate capacity, as of the preceding 111524
thirty-first day of December. Unless otherwise instructed by the 111525
director of development services, the owner or lessee of an energy 111526
project shall file a report with the director on or before the 111527
first day of March each year after completion of the energy 111528
facility's construction or installation indicating the project's 111529
nameplate capacity as of the preceding thirty-first day of 111530
December. Not later than sixty days after June 17, 2010, the owner 111531
or lessee of an energy project, the construction of which was 111532
completed before June 17, 2010, shall file a certificate 111533
indicating the project's nameplate capacity. 111534

       (3) File with the director of development services, in a 111535
manner prescribed by the director, a report of the total number of 111536
full-time equivalent employees, and the total number of full-time 111537
equivalent employees domiciled in Ohio, who are employed in the 111538
construction or installation of the energy facility; 111539

       (4) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity of five 111540
megawatts or greater, repair all roads, bridges, and culverts 111541
affected by construction as reasonably required to restore them to 111542
their preconstruction condition, as determined by the county 111543
engineer in consultation with the local jurisdiction responsible 111544
for the roads, bridges, and culverts. In the event that the county 111545
engineer deems any road, bridge, or culvert to be inadequate to 111546
support the construction or decommissioning of the energy 111547
facility, the road, bridge, or culvert shall be rebuilt or 111548
reinforced to the specifications established by the county 111549
engineer prior to the construction or decommissioning of the 111550
facility. The owner or lessee of the facility shall post a bond in 111551
an amount established by the county engineer and to be held by the 111552
board of county commissioners to ensure funding for repairs of 111553
roads, bridges, and culverts affected during the construction. The 111554
bond shall be released by the board not later than one year after 111555
the date the repairs are completed. The energy facility owner or 111556
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction shall post a 111557
bond, as may be required by the Ohio power siting board in the 111558
certificate authorizing commencement of construction issued 111559
pursuant to section 4906.10 of the Revised Code, to ensure funding 111560
for repairs to roads, bridges, and culverts resulting from 111561
decommissioning of the facility. The energy facility owner or 111562
lessee and the county engineer may enter into an agreement 111563
regarding specific transportation plans, reinforcements, 111564
modifications, use and repair of roads, financial security to be 111565
provided, and any other relevant issue. 111566

       (5) Provide or facilitate training for fire and emergency 111567
responders for response to emergency situations related to the 111568
energy project and, for energy projects with a nameplate capacity 111569
of five megawatts or greater, at the person's expense, equip the 111570
fire and emergency responders with proper equipment as reasonably 111571
required to enable them to respond to such emergency situations; 111572

       (6) Maintain a ratio of Ohio-domiciled full-time equivalent 111573
employees employed in the construction or installation of the 111574
energy project to total full-time equivalent employees employed in 111575
the construction or installation of the energy project of not less 111576
than eighty per cent in the case of a solar energy project, and 111577
not less than fifty per cent in the case of any other energy 111578
project. In the case of an energy project for which certification 111579
from the power siting board is required under section 4906.20 of 111580
the Revised Code, the number of full-time equivalent employees 111581
employed in the construction or installation of the energy project 111582
equals the number actually employed or the number projected to be 111583
employed in the certificate application, if such projection is 111584
required under regulations adopted pursuant to section 4906.03 of 111585
the Revised Code, whichever is greater. For all other energy 111586
projects, the number of full-time equivalent employees employed in 111587
the construction or installation of the energy project equals the 111588
number actually employed or the number projected to be employed by 111589
the director of development services, whichever is greater. To 111590
estimate the number of employees to be employed in the 111591
construction or installation of an energy project, the director 111592
shall use a generally accepted job-estimating model in use for 111593
renewable energy projects, including but not limited to the job 111594
and economic development impact model. The director may adjust an 111595
estimate produced by a model to account for variables not 111596
accounted for by the model. 111597

       (7) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity in excess 111598
of two megawatts, establish a relationship with a member of the 111599
university system of Ohio as defined in section 3345.011 of the 111600
Revised Code or with a person offering an apprenticeship program 111601
registered with the employment and training administration within 111602
the United States department of labor or with the apprenticeship 111603
council created by section 4139.02 of the Revised Code, to educate 111604
and train individuals for careers in the wind or solar energy 111605
industry. The relationship may include endowments, cooperative 111606
programs, internships, apprenticeships, research and development 111607
projects, and curriculum development. 111608

       (8) Offer to sell power or renewable energy credits from the 111609
energy project to electric distribution utilities or electric 111610
service companies subject to renewable energy resource 111611
requirements under section 4928.64 of the Revised Code that have 111612
issued requests for proposal for such power or renewable energy 111613
credits. If no electric distribution utility or electric service 111614
company issues a request for proposal on or before December 31, 111615
2010, or accepts an offer for power or renewable energy credits 111616
within forty-five days after the offer is submitted, power or 111617
renewable energy credits from the energy project may be sold to 111618
other persons. Division (F)(8) of this section does not apply if: 111619

        (a) The owner or lessee is a rural electric company or a 111620
municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 of the 111621
Revised Code. 111622

        (b) The owner or lessee is a person that, before completion 111623
of the energy project, contracted for the sale of power or 111624
renewable energy credits with a rural electric company or a 111625
municipal power agency. 111626

        (c) The owner or lessee contracts for the sale of power or 111627
renewable energy credits from the energy project before June 17, 111628
2010. 111629

       (9) Make annual service payments as required by division (G) 111630
of this section and as may be required in a resolution adopted by 111631
a board of county commissioners under division (E) of this 111632
section. 111633

       (G) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 111634
transaction of a qualified energy project shall make annual 111635
service payments in lieu of taxes to the county treasurer on or 111636
before the final dates for payments of taxes on public utility 111637
personal property on the real and public utility personal property 111638
tax list for each tax year for which property of the energy 111639
project is exempt from taxation under this section. The county 111640
treasurer shall allocate the payment on the basis of the project's 111641
physical location. Upon receipt of a payment, or if timely payment 111642
has not been received, the county treasurer shall certify such 111643
receipt or non-receipt to the director of development services and 111644
tax commissioner in a form determined by the director and 111645
commissioner, respectively. Each payment shall be in the following 111646
amount: 111647

       (1) In the case of a solar energy project, seven thousand 111648
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 111649
as of December 31, 2010, for tax year 2011, as of December 31, 111650
2011, for tax year 2012, as of December 31, 2012, for tax year 111651
2013, as of December 31, 2013, for tax year 2014, and as of 111652
December 31, 2014, for tax year 2015, as of December 31, 2015, for 111653
tax year 2016, as of December 31, 2016, for tax year 2017, as of 111654
December 31, 2017, for tax year 2018, as of December 31, 2018, for 111655
tax year 2019, and as of December 31, 2019, for tax year 2020 and 111656
each tax year thereafter; 111657

       (2) In the case of any other energy project using renewable 111658
energy resources, the following: 111659

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 111660
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111661
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111662
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 111663
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 111664
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 111665

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 111666
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111667
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111668
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 111669
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 111670
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 111671
December of the preceding tax year; 111672

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 111673
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111674
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111675
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 111676
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 111677
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 111678
the preceding tax year. 111679

       (3) In the case of an energy project using clean coal 111680
technology, advanced nuclear technology, or cogeneration 111681
technology, the following: 111682

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 111683
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111684
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111685
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 111686
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 111687
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 111688

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 111689
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111690
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111691
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 111692
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 111693
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 111694
December of the preceding tax year; 111695

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 111696
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111697
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111698
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 111699
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 111700
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 111701
the preceding tax year. 111702

       (H) The director of development services in consultation with 111703
the tax commissioner shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 111704
the Revised Code to implement and enforce this section.111705

       Sec. 5727.84.  (A) As used in this section and sections 111706
5727.85, 5727.86, and 5727.87 of the Revised Code:111707

       (1) "School district" means a city, local, or exempted 111708
village school district.111709

       (2) "Joint vocational school district" means a joint 111710
vocational school district created under section 3311.16 of the 111711
Revised Code, and includes a cooperative education school district 111712
created under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised Code and 111713
a county school financing district created under section 3311.50 111714
of the Revised Code.111715

       (3) "Local taxing unit" means a subdivision or taxing unit, 111716
as defined in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code, a park district 111717
created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, or a township 111718
park district established under section 511.23 of the Revised 111719
Code, but excludes school districts and joint vocational school 111720
districts.111721

       (4) "State education aid," for a school district, means the 111722
following:111723

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 111724
state aid amounts computed for the district under former sections 111725
3317.029, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code and the 111726
following provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal 111727
year: divisions (A), (C)(1), (C)(4), (D), (E), and (F) of section 111728
3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 3317.023; 111729
divisions (G), (L), and (N) of section 3317.024; and sections 111730
3317.029, 3317.0216, 3317.0217, 3317.04, and 3317.05, 3317.052, 111731
and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by: 111732
division (C) of section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 111733
3310.41; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 111734
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 111735
divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) of section 3317.023; 111736
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 111737
3313.981 of the Revised Code. However, when calculating state 111738
education aid for a school district for fiscal years 2008 and 111739
2009, include the amount computed for the district under Section 111740
269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 111741
subsequently amended, instead of division (D) of section 3317.022 111742
of the Revised Code; and include amounts calculated under Section 111743
269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 111744
subsequently amended.111745

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 111746
computed for the district under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 111747
3306.13, 3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192, 3317.052, and 3317.053111748
of the Revised Code and the following provisions, as they existed 111749
for the applicable fiscal year: division (G) of section 3317.024; 111750
sectionssection 3317.05, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised 111751
Code; and the adjustments required by division (C) of section 111752
3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; division (C) of 111753
section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of section 3314.091; division (D) 111754
of former section 3314.13; divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) 111755
of section 3317.023; division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 111756
3313.979, 3313.981, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code.111757

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 111758
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 111759
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR CITY, EXEMPTED VILLAGE, AND LOCAL 111760
SCHOOL DISTRICTS" and the adjustments required by division (C) of 111761
section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; section 111762
3310.55; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 111763
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 111764
divisions (B), (H), (I), (J), and (K) of section 3317.023; 111765
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 111766
3313.981 of the Revised Code;111767

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 111768
sum of amounts computed for and paid to the district under section 111769
3317.022 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by 111770
division (C) of section 3310.08, division (C)(2) of section 111771
3310.41, section 3310.55, division (C) of section 3314.08, 111772
division (D)(2) of section 3314.091, divisions (B), (H), (J), and 111773
(K) of section 3317.023, and sections 3313.978, 3313.981, 111774
3317.0212, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code. 111775
However, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the amount computed for 111776
the district under the section of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL 111777
AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" also 111778
shall be included.111779

       (5) "State education aid," for a joint vocational school 111780
district, means the following:111781

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 111782
the state aid amounts computed for the district under division (N) 111783
of section 3317.024 and section 3317.16 of the Revised Code. 111784
However, when calculating state education aid for a joint 111785
vocational school district for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, include 111786
the amount computed for the district under Section 269.30.90 of 111787
H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as subsequently amended.111788

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount computed for 111789
the district in accordance with the section of H.B. 1 of the 128th 111790
general assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 111791
DISTRICTS"."111792

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 111793
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 111794
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."111795

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 111796
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 111797
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 111798
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 111799
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 111800
shall be included.111801

        (6) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 111802
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 111803
division (A)(1) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code.111804

       (7) "Recognized valuation" has the same meaning as inmeans 111805
the amount computed for a school district pursuant to section 111806
3317.023317.015 of the Revised Code.111807

       (8) "Electric company tax value loss" means the amount 111808
determined under division (D) of this section.111809

       (9) "Natural gas company tax value loss" means the amount 111810
determined under division (E) of this section.111811

       (10) "Tax value loss" means the sum of the electric company 111812
tax value loss and the natural gas company tax value loss.111813

       (11) "Fixed-rate levy" means any tax levied on property other 111814
than a fixed-sum levy.111815

       (12) "Fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under 111816
division (G) of this section.111817

       (13) "Fixed-sum levy" means a tax levied on property at 111818
whatever rate is required to produce a specified amount of tax 111819
money or levied in excess of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt 111820
charges, and includes school district emergency levies charged and 111821
payable pursuant to section 5705.194 of the Revised Code.111822

       (14) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 111823
division (H) of this section.111824

       (15) "Consumer price index" means the consumer price index 111825
(all items, all urban consumers) prepared by the bureau of labor 111826
statistics of the United States department of labor.111827

       (16) "Total resources" and "total library resources" have the 111828
same meanings as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.111829

       (17) "2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 111830
of payments received by a school district or joint vocational 111831
school district in fiscal year 2011 for current expense levy 111832
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 of the 111833
Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is 111834
not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2011 111835
current expense S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be 111836
made under division (C)(3) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code 111837
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 111838
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111839
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.111840

       (18) "2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 111841
of payments received by a municipal corporation in calendar year 111842
2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to division (A)(1) 111843
of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, excluding any such 111844
payments received for current expense levy losses attributable to 111845
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 111846
fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 111847
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 current expense 111848
S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be made under 111849
division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code 111850
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 111851
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111852
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.111853

       (19) "2010 S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of payments 111854
received by a local taxing unit during calendar year 2010 pursuant 111855
to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 111856
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 111857
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 111858
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 111859
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 S.B. 3 111860
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 111861
(A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax 111862
years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 111863
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111864
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.111865

       (20) "Total S.B. 3 allocation" means, in the case of a school 111866
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 111867
payments received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(2) 111868
and (D) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. In the case of a 111869
local taxing unit, "total S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of 111870
payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 111871
divisions (A)(1) and (4) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 111872
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 111873
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 111874
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 111875
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total S.B. 3 111876
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 111877
(C)(3) of section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 111878
5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 111879
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 111880
extent that those payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 111881
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 111882
section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 111883
Revised Code.111884

       (21) "2011 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 111885
difference of a school district's or joint vocational school 111886
district's total S.B. 3 allocation minus the sum of the school 111887
district's 2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and the portion 111888
of the school district's total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 111889
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (D) of section 111890
5727.85 of the Revised Code.111891

       (22) "2010 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 111892
difference of a municipal corporation's total S.B. 3 allocation 111893
minus the sum of its 2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and 111894
the portion of its total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 111895
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (A)(4) of 111896
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code. 111897

       (23) "S.B. 3 allocation for library purposes" means, in the 111898
case of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or 111899
township public library that receives the proceeds of a tax levied 111900
under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, the sum of the payments 111901
received by the public library in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 111902
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate levy losses 111903
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 111904
Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 5705.23 of the 111905
Revised Code that is eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 111906
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "S.B. 3 allocation for 111907
library purposes" used to compute payments to be made under 111908
division (A)(1)(f) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the 111909
tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 111910
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111911
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 111912
computed under division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 111913
Revised Code.111914

        (24) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 111915
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 111916
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 111917
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 111918
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 111919
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 111920
calendar year 2011, four per cent for calendar year 2012, and six 111921
per cent for calendar years 2013 and thereafter.111922

       (B) The kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund is hereby created in 111923
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 111924
imposed by section 5727.81 of the Revised Code. All money in the 111925
kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund shall be credited as follows:111926

Fiscal Year General Revenue Fund School District Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Property Tax Replacement Fund 111927
2001-2011 63.0% 25.4% 11.6% 111928
2012 and thereafter 88.0% 9.0% 3.0% 111929

       (C) The natural gas tax receipts fund is hereby created in 111930
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 111931
imposed by section 5727.811 of the Revised Code. All money in the 111932
fund shall be credited as follows:111933

       (1) For fiscal years before fiscal year 2012:111934

       (a) Sixty-eight and seven-tenths per cent shall be credited 111935
to the school district property tax replacement fund for the 111936
purpose of making the payments described in section 5727.85 of the 111937
Revised Code.111938

       (b) Thirty-one and three-tenths per cent shall be credited to 111939
the local government property tax replacement fund for the purpose 111940
of making the payments described in section 5727.86 of the Revised 111941
Code.111942

       (2) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, one hundred per 111943
cent to the general revenue fund.111944

       (D) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 111945
shall determine for each taxing district its electric company tax 111946
value loss, which is the sum of the applicable amounts described 111947
in divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this section:111948

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 111949
described in division (D)(1)(b) from the amount described in 111950
division (D)(1)(a) of this section.111951

       (a) The value of electric company and rural electric company 111952
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 111953
tax year 1998 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended 111954
preliminary assessment if issued prior to March 1, 1999, and as 111955
apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 1998;111956

       (b) The value of electric company and rural electric company 111957
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 111958
tax year 1998 had the property been apportioned to the taxing 111959
district for tax year 2001, and assessed at the rates in effect 111960
for tax year 2001.111961

       (2) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 111962
described in division (D)(2)(b) from the amount described in 111963
division (D)(2)(a) of this section.111964

       (a) The three-year average for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998 111965
of the assessed value from nuclear fuel materials and assemblies 111966
assessed against a person under Chapter 5711. of the Revised Code 111967
from the leasing of them to an electric company for those 111968
respective tax years, as reflected in the preliminary assessments;111969

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from nuclear fuel 111970
materials and assemblies assessed under division (D)(2)(a) of this 111971
section for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998, as reflected in the 111972
preliminary assessments, using an assessment rate of twenty-five 111973
per cent.111974

       (3) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 111975
plant within its territory, any amount, resulting in an electric 111976
company tax value loss, obtained by subtracting the amount 111977
described in division (D)(1) of this section from the difference 111978
obtained by subtracting the amount described in division (D)(3)(b) 111979
of this section from the amount described in division (D)(3)(a) of 111980
this section.111981

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111982
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2000 on a 111983
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111984
issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned to the taxing 111985
district for tax year 2000;111986

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111987
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2001 on a 111988
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111989
issued prior to March 1, 2002, and as apportioned to the taxing 111990
district for tax year 2001.111991

       (4) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 111992
plant within its territory, the difference obtained by subtracting 111993
the amount described in division (D)(4)(b) of this section from 111994
the amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section, 111995
provided that such difference is greater than ten per cent of the 111996
amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section.111997

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111998
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2005 on a 111999
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 112000
issued prior to March 1, 2006, and as apportioned to the taxing 112001
district for tax year 2005;112002

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 112003
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2006 on a 112004
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 112005
issued prior to March 1, 2007, and as apportioned to the taxing 112006
district for tax year 2006.112007

       (E) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 112008
shall determine for each taxing district its natural gas company 112009
tax value loss, which is the sum of the amounts described in 112010
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:112011

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 112012
described in division (E)(1)(b) from the amount described in 112013
division (E)(1)(a) of this section.112014

       (a) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 112015
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 112016
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 on 112017
a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 112018
issued prior to March 1, 2000, and apportioned to the taxing 112019
district for tax year 1999;112020

       (b) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 112021
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 112022
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 had 112023
the property been apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 112024
2001, and assessed at the rates in effect for tax year 2001.112025

       (2) The difference in the value of current gas obtained by 112026
subtracting the amount described in division (E)(2)(b) from the 112027
amount described in division (E)(2)(a) of this section.112028

       (a) The three-year average assessed value of current gas as 112029
assessed by the tax commissioner for tax years 1997, 1998, and 112030
1999 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary 112031
assessment if issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned in 112032
the taxing district for those respective years;112033

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from current gas 112034
under division (E)(2)(a) of this section for tax years 1997, 1998, 112035
and 1999, as reflected in the preliminary assessment, using an 112036
assessment rate of twenty-five per cent.112037

       (F) The tax commissioner may request that natural gas 112038
companies, electric companies, and rural electric companies file a 112039
report to help determine the tax value loss under divisions (D) 112040
and (E) of this section. The report shall be filed within thirty 112041
days of the commissioner's request. A company that fails to file 112042
the report or does not timely file the report is subject to the 112043
penalty in section 5727.60 of the Revised Code.112044

       (G) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 112045
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 112046
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-rate levy loss, which is 112047
the sum of its electric company tax value loss multiplied by the 112048
tax rate in effect in tax year 1998 for fixed-rate levies and its 112049
natural gas company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in 112050
effect in tax year 1999 for fixed-rate levies.112051

       (H) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 112052
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 112053
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss, which is 112054
the amount obtained by subtracting the amount described in 112055
division (H)(2) of this section from the amount described in 112056
division (H)(1) of this section:112057

       (1) The sum of the electric company tax value loss multiplied 112058
by the tax rate in effect in tax year 1998, and the natural gas 112059
company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in effect in tax 112060
year 1999, for fixed-sum levies for all taxing districts within 112061
each school district, joint vocational school district, and local 112062
taxing unit. For the years 2002 through 2006, this computation 112063
shall include school district emergency levies that existed in 112064
1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss, and 1999 112065
in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, and all 112066
other fixed-sum levies that existed in 1998 in the case of the 112067
electric company tax value loss and 1999 in the case of the 112068
natural gas company tax value loss and continue to be charged in 112069
the tax year preceding the distribution year. For the years 2007 112070
through 2016 in the case of school district emergency levies, and 112071
for all years after 2006 in the case of all other fixed-sum 112072
levies, this computation shall exclude all fixed-sum levies that 112073
existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss 112074
and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, 112075
but are no longer in effect in the tax year preceding the 112076
distribution year. For the purposes of this section, an emergency 112077
levy that existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax 112078
value loss, and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax 112079
value loss, continues to exist in a year beginning on or after 112080
January 1, 2007, but before January 1, 2017, if, in that year, the 112081
board of education levies a school district emergency levy for an 112082
annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board in 112083
tax year 1998 or 1999, respectively, less the amount of the 112084
payment certified under this division for 2002.112085

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 1999 less the tax 112086
value loss in each school district, joint vocational school 112087
district, and local taxing unit multiplied by one-fourth of one 112088
mill.112089

       If the amount computed under division (H) of this section for 112090
any school district, joint vocational school district, or local 112091
taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal the 112092
fixed-sum levy loss reimbursed pursuant to division (F) of section 112093
5727.85 of the Revised Code or division (A)(2) of section 5727.86 112094
of the Revised Code, and the one-fourth of one mill that is 112095
subtracted under division (H)(2) of this section shall be 112096
apportioned among all contributing fixed-sum levies in the 112097
proportion of each levy to the sum of all fixed-sum levies within 112098
each school district, joint vocational school district, or local 112099
taxing unit.112100

       (I) Notwithstanding divisions (D), (E), (G), and (H) of this 112101
section, in computing the tax value loss, fixed-rate levy loss, 112102
and fixed-sum levy loss, the tax commissioner shall use the 112103
greater of the 1998 tax rate or the 1999 tax rate in the case of 112104
levy losses associated with the electric company tax value loss, 112105
but the 1999 tax rate shall not include for this purpose any tax 112106
levy approved by the voters after June 30, 1999, and the tax 112107
commissioner shall use the greater of the 1999 or the 2000 tax 112108
rate in the case of levy losses associated with the natural gas 112109
company tax value loss.112110

       (J) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 112111
shall certify to the department of education the tax value loss 112112
determined under divisions (D) and (E) of this section for each 112113
taxing district, the fixed-rate levy loss calculated under 112114
division (G) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy loss 112115
calculated under division (H) of this section. The calculations 112116
under divisions (G) and (H) of this section shall separately 112117
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.112118

       (K) Not later than September 1, 2001, the tax commissioner 112119
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy loss to the county 112120
auditor of each county in which a school district with a fixed-sum 112121
levy loss has territory.112122

       Sec. 5727.89.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 112123
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 112124
possession, against any natural gas distribution company, electric 112125
distribution company, self-assessing purchaser, or qualified end 112126
user that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 112127
additional charge as required by sections 5727.80 to 5727.95 of 112128
the Revised Code.112129

       When information in the possession of the tax commissioner 112130
indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by section 112131
5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code has not paid the full 112132
amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a representative 112133
sample of the person's business and may issue an assessment based 112134
on the audit. The commissioner shall give the person assessed 112135
written notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 112136
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 112137
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 112138
request a hearing on the petition.112139

       The tax commissioner may issue an assessment for which the 112140
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code was 112141
due and unpaid on the date the person was informed by an agent of 112142
the tax commissioner of an investigation or audit of the person. 112143
Any payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment, 112144
after the person is so informed, shall be credited against the 112145
assessment.112146

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 112147
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 112148
rules providing for the imposition and remission of penalties.112149

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 112150
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 112151
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 112152
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 112153
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 112154
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 112155
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 112156
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 112157
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 112158
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 112159
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 112160
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.112161

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 112162
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 112163
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 112164
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 112165
court of common pleas in the county in which the party assessed 112166
resides or in which the party's business is conducted. If the 112167
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 112168
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 112169
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 112170
of Franklin county.112171

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 112172
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 112173
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 112174
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for the 112175
distribution excise taxes," and shall have the same effect as 112176
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the 112177
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 112178
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.112179

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety112180
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 112181
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 112182
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 112183
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 112184
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 112185
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 112186
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 112187
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 112188
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 112189
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 112190
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 112191
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 112192
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 112193
under this section.112194

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 112195
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code 112196
will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 112197
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 112198
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 112199
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 112200
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 112201
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 112202
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 112203
on the party assessed or the party's legal representative within 112204
five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total 112205
amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the party 112206
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 112207
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 112208
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 112209
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 112210
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 112211
consideration of the petition for reassessment.112212

       (E) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 112213
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 112214
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 112215
sections 5727.81 and 5727.811 of the Revised Code.112216

       Sec. 5728.10.  (A) If any person required to file a fuel use 112217
tax return by sections 5728.01 to 5728.14 of the Revised Code, 112218
fails to file the return within the time prescribed by those 112219
sections, files an incomplete return, files an incorrect return, 112220
or fails to remit the full amount of the tax due for the period 112221
covered by the return, the tax commissioner may make an assessment 112222
against the person, based upon any information in the 112223
commissioner's possession, for the period for which the tax was 112224
due.112225

       No assessment shall be made against any person for any tax 112226
imposed by this chapter more than four years after the return date 112227
for the period for which the tax was due or more than four years 112228
after the return for the period was filed, whichever is later. 112229
This section does not bar an assessment against any person who 112230
fails to file a fuel use tax return as required by this chapter, 112231
or who files a fraudulent fuel use tax return.112232

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 112233
amount of every assessment made pursuant to this section. The 112234
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 112235
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 112236
section.112237

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 112238
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 112239
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 112240
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 112241
hearing on the petition.112242

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 112243
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 112244
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 112245
reassessment, signed by the party assessed, or by the party's 112246
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 112247
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 112248
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 112249
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 112250
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 112251
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 112252
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 112253
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.112254

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 112255
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 112256
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 112257
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 112258
pleas in the county in which the party's place of business is 112259
located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If the 112260
party maintains no office in this state and is not a resident of 112261
this state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the 112262
office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin 112263
county.112264

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 112265
enter a judgment for the state of Ohio against the party assessed 112266
in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the 112267
clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 112268
fuel use tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 112269
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 112270
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 112271
apply to sales made under the judgment.112272

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 112273
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 112274
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 112275
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 112276
the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is paid or 112277
until it is certified to the attorney general for collection under 112278
section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the 112279
unpaid portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney 112280
general for collection, the entire unpaid portion of the 112281
assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by 112282
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of certification 112283
until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid 112284
in the same manner as the tax and may be collected by the issuance 112285
of an assessment under this section.112286

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 112287
section shall be paid into the state treasury in the same manner 112288
as the revenues deriving from the taxes imposed by section 5728.06 112289
of the Revised Code.112290

       Sec. 5729.03.  (A) If the superintendent of insurance finds 112291
the annual statement required by section 5729.02 of the Revised 112292
Code to be correct, the superintendent shall compute the following 112293
amount, as applicable, of the balance of such gross amount, after 112294
deducting such return premiums and considerations received for 112295
reinsurance, and charge such amount to such company as a tax upon 112296
the business done by it in this state for the period covered by 112297
such annual statement:112298

       (1) If the company is a health insuring corporation, one per 112299
cent of the balance of premium rate payments received, exclusive 112300
of payments received under the medicare program established under 112301
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 112302
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received 112303
pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid program established 112304
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending 112305
September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual report;112306

       (2) If the company is not a health insuring corporation, one 112307
and four-tenths per cent of the balance of premiums received, 112308
exclusive of premiums received under the medicare program 112309
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 112310
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 112311
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid112312
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 112313
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 112314
statement, and, if the company operates a health insuring 112315
corporation as a line of business, one per cent of the balance of 112316
premium rate payments received from that line of business, 112317
exclusive of payments received under the medicare program 112318
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 112319
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 112320
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid112321
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 112322
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 112323
statement.112324

       Each foreign insurance company, including health insuring 112325
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 112326
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 112327
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 112328
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 112329
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 112330
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid112331
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 112332
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 112333
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.112334

       (B) Any insurance policies that were not issued in violation 112335
of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code and that were issued prior to 112336
April 15, 1967, by a life insurance company organized and operated 112337
without profit to any private shareholder or individual, 112338
exclusively for the purpose of aiding educational or scientific 112339
institutions organized and operated without profit to any private 112340
shareholder or individual, are not subject to the tax imposed by 112341
this section. All taxes collected pursuant to this section shall 112342
be credited to the general revenue fund.112343

       (C) In no case shall the tax imposed under this section be 112344
less than two hundred fifty dollars.112345

       Sec. 5729.17.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 112346
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 112347
Code.112348

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 112349
section 5729.03 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 112350
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 112351
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 112352
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 112353
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 112354
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 112355
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 112356
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 112357
required under section 5729.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 112358
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 112359
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 112360
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 112361
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 112362
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 112363
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 112364
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 112365
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.112366

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 112367
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 112368
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 112369
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 112370
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 112371
during that period.112372

       Sec. 5731.39.  This section does not apply to, and the 112373
written permission of the tax commissioner is not required for 112374
asset transfers with respect to, decedents dying on or after 112375
January 1, 2013.112376

       (A) No corporation organized or existing under the laws of 112377
this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new certificate 112378
for any share of its capital stock registered in the name of a 112379
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 112380
and another person or persons, without the written consent of the 112381
tax commissioner.112382

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 112383
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 112384
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 112385
possession, control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of 112386
a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a 112387
decedent and another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer 112388
an amount in excess of three-fourths of the total value of such 112389
deposit, including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date 112390
of decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 112391
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 112392
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 112393
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.112394

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 112395
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 112396
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 112397
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 112398
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 112399
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 112400
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 112401
consent of the tax commissioner.112402

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 112403
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 112404
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 112405
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 112406
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 112407
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 112408
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 112409
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 112410
written consent of the tax commissioner.112411

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 112412
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 112413
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 112414
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 112415
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 112416
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 112417
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 112418
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 112419
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 112420
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 112421
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 112422
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 112423
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 112424
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 112425
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 112426
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 112427
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 112428
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.112429

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 112430
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 112431
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 112432
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 112433
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 112434
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 112435
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 112436
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 112437
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 112438
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 112439
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 112440
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 112441
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 112442
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 112443
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 112444
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 112445
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 112446
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 112447
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 112448
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 112449
tax commissioner's inventory records.112450

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:112451

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 112452
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 112453
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;112454

       (2) A home, as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 112455
Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 5119.22112456
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 112457
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 112458
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 112459
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113112460
5162.22 of the Revised Code without the written consent of the tax 112461
commissioner, and without the account having been opened and 112462
inventoried in the presence of the commissioner or the 112463
commissioner's agent. 112464

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 112465
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 112466
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 112467
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 112468
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 112469
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 112470
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 112471
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 112472
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 112473
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 112474
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 112475
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 112476
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 112477
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.112478

       Sec. 5733.01.  (A) The tax provided by this chapter for 112479
domestic corporations shall be the amount charged against each 112480
corporation organized for profit under the laws of this state and 112481
each nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Chapter 1729. of 112482
the Revised Code, except as provided in sections 5733.09 and 112483
5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the privilege of exercising its 112484
franchise during the calendar year in which that amount is 112485
payable, and the tax provided by this chapter for foreign 112486
corporations shall be the amount charged against each corporation 112487
organized for profit and each nonprofit corporation organized or 112488
operating in the same or similar manner as nonprofit corporations 112489
organized under Chapter 1729. of the Revised Code, under the laws 112490
of any state or country other than this state, except as provided 112491
in sections 5733.09 and 5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the 112492
privilege of doing business in this state, owning or using a part 112493
or all of its capital or property in this state, holding a 112494
certificate of compliance with the laws of this state authorizing 112495
it to do business in this state, or otherwise having nexus in or 112496
with this state under the Constitution of the United States, 112497
during the calendar year in which that amount is payable.112498

       (B) A corporation is subject to the tax imposed by section 112499
5733.06 of the Revised Code for each calendar year prior to 2014 112500
that it is so organized, doing business, owning or using a part or 112501
all of its capital or property, holding a certificate of 112502
compliance, or otherwise having nexus in or with this state under 112503
the Constitution of the United States, on the first day of January 112504
of that calendar year. No credit authorized by this chapter may be 112505
claimed for tax year 2014 or any tax year thereafter.112506

       (C) Any corporation subject to this chapter that is not 112507
subject to the federal income tax shall file its returns and 112508
compute its tax liability as required by this chapter in the same 112509
manner as if that corporation were subject to the federal income 112510
tax.112511

       (D) For purposes of this chapter, a federally chartered 112512
financial institution shall be deemed to be organized under the 112513
laws of the state within which its principal office is located.112514

       (E) For purposes of this chapter, any person, as defined in 112515
section 5701.01 of the Revised Code, shall be treated as a 112516
corporation if the person is classified for federal income tax 112517
purposes as an association taxable as a corporation, and an equity 112518
interest in the person shall be treated as capital stock of the 112519
person.112520

       (F) For the purposes of this chapter, "disregarded entity" 112521
has the same meaning as in division (D) of section 5745.01 of the 112522
Revised Code.112523

       (1) A person's interest in a disregarded entity, whether held 112524
directly or indirectly, shall be treated as the person's ownership 112525
of the assets and liabilities of the disregarded entity, and the 112526
income, including gain or loss, shall be included in the person's 112527
net income under this chapter.112528

       (2) Any sale, exchange, or other disposition of the person's 112529
interest in the disregarded entity, whether held directly or 112530
indirectly, shall be treated as a sale, exchange, or other 112531
disposition of the person's share of the disregarded entity's 112532
underlying assets or liabilities, and the gain or loss from such 112533
sale, exchange, or disposition shall be included in the person's 112534
net income under this chapter.112535

       (3) The disregarded entity's payroll, property, and sales 112536
factors shall be included in the person's factors.112537

       (G) The tax a corporation is required to pay under this 112538
chapter shall be as follows:112539

        (1)(a) For financial institutions, the greater of the minimum 112540
payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the 112541
Revised Code or the difference between all taxes charged the 112542
financial institution under this chapter, without regard to 112543
division (G)(2) of this section, less any credits allowable 112544
against such tax.112545

       (b) A corporation satisfying the description in division 112546
(E)(5), (6), (7), (8), or (10) of section 5751.01 of the Revised 112547
Code, as that section existed before its amendment by H.B. 510 of 112548
the 129th general assembly, that is not a financial institution, 112549
insurance company, or dealer in intangibles is subject to the 112550
taxes imposed under this chapter as a corporation and not subject 112551
to tax as a financial institution, and shall pay the greater of 112552
the minimum payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 112553
of the Revised Code or the difference between all the taxes 112554
charged under this chapter, without regard to division (G)(2) of 112555
this section, less any credits allowable against such tax.112556

        (2) For all corporations other than those persons described 112557
in division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, the amount under 112558
division (G)(2)(a) of this section applicable to the tax year 112559
specified less the amount under division (G)(2)(b) of this 112560
section:112561

        (a)(i) For tax year 2005, the greater of the minimum payment 112562
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 112563
or the difference between all taxes charged the corporation under 112564
this chapter and any credits allowable against such tax;112565

        (ii) For tax year 2006, the greater of the minimum payment 112566
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 112567
or four-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 112568
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 112569
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 112570
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 112571
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 112572
Code;112573

        (iii) For tax year 2007, the greater of the minimum payment 112574
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 112575
or three-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 112576
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 112577
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 112578
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 112579
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 112580
Code;112581

        (iv) For tax year 2008, the greater of the minimum payment 112582
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 112583
or two-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 112584
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 112585
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 112586
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 112587
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 112588
Code;112589

        (v) For tax year 2009, the greater of the minimum payment 112590
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 112591
or one-fifth of the difference between all taxes charged the 112592
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 112593
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 112594
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 112595
in divisions (A)(31), (32), (33), and (34) of section 5733.98 of 112596
the Revised Code;112597

        (vi) For tax year 2010 and each tax year thereafter, no tax.112598

        (b) A corporation shall subtract from the amount calculated 112599
under division (G)(2)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section 112600
any qualifying pass-through entity tax credit described in 112601
division (A)(30) and any refundable credits described in divisions 112602
(A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised Code to which 112603
the corporation is entitled. Any unused qualifying pass-through 112604
entity tax credit is not refundable.112605

        (c) For the purposes of computing the amount of a credit that 112606
may be carried forward to a subsequent tax year under division 112607
(G)(2) of this section, a credit is utilized against the tax for a 112608
tax year to the extent the credit applies against the tax for that 112609
tax year, even if the difference is then multiplied by the 112610
applicable fraction under division (G)(2)(a) of this section.112611

       (d) References in division (G)(2) of this section to section 112612
5733.98 of the Revised Code is to that section before its 112613
amendment by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.112614

       (3) Nothing in division (G) of this section eliminates or 112615
reduces the tax imposed by section 5733.41 of the Revised Code on 112616
a qualifying pass-through entity.112617

       Sec. 5733.06.  For tax years prior to tax year 2014, the tax 112618
hereby charged each corporation subject to this chapter shall be 112619
the greater of the sum of divisions (A) and (B) of this section, 112620
after the reduction, if any, provided by division (J) of this 112621
section, or division (C) of this section, after the reduction, if 112622
any, provided by division (J) of this section, except that the tax 112623
hereby charged each financial institution subject to this chapter 112624
shall be the amount computed under division (D) of this section:112625

       (A) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, five 112626
and one-tenth per cent upon the first fifty thousand dollars of 112627
the value of the taxpayer's issued and outstanding shares of stock 112628
as determined under division (B) of section 5733.05 of the Revised 112629
Code;112630

       (B) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, 112631
eight and one-half per cent upon the value so determined in excess 112632
of fifty thousand dollars; or112633

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided under division (G) of 112634
this section, four mills times that portion of the value of the 112635
issued and outstanding shares of stock as determined under 112636
division (C) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code. For the 112637
purposes of division (C) of this section, division (C)(2) of 112638
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 112639
Revised Code, the value of the issued and outstanding shares of 112640
stock of an eligible corporation for tax year 2003 through tax 112641
year 2007, or of a qualifying holding company, is zero.112642

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section, "eligible 112643
corporation" means a person treated as a corporation for federal 112644
income tax purposes that meets all of the following criteria:112645

       (a) The corporation conducts business for an entire taxable 112646
year as a qualified trade or business as defined by division (C) 112647
of section 122.15 of the Revised Code, as that section existed 112648
before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.112649

       (b) The corporation uses more than fifty per cent of the 112650
corporation's assets, based on net book value, that are located in 112651
Ohio solely to conduct activities that constitute a qualified 112652
trade or business as defined by section 122.15 of the Revised 112653
Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 112654
130th general assembly.112655

       (c) The corporation has been formed or organized not more 112656
than three years before the report required to be filed by section 112657
5733.02 of the Revised Code is due, without regard to any 112658
extensions.112659

       (d) The corporation is not a related member, as defined in 112660
section 5733.042 of the Revised Code, at any time during the 112661
taxable year with respect to another person treated as a 112662
corporation for federal income tax purposes. A corporation is not 112663
a related member if during the entire taxable year at least 112664
seventy-five per cent of the corporation's stock is owned directly 112665
or through a pass-through entity by individuals, estates, and 112666
grantor trusts, and the individuals, estates, and grantor trusts 112667
do not directly or indirectly own more than twenty per cent of the 112668
value of another person treated as a corporation for federal 112669
income tax purposes that is conducting a qualified trade or 112670
business.112671

       (D) The tax charged each financial institution subject to 112672
this chapter shall be that portion of the value of the issued and 112673
outstanding shares of stock as determined under division (A) of 112674
section 5733.05 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the following 112675
amounts:112676

       (1) For tax years prior to the 1999 tax year, fifteen mills;112677

       (2) For the 1999 tax year, fourteen mills;112678

       (3) For tax year 2000 and thereafter, thirteen mills.112679

       (E) No tax shall be charged from any corporation that has 112680
been adjudicated bankrupt, or for which a receiver has been 112681
appointed, or that has made a general assignment for the benefit 112682
of creditors, except for the portion of the then current tax year 112683
during which the tax commissioner finds such corporation had the 112684
power to exercise its corporate franchise unimpaired by such 112685
proceedings or act. The minimum payment for each corporation shall 112686
be as follows:112687

       (1) One thousand dollars in the case of a corporation having 112688
gross receipts for the taxable year equal to at least five million 112689
dollars from activities within or outside this state or in the 112690
case of a corporation employing at least three hundred employees 112691
at some time during the taxable year within or outside this state;112692

       (2) Fifty dollars in the case of any other corporation.112693

       The tax charged to corporations under this chapter for the 112694
privilege of engaging in business in this state, which is an 112695
excise tax levied on the value of the issued and outstanding 112696
shares of stock, shall in no manner be construed as prohibiting or 112697
otherwise limiting the powers of municipal corporations, joint 112698
economic development zones created under section 715.691 of the 112699
Revised Code, and joint economic development districts created 112700
under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 715.81 of the 112701
Revised Code in this state to impose an income tax on the income 112702
of such corporations.112703

       (F) If two or more taxpayers satisfy the ownership or control 112704
requirements of division (A) of section 5733.052 of the Revised 112705
Code, each such taxpayer shall substitute "the taxpayer's pro-rata 112706
amount" for "fifty thousand dollars" in divisions (A) and (B) of 112707
this section. For purposes of this division, "the taxpayer's 112708
pro-rata amount" is an amount that, when added to the other such 112709
taxpayers' pro-rata amounts, does not exceed fifty thousand 112710
dollars. For the purpose of making that computation, the 112711
taxpayer's pro-rata amount shall not be less than zero. Nothing in 112712
this division derogates from or eliminates the requirement to make 112713
the alternative computation of tax under division (C) of this 112714
section.112715

       (G) The tax liability of any corporation under division (C) 112716
of this section shall not exceed one hundred fifty thousand 112717
dollars.112718

       (H)(1) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 112719
"exiting corporation" means a corporation that satisfies all of 112720
the following conditions:112721

       (a) The corporation had nexus with or in this state under the 112722
Constitution of the United States during any portion of a calendar 112723
year;112724

       (b) The corporation was not a corporation described in 112725
division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code on the first 112726
day of January immediately following that calendar year;112727

       (c) The corporation was not a financial institution on the 112728
first day of January immediately following that calendar year;112729

       (d) If the corporation was a transferor as defined in section 112730
5733.053 of the Revised Code, the corporation's transferee was not 112731
required to add to the transferee's net income the income of the 112732
transferor pursuant to division (B) of that section;112733

       (e) During any portion of that calendar year, or any portion 112734
of the immediately preceding calendar year, the corporation had 112735
net income that was not included in a report filed by the 112736
corporation or its transferee pursuant to section 5733.02, 112737
5733.021, 5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code;112738

       (f) The corporation would have been subject to the tax 112739
computed under divisions (A), (B), (C), (F), and (G) of this 112740
section if the corporation is assumed to be a corporation 112741
described in division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code 112742
on the first day of January immediately following the calendar 112743
year to which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers.112744

       (2) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 112745
"unreported net income" means net income that was not previously 112746
included in a report filed pursuant to section 5733.02, 5733.021, 112747
5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code and that was 112748
realized or recognized during the calendar year to which division 112749
(H)(1) of this section refers or the immediately preceding 112750
calendar year.112751

       (3) Each exiting corporation shall pay a tax computed by 112752
first allocating and apportioning the unreported net income 112753
pursuant to division (B) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.051 112754
and, if applicable, section 5733.052 of the Revised Code. The 112755
exiting corporation then shall compute the tax due on its 112756
unreported net income allocated and apportioned to this state by 112757
applying divisions (A), (B), and (F) of this section to that 112758
income.112759

       (4) Divisions (C) and (G) of this section, division (D)(2) of 112760
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 112761
Revised Code do not apply to an exiting corporation, but exiting 112762
corporations are subject to every other provision of this chapter.112763

       (5) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 5733.01 or 112764
sections 5733.02, 5733.021, and 5733.03 of the Revised Code to the 112765
contrary, each exiting corporation shall report and pay the tax 112766
due under division (H) of this section on or before the 112767
thirty-first day of May immediately following the calendar year to 112768
which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers. The exiting 112769
corporation shall file that report on the form most recently 112770
prescribed by the tax commissioner for the purposes of complying 112771
with sections 5733.02 and 5733.03 of the Revised Code. Upon 112772
request by the corporation, the tax commissioner may extend the 112773
date for filing the report.112774

       (6) If, on account of the application of section 5733.053 of 112775
the Revised Code, net income is subject to the tax imposed by 112776
divisions (A) and (B) of this section, such income shall not be 112777
subject to the tax imposed by division (H)(3) of this section.112778

       (7) The amendments made to division (H) of this section by 112779
Am. Sub. S.B. 287 of the 123rd general assembly do not apply to 112780
any transfer, as defined in section 5733.053 of the Revised Code, 112781
for which negotiations began prior to January 1, 2001, and that 112782
was commenced in and completed during calendar year 2001, unless 112783
the taxpayer makes an election prior to December 31, 2001, to 112784
apply those amendments.112785

       (8) The tax commissioner may adopt rules governing division 112786
(H) of this section.112787

       (I) Any reference in the Revised Code to "the tax imposed by 112788
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code" or "the tax due under section 112789
5733.06 of the Revised Code" includes the taxes imposed under 112790
sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the Revised Code.112791

       (J)(1) Division (J) of this section applies solely to a 112792
combined company. Section 5733.057 of the Revised Code shall apply 112793
when calculating the adjustments required by division (J) of this 112794
section.112795

       (2) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 112796
calculated in divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be 112797
reduced by an amount calculated by multiplying such tax by a 112798
fraction, the numerator of which is the total taxable gross 112799
receipts attributed to providing public utility activity other 112800
than as an electric company under section 5727.03 of the Revised 112801
Code for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are 112802
measured immediately preceding the tax year, and the denominator 112803
of which is the total gross receipts from all sources for the year 112804
upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured immediately 112805
preceding the tax year. Nothing herein shall be construed to 112806
exclude from the denominator any item of income described in 112807
section 5733.051 of the Revised Code.112808

       (3) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 112809
calculated in division (C) of this section shall be reduced by an 112810
amount calculated by multiplying such tax by the fraction 112811
described in division (J)(2) of this section.112812

       (4) In no event shall the reduction provided by division 112813
(J)(2) or (J)(3) of this section exceed the amount of the excise 112814
tax paid in accordance with section 5727.38 of the Revised Code, 112815
for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured 112816
immediately preceding the tax year.112817

       Sec. 5733.11.  (A) If any corporation required to file a 112818
report under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 112819
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 112820
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 112821
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the corporation 112822
for any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is 112823
due, based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.112824

       No assessment shall be made or issued against a corporation 112825
more than three years after the later of the final date the report 112826
subject to assessment was required to be filed or the date the 112827
report was filed. Such time limit may be extended if both the 112828
corporation and the commissioner consent in writing to the 112829
extension or if an agreement waiving or extending the time limit 112830
has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised 112831
Code. Any such extension shall extend the three-year time limit in 112832
division (B) of section 5733.12 of the Revised Code for the same 112833
period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment 112834
against a corporation that fails to file a report subject to 112835
assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a fraudulent 112836
report.112837

       The commissioner shall give the corporation assessed written 112838
notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 112839
of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall 112840
provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 112841
request a hearing on the petition.112842

       (B) Unless the corporation assessed files with the tax 112843
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 112844
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 112845
petition for reassessment, signed by the corporations112846
corporation's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts,, the 112847
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 112848
and payable from the corporation assessed to the treasurer of 112849
state. The petition shall indicate the corporation's objections, 112850
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 112851
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 112852
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 112853
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 112854
Code.112855

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 112856
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 112857
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 112858
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 112859
pleas in the county in which the corporation has an office or 112860
place of business in this state, the county in which the 112861
corporation's statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.112862

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 112863
enter a judgment against the corporation assessed in the amount 112864
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 112865
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state corporate 112866
franchise and litter taxes," and shall have the same effect as 112867
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 112868
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 112869
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.112870

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 112871
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 112872
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 112873
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 112874
the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until the 112875
assessment is paid or until it is certified to the attorney 112876
general for collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, 112877
whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is 112878
certified to the attorney general for collection, the entire 112879
unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate 112880
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 112881
the date of certification until the date it is paid in its 112882
entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and 112883
may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.112884

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 112885
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 112886
chapter.112887

       (E) The portion of an assessment that must be paid upon the 112888
filing of a petition for reassessment shall be as follows:112889

       (1) If the sole item objected to is the assessed penalty or 112890
interest, payment of the assessment, including interest but not 112891
penalty, is required;112892

       (2) If the corporation assessed failed to file, prior to the 112893
date of issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by 112894
section 5733.02 of the Revised Code, any amended report required 112895
by division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the 112896
tax year at issue, or any amended report required by division (D) 112897
of section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 112898
the amount of the credit provided under that section, payment of 112899
the assessment, including interest but not penalty, is required;112900

       (3) If the corporation assessed filed, prior to the date of 112901
issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by section 112902
5733.02 of the Revised Code, all amended reports required by 112903
division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the tax 112904
year at issue, and all amended reports required by division (D) of 112905
section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 112906
the amount of the credit provided under that section, and a 112907
balance of the taxes shown due on the reports as computed on the 112908
reports remains unpaid, payment of only that portion of the 112909
assessment representing the unpaid balance of tax and interest is 112910
required;112911

       (4) If the corporation assessed does not dispute that it is a 112912
taxpayer but claims the protections of section 101 of Public Law 112913
86-272, 73 Stat. 555, 15 U.S.C.A. 381, as amended, payment of only 112914
that portion of the assessment representing any balance of taxes 112915
shown due on the corporation's annual report required by section 112916
5733.02 of the Revised Code, as computed on the report, that 112917
remains unpaid, and that represents taxes imposed by division (C) 112918
of section 5733.06, division (C)(2) of section 5733.065, and 112919
division (C) of section 5733.066 of the Revised Code, together 112920
with all related interest, is required;112921

       (5) If none of the conditions specified in divisions (E)(1) 112922
to (4) of this section apply, or if the corporation assessed 112923
disputes that it is a taxpayer, no payment is required.112924

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 112925
is pending, the corporation may pay all or a portion of the 112926
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 112927
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 112928
for refund upon final determination of the petition.112929

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 112930
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 112931
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 112932
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 112933
that the amount due from the corporation under the corrected 112934
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 112935
the corporation, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in 112936
the amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5733.12 of 112937
the Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by 112938
section 5733.26 of the Revised Code, subject to section 5733.121 112939
of the Revised Code.112940

       Sec. 5733.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 112941
calculating the amount of tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the 112942
Revised Code that is due under this chapter, a taxpayer shall 112943
claim any credits to which it is entitled in the following order, 112944
except as otherwise provided in section 5733.058 of the Revised 112945
Code:112946

       (1) For tax year 2005, the credit for taxes paid by a 112947
qualifying pass-through entity allowed under section 5733.0611 of 112948
the Revised Code;112949

       (2) The credit allowed for financial institutions under 112950
section 5733.45 of the Revised Code;112951

       (3) The credit for qualifying affiliated groups under section 112952
5733.068 of the Revised Code;112953

       (4) The subsidiary corporation credit under section 5733.067 112954
of the Revised Code;112955

       (5) The savings and loan assessment credit under section 112956
5733.063 of the Revised Code;112957

       (6) The credit for recycling and litter prevention donations 112958
under section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;112959

       (7) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 112960
child day-care centers under section 5733.36 of the Revised Code;112961

       (8) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 112962
care expenses under section 5733.38 of the Revised Code;112963

       (9) The credit for maintaining railroad active grade crossing 112964
warning devices under section 5733.43 of the Revised Code;112965

       (10) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 112966
section 5733.44 of the Revised Code;112967

       (11) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 112968
(B) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code;112969

       (12) The credit for tax years 2008 and 2009 for selling 112970
alternative fuel under section 5733.48 of the Revised Code;112971

       (13) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 112972
machinery and equipment under section 5733.33 of the Revised Code;112973

       (14) The job training credit under section 5733.42 of the 112974
Revised Code;112975

       (15) The credit for qualified research expenses under section 112976
5733.351 of the Revised Code;112977

       (16) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 112978
Revised Code;112979

       (17) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 112980
voluntary action under section 5733.34 of the Revised Code;112981

       (18) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 112982
day-care centers under section 5733.37 of the Revised Code;112983

       (19) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 112984
5733.46 of the Revised Code;112985

       (20) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 112986
property under section 5733.32 of the Revised Code;112987

       (21) The export sales credit under section 5733.069 of the 112988
Revised Code;112989

       (22) The credit for research and development and technology 112990
transfer investors under section 5733.35 of the Revised Code;112991

       (23) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 112992
Revised Code;112993

       (24)(23) The credit for using Ohio coal under section 5733.39 112994
of the Revised Code;112995

       (25)(24) The credit for purchases of qualified low-income 112996
community investments under section 5733.58 of the Revised Code;112997

       (26)(25) The credit for small telephone companies under 112998
section 5733.57 of the Revised Code;112999

       (27)(26) The credit for eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges 113000
under section 5733.55 of the Revised Code;113001

       (28)(27) For tax year 2005, the credit for providing programs 113002
to aid the communicatively impaired under division (A) of section 113003
5733.56 of the Revised Code;113004

       (29)(28) The research and development credit under section 113005
5733.352 of the Revised Code;113006

       (30)(29) For tax years 2006 and subsequent tax years, the 113007
credit for taxes paid by a qualifying pass-through entity allowed 113008
under section 5733.0611 of the Revised Code;113009

       (31)(30) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 113010
building under section 5733.47 of the Revised Code;113011

       (32)(31) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 113012
credit under division (A) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised 113013
Code;113014

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for tax withheld under 113015
division (B)(2) of section 5747.062 of the Revised Code;113016

       (34)(33) The refundable credit under section 5733.49 of the 113017
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 113018
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;113019

       (35)(34) For tax years 2006, 2007, and 2008, the refundable 113020
credit allowable under division (B) of section 5733.56 of the 113021
Revised Code;113022

       (36)(35) The refundable motion picture production credit 113023
under section 5733.59 of the Revised Code.113024

       (B) For any credit except the refundable credits enumerated 113025
in this section, the amount of the credit for a tax year shall not 113026
exceed the tax due after allowing for any other credit that 113027
precedes it in the order required under this section. Any excess 113028
amount of a particular credit may be carried forward if authorized 113029
under the section creating that credit.113030

       Sec. 5735.012. AmountsWith respect to liquid motor fuel 113031
other than liquid natural gas, amounts of motor fuel reported 113032
under this chapter shall be measured in gross gallons, except that 113033
amounts reported for terminal to terminal transactions shall be 113034
measured in net gallons and amounts reported for terminal to Ohio 113035
licensed dealer transactions shall be measured in both net gallons 113036
and gross gallons. Amounts of liquid natural gas shall be measured 113037
in gallon equivalents as described in section 5735.013 of the 113038
Revised Code.113039

       Sec. 5735.013.  For the purposes of this chapter, if the 113040
national conference on weights and measures has adopted a diesel 113041
gallon equivalent standard for liquid natural gas, that standard 113042
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel. If the 113043
national conference on weights and measures has not adopted such a 113044
standard, six and six one-hundredths pounds of liquid natural gas 113045
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel.113046

       Sec. 5735.12.  (A) Any motor fuel dealer required by this 113047
chapter to file reports and pay the tax levied by this chapter who 113048
fails to file the report within the time prescribed, may be liable 113049
for an additional charge not exceeding the greater of ten per cent 113050
of the motor fuel dealer's tax liability for that month or fifty 113051
dollars. The tax commissioner may remit all or a portion of the 113052
additional charge and may adopt rules relating to the remission of 113053
all or a portion of the charge.113054

       If any person required by this chapter to file reports and 113055
pay the taxes, interest, or additional charge levied by this 113056
chapter fails to file the report, files an incomplete or incorrect 113057
report, or fails to remit the full amount of the tax, interest, or 113058
additional charge due for the period covered by the report, the 113059
commissioner may make an assessment against the person based upon 113060
any information in the commissioner's possession.113061

       No assessment shall be made against any motor fuel dealer for 113062
taxes imposed by this chapter more than four years after the date 113063
on which the report on which the assessment was based was due or 113064
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 113065
assessment against any motor fuel dealer who fails to file a 113066
report required by section 5735.06 of the Revised Code, or who 113067
files a fraudulent motor fuel tax report.113068

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 113069
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 113070
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 113071
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 113072
section.113073

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 113074
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 113075
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 113076
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 113077
hearing on the petition.113078

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 113079
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 113080
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 113081
reassessment in writing, signed by the party assessed or that 113082
party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 113083
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 113084
and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The 113085
petition shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 113086
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 113087
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 113088
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 113089
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.113090

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 113091
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 113092
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 113093
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 113094
pleas in the county in which the party assessed resides or in 113095
which the business of the party assessed is conducted. If the 113096
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 113097
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 113098
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 113099
of Franklin county.113100

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 113101
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 113102
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 113103
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state motor 113104
fuel tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 113105
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 113106
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 113107
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.113108

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety113109
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 113110
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 113111
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 113112
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 113113
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 113114
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 113115
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 113116
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 113117
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 113118
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 113119
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 113120
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 113121
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 113122
section.113123

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 113124
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 113125
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 113126
this chapter.113127

       (E) If the tax commissioner determines that the commissioner 113128
has erroneously refunded motor fuel tax to any person, the 113129
commissioner may make an assessment against the person for 113130
recovery of the erroneously refunded tax.113131

       Sec. 5735.34.  (A) If any motor fuel dealer sells that motor 113132
fuel dealer's entire business or discontinues operating that 113133
business, the taxes and any interest and penalties imposed under 113134
this chapter that arose prior to the date of sale or 113135
discontinuation become due and payable immediately. TheWithin 113136
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 113137
business, the motor fuel dealer shall make a final return within 113138
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 113139
businessand provide written notification to the tax commissioner 113140
of the sale or discontinuation and the name and contact 113141
information of the purchaser, if applicable. The purchaser of the 113142
business shall withhold a sufficient amount of the purchase money 113143
to cover the amount of such taxes, interest, and penalties due and 113144
unpaid until the seller produces a receipt from the tax 113145
commissioner showing that the taxes, interest, and penalties have 113146
been paid, or until the seller produces a certificate indicating 113147
that no taxes, interest, and penalties are due.113148

       (B) If the purchaser of the business fails to withhold the 113149
purchase money required to be withheld under this section, the 113150
purchaser of the business is personally liable for the payment of 113151
the taxes, interest, and penalties accrued and unpaid during the 113152
operation of the business by the seller, but only to the extent of 113153
the consideration offered for the entire business.113154

       (C) For purposes of this section, "entire business" means 113155
substantially all of the seller's assets determined without regard 113156
to any then existing mortgages, liens, security interests or other 113157
encumbrances attaching to those assets. A person is considered to 113158
have sold the entire business only if the person ceases to qualify 113159
as a motor fuel dealer and has relinquished or the tax 113160
commissioner has canceled the person's motor fuel dealer's 113161
license.113162

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:113163

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 113164
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 113165
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 113166
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 113167
and combinations of individuals of any form.113168

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 113169
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 113170
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 113171
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:113172

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 113173
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 113174
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 113175
be granted;113176

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 113177
be furnished to transient guests;113178

       (3) All transactions by which:113179

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 113180
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 113181
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;113182

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 113183
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 113184
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 113185
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 113186
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 113187
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;113188

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 113189
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;113190

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 113191
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 113192
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;113193

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 113194
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 113195
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 113196
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 113197
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 113198
personal or professional services to which automatic data 113199
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 113200
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 113201
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 113202
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 113203
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 113204
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 113205
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 113206
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 113207
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 113208
rights.113209

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 113210
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 113211
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 113212
service;113213

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 113214
provided;113215

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 113216
provided;113217

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 113218
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;113219

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 113220
be provided;113221

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;113222

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;113223

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;113224

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 113225
provided;113226

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 113227
provided;113228

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 113229
service is or is to be provided;113230

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 113231
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 113232
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 113233
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 113234
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 113235
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 113236
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 113237
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.113238

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 113239
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 113240
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 113241
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 113242
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 113243
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 113244
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 113245
U.S.C. 41102;113246

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 113247
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 113248
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 113249
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.113250

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 113251
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 113252
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 113253
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 113254
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 113255
during the calendar year.113256

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 113257
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 113258
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 113259
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.113260

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 113261
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 113262
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 113263
are or are to be furnished or transferred;113264

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 113265
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 113266
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 113267
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 113268
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 113269
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 113270
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 113271
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 113272
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 113273
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 113274
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 113275
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 113276
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 113277
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 113278
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 113279
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 113280
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 113281
never a construction contract.113282

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:113283

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 113284
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 113285
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 113286
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 113287
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 113288
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 113289
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 113290
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 113291
used in such production.113292

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 113293
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 113294
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 113295
significant damage to its component parts.113296

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 113297
closely held corporation are transferred, or an ownership interest 113298
in a pass-through entity, as defined in section 5733.04 of the 113299
Revised Code, is transferred, if the corporation or pass-through 113300
entity is not engaging in business and its entire assets consist 113301
of boats, planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal 113302
property operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the 113303
shareholders or owners;113304

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 113305
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 113306
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 113307
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 113308
provided;113309

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 113310
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 113311
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;113312

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 113313
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 113314
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 113315
regular course of business;113316

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 113317
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 113318
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 113319
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 113320
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 113321
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 113322
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 113323
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 113324
purchase or lease agreement;113325

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 113326
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 113327
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 113328
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 113329
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 113330
with the state.113331

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 113332
United States department of health and human services determines 113333
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 113334
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 113335
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 113336
620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and 113337
regulations adopted thereunder, the medicaid director of job and 113338
family services shall notify the tax commissioner of that 113339
determination. Beginning with the first day of the month following 113340
that notification, the transactions described in division 113341
(B)(11)(a) of this section are not sales for the purposes of this 113342
chapter or Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner 113343
shall order that the collection of taxes under sections 5739.02, 113344
5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 113345
5741.023 of the Revised Code shall cease for transactions 113346
occurring on or after that date.113347

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 113348
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 113349
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 113350
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 113351
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 113352
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 113353
charges are made.113354

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 113355
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 113356
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 113357
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 113358
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 113359
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 113360
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 113361
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.113362

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 113363
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 113364
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 113365
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 113366
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 113367
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 113368
physician under federal law, are vendors.113369

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 113370
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 113371
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 113372
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 113373
the admission is granted.113374

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 113375
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 113376
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 113377
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 113378
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 113379
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 113380
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 113381
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 113382
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 113383
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 113384
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 113385
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 113386
directed by the veterinarian.113387

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 113388
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 113389
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 113390
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 113391
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 113392
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 113393
under division (E)(1) of this section.113394

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 113395
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 113396
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 113397
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 113398
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.113399

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 113400
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 113401
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 113402
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 113403
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 113404
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 113405
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 113406
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 113407
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 113408
primarily used to produce the printed matter.113409

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 113410
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 113411
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 113412
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 113413
matter for advertising or other purposes.113414

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 113415
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 113416
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 113417
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 113418
division (E)(1) of this section.113419

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 113420
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 113421
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 113422
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 113423
service.113424

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 113425
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 113426
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 113427
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 113428
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 113429
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 113430
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.113431

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 113432
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 113433
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 113434
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 113435
be, received by the person.113436

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 113437
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 113438
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 113439
managing and investing the person's own funds.113440

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 113441
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 113442
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 113443
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.113444

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 113445
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 113446
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 113447
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 113448
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 113449
without any deduction for any of the following:113450

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;113451

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 113452
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 113453
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 113454
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 113455
vendor;113456

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 113457
complete the sale;113458

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 113459
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 113460
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 113461
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 113462
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.113463

       (v) Installation charges;113464

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.113465

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 113466
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 113467
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 113468
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 113469
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 113470
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 113471
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 113472
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 113473
and one of the following criteria is met:113474

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 113475
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 113476
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 113477
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 113478
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 113479
certificate, or document is presented;113480

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 113481
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 113482
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 113483
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 113484
organization.113485

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 113486
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 113487
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 113488
presented by the consumer.113489

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:113490

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 113491
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 113492
by a consumer on a sale;113493

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 113494
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 113495
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 113496
similar document given to the purchaser;113497

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 113498
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 113499
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 113500
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 113501
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 113502
is separately stated.113503

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 113504
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 113505
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 113506
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.113507

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 113508
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 113509
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 113510
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 113511
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 113512
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 113513
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 113514
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 113515
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 113516
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 113517
gift card.113518

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 113519
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 113520
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 113521
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 113522
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 113523
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 113524
in trade.113525

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 113526
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 113527
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 113528
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 113529
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 113530
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 113531
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 113532
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 113533
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 113534
attached to the watercraft.113535

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 113536
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 113537
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 113538
insuring corporation.113539

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 113540
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 113541
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 113542
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 113543
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 113544
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 113545
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 113546
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 113547
are refunded either in cash or by credit.113548

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 113549
engages in business.113550

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 113551
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 113552
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 113553
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 113554
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.113555

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 113556
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 113557
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 113558
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 113559
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 113560
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 113561
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 113562
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 113563
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 113564
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 113565
the year.113566

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 113567
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 113568
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 113569
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 113570
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 113571
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.113572

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 113573
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 113574
days.113575

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 113576
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 113577
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 113578
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 113579
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 113580
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 113581
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 113582
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 113583
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 113584
from a place where a service is performed.113585

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 113586
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 113587
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 113588
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 113589
classification as tangible personal property after such 113590
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 113591
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 113592
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 113593
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 113594
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 113595
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 113596
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 113597
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 113598
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 113599
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 113600
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.113601

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 113602
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 113603
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.113604

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 113605
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 113606
product.113607

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 113608
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 113609
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 113610
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 113611
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 113612
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 113613
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.113614

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 113615
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 113616
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 113617
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 113618
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 113619
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.113620

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 113621
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 113622
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 113623
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 113624
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 113625
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 113626
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 113627
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 113628
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 113629
States census bureau.113630

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 113631
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 113632
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 113633
commissioners.113634

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 113635
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 113636
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 113637
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 113638
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 113639
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 113640
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.113641

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 113642
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 113643
consideration.113644

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 113645
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 113646
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 113647
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.113648

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 113649
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 113650
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 113651
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 113652
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 113653
taxable computer equipment or systems.113654

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 113655
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 113656
the purpose of either of the following:113657

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 113658
the computer equipment;113659

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 113660
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.113661

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 113662
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 113663
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 113664
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 113665
(LLL) of this section.113666

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 113667
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 113668
professional services.113669

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 113670
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 113671
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 113672
electronic information services, including but not limited to:113673

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 113674
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 113675
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 113676
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 113677
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;113678

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;113679

       (c) Identifying management information needs;113680

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 113681
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 113682
needs and alternatives;113683

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 113684
collecting business information, and determining how data should 113685
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 113686
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;113687

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 113688
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 113689
and controlled;113690

       (g) Testing of business procedures;113691

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;113692

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 113693
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 113694
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 113695
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 113696
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 113697
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;113698

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 113699
graphic, or electronic means.113700

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 113701
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.113702

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 113703
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 113704
consideration by any of the following:113705

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 113706
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 113707
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 113708
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 113709
similar public thoroughfare;113710

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 113711
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 113712
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 113713
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 113714
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 113715
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 113716
section;113717

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 113718
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.113719

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 113720
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 113721
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 113722
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 113723
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 113724
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 113725
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 113726
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 113727
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 113728
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 113729
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 113730
following:113731

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 113732
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 113733
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 113734
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 113735
processed data or information;113736

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 113737
customer's premises;113738

        (c) Tangible personal property;113739

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;113740

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 113741
parties;113742

        (f) Internet access service;113743

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 113744
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 113745
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 113746
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 113747
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 113748
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 113749
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 113750
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;113751

        (h) Ancillary service;113752

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 113753
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.113754

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 113755
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 113756
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 113757
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 113758
mail service. As used in this division:113759

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 113760
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 113761
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 113762
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 113763
services used to reach the conference bridge.113764

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 113765
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 113766
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.113767

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 113768
providing telephone number or address information.113769

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 113770
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 113771
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 113772
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 113773
connections, including conference bridging service.113774

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 113775
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 113776
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 113777
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 113778
mail service.113779

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 113780
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 113781
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 113782
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 113783
"900" service" and any subsequent numbers designated by the 113784
federal communications commission. "900 service" does not include 113785
the charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 113786
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 113787
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.113788

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 113789
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 113790
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 113791
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 113792
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of 113793
which the number declines with use in a known amount.113794

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 113795
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 113796
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 113797
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 113798
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 113799
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 113800
predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with 113801
use in a known amount.113802

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 113803
telecommunications service in which computer processing 113804
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 113805
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 113806
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.113807

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 113808
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 113809
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.113810

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 113811
the Revised Code.113812

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 113813
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 113814
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 113815
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 113816
services" does not include the provision of self-service 113817
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 113818
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.113819

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 113820
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 113821
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 113822
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 113823
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 113824
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 113825
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 113826
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 113827
or control them.113828

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 113829
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 113830
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 113831
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 113832
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 113833
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 113834
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 113835
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 113836
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 113837
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 113838
services during the calendar year.113839

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 113840
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 113841
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 113842
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 113843
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 113844
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 113845
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 113846
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 113847
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 113848
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 113849
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 113850
employed by the state or a political subdivision.113851

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 113852
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 113853
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 113854
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 113855
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 113856
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 113857
recognized charity.113858

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 113859
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 113860
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 113861
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 113862
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 113863
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.113864

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 113865
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 113866
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 113867
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 113868
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 113869
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 113870
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 113871
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 113872
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 113873
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 113874
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 113875
results.113876

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 113877
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 113878
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 113879
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 113880
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 113881
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 113882
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 113883
the calendar year.113884

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 113885
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 113886
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 113887
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 113888
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 113889
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 113890
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 113891
not include:113892

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 113893
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 113894
the purchaser.113895

       (2) Medical and health care services.113896

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 113897
of at least one year between the service provider and the 113898
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 113899
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.113900

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 113901
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.113902

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 113903
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 113904
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 113905
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 113906
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.113907

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 113908
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 113909
an available position.113910

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 113911
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 113912
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 113913
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 113914
building or structure.113915

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 113916
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 113917
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 113918
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 113919
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 113920
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 113921
physical exercise.113922

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 113923
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 113924
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 113925
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 113926
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 113927
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 113928
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 113929
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 113930
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 113931
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 113932
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.113933

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 113934
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 113935
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 113936
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 113937
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 113938
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 113939
production.113940

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 113941
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 113942
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 113943
structures for livestock waste handling.113944

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 113945
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 113946
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 113947
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.113948

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 113949
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 113950
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 113951
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 113952
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.113953

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 113954
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 113955
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 113956
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 113957
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 113958
local events of interest to the general public.113959

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 113960
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 113961
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 113962
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 113963
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 113964
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 113965
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 113966
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 113967
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 113968
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 113969
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 113970
division:113971

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 113972
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 113973
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 113974
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 113975
competitors.113976

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 113977
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 113978
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 113979
or specified by contract as full-time employment.113980

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 113981
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 113982
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 113983
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 113984
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 113985
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 113986
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 113987
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:113988

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 113989
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 113990
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 113991
required payments;113992

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 113993
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 113994
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 113995
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 113996
one per cent of the total required payments;113997

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 113998
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 113999
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 114000
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 114001
inspect, or set-upset up the tangible personal property.114002

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 114003
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 114004
June 26, 2003.114005

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 114006
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 114007
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 114008
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 114009
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.114010

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 114011
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 114012
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 114013
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 114014
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 114015
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 114016
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 114017
calling.114018

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 114019
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.114020

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 114021
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 114022
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 114023
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 114024
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 114025
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 114026
channels or other special services, installation and repair 114027
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 114028
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.114029

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 114030
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 114031
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 114032
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 114033
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 114034
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.114035

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 114036
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 114037
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 114038
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 114039
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 114040
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 114041
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 114042
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 114043
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 114044
single address.114045

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 114046
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 114047
result based on a sequence of instructions.114048

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 114049
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 114050
equipment to perform a task.114051

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 114052
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 114053
tangible storage media.114054

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 114055
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 114056
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 114057
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 114058
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 114059
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 114060
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 114061
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 114062
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 114063
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 114064
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 114065
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 114066
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 114067
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 114068
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 114069
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 114070
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 114071
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 114072
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 114073
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 114074
constitute prewritten computer software.114075

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 114076
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 114077
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 114078
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 114079
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.114080

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:114081

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 114082
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 114083
of alcohol by volume.114084

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 114085
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 114086
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 114087
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 114088
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 114089
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 114090
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 114091
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 114092
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:114093

       (i) A vitamin;114094

       (ii) A mineral;114095

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;114096

       (iv) An amino acid;114097

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 114098
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;114099

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 114100
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 114101
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.114102

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 114103
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 114104
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 114105
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 114106
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.114107

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 114108
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.114109

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 114110
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 114111
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 114112
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 114113
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 114114
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 114115
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 114116
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 114117
the body.114118

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 114119
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 114120
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 114121
laws of this state to issue a prescription.114122

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 114123
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 114124
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 114125
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 114126
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 114127
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 114128
equipment.114129

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 114130
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 114131
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 114132
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 114133
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 114134
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 114135
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 114136
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 114137
not include durable medical equipment.114138

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 114139
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 114140
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 114141
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 114142
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 114143
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 114144
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.114145

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 114146
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 114147
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 114148
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 114149
and the program meets all of the following criteria:114150

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 114151
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 114152
owners.114153

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 114154
one fractional owner.114155

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 114156
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 114157
aircraft.114158

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 114159
among all of the fractional owners.114160

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 114161
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 114162
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.114163

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:114164

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 114165
(B)(3)(e) of this section.114166

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 114167
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 114168
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 114169
this section.114170

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 114171
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 114172
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 114173
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 114174
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 114175
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 114176
aircraft ownership program.114177

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 114178
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 114179
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 114180
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 114181
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 114182
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 114183
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 114184
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 114185
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 114186
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 114187
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 114188
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 114189
aircraft ownership program.114190

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 114191
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 114192
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.114193

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 114194
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 114195
including the federal government or a state government or a 114196
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 114197
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 114198
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 114199
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 114200
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 114201
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 114202
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 114203
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 114204
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 114205
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 114206
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 114207
subject of a sale.114208

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 114209
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 114210
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 114211
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 114212
of the Revised Code.114213

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 114214
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 114215
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 114216
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.114217

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 114218
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 114219
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.114220

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 114221
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 114222
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 114223
tangible personal property or services.114224

       (QQQ) "Hotel intermediary" means a person, other than a 114225
hotel, that contracts with hotels to sell reservations for lodging 114226
at such hotels to transient guests.114227

       Sec. 5739.02.  For the purpose of providing revenue with 114228
which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general 114229
revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough 114230
and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for 114231
the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from 114232
general property taxes, permitted under constitutional 114233
limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local 114234
governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the 114235
state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax 114236
is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.114237

       (A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 114238
5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five 114239
and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the 114240
sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or 114241
delivered.114242

        (2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of 114243
more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period 114244
of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the 114245
manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, 114246
outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, 114247
other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a 114248
load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter 114249
primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the 114250
vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be 114251
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 114252
paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the 114253
total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes 114254
amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is 114255
executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor 114256
at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In 114257
the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be 114258
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 114259
paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for 114260
each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this 114261
division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 114262
4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive 114263
unit attached to the watercraft.114264

       A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or 114265
similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not 114266
exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, 114267
the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire 114268
length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until 114269
the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. 114270
The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the 114271
evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a 114272
sham transaction.114273

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in 114274
the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in 114275
part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax 114276
shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.114277

       (4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility 114278
service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which 114279
consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of 114280
the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall 114281
be measured by the installments thereof.114282

       (B) The tax does not apply to the following:114283

       (1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, 114284
or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of 114285
that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its 114286
political subdivisions;114287

       (2) Sales of food for human consumption off the premises 114288
where sold;114289

       (3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, 114290
dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, 114291
public, or parochial school, college, or university;114292

       (4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and 114293
sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled 114294
circulation publications;114295

       (5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without 114296
charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records 114297
the meals as part compensation for services performed or work 114298
done;114299

       (6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or 114300
sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this 114301
state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor 114302
fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) 114303
of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner 114304
may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to 114305
the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax 114306
pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code 114307
and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general 114308
revenue fund of this state;114309

       (7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water 114310
by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in 114311
each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes 114312
or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a 114313
telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the 114314
Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;114315

       (8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly 114316
by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of 114317
motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be 114318
titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft 114319
documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and 114320
all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised 114321
Code;114322

       (9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other 114323
than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by 114324
churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 114325
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit 114326
organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as 114327
defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the 114328
number of days on which such tangible personal property or 114329
services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does 114330
not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided 114331
in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on 114332
which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the 114333
church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in 114334
business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the 114335
tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a 114336
church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales 114337
of that church or organization.114338

       (b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt 114339
sales may be made by a church or organization under division 114340
(B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student 114341
clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary 114342
school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar 114343
organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or 114344
extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.114345

       (c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 114346
to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television 114347
broadcasting station.114348

       (10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under 114349
the Constitution or laws of the United States or the Constitution 114350
of this state;114351

       (11) Except for transactions that are sales under division 114352
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the 114353
transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation 114354
is by a private investigation and security service;114355

       (12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to 114356
churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 114357
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other 114358
nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable 114359
purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures 114360
to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no 114361
substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying 114362
on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; 114363
sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or 114364
one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the 114365
Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) 114366
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.114367

       "Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the 114368
improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, 114369
or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the 114370
provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing 114371
services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of 114372
a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised 114373
Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station 114374
that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a 114375
noncommercial educational radio or television station; the 114376
operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county 114377
humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of 114378
learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, 114379
teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a 114380
recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the 114381
operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or 114382
similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and 114383
support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a 114384
primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area 114385
center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and 114386
related fields are made in order to foster public interest and 114387
education therein; the production of performances in music, 114388
dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an 114389
organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the 114390
dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and 114391
information primarily for the public.114392

       Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to 114393
any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a 114394
trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the 114395
operation of independent living facilities as defined in division 114396
(A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.114397

       (13) Building and construction materials and services sold to 114398
construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or 114399
improvement to real property under a construction contract with 114400
this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the 114401
United States government or any of its agencies; building and 114402
construction materials and services sold to construction 114403
contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to 114404
real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any 114405
of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government 114406
or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures 114407
or improvements; building and construction materials sold to 114408
construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture 114409
structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the 114410
business of horticulture or producing livestock; building 114411
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 114412
incorporation into a house of public worship or religious 114413
education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes 114414
under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose 114415
is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building 114416
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 114417
incorporation into a building under a construction contract with 114418
an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of 114419
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used 114420
exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and 114421
construction materials sold for incorporation into the original 114422
construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the 114423
Revised Code; building and construction materials and services 114424
sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real 114425
property outside this state if such materials and services, when 114426
sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real 114427
property is located for incorporation into real property in that 114428
state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; 114429
and, until one calendar year after the construction of a 114430
convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under 114431
section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and 114432
construction materials and services sold to a construction 114433
contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising 114434
that convention center;114435

       (14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or 114436
to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and 114437
repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or 114438
vessels or rail rolling stock;114439

       (15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the 114440
activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this 114441
section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons 114442
who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal 114443
property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with 114444
specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including 114445
material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, 114446
equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible 114447
personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, 114448
equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to 114449
prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or 114450
products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or 114451
sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, 114452
crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other 114453
similar devices and containers, but does not include motor 114454
vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to 114455
motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division 114456
(B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in 114457
highway transportation for hire.114458

       (16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition 114459
assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this 114460
division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and 114461
federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act 114462
of 2008.114463

       (17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, 114464
horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for 114465
use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, 114466
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible 114467
personal property for use or consumption primarily in the 114468
production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, 114469
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts 114470
for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use 114471
or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property 114472
for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of 114473
products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by 114474
persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or 114475
floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real 114476
property;114477

       (18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed 114478
only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the 114479
official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing 114480
materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to 114481
test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when 114482
used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when 114483
purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical 114484
disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, 114485
or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical 114486
oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing 114487
homes, or other medical facilities;114488

       (19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment 114489
for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant 114490
to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use 114491
by a human being.114492

       (20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and 114493
equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing 114494
fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and 114495
emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the 114496
state;114497

       (21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this 114498
state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for 114499
use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state 114500
and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser 114501
within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the 114502
same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;114503

       (22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its 114504
political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, 114505
or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of 114506
its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, 114507
institutions, or authorities;114508

       (23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state 114509
under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 114510
5739.029 of the Revised Code;114511

       (24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for 114512
sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in 114513
such preparation, including such tangible personal property used 114514
for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and 114515
classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for 114516
packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in 114517
packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment 114518
and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on 114519
public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or 114520
shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the 114521
plant or plants within or between which such transfers or 114522
shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" 114523
includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, 114524
cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and 114525
"packaging" means placing therein.114526

       (25)(a) Sales of water to a consumer for residential use;114527

       (b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged 114528
exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to 114529
consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes 114530
or tubing.114531

       (26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor 114532
vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;114533

       (27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service 114534
operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of 114535
tangible personal property primarily used directly for the 114536
following:114537

       (a) To prepare food for human consumption for sale;114538

       (b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for 114539
human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not 114540
including tangible personal property used to display food for 114541
selection by the consumer;114542

       (c) To clean tangible personal property used to prepare or 114543
serve food for human consumption for sale.114544

       (28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services 114545
or county humane societies;114546

       (29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division 114547
(A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible 114548
personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under 114549
section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;114550

       (30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as 114551
defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 114552
Code;114553

       (31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain 114554
bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the 114555
Revised Code;114556

       (32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, 114557
or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are 114558
primarily used for transporting tangible personal property 114559
belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation 114560
for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the 114561
transportation of tangible personal property;114562

       (33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' 114563
organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued 114564
a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by 114565
the United States veterans administration, for use by the 114566
headquarters;114567

       (34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile 114568
telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting 114569
service vendor of tangible personal property and services used 114570
directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or 114571
recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic 114572
communications, including voice, image, data, and information, 114573
through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, 114574
poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record 114575
storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible 114576
personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall 114577
be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or 114578
(n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, 114579
based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the 114580
telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite 114581
broadcasting service.114582

       (35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or 114583
consume the things transferred in making retail sales and 114584
consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift 114585
certificates, or other advertising material that prices and 114586
describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.114587

       (b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary 114588
materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will 114589
be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter 114590
that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes 114591
and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising 114592
material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section;114593

       (c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, 114594
facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property 114595
primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.114596

       (d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve 114597
food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration 114598
and dispense it to the consumer.114599

       For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct 114600
marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order 114601
tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery 114602
service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the 114603
tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, 114604
catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by 114605
means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common 114606
carrier.114607

       (36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of 114608
horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be 114609
incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;114610

       (37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer 114611
keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an 114612
individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary 114613
or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in 114614
preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;114615

       (38) Sales to a professional racing team of any of the 114616
following:114617

       (a) Motor racing vehicles;114618

       (b) Repair services for motor racing vehicles;114619

       (c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in 114620
motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other 114621
components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and 114622
rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including 114623
tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of 114624
instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to 114625
collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of 114626
communication.114627

       (39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, 114628
as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or 114629
after January 1, 2000;114630

       (40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a 114631
provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in 114632
generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by 114633
others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into 114634
and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 114635
or distribution system and that retains its classification as 114636
tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used 114637
in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; 114638
energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the 114639
Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in 114640
the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or 114641
distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are 114642
specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption 114643
provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions 114644
in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider 114645
of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the 114646
tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, 114647
transmitting, or distributing electricity.114648

       (41) Sales to a person providing services under division 114649
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible 114650
personal property and services used directly and primarily in 114651
providing taxable services under that section.114652

       (42) Sales where the purpose of the purchaser is to do any of 114653
the following:114654

       (a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 114655
part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by 114656
manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or 114657
consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible 114658
personal property for sale by mining, including, without 114659
limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that 114660
are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and 114661
natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility 114662
service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be 114663
collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption 114664
sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering 114665
services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and 114666
natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the 114667
exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. 114668
This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at 114669
retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be 114670
incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.114671

       (b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the 114672
performance of an obligation of the vendor;114673

       (c) To resell, hold, use, or consume the thing transferred as 114674
evidence of a contract of insurance;114675

       (d) To use or consume the thing directly in commercial 114676
fishing;114677

       (e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 114678
part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in 114679
the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation 114680
publications;114681

       (f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 114682
and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of 114683
printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, 114684
blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of 114685
written or graphic matter;114686

       (g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 114687
5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing 114688
operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;114689

       (h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service 114690
contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of 114691
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain 114692
tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the 114693
subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be 114694
subject to the tax imposed by this section;114695

       (i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and 114696
development equipment;114697

       (j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 114698
storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased 114699
sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar 114700
facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this 114701
state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the 114702
warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail 114703
stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or 114704
by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to 114705
motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As 114706
used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as 114707
in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and 114708
"direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of 114709
this section.114710

       (k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a 114711
contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a 114712
warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal 114713
property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service 114714
contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined 114715
as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 114716
Code;114717

       (l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 114718
of a newspaper for distribution to the public;114719

       (m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service 114720
listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 114721
if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the 114722
consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of 114723
the service;114724

       (n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 114725
producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, 114726
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in 114727
rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture 114728
services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, 114729
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does 114730
not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of 114731
tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a 114732
structure or improvement to real property.114733

       (o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, 114734
formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or 114735
information by electronic publishing.114736

       As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes 114737
all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of 114738
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.114739

       (43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that 114740
activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, 114741
whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents 114742
or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in 114743
washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other 114744
personal property or personal service is provided as part of the 114745
transaction.114746

       (44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, 114747
airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft 114748
used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and 114749
sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of 114750
such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily 114751
used to provide those services.114752

       (45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used 114753
directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. 114754
As used in this division, "call center" means any physical 114755
location where telephone calls are placed or received in high 114756
volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer 114757
service, technical support, or other specialized business 114758
activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage 114759
in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient 114760
individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.114761

        (46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 114762
service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to 114763
information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 114764
5739.01 of the Revised Code.114765

        (47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This 114766
division does not apply to any similar service that is not 114767
otherwise a telecommunications service.114768

       (48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a 114769
qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or 114770
distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or 114771
otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent 114772
salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held 114773
primarily for distribution outside this state;114774

       (b) As used in division (B)(48)(a) of this section:114775

       (i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products 114776
to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed 114777
retail location, including selling such product at in-home product 114778
demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.114779

       (ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity 114780
selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax 114781
credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 114782
122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was 114783
entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies 114784
relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect 114785
to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct 114786
selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after 114787
execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.114788

       (c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, 114789
equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this 114790
state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on 114791
the date that is five years after that date.114792

       (49) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used in 114793
the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of such 114794
aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or 114795
maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an 114796
aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As 114797
used in division (B)(49) of this section, "aircraft" means 114798
aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified 114799
takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.114800

       (50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot 114801
or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or 114802
components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such 114803
full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of 114804
a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. 114805
It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs 114806
necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 114807
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, 114808
and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a 114809
three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of 114810
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described 114811
in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the 114812
Code of Federal Regulations.114813

       (51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property 114814
between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with 114815
sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the 114816
property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the 114817
Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or 114818
part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the 114819
state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the 114820
Revised Code.114821

       (C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this 114822
chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed 114823
that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the 114824
contrary is established.114825

       (D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and 114826
sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from 114827
levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any 114828
income generated by recreation and sports club dues.114829

       (E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under 114830
this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for 114831
the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional 114832
sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised 114833
Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax 114834
pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the 114835
discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and 114836
the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the 114837
Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or 114838
transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or 114839
payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 114840
5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.114841

       Sec. 5739.026.  (A) A board of county commissioners may levy 114842
a tax of one-fourth or one-half of one per cent on every retail 114843
sale in the county, except sales of watercraft and outboard motors 114844
required to be titled pursuant to Chapter 1548. of the Revised 114845
Code and sales of motor vehicles, and may increase an existing 114846
rate of one-fourth of one per cent to one-half of one per cent, to 114847
pay the expenses of administering the tax and, except as provided 114848
in division (A)(6) of this section, for any one or more of the 114849
following purposes provided that the aggregate levy for all such 114850
purposes does not exceed one-half of one per cent:114851

       (1) To provide additional revenues for the payment of bonds 114852
or notes issued in anticipation of bonds issued by a convention 114853
facilities authority established by the board of county 114854
commissioners under Chapter 351. of the Revised Code and to 114855
provide additional operating revenues for the convention 114856
facilities authority;114857

       (2) To provide additional revenues for a transit authority 114858
operating in the county;114859

       (3) To provide additional revenue for the county's general 114860
fund;114861

       (4) To provide additional revenue for permanent improvements 114862
within the county to be distributed by the community improvements 114863
board in accordance with section 307.283 and to pay principal, 114864
interest, and premium on bonds issued under section 307.284 of the 114865
Revised Code;114866

       (5) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition, 114867
construction, equipping, or repair of any specific permanent 114868
improvement or any class or group of permanent improvements, which 114869
improvement or class or group of improvements shall be enumerated 114870
in the resolution required by division (D) of this section, and to 114871
pay principal, interest, premium, and other costs associated with 114872
the issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation of bonds issued 114873
pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code for the acquisition, 114874
construction, equipping, or repair of the specific permanent 114875
improvement or class or group of permanent improvements;114876

       (6) To provide revenue for the implementation and operation 114877
of a 9-1-1 system in the county. If the tax is levied or the rate 114878
increased exclusively for such purpose, the tax shall not be 114879
levied or the rate increased for more than five years. At the end 114880
of the last year the tax is levied or the rate increased, any 114881
balance remaining in the special fund established for such purpose 114882
shall remain in that fund and be used exclusively for such purpose 114883
until the fund is completely expended, and, notwithstanding 114884
section 5705.16 of the Revised Code, the board of county 114885
commissioners shall not petition for the transfer of money from 114886
such special fund, and the tax commissioner shall not approve such 114887
a petition.114888

       If the tax is levied or the rate increased for such purpose 114889
for more than five years, the board of county commissioners also 114890
shall levy the tax or increase the rate of the tax for one or more 114891
of the purposes described in divisions (A)(1) to (5) of this 114892
section and shall prescribe the method for allocating the revenues 114893
from the tax each year in the manner required by division (C) of 114894
this section.114895

       (7) To provide additional revenue for the operation or 114896
maintenance of a detention facility, as that term is defined under 114897
division (F) of section 2921.01 of the Revised Code;114898

       (8) To provide revenue to finance the construction or 114899
renovation of a sports facility, but only if the tax is levied for 114900
that purpose in the manner prescribed by section 5739.028 of the 114901
Revised Code.114902

       As used in division (A)(8) of this section:114903

       (a) "Sports facility" means a facility intended to house 114904
major league professional athletic teams.114905

       (b) "Constructing" or "construction" includes providing 114906
fixtures, furnishings, and equipment.114907

       (9) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition of 114908
agricultural easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the 114909
Revised Code; to pay principal, interest, and premium on bonds 114910
issued under section 133.60 of the Revised Code; and for the 114911
supervision and enforcement of agricultural easements held by the 114912
county;114913

       (10) To provide revenue for the provision of ambulance, 114914
paramedic, or other emergency medical services;114915

       (11) To provide revenue for the operation of a lake 114916
facilities authority and the remediation of an impacted watershed 114917
by a lake facilities authority, as provided in Chapter 353. of the 114918
Revised Code.114919

       Pursuant to section 755.171 of the Revised Code, a board of 114920
county commissioners may pledge and contribute revenue from a tax 114921
levied for the purpose of division (A)(5) of this section to the 114922
payment of debt charges on bonds issued under section 755.17 of 114923
the Revised Code.114924

       The rate of tax shall be a multiple of one-fourth of one per 114925
cent, unless a portion of the rate of an existing tax levied under 114926
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code has been reduced, and the 114927
rate of tax levied under this section has been increased, pursuant 114928
to section 5739.028 of the Revised Code, in which case the 114929
aggregate of the rates of tax levied under this section and 114930
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code shall be a multiple of 114931
one-fourth of one per cent. The tax shall be levied and the rate 114932
increased pursuant to a resolution adopted by a majority of the 114933
members of the board. The board shall deliver a certified copy of 114934
the resolution to the tax commissioner, not later than the 114935
sixty-fifth day prior to the date on which the tax is to become 114936
effective, which shall be the first day of a calendar quarter.114937

       Prior to the adoption of any resolution to levy the tax or to 114938
increase the rate of tax exclusively for the purpose set forth in 114939
division (A)(3) of this section, the board of county commissioners 114940
shall conduct two public hearings on the resolution, the second 114941
hearing to be no fewer than three nor more than ten days after the 114942
first. Notice of the date, time, and place of the hearings shall 114943
be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in 114944
the county, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, 114945
once a week on the same day of the week for two consecutive weeks. 114946
The second publication shall be no fewer than ten nor more than 114947
thirty days prior to the first hearing. Except as provided in 114948
division (E) of this section, the resolution shall be subject to a 114949
referendum as provided in sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised 114950
Code. If the resolution is adopted as an emergency measure 114951
necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, 114952
health, or safety, it must receive an affirmative vote of all of 114953
the members of the board of county commissioners and shall state 114954
the reasons for the necessity.114955

       If the tax is for more than one of the purposes set forth in 114956
divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of this section, or is 114957
exclusively for one of the purposes set forth in division (A)(1), 114958
(2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (9), or (10) of this section, the 114959
resolution shall not go into effect unless it is approved by a 114960
majority of the electors voting on the question of the tax.114961

       (B) The board of county commissioners shall adopt a 114962
resolution under section 351.02 of the Revised Code creating the 114963
convention facilities authority, or under section 307.283 of the 114964
Revised Code creating the community improvements board, before 114965
adopting a resolution levying a tax for the purpose of a 114966
convention facilities authority under division (A)(1) of this 114967
section or for the purpose of a community improvements board under 114968
division (A)(4) of this section.114969

       (C)(1) If the tax is to be used for more than one of the 114970
purposes set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of 114971
this section, the board of county commissioners shall establish 114972
the method that will be used to determine the amount or proportion 114973
of the tax revenue received by the county during each year that 114974
will be distributed for each of those purposes, including, if 114975
applicable, provisions governing the reallocation of a convention 114976
facilities authority's allocation if the authority is dissolved 114977
while the tax is in effect. The allocation method may provide that 114978
different proportions or amounts of the tax shall be distributed 114979
among the purposes in different years, but it shall clearly 114980
describe the method that will be used for each year. Except as 114981
otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the 114982
allocation method established by the board is not subject to 114983
amendment during the life of the tax.114984

       (2) Subsequent to holding a public hearing on the proposed 114985
amendment, the board of county commissioners may amend the 114986
allocation method established under division (C)(1) of this 114987
section for any year, if the amendment is approved by the 114988
governing board of each entity whose allocation for the year would 114989
be reduced by the proposed amendment. In the case of a tax that is 114990
levied for a continuing period of time, the board may not so amend 114991
the allocation method for any year before the sixth year that the 114992
tax is in effect.114993

       (a) If the additional revenues provided to the convention 114994
facilities authority are pledged by the authority for the payment 114995
of convention facilities authority revenue bonds for as long as 114996
such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 114997
allocation of the tax shall be made for any year except to the 114998
extent that the reduced authority allocation, when combined with 114999
the authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is 115000
sufficient to meet the debt service requirements for that year on 115001
such bonds.115002

       (b) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 115003
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes described 115004
in division (A)(4) or (5) of this section, for as long as such 115005
bonds or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's or 115006
the community improvements board's allocation of the tax shall be 115007
made for any year, except to the extent that the reduced county or 115008
community improvements board allocation is sufficient to meet the 115009
debt service requirements for that year on such bonds or notes.115010

       (c) If the additional revenues provided to the transit 115011
authority are pledged by the authority for the payment of revenue 115012
bonds issued under section 306.37 of the Revised Code, for as long 115013
as such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 115014
allocation of tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent 115015
that the authority's reduced allocation, when combined with the 115016
authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is sufficient 115017
to meet the debt service requirements for that year on such bonds.115018

       (d) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 115019
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes issued 115020
under section 133.60 of the Revised Code, for so long as the bonds 115021
or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's allocation 115022
of the tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent that 115023
the reduced county allocation is sufficient to meet the debt 115024
service requirements for that year on the bonds or notes.115025

       (D)(1) The resolution levying the tax or increasing the rate 115026
of tax shall state the rate of the tax or the rate of the 115027
increase; the purpose or purposes for which it is to be levied; 115028
the number of years for which it is to be levied or that it is for 115029
a continuing period of time; the allocation method required by 115030
division (C) of this section; and if required to be submitted to 115031
the electors of the county under division (A) of this section, the 115032
date of the election at which the proposal shall be submitted to 115033
the electors of the county, which shall be not less than ninety 115034
days after the certification of a copy of the resolution to the 115035
board of elections and, if the tax is to be levied exclusively for 115036
the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this section, shall 115037
not occur in February or August of any year. Upon certification of 115038
the resolution to the board of elections, the board of county 115039
commissioners shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 115040
levy question to be submitted to the electors. If approved by a 115041
majority of the electors, the tax shall become effective on the 115042
first day of a calendar quarter next following the sixty-fifth day 115043
following the date the board of county commissioners and tax 115044
commissioner receive from the board of elections the certification 115045
of the results of the election, except as provided in division (E) 115046
of this section.115047

       (2)(a) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 115048
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 115049
section that is not adopted as an emergency measure may direct the 115050
board of elections to submit the question of levying the tax or 115051
increasing the rate of the tax to the electors of the county at a 115052
special election held on the date specified by the board of county 115053
commissioners in the resolution, provided that the election occurs 115054
not less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 115055
board of elections and the election is not held in February or 115056
August of any year. Upon certification of the resolution to the 115057
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 115058
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 115059
submitted to the electors. No resolution adopted under division 115060
(D)(2)(a) of this section shall go into effect unless approved by 115061
a majority of those voting upon it and, except as provided in 115062
division (E) of this section, not until the first day of a 115063
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days from 115064
the date the tax commissioner receives notice from the board of 115065
elections of the affirmative vote.115066

       (b) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 115067
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 115068
section that is adopted as an emergency measure shall become 115069
effective as provided in division (A) of this section, but may 115070
direct the board of elections to submit the question of repealing 115071
the tax or increase in the rate of the tax to the electors of the 115072
county at the next general election in the county occurring not 115073
less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 115074
board of elections. Upon certification of the resolution to the 115075
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 115076
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 115077
submitted to the electors. The ballot question shall be the same 115078
as that prescribed in section 5739.022 of the Revised Code. The 115079
board of elections shall notify the board of county commissioners 115080
and the tax commissioner of the result of the election immediately 115081
after the result has been declared. If a majority of the qualified 115082
electors voting on the question of repealing the tax or increase 115083
in the rate of the tax vote for repeal of the tax or repeal of the 115084
increase, the board of county commissioners, on the first day of a 115085
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days after 115086
the date the board and tax commissioner received notice of the 115087
result of the election, shall, in the case of a repeal of the tax, 115088
cease to levy the tax, or, in the case of a repeal of an increase 115089
in the rate of the tax, cease to levy the increased rate and levy 115090
the tax at the rate at which it was imposed immediately prior to 115091
the increase in rate.115092

       (c) A board of county commissioners, by resolution, may 115093
reduce the rate of a tax levied exclusively for the purpose set 115094
forth in division (A)(3) of this section to a lower rate 115095
authorized by this section. Any such reduction shall be made 115096
effective on the first day of the calendar quarter next following 115097
the sixty-fifth day after the tax commissioner receives a 115098
certified copy of the resolution from the board.115099

       (E) If a vendor makes a sale in this state by printed catalog 115100
and the consumer computed the tax on the sale based on local rates 115101
published in the catalog, any tax levied or repealed or rate 115102
changed under this section shall not apply to such a sale until 115103
the first day of a calendar quarter following the expiration of 115104
one hundred twenty days from the date of notice by the tax 115105
commissioner pursuant to division (G) of this section.115106

       (F) The tax levied pursuant to this section shall be in 115107
addition to the tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 115108
and any tax levied pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.023 of the 115109
Revised Code.115110

       A county that levies a tax pursuant to this section shall 115111
levy a tax at the same rate pursuant to section 5741.023 of the 115112
Revised Code.115113

       The additional tax levied by the county shall be collected 115114
pursuant to section 5739.025 of the Revised Code.115115

       Any tax levied pursuant to this section is subject to the 115116
exemptions provided in section 5739.02 of the Revised Code and in 115117
addition shall not be applicable to sales not within the taxing 115118
power of a county under the Constitution of the United States or 115119
the Ohio Constitution.115120

       (G) Upon receipt from a board of county commissioners of a 115121
certified copy of a resolution required by division (A) of this 115122
section, or from the board of elections a notice of the results of 115123
an election required by division (D)(1), (2)(a), (b), or (c) of 115124
this section, the tax commissioner shall provide notice of a tax 115125
rate change in a manner that is reasonably accessible to all 115126
affected vendors. The commissioner shall provide this notice at 115127
least sixty days prior to the effective date of the rate change. 115128
The commissioner, by rule, may establish the method by which 115129
notice will be provided.115130

       Sec. 5739.081. A legislative authority of a municipal 115131
corporation may not adopt or amend a resolution or ordinance 115132
levying a tax on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is 115133
to be furnished to transient guests pursuant to section 5739.08 of 115134
the Revised Code on or after October 1, 2013, unless the 115135
legislative authority levies the tax on any transaction by which a 115136
transient guest obtains or will obtain lodging in a hotel using a 115137
hotel intermediary. The legislative authority shall levy the tax 115138
on any amount the purchaser pays to the hotel intermediary for the 115139
intermediary's services plus any amount paid for the furnishing of 115140
lodging in a hotel to the transient guest.115141

       The hotel intermediary shall collect and remit all tax paid 115142
by the purchaser to the municipal corporation that levies the tax 115143
pursuant to section 5739.08 of the Revised Code. If the hotel 115144
intermediary does not collect or remit the full amount of tax, the 115145
hotel in which the transient guest will lodge shall collect and 115146
remit to the municipal corporation the uncollected or unremitted 115147
tax.115148

       Sec. 5739.09.  (A)(1) A board of county commissioners may, by 115149
resolution adopted by a majority of the members of the board, levy 115150
an excise tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by 115151
which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 115152
guests. The board shall establish all regulations necessary to 115153
provide for the administration and allocation of the tax. The 115154
regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may 115155
provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for 115156
late payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per 115157
cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest 115158
accrues does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to 115159
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 115160
divisions (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section, the 115161
regulations shall provide, after deducting the real and actual 115162
costs of administering the tax, for the return to each municipal 115163
corporation or township that does not levy an excise tax on the 115164
transactions, a uniform percentage of the tax collected in the 115165
municipal corporation or in the unincorporated portion of the 115166
township from each transaction, not to exceed thirty-three and 115167
one-third per cent. The remainder of the revenue arising from the 115168
tax shall be deposited in a separate fund and shall be spent 115169
solely to make contributions to the convention and visitors' 115170
bureau operating within the county, including a pledge and 115171
contribution of any portion of the remainder pursuant to an 115172
agreement authorized by section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 115173
provided that if the board of county commissioners of an eligible 115174
county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code adopts a 115175
resolution amending a resolution levying a tax under this division 115176
to provide that the revenue from the tax shall be used by the 115177
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 115178
Revised Code, the remainder of the revenue shall be used as 115179
described in the resolution making that amendment. Except as 115180
provided in division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) or (H) of 115181
this section, on and after May 10, 1994, a board of county 115182
commissioners may not levy an excise tax pursuant to this division 115183
in any municipal corporation or township located wholly or partly 115184
within the county that has in effect an ordinance or resolution 115185
levying an excise tax pursuant to division (B) of this section. 115186
The board of a county that has levied a tax under division (C) of 115187
this section may, by resolution adopted within ninety days after 115188
July 15, 1985, by a majority of the members of the board, amend 115189
the resolution levying a tax under this division to provide for a 115190
portion of that tax to be pledged and contributed in accordance 115191
with an agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the 115192
Revised Code. A tax, any revenue from which is pledged pursuant to 115193
such an agreement, shall remain in effect at the rate at which it 115194
is imposed for the duration of the period for which the revenue 115195
from the tax has been so pledged.115196

       The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as 115197
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution 115198
adopted by a majority of the members of the board, amend a 115199
resolution levying a tax under this division to provide that the 115200
revenue from the tax shall be used by the board as described in 115201
division (H) of section 307.695 of the Revised Code, in which case 115202
the tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it was imposed 115203
for the duration of any agreement entered into by the board under 115204
section 307.695 of the Revised Code, the duration during which any 115205
securities issued by the board under that section are outstanding, 115206
or the duration of the period during which the board owns a 115207
project as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 115208
whichever duration is longest.115209

       (2) A board of county commissioners that levies an excise tax 115210
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 1997, at a rate 115211
of three per cent, and that has pledged revenue from the tax to an 115212
agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the Revised Code 115213
or, in the case of the board of county commissioners of an 115214
eligible county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 115215
has amended a resolution levying a tax under division (C) of this 115216
section to provide that proceeds from the tax shall be used by the 115217
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 115218
Revised Code, may, at any time by a resolution adopted by a 115219
majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution levying 115220
a tax under division (A)(1) of this section to provide for an 115221
increase in the rate of that tax up to seven per cent on each 115222
transaction; to provide that revenue from the increase in the rate 115223
shall be used as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of 115224
the Revised Code or be spent solely to make contributions to the 115225
convention and visitors' bureau operating within the county to be 115226
used specifically for promotion, advertising, and marketing of the 115227
region in which the county is located; and to provide that the 115228
rate in excess of the three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 115229
of this section shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is 115230
imposed for the duration of the period during which any agreement 115231
is in effect that was entered into under section 307.695 of the 115232
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners levying a tax 115233
under division (A)(1) of this section, the duration of the period 115234
during which any securities issued by the board under division (I) 115235
of section 307.695 of the Revised Code are outstanding, or the 115236
duration of the period during which the board owns a project as 115237
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, whichever duration 115238
is longest. The amendment also shall provide that no portion of 115239
that revenue need be returned to townships or municipal 115240
corporations as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) 115241
of this section.115242

       (3) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax under 115243
division (A)(1) of this section on March 18, 1999, at a rate of 115244
three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 115245
forty-five days after March 18, 1999, amend the resolution levying 115246
the tax to provide for all of the following:115247

       (a) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 115248
than an additional four per cent on each transaction;115249

       (b) That all of the revenue from the increase in the rate 115250
shall be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities 115251
authority established by the board of county commissioners under 115252
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code on or before November 15, 1998, 115253
and used to pay costs of constructing, maintaining, operating, and 115254
promoting a facility in the county, including paying bonds, or 115255
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by that 115256
chapter;115257

       (c) That no portion of the revenue arising from the increase 115258
in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or townships as 115259
otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this section;115260

       (d) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 115261
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 115262
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 115263
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 115264
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 115265
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 115266
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 115267
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.115268

       Division (A)(3) of this section does not apply to the board 115269
of county commissioners of any county in which a convention center 115270
or facility exists or is being constructed on November 15, 1998, 115271
or of any county in which a convention facilities authority levies 115272
a tax pursuant to section 351.021 of the Revised Code on that 115273
date.115274

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "cost" and 115275
"facility" have the same meanings as in section 351.01 of the 115276
Revised Code, and "convention center" has the same meaning as in 115277
section 307.695 of the Revised Code.115278

       (4)(a) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax 115279
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 2002, at a rate 115280
of three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 115281
September 30, 2002, amend the resolution levying the tax to 115282
provide for all of the following:115283

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 115284
than an additional three and one-half per cent on each 115285
transaction;115286

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 115287
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 115288
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 115289
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 115290
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 115291
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 115292
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 115293
that chapter;115294

       (iii) That no portion of the revenue arising from the 115295
increase in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or 115296
townships as otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this 115297
section;115298

       (iv) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 115299
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 115300
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 115301
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 115302
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 115303
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 115304
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 115305
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.115306

       (b) Any board of county commissioners that, pursuant to 115307
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, has amended a resolution 115308
levying the tax authorized by division (A)(1) of this section may 115309
further amend the resolution to provide that the revenue referred 115310
to in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 115311
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 115312
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 115313
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 115314
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 115315
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 115316
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 115317
county.115318

       As used in division (A)(4) of this section, "cost" has the 115319
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 115320
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 115321
the Revised Code.115322

       (5)(a) As used in division (A)(5) of this section:115323

        (i) "Port authority" means a port authority created under 115324
Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.115325

        (ii) "Port authority military-use facility" means port 115326
authority facilities on which or adjacent to which is located an 115327
installation of the armed forces of the United States, a reserve 115328
component thereof, or the national guard and at least part of 115329
which is made available for use, for consideration, by the armed 115330
forces of the United States, a reserve component thereof, or the 115331
national guard.115332

        (b) For the purpose of contributing revenue to pay operating 115333
expenses of a port authority that operates a port authority 115334
military-use facility, the board of county commissioners of a 115335
county that created, participated in the creation of, or has 115336
joined such a port authority may do one or both of the following:115337

        (i) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 115338
(A)(1) of this section to designate some or all of the revenue 115339
from the tax levied under the resolution to be used for that 115340
purpose, notwithstanding that division;115341

       (ii) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 115342
(A)(1) of this section to increase the rate of the tax by not more 115343
than an additional two per cent and use the revenue from the 115344
increase exclusively for that purpose.115345

        (c) If a board of county commissioners amends a resolution to 115346
increase the rate of a tax as authorized in division (A)(5)(b)(ii) 115347
of this section, the board also may amend the resolution to 115348
specify that the increase in rate of the tax does not apply to 115349
"hotels," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 115350
Code, having fewer rooms used for the accommodation of guests than 115351
a number of rooms specified by the board.115352

       (6) A board of county commissioners of a county organized 115353
under a county charter adopted pursuant to Article X, Section 3, 115354
Ohio Constitution, and that levies an excise tax under division 115355
(A)(1) of this section at a rate of three per cent and levies an 115356
additional excise tax under division (E) of this section at a rate 115357
of one and one-half per cent may, by resolution adopted not later 115358
than January 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the board, 115359
amend the resolution levying a tax under division (A)(1) of this 115360
section to provide for an increase in the rate of that tax by not 115361
more than an additional one per cent on transactions by which 115362
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 115363
Notwithstanding divisions (A)(1) and (E) of this section, the 115364
resolution shall provide that all of the revenue from the increase 115365
in rate, after deducting the real and actual costs of 115366
administering the tax, shall be used to pay the costs of 115367
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 115368
convention center by a convention and visitors' bureau in the 115369
county. The increase in rate shall remain in effect for the period 115370
specified in the resolution, not to exceed ten years. The increase 115371
in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted under division 115372
(A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution may provide 115373
that no portion of the revenue from the increase in the rate shall 115374
be returned to townships or municipal corporations as would 115375
otherwise be required under that division.115376

       (7) Division (A)(7) of this section applies only to a county 115377
with a population greater than sixty-five thousand and less than 115378
seventy thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 115379
census and in which, on December 31, 2006, an excise tax is levied 115380
under division (A)(1) of this section at a rate not less than and 115381
not greater than three per cent, and in which the most recent 115382
increase in the rate of that tax was enacted or took effect in 115383
November 1984.115384

       The board of county commissioners of a county to which this 115385
division applies, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 115386
members of the board, may increase the rate of the tax by not more 115387
than one per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is 115388
or is to be furnished to transient guests. The increase in rate 115389
shall be for the purpose of paying expenses deemed necessary by 115390
the convention and visitors' bureau operating in the county to 115391
promote travel and tourism. The increase in rate shall remain in 115392
effect for the period specified in the resolution, not to exceed 115393
twenty years, provided that the increase in rate may not continue 115394
beyond the time when the purpose for which the increase is levied 115395
ceases to exist. If revenue from the increase in rate is pledged 115396
to the payment of debt charges on securities, the increase in rate 115397
is not subject to diminution by initiative or referendum or by law 115398
for so long as the securities are outstanding, unless provision is 115399
made by law or by the board of county commissioners for an 115400
adequate substitute for that revenue that is satisfactory to the 115401
trustee if a trust agreement secures payment of the debt charges. 115402
The increase in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted 115403
under division (A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution 115404
may provide that no portion of the revenue from the increase in 115405
the rate shall be returned to townships or municipal corporations 115406
as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) of this 115407
section. A resolution adopted under division (A)(7) of this 115408
section is subject to referendum under sections 305.31 to 305.99 115409
of the Revised Code.115410

       (B)(1) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 115411
or the board of trustees of a township that is not wholly or 115412
partly located in a county that has in effect a resolution levying 115413
an excise tax pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section may, by 115414
ordinance or resolution, levy an excise tax not to exceed three 115415
per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 115416
be furnished to transient guests. The legislative authority of the 115417
municipal corporation or the board of trustees of the township 115418
shall deposit at least fifty per cent of the revenue from the tax 115419
levied pursuant to this division into a separate fund, which shall 115420
be spent solely to make contributions to convention and visitors' 115421
bureaus operating within the county in which the municipal 115422
corporation or township is wholly or partly located, and the 115423
balance of that revenue shall be deposited in the general fund. 115424
The municipal corporation or township shall establish all 115425
regulations necessary to provide for the administration and 115426
allocation of the tax. The regulations may prescribe the time for 115427
payment of the tax, and may provide for the imposition of a 115428
penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, provided that the 115429
penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and 115430
the rate at which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per 115431
annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. 115432
The levy of a tax under this division is in addition to any tax 115433
imposed on the same transaction by a municipal corporation or a 115434
township as authorized by division (A) of section 5739.08 of the 115435
Revised Code.115436

       (2)(a) The legislative authority of the most populous 115437
municipal corporation located wholly or partly in a county in 115438
which the board of county commissioners has levied a tax under 115439
division (A)(4) of this section may amend, on or before September 115440
30, 2002, that municipal corporation's ordinance or resolution 115441
that levies an excise tax on transactions by which lodging by a 115442
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests, to provide for 115443
all of the following:115444

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 115445
than an additional one per cent on each transaction;115446

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 115447
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 115448
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 115449
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 115450
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 115451
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 115452
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 115453
that chapter;115454

       (iii) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 115455
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 115456
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 115457
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 115458
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 115459
provision is made by law, by the board of county commissioners, or 115460
by the legislative authority, for an adequate substitute therefor 115461
that is satisfactory to the trustee if a trust agreement secures 115462
the bonds.115463

       (b) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 115464
that, pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, has amended 115465
its ordinance or resolution to increase the rate of the tax 115466
authorized by division (B)(1) of this section may further amend 115467
the ordinance or resolution to provide that the revenue referred 115468
to in division (B)(2)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 115469
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 115470
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 115471
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 115472
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 115473
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 115474
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 115475
county.115476

       As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "cost" has the 115477
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 115478
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 115479
the Revised Code.115480

       (C) For the purposes described in section 307.695 of the 115481
Revised Code and to cover the costs of administering the tax, a 115482
board of county commissioners of a county where a tax imposed 115483
under division (A)(1) of this section is in effect may, by 115484
resolution adopted within ninety days after July 15, 1985, by a 115485
majority of the members of the board, levy an additional excise 115486
tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by which lodging 115487
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. The tax 115488
authorized by this division shall be in addition to any tax that 115489
is levied pursuant to division (A) of this section, but it shall 115490
not apply to transactions subject to a tax levied by a municipal 115491
corporation or township pursuant to the authorization granted by 115492
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code. The board 115493
shall establish all regulations necessary to provide for the 115494
administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations may 115495
prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for the 115496
imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, 115497
provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the 115498
amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues does not 115499
exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 115500
of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax shall be 115501
expended in accordance with section 307.695 of the Revised Code. 115502
The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as defined 115503
in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution adopted 115504
by a majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution 115505
levying a tax under this division to provide that the revenue from 115506
the tax shall be used by the board as described in division (H) of 115507
section 307.695 of the Revised Code. A tax imposed under this 115508
division shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed 115509
for the duration of the period during which any agreement entered 115510
into by the board under section 307.695 of the Revised Code is in 115511
effect, the duration of the period during which any securities 115512
issued by the board under division (I) of section 307.695 of the 115513
Revised Code are outstanding, or the duration of the period during 115514
which the board owns a project as defined in section 307.695 of 115515
the Revised Code, whichever duration is longest.115516

       (D) For the purpose of providing contributions under division 115517
(B)(1) of section 307.671 of the Revised Code to enable the 115518
acquisition, construction, and equipping of a port authority 115519
educational and cultural facility in the county and, to the extent 115520
provided for in the cooperative agreement authorized by that 115521
section, for the purpose of paying debt service charges on bonds, 115522
or notes in anticipation of bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) 115523
of that section, a board of county commissioners, by resolution 115524
adopted within ninety days after December 22, 1992, by a majority 115525
of the members of the board, may levy an additional excise tax not 115526
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 115527
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 115528
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 115529
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 115530
this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 115531
of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant to 115532
section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The board of county 115533
commissioners shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 115534
for the administration and allocation of the tax that are not 115535
inconsistent with this section or section 307.671 of the Revised 115536
Code. The regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the 115537
tax, and may provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, 115538
or both, for late payments, provided that the penalty does not 115539
exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at 115540
which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per annum 115541
prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. All 115542
revenues arising from the tax shall be expended in accordance with 115543
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and division (D) of this 115544
section. The levy of a tax imposed under this division may not 115545
commence prior to the first day of the month next following the 115546
execution of the cooperative agreement authorized by section 115547
307.671 of the Revised Code by all parties to that agreement. The 115548
tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed for 115549
the period of time described in division (C) of section 307.671 of 115550
the Revised Code for which the revenue from the tax has been 115551
pledged by the county to the corporation pursuant to that section, 115552
but, to any extent provided for in the cooperative agreement, for 115553
no lesser period than the period of time required for payment of 115554
the debt service charges on bonds, or notes in anticipation of 115555
bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section.115556

       (E) For the purpose of paying the costs of acquiring, 115557
constructing, equipping, and improving a municipal educational and 115558
cultural facility, including debt service charges on bonds 115559
provided for in division (B) of section 307.672 of the Revised 115560
Code, and for any additional purposes determined by the county in 115561
the resolution levying the tax or amendments to the resolution, 115562
including subsequent amendments providing for paying costs of 115563
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 115564
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 115565
arts facility, as defined in section 307.674 of the Revised Code, 115566
and including debt service charges on bonds provided for in 115567
division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, the 115568
legislative authority of a county, by resolution adopted within 115569
ninety days after June 30, 1993, by a majority of the members of 115570
the legislative authority, may levy an additional excise tax not 115571
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 115572
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 115573
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 115574
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), (C), and 115575
(D) of this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 115576
5739.08 of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant 115577
to section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The legislative authority 115578
of the county shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 115579
for the administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations 115580
may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for 115581
the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late 115582
payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent 115583
of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues 115584
does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 115585
5703.47 of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax 115586
shall be expended in accordance with section 307.672 of the 115587
Revised Code and this division. The levy of a tax imposed under 115588
this division shall not commence prior to the first day of the 115589
month next following the execution of the cooperative agreement 115590
authorized by section 307.672 of the Revised Code by all parties 115591
to that agreement. The tax shall remain in effect at the rate at 115592
which it is imposed for the period of time determined by the 115593
legislative authority of the county. That period of time shall not 115594
exceed fifteen years, except that the legislative authority of a 115595
county with a population of less than two hundred fifty thousand 115596
according to the most recent federal decennial census, by 115597
resolution adopted by a majority of its members before the 115598
original tax expires, may extend the duration of the tax for an 115599
additional period of time. The additional period of time by which 115600
a legislative authority extends a tax levied under this division 115601
shall not exceed fifteen years.115602

       (F) The legislative authority of a county that has levied a 115603
tax under division (E) of this section may, by resolution adopted 115604
within one hundred eighty days after January 4, 2001, by a 115605
majority of the members of the legislative authority, amend the 115606
resolution levying a tax under that division to provide for the 115607
use of the proceeds of that tax, to the extent that it is no 115608
longer needed for its original purpose as determined by the 115609
parties to a cooperative agreement amendment pursuant to division 115610
(D) of section 307.672 of the Revised Code, to pay costs of 115611
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 115612
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 115613
arts facility, including debt service charges on bonds provided 115614
for in division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, and to 115615
pay all obligations under any guaranty agreements, reimbursement 115616
agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements described in 115617
division (C) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code. The 115618
resolution may also provide for the extension of the tax at the 115619
same rate for the longer of the period of time determined by the 115620
legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 115621
additional twenty-five years, or the period of time required to 115622
pay all debt service charges on bonds provided for in division (B) 115623
of section 307.672 of the Revised Code and on port authority 115624
revenue bonds provided for in division (B) of section 307.674 of 115625
the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the amendment and 115626
extension of the tax shall be expended in accordance with section 115627
307.674 of the Revised Code, this division, and division (E) of 115628
this section.115629

       (G) For purposes of a tax levied by a county, township, or 115630
municipal corporation under this section or section 5739.08 of the 115631
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners, board of township 115632
trustees, or the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 115633
may adopt a resolution or ordinance at any time specifying that 115634
"hotel," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 115635
Code, includes the following:115636

       (1) Establishments in which fewer than five rooms are used 115637
for the accommodation of guests. 115638

       (2) Establishments at which rooms are used for the 115639
accommodation of guests regardless of whether each room is 115640
accessible through its own keyed entry or several rooms are 115641
accessible through the same keyed entry; and, in determining the 115642
number of rooms, all rooms are included regardless of the number 115643
of structures in which the rooms are situated or the number of 115644
parcels of land on which the structures are located if the 115645
structures are under the same ownership and the structures are not 115646
identified in advertisements of the accommodations as distinct 115647
establishments. For the purposes of division (G)(2) of this 115648
section, two or more structures are under the same ownership if 115649
they are owned by the same person, or if they are owned by two or 115650
more persons the majority of the ownership interests of which are 115651
owned by the same person.115652

        The resolution or ordinance may apply to a tax imposed 115653
pursuant to this section prior to the adoption of the resolution 115654
or ordinance if the resolution or ordinance so states, but the tax 115655
shall not apply to transactions by which lodging by such an 115656
establishment is provided to transient guests prior to the 115657
adoption of the resolution or ordinance.115658

       (H)(1) As used in this division:115659

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 115660
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.115661

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 115662
307.695 of the Revised Code.115663

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 115664
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 115665
population of one million or more according to the most recent 115666
federal decennial census that has levied a tax under division (D) 115667
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 115668
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 115669
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 115670
extent that they are no longer needed for their original purpose 115671
as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under section 115672
307.671 of the Revised Code, shall be deposited into the county 115673
general revenue fund. The resolution shall provide for the 115674
extension of the tax at a rate not to exceed the rate specified in 115675
division (D) of this section for a period of time determined by 115676
the legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 115677
additional forty years.115678

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115679
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 115680
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 115681
members of the legislative authority, increase the rate of the tax 115682
levied by such county under division (A)(1) of this section to a 115683
rate not to exceed five per cent on transactions by which lodging 115684
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 115685
Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (A)(1) of this 115686
section, the resolution may provide that all collections resulting 115687
from the rate levied in excess of three per cent, after deducting 115688
the real and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be 115689
deposited in the county general fund.115690

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115691
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 115692
of this section may, by resolution adopted on or before August 30, 115693
2004, by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 115694
provide that all or a portion of the proceeds of the tax levied 115695
under division (A)(1) of this section, after deducting the real 115696
and actual costs of administering the tax and the amounts required 115697
to be returned to townships and municipal corporations with 115698
respect to the first three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 115699
of this section, shall be deposited in the county general fund, 115700
provided that such proceeds shall be used to satisfy any pledges 115701
made in connection with an agreement entered into under section 115702
307.695 of the Revised Code.115703

       (5) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 115704
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 115705
(H) of this section shall be contributed to a convention 115706
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity created after 115707
July 1, 2003, for the principal purpose of constructing, 115708
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 115709
convention center unless the mayor of the municipal corporation in 115710
which the convention center is to be operated by that convention 115711
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity has consented 115712
to the creation of that convention facilities authority, 115713
corporation, or entity. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 115714
section 351.04 of the Revised Code, if a tax is levied by a county 115715
under division (H) of this section, the board of county 115716
commissioners of that county may determine the manner of 115717
selection, the qualifications, the number, and terms of office of 115718
the members of the board of directors of any convention facilities 115719
authority, corporation, or other entity described in division 115720
(H)(5) of this section.115721

       (6)(a) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 115722
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 115723
(H) of this section may be used for any purpose other than paying 115724
the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 115725
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center 115726
and for the real and actual costs of administering the tax, 115727
unless, prior to the adoption of the resolution of the legislative 115728
authority of the county authorizing the levy, extension, increase, 115729
or deposit, the county and the mayor of the most populous 115730
municipal corporation in that county have entered into an 115731
agreement as to the use of such amounts, provided that such 115732
agreement has been approved by a majority of the mayors of the 115733
other municipal corporations in that county. The agreement shall 115734
provide that the amounts to be used for purposes other than paying 115735
the convention center or administrative costs described in 115736
division (H)(6)(a) of this section be used only for the direct and 115737
indirect costs of capital improvements, including the financing of 115738
capital improvements.115739

       (b) If the county in which the tax is levied has an 115740
association of mayors and city managers, the approval of that 115741
association of an agreement described in division (H)(6)(a) of 115742
this section shall be considered to be the approval of the 115743
majority of the mayors of the other municipal corporations for 115744
purposes of that division.115745

       (7) Each year, the auditor of state shall conduct an audit of 115746
the uses of any amounts collected from taxes levied, extended, or 115747
deposited under division (H) of this section and shall prepare a 115748
report of the auditor of state's findings. The auditor of state 115749
shall submit the report to the legislative authority of the county 115750
that has levied, extended, or deposited the tax, the speaker of 115751
the house of representatives, the president of the senate, and the 115752
leaders of the minority parties of the house of representatives 115753
and the senate.115754

       (I)(1) As used in this division:115755

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 115756
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.115757

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 115758
307.695 of the Revised Code.115759

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 115760
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 115761
population of one million two hundred thousand or more according 115762
to the most recent federal decennial census or the most recent 115763
annual population estimate published or released by the United 115764
States census bureau at the time the resolution is adopted placing 115765
the levy on the ballot, that has levied a tax under division (D) 115766
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 115767
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 115768
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 115769
extent that the proceeds are no longer needed for their original 115770
purpose as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under 115771
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and after deducting the real 115772
and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be used for 115773
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 115774
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center. 115775
The resolution shall provide for the extension of the tax at a 115776
rate not to exceed the rate specified in division (D) of this 115777
section for a period of time determined by the legislative 115778
authority of the county, but not to exceed an additional forty 115779
years.115780

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115781
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 115782
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 115783
by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 115784
increase the rate of the tax levied by such county under division 115785
(A)(1) of this section to a rate not to exceed five per cent on 115786
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 115787
to transient guests. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 115788
division (A)(1) of this section, the resolution shall provide that 115789
all collections resulting from the rate levied in excess of three 115790
per cent, after deducting the real and actual costs of 115791
administering the tax, shall be used for paying the direct and 115792
indirect costs of constructing, improving, expanding, equipping, 115793
financing, or operating a convention center.115794

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115795
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 115796
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 115797
on or before July 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the 115798
legislative authority, provide that all or a portion of the 115799
proceeds of the tax levied under division (A)(1) of this section, 115800
after deducting the real and actual costs of administering the tax 115801
and the amounts required to be returned to townships and municipal 115802
corporations with respect to the first three per cent levied under 115803
division (A)(1) of this section, shall be used to satisfy any 115804
pledges made in connection with an agreement entered into under 115805
section 307.695 of the Revised Code or shall otherwise be used for 115806
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 115807
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center.115808

       (5) Any amount collected from a tax levied or extended under 115809
division (I) of this section may be contributed to a convention 115810
facilities authority created before July 1, 2005, but no amount 115811
collected from a tax levied or extended under division (I) of this 115812
section may be contributed to a convention facilities authority, 115813
corporation, or other entity created after July 1, 2005, unless 115814
the mayor of the municipal corporation in which the convention 115815
center is to be operated by that convention facilities authority, 115816
corporation, or other entity has consented to the creation of that 115817
convention facilities authority, corporation, or entity.115818

       (J) A board of commissioners of a county or board of trustees 115819
of a township may not adopt or amend a resolution levying a tax on 115820
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 115821
to transient guests pursuant to this section on or after October 115822
1, 2013, unless the board levies the tax on any transaction by 115823
which a transient guest obtains or will obtain lodging in a hotel 115824
using a hotel intermediary. The board shall levy the tax on any 115825
amount the purchaser pays to the hotel intermediary for the 115826
intermediary's services plus any amount paid for the furnishing of 115827
lodging in a hotel to the transient guest.115828

       The hotel intermediary shall collect and remit all tax paid 115829
by the purchaser to the county or township, as applicable, that 115830
levies the tax pursuant to this section. If the hotel intermediary 115831
does not collect or remit the full amount of tax, the hotel in 115832
which the transient guest will lodge shall attempt to collect and 115833
remit to the county or township, as applicable, the uncollected or 115834
unremitted tax.115835

       Sec. 5739.12. (A)(1) Each person who has or is required to 115836
have a vendor's license, on or before the twenty-third day of each 115837
month, shall make and file a return for the preceding month in the 115838
form prescribed by the tax commissioner, and shall pay the tax 115839
shown on the return to be due. The return shall be filed 115840
electronically using the Ohio business gateway, as defined in 115841
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, the Ohio telefile system, or 115842
any other electronic means prescribed by the commissioner. Payment 115843
of the tax shown on the return to be due shall be made 115844
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner. The 115845
commissioner may require a vendor that operates from multiple 115846
locations or has multiple vendor's licenses to report all tax 115847
liabilities on one consolidated return. The return shall show the 115848
amount of tax due from the vendor to the state for the period 115849
covered by the return and such other information as the 115850
commissioner deems necessary for the proper administration of this 115851
chapter. The commissioner may extend the time for making and 115852
filing returns and paying the tax, and may require that the return 115853
for the last month of any annual or semiannual period, as 115854
determined by the commissioner, be a reconciliation return 115855
detailing the vendor's sales activity for the preceding annual or 115856
semiannual period. The reconciliation return shall be filed by the 115857
last day of the month following the last month of the annual or 115858
semiannual period. The commissioner may remit all or any part of 115859
amounts or penalties that may become due under this chapter and 115860
may adopt rules relating thereto. Such return shall be filed 115861
electronically as directed by the tax commissioner, and payment of 115862
the amount of tax shown to be due thereon, after deduction of any 115863
discount provided for under this section, shall be made 115864
electronically in a manner approved by the tax commissioner.115865

       (2) Any person required to file returns and make payments 115866
electronically under division (A)(1) of this section may apply to 115867
the tax commissioner on a form prescribed by the commissioner to 115868
be excused from that requirement. For good cause shown, the 115869
commissioner may excuse the person from that requirement and may 115870
permit the person to file the returns and make the payments 115871
required by this section by nonelectronic means.115872

       (B)(1) If the return is filed and the amount of tax shown 115873
thereon to be due is paid on or before the date such return is 115874
required to be filed, the vendor shall be entitled to a discount 115875
of three-fourths of one per cent of the amount shown to be due on 115876
the return.115877

       (2) A vendor that has selected a certified service provider 115878
as its agent shall not be entitled to the discount if the 115879
certified service provider receives a monetary allowance pursuant 115880
to section 5739.06 of the Revised Code for performing the vendor's 115881
sales and use tax functions in this state. Amounts paid to the 115882
clerk of courts pursuant to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code 115883
shall be subject to the applicable discount. The discount shall be 115884
in consideration for prompt payment to the clerk of courts and for 115885
other services performed by the vendor in the collection of the 115886
tax.115887

       (C)(1) Upon application to the tax commissioner, a vendor who 115888
is required to file monthly returns may be relieved of the 115889
requirement to report and pay the actual tax due, provided that 115890
the vendor agrees to remit to the commissioner payment of not less 115891
than an amount determined by the commissioner to be the average 115892
monthly tax liability of the vendor, based upon a review of the 115893
returns or other information pertaining to such vendor for a 115894
period of not less than six months nor more than two years 115895
immediately preceding the filing of the application. Vendors who 115896
agree to the above conditions shall make and file an annual or 115897
semiannual reconciliation return, as prescribed by the 115898
commissioner. The reconciliation return shall be filed 115899
electronically as directed by the tax commissioner, and payment of 115900
the amount of tax shown to be due thereon, after deduction of any 115901
discount provided in this section, shall be made electronically in 115902
a manner approved by the commissioner. Failure of a vendor to 115903
comply with any of the above conditions may result in immediate 115904
reinstatement of the requirement of reporting and paying the 115905
actual tax liability on each monthly return, and the commissioner 115906
may at the commissioner's discretion deny the vendor the right to 115907
report and pay based upon the average monthly liability for a 115908
period not to exceed two years. The amount ascertained by the 115909
commissioner to be the average monthly tax liability of a vendor 115910
may be adjusted, based upon a review of the returns or other 115911
information pertaining to the vendor for a period of not less than 115912
six months nor more than two years preceding such adjustment.115913

       (2) The commissioner may authorize vendors whose tax 115914
liability is not such as to merit monthly returns, as ascertained 115915
by the commissioner upon the basis of administrative costs to the 115916
state, to make and file returns at less frequent intervals. When 115917
returns are filed at less frequent intervals in accordance with 115918
such authorization, the vendor shall be allowed the discount 115919
provided in this section in consideration for prompt payment with 115920
the return, provided the return is filed and payment is made of 115921
the amount of tax shown to be due thereon, at the time specified 115922
by the commissioner, but a vendor that has selected a certified 115923
service provider as its agent shall not be entitled to the 115924
discount.115925

       (D) Any vendor who fails to file a return or to pay the full 115926
amount of the tax shown on the return to be due in the manner 115927
prescribed under this section and the rules of the commissioner 115928
may, for each such return, be required to forfeit and pay into the 115929
state treasury an additional charge not exceeding fifty dollars or 115930
ten per cent of the tax required to be paid for the reporting 115931
period, whichever is greater, as revenue arising from the tax 115932
imposed by this chapter, and such sum may be collected by 115933
assessment in the manner provided in section 5739.13 of the 115934
Revised Code. The commissioner may remit all or a portion of the 115935
additional charge and may adopt rules relating to the imposition 115936
and remission of the additional charge.115937

       (E) If the amount required to be collected by a vendor from 115938
consumers is in excess of the applicable percentage of the 115939
vendor's receipts from sales that are taxable under section 115940
5739.02 of the Revised Code, or in the case of sales subject to a 115941
tax levied pursuant to section 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 115942
the Revised Code, in excess of the percentage equal to the 115943
aggregate rate of such taxes and the tax levied by section 5739.02 115944
of the Revised Code, such excess shall be remitted along with the 115945
remittance of the amount of tax due under section 5739.10 of the 115946
Revised Code.115947

       (F) The commissioner, if the commissioner deems it necessary 115948
in order to insure the payment of the tax imposed by this chapter, 115949
may require returns and payments to be made for other than monthly 115950
periods.115951

       (G) Any vendor required to file a return and pay the tax 115952
under this section whose total payment for a year equals or 115953
exceeds the amount shown in division (A) of section 5739.122 of 115954
the Revised Code is subject to the accelerated tax payment 115955
requirements in divisions (B) and (C) of that section. For a 115956
vendor that operates from multiple locations or has multiple 115957
vendor's licenses, in determining whether the vendor's total 115958
payment equals or exceeds the amount shown in division (A) of that 115959
section, the vendor's total payment amount shall be the amount of 115960
the vendor's total tax liability for the previous calendar year 115961
for all of the vendor's locations or licenses.115962

       (H) If a vendor that is a hotel intermediary does not collect 115963
and remit the full amount of tax due, the hotel in which the 115964
transient guest will lodge shall attempt to collect and remit any 115965
remaining amount of tax from the transient guest.115966

       Sec. 5739.13.  (A) If any vendor collects the tax imposed by 115967
or pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 115968
the Revised Code, and fails to remit the tax to the state as 115969
prescribed, or on the sale of a motor vehicle, watercraft, or 115970
outboard motor required to be titled, fails to remit payment to a 115971
clerk of a court of common pleas as provided in section 1548.06 or 115972
4505.06 of the Revised Code, the vendor shall be personally liable 115973
for any tax collected and not remitted. The tax commissioner may 115974
make an assessment against such vendor based upon any information 115975
in the commissioner's possession.115976

       If any vendor fails to collect the tax or any consumer fails 115977
to pay the tax imposed by or pursuant to section 5739.02, 115978
5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code, on any 115979
transaction subject to the tax, the vendor or consumer shall be 115980
personally liable for the amount of the tax applicable to the 115981
transaction. The commissioner may make an assessment against 115982
either the vendor or consumer, as the facts may require, based 115983
upon any information in the commissioner's possession.115984

       An assessment against a vendor when the tax imposed by or 115985
pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 115986
the Revised Code has not been collected or paid, shall not 115987
discharge the purchaser's or consumer's liability to reimburse the 115988
vendor for the tax applicable to such transaction.115989

       An assessment issued against either, pursuant to this 115990
section, shall not be considered an election of remedies, nor a 115991
bar to an assessment against the other for the tax applicable to 115992
the same transaction, provided that no assessment shall be issued 115993
against any person for the tax due on a particular transaction if 115994
the tax on that transaction actually has been paid by another.115995

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any vendor 115996
who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of tax 115997
required by this chapter, or against any consumer who fails to pay 115998
the proper amount of tax required by this chapter. When 115999
information in the possession of the commissioner indicates that 116000
the amount required to be collected or paid under this chapter is 116001
greater than the amount remitted by the vendor or paid by the 116002
consumer, the commissioner may audit a sample of the vendor's 116003
sales or the consumer's purchases for a representative period, to 116004
ascertain the per cent of exempt or taxable transactions or the 116005
effective tax rate and may issue an assessment based on the audit. 116006
The commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 116007
with the vendor or consumer in selecting a representative sample.116008

       The commissioner may make an assessment, based on any 116009
information in histhe commissioner's possession, against any 116010
person who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of 116011
tax required by section 5739.102 of the Revised Code.116012

       The commissioner may issue an assessment on any transaction 116013
for which any tax imposed under this chapter or Chapter 5741. of 116014
the Revised Code was due and unpaid on the date the vendor or 116015
consumer was informed by an agent of the tax commissioner of an 116016
investigation or audit. If the vendor or consumer remits any 116017
payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment after 116018
the vendor or consumer was informed of the investigation or audit, 116019
the payment shall be credited against the amount of the 116020
assessment.116021

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 116022
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 116023
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 116024
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 116025
hearing on the petition.116026

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 116027
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 116028
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 116029
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 116030
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 116031
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due from the 116032
party assessed and payable to the treasurer of state and remitted 116033
to the tax commissioner. The petition shall indicate the 116034
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 116035
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 116036
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 116037
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 116038
5703.60 of the Revised Code.116039

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 116040
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 116041
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 116042
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 116043
in the county in which the place of business of the party assessed 116044
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 116045
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 116046
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 116047
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 116048
common pleas of Franklin county.116049

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 116050
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 116051
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 116052
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state, 116053
county, and transit authority retail sales tax" or, if 116054
appropriate, "special judgments for resort area excise tax," and 116055
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 116056
issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, 116057
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 116058
made under the judgment except as otherwise provided in this 116059
chapter.116060

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety116061
within sixty days after the date the assessment was issued, the 116062
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 116063
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 116064
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 116065
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 116066
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 116067
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 116068
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 116069
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 116070
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 116071
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 116072
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 116073
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.116074

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 116075
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 116076
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 116077
or pursuant to sections 5739.01 to 5739.31 of the Revised Code.116078

       Sec. 5741.01.  As used in this chapter:116079

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 116080
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 116081
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 116082
societies, corporations, business trusts, governments, and 116083
combinations of individuals of any form.116084

       (B) "Storage" means and includes any keeping or retention in 116085
this state for use or other consumption in this state.116086

       (C) "Use" means and includes the exercise of any right or 116087
power incidental to the ownership of the thing used. A thing is 116088
also "used" in this state if its consumer gives or otherwise 116089
distributes it, without charge, to recipients in this state.116090

       (D) "Purchase" means acquired or received for a 116091
consideration, whether such acquisition or receipt was effected by 116092
a transfer of title, or of possession, or of both, or a license to 116093
use or consume; whether such transfer was absolute or conditional, 116094
and by whatever means the transfer was effected; and whether the 116095
consideration was money, credit, barter, or exchange. Purchase 116096
includes production, even though the article produced was used, 116097
stored, or consumed by the producer. The transfer of copyrighted 116098
motion picture films for exhibition purposes is not a purchase, 116099
except such films as are used solely for advertising purposes.116100

       (E) "Seller" means the person from whom a purchase is made, 116101
and includes every person engaged in this state or elsewhere in 116102
the business of selling tangible personal property or providing a 116103
service for storage, use, or other consumption or benefit in this 116104
state; and when, in the opinion of the tax commissioner, it is 116105
necessary for the efficient administration of this chapter, to 116106
regard any salesmansalesperson, representative, peddler, or 116107
canvasser as the agent of a dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 116108
employer under whom the person operates, or from whom the person 116109
obtains tangible personal property, sold by the person for 116110
storage, use, or other consumption in this state, irrespective of 116111
whether or not the person is making such sales on the person's own 116112
behalf, or on behalf of such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 116113
employer, the commissioner may regard the person as such agent, 116114
and may regard such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or employer 116115
as the seller. "Seller" does not include any person to the extent 116116
the person provides a communications medium, such as, but not 116117
limited to, newspapers, magazines, radio, television, or cable 116118
television, by means of which sellers solicit purchases of their 116119
goods or services.116120

       (F) "Consumer" means any person who has purchased tangible 116121
personal property or has been provided a service for storage, use, 116122
or other consumption or benefit in this state. "Consumer" does not 116123
include a person who receives, without charge, tangible personal 116124
property or a service.116125

       A person who performs a facility management or similar 116126
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 116127
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 116128
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 116129
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 116130
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 116131
under division (E) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.116132

       (G)(1) "Price," except as provided in divisions (G)(2) to (6) 116133
of this section, has the same meaning as in division (H)(1) of 116134
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.116135

       (2) In the case of watercraft, outboard motors, or new motor 116136
vehicles, "price" has the same meaning as in divisions (H)(2) and 116137
(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.116138

       (3) In the case of a nonresident business consumer that 116139
purchases and uses tangible personal property outside this state 116140
and subsequently temporarily stores, uses, or otherwise consumes 116141
such tangible personal property in the conduct of business in this 116142
state, the consumer or the tax commissioner may determine the 116143
price based on the value of the temporary storage, use, or other 116144
consumption, in lieu of determining the price pursuant to division 116145
(G)(1) of this section. A price determination made by the consumer 116146
is subject to review and redetermination by the commissioner.116147

       (4) In the case of tangible personal property held in this 116148
state as inventory for sale or lease, and that is temporarily 116149
stored, used, or otherwise consumed in a taxable manner, the price 116150
is the value of the temporary use. A price determination made by 116151
the consumer is subject to review and redetermination by the 116152
commissioner.116153

       (5) In the case of tangible personal property originally 116154
purchased and used by the consumer outside this state, and that 116155
becomes permanently stored, used, or otherwise consumed in this 116156
state more than six months after its acquisition by the consumer, 116157
the consumer or the commissioner may determine the price based on 116158
the current value of such tangible personal property, in lieu of 116159
determining the price pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section. 116160
A price determination made by the consumer is subject to review 116161
and redetermination by the commissioner.116162

       (6) If a consumer produces tangible personal property for 116163
sale and removes that property from inventory for the consumer's 116164
own use, the price is the produced cost of that tangible personal 116165
property.116166

       (H) "Nexus with this state" means that the seller engages in 116167
continuous and widespread solicitation of purchases from residents 116168
of this state or otherwise purposefully directs its business 116169
activities at residents of this state.116170

       (I)(1) "Substantial nexus with this state" means that the 116171
seller has sufficient contact with this state, in accordance with 116172
Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United States, 116173
to allow the state to require the seller to collect and remit use 116174
tax on sales of tangible personal property or services made to 116175
consumers in this state. "Substantial116176

       (2) "Substantial nexus with this state" existsis presumed to 116177
exist when the seller does any of the following:116178

       (1) Maintains a(a) Uses an office, distribution facility, 116179
warehouse, storage facility, or similar place of business within 116180
this state, whether operated by employees or agents of the seller, 116181
by a member of an affiliated group, as defined in division 116182
(B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, of which the 116183
seller is a member, or by a franchisee using a trade name of the 116184
seller;or any other person, other than a common carrier acting in 116185
its capacity as a common carrier.116186

       (2)(b) Regularly hasuses employees, agents, representatives, 116187
solicitors, installers, repairmenrepairers, salesmen116188
salespersons, or other individualspersons in this state (i) for 116189
the purpose of conducting the business of the seller;, or that 116190
(ii) engage in a business with the same or a similar industry 116191
classification as the seller selling a similar product or line of 116192
products as the seller, or (iii) use trademarks, service marks, or 116193
trade names in this state that are the same or substantially 116194
similar to those used by the seller.116195

       (3)(c) Uses aany person, other than a common carrier acting 116196
in its capacity as a common carrier, in this state for any of the 116197
purpose of receivingfollowing purposes:116198

       (i) Receiving or processing orders of the seller's goods or 116199
services;116200

       (ii) Using that person's employees or facilities in this 116201
state to advertise, promote, or facilitate sales by the seller to 116202
customers; 116203

       (iii) Delivering, installing, assembling, or performing 116204
maintenance services for the seller's customers;116205

       (iv) Facilitating the seller's delivery of tangible personal 116206
property to customers in this state by allowing the seller's 116207
customers to pick up property sold by the seller at an office, 116208
distribution facility, warehouse, storage facility, or similar 116209
place of business.116210

       (4)(d) Makes regular deliveries of tangible personal property 116211
into this state by means other than common carrier;.116212

       (5) Has membership in an affiliated group, as described in 116213
division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, at 116214
least one other member of which has substantial nexus with this 116215
state;116216

       (6)(e) Owns tangible personal property that is rented or 116217
leased to a consumer in this state, or offers tangible personal 116218
property, on approval, to consumers in this state;.116219

       (7) Except as provided in section 5703.65 of the Revised 116220
Code, is registered with the secretary of state to do business in 116221
this state or is registered or licensed by any state agency, 116222
board, or commission to transact business in this state or to make 116223
sales to persons in this state;116224

       (8) Has any other contact with this state that would allow 116225
this state to require the seller to collect and remit use tax 116226
under Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United 116227
States(f) Is a hotel intermediary that furnishes lodging in 116228
hotels located in this state to transient guests.116229

       (g) Enters into an agreement with one or more residents of 116230
this state under which the resident, for a commission or other 116231
consideration, directly or indirectly refers potential customers 116232
to the seller, whether by a link on a web site, an in-person oral 116233
presentation, telemarketing, or otherwise, provided the cumulative 116234
gross receipts from sales to consumers referred to the seller by 116235
all such residents exceeded ten thousand dollars during the 116236
preceding twelve months.116237

       (3) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 116238
state under divisions (I)(2)(a) to (f) of this section may rebut 116239
that presumption by demonstrating that activities described in any 116240
of those divisions that are conducted by a person in this state on 116241
the seller's behalf are not significantly associated with the 116242
seller's ability to establish or maintain a market in this state 116243
for the seller's sales.116244

       (4) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 116245
state under division (I)(2)(g) of this section may rebut that 116246
presumption by submitting proof that each resident engaged by the 116247
seller as described in that division did not engage in any 116248
activity within this state during the preceding twelve months that 116249
was significantly associated with the seller's ability to 116250
establish or maintain the seller's market in this state during the 116251
preceding twelve months. Such proof may consist of sworn written 116252
statements from all the residents with whom the seller has an 116253
agreement stating that the resident did not engage in any 116254
solicitation in this state on behalf of the seller during the 116255
preceding twelve months if such statements are provided and 116256
obtained in good faith.116257

       (5) A seller that does not have substantial nexus with this 116258
state, and any affiliated person of the seller, before selling or 116259
leasing tangible personal property or services to a state agency, 116260
shall register with the tax commissioner in the same manner as a 116261
seller described in division (A)(1) of section 5741.17 of the 116262
Revised Code.116263

       (6) As used in division (I) of this section:116264

       (a) "Affiliated person" means any person that is a member of 116265
the same controlled group of corporations as the seller or any 116266
other person that, notwithstanding the form of organization, bears 116267
the same ownership relationship to the seller as a corporation 116268
that is a member of the same controlled group of corporations.116269

       (b) "Controlled group of corporations" has the same meaning 116270
as in section 1536(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.116271

       (c) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 of 116272
the Revised Code.116273

       (J) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 116274
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 116275
respect to a county which is a transit authority, the fiscal 116276
officer of the county transit board appointed pursuant to section 116277
306.03 of the Revised Code or, if the board of county 116278
commissioners operates the county transit system, the county 116279
auditor.116280

       (K) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 116281
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 116282
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 116283
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 116284
county or all the area of the most populous county which is a part 116285
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 116286
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.116287

       (L) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 116288
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 116289
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 116290
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 116291
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 116292
single county. A transit authority which includes territory in 116293
more than one county must include all the area of the most 116294
populous county which is a part of such transit authority. County 116295
population shall be measured by the most recent census taken by 116296
the United States census bureau.116297

       (M) "Providing a service" has the same meaning as in division 116298
(X) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.116299

       (N) "Other consumption" includes receiving the benefits of a 116300
service.116301

       (O) "Lease" or "rental" has the same meaning as in division 116302
(UU) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.116303

       (P) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 116304
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.116305

       (Q) "Hotel intermediary," "hotel," and "transient guest" have 116306
the same meanings as in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.116307

       (R) "Remote sale" means a sale for which the seller could not 116308
be legally required to pay, collect, or remit a tax imposed under 116309
this chapter or Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code, unless 116310
otherwise provided by the laws of the United States.116311

       (S) "Remote seller" means a seller that makes remote sales to 116312
one or more consumers.116313

       (T) "Remote small seller" means a remote seller that has 116314
gross annual receipts from remote sales in the United States not 116315
exceeding one million dollars for the preceding calendar year. For 116316
the purposes of determining whether a person is a small remote 116317
seller, the sales of all persons related within the meaning of 116318
subsection (b) or (c) of section 267 or section 707(b)(1) of the 116319
Internal Revenue Code shall be aggregated, and persons with one or 116320
more ownership relationships shall be aggregated if those 116321
relationships were designed with the principal purpose to qualify 116322
as a remote small seller.116323

       Sec. 5741.03.  (A) One hundred per cent of all money 116324
deposited into the state treasury under sections 5741.01 to 116325
5741.22 of the Revised Code that is not required to be distributed 116326
as provided in division (B) of this section shall be credited to 116327
the general revenue fund.116328

       (B) In any case where any county or transit authority has 116329
levied a tax or taxes pursuant to section 5741.021, 5741.022, or 116330
5741.023 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall, within 116331
forty-five days after the end of each month, determine and certify 116332
to the director of budget and management the amount of the 116333
proceeds of such tax or taxes from billings and assessments 116334
received during that month, or shown on tax returns or reports 116335
filed during that month, to be returned to the county or transit 116336
authority levying the tax or taxes, which amounts shall be 116337
determined in the manner provided in section 5739.21 of the 116338
Revised Code. The director of budget and management shall 116339
transfer, from the general revenue fund, to the permissive tax 116340
distribution fund created by division (B)(1) of section 4301.423 116341
of the Revised Code and to the local sales tax administrative fund 116342
created by division (C) of section 5739.21 of the Revised Code, 116343
the amounts certified by the tax commissioner. The tax 116344
commissioner shall then, on or before the twentieth day of the 116345
month in which such certification is made, provide for payment of 116346
such respective amounts to the county treasurer or to the fiscal 116347
officer of the transit authority levying the tax or taxes. The 116348
amount transferred to the local sales tax administrative fund is 116349
for use by the tax commissioner in defraying costs the 116350
commissioner incurs in administering such taxes levied by a county 116351
or transit authority.116352

       (C) Within forty-five days after the end of each month, the 116353
tax commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of 116354
budget and management the amount of tax collected under this 116355
chapter from remote sellers during the preceding month, reduced by 116356
any refunds issued to remote sellers from the tax refund fund 116357
created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code, and the director 116358
of budget and management shall transfer the amount so certified 116359
from the general revenue fund to the income tax reduction fund. 116360
Amounts transferred to the income tax reduction fund under this 116361
section shall be included in the determination of the percentage 116362
under division (B)(2) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code.116363

       Sec. 5741.032.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 116364
the remote seller administration fund for the purpose of paying 116365
the expenses incurred by the department of taxation in the 116366
administration of this chapter with respect to remote sellers. 116367
Annually, before the thirty-first day of July, the treasurer of 116368
state shall transfer to the remote seller administration fund 116369
one-half of one per cent of the taxes collected from remote 116370
sellers under this chapter during the preceding fiscal year.116371

       Sec. 5741.12.  (A) Each seller required by section 5741.17 of 116372
the Revised Code to register with the tax commissioner, and any 116373
seller authorized by the commissioner to collect the tax imposed 116374
by or pursuant to section 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, or 5741.023 116375
of the Revised Code is subject to the same requirements and 116376
entitled to the same deductions and discount for prompt payments 116377
as are vendors under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code, and the 116378
same monetary allowances as are vendors under section 5739.06 of 116379
the Revised Code. The powers and duties of the commissioner with 116380
respect to returns and tax remittances under this section shall be 116381
identical with those prescribed in section 5739.12 of the Revised 116382
Code.116383

       (B) Every person storing, using, or consuming tangible 116384
personal property or receiving the benefit of a service, the 116385
storage, use, consumption, or receipt of which is subject to the 116386
tax imposed by or pursuant to section 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, 116387
or 5741.023 of the Revised Code, when such tax was not paid to a 116388
seller, shall, on or before the twenty-third day of each month, 116389
file with the tax commissioner a return for the preceding month in 116390
such form as is prescribed by the commissioner, showing such 116391
information as the commissioner deems necessary, and shall pay the 116392
tax shown on the return to be due. Remittance shall be made 116393
payable to the treasurer of state. The commissioner may require 116394
consumers to file returns and pay the tax at other than monthly 116395
intervals, if the commissioner determines that such filing is 116396
necessary for the efficient administration of the tax. If the 116397
commissioner determines that a consumer's tax liability is not 116398
such as to merit monthly filing, the commissioner may authorize 116399
the consumer to file returns and pay tax at less frequent 116400
intervals.116401

       Any consumer required to file a return and pay the tax under 116402
this section whose payment for any year equals or exceeds the 116403
amount shown in division (A) of section 5741.121 of the Revised 116404
Code is subject to the accelerated tax payment requirements in 116405
divisions (B) and (C) of that section.116406

       (C) Every person storing, using, or consuming a motor 116407
vehicle, watercraft, or outboard motor, the ownership of which 116408
must be evidenced by certificate of title, shall file the return 116409
required by this section and pay the tax due at or prior to the 116410
time of filing an application for certificate of title.116411

       (D) If a seller that is a hotel intermediary does not collect 116412
and remit the full amount of tax due, the hotel in which the 116413
transient guest will lodge shall attempt to collect and remit any 116414
remaining amount of tax from the transient guest.116415

       Sec. 5741.17.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 116416
divisions (A)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, every seller of 116417
tangible personal property or services who has substantial nexus 116418
with this state shall register with the tax commissioner and 116419
supply any information concerning histhe seller's contacts with 116420
this state that may be required by the commissioner.116421

       (2) A seller who is licensed as a vendor pursuant to section 116422
5739.17 of the Revised Code shall not be required to register with 116423
the commissioner pursuant to this section if all sales to 116424
consumers in this state are made under the authority of histhe 116425
seller's vendor's license.116426

       (3) AUnless the seller has substantial nexus with this state 116427
pursuant to division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of the Revised 116428
Code, a seller is not required to register under this section if 116429
the seller has no contact with this state other than an agency 116430
relationship with a person engaged in the business of 116431
telemarketing in this state and engaged by the seller exclusively 116432
for the purpose of solicitation of customers in other states.116433

       (4) A seller is not required to register under this section 116434
if the seller has no contact with this state other than the 116435
ownership of property that is located at the facility of a printer 116436
with which the seller has contracted for printing and that 116437
consists of the final printed product, property that becomes a 116438
part of the final printed product, or copy from which the final 116439
printed product is produced.116440

       (B) A seller who does not have substantial nexus with this 116441
state may voluntarily register with the commissioner. A seller who 116442
voluntarily registers with the commissioner under this section is 116443
entitled to the same benefits and is subject to the same duties 116444
and requirements as a seller required to be registered with the 116445
commissioner under this chapter.116446

       The commissioner shall maintain an alphabetical index of all 116447
sellers registered under this chapter and records of the use tax 116448
reported and paid. Upon request, this information shall be made 116449
available to the treasurer of state.116450

       (C) A remote small seller is not required to register under 116451
this section.116452

       Sec. 5743.081.  (A) If any wholesale dealer or retail dealer 116453
fails to pay the tax levied under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 116454
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code as required by sections 116455
5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code, and by the rules of the 116456
tax commissioner, or fails to collect the tax from the purchaser 116457
or consumer, the commissioner may make an assessment against the 116458
wholesale or retail dealer based upon any information in the 116459
commissioner's possession.116460

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any wholesale 116461
or retail dealer who fails to file a return required by section 116462
5743.03 or 5743.025 of the Revised Code.116463

       No assessment shall be made against any wholesale or retail 116464
dealer for any taxes imposed under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 116465
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code more than three years 116466
after the last day of the calendar month that immediately follows 116467
the semiannual period prescribed in section 5743.03 of the Revised 116468
Code in which the sale was made, or more than three years after 116469
the semiannual return for such period is filed, whichever is 116470
later. This section does not bar an assessment against any 116471
wholesale or retail dealer who fails to file a return as required 116472
by section 5743.025 or 5743.03 of the Revised Code, or who files a 116473
fraudulent return.116474

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 116475
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 116476
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 116477
penalties added to assessments made under this section.116478

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 116479
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 116480
Revised Code. The notice shall specify separately any portion of 116481
the assessment that represents a county tax. With the notice, the 116482
commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 116483
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.116484

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 116485
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 116486
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 116487
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 116488
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 116489
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 116490
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 116491
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 116492
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 116493
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 116494
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 116495
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.116496

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 116497
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 116498
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 116499
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 116500
pleas in the county in which the wholesale or retail dealer's 116501
place of business is located or the county in which the party 116502
assessed resides. If the party assessed maintains no place of 116503
business in this state and is not a resident of this state, the 116504
certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office of the 116505
clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.116506

       Immediately upon the filing of the commissioner's entry, the 116507
clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the party 116508
assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be 116509
filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special 116510
judgments for state cigarette sales tax," and shall have the same 116511
effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment 116512
upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable 116513
to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under the 116514
judgment, except as otherwise provided in sections 5743.01 to 116515
5743.20 of the Revised Code.116516

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety116517
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 116518
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 116519
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 116520
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 116521
paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 116522
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 116523
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 116524
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 116525
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 116526
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 116527
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 116528
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 116529
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.116530

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 116531
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 116532
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 116533
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.116534

       Sec. 5743.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 116535
division, no person shall engage in this state in the wholesale or 116536
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes or in the business of 116537
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes without having a license 116538
to conduct each such activity issued by a county auditor under 116539
division (B) of this section or the tax commissioner under 116540
divisions (C) and (F) of this section. On dissolution of a 116541
partnership by death, the surviving partner may operate under the 116542
license of the partnership until expiration of the license, and 116543
the heirs or legal representatives of deceased persons, and 116544
receivers and trustees in bankruptcy appointed by any competent 116545
authority, may operate under the license of the person succeeded 116546
in possession by such heir, representative, receiver, or trustee 116547
in bankruptcy if the partner or successor notifies the issuer of 116548
the license of the dissolution or succession within thirty days 116549
after the dissolution or succession.116550

       (B)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the retail 116551
business of trafficking in cigarettes under this section, 116552
annually, on or before the fourth Monday of May, shall make and 116553
deliver to the county auditor of the county in which the applicant 116554
desires to engage in the retail business of trafficking in 116555
cigarettes, upon a blank form furnished by such auditor for that 116556
purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, each 116557
physical place in the county where the applicant's business is 116558
conducted, the nature of the business, and any other information 116559
the tax commissioner requires in the form of statement prescribed 116560
by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, partnership, or 116561
association other than a corporation, the application shall state 116562
the name and address of each of its members. If the applicant is a 116563
corporation, the application shall state the name and address of 116564
each of its officers. At the time of making the application 116565
required by this section, every person desiring to engage in the 116566
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an 116567
application fee in the sum of one hundred twenty-five dollars for 116568
each physical place where the person proposes to carry on such 116569
business. Each place of business shall be deemed such space, under 116570
lease or license to, or under the control of, or under the 116571
supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or more 116572
contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 116573
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 116574
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 116575
halls, stairways, or elevators, which space may contain any number 116576
of points at which cigarettes are offered for sale, provided that 116577
each additional point at which cigarettes are offered for sale 116578
shall be listed in the application.116579

        (2) Upon receipt of the application and exhibition of the 116580
county treasurer's receipt showing the payment of the application 116581
fee, the county auditor shall issue to the applicant a license for 116582
each place of business designated in the application, authorizing 116583
the applicant to engage in such business at such place for one 116584
year commencing on the fourth Monday of May. The form of the 116585
license shall be prescribed by the commissioner. A duplicate 116586
license may be obtained from the county auditor upon payment of a 116587
five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, or 116588
defaced. When an application is filed after the fourth Monday of 116589
May, the application fee required to be paid shall be proportioned 116590
in amount to the remainder of the license year, except that it 116591
shall not be less than twenty-five dollars in any one year.116592

       (3) The holder of a retail dealer's cigarette license may 116593
transfer the license to a place of business within the same county 116594
other than that designated on the license on condition that the 116595
licensee's ownership interest and business structure remain 116596
unchanged, and that the licensee applies to the county auditor 116597
therefor, upon forms approved by the commissioner and the payment 116598
of a fee of five dollars into the county treasury.116599

       (C)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the 116600
wholesale business of trafficking in cigarettes under this 116601
section, annually, on or before the fourth Monday in May, shall 116602
make and deliver to the tax commissioner, upon a blank form 116603
furnished by the commissioner for that purpose, a statement 116604
showing the name of the applicant, physical street address where 116605
the applicant's business is conducted, the nature of the business, 116606
and any other information required by the commissioner. If the 116607
applicant is a firm, partnership, or association other than a 116608
corporation, the applicant shall state the name and address of 116609
each of its members. If the applicant is a corporation, the 116610
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its 116611
officers. At the time of making the application required by this 116612
section, every person desiring to engage in the wholesale business 116613
of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an application fee of one 116614
thousand dollars for each physical place where the person proposes 116615
to carry on such business. Each place of business shall be deemed 116616
such space, under lease or license to, or under the control of, or 116617
under the supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or 116618
more contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 116619
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 116620
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 116621
halls, stairways, or elevators. A duplicate license may be 116622
obtained from the commissioner upon payment of a 116623
twenty-five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, 116624
or defaced.116625

       (2) Upon receipt of the application and payment of any 116626
application fee required by this section, the commissioner shall 116627
verify that the applicant is in good standing undernot in 116628
violation of any provision of Chapter 1346. andor Title LVII of 116629
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall also verify that the 116630
applicant has filed any returns, submitted any information, and 116631
paid any outstanding taxes or fees as required by the 116632
commissioner, to the extent that the commissioner is aware of the 116633
returns, information, taxes, or fees at the time of the 116634
application. Upon approval, the commissioner shall issue to the 116635
applicant a license for each physical place of business designated 116636
in the application authorizing the applicant to engage in business 116637
at that location for one year commencing on the fourth Monday in 116638
May. For licenses issued after the fourth Monday in May, the 116639
application fee shall be reduced proportionately by the remainder 116640
of the twelve-month period for which the license is issued, except 116641
that the application fee required to be paid under this section 116642
shall be not less than two hundred dollars in any one year.116643

       (3) The holder of a wholesale dealer cigarette license may 116644
transfer the license to a place of business other than that 116645
designated on the license on condition that the licensee's 116646
ownership or business structure remains unchanged, and that the 116647
licensee applies to the commissioner for such a transfer upon a 116648
form promulgated by the commissioner and pays a fee of twenty-five 116649
dollars, which shall be deposited into the cigarette tax 116650
enforcement fund created in division (E) of this section.116651

       (D)(1) The wholesale cigarette license application fees 116652
collected under this section shall be paid into the cigarette tax 116653
enforcement fund.116654

       (2) The retail cigarette license application fees collected 116655
under this section shall be distributed as follows:116656

       (a) Thirty per cent shall be paid upon the warrant of the 116657
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 116658
township in which the places of business for which the tax revenue 116659
was received are located;116660

       (b) Ten per cent shall be credited to the general fund of the 116661
county;116662

       (c) Sixty per cent shall be paid into the cigarette tax 116663
enforcement fund.116664

       (3) The remainder of the revenues and fines collected under 116665
this section and the penal laws relating to cigarettes shall be 116666
distributed as follows:116667

       (a) Three-fourths shall be paid upon the warrant of the 116668
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 116669
township in which the place of business, on account of which the 116670
revenues and fines were received, is located;116671

       (b) One-fourth shall be credited to the general fund of the 116672
county.116673

       (E) There is hereby created within the state treasury the 116674
cigarette tax enforcement fund for the purpose of providing funds 116675
to assist in paying the costs of enforcing sections 1333.11 to 116676
1333.21 and Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code.116677

       The portion of cigarette license application fees received by 116678
a county auditor during the annual application period that ends on 116679
the fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in 116680
the cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer 116681
of state by the thirtieth day of June each year accompanied by the 116682
form prescribed by the tax commissioner. The portion of cigarette 116683
license application fees received by each county auditor after the 116684
fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in the 116685
cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer of 116686
state by the last day of the month following the month in which 116687
such fees were collected.116688

       (F)(1) Every person who desires to engage in the business of 116689
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes shall, annually, on or 116690
before the fourth Monday of May, make and deliver to the tax 116691
commissioner, upon a blank form furnished by the commissioner for 116692
that purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, the 116693
nature of the applicant's business, and any other information 116694
required by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, 116695
partnership, or association other than a corporation, the 116696
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its members. 116697
If the applicant is a corporation, the applicant shall state the 116698
name and address of each of its officers.116699

       (2) Upon receipt of the application required under this 116700
section, the commissioner shall verify that the applicant is in 116701
good standing undernot in violation of any provision of Chapter 116702
1346. andor Title LVII of the Revised Code. The commissioner 116703
shall also verify that the applicant has filed any returns, 116704
submitted any information, and paid any outstanding taxes or fees 116705
as required by the commissioner, to the extent that the 116706
commissioner is aware of the returns, information, taxes, or fees 116707
at the time of the application. Upon approval, the commissioner 116708
shall issue to the applicant a license authorizing the applicant 116709
to engage in the business of manufacturer or importer, whichever 116710
the case may be, for one year commencing on the fourth Monday of 116711
May.116712

       (3) The issuing of a license under division (F)(1) of this 116713
section to a manufacturer does not excuse a manufacturer from the 116714
certification process required under section 1346.05 of the 116715
Revised Code. A manufacturer who is issued a license under 116716
division (F)(1) of this section and who is not listed on the 116717
directory required under section 1346.05 of the Revised Code shall 116718
not be permitted to sell cigarettes in this state other than to a 116719
licensed cigarette wholesaler for sale outside this state. Such a 116720
manufacturer shall provide documentation to the commissioner 116721
evidencing that the cigarettes are legal for sale in another 116722
state.116723

       (G) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 116724
administer this section.116725

       Sec. 5743.56.  (A) Any person required to pay the tax imposed 116726
by section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code is 116727
personally liable for the tax. The tax commissioner may make an 116728
assessment, based upon any information in the commissioner's 116729
possession, against any person who fails to file a return or pay 116730
any tax, interest, or additional charge as required by this 116731
chapter. The commissioner shall give the person assessed written 116732
notice of such assessment in the manner provided in section 116733
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 116734
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 116735
request a hearing on the petition.116736

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 116737
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by 116738
section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code has not 116739
paid the full amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a 116740
representative sample of the person's business and may issue an 116741
assessment based on such audit.116742

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 116743
amounts assessed under this section. The tax commissioner may 116744
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of such 116745
penalties.116746

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 116747
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 116748
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 116749
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 116750
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 116751
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 116752
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 116753
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 116754
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 116755
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 116756
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 116757
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.116758

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 116759
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 116760
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 116761
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 116762
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 116763
resides or in which the person assessed conducts business. If the 116764
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 116765
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 116766
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 116767
pleas of Franklin county.116768

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 116769
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 116770
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 116771
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tobacco 116772
products tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 116773
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 116774
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 116775
apply to sales made under the judgment.116776

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety116777
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 116778
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 116779
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 116780
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 116781
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 116782
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 116783
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 116784
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 116785
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 116786
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 116787
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 116788
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 116789
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.116790

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 116791
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 116792
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 116793
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 116794
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 116795
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 116796
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 116797
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 116798
on the person assessed or the legal representative of the person 116799
assessed, as provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, 116800
within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The 116801
total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the 116802
person assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance 116803
with division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 116804
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 116805
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 116806
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 116807
consideration of the petition for reassessment.116808

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 116809
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 116810
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.51, 5743.62, and 5743.63 of 116811
the Revised Code.116812

       Sec. 5745.12.  (A) If any taxpayer required to file a report 116813
under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 116814
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 116815
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 116816
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the taxpayer for 116817
any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is due, 116818
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.116819

       The tax commissioner shall not make or issue an assessment 116820
against a taxpayer more than three years after the later of the 116821
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 116822
filed or the date the report was filed. Such time limit may be 116823
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 116824
writing to the extension. Any such extension shall extend the 116825
three-year time limit in section 5745.11 of the Revised Code for 116826
the same period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an 116827
assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a report subject 116828
to assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a 116829
fraudulent report. The commissioner shall give the taxpayer 116830
assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in section 116831
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 116832
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 116833
request a hearing on the petition.116834

       (B) Unless the taxpayer assessed files with the tax 116835
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 116836
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 116837
petition for reassessment signed by the authorized agent of the 116838
taxpayer assessed having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 116839
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 116840
from the taxpayer to the treasurer of state. The petition shall 116841
indicate the taxpayer's objections, but additional objections may 116842
be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 116843
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 116844
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 116845
5703.60 of the Revised Code.116846

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 116847
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 116848
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 116849
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 116850
pleas in the county in which the taxpayer has an office or place 116851
of business in this state, the county in which the taxpayer's 116852
statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.116853

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 116854
enter a judgment against the taxpayer assessed in the amount shown 116855
on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 116856
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for municipal income 116857
taxes," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 116858
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 116859
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 116860
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.116861

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 116862
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 116863
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 116864
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 116865
of the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 116866
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 116867
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 116868
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 116869
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 116870
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 116871
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 116872
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 116873
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 116874
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.116875

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be credited 116876
and distributed to the municipal corporation to which the money is 116877
owed based on the assessment issued under this section.116878

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 116879
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 116880
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 116881
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 116882
the taxpayer liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 116883
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 116884
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 116885
division (C) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 116886
shall be served on the taxpayer assessed or the taxpayer's legal 116887
representative in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 116888
Revised Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the 116889
clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, 116890
unless the taxpayer assessed files a petition for reassessment in 116891
accordance with division (B) of this section and provides security 116892
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 116893
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 116894
or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 116895
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.116896

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 116897
is pending, the taxpayer may pay all or a portion of the 116898
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 116899
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 116900
for refund upon final determination of the petition.116901

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 116902
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 116903
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 116904
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 116905
that the amount due from the taxpayer under the corrected 116906
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 116907
the taxpayer, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in the 116908
amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5745.11 of the 116909
Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by section 116910
5745.11 of the Revised Code.116911

       Sec. 5747.01.  Except as otherwise expressly provided or 116912
clearly appearing from the context, any term used in this chapter 116913
that is not otherwise defined in this section has the same meaning 116914
as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United 116915
States relating to federal income taxes or if not used in a 116916
comparable context in those laws, has the same meaning as in 116917
section 5733.40 of the Revised Code. Any reference in this chapter 116918
to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United 116919
States relating to federal income taxes.116920

       As used in this chapter:116921

       (A) "Adjusted gross income" or "Ohio adjusted gross income" 116922
means federal adjusted gross income, as defined and used in the 116923
Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as provided in this section:116924

       (1) Add interest or dividends on obligations or securities of 116925
any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any 116926
state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities.116927

       (2) Add interest or dividends on obligations of any 116928
authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession 116929
of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends 116930
are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income 116931
taxes.116932

       (3) Deduct interest or dividends on obligations of the United 116933
States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, 116934
commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent 116935
that the interest or dividends are included in federal adjusted 116936
gross income but exempt from state income taxes under the laws of 116937
the United States.116938

       (4) Deduct disability and survivor's benefits to the extent 116939
included in federal adjusted gross income.116940

       (5) Deduct benefits under Title II of the Social Security Act 116941
and tier 1 railroad retirement benefits to the extent included in 116942
federal adjusted gross income under section 86 of the Internal 116943
Revenue Code.116944

       (6) In the case of a taxpayer who is a beneficiary of a trust 116945
that makes an accumulation distribution as defined in section 665 116946
of the Internal Revenue Code, add, for the beneficiary's taxable 116947
years beginning before 2002, the portion, if any, of such 116948
distribution that does not exceed the undistributed net income of 116949
the trust for the three taxable years preceding the taxable year 116950
in which the distribution is made to the extent that the portion 116951
was not included in the trust's taxable income for any of the 116952
trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 116953
"Undistributed net income of a trust" means the taxable income of 116954
the trust increased by (a)(i) the additions to adjusted gross 116955
income required under division (A) of this section and (ii) the 116956
personal exemptions allowed to the trust pursuant to section 116957
642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and decreased by (b)(i) the 116958
deductions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of 116959
this section, (ii) the amount of federal income taxes attributable 116960
to such income, and (iii) the amount of taxable income that has 116961
been included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary by 116962
reason of a prior accumulation distribution. Any undistributed net 116963
income included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary 116964
shall reduce the undistributed net income of the trust commencing 116965
with the earliest years of the accumulation period.116966

       (7) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 116967
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 116968
allowable as a deduction in computing federal adjusted gross 116969
income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed 116970
and determined under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal 116971
Revenue Code not been in effect.116972

       (8) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent on public 116973
obligations and purchase obligations to the extent that the 116974
interest or interest equivalent is included in federal adjusted 116975
gross income.116976

       (9) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from the sale, 116977
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 116978
that the loss has been deducted or the gain has been included in 116979
computing federal adjusted gross income.116980

       (10) Deduct or add amounts, as provided under section 5747.70 116981
of the Revised Code, related to contributions to variable college 116982
savings program accounts made or tuition units purchased pursuant 116983
to Chapter 3334. of the Revised Code.116984

       (11)(a) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 116985
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 116986
income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during 116987
the taxable year for medical care insurance and qualified 116988
long-term care insurance for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, 116989
and dependents. No deduction for medical care insurance under 116990
division (A)(11) of this section shall be allowed either to any 116991
taxpayer who is eligible to participate in any subsidized health 116992
plan maintained by any employer of the taxpayer or of the 116993
taxpayer's spouse, or to any taxpayer who is entitled to, or on 116994
application would be entitled to, benefits under part A of Title 116995
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 116996
301, as amended. For the purposes of division (A)(11)(a) of this 116997
section, "subsidized health plan" means a health plan for which 116998
the employer pays any portion of the plan's cost. The deduction 116999
allowed under division (A)(11)(a) of this section shall be the net 117000
of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or 117001
related insurance premium dividends received during the taxable 117002
year.117003

       (b) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117004
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income during the 117005
taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable 117006
year, not compensated for by any insurance or otherwise, for 117007
medical care of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and 117008
dependents, to the extent the expenses exceed seven and one-half 117009
per cent of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.117010

       (c) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117011
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income, any amount 117012
included in federal adjusted gross income under section 105 or not 117013
excluded under section 106 of the Internal Revenue Code solely 117014
because it relates to an accident and health plan for a person who 117015
otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" 117016
under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact 117017
that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations 117018
under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code. 117019

       (d) For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, 117020
"medical care" has the meaning given in section 213 of the 117021
Internal Revenue Code, subject to the special rules, limitations, 117022
and exclusions set forth therein, and "qualified long-term care" 117023
has the same meaning given in section 7702B(c) of the Internal 117024
Revenue Code. Solely for purposes of divisions (A)(11)(a) and (c) 117025
of this section, "dependent" includes a person who otherwise would 117026
be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 117027
152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person 117028
fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 117029
152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.117030

       (12)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal adjusted gross 117031
income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or 117032
refund of expenses that in any year the taxpayer had deducted as 117033
an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal 117034
Revenue Code and applicable United States department of the 117035
treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under 117036
division (A)(12)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent 117037
the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer 117038
deducted under this section in any taxable year.117039

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted 117040
gross income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 117041
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 117042
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 117043
income in any taxable year.117044

       (13) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 117045
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 117046
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 117047
of the following requirements:117048

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 117049
included in the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a prior 117050
taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) 117051
or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year;117052

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's adjusted 117053
gross income for the current or any other taxable year.117054

       (14) Deduct an amount equal to the deposits made to, and net 117055
investment earnings of, a medical savings account during the 117056
taxable year, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised 117057
Code. The deduction allowed by division (A)(14) of this section 117058
does not apply to medical savings account deposits and earnings 117059
otherwise deducted or excluded for the current or any other 117060
taxable year from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.117061

       (15)(a) Add an amount equal to the funds withdrawn from a 117062
medical savings account during the taxable year, and the net 117063
investment earnings on those funds, when the funds withdrawn were 117064
used for any purpose other than to reimburse an account holder 117065
for, or to pay, eligible medical expenses, in accordance with 117066
section 3924.66 of the Revised Code;117067

       (b) Add the amounts distributed from a medical savings 117068
account under division (A)(2) of section 3924.68 of the Revised 117069
Code during the taxable year.117070

       (16) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 117071
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that such 117072
amount satisfies either of the following:117073

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 117074
of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be 117075
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 117076
Revenue Code;117077

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction of the taxpayer's 117078
federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for any 117079
of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.117080

       (17) Deduct the amount contributed by the taxpayer to an 117081
individual development account program established by a county 117082
department of job and family services pursuant to sections 329.11 117083
to 329.14 of the Revised Code for the purpose of matching funds 117084
deposited by program participants. On request of the tax 117085
commissioner, the taxpayer shall provide any information that, in 117086
the tax commissioner's opinion, is necessary to establish the 117087
amount deducted under division (A)(17) of this section.117088

       (18) Beginning in taxable year 2001 but not for any taxable 117089
year beginning after December 31, 2005, if the taxpayer is married 117090
and files a joint return and the combined federal adjusted gross 117091
income of the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse for the taxable 117092
year does not exceed one hundred thousand dollars, or if the 117093
taxpayer is single and has a federal adjusted gross income for the 117094
taxable year not exceeding fifty thousand dollars, deduct amounts 117095
paid during the taxable year for qualified tuition and fees paid 117096
to an eligible institution for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 117097
spouse, or any dependent of the taxpayer, who is a resident of 117098
this state and is enrolled in or attending a program that 117099
culminates in a degree or diploma at an eligible institution. The 117100
deduction may be claimed only to the extent that qualified tuition 117101
and fees are not otherwise deducted or excluded for any taxable 117102
year from federal or Ohio adjusted gross income. The deduction may 117103
not be claimed for educational expenses for which the taxpayer 117104
claims a credit under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code.117105

       (19) Add any reimbursement received during the taxable year 117106
of any amount the taxpayer deducted under division (A)(18) of this 117107
section in any previous taxable year to the extent the amount is 117108
not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income.117109

       (20)(a)(i) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and 117110
(v) of this section, add five-sixths of the amount of depreciation 117111
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 117112
Revenue Code, including the taxpayer's proportionate or 117113
distributive share of the amount of depreciation expense allowed 117114
by that subsection to a pass-through entity in which the taxpayer 117115
has a direct or indirect ownership interest.117116

       (ii) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and (v) of 117117
this section, add five-sixths of the amount of qualifying section 117118
179 depreciation expense, including the taxpayer's proportionate 117119
or distributive share of the amount of qualifying section 179 117120
depreciation expense allowed to any pass-through entity in which 117121
the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest. 117122

       (iii) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 117123
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, if the increase in 117124
income taxes withheld by the taxpayer is equal to or greater than 117125
ten per cent of income taxes withheld by the taxpayer during the 117126
taxpayer's immediately preceding taxable year, "two-thirds" shall 117127
be substituted for "five-sixths" for the purpose of divisions 117128
(A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.117129

       (iv) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 117130
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, a taxpayer is not 117131
required to add an amount under division (A)(20) of this section 117132
if the increase in income taxes withheld by the taxpayer and by 117133
any pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or 117134
indirect ownership interest is equal to or greater than the sum of 117135
(I) the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense and 117136
(II) the amount of depreciation expense allowed to the taxpayer by 117137
subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, and 117138
including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive shares of 117139
such amounts allowed to any such pass-through entities.117140

       (v) If a taxpayer directly or indirectly incurs a net 117141
operating loss for the taxable year for federal income tax 117142
purposes, to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation 117143
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 117144
Revenue Code and by qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, 117145
"the entire" shall be substituted for "five-sixths of the" for the 117146
purpose of divisions (A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.117147

       The tax commissioner, under procedures established by the 117148
commissioner, may waive the add-backs related to a pass-through 117149
entity if the taxpayer owns, directly or indirectly, less than 117150
five per cent of the pass-through entity.117151

       (b) Nothing in division (A)(20) of this section shall be 117152
construed to adjust or modify the adjusted basis of any asset.117153

       (c) To the extent the add-back required under division 117154
(A)(20)(a) of this section is attributable to property generating 117155
nonbusiness income or loss allocated under section 5747.20 of the 117156
Revised Code, the add-back shall be sitused to the same location 117157
as the nonbusiness income or loss generated by the property for 117158
the purpose of determining the credit under division (A) of 117159
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Otherwise, the add-back shall 117160
be apportioned, subject to one or more of the four alternative 117161
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 117162
Revised Code.117163

       (d) For the purposes of division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this 117164
section, net operating loss carryback and carryforward shall not 117165
include the allowance of any net operating loss deduction 117166
carryback or carryforward to the taxable year to the extent such 117167
loss resulted from depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the 117168
Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 117169
depreciation expense amount.117170

       (e) For the purposes of divisions (A)(20) and (21) of this 117171
section:117172

        (i) "Income taxes withheld" means the total amount withheld 117173
and remitted under sections 5747.06 and 5747.07 of the Revised 117174
Code by an employer during the employer's taxable year.117175

        (ii) "Increase in income taxes withheld" means the amount by 117176
which the amount of income taxes withheld by an employer during 117177
the employer's current taxable year exceeds the amount of income 117178
taxes withheld by that employer during the employer's immediately 117179
preceding taxable year.117180

        (iii) "Qualifying section 179 depreciation expense" means the 117181
difference between (I) the amount of depreciation expense directly 117182
or indirectly allowed to a taxpayer under section 179 of the 117183
Internal Revised Code, and (II) the amount of depreciation expense 117184
directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 117185
of the Internal Revenue Code as that section existed on December 117186
31, 2002.117187

       (21)(a) If the taxpayer was required to add an amount under 117188
division (A)(20)(a) of this section for a taxable year, deduct one 117189
of the following:117190

       (i) One-fifth of the amount so added for each of the five 117191
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was five-sixths of 117192
qualifying section 179 depreciation expense or depreciation 117193
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 117194
Revenue Code;117195

       (ii) One-half of the amount so added for each of the two 117196
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was two-thirds of 117197
such depreciation expense;117198

       (iii) One-sixth of the amount so added for each of the six 117199
succeeding taxable years if the entire amount of such depreciation 117200
expense was so added.117201

       (b) If the amount deducted under division (A)(21)(a) of this 117202
section is attributable to an add-back allocated under division 117203
(A)(20)(c) of this section, the amount deducted shall be sitused 117204
to the same location. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned 117205
using the apportionment factors for the taxable year in which the 117206
deduction is taken, subject to one or more of the four alternative 117207
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 117208
Revised Code.117209

       (c) No deduction is available under division (A)(21)(a) of 117210
this section with regard to any depreciation allowed by section 117211
168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 117212
179 depreciation expense amount to the extent that such 117213
depreciation results in or increases a federal net operating loss 117214
carryback or carryforward. If no such deduction is available for a 117215
taxable year, the taxpayer may carry forward the amount not 117216
deducted in such taxable year to the next taxable year and add 117217
that amount to any deduction otherwise available under division 117218
(A)(21)(a) of this section for that next taxable year. The 117219
carryforward of amounts not so deducted shall continue until the 117220
entire addition required by division (A)(20)(a) of this section 117221
has been deducted.117222

        (d) No refund shall be allowed as a result of adjustments 117223
made by division (A)(21) of this section.117224

       (22) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117225
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117226
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 117227
reimbursement for life insurance premiums under section 5919.31 of 117228
the Revised Code.117229

        (23) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117230
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117231
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 117232
a death benefit paid by the adjutant general under section 5919.33 117233
of the Revised Code.117234

       (24) Deduct, to the extent included in federal adjusted gross 117235
income and not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in 117236
computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117237
year, military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer during 117238
the taxable year for active duty service in the United States 117239
army, air force, navy, marine corps, or coast guard or reserve 117240
components thereof or the national guard. The deduction may not be 117241
claimed for military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer 117242
while the taxpayer is stationed in this state.117243

       (25) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 117244
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 117245
income for the taxable year and not otherwise compensated for by 117246
any other source, the amount of qualified organ donation expenses 117247
incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year, not to exceed 117248
ten thousand dollars. A taxpayer may deduct qualified organ 117249
donation expenses only once for all taxable years beginning with 117250
taxable years beginning in 2007.117251

       For the purposes of division (A)(25) of this section:117252

        (a) "Human organ" means all or any portion of a human liver, 117253
pancreas, kidney, intestine, or lung, and any portion of human 117254
bone marrow.117255

        (b) "Qualified organ donation expenses" means travel 117256
expenses, lodging expenses, and wages and salary forgone by a 117257
taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer's donation, while living, 117258
of one or more of the taxpayer's human organs to another human 117259
being.117260

       (26) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117261
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117262
year, amounts received by the taxpayer as retired military117263
personnel pay for service in the United States army, navy, air 117264
force, coast guard, or marine corpsuniformed services or reserve 117265
components thereof, or the national guard, or received by the 117266
surviving spouse or former spouse of such a taxpayer under the 117267
survivor benefit plan on account of such a taxpayer's death. If 117268
the taxpayer receives income on account of retirement paid under 117269
the federal civil service retirement system or federal employees 117270
retirement system, or under any successor retirement program 117271
enacted by the congress of the United States that is established 117272
and maintained for retired employees of the United States 117273
government, and such retirement income is based, in whole or in 117274
part, on credit for the taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, the 117275
deduction allowed under this division shall include only that 117276
portion of such retirement income that is attributable to the 117277
taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, to the extent that portion 117278
of such retirement income is otherwise included in federal 117279
adjusted gross income and is not otherwise deducted under this 117280
section. Any amount deducted under division (A)(26) of this 117281
section is not included in a taxpayer's adjusted gross income for 117282
the purposes of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code. No amount 117283
may be deducted under division (A)(26) of this section on the 117284
basis of which a credit was claimed under section 5747.055 of the 117285
Revised Code.117286

       (27) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117287
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117288
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year 117289
from the military injury relief fund created in section 5101.98 of 117290
the Revised Code.117291

       (28) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117292
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117293
year, the amount the taxpayer received as a veterans bonus during 117294
the taxable year from the Ohio department of veterans services as 117295
authorized by Section 2r of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.117296

       (29) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117297
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117298
year, any loss from wagering transactions that is allowed as an 117299
itemized deduction under section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code 117300
and that the taxpayer deducted in computing federal taxable 117301
income.117302

       (30) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117303
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117304
year, any income derived from a transfer agreement or from the 117305
enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 117306
of the Revised Code.117307

       (31) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 117308
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 117309
year, Ohio college opportunity or federal Pell grant amounts 117310
received by the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse or dependent 117311
pursuant to section 3333.122 of the Revised Code or 20 U.S.C. 117312
1070a, et seq., and used to pay room or board furnished by the 117313
educational institution for which the grant was awarded at the 117314
institution's facilities, including meal plans administered by the 117315
institution. For the purposes of this division, receipt of a grant 117316
includes the distribution of a grant directly to an educational 117317
institution and the crediting of the grant to the enrollee's 117318
account with the institution.117319

       (B) "Business income" means income, including gain or loss, 117320
arising from transactions, activities, and sources in the regular 117321
course of a trade or business and includes income, gain, or loss 117322
from real property, tangible property, and intangible property if 117323
the acquisition, rental, management, and disposition of the 117324
property constitute integral parts of the regular course of a 117325
trade or business operation. "Business income" includes income, 117326
including gain or loss, from a partial or complete liquidation of 117327
a business, including, but not limited to, gain or loss from the 117328
sale or other disposition of goodwill.117329

       (C) "Nonbusiness income" means all income other than business 117330
income and may include, but is not limited to, compensation, rents 117331
and royalties from real or tangible personal property, capital 117332
gains, interest, dividends and distributions, patent or copyright 117333
royalties, or lottery winnings, prizes, and awards.117334

       (D) "Compensation" means any form of remuneration paid to an 117335
employee for personal services.117336

       (E) "Fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, executor, 117337
administrator, receiver, conservator, or any other person acting 117338
in any fiduciary capacity for any individual, trust, or estate.117339

       (F) "Fiscal year" means an accounting period of twelve months 117340
ending on the last day of any month other than December.117341

       (G) "Individual" means any natural person.117342

       (H) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 117343
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.117344

       (I) "Resident" means any of the following, provided that 117345
division (I)(3) of this section applies only to taxable years of a 117346
trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter:117347

       (1) An individual who is domiciled in this state, subject to 117348
section 5747.24 of the Revised Code;117349

       (2) The estate of a decedent who at the time of death was 117350
domiciled in this state. The domicile tests of section 5747.24 of 117351
the Revised Code are not controlling for purposes of division 117352
(I)(2) of this section.117353

       (3) A trust that, in whole or part, resides in this state. If 117354
only part of a trust resides in this state, the trust is a 117355
resident only with respect to that part.117356

       For the purposes of division (I)(3) of this section:117357

       (a) A trust resides in this state for the trust's current 117358
taxable year to the extent, as described in division (I)(3)(d) of 117359
this section, that the trust consists directly or indirectly, in 117360
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 117361
were transferred, or caused to be transferred, directly or 117362
indirectly, to the trust by any of the following:117363

        (i) A person, a court, or a governmental entity or 117364
instrumentality on account of the death of a decedent, but only if 117365
the trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) or (ii) of this 117366
section;117367

       (ii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 117368
purposes of this chapter when the person directly or indirectly 117369
transferred assets to an irrevocable trust, but only if at least 117370
one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this 117371
state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion 117372
of the trust's current taxable year;117373

       (iii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 117374
purposes of this chapter when the trust document or instrument or 117375
part of the trust document or instrument became irrevocable, but 117376
only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is a 117377
resident domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter 117378
during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year. If 117379
a trust document or instrument became irrevocable upon the death 117380
of a person who at the time of death was domiciled in this state 117381
for purposes of this chapter, that person is a person described in 117382
division (I)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.117383

        (b) A trust is irrevocable to the extent that the transferor 117384
is not considered to be the owner of the net assets of the trust 117385
under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code.117386

       (c) With respect to a trust other than a charitable lead 117387
trust, "qualifying beneficiary" has the same meaning as "potential 117388
current beneficiary" as defined in section 1361(e)(2) of the 117389
Internal Revenue Code, and with respect to a charitable lead trust 117390
"qualifying beneficiary" is any current, future, or contingent 117391
beneficiary, but with respect to any trust "qualifying 117392
beneficiary" excludes a person or a governmental entity or 117393
instrumentality to any of which a contribution would qualify for 117394
the charitable deduction under section 170 of the Internal Revenue 117395
Code.117396

        (d) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a) of this section, 117397
the extent to which a trust consists directly or indirectly, in 117398
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 117399
were transferred directly or indirectly, in whole or part, to the 117400
trust by any of the sources enumerated in that division shall be 117401
ascertained by multiplying the fair market value of the trust's 117402
assets, net of related liabilities, by the qualifying ratio, which 117403
shall be computed as follows:117404

        (i) The first time the trust receives assets, the numerator 117405
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of those assets 117406
at that time, net of any related liabilities, from sources 117407
enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator 117408
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the 117409
trust's assets at that time, net of any related liabilities.117410

        (ii) Each subsequent time the trust receives assets, a 117411
revised qualifying ratio shall be computed. The numerator of the 117412
revised qualifying ratio is the sum of (1) the fair market value 117413
of the trust's assets immediately prior to the subsequent 117414
transfer, net of any related liabilities, multiplied by the 117415
qualifying ratio last computed without regard to the subsequent 117416
transfer, and (2) the fair market value of the subsequently 117417
transferred assets at the time transferred, net of any related 117418
liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this 117419
section. The denominator of the revised qualifying ratio is the 117420
fair market value of all the trust's assets immediately after the 117421
subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities.117422

       (iii) Whether a transfer to the trust is by or from any of 117423
the sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section shall 117424
be ascertained without regard to the domicile of the trust's 117425
beneficiaries.117426

        (e) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a)(i) of this 117427
section:117428

        (i) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) of this 117429
section if the trust is a testamentary trust and the testator of 117430
that testamentary trust was domiciled in this state at the time of 117431
the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under 117432
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.117433

        (ii) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 117434
section if the transfer is a qualifying transfer described in any 117435
of divisions (I)(3)(f)(i) to (vi) of this section, the trust is an 117436
irrevocable inter vivos trust, and at least one of the trust's 117437
qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for purposes 117438
of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current 117439
taxable year.117440

        (f) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 117441
section, a "qualifying transfer" is a transfer of assets, net of 117442
any related liabilities, directly or indirectly to a trust, if the 117443
transfer is described in any of the following:117444

        (i) The transfer is made to a trust, created by the decedent 117445
before the decedent's death and while the decedent was domiciled 117446
in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and, prior to the 117447
death of the decedent, the trust became irrevocable while the 117448
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 117449
chapter.117450

        (ii) The transfer is made to a trust to which the decedent, 117451
prior to the decedent's death, had directly or indirectly 117452
transferred assets, net of any related liabilities, while the 117453
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 117454
chapter, and prior to the death of the decedent the trust became 117455
irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the 117456
purposes of this chapter.117457

        (iii) The transfer is made on account of a contractual 117458
relationship existing directly or indirectly between the 117459
transferor and either the decedent or the estate of the decedent 117460
at any time prior to the date of the decedent's death, and the 117461
decedent was domiciled in this state at the time of death for 117462
purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 117463
Code.117464

        (iv) The transfer is made to a trust on account of a 117465
contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between 117466
the transferor and another person who at the time of the 117467
decedent's death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this 117468
chapter.117469

        (v) The transfer is made to a trust on account of the will of 117470
a testator who was domiciled in this state at the time of the 117471
testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 117472
5731. of the Revised Code.117473

        (vi) The transfer is made to a trust created by or caused to 117474
be created by a court, and the trust was directly or indirectly 117475
created in connection with or as a result of the death of an 117476
individual who, for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 117477
5731. of the Revised Code, was domiciled in this state at the time 117478
of the individual's death.117479

       (g) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to ascertain the 117480
part of a trust residing in this state.117481

       (J) "Nonresident" means an individual or estate that is not a 117482
resident. An individual who is a resident for only part of a 117483
taxable year is a nonresident for the remainder of that taxable 117484
year.117485

       (K) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 117486
5733.04 of the Revised Code.117487

       (L) "Return" means the notifications and reports required to 117488
be filed pursuant to this chapter for the purpose of reporting the 117489
tax due and includes declarations of estimated tax when so 117490
required.117491

       (M) "Taxable year" means the calendar year or the taxpayer's 117492
fiscal year ending during the calendar year, or fractional part 117493
thereof, upon which the adjusted gross income is calculated 117494
pursuant to this chapter.117495

       (N) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the tax imposed by 117496
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code or any pass-through entity 117497
that makes the election under division (D) of section 5747.08 of 117498
the Revised Code.117499

       (O) "Dependents" means dependents as defined in the Internal 117500
Revenue Code and as claimed in the taxpayer's federal income tax 117501
return for the taxable year or which the taxpayer would have been 117502
permitted to claim had the taxpayer filed a federal income tax 117503
return.117504

       (P) "Principal county of employment" means, in the case of a 117505
nonresident, the county within the state in which a taxpayer 117506
performs services for an employer or, if those services are 117507
performed in more than one county, the county in which the major 117508
portion of the services are performed.117509

       (Q) As used in sections 5747.50 to 5747.55 of the Revised 117510
Code:117511

       (1) "Subdivision" means any county, municipal corporation, 117512
park district, or township.117513

       (2) "Essential local government purposes" includes all 117514
functions that any subdivision is required by general law to 117515
exercise, including like functions that are exercised under a 117516
charter adopted pursuant to the Ohio Constitution.117517

       (R) "Overpayment" means any amount already paid that exceeds 117518
the figure determined to be the correct amount of the tax.117519

       (S) "Taxable income" or "Ohio taxable income" applies only to 117520
estates and trusts, and means federal taxable income, as defined 117521
and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:117522

       (1) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 117523
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 117524
income, on obligations or securities of any state or of any 117525
political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this 117526
state and its subdivisions and authorities, but only to the extent 117527
that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable 117528
income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of 117529
this section:117530

        (a) The net amount is not attributable to the S portion of an 117531
electing small business trust and has not been distributed to 117532
beneficiaries for the taxable year;117533

        (b) The net amount is attributable to the S portion of an 117534
electing small business trust for the taxable year.117535

       (2) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 117536
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 117537
income, on obligations of any authority, commission, 117538
instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to 117539
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal 117540
income taxes but not from state income taxes, but only to the 117541
extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio 117542
taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or 117543
(b) of this section;117544

       (3) Add the amount of personal exemption allowed to the 117545
estate pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code;117546

       (4) Deduct interest or dividends, net of related expenses 117547
deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of 117548
the United States and its territories and possessions or of any 117549
authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to 117550
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from state 117551
taxes under the laws of the United States, but only to the extent 117552
that such amount is included in federal taxable income and is 117553
described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;117554

       (5) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 117555
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 117556
allowable as a deduction in computing federal taxable income for 117557
the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed under 117558
sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in 117559
effect, but only to the extent such amount relates either to 117560
income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or 117561
to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for 117562
the taxable year;117563

       (6) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent, net of 117564
related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on 117565
public obligations and purchase obligations, but only to the 117566
extent that such net amount relates either to income included in 117567
federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S 117568
portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;117569

       (7) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from sale, 117570
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 117571
that such loss has been deducted or such gain has been included in 117572
computing either federal taxable income or income of the S portion 117573
of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;117574

       (8) Except in the case of the final return of an estate, add 117575
any amount deducted by the taxpayer on both its Ohio estate tax 117576
return pursuant to section 5731.14 of the Revised Code, and on its 117577
federal income tax return in determining federal taxable income;117578

       (9)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal taxable income 117579
solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of 117580
expenses that in a previous year the decedent had deducted as an 117581
itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue 117582
Code and applicable treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise 117583
allowed under division (S)(9)(a) of this section shall be reduced 117584
to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the 117585
taxpayer or decedent deducted under this section in any taxable 117586
year.117587

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio taxable 117588
income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 117589
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 117590
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio taxable income 117591
in any taxable year, but only to the extent such amount has not 117592
been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year.117593

       (10) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 117594
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 117595
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 117596
of the following requirements:117597

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 117598
included in the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's 117599
adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify 117600
for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the 117601
Revised Code for that year.117602

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's taxable 117603
income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for the current or 117604
any other taxable year.117605

       (11) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 117606
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 117607
amount satisfies either of the following:117608

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 117609
of the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be 117610
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 117611
Revenue Code;117612

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction in the taxpayer's 117613
federal taxable income as required to be reported for any of the 117614
taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.117615

       (12) Deduct any amount, net of related expenses deducted in 117616
computing federal taxable income, that a trust is required to 117617
report as farm income on its federal income tax return, but only 117618
if the assets of the trust include at least ten acres of land 117619
satisfying the definition of "land devoted exclusively to 117620
agricultural use" under section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, 117621
regardless of whether the land is valued for tax purposes as such 117622
land under sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code. If the 117623
trust is a pass-through entity investor, section 5747.231 of the 117624
Revised Code applies in ascertaining if the trust is eligible to 117625
claim the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section 117626
in connection with the pass-through entity's farm income.117627

        Except for farm income attributable to the S portion of an 117628
electing small business trust, the deduction provided by division 117629
(S)(12) of this section is allowed only to the extent that the 117630
trust has not distributed such farm income. Division (S)(12) of 117631
this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 117632
2002 or thereafter.117633

       (13) Add the net amount of income described in section 641(c) 117634
of the Internal Revenue Code to the extent that amount is not 117635
included in federal taxable income.117636

       (14) Add or deduct the amount the taxpayer would be required 117637
to add or deduct under division (A)(20) or (21) of this section if 117638
the taxpayer's Ohio taxable income were computed in the same 117639
manner as an individual's Ohio adjusted gross income is computed 117640
under this section. In the case of a trust, division (S)(14) of 117641
this section applies only to any of the trust's taxable years 117642
beginning in 2002 or thereafter.117643

       (T) "School district income" and "school district income tax" 117644
have the same meanings as in section 5748.01 of the Revised Code.117645

       (U) As used in divisions (A)(8), (A)(9), (S)(6), and (S)(7) 117646
of this section, "public obligations," "purchase obligations," and 117647
"interest or interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in 117648
section 5709.76 of the Revised Code.117649

       (V) "Limited liability company" means any limited liability 117650
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code or under 117651
the laws of any other state.117652

       (W) "Pass-through entity investor" means any person who, 117653
during any portion of a taxable year of a pass-through entity, is 117654
a partner, member, shareholder, or equity investor in that 117655
pass-through entity.117656

       (X) "Banking day" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 117657
of the Revised Code.117658

       (Y) "Month" means a calendar month.117659

       (Z) "Quarter" means the first three months, the second three 117660
months, the third three months, or the last three months of the 117661
taxpayer's taxable year.117662

       (AA)(1) "Eligible institution" means a state university or 117663
state institution of higher education as defined in section 117664
3345.011 of the Revised Code, or a private, nonprofit college, 117665
university, or other post-secondary institution located in this 117666
state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the 117667
Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised 117668
Code or a certificate of registration issued by the state board of 117669
career colleges and schools under Chapter 3332. of the Revised 117670
Code.117671

       (2) "Qualified tuition and fees" means tuition and fees 117672
imposed by an eligible institution as a condition of enrollment or 117673
attendance, not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars in 117674
each of the individual's first two years of post-secondary 117675
education. If the individual is a part-time student, "qualified 117676
tuition and fees" includes tuition and fees paid for the academic 117677
equivalent of the first two years of post-secondary education 117678
during a maximum of five taxable years, not exceeding a total of 117679
five thousand dollars. "Qualified tuition and fees" does not 117680
include:117681

       (a) Expenses for any course or activity involving sports, 117682
games, or hobbies unless the course or activity is part of the 117683
individual's degree or diploma program;117684

       (b) The cost of books, room and board, student activity fees, 117685
athletic fees, insurance expenses, or other expenses unrelated to 117686
the individual's academic course of instruction;117687

       (c) Tuition, fees, or other expenses paid or reimbursed 117688
through an employer, scholarship, grant in aid, or other 117689
educational benefit program.117690

       (BB)(1) "Modified business income" means the business income 117691
included in a trust's Ohio taxable income after such taxable 117692
income is first reduced by the qualifying trust amount, if any.117693

       (2) "Qualifying trust amount" of a trust means capital gains 117694
and losses from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity 117695
or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, a qualifying 117696
investee to the extent included in the trust's Ohio taxable 117697
income, but only if the following requirements are satisfied:117698

        (a) The book value of the qualifying investee's physical 117699
assets in this state and everywhere, as of the last day of the 117700
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 117701
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 117702
is available to the trust.117703

       (b) The requirements of section 5747.011 of the Revised Code 117704
are satisfied for the trust's taxable year in which the trust 117705
recognizes the gain or loss.117706

        Any gain or loss that is not a qualifying trust amount is 117707
modified business income, qualifying investment income, or 117708
modified nonbusiness income, as the case may be.117709

       (3) "Modified nonbusiness income" means a trust's Ohio 117710
taxable income other than modified business income, other than the 117711
qualifying trust amount, and other than qualifying investment 117712
income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, to the 117713
extent such qualifying investment income is not otherwise part of 117714
modified business income.117715

       (4) "Modified Ohio taxable income" applies only to trusts, 117716
and means the sum of the amounts described in divisions (BB)(4)(a) 117717
to (c) of this section:117718

       (a) The fraction, calculated under section 5747.013, and 117719
applying section 5747.231 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the 117720
sum of the following amounts:117721

        (i) The trust's modified business income;117722

        (ii) The trust's qualifying investment income, as defined in 117723
section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent the 117724
qualifying investment income does not otherwise constitute 117725
modified business income and does not otherwise constitute a 117726
qualifying trust amount.117727

       (b) The qualifying trust amount multiplied by a fraction, the 117728
numerator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying 117729
investee's physical assets in this state on the last day of the 117730
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 117731
prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying 117732
trust amount, and the denominator of which is the sum of the book 117733
value of the qualifying investee's total physical assets 117734
everywhere on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or 117735
calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the 117736
trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount. If, for a taxable 117737
year, the trust recognizes a qualifying trust amount with respect 117738
to more than one qualifying investee, the amount described in 117739
division (BB)(4)(b) of this section shall equal the sum of the 117740
products so computed for each such qualifying investee.117741

       (c)(i) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 117742
a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of 117743
this section, its modified nonbusiness income.117744

        (ii) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 117745
not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division 117746
(I)(3)(d) of this section, the amount of its modified nonbusiness 117747
income satisfying the descriptions in divisions (B)(2) to (5) of 117748
section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided 117749
in division (BB)(4)(c)(ii) of this section. With respect to a 117750
trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained 117751
in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the trust's 117752
portion of modified nonbusiness income recognized from the sale, 117753
exchange, or other disposition of a debt interest in or equity 117754
interest in a section 5747.212 entity, as defined in section 117755
5747.212 of the Revised Code, without regard to division (A) of 117756
that section, shall not be allocated to this state in accordance 117757
with section 5747.20 of the Revised Code but shall be apportioned 117758
to this state in accordance with division (B) of section 5747.212 117759
of the Revised Code without regard to division (A) of that 117760
section.117761

       If the allocation and apportionment of a trust's income under 117762
divisions (BB)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not fairly 117763
represent the modified Ohio taxable income of the trust in this 117764
state, the alternative methods described in division (C) of 117765
section 5747.21 of the Revised Code may be applied in the manner 117766
and to the same extent provided in that section.117767

       (5)(a) Except as set forth in division (BB)(5)(b) of this 117768
section, "qualifying investee" means a person in which a trust has 117769
an equity or ownership interest, or a person or unit of government 117770
the debt obligations of either of which are owned by a trust. For 117771
the purposes of division (BB)(2)(a) of this section and for the 117772
purpose of computing the fraction described in division (BB)(4)(b) 117773
of this section, all of the following apply:117774

        (i) If the qualifying investee is a member of a qualifying 117775
controlled group on the last day of the qualifying investee's 117776
fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on 117777
which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, then "qualifying 117778
investee" includes all persons in the qualifying controlled group 117779
on such last day.117780

        (ii) If the qualifying investee, or if the qualifying 117781
investee and any members of the qualifying controlled group of 117782
which the qualifying investee is a member on the last day of the 117783
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 117784
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 117785
separately or cumulatively own, directly or indirectly, on the 117786
last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year 117787
ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes 117788
the qualifying trust amount, more than fifty per cent of the 117789
equity of a pass-through entity, then the qualifying investee and 117790
the other members are deemed to own the proportionate share of the 117791
pass-through entity's physical assets which the pass-through 117792
entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the 117793
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or 117794
with the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar 117795
year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust 117796
recognizes the qualifying trust amount.117797

        (iii) For the purposes of division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this 117798
section, "upper level pass-through entity" means a pass-through 117799
entity directly or indirectly owning any equity of another 117800
pass-through entity, and "lower level pass-through entity" means 117801
that other pass-through entity.117802

        An upper level pass-through entity, whether or not it is also 117803
a qualifying investee, is deemed to own, on the last day of the 117804
upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year, the 117805
proportionate share of the lower level pass-through entity's 117806
physical assets that the lower level pass-through entity directly 117807
or indirectly owns on the last day of the lower level pass-through 117808
entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last 117809
day of the upper level pass-through entity's fiscal or calendar 117810
year. If the upper level pass-through entity directly and 117811
indirectly owns less than fifty per cent of the equity of the 117812
lower level pass-through entity on each day of the upper level 117813
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with 117814
which ends the calendar or fiscal year of the lower level 117815
pass-through entity and if, based upon clear and convincing 117816
evidence, complete information about the location and cost of the 117817
physical assets of the lower pass-through entity is not available 117818
to the upper level pass-through entity, then solely for purposes 117819
of ascertaining if a gain or loss constitutes a qualifying trust 117820
amount, the upper level pass-through entity shall be deemed as 117821
owning no equity of the lower level pass-through entity for each 117822
day during the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or 117823
fiscal year in which or with which ends the lower level 117824
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year. Nothing in division 117825
(BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section shall be construed to provide for 117826
any deduction or exclusion in computing any trust's Ohio taxable 117827
income.117828

       (b) With respect to a trust that is not a resident for the 117829
taxable year and with respect to a part of a trust that is not a 117830
resident for the taxable year, "qualifying investee" for that 117831
taxable year does not include a C corporation if both of the 117832
following apply:117833

       (i) During the taxable year the trust or part of the trust 117834
recognizes a gain or loss from the sale, exchange, or other 117835
disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt 117836
obligations of, the C corporation.117837

       (ii) Such gain or loss constitutes nonbusiness income.117838

        (6) "Available" means information is such that a person is 117839
able to learn of the information by the due date plus extensions, 117840
if any, for filing the return for the taxable year in which the 117841
trust recognizes the gain or loss.117842

        (CC) "Qualifying controlled group" has the same meaning as in 117843
section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.117844

        (DD) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 117845
5733.042 of the Revised Code.117846

       (EE)(1) For the purposes of division (EE) of this section: 117847

       (a) "Qualifying person" means any person other than a 117848
qualifying corporation.117849

       (b) "Qualifying corporation" means any person classified for 117850
federal income tax purposes as an association taxable as a 117851
corporation, except either of the following:117852

       (i) A corporation that has made an election under subchapter 117853
S, chapter one, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code for its 117854
taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's 117855
taxable year;117856

       (ii) A subsidiary that is wholly owned by any corporation 117857
that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, 117858
subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year 117859
ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year.117860

       (2) For the purposes of this chapter, unless expressly stated 117861
otherwise, no qualifying person indirectly owns any asset directly 117862
or indirectly owned by any qualifying corporation.117863

       (FF) For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 5751. of the 117864
Revised Code:117865

       (1) "Trust" does not include a qualified pre-income tax 117866
trust.117867

       (2) A "qualified pre-income tax trust" is any pre-income tax 117868
trust that makes a qualifying pre-income tax trust election as 117869
described in division (FF)(3) of this section.117870

       (3) A "qualifying pre-income tax trust election" is an 117871
election by a pre-income tax trust to subject to the tax imposed 117872
by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code the pre-income tax trust 117873
and all pass-through entities of which the trust owns or controls, 117874
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 117875
five per cent or more of the ownership or equity interests. The 117876
trustee shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 117877
election on or before April 15, 2006. The election, if timely 117878
made, shall be effective on and after January 1, 2006, and shall 117879
apply for all tax periods and tax years until revoked by the 117880
trustee of the trust.117881

       (4) A "pre-income tax trust" is a trust that satisfies all of 117882
the following requirements:117883

       (a) The document or instrument creating the trust was 117884
executed by the grantor before January 1, 1972;117885

       (b) The trust became irrevocable upon the creation of the 117886
trust; and117887

       (c) The grantor was domiciled in this state at the time the 117888
trust was created.117889

       (GG) "Uniformed services" has the same meaning as in 10 117890
U.S.C. 101.117891

       Sec. 5747.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue for 117892
the support of schools and local government functions, to provide 117893
relief to property taxpayers, to provide revenue for the general 117894
revenue fund, and to meet the expenses of administering the tax 117895
levied by this chapter, there is hereby levied on every 117896
individual, trust, and estate residing in or earning or receiving 117897
income in this state, on every individual, trust, and estate 117898
earning or receiving lottery winnings, prizes, or awards pursuant 117899
to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, on every individual, trust, 117900
and estate earning or receiving winnings on casino gaming, and on 117901
every individual, trust, and estate otherwise having nexus with or 117902
in this state under the Constitution of the United States, an 117903
annual tax measured in the case of individuals by Ohio adjusted 117904
gross income less an exemption for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 117905
spouse, and each dependent as provided in section 5747.025 of the 117906
Revised Code; measured in the case of trusts by modified Ohio 117907
taxable income under division (D) of this section; and measured in 117908
the case of estates by Ohio taxable income. The tax imposed by 117909
this section on the balance thus obtained is hereby levied as 117910
follows: 117911

       (1) For taxable years beginning in 2004: 117912

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117913
OR 117914
MODIFIED OHIO 117915
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117916
OR 117917
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117918

$5,000 or less .743% 117919
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $37.15 plus 1.486% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117920
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $111.45 plus 2.972% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117921
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $260.05 plus 3.715% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117922
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $445.80 plus 4.457% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117923
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,337.20 plus 5.201% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117924
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,417.60 plus 5.943% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117925
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,606.20 plus 6.9% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117926
More than $200,000 $11,506.20 plus 7.5% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117927

       (2) For taxable years beginning in 2005: 117928

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117929
OR 117930
MODIFIED OHIO 117931
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117932
OR 117933
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117934

$5,000 or less .712% 117935
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $35.60 plus 1.424% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117936
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $106.80 plus 2.847% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117937
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $249.15 plus 3.559% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117938
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $427.10 plus 4.27% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117939
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,281.10 plus 4.983% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117940
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,274.30 plus 5.693% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117941
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,412.90 plus 6.61% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117942
More than $200,000 $11,022.90 plus 7.185% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117943

       (3) For taxable years beginning in 2006: 117944

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117945
OR 117946
MODIFIED OHIO 117947
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117948
OR 117949
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117950

$5,000 or less .681% 117951
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $34.05 plus 1.361% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117952
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $102.10 plus 2.722% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117953
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $238.20 plus 3.403% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117954
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $408.35 plus 4.083% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117955
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,224.95 plus 4.764% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117956
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,130.55 plus 5.444% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117957
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,219.35 plus 6.32% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117958
More than $200,000 $10,539.35 plus 6.87% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117959

       (4) For taxable years beginning in 2007: 117960

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117961
OR 117962
MODIFIED OHIO 117963
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117964
OR 117965
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117966

$5,000 or less .649% 117967
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $32.45 plus 1.299% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117968
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $97.40 plus 2.598% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117969
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $227.30 plus 3.247% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117970
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $389.65 plus 3.895% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117971
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,168.65 plus 4.546% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117972
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,987.05 plus 5.194% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117973
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,025.85 plus 6.031% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117974
More than $200,000 $10,056.85 plus 6.555% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117975

       (5) For taxable years beginning in 2008, 2009, or 2010: 117976

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117977
OR 117978
MODIFIED OHIO 117979
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117980
OR 117981
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117982

$5,000 or less .618% 117983
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $30.90 plus 1.236% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117984
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $92.70 plus 2.473% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117985
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $216.35 plus 3.091% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117986
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $370.90 plus 3.708% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117987
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,112.50 plus 4.327% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117988
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,843.30 plus 4.945% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117989
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,832.30 plus 5.741% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117990
More than $200,000 $9,573.30 plus 6.24% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117991

       (6) For taxable years beginning in 2011 or thereafter2012: 117992

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117993
OR 117994
MODIFIED OHIO 117995
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117996
OR 117997
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117998

$5,000 or less .587% 117999
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $29.35 plus 1.174% of the amount in excess of $5,000 118000
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $88.05 plus 2.348% of the amount in excess of $10,000 118001
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $205.45 plus 2.935% of the amount in excess of $15,000 118002
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $352.20 plus 3.521% of the amount in excess of $20,000 118003
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,056.40 plus 4.109% of the amount in excess of $40,000 118004
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,700.00 plus 4.695% of the amount in excess of $80,000 118005
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,639.00 plus 5.451% of the amount in excess of $100,000 118006
More than $200,000 $9,090.00 plus 5.925% of the amount in excess of $200,000 118007

       (7) For taxable years beginning in 2013 or thereafter:118008

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 118009
OR 118010
MODIFIED OHIO 118011
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 118012
OR 118013
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 118014

$5,000 or less .546% 118015
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $27.30 plus 1.092% of the amount in excess of $5,000 118016
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $81.89 plus 2.184% of the amount in excess of $10,000 118017
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $191.07 plus 2.730% of the amount in excess of $15,000 118018
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $327.55 plus 3.275% of the amount in excess of $20,000 118019
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $982.45 plus 3.821% of the amount in excess of $40,000 118020
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,511.00 plus 4.366% of the amount in excess of $80,000 118021
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,384.27 plus 5.069% of the amount in excess of $100,000 118022
More than $200,000 $8,453.70 plus 5.510% of the amount in excess of $200,000 118023

       In JulyAugust of each year, beginning in 2010, the tax 118024
commissioner shall adjust the income amounts prescribed in this 118025
division by multiplying the percentage increase in the gross 118026
domestic product deflator computed that year under section 118027
5747.025 of the Revised Code by each of the income amounts 118028
resulting from the adjustment under this division in the preceding 118029
year, adding the resulting product to the corresponding income 118030
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year, and 118031
rounding the resulting sum to the nearest multiple of fifty 118032
dollars. The tax commissioner also shall recompute each of the tax 118033
dollar amounts to the extent necessary to reflect the adjustment 118034
of the income amounts. The rates of taxation shall not be 118035
adjusted. 118036

       The adjusted amounts apply to taxable years beginning in the 118037
calendar year in which the adjustments are made. The tax 118038
commissioner shall not make such adjustments in any year in which 118039
the amount resulting from the adjustment would be less than the 118040
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year. 118041

       (B) If the director of budget and management makes a 118042
certification to the tax commissioner under division (B) of 118043
section 131.44 of the Revised Code, the amount of tax as 118044
determined under division (A) of this section shall be reduced by 118045
the percentage prescribed in that certification for taxable years 118046
beginning in the calendar year in which that certification is 118047
made. 118048

       (C) The levy of this tax on income does not prevent a 118049
municipal corporation, a joint economic development zone created 118050
under section 715.691, or a joint economic development district 118051
created under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 118052
715.81 of the Revised Code from levying a tax on income. 118053

       (D) This division applies only to taxable years of a trust 118054
beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 118055

       (1) The tax imposed by this section on a trust shall be 118056
computed by multiplying the Ohio modified taxable income of the 118057
trust by the rates prescribed by division (A) of this section. 118058

       (2) A resident trust may claim a credit against the tax 118059
computed under division (D) of this section equal to the lesser of 118060
(1) the tax paid to another state or the District of Columbia on 118061
the resident trust's modified nonbusiness income, other than the 118062
portion of the resident trust's nonbusiness income that is 118063
qualifying investment income as defined in section 5747.012 of the 118064
Revised Code, or (2) the effective tax rate, based on modified 118065
Ohio taxable income, multiplied by the resident trust's modified 118066
nonbusiness income other than the portion of the resident trust's 118067
nonbusiness income that is qualifying investment income. The 118068
credit applies before any other applicable credits. 118069

       (3) The credits enumerated in divisions (A)(1) to (13) of 118070
section 5747.98 of the Revised Code do not apply to a trust 118071
subject to division (D) of this section. Any credits enumerated in 118072
other divisions of section 5747.98 of the Revised Code apply to a 118073
trust subject to division (D) of this section. To the extent that 118074
the trust distributes income for the taxable year for which a 118075
credit is available to the trust, the credit shall be shared by 118076
the trust and its beneficiaries. The tax commissioner and the 118077
trust shall be guided by applicable regulations of the United 118078
States treasury regarding the sharing of credits. 118079

       (E) For the purposes of this section, "trust" means any trust 118080
described in Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue 118081
Code, excluding trusts that are not irrevocable as defined in 118082
division (I)(3)(b) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and that 118083
have no modified Ohio taxable income for the taxable year, 118084
charitable remainder trusts, qualified funeral trusts and preneed 118085
funeral contract trusts established pursuant to sections 4717.31 118086
to 4717.38 of the Revised Code that are not qualified funeral 118087
trusts, endowment and perpetual care trusts, qualified settlement 118088
trusts and funds, designated settlement trusts and funds, and 118089
trusts exempted from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal 118090
Revenue Code. 118091

       Sec. 5747.022.  An individual subject to the tax imposed by 118092
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code may claim a credit equal to 118093
twenty dollars times the number of exemptions allowed for the 118094
taxpayer, histhe taxpayer's spouse, and each dependent under 118095
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed 118096
in the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 118097
The credit shall not be considered in determining the taxes 118098
required to be withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code 118099
or the estimated taxes required to be paid under section 5747.09 118100
of the Revised Code. In the case of an individual with respect to 118101
whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code is 118102
allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning in the 118103
calendar year in which the individual's taxable year begins, the 118104
"number of exemptions allowed" for purposes of calculating the 118105
credit allowed under this section to such individual for the 118106
individual's taxable year shall not include an exemption for the 118107
individual.118108

       Sec. 5747.025.  (A) TheExcept as otherwise provided in this 118109
division, the personal exemption for the taxpayer and the 118110
taxpayer's spouse shall be seven hundred fifty dollars each for 118111
the taxable year beginning in 1996, eight hundred fifty dollars 118112
each for the taxable year beginning in 1997, nine hundred fifty 118113
dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1998, and one 118114
thousand fifty dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1999 118115
and taxable years beginning after 1999. The personal exemption 118116
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 118117
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 118118
division (C) of this section. In the case of an individual with 118119
respect to whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised 118120
Code is allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning 118121
in the calendar year in which the individual's taxable year 118122
begins, the exemption amount applicable to such individual for 118123
such individual's taxable year shall be zero.118124

       (B) The personal exemption for each dependent shall be eight 118125
hundred fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1996, and 118126
one thousand fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1997 118127
and taxable years beginning after 1997. The personal exemption 118128
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 118129
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 118130
division (C) of this section.118131

       (C) In SeptemberAugust of each year, beginning in 2000, the 118132
tax commissioner shall determine the percentage increase in the 118133
gross domestic product deflator determined by the bureau of 118134
economic analysis of the United States department of commerce from 118135
the first day of January of the preceding calendar year to the 118136
last day of December of the preceding year, and adjust the 118137
personal exemption amount for taxable years beginning in the 118138
current calendar year by multiplying that amount by the percentage 118139
increase in the gross domestic product deflator for that period; 118140
adding the resulting product to the personal exemption amount for 118141
taxable years beginning in the preceding calendar year; and 118142
rounding the resulting sum upward to the nearest multiple of fifty 118143
dollars. The commissioner shall not make such an adjustment in any 118144
calendar year in which the amount resulting from the adjustment 118145
would be less than the amount resulting from the adjustment in the 118146
preceding calendar year.118147

       Sec. 5747.08.  An annual return with respect to the tax 118148
imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code and each tax 118149
imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code shall be made by 118150
every taxpayer for any taxable year for which the taxpayer is 118151
liable for the tax imposed by that section or under that chapter, 118152
unless the total credits allowed under divisions (E), (F), and (G) 118153
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for the year are equal to 118154
or exceed the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, 118155
in which case no return shall be required unless the taxpayer is 118156
liable for a tax imposed pursuant to Chapter 5748. of the Revised 118157
Code.118158

       (A) If an individual is deceased, any return or notice 118159
required of that individual under this chapter shall be made and 118160
filed by that decedent's executor, administrator, or other person 118161
charged with the property of that decedent.118162

       (B) If an individual is unable to make a return or notice 118163
required by this chapter, the return or notice required of that 118164
individual shall be made and filed by the individual's duly 118165
authorized agent, guardian, conservator, fiduciary, or other 118166
person charged with the care of the person or property of that 118167
individual.118168

       (C) Returns or notices required of an estate or a trust shall 118169
be made and filed by the fiduciary of the estate or trust.118170

       (D)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) 118171
of this section, any pass-through entity may file a single return 118172
on behalf of one or more of the entity's investors other than an 118173
investor that is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 118174
5733.06 of the Revised Code. The single return shall set forth the 118175
name, address, and social security number or other identifying 118176
number of each of those pass-through entity investors and shall 118177
indicate the distributive share of each of those pass-through 118178
entity investor's income taxable in this state in accordance with 118179
sections 5747.20 to 5747.231 of the Revised Code. Such 118180
pass-through entity investors for whom the pass-through entity 118181
elects to file a single return are not entitled to the exemption 118182
or credit provided for by sections 5747.02 and 5747.022 of the 118183
Revised Code; shall calculate the tax before business credits at 118184
the highest rate of tax set forth in section 5747.02 of the 118185
Revised Code for the taxable year for which the return is filed; 118186
and are entitled to only their distributive share of the business 118187
credits as defined in division (D)(2) of this section. A single 118188
check drawn by the pass-through entity shall accompany the return 118189
in full payment of the tax due, as shown on the single return, for 118190
such investors, other than investors who are persons subject to 118191
the tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.118192

       (b)(i) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a 118193
single return any investor that is a trust to the extent that any 118194
direct or indirect current, future, or contingent beneficiary of 118195
the trust is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 118196
5733.06 of the Revised Code.118197

       (ii) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a single 118198
return any investor that is itself a pass-through entity to the 118199
extent that any direct or indirect investor in the second 118200
pass-through entity is a person subject to the tax imposed under 118201
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.118202

       (c) Nothing in division (D) of this section precludes the tax 118203
commissioner from requiring such investors to file the return and 118204
make the payment of taxes and related interest, penalty, and 118205
interest penalty required by this section or section 5747.02, 118206
5747.09, or 5747.15 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) 118207
of this section precludes such an investor from filing the annual 118208
return under this section, utilizing the refundable credit equal 118209
to the investor's proportionate share of the tax paid by the 118210
pass-through entity on behalf of the investor under division (J) 118211
of this section, and making the payment of taxes imposed under 118212
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) of 118213
this section shall be construed to provide to such an investor or 118214
pass-through entity any additional deduction or credit, other than 118215
the credit provided by division (J) of this section, solely on 118216
account of the entity's filing a return in accordance with this 118217
section. Such a pass-through entity also shall make the filing and 118218
payment of estimated taxes on behalf of the pass-through entity 118219
investors other than an investor that is a person subject to the 118220
tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.118221

       (2) For the purposes of this section, "business credits" 118222
means the credits listed in section 5747.98 of the Revised Code 118223
excluding the following credits:118224

       (a) The retirement credit under division (B) of section 118225
5747.055 of the Revised Code;118226

       (b) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 118227
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118228

       (c) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 118229
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;118230

       (d) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 118231
Revised Code;118232

       (e) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 118233
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118234

       (f) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 118235
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118236

       (g) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 118237
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118238

       (h) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 118239
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;118240

       (i) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under section 118241
5747.022 of the Revised Code;118242

       (j) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 118243
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118244

       (k) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 118245
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118246

       (l) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 118247
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;118248

       (m) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 118249
Revised Code.118250

       (3) The election provided for under division (D) of this 118251
section applies only to the taxable year for which the election is 118252
made by the pass-through entity. Unless the tax commissioner 118253
provides otherwise, this election, once made, is binding and 118254
irrevocable for the taxable year for which the election is made. 118255
Nothing in this division shall be construed to provide for any 118256
deduction or credit that would not be allowable if a nonresident 118257
pass-through entity investor were to file an annual return.118258

       (4) If a pass-through entity makes the election provided for 118259
under division (D) of this section, the pass-through entity shall 118260
be liable for any additional taxes, interest, interest penalty, or 118261
penalties imposed by this chapter if the tax commissioner finds 118262
that the single return does not reflect the correct tax due by the 118263
pass-through entity investors covered by that return. Nothing in 118264
this division shall be construed to limit or alter the liability, 118265
if any, imposed on pass-through entity investors for unpaid or 118266
underpaid taxes, interest, interest penalty, or penalties as a 118267
result of the pass-through entity's making the election provided 118268
for under division (D) of this section. For the purposes of 118269
division (D) of this section, "correct tax due" means the tax that 118270
would have been paid by the pass-through entity had the single 118271
return been filed in a manner reflecting the commissioner's 118272
findings. Nothing in division (D) of this section shall be 118273
construed to make or hold a pass-through entity liable for tax 118274
attributable to a pass-through entity investor's income from a 118275
source other than the pass-through entity electing to file the 118276
single return.118277

       (E) If a husband and wife file a joint federal income tax 118278
return for a taxable year, they shall file a joint return under 118279
this section for that taxable year, and their liabilities are 118280
joint and several, but, if the federal income tax liability of 118281
either spouse is determined on a separate federal income tax 118282
return, they shall file separate returns under this section.118283

       If either spouse is not required to file a federal income tax 118284
return and either or both are required to file a return pursuant 118285
to this chapter, they may elect to file separate or joint returns, 118286
and, pursuant to that election, their liabilities are separate or 118287
joint and several. If a husband and wife file separate returns 118288
pursuant to this chapter, each must claim the taxpayer's own 118289
exemption, but not both, as authorized under section 5747.02 of 118290
the Revised Code on the taxpayer's own return.118291

       (F) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 118292
section shall contain the signature of the taxpayer or the 118293
taxpayer's duly authorized agent and of the person who prepared 118294
the return for the taxpayer, and shall include the taxpayer's 118295
social security number. Each return shall be verified by a 118296
declaration under the penalties of perjury. The tax commissioner 118297
shall prescribe the form that the signature and declaration shall 118298
take.118299

       (G) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 118300
section shall be made and filed as required by section 5747.04 of 118301
the Revised Code, on or before the fifteenth day of April of each 118302
year, on forms that the tax commissioner shall prescribe, together 118303
with remittance made payable to the treasurer of state in the 118304
combined amount of the state and all school district income taxes 118305
shown to be due on the form, unless the combined amount shown to 118306
be due is one dollar or less, in which case that amount need not 118307
be remitted.118308

       Upon good cause shown, the commissioner may extend the period 118309
for filing any notice or return required to be filed under this 118310
section and may adopt rules relating to extensions. If the 118311
extension results in an extension of time for the payment of any 118312
state or school district income tax liability with respect to 118313
which the return is filed, the taxpayer shall pay at the time the 118314
tax liability is paid an amount of interest computed at the rate 118315
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on 118316
that liability from the time that payment is due without extension 118317
to the time of actual payment. Except as provided in section 118318
5747.132 of the Revised Code, in addition to all other interest 118319
charges and penalties, all taxes imposed under this chapter or 118320
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and remaining unpaid after they 118321
become due, except combined amounts due of one dollar or less, 118322
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 118323
of the Revised Code until paid or until the day an assessment is 118324
issued under section 5747.13 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs 118325
first.118326

       If the commissioner considers it necessary in order to ensure 118327
the payment of the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised 118328
Code or any tax imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, 118329
the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 118330
otherwise than as provided in this section.118331

       To the extent that any provision in this division conflicts 118332
with any provision in section 5747.026 of the Revised Code, the 118333
provision in that section prevails.118334

       (H) If any report, claim, statement, or other document 118335
required to be filed, or any payment required to be made, within a 118336
prescribed period or on or before a prescribed date under this 118337
chapter is delivered after that period or that date by United 118338
States mail to the agency, officer, or office with which the 118339
report, claim, statement, or other document is required to be 118340
filed, or to which the payment is required to be made, the date of 118341
the postmark stamped on the cover in which the report, claim, 118342
statement, or other document, or payment is mailed shall be deemed 118343
to be the date of delivery or the date of payment.118344

       If a payment is required to be made by electronic funds 118345
transfer pursuant to section 5747.072 of the Revised Code, the 118346
payment is considered to be made when the payment is received by 118347
the treasurer of state or credited to an account designated by the 118348
treasurer of state for the receipt of tax payments.118349

       "The date of the postmark" means, in the event there is more 118350
than one date on the cover, the earliest date imprinted on the 118351
cover by the United States postal service.118352

       (I) The amounts withheld by an employer pursuant to section 118353
5747.06 of the Revised Code, a casino operator pursuant to section 118354
5747.063 of the Revised Code, or a lottery sales agent pursuant to 118355
section 5747.064 of the Revised Code shall be allowed to the 118356
recipient of the compensation casino winnings, or lottery prize 118357
award as credits against payment of the appropriate taxes imposed 118358
on the recipient by section 5747.02 and under Chapter 5748. of the 118359
Revised Code.118360

       (J) If, in accordance with division (D) of this section, a 118361
pass-through entity elects to file a single return under division 118362
(D) of this section and if any investor is required to file the 118363
annual return and make the payment of taxes required by this 118364
chapter on account of the investor's other income that is not 118365
included in a single return filed by a pass-through entity or any 118366
other investor elects to file the annual return, the investor is 118367
entitled to a refundable credit equal to the investor's 118368
proportionate share of the tax paid by the pass-through entity on 118369
behalf of the investor. The investor shall claim the credit for 118370
the investor's taxable year in which or with which ends the 118371
taxable year of the pass-through entity. Nothing in this chapter 118372
shall be construed to allow any credit provided in this chapter to 118373
be claimed more than once. For the purposespurpose of computing 118374
any interest, penalty, or interest penalty, the investor shall be 118375
deemed to have paid the refundable credit provided by this 118376
division on the day that the pass-through entity paid the 118377
estimated tax or the tax giving rise to the credit.118378

       (K) The tax commissioner shall ensure that each return 118379
required to be filed under this section includes a box that the 118380
taxpayer may check to authorize a paid tax preparer who prepared 118381
the return to communicate with the department of taxation about 118382
matters pertaining to the return. The return or instructions 118383
accompanying the return shall indicate that by checking the box 118384
the taxpayer authorizes the department of taxation to contact the 118385
preparer concerning questions that arise during the processing of 118386
the return and authorizes the preparer only to provide the 118387
department with information that is missing from the return, to 118388
contact the department for information about the processing of the 118389
return or the status of the taxpayer's refund or payments, and to 118390
respond to notices about mathematical errors, offsets, or return 118391
preparation that the taxpayer has received from the department and 118392
has shown to the preparer.118393

       (L) The tax commissioner shall permit individual taxpayers to 118394
instruct the department of taxation to cause any refund of 118395
overpaid taxes to be deposited directly into a checking account, 118396
savings account, or an individual retirement account or individual 118397
retirement annuity, or preexisting college savings plan or program 118398
account offered by the Ohio tuition trust authority under Chapter 118399
3334. of the Revised Code, as designated by the taxpayer, when the 118400
taxpayer files the annual return required by this section 118401
electronically.118402

       (M) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to administer this 118403
section.118404

       Sec. 5747.10.  If any of the facts, figures, computations, or 118405
attachments required in a taxpayer's annual return to determine 118406
the tax charged by this chapter or Chapter 5748. of the Revised 118407
Code must be altered as the result of an adjustment to the 118408
taxpayer's federal income tax return, whether initiated by the 118409
taxpayer or the internal revenue service, and such alteration 118410
affects the taxpayer's tax liability under this chapter or Chapter 118411
5748. of the Revised Code, the taxpayer shall file an amended 118412
return with the tax commissioner in such form as the commissioner 118413
requires. The amended return shall be filed not later than sixty 118414
days after the adjustment has been agreed to or finally determined 118415
for federal income tax purposes or any federal income tax 118416
deficiency or refund, or the abatement or credit resulting 118417
therefrom, has been assessed or paid, whichever occurs first.118418

       (A) In the case of an underpayment, the amended return shall 118419
be accompanied by payment of any combined additional tax due 118420
together with interest thereon. If the combined tax shown to be 118421
due is one dollar or less, such amount need not accompany the 118422
amended return. An amended return required by this section is a 118423
return subject to assessment under section 5747.13 of the Revised 118424
Code for the purpose of assessing any additional tax due under 118425
this section, together with any applicable penalty and interest. 118426
It shall not reopen those facts, figures, computations, or 118427
attachments from a previously filed return no longer subject to 118428
assessment that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, 118429
by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.118430

       (B) In the case of an overpayment, an application for refund 118431
may be filed under this division within the sixty-day period 118432
prescribed for filing the amended return even if it is filed 118433
beyond the period prescribed in section 5747.11 of the Revised 118434
Code if it otherwise conforms to the requirements of such section. 118435
An application filed under this division shall claim refund of 118436
overpayments resulting from alterations to only those facts, 118437
figures, computations, or attachments required in the taxpayer's 118438
annual return that are affected, either directly or indirectly, by 118439
the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return unless 118440
it is also filed within the time prescribed in section 5747.11 of 118441
the Revised Code. It shall not reopen those facts, figures, 118442
computations, or attachments that are not affected, either 118443
directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's 118444
federal income tax return.118445

       Sec. 5747.11.  (A) The tax commissioner shall refund to 118446
employers, qualifying entities, or taxpayers, with respect to any118447
subject to a tax imposed under section 5733.41, 5747.02, or 118448
5747.41, or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code:118449

       (1) Overpayments of more than one dollar;118450

       (2) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid illegally or 118451
erroneously;118452

       (3) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid on an illegal, 118453
erroneous, or excessive assessmentthe amount of any overpayment 118454
of such tax.118455

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under divisions (D) and (E) 118456
of this section, applications for refund shall be filed with the 118457
tax commissioner, on the form prescribed by the commissioner, 118458
within four years from the date of the illegal, erroneous, or 118459
excessive payment of the tax, or within any additional period 118460
allowed by division (B)(3)(b) of section 5747.05, division (B) of 118461
section 5747.10, division (A) of section 5747.13, or division (C) 118462
of section 5747.45 of the Revised Code.118463

       On filing of the refund application, the commissioner shall 118464
determine the amount of refund due and, if that amount exceeds one 118465
dollar, certify such amount to the director of budget and 118466
management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax refund 118467
fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. Payment 118468
shall be made as provided in division (C) of section 126.35 of the 118469
Revised Code.118470

       (C)(1) Interest shall be allowed and paid upon any illegal or 118471
erroneous assessment in excess of one dollar in respect of the tax 118472
imposed under section 5747.02 or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 118473
at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 118474
Code from the date of the payment of the illegal or erroneous 118475
assessment until the date the refund of such amount is paid. If 118476
such refund results from the filing of a return or report, or the 118477
payment accompanying such return or report, by an employer or 118478
taxpayer, rather than from an assessment by the commissioner, such 118479
interest shall run from a period ninety days after the final 118480
filing date of the annual return until the date the refund is 118481
paid.118482

       (2) Interest shall be allowed and paid at the rate per annum 118483
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code upon any 118484
overpayment in excess of one dollar in respect ofon amounts 118485
refunded with respect to the tax imposed under section 5747.02 or 118486
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code from the date of the overpayment 118487
until the date of the refund of the overpayment, except that if 118488
any overpayment is refunded within ninety days after the final 118489
filing date of the annual return or ninety days after the return 118490
is filed, whichever is later, no interest shall be allowed on such 118491
overpayment. If the overpayment results from the carryback of a 118492
net operating loss or net capital loss to a previous taxable year, 118493
the overpayment is deemed not to have been made prior to the 118494
filing date, including any extension thereof, for the taxable year 118495
in which the net operating loss or net capital loss arises. For 118496
purposes of the payment of interest on overpayments, no amount of 118497
tax, for any taxable year, shall be treated as having been paid 118498
before the date on which the tax return for that year was due 118499
without regard to any extension of time for filing such return.118500

       (3)(2) Interest shall be allowed at the rate per annum 118501
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on amounts 118502
refunded with respect to the taxes imposed under sections 5733.41 118503
and 5747.41 of the Revised Code. The interest shall run from 118504
whichever of the following days is the latest until the day the 118505
refund is paid: the day the illegal, erroneous, or excessive 118506
payment was made; the ninetieth day after the final day the annual 118507
report was required to be filed under section 5747.42 of the 118508
Revised Code; or the ninetieth day after the day that report was 118509
filed.118510

       (D) "Ninety days" shall be substituted for "four years" in 118511
division (B) of this section if the taxpayer satisfies both of the 118512
following conditions:118513

       (1) The taxpayer has applied for a refund based in whole or 118514
in part upon section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;118515

       (2) The taxpayer asserts that either the imposition or 118516
collection of the tax imposed or charged by this chapter or any 118517
portion of such tax violates the Constitution of the United States 118518
or the Constitution of Ohio.118519

       (E)(1) Division (E)(2) of this section applies only if all of 118520
the following conditions are satisfied:118521

       (a) A qualifying entity pays an amount of the tax imposed by 118522
section 5733.41 or 5747.41 of the Revised Code;118523

       (b) The taxpayer is a qualifying investor as to that 118524
qualifying entity;118525

       (c) The taxpayer did not claim the credit provided for in 118526
section 5747.059 of the Revised Code as to the tax described in 118527
division (E)(1)(a) of this section;118528

       (d) The four-year period described in division (B) of this 118529
section has ended as to the taxable year for which the taxpayer 118530
otherwise would have claimed that credit.118531

       (2) A taxpayer shall file an application for refund pursuant 118532
to division (E) of this section within one year after the date the 118533
payment described in division (E)(1)(a) of this section is made. 118534
An application filed under division (E)(2) of this section shall 118535
claim refund only of overpayments resulting from the taxpayer's 118536
failure to claim the credit described in division (E)(1)(c) of 118537
this section. Nothing in division (E) of this section shall be 118538
construed to relieve a taxpayer from complying with division 118539
(A)(16) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code.118540

       Sec. 5747.113. (A) Any taxpayer claiming a refund under 118541
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code who wishes to contribute any 118542
part of the taxpayer's refund to the natural areas and preserves 118543
fund created in section 1517.11 of the Revised Code, the nongame 118544
and endangered wildlife fund created in section 1531.26 of the 118545
Revised Code, the military injury relief fund created in section 118546
5101.98 of the Revised Code, the Ohio historical society income 118547
tax contribution fund created in section 149.308 of the Revised 118548
Code, or all of those funds may designate on the taxpayer's income 118549
tax return the amount that the taxpayer wishes to contribute to 118550
the fund or funds. A designated contribution is irrevocable upon 118551
the filing of the return and shall be made in the full amount 118552
designated if the refund found due the taxpayer upon the initial 118553
processing of the taxpayer's return, after any deductions 118554
including those required by section 5747.12 of the Revised Code, 118555
is greater than or equal to the designated contribution. If the 118556
refund due as initially determined is less than the designated 118557
contribution, the contribution shall be made in the full amount of 118558
the refund. The tax commissioner shall subtract the amount of the 118559
contribution from the amount of the refund initially found due the 118560
taxpayer and shall certify the difference to the director of 118561
budget and management and treasurer of state for payment to the 118562
taxpayer in accordance with section 5747.11 of the Revised Code. 118563
For the purpose of any subsequent determination of the taxpayer's 118564
net tax payment, the contribution shall be considered a part of 118565
the refund paid to the taxpayer.118566

       (B) The tax commissioner shall provide a space on the income 118567
tax return form in which a taxpayer may indicate that the taxpayer 118568
wishes to make a donation in accordance with this section. The tax 118569
commissioner shall also print in the instructions accompanying the 118570
income tax return form a description of the purposes for which the 118571
natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and endangered 118572
wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, and the Ohio 118573
historical society income tax contribution fund were created and 118574
the use of moneys from the income tax refund contribution system 118575
established in this section. No person shall designate on the 118576
person's income tax return any part of a refund claimed under 118577
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code as a contribution to any fund 118578
other than the natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and 118579
endangered wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, or the 118580
Ohio historical society income tax contribution fund.118581

       (C) The money collected under the income tax refund 118582
contribution system established in this section shall be deposited 118583
by the tax commissioner into the natural areas and preserves fund, 118584
the nongame and endangered wildlife fund, the military injury 118585
relief fund, and the Ohio historical society income tax 118586
contribution fund in the amounts designated on the tax returns.118587

       (D) No later than the thirtieth day of September each year, 118588
the tax commissioner shall determine the total amount contributed 118589
to each fund under this section during the preceding eight months, 118590
any adjustments to prior months, and the cost to the department of 118591
taxation of administering the income tax refund contribution 118592
system during that eight-month period. The commissioner shall make 118593
an additional determination no later than the thirty-first day of 118594
January of each year of the total amount contributed to each fund 118595
under this section during the preceding four calendar months, any 118596
adjustments to prior years made during that four-month period, and 118597
the cost to the department of taxation of administering the income 118598
tax contribution system during that period. The cost of 118599
administering the income tax contribution system shall be 118600
certified by the tax commissioner to the director of budget and 118601
management, who shall transfer an amount equal to one-fourth of 118602
such administrative costs from the natural areas and preserves 118603
fund, one-fourth of such costs from the nongame and endangered 118604
wildlife fund, one-fourth of such costs from the military injury 118605
relief fund, and one-fourth of such costs from the Ohio historical 118606
society income tax contribution fund to the litter control and 118607
natural resourceincome tax administrationcontribution fund, 118608
which is hereby created, provided that the moneys that the 118609
department receives to pay the cost of administering the income 118610
tax refund contribution system in any year shall not exceed two 118611
and one-half per cent of the total amount contributed under that 118612
system during that year.118613

       (E)(1) The director of natural resources, in January of every 118614
odd-numbered year, shall report to the general assembly on the 118615
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 118616
pertains to the natural areas and preserves fund and the nongame 118617
and endangered wildlife fund. The report shall include the amount 118618
of money contributed to each fund in each of the previous five 118619
years, the amount of money contributed directly to each fund in 118620
addition to or independently of the income tax refund contribution 118621
system in each of the previous five years, and the purposes for 118622
which the money was expended.118623

       (2) The director of job and family services and the director 118624
of the Ohio historical society, in January of every odd-numbered 118625
year, each shall report to the general assembly on the 118626
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 118627
pertains to the military injury relief fund and the Ohio 118628
historical society income tax contribution fund, respectively. The 118629
report shall include the amount of money contributed to the fund 118630
in each of the previous five years, the amount of money 118631
contributed directly to the fund in addition to or independently 118632
of the income tax refund contribution system in each of the 118633
previous five years, and the purposes for which the money was 118634
expended.118635

       Sec. 5747.122.  (A) The tax commissioner, in accordance with 118636
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, shall cooperate with the 118637
director of job and family services to collect overpayments of 118638
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 118639
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 118640
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 118641
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.118642

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 118643
services in connection with the collection of an overpayment of 118644
assistance from a refund of state income taxes pursuant to this 118645
section and section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, the tax 118646
commissioner shall release to the department the home address and 118647
social security number of any recipient of assistance whose 118648
overpayment may be collected from a refund of state income taxes 118649
under those sections.118650

       (C) In the case of a joint income tax return for two people 118651
who were not married to each other at the time one of them 118652
received an overpayment of assistance, only the portion of a 118653
refund that is due to the recipient of the overpayment shall be 118654
available for collection of the overpayment under this section and 118655
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall 118656
determine such portion. A recipient's spouse who objects to the 118657
portion as determined by the commissioner may file a complaint 118658
with the commissioner within twenty-one days after receiving 118659
notice of the collection, and the commissioner shall afford the 118660
spouse an opportunity to be heard on the complaint. The 118661
commissioner shall waive or extend the twenty-one-day period if 118662
the recipient's spouse establishes that such action is necessary 118663
to avoid unjust, unfair, or unreasonable results. After the 118664
hearing, the commissioner shall make a final determination of the 118665
portion of the refund available for collection of the overpayment.118666

       (D) The welfare overpayment intercept fund is hereby created 118667
in the state treasury. The tax commissioner shall deposit amounts 118668
collected from income tax refunds under this section to the credit 118669
of the welfare overpayment intercept fund. The director of job and 118670
family services shall distribute money in the fund in accordance 118671
with appropriate federal or state laws and procedures regarding 118672
collection of welfare overpayments.118673

       Sec. 5747.13.  (A) If any employer collects the tax imposed 118674
by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and 118675
fails to remit the tax as required by law, or fails to collect the 118676
tax, the employer is personally liable for any amount collected 118677
that the employer fails to remit, or any amount that the employer 118678
fails to collect. If any taxpayer fails to file a return or fails 118679
to pay the tax imposed by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. 118680
of the Revised Code, the taxpayer is personally liable for the 118681
amount of the tax.118682

       If any employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity required to 118683
file a return under this chapter fails to file the return within 118684
the time prescribed, files an incorrect return, fails to remit the 118685
full amount of the taxes due for the period covered by the return, 118686
or fails to remit any additional tax due as a result of a 118687
reduction in the amount of the credit allowed under division (B) 118688
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code together with interest on 118689
the additional tax within the time prescribed by that division, 118690
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against any person 118691
liable for any deficiency for the period for which the return is 118692
or taxes are due, based upon any information in the commissioner's 118693
possession.118694

       An assessment issued against either the employer or the 118695
taxpayer pursuant to this section shall not be considered an 118696
election of remedies or a bar to an assessment against the other 118697
for failure to report or pay the same tax. No assessment shall be 118698
issued against any person if the tax actually has been paid by 118699
another.118700

       No assessment shall be made or issued against an employer, 118701
taxpayer, or qualifying entity more than four years after the 118702
final date the return subject to assessment was required to be 118703
filed or the date the return was filed, whichever is later. 118704
However, the commissioner may assess any balance due as the result 118705
of a reduction in the credit allowed under division (B) of section 118706
5747.05 of the Revised Code, including applicable penalty and 118707
interest, within four years of the date on which the taxpayer 118708
reports a change in either the portion of the taxpayer's adjusted 118709
gross income subjected to an income tax or tax measured by income 118710
in another state or the District of Columbia, or the amount of 118711
liability for an income tax or tax measured by income to another 118712
state or the District of Columbia, as required by division (B)(3) 118713
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Such time limits may be 118714
extended if both the employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity and 118715
the commissioner consent in writing to the extension or if an 118716
agreement waiving or extending the time limits has been entered 118717
into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised Code. Any such 118718
extension shall extend the four-year time limit in division (B) of 118719
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code for the same period of time. 118720
There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment against an 118721
employer for taxes withheld from employees and not remitted to the 118722
state, against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity that 118723
fails to file a return subject to assessment as required by this 118724
chapter, or against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity 118725
that files a fraudulent return.118726

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 118727
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 118728
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 118729
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 118730
hearing on the petition.118731

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 118732
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 118733
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 118734
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 118735
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 118736
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 118737
from the party assessed to the commissioner with remittance made 118738
payable to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the 118739
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 118740
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 118741
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 118742
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 118743
5703.60 of the Revised Code.118744

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 118745
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 118746
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 118747
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 118748
pleas in the county in which the employer's, taxpayer's, or 118749
qualifying entity's place of business is located or the county in 118750
which the party assessed resides. If the party assessed is not a 118751
resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may be 118752
filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of 118753
Franklin county.118754

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 118755
enter a judgment against the party assessed in the amount shown on 118756
the entry. The judgment shall be filed by the clerk in one of two 118757
loose-leaf books, one entitled "special judgments for state and 118758
school district income taxes," and the other entitled "special 118759
judgments for qualifying entity taxes." The judgment shall have 118760
the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 118761
judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 118762
applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under 118763
the judgment.118764

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety118765
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 118766
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 118767
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 118768
from the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until it 118769
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 118770
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 118771
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 118772
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 118773
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 118774
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 118775
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 118776
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 118777
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.118778

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 118779
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 118780
chapter or Chapter 5733. or 5748. of the Revised Code, as 118781
appropriate.118782

       (E) If the party assessed files a petition for reassessment 118783
under division (B) of this section, the person, on or before the 118784
last day the petition may be filed, shall pay the assessed amount, 118785
including assessed interest and assessed penalties, if any of the 118786
following conditions exists:118787

       (1) The person files a tax return reporting Ohio adjusted 118788
gross income, less the exemptions allowed by section 5747.025 of 118789
the Revised Code, in an amount less than one cent, and the 118790
reported amount is not based on the computations required under 118791
division (A) of section 5747.01 or section 5747.025 of the Revised 118792
Code.118793

       (2) The person files a tax return that the tax commissioner 118794
determines to be incomplete, false, fraudulent, or frivolous.118795

        (3) The person fails to file a tax return, and the basis for 118796
this failure is not either of the following:118797

        (a) An assertion that the person has no nexus with this 118798
state;118799

        (b) The computations required under division (A) of section 118800
5747.01 of the Revised Code or the application of credits allowed 118801
under this chapter has the result that the person's tax liability 118802
is less than one dollar and one cent.118803

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 118804
is pending, the petitioner may pay all or a portion of the 118805
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 118806
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 118807
for refund upon final determination of the petition.118808

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 118809
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 118810
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 118811
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 118812
that the amount due from the party assessed under the corrected 118813
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 118814
the petitioner or to the petitioner's assigns or legal 118815
representative a refund in the amount of the overpayment as 118816
provided by section 5747.11 of the Revised Code, with interest on 118817
that amount as provided by such section, subject to section 118818
5747.12 of the Revised Code.118819

       Sec. 5747.21. (A) This section applies solely for the 118820
purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of 118821
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code, computing income taxable in 118822
this state under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised 118823
Code, and computing the credit allowed under section 5747.057 of 118824
the Revised Code.118825

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under sections 5747.211 and118826
section 5747.212 of the Revised Code, all items of business income 118827
and business deduction shall be apportioned to this state by 118828
multiplying the adjusted gross income by the fraction calculated 118829
under division (B)(2) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.057 of 118830
the Revised Code as if the taxpayer's business were a corporation 118831
subject to the tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.118832

       (C) If the allocation and apportionment provisions of 118833
sections 5747.20 to 5747.23 of the Revised Code or of any rule 118834
adopted by the tax commissioner, do not fairly represent the 118835
extent of business activity in this state of a taxpayer or 118836
pass-through entity, the taxpayer or pass-through entity may 118837
request, which request must be in writing accompanying thea 118838
timely filed return or timely filed amended return, or the tax 118839
commissioner may require, in respect of all or any part of the 118840
business activity, if reasonable, any one or more of the 118841
following:118842

       (1) Separate accounting;118843

       (2) The exclusion of one or more factors;118844

       (3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which 118845
will fairly represent the business activity in this state;118846

       (4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an 118847
equitable allocation and apportionment of such business in this 118848
state. An alternative method will be effective only with approval 118849
of the tax commissioner.118850

       The tax commissioner may adopt rules in the manner provided 118851
by sections 5703.14 and 5747.18 of the Revised Code providing for 118852
alternative methods of calculating business income and nonbusiness 118853
income applicable to all taxpayers and pass-through entities, to 118854
classes of taxpayers and pass-through entities, or only to 118855
taxpayers and pass-through entities within a certain industry.118856

       Sec. 5747.47. (A)(1) By the twentiethtwenty-fifth day of 118857
July of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify 118858
the following for each county to its county auditor:118859

       (a) Its guaranteed share of the ensuing year's fund balance;118860

       (b) Its share of the excess of the ensuing year's fund 118861
balance;118862

       (c) Its total entitlement.118863

       (2) In December and in June following such estimations and 118864
certifications, the commissioner shall revise such estimates and 118865
certify such revised estimates to the respective county auditors.118866

       (B) By the tenth day of each month the commissioner shall 118867
distribute the amount credited to the public library fund in the 118868
current month under section 131.51 of the Revised Code. The 118869
distributions shall be made as follows:118870

       (1) During the first six months of each year, each county 118871
shall be paid a percentage of the balance that is the same per 118872
cent that the revised estimate of the county's total entitlement 118873
certified in December under division (A)(2) of this section is of 118874
the sum of such revised estimates of the total entitlements for 118875
all counties.118876

       (2) During the last six months, each county shall be paid a 118877
percentage of the balance that is the same per cent that the 118878
revised estimate of the county's total entitlement certified in 118879
June under division (A)(2) of this section is of the sum of such 118880
revised estimates of the total entitlements for all counties.118881

       (3) During each of the first six months of each year, the 118882
payments made to each county shall be adjusted as follows:118883

       (a) If the county received an overpayment during the 118884
preceding distribution year, reduce the sum of the payments by the 118885
amount of such overpayment. The reduction shall be apportioned 118886
over the six months.118887

       (b) If the county received an underpayment during the 118888
preceding distribution year, increase the sum of the payments by 118889
the amount of such underpayment. The increase shall be apportioned 118890
over the six months.118891

       (C) By the twentieth day of December of each year, the tax 118892
commissioner shall determine and certify to the auditor of each 118893
county each of the following with respect to the current 118894
distribution year:118895

       (1) The year's fund balance;118896

       (2) Each county's guaranteed share;118897

       (3) Each county's share of the excess;118898

       (4) Each county's total entitlement;118899

       (5) Each county's net distribution;118900

       (6) The amount by which each county's net distribution 118901
exceeded or was less than its total entitlement, which amount 118902
shall constitute the county's overpayment or underpayment for 118903
purposes of division (B)(3) of this section in the ensuing 118904
distribution year.118905

       Sec. 5747.501.  (A) On or before the twenty-fifth day of July 118906
of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify to 118907
each county auditor the amount to be distributed from the local 118908
government fund to each undivided local government fund during the 118909
following calendar year under section 5747.50 of the Revised Code. 118910
The estimate shall equal the sum of the separate amounts computed 118911
under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section.118912

       (B)(1) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 118913
described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section by the amount 118914
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section.118915

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the total amount 118916
distributed to the counties from the local government fund and the 118917
local government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 118918
2007. In fiscal year 2014 and thereafter, the amount distributed 118919
to any county undivided local government fund shall be an amount 118920
not less than seven hundred fifty thousand dollars or the amount 118921
distributed to such fund in fiscal year 2013, whichever amount is 118922
smaller. To the extent necessary to implement this minimum 118923
distribution requirement, the proportionate shares computed under 118924
this division shall be adjusted accordingly.118925

       (b) The total amount distributed to counties from the local 118926
government fund and the local government revenue assistance fund 118927
during calendar year 2007 adjusted downward if, and to the extent 118928
that, total local government fund distributions to counties for 118929
the following year are projected to be less than what was 118930
distributed to counties from the local government fund and local 118931
government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.118932

       (2) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 118933
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section by the amount 118934
described in division (B)(2)(b) of this section.118935

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the state's 118936
population as reflected in the most recent federal decennial 118937
census or the federal government's most recent census estimates, 118938
whichever represents the most recent year.118939

       (b) The amount by which total estimated distributions from 118940
the local government fund during the immediately succeeding 118941
calendar year, less the total estimated amount to be distributed 118942
from the fund to municipal corporations under division (C) of 118943
section 5747.50 of the Revised Code during the immediately 118944
succeeding calendar year, exceed the total amount distributed to 118945
counties from the local government fund and local government 118946
revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.118947

       Sec. 5747.76. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 118948
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 118949
Code.118950

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed under 118951
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code for a taxpayer that is the 118952
certificate owner of a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 118953
issued under section 149.311 of the Revised Code. The credit shall 118954
equal twenty-five per cent of the dollar amount indicated on the 118955
certificate, but the amount of credit allowed for any taxpayer 118956
shall not exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be 118957
claimed for the taxable year specified in the certificate and in 118958
the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 118959

       (C) Nothing in this section limits or disallows pass-through 118960
treatment of the credit if the certificate owner is a pass-through 118961
entity. If the certificate owner is a pass-through entity, the 118962
amount of the credit allowed for the pass-through entity shall not 118963
exceed five million dollars. If the certificate owner is a 118964
pass-through entity, the credit may be allocated among the 118965
entity's equity owners in proportion to their ownership interests 118966
or in such proportions or amounts as the equity owners mutually 118967
agree.118968

       (D) If the credit allowed for any taxable year exceeds the 118969
tax otherwise due under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, after 118970
allowing for any other credits preceding the credit in the order 118971
prescribed by section 5747.98 of the Revised Code, the excess 118972
shall be refunded to the taxpayer but, if any amount of the credit 118973
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 118974
to reduce the tax otherwise due for that year shall not exceed 118975
three million dollars or, if the certificate owner is a 118976
pass-through entity, shall not exceed the taxpayer's distributive 118977
or proportionate share, as allocated under division (C) of this 118978
section, of three million dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward 118979
any balance of the credit in excess of the amount claimed for that 118980
year for not more than five ensuing taxable years, and shall 118981
deduct any amount claimed for any such year from the amount 118982
claimed in an ensuing year.118983

       (E) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 118984
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 118985
following the end of the taxable year to which the credit was 118986
applied, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 118987
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 118988
during that period.118989

       Sec. 5747.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 118990
calculating the amount of tax due under section 5747.02 of the 118991
Revised Code, a taxpayer shall claim any credits to which the 118992
taxpayer is entitled in the following order:118993

       (1) The retirement income credit under division (B) of 118994
section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118995

       (2) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 118996
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118997

       (3) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 118998
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;118999

       (4) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 119000
Revised Code;119001

       (5) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 119002
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;119003

       (6) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 119004
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;119005

       (7) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 119006
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;119007

       (8) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 119008
Revised Code;119009

       (9) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 119010
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;119011

       (10) The campaign contribution credit under section 5747.29 119012
of the Revised Code;119013

       (11) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under 119014
section 5747.022 of the Revised Code;119015

       (12) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 119016
5747.05 of the Revised Code;119017

       (13) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 119018
5747.05 of the Revised Code;119019

       (14) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 119020
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;119021

       (15) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 119022
child day-care centers under section 5747.34 of the Revised Code;119023

       (16) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 119024
care expenses under section 5747.36 of the Revised Code;119025

       (17) The credit for adoption of a minor child under section 119026
5747.37 of the Revised Code;119027

       (18) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 119028
section 5747.38 of the Revised Code;119029

       (19) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 119030
(B) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;119031

       (20) The credit for selling alternative fuel under section 119032
5747.77 of the Revised Code;119033

       (21) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 119034
machinery and equipment and the credit for using Ohio coal under 119035
section 5747.31 of the Revised Code;119036

       (22) The job training credit under section 5747.39 of the 119037
Revised Code;119038

       (23) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 119039
Revised Code;119040

       (24) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 119041
voluntary action under section 5747.32 of the Revised Code;119042

       (25) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 119043
day-care centers under section 5747.35 of the Revised Code;119044

       (26) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 119045
5747.75 of the Revised Code;119046

       (27) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 119047
property under section 5747.28 of the Revised Code;119048

       (28) The small business investment credit under section 119049
5747.81 of the Revised Code;119050

       (29) The credit for research and development and technology 119051
transfer investors under section 5747.33 of the Revised Code;119052

       (30) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 119053
Revised Code;119054

       (31)(30) The research and development credit under section 119055
5747.331 of the Revised Code;119056

       (32)(31) The credit for rehabilitating a historic building 119057
under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;119058

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 119059
building under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;119060

       (34)(33) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 119061
credit under division (A) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;119062

       (35)(34) The refundable credit for taxes paid by a qualifying 119063
entity granted under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;119064

       (36)(35) The refundable credits for taxes paid by a 119065
qualifying pass-through entity granted under division (J) of 119066
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code;119067

       (37)(36) The refundable credit under section 5747.80 of the 119068
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 119069
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;119070

       (38)(37) The refundable motion picture production credit 119071
under section 5747.66 of the Revised Code.119072

       (39)(38) The refundable credit for financial institution 119073
taxes paid by a pass-through entity granted under section 5747.65 119074
of the Revised Code.119075

       (B) For any credit, except the refundable credits enumerated 119076
in this section and the credit granted under division (I) of 119077
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code, the amount of the credit for 119078
a taxable year shall not exceed the tax due after allowing for any 119079
other credit that precedes it in the order required under this 119080
section. Any excess amount of a particular credit may be carried 119081
forward if authorized under the section creating that credit. 119082
Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow a taxpayer to 119083
claim, directly or indirectly, a credit more than once for a 119084
taxable year.119085

       Sec. 5749.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue to 119086
administer the state's coal mining and reclamation regulatory 119087
program, to meet the environmental and resource management needs 119088
of this state, and to reclaim land affected by mining, an excise 119089
tax is hereby levied on the privilege of engaging in the severance 119090
of natural resources from the soil or water of this state. The tax 119091
shall be imposed upon the severer and shall beat the rates 119092
prescribed by divisions (A)(1) to (9) of this section:119093

       (1) Ten cents per ton of coal;119094

       (2) Four cents per ton of salt;119095

       (3) Two cents per ton of limestone or dolomite;119096

       (4) Two cents per ton of sand and gravel;119097

       (5) Ten cents per barrel of oil;119098

       (6) Two and one-half cents per thousand cubic feet of natural 119099
gas;119100

       (7) One cent per ton of clay, sandstone or conglomerate, 119101
shale, gypsum, or quartzite;119102

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in this division or in rules 119103
adopted by the reclamation forfeiture fund advisory board under 119104
section 1513.182 of the Revised Code, an additional fourteen cents 119105
per ton of coal produced from an area under a coal mining and 119106
reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code 119107
for which the performance security is provided under division 119108
(C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the Revised Code. Beginning July 1, 119109
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the 119110
reclamation forfeiture fund created in section 1513.18 of the 119111
Revised Code is equal to or greater than ten million dollars, the 119112
rate levied shall be twelve cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2007, 119113
if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund is at 119114
least five million dollars, but less than ten million dollars, the 119115
rate levied shall be fourteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 119116
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund 119117
is less than five million dollars, the rate levied shall be 119118
sixteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2009, not later than 119119
thirty days after the close of a fiscal biennium, the chief of the 119120
division of mineral resources management shall certify to the tax 119121
commissioner the amount of the balance of the reclamation 119122
forfeiture fund as of the close of the fiscal biennium. Any 119123
necessary adjustment of the rate levied shall take effect on the 119124
first day of the following January and shall remain in effect 119125
during the calendar biennium that begins on that date.119126

       (9) An additional one and two-tenths cents per ton of coal 119127
mined by surface mining methods.119128

       (B) OfAfter the director of budget and management transfers 119129
money from the severance tax receipts fund as required in division 119130
(H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, money remaining in the 119131
severance tax receipts fund, except for money in the fund from the 119132
amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, shall be 119133
credited as follows:119134

       (1) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 119135
fund from the tax levied in division (A)(1) of this section, four 119136
and seventy-six-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 119137
geological mapping fund created in section 1505.09 of the Revised 119138
Code, eighty and ninety-five-hundredths per cent shall be credited 119139
to the coal mining administration and reclamation reserve fund 119140
created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code, and fourteen and 119141
twenty-nine-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 119142
unreclaimed lands fund created in section 1513.30 of the Revised 119143
Code.119144

       (2) The money received by the treasurer of statein the fund119145
from the tax levied in division (A)(2) of this section shall be 119146
credited to the geological mapping fund.119147

       (3) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 119148
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this 119149
section, seven and five-tenths per cent shall be credited to the 119150
geological mapping fund, forty-two and five-tenths per cent shall 119151
be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund, and the remainder shall 119152
be credited to the surface mining fund created in section 1514.06 119153
of the Revised Code.119154

       (4) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 119155
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of this 119156
section, ninety per cent shall be credited to the oil and gas well 119157
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code and ten per 119158
cent shall be credited to the geological mapping fund. All of the 119159
moneys received by the treasurer of statein the fund from the 119160
tax levied in division (A)(7) of this section shall be credited to 119161
the surface mining fund.119162

       (5) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 119163
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(8) of this section 119164
shall be credited to the reclamation forfeiture fund.119165

       (6) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 119166
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(9) of this section 119167
shall be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund.119168

       (C) When, at the close of any fiscal year, the chief finds 119169
that the balance of the reclamation forfeiture fund, plus 119170
estimated transfers to it from the coal mining administration and 119171
reclamation reserve fund under section 1513.181 of the Revised 119172
Code, plus the estimated revenues from the tax levied by division 119173
(A)(8) of this section for the remainder of the calendar year that 119174
includes the close of the fiscal year, are sufficient to complete 119175
the reclamation of all lands for which the performance security 119176
has been provided under division (C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the 119177
Revised Code, the purposes for which the tax under division (A)(8) 119178
of this section is levied shall be deemed accomplished at the end 119179
of that calendar year. The chief, within thirty days after the 119180
close of the fiscal year, shall certify those findings to the tax 119181
commissioner, and the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this 119182
section shall cease to be imposed for the subsequent calendar year 119183
after the last day of that calendar year on coal produced under a 119184
coal mining and reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of 119185
the Revised Code if the permittee has made tax payments under 119186
division (A)(8) of this section during each of the preceding five 119187
full calendar years. Not later than thirty days after the close of 119188
a fiscal year, the chief shall certify to the tax commissioner the 119189
identity of any permittees who accordingly no longer are required 119190
to pay the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this section for 119191
the subsequent calendar year.119192

       Sec. 5749.06.  (A)(1) Each severer liable for the tax imposed 119193
by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and each severer or owner 119194
liable for the amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 119195
Code shall make and file returns with the tax commissioner in the 119196
prescribed form and as of the prescribed times, computing and 119197
reflecting therein the tax as required by this chapter and amounts 119198
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code.119199

       (2) The returns shall be filed for every quarterly period, 119200
which periods shall end on the thirty-first day of March, the 119201
thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, and the 119202
thirty-first day of December of each year, as required by this 119203
section, unless a different return period is prescribed for a 119204
taxpayer by the commissioner.119205

       (B)(1) A separate return shall be filed for each calendar 119206
quarterly period, or other period, or any part thereof, during 119207
which the severer holds a license as provided by section 5749.04 119208
of the Revised Code, or is required to hold the license, or during 119209
which an owner is required to file a return, and the. The return 119210
shall be filed within forty-five days after the last day of each 119211
such calendar month, or other period, or any part thereof, for 119212
which the return is required and shall include remittance payable 119213
to the treasurer of state of the amount of. The tax due is payable 119214
along with the return. All such returns shall contain such 119215
information as the commissioner may require to fairly administer 119216
the tax.119217

       (2) All returns shall be signed by the severer or owner, as 119218
applicable, shall contain the full and complete information 119219
requested, and shall be made under penalty of perjury.119220

       (C) If the commissioner believes that quarterly payments of 119221
tax would result in a delay that might jeopardize the collection 119222
of such tax payments, the commissioner may order that such 119223
payments be made weekly, or more frequently if necessary, such 119224
payments to be made not later than seven days following the close 119225
of the period for which the jeopardy payment is required. Such an 119226
order shall be delivered to the taxpayer personally or by 119227
certified mail and shall remain in effect until the commissioner 119228
notifies the taxpayer to the contrary.119229

       (D) Upon good cause the commissioner may extend for thirty 119230
days the period for filing any notice or return required to be 119231
filed under this section, and may remit all or a part of penalties 119232
that may become due under this chapter.119233

       (E) Any tax and any amount due under section 1509.50 of the 119234
Revised Code not paid by the day the tax or amount is due shall 119235
bear interest computed at the rate per annum prescribed by section 119236
5703.47 of the Revised Code on that amount due from the day that 119237
the amount was originally required to be paid to the day of actual 119238
payment or to the day an assessment was issued under section 119239
5749.07 or 5749.10 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs first.119240

       (F) The severer shall make all payments payable to the 119241
treasurer of state. Except for the amounts due under section 119242
1509.50 of the Revised Code, allA severer or owner, as 119243
applicable, that fails to file a complete return or pay the full 119244
amount due under this chapter within the time prescribed, 119245
including any extensions of time granted by the commissioner, 119246
shall be subject to a penalty not to exceed the greater of fifty 119247
dollars or ten per cent of the amount due for the period.119248

       (G)(1) A severer or owner, as applicable, shall remit 119249
payments electronically and, if required by the commissioner, file 119250
each return electronically. The commissioner may require that the 119251
severer or owner use the Ohio business gateway, as defined in 119252
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, or another electronic means 119253
to file returns and remit payments electronically.119254

       (2) A severer or owner that is required to remit payments 119255
electronically under this section may apply to the commissioner, 119256
in the manner prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from 119257
that requirement. The commissioner may excuse a severer or owner 119258
from the requirements of division (G) of this section for good 119259
cause.119260

       (3) If a severer or owner that is required to remit payments 119261
or file returns electronically under this section fails to do so, 119262
the commissioner may impose a penalty on the severer or owner not 119263
to exceed the following:119264

       (a) For the first or second payment or return the severer or 119265
owner fails to remit or file electronically, the greater of five 119266
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 119267
remitted or twenty-five dollars;119268

       (b) For every payment or return after the second that the 119269
severer or owner fails to remit or file electronically, the 119270
greater of ten per cent of the amount of the payment that was 119271
required to be remitted or fifty dollars.119272

       (H)(1) All amounts that the tax commissioner receives under 119273
this section shall be deemed to be revenue from taxes imposed 119274
under this chapter. The commissioner shall immediately forward to 119275
the treasurer of state all amounts received under this sectionor 119276
from the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as 119277
applicable, and shall be deposited in the severance tax receipts 119278
fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury.119279

       (2) The director of budget and management shall transfer from 119280
the severance tax receipts fund to the tax refund fund amounts 119281
equal to the refunds certified by the commissioner under section 119282
5749.08 of the Revised Code. Any amount transferred under division 119283
(H)(2) of this section shall be derived from receipts of the same 119284
tax or other amount from which the refund arose.119285

       (3) After the director of budget and management makes any 119286
transfer required by division (H)(2) of this section, but not 119287
later than the fifteenth day of the month following the end of 119288
each calendar quarter, the commissioner shall certify to the 119289
director the total amount remaining in the severance tax receipts 119290
fund organized according to the amount attributable to each 119291
natural resource and according to the amount attributable to a tax 119292
imposed by this chapter and the amounts due under section 1509.50 119293
of the Revised Code.119294

       (I) Penalties imposed under this section are in addition to 119295
any other penalty imposed under this chapter and shall be 119296
considered as revenue arising from the tax levied under this 119297
chapter or the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 119298
Code, as applicable. The commissioner may collect any penalty or 119299
interest imposed under this section in the same manner as provided 119300
for the making of an assessment in section 5749.07 of the Revised 119301
Code. The commissioner may abate all or a portion of such interest 119302
or penalties and may adopt rules governing such abatements.119303

       Sec. 5749.07.  (A) If any severer required by this chapter to 119304
make and file returns and pay the tax levied by section 5749.02 of 119305
the Revised Code, or any severer or owner liable for the amounts 119306
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, fails to make such 119307
return or pay such tax or amounts, the tax commissioner may make 119308
an assessment against the severer or owner based upon any 119309
information in the commissioner's possession.119310

       No assessment shall be made or issued against any severer for 119311
any tax imposed by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code or against 119312
any severer or owner for any amount due under section 1509.50 of 119313
the Revised Code more than four years after the return was due or 119314
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 119315
assessment against a severer or owner who fails to file a return 119316
as required by this chapter, or who files a fraudulent return.119317

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 119318
of such assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of 119319
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 119320
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 119321
hearing on the petition.119322

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 119323
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 119324
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 119325
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 119326
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 119327
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 119328
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 119329
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 119330
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 119331
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 119332
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 119333
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.119334

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 119335
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 119336
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 119337
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 119338
in the county in which the party assessed resides or in which the 119339
party's business is conducted. If the party assessed maintains no 119340
place of business in this state and is not a resident of this 119341
state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office 119342
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.119343

       Immediately upon the filing of such entry, the clerk shall 119344
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 119345
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 119346
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 119347
severance tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 119348
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 119349
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 119350
apply to sales made under the judgment.119351

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety119352
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 119353
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due or amounts due 119354
under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall bear interest at 119355
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 119356
Code from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it 119357
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 119358
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 119359
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 119360
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 119361
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 119362
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 119363
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 119364
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 119365
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.119366

       (D) All money collected by the commissioner under this 119367
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 119368
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 119369
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and the amount due under 119370
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as applicable.119371

       Sec. 5749.17. AnyExcept for purposes of enforcing Chapter 119372
1509. of the Revised Code, any information provided to the 119373
department of natural resources by the department of taxation in 119374
accordance with division (C)(12) of section 5703.21 of the Revised 119375
Code shall not be disclosed publicly by the department of natural 119376
resources, but. However the department of natural resources may 119377
provide such information to the attorney general for purposes of 119378
enforcement of the lawChapter 1509. of the Revised Code.119379

       Sec. 5751.01.  As used in this chapter:119380

       (A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, 119381
combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, 119382
trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, 119383
business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability 119384
partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint 119385
ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S 119386
corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified 119387
subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for 119388
federal income tax purposes, and any other entities. 119389

       (B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or 119390
more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this 119391
chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 119392
of the Revised Code.119393

       (C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons 119394
treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under 119395
section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.119396

       (D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in 119397
the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer 119398
treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under 119399
this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.119400

        (E) "Excluded person" means any of the following:119401

       (1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand 119402
dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. 119403
Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is 119404
a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;119405

        (2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by 119406
section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or 119407
more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under 119408
this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined 119409
company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:119410

        (a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public 119411
utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that 119412
is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 119413
of the Revised Code;119414

        (b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed 119415
to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the 119416
taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this 119417
section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts 119418
that can be directly attributed to any activity;119419

        (c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an 119420
accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining 119421
gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis 119422
method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts 119423
under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts 119424
directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall 119425
be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 119426
5727.03 of the Revised Code.119427

        As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined 119428
company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 119429
5727.01 of the Revised Code.119430

       (3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5726.01 of 119431
the Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of 119432
the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include 119433
the entire tax period under this chapter;119434

       (4) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more 119435
financial institutions, as defined in section 5726.01 of the 119436
Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of the 119437
Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the 119438
entire tax period under this chapter.119439

        For the purposes of division (E)(4) of this section, a person 119440
owns another person under the following circumstances:119441

        (a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one 119442
corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or 119443
more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting 119444
rights;119445

        (b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person 119446
owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined 119447
in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more 119448
of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such 119449
interests in the company;119450

        (c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other 119451
unincorporated business organization other than a limited 119452
liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the 119453
articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs 119454
of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the 119455
organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of 119456
fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all 119457
persons having such an interest in the organization.119458

        (5) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance 119459
company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that 119460
paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 119461
or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code, or an unauthorized insurance 119462
company whose gross premiums are subject to tax under section 119463
3905.36 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement 119464
periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;119465

       (6) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more 119466
securitizations of phase-in-recovery property pursuant to a final 119467
financing order as those terms are defined in section 4928.23 of 119468
the Revised Code. For purposes of this division, "securitization" 119469
means transferring one or more assets to one or more persons and 119470
then issuing securities backed by the right to receive payment 119471
from the asset or assets so transferred.119472

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 119473
pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 119474
5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which 119475
such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, 119476
or constructively through related interests, more than five per 119477
cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax 119478
trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under 119479
division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the 119480
trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, 119481
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 119482
more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, 119483
shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed 119484
under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.119485

       (8) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, 119486
instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.119487

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), 119488
and (4) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total amount 119489
realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold 119490
or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the production of 119491
gross income of the person, including the fair market value of any 119492
property and any services received, and any debt transferred or 119493
forgiven as consideration. 119494

       (1) The following are examples of gross receipts:119495

       (a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other 119496
disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;119497

       (b) Amounts realized from the taxpayer's performance of 119498
services for another;119499

       (c) Amounts realized from another's use or possession of the 119500
taxpayer's property or capital;119501

       (d) Any combination of the foregoing amounts.119502

       (2) "Gross receipts" excludes the following amounts:119503

       (a) Interest income except interest on credit sales;119504

       (b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and 119505
distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a 119506
pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the 119507
Revised Code;119508

       (c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of 119509
an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue 119510
Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the 119511
asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, 119512
receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent 119513
the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial 119514
position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign 119515
currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, 119516
losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) 119517
interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. 119518
As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging 119519
transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the 119520
Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded 119521
hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting 119522
standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. 119523
For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual 119524
transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another 119525
entity is not a hedging transaction.119526

       (d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, 119527
maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual 119528
fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;119529

       (e) The principal amount received under a repurchase 119530
agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized 119531
as a loan to the person;119532

       (f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other 119533
arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the 119534
Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 119535
1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;119536

       (g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in 119537
cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former 119538
employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered 119539
to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for 119540
an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance 119541
premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care 119542
spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan 119543
described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any 119544
similar employee reimbursement;119545

       (h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own 119546
stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the 119547
taxpayer's treasury stock;119548

       (i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from 119549
insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of 119550
business revenue;119551

       (j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership 119552
dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium 119553
associations; and payments received for educational courses, 119554
meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or 119555
other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by 119556
any person when any excess receipts are donated or used 119557
exclusively for charitable purposes;119558

       (k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of 119559
amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross 119560
receipts;119561

       (l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired 119562
by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's 119563
commission, fee, or other remuneration;119564

       (m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and 119565
reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by 119566
entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or 119567
consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by 119568
entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or 119569
consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made 119570
for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax 119571
obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid 119572
entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 119573
5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;119574

       (n) Pension reversions;119575

       (o) Contributions to capital;119576

       (p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an 119577
out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a 119578
consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect 119579
directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal 119580
tax authority;119581

       (q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or 119582
tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, 119583
distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 119584
5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and 119585
state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or 119586
tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or 119587
Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;119588

       (r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel by a 119589
licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed 119590
permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of 119591
the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise 119592
taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of 119593
the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;119594

       (s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or 119595
intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised 119596
Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 119597
4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state 119598
excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or 119599
intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code 119600
or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;119601

        (t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used 119602
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 119603
Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as 119604
defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the 119605
purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only 119606
if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need 119607
to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;119608

       (u) Receipts from a financial institution described in 119609
division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the 119610
financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, 119611
servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such 119612
financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at 119613
least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or 119614
controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, 119615
by common owners;119616

       (v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic 119617
drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic 119618
agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients 119619
with cancer;119620

       (w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a 119621
dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, 119622
pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending 119623
mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section 119624
have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 119625
except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in 119626
obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by 119627
the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or 119628
warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage 119629
loans.119630

        (x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a 119631
professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 119632
of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that 119633
section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the 119634
professional employer organization to the client employer;119635

       (y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a 119636
permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount 119637
equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be 119638
paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the 119639
amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;119640

       (z) Qualifying distribution center receipts.119641

       (i) For purposes of division (F)(2)(z) of this section:119642

       (I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts 119643
of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a 119644
qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that 119645
equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage. If the qualified 119646
distribution center is a refining facility, "supplier" includes 119647
all dealers, brokers, processors, sellers, vendors, cosigners, and 119648
distributors of qualified property.119649

       (II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property 119650
delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to 119651
that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by 119652
the qualified distribution center to another location in this 119653
state or elsewhere or, in the case of gold, silver, platinum, or 119654
palladium delivered to a refining facility solely for refining to 119655
a grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 119656
commodities exchange. "Further shipping" includes storing and 119657
repackaging property into smaller or larger bundles, so long as 119658
the property is not subject to further manufacturing or 119659
processing. "Refining" is limited to extracting impurities from 119660
gold, silver, platinum, or palladium through smelting or some 119661
other process at a refining facility.119662

       (III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse, a 119663
facility similar to a warehouse, or a refining facility in this 119664
state that, for the qualifying year, is operated by a person that 119665
is not part of a combined taxpayer group and that has a qualifying 119666
certificate. All warehouses or facilities similar to warehouses 119667
that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that 119668
are located within one mile of each other shall be treated as one 119669
qualified distribution center. All refining facilities that are 119670
operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are 119671
located in the same or adjacent counties may be treated as one 119672
qualified distribution center.119673

       (IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the 119674
qualifying certificate applies.119675

       (V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of 119676
July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the 119677
thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.119678

       (VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by 119679
the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center 119680
files an annual application with the commissioner. The application 119681
and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified 119682
distribution center on or before the first day of September before 119683
the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the 119684
distribution center opens, whichever is later.119685

       The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's 119686
satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons 119687
operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of 119688
the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that 119689
it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of 119690
division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The 119691
applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center 119692
cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding 119693
five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For 119694
purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" 119695
excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected 119696
taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified 119697
distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant 119698
to have an independent certified public accountant certify that 119699
the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified 119700
distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has 119701
been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting 119702
principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a 119703
certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the 119704
application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 119705
of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under 119706
section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted 119707
a qualifying certificate, provided thateffective for the 119708
remainder of the qualifying year or until the appeal is finalized, 119709
whichever is earlier. If the operator is liable for any tax, 119710
interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying 119711
distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt 119712
under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, 119713
that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the 119714
qualifying certificate was validdoes not prevail in the appeal, 119715
the operator shall pay the operator's supplier tax liability.119716

       (VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the 119717
total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the 119718
qualified distribution center during the qualifying period 119719
compared with total deliveries from such distribution center 119720
everywhere during the qualifying period.119721

       (VIII) "Refining facility" means one or more buildings 119722
located in a county in the Appalachian region of this state as 119723
defined by section 107.21 of the Revised Code and utilized for 119724
refining or smelting gold, silver, platinum, or palladium to a 119725
grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 119726
commodities exchange.119727

        (IX) "Registered commodities exchange" means a board of 119728
trade, such as New York mercantile exchange, inc. or commodity 119729
exchange, inc., designated as a contract market by the commodity 119730
futures trading commission under the "Commodity Exchange Act," 7 119731
U.S.C. 1 et seq., as amended.119732

       (X) "Supplier tax liability" means an amount equal to the tax 119733
liability of all suppliers of a distribution center had the 119734
distribution center not been issued a qualifying certificate for 119735
the qualifying year, less the amount actually paid by the 119736
suppliers for the qualifying year. Supplier tax liability shall 119737
not include interest or penalties. The tax commissioner shall 119738
determine an operator's supplier tax liability based on 119739
information that the commissioner may request from the operator of 119740
the distribution center. An operator shall provide a list of all 119741
suppliers of the distribution center and the corresponding costs 119742
of qualified property for the qualifying year at issue within 119743
sixty days of a request by the commissioner under this division.119744

       (ii)(I) If the distribution center is new and was not open 119745
for the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution 119746
center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying 119747
certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later 119748
determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property 119749
during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would 119750
be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division 119751
(E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later 119752
determined that the person that operates the distribution center 119753
had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty 119754
million dollars during that year, then the operator of the 119755
distribution center shall pay a penalty for that year equal to 119756
five hundred thousand dollarsthe operator's supplier tax 119757
liability. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this 119758
section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the 119759
consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the 119760
operator of the qualified distribution center.)119761

       (II) The commissioner may grant a qualifying certificate to a 119762
distribution center that does not qualify as a qualified 119763
distribution center for an entire qualifying period if the 119764
operator of the distribution center demonstrates that the business 119765
operations of the distribution center have changed or will change 119766
such that the distribution center will qualify as a qualified 119767
distribution center within thirty-six months after the date the 119768
operator first applies for a certificate. If, at the end of that 119769
thirty-six-month period, the business operations of the 119770
distribution center have not changed such that the distribution 119771
center qualifies as a qualified distribution center, the operator 119772
of the distribution center shall pay a penalty equal to five 119773
hundred thousand dollarsthe operator's supplier tax liability for 119774
each year that the distribution center received a certificate but 119775
did not qualify as a qualified distribution center. For each year 119776
the distribution center receives a certificate under division 119777
(F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this section, the distribution center shall 119778
pay all applicable fees required under division (F)(2)(z) of this 119779
section and shall submit an updated business plan showing the 119780
progress the distribution center made toward qualifying as a 119781
qualified distribution center during the preceding year. 119782

       (III) An operator may appeal the imposition of a penalty 119783
imposeddetermination under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(I) or (II) of 119784
this section that the operator is liable for the operator's 119785
supplier tax liability as a result of not qualifying as a 119786
qualified distribution center, as provided in section 5717.02 of 119787
the Revised Code. 119788

       (iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate 119789
under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a 119790
qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as 119791
the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the 119792
Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the 119793
qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery 119794
percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may 119795
appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery 119796
percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the 119797
denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) 119798
of this section.119799

       Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the 119800
operator of the qualified distribution center shall provide the 119801
commissioner with a list of all affected suppliers of qualified 119802
property. The commissioner shall notify all such suppliers that 119803
the suppliers are required to file, within sixty days after 119804
receiving the notice, amended reports for the affected calendar 119805
quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. 119806
Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject 119807
to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any 119808
penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed. The 119809
supplier of tangible personal property delivered to the qualified 119810
distribution center shall include in its report of taxable gross 119811
receipts the receipts from the total sales of property delivered 119812
to the qualified distribution center for the calendar quarter or 119813
calendar year, whichever the case may be, multiplied by the Ohio 119814
delivery percentage for the qualifying year. Nothing in division 119815
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be construed as imposing 119816
liability on the operator of a qualified distribution center for 119817
the tax imposed by this chapter arising from any change to the 119818
Ohio delivery percentage.119819

       (iv)(I) In the case where the distribution center is new and 119820
not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make 119821
a good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by 119822
suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the 119823
remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility 119824
shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage 119825
is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of 119826
the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator 119827
shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the 119828
estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division 119829
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and 119830
recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is 119831
required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from 119832
the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports 119833
for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, 119834
whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax 119835
overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject 119836
to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns 119837
are timely filed.119838

       (II) The operator of a distribution center that receives a 119839
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 119840
section shall make a good faith estimate of the Ohio delivery 119841
percentage that the operator estimates will apply to the 119842
distribution center at the end of the thirty-six-month period 119843
after the operator first applied for a qualifying certificate 119844
under that division. The result of the estimate shall be 119845
multiplied by a factor of one and seventy-five one-hundredths. The 119846
product of that calculation shall be the Ohio delivery percentage 119847
used by suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for 119848
each qualifying year that the distribution center receives a 119849
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 119850
section, except that, if the product is less than five per cent, 119851
the Ohio delivery percentage used shall be five per cent and that, 119852
if the product exceeds forty-nine per cent, the Ohio delivery 119853
percentage used shall be forty-nine per cent.119854

       (v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages 119855
issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and 119856
shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying 119857
in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall 119858
not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center 119859
receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A person 119860
receiving a qualifying certificate is liable for a penalty equal 119861
to five hundred thousand dollarsthe person's supplier tax 119862
liability for each year the person received a certificate that 119863
should not have been issued because the statutory requirements 119864
were in fact not metbut did not qualify as a qualified 119865
distribution center.119866

       (vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one 119867
hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. 119868
If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is 119869
subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for 119870
in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed 119871
under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax 119872
imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars 119873
of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall 119874
be credited to the revenue enhancement fund. The remainder of the 119875
annual application fees collected shall be distributed in the same 119876
manner required under section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.119877

       (vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security 119878
be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal 119879
when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the 119880
minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set 119881
forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) anddivision (F)(2)(z)(ii) of 119882
this section.119883

       (aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating 119884
to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an 119885
unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;119886

        (bb) Cash discounts allowed and taken;119887

       (cc) Returns and allowances;119888

       (dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 119889
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment 119890
period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any 119891
debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the 119892
preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been 119893
uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a 119894
deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the 119895
regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed 119896
as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. 119897
"Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible 119898
amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer 119899
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 119900
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 119901
recovered;119902

       (ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account 119903
receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying 119904
transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in 119905
the gross receipts of the taxpayer;119906

       (ff) Any receipts directly attributed to a transfer agreement 119907
or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under 119908
section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.119909

       (gg)(i) As used in this division:119910

       (I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the 119911
sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other 119912
disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified 119913
by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this 119914
section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any 119915
receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment 119916
zone certified by the tax commissioner under division 119917
(F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this section.119918

       (II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that 119919
is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United 119920
States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or 119921
controlled by the United States department of energy or its 119922
successor.119923

       (ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or 119924
tangible personal property constituting or located within a 119925
uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have 119926
the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding 119927
qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(gg) of this 119928
section. The application shall include such information that the 119929
tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the 119930
application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that 119931
purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies 119932
as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(gg) of 119933
this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the 119934
property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the 119935
application or request additional information from the applicant. 119936
If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner 119937
shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal 119938
the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant 119939
to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a 119940
timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify 119941
the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall 119942
expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until 119943
final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the 119944
applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the 119945
Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation 119946
of records under that section.119947

       (hh) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or 119948
licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of 119949
petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, 119950
provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a 119951
refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the 119952
exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary 119953
compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged 119954
petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in 119955
product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(hh) of this section 119956
does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in 119957
location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from 119958
handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, 119959
pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, 119960
"motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive 119961
motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in 119962
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.119963

       (ii) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed casino 119964
operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the casino 119965
operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino 119966
operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 119967
3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the 119968
meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.119969

       (jj) Receipts realized from the sale of agricultural 119970
commodities by an agricultural commodity handler, both as defined 119971
in section 926.01 of the Revised Code, that is licensed by the 119972
director of agriculture to handle agricultural commodities in this 119973
state.119974

       (kk) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter 119975
is prohibited by the constitution or laws of the United States or 119976
the constitution of this state.119977

        (3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate 119978
broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for 119979
the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate 119980
salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the 119981
broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or 119982
another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, 119983
"real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same 119984
meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.119985

       (4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for 119986
a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of 119987
accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's 119988
federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's 119989
method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its 119990
method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall 119991
be changed accordingly.119992

       (G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to 119993
this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.119994

       (H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any 119995
of the following applies. The person:119996

       (1) Owns or uses a part or all of its capital in this state;119997

       (2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this 119998
state authorizing the person to do business in this state;119999

       (3) Has bright-line presence in this state;120000

       (4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the 120001
person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter 120002
under the Constitution of the United States.120003

       (I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a 120004
reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar 120005
year if any of the following applies. The person:120006

       (1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this 120007
state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. 120008
For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property 120009
is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight 120010
times the net annual rental charge.120011

       (2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at 120012
least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all 120013
of the following:120014

       (a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under 120015
section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;120016

       (b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an 120017
individual under the supervision or control of the person for work 120018
done in this state; and120019

       (c) Any amount the person pays for services performed in this 120020
state on its behalf by another.120021

       (3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at 120022
least five hundred thousand dollars.120023

       (4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this 120024
state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total 120025
property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.120026

       (5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for 120027
corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.120028

       (J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in 120029
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.120030

       (K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code 120031
of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in 120032
this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as 120033
when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States 120034
relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is 120035
clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal 120036
Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to 120037
federal income taxes.120038

       (L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on 120039
the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the 120040
thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.120041

       (M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year 120042
on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax 120043
imposed under this chapter.120044

       (N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the 120045
tax period is a calendar year.120046

       (O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which 120047
the tax period is a calendar quarter.120048

       (P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to 120049
act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, 120050
including any of the following:120051

        (1) A person receiving a fee to sell financial instruments;120052

        (2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction 120053
with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to 120054
another person;120055

        (3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 120056
1533.13 of the Revised Code;120057

        (4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued 120058
under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;120059

        (5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor 120060
control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.120061

       (Q) "Received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual 120062
method of accounting.120063

       (R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated 120064
elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by 120065
that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax 120066
liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to 120067
matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 120068
5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a 120069
member of such a group.120070

       Sec. 5751.014.  All members of a consolidated elected 120071
taxpayer or combined taxpayer group during the tax period or 120072
periods for which additional tax, penalty, or interest is owed are 120073
jointly and severally liable for such amounts. Although the 120074
reporting person will be assessed for the liability, such amounts 120075
due may be collected by assessment against any member of the group 120076
as provided in section 5703.90 of the Revised Code or pursued 120077
against any member of the group when a liability is certified to 120078
the attorney general under section 131.02 of the Revised Code.120079

       Sec. 5751.07.  (A) Any person required to file returns for a 120080
calendar quarterunder this chapter shall remit each tax payment, 120081
and, if required by the tax commissioner, file the tax return or 120082
the annual report, electronically. The commissioner may require 120083
taxpayers to use the Ohio business gateway as defined in section 120084
718.051 of the Revised Code to file returns and remit the tax, or 120085
may provide another means for taxpayers to file and remit the tax 120086
electronically.120087

       (B) A person required by this section to remit taxes or file 120088
returns electronically may apply to the tax commissioner, on the 120089
form prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from that 120090
requirement. The commissioner may excuse a person from the 120091
requirements of this division for good cause.120092

       (C)(1) If a person required to remit taxes or file a return 120093
electronically under this section fails to do so, the commissioner 120094
may impose a penalty not to exceed the following:120095

       (a) For either of the first two calendar quarterstax periods120096
the person so fails, the greater of twenty-five dollars or five 120097
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 120098
remitted;120099

       (b) For the third and any subsequent calendar quarterstax 120100
periods the person so fails, the greater of fifty dollars or ten 120101
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 120102
remitted.120103

       (2) The penalty imposed under division (C)(1) of this section 120104
is in addition to any other penalty imposed under this chapter and 120105
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed under 120106
this chapter. A penalty may be collected by assessment in the 120107
manner prescribed by section 5751.09 of the Revised Code. The tax 120108
commissioner may abate all or a portion of such a penalty.120109

       (D) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 120110
administer this section.120111

       Sec. 5751.081.  As used in this section, "debt to this state" 120112
means unpaid taxes due the state, unpaid workers' compensation 120113
premiums due under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, unpaid 120114
unemployment compensation contributions due under section 4141.25 120115
of the Revised Code, unpaid unemployment compensation payment in 120116
lieu of contribution under section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, 120117
unpaid fee payable to the state or to the clerk of courts pursuant 120118
to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code, incorrect medical 120119
assistance payments for medicaid services under section 5111.02 of 120120
the Revised Codethe medicaid program, or any unpaid charge, 120121
penalty, or interest arising from any of the foregoing.120122

       If a taxpayer entitled to a refund under section 5751.08 of 120123
the Revised Code owes any debt to this state, the amount 120124
refundable may be applied in satisfaction of the debt. If the 120125
amount refundable is less than the amount of the debt, it may be 120126
applied in partial satisfaction of the debt. If the amount 120127
refundable is greater than the amount of the debt, the amount 120128
remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. This 120129
section applies only to debts that have become final. For the 120130
purposes of this section, a debt becomes final when, under the 120131
applicable law, any time provided for petition for reassessment, 120132
request for reconsideration, or other appeal of the legality or 120133
validity of the amount giving rise to the debt expires without an 120134
appeal having been filed in the manner provided by law.120135

       Sec. 5751.09.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 120136
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 120137
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or pay 120138
any tax as required by this chapter. The commissioner shall give 120139
the person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided 120140
in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 120141
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 120142
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 120143
the petition. The commissioner shall send any assessments against 120144
consolidated elected taxpayer and combined taxpayer groups under 120145
section 5751.011 or 5751.012 of the Revised Code to the taxpayer's 120146
"reporting person" as defined under division (R) of section 120147
5751.01 of the Revised Code. The reporting person shall notify all 120148
members of the group of the assessment and all outstanding taxes, 120149
interest, and penalties for which the assessment is issued.120150

       (B) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 120151
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 120152
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 120153
petition signed by the person or the person's authorized agent 120154
having knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and 120155
the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the person 120156
assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate 120157
the objections of the person assessed, but additional objections 120158
may be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to 120159
the date shown on the final determination.120160

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 120161
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 120162
Code.120163

       (C)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 120164
the assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 120165
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 120166
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 120167
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 120168
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 120169
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.120170

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 120171
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 120172
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 120173
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 120174
commercial activity tax" and shall have the same effect as other 120175
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 120176
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 120177
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.120178

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 120179
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 120180
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 120181
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 120182
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 120183
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 120184
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 120185
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 120186
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 120187
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 120188
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 120189
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 120190
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 120191
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 120192
section.120193

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 120194
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 120195
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 120196
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 120197
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 120198
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 120199
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 120200
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 120201
on the person assessed or the person's authorized agent in the 120202
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 120203
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 120204
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 120205
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 120206
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 120207
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 120208
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 120209
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 120210
consideration of the petition for reassessment.120211

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 120212
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 120213
this section, and such amounts shall be considered as revenue 120214
arising from the tax imposed under this chapter.120215

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 120216
assessment shall be made or issued against a taxpayer for the tax 120217
imposed under this chapter more than four years after the due date 120218
for the filing of the return for the tax period for which the tax 120219
was reported, or more than four years after the return for the tax 120220
period was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be 120221
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 120222
writing to the extension or enter into an agreement waiving or 120223
extending the time limit. Any such extension shall extend the 120224
four-year time limit in division (B) of section 5751.08 of the 120225
Revised Code for the same period of time. Nothing in this division 120226
bars an assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a return 120227
required by this chapter or that files a fraudulent return.120228

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 120229
indicates that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay 120230
under this chapter exceeds the amount the taxpayer paid, the tax 120231
commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's gross receipts 120232
over a representative period of time to ascertain the amount of 120233
tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 120234
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 120235
with the taxpayer in selecting a representative sample. The tax 120236
commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the commissioner 120237
has prescribed the method by rule.120238

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 120239
not known to the tax commissioner, the commissioner shall follow 120240
the procedures under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.120241

       Sec. 5751.20.  (A) As used in sections 5751.20 to 5751.22 of 120242
the Revised Code:120243

       (1) "School district," "joint vocational school district," 120244
"local taxing unit," "recognized valuation," "fixed-rate levy," 120245
and "fixed-sum levy" have the same meanings as used in section 120246
5727.84 of the Revised Code.120247

       (2) "State education aid" for a school district means the 120248
following:120249

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 120250
state aid amounts computed for the district under the following 120251
provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal year: 120252
division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, including 120253
the amounts calculated under sectionsformer section 3317.029 and 120254
section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code; divisions (C)(1), (C)(4), 120255
(D), (E), and (F) of section 3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) 120256
of section 3317.023; divisions (L) and (N) of section 3317.024; 120257
section 3317.0216; and any unit payments for gifted student 120258
services paid under sectionssection 3317.05,and former sections120259
3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; except that, for 120260
fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed for the district 120261
under Section 269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 120262
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be 120263
substituted for the amount computed under division (D) of section 120264
3317.022 of the Revised Code, and the amount computed under 120265
Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as 120266
that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.120267

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 120268
computed under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 3306.13, 120269
3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192 of the Revised Code;120270

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the sum of the amounts 120271
paid under Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of H.B. 120272
153 of the 129th general assembly;120273

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 120274
sum of state amounts computed for the district under section 120275
3317.022 of the Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 120276
and 2015, the amount computed for the district under the section 120277
of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND 120278
EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" shall be included.120279

       (3) "State education aid" for a joint vocational school 120280
district means the following:120281

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 120282
the state aid computed for the district under division (N) of 120283
section 3317.024 and former section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, 120284
except that, for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed 120285
under Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 120286
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.120287

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount paid in 120288
accordance with Section 265.30.50 of H.B. 1 of the 128th general 120289
assembly.120290

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 120291
accordance with Section 267.30.60 of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 120292
assembly.120293

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 120294
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 120295
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 120296
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 120297
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 120298
shall be included.120299

        (4) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 120300
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 120301
division (A)(1) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code.120302

       (5) "Machinery and equipment property tax value loss" means 120303
the amount determined under division (C)(1) of this section.120304

       (6) "Inventory property tax value loss" means the amount 120305
determined under division (C)(2) of this section.120306

       (7) "Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss" means 120307
the amount determined under division (C)(3) of this section.120308

        (8) "Machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss" means the 120309
amount determined under division (D)(1) of this section.120310

       (9) "Inventory fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount 120311
determined under division (D)(2) of this section.120312

       (10) "Furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss" means the 120313
amount determined under division (D)(3) of this section.120314

       (11) "Total fixed-rate levy loss" means the sum of the 120315
machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the inventory 120316
fixed-rate levy loss, the furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy 120317
loss, and the telephone company fixed-rate levy loss.120318

       (12) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 120319
division (E) of this section.120320

       (13) "Machinery and equipment" means personal property 120321
subject to the assessment rate specified in division (F) of 120322
section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.120323

       (14) "Inventory" means personal property subject to the 120324
assessment rate specified in division (E) of section 5711.22 of 120325
the Revised Code.120326

       (15) "Furniture and fixtures" means personal property subject 120327
to the assessment rate specified in division (G) of section 120328
5711.22 of the Revised Code.120329

       (16) "Qualifying levies" are levies in effect for tax year 120330
2004 or applicable to tax year 2005 or approved at an election 120331
conducted before September 1, 2005. For the purpose of determining 120332
the rate of a qualifying levy authorized by section 5705.212 or 120333
5705.213 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be the rate that 120334
would be in effect for tax year 2010.120335

       (17) "Telephone property" means tangible personal property of 120336
a telephone, telegraph, or interexchange telecommunications 120337
company subject to an assessment rate specified in section 120338
5727.111 of the Revised Code in tax year 2004.120339

       (18) "Telephone property tax value loss" means the amount 120340
determined under division (C)(4) of this section.120341

       (19) "Telephone property fixed-rate levy loss" means the 120342
amount determined under division (D)(4) of this section.120343

       (20) "Taxes charged and payable" means taxes charged and 120344
payable after the reduction required by section 319.301 of the 120345
Revised Code but before the reductions required by sections 120346
319.302 and 323.152 of the Revised Code.120347

       (21) "Median estate tax collections" means, in the case of a 120348
municipal corporation to which revenue from the taxes levied in 120349
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code was distributed in each of 120350
calendar years 2006, 2007, 2008, and 2009, the median of those 120351
distributions. In the case of a municipal corporation to which no 120352
distributions were made in one or more of those years, "median 120353
estate tax collections" means zero. 120354

       (22) "Total resources," in the case of a school district, 120355
means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(22)(a) to (h) of 120356
this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or 120357
(33) of this section.120358

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 120359

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the school district 120360
in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to 120361
division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and divisions (C)(8) and (9) of 120362
section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, excluding the portion of such 120363
payments attributable to levies for joint vocational school 120364
district purposes; 120365

       (c) The sum of fixed-sum levy loss payments received by the 120366
school district in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to division (E)(1) of 120367
section 5727.85 and division (E)(1) of section 5751.21 of the 120368
Revised Code for fixed-sum levies charged and payable for a 120369
purpose other than paying debt charges; 120370

       (d) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 120371
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 120372
utility property for current expense purposes for tax year 2008, 120373
including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies charged 120374
and payable under section 5709.194 of the Revised Code and 120375
excluding taxes levied for joint vocational school district 120376
purposes;120377

       (e) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 120378
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 120379
utility property for current expenses for tax year 2009, including 120380
taxes charged and payable from emergency levies and excluding 120381
taxes levied for joint vocational school district purposes;120382

       (f) The school district's taxes charged and payable against 120383
all property on the general tax list of personal property for 120384
current expenses for tax year 2009, including taxes charged and 120385
payable from emergency levies;120386

       (g) The amount certified for fiscal year 2010 under division 120387
(A)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;120388

       (h) Distributions received during calendar year 2009 from 120389
taxes levied under section 718.09 of the Revised Code.120390

       (23) "Total resources," in the case of a joint vocational 120391
school district, means the sum of amounts in divisions (A)(23)(a) 120392
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 120393
(A)(32) of this section.120394

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 120395

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the joint vocational 120396
school district in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy 120397
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and 120398
divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code; 120399

       (c) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 120400
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 120401
real and public utility property for current expense purposes for 120402
tax year 2008;120403

       (d) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 120404
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 120405
real and public utility property for current expenses for tax year 120406
2009;120407

       (e) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 120408
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 120409
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 120410
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 120411
2008;120412

       (f) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 120413
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 120414
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 120415
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 120416
2009;120417

       (g) The joint vocational school district's taxes charged and 120418
payable against all property on the general tax list of personal 120419
property for current expenses for tax year 2009.120420

       (24) "Total resources," in the case of county mental health 120421
and disability related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 120422
divisions (A)(24)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 120423
required under division (A)(32) of this section.120424

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for mental 120425
health and developmental disability related functions in calendar 120426
year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions 120427
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they 120428
existed at that time;120429

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for mental 120430
health and developmental disability related purposes, the taxes 120431
charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the 120432
tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.120433

       (25) "Total resources," in the case of county senior services 120434
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 120435
(A)(25)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 120436
under division (A)(32) of this section. 120437

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for senior 120438
services related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 120439
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 120440
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 120441

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for senior 120442
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 120443
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 120444
utility property for tax year 2009. 120445

       (26) "Total resources," in the case of county children's 120446
services related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 120447
divisions (A)(26)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 120448
required under division (A)(32) of this section. 120449

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for 120450
children's services related functions in calendar year 2010 under 120451
division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 120452
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 120453

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for children's 120454
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 120455
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 120456
utility property for tax year 2009. 120457

       (27) "Total resources," in the case of county public health 120458
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 120459
(A)(27)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 120460
under division (A)(32) of this section. 120461

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for public 120462
health related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 120463
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 120464
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 120465

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for public 120466
health related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 120467
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 120468
utility property for tax year 2009. 120469

       (28) "Total resources," in the case of all county functions 120470
not included in divisions (A)(24) to (27) of this section, means 120471
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(28)(a) to (d) of this 120472
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) 120473
of this section. 120474

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for all 120475
other purposes in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of 120476
section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of 120477
the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 120478

       (b) The county's percentage share of county undivided local 120479
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 120480
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 120481
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 120482
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 120483
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 120484
undivided local government fund; 120485

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the county for all other 120486
purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against 120487
all property on the tax list of real and public utility property 120488
for tax year 2009, excluding taxes charged and payable for the 120489
purpose of paying debt charges; 120490

       (d) The sum of the amounts distributed to the county in 120491
calendar year 2010 for the taxes levied pursuant to sections 120492
5739.021 and 5741.021 of the Revised Code. 120493

       (29) "Total resources," in the case of a municipal 120494
corporation, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(29)(a) 120495
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 120496
(A)(32) or (33) of this section. 120497

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the municipal 120498
corporation in calendar year 2010 for current expense levy losses 120499
under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and 120500
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that 120501
time; 120502

       (b) The municipal corporation's percentage share of county 120503
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 120504
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 120505
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 120506
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 120507
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 120508
the county undivided local government fund;120509

       (c) The sum of the amounts distributed to the municipal 120510
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to section 5747.50 of 120511
the Revised Code; 120512

       (d) With respect to taxes levied by the municipal 120513
corporation, the taxes charged and payable against all property on 120514
the tax list of real and public utility property for current 120515
expenses, defined in division (A)(35) of this section, for tax 120516
year 2009; 120517

       (e) The amount of admissions tax collected by the municipal 120518
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 120519
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 120520
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 120521
to the commissioner; 120522

       (f) The amount of income taxes collected by the municipal 120523
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 120524
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 120525
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 120526
to the commissioner;120527

       (g) The municipal corporation's median estate tax 120528
collections.120529

       (30) "Total resources," in the case of a township, means the 120530
sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(30)(a) to (c) of this section 120531
less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this 120532
section. 120533

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the township in 120534
calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 120535
of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 120536
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time, 120537
excluding payments received for debt purposes;120538

       (b) The township's percentage share of county undivided local 120539
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 120540
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 120541
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 120542
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 120543
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 120544
undivided local government fund; 120545

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the township, the taxes 120546
charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real 120547
and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding taxes 120548
charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges.120549

       (31) "Total resources," in the case of a local taxing unit 120550
that is not a county, municipal corporation, or township, means 120551
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(31)(a) to (e) of this 120552
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this 120553
section.120554

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the local taxing unit 120555
in calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 120556
5727.86 of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 120557
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;120558

       (b) The local taxing unit's percentage share of county 120559
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 120560
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 120561
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 120562
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 120563
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 120564
the county undivided local government fund; 120565

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the local taxing unit, 120566
the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list 120567
of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding 120568
taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges;120569

       (d) The amount received from the tax commissioner during 120570
calendar year 2010 for sales or use taxes authorized under 120571
sections 5739.023 and 5741.022 of the Revised Code;120572

       (e) For institutions of higher education receiving tax 120573
revenue from a local levy, as identified in section 3358.02 of the 120574
Revised Code, the final state share of instruction allocation for 120575
fiscal year 2010 as calculated by the board of regents and 120576
reported to the state controlling board.120577

       (32) If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 120578
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total 120579
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 120580
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 120581
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 120582
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 120583
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 120584
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 120585
section 5727.85, division (A)(1) of section 5727.85, divisions 120586
(C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1) of section 120587
5751.22 of the Revised Code.120588

       (33) In the case of a county, municipal corporation, school 120589
district, or township with fixed-rate levy losses attributable to 120590
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, "total 120591
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 120592
(C)(3) of section 5727.85, division (A)(1)(d) of section 5727.86, 120593
division (C)(12) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1)(c) of 120594
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code shall be reduced by the 120595
amounts described in divisions (A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section 120596
to the extent that those amounts were included in calculating the 120597
"total resources" of the school district or local taxing unit 120598
under division (A)(22), (28), (29), or (30) of this section.120599

        (34) "Total library resources," in the case of a county, 120600
municipal corporation, school district, or township public library 120601
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 120602
of the Revised Code, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 120603
(A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section less any reduction required 120604
under division (A)(32) of this section.120605

        (a) The sum of the payments received by the county, municipal 120606
corporation, school district, or township public library in 120607
calendar year 2010 pursuant to sections 5727.86 and 5751.22 of the 120608
Revised Code, as they existed at that time, for fixed-rate levy 120609
losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the 120610
Revised Code for the benefit of the public library;120611

        (b) The public library's percentage share of county undivided 120612
local government fund allocations as certified to the tax 120613
commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under 120614
division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division 120615
(F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total 120616
amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 120617
undivided local government fund;120618

        (c) With respect to a tax levied pursuant to section 5705.23 120619
of the Revised Code for the benefit of the public library, the 120620
amount of such tax that is charged and payable against all 120621
property on the tax list of real and public utility property for 120622
tax year 2009 excluding any tax that is charged and payable for 120623
the purpose of paying debt charges.120624

        (35) "Municipal current expense property tax levies" means 120625
all property tax levies of a municipality, except those with the 120626
following levy names: airport resurfacing; bond or any levy name 120627
including the word "bond"; capital improvement or any levy name 120628
including the word "capital"; debt or any levy name including the 120629
word "debt"; equipment or any levy name including the word 120630
"equipment," unless the levy is for combined operating and 120631
equipment; employee termination fund; fire pension or any levy 120632
containing the word "pension," including police pensions; 120633
fireman's fund or any practically similar name; sinking fund; road 120634
improvements or any levy containing the word "road"; fire truck or 120635
apparatus; flood or any levy containing the word "flood"; 120636
conservancy district; county health; note retirement; sewage, or 120637
any levy containing the words "sewage" or "sewer"; park 120638
improvement; parkland acquisition; storm drain; street or any levy 120639
name containing the word "street"; lighting, or any levy name 120640
containing the word "lighting"; and water.120641

       (36) "Current expense TPP allocation" means, in the case of a 120642
school district or joint vocational school district, the sum of 120643
the payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2011 120644
pursuant to divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 of the 120645
Revised Code to the extent paid for current expense levies. In the 120646
case of a municipal corporation, "current expense TPP allocation" 120647
means the sum of the payments received by the municipal 120648
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and 120649
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code to the extent paid for 120650
municipal current expense property tax levies as defined in 120651
division (A)(35) of this section, excluding any such payments 120652
received for current expense levy losses attributable to a tax 120653
levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate 120654
levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any 120655
year after tax year 2010, "current expense TPP allocation" used to 120656
compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 120657
5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the 120658
Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is 120659
charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the 120660
payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy 120661
as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 120662
5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.120663

       (37) "TPP allocation" means the sum of payments received by a 120664
local taxing unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions 120665
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, excluding 120666
any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses attributable 120667
to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 120668
fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and 120669
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP allocation" used to 120670
compute payments to be made under division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of 120671
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the 120672
last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 120673
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 120674
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (A)(1) of 120675
that section.120676

       (38) "Total TPP allocation" means, in the case of a school 120677
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 120678
amounts received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(10) 120679
and (11) and (D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code. In the 120680
case of a local taxing unit, "total TPP allocation" means the sum 120681
of payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 120682
divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 120683
Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 120684
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total TPP 120685
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 120686
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 120687
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 120688
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 120689
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 120690
loss of that levy as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and 120691
(11) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of 120692
the Revised Code.120693

       (39) "Non-current expense TPP allocation" means the 120694
difference of total TPP allocation minus the sum of current 120695
expense TPP allocation and the portion of total TPP allocation 120696
constituting reimbursement for debt levies, pursuant to division 120697
(D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code in the case of a school 120698
district or joint vocational school district and pursuant to 120699
division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the case 120700
of a municipal corporation. 120701

       (40) "TPP allocation for library purposes" means the sum of 120702
payments received by a county, municipal corporation, school 120703
district, or township public library in calendar year 2010 120704
pursuant to section 5751.22 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate 120705
levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of 120706
the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 120707
5705.23 of the Revised Code that is a qualifying levy is not 120708
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP 120709
allocation for library purposes" used to compute payments to be 120710
made under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 120711
Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged 120712
and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are 120713
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 120714
computed under division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 120715
Code.120716

        (41) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 120717
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 120718
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 120719
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 120720
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 120721
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 120722
tax year 2011, four per cent for tax year 2012, and six per cent 120723
for tax years 2013 and thereafter.120724

       (B)(1) The commercial activities tax receipts fund is hereby 120725
created in the state treasury and shall consist of money arising 120726
from the tax imposed under this chapter. Eighty-five 120727
one-hundredths of one per cent of the money credited to that fund 120728
shall be credited to the revenue enhancement fund and shall be 120729
used to defray the costs incurred by the department of taxation in 120730
administering the tax imposed by this chapter and in implementing 120731
tax reform measures. The remainder of the money in the commercial 120732
activities tax receipts fund shall first be credited to the 120733
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, pursuant to 120734
division (B)(2) of this section, and the remainder shall be 120735
credited in the following percentages each fiscal year to the 120736
general revenue fund, to the school district tangible property tax 120737
replacement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury 120738
for the purpose of making the payments described in section 120739
5751.21 of the Revised Code, and to the local government tangible 120740
property tax replacement fund, which is hereby created in the 120741
state treasury for the purpose of making the payments described in 120742
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, in the following percentages:120743

Fiscal year General Revenue Fund School District Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund 120744
2006 67.7% 22.6% 9.7% 120745
2007 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120746
2008 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120747
2009 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120748
2010 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120749
2011 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120750
2012 25.0% 52.5% 22.5% 120751
2013 and thereafter 50.0% 35.0% 15.0% 120752

       (2) Not later than the twentieth day of February, May, 120753
August, and November of each year, the commissioner shall provide 120754
for payment from the commercial activities tax receipts fund to 120755
the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund an amount 120756
that bears the same ratio to the balance in the commercial 120757
activities tax receipts fund that (a) the taxable gross receipts 120758
attributed to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public 120759
highways as indicated by returns filed by the tenth day of that 120760
month for a liability that is due and payable on or after July 1, 120761
2013, bears to (b) all taxable gross receipts as indicated by 120762
those returns for such liabilities.120763

       (C) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 120764
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 120765
district, and local taxing unit its machinery and equipment, 120766
inventory property, furniture and fixtures property, and telephone 120767
property tax value losses, which are the applicable amounts 120768
described in divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, 120769
except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section:120770

       (1) Machinery and equipment property tax value loss is the 120771
taxable value of machinery and equipment property as reported by 120772
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:120773

       (a) For tax year 2006, thirty-three and eight-tenths per 120774
cent;120775

       (b) For tax year 2007, sixty-one and three-tenths per cent;120776

       (c) For tax year 2008, eighty-three per cent;120777

       (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.120778

       (2) Inventory property tax value loss is the taxable value of 120779
inventory property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 120780
multiplied by:120781

       (a) For tax year 2006, a fraction, the numerator of which is 120782
five and three-fourths and the denominator of which is 120783
twenty-three;120784

        (b) For tax year 2007, a fraction, the numerator of which is 120785
nine and one-half and the denominator of which is twenty-three;120786

        (c) For tax year 2008, a fraction, the numerator of which is 120787
thirteen and one-fourth and the denominator of which is 120788
twenty-three;120789

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter a fraction, the 120790
numerator of which is seventeen and the denominator of which is 120791
twenty-three.120792

        (3) Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss is the 120793
taxable value of furniture and fixture property as reported by 120794
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:120795

        (a) For tax year 2006, twenty-five per cent;120796

        (b) For tax year 2007, fifty per cent;120797

        (c) For tax year 2008, seventy-five per cent;120798

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.120799

       The taxable value of property reported by taxpayers used in 120800
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be such 120801
values as determined to be final by the tax commissioner as of 120802
August 31, 2005. Such determinations shall be final except for any 120803
correction of a clerical error that was made prior to August 31, 120804
2005, by the tax commissioner.120805

       (4) Telephone property tax value loss is the taxable value of 120806
telephone property as taxpayers would have reported that property 120807
for tax year 2004 if the assessment rate for all telephone 120808
property for that year were twenty-five per cent, multiplied by:120809

       (a) For tax year 2006, zero per cent;120810

       (b) For tax year 2007, zero per cent;120811

       (c) For tax year 2008, zero per cent;120812

       (d) For tax year 2009, sixty per cent;120813

       (e) For tax year 2010, eighty per cent;120814

       (f) For tax year 2011 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.120815

       (5) Division (C)(5) of this section applies to any school 120816
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 120817
in a county in which is located a facility currently or formerly 120818
devoted to the enrichment or commercialization of uranium or 120819
uranium products, and for which the total taxable value of 120820
property listed on the general tax list of personal property for 120821
any tax year from tax year 2001 to tax year 2004 was fifty per 120822
cent or less of the taxable value of such property listed on the 120823
general tax list of personal property for the next preceding tax 120824
year.120825

       In computing the fixed-rate levy losses under divisions 120826
(D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section for any school district, 120827
joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit to which 120828
division (C)(5) of this section applies, the taxable value of such 120829
property as listed on the general tax list of personal property 120830
for tax year 2000 shall be substituted for the taxable value of 120831
such property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004, in the 120832
taxing district containing the uranium facility, if the taxable 120833
value listed for tax year 2000 is greater than the taxable value 120834
reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004. For the purpose of making 120835
the computations under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this 120836
section, the tax year 2000 valuation is to be allocated to 120837
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures 120838
property in the same proportions as the tax year 2004 values. For 120839
the purpose of the calculations in division (A) of section 5751.21 120840
of the Revised Code, the tax year 2004 taxable values shall be 120841
used.120842

       To facilitate the calculations required under division (C) of 120843
this section, the county auditor, upon request from the tax 120844
commissioner, shall provide by August 1, 2005, the values of 120845
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures for 120846
all single-county personal property taxpayers for tax year 2004.120847

       (D) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 120848
shall determine for each tax year from 2006 through 2009 for each 120849
school district, joint vocational school district, and local 120850
taxing unit its machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture 120851
and fixtures fixed-rate levy losses, and for each tax year from 120852
2006 through 2011 its telephone property fixed-rate levy loss. 120853
Except as provided in division (F) of this section, such losses 120854
are the applicable amounts described in divisions (D)(1), (2), 120855
(3), and (4) of this section:120856

       (1) The machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss is the 120857
machinery and equipment property tax value loss multiplied by the 120858
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.120859

       (2) The inventory fixed-rate loss is the inventory property 120860
tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of 120861
fixed-rate qualifying levies.120862

        (3) The furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss is the 120863
furniture and fixture property tax value loss multiplied by the 120864
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.120865

       (4) The telephone property fixed-rate levy loss is the 120866
telephone property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax 120867
rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.120868

       (E) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 120869
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 120870
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss. The 120871
fixed-sum levy loss is the amount obtained by subtracting the 120872
amount described in division (E)(2) of this section from the 120873
amount described in division (E)(1) of this section:120874

       (1) The sum of the machinery and equipment property tax value 120875
loss, the inventory property tax value loss, and the furniture and 120876
fixtures property tax value loss, and, for 2008 through 2010, the 120877
telephone property tax value loss of the district or unit 120878
multiplied by the sum of the fixed-sum tax rates of qualifying 120879
levies. For 2006 through 2010, this computation shall include all 120880
qualifying levies remaining in effect for the current tax year and 120881
any school district levies charged and payable under section 120882
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code that are qualifying 120883
levies not remaining in effect for the current year. For 2011 120884
through 2017 in the case of school district levies charged and 120885
payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code and 120886
for all years after 2010 in the case of other fixed-sum levies, 120887
this computation shall include only qualifying levies remaining in 120888
effect for the current year. For purposes of this computation, a 120889
qualifying school district levy charged and payable under section 120890
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code remains in effect in a 120891
year after 2010 only if, for that year, the board of education 120892
levies a school district levy charged and payable under section 120893
5705.194, 5705.199, 5705.213, or 5705.219 of the Revised Code for 120894
an annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board 120895
in tax year 2004 less the amount of the payment certified under 120896
this division for 2006.120897

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 2004 less the sum of 120898
the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, 120899
and telephone property tax value losses in each school district, 120900
joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit multiplied 120901
by one-half of one mill per dollar.120902

       (3) For the calculations in divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 120903
section, the tax value losses are those that would be calculated 120904
for tax year 2009 under divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this 120905
section and for tax year 2011 under division (C)(4) of this 120906
section.120907

       (4) To facilitate the calculation under divisions (D) and (E) 120908
of this section, not later than September 1, 2005, any school 120909
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 120910
that has a qualifying levy that was approved at an election 120911
conducted during 2005 before September 1, 2005, shall certify to 120912
the tax commissioner a copy of the county auditor's certificate of 120913
estimated property tax millage for such levy as required under 120914
division (B) of section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, which is the 120915
rate that shall be used in the calculations under such divisions.120916

       If the amount determined under division (E) of this section 120917
for any school district, joint vocational school district, or 120918
local taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal 120919
the reimbursement to be paid pursuant to division (E) of section 120920
5751.21 or division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, 120921
and the one-half of one mill that is subtracted under division 120922
(E)(2) of this section shall be apportioned among all contributing 120923
fixed-sum levies in the proportion that each levy bears to the sum 120924
of all fixed-sum levies within each school district, joint 120925
vocational school district, or local taxing unit.120926

       (F) If a school district levies a tax under section 5705.219 120927
of the Revised Code, the fixed-rate levy loss for qualifying 120928
levies, to the extent repealed under that section, shall equal the 120929
sum of the following amounts in lieu of the amounts computed for 120930
such levies under division (D) of this section:120931

       (1) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 120932
so repealed multiplied by the sum of the machinery and equipment, 120933
inventory, and furniture and fixtures tax value losses for 2009 as 120934
determined under that division;120935

       (2) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 120936
so repealed multiplied by the telephone property tax value loss 120937
for 2011 as determined under that division.120938

       The fixed-rate levy losses for qualifying levies to the 120939
extent not repealed under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code 120940
shall be as determined under division (D) of this section. The 120941
revised fixed-rate levy losses determined under this division and 120942
division (D) of this section first apply in the year following the 120943
first year the district levies the tax under section 5705.219 of 120944
the Revised Code.120945

       (G) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 120946
shall certify to the department of education for every school 120947
district and joint vocational school district the machinery and 120948
equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone 120949
property tax value losses determined under division (C) of this 120950
section, the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and 120951
fixtures, and telephone fixed-rate levy losses determined under 120952
division (D) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy losses 120953
calculated under division (E) of this section. The calculations 120954
under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall separately 120955
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.120956

       (H) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 120957
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy losses to the 120958
county auditor of each county in which a school district, joint 120959
vocational school district, or local taxing unit with a fixed-sum 120960
levy loss reimbursement has territory.120961

       (I) Not later than the twenty-eighth day of February each 120962
year beginning in 2011 and ending in 2014, the tax commissioner 120963
shall certify to the department of education for each school 120964
district first levying a tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised 120965
Code in the preceding year the revised fixed-rate levy losses 120966
determined under divisions (D) and (F) of this section.120967

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 120968
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund.120969

       Sec. 5751.21.  (A) Not later than the thirtieth day of July 120970
of 2007 through 2010, the department of education shall consult 120971
with the director of budget and management and determine the 120972
following for each school district and each joint vocational 120973
school district eligible for payment under division (B) of this 120974
section:120975

       (1) The state education aid offset, which, except as provided 120976
in division (A)(1)(c) of this section, is the difference obtained 120977
by subtracting the amount described in division (A)(1)(b) of this 120978
section from the amount described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 120979
section:120980

       (a) The state education aid computed for the school district 120981
or joint vocational school district for the current fiscal year as 120982
of the thirtieth day of July;120983

       (b) The state education aid that would be computed for the 120984
school district or joint vocational school district for the 120985
current fiscal year as of the thirtieth day of July if the 120986
valuation used in the calculation in division (B)(1) of section 120987
3306.13 of the Revised Code as that division existed for fiscal 120988
years 2010 and 2011 included the machinery and equipment, 120989
inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone property tax 120990
value losses for the school district or joint vocational school 120991
district for the second preceding tax year, and if taxes charged 120992
and payable associated with the tax value losses are accounted for 120993
in any state education aid computation dependent on taxes charged 120994
and payable.120995

       (c) The state education aid offset for fiscal year 2010 and 120996
fiscal year 2011 equals the greater of the state education aid 120997
offset calculated for that fiscal year under divisions (A)(1)(a) 120998
and (b) of this section and the state education aid offset 120999
calculated for fiscal year 2009. For fiscal year 2012 and 2013, 121000
the state education aid offset equals the state education aid 121001
offset for fiscal year 2011.121002

       (2) For fiscal years 2008 through 2011, the greater of zero 121003
or the difference obtained by subtracting the state education aid 121004
offset determined under division (A)(1) of this section from the 121005
sum of the machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the 121006
inventory fixed-rate levy loss, furniture and fixtures fixed-rate 121007
levy loss, and telephone property fixed-rate levy loss certified 121008
under divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code 121009
for all taxing districts in each school district and joint 121010
vocational school district for the second preceding tax year.121011

       By the thirtieth day of July of each such year, the 121012
department of education and the director of budget and management 121013
shall agree upon the amount to be determined under division (A)(1) 121014
of this section.121015

       (B) On or before the thirty-first day of August of 2008, 121016
2009, and 2010, the department of education shall recalculate the 121017
offset described under division (A) of this section for the 121018
previous fiscal year and recalculate the payments made under 121019
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year using 121020
the offset calculated under this division. If the payments 121021
calculated under this division differ from the payments made under 121022
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year, the 121023
difference shall either be paid to a school district or recaptured 121024
from a school district through an adjustment at the same times 121025
during the current fiscal year that the payments under division 121026
(C) of this section are made. In August and October of the current 121027
fiscal year, the amount of each adjustment shall be three-sevenths 121028
of the amount calculated under this division. In May of the 121029
current fiscal year, the adjustment shall be one-seventh of the 121030
amount calculated under this division.121031

       (C) The department of education shall pay from the school 121032
district tangible property tax replacement fund to each school 121033
district and joint vocational school district all of the following 121034
for fixed-rate levy losses certified under divisions (G) and (I) 121035
of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code:121036

       (1) On or before May 31, 2006, one-seventh of the total 121037
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006;121038

       (2) On or before August 31, 2006, and October 31, 2006, 121039
one-half of six-sevenths of the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax 121040
year 2006;121041

       (3) On or before May 31, 2007, one-seventh of the total 121042
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007;121043

       (4) On or before August 31, 2007, and October 31, 2007, 121044
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 121045
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2008, but not less than 121046
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 121047
total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007 and the total 121048
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.121049

       (5) On or before May 31, 2008, fourteen per cent of the 121050
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 121051
year 2008, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 121052
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 121053
2008 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.121054

       (6) On or before August 31, 2008, and October 31, 2008, 121055
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 121056
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2009, but not less than 121057
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 121058
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008 and the total 121059
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2007.121060

       (7) On or before May 31, 2009, fourteen per cent of the 121061
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 121062
year 2009, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 121063
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 121064
2009 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007.121065

       (8) On or before August 31, 2009, and October 31, 2009, 121066
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 121067
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2010, but not less than 121068
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 121069
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2009 and the total 121070
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.121071

       (9) On or before May 31, 2010, fourteen per cent of the 121072
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 121073
year 2010, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 121074
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2010 121075
and the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.121076

       (10) On or before August 31, 2010, and October 31, 2010, 121077
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 121078
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2011, but not less than 121079
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 121080
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2010 and the 121081
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2009.121082

       (11) On or before May 31, 2011, fourteen per cent of the 121083
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 121084
year 2011, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 121085
difference between the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 121086
tax year 2011 and the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 121087
tax year 2009.121088

       (12) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, the sum of the 121089
amounts in divisions (C)(12)(a) or (b) and (c) of this section 121090
shall be paid on or before the twentiethlast day of November and 121091
the last day of May:121092

       (a) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 121093
resources is equal to or less than the threshold per cent, zero;121094

       (b) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 121095
resources is greater than the threshold per cent, fifty per cent 121096
of the difference of current expense TPP allocation minus the 121097
product of total resources multiplied by the threshold per cent;121098

       (c) Fifty per cent of the product of non-current expense TPP 121099
allocation multiplied by seventy-five per cent for fiscal year 121100
2012 and fifty per cent for fiscal years 2013 and thereafter.121101

       The department of education shall report to each school 121102
district and joint vocational school district the apportionment of 121103
the payments among the school district's or joint vocational 121104
school district's funds based on the certifications under 121105
divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.121106

       (D) For taxes levied within the ten-mill limitation for debt 121107
purposes in tax year 2005, payments shall be made equal to one 121108
hundred per cent of the loss computed as if the tax were a 121109
fixed-rate levy, but those payments shall extend from fiscal year 121110
2006 through fiscal year 2018, as long as the qualifying levy 121111
continues to be used for debt purposes. If the purpose of such a 121112
qualifying levy is changed, that levy becomes subject to the 121113
payments determined in division (C) of this section.121114

       (E)(1) Not later than January 1, 2006, for each fixed-sum 121115
levy of each school district or joint vocational school district 121116
and for each year for which a determination is made under division 121117
(E) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code that a fixed-sum levy 121118
loss is to be reimbursed, the tax commissioner shall certify to 121119
the department of education the fixed-sum levy loss determined 121120
under that division. The certification shall cover a time period 121121
sufficient to include all fixed-sum levies for which the 121122
commissioner made such a determination. On or before the last day 121123
of May of the current year, the department shall pay from the 121124
school district property tax replacement fund to the school 121125
district or joint vocational school district one-third of the 121126
fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus one-third of the amount 121127
certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised 121128
Code, and on or before the twentiethlast day of November, 121129
two-thirds of the fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus 121130
two-thirds of the amount certified under division (I) of section 121131
5751.20 of the Revised Code. Payments under this division of the 121132
amounts certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the 121133
Revised Code shall continue until the levy adopted under section 121134
5705.219 of the Revised Code expires.121135

       (2) Beginning in 2006, by the first day of January of each 121136
year, the tax commissioner shall review the certification 121137
originally made under division (E)(1) of this section. If the 121138
commissioner determines that a debt levy that had been scheduled 121139
to be reimbursed in the current year has expired, a revised 121140
certification for that and all subsequent years shall be made to 121141
the department of education.121142

       (F) Beginning in September 2007 and through June 2013, the 121143
director of budget and management shall transfer from the school 121144
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 121145
revenue fund each of the following:121146

       (1) On the first day of September, one-fourth of the amount 121147
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 121148
section;121149

       (2) On the first day of December, one-fourth of the amount 121150
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 121151
section;121152

       (3) On the first day of March, one-fourth of the amount 121153
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 121154
section;121155

       (4) On the first day of June, one-fourth of the amount 121156
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 121157
section.121158

       If, when a transfer is required under division (F)(1), (2), 121159
(3), or (4) of this section, there is not sufficient money in the 121160
school district tangible property tax replacement fund to make the 121161
transfer in the required amount, the director shall transfer the 121162
balance in the fund to the general revenue fund and may make 121163
additional transfers on later dates as determined by the director 121164
in a total amount that does not exceed one-fourth of the amount 121165
determined for the fiscal year.121166

       (G) If the total amount in the school district tangible 121167
property tax replacement fund is insufficient to make all payments 121168
under divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section at the times the 121169
payments are to be made, the director of budget and management 121170
shall transfer from the general revenue fund to the school 121171
district tangible property tax replacement fund the difference 121172
between the total amount to be paid and the amount in the school 121173
district tangible property tax replacement fund. 121174

       (H) On the fifteenth day of June of each year, the director 121175
of budget and management may transfer any balance in the school 121176
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 121177
revenue fund. 121178

       (I) If all of the territory of a school district or joint 121179
vocational school district is merged with another district, or if 121180
a part of the territory of a school district or joint vocational 121181
school district is transferred to an existing or newly created 121182
district, the department of education, in consultation with the 121183
tax commissioner, shall adjust the payments made under this 121184
section as follows:121185

       (1) For a merger of two or more districts, the fixed-sum levy 121186
losses, total resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP 121187
allocation, and non-current expense TPP allocation of the 121188
successor district shall be the sum of such items for each of the 121189
districts involved in the merger.121190

       (2) If property is transferred from one district to a 121191
previously existing district, the amount of total resources, 121192
current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, and 121193
non-current expense TPP allocation that shall be transferred to 121194
the recipient district shall be an amount equal to total 121195
resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, 121196
and non-current expense TPP allocation of the transferor district 121197
times a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of pupils 121198
being transferred to the recipient district, measured, in the case 121199
of a school district, by average daily membership as reported 121200
under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code or, in 121201
the case of a joint vocational school district, by formula ADM as 121202
reported in division (D) of that section, and the denominator of 121203
which is the average daily membership or formula ADM of the 121204
transferor district.121205

       (3) After December 31, 2010, if property is transferred from 121206
one or more districts to a district that is newly created out of 121207
the transferred property, the newly created district shall be 121208
deemed not to have any total resources, current expense TPP 121209
allocation, total TPP allocation, or non-current expense TPP 121210
allocation.121211

       (4) If the recipient district under division (I)(2) of this 121212
section or the newly created district under division (I)(3) of 121213
this section is assuming debt from one or more of the districts 121214
from which the property was transferred and any of the districts 121215
losing the property had fixed-sum levy losses, the department of 121216
education, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall make 121217
an equitable division of the fixed-sum levy loss reimbursements.121218

       Sec. 5753.01.  As used in Chapter 5753. of the Revised Code 121219
and for no other purpose under Title LVII of the Revised Code:121220

       (A) "Casino facility" has the same meaning as in section 121221
3772.01 of the Revised Code.121222

       (B) "Casino gaming" has the same meaning as in section 121223
3772.01 of the Revised Code.121224

       (C) "Casino operator" has the same meaning as in section 121225
3772.01 of the Revised Code.121226

       (D) "Gross casino revenue" means the total amount of money 121227
exchanged for the purchase of chips, tokens, tickets, electronic 121228
cards, or similar objects by casino patrons, less winnings paid to 121229
wagerers. "Gross casino revenue" does not include the:121230

       (1) The issuance to casino patrons or wagering by casino 121231
patrons of any promotional gaming credit as defined in section 121232
3772.01 of the Revised Code. When issuance of the promotional 121233
gaming credit requires money exchanged as a match from the patron, 121234
the excludible portion of the promotional gaming credit does not 121235
include the portion of the wager purchased by the patron.121236

       (2) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 121237
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior tax period to the 121238
extent not previously excluded. For the purposes of this division, 121239
"bad debts" means any debts that have become worthless or 121240
uncollectible in a prior tax period, have been uncollected for at 121241
least six months, and that may be claimed as a deduction under 121242
section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations 121243
adopted under that section, or that could be claimed as such if 121244
the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. "Bad debts" 121245
does not include repossessed property, uncollectible amounts on 121246
property that remains in the possession of the casino operator 121247
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 121248
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 121249
recovered. 121250

       (E) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of 121251
the Revised Code.121252

       (F) "Slot machine" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 121253
of the Revised Code.121254

       (G) "Table game" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 121255
of the Revised Code.121256

       (H) "Tax period" means one twenty-four-hour period with 121257
regard to which a casino operator is required to pay the tax 121258
levied by this chapter.121259

       Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and 121260
distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax 121261
levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds 121262
are created in the state treasury:121263

       (1) The casino tax revenue fund;121264

       (2) The gross casino revenue county fund;121265

       (3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;121266

       (4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;121267

       (5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;121268

       (6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;121269

       (7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;121270

       (8) The casino control commission fund;121271

       (9) The casino tax administration fund;121272

       (10) The peace officer training academy fund;121273

       (11) The criminal justice services casino tax revenue fund.121274

       (B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this 121275
chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.121276

       (C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget 121277
and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund 121278
amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner 121279
under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.121280

       (D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of 121281
this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month 121282
following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget 121283
and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:121284

       (1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county 121285
fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article 121286
XV, Ohio Constitution;121287

       (2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county 121288
student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of 121289
Article XV, Ohio Constitution and as provided in section 5753.11 121290
of the Revised Code;121291

       (3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund 121292
for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are 121293
located;121294

       (4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund 121295
to support the efforts and activities of the Ohio state racing 121296
commission to promote horse racing in this state at which the 121297
pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted;121298

       (5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to 121299
support law enforcement functions in the state;121300

       (6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and 121301
addictions fund to support efforts of the department of alcohol 121302
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services121303
to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse and related 121304
research in the state under section 3793.0325119.47 of the 121305
Revised Code;121306

       (7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to 121307
support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and 121308
to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 121309
5753.02 of the Revised Code.121310

       Payments under divisions (D)(1) and (3) of this section shall 121311
be made by the end of the month following the end of the quarterly 121312
period. The tax commissioner shall make the data available to the 121313
director of budget and management for this purpose.121314

       Money in the Ohio state racing commission fund shall be 121315
distributed at the discretion of the Ohio state racing commission 121316
for the purpose stated in division (D)(4) of this section by the 121317
end of the month following the end of the quarterly period. The 121318
commission may retain up to five per cent of the amount 121319
transferred to the fund under division (D)(4) of this section for 121320
operating expenses necessary for the administration of the fund.121321

       Payments from the gross casino revenue county student fund as 121322
required under section 5753.11 of the Revised Code shall be made 121323
by the last day of January and by the last day of August of each 121324
year, beginning in 2013. The tax commissioner shall make the data 121325
available to the director of budget and management for this 121326
purpose.121327

       Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training 121328
fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute 121329
eighty-five per cent of the money to the police officer training 121330
academy fund for the purpose of supporting the law enforcement 121331
training efforts of the Ohio peace officer training academy and 121332
fifteen per cent of the money to the criminal justice services 121333
casino tax revenue fund for the purpose of supporting the law 121334
enforcement training efforts of the division of criminal justice 121335
services.121336

       (E)(1) The tax commissioner shall serve as an agent of the 121337
counties of this state only for the purposes of this division and 121338
solely to make payments directly to municipal corporations and 121339
school districts, as applicable, on the counties' behalf.121340

       (2) On or before the last day of the month following the end 121341
of each calendar quarter, the tax commissioner shall provide for 121342
payment from the funds referenced in divisions (D)(1) and (3) of 121343
this section to each county and municipal corporation as 121344
prescribed in those divisions.121345

       (3) On or before the last day of January and the last day of 121346
August each year, the commissioner shall provide for payments from 121347
the fund referenced in division (D)(2) of this section to each 121348
school district as prescribed in that division.121349

        (F) The director of budget and management shall transfer one 121350
per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission 121351
fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner 121352
shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs 121353
incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.121354

       (G) All investment earnings of the gross casino revenue 121355
county student fund shall be credited to the fund.121356

       Sec. 5753.07.  (A)(1) The tax commissioner may issue an 121357
assessment, based on any information in the tax commissioner's 121358
possession, against a casino operator who fails to pay the tax 121359
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code or to file a 121360
return under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax 121361
commissioner shall give the casino operator written notice of the 121362
assessment under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the 121363
notice, the tax commissioner shall include instructions on how to 121364
petition for reassessment and on how to request a hearing with 121365
respect to the petition.121366

       (2) Unless the casino operator, within sixty days after 121367
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 121368
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 121369
petition signed by the casino operator, or by the casino 121370
operator's authorized agent who has knowledge of the facts, the 121371
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 121372
and payable from the casino operator to the treasurer of state. 121373
The petition shall indicate the casino operator's objections to 121374
the assessment. Additional objections may be raised in writing if 121375
they are received by the tax commissioner before the date shown on 121376
the final determination.121377

       (3) If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, 121378
the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the 121379
Revised Code.121380

       (4) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 121381
assessment, including penalties and accrued interest, remains 121382
unpaid, the tax commissioner may file a certified copy of the 121383
entry making the assessment final in the office of the clerk of 121384
the court of common pleas of Franklin county or in the office of 121385
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 121386
casino operator resides, the casino operator's casino facility is 121387
located, or the casino operator's principal place of business in 121388
this state is located. Immediately upon the filing of the entry, 121389
the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the 121390
taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment 121391
may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special 121392
judgments for the gross casino revenue tax." The judgment has the 121393
same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 121394
judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 121395
applicable to sales on execution apply to sales made under the 121396
judgment.121397

       (5) The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 121398
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued 121399
bears, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 121400
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 121401
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issued the 121402
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 121403
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 121404
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 121405
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 121406
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 121407
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 121408
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 121409
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 121410
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code and may be 121411
collected by the issuance of an assessment under this section.121412

       (B) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 121413
tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code will be 121414
jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of 121415
the tax are instituted without delay, the commissioner may issue a 121416
jeopardy assessment against the casino operator who is liable for 121417
the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of a jeopardy assessment, 121418
the tax commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of the 121419
court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (A)(4) 121420
of this section, and the clerk shall proceed as directed in that 121421
division. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the 121422
casino operator or the casino operator's authorized agent under 121423
section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five days after the 121424
filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is 121425
immediately due and payable, unless the casino operator assessed 121426
files a petition for reassessment under division (A)(2) of this 121427
section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the tax 121428
commissioner that is in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid 121429
balance of the assessment. If a petition for reassessment has been 121430
filed, and if satisfactory security has been provided, the tax 121431
commissioner shall proceed under division (A)(3) of this section. 121432
Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 121433
tax commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.121434

       (C) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 121435
treasurer of state all amounts the tax commissioner receives under 121436
this section, and the amounts forwarded shall be treated as if 121437
they were revenue arising from the tax levied under section 121438
5753.02 of the Revised Code.121439

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 121440
assessment shall be issued against a casino operator for the tax 121441
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code more than four 121442
years after the due date for filing the return for the tax period 121443
for which the tax was reported, or more than four years after the 121444
return for the tax period was filed, whichever is later. This 121445
division does not bar an assessment against a casino operator who 121446
fails to file a return as required by section 5753.04 of the 121447
Revised Code or who files a fraudulent return, or when the casino 121448
operator and the tax commissioner waive in writing the time 121449
limitation.121450

       (E) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 121451
indicates that the amount of tax a casino operator is liable to 121452
pay under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code exceeds the amount 121453
the casino operator paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample 121454
of the casino operator's gross casino revenue over a 121455
representative period of time to ascertain the amount of tax due, 121456
and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 121457
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 121458
with the casino operator in selecting a representative sample. The 121459
tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the tax 121460
commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.121461

       (F) If the whereabouts of a casino operator who is liable for 121462
the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code are 121463
unknown to the tax commissioner, the tax commissioner shall 121464
proceed under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.121465

       (G) If a casino operator fails to pay the tax levied under 121466
section 5753.02 of the Revised Code within a period of one year 121467
after the due date for remitting the tax, the Ohio casino control 121468
commission may suspend the casino operator's license.121469

       Sec. 5815.28.  (A) As used in this section:121470

       (1) "Ascertainable standard" includes a standard in a trust 121471
instrument requiring the trustee to provide for the care, comfort, 121472
maintenance, welfare, education, or general well-being of the 121473
beneficiary.121474

       (2) "Disability" means any substantial, medically 121475
determinable impairment that can be expected to result in death or 121476
that has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period 121477
of at least twelve months, except that "disability" does not 121478
include an impairment that is the result of abuse of alcohol or 121479
drugs.121480

       (3) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 121481
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.121482

       (4) "Supplemental services" means services specified by rule 121483
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 121484
services under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the 121485
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of 121486
the Revised Code that are provided to an individual with a 121487
disability in addition to services the individual is eligible to 121488
receive under programs authorized by federal or state law.121489

       (B) Any person may create a trust under this section to 121490
provide funding for supplemental services for the benefit of 121491
another individual who meets either of the following conditions:121492

       (1) The individual has a physical or mental disability and is 121493
eligible to receive services through the department of 121494
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 121495
disabilities;121496

       (2) The individual has a mental disability and is eligible to 121497
receive services through the department of mental healthmental 121498
health and addiction services or a board of alcohol, drug 121499
addiction, and mental health services.121500

       The trust may confer discretion upon the trustee and may 121501
contain specific instructions or conditions governing the exercise 121502
of the discretion.121503

       (C) The general division of the court of common pleas and the 121504
probate court of the county in which the beneficiary of a trust 121505
authorized by division (B) of this section resides or is confined 121506
have concurrent original jurisdiction to hear and determine 121507
actions pertaining to the trust. In any action pertaining to the 121508
trust in a court of common pleas or probate court and in any 121509
appeal of the action, all of the following apply to the trial or 121510
appellate court:121511

       (1) The court shall render determinations consistent with the 121512
testator's or other settlor's intent in creating the trust, as 121513
evidenced by the terms of the trust instrument.121514

       (2) The court may order the trustee to exercise discretion 121515
that the trust instrument confers upon the trustee only if the 121516
instrument contains specific instructions or conditions governing 121517
the exercise of that discretion and the trustee has failed to 121518
comply with the instructions or conditions. In issuing an order 121519
pursuant to this division, the court shall require the trustee to 121520
exercise the trustee's discretion only in accordance with the 121521
instructions or conditions.121522

       (3) The court may order the trustee to maintain the trust and 121523
distribute assets in accordance with rules adopted by the director 121524
of mental healthmental health and addiction services under 121525
section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director of 121526
developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 121527
Code if the trustee has failed to comply with such rules.121528

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law and subject to the 121529
provisions of division (C)(2) of this section pertaining to the 121530
enforcement of specific instructions or conditions governing a 121531
trustee's discretion, a trust authorized by division (B) of this 121532
section that confers discretion upon the trustee shall not be 121533
considered an asset or resource of the beneficiary, the 121534
beneficiary's estate, the settlor, or the settlor's estate and 121535
shall be exempt from the claims of creditors, political 121536
subdivisions, the state, other governmental entities, and other 121537
claimants against the beneficiary, the beneficiary's estate, the 121538
settlor, or the settlor's estate, including claims regarding the 121539
medicaid program or based on provisions of Chapters 5111., 5121.,121540
or 5123. of the Revised Code and claims sought to be satisfied by 121541
way of a civil action, subrogation, execution, garnishment, 121542
attachment, judicial sale, or other legal process, if all of the 121543
following apply:121544

       (1) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 121545
does not exceed the maximum amount determined under division (E) 121546
of this section;121547

       (2) The trust instrument contains a statement of the 121548
settlor's intent, or otherwise clearly evidences the settlor's 121549
intent, that the beneficiary does not have authority to compel the 121550
trustee under any circumstances to furnish the beneficiary with 121551
minimal or other maintenance or support, to make payments from the 121552
principal of the trust or from the income derived from the 121553
principal, or to convert any portion of the principal into cash, 121554
whether pursuant to an ascertainable standard specified in the 121555
instrument or otherwise;121556

       (3) The trust instrument provides that trust assets can be 121557
used only to provide supplemental services, as defined by rule of 121558
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services121559
under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director 121560
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 121561
Code, to the beneficiary;121562

       (4) The trust is maintained and assets are distributed in 121563
accordance with rules adopted by the director of mental health121564
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.015119.10121565
of the Revised Code or the director of developmental disabilities 121566
under section 5123.04 of the Revised Code;121567

       (5) The trust instrument provides that on the death of the 121568
beneficiary, a portion of the remaining assets of the trust, which 121569
shall be not less than fifty per cent of such assets, will be 121570
deposited to the credit of the services fund for individuals with 121571
mental illness created by section 5119.175119.51 of the Revised 121572
Code or the services fund for individuals with mental retardation 121573
and developmental disabilities created by section 5123.40 of the 121574
Revised Code.121575

       (E) In 1994, the trust principal maximum amount for a trust 121576
created under this section shall be two hundred thousand dollars. 121577
The maximum amount for a trust created under this section prior to 121578
November 11, 1994, may be increased to two hundred thousand 121579
dollars.121580

       In 1995, the maximum amount for a trust created under this 121581
section shall be two hundred two thousand dollars. Each year 121582
thereafter, the maximum amount shall be the prior year's amount 121583
plus two thousand dollars.121584

       (F) This section does not limit or otherwise affect the 121585
creation, validity, interpretation, or effect of any trust that is 121586
not created under this section.121587

       (G) Once a trustee takes action on a trust created by a 121588
settlor under this section and disburses trust funds on behalf of 121589
the beneficiary of the trust, then the trust may not be terminated 121590
or otherwise revoked by a particular event or otherwise without 121591
payment into the services fund created pursuant to section 5119.17121592
5119.51 or 5123.40 of the Revised Code of an amount that is equal 121593
to the disbursements made on behalf of the beneficiary for medical 121594
care by the state from the date the trust vests but that is not 121595
more than fifty per cent of the trust corpus.121596

       Sec. 5905.02.  Whenever it appears that a person is eligible 121597
for care or treatment by the veterans' administration or other 121598
agency of the United States, and hospitalization is necessary for 121599
the proper care or treatment of such person, the probate court, 121600
upon receipt of a certificate from the veterans' administration or 121601
such other agency showing that facilities are available and such 121602
person is eligible for care or treatment therein, may order such 121603
person to said veterans' administration or other agency for care 121604
and treatment.121605

       Upon admission, such person shall be subject to the 121606
applicable regulations of the veterans' administration or other 121607
agency of the United States. The chief officer of any hospital to 121608
which any person is admitted pursuant to hospitalization as 121609
provided in sections 5905.01 to 5905.19 of the Revised Code, or 121610
under the law in effect at the time of such admission, shall have 121611
the same powers as are exercised by heads of hospitals for mental 121612
diseases and the department of mental healthmental health and 121613
addiction services with respect to the retention, transfer, 121614
parole, or discharge of the person hospitalized; provided no 121615
person shall be transferred to a hospital operated by the state or 121616
any political subdivision thereof without the consent of such 121617
department.121618

       The right of such person to appear and defend shall not be 121619
denied.121620

       The judgment or order of hospitalization by a court of 121621
competent jurisdiction of another state ordering a person to the 121622
veterans' administration or other agency of the United States, or 121623
any hospital operated by any such agency, for care or treatment 121624
shall have the same effect as to such person while in this state 121625
as in the state in which the court entering such judgment or 121626
making such order is situated, provided that no nonresident 121627
ordered to a veterans' administration facility located in Ohio 121628
shall thereby acquire a legal settlement in Ohio.121629

       Upon receipt of a certificate that facilities are available 121630
in any such hospital operated by the United States for the care or 121631
treatment of any person ordered to any hospital for the mentally 121632
ill or other hospital in this state for the care of persons 121633
similarly afflicted, and that such person is eligible for such 121634
care or treatment, such department may transfer any such person to 121635
the veterans' administration or other agency of the United States 121636
in the state. Upon effecting any such transfer, the ordering court 121637
shall be notified thereof by the transferring agency; provided 121638
that no such person shall be transferred if hethe person is 121639
confined pursuant to conviction of any crime or misdemeanor, or if 121640
hethe person has been acquitted of any such charge solely on the 121641
ground of insanity, unless prior to such transfer the court 121642
originally ordering such person enters an order for such transfer 121643
after appropriate motion and hearing.121644

       Any person transferred as provided in this section is ordered 121645
to the veterans' administration or other agency of the United 121646
States pursuant to the original order as though hethe person had 121647
been originally so ordered.121648

       Sec. 5910.02.  There is hereby created an Ohio war orphans 121649
scholarship board as part of the department of veterans services. 121650
The board consists of eight members as follows: the chancellor of 121651
the Ohio board of regents or the chancellor's designee; the 121652
director of veterans services or the director's designee; one 121653
member of the house of representatives, appointed by the speaker; 121654
one member of the senate, appointed by the president of the 121655
senate; and four members appointed by the governor, one of whom 121656
shall be a representative of the American Legion, one of whom 121657
shall be a representative of the Veterans of Foreign Wars, one of 121658
whom shall be a representative of the Disabled American Veterans, 121659
and one of whom shall be a representative of the AMVETS. At least 121660
ninety days prior to the expiration of the term of office of the 121661
representative of a veterans organization appointed by the 121662
governor, the governor shall notify the state headquarters of the 121663
affected organization of the need for an appointment and request 121664
the organization to make at least three nominations. Within sixty 121665
days after making the request for nominations, the governor may 121666
make the appointment from the nominations received, or may reject 121667
all the nominations and request at least three new nominations, 121668
from which the governor shall make an appointment within thirty 121669
days after making the request for the new nominations. If the 121670
governor receives no nominations during this thirty-day period, 121671
the governor may appoint any veteran.121672

       Terms of office for the four members appointed by the 121673
governor shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of 121674
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December, except 121675
that the term of the AMVETS representative shall expire December 121676
31, 1998, and the new term that succeeds it shall commence on 121677
January 1, 1999, and end on December 31, 2002. Each member shall 121678
hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the 121679
end of the term for which the member was appointed. The other 121680
members shall serve during their terms of office. Any vacancy 121681
shall be filled by appointment in the same manner as by original 121682
appointment. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 121683
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 121684
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 121685
such term. Any appointed member shall continue in office 121686
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 121687
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 121688
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The members of the board 121689
shall serve without pay but shall be reimbursed for travel 121690
expenses and for other actual and necessary expenses incurred in 121691
the performance of their duties, not to exceed ten dollars per day 121692
for ten days in any one year to be appropriated out of any moneys 121693
in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.121694

       The chancellor of the board of regents shall act as secretary 121695
to the board and shall furnish such clerical and other assistance 121696
as may be necessary to the performance of the duties of the board.121697

       The board shall determine the number of scholarships to be 121698
made available, receive applications for scholarships, pass upon 121699
the eligibility of applicants, decide which applicants are to 121700
receive scholarships, and do all other things necessary for the 121701
proper administration of this chapter.121702

       The board may apply for, and may receive and accept, grants, 121703
and may receive and accept gifts, bequests, and contributions, 121704
from public and private sources, including agencies and 121705
instrumentalities of the United States and this state, and shall 121706
deposit the grants, gifts, bequests, or contributions into the 121707
Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund.121708

       Sec. 5910.07.  The Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund 121709
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 121710
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under section 121711
5910.02 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings of the fund shall 121712
be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used to operate the 121713
war orphans scholarship program and to provide grants under 121714
sections 5910.01 to 5910.06 of the Revised Code.121715

       Sec. 5910.08. There is hereby created in the state treasury 121716
the war orphans scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the first 121717
day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio board 121718
of regents shall certify to the director of budget and management 121719
the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 121720
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 121721
purposes of the war orphans scholarship program created in Chapter 121722
5910. of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the certification, the 121723
director may transfer an amount not exceeding the certified amount 121724
from the general revenue fund to the war orphans scholarship 121725
reserve fund. Moneys in the war orphans scholarship reserve fund 121726
shall be used to pay scholarship obligations in excess of the 121727
general revenue fund appropriations made for that purpose.121728

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 121729
war orphans scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue fund.121730

       Sec. 5919.34.  (A) As used in this section:121731

       (1) "Academic term" means any one of the following:121732

       (a) Fall term, which consists of fall semester or fall 121733
quarter, as appropriate;121734

       (b) Winter term, which consists of winter semester, winter 121735
quarter, or spring semester, as appropriate;121736

       (c) Spring term, which consists of spring quarter;121737

       (d) Summer term, which consists of summer semester or summer 121738
quarter, as appropriate.121739

       (2) "Eligible applicant" means any individual to whom all of 121740
the following apply:121741

       (a) The individual does not possess a baccalaureate degree.121742

       (b) The individual has enlisted, re-enlisted, or extended 121743
current enlistment in the Ohio national guard or is an individual 121744
to which division (F) of this section applies.121745

       (c) The individual is actively enrolled as a full-time or 121746
part-time student for at least three credit hours of course work 121747
in a semester or quarter in a two-year or four-year 121748
degree-granting program at a state institution of higher education 121749
or a private institution of higher education, or in a 121750
diploma-granting program at a state or private institution of 121751
higher education that is a school of nursing.121752

       (d) The individual has not accumulated ninety-six eligibility 121753
units under division (E) of this section.121754

       (3) "State institution of higher education" means any state 121755
university or college as defined in division (A)(1) of section 121756
3345.12 of the Revised Code, community college established under 121757
Chapter 3354. of the Revised Code, state community college 121758
established under Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code, university 121759
branch established under Chapter 3355. of the Revised Code, or 121760
technical college established under Chapter 3357. of the Revised 121761
Code.121762

       (4) "Private institution of higher education" means an Ohio 121763
institution of higher education that is nonprofit and has received 121764
a certificate of authorization pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the 121765
Revised Code, that is a private institution exempt from regulation 121766
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 121767
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or that holds a certificate of 121768
registration and program authorization issued by the state board 121769
of career colleges and schools pursuant to section 3332.05 of the 121770
Revised Code.121771

       (5) "Tuition" means the charges imposed to attend an 121772
institution of higher education and includes general and 121773
instructional fees. "Tuition" does not include laboratory fees, 121774
room and board, or other similar fees and charges.121775

       (B) There is hereby created a scholarship program to be known 121776
as the Ohio national guard scholarship program.121777

       (C) The adjutant general shall approve scholarships for all 121778
eligible applicants. The adjutant general shall process all 121779
applications for scholarships for each academic term in the order 121780
in which they are received. The scholarships shall be made without 121781
regard to financial need. At no time shall one person be placed in 121782
priority over another because of sex, race, or religion.121783

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I) and (J) of this 121784
section, for each academic term that an eligible applicant is 121785
approved for a scholarship under this section and either remains a 121786
current member in good standing of the Ohio national guard or is 121787
eligible for a scholarship under division (F)(1) of this section, 121788
the institution of higher education in which the applicant is 121789
enrolled shall, if the applicant's enlistment obligation extends 121790
beyond the end of that academic term or if division (F)(1) of this 121791
section applies, be paid on the applicant's behalf the applicable 121792
one of the following amounts:121793

       (a) If the institution is a state institution of higher 121794
education, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 121795
institution's tuition charges;121796

       (b) If the institution is a nonprofit private institution or 121797
a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. 121798
of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the 121799
Revised Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 121800
average tuition charges of all state universities;121801

       (c) If the institution is an institution that holds a 121802
certificate of registration from the state board of career 121803
colleges and schools, the lesser of the following:121804

       (i) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 121805
institution's tuition;121806

       (ii) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the average 121807
tuition charges of all state universities, as that term is defined 121808
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.121809

       (2) An eligible applicant's scholarship shall not be reduced 121810
by the amount of that applicant's benefits under "the Montgomery 121811
G.I. Bill Act of 1984," Pub. L. No. 98-525, 98 Stat. 2553 (1984).121812

       (E) A scholarship recipient under this section shall be 121813
entitled to receive scholarships under this section for the number 121814
of quarters or semesters it takes the recipient to accumulate 121815
ninety-six eligibility units as determined under divisions (E)(1) 121816
to (3) of this section.121817

       (1) To determine the maximum number of semesters or quarters 121818
for which a recipient is entitled to a scholarship under this 121819
section, the adjutant general shall convert a recipient's credit 121820
hours of enrollment for each academic term into eligibility units 121821
in accordance with the following table:121822

The 121823
Number of following The following 121824
credit hours number of number of 121825
of enrollment eligibility eligibility 121826
in an academic units if a units if a 121827
term equals semester or quarter 121828
   121829
12 or more hours 12 units 8 units 121830
9 but less than 12 9 units 6 units 121831
6 but less than 9 6 units 4 units 121832
3 but less than 6 3 units 2 units 121833

       (2) A scholarship recipient under this section may continue 121834
to apply for scholarships under this section until the recipient 121835
has accumulated ninety-six eligibility units.121836

       (3) If a scholarship recipient withdraws from courses prior 121837
to the end of an academic term so that the recipient's enrollment 121838
for that academic term is less than three credit hours, no 121839
scholarship shall be paid on behalf of that person for that 121840
academic term. Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this 121841
section, if a scholarship has already been paid on behalf of the 121842
person for that academic term, the adjutant general shall add to 121843
that person's accumulated eligibility units the number of 121844
eligibility units for which the scholarship was paid.121845

       (F) This division applies to any eligible applicant called 121846
into active duty on or after September 11, 2001. As used in this 121847
division, "active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 121848
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 121849
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 121850
the Revised Code.121851

       (1) For a period of up to five years from when an 121852
individual's enlistment obligation in the Ohio national guard 121853
ends, an individual to whom this division applies is eligible for 121854
scholarships under this section for those academic terms that were 121855
missed or could have been missed as a result of the individual's 121856
call into active duty. Scholarships shall not be paid for the 121857
academic term in which an eligible applicant's enlistment 121858
obligation ends unless an applicant is eligible under this 121859
division for a scholarship for such academic term due to previous 121860
active duty.121861

       (2) When an individual to whom this division applies 121862
withdraws or otherwise fails to complete courses, for which 121863
scholarships have been awarded under this section, because the 121864
individual was called into active duty, the institution of higher 121865
education shall grant the individual a leave of absence from the 121866
individual's education program and shall not impose any academic 121867
penalty for such withdrawal or failure to complete courses. 121868
Division (F)(2) of this section applies regardless of whether or 121869
not the scholarship amount was paid to the institution of higher 121870
education.121871

       (3) If an individual to whom this division applies withdraws 121872
or otherwise fails to complete courses because the individual was 121873
called into active duty, and if scholarships for those courses 121874
have already been paid, either:121875

       (a) The adjutant general shall not add to that person's 121876
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 121877
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 121878
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid and the 121879
institution of higher education shall repay the scholarship amount 121880
to the state.121881

       (b) The adjutant general shall add to that individual's 121882
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 121883
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 121884
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid if the 121885
institution of higher education agrees to permit the individual to 121886
complete the remainder of the academic courses in which the 121887
individual was enrolled at the time the individual was called into 121888
active duty.121889

       (4) No individual who is discharged from the Ohio national 121890
guard under other than honorable conditions shall be eligible for 121891
scholarships under this division.121892

       (G) A scholarship recipient under this section who fails to 121893
complete the term of enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of 121894
current enlistment the recipient was serving at the time a 121895
scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this section 121896
is liable to the state for repayment of a percentage of all Ohio 121897
national guard scholarships paid on behalf of the recipient under 121898
this section, plus interest at the rate of ten per cent per annum 121899
calculated from the dates the scholarships were paid. This 121900
percentage shall equal the percentage of the current term of 121901
enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of enlistment a recipient 121902
has not completed as of the date the recipient is discharged from 121903
the Ohio national guard.121904

       The attorney general may commence a civil action on behalf of 121905
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents to recover the amount 121906
of the scholarships and the interest provided for in this division 121907
and the expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including 121908
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. A scholarship 121909
recipient is not liable under this division if the recipient's 121910
failure to complete the term of enlistment being served at the 121911
time a scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this 121912
section is due to the recipient's death or discharge from the 121913
national guard due to disability.121914

       (H) On or before the first day of each academic term, the 121915
adjutant general shall provide an eligibility roster to the 121916
chancellor and to each institution of higher education at which 121917
one or more scholarship recipients have applied for enrollment. 121918
The institution shall use the roster to certify the actual 121919
full-time or part-time enrollment of each scholarship recipient 121920
listed as enrolled at the institution and return the roster to the 121921
adjutant general and the chancellor. Except as provided in 121922
division (J) of this section, the chancellor shall provide for 121923
payment of the appropriate number and amount of scholarships to 121924
each institution of higher education pursuant to division (D) of 121925
this section. If an institution of higher education fails to 121926
certify the actual enrollment of a scholarship recipient listed as 121927
enrolled at the institution within thirty days of the end of an 121928
academic term, the institution shall not be eligible to receive 121929
payment from the Ohio national guard scholarship program or from 121930
the individual enrollee. The adjutant general shall report on a 121931
semiannual basis to the director of budget and management, the 121932
speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 121933
senate, and the chancellor the number of Ohio national guard 121934
scholarship recipients, the size of the scholarship-eligible 121935
population, and a projection of the cost of the program for the 121936
remainder of the biennium.121937

       (I) The chancellor and the adjutant general may adopt rules 121938
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 121939
administration and fiscal management of the Ohio national guard 121940
scholarship program and the procedure by which the chancellor and 121941
the department of the adjutant general may modify the amount of 121942
scholarships a member receives based on the amount of other state 121943
financial aid a member receives.121944

       (J) The adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, 121945
or their designees, shall jointly estimate the costs of the Ohio 121946
national guard scholarship program for each upcoming fiscal 121947
biennium, and shall report that estimate prior to the beginning of 121948
the fiscal biennium to the chairpersons of the finance committees 121949
in the general assembly. During each fiscal year of the biennium, 121950
the adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, or their 121951
designees, shall meet regularly to monitor the actual costs of the 121952
Ohio national guard scholarship program and update cost 121953
projections for the remainder of the biennium as necessary. If the 121954
amounts appropriated for the Ohio national guard scholarship 121955
program and any funds in the Ohio national guard scholarship 121956
reserve fund and the Ohio national guard scholarship donation fund121957
are not adequate to provide scholarships in the amounts specified 121958
in division (D)(1) of this section for all eligible applicants, 121959
the chancellor shall do all of the following:121960

       (1) Notify each private institution of higher education, 121961
where a scholarship recipient is enrolled, that, by accepting the 121962
Ohio national guard scholarship program as payment for all or part 121963
of the institution's tuition, the institution agrees that if the 121964
chancellor reduces the amount of each scholarship, the institution 121965
shall provide each scholarship recipient a grant or tuition waiver 121966
in an amount equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was 121967
reduced by the chancellor.121968

        (2) Reduce the amount of each scholarship under division 121969
(D)(1)(a) of this section proportionally based on the amount of 121970
remaining available funds. Each state institution of higher 121971
education shall provide each scholarship recipient under division 121972
(D)(1)(a) of this section a grant or tuition waiver in an amount 121973
equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was reduced by the 121974
chancellor.121975

       (K) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 127.14 of the 121976
Revised Code, the controlling board shall not transfer all or part 121977
of any appropriation for the Ohio national guard scholarship 121978
program.121979

       (L) The chancellor and the adjutant general may apply for, 121980
and may receive and accept grants, and may receive and accept 121981
gifts, bequests, and contributions, from public and private 121982
sources, including agencies and instrumentalities of the United 121983
States and this state, and shall deposit the grants, gifts, 121984
bequests, or contributions into the national guard scholarship 121985
reservedonation fund.121986

       Sec. 5919.342.  The national guard scholarship donation fund 121987
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 121988
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under 121989
division (L) of section 5919.34 of the Revised Code. Investment 121990
earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 121991
shall be used to operate the Ohio national guard scholarship 121992
program created under section 5919.34 of the Revised Code.121993

       Sec. 5924.502.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 121994
to stand trial is raised or if an accused enters a plea of not 121995
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 121996
evaluations of the accused's present mental condition or, in the 121997
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 121998
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. An 121999
examiner shall conduct the evaluation.122000

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 122001
division (A) of this section, the trial counsel and the defense 122002
counsel may recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers 122003
to perform one of the evaluations. If an accused enters a plea of 122004
not guilty by reason of insanity and if the court does not 122005
designate an examiner recommended by the defense counsel, the 122006
court shall inform the accused that the accused may have 122007
independent expert evaluation and that it will be obtained for the 122008
accused at public expense.122009

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 122010
this section, the accused shall be available at the times and 122011
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 122012
evaluation. The court may order an accused who is not being held 122013
in pretrial confinement to submit to an evaluation under this 122014
section. If an accused who is not being held in pretrial 122015
confinement refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 122016
may order the sheriff to take the accused into custody and deliver 122017
the accused to a center, program, or facility operated or 122018
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 122019
addiction services where the accused may be held for evaluation 122020
for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days.122021

       (D) An accused who is being held in pretrial confinement may 122022
be evaluated at the accused's place of detention. Upon the request 122023
of the examiner, the court may order the sheriff to transport the 122024
accused to a program or facility operated or certified by the 122025
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 122026
where the accused may be held for evaluation for a reasonable 122027
period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return the 122028
accused to the place of detention after the evaluation.122029

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine an 122030
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 122031
court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 122032
accused is charged.122033

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of an accused's mental 122034
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 122035
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 122036
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 122037
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 122038
the accused suffered at the time of the commission of the offense 122039
from the "battered woman syndrome."122040

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 122041
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 122042
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the trial 122043
counsel and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 122044
following:122045

       (1) The examiner's findings;122046

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 122047
based;122048

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 122049
competence to stand trial, all of the following findings or 122050
recommendations that are applicable:122051

       (a) Whether the accused is capable of understanding the 122052
nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or of 122053
assisting in the accused's defense;122054

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 122055
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 122056
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 122057
defense, whether the accused presently is mentally ill;122058

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 122059
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 122060
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 122061
defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood of the 122062
accused becoming capable of understanding the nature and objective 122063
of the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 122064
accused's defense within one year if the accused is provided with 122065
a course of treatment;122066

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 122067
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 122068
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 122069
defense and that the accused presently is mentally ill, the 122070
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 122071
commitment alternative, consistent with the accused's treatment 122072
needs for restoration to competency and with the safety of the 122073
community;122074

       (e) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 122075
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 122076
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code and the 122077
examiner's opinion is that the accused is incapable of 122078
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 122079
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense and that the 122080
accused is presently mentally ill, the examiner's recommendation 122081
as to whether the accused is amenable to engagement in mental 122082
health treatment.122083

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 122084
mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 122085
examiner's findings as to whether the accused at the time of the 122086
offense charged did not know, as a result of a severe mental 122087
disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the accused's acts charged.122088

       (H) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 122089
section to evaluate an accused to determine the accused's 122090
competence to stand trial also may be appointed to evaluate an 122091
accused who has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of 122092
insanity, but an examiner of that nature shall prepare separate 122093
reports on the issue of competence to stand trial and the defense 122094
of not guilty by reason of insanity.122095

       (I) No statement that an accused makes in an evaluation or 122096
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 122097
accused's competence to stand trial or to the accused's mental 122098
condition at the time of the offense charged may be used against 122099
the accused on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 122100
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the trial 122101
counsel or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 122102
evaluated the accused or prepared a report pursuant to a referral 122103
under this section. Neither the appointment nor the testimony of 122104
an examiner appointed under this section precludes the trial 122105
counsel or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 122106
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.122107

       (J) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 122108
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 122109
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 122110
certified by the court.122111

       Sec. 5924.503.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 122112
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 122113
hearing provided for in section 5924.502 of the Revised Code, 122114
finds that the accused is competent to stand trial, the accused 122115
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 122116
the accused competent to stand trial and the accused is receiving 122117
psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may authorize 122118
the continued administration of the drugs or medication or other 122119
appropriate treatment in order to maintain the accused's 122120
competence to stand trial unless the accused's attending physician 122121
advises the court against continuation of the drugs, other 122122
medication, or treatment.122123

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 122124
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 122125
accused is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 122126
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 122127
stand trial within one year if the accused is provided with a 122128
course of treatment, the court shall order the accused to undergo 122129
treatment. If the accused is being tried by a general 122130
court-martial and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 122131
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 122132
accused is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable at 122133
that time to determine whether there is a substantial probability 122134
that the accused will become competent to stand trial within one 122135
year if the accused is provided with a course of treatment, the 122136
court shall order continuing evaluation and treatment of the 122137
accused for a period not to exceed four months to determine 122138
whether there is a substantial probability that the accused will 122139
become competent to stand trial within one year if the accused is 122140
provided with a course of treatment.122141

       (b) The court order for the accused to undergo treatment or 122142
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 122143
this section shall specify that the accused, if determined to 122144
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 122145
treatment, shall be committed to the department of mental health122146
mental health and addiction services for treatment or continuing 122147
evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or agency 122148
determined to be clinically appropriate by the department of 122149
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The order may 122150
restrict the accused's freedom of movement as the court considers 122151
necessary. The trial counsel in the accused's case shall send to 122152
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency122153
services provider where the accused is placed by the department of 122154
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 122155
managing officer of the institution, the director of the facility, 122156
or the person to which the accused is committed copies of relevant 122157
investigative reports and other background information that 122158
pertains to the accused and is available to the trial counsel 122159
unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any of the 122160
information in the investigative reports or any of the other 122161
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 122162
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 122163
substantial risk of harm to any person.122164

       In committing the accused to the department of mental health122165
mental health and addiction services, the court shall consider the 122166
extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 122167
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and, 122168
if the court finds that restrictions on the accused's freedom of 122169
movement are necessary, shall specify the least restrictive 122170
limitations on the person's freedom of movement determined to be 122171
necessary to protect public safety. In weighing these factors, the 122172
court shall give preference to protecting public safety.122173

       (c) If the accused is found incompetent to stand trial, if 122174
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency122175
services provider where the accused is placed, or the managing 122176
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 122177
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 122178
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 122179
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 122180
the accused's competency to stand trial, and if the accused lacks 122181
the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, the 122182
chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency122183
services provider where the accused is placed or the managing 122184
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 122185
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 122186
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 122187
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 122188
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 122189
the filing of the petition. Following the hearing, the court may 122190
authorize the involuntary administration of medication or may 122191
dismiss the petition.122192

       (d) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 122193
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 122194
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code, the trial 122195
counsel may hold the charges in abeyance while the accused engages 122196
in mental health treatment.122197

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 122198
stand trial and that, even if the accused is provided with a 122199
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 122200
the accused will become competent to stand trial within one year, 122201
the court shall order the discharge of the accused, unless upon 122202
motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, the court either 122203
seeks to retain jurisdiction over the accused pursuant to division 122204
(A)(2) of section 5924.504 of the Revised Code or files an 122205
affidavit in the probate court for the civil commitment of the 122206
accused pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code alleging 122207
that the accused is a mentally ill person subject to 122208
hospitalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in the 122209
probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 122210
copies of all written reports of the accused's mental condition 122211
that were prepared pursuant to section 5924.502 of the Revised 122212
Code.122213

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 122214
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 of the 122215
Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 122216
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 122217
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. of 122218
the Revised Code.122219

       (C) No accused shall be required to undergo treatment, 122220
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 122221
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 122222
periods is applicable:122223

       (1) One year, if the accused is being tried by a general 122224
court-martial;122225

       (2) Six months, if the accused is being tried before a 122226
special court-martial;122227

       (3) Sixty days, if the accused is being tried before a 122228
summary court-martial.122229

       (D) Any accused who is committed pursuant to this section 122230
shall not voluntarily admit the accused or be voluntarily admitted 122231
to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02 or 122232
5122.15 of the Revised Code.122233

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an accused 122234
who is charged with an offense and is committed by the court under 122235
this section to the department of mental healthmental health and 122236
addiction services with restrictions on the accused's freedom of 122237
movement shall not be granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, 122238
supervised off-grounds movement, or nonsecured status except in 122239
accordance with the court order. The court may grant an accused 122240
supervised off-grounds movement to obtain medical treatment or 122241
specialized habilitation treatment services if the person who 122242
supervises the treatment or the continuing evaluation and 122243
treatment of the accused ordered under division (B)(1)(a) of this 122244
section informs the court that the treatment or continuing 122245
evaluation and treatment cannot be provided at the hospital or 122246
facility where the accused is placed by the department of mental 122247
healthmental health and addiction services. The chief clinical 122248
officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is placed by 122249
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 122250
services or the managing officer of the institution or director of 122251
the facility to which the accused is committed or a designee of 122252
any of those persons may grant an accused movement to a medical 122253
facility for an emergency medical situation with appropriate 122254
supervision to ensure the safety of the accused, staff, and 122255
community during that emergency medical situation. The chief 122256
clinical officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is 122257
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 122258
addiction services or the managing officer of the institution or 122259
director of the facility to which the accused is committed shall 122260
notify the court within twenty-four hours of the accused's 122261
movement to the medical facility for an emergency medical 122262
situation under this division.122263

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 122264
evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered to undergo 122265
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 122266
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 122267
court at the following times:122268

       (1) Whenever the person believes the accused is capable of 122269
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 122270
the accused and of assisting in the accused's defense;122271

       (2) Fourteen days before expiration of the maximum time for 122272
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section and 122273
fourteen days before the expiration of the maximum time for 122274
continuing evaluation and treatment as specified in division 122275
(B)(1)(a) of this section;122276

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;122277

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 122278
continuing evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered under 122279
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 122280
substantial probability that the accused will become capable of 122281
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 122282
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense even if the 122283
accused is provided with a course of treatment.122284

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 122285
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 122286
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 122287
accused's capability of understanding the nature and objective of 122288
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 122289
accused's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the accused 122290
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 122291
proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the accused's 122292
defense and there is a substantial probability that the accused 122293
will become capable of understanding the nature and objective of 122294
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 122295
accused's defense if the accused is provided with a course of 122296
treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the accused remains 122297
mentally ill, and if the maximum time for treatment as specified 122298
in division (C) of this section has not expired, the report also 122299
shall contain the examiner's recommendation as to the least 122300
restrictive placement or commitment alternative that is consistent 122301
with the accused's treatment needs for restoration to competency 122302
and with the safety of the community. The court shall provide 122303
copies of the report to the trial counsel and defense counsel.122304

       (H) If an accused is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) of 122305
this section, within ten days after the treating physician of the 122306
accused or the examiner of the accused who is employed or retained 122307
by the treating facility advises that there is not a substantial 122308
probability that the accused will become capable of understanding 122309
the nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or 122310
of assisting in the accused's defense even if the accused is 122311
provided with a course of treatment, within ten days after the 122312
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 122313
division (C) of this section, within ten days after the expiration 122314
of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as 122315
specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, within thirty 122316
days after an accused's request for a hearing that is made after 122317
six months of treatment, or within thirty days after being advised 122318
by the treating physician or examiner that the accused is 122319
competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, the court 122320
shall conduct another hearing to determine if the accused is 122321
competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of the following 122322
is applicable:122323

       (1) If the court finds that the accused is competent to stand 122324
trial, the accused shall be proceeded against as provided by law.122325

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 122326
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 122327
accused will become competent to stand trial if the accused is 122328
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 122329
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 122330
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 122331
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 122332
change least restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of 122333
movement.122334

       (3) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 122335
stand trial, if the accused is being tried by a general 122336
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 122337
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 122338
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 122339
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 122340
division (C) of this section has expired, further proceedings 122341
shall be as provided in sections 5924.504 to 5924.506 of the 122342
Revised Code.122343

       (4) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 122344
stand trial, if the accused is being tried before a special 122345
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 122346
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 122347
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 122348
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 122349
division (C) of this section has expired, the court shall dismiss 122350
the charge against the accused. A dismissal under this division is 122351
not a bar to further prosecution based on the same conduct. The 122352
court shall discharge the accused unless the court or trial 122353
counsel files an affidavit in probate court for civil commitment 122354
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If an affidavit for 122355
civil commitment is filed, the court may detain the accused for 122356
ten days pending civil commitment. All of the following provisions 122357
apply to persons being tried by a special court-martial who are 122358
committed by the probate court subsequent to the court's or trial 122359
counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment under 122360
authority of this division:122361

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 122362
facility, the managing officer of the institution, or the person 122363
to which the accused is committed or admitted shall do all of the 122364
following:122365

       (i) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the discharge of 122366
the accused, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 122367
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 122368
in the notice the date on which the accused will be discharged;122369

       (ii) Notify the trial counsel in writing when the accused is 122370
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 122371
movement and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 122372
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 122373
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;122374

       (iii) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the change of 122375
the accused's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send 122376
the notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary 122377
status, and state in the notice the date on which the accused was 122378
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.122379

       (b) The trial counsel shall promptly inform the convening 122380
authority of any notification received under division (H)(4)(a) of 122381
this section. Upon receiving notice that the accused will be 122382
granted unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the convening 122383
authority either shall refer the charges against the accused to an 122384
investigating officer again or promptly notify the court that the 122385
convening authority does not intend to refer the charges against 122386
the accused again.122387

       (I) If an accused is convicted of a crime and sentenced to 122388
confinement, the accused's sentence shall be reduced by the total 122389
number of days the accused is confined for evaluation to determine 122390
the accused's competence to stand trial or treatment under this 122391
section and sections 5924.502 and 5924.504 of the Revised Code or 122392
by the total number of days the accused is confined for evaluation 122393
to determine the accused's mental condition at the time of the 122394
offense charged.122395

       Sec. 5924.504.  (A) If an accused being tried by a general 122396
court-martial is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 122397
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 122398
division (C) of section 5924.503 of the Revised Code or after the 122399
court finds that there is not a substantial probability that the 122400
accused will become competent to stand trial even if the accused 122401
is provided with a course of treatment, one of the following 122402
applies:122403

       (1) The court or the trial counsel may file an affidavit in 122404
probate court for civil commitment of the accused in the manner 122405
provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 122406
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 122407
may detain the accused for ten days pending civil commitment. If 122408
the probate court commits the accused subsequent to the court's or 122409
trial counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 122410
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 122411
managing officer of the institution, or the person to which the 122412
accused is committed or admitted shall send to the trial counsel 122413
the notices described in divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of 122414
section 5924.503 of the Revised Code within the periods of time 122415
and under the circumstances specified in those divisions.122416

       (2) On the motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, 122417
the court may retain jurisdiction over the accused if at a hearing 122418
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 122419
evidence:122420

       (a) The accused committed the offense with which the accused 122421
is charged.122422

       (b) The accused is a mentally ill person subject to 122423
hospitalization by court order.122424

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 122425
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the accused, the 122426
court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 122427
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 122428
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 122429
and any history of the accused that is relevant to the accused's 122430
ability to conform to the law.122431

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 122432
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 122433
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 122434
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 122435
charges against the accused. Upon the dismissal, the court shall 122436
discharge the accused unless the court or trial counsel files an 122437
affidavit in probate court for civil commitment of the accused 122438
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 122439
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 122440
may order that the accused be detained for up to ten days pending 122441
the civil commitment. If the probate court commits the accused 122442
subsequent to the court's or trial counsel's filing of an 122443
affidavit for civil commitment, the chief clinical officer of the 122444
entity, hospital, or facility, the managing officer of the 122445
institution, or the person to which the accused is committed or 122446
admitted shall send to the trial counsel the notices described in 122447
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 5924.503 of the Revised 122448
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 122449
specified in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this 122450
division is not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the 122451
same conduct.122452

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 122453
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 122454
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 122455
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 122456
accused, if determined to require mental health treatment, to the 122457
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services122458
for treatment at a hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider122459
as determined clinically appropriate by the department of mental 122460
healthmental health and addiction services. In committing the 122461
accused to the department of mental healthmental health and 122462
addiction services, the court shall specify the least restrictive 122463
limitations on the accused's freedom of movement determined to be 122464
necessary to protect public safety.122465

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of an accused under 122466
division (D)(1) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to 122467
the hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider where the 122468
accused is placed by the department of mental healthmental health 122469
and addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 122470
reports of the accused's current mental condition and, except as 122471
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 122472
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 122473
hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies 122474
of relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest 122475
and conviction records that pertain to the accused and that the 122476
trial counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports 122477
of the accused's current mental condition in every case of 122478
commitment, and, unless the trial counsel determines that the 122479
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 122480
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 122481
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 122482
the trial counsel also shall send the other relevant information.122483

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 122484
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 122485
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.122486

       Sec. 5924.506.  (A) If an accused person is found not guilty 122487
by reason of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and 122488
the trial court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether 122489
the person is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 122490
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the military judge believes 122491
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 122492
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 122493
hospitalization by court order, the military judge may issue a 122494
temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 122495
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.122496

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 122497
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 122498
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 122499
confinement prior to and during trial.122500

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 122501
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 122502
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 122503
hospitalization by court order within ten court days after the 122504
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. Failure to conduct 122505
the hearing within the ten-day period shall cause the immediate 122506
discharge of the respondent, unless the judge grants a continuance 122507
for not longer than ten court days for good cause shown or for any 122508
period of time upon motion of the respondent.122509

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 122510
the person has the right to attend a hearing conducted pursuant to 122511
this section. At the hearing, the court shall inform the person 122512
that the person has all of the following rights:122513

       (1) The right to be represented by defense counsel or to 122514
retain civilian counsel, if the person so chooses;122515

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation;122516

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 122517
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 122518
against the person;122519

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 122520
not be compelled to testify;122521

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 122522
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 122523
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 122524
the release to the person of information contained in the document 122525
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.122526

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 122527
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 122528
accordance with regulations prescribed by the adjutant general. 122529
The court shall make and maintain a full transcript and record of 122530
the hearing proceedings. The court may consider all relevant 122531
evidence, including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 122532
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 122533
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 122534
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 122535
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.122536

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 122537
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 122538
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 122539
hospitalization by court order, the court shall discharge the 122540
person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the person by the 122541
department of rehabilitation and correction, in which case the 122542
person shall be returned to that department.122543

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 122544
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 122545
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 122546
order, it shall commit the person to the department of mental 122547
healthmental health and addiction services for placement in a 122548
hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider as determined 122549
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 122550
health and addiction services. Further proceedings shall be in 122551
accordance with Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. In 122552
committing the accused to the department of mental healthmental 122553
health and addiction services, the court shall specify the least 122554
restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of movement 122555
determined to be necessary to protect public safety.122556

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 122557
(F) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to the hospital, 122558
facility, or agencyservices provider where the defendant is 122559
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 122560
addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 122561
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 122562
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 122563
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 122564
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 122565
relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 122566
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the trial 122567
counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports of the 122568
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 122569
and, unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any 122570
of the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 122571
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 122572
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the trial counsel 122573
also shall send the other relevant information.122574

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 122575
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 122576
hospital or institution pursuant to sections 5122.02 and 5122.15 122577
of the Revised Code.122578

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (I) and 122579
(J) of this section, no person shall operate a public water system 122580
in this state without a license issued by the director of 122581
environmental protection. 122582

        (B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 122583
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 122584
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 122585
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 122586
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 122587
commencing the operation of the system.122588

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 122589
the year following its issuance.122590

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 122591
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 122592
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 122593
of the license.122594

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, eachEach application for a 122595
license or license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 122596
fee established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the 122597
Revised Code. However, an applicant for an initial license who is 122598
proposing to operate a new public water system shall submit a fee 122599
that equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee established 122600
under that division for the remainder of the licensing year.122601

       (F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 122602
application and the appropriate license fee for a license or 122603
license renewal for a public water system, the director shall do 122604
one of the following:122605

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 122606
system;122607

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 122608
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 122609
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;122610

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 122611
that the public water system cannot be operated in substantial 122612
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.122613

       (G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a license 122614
or license renewal issued under this section at any time if the 122615
director finds that the public water system was not or will not be 122616
operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and rules 122617
adopted under it. 122618

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 122619
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and requirements 122620
governing both of the following:122621

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 122622
and license renewals issued under this section;122623

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 122624
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 122625

       (I)(1) As used in division (I) of this section, "church" 122626
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 122627
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 122628
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 122629
operated for the private profit of any person.122630

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 122631
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 122632
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 122633
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 122634
their families. 122635

       (J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 122636
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 122637
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 122638
to provide water for that school.122639

       (K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 122640
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 122641
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 122642
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 122643
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 122644
provided in those rules.122645

       Sec. 6111.037.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 122646
treasury the nonpoint source pollution management fund. The fund 122647
shall consist of grant moneys received underFor purposes of state 122648
nonpoint source pollution management and pursuant to section 319 122649
of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," for purposes of 122650
assisting with the development and implementation of a 122651
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution management program 122652
pursuant to that section of the act. Moneys credited to the fund 122653
may be used for purposes of research, planning, water quality 122654
assessments, demonstration projects, enforcement, technical 122655
assistance, education, and training regarding management of 122656
nonpoint sources of water pollution. Thethe director of 122657
environmental protection may enter into agreements to receive 122658
grant moneys for the nonpoint source pollution management fund and122659
for deposit into the state treasury to the credit of the water 122660
quality protection fund created in section 6111.0381 of the 122661
Revised Code. The director may enter into agreements to make 122662
grants of moneys credited to the fund under this section,122663
including, without limitation, passthrough grants to other state 122664
departments or agencies.122665

       (B) The director shall periodically prepare and, by rules 122666
adopted under division (O) of section 6111.036 of the Revised 122667
Code, establish a priority system for identifying activities 122668
eligible for assistance under this section. The priority system 122669
shall ensure that financial assistance available under this 122670
section is first provided to:122671

       (1) Control particularly difficult or serious nonpoint source 122672
pollution problems, including, without limitation, problems 122673
resulting from mining activities;122674

       (2) Implement innovative methods or practices for controlling 122675
nonpoint sources of pollution, including, without limitation, 122676
regulatory programs that the director determines are appropriate;122677

       (3) Control interstate nonpoint source pollution problems;122678

       (4) Implement ground and surface water quality protection 122679
activities that the director determines are part of a 122680
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution control program, which 122681
activities include research, planning, ground water quality122682
assessments, demonstration programs, enforcement, technical 122683
assistance, education, and training to protect ground water 122684
quality from nonpoint sources of pollution.122685

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 122686
9.239, 9.24, 9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 103.144, 105.41, 122687
107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 122688
109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 122689
113.061, 117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 122690
121.11, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122691
122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 122692
122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122693
122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 122694
124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 125.05, 122695
125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 122696
126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 122697
127.14, 127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.80, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 122698
145.01, 145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.311, 149.43, 151.11, 152.09, 122699
153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 122700
156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 164.27, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 122701
166.25, 169.02, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 122702
173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 122703
173.394, 173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 122704
173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 122705
173.501, 173.99, 189.04, 189.06, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 122706
301.28, 305.23, 307.07, 307.673, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 122707
317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 122708
329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 122709
340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 122710
340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 122711
351.021, 715.691, 718.01, 718.03, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 122712
742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 122713
909.15, 924.06, 927.54, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 122714
991.06, 1332.26, 1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1509.01, 122715
1509.02, 1509.062, 1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1509.73, 1511.02, 122716
1511.022, 1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.99, 1548.02, 122717
1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 122718
1751.11, 1751.12, 1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1923.14, 122719
2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 122720
2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 122721
2301.02, 2301.03, 2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 2317.02, 2317.422, 122722
2505.02, 2743.02, 2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.13, 2903.33, 122723
2907.22, 2913.40, 2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.13, 2921.22, 122724
2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.125, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.13, 2929.15, 122725
2930.01, 2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 122726
2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 122727
3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 122728
3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 122729
3123.958, 3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 122730
3301.0723, 3301.15, 3302.01, 3302.03, 3302.22, 3304.231, 3305.03, 122731
3307.51, 3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 122732
3310.08, 3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.78, 122733
3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.42, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 122734
3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6011, 122735
3313.6013, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.714, 122736
3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 3313.845, 3313.847, 122737
3313.88, 3313.978, 3313.98, 3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 122738
3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 122739
3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 122740
3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 122741
3317.023, 3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.08, 122742
3317.10, 3317.12, 3317.14, 3317.141, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 122743
3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 122744
3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 122745
3321.01, 3321.05, 3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 122746
3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 3323.142, 3326.11, 122747
3326.20, 3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 122748
3327.01, 3333.041, 3333.31, 3333.82, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 122749
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 122750
3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.07, 3365.12, 3383.01, 122751
3383.07, 3501.01, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.13, 122752
3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 122753
3701.344, 3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 122754
3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 122755
3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 122756
3709.01, 3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 122757
3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 122758
3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 122759
3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 122760
3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 122761
3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 122762
3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 122763
3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 122764
3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3769.08, 122765
3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.06, 3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.091, 122766
3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 122767
3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 122768
3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 122769
3793.38, 3793.39, 3798.01, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 122770
3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 122771
3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 122772
4104.33, 4112.01, 4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 122773
4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.50, 4123.32, 4131.03, 4141.162, 122774
4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.62, 122775
4505.02, 4505.09, 4505.101, 4506.07, 4507.03, 4507.06, 4507.51, 122776
4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.69, 4513.60, 4513.61, 122777
4513.62, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4715.36, 122778
4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 122779
4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 122780
4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 122781
4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.41, 4745.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 122782
4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 122783
4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.481, 4758.10, 122784
4758.11, 4761.01, 4906.20, 5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 122785
5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 122786
5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 122787
5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 122788
5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 122789
5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 122790
5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 122791
5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 122792
5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 122793
5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 122794
5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 122795
5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 122796
5111.018, 5111.0112, 5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 122797
5111.0119, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 122798
5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 5111.0211, 122799
5111.0212, 5111.0213, 5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 122800
5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 122801
5111.05, 5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 122802
5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 122803
5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 122804
5111.09, 5111.091, 5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 122805
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 122806
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 122807
5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 122808
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 122809
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 122810
5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 122811
5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 122812
5111.226, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 122813
5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 122814
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 122815
5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 122816
5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 122817
5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 122818
5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.40, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 122819
5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 122820
5111.50, 5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 122821
5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 122822
5111.63, 5111.66, 5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 122823
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 122824
5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 122825
5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 122826
5111.714, 5111.715, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 122827
5111.853, 5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 122828
5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 122829
5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 122830
5111.878, 5111.879, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.883, 122831
5111.884, 5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 122832
5111.8810, 5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.893, 5111.894, 122833
5111.90, 5111.91, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 122834
5111.93, 5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 5111.96, 122835
5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 122836
5112.04, 5112.05, 5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 122837
5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 122838
5112.32, 5112.33, 5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 122839
5112.371, 5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 5112.43, 122840
5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 122841
5115.20, 5117.10, 5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 122842
5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 122843
5119.11, 5119.12, 5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 122844
5119.20, 5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 5119.23, 122845
5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 122846
5119.36, 5119.42, 5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 5119.52, 122847
5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 122848
5119.62, 5119.621, 5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 122849
5119.99, 5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 122850
5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 122851
5121.36, 5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 122852
5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 122853
5121.55, 5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 122854
5122.15, 5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 122855
5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 122856
5122.33, 5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 122857
5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 122858
5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 122859
5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.05, 122860
5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5126.24, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 122861
5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5505.12, 122862
5507.46, 5511.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5703.37, 122863
5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 122864
5705.25, 5705.412, 5709.17, 5709.212, 5709.75, 5725.18, 5725.34, 122865
5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 122866
5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.98, 122867
5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 122868
5739.12, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.12, 5741.17, 5743.081, 122869
5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 122870
5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 122871
5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 122872
5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.014, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 122873
5751.21, 5753.01, 5753.03, 5753.07, 5815.28, 5905.02, 5910.02, 122874
5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 122875
and 6111.037 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.122876

       Section 105.01. That sections 122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 122877
122.152, 122.153, 122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 122878
125.838, 166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 183.28, 184.04, 122879
340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 1531.34, 1547.721, 122880
1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 1547.725, 1547.726, 3302.043, 122881
3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 3317.012, 122882
3317.014, 3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 122883
3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.13, 3317.16, 122884
3317.62, 3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 3323.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 122885
3345.81, 3353.09, 3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 122886
3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3701.072, 3701.263, 122887
3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 3701.903, 3701.904, 122888
3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 3721.026, 3793.02, 3793.03, 122889
3793.04, 3793.041, 3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 3793.08, 3793.09, 122890
3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 5101.514, 122891
5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 5101.526, 5101.528, 122892
5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 122893
5111.0113, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 122894
5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 5111.176, 5111.211, 5111.236, 122895
5111.65, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 122896
5111.705, 5111.706, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 122897
5111.83, 5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 5111.946, 122898
5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 5119.47, 5119.623, 5119.64, 122899
5119.65, 5119.66, 5119.67, 5119.68, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 122900
5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, and 6111.029 of the Revised Code are 122901
hereby repealed.122902

       Section 110.10. That section 3313.88 of the Revised Code as 122903
it results from Section 101.01 of this act be amended and 122904
recodified as section 3313.482 of the Revised Code to read as 122905
follows:122906

       Sec. 3313.88.        Sec. 3313.482.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of 122907
August of each school year, the board of education of any school 122908
district or the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic 122909
school may submit to the department of education a plan to require 122910
students to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the 122911
district's or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order 122912
to make up dayshours in that school year on which it is 122913
necessary to close schools for any of the reasons specified in 122914
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of 122915
the number of days permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 122916
3317.01 of the Revised Codedisease epidemic, hazardous weather 122917
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 122918
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 122919
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 122920
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 122921
use.122922

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 122923
governing authority of any community school established under 122924
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 122925
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 122926
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 122927
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 122928
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 122929
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 122930
specified in division (H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 122931
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 122932
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.122933

        A plan submitted by a school district board or, chartered 122934
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 122935
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 122936
submitted by a, or community school governing authority shall 122937
provide for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 122938
number of hours that are the equivalent of three school days. 122939
Provided the plan meets all requirements of this section, the 122940
department shall permit the board or governing authority to 122941
implement the plan for the applicable school year.122942

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 122943
district board of education shall include the written consent of 122944
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 122945
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.122946

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 122947
the following:122948

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 122949
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 122950
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 122951
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 122952
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 122953
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 122954
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 122955
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 122956
create lesson plans for those lessons.122957

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 122958
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 122959
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 122960
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 122961
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 122962
division (B) of this section.122963

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 122964
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 122965
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 122966
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 122967
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 122968
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.122969

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 122970
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 122971
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 122972
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 122973
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 122974
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.122975

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 122976
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 122977
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 122978
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 122979
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 122980
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 122981
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 122982
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 122983
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 122984
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 122985
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 122986
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 122987
to complete the lessons.122988

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 122989
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 122990
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 122991
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 122992
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.122993

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 122994
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 122995
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 122996
the online lesson plans.122997

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 122998
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 122999
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 123000
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 123001
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 123002
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 123003
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 123004
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 123005
equivalent, of a school.123006

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 123007
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 123008

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 123009
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 123010
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 123011
with respect to the number of make-up dayshours specified in the 123012
plan.123013

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 123014
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 123015
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 123016
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 123017
specified in the plan.123018

       Section 110.11. That existing section 3313.88 of the Revised 123019
Code is hereby repealed.123020

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act shall 123021
take effect July 1, 2014.123022

       Section 110.20. That the versions of sections 109.57, 123023
2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 123024
5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 123025
January 1, 2014, be amended to read as follows:123026

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 123027
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 123028
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 123029
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 123030
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 123031
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 123032
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 123033
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 123034
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 123035
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 123036
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 123037
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 123038
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 123039
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 123040
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 123041
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 123042
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 123043
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 123044
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 123045
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 123046
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 123047
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 123048
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 123049
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 123050
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 123051
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 123052
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 123053
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 123054
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 123055
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 123056
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 123057
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 123058
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 123059
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 123060
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 123061
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 123062
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 123063
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 123064
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 123065
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 123066
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 123067
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 123068
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 123069
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 123070
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 123071
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 123072
Revised Code. 123073

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 123074
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 123075
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 123076
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 123077
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 123078
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 123079
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 123080
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 123081
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 123082
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 123083
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 123084
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 123085
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 123086
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 123087
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 123088
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 123089
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 123090
information: 123091

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 123092
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 123093
this section; 123094

       (b) The style and number of the case; 123095

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 123096

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 123097
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 123098
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 123099
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 123100
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 123101
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 123102
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 123103
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 123104
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 123105
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 123106
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 123107
of the case; 123108

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 123109
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 123110

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 123111
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 123112
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 123113
delinquent child. 123114

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 123115
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 123116
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 123117
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 123118
placed in the bureau's records. 123119

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 123120
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 123121
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 123122
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 123123
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 123124
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 123125
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 123126
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 123127
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 123128
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 123129
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 123130
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 123131
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 123132
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 123133
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 123134
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 123135
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 123136
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 123137
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 123138
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 123139
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 123140
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 123141
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 123142
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 123143
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 123144
state and its political subdivisions. 123145

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 123146
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 123147
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 123148
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 123149
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 123150

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 123151
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 123152
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 123153
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 123154
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 123155
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 123156
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 123157
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 123158
compact officer specified in that compact. 123159

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 123160
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 123161
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 123162
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 123163
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 123164
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 123165
standard forms for reporting the information required under 123166
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 123167
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 123168
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 123169
formats and electronic formats. 123170

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 123171
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 123172
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 123173
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 123174
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 123175
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 123176
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 123177
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 123178
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 123179
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 123180
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 123181
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 123182
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 123183
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 123184
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 123185
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 123186
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 123187

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 123188
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 123189
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 123190
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 123191
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 123192
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 123193
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 123194
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 123195
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 123196
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 123197
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 123198
section. 123199

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 123200
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 123201
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 123202
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 123203
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 123204
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 123205

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 123206
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 123207
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 123208
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 123209
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 123210
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 123211
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 123212
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 123213
enforcement gateway.123214

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 123215
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 123216
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 123217
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 123218
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 123219
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.123220

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 123221
149.43 of the Revised Code:123222

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 123223
pursuant to division (A) of this section;123224

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 123225
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 123226
division (C)(1) of this section;123227

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 123228
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.123229

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 123230
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 123231
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 123232
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 123233
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 123234
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 123235
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 123236

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 123237
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 123238
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 123239
person may receive or release information gathered by the 123240
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 123241
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 123242
employment service submits a request for a determination of 123243
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 123244
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 123245
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 123246
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 123247
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 123248

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 123249
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 123250
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 123251
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 123252
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 123253
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 123254
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 123255
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 123256
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 123257
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 123258
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 123259
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 123260
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 123261
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 123262
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 123263
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:123264

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 123265
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.123266

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 123267
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 123268
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 123269
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 123270
classification has not been removed.123271

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 123272
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 123273
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 123274
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 123275
as amended. 123276

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 123277
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 123278
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 123279
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 123280
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 123281
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 123282
board of education of any school district; the director of 123283
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 123284
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 123285
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 123286
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 123287
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 123288
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 123289
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 123290
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 123291
home licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code; the chief 123292
administrator of any head start agency; the executive director of 123293
a public children services agency; a private company described in 123294
section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised 123295
Code; or an employer described in division (J)(2) of section 123296
3327.10 of the Revised Code may request that the superintendent of 123297
the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any 123298
individual who has applied for employment in any position after 123299
October 2, 1989, or any individual wishing to apply for employment 123300
with a board of education may request, with regard to the 123301
individual, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 123302
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On 123303
receipt of the request, subject to division (E)(2) of this 123304
section, the superintendent shall determine whether that 123305
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 123306
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 123307
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 123308
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 123309
designee also may request criminal history records from other 123310
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 123311
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 123312
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 123313
superintendent receives a request, subject to division (E)(2) of 123314
this section, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, 123315
or person a report of any information that the superintendent 123316
determines exists, including information contained in records that 123317
have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, 123318
within thirty days of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of 123319
this section, shall send the board, entity, or person a report of 123320
any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 123321
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 123322
federal law. 123323

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 123324
provider is required to receive information under this section as 123325
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 123326
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 123327
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 123328
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 123329
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 123330
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 123331
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 123332
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 123333
employment application documents and shall return the certified 123334
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 123335
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 123336
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 123337
bureau. 123338

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 123339
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 123340
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 123341
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 123342
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 123343
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.123344

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 123345
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 123346
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 123347
education, any information that a school district board of 123348
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 123349
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 123350
the request has been received from a school district board of 123351
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 123352

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 123353
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 123354
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 123355
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 123356
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 123357

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 123358
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 123359
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 123360
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 123361
the information that a school district board of education is 123362
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 123363
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 123364
has been received from a school district board of education under 123365
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 123366

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 123367
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 123368
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 123369
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 123370
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 123371
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 123372
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 123373
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 123374
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 123375
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 123376
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 123377
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 123378
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 123379
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 123380

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 123381
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 123382
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 123383
position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 123384
to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 123385
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 123386
ombudspersonombudsman, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director 123387
of healthaging, a regional long-term care ombudsman program, or 123388
the designee of the ombudsman, director, or program may request 123389
that the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to 123390
any individual who has applied for employment in a position that 123391
does not involve providing such ombudspersonombudsman services, 123392
whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) 123393
of this section that pertains to that applicant. 123394

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 123395
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 123396
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 123397
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 123398
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 123399
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 123400
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 123401
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 123402
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 123403
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 123404
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 123405
pertains to that applicant. 123406

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 123407
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 123408
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 123409
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 123410
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 123411
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 123412
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 123413
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 123414
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 123415
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 123416
section that pertains to that individual.123417

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 123418
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 123419
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 123420
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 123421
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 123422
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 123423
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 123424
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 123425
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 123426
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 123427
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 123428
of any information determined to exist, including information 123429
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 123430
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 123431
send the requester a report of any information received from the 123432
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 123433
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 123434

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 123435
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 123436
disseminated. 123437

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 123438
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 123439
(G) of this section. 123440

       (J) As used in this section:123441

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric care 123442
patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 123443
Revised Code.123444

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 123445
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 123446
Revised Code.123447

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 123448
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 123449
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 123450
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 123451
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 123452
program.123453

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:123454

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 123455
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 123456
2152. of the Revised Code:123457

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 123458
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 123459
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 123460
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 123461
combined with one or more other divisions;123462

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 123463
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 123464
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 123465
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;123466

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 123467
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.123468

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 123469
jurisdiction under this chapter.123470

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 123471
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 123472
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 123473
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 123474
either foster care or adoption.123475

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 123476
organization, association, or society certified by the department 123477
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 123478
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 123479
this state, and that does one or more of the following:123480

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 123481
consecutive weeks;123482

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 123483
foster homes;123484

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 123485
children services agency or private child placing agency.123486

       (B) As used in this chapter:123487

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 123488
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 123489
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 123490
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 123491
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 123492
needs.123493

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 123494
or older.123495

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 123496
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 123497
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 123498
services agency or a private child placing agency.123499

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 123500
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 123501
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 123502
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 123503
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 123504
neglect occurred.123505

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 123506
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 123507
5103.03 of the Revised Code.123508

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 123509
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 123510
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 123511
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 123512
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 123513
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 123514
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 123515
age.123516

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 123517
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 123518
"licensed type B family day-care home," "type B family day-care 123519
home," "administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator 123520
of a type A family day-care home," and "in-home aide" have the 123521
same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.123522

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 123523
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 123524
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 123525
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 123526
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 123527
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 123528
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 123529
childhood programs of the department of education.123530

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 123531
2152.02 of the Revised Code.123532

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.123533

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:123534

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 123535
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 123536
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 123537
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 123538
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.123539

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 123540
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 123541
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 123542
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 123543
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 123544
counseling.123545

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 123546
child or a public children services agency or private child 123547
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 123548
a child.123549

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 123550
2152.02 of the Revised Code.123551

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 123552
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 123553
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 123554
the movement and activities of children.123555

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 123556
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.123557

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 123558
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 123559
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 123560
response or a traditional response.123561

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 123562
5103.02 of the Revised Code.123563

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 123564
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 123565
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 123566
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 123567
residual parental rights of the child's parents.123568

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 123569
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 123570
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 123571
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 123572
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.123573

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 123574
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.123575

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 123576
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 123577
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 123578
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 123579
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 123580
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 123581
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 123582
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 123583
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 123584
court.123585

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 123586
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 123587
any of the following:123588

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 123589
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 123590
state;123591

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 123592
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 123593
3321.04 of the Revised Code;123594

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 123595
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 123596
the Revised Code.123597

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 123598
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 123599
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.123600

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 123601
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 123602
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 123603
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 123604
child's care.123605

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 123606
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.123607

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 123608
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 123609
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 123610
from the facility.123611

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 123612
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.123613

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 123614
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 123615
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 123616
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 123617
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 123618
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.123619

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 123620
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 123621
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 123622
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 123623
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 123624
day-care homes, type B family day-care homes, child care provided 123625
by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, institutions, 123626
state institutions, residential facilities, residential care 123627
facilities, residential camps, day camps, public schools, 123628
chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 123629
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 123630
physical custody, or control of children.123631

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 123632
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 123633
child in out-of-home care:123634

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 123635
care;123636

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 123637
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 123638
necessary for a child's health;123639

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 123640
or pain;123641

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 123642
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 123643
supervision of a licensed physician;123644

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 123645
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 123646
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 123647
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 123648
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.123649

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 123650
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 123651
child in out-of-home care:123652

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 123653
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 123654
condition, or other special needs of the child;123655

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 123656
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 123657
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 123658
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;123659

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:123660

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 123661
drugs for the child;123662

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 123663
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;123664

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 123665
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 123666
drug.123667

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 123668
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 123669
for the health or well-being of the child;123670

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 123671
monitoring by staff;123672

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 123673
and nonprescription medication;123674

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 123675
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 123676
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.123677

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 123678
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 123679
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 123680
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 123681
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 123682
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.123683

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 123684
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 123685
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 123686
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 123687
children services agency or a private child placing agency.123688

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 123689
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 123690
departments, or agencies.123691

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 123692
care" means any of the following:123693

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;123694

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 123695
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 123696
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 123697
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 123698
day-care home; licensed type B family day-care home; group home; 123699
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 123700
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 123701
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 123702
center; hospital; or medical clinic;123703

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 123704
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 123705
school, or chartered nonpublic school;123706

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 123707
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.123708

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 123709
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 123710
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 123711
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:123712

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;123713

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;123714

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 123715
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 123716
amputation or another similar cause.123717

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 123718
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 123719
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 123720
of whom the agency has permanent custody.123721

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 123722
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 123723
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 123724
temporary custody or permanent custody.123725

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 123726
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:123727

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 123728
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 123729
the termination of parental rights.123730

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 123731
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 123732
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 123733
the child is placed.123734

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 123735
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 123736
Revised Code.123737

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 123738
service, or condition created by court order following an 123739
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 123740
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.123741

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 123742
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 123743
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 123744
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 123745
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 123746
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 123747
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 123748
court for the protection of the child.123749

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 123750
5122.01 of the Revised Code.123751

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 123752
4732.01 of the Revised Code.123753

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 123754
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 123755
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.123756

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 123757
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 123758
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 123759
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 123760
child.123761

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 123762
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 123763
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 123764
developmental disability resides.123765

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 123766
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 123767
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 123768
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 123769
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 123770
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 123771
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.123772

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 123773
state board of education of the applicable school district123774
pursuant to section 3313.483313.481 of the Revised Code.123775

       (50) "School month" and "school year" havehas the same 123776
meaningsmeaning as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.123777

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 123778
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 123779
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 123780
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 123781
disposition.123782

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 123783
2907.01 of the Revised Code.123784

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 123785
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 123786
disposition.123787

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 123788
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.123789

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 123790
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 123791
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 123792
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 123793
person who executed the agreement.123794

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 123795
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 123796
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 123797
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 123798
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 123799
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.123800

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 123801
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 123802
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 123803
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 123804
child after that period of ninety days.123805

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 123806
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 123807
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 123808
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 123809
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 123810
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 123811
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 123812
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 123813
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 123814
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 123815
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 123816
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 123817
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 123818
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.123819

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 123820
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 123821
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 123822
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 123823
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 123824
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 123825
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 123826
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 123827
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 123828
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 123829
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 123830
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 123831
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 123832
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 123833
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 123834
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 123835
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 123836
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 123837
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 123838
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 123839
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 123840
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 123841
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 123842
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 123843
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 123844
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 123845
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 123846
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 123847
handgun. 123848

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 123849
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 123850
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 123851
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 123852
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 123853
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 123854
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 123855
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 123856
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 123857
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 123858
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 123859
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 123860
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 123861
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 123862
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 123863
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 123864
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 123865
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 123866
officer leaves.123867

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 123868
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 123869
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 123870
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 123871
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 123872
handgun into any of the following places:123873

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 123874
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 123875
identification and investigation, a state correctional 123876
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 123877
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 123878
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 123879
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 123880
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;123881

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 123882
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 123883
Revised Code;123884

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 123885
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 123886
Revised Code;123887

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 123888
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 123889
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 123890
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;123891

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 123892
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 123893
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 123894
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 123895
vehicle;123896

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 123897
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 123898
posts or permits otherwise;123899

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, 123900
or a type B family day-care home, except that this division does 123901
not prohibit a licensee who resides in a type A family day-care 123902
home or a type B family day-care home from carrying a concealed 123903
handgun at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated 123904
or used for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed 123905
handgun in a part of the home that is dedicated or used for 123906
day-care purposes at any time during which no children, other than 123907
children of that licensee, are in the home;123908

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 123909
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 123910
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 123911
aircraft;123912

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 123913
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 123914
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 123915
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 123916
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 123917
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;123918

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 123919
handguns.123920

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 123921
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 123922
private college, university, or other institution of higher 123923
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 123924
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 123925
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 123926
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 123927
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 123928
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 123929
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.123930

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 123931
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 123932
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 123933
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 123934
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 123935
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 123936
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 123937
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 123938
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 123939
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 123940
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 123941
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 123942
university, or other institution of higher education.123943

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 123944
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 123945
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 123946
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 123947
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 123948
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 123949
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 123950
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.123951

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 123952
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 123953
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 123954
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 123955
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 123956
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 123957
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 123958
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 123959
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 123960
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 123961
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 123962
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 123963
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 123964
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 123965
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 123966
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 123967
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 123968
trespass based on the violation.123969

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 123970
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 123971
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 123972
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 123973
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 123974
premises.123975

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:123976

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 123977
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 123978
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 123979
or university.123980

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 123981
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.123982

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 123983
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 123984
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 123985
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 123986
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 123987
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 123988
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 123989
carries a license issued under that section.123990

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 123991
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 123992
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 123993
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 123994
be considered to be a licensee in this state.123995

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 123996
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 123997
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 123998
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 123999
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 124000
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 124001
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 124002
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 124003
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 124004
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 124005
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 124006
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 124007
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 124008
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.124009

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 124010
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 124011
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 124012
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 124013
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 124014
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 124015
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:124016

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 124017
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 124018
for reasons of mental instability.124019

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 124020
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 124021
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 124022
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 124023
person had statutory powers of arrest.124024

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 124025
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 124026
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.124027

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 124028
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 124029
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 124030
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 124031
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 124032
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 124033
by the agency.124034

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 124035
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 124036
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 124037
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 124038
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 124039
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 124040
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 124041
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 124042
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 124043
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 124044
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 124045
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 124046
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 124047
section, and if the identification card includes that 124048
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 124049
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 124050
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 124051
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 124052
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 124053
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 124054
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 124055
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 124056
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 124057
the word "RETIRED."124058

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 124059
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 124060
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 124061
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 124062
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.124063

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 124064
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 124065
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 124066
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 124067
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 124068
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 124069
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 124070
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 124071
required to pay the cost of the course.124072

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 124073
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 124074
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 124075
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 124076
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 124077
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 124078
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 124079
years from the date on which the program was successfully 124080
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 124081
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 124082
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 124083
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 124084
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 124085
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 124086
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 124087
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 124088
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 124089
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 124090
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 124091
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 124092
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 124093
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 124094
section.124095

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 124096
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 124097
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 124098
may be required to pay the cost of the program.124099

        (G) As used in this section:124100

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 124101
satisfies all of the following:124102

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 124103
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.124104

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 124105
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.124106

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 124107
receiving firearms.124108

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 124109
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 124110
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.124111

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 124112
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:124113

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 124114
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 124115
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 124116
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 124117
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 124118
political subdivision;124119

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 124120
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 124121
registrar functions.124122

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 124123
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 124124
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 124125
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 124126
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 124127
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 124128
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 124129

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 124130
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 124131
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 124132
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 124133
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 124134
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 124135
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 124136
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 124137
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 124138
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 124139
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 124140
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 124141
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 124142
administrator may request that the superintendent include 124143
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 124144
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 124145
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 124146
671.124147

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 124148
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 124149
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 124150
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 124151
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 124152
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 124153
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 124154
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 124155
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 124156
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 124157
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 124158
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 124159
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 124160
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 124161
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.124162

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 124163
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 124164
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 124165
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 124166
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 124167
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 124168
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 124169
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 124170
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 124171
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 124172
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 124173
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 124174
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 124175
this section.124176

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 124177
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 124178
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 124179
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 124180
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 124181
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 124182
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.124183

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 124184
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 124185
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 124186
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 124187
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 124188
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 124189
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 124190
employment.124191

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 124192
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 124193
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 124194
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 124195
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 124196
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 124197
or provider of the center or home.124198

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 124199
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 124200
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 124201
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 124202
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 124203
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 124204
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 124205
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 124206
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 124207
for employment.124208

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 124209
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 124210
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 124211
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 124212
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 124213
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 124214
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 124215
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 124216
records check or its representative; the department of job and 124217
family services or a county department of job and family services; 124218
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 124219
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 124220
applicant.124221

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 124222
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 124223
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 124224
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 124225
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 124226
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.124227

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 124228
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 124229
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 124230
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 124231
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 124232
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 124233
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 124234
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 124235
employment for that position.124236

       (G) As used in this section:124237

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 124238
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 124239
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 124240
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child or 124241
any person who would serve in any position with a child day-care 124242
center or a type A family day-care home as a person responsible 124243
for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant to a 124244
contract with another entity.124245

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 124246
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.124247

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 124248
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 124249
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers, 124250
type A family day-care homes, and licensed type B family day-care 124251
homes shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 124252
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 124253
check with respect to the following persons:124254

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 124255
center;124256

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 124257
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 124258
resides in a type A family day-care home;124259

        (c) Any administrator of a licensed type B family day-care 124260
home and any person eighteen years of age or older who resides in 124261
a licensed type B family day-care home.124262

       (2) At the time specified in division (A)(3) of this section, 124263
the director of a county department of job and family services, as 124264
part of the process of certification of in-home aides, shall 124265
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 124266
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 124267
check with respect to any in-home aide.124268

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 124269
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 124270
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 124271
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 124272
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 124273
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 124274
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 124275
thereafter. When the director of job and family services or the 124276
director of a county department of job and family services 124277
requests pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a 124278
criminal records check for a person at the time of the person's 124279
initial application for licensure or certification, the director 124280
shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 124281
identification and investigation obtain information from the 124282
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 124283
check for the person, including fingerprint-based checks of 124284
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 124285
for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all other 124286
cases in which the director of job and family services or the 124287
director of a county department of job and family services 124288
requests a criminal records check for an applicant pursuant to 124289
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, the director may request 124290
that the superintendent include information from the federal 124291
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, including 124292
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 124293
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671. 124294

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 124295
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 124296
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 124297
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 124298
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 124299
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 124300
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.124301

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 124302
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 124303
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 124304
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 124305
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 124306
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 124307
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 124308
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 124309
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 124310
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.124311

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 124312
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 124313
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 124314
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 124315
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 124316
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 124317
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 124318
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 124319
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 124320
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 124321
certification.124322

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 124323
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 124324
grant a license to a child day-care center, type A family day-care 124325
home, or type B family day-care home and a county director of job 124326
and family services shall not certify an in-home aide if a person 124327
for whom a criminal records check was required in connection with 124328
the center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded 124329
guilty to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of 124330
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.124331

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 124332
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 124333
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 124334
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 124335
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 124336
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 124337
section.124338

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 124339
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 124340
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 124341
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 124342
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 124343
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 124344
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 124345
representative, the director of job and family services, the 124346
director of a county department of job and family services, the 124347
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 124348
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 124349
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 124350
criminal records check.124351

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 124352
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 124353
this section, including rules specifying exceptions to the 124354
prohibition in division (D) of this section for persons who have 124355
been convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 124356
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.124357

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 124358
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.124359

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 124360
institution, or agency seeking to establish a child day-care 124361
center, type A family day-care home, or licensed type B family 124362
day-care home shall apply for a license to the director of job and 124363
family services on such form as the director prescribes. The 124364
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant for 124365
licensure a copy of the child care license requirements in this 124366
chapter and a copy of the rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. 124367
The copies may be provided in paper or electronic form.124368

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to sections 124369
5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the Revised Code and shall be 124370
paid at the time of application for a license to operate a center, 124371
type A home, or type B home. Fees collected under this section 124372
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 124373
revenue fund.124374

       (B)(1) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 124375
director shall investigate and inspect the center, type A home, or 124376
type B home to determine the license capacity for each age 124377
category of children of the center, type A home, or type B home 124378
and to determine whether the center, type A home, or type B home 124379
complies with this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this 124380
chapter. When, after investigation and inspection, the director is 124381
satisfied that this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to it are 124382
complied with, subject to division (H) of this section, a license 124383
shall be issued as soon as practicable in such form and manner as 124384
prescribed by the director. The license shall be designated as 124385
provisional and shall be valid for twelve months from the date of 124386
issuance unless revoked.124387

       (2) The director may contract with a government entity or a 124388
private nonprofit entity for the entity to inspect and license 124389
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The 124390
department, government entity, or nonprofit entity shall conduct 124391
the inspection prior to the issuance of a license for the type B 124392
home and, as part of that inspection, ensure that the type B home 124393
is safe and sanitary.124394

       (C)(1) On receipt of an application for licensure as a type B 124395
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care, the 124396
department shall search the uniform statewide automated child 124397
welfare information system for information concerning any abuse or 124398
neglect report made pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised 124399
Code of which the applicant, any other adult residing in the 124400
applicant's home, or a person designated by the applicant to be an 124401
emergency or substitute caregiver for the applicant is the 124402
subject.124403

       (2) The department shall consider any information it 124404
discovers pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section or that is 124405
provided by a public children services agency pursuant to section 124406
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the department determines that 124407
the information, when viewed within the totality of the 124408
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 124409
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 124410
or welfare of children, the department shall deny the application 124411
for licensure or revoke the license of a type B family day-care 124412
home. 124413

        (D) The director shall investigate and inspect the center, 124414
type A home, or type B home at least once during operation under a 124415
license designated as provisional. If after the investigation and 124416
inspection the director determines that the requirements of this 124417
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are met, 124418
subject to division (H) of this section, the director shall issue 124419
a new license to the center or home.124420

        (E) Each license shall state the name of the licensee, the 124421
name of the administrator, the address of the center, type A home, 124422
or licensed type B home, and the license capacity for each age 124423
category of children. The license shall include thereon, in 124424
accordance with sections 5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the 124425
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 124426
suspecting that the center, type A home, or licensed type B home 124427
has violated a provision of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant 124428
to this chapter. A license is valid only for the licensee, 124429
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 124430
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 124431
specified on the license is the maximum number of children in each 124432
age category that may be cared for in the center, type A home, or 124433
licensed type B home at one time.124434

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 124435
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 124436
shall amend the current license to reflect a change in an 124437
administrator, if the administrator meets the requirements of this 124438
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter, or a change in 124439
license capacity for any age category of children as determined by 124440
the director of job and family services.124441

       (F) If the director revokes the license of a center, a type A 124442
home, or a type B home, the director shall not issue another 124443
license to the owner of the center, type A home, or type B home 124444
until five years have elapsed from the date the license is 124445
revoked. 124446

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 124447
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 124448
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 124449
denied.124450

       (G) If during the application for licensure process the 124451
director determines that the license of the owner has been 124452
revoked, the investigation of the center, type A home, or type B 124453
home shall cease. This action does not constitute denial of the 124454
application and may not be appealed under division (H) of this 124455
section. 124456

       (H) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 124457
centers, type A homes, or type B homes, refusal to license, and 124458
revocation of a license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. 124459
of the Revised Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any 124460
owner whose license is revoked may appeal in accordance with 124461
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.124462

       (I) In no case shall the director issue a license under this 124463
section for a center, type A home, or type B home if the director, 124464
based on documentation provided by the appropriate county 124465
department of job and family services, determines that the 124466
applicant had been certified as a type B family day-care home when 124467
such certifications were issued by county departments prior to the 124468
effective date of this amendmentJanuary 1, 2014, that the county 124469
department revoked that certification within the immediately 124470
preceding five years, that the revocation was based on the 124471
applicant's refusal or inability to comply with the criteria for 124472
certification, and that the refusal or inability resulted in a 124473
risk to the health or safety of children.124474

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, 124475
an administrator of a type B family day-care home that receives a 124476
license pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded child 124477
care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of the 124478
department of job and family services.124479

       (2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 124480
determinations concerning the employment of an administrator of a 124481
type B family day-care home that receives a license pursuant to 124482
this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. of the 124483
Revised Code.124484

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 124485
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 124486
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 124487
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 124488
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 124489
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 124490
job and family services, the director of developmental 124491
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 124492
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 124493
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 124494
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.124495

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 124496
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 124497
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 124498
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 124499
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 124500
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 124501
type A home, a head start program, a licensed type B home, or a 124502
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 124503
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, licensed type B 124504
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 124505
members shall represent county departments of job and family 124506
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 124507
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 124508
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 124509
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 124510
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 124511
providers operating a licensed type B home or type B home, or 124512
in-home aides.124513

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 124514
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 124515
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 124516
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 124517
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 124518
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 124519
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 124520
neglect of duty as a member of the council.124521

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 124522
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 124523
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 124524
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 124525
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 124526
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 124527
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 124528
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 124529
place of each meeting.124530

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 124531
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.124532

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 124533
on matters affecting the licensing of centers, type A homes, and 124534
type B homes and the certification of in-home aides. The council 124535
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 124536
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 124537
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 124538
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 124539
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 124540
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 124541
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 124542
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 124543
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.124544

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 124545
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 124546
this section.124547

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 124548
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 124549
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 124550
licensed type A family day-care home, licensed type B family 124551
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 124552
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 124553
border state child care provider and the department of job and 124554
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 124555
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 124556
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 124557
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 124558
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 124559
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 124560
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 124561
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 124562
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 124563
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 124564
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 124565
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 124566
the expenditure of state or federal funds.124567

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 124568
specify at least the following:124569

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 124570
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 124571
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 124572
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 124573
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;124574

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 124575
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 124576
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 124577
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 124578
department of job and family services receives the individual's 124579
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 124580
determined;124581

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 124582
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 124583
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 124584
provider or a child care resource and referral service 124585
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 124586
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 124587
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 124588
referral service organization is required to complete required 124589
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 124590
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 124591
determinations;124592

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 124593
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 124594
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 124595
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 124596
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 124597
or certification;124598

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 124599
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 124600
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 124601
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 124602
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 124603
certificate, or other approval;124604

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 124605
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 124606
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;124607

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 124608
and federal funds.124609

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 124610
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 124611
department of job and family services shall give individuals 124612
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 124613
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 124614
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 124615
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 124616
child care may present these certificates for payment in 124617
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 124618
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 124619
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 124620
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 124621
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 124622
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 124623
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 124624
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 124625
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 124626
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 124627
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 124628
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 124629
eligible for publicly funded child care.124630

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 124631
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 124632
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 124633
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 124634
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 124635
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 124636
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 124637
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 124638
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 124639
child care to the child during that period.124640

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 124641
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 124642
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 124643
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 124644
through a point of service device issued to an eligible provider, 124645
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.124646

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 124647
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 124648
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 124649
the following:124650

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 124651
issued to a caretaker parent;124652

        (b) Falsify attendance records;124653

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 124654
that was not provided;124655

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 124656
care that was not provided.124657

       Section 110.21.  That the existing versions of sections 124658
109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, 124659
and 5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 124660
January 1, 2014, are hereby repealed.124661

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act shall 124662
take effect January 1, 2014, except that the amendments by 124663
Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act to divisions (B)(49) and 124664
(50) of section 2151.011 of the Revised Code shall take effect 124665
July 1, 2014.124666

       Section 110.30.  That the versions of sections 4501.01 and 124667
4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 124668
January 1, 2017, be amended to read as follows:124669

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 124670
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 124671
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:124672

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 124673
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 124674
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 124675
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 124676
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 124677
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 124678
a department in the discharge of its functions.124679

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 124680
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 124681
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 124682
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 124683
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, under-speed 124684
vehicles as defined in division (XX) of this section, mini-trucks 124685
as defined in division (BBB) of this section, motorized bicycles, 124686
road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and 124687
other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or 124688
employed in general highway transportation, well-drilling 124689
machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers 124690
that are designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between 124691
a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when 124692
drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of no 124693
more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour 124694
or less.124695

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 124696
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 124697
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 124698
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 124699
principally for agricultural purposes.124700

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 124701
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 124702
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 124703
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 124704
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.124705

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 124706
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 124707
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 124708
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.124709

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 124710
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 124711
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 124712
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 124713
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 124714
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 124715
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 124716
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 124717
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 124718
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 124719
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 124720
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 124721
of other states.124722

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 124723
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 124724
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 124725
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 124726
general transportation.124727

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 124728
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 124729
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 124730
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 124731
than engaging in business for profit.124732

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 124733
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 124734
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 124735
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.124736

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 124737
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 124738
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.124739

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 124740
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 124741
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 124742
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 124743
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 124744
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.124745

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" or "moped" means any vehicle that 124746
either has two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two 124747
wheels in the rear, that may be pedaled, and that is equipped with 124748
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 124749
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 124750
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 124751
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.124752

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 124753
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 124754
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 124755
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 124756
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 124757
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 124758
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 124759
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 124760
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 124761
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 124762
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 124763
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 124764
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 124765
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 124766
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.124767

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 124768
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 124769
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 124770
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 124771
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 124772
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 124773
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 124774
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 124775
purposes.124776

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 124777
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 124778
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 124779
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 124780
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 124781
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 124782
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 124783
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 124784
Code.124785

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 124786
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 124787
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 124788
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 124789
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 124790
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 124791
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 124792
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 124793
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 124794
a trailer.124795

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 124796
structure that meets all of the following conditions:124797

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 124798
travel.124799

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 124800
for profit.124801

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 124802
commerce.124803

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 124804
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.124805

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 124806
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.124807

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:124808

       (a) "Travel trailer" or "house vehicle" means a 124809
nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not exceed an 124810
overall length of forty feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or 124811
coupling. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 124812
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.124813

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 124814
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 124815
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 124816
food, and for sleeping.124817

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 124818
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 124819
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 124820
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 124821
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 124822
a dwelling.124823

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 124824
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 124825
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 124826
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 124827
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 124828
of a truck.124829

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 124830
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 124831
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 124832
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 124833
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 124834
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 124835
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.124836

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 124837
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.124838

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 124839
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 124840
the load.124841

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 124842
with two or more solid tires.124843

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 124844
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 124845
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 124846
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 124847
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 124848
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 124849
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 124850
and vegetable products.124851

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 124852
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 124853
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 124854
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.124855

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 124856
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 124857
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 124858
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 124859
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 124860
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 124861
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 124862
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 124863
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 124864
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 124865
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 124866
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 124867
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 124868
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 124869
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 124870
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 124871
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 124872
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 124873
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 124874
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 124875
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 124876
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 124877
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 124878
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 124879
vehicles.124880

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 124881
motor vehicle upon the public highways.124882

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 124883
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 124884
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 124885
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 124886
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 124887
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 124888
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 124889
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 124890
compensation, or profit.124891

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 124892
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.124893

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 124894
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.124895

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 124896
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 124897
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.124898

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 124899
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 124900
vehicle.124901

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 124902
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 124903
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 124904
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 124905
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 124906
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 124907
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 124908
licensed dealership.124909

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 124910
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 124911
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 124912
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.124913

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 124914
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 124915
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 124916
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 124917
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 124918
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:124919

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 124920
of twenty-six thousand pounds;124921

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 124922
the gross vehicle weight;124923

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 124924
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.124925

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 124926
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 124927
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 124928
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 124929
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.124930

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 124931
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 124932
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 124933
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 124934
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 124935
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 124936
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 124937
left the place of origin.124938

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 124939
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 124940
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 124941
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 124942
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 124943
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 124944
jurisdictions.124945

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 124946
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 124947
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 124948
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.124949

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 124950
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 124951
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 124952
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 124953
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.124954

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 124955
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 124956
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 124957
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 124958
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 124959
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.124960

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 124961
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 124962
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 124963
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 124964
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 124965
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 124966
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 124967
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 124968
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 124969
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 124970
directing.124971

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 124972
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.124973

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 124974
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 124975
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 124976
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 124977
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 124978
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.124979

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 124980
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 124981
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.124982

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 124983
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 124984
an information system or for transmission from one information 124985
system to another.124986

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 124987
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 124988
record.124989

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 124990
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.124991

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 124992
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 124993
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 124994
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 124995
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 124996
vehicle dealer under that section.124997

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 124998
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 124999
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 125000
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 125001
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 125002
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.125003

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 125004
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 125005
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 125006
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 125007
been suspended.125008

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 125009
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 125010
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 125011
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 125012
handling, or similar activities. 125013

       (WW) "Low-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled motor 125014
vehicle with an attainable speed in one mile on a paved level 125015
surface of more than twenty miles per hour but not more than 125016
twenty-five miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating 125017
less than three thousand pounds.125018

       (XX) "Under-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled 125019
vehicle, including a vehicle commonly known as a golf cart, with 125020
an attainable speed on a paved level surface of not more than 125021
twenty miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating less 125022
than three thousand pounds.125023

       (YY) "Motor-driven cycle or motor scooter" means any vehicle 125024
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 125025
the ground, with a seat for the driver and floor pad for the 125026
driver's feet, and is equipped with a motor with a piston 125027
displacement between fifty and one hundred fifty cubic centimeters 125028
piston displacement that produces not more than five brake 125029
horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed 125030
greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.125031

       (ZZ) "Motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with motive power 125032
having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, designed to 125033
travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, 125034
and having no occupant compartment top or occupant compartment top 125035
that can be installed or removed by the user.125036

       (AAA) "Cab-enclosed motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with 125037
motive power having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, 125038
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 125039
the ground, and having an occupant compartment top or an occupant 125040
compartment top that can be installed or removed by the user.125041

       (BBB) "Mini-truck" means a vehicle that has four wheels, is 125042
propelled by an electric motor with a rated power of seven 125043
thousand five hundred watts or less or an internal combustion 125044
engine with a piston displacement capacity of six hundred sixty 125045
cubic centimeters or less, has a total dry weight of nine hundred 125046
to two thousand two hundred pounds, contains an enclosed cabin and 125047
a seat for the vehicle operator, resembles a pickup truck or van 125048
with a cargo area or bed located at the rear of the vehicle, and 125049
was not originally manufactured to meet federal motor vehicle 125050
safety standards.125051

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 125052
license, motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 125053
motor-driven cycle or motor scooter license or endorsement, or 125054
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 125055
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 125056
shall be signed by the applicant.125057

       Every application shall state the following:125058

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 125059
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 125060
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 125061
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 125062
this state, and country of citizenship;125063

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 125064
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 125065
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 125066
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 125067
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;125068

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 125069
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 125070
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 125071
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 125072
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 125073
applicant;125074

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, 125075
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement, or 125076
duplicate license containing a motor-driven cycle or motor scooter 125077
endorsement has pending a citation for violation of any motor 125078
vehicle law or ordinance, a description of any such citation 125079
pending, and the date of the citation;125080

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the 125081
applicant's willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 125082
2108.05 of the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to 125083
certify willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 125084
2108.05 of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration 125085
in the issuance of a license or endorsement;125086

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 125087
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 125088
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 125089
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 125090
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 125091
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 125092
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 125093
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 125094
executed the instrument;125095

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 125096
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 125097
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 125098
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 125099
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 125100
United States by a military designation on the license.125101

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 125102
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 125103
is made. The application shall state any additional information 125104
that the registrar requires.125105

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 125106
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 125107
any person who applies for a license or endorsement under division 125108
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 125109
or endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 125110
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 125111
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 125112
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 125113
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.125114

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 125115
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 125116
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 125117
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 125118
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 125119
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 125120
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 125121
notice.125122

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 125123
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 125124
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a license or 125125
endorsement or an application for a duplicate of any such license 125126
or endorsement shall inform applicants that the applicant must 125127
present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document 125128
in order to qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that 125129
the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 125130
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 125131
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.125132

       Section 110.31.  That the existing versions of sections 125133
4501.01 and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take 125134
effect January 1, 2017, are hereby repealed.125135

       Section 110.32.  Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act shall 125136
take effect January 1, 2017.125137

       Section 125.10. (A) Sections 5168.01, 5168.02, 5168.03, 125138
5168.04, 5168.05, 5168.06, 5168.07, 5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 125139
5168.11, 5168.12, 5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 of the Revised 125140
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 16, 2015.125141

        (B) Any money remaining in the Legislative Budget Services 125142
Fund on October 16, 2015, the date that section 5168.12 of the 125143
Revised Code is repealed by division (A) of this section, shall be 125144
used solely for the purposes stated in then former section 5168.12 125145
of the Revised Code. When all money in the Legislative Budget 125146
Services Fund has been spent after then former section 5168.12 of 125147
the Revised Code is repealed under division (A) of this section, 125148
the fund shall cease to exist.125149

       Section 125.11. Sections 5168.20, 5168.21, 5168.22, 5168.23, 125150
5168.24, 5168.25, 5168.26, 5168.27, and 5168.28 of the Revised 125151
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 1, 2015.125152

       Section 125.11.10. That Section 267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 125153
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.125154

       Section 125.12. That Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 125155
121st General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 125156
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.125157

       Section 125.13. That Section 125.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 125158
128th General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 125159
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.125160

       Section 201.10.  Except as otherwise provided in this act, 125161
all appropriation items in this act are appropriated out of any 125162
moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the designated fund 125163
that are not otherwise appropriated. For all appropriations made 125164
in this act, the amounts in the first column are for fiscal year 125165
2014 and the amounts in the second column are for fiscal year 125166
2015.125167

       Section 203.10. ACC ACCOUNTANCY BOARD OF OHIO125168

General Services Fund Group125169

4J80 889601 CPA Education Assistance $ 325,000 $ 325,000 125170
4K90 889609 Operating Expenses $ 977,500 $ 977,500 125171
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125172
Group $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 125173
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 125174


       Section 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL125176

General Revenue Fund125177

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 125178
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 125179
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 125180
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,682,098 $ 2,682,098 125181
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,689,871 $ 3,689,871 125182
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,594,883 $ 8,594,883 125183

General Services Fund Group125184

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 125185
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 125186
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 978,846 $ 978,846 125187
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 125188
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,703,750 $ 1,703,750 125189

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125190

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,919,000 $ 2,919,000 125191
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 15,063,000 $ 15,063,000 125192
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,850,000 $ 16,850,000 125193
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 15,000 $ 15,000 125194
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 34,847,000 $ 34,847,000 125195

State Special Revenue Fund Group125196

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 350,000 $ 350,000 125197
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 350,000 $ 350,000 125198

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 45,495,633 $ 45,495,633 125199

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS125200

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 125201
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 125202
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 125203
associated programs.125204

       If necessary, in order to pay benefits in a timely manner 125205
pursuant to sections 5919.31 and 5919.33 of the Revised Code, the 125206
Adjutant General may request the Director of Budget and Management 125207
transfer appropriation from any appropriation item used by the 125208
Adjutant General to appropriation item 745407, National Guard 125209
Benefits. The Adjutant General may subsequently seek Controlling 125210
Board approval to restore the appropriation in the appropriation 125211
item from which such a transfer was made.125212

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 125213
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 125214
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 125215
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 125216
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.125217

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS125218

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 125219
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 125220
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 125221
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 125222
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 125223
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 125224
Adjutant General's Department.125225

       Section 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES125226

General Revenue Fund125227

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 309,600 $ 309,600 125228
GRF 100414 MARCS Lease Rental Payments $ 5,133,700 $ 5,135,800 125229
GRF 100415 OAKS Lease Rental Payments $ 22,998,500 $ 22,982,500 125230
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,976,500 $ 4,973,200 125231
GRF 100447 Administrative Building Lease Rental Payments $ 85,847,800 $ 91,059,600 125232
GRF 100448 Office Building Operating Payments $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 125233
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,571 $ 7,551,571 125234
GRF 100452 Lean Ohio $ 1,059,624 $ 1,059,624 125235
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 1,739,038 $ 1,739,038 125236
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 1,910,516 $ 1,910,516 125237
GRF 100459 Ohio Business Gateway $ 4,049,094 $ 4,049,094 125238
GRF 100460 Local Government Information Exchange Grants $ 3,500,000 $ 0 125239
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,477,008 $ 2,477,008 125240
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 161,552,951 $ 163,247,551 125241

General Services Fund Group125242

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 6,127,659 $ 6,147,659 125243
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,580 $ 927,699 125244
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 12,993,870 $ 12,993,870 125245
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 4,200,000 $ 4,200,000 125246
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 16,649,839 $ 16,649,839 125247
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 712,316 $ 712,316 125248
1280 100620 Office of Collective Bargaining $ 3,329,507 $ 3,329,507 125249
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 6,635,784 $ 6,635,784 125250
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 19,743,170 $ 19,743,170 125251
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 57,521,975 $ 57,521,975 125252
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 863,013 $ 863,013 125253
2100 100612 State Printing $ 20,459,526 $ 20,459,526 125254
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 16,446,474 $ 16,446,474 125255
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 7,065,639 $ 7,065,639 125256
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 3,885,000 $ 2,900,000 125257
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 56,888,635 $ 56,888,635 125258
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 6,400,070 $ 6,400,070 125259
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,292,596 $ 14,512,028 125260
5C30 100608 Minor Construction Project Management $ 204,375 $ 204,375 125261
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 25,813,077 $ 19,813,077 125262
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 9,886,923 $ 2,636,923 125263
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 125264
5KZ0 100659 Building Improvement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 125265
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 125266
5LA0 100660 Building Operation $ 27,000,767 $ 27,214,648 125267
5LJ0 100661 IT Development $ 13,200,000 $ 13,200,000 125268
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 125269
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125270
Group $ 334,781,795 $ 321,016,227 125271

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125272

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 125273
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125274
Fund Group $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 125275

State Special Revenue Fund Group125276

5JQ0 100658 Professionals Licensing System $ 3,028,366 $ 990,000 125277
5MV0 100662 Theater Equipment Maintenance $ 80,891 $ 80,891 125278
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125279
Fund Group $ 3,109,257 $ 1,070,891 125280
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 501,167,012 $ 487,057,678 125281


       Section 207.20. OAKS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS125283

       The foregoing appropriation item 100415, OAKS Lease Rental 125284
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 125285
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 125286
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 125287
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 125288
281.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 562 of the 127th General Assembly and 125289
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 125290
financing the costs associated with the acquisition, development, 125291
installation, and implementation of the Ohio Administrative 125292
Knowledge System. If it is determined that additional 125293
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 125294
hereby appropriated.125295

       Section 207.30. STARS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS125296

        The foregoing appropriation item 100416, STARS Lease Rental 125297
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 125298
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 125299
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 125300
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 125301
207.10.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly and 125302
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 125303
financing the cost for the acquisition, development, installation, 125304
and implementation of the State Taxation Accounting and Revenue 125305
System (STARS). If it is determined that additional appropriations 125306
are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are appropriated.125307

       The State Taxation Accounting and Revenue System (STARS) is 125308
an integrated tax collection and audit system that will replace 125309
all of the state's existing separate tax software and 125310
administration systems for the various taxes collected by the 125311
state. The Department of Administrative Services, in conjunction 125312
with the Department of Taxation, may acquire STARS, including, but 125313
not limited to, the application hardware and software and 125314
installation and implementation thereof, for the use of the 125315
Department of Taxation. Any lease-purchase agreement used under 125316
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code to acquire STARS, including any 125317
fractionalized interests as defined in division (N) of section 125318
133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease payments under that 125319
agreement, shall provide at the end of the lease period that the 125320
financed asset becomes the property of the state. The principal 125321
amount of any new such financing is limited, excluding the 125322
principal amounts of any lease-purchase financing heretofore 125323
completed for STARS, to the amount of $20,000,000.125324

       Section 207.40. MARCS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS125325

       The foregoing appropriation item 100414, MARCS Lease Rental 125326
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 125327
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 125328
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 125329
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 125330
701.20 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly, with 125331
respect to financing the cost for the acquisition, development, 125332
installation, and implementation of the Multi-Agency Radio 125333
Communication System (MARCS) upgrade. If it is determined that 125334
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the 125335
amounts are hereby appropriated.125336

       Section 207.50. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 125337
UPGRADE125338

       The Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) is a 125339
statewide computer and communications network designed to provide 125340
instant voice and data communication and supply a communications 125341
backbone to public safety and emergency management. The Department 125342
of Administrative Services may update or add functionality to 125343
MARCS to upgrade the existing system to a 700/800 megahertz voice 125344
and data system specifically designed to support interoperable 125345
communications for public safety law enforcement and first 125346
responders. The improvements may include, but are not limited to, 125347
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 125348
thereof. Any lease-purchase agreement utilized under Chapter 125. 125349
of the Revised Code to acquire MARCS and the enhancements 125350
described above, including any fractionalized interest as defined 125351
in division (N) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease 125352
payments under that agreement, shall provide at the end of the 125353
lease period that the financed asset becomes the property of the 125354
state. The principal amount of any new such financing is limited, 125355
in addition to the principal amounts of lease-purchase financing 125356
heretofore completed for MARCS, to the amount of $27,000,000. 125357

       Section 207.60. ADMINISTRATIVE BUILDING LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS125358

       The foregoing appropriation item 100447, Administrative 125359
Building Lease Rental Payments, shall be used to meet all payments 125360
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 125361
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, by the Department of 125362
Administrative Services pursuant to leases and agreements under 125363
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations 125364
are the source of funds pledged for bond service charges on 125365
related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 125366
Revised Code.125367

        The foregoing appropriation item 100448, Office Building 125368
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the expenses of vacant 125369
space, space undergoing renovation, agencies funded by the General 125370
Revenue Fund, and the rent expenses of tenants that have been 125371
relocated because of building renovations that occupy space in the 125372
James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for 125373
Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office 125374
Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver 125375
R. Ocasek Government Office Building.125376

       At least once per year, the portion of appropriation item 125377
100448, Office Building Operating Payments, that is not used for 125378
expenses of agencies funded by the General Revenue Fund, vacant 125379
space, space undergoing renovation, and the rent expenses of 125380
tenants that are relocated because of building renovations shall 125381
be processed by the Department of Administrative Services through 125382
intrastate voucher and placed in the Building Improvements Fund 125383
(Fund 5KZ0).125384

       Section 207.70. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS125385

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 125386
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 125387
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 125388
Code in fiscal years 2014 and 2015.125389

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 125390
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 125391
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 125392
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 125393
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 125394
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.125395

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 125396
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 125397
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 125398
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 125399
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 125400
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 125401
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 125402
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 125403
because of building renovations. These payments may be processed 125404
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 125405
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 125406
1320) or the Information Technology Services Fund (Fund 1330).125407

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 125408
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND125409

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, 125410
during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium, the Director of Budget and 125411
Management shall transfer up to $975,000 from the Workforce 125412
Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the Human Resources Services Fund 125413
(Fund 1250) to support one-time human resources administration 125414
activities for state agencies. 125415

       Section 207.73. LOCAL GOVERNMENT INFORMATION GRANTS125416

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 100460, Local Government 125417
Information Exchange Grants, up to $100,000 in fiscal year 2014 125418
shall be used by the Director of Administrative Services for 125419
administration and maintenance of the Ohio Local Government 125420
Information Exchange Grant Program and for administration of Local 125421
Government Information Exchange grants. The remainder of the 125422
foregoing appropriation item 100460, Local Government Information 125423
Exchange Grants, shall be used by the Director of Administrative 125424
Services to disburse grant awards to eligible local governments 125425
under section 149.60 of the Revised Code.125426

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 125427
Information Officer may request that the Director of Budget and 125428
Management approve the reappropriation of the unexpended, 125429
unencumbered balance at the end of fiscal year 2014 of the 125430
foregoing appropriation item 100460, Local Government Information 125431
Exchange Grants, for fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and 125432
Management may request additional information necessary for 125433
evaluating the request, and the Director of Administrative 125434
Services shall provide the requested information to the Director 125435
of Budget and Management. Based on the information provided by the 125436
Director of Administrative Services, the Director of Budget and 125437
Management shall determine the amounts to be reappropriated, and 125438
those amounts are hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.125439

       Section 207.80. CENTRAL SERVICE AGENCY FUND125440

       Appropriation item 100632, Central Service Agency, shall be 125441
used to purchase the equipment, products, and services that are 125442
needed to maintain existing automated applications for the 125443
professional licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission to 125444
support board licensing functions in fiscal years 2014 and 2015 125445
until these functions are replaced by the Ohio Professionals 125446
Licensing System. The Department of Administrative Services shall 125447
establish charges for recovering the costs of carrying out these 125448
functions. The charges shall be billed to the professional 125449
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 125450
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Central 125451
Service Agency Fund (Fund 1150).125452

       Upon implementation of the replacement Ohio Professionals 125453
Licensing System and the decommissioning of the existing automated 125454
applications, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125455
any cash balances that remain in the Central Service Agency Fund 125456
(Fund 1150) and that are attributable to the operation of the 125457
existing automated applications to the Professions Licensing 125458
System Fund (Fund 5JQ0).125459

       Section 207.90. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES125460

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 125461
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 125462
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 125463
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 125464
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 125465
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 125466
contracted supplies or services.125467

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 125468
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 125469
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 125470
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 125471
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 125472
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 125473
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 125474

       Section 207.100. COLLECTIVE BARGAINING ARBITRATION EXPENSES125475

       With approval of the Director of Budget and Management, the 125476
Department of Administrative Services may seek reimbursement from 125477
state agencies for the actual costs and expenses the Department 125478
incurs in the collective bargaining arbitration process. The 125479
reimbursements shall be processed through intrastate transfer 125480
vouchers and credited to the Collective Bargaining Fund (Fund 125481
1280).125482

       Section 207.110. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM125483

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 125484
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 125485
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 125486
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 125487
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 125488
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 125489
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 125490
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 125491
state, for services rendered.125492

       Section 207.113. LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES125493

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 125494
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 125495
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 125496
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 125497
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 125498
Administrative Services determines that additional amounts are 125499
necessary to pay for pass-through information technology purchases 125500
that will be billed to one or more state agencies, the Director of 125501
Administrative Services shall seek Controlling Board approval for 125502
an increase in appropriation to make the requested purchases.125503

       Section 207.120. INVESTMENT RECOVERY FUND125504

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 125.14 of the Revised 125505
Code, cash balances in the Investment Recovery Fund (Fund 4270) 125506
may be used to support the operating expenses of the Federal 125507
Surplus Operating Program created in sections 125.84 to 125.90 of 125508
the Revised Code.125509

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 100602, Investment 125510
Recovery, up to $1,618,062 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 125511
$1,638,515 in fiscal year 2015 may be used to pay the operating 125512
expenses of the State Surplus Property Program and the Surplus 125513
Federal Property Program, under Chapter 125. of the Revised Code 125514
and this section. If additional appropriations are necessary for 125515
the operations of these programs, the Director of Administrative 125516
Services shall seek increased appropriations from the Controlling 125517
Board under section 131.35 of the Revised Code.125518

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 100602, Investment 125519
Recovery, up to $2,266,938 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 125520
$1,261,485 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to transfer proceeds 125521
from the sale of surplus property from the Investment Recovery 125522
Fund to non-General Revenue Funds under division (A)(2) of section 125523
125.14 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 125524
Administrative Services that additional amounts are necessary for 125525
the transfer of such sale proceeds, the Director of Administrative 125526
Services may request the Director of Budget and Management to 125527
authorize additional amounts. Such authorized additional amounts 125528
are hereby appropriated.125529

       Section 207.130. MAJOR IT PURCHASES CHARGES125530

       The Department of Administrative Services may bill agencies 125531
for actual expenditures made for major IT purchases if those 125532
expenditures are not recovered as part of the information 125533
technology services rates the Department charges and deposits into 125534
the Information Technology Fund (Fund 1330) created in section 125535
125.15 of the Revised Code. These charges shall be deposited to 125536
the credit of the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60).125537

       Section 207.140. DAS INFORMATION SERVICES125538

       There is hereby established in the State Treasury the DAS 125539
Information Services Fund. The foregoing appropriation item 125540
100603, DAS Information Services, shall be used to pay the costs 125541
of providing information systems and services in the Department of 125542
Administrative Services. Any state agency, board, or commission 125543
may use DAS Information Services by paying for the services 125544
rendered.125545

        The Department of Administrative Services shall establish 125546
user charges for all information systems and services that are 125547
allowable in the statewide indirect cost allocation plan submitted 125548
annually to the United States Department of Health and Human 125549
Services. These charges shall comply with federal regulations and 125550
shall be deposited to the credit of the DAS Information Services 125551
Fund (Fund 4P30).125552

       Section 207.150. CASH TRANSFER FROM THE MARCS ADMINISTRATION 125553
FUND TO GRF125554

       Upon the request of the Director of Administrative Services, 125555
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer unobligated 125556
cash in the MARCS Administration Fund (Fund 5C20) to the General 125557
Revenue Fund to reimburse the General Revenue Fund for lease 125558
rental payments made on behalf of the MARCS upgrade.125559

       Section 207.160. PROFESSIONS LICENSING SYSTEM125560

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Professions 125561
Licensing System Fund (Fund 5JQ0). Appropriation item 100658, Ohio 125562
Professionals Licensing System, shall be used to make payments 125563
from the fund. The fund shall be used to purchase the equipment, 125564
products, and services necessary to develop and maintain a 125565
replacement automated licensing system for the professional 125566
licensing boards. The Director of Budget and Management may 125567
transfer up to a total of $990,000 in cash from the Occupational 125568
Licensing and Regulatory Fund (4K90), the State Medical Board 125569
Operating Fund (Fund 5C60), and the Casino Control Commission – 125570
Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0) to the Professions Licensing System 125571
Fund during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium. These transfers shall 125572
be in proportion to the number of current licensees issued by the 125573
professional licensing boards and current and anticipated licenses 125574
in the case of the Casino Control Commission. The purpose of these 125575
cash transfers is to fund the initial acquisition and development 125576
of the system. Any cash balances not expended in fiscal year 2014 125577
are hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015. 125578

       Effective with the implementation of the replacement 125579
licensing system, the Department of Administrative Services shall 125580
establish charges for recovering the costs of ongoing maintenance 125581
of the system. The charges shall be billed to the professional 125582
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 125583
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Professions 125584
Licensing System Fund. 125585

       Section 207.170. BUILDING IMPROVEMENT FUND125586

       The foregoing appropriation item 100659, Building 125587
Improvement, shall be used to make payments from the Building 125588
Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) for major maintenance or improvements 125589
required in the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 125590
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 125591
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 125592
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office. The Department of 125593
Administrative Services shall conduct or contract for regular 125594
assessments of these buildings and shall maintain a cash balance 125595
in the Building Improvement Fund equal to the cost of the repairs 125596
and improvements that are recommended to occur within the next 125597
five years, with the following exception described below.125598

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 125599
Director of Budget and Management may permit a cash transfer from 125600
the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) to the Building 125601
Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and 125602
maintaining the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 125603
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 125604
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 125605
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office that are not charged to tenants 125606
during the same fiscal year.125607

       Should the cash balance in the Building Operating Fund (Fund 125608
5LA0) be determined to be sufficient, the Director of 125609
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 125610
and Management transfer cash from the Building Operating Fund 125611
(Fund 5LA0) to the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) in an 125612
amount equal to the initial cash transfer made under this section 125613
plus applicable interest. 125614

       Section 207.180. PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT FUND125615

       The foregoing appropriation item 100610, Professional 125616
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Professional 125617
Development Fund (Fund 5L70) under section 124.182 of the Revised 125618
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 125619
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 125620
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 125621
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 125622
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.125623

       Section 207.190. BUILDING OPERATING FUND125624

       The foregoing appropriation item 100660, Building Operation, 125625
shall be used to make payments from the Building Operating Fund 125626
(Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and maintaining the James A. 125627
Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for Government 125628
and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office Building, the 125629
Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver R. Ocasek 125630
Government Office.125631

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 125632
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 125633
to be reimbursed for the cost of operating these buildings. These 125634
charges shall include the cost of applicable depreciation on the 125635
buildings and the resulting revenue shall be deposited in the 125636
Building Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0). 125637

       Section 207.200. INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT125638

       The foregoing appropriation item 100661, IT Development, 125639
shall be used by the Department of Administrative Services to pay 125640
the costs of modernizing the state's information technology 125641
management and investment practices away from a limited, 125642
agency-specific focus in favor of a statewide methodology 125643
supporting development of enterprise solutions.125644

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 125645
of the Director of Budget and Management, may charge state 125646
agencies an information technology development assessment based on 125647
state agencies' information technology expenditures or other 125648
methodology. The revenue from this assessment shall be deposited 125649
in the Information Technology Development Fund (Fund 5LJ0), which 125650
is hereby created.125651

       Section  207.210. EMPLOYEE EDUCATIONAL DEVELOPMENT125652

       The foregoing appropriation item 100619, Employee Educational 125653
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Employee 125654
Educational Development Fund (Fund 5V60) under section 124.86 of 125655
the Revised Code. The fund shall be used to pay the costs of 125656
administering educational programs under existing collective 125657
bargaining agreements with District 1199, the Health Care and 125658
Social Service Union; State Council of Professional Educators; 125659
Ohio Education Association and National Education Association; the 125660
Fraternal Order of Police Ohio Labor Council, Unit 2; and the Ohio 125661
State Troopers Association, Units 1 and 15.125662

       If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 125663
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 125664
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 125665
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 125666
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.125667

       Section 207.220.  CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 125668
FUND125669

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 125670
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 125671
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 125672
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 125673
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 125674
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 125675
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 125676
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 125677
fiscal year 2014 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.125678

       Section 207.230. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM DEBT 125679
SERVICE PAYMENTS125680

       The Director of Administrative Services, in consultation with 125681
the Multi-Agency Radio Communication System (MARCS) Steering 125682
Committee and the Director of Budget and Management, shall 125683
determine the share of debt service payments attributable to 125684
spending for MARCS components that are not specific to any one 125685
agency and that shall be charged to agencies supported by the 125686
motor fuel tax. Such share of debt service payments shall be 125687
calculated for MARCS capital disbursements made beginning July 1, 125688
1997. Within thirty days of any payment made from appropriation 125689
item 100447, Administrative Building Lease Payments, the Director 125690
of Administrative Services shall certify to the Director of Budget 125691
and Management the amount of this share. The Director of Budget 125692
and Management shall transfer such amounts to the General Revenue 125693
Fund from the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) established in 125694
section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.125695

       The Director of Administrative Services shall consider 125696
renting or leasing existing tower sites at reasonable or current 125697
market rates, so long as these existing sites are equipped with 125698
the technical capabilities to support the MARCS project.125699

       Section 207.240. ENTERPRISE IT STRATEGY IMPLEMENTATION125700

       The Director of Administrative Services shall determine and 125701
implement strategies that benefit the enterprise by improving 125702
efficiency, reducing costs or enhancing capacity of information 125703
technology (IT) services. Such improvements and efficiencies may 125704
result in the consolidation and transfer of such services. As 125705
determined to be necessary for successful implementation of this 125706
section and notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 125707
the Director of Administrative Services may request the Director 125708
of Budget and Management to consolidate or transfer IT-specific 125709
budget authority between agencies as necessary to implement 125710
enterprise IT cost containment strategies and related 125711
efficiencies. Once the Director of Budget and Management is 125712
satisfied that the proposed initiative is cost advantageous to the 125713
enterprise, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125714
appropriations, funds and cash as needed to implement the proposed 125715
initiative. The establishment of any new fund or total increased 125716
appropriation as a result of this section will be subject to 125717
approval by the Controlling Board.125718

       The Director of Budget and Management and the Director of 125719
Administrative Services may transfer any employees, assets, and 125720
liabilities, including, but not limited to, records, contracts, 125721
and agreements in order to facilitate the improvements determined 125722
in accordance with this section.125723

       Section 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING125724

General Revenue Fund125725

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,487,418 $ 1,487,418 125726
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 477,448 $ 477,448 125727
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,060,844 $ 7,060,844 125728
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,995,245 $ 1,995,245 125729
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 125730
GRF 656423 Long-Term Care Program Support - State $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 125731
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,647,425 $ 14,647,425 125732

General Services Fund Group125733

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,523 $ 372,523 125734
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125735
Group $ 372,523 $ 372,523 125736

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125737

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 125738
3C40 656623 Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 125739
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 58,655,080 $ 58,655,080 125740
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125741
Fund Group $ 74,040,137 $ 74,040,137 125742

State Special Revenue Fund Group125743

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 125744
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 125745
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 125746
5MT0 490627 Board of Executives of LTSS $ 600,000 $ 600,000 125747
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,700 $ 344,700 125748
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125749
Fund Group $ 4,189,100 $ 4,189,100 125750
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 93,249,185 $ 93,249,185 125751


       Section 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE125753

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of 125754
Medicaid may designate the Department of Aging to perform 125755
assessments under section 5165.04 of the Revised Code. The 125756
Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 125757
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 125758
planning for their long-term health care needs. 125759

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 125760
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 125761
Assisted Living Program, and PACE as delegated by the Department 125762
of Medicaid in an interagency agreement. The foregoing 125763
appropriation items 656423, Long-Term Care Program Support - 125764
State, and 656623, Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal, may 125765
be used to support the Department of Aging's administrative costs 125766
associated with operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, 125767
and PACE programs.125768

       PERFORMANCE-BASED REIMBURSEMENT125769

       The Department of Aging may design and utilize a payment 125770
method for PASSPORT administrative agency operations that includes 125771
a pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by a 125772
PASSPORT administrative agency when defined consumer and policy 125773
outcomes are achieved.125774

       Section 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN125775

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 125776
Ombudsman, shall be used to fund ombudsman program activities as 125777
authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 173.99 of the 125778
Revised Code.125779

       The State Ombudsman may explore the design of a payment 125780
method for the Ombudsman Program that includes a 125781
pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by 125782
designated regional long-term care ombudsman programs. 125783

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES125784

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 125785
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 125786
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 125787
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 125788
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 125789
coordination, prevention and disease self-management, and decision 125790
support systems. Service priority shall be given to low income, 125791
frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 years of age and over. 125792
The department shall promote cost sharing by service recipients 125793
for those services funded with senior community services funds, 125794
including, when possible, sliding-fee scale payment systems based 125795
on the income of service recipients.125796

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE125797

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 125798
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 125799
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.125800

       NATIONAL SENIOR SERVICE CORPS125801

       The foregoing appropriation item 490506, National Senior 125802
Service Corps, shall be used by the Department of Aging to fund 125803
grants for three Corporation for National and Community 125804
Service/Senior Corps programs: the Foster Grandparents Program, 125805
the Senior Companion Program, and the Retired Senior Volunteer 125806
Program. A recipient of these grant funds shall use the funds to 125807
support priorities established by the Department and the Ohio 125808
State Office of the Corporation for National and Community 125809
Service. The expenditure of these funds by any grant recipient 125810
shall be in accordance with Senior Corps policies and procedures, 125811
as stated in the Domestic Volunteer Service Act of 1973, as 125812
amended. Neither the Department nor any area agencies on aging 125813
that are involved in the distribution of these funds to 125814
lower-tiered grant recipients may use any portion of these funds 125815
to cover administrative costs. 125816

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION125817

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 125818
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 125819
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 125820
of the Revised Code.125821

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 125822
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS125823

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 125824
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 125825
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 125826
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 125827
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 125828
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 125829
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 125830
board.125831

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM125832

       The foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional Long-Term 125833
Care Ombudsman Program, shall be used to pay the costs of 125834
operating the regional long-term care ombudsman programs 125835
designated by the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.125836

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS125837

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 125838
may transfer up to $1,250,000 cash from the Resident Protection 125839
Fund (Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Medicaid, to 125840
the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used by the 125841
Department of Aging.125842

       The Director of Aging and the Office of the State Long-Term 125843
Care Ombudsman may use moneys in the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 125844
5BA0) to implement a nursing home quality initiative as specified 125845
in section 173.60 of the Revised Code.125846

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE125847

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 125848
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual consumer 125849
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 125850
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 125851
Guide.125852

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL OPERATIONS FUND TO THE BOARD 125853
OF EXECUTIVES OF LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS FUND125854

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 125855
Director of Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and 125856
Management the cash balance relating to the Board of Examiners of 125857
Nursing Home Administrators in the General Operations Fund (Fund 125858
4700), used by the Department of Health. Upon receiving this 125859
certification, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125860
this cash from the General Operations Fund (Fund 4700) to the 125861
Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports Fund (Fund 125862
5MT0), used by the Department of Aging. If this transfer occurs, 125863
the Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 125864
encumbrances pertaining to the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 125865
Administrators against appropriation item 440647, Fee Supported 125866
Programs, and re-establish them against appropriation item 490627, 125867
Board of Executives of LTSS. The re-established encumbrance 125868
amounts are hereby appropriated. 125869

       Section 209.40. DEPARTMENT OF AGING'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 125870
STRUCTURE125871

        Upon request from the Director of Aging, the Director of 125872
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 125873
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 125874
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Aging's 125875
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Aging, the Director 125876
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 125877
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 125878
Department of Aging, abolish existing funds used by the Department 125879
of Aging, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 125880
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 125881
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 125882
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.125883

       Section 209.50. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS125884

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 125885
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 125886
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 125887
authorizes the adoption of a rule.125888

       The Director of Aging is not required to amend any rule for 125889
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 125890
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 125891
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 125892
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 125893
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.125894

       Section 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE125895

General Revenue Fund125896

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 125897
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 125898
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 125899
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 125900
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 125901
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 125902
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 125903
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 542,978 $ 542,978 125904
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 125905
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 125906
GRF 700426 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 800,000 $ 800,000 125907
GRF 700427 High Volume Breeder Kennel Control $ 400,000 $ 200,000 125908
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 125909
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,415 $ 391,415 125910
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,404,231 $ 15,204,231 125911

General Services Fund Group125912

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,115,000 $ 1,115,000 125913
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,368,013 $ 4,404,073 125914
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,483,013 $ 5,519,073 125915

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125916

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,450,000 $ 4,450,000 125917
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 125918
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 125919
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125920
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 125921
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,606,000 $ 1,606,000 125922
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125923
Fund Group $ 12,806,000 $ 12,806,000 125924

State Special Revenue Fund Group125925

4900 700651 License Plates - Sustainable Agriculture $ 10,000 $ 10,000 125926
4940 700612 Agricultural Commodity Marketing Program $ 218,000 $ 213,000 125927
4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 970,000 $ 970,000 125928
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 482,672 $ 482,672 125929
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,760,000 $ 1,760,000 125930
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 35,000 $ 35,000 125931
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 130,000 $ 130,000 125932
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,017,328 $ 1,017,328 125933
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 45,500 $ 45,500 125934
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,738,247 $ 1,738,247 125935
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 120,000 $ 120,000 125936
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 125937
5880 700633 Brand Registration $ 5,000 $ 5,000 125938
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 340,000 $ 340,000 125939
5CP0 700652 License Plate Scholarships $ 10,000 $ 10,000 125940
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,190,000 $ 1,190,000 125941
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 552,000 $ 552,000 125942
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 145,000 $ 145,000 125943
5MA0 700657 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 195,000 $ 195,000 125944
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,966,383 $ 4,966,383 125945
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 125946
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125947
Fund Group $ 18,523,313 $ 18,518,313 125948

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group125949

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 125950
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 125951

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 52,526,557 $ 52,357,617 125952

       DANGEROUS AND RESTRICTED WILD ANIMALS125953

       The foregoing GRF appropriation item 700426, Dangerous and 125954
Restricted Animals, shall be used to administer the Dangerous and 125955
Restricted Wild Animal Permitting Program.125956

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES125957

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 125958
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 125959
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 125960
activities.125961

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT125962

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 125963
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 125964
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 125965
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 125966
5301.70 of the Revised Code.125967

       Section 213.10. AIR AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY125968

General Services Fund Group125969

5EG0 898608 Energy Strategy Development $ 240,681 $ 240,681 125970
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 240,681 $ 240,681 125971

State Special Revenue Fund Group125972

4Z90 898602 Small Business Ombudsman $ 288,232 $ 288,232 125973
5700 898601 Operating Expenses $ 323,980 $ 323,980 125974
5A00 898603 Small Business Assistance $ 900,000 $ 1,125,000 125975
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,512,212 $ 1,737,212 125976
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,752,893 $ 1,977,893 125977


       Section 213.20.  ENERGY STRATEGY DEVELOPMENT125979

       The Energy Strategy Development Program shall develop energy 125980
initiatives, projects, and policy that align with the energy 125981
policy for the state. Issues addressed by such initiatives, 125982
projects, and policy shall not be limited to those governed by 125983
Chapter 3706. of the Revised Code. The Ohio Air Quality 125984
Development Authority shall be responsible for the monitoring of 125985
the program.125986

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Energy 125987
Strategy Development Fund (Fund 5EG0). The fund shall consist of 125988
money credited to it and money obtained for advanced energy 125989
projects from federal or private grants, loans, or other sources. 125990
Money in the fund shall be used to carry out the purposes of the 125991
program. Interest earned on the money in the fund shall be 125992
credited to the General Revenue Fund.125993

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 125994
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125995
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 125996
below, to the Energy Strategy Development Fund. Fund 5EG0 may 125997
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. On July 1, 125998
2015, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director shall 125999
transfer to the General Revenue Fund all cash credited to Fund 126000
5EG0. Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 5EG0 is abolished.126001

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 126002
1310 State Agency Construction Project Service Ohio Facilities Construction Commission $27,405 $27,439 126003
5GH0 Central Support Indirect Cost Department of Agriculture $27,405 $27,439 126004
1350 Supportive Services Development Services Agency $27,405 $27,439 126005
2190 Central Support Indirect Cost Environmental Protection Agency $27,405 $27,439 126006
1570 Central Support Indirect Chargeback Department of Natural Resources $27,405 $27,439 126007
7002 Highway Operating Department of Transportation $39,150 $39,199 126008

       Section 213.30. REIMBURSEMENT TO AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT 126009
AUTHORITY TRUST ACCOUNT126010

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 126011
the Air Quality Development Authority may reimburse the Air 126012
Quality Development Authority trust account established under 126013
section 3706.10 of the Revised Code from all operating funds of 126014
the agency for expenses pertaining to the administration and 126015
shared costs incurred by the Air Quality Development Authority in 126016
the execution of responsibilities as prescribed in Chapter 3706. 126017
of the Revised Code. Reimbursement shall be made by voucher and 126018
completed in accordance with the administrative indirect costs 126019
allocation plan approved by the Office of Budget and Management.126020

       Section 215.10. ARC STATE BOARD OF EXAMINERS OF ARCHITECTS126021

General Services Fund Group126022

4K90 891609 Operating $ 481,379 $ 485,954 126023
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126024
Group $ 481,379 $ 485,954 126025
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 481,379 $ 485,954 126026


       Section 217.10. ART OHIO ARTS COUNCIL126028

General Revenue Fund126029

GRF 370321 Operating Expenses $ 1,599,204 $ 1,599,204 126030
GRF 370502 State Program Subsidies $ 8,850,000 $ 8,850,000 126031
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,449,204 $ 10,449,204 126032

General Services Fund Group126033

4600 370602 Management Expenses and Donations $ 247,000 $ 247,000 126034
4B70 370603 Percent for Art Acquisitions $ 247,000 $ 247,000 126035
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 494,000 $ 494,000 126036

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126037

3140 370601 Federal Support $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 126038
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 126039
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,943,204 $ 11,943,204 126040

       FEDERAL SUPPORT126041

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 126042
foregoing appropriation item 370601, Federal Support, shall be 126043
used by the Ohio Arts Council for subsidies only, and not for its 126044
administrative costs, unless the Council is required to use a 126045
portion of the funds for administrative costs under conditions of 126046
the federal grant.126047

       Section 219.10. ATH ATHLETIC COMMISSION126048

General Services Fund Group126049

4K90 175609 Operating Expenses $ 312,000 $ 320,000 126050
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 312,000 $ 320,000 126051
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 312,000 $ 320,000 126052


       Section 221.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL126054

General Revenue Fund126055

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 42,514,169 126056
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 126057
GRF 055407 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 126058
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 126059
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 126060
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 45,703,589 $ 45,703,589 126061

General Services Fund Group126062

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 54,806,192 $ 55,820,716 126063
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 126064
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 8,286,000 $ 8,286,000 126065
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,839,074 $ 1,839,074 126066
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 500,000 $ 500,000 126067
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 126068
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 79,438 $ 95,325 126069
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 45,000 $ 10,000 126070
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 375,255 $ 187,627 126071
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 4,629,409 $ 4,629,409 126072
5MP0 055657 Peace Officer Training Commission $ 25,000 $ 25,000 126073
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 6,700,000 $ 6,834,000 126074
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126075
Group $ 86,700,872 $ 87,642,655 126076

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126077

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,537,408 $ 4,628,156 126078
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 75,000 $ 35,574 126079
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 126080
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 599,999 $ 599,999 126081
3FV0 055656 Crime Victim Compensation $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 126082
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 999,999 $ 999,999 126083
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 126084
Fund Group $ 28,212,406 $ 28,263,728 126085

State Special Revenue Fund Group126086

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 16,456,769 $ 16,456,769 126087
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 55,920,716 $ 56,937,131 126088
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 3,578,901 $ 3,486,209 126089
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 126090
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 310,730 $ 310,730 126091
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 126092
Fund Group $ 76,867,116 $ 77,790,839 126093

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group126094

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 126095
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 126096
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 126097
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 126098
R054 055650 Collection Payment Redistribution $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 126099
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 126100
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 126101

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group126102

U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 126103
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 500,000 $ 500,000 126104
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 244,260,008 $ 246,176,836 126105

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT126106

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 126107
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 126108
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 126109
325.06 of the Revised Code.126110

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 126111
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 126112
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 126113
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 126114
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 126115
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.126116

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT126117

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 126118
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 126119
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 126120
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.126121

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 126122
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 126123
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 126124
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 126125
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 126126
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 126127
Revised Code.126128

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND TO THE GENERAL 126129
REIMBURSEMENT FUND126130

        Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 126131
on July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 126132
of Budget and Management shall transfer $80,000 cash from the 126133
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 126134
1060).126135

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION126136

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 126137
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 126138
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 126139
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 126140
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 126141
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 126142
to adjustment.126143

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 126144
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 126145
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.126146

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 126147
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 126148
Industrial Commission.126149

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS126150

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 126151
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 126152
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 126153
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 126154
and the Department of Public Safety.126155

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT126156

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 126157
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 126158
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 126159
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 126160
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 126161
the amounts are hereby appropriated.126162

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS126163

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 126164
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 126165
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 126166
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 126167
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 126168
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.126169

       CONSUMER FRAUDS126170

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 126171
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 126172
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 126173
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 126174
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 126175
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 126176
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 126177
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 126178
amounts are hereby appropriated.126179

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS126180

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 126181
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 126182
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 126183
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 126184
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 126185
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 126186
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 126187
the amounts are hereby appropriated.126188

       COLLECTION PAYMENT REDISTRIBUTION126189

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Payment 126190
Redistribution, shall be used for the purpose of allocating the 126191
revenue where debtors mistakenly paid the client agencies instead 126192
of the Attorney General's Collections Enforcement Section. If it 126193
is determined that additional amounts are necessary for this 126194
purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.126195

       Section 223.10. AUD AUDITOR OF STATE126196

General Revenue Fund126197

GRF 070321 Operating Expenses $ 27,434,452 $ 27,434,452 126198
GRF 070403 Fiscal Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance $ 800,000 $ 800,000 126199
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 28,234,452 $ 28,234,452 126200

Auditor of State Fund Group126201

1090 070601 Public Audit Expense - Intra-State $ 9,069,804 $ 9,196,081 126202
4220 070602 Public Audit Expense - Local Government $ 31,052,999 $ 31,031,044 126203
5840 070603 Training Program $ 181,730 $ 181,250 126204
5JZ0 070606 LEAP Revolving Loans $ 650,000 $ 650,000 126205
6750 070605 Uniform Accounting Network $ 3,241,533 $ 3,160,637 126206
TOTAL AUD Auditor of State Fund 126207
Group $ 44,196,066 $ 44,219,012 126208
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 72,430,518 $ 72,453,464 126209

       FISCAL WATCH/EMERGENCY TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE126210

       The foregoing appropriation item 070403, Fiscal 126211
Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance, shall be used for expenses 126212
incurred by the Office of the Auditor of State in its role 126213
relating to fiscal watch or fiscal emergency activities under 126214
Chapters 118. and 3316. of the Revised Code. Expenses include, but 126215
are not limited to, the following: duties related to the 126216
determination or termination of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency 126217
of municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school 126218
districts; development of preliminary accounting reports; 126219
performance of annual forecasts; provision of performance audits; 126220
and supervisory, accounting, or auditing services for the 126221
municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school districts.126222

       Section 225.10. BRB BOARD OF BARBER EXAMINERS126223

General Services Fund Group126224

4K90 877609 Operating Expenses $ 670,882 $ 674,272 126225
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126226
Group $ 670,882 $ 674,272 126227
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 670,882 $ 674,272 126228


       Section 227.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT126230

General Revenue Fund126231

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,703,189 $ 2,697,483 126232
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 304,000 $ 155,000 126233
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 484,486 $ 498,571 126234
GRF 042425 Shared Services Development $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 126235
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,741,675 $ 4,601,054 126236

General Services Fund Group126237

1050 042603 Financial Management $ 14,060,275 $ 14,451,086 126238
1050 042620 Shared Services Operating $ 8,837,518 $ 8,924,830 126239
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 22,897,793 $ 23,375,916 126240

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126241

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 438,723 $ 438,723 126242
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 438,723 $ 438,723 126243

Agency Fund Group126244

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 40,000 $ 40,000 126245
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 40,000 $ 40,000 126246
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,118,191 $ 28,455,693 126247

       COMMISSION CLOSURES126248

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 126249
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of any 126250
state agency, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial 126251
branch of government. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 126252
contrary, this appropriation item may also be used to pay final 126253
payroll expenses occurring after the closure of any state agency, 126254
whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of 126255
government in the event that appropriations or cash in the closing 126256
agency are insufficient to do so. 126257

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 126258
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 126259
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 126260
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 126261
agency closures.126262

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES126263

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 126264
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 126265
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 126266
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, Financial 126267
Management.126268

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 126269
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 126270
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.126271

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER126272

       The foregoing appropriation items 042425, Shared Services 126273
Development, and 042620, Shared Services Operating, shall be used 126274
by the Director of Budget and Management to support a Shared 126275
Services Center within the Office of Budget and Management for the 126276
purpose of consolidating statewide business functions and common 126277
transactional processes.126278

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 126279
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 126280
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 126281
direct charges using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 126282
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 126283
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 126284
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.126285

       INTERNAL AUDIT 126286

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 126287
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Audit Program in the 126288
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 126289
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies 126290
reviewed by the program. The Director of Budget and Management, 126291
with advice from the Internal Audit Advisory Council, shall 126292
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 126293
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of the Accounting and 126294
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).126295

       FORGERY RECOVERY126296

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 126297
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 126298
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 126299
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 126300
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 126301
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 126302
state warrant of the same amount. Any additional amounts needed to 126303
reissue warrants backed by the receipt of funds are hereby 126304
appropriated.126305

       ABOLISHMENT OF FUND 5N40 AND FUND 5Z80126306

       On or before December 31, 2013, the Director of Budget and 126307
Management shall transfer the cash balances of the OAKS Project 126308
Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Office of Health 126309
Transformation Administration Fund (Fund 5Z80) to the General 126310
Revenue Fund. Upon completion of the transfers, Fund 5N40 and Fund 126311
5Z80 are abolished.126312

       Section 229.10. CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD126313

General Revenue Fund126314

GRF 874100 Personal Services $ 2,417,467 $ 2,417,467 126315
GRF 874320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 1,161,098 $ 1,161,098 126316
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,578,565 $ 3,578,565 126317

General Services Fund Group126318

4G50 874603 Capitol Square Education Center and Arts $ 5,882 $ 5,882 126319
4S70 874602 Statehouse Gift Shop/Events $ 629,409 $ 629,409 126320
TOTAL GSF General Services 126321
Fund Group $ 635,291 $ 635,291 126322

Underground Parking Garage126323

2080 874601 Underground Parking Garage Operations $ 3,039,740 $ 2,981,740 126324
TOTAL UPG Underground Parking 126325
Garage $ 3,039,740 $ 2,981,740 126326
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,253,596 $ 7,195,596 126327

       WAREHOUSE PAYMENTS126328

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 874601, Underground 126329
Parking Garage Operations, $48,000 in each fiscal year shall be 126330
used to meet all payments at the times they are required to be 126331
made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 126332
to the Department of Administrative Services for bond service 126333
charges relating to the purchase and improvement of a warehouse 126334
acquired pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code, in which 126335
to store items of the Capitol Collection Trust and, whenever 126336
necessary, equipment or other property of the Board.126337

       UNDERGROUND PARKING GARAGE FUND126338

       Notwithstanding division (G) of section 105.41 of the Revised 126339
Code and any other provision to the contrary, moneys in the 126340
Underground Parking Garage Fund (Fund 2080) may be used for 126341
personnel and operating costs related to the operations of the 126342
Statehouse and the Statehouse Underground Parking Garage.126343

       Section 231.10. SCR STATE BOARD OF CAREER COLLEGES AND 126344
SCHOOLS126345

General Services Fund Group126346

4K90 233601 Operating Expenses $ 579,328 $ 579,328 126347
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 579,328 $ 579,328 126348
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 579,328 $ 579,328 126349


       Section 233.10. CAC CASINO CONTROL COMMISSION126351

State Special Revenue Fund Group126352

5HS0 955321 Casino Control - Operating $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 126353
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 126354
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 126355


       Section 235.10. CDP CHEMICAL DEPENDENCY PROFESSIONALS BOARD126357

General Services Fund Group126358

4K90 930609 Operating Expenses $ 476,642 $ 469,349 126359
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 476,642 $ 469,349 126360
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 476,642 $ 469,349 126361


       Section 237.10. CHR STATE CHIROPRACTIC BOARD126363

General Services Fund Group126364

4K90 878609 Operating Expenses $ 617,829 $ 630,775 126365
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 617,829 $ 630,775 126366
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 617,829 $ 630,775 126367


       Section 239.10. CIV OHIO CIVIL RIGHTS COMMISSION126369

General Revenue Fund126370

GRF 876321 Operating Expenses $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 126371
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 126372

General Services Fund Group126373

2170 876604 Operations Support $ 4,000 $ 4,000 126374
TOTAL GSF General Services 126375
Fund Group $ 4,000 $ 4,000 126376

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126377

3340 876601 Federal Programs $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 126378
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 126379
Fund Group $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 126380

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,550,454 $ 7,677,767 126381


       Section 241.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE126383

General Services Fund Group126384

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 126385
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 6,011,977 $ 6,011,977 126386
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,737,546 $ 7,737,546 126387
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 64,000,000 $ 64,000,000 126388
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 126389
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126390
Group $ 84,249,523 $ 84,249,523 126391

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126392

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 126393
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 126394
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 126395
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 126396

State Special Revenue Fund Group126397

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 126398
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 266,688 $ 266,688 126399
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 1,854,298 $ 1,854,298 126400
5440 800612 Banks $ 6,836,589 $ 6,836,589 126401
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,259,536 $ 2,259,536 126402
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,315,738 $ 15,324,574 126403
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 2,198,802 $ 2,198,802 126404
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 69,655 $ 69,655 126405
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 126406
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,310,412 $ 3,310,412 126407
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,238,814 $ 4,238,814 126408
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,297,888 $ 3,297,888 126409
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,481,692 $ 3,481,692 126410
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 26,612,520 $ 27,104,205 126411
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 200,000 $ 200,000 126412
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 432,150 $ 432,150 126413
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 118,800 $ 118,800 126414
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expenses $ 7,988,921 $ 7,844,537 126415
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 337,224 $ 337,224 126416
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 3,831,888 $ 3,612,588 126417
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 672,973 $ 672,973 126418
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 126419
Fund Group $ 83,409,588 $ 83,546,425 126420

Liquor Control Fund Group126421

5LC0 800644 Liquor JobsOhio Extraordinary Allowance $ 209,279 $ 198,097 126422
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 5,231,967 $ 4,952,417 126423
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 126424
Fund Group $ 5,441,246 $ 5,150,514 126425
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 175,786,086 $ 175,632,191 126426

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS126427

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 126428
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 126429
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 126430
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 126431
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.126432

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS126433

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 126434
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 126435
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 126436
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.126437

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS126438

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 126439
Grants, up to $2,198,802 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 126440
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 126441
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 126442
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 126443
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 126444
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 126445
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 126446
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 126447
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 126448
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 126449
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 126450
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 126451
eligible recipient for a training grant.126452

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 126453
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 126454
department or private fire company for fire protection services 126455
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 126456
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 126457
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 126458
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 126459
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 126460
fire protection services.126461

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 126462
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 126463
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 126464
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 126465
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 126466
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 126467
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 126468
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 126469
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 126470
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 126471
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 126472
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 126473
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 126474
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 126475
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 126476
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 126477
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 126478
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 126479
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 126480
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 126481
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 126482
equipment to any eligible recipients.126483

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the grants 126484
shall be used by recipients to purchase firefighting or rescue 126485
equipment or gear or similar items, to provide full or partial 126486
reimbursement for the documented costs of firefighter training, 126487
or, at the discretion of the State Fire Marshal, to cover fire 126488
department costs for providing fire protection services in that 126489
grant recipient's jurisdiction. 126490

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, up to $500,000 126491
per fiscal year may be used to pay for the State Fire Marshal's 126492
costs of providing firefighter I certification classes or other 126493
firefighter classes approved by the Department of Public Safety in 126494
accordance with section 4765.55 of the Revised Code at no cost to 126495
selected students attending the Ohio Fire Academy or other class 126496
providers approved by the State Fire Marshal. The State Fire 126497
Marshal may establish the qualifications and selection processes 126498
for students to attend such classes by written policy, and such 126499
students shall be considered eligible recipients of fire 126500
department grants for the purposes of this portion of the grant 126501
program.126502

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 126503
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 126504
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 126505
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 126506
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 126507
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 126508
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 126509
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 126510
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 126511
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 126512
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 126513
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 126514
allocated for each eligible purpose.126515

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 126516
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 126517
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 126518
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 126519
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 126520
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 126521
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 126522
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 126523
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 126524
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 126525
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 126526
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 126527
program.126528

       CASH TRANSFERS TO DIVISION OF REAL ESTATE OPERATING FUND126529

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 126530
the Director of Commerce, may transfer up to $500,000 in cash from 126531
the Real Estate Recovery Fund (Fund 5480) and up to $250,000 in 126532
cash from the Real Estate Appraiser Recovery Fund (Fund 4B20) to 126533
the Division of Real Estate Operating Fund (Fund 5490) during the 126534
biennium ending June 30, 2015.126535

       Section 243.10. OCC OFFICE OF CONSUMERS' COUNSEL126536

General Services Fund Group126537

5F50 053601 Operating Expenses $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 126538
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 126539
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 126540


       Section 245.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD126542

General Revenue Fund126543

GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 126544
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 475,000 $ 475,000 126545

General Services Fund Group126546

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 126547
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 126548
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,475,000 $ 10,475,000 126549

       FEDERAL SHARE126550

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 126551
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 126552
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 126553
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 126554
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 126555
are hereby appropriated.126556

       DISASTER SERVICES126557

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 126558
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 126559
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 126560
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 126561
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 126562
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 126563
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 126564
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 126565
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 126566
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 126567
for disasters that have a written Governor's authorization, and 126568
the State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have a 126569
written Governor's authorization and is declared by the federal 126570
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 126571
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 126572
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 126573
State Individual Assistance Program.126574

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 126575
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 126576
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 126577
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 126578
that have a written Governor's authorization, if the Director of 126579
Budget and Management determines that sufficient funds exist.126580

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 126581
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 126582
flood mitigation projects.126583

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS126584

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 126585
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 126586
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 126587
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 126588
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 126589
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.126590

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 126591
ELIGIBILITY126592

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 126593
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 126594
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 126595
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 126596
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 126597
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 126598
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 126599
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 126600
federal funds.126601

       Section 247.10. COS STATE BOARD OF COSMETOLOGY126602

General Services Fund Group126603

4K90 879609 Operating Expenses $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 126604
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126605
Group $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 126606
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 126607


       Section 249.10. CSW COUNSELOR, SOCIAL WORKER, AND MARRIAGE 126609
AND FAMILY THERAPIST BOARD126610

General Services Fund Group126611

4K90 899609 Operating Expenses $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 126612
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126613
Group $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 126614
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 126615


       Section 251.10. CLA COURT OF CLAIMS126617

General Revenue Fund126618

GRF 015321 Operating Expenses $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 126619
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 126620

State Special Revenue Fund Group126621

5K20 015603 CLA Victims of Crime $ 415,556 $ 415,953 126622
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 126623
Fund Group $ 415,556 $ 415,953 126624
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,916,608 $ 2,917,005 126625


       Section 253.10. DEN STATE DENTAL BOARD126627

General Services Fund Group126628

4K90 880609 Operating Expenses $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 126629
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126630
Group $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 126631
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 126632


       Section 255.10. BDP BOARD OF DEPOSIT126634

General Services Fund Group126635

4M20 974601 Board of Deposit $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 126636
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126637
Group $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 126638
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 126639

       BOARD OF DEPOSIT EXPENSE FUND126640

       Upon receiving certification of expenses from the Treasurer 126641
of State, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 126642
cash from the Investment Earnings Redistribution Fund (Fund 6080) 126643
to the Board of Deposit Expense Fund (Fund 4M20). The latter fund 126644
shall be used pursuant to section 135.02 of the Revised Code to 126645
pay for any and all necessary expenses of the Board of Deposit or 126646
for banking charges and fees required for the operation of the 126647
State of Ohio Regular Account.126648

       Section 257.10. DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY126649

General Revenue Fund126650

GRF 195402 Coal Research Operating $ 261,205 $ 261,405 126651
GRF 195405 Minority Business Development $ 1,693,691 $ 1,693,691 126652
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 1,300,000 $ 0 126653
GRF 195415 Business Development Services $ 2,413,387 $ 2,413,387 126654
GRF 195426 Redevelopment Assistance $ 468,365 $ 468,365 126655
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 126656
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 440,000 $ 440,000 126657
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 13,547,341 $ 13,547,341 126658
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 4,205,774 $ 4,205,774 126659
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 3,846,482 $ 3,846,482 126660
GRF 195537 Ohio-Israel Agricultural Initiative $ 150,000 $ 150,000 126661
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 126662
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 126663
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 126664
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 114,210,145 $ 135,276,145 126665

General Services Fund Group126666

1350 195684 Development Services Operations $ 10,800,000 $ 10,800,000 126667
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 126668
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 19,130,986 $ 20,000,000 126669
5MB0 195623 Business Incentive Grants $ 15,000,000 $ 0 126670
5MK0 195600 Vacant Facilities Grant $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 126671
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 150,000 $ 150,000 126672
6850 195636 Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 700,000 $ 700,000 126673
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 126674
Group $ 49,280,986 $ 35,150,000 126675

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126676

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 126677
3080 195603 Housing Assistance Programs $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 126678
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 5,271,381 $ 5,271,381 126679
3080 195618 Energy Grants $ 9,307,779 $ 4,109,193 126680
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 17,000,000 $ 17,000,000 126681
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 126682
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 5,359,305 $ 5,359,305 126683
3080 195675 Procurement Technical Assistance $ 600,000 $ 600,000 126684
3080 195681 SBDC Disability Consulting $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 126685
3350 195610 Energy Programs $ 200,000 $ 200,000 126686
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 126687
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 38,152 $ 0 126688
3FJ0 195626 Small Business Capital Access and Collateral Enhancement Program $ 32,046,846 $ 5,655,326 126689
3FJ0 195661 Technology Targeted Investment Program $ 12,750,410 $ 2,250,072 126690
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 65,000,000 $ 65,000,000 126691
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 172,000,000 $ 172,000,000 126692
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 126693
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 126694
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 126695
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 126696
Fund Group $ 417,389,090 $ 375,260,494 126697

State Special Revenue Fund Group126698

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 74,868 $ 74,905 126699
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 6,300,800 $ 6,700,800 126700
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 102,145 $ 102,104 126701
4F20 195699 Utility Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 126702
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 126703
5HR0 195526 Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 126704
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 126705
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 100,000 $ 100,000 126706
5KP0 195645 Historic Rehab Operating $ 650,000 $ 650,000 126707
5LU0 195673 Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund $ 12,000,000 $ 0 126708
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 350,000,000 $ 350,000,000 126709
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 126710
5MH0 195644 SiteOhio Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 126711
5MJ0 195683 TourismOhio Administration $ 7,000,000 $ 8,000,000 126712
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 18,000 $ 18,000 126713
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 32,562 $ 32,562 126714
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 126715
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 126716
Fund Group $ 473,628,375 $ 463,028,371 126717

Facilities Establishment Fund Group126718

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 126719
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 126720
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 126721
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 126722
TOTAL 037 Facilities 126723
Establishment Fund Group $ 90,000,000 $ 90,000,000 126724

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund126725

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 126726
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 126727

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group126728

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 126729
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 90,850,250 $ 90,850,250 126730
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 126731
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 126732
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 132,000,000 $ 132,000,000 126733

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group126734

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 126735
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 126736

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group126737

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 126738
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 126739
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,280,155,191 $ 1,234,371,035 126740


       Section 257.20. COAL RESEARCH OPERATING126742

       The foregoing appropriation item 195402, Coal Research 126743
Operating, shall be used for the operating expenses of the 126744
Community Services Division in support of the Ohio Coal 126745
Development Office.126746

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM126747

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 126748
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 126749
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 126750
necessary to market Ohio.126751

        BUSINESS DEVELOPMENT SERVICES126752

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Business Development 126753
Services, shall be used for the operating expenses of the Business 126754
Services Division and the regional economic development offices 126755
and for grants for cooperative economic development ventures.126756

       REDEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE126757

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Redevelopment 126758
Assistance, shall be used to fund the costs of administering the 126759
Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban revitalization 126760
programs that may be implemented by the Development Services 126761
Agency.126762

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH126763

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 126764
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 126765
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 126766
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 126767
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.126768

       APPALACHIAN LOCAL DEVELOPMENT DISTRICTS126769

       The foregoing appropriation item 195501, Appalachian Local 126770
Development Districts, shall be used to support four local 126771
development districts. Of the foregoing appropriation amount in 126772
each fiscal year, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio 126773
Valley Regional Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be 126774
allocated to the Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to 126775
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley 126776
Regional Development District, and up to $35,000 shall be 126777
allocated to the Eastgate Regional Council of Governments. Local 126778
development districts receiving funding under this section shall 126779
use the funds for the implementation and administration of 126780
programs and duties under section 107.21 of the Revised Code.126781

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS126782

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology 126783
Programs and Grants, up to $547,341 in each fiscal year shall be 126784
used for operating expenses incurred in administering the Ohio 126785
Third Frontier pursuant to sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the 126786
Revised Code; and up to $13,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 126787
used for the Thomas Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 126788
122.38 of the Revised Code, of which not less than $8,700,000 126789
shall be allocated for the Edison Center Network entities defined 126790
in division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code, and not 126791
more than ten per cent shall be used for operating expenses 126792
incurred in administering the program.126793

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE126794

        The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 126795
may be used to provide a range of business assistance, including 126796
grants to local organizations to support economic development 126797
activities that promote minority business development, small 126798
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 126799
goods and services. This appropriation item shall also be used as 126800
matching funds for grants from the United States Small Business 126801
Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant to Public Law 126802
No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and regulations 126803
and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.126804

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE126805

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 126806
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 126807
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 126808
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 126809
counties, and to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission. 126810
These funds may be used to match federal funds from the 126811
Appalachian Regional Commission.126812

       OHIO-ISRAEL AGRICULTURE INITIATIVE126813

        The foregoing appropriation item 195537, Ohio-Israel 126814
Agricultural Initiative, shall be used for the Ohio-Israel 126815
Agricultural Initiative.126816

       COAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE126817

       The foregoing appropriation line item 195901, Coal Research 126818
and Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to 126819
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 126820
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015 for obligations issued under 126821
sections 151.01 and 151.07 of the Revised Code.126822

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH & DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 126823
SERVICE126824

       The foregoing appropriation item 195905, Third Frontier 126825
Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be 126826
used to pay all debt service and related financing costs during 126827
the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on 126828
obligations issued for research and development purposes under 126829
sections 151.01 and 151.10 of the Revised Code.126830

       JOB READY SITE DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE126831

       The foregoing appropriation item 195912, Job Ready Site 126832
Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 126833
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 126834
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 126835
for job ready site development purposes under sections 151.01 and 126836
151.11 of the Revised Code.126837

       Section 257.30.  DEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS126838

       The Director of Development Services may assess offices of 126839
the agency for the cost of central service operations. An 126840
assessment shall contain the characteristics of administrative 126841
ease and uniform application. A division's payments shall be 126842
credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) using an 126843
intrastate transfer voucher.126844

       LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND126845

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126846
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $3,000,000 in 126847
cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government 126848
Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). On July 1, 2014, or as soon as 126849
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 126850
transfer $4,000,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 126851
Local Government Innovation Fund (5KN0).126852

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 126853
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 126854
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 126855
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 126856
the Revised Code. Notwithstanding section 189.04 of the Revised 126857
Code, of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 126858
Innovation, up to $3,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and $4,000,000 in 126859
fiscal year 2015 shall be used for grants under the Local 126860
Government Innovation Program established in section 189.02 of the 126861
Revised Code, and up to $175,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 126862
for administrative costs incurred by the Development Services 126863
Agency.126864

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM COOPERATIVE PROJECTS126865

       The foregoing appropriation item 195690, Travel and Tourism 126866
Cooperative Projects, shall consist solely of leveraged private 126867
sector paid advertising dollars received in tourism marketing 126868
assistance and co-op programs. These funds are to be used for the 126869
marketing and promotion of travel and tourism in Ohio.126870

        DEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE EXPENDITURES126871

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Development Services 126872
Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for reimbursable costs 126873
incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General Reimbursement Fund 126874
(Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for administrative 126875
costs that are not central service costs.126876

       Section 257.40. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES126877

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 195643, Workforce 126878
Development Initiatives, $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 126879
used to fund the Heavy Machinery Pilot Program at Central Ohio 126880
Technical College for tuition support and reimbursement to train 126881
approximately 30 students for careers in construction and the oil 126882
and gas industries in Eastern Ohio and statewide.126883

       HEAP WEATHERIZATION 126884

       Not less than fifteen per cent of the federal funds deposited 126885
to the credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 126886
3K90) shall be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 126887
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 126888
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 126889
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 126890
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 126891
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 126892
Controlling Board.126893

       Section 257.50. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS126894

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 126895
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 126896
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 126897
Ohio Film Office, workforce initiatives, and the Office of 126898
Strategic Business Investments, and for payments to the JobsOhio 126899
corporation established in Chapter 187. of the Revised Code for 126900
services provided for the administration of the 166 Direct Loan 126901
Program, Ohio Enterprise Bond Fund, Research and Development Loan 126902
Program, and Innovation Ohio Loan Program.126903

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS126904

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 126905
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 126906
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 126907
deposited may also be used to match federal housing grants for the 126908
homeless. 126909

       MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN126910

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 126911
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 126912
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 126913
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).126914

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND126915

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 126916
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 126917
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 126918
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2014-fiscal 126919
year 2015 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 126920
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 126921
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code.126922

       If needed for the payment of losses arising from the Minority 126923
Business Bonding Program, the Director of Budget and Management 126924
may, at the request of the Director of Development Services, 126925
request that the Director of Commerce transfer unclaimed funds 126926
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 126927
section 169.05 of the Revised Code to the Minority Bonding Fund 126928
(Fund 4490). The transfer of unclaimed funds shall only occur 126929
after proceeds of the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the 126930
Controlling Board to the Minority Business Bonding Program have 126931
been used for that purpose. If expenditures are required for 126932
payment of losses arising from the Minority Business Bonding 126933
Program, such expenditures shall be made from appropriation item 126934
195658, Minority Business Bonding Contingency in the Minority 126935
Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby appropriated.126936

        INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS126937

       (A) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 126938
$30,000,000 cash in each fiscal year from the Economic Development 126939
Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio 126940
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the 126941
Development Services Agency.126942

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Incumbent 126943
Workforce Training Vouchers, up to $30,000,000 in each fiscal year 126944
shall be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training 126945
Voucher Program. 126946

        (C) The Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program 126947
shall conform to guidelines for the operation of the program, 126948
including, but not limited to, the following:126949

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 126950
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;126951

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 126952
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;126953

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 126954
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 126955
employer; and126956

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 126957
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 126958
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.126959

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126960
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 126961
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 126962
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 126963
appropriation item 195526, Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers, 126964
for fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 126965
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 126966
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 126967
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 126968
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 126969
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 126970
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 126971
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.126972

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE126973

       The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 126974
$5,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Economic 126975
Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents 126976
to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used 126977
by the Development Services Agency. The transferred funds shall be 126978
used for appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 126979
Assistance, for economic development programs and the creation of 126980
new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at Department of 126981
Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future base realignment 126982
and closure activities and ongoing Department of Defense 126983
efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure Department of 126984
Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, assessing and 126985
supporting regional job training and workforce development needs 126986
generated by the Department of Defense and the Ohio aerospace 126987
industry, and for expanding job training and economic development 126988
programs in human performance related initiatives. A portion of 126989
these funds shall be matched by private industry partners or the 126990
Department of Defense.126991

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126992
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 126993
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 126994
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 126995
appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance, for 126996
fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 126997
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 126998
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 126999
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 127000
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 127001
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 127002
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 127003
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015. 127004

        ADVANCED ENERGY LOAN PROGRAMS127005

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan 127006
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 127007
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 127008
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 127009
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 127010
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 127011
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 127012
of Development Services.127013

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION127014

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 127015
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 127016
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 127017
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 127018
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 127019
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.127020

       Section 257.60.  CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM127021

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 127022
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 127023
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 127024
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 127025
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 127026
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.127027

       INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND127028

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 127029
shall be used to provide for Innovation Ohio purposes, including 127030
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 127031
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.127032

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT127033

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 127034
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 127035
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 127036
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.127037

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT 127038

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 127039
Establishment, shall be used for the purposes of the Facilities 127040
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) under Chapter 166. of the Revised 127041
Code.127042

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 127043
not to exceed $3,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year may be 127044
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 127045
the Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject 127046
to Controlling Board approval under division (B) of section 166.03 127047
of the Revised Code.127048

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 127049
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 127050
exceed $1,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 127051
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 127052
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).127053

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 127054
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 127055
exceed $2,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 127056
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Capital Access Loan Fund 127057
(Fund 5S90).127058

       Section 257.70. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES127059

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio Program, 127060
shall be used by the Development Services Agency in administering 127061
Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund (Fund 7003) projects pursuant to 127062
sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code.127063

       Section 257.80.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING127064

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 127065
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 127066
used for operating expenses incurred by the Development Services 127067
Agency in administering projects pursuant to sections 184.10 to 127068
184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses paid from item 127069
195686 shall be limited to the administration of projects funded 127070
from the Third Frontier Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) 127071
and operating expenses paid from item 195620 shall be limited to 127072
the administration of projects funded from the Third Frontier 127073
Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014).127074

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT PROJECTS AND RESEARCH 127075
AND DEVELOPMENT TAXABLE BOND PROJECTS127076

        The foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third Frontier 127077
Research & Development Projects, 195692, Research & Development 127078
Taxable Bond Projects, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, 127079
shall be used by the Development Services Agency to fund selected 127080
projects. Eligible costs are those costs of research and 127081
development projects to which the proceeds of the Third Frontier 127082
Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Research & 127083
Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014) are to be 127084
applied.127085

        TRANSFERS OF THIRD FRONTIER APPROPRIATIONS127086

        The Director of Budget and Management may approve written 127087
requests from the Director of Development Services for the 127088
transfer of appropriations between appropriation items 195687, 127089
Third Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, 127090
Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects, based upon awards 127091
recommended by the Third Frontier Commission. The transfers are 127092
subject to approval by the Controlling Board.127093

       In fiscal year 2015, the Director of Development Services may 127094
request that the Director of Budget and Management reappropriate 127095
any unexpended, unencumbered balances of the prior fiscal year's 127096
appropriation to the foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third 127097
Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, Research & 127098
Development Taxable Bond Projects, for fiscal year 2015. The 127099
Director of Budget and Management may request additional 127100
information necessary for evaluating these requests, and the 127101
Director of Development Services shall provide the requested 127102
information to the Director of Budget and Management. Based on the 127103
information provided by the Director of Development Services, the 127104
Director of Budget and Management shall determine the amounts to 127105
be reappropriated, and those amounts are hereby reappropriated for 127106
fiscal year 2015.127107

        AUTHORITY TO ISSUE AND SELL ORIGINAL OBLIGATIONS127108

        The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby authorized to 127109
issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2p of Article VIII, 127110
Ohio Constitution, and particularly sections 151.01 and 151.10 of 127111
the Revised Code, original obligations of the State of Ohio in an 127112
aggregate amount not to exceed $350,000,000 in addition to the 127113
original issuance of obligations authorized by prior acts of the 127114
General Assembly. The authorized obligations shall be issued and 127115
sold from time to time and in amounts necessary to ensure 127116
sufficient moneys to the credit of the Third Frontier Research and 127117
Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Third Frontier Research and 127118
Development Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7014) to pay costs of research 127119
and development projects.127120

       Section 257.90. JOB READY SITE PROGRAM127121

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 127122
Development, shall be used for operating expenses incurred by the 127123
Development Services Agency in administering Job Ready Site 127124
Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to sections 122.085 127125
to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses include, but 127126
are not limited to, certain qualified expenses of the District 127127
Public Works Integrating Committees, as applicable, engineering 127128
review of submitted applications by the State Architect or a 127129
third-party engineering firm, audit and accountability activities, 127130
and costs associated with formal certifications verifying that 127131
site infrastructure is in place and is functional.127132

       Section 257.110.  (A) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING127133

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127134
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 127135
balances in the Tax Incentive Program Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) 127136
and the Tax Credit Operating Fund (Fund 4S10) to the Business 127137
Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).127138

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127139
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 127140
balances in the Family Farm Loan Fund (Fund 5H10) and the First 127141
Frontier Fund (Fund 4H40) to the Facility Establishment Fund (Fund 127142
7037).127143

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127144
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 127145
balance in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the 127146
New Markets Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).127147

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127148
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 127149
balances in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) and the Water and 127150
Sewer Administrative Fund (Fund 6110) to the General 127151
Reimbursements Fund (Fund 6850).127152

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127153
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 127154
balance in the Local Government Services Collaboration Grant Fund 127155
(Fund 7088) to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0).127156

        (B) ABOLISHMENT OF FUNDS127157

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, upon 127158
completion of a transfer of the cash balance in a fund as 127159
described in division (A) of this section by the Director of 127160
Budget and Management, notwithstanding the establishment authority 127161
of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished.127162

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127163
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 127164
in the Exempt Facility Inspection Fund (Fund 5X10) to the Advanced 127165
Energy Fund (Fund 5M50). After completion of the transfer and on 127166
the effective date of its repeal by this act, Fund 5X10 shall be 127167
abolished.127168

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127169
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 127170
in the Rapid Outreach Loan Fund (Fund 7022) to the Facilities 127171
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037). After completion of the transfer 127172
and on the effective date of its repeal by this act, Fund 7022 127173
shall be abolished.127174

       The following funds, which, like Funds 5HJ0, 5X10, and 7022, 127175
were created in the Revised Code, are determined to be dormant and 127176
shall be abolished on the effective date of their repeal by this 127177
act: Diesel Emissions Grant Fund (Fund 3BD0), Shovel Ready Sites 127178
Fund (Fund 5CA0), Energy Projects Fund (Fund 5DU0), Business 127179
Development and Assistance Fund (Fund 5LK0), Clean Ohio 127180
Revitalization Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 7007), and Logistics & 127181
Distribution Infrastructure Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7048).127182

       (C) ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS127183

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127184
Director of Budget and Management may determine whether the 127185
following funds are dormant. If the Director of Budget and 127186
Management determines a fund to be dormant, notwithstanding the 127187
establishment authority of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished. 127188
The funds are: 127189

Fund Number Fund Name 127190
1360 International Trade 127191
3800 Ohio Housing Agency 127192
3BJ0 TANF Heating Assistance 127193
3X30 TANF Housing 127194
4450 OHFA Administration 127195
4480 Ohio Coal Development 127196
4D00 Public & Private Assistance 127197
5CV0 Defense Conversion Assistance 127198
5D10 Port Authority Bond Reserves 127199
5D20 Urban Redevelopment Loan 127200
5F70 Local Government Y2K Loan Program 127201
5X50 Family Homelessness Prevention Pilot 127202
5Y60 Economic Development Contingency 127203
5Z30 Jobs 127204
QA70 Electric Revenue Development 127205

       Section 259.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES127206

General Revenue Fund127207

GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 1,918,196 $ 1,918,196 127208
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 127209
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 127210
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 127211
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 44,449,280 $ 44,449,280 127212
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 127213
GRF 322507 County Board Case Management $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 127214
GRF 322508 Employment First Pilot Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 127215
GRF 653321 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 6,186,694 $ 6,186,694 127216
GRF 653407 Medicaid Services $ 430,056,111 $ 435,574,237 127217
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 524,186,339 $ 529,937,865 127218

General Services Fund Group127219

1520 653609 DC and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 127220
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 127221

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group127222

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,297,656 $ 3,324,187 127223
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 10,604,896 $ 10,604,896 127224
3A40 653604 DC & ICF/MR Program Support $ 8,013,611 $ 8,013,611 127225
3A40 653605 DC and Residential Services and Support $ 159,548,565 159,548,565 127226
3A40 653653 ICF/MR $ 354,712,840 $ 353,895,717 127227
3G60 653639 Medicaid Waiver Services $ 932,073,249 $ 1,022,485,423 127228
3G60 653640 Medicaid Waiver Program Support $ 36,934,303 $ 36,170,872 127229
3M70 653650 CAFS Medicaid $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 127230
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,508,185,120 $ 1,597,043,271 127231

State Special Revenue Fund Group127232

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,407,297 $ 7,407,297 127233
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 127234
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 33,750,000 $ 37,260,000 127235
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 127236
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 127237
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 127238
4890 653632 DC Direct Care Services $ 16,497,169 $ 16,497,169 127239
5CT0 653607 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 127240
5DJ0 653626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 91,740,000 $ 100,910,000 127241
5EV0 653627 Medicaid Program Support $ 685,000 $ 685,000 127242
5GE0 653606 ICF/MR and Waiver Match $ 40,353,139 $ 39,106,638 127243
5S20 653622 Medicaid Admin and Oversight $ 17,341,201 $ 19,032,154 127244
5Z10 653624 County Board Waiver Match $ 284,740,000 $ 336,480,000 127245
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 494,618,806 $ 559,483,258 127246
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,530,404,582 $ 2,689,878,711 127247


       Section 259.20. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS127249

       The foregoing appropriation item 320415, Lease-Rental 127250
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 127251
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 127252
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Developmental Disabilities 127253
under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of the 127254
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 127255
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 127256
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.127257

       Section 259.30. SCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION127258

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 127259
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 127260
programs for children with autism selected by the Director of 127261
Developmental Disabilities.127262

       Section 259.40.  FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY127263

        The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 127264
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal 127265
year 2015:127266

       (A) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 127267
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 127268
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 127269
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 127270
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 127271
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 127272
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 127273
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.127274

       (B) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 127275
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 127276
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 127277
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 127278
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 127279
for distributing the funds.127280

       Section 259.50. STATE SUBSIDY TO COUNTY DD BOARDS127281

       (A) Except as provided in the section of this act titled 127282
"NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/MR SERVICES," the foregoing appropriation 127283
item 322501, County Boards Subsidies, shall be used for the 127284
following purposes:127285

       (1) To provide a subsidy to county boards of developmental 127286
disabilities in quarterly installments and allocated according to 127287
a formula developed by the Director of Developmental Disabilities 127288
in consultation with representatives of county boards. Except as 127289
provided in section 5126.0511 of the Revised Code or in division 127290
(B) of this section, county boards shall use the subsidy for early 127291
childhood services and adult services provided under section 127292
5126.05 of the Revised Code, service and support administration 127293
provided under section 5126.15 of the Revised Code, or supported 127294
living as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.127295

       (2) To provide funding, as determined necessary by the 127296
Director, for residential services, including room and board, and 127297
support service programs that enable individuals with 127298
developmental disabilities to live in the community.127299

       (3) To distribute funds to county boards of developmental 127300
disabilities to address economic hardships and promote efficiency 127301
of operations. The Director shall determine, in consultation with 127302
representatives of county boards, the amount of funds to 127303
distribute for these purposes and the criteria for distributing 127304
the funds.127305

       (B) In collaboration with the county's family and children 127306
first council, a county board of developmental disabilities may 127307
transfer portions of funds received under this section, to a 127308
flexible funding pool in accordance with the section of this act 127309
titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." 127310

       Section 259.60. COUNTY BOARD SHARE OF WAIVER SERVICES127311

        As used in this section, "home and community-based services" 127312
has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.127313

        The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall establish a 127314
methodology to be used in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to 127315
estimate the quarterly amount each county board of developmental 127316
disabilities is to pay of the nonfederal share of home and 127317
community-based services that section 5126.0510 of the Revised 127318
Code requires county boards to pay. Each quarter, the Director 127319
shall submit to a county board written notice of the amount the 127320
county board is to pay for that quarter. The notice shall specify 127321
when the payment is due.127322

       Section 259.70. TAX EQUITY127323

       Notwithstanding section 5126.18 of the Revised Code, the 127324
foregoing appropriation item 322503, Tax Equity, may be used to 127325
distribute funds to county boards of developmental disabilities to 127326
address economic hardships and promote efficiency of operations. 127327
The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall determine, in 127328
consultation with representatives of county boards, the amount of 127329
funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria for 127330
distributing the funds.127331

       Section 259.80. MEDICAID SERVICES127332

       Except as provided in section 5123.0416 of the Revised Code, 127333
the purposes for which the foregoing appropriation item 653407, 127334
Medicaid Services, shall be used include the following:127335

       (A) Home and community-based services, as defined in section 127336
5123.01 of the Revised Code;127337

       (B) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 127338
settling the consent decree in Sermak v. Manuel, Case No. 127339
C-2-80-220, United States District Court for the Southern District 127340
of Ohio, Eastern Division;127341

       (C) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 127342
settling the consent decree in the Martin v. Strickland, Case No. 127343
89-CV-00362, United States District Court for the Southern 127344
District of Ohio, Eastern Division;127345

       (D) ICF/MR services, as defined in section 5124.01 of the 127346
Revised Code;127347

       (E) Other programs as identified by the Director of 127348
Developmental Disabilities. 127349

       Section 259.90.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST PILOT PROGRAM127350

       The foregoing appropriation item 322508, Employment First 127351
Pilot Program, shall be used to increase employment opportunities 127352
for individuals with developmental disabilities through the 127353
Employment First Initiative in accordance with section 5123.022 of 127354
the Revised Code.127355

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 322508, Employment First 127356
Pilot Program, the Director of Developmental Disabilities shall 127357
transfer, in each fiscal year, to the Rehabilitation Services 127358
Commission an amount agreed upon by the Director of Developmental 127359
Disabilities and the Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services 127360
Commission. The transfer shall be made via an intrastate transfer 127361
voucher. The transferred funds shall be used to support the 127362
Employment First Pilot Program. The Rehabilitation Services 127363
Commission shall use the funds transferred as state matching funds 127364
to obtain available federal grant dollars for vocational 127365
rehabilitation services. Any federal match dollars received by the 127366
Rehabilitation Services Commission shall be used for the pilot 127367
program. The Director of Developmental Disabilities and the 127368
Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services Commission shall 127369
enter into an interagency agreement in accordance with section 127370
3304.181 of the Revised Code that will specify the 127371
responsibilities of each agency under the pilot program. Under the 127372
interagency agreement, the Rehabilitation Services Commission 127373
shall retain responsibility for eligibility determination, order 127374
of selection, plan approval, plan amendment, and release of vendor 127375
payments.127376

       The remainder of appropriation item 322508, Employment First 127377
Pilot Program, shall be used to develop a long term, sustainable 127378
system that places individuals with developmental disabilities in 127379
community employment, as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised 127380
Code. 127381

       Section 259.100.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST TASKFORCE FUND127382

       If an employment first task force is established by the 127383
Director of Developmental Disabilities in accordance with section 127384
5123.023 of the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and 127385
Management shall establish an appropriation item from the 127386
Employment First Taskforce Fund for use by the Department of 127387
Developmental Disabilities to support the work of the task force. 127388
In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if an employment first 127389
task force is established, the Director of Developmental 127390
Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget and 127391
Management the appropriation amounts necessary for the Department 127392
of Developmental Disabilities to fulfill its obligation to support 127393
the work of the task force. Once the certification required under 127394
this section has been submitted and approved by the Director of 127395
Budget and Management, the appropriations established under this 127396
section are hereby appropriated in the amounts approved by the 127397
Director of Budget and Management. 127398

       Section 259.110. TRANSFER TO OPERATING AND SERVICES FUND127399

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 127400
Director of Developmental Disabilities shall request the Director 127401
of Budget and Management to transfer the cash balance in the Home 127402
and Community-Based Services Fund (Fund 4K80) to the Operating and 127403
Services Fund (Fund 5GE0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 127404
4K80 is hereby abolished. The Director of Budget and Management 127405
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 127406
322604, Medicaid Waiver – State Match, and reestablish them 127407
against appropriation item 653606, ICF/MR and Waiver Match. The 127408
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.127409

       Section 259.120. OPERATING AND SERVICES127410

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 320606, Operating and 127411
Services, $100,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the 127412
Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence to establish a lifespan 127413
autism hub to support families and professionals.127414

       Section 259.130. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES127415

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 127416
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 127417
Department of Developmental Disabilities.127418

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities and the Medicaid 127419
Director may enter into an interagency agreement under which the 127420
Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer cash from 127421
the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the Health 127422
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used by the 127423
Department of Medicaid in an amount equal to the nonfederal 127424
portion of the cost of targeted case management services paid by 127425
county boards. Under the agreement, the Department of Medicaid 127426
shall pay the total cost of targeted case management claims. The 127427
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.127428

       Section 259.140.  WITHHOLDING OF FUNDS OWED THE DEPARTMENT127429

       If a county board of developmental disabilities does not 127430
fully pay any amount owed to the Department of Developmental 127431
Disabilities by the due date established by the Department, the 127432
Director of Developmental Disabilities may withhold the amount the 127433
county board did not pay from any amounts due to the county board. 127434
The Director may use any appropriation item or fund used by the 127435
Department to transfer cash to any other fund used by the 127436
Department in an amount equal to the amount owed the Department 127437
that the county board did not pay. Transfers under this section 127438
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. 127439

       Section 259.150. DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER BILLING FOR SERVICES127440

       Developmental centers of the Department of Developmental 127441
Disabilities may provide services to persons with mental 127442
retardation or developmental disabilities living in the community 127443
or to providers of services to these persons. The Department may 127444
develop a method for recovery of all costs associated with the 127445
provision of these services.127446

       Section 259.160. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 127447
PHARMACY PROGRAMS127448

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 127449
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 127450
Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used 127451
by the Department of Medicaid, in an amount equal to the 127452
nonfederal share of Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all 127453
developmental centers paid by the Department of Medicaid. The 127454
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 127455
voucher.127456

       Section 259.170. NONFEDERAL MATCH FOR ACTIVE TREATMENT 127457
SERVICES127458

        Any county funds received by the Department of Developmental 127459
Disabilities from county boards of developmental disabilities for 127460
active treatment shall be deposited in the Developmental 127461
Disabilities Operating Fund (Fund 4890).127462

       Section 259.180. ODODD INNOVATIVE PILOT PROJECTS127463

       (A) In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of 127464
Developmental Disabilities may authorize the continuation or 127465
implementation of one or more innovative pilot projects that, in 127466
the judgment of the Director, are likely to assist in promoting 127467
the objectives of Chapter 5123. or 5126. of the Revised Code. 127468
Subject to division (B) of this section and notwithstanding any 127469
provision of Chapters 5123. and 5126. of the Revised Code and any 127470
rule adopted under either chapter, a pilot project authorized by 127471
the Director may be continued or implemented in a manner 127472
inconsistent with one or more provisions of either chapter or one 127473
or more rules adopted under either chapter. Before authorizing a 127474
pilot program, the Director shall consult with entities interested 127475
in the issue of developmental disabilities, including the Ohio 127476
Provider Resource Association, Ohio Association of County Boards 127477
of Developmental Disabilities, Ohio Health Care Association/Ohio 127478
Centers for Intellectual Disabilities, and ARC of Ohio.127479

       (B) The Director may not authorize a pilot project to be 127480
implemented in a manner that would cause the state to be out of 127481
compliance with any requirements for a program funded in whole or 127482
in part with federal funds.127483

       Section 259.190. DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES' 127484
APPROPRIATION ITEM STRUCTURE127485

       Upon request from the Director of Developmental Disabilities, 127486
the Director of Budget and Management may establish new funds, new 127487
appropriation items, and appropriations in order to support the 127488
transition to a new appropriation item structure in the Department 127489
of Developmental Disabilities' budget. Also, upon request of the 127490
Director of Developmental Disabilities, the Director of Budget and 127491
Management may transfer appropriations between GRF appropriation 127492
items, transfer cash between any funds used by the Department of 127493
Developmental Disabilities, abolish existing funds used by the 127494
Department of Developmental Disabilities, and cancel and 127495
reestablish encumbrances. Any establishment of new funds or 127496
appropriation items, any transfers of appropriations or cash, and 127497
any increases in appropriation under this section are subject to 127498
Controlling Board approval.127499

       Section 259.200.  FISCAL YEAR 2014 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 127500
ICFs/MR127501

       (A) As used in this section:127502

       "Capped per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 127503
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (D) of this section.127504

       "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 127505
operator," "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," "Medicaid days," 127506
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 127507
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127508

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 127509
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.127510

       "Modified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 127511
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (C) of this section.127512

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 127513
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under Chapter 5124. of the Revised 127514
Code.127515

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/MR provider to which 127516
either of the following applies:127517

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 127518
the ICF/MR on June 30, 2013, and a valid Medicaid provider 127519
agreement for the ICF/MR during fiscal year 2014.127520

       (2) The ICF/MR undergoes a change of operator that takes 127521
effect during fiscal year 2014, the exiting operator has a valid 127522
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/MR on the day immediately 127523
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 127524
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 127525
ICF/MR during fiscal year 2014.127526

       (C) An ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate for fiscal year 127527
2014 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 127528
fiscal year with the following modifications: 127529

       (1) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 127530
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, 127531
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 127532
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2012 shall be multiplied 127533
by 1.0123. 127534

       (2) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 127535
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 127536
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's maximum costs 127537
per case-mix unit shall be the following:127538

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 127539
$108.21;127540

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 127541
$102.21.127542

       (3) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 127543
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 127544
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 127545
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.127546

       (4) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 127547
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 127548
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 127549
care costs for the ICF/MR's peer group shall be the following:127550

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 127551
$68.98;127552

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 127553
$59.60.127554

       (5) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 127555
under division (D)(1) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code for 127556
the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an inflation 127557
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.127558

       (6) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 127559
under division (B)(2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the 127560
ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs shall be the 127561
following:127562

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 127563
$3.69;127564

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, $3.19. 127565

       (7) The ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 127566
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 127567
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.127568

       (D) An ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate for fiscal year 127569
2014 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 127570
fiscal year reduced by the percentage by which the mean total 127571
unmodified per diem rates for all ICFs/MR in this state for fiscal 127572
year 2014, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and calculated as of 127573
July 1, 2013, exceeds $282.84.127574

       (E) Except as otherwise provided by this section, an ICF/MR 127575
provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for ICF/MR 127576
services the ICF/MR provides during fiscal year 2014, a total per 127577
diem rate determined as follows:127578

       (1) Add the ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate to the 127579
ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate;127580

       (2) Divide the amount determined under division (E)(1) of 127581
this section by two.127582

       (F) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/MR to which 127583
this section applies, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and 127584
determined under division (E) of this section as of July 1, 2013, 127585
is other than $282.84, the Department of Developmental 127586
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2014, the total per 127587
diem rate for each ICF/MR to which this section applies by a 127588
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 127589
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.84.127590

       (G) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 127591
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 127592
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 127593
reduce the amount it pays ICF/MR providers under this section as 127594
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 127595
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 127596
permit fee.127597

       (H) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 127598
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/MR providers 127599
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 127600
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.127601

       Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 127602
Services, 653606, ICF/MR and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/MR, 127603
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 127604
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/MR services 127605
provided during fiscal year 2014. 127606

       Section 259.210. FISCAL YEAR 2015 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 127607
ICFs/MR127608

       (A) As used in this section:127609

       "Capped per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 127610
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (D) of this section.127611

        "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 127612
operator," "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," "Medicaid days," 127613
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 127614
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127615

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 127616
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.127617

       "Modified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 127618
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (C) of this section.127619

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 127620
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under Chapter 5124. of the Revised 127621
Code.127622

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/MR provider to which 127623
either of the following applies:127624

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 127625
the ICF/MR on June 30, 2014, and a valid Medicaid provider 127626
agreement for the ICF/MR during fiscal year 2015.127627

       (2) The ICF/MR undergoes a change of operator that takes 127628
effect during fiscal year 2015, the exiting operator has a valid 127629
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/MR on the day immediately 127630
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 127631
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 127632
ICF/MR during fiscal year 2015.127633

       (C) An ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate for fiscal year 127634
2015 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 127635
fiscal year with the following modifications: 127636

       (1) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 127637
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, 127638
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 127639
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2013 shall be multiplied 127640
by 1.0123. 127641

       (2) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 127642
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 127643
section 5124.19 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's maximum costs 127644
per case-mix unit shall be the following:127645

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 127646
$108.21;127647

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 127648
$102.21.127649

       (3) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 127650
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 127651
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 127652
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.127653

       (4) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 127654
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 127655
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 127656
care costs for the ICF/MR's peer group shall be the following:127657

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 127658
$68.98;127659

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 127660
$59.60. 127661

       (5) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 127662
under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 127663
Code for the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an 127664
inflation adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.127665

       (6) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 127666
under division (B)(2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the 127667
ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs shall be the 127668
following:127669

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 127670
$3.69;127671

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, $3.19.127672

       (7) The ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 127673
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 127674
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.127675

       (D) An ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate for fiscal year 127676
2015 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 127677
fiscal year reduced by the percentage by which the mean total 127678
unmodified per diem rates for all ICFs/MR in this state for fiscal 127679
year 2015, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and calculated as of 127680
July 1, 2014, exceeds $282.77.127681

       (E) Except as otherwise provided by this section, an ICF/MR 127682
provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for ICF/MR 127683
services the ICF/MR provides during fiscal year 2015, a total per 127684
diem rate determined as follows:127685

       (1) Add the ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate to the 127686
ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate;127687

       (2) Divide the amount determined under division (E)(1) of 127688
this section by two.127689

       (F) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/MR to which 127690
this section applies, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and 127691
determined under division (E) of this section as of July 1, 2014, 127692
is other than $282.77, the Department of Developmental 127693
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2015, the total per 127694
diem rate for each ICF/MR to which this section applies by a 127695
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 127696
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.77.127697

       (G) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 127698
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 127699
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 127700
reduce the amount it pays ICF/MR providers under this section as 127701
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 127702
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 127703
permit fee.127704

       (H) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 127705
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/MR providers 127706
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 127707
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.127708

       Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 127709
Services, 653606, ICF/MR and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/MR, 127710
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 127711
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/MR services 127712
provided during fiscal year 2015.127713

       Section 259.220. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR OUTLIER SERVICES 127714
PROVIDED TO PEDIATRIC VENTILATOR-DEPENDENT ICF/MR RESIDENTS127715

       As used in this section, "ICF/MR" and "ICF/MR services" have 127716
the same meanings as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127717

       Each quarter during fiscal year 2015, the Director of 127718
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 127719
and Management the amount needed to pay the nonfederal share of 127720
the costs of the Medicaid rate add-on paid to ICFs/MR pursuant to 127721
section 5124.25 of the Revised Code for providing outlier ICF/MR 127722
services to residents who qualify for the services and are 127723
transferred to ICFs/MR from hospitals at which they receive 127724
ventilator services at the time of their transfer to the ICFs/MR.127725

       On receipt of a certification, the Director of Budget and 127726
Management shall transfer appropriations equaling the certified 127727
amount from appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 127728
Services, to appropriation item 653407, Medicaid Services, and, in 127729
addition, shall reduce the appropriation in 651525, 127730
Medicaid/Health Care Services, by the corresponding federal share.127731

       If receipts credited to the Developmental Center and 127732
Residential Facility Services and Support Fund (Fund 3A40), used 127733
by the Department of Developmental Disabilities, exceed the 127734
amounts appropriated in appropriation item 653653, ICF/MR, the 127735
Director of Developmental Disabilities may request the Director of 127736
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 127737
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director 127738
of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 127739
appropriated.127740

       Section 259.230. ICF/MR MEDICAID RATE WORKGROUP127741

       As used in this section, "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," and 127742
"Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in section 127743
5124.01 of the Revised Code.127744

       For the purpose of assisting the Department of Developmental 127745
Disabilities during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 with an 127746
evaluation of revisions to the formula used to determine Medicaid 127747
payment rates for ICF/MR services, the Department shall retain the 127748
workgroup that was created to assist with the study required by 127749
Section 309.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 127750
Assembly. In conducting the evaluation, the Department and 127751
workgroup shall do both of the following:127752

       (A) Focus primarily on the service needs of individuals with 127753
complex challenges that ICFs/MR are able to meet;127754

       (B) Pursue the goal of reducing the Medicaid-certified 127755
capacity of individual ICFs/MR and the total number of ICF/MR beds 127756
in the state for the purpose of increasing the service choices and 127757
community integration of individuals eligible for ICF/MR services.127758

       Section 259.240. NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/MR SERVICES127759

       (A) As used in this section, "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," and 127760
"Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in section 127761
5124.01 of the Revised Code.127762

       (B) The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall pay the 127763
nonfederal share of a claim for ICF/MR services using funds 127764
specified in division (C) of this section if all of the following 127765
apply:127766

       (1) Medicaid covers the ICF/MR services.127767

       (2) The ICF/MR services are provided to a Medicaid recipient 127768
to whom both of the following apply:127769

       (a) The Medicaid recipient is eligible for the ICF/MR 127770
services;127771

       (b) The Medicaid recipient does not occupy a bed in the 127772
ICF/MR that used to be included in the Medicaid-certified capacity 127773
of another ICF/MR certified by the Director of Health before June 127774
1, 2003.127775

       (3) The ICF/MR services are provided by an ICF/MR whose 127776
Medicaid certification by the Director of Health was initiated or 127777
supported by a county board of developmental disabilities.127778

       (4) The provider of the ICF/MR services has a valid Medicaid 127779
provider agreement for the services for the time that the services 127780
are provided.127781

       (C) When required by division (B) of this section to pay the 127782
nonfederal share of a claim, the Director of Developmental 127783
Disabilities shall use the following funds to pay the claim:127784

       (1) Funds available from appropriation item 322501, County 127785
Boards Subsidies, that the Director allocates to the county board 127786
that initiated or supported the Medicaid certification of the 127787
ICF/MR that provided the ICF/MR services for which the claim is 127788
made;127789

       (2) If the amount of funds used pursuant to division (C)(1) 127790
of this section is insufficient to pay the claim in full, an 127791
amount of funds that are needed to make up the difference and 127792
available from amounts the Director allocates to other county 127793
boards from appropriation item 322501, County Boards Subsidies.127794

       Section 259.250. FY 2014 AND FY 2015 RATES FOR CERTAIN 127795
HOMEMAKER/PERSONAL CARE SERVICES UNDER IO WAIVER127796

       (A) As used in this section:127797

       "Converted facility" means an ICF/MR, or former ICF/MR, that 127798
converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 127799
community-based services under the IO Waiver pursuant to section 127800
5124.60 of the Revised Code.127801

       "Developmental center" and "ICF/MR" have the same meanings as 127802
in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127803

       "H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate" means the total 127804
Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 127805
homemaker/personal care services that was set by Section 263.20.70 127806
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 127807
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.127808

       "IO Waiver" means the Medicaid waiver component, as defined 127809
in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code, known as Individual 127810
Options.127811

       "Public hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5122.01 127812
of the Revised Code.127813

       "Regular Medicaid payment rate" means the total Medicaid 127814
payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 127815
homemaker/personal care services that are available under the IO 127816
Waiver and to which this section does not apply.127817

       (B) This section applies to routine homemaker/personal care 127818
services to which both of the following apply:127819

       (1) The services are provided to an IO Waiver enrollee to 127820
whom all of the following apply:127821

       (a) The enrollee began to receive the services from the 127822
provider on or after July 1, 2011.127823

       (b) The enrollee resided in a developmental center, converted 127824
facility, or public hospital immediately before enrolling in the 127825
IO Wavier.127826

       (c) The Director of Developmental Disabilities has determined 127827
that the enrollee's special circumstances (including the 127828
enrollee's diagnosis, service needs, or length of stay at the 127829
developmental center, converted facility, or public hospital) 127830
warrants paying the Medicaid payment rate authorized by this 127831
section.127832

       (2) The provider of the services has a valid Medicaid 127833
provider agreement for the services for the period during which 127834
the enrollee receives the services from the provider.127835

       (C) The total Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes 127836
of routine homemaker/personal care services to which this section 127837
applies and that are provided during the period beginning July 1, 127838
2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be the greater of the 127839
following:127840

       (1) The H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate;127841

       (2) The regular Medicaid payment rate in effect at the time 127842
the services are provided.127843

       (D) Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 127844
Services, and 653639, Medicaid Waiver Services, portions shall be 127845
used to pay the Medicaid payment rates determined in accordance 127846
with this section for certain homemaker/personal care services 127847
under the IO Waiver.127848

       Section 259.260. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS127849

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 127850
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 127851
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 127852
authorizes the adoption of a rule.127853

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities is not required to 127854
amend any rule for the sole purpose of updating the citation in 127855
the Ohio Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to 127856
reflect that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or 127857
relocates it to another Revised Code section. Such citations shall 127858
be updated as the Director amends the rules for other purposes.127859

       Section 259.270. REASON FOR THE REPEAL OF R.C. 5111.236127860

       This act repeals section 5111.236 of the Revised Code to 127861
carry out the intent of the Governor as indicated in the veto 127862
message regarding Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly 127863
transmitted to the Clerk of the House of Representatives on July 127864
17, 2009. The actual veto removed the section from the title and 127865
enacting clause of H.B. 1 and an earmark related to the section. 127866
However, the actual veto inadvertently showed only division (C) of 127867
the section, rather than the entire section, as being vetoed.127868

       Section 261.10. OBD OHIO BOARD OF DIETETICS127869

General Services Fund Group127870

4K90 860609 Operating Expenses $ 330,592 $ 342,592 127871
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 127872
Group $ 330,592 $ 342,592 127873
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 330,592 $ 342,592 127874


       Section 263.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION127876

General Revenue Fund127877

GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 13,142,780 $ 13,142,780 127878
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 23,268,341 $ 25,268,341 127879
GRF 200420 Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 127880
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 127881
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 127882
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 127883
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 127884
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 29,625,569 $ 19,625,569 127885
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 3,800,000 $ 3,800,000 127886
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,895,000 $ 75,895,000 127887
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,500,000 $ 3,750,000 127888
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 127889
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 127890
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 127891
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 850,000 $ 850,000 127892
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,438,685 $ 2,491,395 127893
GRF 200464 General Technology Operations $ 192,097 $ 192,097 127894
GRF 200465 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 1,778,879 $ 1,778,879 127895
GRF 200468 Ready to Learn $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 127896
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 505,013,527 $ 518,513,527 127897
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 127898
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 130,547,795 $ 134,881,982 127899
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 58,973,586 $ 60,931,509 127900
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 156,871,292 $ 157,871,292 127901
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 9,072,999 $ 9,072,999 127902
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,810,807,929 $ 6,004,142,692 127903
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,138,800,000 $ 1,184,352,000 127904
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,982,452,634 $ 8,254,434,217 127905

General Services Fund Group127906

1380 200606 Information Technology Development and Support $ 6,850,090 $ 6,850,090 127907
4520 200638 Fees and Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 127908
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,313,762 $ 13,658,274 127909
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 127910
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 127911
5KX0 200691 Ohio School Sponsorship Program $ 487,419 $ 487,419 127912
5KY0 200693 Community Schools Temporary Sponsorship $ 83,000 $ 83,000 127913
TOTAL GSF General Services 127914
Fund Group $ 41,764,032 $ 47,108,544 127915

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group127916

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 127917
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 8,200,664 $ 8,700,149 127918
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,530,000 $ 1,530,000 127919
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 750,000 $ 750,000 127920
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 127921
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 1,250,000 $ 0 127922
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 127923
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive $ 15,125,588 $ 15,183,285 127924
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 127925
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 1,300,000 $ 0 127926
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 127927
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 2,600,000 $ 2,600,000 127928
3EK0 200637 Advanced Placement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 127929
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 1,250,000 $ 0 127930
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 136,000,000 $ 58,074,046 127931
3FN0 200672 Early Learning Challenge - Race to the Top $ 7,040,000 $ 7,040,000 127932
3GE0 200674 Summer Food Service Program $ 13,596,000 $ 14,003,800 127933
3GF0 200675 Miscellaneous Nutrition Grants $ 700,000 $ 700,000 127934
3GG0 200676 Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program $ 4,738,000 $ 4,880,140 127935
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 127936
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 350,608,075 $ 361,126,273 127937
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 108,480,590 $ 112,819,813 127938
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 106,992,650 $ 110,202,428 127939
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 44,663,900 $ 44,663,900 127940
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 560,000,000 $ 560,000,000 127941
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 127942
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 500,000 $ 0 127943
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 48,201,810 $ 50,611,900 127944
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 127945
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 127946
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 127947
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,800,000 $ 11,800,000 127948
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 7,949,280 $ 7,949,280 127949
TOTAL FED Federal Special 127950
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,038,044,998 $ 1,977,403,455 127951

State Special Revenue Fund Group127952

4540 200610 GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 250,000 127953
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 127954
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,600,000 $ 6,600,000 127955
4V70 200633 Interagency Program Support $ 717,725 $ 717,725 127956
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 127957
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 19,000,000 $ 20,000,000 127958
5MM0 200677 Child Nutrition Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 127959
5T30 200668 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 153,000 127960
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 127961
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 300,000 $ 300,000 127962
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 127963
Fund Group $ 53,996,635 $ 54,149,635 127964

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group127965

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 775,000,000 $ 850,000,000 127966
7017 200648 Straight A Fund $ 50,000,000 $ 100,000,000 127967
7017 200666 EdChoice Expansion $ 8,500,000 $ 17,000,000 127968
7017 200684 Community School Facilities $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 127969
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 127970
Education Fund Group $ 841,000,000 $ 974,500,000 127971

Revenue Distribution Fund Group127972

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 482,000,000 $ 482,000,000 127973
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 28,000,000 $ 28,000,000 127974
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 127975
Fund Group $ 510,000,000 $ 510,000,000 127976
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,467,258,299 $ 11,817,595,851 127977


       Section 263.20. OPERATING EXPENSES127979

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 200321, 127980
Operating Expenses, shall be used by the Department of Education 127981
to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321. 127982

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION127983

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 127984
appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood Education, to pay the 127985
costs of early childhood education programs. 127986

       (A) As used in this section:127987

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 127988
joint vocational school district, or an educational service 127989
center.127990

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 127991
district, "new eligible provider" means a district that did not 127992
receive state funding for Early Childhood Education in the 127993
previous fiscal year or demonstrates a need for early childhood 127994
programs as defined in division (D) of this section.127995

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 127996
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 127997
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 127998
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 127999
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 128000
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 128001
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 128002
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.128003

       (4) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 128004
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 128005
to assess the operation of early learning programs.128006

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 128007
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 128008
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 128009
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 128010
eligible children.128011

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 128012
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 128013
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 128014
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 128015
under this section and the early learning program standards.128016

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 128017
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2014, the Department 128018
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 128019
childhood education programs under Section 267.10.10 of Am. Sub. 128020
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. 128021
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly, in the previous fiscal 128022
year and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 128023
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 128024
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 128025
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 128026
innovation.128027

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 128028
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2015, the Department shall 128029
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 128030
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 128031
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 128032
serve more eligible children as outlined under division (E) of 128033
this section or for purposes of program expansion, improvement, or 128034
special projects to promote quality and innovation.128035

       (E) The Department shall distribute any new or remaining 128036
funding to existing providers of early childhood education 128037
programs or any new eligible providers in an effort to invest in 128038
high quality early childhood programs where there is a need as 128039
determined by the Department. The Department shall distribute the 128040
new or remaining funds to existing providers of early childhood 128041
education programs or any new eligible providers to serve 128042
additional eligible children based on community economic 128043
disadvantage, limited access to high quality preschool or 128044
childcare services, and demonstration of high quality preschool 128045
services as determined by the Department using new metrics 128046
developed pursuant to Ohio's Race to the Top—Early Learning 128047
Challenge Grant, awarded to the Department in December 2011.128048

        Awards under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall be 128049
distributed on a per-pupil basis, and in accordance with division 128050
(I) of this section. The Department may adjust the per-pupil 128051
amount so that the per-pupil amount multiplied by the number of 128052
eligible children enrolled and receiving services on the first day 128053
of December or the business day closest to that date equals the 128054
amount allocated under this section.128055

       (F) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 128056
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 128057
approved costs of the program.128058

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 128059
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 128060
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 128061
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 128062
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 128063
provided in the program unless, as described in division (K) of 128064
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 128065
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 128066
meet financial or early learning program standards. The approved 128067
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 128068
purposes specified.128069

       (G) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 128070
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 128071
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 128072
financial standards outlined under division (F) of this section, 128073
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 128074
program standards, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 128075
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 128076
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 128077
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 128078
standards, the early childhood education program shall propose and 128079
implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by the 128080
Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be signed by 128081
the chief executive officer and the executive of the official 128082
governing body of the provider. The corrective action plan shall 128083
include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. Such 128084
monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a timeline 128085
for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance to be 128086
provided by the Department or obtained by the early childhood 128087
education program. The Department may withhold funding pending 128088
corrective action. If an early childhood education program fails 128089
to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 128090
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 128091
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 128092
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 128093
Department.128094

       (H) Each early childhood education program shall do all of 128095
the following:128096

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 128097
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;128098

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 128099
developed by the Department;128100

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 128101
prescribed by the Department;128102

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 128103
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 128104
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 128105
professional development as prescribed by the Department;128106

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 128107
Department;128108

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 128109
program standards as prescribed by the Department;128110

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 128111
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 128112
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 128113
system.128114

       (I) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 128115
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 128116
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 128117
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 128118
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 128119
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 128120
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 128121
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 128122
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 128123
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 128124
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 128125
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 128126
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 128127
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 128128
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 128129
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 128130
for less time than the standard early childhood education 128131
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 128132
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 128133
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 128134
schedule.128135

       (J) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 128136
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 128137
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 128138
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 128139
early childhood education program.128140

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 128141
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 128142
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 128143
family income levels, and the number of families and students 128144
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.128145

       (K) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 128146
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 128147
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 128148
standards, the provider shall transfer control of title to 128149
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 128150
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 128151
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 128152
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 128153
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 128154
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 128155
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 128156
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 128157
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 128158
process established by the Department.128159

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 128160
Program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 128161
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 128162
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 128163
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 128164
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 128165
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.128166

       Section 263.30.  INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT AND 128167
SUPPORT128168

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, Information 128169
Technology Development and Support, shall be used to support the 128170
development and implementation of information technology solutions 128171
designed to improve the performance and services of the Department 128172
of Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 128173
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 128174
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 128175
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 128176
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 128177
public, including school districts, administrators, and 128178
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 128179
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 128180
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 128181
schools through web-based applications.128182

       Section 263.40. ALTERNATIVE EDUCATION PROGRAMS128183

       The foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 128184
Education Programs, shall be used for the renewal of successful 128185
implementation grants and for competitive matching grants to 128186
school districts for alternative educational programs for existing 128187
and new at-risk and delinquent youth. Programs shall be focused on 128188
youth in one or more of the following categories: those who have 128189
been expelled or suspended, those who have dropped out of school 128190
or who are at risk of dropping out of school, those who are 128191
habitually truant or disruptive, or those on probation or on 128192
parole from a Department of Youth Services facility. Grants shall 128193
be awarded only to programs in which the grant will not serve as 128194
the program's primary source of funding. These grants shall be 128195
administered by the Department of Education.128196

       The Department of Education may waive compliance with any 128197
minimum education standard established under section 3301.07 of 128198
the Revised Code for any alternative school that receives a grant 128199
under this section on the grounds that the waiver will enable the 128200
program to more effectively educate students enrolled in the 128201
alternative school.128202

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 128203
Education Programs, a portion may be used for program 128204
administration, monitoring, technical assistance, support, 128205
research, and evaluation.128206

       Section 263.50. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE128207

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 128208
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 128209
Auditor of State in consultation with the Department of Education 128210
for expenses incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to 128211
fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as 128212
defined in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code, unless an amount 128213
less than $1,000,000 is needed and mutually agreed to by the 128214
Department and the Auditor of State. This set-aside may also be 128215
used by the Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of 128216
other school districts with priority given to districts in fiscal 128217
distress. Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the 128218
Auditor of State and shall include districts that the Auditor of 128219
State, in consultation with the Department of Education, 128220
determines are employing fiscal practices or experiencing 128221
budgetary conditions that could produce a state of fiscal watch or 128222
fiscal emergency.128223

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 128224
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 128225
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 128226
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 128227
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 128228
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.128229

       Section 263.60. POLICY ANALYSIS128230

       The foregoing appropriation item 200424, Policy Analysis, 128231
shall be used by the Department of Education to support a system 128232
of administrative, statistical, and legislative education 128233
information to be used for policy analysis. Staff supported by 128234
this appropriation shall administer the development of reports, 128235
analyses, and briefings to inform education policymakers of 128236
current trends in education practice, efficient and effective use 128237
of resources, and evaluation of programs to improve education 128238
results. The database shall be kept current at all times. These 128239
research efforts shall be used to supply information and analysis 128240
of data to the General Assembly and other state policymakers, 128241
including the Office of Budget and Management, the Governor's 128242
Office of 21st Century Education, and the Legislative Service 128243
Commission.128244

       The Department of Education may use funding from this 128245
appropriation item to purchase or contract for the development of 128246
software systems or contract for policy studies that will assist 128247
in the provision and analysis of policy-related information. 128248
Funding from this appropriation item also may be used to monitor 128249
and enhance quality assurance for research-based policy analysis 128250
and program evaluation to enhance the effective use of education 128251
information to inform education policymakers.128252

       TECH PREP CONSORTIA SUPPORT128253

       The foregoing appropriation item 200425, Tech Prep Consortia 128254
Support, shall be used by the Department of Education to support 128255
state-level activities designed to support, promote, and expand 128256
tech prep programs. Use of these funds shall include, but not be 128257
limited to, administration of grants, program evaluation, 128258
professional development, curriculum development, assessment 128259
development, program promotion, communications, and statewide 128260
coordination of tech prep consortia.128261

       Section 263.70. OHIO EDUCATIONAL COMPUTER NETWORK128262

       The foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 128263
Computer Network, shall be used by the Department of Education to 128264
maintain a system of information technology throughout Ohio and to 128265
provide technical assistance for such a system in support of the 128266
P-16 State Education Technology Plan developed under section 128267
3353.09 of the Revised Code.128268

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 128269
Computer Network, up to $10,705,569 in each fiscal year shall be 128270
used by the Department of Education to support connection of all 128271
public school buildings and participating chartered nonpublic 128272
schools to the state's education network, to each other, and to 128273
the Internet. In each fiscal year the Department of Education 128274
shall use these funds to assist information technology centers or 128275
school districts with the operational costs associated with this 128276
connectivity. The Department of Education shall develop a formula 128277
and guidelines for the distribution of these funds to information 128278
technology centers or individual school districts. As used in this 128279
section, "public school building" means a school building of any 128280
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 128281
district, any community school established under Chapter 3314. of 128282
the Revised Code, any college preparatory boarding school 128283
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, any STEM 128284
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, any 128285
educational service center building used for instructional 128286
purposes, the Ohio School for the Deaf and the Ohio School for the 128287
Blind, high schools chartered by the Ohio Department of Youth 128288
Services, or high schools operated by Ohio Department of 128289
Rehabilitation and Corrections' Ohio Central School System.128290

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 128291
Computer Network, up to $2,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 128292
used for the Union Catalog and InfOhio Network and to support the 128293
provision of electronic resources with priority given to resources 128294
that support the teaching of state academic content standards in 128295
all public schools. Consideration shall be given by the Department 128296
of Education to coordinating the allocation of these moneys with 128297
the efforts of Libraries Connect Ohio, whose members include 128298
OhioLINK, the Ohio Public Information Network, and the State 128299
Library of Ohio.128300

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 128301
Computer Network, up to $5,220,000 in each fiscal year shall be 128302
used, through a formula and guidelines devised by the Department, 128303
to subsidize the activities of designated information technology 128304
centers, as defined by State Board of Education rules, to provide 128305
school districts and chartered nonpublic schools with 128306
computer-based student and teacher instructional and 128307
administrative information services, including approved 128308
computerized financial accounting, and to ensure the effective 128309
operation of local automated administrative and instructional 128310
systems.128311

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 128312
Computer Network, up to $10,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 128313
used for middle mile connections for the information technology 128314
centers established under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and 128315
select large urban districts to connect to the state broadband 128316
backbone managed by the Ohio Technology Consortium and for other 128317
connectivity upgrades necessary for K-12 school buildings with 128318
severely restricted broadband connections. The Department of 128319
Education shall develop an expenditure plan aligned with the 128320
capacity and timeline requirements of the achievement assessments 128321
developed by the Partnership for Assessment of Readiness for 128322
College and Careers and other instructional technology/blended 128323
learning initiatives. The State Chief Information Officer and the 128324
Education Technology Division of the Ohio Board of Regents shall 128325
review the plan to ensure it coincides with State of Ohio and 128326
higher education network strategies and shall either approve or 128327
reject the plan. If the plan is rejected, the State Chief 128328
Information Officer and the Education Technology Division of the 128329
Ohio Board of Regents shall identify deficiencies in the plan and 128330
work with the Department to complete an acceptable plan. "Select 128331
large urban districts" are those districts that connect to the 128332
state broadband backbone directly rather than through an 128333
information technology center. At the request of the 128334
Superintendent of Public Instruction, the Director of Budget and 128335
Management may authorize the expenditure in fiscal year 2015 of 128336
any unexpended and unencumbered portion of this set-aside at the 128337
end of fiscal year 2014. The authorized expenditure is hereby 128338
reappropriated to the Department for the same purpose for fiscal 128339
year 2015.128340

       The remainder of appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 128341
Computer Network, shall be used to support the work of the 128342
development, maintenance, and operation of a network of uniform 128343
and compatible computer-based information and instructional 128344
systems as well as the teacher student linkage/roster verification 128345
process and the eTranscript/student records exchange initiative. 128346
This technical assistance shall include, but not be restricted to, 128347
development and maintenance of adequate computer software systems 128348
to support network activities. In order to improve the efficiency 128349
of network activities, the Department and information technology 128350
centers may jointly purchase equipment, materials, and services 128351
from funds provided under this appropriation for use by the 128352
network and, when considered practical by the Department, may 128353
utilize the services of appropriate state purchasing agencies.128354

       Section 263.80. ACADEMIC STANDARDS128355

       The foregoing appropriation item 200427, Academic Standards, 128356
shall be used by the Department of Education to develop, revise, 128357
and communicate to school districts academic content standards and 128358
curriculum models and to develop professional development programs 128359
and other tools on the new content standards and model curriculum.128360

       Section 263.90. STUDENT ASSESSMENT128361

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200437, Student 128362
Assessment, up to $95,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 128363
support the assessments required under section 3301.0715 of the 128364
Revised Code.128365

       The remainder of appropriation item 200437, Student 128366
Assessment, shall be used to develop, field test, print, 128367
distribute, score, report results, and support other associated 128368
costs for the tests required under sections 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 128369
and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code and for similar purposes as 128370
required by section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. The funds may 128371
also be used to update and develop diagnostic assessments required 128372
under sections 3301.079, 3301.0715, and 3313.608 of the Revised 128373
Code.128374

       DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION APPROPRIATION TRANSFERS FOR STUDENT 128375
ASSESSMENT128376

       In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if the 128377
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines that additional 128378
funds are needed to fully fund the requirements of sections 128379
3301.0710, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, and 3301.27 of the Revised Code 128380
and this act for assessments of student performance, the 128381
Superintendent of Public Instruction may recommend the 128382
reallocation of unexpended and unencumbered General Revenue Fund 128383
appropriations within the Department of Education to appropriation 128384
item 200437, Student Assessment, to the Director of Budget and 128385
Management. If the Director of Budget and Management determines 128386
that such a reallocation is required, the Director of Budget and 128387
Management may transfer unexpended and unencumbered appropriations 128388
within the Department of Education as necessary to appropriation 128389
item 200437, Student Assessment. If these transferred 128390
appropriations are not sufficient to fully fund the assessment 128391
requirements in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015, the 128392
Superintendent of Public Instruction may request that the 128393
Controlling Board transfer up to $9,000,000 cash from the Lottery 128394
Profits Education Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) to the General Revenue 128395
Fund. Upon approval of the Controlling Board, the Director of 128396
Budget and Management shall transfer the cash. These transferred 128397
funds are hereby appropriated for the same purpose as 128398
appropriation item 200437, Student Assessment.128399

       Section 263.100.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 128400
sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, in the 128401
2013-2014 school year, the Department of Education shall not 128402
furnish, and school districts and schools shall not administer, 128403
the elementary writing and social studies achievement assessments 128404
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, unless the 128405
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines the Department has 128406
sufficient funds to pay the costs of furnishing and scoring those 128407
assessments.128408

       Section 263.110. ACCOUNTABILITY/REPORT CARDS128409

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200439, 128410
Accountability/Report Cards, a portion in each fiscal year may be 128411
used to train district and regional specialists and district 128412
educators in the use of the value-added progress dimension and in 128413
the use of data as it relates to improving student achievement. 128414
This training may include teacher and administrator professional 128415
development in the use of data to improve instruction and student 128416
learning, and teacher and administrator training in understanding 128417
teacher value-added reports and how they can be used as a 128418
component in measuring teacher and administrator effectiveness. A 128419
portion of this funding may be provided to a credible nonprofit 128420
organization with expertise in value-added progress dimensions.128421

       The remainder of appropriation item 200439, 128422
Accountability/Report Cards, shall be used by the Department to 128423
incorporate a statewide value-added progress dimension into 128424
performance ratings for school districts and for the development 128425
of an accountability system that includes the preparation and 128426
distribution of school report cards, funding and expenditure 128427
accountability reports under sections 3302.03 and 3302.031 of the 128428
Revised Code, and the development and maintenance of teacher 128429
value-added reports.128430

       CHILD CARE LICENSING128431

       The foregoing appropriation item 200442, Child Care 128432
Licensing, shall be used by the Department of Education to license 128433
and to inspect preschool and school-age child care programs under 128434
sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code.128435

       Section 263.120. EDUCATION MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM128436

       The foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education Management 128437
Information System, shall be used by the Department of Education 128438
to improve the Education Management Information System (EMIS).128439

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education 128440
Management Information System, up to $729,000 in each fiscal year 128441
shall be distributed to designated information technology centers 128442
for costs relating to processing, storing, and transferring data 128443
for the effective operation of the EMIS. These costs may include, 128444
but are not limited to, personnel, hardware, software development, 128445
communications connectivity, professional development, and support 128446
services, and to provide services to participate in the State 128447
Education Technology Plan developed under section 3353.09 of the 128448
Revised Code.128449

       The remainder of appropriation item 200446, Education 128450
Management Information System, shall be used to develop and 128451
support a common core of data definitions and standards as adopted 128452
by the Education Management Information System Advisory Board, 128453
including the ongoing development and maintenance of the data 128454
dictionary and data warehouse. In addition, such funds shall be 128455
used to support the development and implementation of data 128456
standards; the design, development, and implementation of a new 128457
data exchange system; and responsibilities related to the school 128458
report cards prescribed by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and 128459
value-added progress dimension calculations.128460

       Any provider of software meeting the standards approved by 128461
the Education Management Information System Advisory Board shall 128462
be designated as an approved vendor and may enter into contracts 128463
with local school districts, community schools, STEMS schools, 128464
information technology centers, or other educational entities for 128465
the purpose of collecting and managing data required under Ohio's 128466
education management information system (EMIS) laws. On an annual 128467
basis, the Department of Education shall convene an advisory group 128468
of school districts, community schools, and other 128469
education-related entities to review the Education Management 128470
Information System data definitions and data format standards. The 128471
advisory group shall recommend changes and enhancements based upon 128472
surveys of its members, education agencies in other states, and 128473
current industry practices, to reflect best practices, align with 128474
federal initiatives, and meet the needs of school districts.128475

       School districts, STEM schools, and community schools not 128476
implementing a common and uniform set of data definitions and data 128477
format standards for Education Management Information System 128478
purposes shall have all EMIS funding withheld until they are in 128479
compliance.128480

       Section 263.130. GED TESTING128481

       The foregoing appropriation item 200447, GED Testing, shall 128482
be used to provide General Educational Development (GED) testing 128483
under rules adopted by the State Board of Education.128484

       Section 263.140. EDUCATOR PREPARATION128485

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 128486
Preparation, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 128487
Department of Education to monitor and support Ohio's State System 128488
of Support in accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 128489
2011," 20 U.S.C. 6317, as administered pursuant to the Elementary 128490
and Secondary Education Act flexibility waivers approved for Ohio 128491
by the United States Department of Education.128492

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 128493
Preparation, up to $100,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 128494
Department to support the Educator Standards Board under section 128495
3319.61 of the Revised Code and reforms under sections 3302.042, 128496
3302.06 through 3302.068, 3302.12, 3302.20 through 3302.22, and 128497
3319.58 of the Revised Code.128498

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, 128499
Educator Preparation, in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 128500
implementation of teacher and principal evaluation systems, 128501
including incorporation of student growth as a metric in those 128502
systems, and teacher value-added reports.128503

       Section 263.150. COMMUNITY SCHOOLS AND CHOICE PROGRAMS128504

       The foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 128505
and Choice Programs, may be used by the Department of Education 128506
for additional services and responsibilities under section 3314.11 128507
of the Revised Code and for operation of the school choice 128508
programs.128509

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 128510
and Choice Programs, a portion in each fiscal year may be used by 128511
the Department of Education for developing and conducting training 128512
sessions for community schools and sponsors and prospective 128513
sponsors of community schools as prescribed in division (A)(1) of 128514
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code, and other schools 128515
participating in school choice programs.128516

       Section 263.160.  TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 128517
DEVELOPMENT128518

       The foregoing appropriation item 200465, Technology 128519
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by the 128520
Department of Education to contract with educational television 128521
stations and education technology centers to provide Ohio public 128522
schools with instructional resources and services, with priority 128523
given to resources and services aligned with state academic 128524
content standards. Such resources and services shall be based upon 128525
the advice and approval of the Department, based on a formula used 128526
by the former eTech Ohio Commission unless and until a substitute 128527
formula is developed in consultation with the Ohio Board of 128528
Regents.128529

       Section 263.163. READY TO LEARN128530

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 128531
appropriation item 200468, Ready to Learn, to contract with 128532
eligible providers of early childhood education programs under 128533
this section. 128534

       (A) As used in this section:128535

       (1) "Eligible provider" means a private early childhood 128536
education program provider that meets at least the third highest 128537
rating level in the tiered quality rating and improvement system 128538
developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code or a public 128539
early childhood education provider.128540

       (2) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 128541
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 128542
not enrolled in kindergarten, and whose family earns not more than 128543
two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines as defined 128544
in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.128545

       (3) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 128546
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 128547
to assess the operation of early learning programs.128548

       (B) The Department shall distribute funding to eligible 128549
providers on a per-pupil basis. The per-pupil amount shall be such 128550
that funding is provided for 2,200 eligible children in each 128551
fiscal year. The Department shall distribute funding so that at 128552
least three eligible children are funded in each county.128553

       (C) Each early childhood education program receiving funding 128554
under this section shall do all of the following:128555

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 128556
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;128557

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 128558
developed by the Department;128559

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 128560
prescribed by the Department;128561

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 128562
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 128563
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 128564
professional development as prescribed by the Department;128565

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 128566
Department;128567

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 128568
program standards as prescribed by the Department;128569

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 128570
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.128571

       Section 263.170. PUPIL TRANSPORTATION128572

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 128573
Transportation, up to $838,930 in each fiscal year may be used by 128574
the Department of Education for training prospective and 128575
experienced school bus drivers in accordance with training 128576
programs prescribed by the Department. Up to $60,469,220 in each 128577
fiscal year may be used by the Department of Education for special 128578
education transportation reimbursements to school districts and 128579
county DD boards for transportation operating costs as provided in 128580
divisions (C) and (F) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. Up 128581
to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 may be used by the Department of 128582
Education to reimburse school districts that make payments to 128583
parents in lieu of transportation under section 3327.02 of the 128584
Revised Code and whose transportation is not funded under division 128585
(C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.128586

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 128587
Transportation, up to $25,300,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 128588
$23,100,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used for additional 128589
transportation aid for school districts as provided by division 128590
(G)(2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as amended by 128591
this act. The Department shall pay each school district a pro rata 128592
portion of the amounts calculated so that the amount appropriated 128593
is not exceeded.128594

       The remainder of appropriation item 200502, Pupil 128595
Transportation, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated 128596
for transportation aid under division (G)(1) of section 3317.0212 128597
of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.128598

       Section 263.180. SCHOOL LUNCH MATCH128599

       The foregoing appropriation item 200505, School Lunch Match, 128600
shall be used to provide matching funds to obtain federal funds 128601
for the school lunch program.128602

       Any remaining appropriation after providing matching funds 128603
for the school lunch program may be used to partially reimburse 128604
school buildings within school districts that are required to have 128605
a school breakfast program under section 3313.813 of the Revised 128606
Code, at a rate decided by the Department.128607

       Section 263.190. AUXILIARY SERVICES128608

       The foregoing appropriation item 200511, Auxiliary Services, 128609
shall be used by the Department of Education for the purpose of 128610
implementing section 3317.06 of the Revised Code. Of the 128611
appropriation, up to $1,888,106 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 128612
$1,944,949 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for payment of the 128613
Post-Secondary Enrollment Program for nonpublic students, except 128614
that in fiscal year 2014 the Department may spend above the 128615
set-aside to pay for outstanding obligations for the 128616
Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program in fiscal year 2013.128617

       Section 263.200. NONPUBLIC ADMINISTRATIVE COST REIMBURSEMENT128618

       The foregoing appropriation item 200532, Nonpublic 128619
Administrative Cost Reimbursement, shall be used by the Department 128620
of Education for the purpose of implementing section 3317.063 of 128621
the Revised Code.128622

       Section 263.210. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS128623

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 128624
Enhancements, up to $50,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 128625
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 128626
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 128627
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 128628
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 128629
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 128630
for each county board of developmental disabilities and 128631
institution so as not to exceed the amount appropriated in each 128632
fiscal year.128633

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 128634
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 128635
for parent mentoring programs.128636

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 128637
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 128638
school psychology interns.128639

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 128640
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 128641
to school districts and institutions, as defined in section 128642
3323.091 of the Revised Code, for preschool special education 128643
funding under section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 128644
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 128645
for each school district and institution so as not to exceed the 128646
amount appropriated in each fiscal year.128647

       The Department may reimburse school districts and 128648
institutions for services provided by instructional assistants, 128649
related services as defined in rule 3301-51-11 of the 128650
Administrative Code, physical therapy services provided by a 128651
licensed physical therapist or physical therapist assistant under 128652
the supervision of a licensed physical therapist as required under 128653
Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 4755-27 of the 128654
Administrative Code and occupational therapy services provided by 128655
a licensed occupational therapist or occupational therapy 128656
assistant under the supervision of a licensed occupational 128657
therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and 128658
Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. Nothing in this section 128659
authorizes occupational therapy assistants or physical therapist 128660
assistants to generate or manage their own caseloads.128661

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 128662
educational service centers, county DD boards, and institutions 128663
serving preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's 128664
early learning program standards, participate in the tiered 128665
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 128666
5104.30 of the Revised Code, and document child progress using 128667
research-based indicators prescribed by the Department and report 128668
results annually. The reporting dates and method shall be 128669
determined by the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs 128670
shall be rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement 128671
system.128672

       Section 263.220. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS128673

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128674
Education Enhancements, up to $2,563,568 in each fiscal year shall 128675
be used to fund secondary career-technical education at 128676
institutions using a grant-based methodology, notwithstanding 128677
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.128678

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128679
Education Enhancements, up to $2,838,281 in each fiscal year shall 128680
be used by the Department of Education to fund competitive grants 128681
to tech prep consortia that expand the number of students enrolled 128682
in tech prep programs. These grant funds shall be used to directly 128683
support expanded tech prep programs provided to students enrolled 128684
in school districts, including joint vocational school districts, 128685
and affiliated higher education institutions. This support may 128686
include the purchase of equipment.128687

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128688
Education Enhancements, up to $3,100,850 in each fiscal year shall 128689
be used by the Department of Education to support existing High 128690
Schools That Work (HSTW) sites, develop and support new sites, 128691
fund technical assistance, and support regional centers and middle 128692
school programs. The purpose of HSTW is to combine challenging 128693
academic courses and modern career-technical studies to raise the 128694
academic achievement of students. HSTW provides intensive 128695
technical assistance, focused staff development, targeted 128696
assessment services, and ongoing communications and networking 128697
opportunities.128698

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128699
Education Enhancements, up to $300,000 in each fiscal year shall 128700
be used by the Department of Education to enable students in 128701
agricultural programs to enroll in a fifth quarter of instruction 128702
based on the agricultural education model of delivering work-based 128703
learning through supervised agricultural experience. The 128704
Department of Education shall determine eligibility criteria and 128705
the reporting process for the Agriculture 5th Quarter Project and 128706
shall fund as many programs as possible given the set aside.128707

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200545, Career-Technical 128708
Education Enhancements, up to $162,200 in each fiscal year shall 128709
be distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 128710
Cincinnati City School District to be used for a VoAg Program in 128711
one at-risk nonvocational school in each district. The amount 128712
distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District shall be 128713
equal to $78,600 minus the funding allocated to the district under 128714
division (A)(8) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code for the 128715
students participating in the program. The amount distributed to 128716
the Cincinnati City School District shall be equal to $83,600 128717
minus the funding allocated to the district under section 3317.162 128718
of the Revised Code for the students participating in the program.128719

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128720
Education Enhancements, $108,100 in each fiscal year shall be used 128721
to prepare students for careers in culinary arts and restaurant 128722
management under the Ohio ProStart school restaurant program.128723

       Section 263.230. FOUNDATION FUNDING128724

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128725
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128726
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 128727
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 128728
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 128729
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 128730
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 128731
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.128732

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128733
Funding, up to $40,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128734
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 128735
school districts, community schools, and STEM schools for special 128736
education students under division (C)(3) of section 3314.08, 128737
section 3317.0214, division (B) of section 3317.16, and section 128738
3326.34 of the Revised Code, except that the Controlling Board may 128739
increase these amounts if presented with such a request from the 128740
Department of Education at the final meeting of the fiscal year.128741

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128742
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 128743
for Youth Services tuition payments under section 3317.024 of the 128744
Revised Code.128745

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128746
Funding, up to $3,800,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128747
fund gifted education at educational service centers. The 128748
Department shall distribute the funding through the unit-based 128749
funding methodology in place under division (L) of section 128750
3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions (A), (B), 128751
and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they existed 128752
prior to fiscal year 2010.128753

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128754
Funding, up to $43,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 128755
$40,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be reserved to fund the 128756
state reimbursement of educational service centers under the 128757
section of this act entitled "EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS 128758
FUNDING"; and up to $3,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 128759
distributed to educational service centers for School Improvement 128760
Initiatives and, in consultation with the Governor's Director of 128761
21st Century Education, for the provision of technical assistance 128762
as required by the Elementary and Secondary Education Act 128763
Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 128764
Department of Education. Educational service centers shall be 128765
required to support districts in the development and 128766
implementation of their continuous improvement plans as required 128767
in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide technical 128768
assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the "No Child 128769
Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 6317, as 128770
administered pursuant to the Elementary and Secondary Education 128771
Act Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 128772
Department of Education. 128773

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128774
Funding, up to $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 128775
for payments under sections 3317.026, 3317.027, and 3317.028 of 128776
the Revised Code. If this amount is not sufficient, the Department 128777
of Education shall prorate the payment amounts so that the 128778
aggregate amount allocated in this paragraph is not exceeded.128779

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128780
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 128781
career-technical planning districts for the amounts reimbursed to 128782
students, as prescribed in this paragraph. Each career-technical 128783
planning district shall reimburse individuals taking the online 128784
General Educational Development (GED) test for the first time for 128785
application/test fees in excess of $40. Each career-technical 128786
planning district shall designate a site or sites where 128787
individuals may register and take the exam. For each individual 128788
that registers for the exam, the career-technical planning 128789
district shall make available and offer career counseling 128790
services, including information on adult education programs that 128791
are available.128792

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128793
Funding, up to $410,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 128794
career-technical planning districts $500 for each student that 128795
receives a journeyman certification, as recognized by the United 128796
States Department of Labor.128797

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128798
Funding, up to $18,713,327 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128799
support school choice programs.128800

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 128801
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 128802
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 128803
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 128804
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 128805
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 128806
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 128807
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 128808
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 128809
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 128810
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 128811
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 128812
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 128813
manner approved by the Department of Education.128814

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128815
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 128816
college-preparatory boarding schools the per pupil boarding amount 128817
pursuant to section 3328.34 of the Revised Code.128818

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128819
Funding, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128820
support Jobs for Ohio's Graduates.128821

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128822
Funding, up to $250,000 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 128823
payment of the Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program for 128824
students instructed at home pursuant to section 3321.04 of the 128825
Revised Code.128826

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128827
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 128828
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with 128829
division (A) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code and the 128830
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 128831
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."128832

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128833
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 128834
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 128835
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 128836
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 128837
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 128838
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."128839

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128840
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 128841
formula aid under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code and the 128842
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, 128843
LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS."128844

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 128845
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 128846
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 128847
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 128848
districts, community schools, STEM schools, college preparatory 128849
boarding schools, and joint vocational school districts under this 128850
act. The first priority of these appropriation items, with the 128851
exception of specific set-asides, is to fund state formula aid 128852
obligations. It may be necessary to reallocate funds among these 128853
appropriation items or use excess funds from other general revenue 128854
fund appropriation items in the Department of Education's budget 128855
in each fiscal year, in order to meet state formula aid 128856
obligations. If it is determined that it is necessary to transfer 128857
funds among these appropriation items or to transfer funds from 128858
other General Revenue Fund appropriations in the Department of 128859
Education's budget to meet state formula aid obligations, the 128860
Department of Education shall seek approval from the Controlling 128861
Board to transfer funds as needed.128862

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall make payments, 128863
transfers, and deductions, as authorized by Title XXXIII of the 128864
Revised Code and Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, 267.30.56, and 128865
267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, in 128866
amounts substantially equal to those made in the prior year, or 128867
otherwise, at the discretion of the Superintendent, until at least 128868
the effective date of the amendments and enactments made to Title 128869
XXXIII by this act. If a new school district, community school, or 128870
STEM school opens prior to the effective date of this act, the 128871
Department of Education shall pay to the district or school an 128872
amount of $5,000 per pupil, based upon the estimated number of 128873
students that the district or school is expected to serve. Any 128874
funds paid to districts or schools under this section shall be 128875
credited toward the annual funds calculated for the district or 128876
school after the changes made to Title XXXIII in this act are 128877
effective. Upon the effective date of changes made to Title XXXIII 128878
in this act, funds shall be calculated as an annual amount.128879

       Section 263.240. TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, 128880
AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS128881

        The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 128882
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 128883
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying city, 128884
local, and exempted village school district.128885

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 128886
temporary transitional aid to each city, local, or exempted 128887
village school district that experiences any decrease in its state 128888
foundation funding for the current fiscal year from its 128889
transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the temporary 128890
transitional aid payment shall equal the difference between its 128891
foundation funding for the current fiscal year and its 128892
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 128893
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 128894
under this division shall be zero.128895

       (1) As used in this section, foundation funding for each 128896
city, local, and exempted village school district for a given 128897
fiscal year equals the sum of the amount calculated for the 128898
district under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted 128899
by this act, and the amounts calculated for the district under 128900
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, 128901
as amended by this act, for that fiscal year.128902

       (2) The transitional aid guarantee base for each city, local, 128903
and exempted village school district equals the sum of the amounts 128904
computed for the district for fiscal year 2013, under Sections 128905
267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 128906
129th General Assembly.128907

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, 128908
as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no city, local, or 128909
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 128910
funding that is greater than 1.06 times the district's 128911
transitional aid guarantee base.128912

       (2) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as 128913
re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no city, local, or 128914
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 128915
funding that is greater than 1.06 times the amount computed for 128916
foundation funding for the district for fiscal year 2014 plus any 128917
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 128918
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 128919
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.128920

        (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 128921
divisions (A)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of section 3317.022 128922
of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, and divisions 128923
(G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as 128924
amended by this act, proportionately as necessary in order to 128925
comply with this division. If those amounts are insufficient, the 128926
Department shall proportionately reduce a district's payments 128927
under divisions (A)(3), (8), and (9) of section 3317.022 of the 128928
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.128929

       Section 263.250.  TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 128930
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS128931

       The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 128932
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 128933
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying joint 128934
vocational school district.128935

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 128936
temporary transitional aid to each joint vocational school 128937
district that experiences any decrease in its state core 128938
foundation funding under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128939
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, for the current fiscal 128940
year from its transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the 128941
temporary transitional aid payment shall equal the difference 128942
between the district's funding under division (A) of section 128943
3317.16 of the Revised Code for the current fiscal year and its 128944
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 128945
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 128946
under this division shall be zero.128947

       The transitional aid guarantee base for each joint vocational 128948
school district equals the amount computed for the district for 128949
fiscal year 2013, under Section 267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 128950
the 129th General Assembly.128951

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128952
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no 128953
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 128954
foundation funding, as computed under division (A) of section 128955
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is 128956
greater than 1.06 times the district's transitional aid guarantee 128957
base.128958

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128959
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no 128960
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 128961
foundation funding, under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128962
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is greater than 1.06 128963
times the amount computed for state core foundation funding for 128964
the district for fiscal year 2014 under division (A) of section 128965
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, plus any 128966
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 128967
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 128968
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.128969

       (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 128970
divisions (A)(1), (3), and (4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised 128971
Code, as re-enacted by this act, proportionately as necessary in 128972
order to comply with this division. If those amounts are 128973
insufficient, the Department shall proportionately reduce a 128974
district's payments under divisions (A)(2), (5), and (6) of 128975
section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.128976

       Section 263.260. PROPERTY TAX ALLOCATION - EDUCATION128977

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall not request, 128978
and the Controlling Board shall not approve, the transfer of 128979
appropriation from appropriation item 200901, Property Tax 128980
Allocation - Education, to any other appropriation item.128981

       The appropriation item 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 128982
Education, is appropriated to pay for the state's costs incurred 128983
because of the homestead exemption, the property tax rollback, and 128984
payments required under division (C) of section 5705.2110 of the 128985
Revised Code. In cooperation with the Department of Taxation, the 128986
Department of Education shall distribute these funds directly to 128987
the appropriate school districts of the state, notwithstanding 128988
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for 128989
payment of the homestead exemption and property tax rollback by 128990
the Tax Commissioner to the appropriate county treasurer and the 128991
subsequent redistribution of these funds to the appropriate local 128992
taxing districts by the county auditor.128993

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each school district shall 128994
distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had been 128995
paid as real or tangible personal property taxes. Payments for the 128996
costs of administration shall continue to be paid to the county 128997
treasurer and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 128998
321.26, and 323.156 of the Revised Code.128999

       Any sums, in addition to the amount specifically appropriated 129000
in appropriation items 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 129001
Education, for the homestead exemption and the property tax 129002
rollback payments, and payments required under division (C) of 129003
section 5705.2110 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be 129004
necessary for these purposes, are hereby appropriated.129005

       Section 263.270. TEACHER CERTIFICATION AND LICENSURE129006

       The foregoing appropriation item 200681, Teacher 129007
Certification and Licensure, shall be used by the Department of 129008
Education in each year of the biennium to administer and support 129009
teacher certification and licensure activities.129010

       SCHOOL DISTRICT SOLVENCY ASSISTANCE129011

       (A) Of the foregoing appropriation item 200687, School 129012
District Solvency Assistance, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year 129013
shall be allocated to the School District Shared Resource Account 129014
and $5,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be allocated to the 129015
Catastrophic Expenditures Account. These funds shall be used to 129016
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 129017
to remain solvent under section 3316.20 of the Revised Code. 129018
Assistance and grants shall be subject to approval by the 129019
Controlling Board. Except as provided under division (C) of this 129020
section, any required reimbursements from school districts for 129021
solvency assistance shall be made to the appropriate account in 129022
the School District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30).129023

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 129024
upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 129025
Director of Budget and Management may make transfers to the School 129026
District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) from any fund used 129027
by the Department of Education or the General Revenue Fund to 129028
maintain sufficient cash balances in Fund 5H30 in fiscal years 129029
2014 and 2015. Any cash transferred is hereby appropriated. The 129030
transferred cash may be used by the Department of Education to 129031
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 129032
to remain solvent and to pay unforeseeable expenses of a temporary 129033
or emergency nature that the school district is unable to pay from 129034
existing resources. The Director of Budget and Management shall 129035
notify the members of the Controlling Board of any such transfers.129036

        (C) If the cash balance of the School District Solvency 129037
Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) is insufficient to pay solvency 129038
assistance in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, at the request of the 129039
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and with the approval of the 129040
Controlling Board, the Director of Budget and Management may 129041
transfer cash from the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund 129042
(Fund 7018) to Fund 5H30 to provide assistance and grants to 129043
school districts to enable them to remain solvent and to pay 129044
unforeseeable expenses of a temporary nature that they are unable 129045
to pay from existing resources under section 3316.20 of the 129046
Revised Code. Such transfers are hereby appropriated to 129047
appropriation item 200670, School District Solvency Assistance – 129048
Lottery. Any required reimbursements from school districts for 129049
solvency assistance granted from appropriation item 200670, School 129050
District Solvency Assistance – Lottery, shall be made to Fund 129051
7018.129052

       Section 263.280. SCHOOLS MEDICAID ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS129053

       Upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 129054
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $750,000 129055
cash in each fiscal year from the General Revenue Fund to the 129056
Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims Fund (Fund 3AF0). The 129057
transferred cash is to be used by the Department of Education to 129058
pay the expenses the Department incurs in administering the 129059
Medicaid School Component of the Medicaid program established 129060
under sections 5162.36 to 5162.364 of the Revised Code. On June 1 129061
of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129062
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash from Fund 129063
3AF0 back to the General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the 129064
total amount transferred to Fund 3AF0 in that fiscal year.129065

       The money deposited into Fund 3AF0 under division (B) of 129066
section 5162.64 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated for 129067
fiscal years 2014 and 2015 and shall be used in accordance with 129068
division (C) of section 5162.64 of the Revised Code.129069

       Section 263.290.  HALF-MILL MAINTENANCE EQUALIZATION129070

        The foregoing appropriation item 200626, Half-Mill 129071
Maintenance Equalization, shall be used to make payments pursuant 129072
to section 3318.18 of the Revised Code.129073

       Section 263.300.  GATES FOUNDATION GRANTS129074

       The foregoing appropriation item 200668, Gates Foundation 129075
Grants, shall be used by the Department of Education to provide 129076
professional development to school district principals, 129077
superintendents, and other administrative staff on the use of 129078
education technology. 129079

       Section 263.310. AUXILIARY SERVICES REIMBURSEMENT129080

       Notwithstanding section 3317.064 of the Revised Code, if the 129081
unexpended, unencumbered cash balance is sufficient, the Treasurer 129082
of State shall transfer $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 within 129083
thirty days after the effective date of this section, and 129084
$1,500,000 in fiscal year 2015 by August 1, 2014, from the 129085
Auxiliary Services Personnel Unemployment Compensation Fund to the 129086
Auxiliary Services Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5980) used by the 129087
Department of Education.129088

       Section 263.320. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND129089

       Appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding (Fund 7017), 129090
shall be used in conjunction with appropriation item 200550, 129091
Foundation Funding (GRF), to provide state foundation payments to 129092
school districts.129093

       The Department of Education, with the approval of the 129094
Director of Budget and Management, shall determine the monthly 129095
distribution schedules of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 129096
Funding (GRF), and appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding 129097
(Fund 7017). If adjustments to the monthly distribution schedule 129098
are necessary, the Department of Education shall make such 129099
adjustments with the approval of the Director of Budget and 129100
Management.129101

       STRAIGHT A FUND129102

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200648, Straight A Fund, 129103
up to $375,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to provide 129104
scholarships to parents of high needs children enrolled in the Get 129105
Ready for Kindergarten pilot program. These scholarships shall be 129106
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 129107
"GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN."129108

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 129109
up to $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $3,000,000 in fiscal 129110
year 2015 shall be used for the New Leaders for Ohio Schools Pilot 129111
Project in accordance with Section 733.40 of this act.129112

       The remainder of appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 129113
shall be used to make competitive grants in accordance with 129114
Section 263.325 of this act.129115

       EDCHOICE EXPANSION129116

       The foregoing appropriation item 200666, EdChoice Expansion, 129117
shall be used as follows:129118

       (A) In fiscal year 2014, notwithstanding section 3310.032 of 129119
the Revised Code, the Department of Education shall administer an 129120
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship program as 129121
follows:129122

        (1) A student is an "eligible student" for purposes of the 129123
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship Pilot Program 129124
under division (A) of this section if the student's resident 129125
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 129126
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 129127
3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student's family income is at 129128
or below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 129129
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.129130

       (2) The Department shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 129131
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 129132
Revised Code. The number of scholarships awarded under division 129133
(A) of this section shall not exceed the number that can be funded 129134
with appropriations made by the general assembly for this purpose.129135

       (3) Scholarships under division (A) of this section shall be 129136
awarded for the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 129137
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time.129138

       (4) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 129139
scholarship exceeds the scholarships available based on the 129140
appropriation for division (A) of this section, the department 129141
shall award scholarships in the following order of priority:129142

       (a) First, to eligible students with family incomes at or 129143
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.129144

       (b) Second, to other eligible students who qualify under 129145
division (A) of this section. If the number of students described 129146
in division (A)(4)(b) of this section exceeds the number of 129147
available scholarships after awards are made under division 129148
(A)(4)(a) of this section, the department shall select students 129149
described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section by lot to receive 129150
any remaining scholarships.129151

       (5) A student who receives a scholarship under division (A) 129152
of this section remains an eligible student and may continue to 129153
receive scholarships under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code in 129154
subsequent school years until the student completes grade twelve, 129155
so long as the student satisfies the conditions specified in 129156
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.129157

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 129158
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current and 129159
subsequent school years, even if the student's family income rises 129160
above the amount specified in division (A) of section 3310.032 of 129161
the Revised Code, provided the student remains enrolled in a 129162
chartered nonpublic school.129163

       (B) In fiscal year 2015, to provide for the scholarships 129164
awarded under the expansion of the educational choice program 129165
established under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code. The number 129166
of scholarships awarded under the expansion of the educational 129167
choice program shall not exceed the number that can be funded with 129168
the appropriations made by the General Assembly for this purpose.129169

       COMMUNITY SCHOOL FACILITIES129170

       The foregoing appropriation item 200684, Community School 129171
Facilities, shall be used to pay each community school established 129172
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- 129173
or computer-based community school an amount equal to $100 for 129174
each full-time equivalent pupil for assistance with the cost 129175
associated with facilities. If the amount appropriated is not 129176
sufficient, the Department of Education shall prorate the amounts 129177
so that the aggregate amount appropriated is not exceeded. 129178

       Section 263.323. GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN129179

        (A) A preschool is an "eligible preschool" for the purposes 129180
of this section if the preschool has a quality rating in the top 129181
two tiers of the tiered rating improvement system developed under 129182
division (C)(3)(d) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.129183

        (B) The Department of Education shall provide scholarships to 129184
parents of high needs children to enroll in eligible preschools as 129185
defined in division (A) of this section.129186

        (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded to 129187
students who are at least age three but are not of compulsory 129188
school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and 129189
who are not currently enrolled in kindergarten. Students who 129190
receive scholarships under this section shall enroll in eligible 129191
preschools between July 1, 2013, and December 31, 2013.129192

       Section 263.325. (A) The Straight A Program is hereby created 129193
for fiscal years 2014 and 2015 to provide grants to city, local, 129194
exempted village, and joint vocational school districts, 129195
educational service centers, community schools established under 129196
Chapter 3314., STEM schools established under Chapter 3326., 129197
college-preparatory boarding schools established under Chapter 129198
3328. of the Revised Code, individual school buildings, and 129199
education consortia (which may represent a partnership among 129200
school districts, school buildings, community schools, or STEM 129201
schools to partner with institutions of higher education and 129202
private entities) for projects that aim to achieve at least the 129203
following goals:129204

       (1) Increased student achievement and progress;129205

       (2) Improved productivity;129206

       (3) Sustainable cost reduction of operations.129207

       (B)(1) Grants shall be awarded by an eight-member governing 129208
board consisting of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, or 129209
the Superintendent's designee, three members appointed by the 129210
Governor, two members appointed by the Speaker of the House of 129211
Representatives, and two members appointed by the President of the 129212
Senate. The Department of Education shall provide administrative 129213
support to the board. No member shall be compensated for the 129214
member's service on the board.129215

       (2) The board may establish an advisory council consisting of 129216
grant advisors with fiscal expertise and education expertise. 129217
These advisors shall evaluate proposals from grant applicants, 129218
consult with the governing board regarding strategic planning, and 129219
advise the staff administering the program. No advisor shall be 129220
compensated for this service.129221

       (3) The board shall issue an annual report to the Governor, 129222
the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the President of the 129223
Senate, and the chairpersons of the House and Senate committees 129224
that primarily deal with education regarding the types of grants 129225
awarded, the grant recipients, and the effectiveness of the grant 129226
program.129227

       (4) The board shall create a grant application and publish on 129228
the Department's web site the application and timeline for the 129229
submission, review, notification, and awarding of grant proposals.129230

        (5) With the approval of the board, the Department shall 129231
establish a system for evaluating and scoring the grant 129232
applications received under this section. The system shall give 129233
priority to applicants whose goals demonstrate particular attempts 129234
in achieving the following:129235

        (a) Cost reduction in the delivery of services;129236

        (b) Progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten to 129237
three;129238

        (c) Achievement and progress for each subgroup of students 129239
specified under division (A) of section 3317.40 of the Revised 129240
Code;129241

        (d) Improving the performance measures included in the 129242
Prepared for Success components specified under division (B)(2) of 129243
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;129244

        (e) Utilizing programs recognized as innovative under the 129245
federal Race to the Top program.129246

       (C) Each grant applicant shall submit a proposal that 129247
includes all of the following:129248

       (1) A description of the project for which the applicant is 129249
seeking a grant, including a description of how the project will 129250
have substantial value and lasting impact;129251

       (2) An explanation of how the project will be 129252
self-sustaining. If the project will result in increased ongoing 129253
spending, the applicant shall show how the spending will be offset 129254
by verifiable, credible, permanent spending reductions.129255

       (3) A description of quantifiable results of the project that 129256
can be benchmarked.129257

       If an education consortia described in division (A) of this 129258
section applies for a grant, the lead applicant shall be the 129259
school district, school building, community school, or STEM school 129260
that is a member of the consortia and shall so indicate on the 129261
grant application.129262

       (D)(1) Within seventy-five days after receiving a grant 129263
application, the board shall issue a decision on the application 129264
of "yes," "no," "hold," or "edit." In making its decision, the 129265
board shall consider whether the project has the capability of 129266
being replicated in other school districts and schools or creates 129267
something that can be used in other districts and schools. A grant 129268
awarded under this section to a school district, educational 129269
service center, community school, STEM school, college-preparatory 129270
boarding school, or individual school building shall not exceed 129271
$500,000. A grant awarded to an education consortia shall not 129272
exceed $1,000,000. 129273

       (2) If the board issues a "hold" or "edit" decision for an 129274
application, it shall, upon returning the application to the 129275
applicant, specify the process for reconsideration of the 129276
application. An applicant may work with the grant advisors and 129277
staff to modify or improve a grant application.129278

       (E) Upon deciding to award a grant to an applicant, the board 129279
shall enter into a grant agreement with the applicant that 129280
includes all of the following:129281

       (1) The content of the applicant's proposal as outlined under 129282
division (C) of this section;129283

       (2) The project's deliverables and a timetable for their 129284
completion;129285

       (3) Conditions for receiving grant funding;129286

       (4) Conditions for receiving funding in future years if the 129287
contract is a multi-year contract;129288

       (5) A provision specifying that funding will be returned to 129289
the board if the applicant fails to implement the agreement, as 129290
determined by the Auditor of State.129291

       (6) A provision specifying that the agreement may be amended 129292
by mutual agreement between the board and the applicant.129293

       (F) Each grant awarded under this section shall be subject to 129294
approval by the Controlling Board prior to execution of the grant 129295
agreement.129296

       Section 263.330. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION RESERVE FUND129297

       (A) There is hereby created the Lottery Profits Education 129298
Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) in the State Treasury. Investment 129299
earnings of the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund shall be 129300
credited to the fund.129301

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the 129302
contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 129303
from Fund 7018 to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) 129304
in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015.129305

       (C) On July 15, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129306
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 129307
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 129308
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $680,500,000 in 129309
fiscal year 2013.129310

       (D) On July 15, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129311
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 129312
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 129313
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $841,000,000 in 129314
fiscal year 2014.129315

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 129316
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 129317
Management may transfer cash in excess of the amounts necessary to 129318
support appropriations in Fund 7017 from that fund to Fund 7018.129319

       Section 263.340. GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS TO SCHOOL 129320
DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - BUSINESS (FUND 7047)129321

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 129322
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 the Director of Budget and 129323
Management may make temporary transfers between the General 129324
Revenue Fund and the School District Property Tax Replacement – 129325
Business Fund (Fund 7047), used by the Department of Education, to 129326
ensure sufficient balances in Fund 7047 and to replenish the 129327
General Revenue Fund for such transfers.129328

       Section 263.350. SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - 129329
BUSINESS129330

       The foregoing appropriation item 200909, School District 129331
Property Tax Replacement – Business, shall be used by the 129332
Department of Education, in consultation with the Department of 129333
Taxation, to make payments to school districts and joint 129334
vocational school districts under section 5751.21 of the Revised 129335
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 129336
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 129337
such amounts are hereby appropriated.129338

       SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - UTILITY129339

       The foregoing appropriation item 200900, School District 129340
Property Tax Replacement-Utility, shall be used by the Department 129341
of Education, in consultation with the Department of Taxation, to 129342
make payments to school districts and joint vocational school 129343
districts under section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. If it is 129344
determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129345
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 129346
amounts are hereby appropriated.129347

       DISTRIBUTION FORMULAS129348

       The Department of Education shall report the following to the 129349
Director of Budget and Management and the Legislative Service 129350
Commission:129351

       (A) Changes in formulas for distributing state 129352
appropriations, including administratively defined formula 129353
factors;129354

       (B) Discretionary changes in formulas for distributing 129355
federal appropriations;129356

       (C) Federally mandated changes in formulas for distributing 129357
federal appropriations.129358

       Any such changes shall be reported two weeks prior to the 129359
effective date of the change.129360

       Section 263.360. EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING129361

       In fiscal year 2014, the Department of Education shall pay 129362
the governing board of each primary educational service center 129363
state funds equal to thirty-seven dollars times its student count, 129364
as calculated under division (G)(2) of section 3313.843 of the 129365
Revised Code.129366

       In fiscal year 2015, the Department of Education shall pay 129367
the governing board of each primary educational service center 129368
state funds equal to thirty-five dollars times its student count, 129369
as calculated under division (G)(2) of section 3313.843 of the 129370
Revised Code.129371

        If the amount earmarked for the state reimbursement of 129372
educational service centers in appropriation item 200550, 129373
Foundation Funding, is not sufficient, the Department of Education 129374
shall prorate the payment amounts so that the appropriation is not 129375
exceeded.129376

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 129377
Department of Education shall modify the payments under this 129378
section as follows:129379

       (A) If an educational service center ceases operation, the 129380
Department shall redistribute that center's funding, as calculated 129381
under this section, to the remaining centers in proportion to each 129382
center's service center ADM as defined in former section 3317.11 129383
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the date of 129384
its repeal.129385

       (B) If two or more educational service centers merge 129386
operations to create a single service center, the Department shall 129387
distribute the sum of the original service centers' funding, as 129388
calculated under this section, to the new service center.129389

       Section 263.370. SCHOOL DISTRICT PARTICIPATION IN NATIONAL 129390
ASSESSMENT OF EDUCATION PROGRESS129391

       The General Assembly intends for the Superintendent of Public 129392
Instruction to provide for school district participation in the 129393
administration of the National Assessment of Education Progress in 129394
accordance with section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. Each school 129395
and school district selected for participation by the 129396
Superintendent of Public Instruction shall participate.129397

       Section 263.373. COMMUNITY SCHOOL FUNDING GUARANTEE FOR SBH 129398
STUDENTS129399

       (A) As used in this section:129400

       (1) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 129401
Revised Code.129402

       (2) "SBH student" means a student receiving special education 129403
and related services for severe behavior disabilities pursuant to 129404
an IEP.129405

       (B) This section applies only to a community school 129406
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that in each 129407
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015 enrolls a number of SBH students 129408
equal to at least fifty per cent of the total number of students 129409
enrolled in the school in the applicable fiscal year.129410

       (C) In addition to any state foundation payments made, in 129411
each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of Education 129412
shall pay to a community school to which this section applies a 129413
subsidy equal to the difference between the aggregate amount 129414
calculated and paid in that fiscal year to the community school 129415
for special education and related services additional weighted 129416
costs for the SBH students enrolled in the school and the 129417
aggregate amount that would have been calculated for the school 129418
for special education and related services additional weighted 129419
costs for those same students in fiscal year 2001. If the 129420
difference is a negative number, the amount of the subsidy shall 129421
be zero.129422

       (D) The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 129423
under this section shall not be deducted from the school district 129424
in which any of the students enrolled in the community school are 129425
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 129426
Revised Code. The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 129427
under this section shall be paid from funds appropriated to the 129428
Department of Education in appropriation item 200550, Foundation 129429
Funding.129430

       Section 263.380. EARMARK ACCOUNTABILITY129431

       At the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 129432
any entity that receives a budget earmark under the Department of 129433
Education shall submit annually to the chairpersons of the 129434
committees of the House of Representatives and the Senate 129435
primarily concerned with education and to the Department of 129436
Education a report that includes a description of the services 129437
supported by the funds, a description of the results achieved by 129438
those services, an analysis of the effectiveness of the program, 129439
and an opinion as to the program's applicability to other school 129440
districts. For an earmarked entity that received state funds from 129441
an earmark in the prior fiscal year, no funds shall be provided by 129442
the Department of Education to an earmarked entity for a fiscal 129443
year until its report for the prior fiscal year has been 129444
submitted.129445

       Section 263.390. COMMUNITY SCHOOL OPERATING FROM HOME129446

        A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 129447
Revised Code that was open for operation as a community school as 129448
of May 1, 2005, may operate from or in any home, as defined in 129449
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, located in the state, 129450
regardless of when the community school's operations from or in a 129451
particular home began.129452

       Section 263.400. USE OF VOLUNTEERS129453

       The Department of Education may utilize the services of 129454
volunteers to accomplish any of the purposes of the Department. 129455
The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall approve for what 129456
purposes volunteers may be used and for these purposes may 129457
recruit, train, and oversee the services of volunteers. The 129458
Superintendent may reimburse volunteers for necessary and 129459
appropriate expenses in accordance with state guidelines and may 129460
designate volunteers as state employees for the purpose of motor 129461
vehicle accident liability insurance under section 9.83 of the 129462
Revised Code, for immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code, 129463
and for indemnification from liability incurred in the performance 129464
of their duties under section 9.87 of the Revised Code.129465

       Section 263.410. RESTRICTION OF LIABILITY FOR CERTAIN 129466
REIMBURSEMENTS129467

       (A) Except as expressly required under a court judgment not 129468
subject to further appeals, or a settlement agreement with a 129469
school district executed on or before June 1, 2009, in the case of 129470
a school district for which the formula ADM for fiscal year 2005, 129471
as reported for that fiscal year under division (A) of section 129472
3317.03 of the Revised Code, was reduced based on enrollment 129473
reports for community schools, made under section 3314.08 of the 129474
Revised Code, regarding students entitled to attend school in the 129475
district, which reduction of formula ADM resulted in a reduction 129476
of foundation funding or transitional aid funding for fiscal year 129477
2005, 2006, or 2007, no school district, except a district named 129478
in the court's judgment or the settlement agreement, shall have a 129479
legal claim for reimbursement of the amount of such reduction in 129480
foundation funding or transitional aid funding, and the state 129481
shall not have liability for reimbursement of the amount of such 129482
reduction in foundation funding or transitional aid funding. 129483

       (B) As used in this section: 129484

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 129485
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.129486

       (2) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 129487
school in a school district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 129488
the Revised Code. 129489

       (3) "Foundation funding" means payments calculated for the 129490
respective fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.129491

       (4) "Transitional aid funding" means payments calculated for 129492
the respective fiscal year under Section 41.37 of Am. Sub. H.B. 95 129493
of the 125th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; Section 129494
206.09.39 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly, as 129495
subsequently amended; and Section 269.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 119 129496
of the 127th General Assembly. 129497

       Section 263.420.  UNAUDITABLE COMMUNITY SCHOOL129498

       (A) If the Auditor of State or a public accountant, pursuant 129499
to section 117.41 of the Revised Code, declares a community school 129500
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to be 129501
unauditable, the Auditor of State shall provide written 129502
notification of that declaration to the school, the school's 129503
sponsor, and the Department of Education. The Auditor of State 129504
also shall post the notification on the Auditor of State's web 129505
site.129506

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 129507
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, a sponsor 129508
of a community school that is notified by the Auditor of State 129509
under division (A) of this section that a community school it 129510
sponsors is unauditable shall not enter into contracts with any 129511
additional community schools under section 3314.03 of the Revised 129512
Code until the Auditor of State or a public accountant has 129513
completed a financial audit of that school.129514

       (C) Not later than forty-five days after receiving 129515
notification by the Auditor of State under division (A) of this 129516
section that a community school is unauditable, the sponsor of the 129517
school shall provide a written response to the Auditor of State. 129518
The response shall include the following:129519

       (1) An overview of the process the sponsor will use to review 129520
and understand the circumstances that led to the community school 129521
becoming unauditable;129522

       (2) A plan for providing the Auditor of State with the 129523
documentation necessary to complete an audit of the community 129524
school and for ensuring that all financial documents are available 129525
in the future;129526

       (3) The actions the sponsor will take to ensure that the plan 129527
described in division (C)(2) of this section is implemented.129528

       (D) If a community school fails to make reasonable efforts 129529
and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, files, or 129530
reports into an auditable condition within ninety days after being 129531
declared unauditable, the Auditor of State, in addition to 129532
requesting legal action under sections 117.41 and 117.42 of the 129533
Revised Code, shall notify the Department of the school's failure. 129534
If the Auditor of State or a public accountant subsequently is 129535
able to complete a financial audit of the school, the Auditor of 129536
State shall notify the Department that the audit has been 129537
completed.129538

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 129539
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, upon 129540
notification by the Auditor of State under division (D) of this 129541
section that a community school has failed to make reasonable 129542
efforts and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, 129543
files, or reports into an auditable condition following a 129544
declaration that the school is unauditable, the Department shall 129545
immediately cease all payments to the school under Chapter 3314. 129546
of the Revised Code and any other provision of law. Upon 129547
subsequent notification from the Auditor of State under that 129548
division that the Auditor of State or a public accountant was able 129549
to complete a financial audit of the community school, the 129550
Department shall release all funds withheld from the school under 129551
this section.129552

       Section 263.430.  FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN129553

       In collaboration with the County Family and Children First 129554
Council, a city, local, or exempted village school district, 129555
community school, STEM school, joint vocational school district, 129556
educational service center, or county board of developmental 129557
disabilities that receives allocations from the Department of 129558
Education from appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, or 129559
appropriation item 200540, Special Education Enhancements, may 129560
transfer portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool 129561
authorized by the Section of this act entitled "FAMILY AND 129562
CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." Allocations used for 129563
maintenance of effort or for federal or state funding matching 129564
requirements shall not be transferred unless the allocation may 129565
still be used to meet such requirements. 129566

       Section 263.433. The Department of Education shall conduct a 129567
study to determine the appropriate amounts and methods of funding 129568
for each category and sub-category of students identified as 129569
gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. Elements of the 129570
study shall include, but not be limited to, costs for effective 129571
and appropriate identification, staffing, professional 129572
development, technology, and materials and supplies at the 129573
district level. In addition, the Department shall determine the 129574
costs of statewide support needed for this population. Not later 129575
than March 31, 2014, the Department shall issue a report of its 129576
findings to the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 129577
of the Revised Code.129578

       Section 263.440.  The Department of Education shall conduct a 129579
formative evaluation of the Jon Peterson Special Needs Scholarship 129580
Program established under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the 129581
Revised Code and shall report its findings to the General 129582
Assembly, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 129583
not later than December 31, 2014.129584

        In conducting the evaluation, the Department shall to the 129585
extent possible gather comments from parents who have been awarded 129586
scholarships under the program, school district officials, 129587
representatives of registered private providers, educators, and 129588
representatives of educational organizations for inclusion in the 129589
report required under this section.129590

       Section 263.450. (A) The Ohio Open Enrollment Task Force is 129591
hereby established to review and make recommendations on open 129592
enrollment. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall consult 129593
with the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education to convene a 129594
taskforce that consists of representatives from school districts 129595
that represent all sectors of Ohio's educational community.129596

       (B) The Superintendent shall designate the chairperson of the 129597
Task Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the 129598
call of the chairperson.129599

       (C) The Task Force shall review and make recommendations 129600
regarding the process by which students may enroll in other school 129601
districts under open enrollment and the funding mechanisms 129602
associated with open enrollment deductions and credits.129603

       (D) Not later than December 31, 2013, the Task Force shall 129604
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 129605
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 129606
House of Representatives. Upon issuance of the report, the Task 129607
Force shall cease to exist.129608

       Section 263.463. (A) In order to implement the transportation 129609
subsidy prescribed by new section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, as 129610
enacted by this act, the Department of Education shall prescribe 129611
procedures and deadlines for parents or students to apply for that 129612
subsidy for the 2014-2015 school year. The application and notice 129613
procedures and deadlines prescribed by the Department shall allow 129614
sufficient time for school district boards of education to take 129615
the exercise of the parent's or student's option to receive the 129616
subsidy, in lieu of transportation, into account when planning 129617
transportation routes and schedules for the 2014-2015 school year.129618

       (B) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules under 129619
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures necessary 129620
to implement this section and new section 3327.02 of the Revised 129621
Code, as enacted by this act.129622

       Section 263.470.  (A) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible 129623
thereafter, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 129624
and if requested by the Department of Education, the Director of 129625
Budget and Management shall make budget changes made necessary by 129626
the transfer of the operations and related management functions of 129627
the eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education, if any, 129628
including administrative organization, program transfers, the 129629
creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the 129630
consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 129631
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 129632
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances in the fiscal year 2014-2015 129633
biennium in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 129634
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor. The established 129635
encumbrances plus any additional amounts determined to be 129636
necessary for the Ohio Department of Education to perform the 129637
operations and related management functions of the eTech Ohio 129638
Commission are hereby appropriated.129639

       (B) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 129640
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 129641
appropriation item 935607, Gates Foundation Grants, and 129642
re-establish them against appropriation item 200668, Gates 129643
Foundation Grants. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 129644
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 129645
under appropriation item 935607 by July 1, 2013, shall be 129646
completed under appropriation item 200668 in the same manner and 129647
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 129648
appropriation item 935607.129649

       (C) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 129650
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 129651
appropriation item 935408, General Operations, and re-establish 129652
them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget 129653
and Management, against appropriation item 200464, General 129654
Technology Operations. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 129655
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 129656
under appropriation item 935408 by July 1, 2013, shall be 129657
completed, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of 129658
Budget and Management, under appropriation item 200464 in the same 129659
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 129660
regard to appropriation item 935408.129661

       (D) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 129662
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 129663
appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration and Professional 129664
Development, and re-establish them, as determined to be 129665
appropriate by the Director of Budget and Management, against 129666
appropriation item 200465, Technology Integration and Professional 129667
Development. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 129668
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 129669
appropriation item 935411 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as 129670
determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget and 129671
Management, under appropriation item 200465 in the same manner and 129672
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 129673
appropriation item 935411.129674

       (E) There is hereby created the Educational Technology 129675
Practice Office as a cross-functional office comprised of 129676
employees of the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 129677
Education, including former employees of the eTech Ohio Commission 129678
transferred to the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 129679
Education. The Office shall work with educational service centers 129680
and information technology centers to develop digital learning, 129681
blended learning, and professional development materials using 129682
shared infrastructure. The Office shall also evaluate new 129683
educational technology and methodologies of teaching and learning 129684
and work with educators to increase awareness of such new 129685
technology and methodologies shown to be helpful to Ohio students.129686

       Section 263.473. Notwithstanding section 3321.01 of the 129687
Revised Code, no student who has been admitted to and has 129688
successfully completed kindergarten in the 2012-2013 school year 129689
shall be required to repeat kindergarten based solely on the age 129690
of the student.129691

       Section 263.480. PRIVATE TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT129692

       (A) As used in this section:129693

       (1) The following are "participating residential treatment 129694
centers":129695

       (a) Private residential treatment facilities that have 129696
entered into a contract with the Department of Youth Services to 129697
provide services to children placed at the facility by the 129698
Department and which, in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015 or 129699
both, the Department pays through appropriation item 470401, 129700
RECLAIM Ohio;129701

       (b) Abraxas, in Shelby;129702

       (c) Paint Creek, in Bainbridge;129703

       (d) F.I.R.S.T., in Mansfield.129704

       (2) "Education program" means an elementary or secondary 129705
education program or a special education program and related 129706
services.129707

       (3) "Served child" means any child receiving an education 129708
program pursuant to division (B) of this section.129709

       (4) "School district responsible for tuition" means a city, 129710
exempted village, or local school district that, if tuition 129711
payment for a child by a school district is required under law 129712
that existed in fiscal year 1998, is the school district required 129713
to pay that tuition.129714

       (5) "Residential child" means a child who resides in a 129715
participating residential treatment center and who is receiving an 129716
educational program under division (B) of this section.129717

       (B) A youth who is a resident of the state and has been 129718
assigned by a juvenile court or other authorized agency to a 129719
residential treatment facility specified in division (A) of this 129720
section shall be enrolled in an approved educational program 129721
located in or near the facility. Approval of the educational 129722
program shall be contingent upon compliance with the criteria 129723
established for such programs by the Department of Education. The 129724
educational program shall be provided by a school district or 129725
educational service center, or by the residential facility itself. 129726
Maximum flexibility shall be given to the residential treatment 129727
facility to determine the provider. In the event that a voluntary 129728
agreement cannot be reached and the residential facility does not 129729
choose to provide the educational program, the educational service 129730
center in the county in which the facility is located shall 129731
provide the educational program at the treatment center to 129732
children under twenty-two years of age residing in the treatment 129733
center.129734

       (C) Any school district responsible for tuition for a 129735
residential child shall, notwithstanding any conflicting provision 129736
of the Revised Code regarding tuition payment, pay tuition for the 129737
child for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to the education 129738
program provider and in the amount specified in this division. If 129739
there is no school district responsible for tuition for a 129740
residential child and if the participating residential treatment 129741
center to which the child is assigned is located in the city, 129742
exempted village, or local school district that, if the child were 129743
not a resident of that treatment center, would be the school 129744
district where the child is entitled to attend school under 129745
sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of the Revised Code, that school 129746
district, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 129747
Code, shall pay tuition for the child for fiscal year 2014 and 129748
fiscal year 2015 under this division unless that school district 129749
is providing the educational program to the child under division 129750
(B) of this section.129751

       A tuition payment under this division shall be made to the 129752
school district, educational service center, or residential 129753
treatment facility providing the educational program to the child.129754

       The amount of tuition paid shall be:129755

       (1) The amount of tuition determined for the district under 129756
division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;129757

       (2) In addition, for any student receiving special education 129758
pursuant to an individualized education program as defined in 129759
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, a payment for excess costs. 129760
This payment shall equal the actual cost to the school district, 129761
educational service center, or residential treatment facility of 129762
providing special education and related services to the student 129763
pursuant to the student's individualized education program, minus 129764
the tuition paid for the child under division (C)(1) of this 129765
section.129766

       A school district paying tuition under this division shall 129767
not include the child for whom tuition is paid in the district's 129768
average daily membership certified under division (A) of section 129769
3317.03 of the Revised Code.129770

       (D) In each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of 129771
Education shall reimburse, from appropriations made for the 129772
purpose, a school district, educational service center, or 129773
residential treatment facility, whichever is providing the 129774
service, that has demonstrated that it is in compliance with the 129775
funding criteria for each served child for whom a school district 129776
must pay tuition under division (C) of this section. The amount of 129777
the reimbursement shall be the amount appropriated for this 129778
purpose divided by the full-time equivalent number of children for 129779
whom reimbursement is to be made.129780

       (E) Funds provided to a school district, educational service 129781
center, or residential treatment facility under this section shall 129782
be used to supplement, not supplant, funds from other public 129783
sources for which the school district, service center, or 129784
residential treatment facility is entitled or eligible.129785

       (F) The Department of Education shall track the utilization 129786
of funds provided to school districts, educational service 129787
centers, and residential treatment facilities under this section 129788
and monitor the effect of the funding on the educational programs 129789
they provide in participating residential treatment facilities. 129790
The Department shall monitor the programs for educational 129791
accountability.129792

       Section 263.490. (A) The Superintendent of Public Instruction 129793
may establish an academic distress commission for any school 129794
district that is found by the Auditor of State to have knowingly 129795
manipulated student data with evidence of intent to deceive. 129796

       Each commission established under this section shall assist 129797
the district for which it was established in improving the 129798
district's academic performance.129799

        Each commission is a body both corporate and politic, 129800
constituting an agency and instrumentality of the state and 129801
performing essential governmental functions of the state. A 129802
commission shall be known as the "academic distress commission for 129803
......... (name of school district)," and, in that name, may 129804
exercise all authority vested in such a commission by this 129805
section. A separate commission shall be established for each 129806
school district to which this section applies.129807

        (B) The academic distress commission shall consist of five 129808
voting members, three of whom shall be appointed by the 129809
Superintendent of Public Instruction and two of whom shall be 129810
residents of the applicable school district appointed by the mayor 129811
of the largest municipal corporation within the district. When a 129812
school district becomes subject to this section, the 129813
Superintendent of Public Instruction shall provide written 129814
notification of that fact to the mayor described in this division 129815
and shall request the mayor to submit to the Superintendent of 129816
Public Instruction, in writing, the names of the mayor's 129817
appointees to the commission. The Superintendent of Public 129818
Instruction and the mayor shall make appointments to the 129819
commission within thirty days after the district is notified that 129820
it is subject to this section.129821

        Members of the commission shall serve at the pleasure of 129822
their appointing authority during the life of the commission. In 129823
the event of the death, resignation, incapacity, removal, or 129824
ineligibility to serve of a member, the appointing authority shall 129825
appoint a successor within fifteen days after the vacancy occurs. 129826
Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be paid by the 129827
commission their necessary and actual expenses incurred while 129828
engaged in the business of the commission.129829

        (C) An academic distress commission established under this 129830
section shall comply with the requirements of divisions (C) to (K) 129831
of section 3302.10 of the Revised Code.129832

        (D) An academic distress commission established under this 129833
section shall cease to exist based on rules adopted by the State 129834
Board of Education. Upon termination of the commission, the 129835
Department of Education shall compile a final report of the 129836
commission's activities to assist other academic distress 129837
commissions in the conduct of their functions.129838

       (E) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 129839
this section, the State Board shall adopt rules for the 129840
dissolution of an academic distress commission established under 129841
this section.129842

       Section 265.10. ELC OHIO ELECTIONS COMMISSION129843

General Revenue Fund129844

GRF 051321 Operating Expenses $ 333,117 $ 333,117 129845
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 333,117 $ 333,117 129846

General Services Fund Group129847

4P20 051601 Ohio Elections Commission Fund $ 225,000 $ 225,000 129848
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 225,000 $ 225,000 129849
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 558,117 $ 558,117 129850


       Section 267.10. FUN STATE BOARD OF EMBALMERS AND FUNERAL 129852
DIRECTORS129853

General Services Fund Group129854

4K90 881609 Operating Expenses $ 737,000 $ 741,000 129855
TOTAL GSF General Services 129856
Fund Group $ 737,000 $ 741,000 129857
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 737,000 $ 741,000 129858


       Section 269.10. PAY EMPLOYEE BENEFITS FUNDS129860

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group129861

8060 995666 Accrued Leave Fund $ 73,494,242 $ 74,964,127 129862
8070 995667 Disability Fund $ 26,593,747 $ 27,345,147 129863
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave Liability 129864
Fund Group $ 100,087,989 $ 102,309,274 129865

Agency Fund Group129866

1240 995673 Payroll Deductions $ 775,712,468 $ 814,498,091 129867
8080 995668 State Employee Health Benefit Fund $ 689,654,314 $ 758,608,963 129868
8090 995669 Dependent Care Spending Account $ 2,967,711 $ 3,116,097 129869
8100 995670 Life Insurance Investment Fund $ 2,143,053 $ 2,143,053 129870
8110 995671 Parental Leave Benefit Fund $ 3,668,471 $ 3,741,840 129871
8130 995672 Health Care Spending Account $ 8,033,020 $ 8,434,671 129872
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,482,179,037 $ 1,590,542,715 129873
129874

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,582,267,026 $ 1,692,851,989 129875

       ACCRUED LEAVE LIABILITY FUND129876

       The foregoing appropriation item 995666, Accrued Leave Fund, 129877
shall be used to make payments from the Accrued Leave Liability 129878
Fund (Fund 8060) pursuant to section 125.211 of the Revised Code. 129879
If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129880
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 129881
appropriated.129882

       STATE EMPLOYEE DISABILITY LEAVE BENEFIT FUND129883

       The foregoing appropriation item 995667, Disability Fund, 129884
shall be used to make payments from the State Employee Disability 129885
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8070) pursuant to section 124.83 of the 129886
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and 129887
Management that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are 129888
hereby appropriated.129889

       PAYROLL DEDUCTION FUND129890

       The foregoing appropriation item 995673, Payroll Deductions, 129891
shall be used to make payments from the Payroll Deduction Fund 129892
(Fund 1240) pursuant to section 125.21 of the Revised Code. If it 129893
is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129894
additional appropriation amounts are necessary, the amounts are 129895
hereby appropriated.129896

       STATE EMPLOYEE HEALTH BENEFIT FUND129897

       The foregoing appropriation item 995668, State Employee 129898
Health Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the State 129899
Employee Health Benefit Fund (Fund 8080) pursuant to section 129900
124.87 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 129901
Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, the 129902
amounts are hereby appropriated.129903

       DEPENDENT CARE SPENDING FUND129904

       The foregoing appropriation item 995669, Dependent Care 129905
Spending Account, shall be used to make payments from the 129906
Dependent Care Spending Fund (Fund 8090) to employees eligible for 129907
dependent care expenses pursuant to section 124.822 of the Revised 129908
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 129909
that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 129910
appropriated.129911

       LIFE INSURANCE INVESTMENT FUND129912

       The foregoing appropriation item 995670, Life Insurance 129913
Investment Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Life 129914
Insurance Investment Fund (Fund 8100) for the costs and expenses 129915
of the state's life insurance benefit program pursuant to section 129916
125.212 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director 129917
of Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, 129918
the amounts are hereby appropriated.129919

       PARENTAL LEAVE BENEFIT FUND129920

       The foregoing appropriation item 995671, Parental Leave 129921
Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Parental 129922
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8110) to employees eligible for parental 129923
leave benefits pursuant to section 124.137 of the Revised Code. If 129924
it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129925
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 129926
appropriated.129927

       HEALTH CARE SPENDING ACCOUNT FUND129928

       The foregoing appropriation item 995672, Health Care Spending 129929
Account, shall be used to make payments from the Health Care 129930
Spending Account Fund (Fund 8130) for payments pursuant to state 129931
employees' participation in a flexible spending account for 129932
non-reimbursed health care expenses and section 124.821 of the 129933
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 129934
Administrative Services that additional appropriation amounts are 129935
necessary, the Director of Administrative Services may request 129936
that the Director of Budget and Management increase such amounts. 129937
Such amounts are hereby appropriated.129938

       Section 269.20. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE COST SAVINGS FUND129939

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129940
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $735,000 cash 129941
from the Cost Savings Fund (Fund 8140) to the Investment Recovery 129942
Fund (Fund 4270) used by the Department of Administrative 129943
Services, and up to $5,200,000 cash from the Cost Savings Fund 129944
(Fund 8140) to the Accrued Leave Fund (Fund 8060) in order to 129945
support accrued leave payouts to state employees who are 129946
participating in an annual leave conversion or who are separating 129947
from state service.129948

       Section 271.10.  ERB STATE EMPLOYMENT RELATIONS BOARD129949

General Revenue Fund129950

GRF 125321 Operating Expenses $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 129951
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 129952

General Services Fund Group129953

5720 125603 Training and Publications $ 85,000 $ 85,000 129954
TOTAL GSF General Services 129955
Fund Group $ 85,000 $ 85,000 129956
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,846,457 $ 3,846,457 129957


       Section 273.10. ENG STATE BOARD OF ENGINEERS AND SURVEYORS129959

General Services Fund Group129960

4K90 892609 Operating $ 996,938 $ 993,889 129961
TOTAL GSF General Services 129962
Fund Group $ 996,938 $ 993,889 129963
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 996,938 $ 993,889 129964


       Section 275.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY129966

General Revenue Fund129967

GRF 715502 Auto Emissions e-Check Program $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 129968
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 129969

General Services Fund Group129970

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 252,153 $ 326,029 129971
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 10,255,680 $ 10,255,680 129972
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,600,000 $ 2,602,000 129973
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 129974
TOTAL GSF General Services 129975
Fund Group $ 13,157,833 $ 13,233,709 129976

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group129977

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,562,578 $ 2,474,605 129978
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,088,383 $ 4,088,383 129979
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 129980
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 129981
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 16,205,000 $ 15,280,000 129982
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 200,000 $ 200,000 129983
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 832,543 $ 1,114,543 129984
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,012,021 $ 3,012,991 129985
3FH0 715693 Diesel Emission Reduction Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 129986
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,609,198 $ 2,824,076 129987
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 129988
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 129989
Fund Group $ 46,531,800 $ 46,016,675 129990

State Special Revenue Fund Group129991

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 389,126 $ 402,697 129992
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,165,400 $ 3,237,450 129993
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 15,685,342 $ 16,330,873 129994
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 6,993,800 $ 7,688,800 129995
4K40 715686 Environmental Laboratory Services $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 129996
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 6,316,772 $ 6,476,011 129997
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 129998
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,059,378 $ 1,070,532 129999
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 916,690 $ 945,195 130000
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 14,528,885 $ 15,080,366 130001
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 335,000 $ 335,000 130002
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 660,033 $ 660,293 130003
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 7,615,403 $ 8,224,041 130004
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 14,528,609 $ 14,933,345 130005
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 130006
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 4,514,500 $ 4,535,500 130007
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 1,548,101 $ 1,548,101 130008
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 208,936 $ 214,826 130009
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 130010
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 130011
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 130012
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 9,614,974 $ 9,614,974 130013
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 5,684,758 $ 5,684,758 130014
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,863,521 $ 4,863,521 130015
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 695,069 $ 695,069 130016
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 1,358,586 $ 1,558,586 130017
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 705,423 $ 705,423 130018
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 130019
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 10,582,627 $ 10,582,627 130020
5BC0 715694 Environmental Resource Coordination $ 170,000 $ 170,000 130021
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 130022
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 475,000 $ 475,000 130023
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 128,212 $ 223,212 130024
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 130025
6440 715631 Emergency Response Radiological Safety $ 284,266 $ 290,674 130026
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 88,764 $ 88,764 130027
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 3,921,605 $ 3,921,605 130028
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 133,636 $ 133,636 130029
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,252 $ 2,623,252 130030
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,125,000 130031
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 345,000 $ 345,000 130032
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 130033
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 131,755,659 $ 135,299,122 130034

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group130035

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,124 $ 284,124 130036
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,124 $ 284,124 130037
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,652,509 $ 205,756,723 130038

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES130039

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 130040
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 130041
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 130042
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 130043
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.130044

       CASH TRANSFERS130045

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130046
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $11,400,000 130047
cash from the Hazardous Waste Management Fund (Fund 5030) to the 130048
Hazardous Waste Cleanup Fund (Fund 5050) to support closure and 130049
corrective action programs that were transferred to the Division 130050
of Environmental Response and Revitalization.130051

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130052
Director of Environmental Protection shall certify to the Director 130053
of Budget and Management the cash balance in the Dredge and Fill 130054
Fund (Fund 5N20). The Director of Budget and Management shall 130055
transfer the certified amount from Fund 5N20 to the Surface Water 130056
Protection Fund (Fund 4K40). Any existing encumbrances against 130057
appropriation item 715613, Dredge and Fill, shall be canceled and 130058
reestablished against appropriation item 715650, Surface Water 130059
Protection. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 130060
appropriated and Fund 5N20 is abolished.130061

       Section 277.10. EBR ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEW APPEALS COMMISSION130062

General Revenue Fund130063

GRF 172321 Operating Expenses $ 545,530 $ 545,530 130064
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 545,530 $ 545,530 130065
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 545,530 $ 545,530 130066


       Section 278.10. ETC BROADCAST EDUCATIONAL MEDIA COMMISSION130068

General Revenue Fund130069

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 130070
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 1,002,089 $ 1,002,089 130071
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 750,000 $ 750,000 130072
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 130073
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 130074
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 500,000 $ 500,000 130075
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,574,744 $ 7,574,744 130076

General Services Fund Group130077

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 0 130078
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 30,000 $ 0 130079
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 80,000 $ 0 130080

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,654,744 $ 7,574,744 130081


       Section 278.20.  STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU130083

       The foregoing appropriation item 935401, Statehouse News 130084
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 130085
Statehouse News Bureau.130086

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES130087

       The foregoing appropriation item 935402, Ohio Government 130088
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 130089
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 130090
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 130091
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 130092
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 130093
government, among its other functions.130094

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS130095

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology 130096
Operations, the Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall 130097
provide up to $1,000,000 in each fiscal year to the Board of 130098
Regents in order for the Board of Regents to provide grants on a 130099
competitive basis to public and chartered nonpublic schools for 130100
their participation in the electronic textbook pilot project. 130101
These grants shall be administered as provided under the section 130102
of this act entitled ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 130103
2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the 130104
Board of Regents may certify to the Director of Budget and 130105
Management the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of 130106
this set aside at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated 130107
to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby reappropriated 130108
for the same purpose for fiscal year 2015. 130109

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 935409, 130110
Technology Operations, shall be used by the Broadcast Educational 130111
Media Commission to pay expenses of the network infrastructure, 130112
which includes the television and radio transmission 130113
infrastructure and infrastructure that shall link all public K-12 130114
classrooms to each other and to the Internet, and provide access 130115
to voice, video, other communication services, and data 130116
educational resources for students and teachers. 130117

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION130118

       The foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content Development, 130119
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 130120
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 130121
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 130122
classroom and online.130123

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 130124
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in each 130125
fiscal year shall be allocated equally among the 12 Ohio 130126
educational television stations. Funds shall be used for the 130127
production of interactive instructional programming series with 130128
priority given to resources aligned with state academic content 130129
standards. The programming shall be targeted to the needs of the 130130
poorest two hundred school districts as determined by the 130131
district's adjusted valuation per pupil as defined in former 130132
section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code as that section existed 130133
prior to June 30, 2005.130134

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 130135
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 130136
each fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 130137
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified public educational television 130138
stations and educational radio stations to support their 130139
operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant to an 130140
allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications 130141
Network Commission unless a substitute formula is developed by the 130142
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in consultation with Ohio's 130143
qualified public educational television stations and educational 130144
radio stations.130145

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 130146
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in each 130147
fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 130148
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified radio reading services to 130149
support their operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant 130150
to an allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational 130151
Telecommunications Network Commission unless a substitute formula 130152
is developed by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission in 130153
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services.130154

       Section 279.10. ETH OHIO ETHICS COMMISSION130155

General Revenue Fund130156

GRF 146321 Operating Expenses $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 130157
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 130158

General Services Fund Group130159

4M60 146601 Operating Expenses $ 636,388 $ 641,000 130160
TOTAL GSF General Services 130161
Fund Group $ 636,388 $ 641,000 130162
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,046,139 $ 2,022,556 130163


       Section 281.10. EXP OHIO EXPOSITIONS COMMISSION130165

General Revenue Fund130166

GRF 723403 Junior Fair Subsidy $ 250,000 $ 250,000 130167
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 250,000 $ 250,000 130168

State Special Revenue Fund Group130169

4N20 723602 Ohio State Fair Harness Racing $ 235,000 $ 235,000 130170
5060 723601 Operating Expenses $ 12,894,000 $ 12,894,000 130171
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130172
Fund Group $ 13,129,000 $ 13,129,000 130173
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,379,000 $ 13,379,000 130174

       STATE FAIR RESERVE130175

       The General Manager of the Expositions Commission, in 130176
consultation with the Director of Budget and Management, may 130177
submit a request to the Controlling Board to use available amounts 130178
in the State Fair Reserve Fund (Fund 6400) if revenues for the 130179
Ohio State Fair for the 2013 or 2014 Ohio State Fair are 130180
unexpectedly low.130181

       Section 282.10. FCC OHIO FACILITIES CONSTRUCTION COMMISSION130182

General Revenue Fund130183

GRF 230401 Lease Rental Payments - Cultural Facilities $ 33,106,400 $ 29,854,500 130184
GRF 230458 State Construction Management Services $ 2,495,751 $ 2,245,751 130185
GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 130186
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 387,408,251 $ 409,464,951 130187

General Services Fund Group130188

1310 230639 State Construction Management Operations $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 130189
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 130190

State Special Revenue Fund Group130191

4T80 230603 Community Project Administration $ 200,000 $ 200,000 130192
5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,550,000 $ 8,550,000 130193
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130194
Fund Group $ 8,750,000 $ 8,750,000 130195
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 405,621,593 $ 427,678,293 130196


       Section 282.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS130198

       The foregoing appropriation item 230401, Lease Rental 130199
Payments - Cultural Facilities, shall be used to meet all payments 130200
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 130201
July 1, 2013 through June 30, 2015, from the Ohio Facilities 130202
Construction Commission under the primary leases and agreements 130203
for those arts and sports facilities made under Chapters 152. and 130204
154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of 130205
funds pledged for bond service charges on related obligations 130206
issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.130207

       COMMON SCHOOLS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE130208

       The foregoing appropriation item 230908, Common Schools 130209
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 130210
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 130211
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 130212
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.03 of 130213
the Revised Code.130214

       Section 282.30.  COMMUNITY PROJECT ADMINISTRATION130215

       The foregoing appropriation item 230603, Community Project 130216
Administration, shall be used by the Ohio Facilities Construction 130217
Commission in administering Cultural and Sports Facilities 130218
Building Fund (Fund 7030) projects pursuant to section 123.201 of 130219
the Revised Code.130220

       Section 282.40. OPERATING EXPENSES130221

       The foregoing appropriation item 230644, Operating Expenses, 130222
shall be used by the Ohio School Facilities Commission to carry 130223
out its responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of 130224
the Revised Code.130225

       In both fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Executive Director of 130226
the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall certify on a quarterly 130227
basis to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of cash 130228
from interest earnings to be transferred from the School Building 130229
Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), the Public School Building Fund (Fund 130230
7021), and the Educational Facilities Trust Fund (Fund N087) to 130231
the Ohio School Facilities Commission Fund (Fund 5E30). The amount 130232
transferred from the School Building Assistance Fund (Fund 7032) 130233
may not exceed investment earnings credited to the fund, less any 130234
amount required to be paid for federal arbitrage rebate purposes.130235

       If the Executive Director of the Ohio Facilities Construction 130236
Commission determines that transferring cash from interest 130237
earnings is insufficient to support operations and carry out its 130238
responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of the 130239
Revised Code, the Commission may, with the approval of the 130240
Controlling Board, transfer cash not generated from interest from 130241
the Public School Building Fund (Fund 7021) and the Educational 130242
Trust Fund (Fund N087) to the Ohio School Facilities Commission 130243
Fund (Fund 5E30).130244

       SCHOOL FACILITIES ENCUMBRANCES AND REAPPROPRIATION130245

       At the request of the Executive Director of the Ohio School 130246
Facilities Commission, the Director of Budget and Management may 130247
cancel encumbrances for school district projects from a previous 130248
biennium if the district has not raised its local share of project 130249
costs within thirteen months of receiving Controlling Board 130250
approval under section 3318.05 or 3318.41 of the Revised Code. The 130251
Executive Director of the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall 130252
certify the amounts of the canceled encumbrances to the Director 130253
of Budget and Management on a quarterly basis. The amounts of the 130254
canceled encumbrances are hereby appropriated.130255

       Section 282.50. CAPITAL DONATIONS FUND CERTIFICATIONS AND 130256
APPROPRIATIONS130257

        The Executive Director of the Facilities Construction 130258
Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 130259
the amount of cash receipts and related investment income, 130260
irrevocable letters of credit from a bank, or certification of the 130261
availability of funds that have been received from a county or a 130262
municipal corporation for deposit into the Capital Donations Fund 130263
(Fund 5A10) and that are related to an anticipated project. These 130264
amounts are hereby appropriated to appropriation item C37146, 130265
Capital Donations. Prior to certifying these amounts to the 130266
Director, the Executive Director shall make a written agreement 130267
with the participating entity on the necessary cash flows required 130268
for the anticipated construction or equipment acquisition project.130269

       Section 282.60.  AMENDMENT TO PROJECT AGREEMENT FOR 130270
MAINTENANCE LEVY130271

        The Ohio School Facilities Commission shall amend the project 130272
agreement between the Commission and a school district that is 130273
participating in the Accelerated Urban School Building Assistance 130274
Program on the effective date of this section, if the Commission 130275
determines that it is necessary to do so in order to comply with 130276
division (B)(3)(c) of section 3318.38 of the Revised Code.130277

       Section 282.70. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to 130278
the contrary, the Ohio School Facilities Commission may determine 130279
the amount of funding available for disbursement in a given fiscal 130280
year for any project approved under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 130281
the Revised Code in order to keep aggregate state capital spending 130282
within approved limits and may take actions including, but not 130283
limited to, determining the schedule for design or bidding of 130284
approved projects, to ensure appropriate and supportable cash 130285
flow. 130286

       Section 282.80. Notwithstanding division (B) of section 130287
3318.40 of the Revised Code, the Ohio School Facilities Commission 130288
may provide assistance to at least one joint vocational school 130289
district each fiscal year for the acquisition of classroom 130290
facilities in accordance with sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 130291
Revised Code. 130292

       Section 282.90. The Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is 130293
abolished. Except as otherwise provided in this section, all 130294
obligations of the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission under 130295
agreements to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is a 130296
party, and all records and assets of the Ohio Cultural Facilities 130297
Commission, including, without limitation, equipment, inventory, 130298
contract rights, accounts, and general intangibles, are 130299
transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.130300

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall designate 130301
the positions, if any, to be transferred to the Ohio Facilities 130302
Construction Commission, along with any equipment assigned to 130303
those positions. Any employee transferred to the Ohio Facilities 130304
Construction Commission retains the employee's respective 130305
classification, but the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 130306
may reassign and reclassify the employee's position and 130307
compensation as the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 130308
determines to be in the best interest of office administration.130309

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall complete 130310
any activities related to the design, planning, construction, and 130311
related management functions commenced but not completed by the 130312
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in the same manner and with 130313
the same effect as if the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission had 130314
completed them. The consolidation of the commissions shall not 130315
cause the loss or impairment of any validation, cure, right, 130316
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability, which the Ohio 130317
Facilities Construction Commission shall administer. 130318

        All rules, orders, and determinations related to the design, 130319
planning, and construction and related management functions of the 130320
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission continue in effect as rules, 130321
orders, and determinations of the Ohio Facilities Construction 130322
Commission until the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 130323
modifies or rescinds them. The Director of the Legislative Service 130324
Commission shall renumber the rules of the Ohio Cultural 130325
Facilities Commission related to that commission's design, 130326
planning, and construction and related management functions to 130327
reflect their transfer to the Ohio Facilities Construction 130328
Commission.130329

       The transfer of functions from the Ohio Cultural Facilities 130330
Commission to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission does not 130331
affect any pending judicial or administrative action or proceeding 130332
to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is a party and 130333
that is related to that commission's design, planning, 130334
construction, capital funding, or related management functions. 130335
Any such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in 130336
the name of the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission. On 130337
application to the court or agency, the Ohio Facilities 130338
Construction Commission shall be substituted for the Ohio Cultural 130339
Facilities Commission as a party to the action or proceeding.130340

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 130341
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 130342
371603, Project Administration, and re-establish them against 130343
appropriation item 230603, Community Project Administration. The 130344
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 130345
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 130346
371603 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 130347
item 230603 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 130348
were completed with regard to appropriation item 371603.130349

       Funds collected as part of a management contract for the 130350
Riffe Theatres, which previously were deposited in the Ohio 130351
Cultural Facilities Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80), 130352
shall be credited to the Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 130353
5MV0), which is hereby created in the State Treasury. The Director 130354
of Budget and Management shall transfer from the Ohio Cultural 130355
Facilities Commission Administration Fund to the Theater Equipment 130356
Maintenance Fund any remaining cash balances from funds collected 130357
as part of a management contract for the Riffe Theatres. In order 130358
to facilitate this transfer, the Executive Director of the Ohio 130359
Facilities Construction Commission, by July 1, 2013, or as soon as 130360
possible thereafter, shall certify to the Director of Budget and 130361
Management an estimate of the amount to be transferred. The 130362
Department of Administrative Services shall use appropriation item 130363
100662, Theater Equipment Maintenance, to spend cash in the 130364
Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 5MV0).130365

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may enter into an 130366
interagency agreement with the Department of Administrative 130367
Services for the Department to perform any of the functions 130368
transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission under 130369
this section.130370

       Any reference to the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in 130371
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to 130372
refer to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.130373

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission, the Ohio Public 130374
Facilities Commission, and the issuing authority of any 130375
obligations issued for the financing of capital facilities for 130376
Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities may execute 130377
instruments, documents, and agreements and may take necessary or 130378
appropriate actions to effect the orderly transfer of those 130379
obligations from the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission to the 130380
Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.130381

       This section takes effect July 1, 2013.130382

       Section 283.10. GOV OFFICE OF THE GOVERNOR130383

General Revenue Fund130384

GRF 040321 Operating Expenses $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 130385
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 130386

General Services Fund Group130387

5AK0 040607 Government Relations $ 365,149 $ 365,149 130388
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 365,149 $ 365,149 130389

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,216,701 $ 3,216,701 130390

       GOVERNMENT RELATIONS130391

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 040607, 130392
Government Relations, may be used to support Ohio's membership in 130393
national or regional associations.130394

       The Office of the Governor may charge any state agency of the 130395
executive branch using an intrastate transfer voucher such amounts 130396
necessary to defray the costs incurred for the conduct of 130397
governmental relations associated with issues that can be 130398
attributed to the agency. Amounts collected shall be deposited in 130399
the Government Relations Fund (Fund 5AK0).130400

       Section 285.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH130401

General Revenue Fund130402

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 130403
GRF 440413 Local Health Departments $ 823,061 $ 823,061 130404
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,428,015 $ 4,428,015 130405
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 8,825,829 $ 8,825,829 130406
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 130407
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 130408
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 130409
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,655,449 $ 3,655,449 130410
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,444 $ 630,444 130411
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 4,874,361 $ 4,874,361 130412
GRF 440454 Environmental Health $ 1,194,634 $ 1,194,634 130413
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,987 $ 33,673,987 130414
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 2,686,688 $ 2,686,688 130415
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 130416
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,447,251 $ 2,447,251 130417
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 130418
GRF 440473 Tobacco Prevention and Cessation $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 130419
GRF 440474 Infant Vitality $ 3,116,688 $ 3,116,688 130420
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 130421
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 130422
GRF 654453 Medicaid - Health Care Quality Assurance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 130423
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 88,607,614 $ 88,607,614 130424

State Highway Safety Fund Group130425

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 130426
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 130427
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 130428

General Services Fund Group130429

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 820,998 $ 820,998 130430
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 30,615,591 $ 31,052,469 130431
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 130432
6830 440633 Employee Assistance Program $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 130433
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,265 $ 99,265 130434
TOTAL GSF General Services 130435
Fund Group $ 37,635,854 $ 38,072,732 130436

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130437

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 23,889,057 $ 23,889,057 130438
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 130439
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 250,000,000 $ 250,000,000 130440
3910 440606 Medicare Survey and Certification $ 19,449,282 $ 19,961,405 130441
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 134,546,304 $ 135,140,586 130442
3GD0 654601 Medicaid Program Support $ 21,126,014 $ 22,392,094 130443
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 130444
Fund Group $ 455,010,657 $ 457,383,142 130445

State Special Revenue Fund Group130446

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 25,305,250 $ 25,613,586 130447
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,433 $ 878,433 130448
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,703 $ 3,692,703 130449
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,311,039 $ 3,311,039 130450
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,824 $ 1,032,824 130451
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 130452
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 130453
4L30 440609 HIV Care and Miscellaneous Expenses $ 8,333,164 $ 8,333,164 130454
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 130455
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,789 $ 2,255,789 130456
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,997 $ 878,997 130457
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 130458
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,902 $ 1,151,902 130459
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 250,000 $ 250,000 130460
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 130461
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 130462
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 130463
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,739,617 $ 19,739,617 130464
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130465
Fund Group $ 68,601,542 $ 68,946,022 130466

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group130467

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 130468
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 130469
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 130470
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 130471

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group130472

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 130473
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 130474
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 651,604,547 $ 654,758,390 130475


       Section 285.20.  MOTHERS AND CHILDREN SAFETY NET SERVICES130477

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 440416, Mothers and 130478
Children Safety Net Services, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall 130479
be used to assist families with hearing impaired children under 130480
twenty-one years of age in purchasing hearing aids. The Director 130481
of Health shall adopt rules governing the distribution of these 130482
funds, including rules that do both of the following: (1) 130483
establish eligibility criteria to include families with incomes at 130484
or below four hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines 130485
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, and (2) develop 130486
a sliding scale of disbursements under this section based on 130487
family income. The Director may adopt other rules as necessary to 130488
implement this section. Rules adopted under this section shall be 130489
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.130490

        The Department shall disburse all of the funds appropriated 130491
under this section.130492

        HIV/AIDS PREVENTION/TREATMENT130493

       The foregoing appropriation item 440444, AIDS Prevention and 130494
Treatment, shall be used to assist persons with HIV/AIDS in 130495
acquiring HIV-related medications and to administer educational 130496
prevention initiatives.130497

       PUBLIC HEALTH LABORATORY130498

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 440451, Public 130499
Health Laboratory, shall be used for coordination and management 130500
of prevention program operations and the purchase of drugs for 130501
sexually transmitted diseases.130502

       HELP ME GROW130503

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, shall 130504
be used by the Department of Health to implement the Help Me Grow 130505
Program. Funds shall be distributed to counties through 130506
agreements, contracts, grants, or subsidies in accordance with 130507
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. Appropriation item 440459, 130508
Help Me Grow, may be used in conjunction with other early 130509
childhood funds and services to promote the optimal development of 130510
young children and family-centered programs and services that 130511
acknowledge and support the social, emotional, cognitive, 130512
intellectual, and physical development of children and the vital 130513
role of families in ensuring the well-being and success of 130514
children. The Department of Health shall enter into interagency 130515
agreements with the Department of Education, Department of 130516
Developmental Disabilities, Department of Job and Family Services, 130517
and Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to ensure 130518
that all early childhood programs and initiatives are coordinated 130519
and school linked.130520

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, may 130521
also be used for the Developmental Autism and Screening Program.130522

       INFANT VITALITY130523

       The foregoing appropriation item 440474, Infant Vitality, 130524
shall be used to fund the following projects, which are hereby 130525
created: 130526

       (A) The Infant Safe Sleep Campaign to educate parents and 130527
caregivers with a uniform message regarding safe sleep 130528
environments; 130529

       (B) The Progesterone Prematurity Prevention Project to enable 130530
prenatal care providers to identify, screen, treat, and track 130531
outcomes for women eligible for progesterone supplementation; and 130532

       (C) The Prenatal Smoking Cessation Project to enable prenatal 130533
care providers who work with women of reproductive age, including 130534
pregnant women, to have the tools, training, and technical 130535
assistance needed to treat smokers effectively. 130536

       TARGETED HEALTH CARE SERVICES OVER 21130537

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 130538
Services Over 21, shall be used to administer the Cystic Fibrosis 130539
Program and to implement the Hemophilia Insurance Premium Payment 130540
Program.130541

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 130542
Services Over 21, shall also be used to provide essential 130543
medications and to pay the copayments for drugs approved by the 130544
Department of Health and covered by Medicare Part D that are 130545
dispensed to Bureau for Children with Medical Handicaps (BCMH) 130546
participants for the Cystic Fibrosis Program.130547

       The Department shall expend all of these funds.130548

       GENETICS SERVICES130549

       The foregoing appropriation item 440608, Genetics Services 130550
(Fund 4D60), shall be used by the Department of Health to 130551
administer programs authorized by sections 3701.501 and 3701.502 130552
of the Revised Code. None of these funds shall be used to counsel 130553
or refer for abortion, except in the case of a medical emergency.130554

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN AUDIT130555

       The Medically Handicapped Children Audit Fund (Fund 4770) 130556
shall receive revenue from audits of hospitals and recoveries from 130557
third-party payers. Moneys may be expended for payment of audit 130558
settlements and for costs directly related to obtaining recoveries 130559
from third-party payers and for encouraging Medically Handicapped 130560
Children's Program recipients to apply for third-party benefits. 130561
Moneys also may be expended for payments for diagnostic and 130562
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children, as 130563
defined in division (A) of section 3701.022 of the Revised Code, 130564
and Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more years of age and who 130565
are suffering from cystic fibrosis or hemophilia. Moneys may also 130566
be expended for administrative expenses incurred in operating the 130567
Medically Handicapped Children's Program.130568

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN - COUNTY ASSESSMENTS130569

       The foregoing appropriation item 440607, Medically 130570
Handicapped Children - County Assessments (Fund 6660), shall be 130571
used to make payments under division (E) of section 3701.023 of 130572
the Revised Code.130573

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE PUBLIC HEALTH PRIORITIES TRUST FUND TO 130574
THE TOBACCO USE PREVENTION FUND130575

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130576
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $2,439,230 cash 130577
from the Public Health Priorities Trust Fund (Fund L087) to the 130578
Tobacco Use Prevention Fund (Fund 5BX0) to meet the operating 130579
needs of the Department of Health's tobacco enforcement and 130580
cessation efforts.130581

       Section 285.30. DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 130582
STRUCTURE130583

       Upon request from the Director of Health, the Director of 130584
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 130585
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 130586
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Health's 130587
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Health, the Director 130588
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 130589
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 130590
Department of Health, abolish existing funds used by the 130591
Department of Health, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 130592
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 130593
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 130594
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.130595

       Section 287.10. HEF HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION130596

Agency Fund Group130597

4610 372601 Operating Expenses $ 12,500 $ 12,500 130598
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 12,500 $ 12,500 130599
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,500 $ 12,500 130600


       Section 289.10. SPA COMMISSION ON HISPANIC/LATINO AFFAIRS130602

General Revenue Fund130603

GRF 148100 Personal Services $ 279,998 $ 279,998 130604
GRF 148402 Community Programs $ 44,924 $ 44,924 130605
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 324,922 $ 324,922 130606

General Services Fund Group130607

6010 148602 Special Initiatives $ 24,558 $ 24,558 130608
TOTAL GSF General Services 130609
Fund Group $ 24,558 $ 24,558 130610
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 349,480 $ 349,480 130611


       Section 291.10. OHS OHIO HISTORICAL SOCIETY130613

General Revenue Fund130614

GRF 360501 Education and Collections $ 3,618,997 $ 3,618,997 130615
GRF 360502 Site and Museum Operations $ 4,426,288 $ 4,926,288 130616
GRF 360504 Ohio Preservation Office $ 290,000 $ 290,000 130617
GRF 360505 National Afro-American Museum $ 414,798 $ 414,798 130618
GRF 360506 Hayes Presidential Center $ 309,147 $ 309,147 130619
GRF 360508 State Historical Grants $ 400,000 $ 400,000 130620
GRF 360509 Outreach and Partnership $ 90,395 $ 90,395 130621
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 9,549,625 $ 10,049,625 130622

Agency Fund Group130623

5KL0 360602 Ohio History Tax Check-off $ 250,000 $ 250,000 130624
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 130625
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,799,625 $ 10,299,625 130626

       SUBSIDY APPROPRIATION130627

       Upon approval by the Director of Budget and Management, the 130628
foregoing appropriation items shall be released to the Ohio 130629
Historical Society in quarterly amounts that in total do not 130630
exceed the annual appropriations. The funds and fiscal records of 130631
the society for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 shall be 130632
examined by independent certified public accountants approved by 130633
the Auditor of State, and a copy of the audited financial 130634
statements shall be filed with the Office of Budget and 130635
Management. The society shall prepare and submit to the Office of 130636
Budget and Management the following:130637

       (A) An estimated operating budget for each fiscal year of the 130638
biennium. The operating budget shall be submitted at or near the 130639
beginning of each calendar year.130640

       (B) Financial reports, indicating actual receipts and 130641
expenditures for the fiscal year to date. These reports shall be 130642
filed at least semiannually during the fiscal biennium.130643

       The foregoing appropriations shall be considered to be the 130644
contractual consideration provided by the state to support the 130645
state's offer to contract with the Ohio Historical Society under 130646
section 149.30 of the Revised Code.130647

       STATE HISTORICAL GRANTS130648

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 360508, State Historical 130649
Grants, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 130650
Cincinnati Museum Center, and $200,000 in each fiscal year shall 130651
be used for the Western Reserve Historical Society.130652



       Section 293.10.  REP OHIO HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES130654

General Revenue Fund130655

GRF 025321 Operating Expenses $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 130656
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 130657

General Services Fund Group130658

1030 025601 House Reimbursement $ 1,433,664 $ 1,433,664 130659
4A40 025602 Miscellaneous Sales $ 37,849 $ 37,849 130660
TOTAL GSF General Services 130661
Fund Group $ 1,471,513 $ 1,471,513 130662
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,502,604 $ 22,502,604 130663

        OPERATING EXPENSES130664

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 130665
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 130666
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 130667
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 130668
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 130669
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 130670
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 130671
year 2014.130672

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 130673
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 130674
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 130675
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 130676
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 130677
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 130678
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 130679
year 2015.130680

       HOUSE REIMBURSEMENT130681

       If it is determined by the Chief Administrative Officer of 130682
the House of Representatives that additional appropriations are 130683
necessary for the foregoing appropriation item 025601, House 130684
Reimbursement, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130685

       Section 295.10. HFA OHIO HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY130686

State Special Revenue Fund Group130687

5AZ0 997601 Housing Finance Agency Personal Services $ 12,156,982 $ 12,156,982 130688
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 12,156,982 $ 12,156,982 130689
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,156,982 $ 12,156,982 130690


       Section 297.10. IGO OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL130692

General Revenue Fund130693

GRF 965321 Operating Expenses $ 1,175,598 $ 1,175,598 130694
GRF 965404 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 475,000 $ 350,000 130695
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,650,598 $ 1,525,598 130696

General Services Fund Group130697

5FA0 965603 Deputy Inspector General for ODOT $ 400,000 $ 400,000 130698
5FT0 965604 Deputy Inspector General for BWC/OIC $ 425,000 $ 425,000 130699
5GI0 965605 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 25,000 $ 0 130700
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 850,000 $ 825,000 130701
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,500,598 $ 2,350,598 130702


       Section 299.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE130704

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130705

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 130706
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 1,970,725 $ 1,970,725 130707
TOTAL FED Federal Special 130708
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,270,725 $ 3,270,725 130709

State Special Revenue Fund Group130710

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 180,000 $ 180,000 130711
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 27,570,433 $ 24,910,367 130712
5550 820605 Examination $ 8,184,065 $ 8,184,065 130713
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130714
Fund Group $ 35,934,498 $ 33,274,432 130715
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 39,205,223 $ 36,545,157 130716

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION130717

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 130718
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 130719
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 130720
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 130721
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 130722
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 130723
Superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 130724
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 130725
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).130726

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES130727

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 130728
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 130729
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 130730
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 130731
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 130732
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 130733
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 130734
Revised Code.130735

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND130736

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 130737
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 130738
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 130739
General Revenue Fund.130740

       Section 301.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES130741

General Revenue Fund130742

GRF 600321 Program Support $ 31,320,964 $ 31,109,751 130743
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 151,386,934 $ 151,386,934 130744
GRF 600413 Child Care State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 130745
GRF 600416 Information Technology Projects $ 54,223,871 $ 54,184,700 130746
GRF 600420 Child Support Programs $ 6,498,667 $ 6,591,048 130747
GRF 600421 Family Assistance Programs $ 3,161,930 $ 3,161,930 130748
GRF 600423 Families and Children Programs $ 6,384,514 $ 6,542,517 130749
GRF 600502 Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 130750
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 130751
GRF 600521 Family Assistance - Local $ 41,132,751 $ 41,132,751 130752
GRF 600523 Family and Children Services $ 55,605,323 $ 54,105,323 130753
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 130754
State $ 28,623,389 $ 28,623,389 130755
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 130756
Adoption Services Total $ 66,825,946 $ 66,825,946 130757
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 130758
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 366,003 $ 366,003 130759
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 130760
GRF 600540 Food Banks $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 130761
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 130762
GRF 655522 Medicaid Program Support - Local $ 31,067,970 $ 31,067,970 130763
GRF 655523 Medicaid Program Support - Local Transportation $ 30,680,495 $ 30,680,495 130764
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 130765
State $ 717,596,118 $ 716,096,118 130766
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 130767
GRF Total $ 755,798,675 $ 754,298,675 130768

General Services Fund Group130769

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 130770
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 19,660,339 $ 19,660,339 130771
5HC0 600695 Unemployment Compensation Interest $ 60,000,000 $ 60,000,000 130772
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared Services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 130773
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 8,100,000 $ 92,989 130774
TOTAL GSF General Services 130775
Fund Group $ 124,780,339 $ 116,773,328 130776

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130777

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,866 $ 29,769,866 130778
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 130779
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 130780
3310 600686 Workforce Programs $ 6,260,000 $ 6,260,000 130781
3840 600610 Food Assistance Programs $ 209,333,246 $ 180,381,394 130782
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 12,564,952 $ 12,564,952 130783
3950 600616 Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 130784
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 47,000,000 $ 47,000,000 130785
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 235,000,000 $ 235,000,000 130786
3980 600627 Adoption Program - Federal $ 174,178,779 $ 174,178,779 130787
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 130788
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 3,477,699 $ 3,477,699 130789
3F01 655624 Medicaid Program Support $ 110,680,495 $ 110,680,495 130790
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 241,987,805 $ 222,212,089 130791
3N00 600628 Foster Care Program - Federal $ 311,968,616 $ 311,968,616 130792
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 130793
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 136,000,000 $ 136,000,000 130794
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 182,814,212 $ 182,814,212 130795
3V40 600679 UC Review Commission - Federal $ 6,185,788 $ 6,185,788 130796
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 777,957,809 $ 790,304,845 130797
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 130798
Fund Group $ 2,526,972,581 $ 2,490,592,049 130799

State Special Revenue Fund Group130800

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,848 $ 5,873,848 130801
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 9,006,000 $ 9,006,000 130802
4E70 600604 Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 130803
4F10 600609 Family and Children Activities $ 683,549 $ 683,549 130804
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 130805
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 130806
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 130807
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 130808
5NG0 600660 Victims of Human Trafficking $ 100,000 $ 100,000 130809
5U60 600663 Family and Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 130810
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130811
Fund Group $ 25,063,397 $ 25,063,397 130812

Agency Fund Group130813

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 129,250,000 $ 129,250,000 130814
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 130815
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 130816
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 144,250,000 $ 144,250,000 130817

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group130818

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 130819
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 130820
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 130821
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,579,074,992 $ 3,533,187,449 130822


       Section 301.20. TRANSFER TO STATE AND COUNTY SHARED SERVICES 130824
FUND130825

       Within thirty days of the effective date of this act, or as 130826
soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management 130827
shall transfer the cash balance in the County Technologies Fund 130828
(Fund 5N10) to the State and County Shared Services Fund (Fund 130829
5HL0).130830

       Section 301.30. AGENCY AND HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION 130831
FUND GROUPS130832

       The Agency Fund Group and Holding Account Redistribution Fund 130833
Group shall be used to hold revenues until the appropriate fund is 130834
determined or until the revenues are directed to the appropriate 130835
governmental agency other than the Department of Job and Family 130836
Services. If receipts credited to the Support Intercept – Federal 130837
Fund (Fund 1920), the Support Intercept – State Fund (Fund 5830), 130838
the Food Stamp Offset Fund (Fund 5B60), the Refunds and Audit 130839
Settlements Fund (Fund R012), or the Forgery Collections Fund 130840
(Fund R013) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, the 130841
Director of Job and Family Services may request the Director of 130842
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 130843
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval of the 130844
Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are 130845
hereby appropriated.130846

       Section 301.40. COUNTY ADMINISTRATIVE FUNDS130847

       The foregoing appropriation item 600521, Family Assistance - 130848
Local, may be provided to county departments of job and family 130849
services to administer food assistance and disability assistance 130850
programs. 130851

       The foregoing appropriation item 655522, Medicaid Program 130852
Support - Local, may be provided to county departments of job and 130853
family services to administer the Medicaid program and the State 130854
Children's Health Insurance program. 130855

       At the request of the Director of Job and Family Services, 130856
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations 130857
between appropriation item 600521, Family Assistance - Local, and 130858
appropriation item 655522, Medicaid Program Support - Local, in 130859
order to ensure county administrative funds are expended from the 130860
proper appropriation item. 130861

       Section 301.43. FAMILY AND CHILDREN SERVICES130862

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600523, Family and 130863
Children Services, $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to 130864
support the Famicos Foundation.130865

       Section 301.50. FOOD STAMPS TRANSFER130866

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130867
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $1,000,000 130868
cash from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Fund (Fund 130869
3840), to the Food Assistance Fund (Fund 5ES0).130870

       Section 301.60. NAME OF FOOD STAMP PROGRAM130871

       The Director of Job and Family Services is not required to 130872
amend rules regarding the Food Stamp Program to change the name of 130873
the program to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. The 130874
Director may refer to the program as the Food Stamp Program or the 130875
Food Assistance Program in rules and documents of the Department 130876
of Job and Family Services.130877

       Section 301.70. OHIO ASSOCIATION OF FOOD BANKS130878

       The foregoing appropriation item 600540, Food Banks, shall be 130879
used to provide funds to the Ohio Association of Food Banks to 130880
purchase and distribute food products.130881

       Notwithstanding section 5101.46 of the Revised Code and any 130882
other provision in this bill, in addition to funds designated for 130883
the Ohio Association of Food Banks in this section, in fiscal year 130884
2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Job and Family Services 130885
shall provide assistance from eligible funds to the Ohio 130886
Association of Food Banks in an amount up to or equal to the 130887
assistance provided in state fiscal year 2013 from all funds used 130888
by the Department, except the General Revenue Fund.130889

       Eligible nonfederal expenditures made by member food banks of 130890
the Association shall be counted by the Department of Job and 130891
Family Services toward the TANF maintenance of effort requirements 130892
of 42 U.S.C. 609(a)(7). The Director of Job and Family Services 130893
shall enter into an agreement with the Ohio Association of Food 130894
Banks, in accordance with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the 130895
Revised Code, to carry out the requirements under this section. 130896

       Section 301.80. PUBLIC ASSISTANCE ACTIVITIES/TANF MOE130897

       The foregoing appropriation item 600658, Public Assistance 130898
Activities, shall be used by the Department of Job and Family 130899
Services to meet the TANF maintenance of effort requirements of 42 130900
U.S.C. 609(a)(7). When the state is assured that it will meet the 130901
maintenance of effort requirement, the Department of Job and 130902
Family Services may use funds from appropriation item 600658, 130903
Public Assistance Activities, to support public assistance 130904
activities.130905

       Section 301.90. GOVERNOR'S OFFICE OF FAITH-BASED AND 130906
COMMUNITY INITIATIVES130907

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130908
up to $6,540,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 130909
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to provide 130910
support to programs or organizations that provide services that 130911
align with the mission and goals of the Governor's Office of 130912
Faith-Based and Community Initiatives, as outlined in section 130913
107.12 of the Revised Code, and that further at least one of the 130914
four purposes of the TANF program, as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601. 130915

       Section 301.100. INDEPENDENT LIVING INITIATIVE130916

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130917
up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 130918
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to support 130919
the Independent Living Initiative, including life skills training 130920
and work supports for older children in foster care and those who 130921
have recently aged out of foster care.130922

       Section 301.110. KINSHIP PERMANENCY INCENTIVE PROGRAM130923

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130924
$1,750,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 130925
activities of the Kinship Permanency Incentive Program established 130926
in section 5101.802 of the Revised Code.130927

       Section 301.120. OHIO COMMISSION ON FATHERHOOD130928

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130929
$1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the Ohio 130930
Commission on Fatherhood.130931

       Section 301.130. DIFFERENTIAL RESPONSE 130932

       In accordance with an independent evaluation of the Ohio 130933
Alternative Response Pilot Program that recommended statewide 130934
implementation, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 130935
plan the statewide expansion of the Ohio Alternative Response 130936
Pilot Program on a county by county basis, through a schedule 130937
determined by the Department. The program shall be known as the 130938
"differential response" approach as defined in section 2151.011 of 130939
the Revised Code. Notwithstanding provisions of Chapter 2151. of 130940
the Revised Code that refer to "differential response," 130941
"traditional response," and "alternative response," those 130942
provisions shall become effective on the scheduled date of 130943
expansion of the differential response approach to that county. 130944
Prior to statewide implementation, the Department may adopt rules 130945
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 130946
to carry out the purposes of this section.130947

       Section 301.140. FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN130948

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 130949
council, a county department of job and family services or public 130950
children services agency that receives an allocation from the 130951
Department of Job and Family Services from the foregoing 130952
appropriation item 600523, Children and Families Services, or 130953
600533, Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services, 130954
may transfer a portion of either or both allocations to a flexible 130955
funding pool as authorized by the section of this act titled 130956
"FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL."130957

       Section 301.150. CHILD, FAMILY, AND ADULT COMMUNITY AND 130958
PROTECTIVE SERVICES130959

        (A) The foregoing appropriation item 600533, Child, Family, 130960
and Adult Community & Protective Services, shall be distributed to 130961
each county department of job and family services using the 130962
formula the Department of Job and Family Services uses when 130963
distributing Title XX funds to county departments of job and 130964
family services under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code. County 130965
departments shall use the funds distributed to them under this 130966
section as follows, in accordance with the written plan of 130967
cooperation entered into under section 307.983 of the Revised 130968
Code:130969

        (1) To assist individuals achieve or maintain 130970
self-sufficiency, including by reducing or preventing dependency 130971
among individuals with family income not exceeding two hundred per 130972
cent of the federal poverty guidelines;130973

        (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, to respond to 130974
reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children and adults, 130975
including through the differential response approach program 130976
developed under Section 309.50.10 of this act;130977

        (3) To provide outreach and referral services regarding home 130978
and community-based services to individuals at risk of placement 130979
in a group home or institution, regardless of the individuals' 130980
family income and without need for a written application;130981

        (4) To provide outreach, referral, application assistance, 130982
and other services to assist individuals receive assistance, 130983
benefits, or services under Medicaid; Title IV-A programs, as 130984
defined in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code; the Supplemental 130985
Nutrition Assistance Program; and other public assistance 130986
programs.130987

        (B) Protective services may be provided to a child or adult 130988
as part of a response, under division (A)(2) of this section, to a 130989
report of abuse, neglect, or exploitation without regard to a 130990
child or adult's family income and without need for a written 130991
application. The protective services may be provided if the case 130992
record documents circumstances of actual or potential abuse, 130993
neglect, or exploitation.130994

       Section 301.160. CHILDREN AND FAMILY SERVICES ACTIVITIES130995

        The foregoing appropriation item 600609, Children and Family 130996
Services Activities, shall be used to expend miscellaneous 130997
foundation funds and grants to support children and family 130998
services activities.130999

       Section 301.170. ADOPTION ASSISTANCE LOAN131000

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600634, Adoption 131001
Assistance Loan, the Department of Job and Family Services may use 131002
up to ten per cent for administration of adoption assistance loans 131003
pursuant to section 3107.018 of the Revised Code.131004

       Section 301.173. VICTIMS OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING131005

        The foregoing appropriation item 600660, Victims of Human 131006
Trafficking, shall be used to provide treatment, care, 131007
rehabilitation, education, housing, and assistance for victims of 131008
trafficking in persons as specified in section 5101.87 of the 131009
Revised Code. If receipts credited to the Victims of Human 131010
Trafficking Fund (Fund 5NG0) exceed the amounts appropriated to 131011
the fund, the Director of Job and Family Services may request the 131012
Director of Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from 131013
the fund in excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval 131014
of the Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts 131015
are hereby appropriated.131016

       Section 301.180. FEDERAL UNEMPLOYMENT PROGRAMS131017

       All unexpended funds remaining at the end of fiscal year 2013 131018
that were appropriated and made available to the state under 131019
section 903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, in the 131020
foregoing appropriation item 600678, Federal Unemployment Programs 131021
(Fund 3V40), are hereby appropriated to the Department of Job and 131022
Family Services. Upon the request of the Director of Job and 131023
Family Services, the Director of Budget and Management may 131024
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2014 by the amount 131025
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2013 appropriation and may 131026
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2015 by the amount 131027
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2014 appropriation. The 131028
appropriation shall be used under the direction of the Department 131029
of Job and Family Services to pay for administrative activities 131030
for the Unemployment Insurance Program, employment services, and 131031
other allowable expenditures under section 903(d) of the Social 131032
Security Act, as amended.131033

       The amounts obligated pursuant to this section shall not 131034
exceed at any time the amount by which the aggregate of the 131035
amounts transferred to the account of the state under section 131036
903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, exceeds the 131037
aggregate of the amounts obligated for administration and paid out 131038
for benefits and required by law to be charged against the amounts 131039
transferred to the account of the state.131040

       Section 301.190.  UNEMPLOYMENT COMPENSATION INTEREST131041

       The foregoing appropriation item 600695, Unemployment 131042
Compensation Interest, shall be used for payment of interest costs 131043
paid to the United States Secretary of the Treasury for the 131044
repayment of accrued interest related to federal unemployment 131045
account borrowing.131046

       Section 301.200. TRAINING ACTIVITIES131047

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600645, Training 131048
Activities, $8,000,000 shall be used in fiscal year 2014 for the 131049
Workforce Training Pilot Program for the Economically 131050
Disadvantaged established in Section 751.40 of this act. An amount 131051
equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of the foregoing 131052
appropriation item 600645, Training Activities, at the end of 131053
fiscal year 2014 is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose for 131054
fiscal year 2015.131055

       Section 303.10. JCR JOINT COMMITTEE ON AGENCY RULE REVIEW131056

General Revenue Fund131057

GRF 029321 Operating Expenses $ 455,858 $ 456,376 131058
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 455,858 $ 456,376 131059
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 455,858 $ 456,376 131060

       OPERATING GUIDANCE131061

       The Chief Administrative Officer of the House of 131062
Representatives and the Clerk of the Senate shall determine, by 131063
mutual agreement, which of them shall act as fiscal agent for the 131064
Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review. Members of the Committee 131065
shall be paid in accordance with section 101.35 of the Revised 131066
Code.131067

       OPERATING EXPENSES131068

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131069
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 131070
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 131071
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 131072
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 131073
fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The 131074
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 131075
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.131076

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131077
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 131078
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 131079
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 131080
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 131081
fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 131082
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 131083
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015. 131084

       Section 305.10.  JCO JUDICIAL CONFERENCE OF OHIO131085

General Revenue Fund131086

GRF 018321 Operating Expenses $ 824,900 $ 847,200 131087
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 824,900 $ 847,200 131088

General Services Fund Group131089

4030 018601 Ohio Jury Instructions $ 385,000 $ 385,000 131090
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 385,000 $ 385,000 131091
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,209,900 $ 1,232,200 131092

       STATE COUNCIL OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS131093

       Notwithstanding section 105.26 of the Revised Code, of the 131094
foregoing appropriation item 018321, Operating Expenses, up to 131095
$84,900 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $88,300 in fiscal year 2015 131096
shall be used to pay the expenses of the State Council of Uniform 131097
State Laws, including membership dues to the National Conference 131098
of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws.131099

       OHIO JURY INSTRUCTIONS FUND131100

       The Ohio Jury Instructions Fund (Fund 4030) shall consist of 131101
grants, royalties, dues, conference fees, bequests, devises, and 131102
other gifts received for the purpose of supporting costs incurred 131103
by the Judicial Conference of Ohio in its activities as a part of 131104
the judicial system of the state as determined by the Judicial 131105
Conference Executive Committee. Fund 4030 shall be used by the 131106
Judicial Conference of Ohio to pay expenses incurred in its 131107
activities as a part of the judicial system of the state as 131108
determined by the Judicial Conference Executive Committee. All 131109
moneys accruing to Fund 4030 in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 131110
2014 and in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 2015 are hereby 131111
appropriated for the purposes authorized.131112

       No money in Fund 4030 shall be transferred to any other fund 131113
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board.131114

       Section 307.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT131115

General Revenue Fund131116

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 138,016,534 $ 140,232,737 131117
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 131118
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 3,350,000 $ 3,350,000 131119
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 141,602,706 $ 143,818,909 131120

General Services Fund Group131121

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 101,392 $ 93,563 131122
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 101,392 $ 93,563 131123

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group131124

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 131125
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 131126

State Special Revenue Fund Group131127

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,923,101 $ 3,915,721 131128
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 23,000 $ 23,000 131129
5JY0 005620 County Law Library Resources Boards $ 258,000 $ 258,000 131130
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 25,000 $ 25,000 131131
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,283,751 $ 1,308,025 131132
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,512,852 $ 5,529,746 131133
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 148,452,850 $ 150,694,818 131134

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT131135

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 131136
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 131137
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 131138
Sentencing Council.131139

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION131140

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 131141
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 131142
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 131143
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 131144
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 131145
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 131146
private money for new programs.131147

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE131148

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 131149
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 131150
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 131151
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 131152
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 131153
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 131154
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 131155
development and implementation of educational and training 131156
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 131157
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 131158
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 131159
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 131160
use of technology in Ohio courts.131161

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION131162

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 131163
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 131164
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 131165
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 131166
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 131167
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 131168
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 131169
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 131170
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.131171

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 131172
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131173
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 131174
fund.131175

       FEDERAL GRANTS131176

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 131177
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 131178
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 131179
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 131180
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 131181
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 131182
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 131183
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 131184
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 131185
hereby appropriated.131186

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 131187
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131188
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 131189
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.131190

       ATTORNEY SERVICES131191

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 131192
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 131193
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 131194
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 131195
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 131196
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 131197
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 131198
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 131199
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 131200
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 131201
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 131202
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 131203
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.131204

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 131205
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131206
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 131207
fund.131208

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION131209

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 131210
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 131211
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 131212
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 131213
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 131214
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 131215
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 131216
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 131217
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 131218
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.131219

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 131220
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131221
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 131222
fund.131223

       COUNTY LAW LIBRARY RESOURCES BOARD131224

       The Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resources 131225
Boards Fund (Fund 5JY0) shall consist of moneys deposited pursuant 131226
to section 307.515 of the Revised Code into a county's law library 131227
resources fund and forwarded by that county's treasurer for 131228
deposit in the state treasury pursuant to division (E)(1) of 131229
section 3375.481 of the Revised Code. The foregoing appropriation 131230
item 005620, County Law Library Resources Board, shall be used for 131231
the operation of the Statewide Consortium of County Law Library 131232
Resources Boards. If it is determined by the Administrative 131233
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 131234
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.131235

        No money in Fund 5JY0 shall be transferred to any other fund 131236
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131237
Interest earned on money in Fund 5JY0 shall be credited to the 131238
fund.131239

       GRANTS AND AWARDS131240

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 131241
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 131242
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 131243
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 131244
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 131245
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 131246
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 131247
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 131248
hereby appropriated.131249

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 131250
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131251
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 131252
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.131253

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS131254

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 131255
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 131256
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 131257
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 131258
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 131259
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 131260
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 131261
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 131262
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 131263
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.131264

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 131265
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 131266
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 131267
fund.131268

       Section 309.10. LEC LAKE ERIE COMMISSION131269

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group131270

3EP0 780603 Lake Erie Federal Grants $ 25,000 $ 0 131271
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 0 131272

State Special Revenue Fund Group131273

4C00 780601 Lake Erie Protection Fund $ 200,000 $ 200,000 131274
5D80 780602 Lake Erie Resources Fund $ 298,942 $ 339,637 131275
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 131276
Fund Group $ 498,942 $ 539,637 131277
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 523,942 $ 539,637 131278

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE LAKE ERIE RESOURCES FUND131279

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 131280
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 131281
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 131282
below, to the Lake Erie Resources Fund (Fund 5D80). Fund 5D80 may 131283
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. 131284

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 131285
5BC0 Environmental Protection Environmental Protection Agency $23,500 $53,500 131286
6690 Pesticide, Fertilizer and Lime Department of Agriculture $23,500 $53,500 131287
4700 General Operations Department of Health $23,500 $53,500 131288
1570 Central Support Indirect Department of Natural Resources $23,500 $53,500 131289

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131290
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $23,500 cash from a 131291
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 131292
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.131293

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131294
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $53,500 cash from a 131295
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 131296
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.131297

       Section 311.10. JLE JOINT LEGISLATIVE ETHICS COMMITTEE131298

General Revenue Fund131299

GRF 028321 Legislative Ethics Committee $ 550,000 $ 550,000 131300
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 550,000 $ 550,000 131301

General Services Fund Group131302

4G70 028601 Joint Legislative Ethics Committee $ 150,000 $ 150,000 131303
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 150,000 $ 150,000 131304
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 700,000 $ 700,000 131305

       Section 313.10. LSC LEGISLATIVE SERVICE COMMISSION131306

General Revenue Fund131307

GRF 035321 Operating Expenses $ 15,117,700 $ 15,117,700 131308
GRF 035402 Legislative Fellows $ 1,022,120 $ 1,022,120 131309
GRF 035405 Correctional Institution Inspection Committee $ 460,845 $ 460,845 131310
GRF 035407 Legislative Task Force on Redistricting $ 320,000 $ 400,000 131311
GRF 035409 National Associations $ 460,560 $ 460,560 131312
GRF 035410 Legislative Information Systems $ 3,861,250 $ 3,861,250 131313
GRF 035411 Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission $ 750,000 $ 750,000 131314
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,992,475 $ 22,072,475 131315

General Services Fund Group131316

4100 035601 Sale of Publications $ 10,000 $ 10,000 131317
4F60 035603 Legislative Budget Services $ 200,000 $ 200,000 131318
5EF0 035607 Legislative Agency Telephone Usage $ 30,000 $ 30,000 131319
TOTAL GSF General Services 131320
Fund Group $ 240,000 $ 240,000 131321
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,232,475 $ 22,312,475 131322

        OPERATING EXPENSES131323

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131324
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 131325
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 131326
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 131327
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to be 131328
reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is hereby 131329
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 131330
2014.131331

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131332
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 131333
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 131334
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 131335
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be 131336
reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby 131337
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 131338
2015.131339

       LEGISLATIVE TASK FORCE ON REDISTRICTING131340

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 131341
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 131342
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 131343
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 131344
purpose for fiscal year 2014.131345

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 131346
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 131347
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 131348
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 131349
purpose for fiscal year 2015.131350

        LEGISLATIVE INFORMATION SYSTEMS131351

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131352
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 131353
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 131354
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 131355
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 131356
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 131357
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 131358
year 2014.131359

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131360
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 131361
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 131362
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 131363
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 131364
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 131365
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 131366
year 2015.131367

       OHIO CONSTITUTIONAL MODERNIZATION COMMISSION131368

       The foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 131369
Modernization Commission, shall be used to support the operation 131370
and expenses of the Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission 131371
under sections 103.61 to 103.67 of the Revised Code.131372

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 131373
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 131374
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 131375
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 131376
purpose for fiscal year 2014.131377

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 131378
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 131379
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 131380
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 131381
purpose for fiscal year 2015.131382

       Section 315.10.  LIB STATE LIBRARY BOARD131383

General Revenue Fund131384

GRF 350321 Operating Expenses $ 5,057,364 $ 5,057,364 131385
GRF 350401 Ohioana Rental Payments $ 120,114 $ 120,114 131386
GRF 350502 Regional Library Systems $ 582,469 $ 582,469 131387
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 5,759,947 $ 5,759,947 131388

General Services Fund Group131389

1390 350602 Intra-Agency Service Charges $ 8,000 $ 8,000 131390
4590 350603 Library Service Charges $ 3,237,430 $ 3,526,368 131391
4S40 350604 Ohio Public Library Information Network $ 5,689,788 $ 5,689,788 131392
5GB0 350605 Library for the Blind $ 1,274,194 $ 1,274,194 131393
TOTAL GSF General Services 131394
Fund Group $ 10,209,412 $ 10,498,350 131395

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group131396

3130 350601 LSTA Federal $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 131397
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 131398
Fund Group $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 131399
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,273,052 $ 21,378,736 131400

       OHIOANA RENTAL PAYMENTS131401

       The foregoing appropriation item 350401, Ohioana Rental 131402
Payments, shall be used to pay the rental expenses of the Martha 131403
Kinney Cooper Ohioana Library Association under section 3375.61 of 131404
the Revised Code.131405

       REGIONAL LIBRARY SYSTEMS131406

       The foregoing appropriation item 350502, Regional Library 131407
Systems, shall be used to support regional library systems 131408
eligible for funding under sections 3375.83 and 3375.90 of the 131409
Revised Code.131410

       OHIO PUBLIC LIBRARY INFORMATION NETWORK131411

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 350604, Ohio Public 131412
Library Information Network, shall be used for an information 131413
telecommunications network linking public libraries in the state 131414
and such others as may participate in the Ohio Public Library 131415
Information Network (OPLIN).131416

        The Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 131417
created under section 3375.65 of the Revised Code may make 131418
decisions regarding use of the foregoing appropriation item 131419
350604, Ohio Public Library Information Network.131420

       (B) The OPLIN Board shall research and assist or advise local 131421
libraries with regard to emerging technologies and methods that 131422
may be effective means to control access to obscene and illegal 131423
materials. The OPLIN Director shall provide written reports upon 131424
request within ten days to the Governor, the Speaker and Minority 131425
Leader of the House of Representatives, and the President and 131426
Minority Leader of the Senate on any steps being taken by OPLIN 131427
and public libraries in the state to limit and control such 131428
improper usage as well as information on technological, legal, and 131429
law enforcement trends nationally and internationally affecting 131430
this area of public access and service.131431

       (C) The Ohio Public Library Information Network, INFOhio, and 131432
OhioLINK shall, to the extent feasible, coordinate and cooperate 131433
in their purchase or other acquisition of the use of electronic 131434
databases for their respective users and shall contribute funds in 131435
an equitable manner to such effort.131436

       LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND131437

        The foregoing appropriation item 350605, Library for the 131438
Blind, shall be used for the statewide Talking Book Program to 131439
assist the blind and disabled.131440

       TRANSFER TO OPLIN TECHNOLOGY FUND131441

       Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 131442
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 131443
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 131444
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 131445
$5,689,788 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 131446
(Fund 7065) to the OPLIN Technology Fund (Fund 4S40).131447

       TRANSFER TO LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND FUND131448

        Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 131449
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 131450
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 131451
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 131452
$1,274,194 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 131453
(Fund 7065) to the Library for the Blind Fund (Fund 5GB0).131454

       Section 317.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION131455

State Special Revenue Fund Group131456

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expenses $ 784,376 $ 796,368 131457
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 784,376 $ 796,368 131458
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 784,376 $ 796,368 131459


       Section 319.10. LOT STATE LOTTERY COMMISSION131461

State Lottery Fund Group131462

2310 950604 Charitable Gaming Oversight $ 1,946,000 $ 1,946,000 131463
7044 950321 Operating Expenses $ 49,778,677 $ 51,173,293 131464
7044 950402 Advertising Contracts $ 23,024,080 $ 23,024,080 131465
7044 950403 Gaming Contracts $ 63,405,851 $ 59,356,988 131466
7044 950601 Direct Prize Payments $ 116,281,000 $ 114,779,000 131467
7044 950605 Problem Gambling $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 131468
8710 950602 Annuity Prizes $ 79,039,985 $ 80,299,167 131469
TOTAL SLF State Lottery Fund 131470
Group $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 131471
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 131472

       OPERATING EXPENSES131473

       Notwithstanding sections 127.14 and 131.35 of the Revised 131474
Code, the Controlling Board may, at the request of the State 131475
Lottery Commission, authorize expenditures from the State Lottery 131476
Fund in excess of the amounts appropriated, up to a maximum of 10 131477
per cent of anticipated total revenue accruing from the sale of 131478
lottery products. Upon the approval of the Controlling Board, the 131479
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.131480

       DIRECT PRIZE PAYMENTS131481

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 131482
appropriation item 950601, Direct Prize Payments, that the 131483
Director of the State Lottery Commission determines to be 131484
necessary to fund prizes are hereby appropriated.131485

       ANNUITY PRIZES131486

       Upon request of the State Lottery Commission, the Director of 131487
Budget and Management may transfer cash from the State Lottery 131488
Fund (Fund 7044) to the Deferred Prizes Trust Fund (Fund 8710) in 131489
an amount sufficient to fund deferred prizes. The Treasurer of 131490
State, from time to time, shall credit the Deferred Prizes Trust 131491
Fund (Fund 8710) the pro rata share of interest earned by the 131492
Treasurer of State on invested balances.131493

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 131494
appropriation item 950602, Annuity Prizes, that the Director of 131495
the State Lottery Commission determines to be necessary to fund 131496
deferred prizes and interest earnings are hereby appropriated.131497

       TRANSFERS TO THE LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND131498

       Estimated transfers from the State Lottery Fund (Fund 7044) 131499
to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) are to be 131500
$841,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and $974,500,000 in fiscal year 131501
2015. The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer such 131502
amounts contingent upon the availability of resources. Transfers 131503
from the State Lottery Fund to the Lottery Profits Education Fund 131504
shall represent the estimated net income from operations for the 131505
Commission in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015. Transfers by 131506
the Director of Budget and Management to the Lottery Profits 131507
Education Fund shall be administered as the statutes direct.131508

       Section 321.10. MHC MANUFACTURED HOMES COMMISSION131509

General Services Fund Group131510

4K90 996609 Operating Expenses $ 459,134 $ 459,134 131511
TOTAL GSF General Services 131512
Fund Group $ 459,134 $ 459,134 131513

State Special Revenue Fund Group131514

5MC0 996610 Manufactured Homes Regulation $ 747,825 $ 747,825 131515
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 747,825 $ 747,825 131516
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,206,959 $ 1,206,959 131517


       Section 323.10. MCD DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID131519

General Revenue Fund131520

GRF 651425 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 149,932,299 $ 156,514,636 131521
GRF 651525 Medicaid/Health Care Services 131522
State $ 4,746,891,777 $ 4,990,922,135 131523
Federal $ 8,999,112,239 $ 9,313,588,718 131524
Medicaid/Health Care Services Total $ 13,746,004,016 $ 14,304,510,853 131525
GRF 651526 Medicare Part D $ 308,749,142 $ 324,920,518 131526
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 131527
State $ 5,205,573,218 $ 5,472,357,289 131528
Federal $ 8,999,112,239 $ 9,313,588,718 131529
GRF Total $ 14,204,685,457 $ 14,785,946,007 131530

General Services Fund Group131531

5DL0 651639 Medicaid Services - Recoveries $ 462,900,000 $ 514,700,000 131532
5FX0 561638 Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 131533
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 468,900,000 $ 520,700,000 131534

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group 131535

3ER0 651603 Medicaid Health Information Technology $ 123,074,778 $ 123,089,606 131536
3F00 651623 Medicaid Services - Federal $ 2,977,109,943 $ 3,214,589,109 131537
3F00 651624 Medicaid Program Support - Federal $ 409,446,401 $ 409,773,399 131538
3FA0 651680 Health Care Grants - Federal $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 131539
3G50 651655 Medicaid Interagency Pass-Through $ 1,712,881,658 $ 1,895,403,348 131540
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,242,512,780 $ 5,662,855,462 131541

State Special Revenue Fund Group131542

4E30 651605 Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,319 $ 2,878,319 131543
5AJ0 651631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,555,000 $ 4,517,500 131544
5GF0 651656 Medicaid Services - Hospitals/UPL $ 531,273,601 $ 531,273,601 131545
5KC0 651682 Health Care Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 131546
5R20 651608 Medicaid Services - Long Term Care $ 402,000,000 $ 402,000,000 131547
5U30 651654 Medicaid Program Support $ 36,205,843 $ 35,403,126 131548
6510 651649 Medicaid Services - HCAP $ 215,527,947 $ 215,314,482 131549
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,203,440,710 $ 1,201,387,028 131550

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group131551

R055 651644 Refunds and Reconciliations $ 1,000,0000 $ 1,000,000 131552
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 131553
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,120,538,947 $ 22,171,888,497 131554


       Section 323.10.10. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID131556

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" 131557
means all of the following:131558

        (1) The Medicaid program established by Title XIX of the 131559
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq.131560

        (2) The Children's Health Insurance Program authorized by 131561
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq.131562

        (3) The Refugee Medical Assistance program authorized by the 131563
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 42 U.S.C. 131564
1522(e).131565

       (B) On July 1, 2013, all of the following apply:131566

       (1) The Department of Medicaid is created.131567

        (2) The Department of Medicaid is to be administered by the 131568
Medicaid Director who is to be appointed by the Governor with the 131569
advice and consent of the Senate.131570

       (3) The Medicaid Director is to hold the Director's office 131571
during the term of the appointing Governor and is subject to 131572
removal at the pleasure of the Governor.131573

        (4) The Medicaid Director is the executive head of the 131574
Department of Medicaid and all duties conferred on the Department 131575
by law or order of the Director are under the Director's control 131576
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the Director 131577
adopts.131578

        (5) The Medicaid Director may appoint such employees as are 131579
necessary for the efficient operation of the Department of 131580
Medicaid and may prescribe the title and duties of the employees.131581

        (6) The Office of Medical Assistance shall cease to exist.131582

       (7) Each reference to the Department or Director of Public 131583
Welfare, Department or Director of Human Services, Department or 131584
Director of Job and Family Services, Office of Medical Assistance, 131585
or Medical Assistance Director in any statute, rule, contract, 131586
grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the Department of 131587
Medicaid or Medicaid Director, as the case may be, to the extent 131588
the reference is about a duty or authority of the Department of 131589
Medicaid or Medicaid Director regarding a medical assistance 131590
program.131591

       (8) Employees of the Office of Medical Assistance are hereby 131592
transferred to the Department of Medicaid. The vehicles and 131593
equipment assigned to the Office's employees are transferred to 131594
the Department.131595

       (9) The assets, liabilities, other equipment not provided 131596
for, and records, irrespective of form or medium, of the Office of 131597
Medical Assistance are transferred to the Department of Medicaid. 131598
The Department is the successor to, assumes the obligations of, 131599
and otherwise constitutes the continuation of, the Office.131600

       (10) Business commenced but not completed on July 1, 2013, by 131601
the Medical Assistance Director, the Office of Medical Assistance, 131602
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 131603
Family Services regarding a medical assistance program shall be 131604
completed by the Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid in 131605
the same manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 131606
Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical Assistance, 131607
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 131608
Family Services. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 131609
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 131610
transfer required by this section but shall be administered by the 131611
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid.131612

       (11) For the purpose of the "Social Security Act," section 131613
1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the Department of Medicaid 131614
shall act as the single state agency to supervise the 131615
administration of the Medicaid program. As the single state 131616
agency, the Department shall comply with 42 C.F.R. 431.10(e) and 131617
all other federal requirements applicable to the single state 131618
agency.131619

       (D) The rules, orders, and determinations pertaining to the 131620
Office of Medical Assistance and Department of Job and Family 131621
Services regarding medical assistance programs continue in effect 131622
as rules, orders, and determinations of the Department of Medicaid 131623
until modified or rescinded by the Department of Medicaid.131624

       (E) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 131625
pending on July 1, 2013, is affected by the transfer of functions 131626
from the Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical 131627
Assistance, Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of 131628
Job and Family Services to the Medicaid Director or Department of 131629
Medicaid and shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 131630
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid. On application to the 131631
court or other tribunal, the Medicaid Director or Department of 131632
Medicaid shall be substituted as a party in such actions and 131633
proceedings.131634

       (F) When the Department of Medicaid created in section 121.02 131635
of the Revised Code comes into effect, it is a continuation of the 131636
Department of Medicaid created in this section.131637

        (G) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131638
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131639
Services, 651526, Medicare Part D, 651639, Medicaid Services – 131640
Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding, 131641
651603, Medicaid Health Information Technology, 651623, Medicaid 131642
Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – Federal, 131643
651680 Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid Interagency 131644
Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 651631, Money 131645
Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – Hospitals/UPL, 131646
651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, Medicaid Services – 131647
Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program Support, 651649, Medicaid 131648
Services – HCAP, 651644, Refunds and Reconciliations, and 651612, 131649
Managed Care Performance Payments, may be used to pay for Medicaid 131650
services and costs associated with the administration of the 131651
Medicaid program.131652

       Section 323.10.20. TRANSFER OF ENCUMBRANCES AND RECEIVABLES131653

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131654
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 131655
Management all medical assistance-related encumbrances held by the 131656
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 131657
encumbrances are requested to be transferred to the Department of 131658
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 131659
existing encumbrances, as certified by the Medicaid Director, and 131660
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid. The reestablished 131661
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 131662
commenced, but not completed, with regard to the encumbrances 131663
certified shall be completed by the Department of Medicaid in the 131664
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed by 131665
the Department of Job and Family Services.131666

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 131667
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 131668
Management all medical assistance-related receivables held by the 131669
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 131670
receivables are requested to be transferred to the Department of 131671
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 131672
existing receivables as certified by the Medicaid Director and 131673
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid.131674

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131675
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131676
Services, 651639, Medicaid Services – Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid 131677
Services-Payment Withholding, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 131678
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 131679
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 131680
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – 131681
Hospitals/UPL, 651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, 131682
Medicaid Services – Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program 131683
Support, and 651649, Medicaid Services – HCAP, may be used to pay 131684
for medical assistance services and costs associated with the 131685
administration of the Medicaid program.131686

       Section 323.10.30. TEMPORARY AUTHORITY REGARDING EMPLOYEES131687

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has 131688
the same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF 131689
THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."131690

       (B) During the period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 131691
30, 2015, all of the following apply:131692

       (1) The Medicaid Director has the authority to establish, 131693
change, and abolish positions for the Department of Medicaid, and 131694
to assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, 131695
promote, or demote all employees of the Department of Medicaid who 131696
are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.131697

       (2) As part of the transfer of medical assistance programs to 131698
the Department of Medicaid, the Director of Job and Family 131699
Services has the authority to establish, change, and abolish 131700
positions for the Department of Job and Family Services, and to 131701
assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, promote, 131702
or demote all employees of the Department of Job and Family 131703
Services who are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.131704

       (C) The authority granted under division (B) of this section 131705
includes assigning or reassigning an exempt employee, as defined 131706
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 131707
classification if the Medicaid Director or Director of Job and 131708
Family Services determines that the bargaining unit classification 131709
is the proper classification for that employee. The actions of the 131710
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services shall be 131711
consistent with the requirements of 5 C.F.R. 900.603 for those 131712
employees subject to such requirements. If an employee in the E-1 131713
pay range is to be assigned, reassigned, classified, reclassified, 131714
transferred, reduced, or demoted to a position in a lower 131715
classification during the period specified in this section, the 131716
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services, or in 131717
the case of a transfer outside the Department of Medicaid or 131718
Department of Job and Family Services, the Director of 131719
Administrative Services, shall assign the employee to the 131720
appropriate classification and place the employee in Step X. The 131721
employee shall not receive any increase in compensation until the 131722
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 131723
compensation.131724

       (D) Actions taken by the Medicaid Director, Director of Job 131725
and Family Services, and Director of Administrative Services 131726
pursuant to this section are not subject to appeal to the State 131727
Personnel Board of Review.131728

       (E) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131729
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651603, Medicaid Health 131730
Information Technology, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 131731
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 131732
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 131733
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 131734
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 131735
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 131736
program, including the assignment, reassignment, classification, 131737
reclassification, transfer, reduction, promotion, or demotion of 131738
employees authorized by this section.131739

       Section 323.10.40. STAFF TRAINING REGARDING TRANSFERS131740

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 131741
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 131742
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."131743

       The Medicaid Director and Director of Job and Family Services 131744
may jointly or separately enter into one or more contracts with 131745
public or private entities for staff training and development to 131746
facilitate the transfer of the staff and duties regarding medical 131747
assistance programs to the Department of Medicaid. Division (B) of 131748
section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to contracts 131749
entered into under this section.131750

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131751
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 131752
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651605, Resident 131753
Protection Fund, 651631, Money Follows the Person, and 651654, 131754
Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay for costs associated 131755
with the administration of the Medicaid program, including staff 131756
training authorized under this section.131757

       Section 323.10.50. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID NOT 131758
A COLLECTIVE BARGAINING SUBJECT131759

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 131760
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 131761
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."131762

       Notwithstanding sections 4117.08 and 4117.10 of the Revised 131763
Code, this act's creation of the Department of Medicaid and 131764
reassignment of the functions and duties of the Office of Medical 131765
Assistance regarding medical assistance programs are not 131766
appropriate subjects for collective bargaining under Chapter 4117. 131767
of the Revised Code.131768

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131769
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 131770
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 131771
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 131772
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 131773
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 131774
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 131775
program, including the reassignment of functions and duties 131776
related to the transition of the Office of Medical Assistance into 131777
the Department of Medicaid.131778

       Section 323.10.60. NEW AND AMENDED GRANT AGREEMENTS131779

       (A) As used in this section:131780

       (1) "Grant agreement" has the same meaning as in section 131781
5101.21 of the Revised Code.131782

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 131783
the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 131784
MEDICAID."131785

       (B) The Director of Job and Family Services and boards of 131786
county commissioners may enter into negotiations to amend an 131787
existing grant agreement or to enter into a new grant agreement 131788
regarding the transfer of medical assistance programs to the 131789
Department of Medicaid. Any such amended or new grant agreement 131790
shall be drafted in the name of the Department of Job and Family 131791
Services. The amended or new grant agreement may be executed 131792
before July 1, 2013, if the amendment or agreement does not become 131793
effective sooner than that date.131794

       (C) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651525, 131795
Health Care/Medicaid Services, 651603, Medicaid Health Information 131796
Technology, 651623, Medicaid Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid 131797
Program Support – Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 131798
and 651682, Health Care Grants - State, may be used to pay for 131799
Medicaid services and costs associated with the administration of 131800
the Medicaid program.131801

       Section 323.10.70. LSC TO RENUMBER ADMINISTRATIVE RULES131802

       On and after October 1, 2013, if necessary to ensure the 131803
integrity of the numbering of the Administrative Code, the 131804
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 131805
rules of the Office of Medical Assistance within the Department of 131806
Job and Family Services to reflect its transfer to the Department 131807
of Medicaid.131808

       Section 323.20.  MEDICAID/HEALTH CARE SERVICES131809

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131810
Services, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the Revised 131811
Code.131812

       Section 323.30.  QUALITY INCENTIVE PROGRAM TO REDUCE 131813
AVOIDABLE ADMISSIONS131814

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may implement, for fiscal year 131815
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a quality incentive program to do both 131816
of the following:131817

       (1) Reduce the number of times that the following persons are 131818
admitted to hospitals and nursing facilities or utilize emergency 131819
department services when the admissions or utilizations are 131820
avoidable:131821

        (a) Medicaid recipients enrolled in a home and 131822
community-based services Medicaid waiver component administered by 131823
the Office;131824

        (b) Medicaid recipients receiving nursing services available 131825
under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 131826
440.70(b)(1);131827

        (c) Medicaid recipients receiving home health aide services 131828
available under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 131829
C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);131830

        (d) Medicaid recipients receiving private duty nursing 131831
services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.80.131832

       (2) Reduce the number of times that Medicaid recipients 131833
receiving nursing facility services are admitted to hospitals or 131834
utilize emergency department services when the admissions or 131835
utilizations are avoidable.131836

        (B) If the quality incentive program is implemented, the 131837
Department shall include in the program methods by which the 131838
Department will determine the program's actual savings to the 131839
Medicaid program and shall distribute not more than fifty per cent 131840
of the savings to participating Medicaid providers.131841

       Section 323.40.  CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS QUALITY OUTCOMES 131842
PROGRAM131843

       (A) As used in this section, "children's hospital" means a 131844
hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, that 131845
is located in this state, primarily serves patients eighteen years 131846
of age and younger, is subject to the Medicaid prospective payment 131847
system for hospitals established in rules adopted under section 131848
5164.02 of the Revised Code, and is excluded from Medicare 131849
prospective payments in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 412.23(d).131850

        (B) The Medicaid Director may implement, during fiscal year 131851
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a children's hospitals quality outcomes 131852
program that encourages children's hospitals to develop the 131853
following:131854

        (1) Infrastructures that are needed to care for patients in 131855
the least restrictive setting and promote the care of patients and 131856
their families;131857

        (2) Programs designed to improve birth outcomes and 131858
measurably reduce neonatal intensive care admissions;131859

        (3) Patient-centered methods to measurably reduce utilization 131860
of emergency department services for primary care needs and 131861
nonemergency health conditions;131862

        (4) Other quality-focused reforms the Director identifies.131863

       (C) Up to $6,000,000 state share plus the corresponding 131864
federal share in each fiscal year shall be used to support 131865
payments made to children's hospitals for developing programs that 131866
achieve the outcomes specified under division (B) of this section 131867
and any other measures the Medicaid Director deems appropriate.131868

       Section 323.43. HOSPITAL READMISSIONS PROGRAM ADVISORY 131869
WORKGROUP131870

        There is hereby created for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 131871
2015 the Hospital Readmissions Program Advisory Workgroup. The 131872
Workgroup shall serve in an advisory capacity in the state's 131873
development and implementation of a hospital readmissions program 131874
that improves patient outcomes and rewards providers' success in 131875
lowering hospital readmission rates.131876

        The Workgroup shall be convened by the Medicaid Director. It 131877
shall consist of individuals selected to serve as members by the 131878
Ohio Hospital Association, the Ohio Children's Hospital 131879
Association, and the Medicaid Director.131880

       The Medicaid Director or the Director's designee shall serve 131881
as chairperson of the Workgroup. The Department of Medicaid shall 131882
provide staff and other support services for the Workgroup.131883

        The Workgroup, with the assistance of the Department of 131884
Medicaid, shall submit two reports to the General Assembly 131885
regarding a hospital readmissions program. The first report shall 131886
be submitted not later than July 1, 2014. The second report shall 131887
be submitted not later than July 1, 2015. A report due before the 131888
hospital readmissions program is established shall discuss the 131889
progress being made in establishing the program. A report due 131890
after the program is established shall discuss the program's 131891
effectiveness.131892

       Section 323.50. UNIFIED LONG TERM CARE131893

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 131894
Support - State, may be used to provide the preadmission screening 131895
and resident review (PASRR), which includes screening, 131896
assessments, and determinations made under sections 5119.061 131897
(renumbered section 5119.40 of the Revised Code in this act), 131898
5123.021, and 5165.04 of the Revised Code.131899

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 131900
Support - State, may be used to assess and provide long-term care 131901
consultations under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to clients 131902
regardless of Medicaid eligibility.131903

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131904
Services, may be used to provide nonwaiver funded PASSPORT and 131905
assisted living services to persons who the state department has 131906
determined to be eligible to participate in the nonwaiver funded 131907
PASSPORT and assisted living programs, who applied for but have 131908
not yet been determined to be financially eligible to participate 131909
in the Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT Home Care Program 131910
or the Assisted Living Program by a county department of job and 131911
family services, and to persons who are not eligible for Medicaid 131912
but were enrolled in the PASSPORT Program prior to July 1, 1990.131913

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 131914
Support - State, shall be used to provide the required state match 131915
for federal Medicaid funds supporting the Medicaid waiver-funded 131916
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 131917
Living Program, and the PACE Program.131918

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131919
Services, shall be used to provide the federal matching share of 131920
program costs determined by the Office of Medical Assistance to be 131921
eligible for Medicaid reimbursement for the Medicaid waiver-funded 131922
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 131923
Living Program, and the PACE Program.131924

       Section 323.53. PASSPORT ADMINISTRATIVE AGENCY SITE 131925
OPERATIONS131926

       For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, spending for 131927
PASSPORT administrative agencies' site operating functions 131928
relating to screening, assessments, general administrative, and 131929
provider relations for the Medicaid waiver-funded PASSPORT Home 131930
Care Program, Choices Program, Assisted Living Program, and PACE 131931
Program shall be at one hundred five per cent of the level 131932
provided in fiscal year 2013.131933

       Section 323.60.  MANAGED CARE PERFORMANCE PAYMENT PROGRAM 131934

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 131935
thereafter, the Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of 131936
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with 131937
section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for purposes of the Managed 131938
Care Performance Payment Program. Upon receiving certification, 131939
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in the 131940
amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care 131941
Performance Payment Fund. Appropriation item 651525, 131942
Medicaid/Health Care Services, is hereby reduced by the amount of 131943
the transfer. Upon request of the Medicaid Director and approval 131944
of the Director of Budget and Management, appropriation up to the 131945
cash balance in the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund is 131946
hereby appropriated.131947

       In addition to any other purpose authorized by law, the 131948
Department of Medicaid may use money in the Managed Care 131949
Performance Payment Fund for the following purposes for fiscal 131950
year 2014 and fiscal year 2015:131951

        (A) To meet obligations specified in provider agreements with 131952
Medicaid managed care organizations;131953

        (B) To pay for Medicaid services provided by a Medicaid 131954
managed care organization;131955

        (C) To reimburse a Medicaid managed care organization that 131956
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 131957
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 131958
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if the organization 131959
comes into compliance with the standards or requirements.131960

       Section 323.70.  MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS131961

       (A) As used in this section, "individual with disabilities" 131962
means any individual receiving services through the program for 131963
medically handicapped children established under section 3701.023 131964
of the Revised Code who has one or more of the following 131965
conditions:131966

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;131967

        (2) Hemophilia;131968

        (3) Cancer.131969

        (B) Notwithstanding section 5167.03 of the Revised Code, the 131970
Department of Medicaid shall not include in the care management 131971
system established under that section any individual with 131972
disabilities who was not receiving services through the care 131973
management system immediately before June 30, 2011, until the 131974
first day of the thirteenth month that occurs after the date that 131975
the Office first designates any individual who receives Medicaid 131976
on the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled who is under 131977
twenty-one years of age as an individual who is permitted or 131978
required to participate in the care management system.131979

       Section 323.80.  PRIOR AUTHORIZATION FOR COMMUNITY MENTAL 131980
HEALTH SERVICES131981

        (A) As used in this section, "community mental health 131982
services" means mental health services included in the state 131983
Medicaid plan pursuant to section 5164.15 of the Revised Code.131984

        (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, a Medicaid 131985
recipient who is under twenty-one years of age automatically 131986
satisfies all requirements for any prior authorization process for 131987
community mental health services provided under a component of the 131988
Medicaid program administered by the Department of Mental Health 131989
and Addiction Services pursuant to an interagency agreement 131990
authorized by section 5162.35 of the Revised Code if any of the 131991
following apply to the recipient:131992

        (1) The recipient is in the temporary custody or permanent 131993
custody of a public children services agency or private child 131994
placing agency or is in a planned permanent living arrangement.131995

       (2) The recipient has been placed in protective supervision 131996
by a juvenile court.131997

        (3) The recipient has been committed to the Department of 131998
Youth Services.131999

        (4) The recipient is an alleged or adjudicated delinquent or 132000
unruly child receiving services under the Felony Delinquent Care 132001
and Custody Program operated under section 5139.43 of the Revised 132002
Code.132003

       Section 323.90.  JOINT LEGISLATIVE COMMITTEE FOR UNIFIED 132004
LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS132005

       (A) The Joint Legislative Committee for Unified Long-Term 132006
Services and Supports created under section 309.30.73 of Am. Sub. 132007
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as subsequently amended, 132008
shall continue to exist during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 132009
2015. The Committee shall consist of the following members:132010

       (1) Two members of the House of Representatives from the 132011
majority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 132012
Representatives;132013

       (2) One member of the House of Representatives from the 132014
minority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 132015
Representatives;132016

       (3) Two members of the Senate from the majority party, 132017
appointed by the President of the Senate;132018

       (4) One member of the Senate from the minority party, 132019
appointed by the President of the Senate.132020

       (B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives shall 132021
designate one of the members of the Committee appointed under 132022
division (A)(1) of this section to serve as co-chairperson of the 132023
Committee. The President of the Senate shall designate one of the 132024
members of the Committee appointed under division (A)(3) of this 132025
section to serve as the other co-chairperson of the Committee. The 132026
Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons. The 132027
co-chairpersons may request assistance for the Committee from the 132028
Legislative Service Commission.132029

       (C) The Committee may examine the following issues:132030

       (1) The implementation of the dual eligible integrated care 132031
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 132032
Code;132033

       (2) The implementation of a unified long-term services and 132034
support Medicaid waiver component under section 5166.14 of the 132035
Revised Code;132036

       (3) Providing consumers choices regarding a continuum of 132037
services that meet their health-care needs, promote autonomy and 132038
independence, and improve quality of life;132039

       (4) Ensuring that long-term care services and supports are 132040
delivered in a cost-effective and quality manner;132041

       (5) Subjecting county homes, county nursing homes, and 132042
district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised 132043
Code to the franchise permit fee under sections 5168.40 to 5168.56 132044
of the Revised Code;132045

       (6) Other issues of interest to the committee.132046

       (D) The co-chairpersons of the Committee shall provide for 132047
the Medicaid Director to testify before the Committee at least 132048
quarterly regarding the issues that the Committee examines.132049

       Section 323.100.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 132050
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 132051
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM132052

       (A) As used in this section:132053

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5168.20 of 132054
the Revised Code.132055

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 132056
section 5168.25 of the Revised Code.132057

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 132058
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.132059

       (B) The Department of Medicaid shall do both of the 132060
following:132061

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 132062
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 132063
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 132064
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 132065
the program as described under division (D) of this section;132066

       (2) Continue the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 132067
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.132068

       (C) The Department shall use amounts deposited into the 132069
Hospital Assessment Fund in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 132070
for the following purposes in each fiscal year:132071

        (1) To pay for costs associated with both of the following:132072

        (a) The Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 132073
Payment Limit Program;132074

        (b) The Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 132075
Program.132076

        (2) To reduce spending in appropriation item 651525, 132077
Medicaid/Health Care Services.132078

       (D)(1) Under the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 132079
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program, subject to division 132080
(D)(2) of this section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be 132081
made to hospitals for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient 132082
services. The Department shall make the payments through amounts 132083
available for the Program pursuant to division (C) of this section 132084
and any federal financial participation available for the Program.132085

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 132086
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 132087
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 132088
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 132089
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).132090

       (E)(1) The purpose of the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 132091
Incentive Payment Program is to increase access to hospital 132092
services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in Medicaid 132093
managed care organizations.132094

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(2) of this 132095
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 132096
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 132097
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 132098
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 132099
funds through amounts available for the Program pursuant to 132100
division (C) of this section and any federal financial 132101
participation available for the Program.132102

       (2)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 132103
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 132104
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 132105
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 132106
Medicaid managed care organizations.132107

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 132108
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 132109
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 132110
the Program were not implemented.132111

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 132112
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 132113
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 132114
available to the organization under the Program.132115

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 132116
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 132117
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 132118
the Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 132119
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).132120

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 132121
additional expenditures from appropriation item 651623, Medicaid 132122
Services - Federal, appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 132123
Care Services, and appropriation item 651656, Medicaid Services - 132124
Hospital/UPL, in order to implement the programs authorized by 132125
this section. Any amounts authorized are hereby appropriated.132126

       (G) The Medicaid Director shall adopt rules as necessary to 132127
implement this section. The rules shall provide for the applicable 132128
assessment percentage that is used for the purpose of section 132129
5168.21 of the Revised Code to be an amount that raises, from the 132130
assessments imposed on hospitals under that section, an amount the 132131
Director determines is appropriate to fund the purposes specified 132132
in division (C) of this section.132133

       Section 323.103. CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 132134
INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES132135

       The Medicaid payment rates for Medicaid-covered hospital 132136
inpatient services and hospital outpatient services that are paid 132137
under the prospective payment system established in rules adopted 132138
under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code and provided during the 132139
period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be 132140
not less than the Medicaid payment rates for the services in 132141
effect on June 30, 2013.132142

       Section 323.110. ADMINISTRATIVE ISSUES RELATED TO TERMINATION 132143
OF MEDICAID WAIVER PROGRAMS132144

       (A) As used in this section, "MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver 132145
component" means the following:132146

       (1) The Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT program 132147
created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;132148

       (2) The Choices program created under section 173.53 of the 132149
Revised Code;132150

       (3) The Medicaid waiver component of the Assisted Living 132151
program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.132152

       (4) The Ohio Home Care Waiver program as defined in section 132153
5166.01 of the Revised Code;132154

       (5) The Ohio Transitions II Aging Carve-Out program as 132155
defined in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code;132156

       (B) If an MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver component is terminated 132157
under section 173.52, 173.53, 173.54, 5166.12, or 5166.13 of the 132158
Revised Code, all of the following apply:132159

       (1) All applicable statutes, and all applicable rules, 132160
standards, guidelines, or orders issued by the Medicaid Director 132161
or Department of Medicaid or Director or Department of Aging 132162
before the component is terminated, shall remain in full force and 132163
effect on and after that date, but solely for purposes of 132164
concluding the component's operations, including fulfilling the 132165
Departments' legal obligations for claims arising from the 132166
component relating to eligibility determinations, covered medical 132167
assistance provided to eligible persons, and recovering erroneous 132168
overpayments.132169

       (2) Notwithstanding the termination of the component, the 132170
right of subrogation for the cost of medical assistance given 132171
under section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to the Department of 132172
Medicaid and an assignment of the right to medical assistance 132173
given under section 5160.38 of the Revised Code to the Department 132174
continue to apply with respect to the component and remain in 132175
force to the full extent provided under those sections.132176

       (3) The Department of Medicaid and Department of Aging may 132177
use appropriated funds to satisfy any claims or contingent claims 132178
for medical assistance provided under the component before the 132179
component's termination.132180

       (4) Neither the Department of Medicaid nor the Department of 132181
Aging has liability under the component to reimburse any provider 132182
or other person for claims for medical assistance rendered under 132183
the component after it is terminated.132184

       (C) The Medicaid Director and Director of Aging may adopt 132185
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 132186
implement this section.132187

       Section 323.120. EXPANSION OF PACE PROGRAM132188

        (A) As used in this section, "PACE Program" means the Program 132189
of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly.132190

       (B) To effectively administer and manage growth within the 132191
PACE Program, the Director of Aging, in consultation with the 132192
Medicaid Director, may expand the PACE Program to regions of the 132193
state that are not being served by the PACE Program if all of the 132194
following apply:132195

        (1) Funding is available for the expansion.132196

        (2) The Director of Aging and Medicaid Director mutually 132197
determine that the PACE Program is a cost-effective alternative to 132198
nursing home care.132199

       (3) The United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 132200
Services agrees to share with the state any savings to the 132201
Medicare program resulting from an expansion of the PACE Program.132202

       (C) If the PACE Program is expanded, the Director of Aging 132203
may not decrease the number of individuals in Cuyahoga and 132204
Hamilton counties and parts of Butler, Clermont, and Warren 132205
counties who are participants in the PACE Program below the number 132206
of individuals in those counties and parts of counties who were 132207
participants in the PACE Program on July 1, 2011.132208

       Section 323.130.  DISPENSING FEE FOR NONCOMPOUNDED DRUGS132209

        The Medicaid dispensing fee for each noncompounded drug 132210
covered by the Medicaid program shall be $1.80 for the period 132211
beginning July 1, 2013, and ending on the effective date of a rule 132212
changing the amount of the fee that the Medicaid Director adopts 132213
under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code.132214

       Section 323.140. MONEY FOLLOWS THE PERSON ENHANCED 132215
REIMBURSEMENT FUND132216

       The federal payments made to the state under subsection (e) 132217
of section 6071 of the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. 132218
No. 109-171, as amended, shall be deposited into the Money Follows 132219
the Person Enhanced Reimbursement Fund. The Department of Medicaid 132220
shall continue to use money deposited into the fund for system 132221
reform activities related to the Money Follows the Person 132222
demonstration project.132223

       Section 323.150. MEDICARE PART D132224

       The foregoing appropriation item 651526, Medicare Part D, may 132225
be used by the Department of Medicaid for the implementation and 132226
operation of the Medicare Part D requirements contained in the 132227
"Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 132228
2003," Pub. L. No. 108-173, as amended. Upon the request of the 132229
Department of Medicaid, the Director of Budget and Management may 132230
transfer the state share of appropriations between appropriation 132231
item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, or appropriation item 132232
651526, Medicare Part D. If the state share of appropriation item 132233
651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is adjusted, the Director 132234
of Budget and Management shall adjust the federal share 132235
accordingly. The Department of Medicaid shall provide notification 132236
to the Controlling Board of any transfers at the next scheduled 132237
Controlling Board meeting.132238

       Section 323.160. REBALANCING LONG-TERM CARE132239

       (A) As used in this section:132240

       "Balancing Incentive Payments Program" means the program 132241
established under section 10202 of the Patient Protection and 132242
Affordable Care Act.132243

       "Long-term services and supports" has the same meaning as in 132244
section 10202(f)(1) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care 132245
Act.132246

       "Non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports" 132247
has the same meaning as in section 10202(f)(1)(B) of the Patient 132248
Protection and Affordable Care Act.132249

       "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act" means Public Law 132250
111-148.132251

       (B) The Departments of Aging, Developmental Disabilities, and 132252
Medicaid shall continue efforts to achieve a sustainable and 132253
balanced delivery system for long-term services and supports. In 132254
so doing, the Departments shall strive to realize the following 132255
goals by June 30, 2015:132256

       (1) Having at least fifty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 132257
are sixty years of age or older and need long-term services and 132258
supports utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and 132259
supports;132260

       (2) Having at least sixty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 132261
are less than sixty years of age and have cognitive or physical 132262
disabilities for which long-term services and supports are needed 132263
utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports.132264

       (C) If the Department of Medicaid determines that 132265
participating in the Balancing Incentive Payments Program will 132266
assist in achieving the goals specified in division (B) of this 132267
section, the Department may apply to the United States Secretary 132268
of Health and Human Services to participate in the program.132269

       Section 323.170. OHIO ACCESS SUCCESS PROJECT132270

        Of the foregoing appropriation item, 651525, Medicaid/Health 132271
Care Services, up to $450,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 132272
provide one-time transitional benefits under the Ohio Access 132273
Success Project that the Medicaid Director may establish under 132274
section 5166.35 of the Revised Code.132275

       Section 323.180. PROVIDER FRANCHISE FEE OFFSETS132276

       (A) At least quarterly, the Medicaid Director shall certify 132277
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of offsets 132278
withheld under section 5168.52 of the Revised Code from payments 132279
made from the General Revenue Fund. 132280

       (B) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 132281
from the General Revenue Fund to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit 132282
Fee Fund (Fund 5R20), in accordance with section 5168.54 of the 132283
Revised Code.132284

       (C) Amounts transferred pursuant to this section are hereby 132285
appropriated.132286

       Section 323.190. HOSPITAL CARE ASSURANCE MATCH132287

       The foregoing appropriation item 651623, Medicaid Services - 132288
Federal, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for 132289
distributing the federal share of Medicaid services required under 132290
the section of this act entitled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 132291
MEDICAID," including the federal share of all hospital care 132292
assurance program funds to hospitals under section 5168.09 of the 132293
Revised Code.132294

       If receipts credited to the Health Care Federal Fund (Fund 132295
3F00) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 132296
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 132297
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 132298
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 132299
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 132300
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.132301

        The foregoing appropriation item 651649, Medicaid Services – 132302
HCAP, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for distributing 132303
the state share of all hospital care assurance program funds to 132304
hospitals under section 5168.09 of the Revised Code. If receipts 132305
credited to the Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund (Fund 6510) 132306
exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 132307
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 132308
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 132309
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 132310
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 132311
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.132312

       Section 323.200. HEALTH CARE SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND132313

       Of the amount received by the Department of Medicaid during 132314
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 from the first installment 132315
of assessments paid under section 5168.06 of the Revised Code and 132316
intergovernmental transfers made under section 5168.07 of the 132317
Revised Code, the Medicaid Director shall deposit $350,000 in each 132318
fiscal year into the state treasury to the credit of the Health 132319
Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30).132320

       Section 323.210. TRANSFERS OF OFFSETS TO THE HEALTH CARE 132321
SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND132322

       (A) As used in this section:132323

       "Hospital offset" means an offset from a hospital's Medicaid 132324
payment authorized by section 5168.991 of the Revised Code.132325

       "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a Medicaid payment to a 132326
Medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect Medicaid 132327
payment. 132328

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, at 132329
intervals selected by the Medicaid Director, the Director shall 132330
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 132331
hospital offsets and vendor offsets for the period covered by the 132332
certification and the particular funds that would have been used 132333
to make Medicaid payments to providers if not for the offsets. 132334
Each certification shall specify the amount that would have been 132335
taken from each of the funds if not for the hospital offsets and 132336
vendor offsets.132337

       (C) On receipt of a certification under division (B) of this 132338
section, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash 132339
from the funds identified in the certification to the Health Care 132340
Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). The amount transferred 132341
from a fund shall equal the amount that would have been taken from 132342
the fund if not for the hospital offsets and vendor offsets as 132343
specified in the certification. The transferred cash is hereby 132344
appropriated. 132345

       Section 323.220. MEDICAID INTERAGENCY PASS-THROUGH132346

       The Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 132347
Management to increase appropriation item 651655, Medicaid 132348
Interagency Pass-Through. Upon the approval of the Director of 132349
Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 132350
appropriated.132351

       Section 323.230. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR NONINSTITUTIONAL 132352
SERVICES PROVIDED TO DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS132353

        (A) As used in this section:132354

        "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 132355
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 132356
1396n(h)(2)(B).132357

        "Medicare Part B" means the Supplementary Medical Insurance 132358
Program for the Aged and Disabled component of the Medicare 132359
program established by Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social 132360
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395j et seq.132361

        "Noninstitutional services" means any services other than 132362
hospital services, nursing facility services, and intermediate 132363
care facilities for the mentally retarded.132364

        (B) Notwithstanding any conflicting state statute, a Medicaid 132365
payment for noninstitutional services, excluding physician 132366
services and including freestanding dialysis center services, 132367
provided during the period beginning January 1, 2014, and ending 132368
July 1, 2015, to a Medicaid recipient who is a dual eligible 132369
individual enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part B shall equal 132370
the lesser of the following:132371

        (1) The sum of the Medicare Part B deductible, coinsurance, 132372
and copayment for the services that are applicable to the 132373
individual;132374

        (2) The greater of the following:132375

        (a) The maximum allowable Medicaid payment for the services 132376
when the services are provided to other Medicaid recipients, less 132377
the total Medicaid payment (if any) most recently paid on the 132378
Medicaid recipient's behalf for such services;132379

        (b) Zero.132380

       Section 323.233. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR HOME HEALTH SERVICES 132381
AND PRIVATE DUTY NURSING132382

       (A) As used in this section, "responsible adult" means the 132383
spouse of a Medicaid recipient or, in the case of a Medicaid 132384
recipient who is a minor, the minor's parent, foster caregiver, 132385
stepparent, guardian, legal custodian, or any other person who 132386
stands in loco parentis for the minor.132387

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, for 132388
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, Medicaid payments shall not 132389
be made for any of the following services that are provided to a 132390
Medicaid recipient by an individual who is a responsible adult for 132391
that recipient:132392

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 132393
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);132394

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 132395
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);132396

        (3) Private duty nursing services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 132397
440.80.132398

       (C) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Medicaid 132399
Director shall establish the conditions under which Medicaid 132400
payments may be made for any of the services described in division 132401
(B) of this section that are provided to a Medicaid recipient by 132402
an individual who is a responsible adult for that recipient. 132403

       (D) The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 132404
119. of the Revised Code necessary to implement this section. The 132405
Director shall consult provider representatives, consumer 132406
representatives, and other stakeholders in developing the rules, 132407
which may include the following: 132408

       (1) Qualification and training requirements necessary for 132409
responsible adults to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) 132410
of this section;132411

       (2) Oversight requirements necessary for responsible adults 132412
to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) of this section;132413

       (3) Procedures designed to protect against fraud, waste, and 132414
abuse that may occur as a result of payments made under division 132415
(C) of this section;132416

       (4) Any other procedures, standards, or requirements the 132417
Director considers appropriate.132418

       Section 323.236.  PURCHASING STRATEGIES FOR WHEELCHAIRS132419

       For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Medicaid Director shall 132420
implement strategies for purchasing wheelchairs for Medicaid 132421
recipients residing in nursing facilities. In implementing the 132422
purchasing strategies, the Director shall seek to achieve a more 132423
efficient allocation of resources and price and quality 132424
competition among wheelchair providers. The Director shall 132425
consider one or more of the following when determining the 132426
purchasing strategies to implement:132427

       (A) Establishing selective contracting or competitive 132428
bidding;132429

       (B) Establishing a manufacturer's rebate program;132430

       (C) Another purchasing strategy that saves the Medicaid 132431
program an amount equivalent to the savings that would be realized 132432
from the purchasing strategies specified in division (A) or (B), 132433
or both, of this section.132434

       Section 323.250. REDUCED RATE FOR REPEAT RADIOLOGICAL 132435
SERVICES132436

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall reduce the Medicaid payment 132437
rate for radiological services to which both of the following 132438
apply:132439

       (1) They are provided in a physician's office or an 132440
independent diagnostic testing facility;132441

       (2) They are provided more than once by the same provider for 132442
the same Medicaid recipient during the same session.132443

       (B) The Director shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of 132444
the Revised Code to implement the rate reduction required by this 132445
section. The rules shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.132446

       Section 323.260. VARYING MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR PHYSICIAN 132447
SERVICES DEPENDING ON LOCATION OF SERVICE132448

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:132449

       (1) Identify physician services for which Medicaid payment 132450
rates should vary depending on where the services are provided;132451

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 132452
establish the varying Medicaid payment rates.132453

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 132454
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.132455

       Section 323.263. PAYMENT RATES FOR PASSPORT SERVICES132456

        The Medicaid payment rates for services provided under the 132457
PASSPORT program, other than adult day-care services, during the 132458
period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be 132459
not less than ninety-eight and five-tenths per cent of the 132460
Medicaid payment rates for the services in effect on June 30, 132461
2011. The Medicaid payment rates for adult day-care services 132462
provided under the PASSPORT program during the period beginning 132463
July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be twenty per cent 132464
higher than the amount of the Medicaid payment rates for the 132465
services in effect on June 30, 2013.132466

       Section 323.270. MEDICAID PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES ALIGNED WITH 132467
MEDICARE PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES132468

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:132469

       (1) Identify Medicaid services for which the Medicaid payment 132470
methodologies should be aligned, to the extent the Director 132471
considers appropriate, with Medicare payment methodologies for the 132472
services;132473

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 132474
so align the payment methodologies for the services.132475

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 132476
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.132477

       Section 323.280. ALTERNATIVE PURCHASING MODEL FOR NURSING 132478
FACILITY SERVICES132479

       As used in this section, "Medicaid waiver component" has the 132480
same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.132481

       The Medicaid Director may establish, as a Medicaid waiver 132482
component, an alternative purchasing model for nursing facility 132483
services provided, during the period beginning July 1, 2013, and 132484
ending July 1, 2015, to Medicaid recipients with specialized 132485
health care needs, including recipients dependent on ventilators, 132486
recipients who have severe traumatic brain injury, and recipients 132487
who would be admitted to long-term acute care hospitals or 132488
rehabilitation hospitals if they did not receive nursing facility 132489
services. If established, the alternative purchasing model shall 132490
do all of the following:132491

       (A) Recognize a connection between enhanced Medicaid payment 132492
rates and improved health outcomes capable of being measured;132493

       (B) Include criteria for identifying Medicaid recipients with 132494
specialized health care needs;132495

        (C) Include procedures for ensuring that Medicaid recipients 132496
identified pursuant to division (B) of this section receive 132497
nursing facility services under the alternative purchasing model.132498

        The total per Medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility 132499
services provided under the alternative purchasing model may 132500
differ from the rate that would otherwise be paid pursuant to 132501
Chapter 5165. of the Revised Code.132502

       Section 323.290. REVIEW OF LONG-TERM SERVICES TO IMPROVE 132503
EFFICIENCY AND INDIVIDUAL CARE132504

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may review the following 132505
services covered by the Medicaid program to identify opportunities 132506
to improve the efficiency of, and individual care provided by, 132507
long-term care services and supports:132508

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 132509
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);132510

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 132511
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);132512

       (3) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 132513
440.80.132514

       (B) The Department, in its review authorized by division (A) 132515
of this section, may consider establishing the following:132516

       (1) New methods for authorizing and coordinating long-term 132517
care services and supports, including such services and supports 132518
covered by the Medicaid state plan, using case managers or care 132519
coordinators;132520

       (2) Competency and training requirements for the case 132521
managers or care coordinators;132522

       (3) Other mechanisms for improving efficiency and individual 132523
care in the delivery of long-term care services and supports.132524

       Section 323.300. PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID MANAGED 132525
CARE132526

       (A) As used in this section:132527

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 132528
section 1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315, 132529
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).132530

        (2) "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" 132531
means the demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of 132532
the Revised Code.132533

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 132534
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.132535

       (4) "Participant" means an individual participating in the 132536
dual eligible integrated care demonstration project. 132537

       (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Department 132538
of Medicaid shall provide performance payments as provided under 132539
this section to Medicaid managed care organizations providing care 132540
under the Dual Eligible Integrated Care Demonstration Project.132541

       (C) If the Department implements the Dual Eligible Integrated 132542
Care Demonstration Project, and if participants receive care 132543
through Medicaid managed care organizations under the project, the 132544
Department shall, in consultation with the United States Centers 132545
for Medicare and Medicaid Services, do both of the following:132546

       (1) Develop quality measures designed specifically to 132547
determine the effectiveness of the health care and other services 132548
provided to participants by Medicaid managed care organizations;132549

       (2) Determine an amount to be withheld from the Medicaid 132550
premium payments paid to Medicaid managed care organizations for 132551
participants.132552

       (D)(1) For the purposes of division (C)(2) of this section, 132553
the Department shall establish an amount that is to be withheld 132554
each time a premium payment is made to a Medicaid managed care 132555
organization for a participant. The amount shall be established as 132556
a percentage of each premium payment. The percentage shall be the 132557
same for all Medicaid managed care organizations providing care to 132558
participants. 132559

       (2) Each Medicaid managed care organization shall agree to 132560
the withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 132561
Medicaid provider agreement with the Department.132562

       (3) When the amount is established and each time the amount 132563
is modified thereafter, the Department shall certify the amount to 132564
the Director of Budget and Management and begin withholding the 132565
amount from each premium the Department pays to a Medicaid managed 132566
care organization for a participant.132567

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the 132568
amounts certified in accordance with division (D) of this section 132569
into the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund created under 132570
section 5162.60 of the Revised Code. The amounts transferred may 132571
be used to make performance payments to Medicaid managed care 132572
organizations providing care to participants in accordance with 132573
rules that may be adopted by the Medicaid Director under Chapter 132574
119. of the Revised Code.132575

       (F) A Medicaid managed care organization subject to this 132576
section is not subject to section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for 132577
premium payments attributed to participants during fiscal year 132578
2014 and fiscal year 2015.132579

       Section 323.310. INTEGRATED CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM PERFORMANCE 132580
PAYMENT PROGRAM132581

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 132582
thereafter, the Medicaid Director may certify to the Director of 132583
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with the 132584
section in this act titled "PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID 132585
MANAGED CARE." On receipt of certification, the Director of Budget 132586
and Management shall transfer cash in the amount certified from 132587
the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care Performance Payment 132588
Fund (Fund 5KW0). The transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 132589
Appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is 132590
hereby reduced by the amount of the transfer.132591

       Section 323.320. VENDOR COLLECTION OF PATIENT LIABILITY132592

       (A) As used in this section:132593

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 132594
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.132595

       "Patient liability" means the amount that 42 C.F.R. 435.735 132596
requires be reduced from a Medicaid payment for home and 132597
community-based services available under a Medicaid waiver 132598
component.132599

       (B) The Medicaid Director may contract with a person or 132600
government entity to collect patient liabilities for fiscal year 132601
2014 and fiscal year 2015. The Director may adopt rules under 132602
section 5166.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 132603
section.132604

       Section 323.330. STATE PLAN HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SERVICES132605

       (A) As used in this section:132606

       "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 132607
defined by the United States Office of Management and Budget based 132608
on the most recent data available from the United States Bureau of 132609
the Census and revised by the United States Secretary of Health 132610
and Human Services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 132611
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).132612

       "State plan home and community-based services" means home and 132613
community-based services that may be included in the Medicaid 132614
state plan pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1915(i), 132615
42 U.S.C. 1396n(i).132616

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 132617
Medicaid program may cover state plan home and community-based 132618
services for Medicaid recipients of any age who have behavioral 132619
health issues and countable incomes not exceeding one hundred 132620
fifty per cent of the federal poverty line. A Medicaid recipient 132621
is not required to undergo a level of care determination to be 132622
eligible for the state plan home and community-based services.132623

       The Medicaid Director may adopt rules under section 5164.02 132624
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.132625

       Section 323.340. INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC HOSPITAL SERVICES FOR 132626
INDIVIDUALS UNDER AGE 21132627

       (A) As used in this section:132628

       "Inpatient psychiatric hospital services for individuals 132629
under age 21" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security 132630
Act," section 1905(h), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(h).132631

       "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" has the same 132632
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 483.352.132633

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 132634
Medicaid program may cover inpatient psychiatric hospital services 132635
for individuals under age 21 that are provided by psychiatric 132636
residential treatment facilities to Medicaid recipients to whom 132637
both of the following apply:132638

       (1) They are in the custody of the Department of Youth 132639
Services.132640

       (2) They have been identified as meeting a clinical criterion 132641
of serious emotional disturbance specified pursuant to division 132642
(C) of this section.132643

       (C) The Department of Youth Services, in collaboration with 132644
the Department of Medicaid and Department of Mental Health and 132645
Addiction Services, shall specify the clinical criterion of 132646
serious emotional disturbance to be used for the purpose of 132647
division (B)(2) of this section.132648

       Section 323.350. MCD COLLABORATION WITH DVS132649

       The Department of Medicaid may collaborate with the 132650
Department of Veterans Services to determine ways to improve the 132651
coordination of the services that the Departments make available 132652
to veterans in a manner that enhances veterans' receipt of the 132653
services. The Departments may implement, during fiscal year 2014 132654
and fiscal year 2015, initiatives that they determine during the 132655
collaboration will maximize the efficiency of the services and 132656
ensure that veterans' needs are met.132657

       Section 323.360. IMPROVED BIRTH OUTCOMES INITIATIVES132658

       (A) The Medicaid Director may develop and implement, during 132659
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, initiatives designed to 132660
improve birth outcomes for Medicaid recipients, including 132661
improvements designed to do the following:132662

       (1) Reduce the number of preterm births;132663

       (2) Reduce Medicaid costs;132664

       (3) Improve the quality of Medicaid services.132665

       (B) In developing the initiatives, the Director may consult 132666
with experts in practice improvement, Medicaid managed care 132667
organizations, hospitals, and other types of Medicaid providers. 132668
The Director, Medicaid managed care organizations, and other types 132669
of Medicaid providers involved in the initiatives shall make 132670
information about the initiatives available on their web sites.132671

       Section 323.370. ABOLISHMENT OF THE PRESCRIPTION DRUG REBATES 132672
FUND132673

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132674
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 132675
in the Prescription Drug Rebates Fund (Fund 5P50) to the Health 132676
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0). Upon 132677
completion of the transfer, Fund 5P50 is abolished. The Director 132678
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132679
600692, Health Care/Medicaid Support – Drug Rebates, and 132680
reestablish them against appropriation item 651639, Medicaid 132681
Services - Recoveries. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 132682
hereby appropriated.132683

       All money that would have been deposited into the 132684
Prescription Drug Rebates Fund shall be deposited into the Health 132685
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund during fiscal year 2014 132686
and fiscal year 2015.132687

       Section 323.380.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE 132688
FUND132689

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132690
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 132691
Management, the cash balance related to managed care obligations 132692
in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 4Z10). The Director of 132693
Budget and Management shall transfer the amount certified from 132694
Fund 4Z10 to the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund (Fund 132695
5KW0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances related 132696
to managed care obligations against appropriation item 600625, 132697
Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish them against appropriation 132698
item 651612, Managed Care Performance Payment. The re-established 132699
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.132700

       After the cash relating to managed care obligations has been 132701
transferred, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 132702
the remaining cash balance in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 132703
4Z10) to the Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). 132704
Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4Z10 is abolished. The 132705
Director shall cancel any remaining encumbrances against 132706
appropriation item 600625, Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish 132707
them against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. 132708
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.132709

       All money that would have been deposited into the Health Care 132710
Compliance Fund pursuant to division (B)(2) of former section 132711
5111.946 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the Health 132712
Care Services Administration Fund during fiscal year 2014 and 132713
fiscal year 2015.132714

       Section 323.390.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE ODJFS ADMINISTRATION AND 132715
OVERSIGHT FUND132716

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132717
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 132718
in the ODJFS Administration and Oversight Fund (Fund 5S30) to the 132719
Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). Upon 132720
completion of the transfer, Fund 5S30 is abolished. The Director 132721
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132722
600629, Healthcare Program and DDD Support, and re-establish them 132723
against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. The 132724
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.132725

       Section 323.400.  REFUNDS AND RECONCILIATION FUND132726

       The Refunds and Reconciliation Fund (Fund R055) shall be used 132727
to hold refund and reconciliation revenues until the appropriate 132728
fund is determined or until the revenues are directed to the 132729
appropriate governmental agency other than the Department of 132730
Medicaid. Any Medicaid refunds or reconciliations received or held 132731
by the Department of Job and Family Services shall be transferred 132732
or credited to this fund. If receipts credited to the Refunds and 132733
Reconciliation Fund exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, 132734
the Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 132735
Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of 132736
the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director of Budget 132737
and Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.132738

       Section 323.460. NO LOSS OF MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY BEFORE 132739
JANUARY 1, 2014132740

       Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 132741
5101.18, 5111.01 (as renumbered as section 5162.03), and 5111.011 132742
(as renumbered as section 5163.02) and the repeal by this act of 132743
sections 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 5111.0113, 132744
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 132745
5111.0125, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 132746
5111.705, 5111.706, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, and 5111.7011 of 132747
the Revised Code, no individual eligible for Medicaid pursuant to 132748
those sections shall lose Medicaid eligibility before January 1, 132749
2014, because of the amendments to, or repeal of, those sections. 132750
This section does not preclude an individual from losing Medicaid 132751
eligibility before January 1, 2014, if the individual would cease 132752
to be Medicaid eligible before that date for reasons unrelated to 132753
the amendments to, or repeal of, those sections. Unrelated reasons 132754
include acquiring income or assets exceeding eligibility limits 132755
and failure to comply with eligibility requirements.132756

       Section 323.470. ALTERATIONS TO AND ELIMINATION OF OPTIONAL 132757
MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY GROUPS132758

       The Medicaid Director may initiate, before January 1, 2014, 132759
the rule-making process to alter the eligibility requirements for, 132760
or to eliminate, one or more Medicaid optional eligibility groups 132761
or subgroups pursuant to section 5163.06 of the Revised Code. 132762
However, none of the rules may go into effect before that date.132763

       Section 323.480. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS132764

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 132765
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 132766
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 132767
authorizes the adoption of a rule.132768

       The Medicaid Director is not required to amend any rule for 132769
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 132770
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 132771
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 132772
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 132773
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.132774

       Section 325.10. MED STATE MEDICAL BOARD132775

General Services Fund Group132776

5C60 883609 Operating Expenses $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 132777
TOTAL GSF General Services 132778
Fund Group $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 132779
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 132780


       Section 327.10. MHA DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH AND ADDICTION 132782
SERVICES132783

General Revenue Fund132784

GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 13,495,337 $ 13,486,290 132785
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 132786
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 132787
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 321,998 $ 321,998 132788
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 190,514,437 $ 190,514,437 132789
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 784,210 $ 784,210 132790
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 132791
GRF 335406 Prevention and Wellness $ 868,659 $ 868,659 132792
GRF 335421 Continuum of Care Services $ 77,064,296 $ 77,064,296 132793
GRF 335422 Criminal Justice Services $ 4,917,898 $ 4,917,898 132794
GRF 335504 Community Innovations $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 132795
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 7,502,875 $ 7,502,875 132796
GRF 335507 Community Behavioral Health $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 132797
GRF 652507 Medicaid Support $ 1,727,553 $ 1,736,600 132798
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 366,376,563 $ 366,609,963 132799

General Services Fund Group132800

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 132801
5T90 333641 Problem Gambling Services - Administration $ 60,000 $ 60,000 132802
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 132803
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 132804
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 250,000 $ 250,000 132805
5T90 335641 Problem Gambling Services $ 275,000 $ 275,000 132806
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 115,000,000 $ 115,000,000 132807
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 145,268,190 $ 145,268,190 132808

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group132809

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds $ 154,500 $ 154,500 132810
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous - Administration $ 140,000 $ 140,000 132811
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant - Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 132812
3A80 333613 Federal Grants - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 132813
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 132814
3G40 333618 Substance Abuse Block Grant- Administration $ 3,307,789 $ 3,307,789 132815
3H80 333606 Demonstration Grants - Administration $ 3,237,574 $ 3,237,574 132816
3N80 333639 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 132817
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare - Hospitals $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 132818
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals $ 200,000 $ 200,000 132819
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 132820
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 132821
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 132822
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 132823
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 132824
3FR0 335638 Race to the Top - Early Learning Challenge Grant $ 1,164,000 $ 1,164,000 132825
3G40 335618 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 62,542,003 $ 62,557,967 132826
3H80 335606 Demonstration Grants $ 5,428,006 $ 5,428,006 132827
3B10 652635 Community Medicaid Legacy Costs $ 5,000,000 $ 0 132828
3B10 652636 Community Medicaid Legacy Support $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 132829
3J80 652609 Medicaid Legacy Costs Support $ 3,000,000 $ 0 132830
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 152,659,342 $ 144,675,306 132831

State Special Revenue Fund Group132832

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 400,000 $ 400,000 132833
4750 333623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration $ 5,490,667 $ 5,490,667 132834
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating - Refunds $ 134,233 $ 134,233 132835
5JL0 333629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration $ 1,361,592 $ 1,361,592 132836
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 132837
6890 333640 Education and Conferences $ 150,000 $ 150,000 132838
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating - Hospitals $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 132839
4750 335623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 10,059,333 $ 10,059,333 132840
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Health Care $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 132841
5JL0 335629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions $ 4,084,772 4,084,772 132842
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 132843
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 31,298,097 $ 31,298,097 132844
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 695,602,192 $ 687,851,556 132845


       Section 327.20. TRANSITION RELATING TO CONSOLIDATION OF 132847
DEPARTMENTS132848

       Notwithstanding Chapters 340., 3793., 5119., and 5122. of the 132849
Revised Code, and any other provision of law to the contrary, on 132850
July 1, 2013, there is hereby created the Department of Mental 132851
Health and Addiction Services, which shall be administered by the 132852
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The Director of 132853
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall be appointed by the 132854
Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall 132855
hold office during the term of the appointing Governor, and is 132856
subject to removal at the pleasure of the Governor. The Director 132857
of Mental Health and Addiction Services is the executive head of 132858
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 132859
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 132860
Department of Mental Health shall be consolidated into the single 132861
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. All of the 132862
authority, functions, and assets and liabilities of the Department 132863
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132864
Services are transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 132865
Addiction Services. The Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132866
Services is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes the 132867
obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of the 132868
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 132869
Department of Mental Health. The Director of Mental Health and 132870
Addiction Services assumes all of the duties, authorities, and 132871
responsibilities of the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132872
Services and the Director of Mental Health. Any action, license, 132873
or certification that was undertaken or issued by the Director of 132874
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services or the Director of Mental 132875
Health that is current and valid on the effective date of the 132876
consolidation is deemed to be an action, license, or certification 132877
undertaken or issued by the Department of Mental Health and 132878
Addiction Services under the statute creating that Department. 132879

       Any business commenced but not completed by July 1, 2013, by 132880
the Department of Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and 132881
Drug Addiction Services shall be completed by the Department of 132882
Mental Health and Addiction Services. The business shall be 132883
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 132884
completed by the Department of Mental Health or by the Department 132885
of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services prior to July 1, 2013.132886

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 132887
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's transfer of 132888
responsibility from the Department of Mental Health and the 132889
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to the 132890
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. Each such 132891
validation, cure, right, remedy, obligation, or liability shall be 132892
administered by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132893
Services pursuant to the statute creating that department.132894

       All rules, orders, and determinations made or undertaken 132895
pursuant to the authority and responsibilities of the Department 132896
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132897
Services prior to July 1, 2013, shall continue in effect as rules, 132898
orders, and determinations of the Department of Mental Health and 132899
Addiction Services until modified or rescinded by the Department 132900
of Mental Health and Addiction Services. If necessary to ensure 132901
the integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, 132902
the Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber 132903
the rules to reflect the transfer of authority and responsibility 132904
to the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services.132905

       Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 132906
duties of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 132907
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services pending on July 1, 2013, is 132908
not affected by the transfer of responsibility to the Department 132909
of Mental Health and Addiction Services and shall be prosecuted or 132910
defended in the name of the Department of Mental Health and 132911
Addiction Services. In all such actions and proceedings, the 132912
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, on application 132913
to the court, shall be substituted as a party.132914

       It is the intention of the Department of Mental Health and 132915
Addiction Services that community subsidies allocated or 132916
distributed by the department will be used to fund mental health 132917
and addiction services in largely the same proportion that such 132918
services were funded when allocated or distributed as separate 132919
funding streams through the separate Department of Mental Health 132920
or Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.132921

       All employees of the Department of Mental Health and the 132922
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall be 132923
employees of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132924
Services and shall serve in the positions previously held within 132925
their respective agencies unless the Department of Mental Health 132926
and Addiction Services determines otherwise. The merger of 132927
Department of Mental Health and Department of Alcohol and Drug 132928
Addiction Services shall not be deemed a transfer of employees 132929
pursuant to division (D)(3)(b) of section 124.11 of the Revised 132930
Code. Any unclassified employee of the Department of Mental Health 132931
and Addiction Services who held a right to resume a position 132932
within the classified service of his or her previous respective 132933
agency of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 132934
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall retain such a right 132935
subject to section 5119.18 of the Revised Code as may be amended.132936

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, 132937
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, and if 132938
requested by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132939
Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall make budget 132940
changes made necessary by the consolidation, if any, including 132941
administrative organization, program transfers, the creation of 132942
new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the consolidation of 132943
funds, as authorized by this section. The Director of Budget and 132944
Management may make any transfer of cash balances between funds. 132945

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132946
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall certify to 132947
the Director of Budget and Management all encumbrances held by the 132948
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 132949
Addiction Services, and specify which of those encumbrances are 132950
requested to be transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 132951
Addiction Services. The Director of Budget and Management may 132952
cancel any existing encumbrances as certified by the Director of 132953
Mental Health and Addiction Services and re-establish them in the 132954
new agency. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 132955
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed with regard 132956
to the encumbrances certified shall be completed by the Department 132957
of Mental Health and Addiction Services in the same manner and 132958
with the same effect as if it were completed by the Department of 132959
Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132960
Services. 132961

       Not later than 30 days after the transfer and consolidation 132962
of the operations and related management functions of the 132963
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 132964
Addiction Services to the Department of Mental Health and 132965
Addiction Services, an authorized officer of the former Department 132966
of Mental Health and the former Department of Alcohol and Drug 132967
Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of Mental Health 132968
and Addiction Services the unexpended balance and location of any 132969
funds and accounts designated for building and facility operation 132970
and management functions, and the custody of such funds and 132971
accounts shall be transferred to the Department of Mental Health 132972
and Addiction Services.132973

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132974
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132975
038616, Problem Gambling Services, and re-establish them against 132976
appropriation items 333641, Problem Gambling Services - 132977
Administration, and 335641, Problem Gambling Services. The 132978
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132979
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132980
038616 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132981
items 333641 and 335641 in the same manner and with the same 132982
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 132983
038616.132984

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132985
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132986
038614, Substance Abuse Block Grant, and re-establish them against 132987
appropriation items 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 132988
Administration, and 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant. The 132989
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132990
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132991
038614 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132992
items 333618 and 335618 in the same manner and with the same 132993
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 132994
038614. 132995

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132996
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132997
038609, Demonstration Grants, and re-establish them against 132998
appropriation items 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 132999
and 335606, Demonstration Grants. The re-established encumbrance 133000
amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not 133001
completed under appropriation item 038609 by July 1, 2013, shall 133002
be completed under appropriation items 333606 and 335606 in the 133003
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 133004
regard to appropriation item 038609.133005

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133006
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133007
038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and re-establish them 133008
against appropriation items 333623, Statewide Treatment and 133009
Prevention - Administration, and 335623, Statewide Treatment and 133010
Prevention. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 133011
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 133012
appropriation item 038621 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 133013
under appropriation items 333623 and 335623 in the same manner and 133014
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 133015
appropriation item 038621.133016

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133017
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133018
038629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions, and re-establish 133019
them against appropriation items 333629, Problem Gambling and 133020
Casino Addictions - Administration, and 335629, Problem Gambling 133021
and Casino Addictions. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 133022
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 133023
under appropriation item 038629 by July 1, 2013, shall be 133024
completed under appropriation items 333629 and 335629 in the same 133025
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 133026
regard to appropriation item 038629.133027

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133028
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133029
038611, Administrative Reimbursement, and re-establish them 133030
against appropriation item 333639, Administrative Reimbursement. 133031
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 133032
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133033
038611 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133034
item 333639 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133035
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038611.133036

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133037
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133038
335635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 133039
against appropriation item 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy 133040
Costs. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 133041
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 133042
appropriation item 335635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 133043
under appropriation item 652635 in the same manner and with the 133044
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 133045
item 335635.133046

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133047
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133048
333635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 133049
against appropriation item 652636, Community Medicaid Legacy 133050
Support. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 133051
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 133052
appropriation item 333635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 133053
under appropriation item 652636 in the same manner and with the 133054
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 133055
item 333635.133056

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133057
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133058
038610, Medicaid, and re-establish them against appropriation item 133059
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support. The re-established 133060
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 133061
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 038610 by 133062
July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation item 652609 133063
in the same manner and with the same effect as if it were 133064
completed with regard to appropriation item 038610.133065

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133066
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133067
038604, Education and Conferences, and re-establish them against 133068
appropriation item 333640, Education and Conferences. The 133069
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 133070
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133071
038604 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133072
item 333640 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133073
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038604.133074

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133075
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133076
038401, Treatment Services, and re-establish them against 133077
appropriation items 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, 133078
Criminal Justice Services, and 335406, Prevention and Wellness. 133079
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 133080
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133081
038401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133082
items 335421, 335422, and 335406 in the same manner and with the 133083
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 133084
item 038401.133085

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133086
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133087
335419, Community Medication Subsidy, and re-establish them 133088
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 133089
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 133090
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133091
335419 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133092
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133093
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335419.133094

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133095
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133096
335505, Local Mental Health Systems of Care, and re-establish them 133097
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 133098
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 133099
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133100
335505 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133101
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133102
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335505.133103

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133104
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133105
332401, Forensic Services, and re-establish them against 133106
appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services. The 133107
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 133108
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133109
332401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133110
item 335422 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133111
were completed with regard to appropriation item 332401.133112

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133113
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133114
333403, Pre-Admission Screening Expenses, and re-establish them 133115
against appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support. The 133116
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 133117
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133118
333403 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133119
item 652507 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133120
were completed with regard to appropriation item 333403.133121

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133122
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133123
038900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, and re-establish them 133124
against appropriation item 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 133125
Treatment. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 133126
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 133127
appropriation item 038900 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 133128
under appropriation item 335900 in the same manner and with the 133129
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 133130
item 038900.133131

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 133132
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 133133
038404, Prevention Services, and re-establish them against 133134
appropriation item 335406, Prevention and Wellness. The 133135
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 133136
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 133137
038404 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 133138
item 335406 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 133139
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038404.133140

       Section 327.20.10. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 133141
Mental Health and Addiction Services, with respect to all mental 133142
health and addiction facilities and services established and 133143
operated or provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code shall 133144
do all of the following:133145

       (A) To the extent the Director determines necessary, and 133146
after consultation with the boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 133147
mental health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 133148
operation of, a community behavioral health information system or 133149
systems, and shall specify the information that must be provided 133150
by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 133151
for inclusion in the system or systems, which may include 133152
information on services provided in whole or in part under 133153
contract with a board, financial information regarding 133154
expenditures of federal, state, or local funds by boards, and 133155
information about persons served under contract with a board. 133156

       (B)(1) Receive and review each board's community mental 133157
health and addiction services plan, budget, and statement of 133158
services to be made available, and approve or disapprove the plan, 133159
budget, and statement of services in whole or in part. 133160

       (2) The Department may withhold all or part of the funds 133161
allocated to a board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, 133162
budget, or statement of service. 133163

       (3) Prior to a final decision to disapprove a plan, budget, 133164
or statement of services, or to withhold funds from a board, a 133165
representative of the Director shall meet with the board to 133166
discuss the reasons for the action and any corrective action that 133167
should be taken to make the plan, budget, or statement of services 133168
acceptable, and give the board a reasonable time in which to 133169
revise the plan, budget, or statement of services. 133170

       (C) Establish procedures for the review of plans, budgets, 133171
and statements of services, and a timetable for submission and 133172
review. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 133173
services shall submit to the Department of Mental Health and 133174
Addiction Services the information, plans, budgets, and statements 133175
of services described above in accordance with the guidance or 133176
directives of the Department or Director. After notifying and 133177
consulting with relevant constituents, the Department of Mental 133178
Health and Addiction Services shall establish a methodology for 133179
allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 133180
services the funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the 133181
Department for the purpose of local mental health and addiction 133182
services continuums of care. Subject to existing provisions of law 133183
that permit the Director to withhold funds from boards of alcohol, 133184
drug addiction, and mental health services for failure to comply 133185
with applicable sections of law, or for discriminating in making 133186
services available, and subject to a board's submission and 133187
approval of the required plan, budget, and statement of services 133188
described above, the Department shall allocate the funds to the 133189
boards in a manner consistent with the methodology and state and 133190
federal laws, rules, and regulations. 133191

       Portions of appropriation items 333609, Central Office 133192
Operating, 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, 133193
Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal 133194
Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 133195
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 133196
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 133197
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 133198
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 133199
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 133200
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 133201
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 133202
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 133203
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 133204
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 133205
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 133206
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 133207
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 133208
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 133209
may be used to pay for the Department and board functions 133210
enumerated above. 133211

       Section 327.20.20. (A) Effective July 1, 2013, all records 133212
and reports, other than court journal entries or court docket 133213
entries, identifying a person and pertaining to the person's 133214
mental health condition, assessment, provision of care or 133215
treatment, or payment for assessment, care, or treatment that are 133216
maintained in connection with any services certified by the 133217
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or any 133218
hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by the Department, 133219
shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any 133220
person, with the following exceptions:133221

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 133222
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 133223
guardian, consents. 133224

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in Chapters 340., 5119., 133225
or 5122., or in Title 47 of the Revised Code. 133226

       (3) Hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 133227
health services, licensed facilities, and community mental health 133228
services providers may release necessary information to insurers 133229
and other third-party payers, including government entities 133230
responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to obtain 133231
payment for goods and services furnished to the person.133232

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge; 133233

       (5) A person shall be granted access to the person's own 133234
psychiatric and medical records unless access specifically is 133235
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 133236
reasons. 133237

       (6) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133238
may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information 133239
with community mental health services providers and boards of 133240
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services relating to 133241
the person's care or services. Records and information that may be 133242
exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 133243
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 133244
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 133245
discharge summary, if any.133246

       (7) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, 133247
hospitals, and community providers operated by the Department, 133248
hospitals licensed by the Department under section 5119.20 133249
(5119.33) of the Revised Code and community mental health services 133250
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 133251
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 133252
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 133253
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 133254
of the person. 133255

       (8) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133256
and community mental health services providers may exchange 133257
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with boards of 133258
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for purposes 133259
of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the Revised 133260
Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 133261
services shall not access or use any personal information from the 133262
Department or providers except as required or permitted by this 133263
section, or Chapters 340. and 5122. of the Revised Code for 133264
purposes related to payment, care coordination, health care 133265
operations, program and service evaluation, reporting activities, 133266
research, system administration, oversight, or other authorized 133267
purposes. 133268

       (9) A person's family member who is involved in the 133269
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 133270
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 133271
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 133272
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 133273
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 133274
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 133275
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 133276
information and does not object to the disclosure. 133277

       (10) Community mental health services providers may exchange 133278
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 133279
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 133280
providers in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 133281
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 133282
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 133283
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 133284
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any. 133285

       (11) Information may be disclosed to the executor or the 133286
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 133287
information is necessary to administer the estate. 133288

       (12) Information may be disclosed to staff members of the 133289
appropriate board or to staff members designated by the Director 133290
of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the purpose of 133291
evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services 133292
and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 133293
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 133294
with the name of any person. 133295

       (13) Records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, course of 133296
treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be disclosed and 133297
released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if the person was 133298
committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 133299
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the attorney designated by 133300
the board for proceedings pursuant to involuntary commitment under 133301
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. 133302

       (14) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133303
may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 133304
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with the 133305
Department of Rehabilitation and Correction and with the 133306
Department of Youth Services to ensure continuity of care for 133307
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 133308
an institution of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 133309
or the Department of Youth Services and may exchange psychiatric 133310
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 133311
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 133312
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 133313
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 133314
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 133315
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 133316
release of records under this division is limited to records 133317
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 133318
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 133319
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any. 133320

       (15) A community mental health services provider that ceases 133321
to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 133322
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 133323
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 133324
district in which the person resided at the time services were 133325
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 133326
transferred elsewhere at the person's request. 133327

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 133328
(A)(3), (6), or (10) of this section, the custodian of the records 133329
shall attempt to obtain the consent of the person in question for 133330
the disclosure. 133331

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 133332
a person except as authorized by the law. 133333

       (D) Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 133334
Administration, 333416, Research Program Evaluation, 333605, 133335
Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds, 333606, Demonstration Grants - 133336
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 133337
333609, Central Office Opening, 333611, Non-Federal Miscellaneous, 133338
333612, Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, 133339
Federal Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant 133340
- Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 133341
Administration, 333621, Family and Children First Administration, 133342
333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration, 133343
333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration, 133344
333632, Mental Health Operating - Refunds, 333608, Federal 133345
Miscellaneous - Administration, 333640, Education and Conferences, 133346
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 333639, 133347
Administrative Reimbursement, 334605, Medicaid/Medicare - 133348
Hospitals, 334608, Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals, 334609, 133349
Hospital - Operating Expenses, 334613, Federal Letter of Credit, 133350
334620, Special Education, 334632, Mental Health Operating - 133351
Hospitals, 335405, Family and Children First, 335406, Prevention 133352
and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, Criminal 133353
Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health Projects, 133354
335506, Residential State Supplement, 335608, Federal 133355
Miscellaneous, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social 133356
Services Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental 133357
Health Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, 133358
Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 133359
335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem 133360
Gambling and Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early 133361
Learning Challenge Grant, 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 133362
Treatment, 336601, Office of Support Services, 652609, Medicaid 133363
Legacy Costs Support, 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy Costs, and 133364
652636, Community Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for 133365
the Department and community mental health system functions that 133366
operate under the confidentiality provisions enumerated above. 133367

       Section 327.20.30. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 133368
Mental Health and Addiction Services may adopt rules pursuant to 133369
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing licensure and operation 133370
of residential facilities, that include procedures for conducting 133371
criminal records checks for operators, employees, and volunteers 133372
who have direct access to facility residents.133373

        Portions of appropriation items 334506, Court Costs, 335406, 133374
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 133375
335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335506, Residential State 133376
Supplement, 335615, Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance 133377
Abuse Block Grant, 335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and 133378
335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, may be used to pay for 133379
these regulated activities.133380

       Section 327.20.40.  Effective July 1, 2013, to the extent 133381
funds are available and on application of boards of alcohol, drug 133382
addiction, and mental health services, the Director of Mental 133383
Health and Addiction Services may approve state reimbursement of, 133384
or state grants for, community construction programs, including 133385
residential housing for severely mentally disabled persons and 133386
persons with substance use disorders. The Director may also 133387
approve an application for reimbursement or a grant for such 133388
programs submitted by other governmental entities or by private, 133389
nonprofit organizations after the board of alcohol, drug 133390
addiction, and mental health services has reviewed and approved 133391
the application and the application is consistent with the plan, 133392
budget, and statement of services submitted to and approved by the 133393
Department. The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with 133394
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for 133395
applying for state reimbursement and for state grants for 133396
community construction programs, including residential housing for 133397
severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance use 133398
disorders.133399

        Portions of appropriation item 335616, Community Capital 133400
Replacement, may be used to pay for the Department functions 133401
enumerated above.133402

       Section 327.20.50.  Effective July 1, 2013, the Department of 133403
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall collect information 133404
about services delivered and persons served as required for 133405
reporting and evaluation relating to state and federal funds 133406
expended for such purposes. No alcohol, drug addiction, or mental 133407
health program, agency, or services provider shall fail to supply 133408
statistics or other information within its knowledge and with 133409
respect to its programs or services upon the request of the 133410
department.133411

       Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 133412
Administration, 333609 Central Office Operating, 333606, 133413
Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, Social Services 133414
Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal Grants - 133415
Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 133416
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 133417
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 133418
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 133419
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 133420
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 133421
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 133422
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 133423
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 133424
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 133425
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 133426
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 133427
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 133428
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 133429
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 133430
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support, and 652636, Community 133431
Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for the Department 133432
information collection and reporting functions enumerated above.133433

       Section 327.20.60. The Department of Mental Health and 133434
Addiction Services shall administer specified Medicaid services as 133435
delegated by the State's single agency responsible for the 133436
Medicaid program. Effective July 1, 2013, the Department shall use 133437
appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support, to fund the 133438
Medicaid-related services and supports performed by the 133439
Department.133440

       Section 327.30. RESIDENT TRAINEES133441

       The foregoing appropriation item 333402, Resident Trainees, 133442
shall be used to fund training agreements entered into by the 133443
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the 133444
development of curricula and the provision of training programs to 133445
support public mental health services.133446

       Section 327.40. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS133447

       The foregoing appropriation item 333415, Lease-Rental 133448
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 133449
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 133450
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 133451
Services under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of 133452
the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds 133453
pledged for bond service charges on obligations issued pursuant to 133454
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.133455

       Section 327.50. HOSPITAL SERVICES133456

       The foregoing appropriation item 334412, Hospital Services, 133457
shall be used for the operation of the State Regional Psychiatric 133458
Hospitals, including, but not limited to, all aspects involving 133459
civil and forensic commitment, treatment, and discharge as 133460
determined by the Director of Mental Health and Addiction 133461
Services. A portion of this appropriation may be used by the 133462
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to create, 133463
purchase, or contract for the custody, supervision, control, and 133464
treatment of persons committed to the Department of Mental Health 133465
and Addiction Services in other clinically appropriate 133466
environments, consistent with public safety.133467

       Section 327.60. CONTINUUM OF CARE SERVICES133468

       The foregoing appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care 133469
Services, shall be used as follows:133470

       (A) A portion of this appropriation may be allocated to 133471
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 133472
boards in accordance with a distribution methodology determined by 133473
the Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services:133474

       (1) For the boards to purchase mental health and addiction 133475
services permitted under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code;133476

       (2) To provide subsidized support for psychotropic medication 133477
needs of indigent citizens in the community to reduce unnecessary 133478
hospitalization due to lack of medication; and133479

       (3) To provide subsidized support for medication assisted 133480
treatment costs.133481

       (B) A portion of this appropriation may be distributed to 133482
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 133483
boards, community addiction and/or mental health services 133484
providers, courts, or other governmental entities to provide 133485
specific grants in support of mental health and addiction services 133486
initiatives.133487

       (C) $665,196 shall be allocated to The Ohio State University 133488
STAR House in each fiscal year.133489

       Section 327.70. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES133490

       The foregoing appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice 133491
Services, shall be used to provide forensic psychiatric 133492
evaluations to courts of common pleas and to conduct evaluations 133493
of patients of forensic status in facilities operated or 133494
designated by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 133495
Services prior to conditional release to the community. A portion 133496
of this appropriation may be allocated through community alcohol, 133497
drug addiction, and mental health services boards to community 133498
addiction and/or mental health services providers in accordance 133499
with a distribution methodology as determined by the Director of 133500
Mental Health and Addiction Services.133501

       Appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services, may 133502
also be used to:133503

       (A) Provide forensic monitoring and tracking of individuals 133504
on conditional release;133505

       (B) Provide forensic training;133506

       (C) Support projects that assist courts and law enforcement 133507
to identify and develop appropriate alternative services to 133508
incarceration for nonviolent mentally ill offenders;133509

       (D) Provide specialized re-entry services to offenders 133510
leaving prisons and jails;133511

       (E) Provide specific grants in support of addiction services 133512
alternatives to incarceration;133513

       (F) Support specialty dockets; and133514

       (G) Support therapeutic communities.133515

       Section 327.80. COMMUNITY INNOVATIONS133516

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 133517
Innovations, may be used by the Department of Mental Health and 133518
Addiction Services to make targeted investments in programs, 133519
projects, or systems operated by or under the authority of other 133520
state agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 133521
agencies that impact, or are impacted by, the operations and 133522
functions of the Department, with the goal of achieving a net 133523
reduction in expenditure of state general revenue funds and/or 133524
improved outcomes for Ohio citizens without a net increase in 133525
state general revenue fund spending.133526

       The Director shall identify and evaluate programs, projects, 133527
or systems proposed or operated, in whole or in part, outside of 133528
the authority of the Department, where targeted investment of 133529
these funds in the program, project, or system is expected to 133530
decrease demand for the Department or other resources funded with 133531
state general revenue funds, and/or to measurably improve outcomes 133532
for Ohio citizens with mental illness or with alcohol, drug, or 133533
gambling addictions. The Director shall have discretion to 133534
transfer money from the appropriation item to other state 133535
agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 133536
agencies in amounts, and subject to conditions, that the Director 133537
determines most likely to achieve state savings and/or improved 133538
outcomes. Distribution of moneys from this appropriation item 133539
shall not be subject to sections 9.23 to 9.239 or Chapter 125. of 133540
the Revised Code. 133541

       The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 133542
recipient of community innovation funds, identifying: allowable 133543
expenditure of the funds; other commitment of funds or other 133544
resources to the program, project, or system; expected state 133545
savings and/or improved outcomes and proposed mechanisms for 133546
measurement of such savings or outcomes; and required reporting 133547
regarding expenditure of funds and savings or outcomes achieved.133548

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 133549
Innovations, may also be used by the Department to make payments 133550
to the Rehabilitation Services Commission for vocational 133551
rehabilitation services to individuals receiving mental health or 133552
addiction services paid for with public dollars.133553

       Section 327.83. COMMUNITY BEHAVIORAL HEALTH133554

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 133555
Behavioral Health, $30,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 133556
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 133557
services boards to provide mental health services. The Department 133558
of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall allocate these funds 133559
to the boards using the same methodology used to allocate other 133560
mental health services subsidies.133561

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 133562
Behavioral Health, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 133563
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 133564
services boards to be used for addiction services including 133565
medication, treatment programs, and counseling. Of this amount, at 133566
least fifty per cent shall be used for drug treatment using 133567
non-opiate drugs. The Department shall allocate these funds to the 133568
boards using the same methodology used to allocate other addiction 133569
services subsidies.133570

       Section 327.90. COMMUNITY OPERATING/PLANNING133571

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 133572
be used by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133573
to make payments to the Rehabilitation Services Commission for 133574
vocational rehabilitation services to individuals receiving mental 133575
health or addiction services paid for with public dollars.133576

       In addition, appropriation item 335609, Community 133577
Operating/Planning, may be used by the Department to make 133578
incentive payments to operators of residential facilities that are 133579
licensed by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133580
and provide accommodations and personal care services for one or 133581
two unrelated adults or accommodations, supervision, and personal 133582
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults. The incentive 133583
payments shall be granted based upon operators demonstrating 133584
linkage between their facilities' residents and community 133585
resources, based on the residents' needs including, but not 133586
limited to, aged, mental health, and physical health issues. The 133587
financial incentive shall be used to support community living for 133588
individuals with a disability or who are aged, and to assist with 133589
costs arising from facility operations.133590

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 133591
also be used by the Department to support non-Medicaid program 133592
costs for individuals moving into community settings.133593

       Section 327.100. RESIDENTIAL STATE SUPPLEMENT133594

       (A) As used in this section:133595

       (1) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed by the 133596
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services under section 133597
5119.34 of the Revised Code.133598

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a facility licensed by 133599
the Director of Health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or 133600
by a political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the 133601
Revised Code.133602

       (B) The foregoing appropriation item 335506, Residential 133603
State Supplement, may be used by the Department of Mental Health 133604
and Addiction Services to provide training for residential 133605
facilities providing accommodations, supervision, and personal 133606
care services to three to sixteen unrelated adults with mental 133607
illness, to transfer cash to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit Fee 133608
Fund (Fund 5R20) used by the Department of Job and Family 133609
Services, and to make benefit payments to residential state 133610
supplement recipients. 133611

       (C) Under the Residential State Supplement Program, the 133612
amount used to determine whether a resident is eligible for 133613
payment, and for determining the amount per month the eligible 133614
resident will receive, shall be as follows: 133615

       (1) $927 for a residential care facility; 133616

       (2) $927 for a residential facility that provides 133617
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for six to 133618
sixteen unrelated adults as described in section 5119.34 of the 133619
Revised Code;133620

       (3) $824 for a residential facility that provides 133621
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 133622
two unrelated adults as described in division (A)(9)(b)(ii) of 133623
section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;133624

       (4) $824 for a residential facility providing accommodations, 133625
supervision, and personal care services to three to five unrelated 133626
adults, as described in section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;133627

       (5) $824 for a residential facility that provides 133628
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 133629
two unrelated persons with mental illness or persons with severe 133630
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving mental 133631
health services from a community mental health services provider 133632
or a hospital, as described in division (A)(9)(b)(i) of section 133633
5119.34 of the Revised Code;133634

       (6) $618 for community mental health housing services, as 133635
described in division (D)(1)(c) of section 5119.41 of the Revised 133636
Code.133637

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 133638
reflect these amounts in any applicable rules the Department 133639
adopts under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code.133640

       (D) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133641
shall, with the input of stakeholders and impacted state agencies, 133642
conduct a review of the state and federal rules and statutes 133643
governing the Residential State Supplement Program and report on 133644
potential improvements to be made in governing the program not 133645
later than January 1, 2014.133646

       Section 327.110. FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING 133647
POOL133648

       A county family and children first council may establish and 133649
operate a flexible funding pool in order to assure access to 133650
needed services by families, children, and older adults in need of 133651
protective services. The operation of the flexible funding pools 133652
shall be subject to the following restrictions:133653

       (A) The county council shall establish and operate the 133654
flexible funding pool in accordance with formal guidance issued by 133655
the Family and Children First Cabinet Council; 133656

       (B) The county council shall produce an annual report on its 133657
use of the pooled funds. The annual report shall conform to a 133658
format prescribed in the formal guidance issued by the Family and 133659
Children First Cabinet Council; 133660

       (C) Unless otherwise restricted, funds transferred to the 133661
flexible funding pool may include state general revenues allocated 133662
to local entities to support the provision of services to families 133663
and children; 133664

       (D) The amounts transferred to the flexible funding pool 133665
shall be limited to amounts that can be redirected without 133666
impairing the achievement of the objectives for which the initial 133667
allocation is designated; and133668

       (E) Each amount transferred to the flexible funding pool from 133669
a specific allocation shall be approved for transfer by the 133670
director of the local agency that was the original recipient of 133671
the allocation. 133672

       Section 329.10. MIH COMMISSION ON MINORITY HEALTH133673

General Revenue Fund133674

GRF 149321 Operating Expenses $ 581,490 $ 591,615 133675
GRF 149501 Minority Health Grants $ 889,100 $ 878,975 133676
GRF 149502 Lupus Program $ 110,047 $ 110,047 133677
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,580,637 $ 1,580,637 133678

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133679

3J90 149602 Federal Grants $ 140,000 $ 140,000 133680
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133681
Fund Group $ 140,000 $ 140,000 133682

State Special Revenue Fund Group133683

4C20 149601 Minority Health Conference $ 25,000 $ 25,000 133684
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133685
Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 25,000 133686
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,745,637 $ 1,745,637 133687


       Section 331.10. CRB MOTOR VEHICLE REPAIR BOARD133689

General Services Fund Group133690

4K90 865601 Operating Expenses $ 487,592 $ 484,292 133691
TOTAL GSF General Services 133692
Fund Group $ 487,592 $ 484,292 133693
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 487,592 $ 484,292 133694


       Section 333.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES133696

General Revenue Fund133697

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 133698
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 21,622,900 $ 23,943,400 133699
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 133700
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 133701
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 350,000 $ 200,000 133702
GRF 725507 Coal and Mine Safety Program $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 133703
GRF 725508 Oil and Gas Program $ 7,200,000 $ 7,350,000 133704
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 133705
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,392,002 $ 4,392,001 133706
GRF 728321 Division of Geological Survey $ 800,000 $ 800,000 133707
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 177,405 $ 177,405 133708
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 133709
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 2,279,115 $ 2,324,736 133710
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,782,704 $ 4,782,652 133711
GRF 738321 Division of Real Estate and Land Management $ 715,963 $ 670,342 133712
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 133713
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 105,180,489 $ 108,618,536 133714

General Services Fund Group133715

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 2,109,968 $ 1,839,204 133716
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 4,609,154 $ 4,671,566 133717
2040 725687 Information Services $ 5,179,097 $ 5,288,168 133718
2050 725696 Human Resource Direct Service $ 2,474,345 $ 2,526,662 133719
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 133720
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,126,432 $ 2,126,432 133721
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 133722
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 883,879 $ 883,879 133723
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 404,657 $ 412,570 133724
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,005 $ 138,005 133725
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 133726
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,559,292 $ 2,559,292 133727
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,329,935 $ 3,346,259 133728
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 852,982 $ 869,145 133729
TOTAL GSF General Services 133730
Fund Group $ 25,457,857 $ 25,451,293 133731

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133732

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 265,000 $ 265,000 133733
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 133734
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 133735
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 11,851,759 $ 11,851,759 133736
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 950,000 $ 950,000 133737
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 133738
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 933,448 $ 557,146 133739
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas - Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 133740
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 2,790,633 $ 2,790,633 133741
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 969,190 $ 1,006,874 133742
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 4,342,280 $ 4,342,280 133743
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 133744
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133745
Fund Group $ 28,386,819 $ 28,048,201 133746

State Special Revenue Fund Group133747

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 128,466 $ 128,466 133748
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133749
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133750
5090 725602 State Forest $ 6,873,330 $ 6,880,158 133751
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 1,220,690 $ 1,993,519 133752
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 29,654,880 $ 29,671,044 133753
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,559,583 $ 1,559,583 133754
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 12,812,311 $ 13,140,201 133755
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 133756
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 133757
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,639 $ 546,639 133758
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 133759
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,941,532 $ 1,941,532 133760
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 1,804,180 $ 1,804,180 133761
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 500,000 $ 500,000 133762
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 133763
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 133764
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,250,000 $ 8,250,000 133765
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133766
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133767
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 133768
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 133769
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 133770
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133771
5MF0 725635 Ohio Geology License Plate $ 7,500 $ 7,500 133772
5MW0 725604 Natural Resources Special Purposes $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 133773
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 943,517 $ 943,517 133774
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133775
Fund Group $ 76,215,753 $ 77,339,464 133776

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group133777

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 133778
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 133779

Wildlife Fund Group133780

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 133781
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 56,466,564 $ 57,075,976 133782
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 133783
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 133784
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 133785
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 133786
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 203,584 $ 203,584 133787
81B0 725688 Wildlife Habitat Fund $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 133788
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 65,457,482 $ 66,066,894 133789

Waterways Safety Fund Group133790

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,693,671 $ 5,693,671 133791
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 133792
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 133793
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 133794
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 133795
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 19,467,370 $ 19,297,370 133796
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 133797
Group $ 26,276,019 $ 26,106,019 133798

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group133799

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 133800
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 133801
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 133802

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group133803

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 496,263 $ 496,263 133804
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 133805
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 133806
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,596,263 $ 2,596,263 133807
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 329,891,676 $ 334,547,664 133808


       Section 333.20. CENTRAL SUPPORT INDIRECT133810

        With the exception of the Division of Wildlife, whose direct 133811
and indirect central support charges shall be paid out of the 133812
General Revenue Fund from the foregoing appropriation item 725401, 133813
Wildlife-GRF Central Support, the Department of Natural Resources, 133814
with approval of the Director of Budget and Management, shall 133815
utilize a methodology for determining each division's payments 133816
into the Central Support Indirect Fund (Fund 1570). The 133817
methodology used shall contain the characteristics of 133818
administrative ease and uniform application in compliance with 133819
federal grant requirements. It may include direct cost charges for 133820
specific services provided. Payments to Fund 1570 shall be made 133821
using an intrastate transfer voucher.133822

       Section 333.30.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS133823

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 133824
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 133825
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 133826
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 133827
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 133828
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 133829
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 133830
154. of the Revised Code.133831

       CANAL LANDS133832

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 133833
be used to provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands 133834
Program.133835

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND133836

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 133837
Fund, up to $350,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $200,000 in 133838
fiscal year 2015 shall be used by the Director of Natural 133839
Resources, in consultation with the Director of Agriculture and 133840
the Director of Environmental Protection, to implement 133841
nonstatutory recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and 133842
Water Quality Working Group. The Director shall give priority to 133843
recommendations that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural 133844
production guidelines commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship 133845
practices. Funds may also be used for enhanced soil testing in the 133846
Western Lake Erie Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and 133847
its tributaries, and conducting research and establishing pilot 133848
projects that have the goal of reducing algae blooms in Lake Erie.133849

       COAL AND MINE SAFETY PROGRAM133850

       The foregoing appropriation item 725507, Coal and Mine Safety 133851
Program, shall be used for the administration of the Mine Safety 133852
Program and the Coal Regulation Program.133853

        OIL AND GAS PROGRAM133854

        The foregoing appropriation item 725508, Oil and Gas Program, 133855
shall be used for the Oil and Gas Program.133856

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE133857

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 133858
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 133859
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 133860
2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued under sections 133861
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.133862

       Section 333.40. WELL LOG FILING FEES133863

       The Chief of the Division of Soil and Water Resources shall 133864
deposit fees forwarded to the Division pursuant to section 1521.05 133865
of the Revised Code into the Departmental Services – Intrastate 133866
Fund (Fund 1550) for the purposes described in that section.133867

       Section 333.50. HUMAN RESOURCES DIRECT SERVICE133868

        The foregoing appropriation item 725696, Human Resources 133869
Direct Service, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 133870
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 133871
Resources' human resources functions. The Human Resources 133872
Chargeback Fund (Fund 2050) shall consist of cash transferred to 133873
it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as determined 133874
by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director of Budget 133875
and Management.133876

       Section 333.60. LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION133877

        The foregoing appropriation item 725665, Law Enforcement 133878
Administration, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 133879
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 133880
Resources' law enforcement functions. The Law Enforcement 133881
Administration Fund (Fund 2230) shall consist of cash transferred 133882
to it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as 133883
determined by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director 133884
of Budget and Management.133885

       Section 333.70. FOUNTAIN SQUARE AND ODNR GROUNDS AT THE OHIO 133886
EXPO CENTER133887

       The foregoing appropriation item 725664, Fountain Square 133888
Facilities Management, shall be used for payment of repairs, 133889
renovation, utilities, property management, and building 133890
maintenance expenses for the Fountain Square complex and the 133891
Department of Natural Resources grounds at the Ohio Expo Center. 133892
Cash transferred by intrastate transfer vouchers from various 133893
department funds and rental income received by the Department of 133894
Natural Resources shall be deposited into the Fountain Square 133895
Facilities Management Fund (Fund 6350).133896

       Section 333.80.  SOIL AND WATER DISTRICTS133897

       In addition to state payments to soil and water conservation 133898
districts authorized by section 1515.10 of the Revised Code, the 133899
Department of Natural Resources may use appropriation item 725683, 133900
Soil and Water Districts, to pay any soil and water conservation 133901
district an annual amount not to exceed $40,000, upon receipt of a 133902
request and justification from the district and approval by the 133903
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission. The county auditor 133904
shall credit the payments to the special fund established under 133905
section 1515.10 of the Revised Code for the local soil and water 133906
conservation district. Moneys received by each district shall be 133907
expended for the purposes of the district.133908

       OIL AND GAS WELL PLUGGING133909

       The foregoing appropriation item 725677, Oil and Gas Well 133910
Plugging, shall be used exclusively for the purposes of plugging 133911
wells and to properly restore the land surface of idle and orphan 133912
oil and gas wells pursuant to section 1509.071 of the Revised 133913
Code. No funds from the appropriation item shall be used for 133914
salaries, maintenance, equipment, or other administrative 133915
purposes, except for those costs directly attributed to the 133916
plugging of an idle or orphan well. This appropriation item shall 133917
not be used to transfer cash to any other fund or appropriation 133918
item.133919

       Section 333.90. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES133920

       The foregoing appropriation item 725405, Clean Ohio 133921
Operating, shall be used by the Department of Natural Resources in 133922
administering Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) projects pursuant 133923
to section 1519.05 of the Revised Code.133924

       Section 333.100. WATERCRAFT MARINE PATROL133925

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 739401, Division of 133926
Watercraft, up to $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be expended 133927
for the purchase of equipment for marine patrols qualifying for 133928
funding from the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 133929
section 1547.67 of the Revised Code. Proposals for equipment shall 133930
accompany the submission of documentation for receipt of a marine 133931
patrol subsidy pursuant to section 1547.67 of the Revised Code and 133932
shall be loaned to eligible marine patrols pursuant to a 133933
cooperative agreement between the Department of Natural Resources 133934
and the eligible marine patrol.133935

       Section 333.110. PARKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND133936

        The Director of Natural Resources shall submit to the 133937
Director of Budget and Management the estimated design, 133938
engineering, and planning costs of capital-related work to be done 133939
by Department of Natural Resources staff for parks projects within 133940
the Ohio Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund (Fund 7035). If the 133941
Director of Budget and Management approves the estimated costs, 133942
the Director may release appropriations from appropriation item 133943
C725E6, Project Planning, Fund 7035, for those purposes. Upon 133944
release of the appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources 133945
shall pay for these expenses from the Parks Capital Expenses Fund 133946
(Fund 2270). Expenses paid from Fund 2270 shall be reimbursed by 133947
Fund 7035 using an intrastate transfer voucher.133948

       NATUREWORKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND133949

       The Department of Natural Resources shall periodically 133950
prepare and submit to the Director of Budget and Management the 133951
estimated design, planning, and engineering costs of 133952
capital-related work to be done by Department of Natural Resources 133953
staff for each capital improvement project within the Ohio Parks 133954
and Natural Resources Fund (Fund 7031). If the Director of Budget 133955
and Management approves the estimated costs, the Director may 133956
release appropriations from appropriation item C725E5, Project 133957
Planning, in Fund 7031, for those purposes. Upon release of the 133958
appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources shall pay for 133959
these expenses from the Capital Expenses Fund (Fund 4S90). 133960
Expenses paid from Fund 4S90 shall be reimbursed by Fund 7031 by 133961
using an intrastate transfer voucher.133962

       Section 333.120. ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS133963

       The following funds are hereby abolished and the fund names 133964
and fund numbers shall be stricken from the list of funds falling 133965
within the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources:133966

Fund Number Fund Name 133967
1580 Reprint and Replacement - Intrastate 133968
1610 Parks and Recreation Depreciation Reserve 133969
1620 Civilian Conservation Corps Earned Revenues 133970
2060 General Services 133971
5080 Natural Resources Publications and Promotions 133972
5190 Burr Oak Water Plant 133973
5250 Reclamation Forfeiture 133974
5300 Surface Mining Reclamation 133975
8800 Cooperative Boat Harbor Project 133976
4B80 Forestry Development 133977
5F90 Flood Reimbursement 133978
81A0 Wildlife Education 133979
R029 Reclamation Fee 133980
R030 Surface Mining Reclamation Fee 133981
R040 Wildlife Refunds 133982
3280 Federal Special Revenue 133983
3P00 Natural Areas and Preserves - Federal 133984
5K10 Urban Forestry Grant 133985
5150 Conservancy District Organization 133986
6300 Wild Animal 133987
3CH0 Mined Land Set Aside 133988

       TRANSFER OF ELIMINATED DORMANT FUNDS133989

       The Watercraft Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 5AW0) is hereby 133990
abolished. Any balance remaining in the fund as of July 1, 2013, 133991
shall be transferred into the Waterways Safety Fund (Fund 7086) 133992
and appropriated to appropriation item 739401, Division of 133993
Watercraft.133994

       The Division of Forestry Law Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EJ0) and 133995
the Division of Natural Areas and Preserves Law Enforcement Fund 133996
(Fund 5EK0) are hereby abolished. Any balance remaining in these 133997
funds as of July 1, 2013, shall be transferred into the Park Law 133998
Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EM0) and appropriated to appropriation 133999
item 725613, Park Law Enforcement.134000

       Section 335.10. NUR STATE BOARD OF NURSING134001

General Services Fund Group134002

4K90 884609 Operating Expenses $ 7,181,743 $ 7,273,978 134003
5AC0 884602 Nurse Education Grant Program $ 1,373,506 $ 1,373,506 134004
5P80 884601 Nursing Special Issues $ 2,000 $ 2,000 134005
TOTAL GSF General Services 134006
Fund Group $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 134007
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 134008


       Section 337.10. PYT OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY, PHYSICAL THERAPY, 134010
AND ATHLETIC TRAINERS BOARD134011

General Services Fund Group134012

4K90 890609 Operating Expenses $ 866,169 $ 925,897 134013
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 866,169 $ 925,897 134014
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 866,169 $ 925,897 134015


       Section 339.10.  OLA OHIOANA LIBRARY ASSOCIATION134017

General Revenue Fund134018

GRF 355501 Library Subsidy $ 135,000 $ 140,000 134019
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 135,000 $ 140,000 134020
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 135,000 $ 140,000 134021


       Section 340.10. RSC REHABILITATION SERVICES COMMISSION134023

General Revenue Fund134024

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 134025
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 134026
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 134027
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 15,277,885 $ 15,277,885 134028
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 134029
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,711,070 $ 15,711,070 134030

General Services Fund Group134031

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 962,538 $ 965,481 134032
TOTAL GSF General Services 134033
Fund Group $ 962,538 $ 965,481 134034

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group134035

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 83,332,186 $ 84,641,911 134036
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 117,431,895 $ 113,610,728 134037
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 2,748,451 $ 2,752,396 134038
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 134039
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 445,258 $ 498,269 134040
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 638,431 $ 638,431 134041
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 916,727 $ 916,727 134042
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 1,548,658 $ 1,348,658 134043
TOTAL FED Federal Special 134044
Revenue Fund Group $ 207,833,606 $ 205,179,120 134045

State Special Revenue Fund Group134046

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 134047
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,502,168 $ 3,502,168 134048
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 12,369,751 $ 12,594,758 134049
TOTAL SSR State Special 134050
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,871,919 $ 27,096,926 134051
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 251,379,133 $ 248,952,597 134052

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL134053

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 134054
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 134055
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 134056
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 134057
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 134058
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 134059
U.S.C. 796d.134060

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 134061
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 134062
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 134063
expansion activities.134064

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY134065

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 134066
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 134067
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 134068
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.134069

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY134070

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 134071
with Brain Injury, shall be used to plan and coordinate 134072
head-injury-related services provided by state agencies and other 134073
government or private entities, to assess the needs for such 134074
services, and to set priorities in this area.134075

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 134076
with Brain Injury, $44,067 in each fiscal year shall be used as 134077
state matching funds to provide vocational rehabilitation services 134078
to eligible consumers.134079

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES134080

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 134081
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 134082
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.134083

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF134084

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 134085
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 134086
deaf.134087

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS134088

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 134089
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 134090
support vocational rehabilitation programs.134091

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS134092

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 134093
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 134094
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 134095
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 134096
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 134097
to the extent funds are available, as follows:134098

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 134099
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 134100
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;134101

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 134102
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 134103
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 134104
impairments; and134105

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 134106
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 134107
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 134108
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 134109
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 134110
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 134111
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 134112
A-87.134113

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES134114

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 134115
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 134116
the commission related to the provision of vocational 134117
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 134118
programs.134119

       Section 341.10. ODB OHIO OPTICAL DISPENSERS BOARD134120

General Services Fund Group134121

4K90 894609 Operating Expenses $ 366,000 $ 365,000 134122
TOTAL GSF General Services 134123
Fund Group $ 366,000 $ 365,000 134124
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 366,000 $ 365,000 134125


       Section 343.10. OPT STATE BOARD OF OPTOMETRY134127

General Services Fund Group134128

4K90 885609 Operating Expenses $ 347,278 $ 347,278 134129
TOTAL GSF General Services 134130
Fund Group $ 347,278 $ 347,278 134131
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 347,278 $ 347,278 134132


       Section 345.10. OPP STATE BOARD OF ORTHOTICS, PROSTHETICS, 134134
AND PEDORTHICS134135

General Services Fund Group134136

4K90 973609 Operating Expenses $ 135,677 $ 140,846 134137
TOTAL GSF General Services 134138
Fund Group $ 135,677 $ 140,846 134139
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 135,677 $ 140,846 134140

       Section 347.10. UST PETROLEUM UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK 134141
RELEASE COMPENSATION BOARD134142

State Special Revenue Fund Group134143

6910 810632 PUSTRCB Staff $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 134144
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 134145
Fund Group $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 134146
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 134147


       Section 349.10. PRX STATE BOARD OF PHARMACY134149

General Services Fund Group134150

4A50 887605 Drug Law Enforcement $ 150,000 $ 150,000 134151
4K90 887609 Operating Expenses $ 6,701,285 $ 6,701,285 134152
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,851,285 $ 6,851,285 134153

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group134154

3BC0 887604 Dangerous Drugs Database $ 390,869 $ 0 134155
3CT0 887606 2008 Developing/Enhancing PMP $ 224,691 $ 112,346 134156
3DV0 887607 Enhancing Ohio's PMP $ 2,000 $ 2,000 134157
3EY0 887603 Administration of PMIX Hub $ 66,335 $ 0 134158
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 683,895 $ 114,346 134159
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,535,180 $ 6,965,631 134160


       Section 351.10. PSY STATE BOARD OF PSYCHOLOGY134162

General Services Fund Group134163

4K90 882609 Operating Expenses $ 548,000 $ 571,000 134164
TOTAL GSF General Services 134165
Fund Group $ 548,000 $ 571,000 134166
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 548,000 $ 571,000 134167


       Section 353.10. PUB OHIO PUBLIC DEFENDER COMMISSION134169

General Revenue Fund134170

GRF 019401 State Legal Defense Services $ 3,020,855 $ 3,020,855 134171
GRF 019403 Multi-County: State Share $ 1,237,318 $ 1,250,824 134172
GRF 019404 Trumbull County - State Share $ 354,743 $ 359,631 134173
GRF 019405 Training Account $ 50,000 $ 50,000 134174
GRF 019501 County Reimbursement $ 9,768,050 $ 9,885,175 134175
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,430,966 $ 14,566,485 134176

General Services Fund Group134177

4070 019604 County Representation $ 351,149 $ 354,248 134178
4080 019605 Client Payments $ 725,144 $ 722,931 134179
5CX0 019617 Civil Case Filing Fee $ 532,136 $ 528,476 134180
TOTAL GSF General Services 134181
Fund Group $ 1,608,429 $ 1,605,655 134182

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group134183

3FX0 019621 Wrongful Conviction Program $ 103,950 $ 103,950 134184
3S80 019608 Federal Representation $ 204,706 $ 202,942 134185
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 134186
Fund Group $ 308,656 $ 306,892 134187

State Special Revenue Fund Group134188

4C70 019601 Multi-County: County Share $ 2,297,876 $ 2,322,959 134189
4X70 019610 Trumbull County - County Share $ 658,809 $ 667,887 134190
5740 019606 Civil Legal Aid $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 134191
5DY0 019618 Indigent Defense Support - County Share $ 40,320,991 $ 41,191,285 134192
5DY0 019619 Indigent Defense Support Fund - State Office $ 5,186,329 $ 5,612,719 134193
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 134194
Fund Group $ 68,464,005 $ 69,794,850 134195
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 84,812,056 $ 86,273,882 134196

       INDIGENT DEFENSE OFFICE134197

       The foregoing appropriation items 019404, Trumbull County - 134198
State Share, and 019610, Trumbull County - County Share, shall be 134199
used to support an indigent defense office for Trumbull County.134200

       MULTI-COUNTY OFFICE134201

       The foregoing appropriation items 019403, Multi-County: State 134202
Share, and 019601, Multi-County: County Share, shall be used to 134203
support the Office of the Ohio Public Defender's Multi-County 134204
Branch Office Program.134205

       TRAINING ACCOUNT134206

       The foregoing appropriation item 019405, Training Account, 134207
shall be used by the Ohio Public Defender to provide legal 134208
training programs at no cost for private appointed counsel who 134209
represent at least one indigent defendant at no cost and for state 134210
and county public defenders and attorneys who contract with the 134211
Ohio Public Defender to provide indigent defense services.134212

       FEDERAL REPRESENTATION134213

       The foregoing appropriation item 019608, Federal 134214
Representation, shall be used to receive reimbursements from the 134215
federal courts when the Ohio Public Defender provides 134216
representation in federal court cases and to support 134217
representation in such cases.134218

       Section 355.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY134219

General Revenue Fund134220

GRF 767420 Investigative Unit - Operating $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 134221
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 134222
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 134223


       Section 357.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO134225

General Services Fund Group134226

5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 18,035,000 $ 0 134227
5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,619,708 $ 30,619,708 134228
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 85,000 $ 85,000 134229
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 134230
TOTAL GSF General Services 134231
Fund Group $ 53,739,708 $ 35,704,708 134232

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group134233

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 134234
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 134235
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 192,001 $ 0 134236
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 115,912 $ 0 134237
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 134238
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 134239
Fund Group $ 8,357,532 $ 8,049,619 134240

State Special Revenue Fund Group134241

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 134242
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 331,992 $ 331,992 134243
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 581,618 $ 581,618 134244
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 180,000 $ 180,000 134245
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 420,000 $ 420,000 134246
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 743,346 $ 753,346 134247
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 277,496 $ 277,496 134248
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 898,800 $ 898,800 134249
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 4,768,453 $ 4,709,592 134250
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 134251
Fund Group $ 9,549,062 $ 9,500,201 134252
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 71,646,302 $ 53,254,528 134253


       Section 359.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION134255

General Revenue Fund134256

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 134257
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements General Obligation Debt Service $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 134258
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 261,186,900 $ 263,396,600 134259

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group134260

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 288,980 $ 288,980 134261
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 288,980 $ 288,980 134262

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 261,475,880 $ 263,685,580 134263

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE134264

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 134265
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 134266
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2013, 134267
through June 30, 2015, at the times they are required to be made 134268
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 134269
Revised Code.134270

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE134271

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 134272
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 134273
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 134274
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, at the times they are 134275
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 134276
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.134277

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES134278

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 134279
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 134280
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 134281
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.134282

       Section 361.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION134283

State Special Revenue Fund Group134284

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,696,456 $ 1,696,456 134285
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,452 $ 1,697,452 134286
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 134287
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 2,934,178 $ 2,934,178 134288
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 134289
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 134290
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 134291
Fund Group $ 28,329,086 $ 28,329,086 134292

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group134293

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 134294
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 134295
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 134296
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,429,086 $ 28,429,086 134297


       Section 363.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS134299

General Revenue Fund134300

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,850,357 $ 2,850,357 134301
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 5,805,300 $ 0 134302
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 134303
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 134304
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 134305
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 1,505,683 $ 1,505,683 134306
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 830,180 $ 830,180 134307
GRF 235417 eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 134308
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 134309
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 521,153 $ 521,153 134310
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 16,665,114 $ 16,665,114 134311
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,552,416 $ 7,552,416 134312
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,317,547 $ 15,317,547 134313
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 134314
GRF 235483 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 2,378,598 $ 2,378,598 134315
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,784,225,497 $ 1,818,225,497 134316
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 134317
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 134318
GRF 235505 State Share of Instruction Bridge Funding $ 8,095,005 $ 0 134319
GRF 235506 Ohio Strategic Training Center $ 950,000 $ 0 134320
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,211,012 $ 6,211,012 134321
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 134322
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,747,418 $ 3,747,418 134323
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 23,086,658 $ 23,056,658 134324
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,063,468 $ 11,063,468 134325
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 134326
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 134327
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,326,097 $ 2,326,097 134328
GRF 235523 Youth STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 134329
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 134330
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 134331
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 134332
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 34,126,100 $ 34,126,100 134333
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 134334
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 134335
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 134336
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 134337
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 134338
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 134339
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 13,628,639 $ 10,280,387 134340
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 134341
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 134342
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 195,300 $ 195,300 134343
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 89,126,474 $ 89,126,474 134344
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 134345
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,711,514 $ 17,384,511 134346
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 134347
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,330,070,762 $ 2,375,168,502 134348

General Services Fund Group134349

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 903,595 $ 903,595 134350
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 134351
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 134352
TOTAL GSF General Services 134353
Fund Group $ 9,102,845 $ 9,102,845 134354

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group134355

3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 134356
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 134357
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 134358
3120 235672 H-1B Tech Skills Training $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 134359
3BW0 235630 Indirect Cost Recovery - Federal $ 50,000 $ 50,000 134360
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 134361
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 134362
Fund Group $ 21,535,671 $ 21,535,671 134363

State Special Revenue Fund Group134364

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 134365
4X10 235674 Telecommunity and Distance Learning $ 49,150 $ 49,150 134366
5D40 235675 Conferences/Special Purposes $ 1,884,095 $ 1,884,095 134367
5FK0 235676 Media Services $ 491,373 $ 491,373 134368
5FR0 235643 Making Opportunity Affordable $ 230,000 $ 230,000 134369
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,066,920 $ 8,104,370 134370
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 1,290,718 $ 1,303,129 134371
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 134372
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 134373
Fund Group $ 12,932,676 $ 12,982,537 134374

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group134375

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 134376
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 134377
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,381,641,954 $ 2,426,789,555 134378


       Section 363.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS134380

       The foregoing appropriation item 235401, Lease Rental 134381
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 134382
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 134383
June 30, 2015, by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents under 134384
leases and agreements made under section 154.21 of the Revised 134385
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 134386
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 134387
154. of the Revised Code.134388

       Section 363.23. SEA GRANTS134389

        The foregoing appropriation item 235402, Sea Grants, shall be 134390
used to match federal dollars and leverage additional support by 134391
The Ohio State University's Sea Grant program, including Stone 134392
Laboratory, for research, education, and outreach to enhance the 134393
economic value, public utilization, and responsible management of 134394
Lake Erie and Ohio's coastal resources.134395

       Section 363.30. ARTICULATION AND TRANSFER134396

       The foregoing appropriation item 235406, Articulation and 134397
Transfer, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 134398
to maintain and expand the work of the Articulation and Transfer 134399
Council to develop a system of transfer policies to ensure that 134400
students at state institutions of higher education can transfer 134401
and have coursework apply to their majors and degrees at any other 134402
state institution of higher education without unnecessary 134403
duplication or institutional barriers under sections 3333.16, 134404
3333.161, and 3333.162 of the Revised Code.134405

       Section 363.40. MIDWEST HIGHER EDUCATION COMPACT134406

       The foregoing appropriation item 235408, Midwest Higher 134407
Education Compact, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the 134408
Board of Regents under section 3333.40 of the Revised Code.134409

       Section 363.50. HEI INFORMATION SYSTEM134410

       The foregoing appropriation item 235409, HEI Information 134411
System, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 134412
support the development and implementation of information 134413
technology solutions designed to improve the performance and 134414
services of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents and the 134415
University System of Ohio. Information technology solutions may be 134416
provided by the Ohio Academic Research Network (OARnet).134417

       Section 363.60. STATE GRANTS AND SCHOLARSHIP ADMINISTRATION134418

       The foregoing appropriation item 235414, State Grants and 134419
Scholarship Administration, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 134420
Board of Regents to administer the following student financial aid 134421
programs: Ohio College Opportunity Grant, Ohio War Orphans' 134422
Scholarship, Nurse Education Assistance Loan Program, Ohio Safety 134423
Officers College Memorial Fund, and any other student financial 134424
aid programs created by the General Assembly. The appropriation 134425
item also shall be used to support all state financial aid audits 134426
and student financial aid programs created by Congress, and to 134427
provide fiscal services for the Ohio National Guard Scholarship 134428
Program.134429

       Section 363.70. ESTUDENT SERVICES134430

       The foregoing appropriation item 235417, eStudent Services, 134431
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 134432
the continued implementation of eStudent Services, a consortium 134433
organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the Revised 134434
Code to expand access to dual enrollment opportunities for high 134435
school students, as well as adult and higher education 134436
opportunities through technology. The funds shall be used by 134437
eStudent Services to develop and promote learning and assessment 134438
through the use of technology, to test and provide advice on 134439
emerging learning-directed technologies, to support the distance 134440
learning clearinghouse and platform created under section 3333.82 134441
of the Revised Code, and to facilitate cost-effectiveness through 134442
shared educational technology investments.134443

       Section 363.80. APPALACHIAN NEW ECONOMY PARTNERSHIP134444

       The foregoing appropriation item 235428, Appalachian New 134445
Economy Partnership, shall be distributed to Ohio University to 134446
continue a multi-campus and multi-agency coordinated effort to 134447
link Appalachia to the new economy. Ohio University shall use 134448
these funds to provide leadership in the development and 134449
implementation of initiatives in the areas of entrepreneurship, 134450
management, education, and technology.134451

       Section 363.90. ECONOMIC GROWTH CHALLENGE134452

       The foregoing appropriation item 235433, Economic Growth 134453
Challenge, shall be used for administrative expenses of the 134454
Research Incentive Program and other economic advancement 134455
initiatives undertaken by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.134456

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use any 134457
appropriation transfer to the foregoing appropriation item 235433, 134458
Economic Growth Challenge, to enhance the basic research and 134459
commercialization capabilities of public colleges and universities 134460
and accredited Ohio institutions of higher education holding 134461
certificates of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 134462
Revised Code, in order to strengthen academic research and 134463
commercialization for pursuing Ohio's economic development goals.134464

       Section 363.100. CHOOSE OHIO FIRST SCHOLARSHIP134465

       The foregoing appropriation item 235438, Choose Ohio First 134466
Scholarship, shall be used to operate the program prescribed in 134467
sections 3333.60 to 3333.70 of the Revised Code.134468

       Section 363.110. ADULT BASIC AND LITERACY EDUCATION134469

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235443, Adult Basic and 134470
Literacy Education – State, $125,000 in each fiscal year shall be 134471
used to provide a grant for an Ohio public library that provides 134472
remedial coursework instruction for postsecondary students.134473

       The remainder of foregoing appropriation item 235443, Adult 134474
Basic and Literacy Education - State, shall be used to support the 134475
adult basic and literacy education instructional grant program and 134476
state leadership program. The supported programs shall satisfy the 134477
state match and maintenance of effort requirements for the 134478
state-administered grant program.134479

       Section 363.120. POST-SECONDARY ADULT CAREER-TECHNICAL 134480
EDUCATION134481

       The foregoing appropriation item 235444, Post-Secondary Adult 134482
Career-Technical Education, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 134483
Board of Regents, in consultation with the Superintendent of 134484
Public Instruction and the Governor's Office of Workforce 134485
Transformation, to support post-secondary adult career-technical 134486
education. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 134487
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and the Governor's Office of 134488
Workforce Transformation, or their designees, shall hold a series 134489
of consultations with the Ohio Technical Centers during fiscal 134490
year 2014 to develop an appropriate funding formula to distribute 134491
these funds based on student outcomes, beginning in fiscal year 134492
2015.134493

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish a 134494
One-Year Option credit articulation system in which graduates of 134495
Ohio Technical Centers receive college technical credit. The 134496
system shall ensure that Ohio Technical Center students that 134497
complete a 900-hour program of study and obtain an 134498
industry-recognized credential shall receive 30 college technical 134499
credit hours, and students that complete a program of study 134500
between 600 and 899 hours and obtain an industry-recognized 134501
credential shall receive a proportional number of college 134502
technical credit hours.134503

       Section 363.130. AREA HEALTH EDUCATION CENTERS134504

       The foregoing appropriation item 235474, Area Health 134505
Education Centers Program Support, shall be used by the Chancellor 134506
of the Board of Regents to support the medical school regional 134507
area health education centers' educational programs for the 134508
continued support of medical and other health professions 134509
education and for support of the Area Health Education Center 134510
Program.134511

       Section 363.180. TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 134512
DEVELOPMENT134513

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 134514
Integration and Professional Development, up to $2,000,000 in each 134515
fiscal year shall be used to provide grants on a competitive basis 134516
to public and chartered nonpublic schools for their participation 134517
in the electronic textbook pilot project. These grants shall be 134518
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 134519
ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 2014, or as soon as 134520
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents may 134521
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 134522
unexpended, unencumbered balance of this set aside at the end of 134523
fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 134524
amount certified is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose for 134525
fiscal year 2015.134526

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, 134527
Technology Integration and Professional Development, shall be used 134528
by the Ohio Department of Education and the Chancellor of the 134529
Board of Regents for the provision of staff development, hardware, 134530
software, telecommunications services, and information resources 134531
to support educational uses of technology in the classroom and at 134532
a distance and for professional development for teachers, 134533
administrators, and technology staff on the use of educational 134534
technology in qualifying public schools, including the State 134535
School for the Blind, the School for the Deaf, and the Department 134536
of Youth Services.134537

       Section 363.190. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS134538

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish 134539
procedures to allocate the foregoing appropriation item 235501, 134540
State Share of Instruction, based on the formulas detailed in this 134541
section that utilize the enrollment, course completion, degree 134542
attainment, and student achievement factors reported annually by 134543
each state institution of higher education participating in the 134544
Higher Education Information (HEI) system.134545

       (A) FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT (FTE) ENROLLMENTS AND COMPLETIONS134546

       (1) As soon as possible during each fiscal year of the 134547
biennium ending June 30, 2015, in accordance with instructions of 134548
the Board of Regents, each state institution of higher education 134549
shall report its actual data, consistent with the definitions in 134550
the Higher Education Information (HEI) system's enrollment files, 134551
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.134552

       (2) In defining the number of full-time equivalent students 134553
for state subsidy instructional cost purposes, the Chancellor of 134554
the Board of Regents shall exclude all undergraduate students who 134555
are not residents of Ohio, except those charged in-state fees in 134556
accordance with reciprocity agreements made under section 3333.17 134557
of the Revised Code or employer contracts entered into under 134558
section 3333.32 of the Revised Code.134559

       (3) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for 134560
university branch and main campuses, the Chancellor of the Board 134561
of Regents shall use the following count of FTE students:134562

       (a) The subsidy eligible enrollments by model shall equal 134563
only those FTE students who successfully complete the course as 134564
defined and reported through the Higher Education Information 134565
(HEI) system course enrollment file; 134566

       (b) For those undergraduate FTE students with successful 134567
course completions, identified in division (A)(3)(a) of this 134568
section, that had an expected family contribution less than 2190 134569
or were determined to have been in need of remedial education 134570
shall be defined as at-risk students and shall have their eligible 134571
completions weighted by the following:134572

       (i) Campus-specific course completion indexes, where the 134573
indexes are calculated based upon the number of at-risk students 134574
enrolled during the 2010-2012 academic years; and134575

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk course completion weight 134576
determined for each subsidy model. The statewide average at-risk 134577
course completion weight shall be determined by calculating the 134578
difference between the percentage of traditional students who 134579
complete a course and the percentage of at-risk students who 134580
complete the same course.134581

       (4) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for Medical 134582
II models only, students repeating terms may be no more than five 134583
per cent of current year enrollment.134584

       (B) TOTAL COSTS PER FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT STUDENT134585

       For purposes of calculating state share of instruction 134586
allocations, the total instructional costs per full-time 134587
equivalent student shall be:134588

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 134589
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 $7,803 $7,940 134590
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 $10,828 $11,018 134591
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 $13,988 $14,234 134592
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 $20,242 $20,598 134593
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 $33,969 $34,567 134594
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 $38,280 $38,954 134595
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 $7,109 $7,235 134596
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 $8,106 $8,249 134597
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 $10,640 $10,827 134598
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 $12,647 $12,869 134599
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 $19,657 $20,003 134600
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 $22,006 $22,393 134601
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 $30,558 $31,096 134602
MEDICAL 1 $53,424 $54,365 134603
MEDICAL 2 $45,873 $46,681 134604
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 $7,190 $7,317 134605
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 $10,091 $10,268 134606
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 $11,928 $12,138 134607
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 $15,186 $15,454 134608
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 $20,043 $20,396 134609
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 $21,633 $22,013 134610
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 $26,471 $26,937 134611
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 $36,766 $37,413 134612
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 $52,170 $53,088 134613

       Doctoral I and Doctoral II models shall be allocated in 134614
accordance with division (D)(3) of this section.134615

       (C) SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICAL, 134616
AND GRADUATE WEIGHTS134617

       For the purpose of implementing the recommendations of the 134618
2006 State Share of Instruction Consultation and the Higher 134619
Education Funding Study Council that priority be given to 134620
maintaining state support for science, technology, engineering, 134621
mathematics, medicine, and graduate programs, the costs in 134622
division (B) of this section shall be weighted by the amounts 134623
provided below:134624

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 134625
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 1.0000 1.0000 134626
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 1.0000 1.0000 134627
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 1.0000 1.0000 134628
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 1.0000 1.0000 134629
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 1.0425 1.0425 134630
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 1.0425 1.0425 134631
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 1.0000 1.0000 134632
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 1.0000 1.0000 134633
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 1.0000 1.0000 134634
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 1.0000 1.0000 134635
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 1.0425 1.0425 134636
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 1.0425 1.0425 134637
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 1.0425 1.0425 134638
MEDICAL 1 1.6456 1.6456 134639
MEDICAL 2 1.7462 1.7462 134640
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 1.0000 1.0000 134641
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 1.0017 1.0017 134642
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 1.6150 1.6150 134643
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 1.6920 1.6920 134644
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 1.4222 1.4222 134645
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 1.8798 1.8798 134646
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 1.4380 1.4380 134647
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 1.5675 1.5675 134648
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 1.1361 1.1361 134649

       (D) CALCULATION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULA 134650
ENTITLEMENTS AND ADJUSTMENTS134651

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134652
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 134653
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 134654
and technical colleges shall be allocated to colleges in 134655
proportion to their share of college student success factors as 134656
adopted by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents in formal 134657
communication to the Controlling Board on August 30, 2010.134658

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134659
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 134660
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 134661
and technical colleges shall be reserved for course completion 134662
FTEs as aggregated by the subsidy models defined in division (B) 134663
of this section.134664

       The course completion funding shall be allocated to colleges 134665
in proportion to each campuses' share of the total sector's course 134666
completions, weighted by the instructional cost of the subsidy 134667
models.134668

       To calculate the subsidy entitlements for course completions 134669
at community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 134670
colleges, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 134671
following calculations:134672

       (a) In calculating each campus's count of FTE course 134673
completions, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 134674
three-year average course completions for the three-year period 134675
ending in the prior year.134676

       (b) The model costs as used in the calculation shall be 134677
augmented by the model weights for science, technology, 134678
engineering, mathematics, and medicine models as established in 134679
division (C) of this section.134680

       (3) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134681
of Instruction, up to 11.78 per cent of the appropriation for 134682
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 134683
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134684
2014 and 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 134685
of doctoral programs to implement the funding recommendations made 134686
by representatives of the universities. The amount so reserved 134687
shall be referred to as the doctoral set-aside.134688

       The doctoral set-aside shall be allocated to universities as 134689
follows:134690

       (a) 50 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2014 134691
and 40 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134692
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 134693
the statewide total of each state institution's three-year average 134694
Doctoral I equivalent FTEs as calculated on an institutional basis 134695
using historical FTEs for the period fiscal year 1994 through 134696
fiscal year 1998 with annualized FTEs for fiscal years 1994 134697
through 1997 and all-term FTEs for fiscal year 1998 as adjusted to 134698
reflect the effects of doctoral review and subsequent changes in 134699
Doctoral I equivalent enrollments. For the purposes of this 134700
calculation, Doctoral I equivalent FTEs shall equal the sum of 134701
Doctoral I FTEs plus 1.5 times the sum of Doctoral II FTEs.134702

       (b) 25 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2014 134703
and 30 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134704
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to each campus's 134705
share of the total statewide doctoral degrees, weighted by the 134706
cost of the doctoral discipline. In calculating each campus's 134707
doctoral degrees the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use 134708
the three-year average doctoral degrees awarded for the three-year 134709
period ending in the prior year. 134710

       (c) 12.5 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 134711
2014 and 15 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134712
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 134713
research grant activity, using a data collection method that is 134714
reviewed and approved by the presidents of Ohio's doctoral degree 134715
granting universities. In the event that the data collection 134716
method is not available, funding for this component shall be 134717
allocated to universities in proportion to their share of research 134718
grant activity published by the National Science Foundation. Grant 134719
awards from the Department of Health and Human Services shall be 134720
weighted at 50 per cent.134721

       (d) 12.5 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 134722
2014 and 15 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134723
shall be allocated to universities based on other quality measures 134724
that contribute to the advancement of quality doctoral programs. 134725
These other quality measures shall be identified by the Chancellor 134726
in consultation with universities. If for any reason metrics for 134727
distributing the quality component of the doctoral set-aside are 134728
not identified prior to the fiscal year allocation process, this 134729
portion of the doctoral set-aside funds shall be allocated to 134730
universities based on division (D)(3)(a) of this section.134731

       (4) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134732
of Instruction, 6.41 per cent of the appropriation for 134733
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 134734
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134735
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 134736
of Medical II FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 134737
the medical II set-aside.134738

       The medical II set-aside shall be allocated to universities 134739
in proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 134740
institution's three-year average Medical II FTEs as calculated in 134741
division (A) of this section, weighted by model cost.134742

       (5) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134743
of Instruction, 1.48 per cent of the appropriation for 134744
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 134745
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134746
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 134747
of Medical I FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 134748
the medical I set-aside.134749

       The medical I set-aside shall be allocated to universities in 134750
proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 134751
institution's three-year average Medical I FTEs as calculated in 134752
division (A) of this section.134753

        (6) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134754
of Instruction, 50 per cent of the appropriation in each fiscal 134755
year for universities, net any earmarked funding for university 134756
regional campuses as detailed in division (B)(1) of the section of 134757
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134758
2014 AND 2015," shall be reserved for support of associate, 134759
baccalaureate, master's, and professional level degree attainment.134760

       The degree attainment funding shall be allocated to 134761
universities in proportion to each campus's share of the total 134762
statewide degrees granted, weighted by the cost of the degree 134763
programs. The degree cost calculations shall include the model 134764
cost weights for the science, technology, engineering, 134765
mathematics, and medicine models as established in division (C) of 134766
this section.134767

       In calculating the subsidy entitlements for degree attainment 134768
at university main and regional campuses, the Chancellor of the 134769
Board of Regents shall use the following count of degrees and 134770
degree costs:134771

       (a) The subsidy eligible undergraduate degrees shall be 134772
defined as follows:134773

       (i) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 134774
identified as residents of the state of Ohio in any term of their 134775
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 134776
(HEI) system student enrollment file, shall be weighted by a 134777
factor of 1.134778

       (ii) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 134779
identified as out-of-state residents during all terms of their 134780
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 134781
(HEI) system student enrollment file, which remain in the state of 134782
Ohio at least one year after graduation shall be weighted by a 134783
factor of 50 per cent. For fiscal year 2014, subsidy eligible 134784
degrees conferred to all out-of-state students shall be weighted 134785
by a factor of 25 per cent.134786

       (b) In fiscal year 2014, for those associate degrees awarded 134787
by a state-supported university, the subsidy eligible degrees 134788
granted are defined as only those earned by students attending a 134789
university that received funding under GRF appropriation item 134790
235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. In fiscal year 134791
2015, subsidy eligible associate degrees are defined as those 134792
earned by students attending any state-supported university main 134793
or regional campus.134794

       (c) In calculating each campus's count of degrees, the 134795
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the three-year 134796
average associate, baccalaureate, master's, and professional 134797
degrees awarded for the three-year period ending in the prior 134798
year. In fiscal year 2014, university regional campuses are not 134799
eligible for degree completion funding. In fiscal year 2015, all 134800
university campuses are eligible for degree completion funding.134801

       (d) Eligible associate degrees defined in division (D)(6)(b) 134802
of this section and all bachelor's degrees earned by a student 134803
that either had an expected family contribution less than 2190, 134804
was determined to have been in need of remedial education, is 134805
Native American, African American, or Hispanic, or is at least age 134806
26 at the time of graduation, shall be defined as degrees earned 134807
by an at-risk student and shall be weighted by the following:134808

        (i) A campus-specific at-risk index, where the index is 134809
calculated based on the proportion of at-risk students enrolled 134810
during a four-year cohort beginning in fiscal year 2001, 2002, 134811
2003, or 2004; and134812

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk degree completion weight 134813
determined by calculating the difference between the percentage of 134814
non-at-risk students who earned a degree and the percentage of 134815
at-risk students who earned a degree in eight years or less.134816

       (7) State share of instruction base formula earnings shall be 134817
determined as follows:134818

       (a) The instructional costs shall be determined by 134819
multiplying the amounts listed above in divisions (B) and (C) of 134820
this section by the average subsidy-eligible FTEs for the 134821
three-year period ending in the prior year for all models except 134822
Doctoral I and Doctoral II.134823

       (b) The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute a 134824
uniform state share of instructional costs for each sector.134825

       (i) For the state-supported community colleges, state 134826
community colleges, and technical colleges, in fiscal year 2014 134827
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute the uniform 134828
state share of instructional costs for enrollment by dividing the 134829
sector level appropriation total as determined by the Chancellor 134830
in division (A)(1) of the section of this act entitled "STATE 134831
SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134832
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of that section, less the 134833
student college success allocation as described in division (D)(1) 134834
of this section and less the course completion allocation as 134835
detailed in division (D)(2) of this section, by the sum of all 134836
eligible campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division 134837
(D)(7)(b) of this section.134838

       (ii) For the state-supported university regional campuses, in 134839
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134840
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 134841
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 134842
division (A)(2) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 134843
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134844
pursuant to division (B) of that section by the sum of all 134845
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 134846
of this section.134847

       (iii) For the state-supported university main campuses, in 134848
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134849
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 134850
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 134851
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 134852
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134853
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 134854
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 134855
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 134856
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 134857
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 134858
of this section. 134859

       (iv) For the state university regional and main campuses, in 134860
fiscal year 2015 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134861
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 134862
the university appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 134863
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 134864
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134865
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 134866
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 134867
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 134868
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 134869
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 134870
of this section. 134871

       (c) The formula entitlement shall be determined by 134872
multiplying the uniform state share of instructional costs 134873
calculated in division (D)(7)(c) of this section by the 134874
instructional cost determined in division (D)(7)(b) of this 134875
section.134876

       (8) In addition to the student success allocation, doctoral 134877
set-aside, medical I set-aside, medical II set-aside, and the 134878
degree attainment allocation determined in divisions (D)(1) to (6) 134879
of this section and the formula entitlement determined in division 134880
(D)(7) of this section, an allocation based on facility-based 134881
plant operations and maintenance (POM) subsidy shall be made. For 134882
each eligible university main campus, the amount of the POM 134883
allocation in each fiscal year shall be distributed based on what 134884
each campus received in the fiscal year 2009 POM allocation.134885

       Any POM allocations required by this division shall be funded 134886
by proportionately reducing formula entitlement earnings, 134887
including the POM allocations, for all campuses in that sector.134888

       (9) STABILITY IN STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FUNDING FOR 134889
COMMUNITY, STATE COMMUNITY, AND TECHNICAL COLLEGES134890

       In addition to and after the adjustments noted above, in 134891
fiscal year 2014, no community college, state community college, 134892
or technical college shall receive a state share of instruction 134893
allocation that is less than 97 per cent of the prior year's state 134894
share of instruction earnings. Funds shall be made available to 134895
support this allocation by proportionately reducing formula 134896
entitlement earnings from those campuses, within the community, 134897
state community, and technical college sector, that are not 134898
receiving stability funding. 134899

       (10) CAPITAL COMPONENT DEDUCTION134900

       After all other adjustments have been made, state share of 134901
instruction earnings shall be reduced for each campus by the 134902
amount, if any, by which debt service charged in Am. H.B. 748 of 134903
the 121st General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 850 of the 122nd General 134904
Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 640 of the 123rd General Assembly, H.B. 134905
675 of the 124th General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 16 of the 126th 134906
General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 699 of the 126th General Assembly, 134907
Am. Sub. H.B. 496 of the 127th General Assembly, and Am. Sub. H.B. 134908
562 of the 127th General Assembly for that campus exceeds that 134909
campus's capital component earnings. The sum of the amounts 134910
deducted shall be transferred to appropriation item 235552, 134911
Capital Component, in each fiscal year.134912

       (E) EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES134913

       Adjustments may be made to the state share of instruction 134914
payments and other subsidies distributed by the Chancellor of the 134915
Board of Regents to state colleges and universities for 134916
exceptional circumstances. No adjustments for exceptional 134917
circumstances may be made without the recommendation of the 134918
Chancellor and the approval of the Controlling Board.134919

       (F) APPROPRIATION REDUCTIONS TO THE STATE SHARE OF 134920
INSTRUCTION134921

       The standard provisions of the state share of instruction 134922
calculation as described in the preceding sections of temporary 134923
law shall apply to any reductions made to appropriation item 134924
235501, State Share of Instruction, before the Chancellor of the 134925
Board of Regents has formally approved the final allocation of the 134926
state share of instruction funds for any fiscal year.134927

       Any reductions made to appropriation item 235501, State Share 134928
of Instruction, after the Chancellor of the Board of Regents has 134929
formally approved the final allocation of the state share of 134930
instruction funds for any fiscal year, shall be uniformly applied 134931
to each campus in proportion to its share of the final allocation.134932

       (G) DISTRIBUTION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION134933

       The state share of instruction payments to the institutions 134934
shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts during the fiscal 134935
year, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 134936
Management pursuant to section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 134937
Payments during the first six months of the fiscal year shall be 134938
based upon the state share of instruction appropriation estimates 134939
made for the various institutions of higher education according to 134940
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents enrollment, completion, and 134941
performance estimates. Payments during the last six months of the 134942
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 134943
Board upon the request of the Chancellor.134944

       (H) STUDIES TO DETERMINE IMPROVEMENTS TO THE FISCAL YEAR 2015 134945
STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS134946

       (1) STUDY ON IDENTIFYING "AT-RISK" STUDENTS FOR COMMUNITY 134947
COLLEGES134948

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 134949
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 134950
study the most appropriate formula weights for students who come 134951
from "at-risk" populations and recommend how they may be used to 134952
determine allocations of appropriations to community colleges from 134953
appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal 134954
year 2015. The study shall identify the socio-economic, 134955
demographic, academic, personal, and other factors that identify a 134956
student as being "at-risk" of academic failure, and recommend how 134957
these factors may be used to determine allocations of the State 134958
Share of Instruction for community colleges in fiscal year 2015. 134959
The study shall be completed by December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding 134960
any provision of law to the contrary, community college 134961
presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 134962
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall use the results of the 134963
study to recommend changes in the determination of the 134964
distribution of the community college allocations beginning in 134965
fiscal year 2015 and shall report any such formula change 134966
recommendations to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the 134967
Office of Budget and Management not later than February 15, 2014.134968

       (2) STUDY ON THE USE OF SUCCESS POINTS AND COMPLETION 134969
MEASURES FOR COMMUNITY COLLEGES134970

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 134971
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 134972
study the most appropriate formula weights for the "success 134973
points" and completion performance measures used in the allocation 134974
of appropriations to community colleges from appropriation item 134975
235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal year 2015. The study 134976
shall research the most appropriate success points and completion 134977
measures that occur during the academic career of community 134978
college students and recommend revisions to the current State 134979
Share of Instruction model to fund achievement of the success 134980
points beginning in fiscal year 2015. In addition, community 134981
college presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 134982
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall determine how the 134983
community college's fiscal year 2015 share of State Share of 134984
Instruction funding shall be distributed among its success points, 134985
completion measures and course completion funding, or other 134986
performance and access measures. The study shall be completed by 134987
December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 134988
contrary, community college presidents, or their designees, in 134989
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 134990
use the results of the study to recommend changes in the 134991
determination of the distribution of the community college 134992
allocations beginning in fiscal year 2015 and shall report any 134993
such formula change recommendations to the Governor, the General 134994
Assembly, and the Office of Budget and Management not later than 134995
February 15, 2014.134996

       (3) STUDY ON THE USE OF STUDENT LEVEL "AT-RISK" WEIGHTS AND 134997
PROPORTIONAL DEGREE COUNTS FOR THE UNIVERSITIES DEGREE COMPLETION 134998
COMPONENT134999

       University presidents, or their designees, in consultation 135000
with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall study the most 135001
appropriate formula weights for students who come from "at-risk" 135002
populations and recommend how they may be used to determine 135003
allocations of appropriations to universities from appropriation 135004
item 235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal year 2015. In 135005
addition to studying the "at-risk" student weights, university 135006
presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 135007
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall recommend a methodology 135008
for merging the current main campus and regional campus funding 135009
formulas and distributing degree subsidies in cases where a 135010
student attended more than one institution of higher education. 135011
The study shall be completed by December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding 135012
any provision of law to the contrary, university presidents, or 135013
their designees, in consultation with the Chancellor of the Board 135014
of Regents, shall use the results of the study to recommend 135015
changes in the determination of the distribution of the university 135016
allocations beginning in fiscal year 2015 and shall report any 135017
such formula change recommendations to the Governor, the General 135018
Assembly and the Office of Budget and Management not later than 135019
February 15, 2014.135020

       Section 363.200. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 135021
2014 AND 2015135022

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of 135023
Instruction, shall be distributed according to the section of this 135024
act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS."135025

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 135026
of Instruction, $411,257,477 in fiscal year 2014 and $419,101,428 135027
in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to state-supported 135028
community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 135029
colleges. 135030

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 135031
of Instruction, $1,372,968,020 in fiscal year 2014 and 135032
$1,399,124,069 in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to 135033
state-supported university main and regional campuses.135034

       (B) Of the amounts earmarked in division (A)(2) of this 135035
section:135036

       (1) $116,181,104 in fiscal year 2014 shall be distributed to 135037
state university regional campuses.135038

       (2) $3,923,764 in each fiscal year shall be distributed to 135039
university main campuses based on each campus's share of the 135040
appropriation item 235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. 135041

       (C) The POM adjustment in division (D)(7) of the section of 135042
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS" and the 135043
Access Challenge earmark in division (B) of this section shall 135044
expire on June 30, 2015.135045

       (D) The state share of instruction payments to the 135046
institutions shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts 135047
during the fiscal year, unless otherwise determined by the 135048
Director of Budget and Management pursuant to section 126.09 of 135049
the Revised Code. Payments during the last six months of the 135050
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 135051
Board upon the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.135052

       Section 363.210. TRANSFER OF INSTRUCTIONAL SUBSIDIES BETWEEN 135053
UNIVERSITIES135054

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 135055
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, a 135056
state-supported university may request to transfer its fiscal year 135057
2014 state share of instruction subsidy allocations of the 135058
foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, 135059
between a university main campus and any university branch campus 135060
for which the university main campus is affiliated to best 135061
accomplish institutional goals and objectives. At the request of 135062
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the Director of Budget and 135063
Management may transfer the requested amounts of state share of 135064
instruction appropriation allocations between affiliated 135065
university branch campuses and university main campuses.135066

       Section 363.213. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION BRIDGE FUNDING135067

       The foregoing appropriation item 235505, State Share of 135068
Instruction Bridge Funding, shall be used by the Chancellor to 135069
supplement each campus receiving a State Share of Instruction 135070
allocation in fiscal year 2014 that is lower than that campus's 135071
State Share of Instruction allocation in fiscal year 2013.135072

       (A) For fiscal year 2014, the Chancellor shall pay temporary 135073
allocations from the foregoing appropriation item 235505, State 135074
Share of Instruction Bridge Funding, to any campus that 135075
experiences any decrease in its State Share of Instruction 135076
funding.135077

        (1) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for all 135078
state institution campuses except Central State University and 135079
Shawnee State University shall be equal to the difference between 135080
the campus's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 135081
fiscal year 2013, as determined under the formula detailed in 135082
sections 371.20.50 and 371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 135083
General Assembly, and the campus's State Share of Instruction 135084
funding allocation for fiscal year 2014, as determined under the 135085
formula detailed in sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act. If 135086
the computation made under this division results in a negative 135087
number, the campus's payment under this division shall be zero.135088

        (2) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for 135089
Central State University shall be equal to the difference between 135090
(a) Central State University's State Share of Instruction funding 135091
allocation for fiscal year 2013, as determined under the State 135092
Share of Instruction formula detailed in sections 371.20.50 and 135093
371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, 135094
combined with the fiscal year 2013 appropriation for appropriation 135095
item 235514, Central State Supplement, in section 371.10 of Am. 135096
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, and (b) Central State 135097
University's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 135098
fiscal year 2014, as determined under the formula detailed in 135099
sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act, combined with the fiscal 135100
year 2014 appropriation for the foregoing appropriation item 135101
235514, Central State Supplement. If the computation made under 135102
this division results in a negative number, Central State 135103
University's payment under this division shall be zero.135104

        (3) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for 135105
Shawnee State University shall be equal to the difference between 135106
(a) Shawnee State University's State Share of Instruction funding 135107
allocation for fiscal year 2013, as determined under the State 135108
Share of Instruction formula detailed in sections 371.20.50 and 135109
371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, 135110
combined with the fiscal year 2013 appropriation for appropriation 135111
item 235520, Shawnee State Supplement, in section 371.10 of Am. 135112
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, and (b) Shawnee State 135113
University's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 135114
fiscal year 2014, as determined under the formula detailed in 135115
sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act, combined with the fiscal 135116
year 2014 appropriation for the foregoing appropriation item 135117
235514, Shawnee State Supplement. If the computation made under 135118
this division results in a negative number, Shawnee State 135119
University's payment under this division shall be zero.135120

        (B) In each fiscal year, the Chancellor shall not distribute 135121
an amount greater than what is appropriated under the foregoing 135122
appropriation item 235505, State Share of Instruction Bridge 135123
Funding. If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 135124
appropriated for support of the State Share of Instruction Bridge 135125
Funding program are inadequate to provide full temporary 135126
allocation payments to all eligible campuses, the Chancellor shall 135127
proportionally reduce payment amounts.135128

       Section 363.220. RESTRICTION ON FEE INCREASES135129

       The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 135130
education shall restrain increases in in-state undergraduate 135131
instructional and general fees. Each state university and the 135132
Northeast Ohio Medical University shall not increase its in-state 135133
undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 2.0 per 135134
cent or $188, whichever is higher, over what the institution 135135
charged for the preceding academic year.135136

       Each university regional campus shall not increase its 135137
in-state undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 135138
2.0 per cent or $114, whichever is higher, over what the 135139
institution charged for the preceding academic year.135140

       Each community college, state community college, and 135141
technical college shall not increase its in-state undergraduate 135142
instructional and general fees by more than $100 over what the 135143
institution charged for the preceding academic year.135144

       These limitations shall not apply to increases required to 135145
comply with institutional covenants related to their obligations 135146
or to meet unfunded legal mandates or legally binding obligations 135147
incurred or commitments made prior to the effective date of this 135148
section with respect to which the institution had identified such 135149
fee increases as the source of funds. Any increase required by 135150
such covenants and any such mandates, obligations, or commitments 135151
shall be reported by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to the 135152
Controlling Board. These limitations may also be modified by the 135153
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, with the approval of the 135154
Controlling Board, to respond to exceptional circumstances as 135155
identified by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents. 135156

       These limitations shall not apply to institutions 135157
participating in an undergraduate tuition guarantee program 135158
pursuant to section 3345.48 of the Revised Code.135159

       Section 363.230. HIGHER EDUCATION - BOARD OF TRUSTEES135160

       (A) Funds appropriated for instructional subsidies at 135161
colleges and universities may be used to provide such branch or 135162
other off-campus undergraduate courses of study and such master's 135163
degree courses of study as may be approved by the Chancellor of 135164
the Board of Regents.135165

       (B) In providing instructional and other services to 135166
students, boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 135167
education shall supplement state subsidies with income from 135168
charges to students. Except as otherwise provided in this act, 135169
each board shall establish the fees to be charged to all students, 135170
including an instructional fee for educational and associated 135171
operational support of the institution and a general fee for 135172
noninstructional services, including locally financed student 135173
services facilities used for the benefit of enrolled students. The 135174
instructional fee and the general fee shall encompass all charges 135175
for services assessed uniformly to all enrolled students. Each 135176
board may also establish special purpose fees, service charges, 135177
and fines as required; such special purpose fees and service 135178
charges shall be for services or benefits furnished individual 135179
students or specific categories of students and shall not be 135180
applied uniformly to all enrolled students. A tuition surcharge 135181
shall be paid by all students who are not residents of Ohio.135182

       The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 135183
education shall not authorize a waiver or nonpayment of 135184
instructional fees or general fees for any particular student or 135185
any class of students other than waivers specifically authorized 135186
by law or approved by the Chancellor. This prohibition is not 135187
intended to limit the authority of boards of trustees to provide 135188
for payments to students for services rendered the institution, 135189
nor to prohibit the budgeting of income for staff benefits or for 135190
student assistance in the form of payment of such instructional 135191
and general fees.135192

       Each state institution of higher education in its statement 135193
of charges to students shall separately identify the instructional 135194
fee, the general fee, the tuition charge, and the tuition 135195
surcharge. Fee charges to students for instruction shall not be 135196
considered to be a price of service but shall be considered to be 135197
an integral part of the state government financing program in 135198
support of higher educational opportunity for students.135199

       (C) The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 135200
education shall ensure that faculty members devote a proper and 135201
judicious part of their work week to the actual instruction of 135202
students. Total class credit hours of production per academic term 135203
per full-time faculty member is expected to meet the standards set 135204
forth in the budget data submitted by the Chancellor of the Board 135205
of Regents.135206

       (D) The authority of government vested by law in the boards 135207
of trustees of state institutions of higher education shall in 135208
fact be exercised by those boards. Boards of trustees may consult 135209
extensively with appropriate student and faculty groups. 135210
Administrative decisions about the utilization of available 135211
resources, about organizational structure, about disciplinary 135212
procedure, about the operation and staffing of all auxiliary 135213
facilities, and about administrative personnel shall be the 135214
exclusive prerogative of boards of trustees. Any delegation of 135215
authority by a board of trustees in other areas of responsibility 135216
shall be accompanied by appropriate standards of guidance 135217
concerning expected objectives in the exercise of such delegated 135218
authority and shall be accompanied by periodic review of the 135219
exercise of this delegated authority to the end that the public 135220
interest, in contrast to any institutional or special interest, 135221
shall be served.135222

       Section 363.240. STUDENT SUPPORT SERVICES135223

       The foregoing appropriation item 235502, Student Support 135224
Services, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of 135225
Regents to Ohio's state colleges and universities that incur 135226
disproportionate costs in the provision of support services to 135227
disabled students.135228

       Section 363.250. WAR ORPHANS SCHOLARSHIPS135229

       The foregoing appropriation item 235504, War Orphans 135230
Scholarships, shall be used to reimburse state institutions of 135231
higher education for waivers of instructional fees and general 135232
fees provided by them, to provide grants to institutions that have 135233
received a certificate of authorization from the Chancellor of the 135234
Board of Regents under Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, in 135235
accordance with the provisions of section 5910.04 of the Revised 135236
Code, and to fund additional scholarship benefits provided by 135237
section 5910.032 of the Revised Code.135238

       Section 363.253. OHIO STRATEGIC TRAINING CENTER135239

       The foregoing appropriation item 235506, Ohio Strategic 135240
Training Center, shall be used for a demonstration project to 135241
purchase portable welding stations made from large shipping 135242
containers and high level advanced training equipment for use at 135243
the Point Industrial Park in South Point.135244

       Section 363.260. OHIOLINK135245

       The foregoing appropriation item 235507, OhioLINK, shall be 135246
used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 135247
OhioLINK, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 135248
3333.04 of the Revised Code to serve as the state's electronic 135249
library information and retrieval system, which provides access 135250
statewide to an extensive set of electronic databases and 135251
resources, the library holdings of Ohio's public and participating 135252
private nonprofit colleges and universities, and the State Library 135253
of Ohio.135254

       Section 363.270. AIR FORCE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY135255

       The foregoing appropriation item 235508, Air Force Institute 135256
of Technology, shall be used to: (A) strengthen the research and 135257
educational linkages between the Wright Patterson Air Force Base 135258
and institutions of higher education in Ohio; and (B) support the 135259
Dayton Area Graduate Studies Institute, an engineering graduate 135260
consortium of Wright State University, the University of Dayton, 135261
and the Air Force Institute of Technology, with the participation 135262
of the University of Cincinnati and The Ohio State University. 135263

       Section 363.280. OHIO SUPERCOMPUTER CENTER135264

       The foregoing appropriation item 235510, Ohio Supercomputer 135265
Center, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 135266
support the operation of the Ohio Supercomputer Center, a 135267
consortium organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the 135268
Revised Code, located at The Ohio State University. The Ohio 135269
Supercomputer Center is a statewide resource available to Ohio 135270
research universities both public and private. It is also intended 135271
that the center be made accessible to private industry as 135272
appropriate.135273

       Funds shall be used, in part, to support the Ohio 135274
Supercomputer Center's Computational Science Initiative, which 135275
includes its industrial outreach program, Blue Collar Computing, 135276
and its School of Computational Science. These collaborations 135277
between the Ohio Supercomputer Center and Ohio's colleges and 135278
universities shall be aimed at making Ohio a leader in using 135279
computer modeling to promote economic development.135280

       Section 363.290. COOPERATIVE EXTENSION SERVICE135281

       The foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 135282
Extension Service, shall be disbursed through the Chancellor of 135283
the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in monthly 135284
payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget 135285
and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code.135286

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 135287
Extension Service, up to $30,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used 135288
to develop an in-school agriculturally based curriculum for 135289
inclusion within the regular classroom curriculum of an elementary 135290
school in the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 135291
Cincinnati City School District.135292

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 135293
Extension Service, up to $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used 135294
to support a City of Cleveland Program Manager tasked with 135295
preparing regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to 135296
recruit and train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.135297

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 135298
Extension Service, $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used to 135299
support a City of Cincinnati Program Manager tasked with preparing 135300
regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to recruit and 135301
train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.135302

       Section 363.300. CENTRAL STATE SUPPLEMENT135303

       The foregoing appropriation item 235514, Central State 135304
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 135305
Regents to Central State University in accordance with the plan 135306
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 135307
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 135308
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 135309
the goals of increasing enrollment, improving course completion, 135310
and increasing the number of degrees conferred.135311

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 135312
and the use of funds. Central State University shall provide any 135313
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 135314
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 135315
Central State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 135316
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 135317
effect, the Chancellor may notify Central State University that 135318
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Central State 135319
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 135320
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 135321
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 135322
for the use of any remaining funds.135323

       Section 363.310. CASE WESTERN RESERVE UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF 135324
MEDICINE135325

       The foregoing appropriation item 235515, Case Western Reserve 135326
University School of Medicine, shall be disbursed to Case Western 135327
Reserve University through the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135328
in accordance with agreements entered into under section 3333.10 135329
of the Revised Code, provided that the state support per full-time 135330
medical student shall not exceed that provided to full-time 135331
medical students at state universities.135332

       Section 363.320. FAMILY PRACTICE135333

       The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents shall develop 135334
plans consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 135335
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235519, Family 135336
Practice.135337

       Section 363.330. SHAWNEE STATE SUPPLEMENT135338

       The foregoing appropriation item 235520, Shawnee State 135339
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 135340
Regents to Shawnee State University in accordance with the plan 135341
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 135342
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 135343
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 135344
the goals of improving course completion, increasing the number of 135345
degrees conferred, and furthering the university's mission of 135346
service to the Appalachian region.135347

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 135348
and the use of funds. Shawnee State University shall provide any 135349
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 135350
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 135351
Shawnee State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 135352
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 135353
effect, the Chancellor may notify Shawnee State University that 135354
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Shawnee State 135355
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 135356
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 135357
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 135358
for the use of any remaining funds.135359

       Section 363.333. YOUTH STEM COMMERCIALIZATION AND 135360
ENTREPRENEURSHIP PROGRAM135361

       The foregoing appropriation item 235523, Youth STEM 135362
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program, shall be used by 135363
the Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents to support the Youth 135364
STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program. The purpose 135365
of this program is to grow Ohio's next generation of 135366
entrepreneurs, to create jobs in Ohio by focusing on the practical 135367
application of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 135368
(STEM), including medicine and health fields, and to innovate new 135369
products and services. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 135370
Entrepreneurship Program shall (1) conduct regional STEM forums 135371
for students and educators; (2) develop regional online high 135372
school and collegiate STEM commercialization and entrepreneurship 135373
content and courses; (3) create a statewide STEM commercialization 135374
and entrepreneurship mentoring network available to high school 135375
students anywhere in Ohio; and (4) conduct a statewide STEM 135376
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Plan competition that 135377
includes incentive awards and scholarships for students and 135378
professional development and incentives for teacher participation. 135379
The competition and all aspects of the program shall be open to 135380
any Ohio high school student and shall include initiatives to 135381
engage minority, rural, and economically disadvantaged students 135382
anywhere in Ohio. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 135383
Entrepreneurship Program shall collaborate with Ohio's colleges 135384
and universities, existing STEM and entrepreneurship programs, and 135385
Ohio's STEM professional and trade associations to implement these 135386
provisions and to create the new products or services of the 135387
future, advance job creation in Ohio, and encourage enrollment at 135388
Ohio institutions of higher education.135389

       Section 363.340. POLICE AND FIRE PROTECTION135390

       The foregoing appropriation item 235524, Police and Fire 135391
Protection, shall be used for police and fire services in the 135392
municipalities of Kent, Athens, Oxford, Fairborn, Bowling Green, 135393
Portsmouth, Xenia Township (Greene County), Rootstown Township, 135394
and the City of Nelsonville that may be used to assist these local 135395
governments in providing police and fire protection for the 135396
central campus of the state-affiliated university located therein. 135397

       Section 363.350. GERIATRIC MEDICINE135398

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 135399
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 135400
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235525, 135401
Geriatric Medicine.135402

       Section 363.360. PRIMARY CARE RESIDENCIES135403

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 135404
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 135405
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235526, 135406
Primary Care Residencies.135407

       The foregoing appropriation item 235526, Primary Care 135408
Residencies, shall be distributed in each fiscal year of the 135409
biennium, based on whether or not the institution has submitted 135410
and gained approval for a plan. If the institution does not have 135411
an approved plan, it shall receive five per cent less funding per 135412
student than it would have received from its annual allocation. 135413
The remaining funding shall be distributed among those 135414
institutions that meet or exceed their targets.135415

       Section 363.370. OHIO AGRICULTURAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT 135416
CENTER135417

       The foregoing appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 135418
Research and Development Center, shall be disbursed through the 135419
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in 135420
monthly payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of 135421
Budget and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 135422
The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center shall not be 135423
required to remit payment to The Ohio State University during the 135424
biennium ending June 30, 2015, for cost reallocation assessments. 135425
The cost reallocation assessments include, but are not limited to, 135426
any assessment on state appropriations to the Center.135427

       The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center, an 135428
entity of the College of Food, Agricultural, and Environmental 135429
Sciences of The Ohio State University, shall further its mission 135430
of enhancing Ohio's economic development and job creation by 135431
continuing to internally allocate on a competitive basis 135432
appropriated funding of programs based on demonstrated 135433
performance. Academic units, faculty, and faculty-driven programs 135434
shall be evaluated and rewarded consistent with agreed-upon 135435
performance expectations as called for in the College's 135436
Expectations and Criteria for Performance Assessment.135437

       Section 363.380. STATE UNIVERSITY CLINICAL TEACHING135438

       The foregoing appropriation items 235536, The Ohio State 135439
University Clinical Teaching; 235537, University of Cincinnati 135440
Clinical Teaching; 235538, University of Toledo Clinical Teaching; 135441
235539, Wright State University Clinical Teaching; 235540, Ohio 135442
University Clinical Teaching; and 235541, Northeast Ohio Medical 135443
University Clinical Teaching, shall be distributed through the 135444
Chancellor of the Board of Regents.135445

       Section 363.390. CAPITAL COMPONENT135446

       The foregoing appropriation item 235552, Capital Component, 135447
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to provide 135448
funding for prior commitments made pursuant to the state's former 135449
capital funding policy for state colleges and universities that 135450
was originally established in Am. H.B. 748 of the 121st General 135451
Assembly. Appropriations from this item shall be distributed to 135452
all campuses for which the estimated campus debt service 135453
attributable to qualifying capital projects was less than the 135454
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. Campus 135455
allocations shall be determined by subtracting the estimated 135456
campus debt service attributable to qualifying capital projects 135457
from the campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. 135458
Moneys distributed from this appropriation item shall be 135459
restricted to capital-related purposes.135460

       Any campus for which the estimated campus debt service 135461
attributable to qualifying capital projects is greater than the 135462
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 135463
have the difference subtracted from its State Share of Instruction 135464
allocation in each fiscal year. Appropriation equal to the sum of 135465
all such amounts except that of the Ohio Agricultural Research and 135466
Development Center shall be transferred from appropriation item 135467
235501, State Share of Instruction, to appropriation item 235552, 135468
Capital Component. Appropriation equal to any estimated Ohio 135469
Agricultural Research and Development Center debt service 135470
attributable to qualifying capital projects that is greater than 135471
the Center's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 135472
be transferred from appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 135473
Research and Development Center, to appropriation item 235552, 135474
Capital Component.135475

       Section 363.400. LIBRARY DEPOSITORIES135476

       The foregoing appropriation item, 235555, Library 135477
Depositories, shall be distributed to the state's five regional 135478
depository libraries for the cost-effective storage of and access 135479
to lesser-used materials in university library collections. The 135480
depositories shall be administrated by the Chancellor of the Board 135481
of Regents, or by OhioLINK at the discretion of the Chancellor.135482

       Section 363.410. OHIO ACADEMIC RESOURCES NETWORK (OARNET)135483

       The foregoing appropriation item 235556, Ohio Academic 135484
Resources Network, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of 135485
Regents to support the operations of the Ohio Academic Resources 135486
Network, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 135487
3333.04 of the Revised Code, which shall include support for 135488
Ohio's colleges and universities in maintaining and enhancing 135489
network connections, using new network technologies to improve 135490
research, education, and economic development programs, and 135491
sharing information technology services. To the extent network 135492
capacity is available, OARnet shall support allocating bandwidth 135493
to eligible programs directly supporting Ohio's economic 135494
development.135495

       Section 363.420. LONG-TERM CARE RESEARCH135496

       The foregoing appropriation item 235558, Long-term Care 135497
Research, shall be disbursed to Miami University for long-term 135498
care research.135499

       Section 363.430.  OHIO COLLEGE OPPORTUNITY GRANT135500

       (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this section:135501

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 135502
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 135503
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 135504
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible four-year public 135505
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 135506
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.135507

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 135508
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 135509
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 135510
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible private nonprofit 135511
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 135512
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.135513

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 135514
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, shall be used by the Chancellor of 135515
the Board of Regents to award needs-based financial aid to 135516
students enrolled in eligible private for-profit career colleges 135517
and schools.135518

       (B)(1) As used in this section:135519

       (a) "Eligible institution" means any institution described in 135520
divisions (B)(2)(a) to (c) of section 3333.122 of the Revised 135521
Code.135522

       (b) The three "sectors" of institutions of higher education 135523
consist of the following:135524

       (i) State colleges and universities, community colleges, 135525
state community colleges, university branches, and technical 135526
colleges;135527

       (ii) Eligible private nonprofit institutions of higher 135528
education;135529

       (iii) Eligible private for-profit career colleges and 135530
schools.135531

       (2) If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 135532
appropriated for support of the Ohio College Opportunity Grant 135533
program are inadequate to provide grants to all eligible students 135534
as calculated under division (D) of section 3333.122 of the 135535
Revised Code, the Chancellor may create a distribution formula for 135536
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 based on the formula used in 135537
fiscal year 2013, or may follow methods established in division 135538
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. The 135539
Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the distribution 135540
method. Any formula calculated under this division shall be 135541
complete and established to coincide with the start of the 135542
2013-2014 academic year. 135543

       (C) Prior to determining the amount of funds available to 135544
award under this section and section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, 135545
the Chancellor shall use the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 135546
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, to pay for renewals or partial 135547
renewals of scholarships students receive under the Ohio Academic 135548
Scholarship Program under sections 3333.21 and 3333.22 of the 135549
Revised Code. In paying for scholarships under this division, the 135550
Chancellor shall deduct funds from the allocations made under 135551
division (A) of this section. Deductions shall be proportionate to 135552
the amounts allocated to each sector from the total amounts 135553
appropriated for each sector under the foregoing appropriation 135554
item 235563, Ohio College Opportunity Grant.135555

       In each fiscal year, the Chancellor shall not distribute or 135556
obligate or commit to be distributed an amount greater than what 135557
is appropriated under the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 135558
Ohio College Opportunity Grant.135559

       (D) The Chancellor shall establish, and post on the Ohio 135560
Board of Regents' web site, award tables based on any formulas 135561
created under division (B) of this section. The Chancellor shall 135562
notify students and institutions of any reductions in awards under 135563
this section.135564

        On or before August 31, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of 135565
Regents shall submit award tables to the Controlling Board for the 135566
2013-2014 academic year and allocations of Ohio College 135567
Opportunity Grant awards not already specified in section 3333.122 135568
of the Revised Code.135569

       (E) Notwithstanding section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, no 135570
student shall be eligible to receive an Ohio College Opportunity 135571
Grant for more than ten semesters, fifteen quarters, or the 135572
equivalent of five academic years, less the number of semesters or 135573
quarters in which the student received an Ohio Instructional 135574
Grant.135575

       Section 363.440. THE OHIO STATE UNIVERSITY CLINIC SUPPORT135576

       The foregoing appropriation item 235572, The Ohio State 135577
University Clinic Support, shall be distributed through the 135578
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University 135579
for support of dental and veterinary medicine clinics.135580

       Section 363.450. NATIONAL GUARD SCHOLARSHIP PROGRAM135581

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall disburse funds 135582
from appropriation item 235599, National Guard Scholarship 135583
Program. During each fiscal year, the Chancellor of the Board of 135584
Regents, within ten days of cancellation, may certify to the 135585
Director of Budget and Management the amount of canceled 135586
prior-year encumbrances in appropriation item 235599, National 135587
Guard Scholarship Program. Upon receipt of the certification, the 135588
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash in an amount 135589
up to the amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the 135590
National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund (Fund 5BM0). The 135591
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall seek Controlling Board 135592
approval to authorize additional expenditures for appropriation 135593
item 235623, National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund. Upon 135594
approval of the Controlling Board, the additional amounts are 135595
hereby appropriated. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 135596
disburse funds from appropriation item 235623, National Guard 135597
Scholarship Reserve Fund.135598

       Section 363.460. PLEDGE OF FEES135599

       Any new pledge of fees, or new agreement for adjustment of 135600
fees, made in the biennium ending June 30, 2015, to secure bonds 135601
or notes of a state institution of higher education for a project 135602
for which bonds or notes were not outstanding on the effective 135603
date of this section shall be effective only after approval by the 135604
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, unless approved in a previous 135605
biennium.135606

       Section 363.470. HIGHER EDUCATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 135607
SERVICE135608

       The foregoing appropriation item 235909, Higher Education 135609
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 135610
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 135611
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 135612
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.04 of 135613
the Revised Code.135614

       Section 363.480. SALES AND SERVICES135615

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents is authorized to 135616
charge and accept payment for the provision of goods and services. 135617
Such charges shall be reasonably related to the cost of producing 135618
the goods and services. Except as otherwise provided by law, no 135619
charges may be levied for goods or services that are produced as 135620
part of the routine responsibilities or duties of the Chancellor. 135621
All revenues received by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135622
shall be deposited into Fund 4560, and may be used by the 135623
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to pay for the costs of 135624
producing the goods and services.135625

       Section 363.483.  CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM135626

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135627
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 135628
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 135629
Ohio University's Voinovich School.135630

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135631
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 135632
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 135633
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.135634

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135635
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135636
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.135637

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135638
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135639
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 135640
University.135641

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135642
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135643
Washington Center Internship Program.135644

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135645
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135646
Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at the 135647
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairs at Cleveland State 135648
University.135649

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135650
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135651
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.135652

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135653
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 135654
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 135655
the Center for Regional Development at Bowling Green State 135656
University.135657

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135658
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 135659
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 135660
the Institute for Defense Studies at Wright State University.135661

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135662
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135663
Kent State University Columbus Program.135664

       Section 363.490. HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION 135665
ADMINISTRATION135666

       The foregoing appropriation item 235602, Higher Educational 135667
Facility Commission Administration, shall be used by the 135668
Chancellor of the Board of Regents for operating expenses related 135669
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents' support of the 135670
activities of the Ohio Higher Educational Facility Commission. 135671
Upon the request of the Chancellor, the Director of Budget and 135672
Management may transfer up to $29,100 cash in each fiscal year 135673
from the HEFC Operating Expenses Fund (Fund 4610) to the HEFC 135674
Administration Fund (Fund 4E80).135675

       Section 363.500. NURSING LOAN PROGRAM135676

       The foregoing appropriation item 235606, Nursing Loan 135677
Program, shall be used to administer the nurse education 135678
assistance program. Up to $50,000 in each fiscal year may be used 135679
for operating expenses associated with the program. Any additional 135680
funds needed for the administration of the program are subject to 135681
Controlling Board approval.135682

       Section 363.510.  TELECOMMUNITY AND DISTANCE LEARNING135683

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 135684
Distance Learning, up to $25,000 in each fiscal year shall be 135685
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 135686
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 135687
learning" through interactive video technologies in the school 135688
district. Per agreements with eight Ohio local telephone 135689
companies, ALLTEL Ohio, CENTURY Telephone of Ohio, Chillicothe 135690
Telephone Company, Cincinnati Bell Telephone Company, Orwell 135691
Telephone Company, Sprint North Central Telephone, VERIZON, and 135692
Western Reserve Telephone Company, school districts are eligible 135693
for funds if they are within one of the listed telephone company 135694
service areas. Funds to administer the program shall be expended 135695
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the amount 135696
specified in the agreements with the listed telephone companies.135697

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 135698
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 135699
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 135700
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of any 135701
settlement agreement between the listed companies and the Public 135702
Utilities Commission in fiscal years 1996 and beyond.135703

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 135704
Distance Learning, up to $24,150 in each fiscal year shall be 135705
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 135706
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 135707
learning" in the school district. Per an agreement with Ameritech, 135708
school districts are eligible for funds if they are within an 135709
Ameritech service area. Funds to administer the program shall be 135710
expended by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the 135711
amount specified in the agreement with Ameritech.135712

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 135713
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 135714
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 135715
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of a settlement 135716
agreement between the company and the Public Utilities Commission 135717
in fiscal year 1995.135718

       Section 363.520. VETERANS PREFERENCES135719

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall work with the 135720
Department of Veterans Services to develop specific veterans 135721
preference guidelines for higher education institutions. These 135722
guidelines shall ensure that the institutions' hiring practices 135723
are in accordance with the intent of Ohio's veterans preference 135724
laws.135725

       Section 363.530. STATE NEED-BASED FINANCIAL AID 135726
RECONCILIATION135727

       By the first day of August in each fiscal year, or as soon as 135728
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 135729
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount 135730
necessary to pay any outstanding prior year obligations to higher 135731
education institutions for the state's need-based financial aid 135732
programs. The amounts certified are hereby appropriated to 135733
appropriation item 235618, State Need-based Financial Aid 135734
Reconciliation, from revenues received in the State Need-based 135735
Financial Aid Reconciliation Fund (Fund 5Y50).135736

       Section 363.540.  (A) As used in this section:135737

       (1) "Board of trustees" includes the managing authority of a 135738
university branch district.135739

       (2) "State institution of higher education" has the same 135740
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.135741

       (B) The board of trustees of any state institution of higher 135742
education, notwithstanding any rule of the institution to the 135743
contrary, may adopt a policy providing for mandatory furloughs of 135744
employees, including faculty, to achieve spending reductions 135745
necessitated by institutional budget deficits.135746

       Section 363.550. EFFICIENCY ADVISORY COMMITTEE135747

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish an 135748
efficiency advisory committee for the purpose of generating 135749
optimal efficiency plans for campuses, identifying shared services 135750
opportunities, and sharing best practices. The efficiency advisory 135751
committee shall also attempt to reduce the cost of textbooks and 135752
other education resource materials. The committee shall meet at 135753
the call of the Chancellor or the Chancellor's designee, but at 135754
least quarterly. Each state institution of higher education shall 135755
designate an employee to serve as its efficiency officer 135756
responsible for the evaluation and improvement of operational 135757
efficiencies on campus. Each efficiency officer shall serve on the 135758
efficiency advisory committee.135759

       By December 31 of each year, the Efficiency Advisory 135760
Committee shall provide a report to the Office of Budget and 135761
Management, the Governor, and the General Assembly compiling the 135762
operational efficiency plans for all institutions of higher 135763
education and benchmarking efficiency gains realized over the 135764
preceding year and progress in implementing the prior year's 135765
efficiency plan. The report shall also be made available to the 135766
public on the Ohio Board of Regents web site. 135767

       Section 363.570. (A) FUND ABOLITION135768

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 135769
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 135770
in the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 4W90) to the 135771
Distance Learning Fund (Fund 4X10). Upon completion of the 135772
transfer, the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 135773
4W90)is hereby abolished.135774

       (B) ETECH OHIO COMMISSION ABOLISHMENT AND APPROPRIATION LINE 135775
ITEM TRANSFER135776

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135777
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135778
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, and 135779
re-establish them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director 135780
of Budget and Management, against appropriation item 235483, 135781
Technology Integration and Professional Development. The 135782
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 135783
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 135784
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, by 135785
July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as determined to be appropriate 135786
by the Director of Budget and Management, under appropriation item 135787
235483, Technology Integration and Professional Development, in 135788
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 135789
with regard to appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration 135790
and Professional Development. 135791

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135792
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135793
935608, Media Services, and re-establish them against 135794
appropriation item 235676, Media Services. The re-established 135795
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 135796
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 935608, Media 135797
Services, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 135798
item 235676, Media Services, in the same manner and with the same 135799
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 135800
935608, Media Services. 135801

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135802
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135803
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, and re-establish them against 135804
appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special Purposes. The 135805
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 135806
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 135807
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, by July 1, 2013, shall be 135808
completed under appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special 135809
Purposes, in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 135810
were completed with regard to appropriation item 935640, 135811
Conference/Special Purposes. 135812

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135813
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135814
935630, Telecommunity, and cancel any existing encumbrances 135815
against appropriation item 935634, Distance Learning, and 135816
re-establish them against appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity 135817
and Distance Learning. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 135818
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 135819
under appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 935634, 135820
Distance Learning, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under 135821
appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and Distance Learning, in 135822
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 135823
with regard to appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 135824
935634, Distance Learning. 135825

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 135826
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 135827
capital appropriations and capital encumbrances of the former 135828
eTech Ohio Commission in the Higher Education Improvement Fund 135829
(Fund 7034), and re-establish them with the Chancellor of the 135830
Board of Regents in the Higher Education Improvement Fund (Fund 135831
7034). The re-established amounts are hereby appropriated. 135832

       Effective July 1, 2013, notwithstanding any provision of the 135833
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may 135834
make budget changes made necessary by the transfer of the former 135835
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, 135836
if any, including administrative organization, program transfers, 135837
the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, the 135838
consolidation of funds, and the transfer of capital 135839
appropriations, as authorized by this section. The Director of 135840
Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish prior year 135841
encumbrances or parts of prior year encumbrances of the former 135842
eTech Ohio Commission with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135843
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 135844
purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 2014 or 135845
fiscal year 2015. The established encumbrances plus any additional 135846
amounts determined to be necessary for the Chancellor of the Board 135847
of Regents to perform the operations and related management 135848
functions of the former eTech Ohio Commission are hereby 135849
appropriated.135850

       (C) CONFERENCE OPERATION OFFICE135851

       Beginning in fiscal year 2014, the annual eTech Ohio 135852
Conference will be overseen by a Conference Operation Office 135853
comprised of employees of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135854
and Department of Education, including former employees of the 135855
eTech Ohio Commission transferred to the Chancellor of the Board 135856
of Regents and the Department of Education. The Office shall be 135857
responsible for conferences that focus on professional development 135858
in the education field, educational technology, distance learning, 135859
and other education topics pertinent to the State of Ohio.135860

       (D) ETECH ABOLISHMENT135861

       On and after July 1, 2013, the eTech Ohio Commission is 135862
hereby abolished and its duties, personnel, assets, and 135863
liabilities are transferred as provided in divisions (F) and (G) 135864
of this section.135865

       (E) TRANSFER OF CAPITAL DUTIES135866

       As of July 1, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135867
shall succeed to and have and perform all fiduciary duties and 135868
responsibilities previously held by the Director of eTech Ohio for 135869
all outstanding capital appropriations designated for use by eTech 135870
Ohio.135871

       Section 363.580. ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT 135872

       (A) The Electronic Textbook Pilot Project is hereby 135873
established to provide grants on a competitive basis to public and 135874
chartered nonpublic schools to purchase electronic textbooks 135875
through the learning clearinghouse established in section 3333.81 135876
to 3333.88. The Electronic Textbook Pilot Project shall be 135877
administered by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.135878

       (B) The Chancellor shall have the authority to set the grant 135879
criteria and to select grant recipients. In awarding grants under 135880
this section, the Chancellor shall establish the criteria for 135881
determining which applicants will be considered a priority for 135882
receiving grant funds.135883

        (C) Not later than January 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall 135884
issue a request for proposals from eligible schools.135885

        (D) Not later than May 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall award 135886
grants for use during the 2014-2015 school year.135887

        (E) The Chancellor and Superintendent of Public Instruction 135888
jointly shall notify schools of and promote participation in the 135889
pilot project.135890

        (F) Not later than December 31, 2015, the Chancellor shall 135891
submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, in accordance 135892
with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, a formative evaluation of 135893
the implementation and results of the pilot project and 135894
legislative recommendations for any changes in the pilot project.135895

       (G) The number of grants awarded under this section shall not 135896
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 135897
the General Assembly for this purpose.135898

       Section 365.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND 135899
CORRECTION135900

General Revenue Fund135901

GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 883,768,015 $ 873,724,802 135902
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 135903
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 45,049,356 $ 46,024,108 135904
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 104,099,500 $ 99,534,800 135905
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 34,187,858 $ 34,314,390 135906
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 12,856,800 $ 12,856,800 135907
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 63,345,972 $ 66,150,781 135908
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 64,480,938 $ 65,029,680 135909
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 20,659,664 $ 20,907,476 135910
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 243,289,774 $ 254,139,452 135911
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 19,102,051 $ 19,112,418 135912
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,496,839,928 $ 1,497,794,707 135913

General Services Fund Group135914

1480 501602 Institutional Services $ 3,139,577 $ 3,139,577 135915
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 41,393,226 $ 40,609,872 135916
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 582,086 $ 582,086 135917
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,023,671 $ 2,067,214 135918
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 17,499,255 $ 17,499,255 135919
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,113,120 $ 1,113,120 135920
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 4,114,782 $ 4,114,782 135921
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 135922
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 3,750,000 $ 0 135923
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 135924
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 135925
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 250,000 $ 250,000 135926
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 77,430,717 $ 72,940,906 135927

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135928

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 135929
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 135930
Fund Group $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 135931

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,581,403,588 $ 1,577,868,556 135932

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 135933
SENTENCING REFORMS135934

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 135935
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 135936
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 135937
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 135938
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2014 and 135939
2015, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 135940
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 135941
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 135942
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 135943
CBCF.135944

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS135945

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 135946
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 135947
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 135948
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 135949
under the primary leases and agreements for those buildings made 135950
under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These 135951
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 135952
charges on related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. 135953
of the Revised Code.135954

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES135955

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 135956
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 135957
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the Arthur G. 135958
James Cancer Hospital and Richard J. Solove Research Institute and 135959
the Richard M. Ross Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care 135960
to persons who are confined in state adult correctional 135961
facilities. The provision of necessary care shall be billed to the 135962
Department at a rate not to exceed the authorized reimbursement 135963
rate for the same service established by the Department of 135964
Medicaid under the Medicaid Program.135965

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFER135966

       At the request of the Director of Rehabilitation and 135967
Correction, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer an 135968
amount not to exceed $2,391 in cash that was mistakenly deposited 135969
in the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3230) to the General Revenue 135970
Fund.135971

       Section 369.10. RCB RESPIRATORY CARE BOARD135972

General Services Fund Group135973

4K90 872609 Operating Expenses $ 547,576 $ 542,246 135974
TOTAL GSF General Services 135975
Fund Group $ 547,576 $ 542,246 135976
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 547,576 $ 542,246 135977


       Section 371.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS135979

Special State Revenue Fund Group135980

5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 135981
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 135982

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund135983

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 135984
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 135985
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 135986

Agency Fund Group135987

4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 135988
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 105,336,883 $ 112,651,961 135989
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 15,490,718 $ 16,566,465 135990
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 135991
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 135992
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 2,066,331,400 $ 2,151,135,100 135993
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 346,669,300 $ 365,277,800 135994
7099 762902 Permissive Tax Distribution - Auto Registration $ 184,000,000 $ 184,000,000 135995
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,751,928,301 $ 2,863,731,326 135996

Holding Account Redistribution135997

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 135998
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 135999
Revenue Distribution Fund Group 136000
7049 335900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 136001
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 136002
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 360,000,000 $ 360,000,000 136003
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 5,649,000 $ 5,649,000 136004
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 395,000,000 $ 395,000,000 136005
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 359,300,000 $ 369,000,000 136006
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 136007
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 196,000,000 $ 196,000,000 136008
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 363,600,000 $ 376,400,000 136009
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 146,500,000 $ 107,900,000 136010
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 136011
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 136012
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 136013
Fund Group $ 1,873,899,000 $ 1,857,799,000 136014
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,824,132,626 $ 4,930,808,268 136015

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS136016

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 136017
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 136018
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 136019
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 136020
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.136021

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS136022

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 136023
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 136024
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 136025
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 136026
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 136027
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 136028
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director 136029
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 136030
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 136031
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 136032
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.136033

       Section 373.10. SAN BOARD OF SANITARIAN REGISTRATION136034

General Services Fund Group136035

4K90 893609 Operating Expenses $ 137,850 $ 129,850 136036
TOTAL GSF General Services 136037
Fund Group $ 137,850 $ 129,850 136038
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 137,850 $ 129,850 136039


       Section 375.10. OSB OHIO STATE SCHOOL FOR THE BLIND136041

General Revenue Fund136042

GRF 226321 Operations $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 136043
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 136044

General Services Fund Group136045

4H80 226602 Education Reform Grants $ 27,000 $ 27,000 136046
TOTAL GSF General Services 136047
Fund Group $ 27,000 $ 27,000 136048

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136049

3100 226626 Coordinating Unit $ 2,527,104 $ 2,527,104 136050
3DT0 226621 Ohio Transition Collaborative $ 650,000 $ 650,000 136051
3P50 226643 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 136052
TOTAL FED Federal Special 136053
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,227,104 $ 3,227,104 136054

State Special Revenue Fund Group136055

4M50 226601 Work Study and Technology Investment $ 461,521 $ 461,521 136056
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 136057
Fund Group $ 461,521 $ 461,521 136058
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,994,204 $ 10,994,204 136059


       Section 377.10. OSD OHIO SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF136061

General Revenue Fund136062

GRF 221321 Operations $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 136063
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 136064

General Services Fund Group136065

4M10 221602 Education Reform Grants $ 35,000 $ 35,000 136066
TOTAL GSF General Services 136067
Fund Group $ 35,000 $ 35,000 136068

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136069

3110 221625 Coordinating Unit $ 2,153,245 $ 2,153,245 136070
3R00 221684 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 35,000 $ 35,000 136071
TOTAL FED Federal Special 136072
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,188,245 $ 2,188,245 136073

State Special Revenue Fund Group136074

4M00 221601 Educational Program Expenses $ 95,000 $ 95,000 136075
5H60 221609 Even Start Fees and Gifts $ 35,000 $ 35,000 136076
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 136077
Fund Group $ 130,000 $ 130,000 136078
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,080,902 $ 11,080,902 136079


       Section 381.10. SOS SECRETARY OF STATE136081

General Revenue Fund136082

GRF 050321 Operating Expenses $ 2,144,030 $ 2,144,030 136083
GRF 050407 Pollworkers Training $ 234,196 $ 234,196 136084
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,378,226 $ 2,378,226 136085

General Services Fund Group136086

4120 050609 Notary Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 136087
4130 050601 Information Systems $ 49,000 $ 49,000 136088
4S80 050610 Board of Voting Machine Examiners $ 7,200 $ 7,200 136089
5FG0 050620 BOE Reimbursement and Education $ 80,000 $ 80,000 136090
TOTAL General Services Fund Group $ 611,200 $ 611,200 136091

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136092

3AH0 050614 Election Reform/Health and Human Services $ 300,000 $ 300,000 136093
3AS0 050616 Help America Vote Act (HAVA) $ 1,710,000 $ 1,710,000 136094
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 136095
Fund Group $ 2,010,000 $ 2,010,000 136096

State Special Revenue Fund Group136097

5990 050603 Business Services Operating Expenses $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 136098
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 136099
Fund Group $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 136100

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group136101

R001 050605 Uniform Commercial Code Refunds $ 30,000 $ 30,000 136102
R002 050606 Corporate/Business Filing Refunds $ 85,000 $ 85,000 136103
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 136104
Redistribution Fund Group $ 115,000 $ 115,000 136105
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 19,499,826 $ 19,499,826 136106

       POLLWORKER TRAINING136107

       The foregoing appropriation item 050407, Pollworkers 136108
Training, shall be used to reimburse county boards of elections 136109
for pollworker training pursuant to section 3501.27 of the Revised 136110
Code. At the end of fiscal year 2014, an amount equal to the 136111
unexpended, unencumbered portion of appropriation item 050407, 136112
Pollworkers Training, is hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015 136113
for the same purpose.136114

       BOARD OF VOTING MACHINE EXAMINERS136115

       The foregoing appropriation item 050610, Board of Voting 136116
Machine Examiners, shall be used to pay for the services and 136117
expenses of the members of the Board of Voting Machine Examiners, 136118
and for other expenses that are authorized to be paid from the 136119
Board of Voting Machine Examiners Fund, which is created in 136120
section 3506.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys not used shall be 136121
returned to the person or entity submitting equipment for 136122
examination. If it is determined that additional appropriations 136123
are necessary, such amounts are hereby appropriated.136124

       HAVA FUNDS136125

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 136126
appropriation item 050614, Election Reform/Health and Human 136127
Services, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the 136128
same purpose in fiscal year 2015.136129

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 136130
appropriation item 050616, Help America Vote Act (HAVA), at the 136131
end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the same purpose in 136132
fiscal year 2015.136133

       The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 136134
ongoing interest earnings from the Election Reform/Health and 136135
Human Services Fund (Fund 3AH0) and the Help America Vote Act 136136
(HAVA) (Fund 3AS0) to the respective funds and distribute these 136137
earnings in accordance with the terms of the grant under which the 136138
money is received.136139

       MISCELLANEOUS FEDERAL GRANTS136140

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 136141
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer from the General 136142
Revenue Fund (GRF) all investment earnings and amounts equal to 136143
the interest earnings that were attributable to the Miscellaneous 136144
Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3FM0) in each quarter of fiscal year 136145
2013. The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 136146
ongoing interest earnings from Fund 3FM0 to that fund and 136147
distribute these earnings in accordance with the terms of the 136148
grant under which the money was received.136149

       HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION GROUP136150

       The foregoing appropriation items 050605, Uniform Commercial 136151
Code Refunds, and 050606, Corporate/Business Filing Refunds, shall 136152
be used to hold revenues until they are directed to the 136153
appropriate accounts or until they are refunded. If it is 136154
determined that additional appropriations are necessary, such 136155
amounts are hereby appropriated.136156

       Section 383.10. SEN THE OHIO SENATE136157

General Revenue Fund136158

GRF 020321 Operating Expenses $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 136159
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 136160

General Services Fund Group136161

1020 020602 Senate Reimbursement $ 852,001 $ 852,001 136162
4090 020601 Miscellaneous Sales $ 34,497 $ 34,497 136163
TOTAL GSF General Services 136164
Fund Group $ 886,498 $ 886,498 136165
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,834,320 $ 12,834,320 136166

       OPERATING EXPENSES136167

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 136168
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 136169
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 136170
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 136171
end of fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. 136172
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 136173
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.136174

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 136175
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 136176
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 136177
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 136178
end of fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. 136179
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 136180
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015.136181

       Section 385.10. CSV COMMISSION ON SERVICE AND VOLUNTEERISM136182

General Revenue Fund136183

GRF 866321 CSV Operations $ 286,661 $ 294,072 136184
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 286,661 $ 294,072 136185

General Services Fund136186

5GN0 866605 Serve Ohio Support $ 30,000 $ 30,000 136187
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 30,000 $ 30,000 136188

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136189

3R70 866617 AmeriCorps Programs $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 136190
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 136191
Fund Group $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 136192
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,763,661 $ 7,771,072 136193


       Section 387.10. CSF COMMISSIONERS OF THE SINKING FUND136195

Debt Service Fund Group136196

7070 155905 Third Frontier Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 136197
7072 155902 Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 132,647,900 $ 127,171,800 136198
7073 155903 Natural Resources Bond Retirement Fund $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 136199
7074 155904 Conservation Projects Bond Retirement Fund $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 136200
7076 155906 Coal Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 136201
7077 155907 State Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 136202
7078 155908 Common Schools Bond Retirement Fund $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 136203
7079 155909 Higher Education Bond Retirement Fund $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 136204
7080 155901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Conflicts Bond Retirement Fund $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 136205
7090 155912 Job Ready Site Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 136206
TOTAL DSF Debt Service Fund Group $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 136207
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 136208

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS136209

       Appropriation items in this section are for the purpose of 136210
paying debt service and financing costs on bonds or notes of the 136211
state issued under the Ohio Constitution and acts of the General 136212
Assembly. If it is determined that additional amounts are 136213
necessary for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.136214

       Section 389.10. SOA SOUTHERN OHIO AGRICULTURAL AND COMMUNITY 136215
DEVELOPMENT FOUNDATION136216

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group136217

5M90 945601 Operating Expenses $ 426,800 $ 426,800 136218
TOTAL TMF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 426,800 $ 426,800 136219
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 426,800 $ 426,800 136220


       Section 391.10. SPE BOARD OF SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY & 136222
AUDIOLOGY136223

General Services Fund Group136224

4K90 886609 Operating Expenses $ 472,260 $ 508,660 136225
TOTAL GSF General Services 136226
Fund Group $ 472,260 $ 508,660 136227
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 427,260 $ 508,660 136228


       Section 393.10. BTA BOARD OF TAX APPEALS136230

General Revenue Fund136231

GRF 116321 Operating Expenses $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 136232
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 136233
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 136234


       Section 395.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION136236

General Revenue Fund136237

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 71,068,330 $ 67,968,332 136238
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 178,200 $ 178,200 136239
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 666,640,000 $ 693,305,600 136240
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 737,886,530 $ 761,452,132 136241

General Services Fund Group136242

2280 110628 Revenue Enhancement $ 15,500,000 $ 17,500,000 136243
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 175,000 $ 175,000 136244
5BP0 110639 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 136245
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 136246
5MN0 110638 STARS Development and Implementation $ 5,000,000 $ 3,000,000 136247
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 136248
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 136249
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 11,978,310 $ 11,978,310 136250
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 49,500 $ 49,500 136251
TOTAL GSF General Services 136252
Fund Group $ 33,492,810 $ 33,492,810 136253

State Special Revenue Fund Group136254

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 20,000,000 $ 20,700,000 136255
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,459,609 $ 1,459,609 136256
4370 110606 Income Tax Contribution $ 38,800 $ 38,800 136257
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,802,044 $ 5,802,044 136258
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 682,415 $ 682,415 136259
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 244,193 $ 244,193 136260
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,035,374 $ 5,035,374 136261
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,750,000 $ 1,750,000 136262
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 136263
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 775,015 $ 775,015 136264
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 136265
Fund Group $ 36,287,450 $ 36,987,450 136266

Agency Fund Group136267

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 136268
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 136269
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 136270

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group136271

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 136272
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 136273
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 136274
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 136275
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,375,566,790 $ 2,399,832,392 136276

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK136277

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 136278
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 136279
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 136280
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 136281
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 136282
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 136283
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 136284
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 136285
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 136286
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 136287
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 136288
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 136289
county auditor.136290

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 136291
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 136292
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 136293
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 136294
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 136295
323.156 of the Revised Code.136296

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 136297
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 136298
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 136299
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 136300
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 136301
hereby appropriated.136302

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX136303

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 136304
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 136305
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 136306
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 136307
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.136308

       TAX REFUNDS136309

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 136310
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 136311
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 136312
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.136313

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT136314

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 136315
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 136316
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 136317
the International Registration Plan.136318

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT136319

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 136320
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 136321
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 136322
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 136323
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 136324
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 136325
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.136326

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT136327

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 136328
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 136329
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 136330
5743.03 of the Revised Code.136331

       STARS DEVELOPMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION FUND136332

       The foregoing appropriation item 110638, STARS Development 136333
and Implementation Fund, shall be used to pay costs incurred in 136334
the development and implementation of the department's State Tax 136335
Accounting and Revenue System. The Director of Budget and 136336
Management, under a plan submitted by the Tax Commissioner, or as 136337
otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and Management, 136338
shall set a schedule to transfer cash from the Tax Reform System 136339
Implementation Fund, Local Tax Administration Fund, School 136340
District Income Tax Fund, Discovery Project Fund, and the Motor 136341
Fuel Tax Administration Fund to the credit of the STARS 136342
Development and Implementation Fund (Fund 5MN0). The transfers of 136343
cash shall not exceed $8,000,000 in the biennium.136344

       Section 397.10. DOT DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION136345

General Revenue Fund136346

GRF 775451 Public Transportation - State $ 7,300,000 $ 7,300,000 136347
GRF 776465 Ohio Rail Development Commission $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 136348
GRF 777471 Airport Improvements - State $ 750,000 $ 750,000 136349
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 136350
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 136351


       Section 399.10. TOS TREASURER OF STATE136353

General Revenue Fund136354

GRF 090321 Operating Expenses $ 7,743,553 $ 7,743,553 136355
GRF 090401 Office of the Sinking Fund $ 502,304 $ 502,304 136356
GRF 090402 Continuing Education $ 377,702 $ 377,702 136357
GRF 090524 Police and Fire Disability Pension Fund $ 6,000 $ 6,000 136358
GRF 090534 Police and Fire Ad Hoc Cost of Living $ 70,000 $ 70,000 136359
GRF 090554 Police and Fire Survivor Benefits $ 507,000 $ 507,000 136360
GRF 090575 Police and Fire Death Benefits $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 136361
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 29,206,559 $ 29,206,559 136362

General Services Fund Group136363

4E90 090603 Securities Lending Income $ 3,765,000 $ 3,765,000 136364
5770 090605 Investment Pool Reimbursement $ 850,000 $ 850,000 136365
5C50 090602 County Treasurer Education $ 170,057 $ 170,057 136366
6050 090609 Treasurer of State Administrative Fund $ 835,000 $ 835,000 136367
TOTAL GSF General Services 136368
Fund Group $ 5,620,057 $ 5,620,057 136369

Agency Fund Group136370

4250 090635 Tax Refunds $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 136371
TOTAL Agency Fund Group $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 136372
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 40,826,616 $ 40,826,616 136373


       Section 399.20. OFFICE OF THE SINKING FUND136375

       The foregoing appropriation item 090401, Office of the 136376
Sinking Fund, shall be used for costs incurred by or on behalf of 136377
the Commissioners of the Sinking Fund and the Ohio Public 136378
Facilities Commission with respect to State of Ohio general 136379
obligation bonds or notes, and the Treasurer of State with respect 136380
to State of Ohio general obligation and special obligation bonds 136381
or notes, including, but not limited to, printing, advertising, 136382
delivery, rating fees and the procurement of ratings, professional 136383
publications, membership in professional organizations, and other 136384
services referred to in division (D) of section 151.01 of the 136385
Revised Code. The General Revenue Fund shall be reimbursed for 136386
such costs relating to the issuance and administration of Highway 136387
Capital Improvement bonds or notes authorized under Ohio 136388
Constitution, Article VIII, Section 2m and Chapter 151. of the 136389
Revised Code. That reimbursement shall be made from appropriation 136390
item 155902, Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund, by 136391
intrastate transfer voucher pursuant to a certification by the 136392
Office of the Sinking Fund of the actual amounts used. The amounts 136393
necessary to make such a reimbursement are hereby appropriated 136394
from the Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund created 136395
in section 151.06 of the Revised Code.136396

       POLICE AND FIRE DEATH BENEFIT FUND136397

       The foregoing appropriation item 090575, Police and Fire 136398
Death Benefits, shall be disbursed quarterly by the Treasurer of 136399
State at the beginning of each quarter of each fiscal year to the 136400
Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and Fire Pension Fund. The 136401
Treasurer of State shall certify such amounts quarterly to the 136402
Director of Budget and Management. By the twentieth day of June of 136403
each fiscal year, the Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and 136404
Fire Pension Fund shall certify to the Treasurer of State the 136405
amount disbursed in the current fiscal year to make the payments 136406
required by section 742.63 of the Revised Code and shall return to 136407
the Treasurer of State moneys received from this appropriation 136408
item but not disbursed.136409

       TAX REFUNDS136410

       The foregoing appropriation item 090635, Tax Refunds, shall 136411
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 136412
If the Director of Budget and Management determines that 136413
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, such amounts 136414
are hereby appropriated.136415

       Section 401.10. VTO VETERANS' ORGANIZATIONS136416

General Revenue Fund136417

VAP AMERICAN EX-PRISONERS OF WAR
136418

GRF 743501 State Support $ 28,910 $ 28,910 136419

VAN ARMY AND NAVY UNION, USA, INC.
136420

GRF 746501 State Support $ 63,539 $ 63,539 136421

VKW KOREAN WAR VETERANS
136422

GRF 747501 State Support $ 57,118 $ 57,118 136423

VJW JEWISH WAR VETERANS
136424

GRF 748501 State Support $ 34,321 $ 34,321 136425

VCW CATHOLIC WAR VETERANS
136426

GRF 749501 State Support $ 66,978 $ 66,978 136427

VPH MILITARY ORDER OF THE PURPLE HEART
136428

GRF 750501 State Support $ 65,116 $ 65,116 136429

VVV VIETNAM VETERANS OF AMERICA
136430

GRF 751501 State Support $ 214,776 $ 214,776 136431

VAL AMERICAN LEGION OF OHIO
136432

GRF 752501 State Support $ 349,189 $ 349,189 136433

VII AMVETS
136434

GRF 753501 State Support $ 332,547 $ 332,547 136435

VAV DISABLED AMERICAN VETERANS
136436

GRF 754501 State Support $ 249,836 $ 249,836 136437

VMC MARINE CORPS LEAGUE
136438

GRF 756501 State Support $ 133,947 $ 133,947 136439

V37 37TH DIVISION VETERANS' ASSOCIATION
136440

GRF 757501 State Support $ 6,868 $ 6,868 136441

VFW VETERANS OF FOREIGN WARS
136442

GRF 758501 State Support $ 284,841 $ 284,841 136443

TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 136444
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 136445

       RELEASE OF FUNDS136446

       The Director of Budget and Management may release the 136447
foregoing appropriation items 743501, 746501, 747501, 748501, 136448
749501, 750501, 751501, 752501, 753501, 754501, 756501, 757501, 136449
and 758501, State Support.136450

       Section 403.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES136451

General Revenue Fund136452

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 136453
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 136454
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 2,001,823 $ 2,001,823 136455
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 136456
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 37,021,444 $ 39,393,644 136457

General Services Fund Group136458

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 136459
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 136460

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136461

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 684,017 $ 697,682 136462
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 111,822 $ 111,879 136463
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 136464
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 24,887,790 $ 25,634,423 136465
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 136466
Fund Group $ 27,933,629 $ 28,693,984 136467

State Special Revenue Fund Group136468

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,614,652 $ 10,837,435 136469
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 403,663 $ 459,359 136470
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 136471
Fund Group $ 11,018,315 $ 11,296,794 136472

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group136473

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 738,703 $ 629,709 136474
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 14,500,000 $ 9,400,000 136475
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 136476
Afghanistan, and Iraq 136477
Compensation Fund Group $ 15,238,703 $ 10,029,709 136478
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 92,808,985 $ 91,011,025 136479

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 136480
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE136481

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 136482
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 136483
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 136484
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 136485
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 136486
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.136487

       Section 405.10. DVM STATE VETERINARY MEDICAL BOARD136488

General Services Fund Group136489

4K90 888609 Operating Expenses $ 337,432 $ 331,695 136490
5BU0 888602 Veterinary Student Loan Program $ 30,000 $ 30,000 136491
TOTAL GSF General Services 136492
Fund Group $ 367,432 $ 361,695 136493
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 367,432 $ 361,695 136494


       Section 407.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES136496

General Revenue Fund136497

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 166,862,228 $ 166,862,228 136498
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 26,044,800 $ 27,819,700 136499
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 136500
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,583,118 $ 10,583,118 136501
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 11,355,389 $ 11,355,389 136502
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 231,548,263 $ 233,323,163 136503

General Services Fund Group136504

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 3,950,000 $ 3,600,000 136505
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 125,000 $ 125,000 136506
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 250,000 $ 250,000 136507
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 115,000 $ 115,000 136508
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 525,000 $ 525,000 136509
TOTAL GSF General Services 136510
Fund Group $ 4,965,000 $ 4,615,000 136511

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136512

3210 470601 Education $ 1,480,740 $ 1,203,272 136513
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 136514
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,033,947 $ 1,033,947 136515
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 5,755,620 $ 3,714,548 136516
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 20,000 $ 5,000 136517
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 479,900 $ 126,000 136518
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 500,000 $ 105,000 136519
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 600,000 $ 50,000 136520
3GB0 470643 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 13 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 136521
3GC0 470644 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 14 $ 0 $ 135,000 136522
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 1,300,000 $ 1,000,000 136523
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 136524
Fund Group $ 11,605,207 $ 8,272,767 136525

State Special Revenue Fund Group136526

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 136527
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 136528
Fund Group $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 136529
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 249,913,470 $ 248,005,930 136530

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS136531

       For purposes of improving community programs, and 136532
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, of the 136533
foregoing appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, the Department 136534
of Youth Services shall use $8,813,811 in each fiscal year to 136535
expand Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 136536
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.136537

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 136538
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 136539
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 136540
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 136541
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 136542
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 136543
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 136544
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.136545

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS136546

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 136547
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 136548
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 136549
30, 2015, by the Department of Youth Services under the leases and 136550
agreements for facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 136551
Revised Code. This appropriation is the source of funds pledged 136552
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 136553
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.136554

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT136555

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 136556
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 136557
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 136558
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 136559
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 136560
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 136561
capital expenses related to the education program.136562

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT136563

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 136564
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 136565
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 136566
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.136567

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES136568

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 136569
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 136570
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 136571
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 136572
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 136573
authorized by the section of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 136574
General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 136575
FUNDING POOL."136576

       Section 501.10. SCREENING TOOL FOR HIGH-RISK YOUTH TEAM 136577
EVALUATION136578

       The Office of Health Transformation shall convene a team 136579
comprised of the Department of Youth Services, the Department of 136580
Medicaid, the Department of Job and Family Services, the 136581
Department of Health, and the Department of Mental Health and 136582
Addiction Services. The team shall evaluate the feasibility of 136583
implementing a trauma screening tool for high-risk youth and 136584
create a report with the following information: (A) the 136585
recommended trauma screening tool to be used to evaluate high-risk 136586
youth; (B) training in the administration of the recommended tool; 136587
(C) screening protocols; (D) the persons to whom the recommended 136588
tool should apply; and (E) the implications for treatment. The 136589
report shall be completed by December 1, 2013, and shall be 136590
distributed to the Governor. The Department of Youth Services may 136591
receive funds for piloting the recommended tool in detention 136592
centers.136593

       Section 501.20. All items set forth in this section are 136594
hereby appropriated for the biennium ending on June 30, 2015, out 136595
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 136596
Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are not otherwise 136597
appropriated.136598

Appropriations

TOS TREASURER OF STATE
136599

C09001 Treasury Management System $ 10,000,000 136600
TOTAL Treasurer of State $ 10,000,000 136601
TOTAL Administrative Building Fund $ 10,000,000 136602

       The foregoing appropriation item C09001, Treasury Management 136603
System, shall be used to pay costs incurred in the implementation 136604
of the Treasury Management System pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 136605
Revised Code, including, but not limited to, the application 136606
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 136607
thereof, for the use of the Treasurer of State.136608

        The Treasurer of State may acquire and implement a Treasury 136609
Management System pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, 136610
including, but not limited to, the application hardware and 136611
software and the installation and implementation thereof, for the 136612
use of the Treasurer of State. The Treasury Management System is 136613
an integrated treasury technology infrastructure system that will 136614
replace the Treasurer of State's existing separate cash, custody, 136615
investment, and accounting software and administration systems for 136616
the various treasury functions performed by the state. Any 136617
purchase agreement utilized under Chapter 125. of the Revised Code 136618
to finance the Treasury Management System, including any 136619
fractionalized interests therein as defined in division (N) of 136620
section 133.01 of the Revised Code, is limited in amount to not 136621
more than $10,000,000, and shall provide at the point of purchase 136622
that the financed asset becomes the property of the state.136623

        The Treasurer of State is hereby authorized to issue and 136624
sell, in accordance with Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 136625
Constitution, and Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, particularly 136626
section 154.22 of the Revised Code, original obligations in an 136627
aggregate principal amount not to exceed $10,000,000, in addition 136628
to the original issuance of obligations heretofore authorized by 136629
prior acts of the General Assembly. These authorized obligations 136630
shall be issued, subject to applicable constitutional and 136631
statutory limitations, to pay costs associated with previously 136632
authorized capital facilities and the capital facilities referred 136633
to in this section of the act.136634

       Section 503.10. PERSONAL SERVICE EXPENSES136635

       Unless otherwise prohibited by law, any appropriation from 136636
which personal service expenses are paid shall bear the employer's 136637
share of public employees' retirement, workers' compensation, 136638
disabled workers' relief, and insurance programs; and the costs of 136639
centralized financial services, centralized payroll processing, 136640
and related reports and services; centralized human resources 136641
services, including affirmative action and equal employment 136642
opportunity programs; the Office of Collective Bargaining; the 136643
Employee Assistance Program; centralized information technology 136644
management services; administering the enterprise resource 136645
planning system; and administering the state employee merit system 136646
as required by section 124.07 of the Revised Code. These costs 136647
shall be determined in conformity with the appropriate sections of 136648
law and paid in accordance with procedures specified by the Office 136649
of Budget and Management. Expenditures from appropriation item 136650
070601, Public Audit Expense - Intra-State, may be exempted from 136651
the requirements of this section.136652

       Section 503.20. SATISFACTION OF JUDGMENTS AND SETTLEMENTS 136653
AGAINST THE STATE136654

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, an 136655
appropriation in this act or any other act may be used for the 136656
purpose of satisfying judgments, settlements, or administrative 136657
awards ordered or approved by the Court of Claims or by any other 136658
court of competent jurisdiction in connection with civil actions 136659
against the state. This authorization does not apply to 136660
appropriations to be applied to or used for payment of guarantees 136661
by or on behalf of the state, or for payments under lease 136662
agreements relating to, or debt service on, bonds, notes, or other 136663
obligations of the state. Notwithstanding any other statute to the 136664
contrary, this authorization includes appropriations from funds 136665
into which proceeds of direct obligations of the state are 136666
deposited only to the extent that the judgment, settlement, or 136667
administrative award is for, or represents, capital costs for 136668
which the appropriation may otherwise be used and is consistent 136669
with the purpose for which any related obligations were issued or 136670
entered into. Nothing contained in this section is intended to 136671
subject the state to suit in any forum in which it is not 136672
otherwise subject to suit, and is not intended to waive or 136673
compromise any defense or right available to the state in any suit 136674
against it.136675

       Section 503.30. CAPITAL PROJECT SETTLEMENTS136676

       This section specifies an additional and supplemental 136677
procedure to provide for payments of judgments and settlements if 136678
the Director of Budget and Management determines, pursuant to 136679
division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, that 136680
sufficient unencumbered moneys do not exist in the fund to support 136681
a particular appropriation to pay the amount of a final judgment 136682
rendered against the state or a state agency, including the 136683
settlement of a claim approved by a court, in an action upon and 136684
arising out of a contractual obligation for the construction or 136685
improvement of a capital facility if the costs under the contract 136686
were payable in whole or in part from a state capital projects 136687
appropriation. In such a case, the Director may either proceed 136688
pursuant to division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code 136689
or apply to the Controlling Board to increase an appropriation or 136690
create an appropriation out of any unencumbered moneys in the 136691
state treasury to the credit of the capital projects fund from 136692
which the initial state appropriation was made. The amount of an 136693
increase in appropriation or new appropriation approved by the 136694
Controlling Board is hereby appropriated from the applicable 136695
capital projects fund and made available for the payment of the 136696
judgment or settlement.136697

       If the Director does not make the application authorized by 136698
this section or the Controlling Board disapproves the application, 136699
and the Director does not make application under division (C)(4) 136700
of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, the Director shall for the 136701
purpose of making that payment make a request to the General 136702
Assembly as provided for in division (C)(5) of that section.136703

       Section 503.40. RE-ISSUANCE OF VOIDED WARRANTS136704

       In order to provide funds for the reissuance of voided 136705
warrants under section 126.37 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 136706
appropriated, out of moneys in the state treasury from the fund 136707
credited as provided in section 126.37 of the Revised Code, that 136708
amount sufficient to pay such warrants when approved by the Office 136709
of Budget and Management.136710

       Section 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 136711
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS136712

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 136713
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 136714
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 136715
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 136716
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 136717
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 136718
discharging the encumbrance:136719

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 136720
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 136721
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 136722
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 136723
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 136724
the fiscal year;136725

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 136726
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 136727
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 136728
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 136729
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 136730
from the end of the fiscal year;136731

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 136732
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 136733
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;136734

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 136735
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 136736
years.136737

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 136738
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 136739
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 136740
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 136741
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 136742
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 136743
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 136744
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.136745

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 136746
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 136747
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 136748
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 136749
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 136750
reappropriation period.136751

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 136752
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 136753
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 136754
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 136755
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 136756
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 136757
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 136758
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 136759
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 136760
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 136761
encumbrance.136762

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 136763
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 136764
and Management, such as reestablishing encumbrances or 136765
appropriations cancelled in error, during the cancellation of 136766
operating encumbrances in November and of nonoperating 136767
encumbrances in December.136768

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 136769
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state agency 136770
or state institution of higher education, as defined in section 136771
3345.011 of the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year 136772
nonoperating encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The 136773
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.136774

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 136775
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 136776
make that purchase remains encumbered.136777

       Section 503.60. APPROPRIATIONS RELATED TO CASH TRANSFERS AND 136778
RE-ESTABLISHMENT OF ENCUMBRANCES136779

       Any cash transferred by the Director of Budget and Management 136780
under section 126.15 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated. 136781
Any amounts necessary to re-establish appropriations or 136782
encumbrances under section 126.15 of the Revised Code are hereby 136783
appropriated.136784

       Section 503.70. INCOME TAX DISTRIBUTION TO COUNTIES136785

       There are hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state 136786
treasury to the credit of the General Revenue Fund, which are not 136787
otherwise appropriated, funds sufficient to make any payment 136788
required by division (B)(2) of section 5747.03 of the Revised 136789
Code.136790

       Section 503.80. EXPENDITURES AND APPROPRIATION INCREASES 136791
APPROVED BY THE CONTROLLING BOARD136792

       Any money that the Controlling Board approves for expenditure 136793
or any increase in appropriation that the Controlling Board 136794
approves under sections 127.14, 131.35, and 131.39 of the Revised 136795
Code or any other provision of law is hereby appropriated for the 136796
period ending June 30, 2015.136797

       Section 503.90. FUNDS RECEIVED FOR USE OF GOVERNOR'S 136798
RESIDENCE136799

       If the Governor's Residence Fund (Fund 4H20) receives payment 136800
for use of the residence pursuant to section 107.40 of the Revised 136801
Code, the amounts so received are hereby appropriated to 136802
appropriation item 100604, Governor's Residence Gift.136803

       Section 506.10. UTILITY RADIOLOGICAL SAFETY BOARD ASSESSMENTS136804

       Unless the agency and nuclear electric utility mutually agree 136805
to a higher amount by contract, the maximum amounts that may be 136806
assessed against nuclear electric utilities under division (B)(2) 136807
of section 4937.05 of the Revised Code and deposited into the 136808
specified funds are as follows:136809

Fund User FY 2014 FY 2015 136810
Utility Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 4E40) Department of Agriculture $ 130,000 $ 130,000 136811
Radiation Emergency Response Fund (Fund 6100) Department of Health $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 136812
ER Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 6440) Environmental Protection Agency $ 284,266 $ 290,674 136813
Emergency Response Plan Fund (Fund 6570) Department of Public Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 136814

       Section 512.10. TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND OF 136815
INTEREST EARNED136816

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 136817
Director of Budget and Management, through June 30, 2015, may 136818
transfer interest earned by any state fund to the General Revenue 136819
Fund. This section does not apply to funds whose source of revenue 136820
is restricted or protected by the Ohio Constitution, federal tax 136821
law, or the "Cash Management Improvement Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 136822
1058 (1990), 31 U.S.C. 6501 et seq., as amended.136823

       Section 512.20. CASH TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND 136824
FROM NON-GRF FUNDS136825

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 136826
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $60,000,000 136827
in each fiscal year in cash from non-General Revenue Funds that 136828
are not constitutionally restricted to the General Revenue Fund in 136829
order to ensure that available General Revenue Fund receipts and 136830
balances are sufficient to support General Revenue Fund 136831
appropriations in each fiscal year.136832

       Section 512.30. FISCAL YEAR 2013 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 136833
BALANCE136834

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 136835
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 136836
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 136837
June 30, 2013, in excess of the amount required under division 136838
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 136839
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 136840
determined, the following:136841

       (A) To the Disaster Services Fund (Fund 5E20), a cash amount 136842
of up to $15,000,000;136843

       (B) To the Controlling Board Emergency Purposes Fund (Fund 136844
5KM0), a cash amount of up to $20,000,000;136845

       (C) To the Natural Resources Special Purposes Fund (Fund 136846
5MW0), which is hereby created in the state treasury, a cash 136847
amount of up to $12,000,000;136848

       (D) To the Unemployment Compensation Interest Contingency 136849
Fund (Fund 5HC0), a cash amount of up to $120,000,000 for payment 136850
to the United States Secretary of the Treasury of accrued interest 136851
costs related to federal unemployment account borrowing.136852

       Section 512.40.  ACCESS SUCCESS II PROGRAM136853

       To the extent cash is available, the Director of Budget and 136854
Management may transfer cash from the Money Follows the Person 136855
Enhanced Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5AJ0), used by the Department of 136856
Medicaid, to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490), used 136857
by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 136858
transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 136859

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 136860
use the transferred funds to administer the Access Success II 136861
Program to help non-Medicaid patients in any hospital established, 136862
controlled, or supervised by the Department under Chapter 5119. of 136863
the Revised Code to transition from inpatient status to a 136864
community setting. 136865

       Section 512.50. Not later than the first day of September 136866
2013, the Director of Mental Health and the Director of Alcohol 136867
and Drug Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of 136868
Budget and Management the amount of all of the unexpended, 136869
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 136870
to the Department of Mental Health and to the Department of 136871
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services for FY 2012, excluding funds 136872
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio Public Facilities 136873
Commission. On receipt of the certification, the Director of 136874
Budget and Management shall transfer cash to the Department of 136875
Mental Health and Addiction Services Trust Fund created in section 136876
5119.46 of the Revised Code (renumbered section 5119.60 of the 136877
Revised Code in this act) in an amount up to, but not exceeding, 136878
the total amounts certified by the Director of Mental Health and 136879
the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.136880

       Section 512.70. PROHIBITION ON TRANSFERS136881

        Notwithstanding section 131.44 of the Revised Code, cash 136882
shall not be transferred to the Income Tax Reduction Fund prior to 136883
July 1, 2015.136884

       Section 515.40.  The Department of Aging shall use 136885
appropriation item 490627, Board of Executives of LTSS, to spend 136886
cash in the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports 136887
Fund (Fund 5MT0), which is hereby established in the State 136888
Treasury. On the effective date of this section, the Board of 136889
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is renamed the Board of 136890
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of 136891
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' functions and its assets 136892
and liabilities, are transferred to the Board of Executives of 136893
Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of Executives of 136894
Long-Term Services and Supports is successor to, assumes the 136895
obligations and authority of, and otherwise continues the Board of 136896
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators. No right, privilege, or 136897
remedy, and no duty, liability, or obligation, accrued under the 136898
Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is impaired or 136899
lost by reason of the renaming and shall be recognized, 136900
administered, performed, or enforced by the Board of Executives of 136901
Long-Term Services and Supports.136902

       Business commenced but not completed by the Board of 136903
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators or by the Secretary of 136904
the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators shall be 136905
completed by the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 136906
Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136907
Services and Supports in the same manner, and with the same 136908
effect, as if completed by the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 136909
Administrators or by the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 136910
Nursing Home Administrators.136911

       All of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' 136912
rules, orders, and determinations continue in effect as rules, 136913
orders, and determinations of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136914
Services and Supports.136915

       Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 136916
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Board of 136917
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators who provide 136918
administrative, technical, or other services to the Board of 136919
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators on a full-time, permanent 136920
basis shall continue with the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136921
Services and Supports and retain their positions and benefits 136922
accruing thereto, except that those employees in the classified 136923
service shall be reclassified into the unclassified service and 136924
shall serve at the pleasure of the Board.136925

        Notwithstanding section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as 136926
amended by this act, those board members currently serving as 136927
members of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators 136928
on the effective date of this act shall continue to serve as 136929
members of the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 136930
Supports for the remainder of their appointment period, at which 136931
time new members shall be appointed in a manner consistent with 136932
section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.136933

       Within ninety days after the effective date of this act, the 136934
Governor shall appoint to the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136935
Services and Supports those new members who are required to be 136936
appointed under divisions (A)(3) and (6) of section 4751.03 of the 136937
Revised Code, as amended by this act, for terms ending on May 27, 136938
2014. Thereafter, appointment for those members shall be as 136939
provided in section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by 136940
this act.136941

       Whenever the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 136942
Administrators is referred to in statute, contract, or other 136943
instrument, the reference is deemed to refer to the Board of 136944
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports.136945

       No pending action or proceeding being prosecuted or defended 136946
in court or before an agency by the Board of Examiners of Nursing 136947
Home Administrators or the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 136948
Nursing Home Administrators is affected by the renaming and shall 136949
be prosecuted or defended in the name of the Board of Executives 136950
of Long-Term Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board 136951
of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. Upon application 136952
to the court or agency, the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136953
Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives 136954
of Long-Term Services and Supports shall be substituted.136955

       Section 515.50. (A) On July 1, 2013, the eTech Ohio 136956
Commission is renamed and reconstituted as the Broadcast 136957
Educational Media Commission, as described in section 3353.02 of 136958
the Revised Code as amended by this act. The Broadcast Educational 136959
Media Commission is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes 136960
the obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of 136961
the eTech Ohio Commission, for all obligations related to the 136962
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 136963
television, radio, and radio reading services. 136964

       (B) Any business related to the state's educational 136965
television, radio, or radio reading services commenced but not 136966
completed by the eTech Ohio Commission shall be completed by the 136967
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in the same manner, and 136968
with the same effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio 136969
Commission. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 136970
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 136971
renaming, and shall be recognized, administered, performed, or 136972
enforced by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 136973

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 136974
the state's educational broadcasting services, including 136975
educational television, radio, or radio reading services, continue 136976
in effect as rules of the Broadcast Educational Media Commission, 136977
until amended or rescinded by the Broadcast Educational Media 136978
Commission. 136979

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 136980
related to the state's educational broadcasting services, 136981
including educational television, radio, or radio reading 136982
services, in which the eTech Ohio Commission is a party, that is 136983
pending on the effective date of this section is affected by the 136984
renaming. Such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or 136985
defended in the name of the Broadcast Educational Media 136986
Commission. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 136987
Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall be substituted for 136988
the eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 136989

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 136990
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 136991
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 136992
Commission assigned to activities related to the state's 136993
educational broadcasting services, including educational 136994
television, radio, or radio reading services, continue with the 136995
Broadcast Educational Media Commission and retain their positions 136996
and all benefits accruing thereto. 136997

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 136998
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to the 136999
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 137000
television, radio, or radio reading services, assigned to or in 137001
the possession of the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 137002
transferred to the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 137003

       (G) Each current member of the eTech Ohio Commission shall 137004
serve until June 30, 2013. On July 1, 2013, or as soon after July 137005
1, 2013, as possible, each member shall either be reappointed or 137006
replaced by another member to serve on the Educational Media 137007
Commission pursuant to section 3353.02 of the Revised Code, as 137008
amended by this act.137009

       Section 515.51. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities 137010
related to the administration of the Telecommunity Fund and the 137011
Distance Learning Fund, as well as for technology-related teacher 137012
professional development programs, are transferred from the former 137013
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents as 137014
described in sections 3319.235, 3317.50, and 3317.51 of the 137015
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Chancellor is thereupon 137016
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 137017
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 137018
Commission relating to the functions, assets, records, and 137019
obligations relating to these responsibilities. 137020

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 137021
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 137022
completed by the Chancellor in the same manner, and with the same 137023
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 137024
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 137025
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 137026
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 137027
Chancellor. 137028

       (C) All of the rules of the former eTech Ohio Commission 137029
related to these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of 137030
the Chancellor, until amended or rescinded by the Chancellor. 137031

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 137032
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 137033
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 137034
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 137035
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 137036
Chancellor. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 137037
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall be substituted for the 137038
eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 137039

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 137040
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 137041
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 137042
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 137043
Chancellor and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 137044
thereto. 137045

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 137046
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 137047
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 137048
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 137049
Chancellor.137050

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 137051
transferred to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents upon the 137052
reconstitution of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 137053
of H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by 137054
that Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a 137055
bargaining unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 137056
Code, shall continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are 137057
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 137058
Code, and may collectively bargain with the Chancellor in 137059
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 137060
Chancellor after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 137061
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 137062
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 137063
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 137064
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 137065

       Section 515.52. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities of 137066
the former eTech Ohio Commission related to the purchase of 137067
software services and supplies, the redistribution of hardware and 137068
software from closed community schools, and technology-related 137069
teacher professional development programs are transferred from the 137070
former eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education as 137071
described in sections 125.05, 3314.074, and 3319.235 of the 137072
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Department is thereupon 137073
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 137074
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 137075
Commission relating to these responsibilities. 137076

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 137077
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 137078
completed by the Department in the same manner, and with the same 137079
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 137080
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 137081
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 137082
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 137083
Department. 137084

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 137085
these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of the 137086
Department, until amended or rescinded by the Department. 137087

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 137088
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 137089
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 137090
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 137091
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 137092
Department. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 137093
Department of Education shall be substituted for the eTech Ohio 137094
Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 137095

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 137096
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 137097
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 137098
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 137099
Department and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 137100
thereto. 137101

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 137102
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 137103
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 137104
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 137105
Department.137106

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 137107
transferred to the Department of Education upon the reconstitution 137108
of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 of H.B. 59 of 137109
the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by that 137110
Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a bargaining 137111
unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall 137112
continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are public 137113
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and 137114
may collectively bargain with the state Board of Education in 137115
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 137116
Department after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 137117
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 137118
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 137119
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 137120
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 137121

       Section 515.53.  Any duties and responsibilities of the 137122
former eTech Ohio Commission not transferred in accordance with 137123
Sections 515.50, 515.51, and 515.52 of this act are eliminated on 137124
July 1, 2013.137125

       Section 518.10. GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS137126

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 137127
paying debt service and financing costs on general obligation 137128
bonds or notes of the state issued pursuant to the Ohio 137129
Constitution and acts of the General Assembly. If it is determined 137130
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 137131
such amounts are hereby appropriated.137132

       Section 518.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS FOR DEBT SERVICE137133

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 137134
making lease rental payments pursuant to leases and agreements 137135
relating to bonds or notes issued by the Treasurer of State, or 137136
previously by the Ohio Public Facilities Commission or the Ohio 137137
Building Authority, pursuant to the Ohio Constitution and acts of 137138
the General Assembly. If it is determined that additional 137139
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are 137140
hereby appropriated.137141

       Section 518.30. AUTHORIZATION FOR TREASURER OF STATE AND OBM 137142
TO EFFECTUATE CERTAIN DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS137143

       The Office of Budget and Management shall process payments 137144
from general obligation and lease rental payment appropriation 137145
items during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 137146
relating to bonds or notes issued under Sections 2i, 2k, 2l, 2m, 137147
2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, 2r, and 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 137148
Chapters 151., 152., and 154. of the Revised Code. Payments shall 137149
be made upon certification by the Treasurer of State of the dates 137150
and the amounts due on those dates.137151

       Section 521.20. STATEWIDE INDIRECT COST RECOVERY137152

       Whenever the Director of Budget and Management determines 137153
that an appropriation made to a state agency from a fund of the 137154
state is insufficient to provide for the recovery of statewide 137155
indirect costs under section 126.12 of the Revised Code, the 137156
amount required for such purpose is hereby appropriated from the 137157
available receipts of such fund.137158

       Section 521.30.  TRANSFERS ON BEHALF OF THE STATEWIDE 137159
INDIRECT COST ALLOCATION PLAN137160

       The total transfers made from the General Revenue Fund by the 137161
Director of Budget and Management under this section shall not 137162
exceed the amounts transferred into the General Revenue Fund under 137163
section 126.12 of the Revised Code.137164

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 137165
Budget and Management the amount of expenses not allowed to be 137166
included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan under 137167
federal regulations, from any fund included in the Statewide 137168
Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, prepared as required by section 137169
126.12 of the Revised Code.137170

       Upon determining that no alternative source of funding is 137171
available to pay for such expenses, the Director of Budget and 137172
Management may transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund into 137173
the fund for which the certification is made, up to the amount of 137174
the certification. The director of the agency receiving such funds 137175
shall include, as part of the next budget submission prepared 137176
under section 126.02 of the Revised Code, a request for funding 137177
for such activities from an alternative source such that further 137178
federal disallowances would not be required.137179

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 137180
Budget and Management the amount of expenses paid in error from a 137181
fund included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan. The 137182
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash from the fund 137183
from which the expenditure should have been made into the fund 137184
from which the expenses were erroneously paid, up to the amount of 137185
the certification.137186

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 137187
Budget and Management the amount of expenses or revenues not 137188
allowed to be included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation 137189
Plan under federal regulations, for any fund included in the 137190
Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, for which the federal 137191
government requires payment. If the Director of Budget and 137192
Management determines that an appropriation made to a state agency 137193
from a fund of the state is insufficient to pay the amount 137194
required by the federal government, the amount required for such 137195
purpose is hereby appropriated from the available receipts of such 137196
fund, up to the amount of the certification.137197

       Section 521.40. FEDERAL GOVERNMENT INTEREST REQUIREMENTS137198

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, on or 137199
before the first day of September of each fiscal year, the 137200
Director of Budget and Management, in order to reduce the payment 137201
of adjustments to the federal government, as determined by the 137202
plan prepared under division (A) of section 126.12 of the Revised 137203
Code, may designate such funds as the Director considers necessary 137204
to retain their own interest earnings.137205

       Section 521.50. FEDERAL CASH MANAGEMENT IMPROVEMENT ACT137206

       Pursuant to the plan for compliance with the Federal Cash 137207
Management Improvement Act required by section 131.36 of the 137208
Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management may cancel and 137209
re-establish all or part of encumbrances in like amounts within 137210
the funds identified by the plan. The amounts necessary to 137211
re-establish all or part of encumbrances are hereby appropriated.137212

       Section 521.60. FISCAL STABILIZATION AND RECOVERY137213

        To ensure the level of accountability and transparency 137214
required by federal law, the Director of Budget and Management may 137215
issue guidelines to any agency applying for federal money made 137216
available to this state for fiscal stabilization and recovery 137217
purposes, and may prescribe the process by which agencies are to 137218
comply with any reporting requirements established by the federal 137219
government.137220

       Section 605.10. That Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of 137221
the 130th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:137222

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY137223

State Highway Safety Fund Group137224

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 130,559,268 $ 130,418,957 137225
5V10 762682 License Plate Contribution $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 137226
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,055,066 $ 6,999,331 137227
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 2,472,300 $ 2,473,100 137228
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 137229
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 268,232,602 $ 270,232,602 137230
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 137231
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 20,053 $ 20,053 137232
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 300,000 $ 300,000 137233
8310 764608 FARS Grant Federal $ 175,000 $ 175,000 137234
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 137235
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,200,000 $ 5,200,000 137236
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 225,000 $ 225,000 137237
8310 769610 Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 137238
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 750,000 $ 400,000 137239
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 137240
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,274,068 $ 5,274,068 137241
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 137242
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 137243
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 8,500,000 $ 8,500,000 137244
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 641,927 $ 641,927 137245
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 137246
83M0 765624 Operating - EMS $ 3,056,069 $ 3,056,069 137247
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 137248
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 137249
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 137250
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,294,354 $ 1,294,354 137251
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 8,793,865 $ 9,514,236 137252
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 1,047,560 $ 1,084,559 137253
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 650,000 $ 630,000 137254
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 137255
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,280,563 $ 3,280,563 137256
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 16,675,513 $ 16,467,293 137257
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 515,450,460 $ 517,434,364 137258

General Services Fund Group137259

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 900,000 $ 875,000 137260
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 4,250,000 $ 4,250,000 137261
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 850,946 $ 850,946 137262
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,290,946 $ 6,265,946 137263

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group137264

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,413,642 $ 10,413,642 137265
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 137266
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 70,934,765 $ 70,934,765 137267
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 400,000 $ 100,000 137268
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,000,000 $ 300,000 137269
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,350,000 $ 1,325,000 137270
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 830,000 $ 500,000 137271
3FK0 768615 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY11 $ 900,000 $ 900,000 137272
3FP0 767620 Ohio Investigative Unit Justice Contraband $ 55,000 $ 55,000 137273
3FY0 768616 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY12 $ 2,200,000 $ 1,500,000 137274
3FZ0 768617 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY13 $ 7,000,000 $ 2,000,000 137275
3GA0 768618 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY14 $ 0 $ 7,500,000 137276
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 137277
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 137278
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 133,322,715 $ 133,767,715 137279

State Special Revenue Fund Group137280

4V30 763662 Storms/NOAA Maintenance $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 137281
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 150,000 $ 140,000 137282
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 137283
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 137284
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 137285
5CM0 767691 Equitable Share Account $ 300,000 $ 300,000 137286
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 137287
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 137288
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 137289
5ML0 769635 Infrastructure Protection $ 400,000 $ 400,000 137290
5BP0 5NF0 764609 DPS Wireless 911 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 137291
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 325,000 $ 325,000 137292
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 137293
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 137294
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 92,700 $ 92,700 137295
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 15,049,767 $ 15,039,767 137296

Agency Fund Group137297

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 137298
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 137299

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group137300

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 137301
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 137302
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 137303
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 673,558,888 $ 675,952,792 137304

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION137305

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 137306
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 137307
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 137308
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 137309
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 137310
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 137311
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 137312
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 137313
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 137314
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 137315
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 137316
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 137317
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 137318
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 137319
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 137320
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 137321
Vehicles.137322

       OPERATING EXPENSE – BMV137323

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 762321, Operating Expense 137324
– BMV, up to $50,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to pay for 137325
costs associated with improvements to the program to accept 137326
applications for registration transactions of apportionable 137327
vehicles electronically over the internet.137328

       OPERATING EXPENSE - INFORMATION AND EDUCATION137329

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 761321, Operating Expense 137330
– Information and Education, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year 137331
may be used to fund state employees to staff travel information 137332
centers on the border of the state.137333

       The Department of Public Safety shall conduct a study for 137334
partnering with local travel and tourism centers, as well as a 137335
study for the creation of the Ohio Ambassadors Volunteer Program 137336
at rest stops.137337

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS137338

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 137339
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Treasurer of State for 137340
the period July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, under the primary 137341
leases and agreements for public safety related buildings. The 137342
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 137343
charges on obligations pursuant to Chapters 152. and 154. of the 137344
Revised Code.137345

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS137346

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 137347
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 137348
Director of Public Safety, may transfer cash between the following 137349
six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 137350
83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), the Investigations 137351
Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management Agency Service and 137352
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice Program Services Fund 137353
(Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 137354
4W40).137355

       CASH TRANSFER FROM TEEN DRIVER EDUCATION FUND TO LICENSE 137356
PLATE CONTRIBUTION FUND137357

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 137358
Director of Budget and Management may transfer the cash balance in 137359
the Teen Driver Education Fund (Fund 5JS0) to the License Plate 137360
Contribution Fund (Fund 5V10). Upon completion of the transfer, 137361
Fund 5JS0 is hereby abolished.137362

       CASH TRANSFER FROM HILLTOP UTILITY REIMBURSEMENT FUND TO 137363
STATE HIGHWAY SAFETY FUND137364

       Not later than January 1, 2014, the Director of Budget and 137365
Management may transfer the cash balance in the Hilltop Utility 137366
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4S30) to the State Highway Safety Fund 137367
(Fund 7036). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4S30 is hereby 137368
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 137369
against appropriation item 766661, Hilltop Utility Reimbursement, 137370
and reestablish them against appropriation item 761321, Operating 137371
Expense – Information and Education. The reestablished encumbrance 137372
amounts are hereby appropriated.137373

       CASH TRANSFER FROM REGISTRAR RENTAL FUND TO STATE HIGHWAY 137374
SAFETY FUND137375

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 137376
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 137377
in the Registrar Rental Fund (Fund 8380) to the State Bureau of 137378
Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40). Upon completion of the transfer, 137379
Fund 8380 is abolished.137380

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF137381

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 137382
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 137383
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 137384
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 137385
be used for the following purposes:137386

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 137387
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 137388
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 137389
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 137390
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;137391

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 137392
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 137393
deployments;137394

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 137395
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 137396
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 137397
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 137398
originally approved by the Controlling Board.137399

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 137400
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 137401
Relief Program, for disasters that qualify for the program by 137402
written authorization of the Governor, and the State Individual 137403
Assistance Program for disasters that have been declared by the 137404
federal Small Business Administration and that qualify for the 137405
program by written authorization of the Governor. The Ohio 137406
Emergency Management Agency shall publish and make available 137407
application packets outlining procedures for the State Disaster 137408
Relief Program and the State Individual Assistance Program.137409

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND137410

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 137411
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 137412
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 137413
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 137414
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 137415
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.137416

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 137417
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND137418

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 137419
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 137420
$200,000 cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to the 137421
Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 137422
4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban Search 137423
and Rescue Unit, other similar urban search and rescue units 137424
around the state, and for the maintenance of the statewide fire 137425
emergency response plan by an entity recognized by the Ohio 137426
Emergency Management Agency.137427

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND137428

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 137429
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the first $750,000 received to the 137430
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) is 137431
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 137432
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 137433
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years is appropriated to 137434
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 137435
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 137436
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 137437
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 137438
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.137439

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING137440

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 137441
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 137442
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 137443
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.137444

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES137445

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 137446
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 137447
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 137448
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 137449
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 137450
Management, authorize expenditures in excess of appropriations and 137451
transfer appropriations, as necessary, for any fund used by the 137452
Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 137453
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 137454
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 137455
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 137456
the Revised Code. Any money approved for expenditure under this 137457
paragraph is hereby appropriated.137458

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW137459

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 137460
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 137461
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 137462
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 137463
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 137464
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 137465
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.137466

       AUTO REGISTRATION DISTRIBUTION FUND137467

       Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 4501.03 137468
of the Revised Code and the enactment by this act of section 137469
4501.031 of the Revised Code, any license tax assessed under 137470
Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code, and derived from 137471
registrations processed on business days prior to July 1, 2013, 137472
shall be deposited to the state treasury to the credit of the Auto 137473
Registration Distribution Fund (Fund 7051) created by section 137474
4501.03 of the Revised Code, even if such deposit does not occur 137475
until on or after July 1, 2013. All license tax assessed on 137476
registrations under Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code 137477
prior to July 1, 2013, shall be deposited, and distributed, in 137478
accordance with sections 4501.03, 4501.04, 4501.041, 4501.042, and 137479
4501.043 of the Revised Code as they existed prior to the 137480
amendments to those sections by this act.137481

       Section 605.11. That existing Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 137482
51 of the 130th General Assembly is hereby repealed.137483

       Section 610.10.  That Sections 201.80 and 509.40 of Sub. H.B. 137484
482 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:137485

       Sec. 201.80. All items set forth in this section are hereby 137486
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 137487
of the School Building Program Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), that 137488
are not otherwise appropriated.137489

Appropriations

SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION
137490

C23002 School Building Program Assistance $ 425,000,000 413,000,000 137491
C23020 School Security Grant Program $ 12,000,000 137492
Total School Facilities Commission $ 425,000,000 137493
TOTAL School Building Program Assistance Fund $ 425,000,000 137494

       SCHOOL BUILDING PROGRAM ASSISTANCE137495

       The foregoing appropriation item C23002, School Building 137496
Program Assistance, shall be used by the School Facilities 137497
Commission to provide funding to school districts that receive 137498
conditional approval from the Commission pursuant to Chapter 3318. 137499
of the Revised Code.137500

       SCHOOL SECURITY GRANT PROGRAM137501

       The foregoing appropriation item C23020, School Security 137502
Grant Program, shall be used by the School Facilities Commission 137503
to provide funding to all public schools for school security 137504
expenditures including the purchase and installation of one 137505
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System unit per school building 137506
and a security door system, consisting of a security camera, an 137507
intercom, and remote access, at one entrance per school building. 137508
A school may apply to the School Facilities Commission for 137509
reimbursement up to $2,000 for one Multi-Agency Radio 137510
Communications System Unit per school building and up to $5,000 137511
for costs incurred with the purchase of a security door system 137512
installed on or after January 1, 2013.137513

       Sec. 509.40. AGENCY ADMINISTRATION OF CAPITAL FACILITIES 137514
PROJECTS137515

        Notwithstanding sections 123.01 and 123.15section 123.21 of 137516
the Revised Code, the Executive Director of Administrative 137517
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may authorize 137518
the Departments of Mental Health, Developmental Disabilities, 137519
Agriculture, Job and Family Services, Rehabilitation and 137520
Correction, Youth Services, Public Safety, Transportation, and137521
Veterans Services, and the Bureau of Workers' Compensation to 137522
administer any capital facilities projects, the estimated cost of 137523
which, including design fees, construction, equipment, and 137524
contingency amounts, is less than $1,500,000. Requests for 137525
authorization to administer capital facilities projects shall be 137526
made in writing to the Director of Administrative Servicesthrough 137527
the OAKS-CI application by the applicable state agency within 137528
sixty days after the effective date of the section of law in which 137529
the General Assembly initially makes an appropriation for the 137530
project. Upon the release of funds for the projects by the 137531
Controlling Board or the Director of Budget and Management, the 137532
agency may administer the capital project or projects for which 137533
agency administration has been authorized without the supervision, 137534
control, or approval of the Executive Director of Administrative 137535
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.137536

        A state agency authorized by the Executive Director of 137537
Administrative Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction 137538
Commission to administer capital facilities projects pursuant to 137539
this section shall comply with the applicable procedures and 137540
guidelines established in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code and 137541
shall track all project information in OAKS-CI pursuant to Ohio 137542
Facilities Construction Commission guidelines.137543

       Section 610.11.  That existing Sections 201.80 and 509.40 of 137544
Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby repealed.137545

       Section 610.20. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 137546
General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th 137547
General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:137548

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 137549
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 137550
31, 2016:137551

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 137552
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 137553
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 137554
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 137555
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 137556
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor Office of Enterprise Development Advisory Board 5145.162 137557
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 137558
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 137559
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 137560
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 137561
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 137562
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 137563
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 137564
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 137565
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 137566
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 137567
Banking Commission 1123.01 137568
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 137569
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 137570
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 137571
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 137572
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 137573
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 137574
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 137575
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 137576
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 137577
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 137578
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 137579
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 137580
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 137581
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 137582
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 137583
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 137584
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 137585
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 137586
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 137587
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 137588
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 137589
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 137590
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Rehabilitation Services Commission 3304.24 137591
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 137592
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 137593
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 137594
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 137595
Credential Review Board 3319.65 137596
Credit Union Council 1733.329 137597
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 137598
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 137599
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 137600
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 137601
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 137602
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 137603
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 137604
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 137605
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 137606
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 137607
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 137608
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 137609
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 137610
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 137611
eTech Ohio Broadcast Educational Media Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 137612
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 137613
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 137614
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 137615
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 137616
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 137617
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 137618
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 137619
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 137620
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 137621
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 137622
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 137623
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 137624
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 137625
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 137626
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 137627
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 137628
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 137629
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 137630
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 137631
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 137632
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 137633
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 137634
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 137635
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 137636
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 137637
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 137638
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 137639
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 137640
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 137641
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 137642
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 137643
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 137644
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 137645
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 137646
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 137647
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 137648
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 137649
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 137650
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 137651
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 137652
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 137653
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 137654
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 137655
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 137656
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 137657
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 137658
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 137659
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 137660
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 137661
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 137662
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 137663
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 137664
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 137665
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 137666
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 137667
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 137668
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 137669
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 137670
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 137671
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 137672
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 137673
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 137674
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 137675
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 137676
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 137677
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 137678
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 137679
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 137680
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 137681
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 137682
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 137683
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 137684
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 137685
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 137686
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 137687
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 137688
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 137689
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 137690
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 137691
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 137692
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 137693
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 137694
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 137695
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 137696
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services Medicaid 5111.084 5164.7510 137697
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 137698
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 137699
Power Siting Board 4906.02 137700
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 137701
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 137702
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 137703
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 137704
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 137705
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 137706
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 137707
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 137708
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 137709
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 137710
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 137711
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 137712
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 137713
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 137714
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 137715
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 137716
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 137717
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 137718
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 137719
State Audit Committee 126.46 137720
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 137721
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 137722
State Fire Council 3737.81 137723
State Library Board 3375.01 137724
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 137725
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 137726
STEM Committee 3326.02 137727
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 137728
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 137729
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 137730
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 137731
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 137732
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 137733
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 137734
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 137735
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 137736
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 137737
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 137738
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 137739
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 137740
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 137741
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 137742

       Section 610.21. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 137743
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 137744
129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.137745

       Section 620.10. That Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 137746
128th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:137747

       Sec. 105.05. Section 121.53 of the Revised Code is hereby 137748
repealed, effective SeptemberJune 30, 20132014.137749

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 137750
2 of the 128th General Assembly is hereby repealed.137751

       Section 630.10. All items set forth in this section are 137752
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 137753
credit of the Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are 137754
not otherwise appropriated for the biennium ending June 30, 2014:137755

Appropriations

DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY
137756

C19506 Children's Home $ 100,000 137757
Total Development Services Agency $ 100,000 137758

       CHILDREN'S HOME137759

       The foregoing appropriation item C19506, Children's Home, 137760
shall be used for the Children's Home of Cincinnati.137761

       Section 630.11. That Sections 203.90.10 and 203.90.20 of Sub. 137762
S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as 137763
follows:137764

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.10.  DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH137765

C58000 Hazardous Materials Abatement $ 118,750 137766
C58001 Community Assistance Projects $ 332,500 232,500 137767
C58002 Campus Consolidation - Automation $ 95,000 137768
C58004 Demolition $ 142,500 137769
C58005 Life Safety/Critical Plant Renovations $ 23,750 137770
C58006 Patient Care/Environment Improvement $ 285,000 137771
C58007 Infrastructure Renovations $ 475,000 137772
C58008 Emergency Improvements $ 285,000 137773
C58009 Patient Environment Improvement Consolidation $ 1,000 137774
C58010 Campus Consolidation $ 23,750,000 137775
C58020 Mandel Jewish Community Center $ 199,500 137776
Total Department of Mental Health $ 25,708,000 25,608,000 137777

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS137778

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C58001, Community 137779
Assistance Projects, $100,000 shall be used for the Children's 137780
Home of Cincinnati, $100,000 shall be used for the Shaw JCC, and 137781
$300,000 shall be used for the Berea Children's Home.137782

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137783
item C58001, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered 137784
unallotted balance, as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137785
C58001, Community Assistance Projects, plus $1,096,159.42. Prior 137786
to the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 137787
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 137788
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $1,096,159.42.137789

        INFRASTRUCTURE RENOVATIONS137790

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137791
item C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, is the unencumbered and 137792
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137793
C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, plus $2,995,450.24. Prior to 137794
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 137795
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 137796
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $2,995,450.24.137797

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.20.  DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES137798

C59004 Community Assistance Projects $ 13,913,599 137799
C59029 Emergency Generator Replacement $ 460,362 137800
C59034 Statewide Developmental Centers $ 1,407,067 137801
C59050 Emergency Improvements $ 484,984 137802
C59051 Energy Conservation $ 430,500 137803
C59055 Camp McKinley Improvements $ 30,000 137804
C59056 The Hope Learning Center $ 250,000 137805
TOTAL Department of Developmental Disabilities $ 16,976,512 137806
TOTAL Mental Health Facilities Improvement Fund $ 42,684,512 42,584,512 137807

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS137808

       The foregoing appropriation item C59004, Community Assistance 137809
Projects, may be used to provide community assistance funds for 137810
the construction or renovation of facilities for day programs or 137811
residential programs that provide services to persons eligible for 137812
services from the Department of Developmental Disabilities or 137813
county boards of developmental disabilities.137814

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137815
item C59004, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered, 137816
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137817
C59004, Community Assistance Projects, plus $8,326,255. Prior to 137818
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 137819
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 137820
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 137821
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 137822
$8,326,255.137823

        STATEWIDE DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS137824

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137825
item C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, is the unencumbered, 137826
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137827
C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, plus $167,912. Prior to 137828
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 137829
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 137830
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 137831
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 137832
$167,912.137833

       Section 630.12. That existing Sections 203.90.10 and 137834
203.90.20 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly are 137835
hereby repealed.137836

       Section 701.10. EXEMPT EMPLOYEE CONSENT TO CERTAIN DUTIES137837

        As used in this section, "appointing authority" has the same 137838
meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised Code, and "exempt 137839
employee" has the same meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised 137840
Code.137841

        Notwithstanding section 124.181 of the Revised Code, in cases 137842
where no vacancy exists, an appointing authority may, with the 137843
written consent of an exempt employee, assign duties of a higher 137844
classification to that exempt employee for a period of time not to 137845
exceed two years, and that exempt employee shall receive 137846
compensation at a rate commensurate with the duties of the higher 137847
classification.137848

       Section 701.20. (A) There is hereby created the Legislative 137849
Study Committee on Clean Ohio and Brownfield Funding. The 137850
Committee shall study how to provide long-term funding for the 137851
Clean Ohio brownfield revitalization, conservation, agricultural 137852
easements, and recreational trails programs. 137853

       (B) The Committee shall consist of the following members:137854

       (1) Three members of the House of Representatives, appointed 137855
by the Speaker of the House;137856

       (2) Three members of the House of Representatives, appointed 137857
by the Minority Leader of the House;137858

       (3) Three members of the Senate, appointed by the President 137859
of the Senate;137860

       (4) Three members of the Senate, appointed by the Minority 137861
Leader of the Senate.137862

       Members of the Committee shall serve without additional 137863
compensation beyond the compensation received for their service in 137864
the General Assembly. Members may be reimbursed for actual and 137865
necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of Committee business.137866

       (C) Appointments to the Committee shall be made not later 137867
than thirty days after the effective date of this section. 137868
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original 137869
appointment. 137870

       (D) The Committee shall hold its first meeting not later than 137871
forty-five days after the effective date of this section and shall 137872
meet at least once per month thereafter. 137873

       (E) A majority of the Committee constitutes a quorum and the 137874
affirmative vote of a majority of Committee members is required 137875
for the conduct of Committee business.137876

       (F) The Committee shall choose from among its members two 137877
co-chairpersons. One co-chairperson shall be a member of the House 137878
of Representatives and one co-chairperson shall be a member of the 137879
Senate. One co-chairperson shall represent the majority political 137880
party and one co-chairperson shall represent the minority 137881
political party.137882

       (G) The Legislative Service Commission shall provide research 137883
support to the Committee and Commission employees shall attend all 137884
Committee meetings. 137885

       (H) Not later than March 1, 2014, the Committee shall submit 137886
a report of its findings and its funding recommendations to the 137887
Governor, Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of 137888
Representatives, and President and Minority Leader of the Senate. 137889
After submission of the report, the Committee shall cease to 137890
exist.137891

       Section 715.10.  Two years after the amendments to section 137892
1501.011 of the Revised Code by this act take effect, the Ohio 137893
Facilities Construction Commission and the Department of Natural 137894
Resources shall review division (C) of that section.137895

       Section 733.10. Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the 137896
Revised Code, as amended by this act, to determine whether a 137897
school district satisfied the minimum school year in the 2013-2014 137898
school year in order to qualify for state funding under Chapter 137899
3317. of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2015, the Department of 137900
Education shall apply the criteria prescribed in the version of 137901
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in effect 137902
prior to July 1, 2014.137903

       Section 733.20.  The General Assembly hereby declares its 137904
intent, in enacting section 3319.031 of the Revised Code, to 137905
supersede any effect of the decision of the Court of Appeals of 137906
the Eighth Appellate District in OAPSE/AFSCME Local 4 v. Berdine, 137907
174 Ohio App.3d 46 (Cuyahoga County, 2007) to the extent the 137908
decision conflicts with the principle that boards of education may 137909
appoint a licensed business manager, but also may determine 137910
instead to assign the roles and functions of a business manager to 137911
one or more employees or officers of the board, including the 137912
treasurer, in the board's sole discretion.137913

       Section 733.40. (A) The Superintendent of Public Instruction 137914
shall appoint three incorporators who are knowledgeable about the 137915
administration of public schools and about the operation of 137916
nonprofit corporations in Ohio.137917

        (B) The incorporators shall do whatever is necessary and 137918
proper to set up a nonprofit corporation under Chapter 1702. of 137919
the Revised Code. The articles of incorporation, in addition to 137920
meeting the requirements of section 1702.04 of the Revised Code, 137921
shall set forth the following provisions:137922

        (1) That the nonprofit corporation is to create and implement 137923
a pilot program that provides an alternative path for individuals 137924
to receive training and development in the administration of 137925
primary and secondary education and leadership, that will enable 137926
these individuals to earn a degree in public school 137927
administration, that will enable these individuals to obtain 137928
licenses in public school administration, and that promotes the 137929
placement of these individuals in public schools that have a 137930
poverty percentage greater than fifty per cent.137931

        (2) That the Board of Directors are to establish criteria for 137932
program costs, participant selection, and continued participation, 137933
and metrics to document and measure pilot program activities.137934

       (3) That the name of the nonprofit corporation is "New 137935
Leaders for Ohio Schools."137936

       (4) That the Board of Directors is to consist of the 137937
following eight directors:137938

        (a) The Governor or the Governor's designee;137939

        (b) The Superintendent of Public Instruction, or the 137940
Superintendent's designee;137941

        (c) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents, or the 137942
Chancellor's designee;137943

        (d) A person to represent major business enterprises in Ohio;137944

        (e) Two individuals appointed by the Speaker of the House of 137945
Representatives, one of whom shall be an active duty or retired 137946
military officer;137947

        (f) Two individuals appointed by the President of the Senate, 137948
one of whom shall be a current or retired teacher or principal.137949

        The Dean of The Ohio State University Fisher College of 137950
Business and the Dean of The Ohio State University College of 137951
Education and Human Ecology are to serve as ex-officio nonvoting 137952
members of the Board.137953

       The person on the Board who represents a major business 137954
enterprise in Ohio is to be appointed by an organization selected 137955
by the Governor. The organization is to be nonpartisan and consist 137956
of chief executive officers of corporations organized in Ohio. 137957

       (5) That the Board is to appoint a President of the 137958
corporation.137959

       (6) That the President of the Corporation, subject to the 137960
approval of the Board, is to enter into a contract with The Ohio 137961
State University Fisher College of Business. Under the contract, 137962
the College is to provide oversight to the corporation, is to 137963
serve as fiscal agent for the corporation, and is to provide the 137964
corporation with office space, and with office furniture and 137965
equipment, as is necessary for the corporation successfully to 137966
fulfill its duties.137967

        (7) That the administrative costs of the corporation are not 137968
to exceed fifteen per cent of the annual budget of the 137969
corporation.137970

        (8) That the President is to apply for, and is to receive and 137971
accept, grants, gifts, bequests, and contributions from private 137972
sources.137973

       (9) That the corporation is to submit an annual report to the 137974
General Assembly and Governor beginning December 31, 2013.137975

       (10) That the corporation shall cease operations on the date 137976
that is five years after the effective date of this section and 137977
proceed to wind up its affairs.137978

       Section 751.10.  RECOVERY REQUIRES A COMMUNITY PROGRAM137979

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, in 137980
consultation with the Department of Medicaid, shall administer the 137981
Recovery Requires a Community Program to identify individuals 137982
residing in nursing facilities who can be successfully moved into 137983
a community setting with the aid of community non-Medicaid 137984
services. 137985

       The Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services and the 137986
Medicaid Director shall agree upon an amount representing the 137987
savings realized from decreased nursing facility utilization to be 137988
transferred within the biennium from the Department of Medicaid to 137989
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to support 137990
non-Medicaid program costs for individuals moving into community 137991
settings.137992

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 137993
Care Services, the Medicaid Director shall transfer the amount 137994
agreed upon representing the savings from the General Revenue Fund 137995
to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490). The transfer 137996
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. The 137997
transferred cash is hereby appropriated to appropriation item 137998
335609, Community Operating/Planning. 137999

       Section 751.40.  (A) The Workforce Training Pilot Program for 138000
the Economically Disadvantaged is hereby established to provide 138001
grants to provide training in life and technical skills. The 138002
Director of Job and Family Services shall administer the Pilot 138003
Program for a period of two years, beginning July 1, 2013.138004

       (B) The Director of Job and Family Services, in consultation 138005
with the Director of Development Services and JobsOhio, shall 138006
issue a request for proposals to allow an entity to receive a 138007
grant under this section to create and administer a demonstration 138008
project in the field of workforce development. The demonstration 138009
project shall provide training to those individuals located in the 138010
region described in division (C) of this section where the project 138011
is located who the applicant determines are economically 138012
disadvantaged. The request for proposals shall include all of the 138013
following requirements:138014

       (1) That the applicant shall include in the proposal a 138015
description of the manner in which the applicant will determine 138016
whether an individual is economically disadvantaged;138017

       (2) That the demonstration project shall provide life skills 138018
training, to assist an individual to develop character traits 138019
necessary to obtain employment, and technical, field-related 138020
training;138021

       (3) That the applicant is collaborating with an organization 138022
in the region described in division (C) of this section where the 138023
project is located and at least one community-based nonprofit 138024
organization that has experience in life-skill support services 138025
and workforce development;138026

       (4) That the applicant satisfies any other requirements 138027
established in the request for proposals.138028

       (C)(1) The Director of Job and Family Services, in 138029
consultation with the Director of Development Services and 138030
JobsOhio, shall award a grant in fiscal year 2014 for a 138031
demonstration project described in division (B) of this section in 138032
each of the following regions of the state:138033

       (a) The counties of Allen, Crawford, Defiance, Fulton, 138034
Hancock, Hardin, Henry, Lucas, Ottawa, Paulding, Putnam, Sandusky, 138035
Seneca, Van Wert, Williams, Wood, and Wyandot;138036

       (b) The counties of Ashland, Ashtabula, Columbiana, Cuyahoga, 138037
Erie, Geauga, Huron, Lake, Lorain, Mahoning, Medina, Portage, 138038
Richland, Stark, Summit, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, and Wayne;138039

       (c) The counties of Auglaize, Champaign, Clark, Clinton, 138040
Darke, Fayette, Greene, Mercer, Miami, Montgomery, Preble, and 138041
Shelby;138042

       (d) The counties of Delaware, Fairfield, Franklin, Knox, 138043
Licking, Logan, Madison, Marion, Morrow, Pickaway, and Union;138044

       (e) The counties of Adams, Athens, Belmont, Carroll, 138045
Coshocton, Gallia, Guernsey, Harrison, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, 138046
Jackson, Jefferson, Lawrence, Meigs, Monroe, Morgan, Muskingum, 138047
Noble, Perry, Pike, Ross, Scioto, Vinton, and Washington;138048

       (f) The counties of Brown, Butler, Clermont, Hamilton, and 138049
Warren.138050

       (2) The Director of Job and Family Services may award a grant 138051
to one or two demonstration projects located in a region described 138052
in division (C)(1) of this section, however, no region shall 138053
receive more than one million dollars in grant funding under this 138054
section.138055

       (D) The Director of Job and Family Services shall adopt rules 138056
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish 138057
reporting requirements for grant recipients under this section. 138058
Those rules shall require a grant recipient to report on the 138059
successful completion rate of project participants, rate of job 138060
placement of participants, tracking of participant's employment 138061
after completion of the project, and any other information 138062
requested by the Director. The Director shall require grant 138063
recipients to report this information during the two-year Pilot 138064
Program and to submit a final report upon the expiration of the 138065
Pilot Program. A grant recipient shall comply with rules adopted 138066
by the Director.138067

       (E) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 138068
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $8,000,000 cash 138069
from the Economic Development Projects Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by 138070
the Board of Regents to the Training Activities Fund (Fund 6130) 138071
used by the Department of Job and Family Services. The transferred 138072
funds shall be used for the Pilot Program established in this 138073
section.138074

       Section 755.10. There is hereby created the License Plate 138075
Safety Task Force. The Task Force shall consist of eight members: 138076
three members appointed by the President of the Senate, one member 138077
appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, three members 138078
appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and one 138079
member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of 138080
Representatives. At least five members shall represent law 138081
enforcement.138082

        The Task Force shall examine the extent of license plate 138083
degradation over time and the impediments to law enforcement 138084
efforts caused by illegible license plates resulting from 138085
degradation. The Task Force also shall examine whether having dual 138086
license plates is beneficial to law enforcement officers and 138087
determine whether the state should continue its dual plate 138088
requirement. Not later than December 31, 2013, the Task Force 138089
shall issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 138090
Governor, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the 138091
Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 138092
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives. At that time, the 138093
Task Force shall cease to exist.138094

       Section 757.10.  MINIMUM DISTRIBUTION OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT 138095
FUND138096

       Notwithstanding any provision of section 131.51 of the 138097
Revised Code to the contrary, from revenue arising from the 138098
personal income tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised 138099
Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the amount 138100
credited to the Local Government Fund in July 2012 shall be 138101
credited to such fund in July 2013. In July 2013 each county 138102
undivided local government fund shall receive the same amount it 138103
received in July 2012. In July 2013 each municipal corporation 138104
shall receive the same amount it directly received from the Local 138105
Government Fund in July 2012.138106

       Section 757.20. (A) On or before June 15, 2014, the Director 138107
of the Ohio Public Works Commission shall certify to the Director 138108
of Budget and Management the amount of debt service paid from the 138109
General Revenue Fund in fiscal years 2013 and 2014 on bonds issued 138110
to finance or assist in the financing of the cost of local 138111
subdivision public infrastructure capital improvement projects, as 138112
provided for in Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 138113
Constitution, that are attributable to costs for construction, 138114
reconstruction, maintenance, or repair of public highways and 138115
bridges and other statutory highway purposes. That certification 138116
shall allocate the total amount of debt service paid from the 138117
General Revenue Fund and attributable to those costs in each of 138118
fiscal years 2013 and 2014 according to the applicable section of 138119
the Ohio Constitution under which the bonds were originally 138120
issued.138121

        (B) On or before June 15, 2015, the Director of the Ohio 138122
Public Works Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget 138123
and Management the amount of debt service paid from the General 138124
Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2015 on bonds issued to finance or 138125
assist in the financing of the cost of local subdivision public 138126
infrastructure capital improvement projects, as provided for in 138127
Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, that 138128
are attributable to costs for construction, reconstruction, 138129
maintenance, or repair of public highways and bridges and other 138130
statutory highway purposes. That certification shall allocate the 138131
total amount of debt service paid from the General Revenue Fund 138132
and attributable to those costs in fiscal year 2015 according to 138133
the applicable section of the Ohio Constitution under which the 138134
bonds were originally issued.138135

        (C) On or before June 30 of each fiscal year, the Director of 138136
Budget and Management shall determine an amount up to but not 138137
exceeding the amount certified under division (A) or (B) of this 138138
section and shall reserve that amount from the cash balance in the 138139
Commercial Activity Tax Motor Fuel Receipts Fund for transfer to 138140
the General Revenue Fund at times and in amounts to be determined 138141
by the Director. The Director shall transfer the cash balance in 138142
the Commercial Activity Tax Motor Fuel Receipts Fund in excess of 138143
the amount so reserved to the Highway Operating Fund on or before 138144
June 30 of each fiscal year.138145

       Section 757.30. (A) There is hereby created the Commercial 138146
Activity Tax Review Committee to review and make recommendations 138147
for reforming and improving the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of 138148
the Revised Code. The committee shall be composed of the following 138149
members:138150

        (1) The chair of the standing committee of the House of 138151
Representatives that deals primarily with issues of taxation;138152

        (2) The chair of the standing committee of the Senate that 138153
deals primarily with issues of taxation;138154

        (3) Three members of the House of Representatives appointed 138155
by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, two of whom shall 138156
be members of the minority party; and138157

        (4) Three members of the Senate appointed by the President of 138158
the Senate, two of whom shall be members of the minority party.138159

        (B) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall be 138160
jointly chaired by the members described in divisions (A)(1) and 138161
(2) of this section. The committee shall meet monthly, beginning 138162
in July 2013, at the call of the chairs and may accept testimony. 138163
The committee is a public body for the purposes of section 121.22 138164
of the Revised Code.138165

       The committee shall, on or before October 31, 2013, submit a 138166
report with the committee's recommendations to the Governor, the 138167
Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and 138168
the President and Minority Leader of the Senate.138169

        (C) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall cease 138170
to exist after October 31, 2013.138171

       Section 757.40. The purpose of section 3735.661 of the 138172
Revised Code is to clarify the intent of the General Assembly that 138173
"first two amendments," as used in division (B) of Section 3 of 138174
Am. Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th General Assembly, has, on and after 138175
July 22, 1994, referred and continues to refer to only a 138176
substantive amendment to a community reinvestment area ordinance 138177
or resolution that extends, expands, increases, or otherwise 138178
broadens the availability of tax exemptions provided under the 138179
ordinance or resolution and does not refer to an amendment that 138180
decreases or otherwise limits the availability of tax exemptions 138181
under the ordinance or resolution or that are procedural or 138182
administrative. Therefore, section 3735.661 of the Revised Code 138183
applies retroactively to ordinances and resolutions adopted under 138184
section 3735.66 of the Revised Code before and after the effective 138185
date of section 3735.661 of the Revised Code.138186

       Section 757.50.  The amendment by this act of divisions (R), 138187
(S), and (T) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.03 of the Revised 138188
Code and the enactment of section 5741.032 of the Revised Code are 138189
hereby effectuated with the intent that if the United States 138190
Congress enacts the Marketplace Fairness Act of 2013, or other 138191
similar legislation authorizing states to require sellers that 138192
lack a substantial nexus with the state to pay, collect, or remit 138193
sales or use tax, the General Assembly shall adopt, before the 138194
effective date of such federal legislation, any conforming 138195
amendments required by such federal legislation and requiring the 138196
Tax Commissioner to adopt rules necessary to effectively 138197
administer such taxes with respect to remote sellers, as defined 138198
in division (S) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code.138199

       This section is not intended to create a nexus between this 138200
state and remote sellers for any tax other than those imposed 138201
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 138202

       Section 803.10. An investor who is issued a tax credit 138203
certificate under section 122.152 of the Revised Code prior to 138204
that section's repeal by this act may continue to claim that 138205
credit in the manner provided for in that section.138206

       Section 803.20. The member of the Farmland Preservation 138207
Advisory Board appointed under division (A)(4) of section 901.23 138208
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to its 138209
amendment by this act, who is serving on the effective date of 138210
this act shall continue to serve until the expiration of the term 138211
for which the member was appointed. At the end of that term, a 138212
member shall be appointed in accordance with division (A)(4) of 138213
that section as amended by this act.138214

       Section 803.30.  A member of the technical advisory committee 138215
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 138216
act, who was appointed by the Director of the Ohio Coal 138217
Development Office and who is serving on the committee immediately 138218
prior to the effective date of the amendments to that section 138219
shall continue in office until the expiration of the member's 138220
term. Thereafter, the appointment of a member for that position on 138221
the committee shall be made in accordance with the amendments to 138222
that section by this act.138223

       Section 803.50. The amendments to sections 3313.48, 3313.533, 138224
3313.62, 3317.01, and 3321.05; the repeal and reenactment of 138225
section 3313.481; and the repeal of section 3313.482 of the 138226
Revised Code made by this act do not apply to any collective 138227
bargaining agreement executed under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 138228
Code prior to July 1, 2014. Any collective bargaining agreement or 138229
renewal executed after that date shall comply with the changes 138230
provided for in this act.138231

       Section 803.60. (A) As used in this section:138232

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 138233
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.138234

       (2) "Career-technical planning district" has the same meaning 138235
as in section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.138236

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code or the 138237
amendment of sections in that chapter by this act shall be 138238
construed to infringe upon or require the alteration of any 138239
existing or future articulation agreement for technical coursework 138240
offered through state-approved career-technical programs of study 138241
or any corresponding payment structure between any state 138242
institution of higher education and a career-technical planning 138243
district.138244

       The Department of Education and the Board of Regents shall 138245
study the implications of applying the changes in Chapter 3365. of 138246
the Revised Code to articulation agreements for technical 138247
coursework offered through state-approved career-technical 138248
programs of study. The Department and the Board also shall make 138249
recommendations on how such career-technical programs of study 138250
might be included under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and the 138251
implications of including them. These recommendations shall be 138252
submitted to the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education and 138253
the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the 138254
Revised Code, not later than July 1, 2014.138255

       Section 803.80. (A) The amendment by this act of section 138256
5747.01 of the Revised Code, amending or enacting divisions 138257
(A)(26) and (GG) of that section, applies to taxable years ending 138258
on or after the effective date of this section.138259

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5747.022 and 138260
division (A) of section 5747.025 of the Revised Code applies to 138261
taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2013.138262

       (C) The amendment by this act of division (C) of section 138263
5747.025, and of sections 5747.02, 5747.08, and 5747.21, and the 138264
repeal of section 5747.211 of the Revised Code apply to taxable 138265
years beginning on or after January 1, 2013.138266

       Section 803.90. (A) The amendment by this act of section 138267
5751.01 of the Revised Code applies to tax periods ending on or 138268
after the effective date of that amendment.138269

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5751.07 of Revised 138270
Code applies to original returns filed on or after January 1, 138271
2014.138272

       Section 803.120. (A) The amendment by this act of section 138273
1509.50, division (C)(12) of section 5703.21, section 5749.02, 138274
divisions (D), (F), (H), and (I) of section 5749.06, and section 138275
5749.17 of the Revised Code applies to calendar quarters beginning 138276
on or after October 1, 2013.138277

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 113.061 and division 138278
(G) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code applies to the 138279
severance of natural resources occurring in calendar quarters 138280
beginning on or after January 1, 2014.138281

       Section 803.150.  A proposal approved by a board of county 138282
commissioners under section 317.321 of the Revised Code as it 138283
existed before the date of the amendment of that section by this 138284
act continues in effect for the number of years approved by the 138285
board of county commissioners under that section. The special fund 138286
established at the request of the board under that section ceases 138287
to exist upon the expiration of the proposal.138288

       Section 803.160. (A) References to the Ohio Cooperative 138289
Extension Service, or use of a similar term, in any contracts, 138290
agreements, or other instruments that were entered into or 138291
executed prior to the effective date of this section pursuant to 138292
state statutes are deemed to be references to OSU Extension as 138293
defined in section 1.611 of the Revised Code as enacted by this 138294
act.138295

        (B) References to the Ohio Cooperative Extension Service, or 138296
use of a similar term, in rules adopted prior to the effective 138297
date of this section pursuant to state statutes are deemed to be 138298
references to OSU Extension.138299

       Section 803.170.  The amendment by this act of section 138300
5709.17 of the Revised Code applies to tax year 2013 and every tax 138301
year thereafter.138302

       Section 803.180. The amendment or enactment by this act of 138303
sections 5735.012 and 5735.013 applies on the first day of the 138304
first month after the effective date of those sections.138305

       Section 803.190. (A) The amendment or enactment by this act 138306
of division (QQQ) of section 5739.01, section 5739.12, division 138307
(I), except for divisions (I)(2)(g) and (I)(4), and division (Q) 138308
of section 5741.01, and section 5741.12 of the Revised Code 138309
applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 138310
personal property or services occurring on and after the first 138311
month beginning after the effective date of that division and 138312
section.138313

       (B) The amendment by this act of divisions (I)(2)(g) and 138314
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.17 of the Revised Code 138315
applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 138316
personal property or services occurring on and after October 1, 138317
2013, regardless of the date a seller and a resident entered into 138318
an agreement described in division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of 138319
the Revised Code. On that date, as used in divisions (I)(2)(g) and 138320
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code, "preceding twelve 138321
months" means the twelve months beginning October 1, 2012, and 138322
ending September 30, 2013.138323

       Section 803.200.  Until such time as the Registrar of Motor 138324
Vehicles can adopt rules under section 4505.101 of the Revised 138325
Code relating to the valuation of motor vehicles, the Registrar 138326
shall continue to process the affidavits required under section 138327
4505.101 of the Revised Code according to the Registrar's current 138328
policies, procedures, and standards.138329

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 138330
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 138331
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 138332
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 138333
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 138334
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.138335

       Section 809.10. An item of law, other than an amending, 138336
enacting, or repealing clause, that composes the whole or part of 138337
an uncodified section contained in this act has no effect after 138338
June 30, 2015, unless its context clearly indicates otherwise.138339

       Section 812.10. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 138340
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 138341
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 138342
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 138343
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State or, if a later 138344
effective date is specified below, on that date.138345

       The enactment of section 5162.12 of the Revised Code takes 138346
effect January 1, 2014.138347

        The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 3313.48, 138348
3313.533, 3313.62, 3314.09, 3314.092, 3321.05, 3326.11, and 138349
3326.20 of the Revised Code takes effect July 1, 2014.138350

        The repeal and reenactment of sections 3313.481 and 3327.02 138351
of the Revised Code take effect July 1, 2014.138352

        The enactment of section 3327.07 of the Revised Code takes 138353
effect on July 1, 2014.138354

       Sections 323.70, 323.110, 323.120, and 323.480 of this act 138355
take effect at the earliest time permitted by law but not earlier 138356
than September 30, 2013.138357

       Section 812.20. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this 138358
act of the sections listed below is exempt from the referendum 138359
under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 138360
of the Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when 138361
this act becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified 138362
below, on that date.138363

        Sections 189.04, 189.06, 731.091, 3314.05, 3734.57, 3734.901, 138364
4301.43, 5727.84, 5747.501, and 5753.03 of the Revised Code.138365

        Sections of this act prefixed with section numbers in the 138366
200's, 300's, 400's, and 500's except for sections 323.10.70, 138367
323.70, 323.110, 323.120, 323.480, 363.230, 363.520, 363.540, and 138368
363.550 of this act.138369

       Section 751.40 of this act.138370

       Sections 812.10, 812.20, and 812.30 of this act.138371

       The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 105.41, 138372
125.05, 152.09, 154.25, 3313.603, 3314.074, 3317.06, 3317.50, 138373
3317.51, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.04, 138374
3353.06, 3353.07, 3353.08, 3353.09, 3353.15, and 3353.20 takes 138375
effect July 1, 2013.138376

       The enactment of section 5168.41 of the Revised Code takes 138377
effect July 1, 2013.138378

       The amendment of sections 120.06 and 5139.04 of the Revised 138379
Code takes effect July 1, 2013.138380

       Section 812.30.  The sections that are listed in the 138381
left-hand column of the following table combine amendments by this 138382
act that are and that are not exempt from the referendum under 138383
Ohio Constitution, Article II, sections 1c and 1d and section 138384
1.471 of the Revised Code.138385

       The middle column identifies the amendments to the listed 138386
sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 138387
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 138388
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 138389
State or, if a later effective date is specified, on that date.138390

       The right-hand column identifies the amendments to the listed 138391
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 138392
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 138393
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 138394
becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified, on that 138395
date.138396

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 138397
3745.11 Amendments to division (M)(5) All amendments except as described in the middle column 138398
3721.50 (5168.40) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (F) 138399
5112.30 (5168.60) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (A) take effect July 1, 2013 138400
5751.20 Amendments to division (J) All amendments except as described in the middle column 138401
6109.21 The stricken sentence in division (E) All amendments except as described in the middle column 138402

       Section 812.40. The amendments to sections 109.572, 169.02, 138403
3317.01, 3317.03, 5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5111.07 138404
(5164.752), 5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.17 138405
(5167.10), and 5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code are subject 138406
to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c 138407
and section 1.471 of the Revised Code, and therefore take effect 138408
on the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary 138409
of State. However:138410

       (A) In section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, the amendments to 138411
division (B) take effect July 1, 2014.138412

       (B) In section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following 138413
amendments in divisions (A) and (D) take effect July 1, 2014:138414

        (1) The strike through of "the first paragraph of";138415

        (2) The strike through of "(B)" and insertion of "(A)(1)";138416

        (3) The strike through of "3317.01" and insertion of 138417
"3313.482".138418

        (C) In section 5101.573 (5160.40) of the Revised Code, the 138419
new matter inserted into division (C) takes effect January 1, 138420
2014.138421

        (D) In section 5101.58 (5160.37) of the Revised Code, the 138422
insertion of division (K) takes effect January 1, 2014.138423

        (E)(1) In section 5111.07 (5164.752) of the Revised Code, all 138424
of the amendments take effect July 1, 2014, except for the 138425
following amendments:138426

        (a) The renumbering of the section;138427

        (b) The strike through of "job and family services" and 138428
insertion of "medicaid" in the first sentence as the section 138429
appears on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 138430
this section.138431

        (2) The reference to "director of job and family services" in 138432
the last sentence shall be read as if it reads the "director of 138433
medicaid" while the last sentence remains in effect.138434

        (F) In section 5111.071 (5164.753) of the Revised Code, the 138435
insertion in the last sentence of "and the extent to which each 138436
terminal distributor participates in the medicaid program as a 138437
provider of drugs" takes effect July 1, 2014.138438

        (G) In section 5111.083 (5164.757) of the Revised Code, all 138439
of the amendments take effect January 1, 2014, except for the 138440
following amendments:138441

        (1) The renumbering of the section;138442

        (2) The insertion of "medicaid" before "director" in the 138443
first sentence of division (B);138444

        (3) The strike through of "of job and family services".138445

        (H) In section 5111.17 (5167.10) of the Revised Code, the 138446
amendments to division (B)(2) take effect January 1, 2014.138447

       (I) In section 5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code, the 138448
following amendments take effect January 1, 2014:138449

        (1) The insertion of ", and the allocation of payments for," 138450
in the first paragraph;138451

        (2) The strike through of the second paragraph and divisions 138452
(A), (B), and (C).138453

       Section 812.60. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 138454
this section, the amendments of this act to section 5111.251 of 138455
the Revised Code, including the renumbering of the section as 138456
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code, take effect ninety-one days 138457
after the effective date of this section.138458

       (B) The following amendments by this act to section 5111.251 138459
(5124.17) of the Revised Code take effect July 1, 2014:138460

       (1) The amendments that halve the efficiency incentive 138461
payment for intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 138462
that have more than eight beds;138463

       (2) The amendments that eliminate the nonextensive 138464
renovations component of the Medicaid payments for the capital 138465
costs of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 138466
that have more than eight beds;138467

       (3) The amendments that eliminate the return on equity 138468
component of the Medicaid payments for the capital costs of all 138469
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded.138470

       Section 812.70. All the amendments by this act to section 138471
3327.01 of the Revised Code are subject to the referendum under 138472
Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c. The amendment adding 138473
division (H) to the section takes effect on the ninety-first day 138474
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State, and all the 138475
other amendments to the section take effect on July 1, 2014.138476

       Section 815.10. The General Assembly, applying the principle 138477
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 138478
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 138479
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 138480
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 138481
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 138482
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 138483
this act:138484

       Section 9.90 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. 138485
H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.138486

       Section 109.572 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138487
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.138488

       Section 122.17 of the Revised Code as amended by Sub. H.B. 138489
327, Am. Sub. H.B. 510, and Am. Sub. S.B. 314, all of the 129th 138490
General Assembly.138491

       Section 122.33 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138492
Sub. H.B. 117 and Am. Sub. H.B. 356 of the 121st General Assembly.138493

       Section 124.381 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138494
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.138495

       Section 149.311 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138496
Sub. H.B. 510 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.138497

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138498
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.138499

       Section 329.06 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138500
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.138501

        Section 955.201 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138502
Sub. H.B. 1 and Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 128th General Assembly.138503

       Section 2901.30 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138504
H.B. 181 and Sub. S.B. 87 of the 127th General Assembly.138505

       Section 2903.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 138506
H.B. 525 and Am. Sub. H.B. 62 of the 129th General Assembly.138507

       Section 2921.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138508
Sub. H.B. 495 and Sub. S.B. 343 of the 129th General Assembly.138509

       Section 2923.126 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138510
Sub. H.B. 495 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 138511
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.138512

        Section 2929.13 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 138513
H.B. 62, Am. Sub. H.B. 262, and Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 129th 138514
General Assembly.138515

       Section 3304.231 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138516
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.138517

       Section 3313.978 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138518
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.138519

       Section 3701.78 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138520
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.138521

       Section 3734.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138522
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly. 138523

       Section 3745.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138524
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly.138525

       Section 5104.012 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138526
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 138527
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.138528

       Section 5104.013 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138529
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 138530
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.138531

       Section 5111.032 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138532
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.138533

       Section 5111.033 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138534
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.138535

       Section 5111.034 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138536
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.138537

       Section 5111.172 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138538
Sub. H.B. 93 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.138539

       Section 5119.16 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138540
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.138541

       Section 5701.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 138542
H.B. 267 and Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.138543

       Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138544
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. S.B. 321 of the 129th General Assembly.138545

        Section 5731.39 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138546
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.138547

       Section 5739.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 138548
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.138549

       Section 5739.02 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 138550
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.138551

       Section 5747.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. H.B. 138552
167, Sub. H.B. 365, and Am. Sub. H.B. 510, all of the 129th 138553
General Assembly.138554

       Section 5747.98 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138555
Sub. H.B. 386 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.138556

       Section 5749.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138557
Sub. H.B. 1 and S.B. 73 of the 128th General Assembly.138558

       Section 5751.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138559
Sub. H.B. 51 and Am. S.B. 28 of the 130th General Assembly.138560

       Section 5751.20 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138561
Sub. H.B. 508 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.138562

       Section 5753.03 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138563
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 386 of the 129th General Assembly.138564

       Section 815.20. The amendment of sections 5104.11 and 5120.07 138565
of the Revised Code by this act is not intended to supersede the 138566
earlier repeal, with delayed effective date, of those sections.138567