To amend sections 2919.271, 2925.01, 2937.23, and 2951.041, to enact section 2925.24 of the Revised Code, and to amend section 2903.211 of the Revised Code contingent on Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly becoming law, as concurred in on June 24, 1999, to prohibit substituting, adulterating, or altering any dangerous drug or any package or receptacle containing dangerous drugs, to prohibit in certain circumstances treatment in lieu of conviction for a person charged with violating the new prohibition, to make changes in the law relative to the offense of menacing by stalking, and to declare an emergency.

SECTION 1 .  That sections 2919.271, 2925.01, 2937.23, and 2951.041 be amended and section 2925.24 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:

Sec. 2919.271.  (A)(1)(a) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant if the court determines that either of the following criteria apply:

(a)(i) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of a family or household member covered by the order or agreement, or conduct by the defendant that caused a family or household member to believe that the defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that member's property.

(b)(ii) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the Revised Code or a protection order issued by a court of another state, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of the person covered by the order, or conduct by the defendant that caused the person covered by the order to believe that the defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that person's property.

(b) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant.

(2) The An evaluation ordered under division (A)(1) of this section shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date the order is entered pursuant to that division (A)(1) of this section. In that order, the court shall do either of the following:

(a) Order that the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant be preceded by an examination conducted either by a forensic center that is designated by the department of mental health to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of substantially similar municipal ordinances in the area in which the court is located, or by any other program or facility that is designated by the department of mental health or the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of substantially similar municipal ordinances, and that is operated by either department or is certified by either department as being in compliance with the standards established under division (J) of section 5119.01 of the Revised Code or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code.

(b) Designate a center, program, or facility other than one designated by the department of mental health or the department of mental retardation and developmental disabilities, as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, to conduct the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental condition of the defendant.

Whether the court acts pursuant to division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, the court may designate examiners other than the personnel of the center, program, facility, or department involved to make the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental condition of the defendant.

(B) If the court considers that additional evaluations of the mental condition of a defendant are necessary following the evaluation authorized by division (A) of this section, the court may order up to two additional similar evaluations. These evaluations shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date the applicable court order is entered. If more than one evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant is ordered under this division, the prosecutor and the defendant may recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform one of the evaluations and preceding examinations.

(C)(1) The court may order a defendant who has been released on bail to submit to an examination under division (A) or (B) of this section. The examination shall be conducted either at the detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or facility. Additionally, the examination shall be conducted at the times established by the examiners involved. If such a defendant refuses to submit to an examination or a complete examination as required by the court or the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, the court may amend the conditions of the bail of the defendant and order the sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the defendant to the detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, to the premises of the center, program, or facility, for purposes of the examination.

(2) A defendant who has not been released on bail shall be examined at the detention facility in which the defendant is confined or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or facility.

(D) The examiner of the mental condition of a defendant under division (A) or (B) of this section shall file a written report with the court within thirty days after the entry of an order for the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant. The report shall contain the findings of the examiner; the facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are based; the opinion of the examiner as to the mental condition of the defendant; the opinion of the examiner as to whether the defendant represents a substantial risk of physical harm to other persons as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent behavior, evidence of recent threats that placed other persons in reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or evidence of present dangerousness; and the opinion of the examiner as to the types of treatment or counseling that the defendant needs. The court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense counsel.

(E) The costs of any evaluation and preceding examination of a defendant that is ordered pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section shall be taxed as court costs in the criminal case.

(F) If the examiner considers it necessary in order to make an accurate evaluation of the mental condition of a defendant, an examiner under division (A) or (B) of this section may request any family or household member of the defendant to provide the examiner with information. A family or household member may, but is not required to, provide information to the examiner upon receipt of the request.

(G) As used in this section:

(1) "Bail" includes a recognizance.

(2) "Examiner" means a psychiatrist, a licensed independent social worker who is employed by a forensic center that is certified as being in compliance with the standards established under division (J) of section 5119.01 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code, a licensed professional clinical counselor who is employed at a forensic center that is certified as being in compliance with such standards, or a licensed clinical psychologist, except that in order to be an examiner, a licensed clinical psychologist shall meet the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or be employed to conduct examinations by the department of mental health or by a forensic center certified as being in compliance with the standards established under division (J) of section 5119.01 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code that is designated by the department of mental health.

(3) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Psychiatrist" and "licensed clinical psychologist" have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.

(6) "Protection order issued by a court of another state" has the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2925.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Administer," "controlled substance," "dispense," "distribute," "hypodermic," "manufacturer," "official written order," "person," "pharmacist," "pharmacy," "sale," "schedule I," "schedule II," "schedule III," "schedule IV," "schedule V," and "wholesaler" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) "Drug dependent person" and "drug of abuse" have the same meanings as in section 3719.011 of the Revised Code.

(C) "Drug," "dangerous drug," "licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs," and "prescription" have the same meanings as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Bulk amount" of a controlled substance means any of the following:

(1) For any compound, mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule I, schedule II, or schedule III, with the exception of marihuana, cocaine, L.S.D., heroin, and hashish and except as provided in division (D)(2) or (5) of this section, whichever of the following is applicable:

(a) An amount equal to or exceeding ten grams or twenty-five unit doses of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule I opiate or opium derivative;

(b) An amount equal to or exceeding ten grams of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of raw or gum opium;

(c) An amount equal to or exceeding thirty grams or ten unit doses of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule I hallucinogen other than tetrahydrocannabinol or lysergic acid amide, or a schedule I stimulant or depressant;

(d) An amount equal to or exceeding twenty grams or five times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule II opiate or opium derivative;

(e) An amount equal to or exceeding five grams or ten unit doses of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of phencyclidine;

(f) An amount equal to or exceeding one hundred twenty grams or thirty times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule II stimulant that is in a final dosage form manufactured by a person authorized by the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the federal drug abuse control laws, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, that is or contains any amount of a schedule II depressant substance or a schedule II hallucinogenic substance;

(g) An amount equal to or exceeding three grams of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule II stimulant, or any of its salts or isomers, that is not in a final dosage form manufactured by a person authorized by the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the federal drug abuse control laws.

(2) An amount equal to or exceeding one hundred twenty grams or thirty times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule III or IV substance other than an anabolic steroid or a schedule III opiate or opium derivative;

(3) An amount equal to or exceeding twenty grams or five times the maximum daily dose in the usual dose range specified in a standard pharmaceutical reference manual of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule III opiate or opium derivative;

(4) An amount equal to or exceeding two hundred fifty milliliters or two hundred fifty grams of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule V substance;

(5) An amount equal to or exceeding two hundred solid dosage units, sixteen grams, or sixteen milliliters of a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of a schedule III anabolic steroid.

(E) "Unit dose" means an amount or unit of a compound, mixture, or preparation containing a controlled substance that is separately identifiable and in a form that indicates that it is the amount or unit by which the controlled substance is separately administered to or taken by an individual.

(F) "Cultivate" includes planting, watering, fertilizing, or tilling.

(G) "Drug abuse offense" means any of the following:

(1) A violation of division (A) of section 2913.02 that constitutes theft of drugs, or a violation of section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.12, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.31, 2925.32, 2925.36, or 2925.37 of the Revised Code;

(2) A violation of an existing or former law of this or any other state or of the United States that is substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (G)(1) of this section;

(3) An offense under an existing or former law of this or any other state, or of the United States, of which planting, cultivating, harvesting, processing, making, manufacturing, producing, shipping, transporting, delivering, acquiring, possessing, storing, distributing, dispensing, selling, inducing another to use, administering to another, using, or otherwise dealing with a controlled substance is an element;

(4) A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity in committing or attempting to commit any offense under division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.

(H) "Felony drug abuse offense" means any drug abuse offense that would constitute a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the United States.

(I) "Harmful intoxicant" does not include beer or intoxicating liquor but means any compound, mixture, preparation, or substance the gas, fumes, or vapor of which when inhaled can induce intoxication, excitement, giddiness, irrational behavior, depression, stupefaction, paralysis, unconsciousness, asphyxiation, or other harmful physiological effects, and includes, but is not limited to, any of the following:

(1) Any volatile organic solvent, plastic cement, model cement, fingernail polish remover, lacquer thinner, cleaning fluid, gasoline, or other preparation containing a volatile organic solvent;

(2) Any aerosol propellant;

(3) Any fluorocarbon refrigerant;

(4) Any anesthetic gas.

(J) "Manufacture" means to plant, cultivate, harvest, process, make, prepare, or otherwise engage in any part of the production of a drug, by propagation, extraction, chemical synthesis, or compounding, or any combination of the same, and includes packaging, repackaging, labeling, and other activities incident to production.

(K) "Possess" or "possession" means having control over a thing or substance, but may not be inferred solely from mere access to the thing or substance through ownership or occupation of the premises upon which the thing or substance is found.

(L) "Sample drug" means a drug or pharmaceutical preparation that would be hazardous to health or safety if used without the supervision of a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, or a drug of abuse, and that, at one time, had been placed in a container plainly marked as a sample by a manufacturer.

(M) "Standard pharmaceutical reference manual" means the current edition, with cumulative changes if any, of any of the following reference works:

(1) "The National Formulary";

(2) "The United States Pharmacopeia," prepared by authority of the United States Pharmacopeial Convention, Inc.;

(3) Other standard references that are approved by the state board of pharmacy.

(N) "Juvenile" means a person under eighteen years of age.

(O) "Counterfeit controlled substance" means any of the following:

(1) Any drug that bears, or whose container or label bears, a trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark used without authorization of the owner of rights to that trademark, trade name, or identifying mark;

(2) Any unmarked or unlabeled substance that is represented to be a controlled substance manufactured, processed, packed, or distributed by a person other than the person that manufactured, processed, packed, or distributed it;

(3) Any substance that is represented to be a controlled substance but is not a controlled substance or is a different controlled substance;

(4) Any substance other than a controlled substance that a reasonable person would believe to be a controlled substance because of its similarity in shape, size, and color, or its markings, labeling, packaging, distribution, or the price for which it is sold or offered for sale.

(P) An offense is "committed in the vicinity of a school" if the offender commits the offense on school premises, in a school building, or within one thousand feet of the boundaries of any school premises.

(Q) "School" means any school operated by a board of education or any school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted at the time a criminal offense is committed.

(R) "School premises" means either of the following:

(1) The parcel of real property on which any school is situated, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted on the premises at the time a criminal offense is committed;

(2) Any other parcel of real property that is owned or leased by a board of education of a school or the governing body of a school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code and on which some of the instruction, extracurricular activities, or training of the school is conducted, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted on the parcel of real property at the time a criminal offense is committed.

(S) "School building" means any building in which any of the instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by a school is conducted, whether or not any instruction, extracurricular activities, or training provided by the school is being conducted in the school building at the time a criminal offense is committed.

(T) "Disciplinary counsel" means the disciplinary counsel appointed by the board of commissioners on grievances and discipline of the supreme court under the Rules for the Government of the Bar of Ohio.

(U) "Certified grievance committee" means a duly constituted and organized committee of the Ohio state bar association or of one or more local bar associations of the state of Ohio that complies with the criteria set forth in Rule V, section 6 of the Rules for the Government of the Bar of Ohio.

(V) "Professional license" means any license, permit, certificate, registration, qualification, admission, temporary license, temporary permit, temporary certificate, or temporary registration that is described in divisions (W)(1) to (35) of this section and that qualifies a person as a professionally licensed person.

(W) "Professionally licensed person" means any of the following:

(1) A person who has obtained a license as a manufacturer of controlled substances or a wholesaler of controlled substances under Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code;

(2) A person who has received a certificate or temporary certificate as a certified public accountant or who has registered as a public accountant under Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code and who holds an Ohio permit issued under that chapter;

(3) A person who holds a certificate of qualification to practice architecture issued or renewed and registered under Chapter 4703. of the Revised Code;

(4) A person who is registered as a landscape architect under Chapter 4703. of the Revised Code or who holds a permit as a landscape architect issued under that chapter;

(5) A person licensed as an auctioneer or apprentice auctioneer or licensed to operate an auction company under Chapter 4707. of the Revised Code;

(6) A person who has been issued a certificate of registration as a registered barber under Chapter 4709. of the Revised Code;

(7) A person licensed and regulated to engage in the business of a debt pooling company by a legislative authority, under authority of Chapter 4710. of the Revised Code;

(8) A person who has been issued a cosmetologist's license, manicurist's license, esthetician's license, managing cosmetologist's license, managing manicurist's license, managing esthetician's license, cosmetology instructor's license, manicurist instructor's license, esthetician instructor's license, or tanning facility permit under Chapter 4713. of the Revised Code;

(9) A person who has been issued a license to practice dentistry, a general anesthesia permit, a conscious intravenous sedation permit, a limited resident's license, a limited teaching license, a dental hygienist's license, or a dental hygienist's teacher's certificate under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;

(10) A person who has been issued an embalmer's license, a funeral director's license, a funeral home license, or a crematory license, or who has been registered for an embalmer's or funeral director's apprenticeship under Chapter 4717. of the Revised Code;

(11) A person who has been licensed as a registered nurse or practical nurse, or who has been issued a certificate for the practice of nurse-midwifery under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;

(12) A person who has been licensed to practice optometry or to engage in optical dispensing under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;

(13) A person licensed to act as a pawnbroker under Chapter 4727. of the Revised Code;

(14) A person licensed to act as a precious metals dealer under Chapter 4728. of the Revised Code;

(15) A person licensed as a pharmacist, a pharmacy intern, a wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, or a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code;

(16) A person who is authorized to practice as a physician assistant under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code;

(17) A person who has been issued a certificate to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, a limited branch of medicine, or podiatry under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;

(18) A person licensed as a psychologist or school psychologist under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code;

(19) A person registered to practice the profession of engineering or surveying under Chapter 4733. of the Revised Code;

(20) A person who has been issued a license to practice chiropractic under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code;

(21) A person licensed to act as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code;

(22) A person registered as a registered sanitarian under Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code;

(23) A person licensed to operate or maintain a junkyard under Chapter 4737. of the Revised Code;

(24) A person who has been issued a motor vehicle salvage dealer's license under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code;

(25) A person who has been licensed to act as a steam engineer under Chapter 4739. of the Revised Code;

(26) A person who has been issued a license or temporary permit to practice veterinary medicine or any of its branches, or who is registered as a graduate animal technician under Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code;

(27) A person who has been issued a hearing aid dealer's or fitter's license or trainee permit under Chapter 4747. of the Revised Code;

(28) A person who has been issued a class A, class B, or class C license or who has been registered as an investigator or security guard employee under Chapter 4749. of the Revised Code;

(29) A person licensed and registered to practice as a nursing home administrator under Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code;

(30) A person licensed to practice as a speech-language pathologist or audiologist under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;

(31) A person issued a license as an occupational therapist or physical therapist under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(32) A person who is licensed as a professional clinical counselor or professional counselor, licensed as a social worker or independent social worker, or registered as a social work assistant under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code;

(33) A person issued a license to practice dietetics under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code;

(34) A person who has been issued a license or limited permit to practice respiratory therapy under Chapter 4761. of the Revised Code;

(35) A person who has been issued a real estate appraiser certificate under Chapter 4763. of the Revised Code.

(X) "Cocaine" means any of the following:

(1) A cocaine salt, isomer, or derivative, a salt of a cocaine isomer or derivative, or the base form of cocaine;

(2) Coca leaves or a salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, including ecgonine, a salt, isomer, or derivative of ecgonine, or a salt of an isomer or derivative of ecgonine;

(3) A salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of a substance identified in division (X)(1) or (2) of this section that is chemically equivalent to or identical with any of those substances, except that the substances shall not include decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves if the extractions do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.

(Y) "L.S.D." means lysergic acid diethylamide.

(Z) "Hashish" means the resin or a preparation of the resin contained in marihuana, whether in solid form or in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form.

(AA) "Marihuana" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include hashish.

(BB) An offense is "committed in the vicinity of a juvenile" if the offender commits the offense within one hundred feet of a juvenile or within the view of a juvenile, regardless of whether the offender knows the age of the juvenile, whether the offender knows the offense is being committed within one hundred feet of or within view of the juvenile, or whether the juvenile actually views the commission of the offense.

(CC) "Presumption for a prison term" or "presumption that a prison term shall be imposed" means a presumption, as described in division (D) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, that a prison term is a necessary sanction for a felony in order to comply with the purposes and principles of sentencing under section 2929.11 of the Revised Code.

(DD) "Major drug offender" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(EE) "Minor drug possession offense" means either of the following:

(1) A violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;

(2) A violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code as it exists on and after July 1, 1996, that is a misdemeanor or a felony of the fifth degree.

(FF) "Mandatory prison term" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(GG) "Crack cocaine" means a compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that is or contains any amount of cocaine that is analytically identified as the base form of cocaine or that is in a form that resembles rocks or pebbles generally intended for individual use.

(HH) "Adulterate" means to cause a drug to be adulterated as described in section 3715.63 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 2925.24. (A) No person shall knowingly adulterate or alter any dangerous drug or substitute any dangerous drug with another substance.

(B) No person shall knowingly adulterate or alter any package or receptacle containing any dangerous drug or substitute any package or receptacle containing any dangerous drug with another package or receptacle.

(C) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not apply to manufacturers, practitioners, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, nurses, and other persons, when the conduct of the manufacturer, practitioner, pharmacist, owner of a pharmacy, nurse, or other person is in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 4723., 4729., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code.

(D) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under this section alleging that a person altered a dangerous drug that the dangerous drug the person allegedly altered was lawfully prescribed for the person's personal use and that the person did not sell or transfer or intend to sell or transfer the dangerous drug to another person.

(E) Whoever violates this section is guilty of tampering with drugs, a felony of the third degree. if the violation results in physical harm to any person, tampering with drugs is a felony of the second degree.

Sec. 2937.23.  (A) In a case involving a felony, the judge or magistrate shall fix the amount of bail. In a case involving a misdemeanor or a violation of a municipal ordinance and not involving a felony, the judge, magistrate, or clerk of the court may fix the amount of bail and may do so in accordance with a schedule previously fixed by the judge or magistrate, or, in a case when the judge, magistrate, or clerk of the court is not readily available, the sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, police officer, or jailer having custody of the person charged may fix the amount of bail in accordance with a schedule previously fixed by the judge or magistrate and shall take the bail only in the county courthouse, the municipal or township building, or the county or municipal jail. In all cases, the bail shall be fixed with consideration of the seriousness of the offense charged, the previous criminal record of the defendant, and the probability of the defendant appearing at the trial of the case.

(B) In any case involving an alleged violation of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court shall determine whether it will order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant pursuant to section 2919.271 of the Revised Code and, if it decides to so order, shall issue the order requiring the evaluation before it sets bail for the person charged with the violation. In any case involving an alleged violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that section and in which the court finds that either of the following criteria applies, the court shall determine whether it will order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant pursuant to section 2919.271 of the Revised Code and, if it decides to so order, shall issue the order requiring that evaluation before it sets bail for the person charged with the violation:

(1) Regarding an alleged violation of a protection order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of a family or household member covered by the order or agreement or conduct by that defendant that caused a family or household member to believe that the defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that member's property;

(2) Regarding an alleged violation of a protection order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the Revised Code, or a protection order issued by a court of another state, as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of the person covered by the order or conduct by that defendant that caused the person covered by the order to believe that the defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that person's property.

Sec. 2951.041.  (A) If the court has reason to believe that an offender charged with a felony or misdemeanor is a drug dependent person or is in danger of becoming a drug dependent person, the court shall accept, prior to the entry of a plea, that offender's request for treatment in lieu of conviction. If the offender requests treatment in lieu of conviction, the court shall stay all criminal proceedings pending the outcome of the hearing to determine whether the offender is a person eligible for treatment in lieu of conviction. At the conclusion of the hearing, the court shall enter its findings and accept the offender's plea.

(B)(1) An offender who requests treatment in lieu of conviction under division (A) of this section is eligible for that treatment if the court finds that:

(1)(a) The offender's drug dependence or danger of drug dependence was a factor leading to the criminal activity with which the offender is charged, and rehabilitation through treatment would substantially reduce the likelihood of additional criminal activity.

(2)(b) The offender has been accepted into a program licensed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services pursuant to section 3793.11 of the Revised Code, a program certified by the department pursuant to section 3793.06 of the Revised Code, a public or private hospital, the veterans administration or other agency of the federal government, private care or treatment rendered by a physician or a psychologist licensed in the state, or other appropriate drug treatment facility or program.

(3)(c) If the offender is convicted of a misdemeanor, the offender would be eligible for probation under section 2951.02 of the Revised Code, except that a finding of any of the criteria listed in division (D) of that section shall cause the offender to be conclusively ineligible for treatment in lieu of conviction. If the offender is convicted of a felony, the offender would be eligible for a community control sanction.

(4)(d) The offender is not a repeat offender or dangerous offender, as defined in section 2935.36 of the Revised Code;

(5)(e) The offender is not charged with a violation of section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, or 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code;

(f) If the offender is charged with a violation of section 2925.24 of the Revised Code, the alleged violation did not result in physical harm to any person, and the offender previously has not been treated for drug abuse.

(2) Upon a finding of that nature under division (B)(1) of this section that the offender is eligible for treatment in lieu of conviction and if the offender enters a plea of guilty or no contest, the court may stay all criminal proceedings and order the offender to a period of rehabilitation. If a plea of not guilty is entered, a trial shall precede further consideration of the offender's request for treatment in lieu of conviction.

(C) The offender and the prosecuting attorney shall be afforded the opportunity to present evidence to establish eligibility or ineligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction, and the prosecuting attorney may make a recommendation to the court concerning whether the offender should receive treatment in lieu of conviction. Upon the request of the offender and to aid the offender in establishing the offender's eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction, the court may refer the offender for medical and psychiatric examination to the department of mental health, to a state facility designated by the department, to a psychiatric clinic approved by the department, or to a facility or program described in division (B)(2) of this section. However, the psychiatric portion of an examination pursuant to a referral under this division shall be performed only by a court-appointed individual who has not previously treated the offender or a member of the offender's immediate family.

(D) An offender found to be eligible for treatment in lieu of conviction and ordered to a period of rehabilitation shall be placed under the control and supervision of the county probation department or the adult parole authority as provided in this chapter as if the offender were on probation or as if the offender were under a community control sanction. The court shall order a period of rehabilitation to continue for any period that the judge or magistrate determines. The period of rehabilitation may be extended, but the total period shall not exceed three years. The period of rehabilitation shall be conditioned upon the offender's voluntary entrance into an appropriate drug treatment facility or program, faithful submission to prescribed treatment, and any other conditions that the court orders.

(E) Treatment of a person ordered to a period of rehabilitation under this section may include hospitalization under close supervision or otherwise, release on an outpatient status under supervision, and other treatment or after-care that the appropriate drug treatment facility or program considers necessary or desirable to rehabilitate that person. Persons released from hospitalization or treatment but still subject to the ordered period of rehabilitation may be rehospitalized or returned to treatment at any time it becomes necessary for their treatment and rehabilitation.

(F) If the appropriate drug treatment facility or program reports to the probation officer that the offender has successfully completed treatment and is rehabilitated, the court may dismiss the charges pending against the offender. If the facility or program reports to the probation officer that the offender has successfully completed treatment and is rehabilitated or has obtained maximum benefits from treatment and that the offender has completed the period of rehabilitation and other conditions ordered by the court, the court shall dismiss the charges pending against the offender. If the facility or program reports to the probation officer that the offender has failed treatment, has failed to submit to or follow the prescribed treatment, or has become a discipline problem, if the offender does not satisfactorily complete the period of rehabilitation or the other conditions ordered by the court, or if the offender violates the conditions of the period of rehabilitation, the offender shall be arrested as provided in section 2951.08 of the Revised Code and removed from the facility or program, and the court immediately shall hold a hearing to determine if the offender failed treatment, failed to submit to or follow the prescribed treatment, did not satisfactorily complete the period of rehabilitation or any other condition ordered by the court, or violated any condition of the period of rehabilitation. If the court so determines, it immediately shall enter an adjudication of guilt and shall impose upon the offender a term of imprisonment.

At any time and for any appropriate reason, the offender, the offender's probation officer, the authority or department that has the duty to control and supervise the offender as provided for in section 2951.05 of the Revised Code, or the facility or program may petition the court to reconsider, suspend, or modify its order for treatment concerning that offender.

(G) The appropriate drug treatment facility or program shall report to the authority or department that has the duty to control and supervise the offender as provided for in section 2951.05 of the Revised Code at any periodic reporting period the court requires and whenever the offender is changed from an inpatient to an outpatient, is transferred to another treatment facility or program, fails treatment, fails to submit to or follow the prescribed treatment, becomes a discipline problem, does not satisfactorily complete the period of rehabilitation or other conditions ordered by the court, has violated the conditions of the period of rehabilitation, is rehabilitated, or obtains the maximum benefit of treatment.

(H) If, on the motion of an offender ordered to a period of rehabilitation under this section, the court finds that the offender has successfully completed the period of rehabilitation ordered by the court, is rehabilitated, is no longer drug dependent or in danger of becoming drug dependent, and has completed all other conditions, the court shall dismiss the proceeding against the offender. Successful completion of a period of rehabilitation under this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is not a criminal conviction for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by law and upon conviction of a crime, and the court may order the sealing of records in the manner provided in sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of the Revised Code.

(I) Any person ordered to treatment by the terms of this section shall be liable for expenses incurred during the course of treatment, and, if the offender is treated in a benevolent institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health, the offender is subject to Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code.

(J) An offender who is charged with a drug abuse offense, other than a minor misdemeanor offense involving marihuana, and who otherwise is eligible for treatment in lieu of conviction may request and may be ordered to a period of rehabilitation even though the findings required by divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2)(b) of this section are not made. An order to rehabilitation under this division shall be subject to the conditions that the court requires but shall not be conditioned upon entry into an appropriate drug treatment facility or program.

(K) As used in this section, "community control sanction" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

SECTION 2 .  That existing sections 2919.271, 2925.01, 2937.23, and 2951.041 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

SECTION 3 .  Subject to Section 6 of this act, that section 2903.211 of the Revised Code that results from Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly contingently be amended to read as follows:

Sec. 2903.211.  (A) No person by engaging in a pattern of conduct shall knowingly cause another to believe that the offender will cause physical harm to the other person or cause mental distress to the other person.

(B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of menacing by stalking.

(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of this section, menacing by stalking is a misdemeanor of the first degree.

(2) Menacing by stalking is a felony of the fourth degree if any of the following applies:

(a) The offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this section or a violation of section 2911.211 of the Revised Code.

(b) In committing the offense, the offender made a threat of physical harm to or against the victim.

(c) In committing the offense, the offender trespassed on the land or premises where the victim lives, is employed, or attends school.

(d) The victim of the offense is a minor.

(e) The offender has a history of violence toward the victim or any other person or a history of other violent acts toward the victim or any other person.

(f) While committing the offense, the offender had a deadly weapon on or about the offender's person or under the offender's control.

(g) At the time of the commission of the offense, the offender was the subject of a protection order issued under section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the person to be protected under the order is the victim of the offense or another person.

(h) In committing the offense, the offender caused serious physical harm to the premises at which the victim resides, to the real property on which that premises is located, or to any personal property located on that premises.

(i) The offender previously has been found to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, under the criteria set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of that section, or the offender previously had been voluntarily admitted under section 5122.02 of the Revised Code and, as the basis for or subsequent to that voluntary admission Prior to committing the offense, the offender was had been determined to represent a risk to self or others to the extent described in division (B)(1) or (2) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code substantial risk of physical harm to others as manifested by evidence of then-recent homicidal or other violent behavior, evidence of then-recent threats that placed another in reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or other evidence of then-present dangerousness.

(C) Section 2919.271 of the Revised Code applies in relation to a defendant charged with a violation of this section.

(D) As used in this section:

(1) "Pattern of conduct" means two or more actions or incidents closely related in time, whether or not there has been a prior conviction based on any of those actions or incidents. Actions or incidents that prevent, obstruct, or delay the performance by a public official, firefighter, rescuer, or emergency medical services person of any authorized act within the public official's, firefighter's, rescuer's, or emergency medical services person's official capacity may constitute a "pattern of conduct."

(2) "Mental distress" means any mental illness or condition that involves some temporary substantial incapacity or mental illness or condition that would normally require psychiatric treatment.

(3) "Emergency medical services person" is the singular of "emergency medical services personnel" as defined in section 2133.21 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Public official" has the same meaning as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.

SECTION 4 .  Subject to Section 6 of this act, that existing section 2903.211 of the Revised Code that results from Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly contingently is hereby repealed.

SECTION 5 .  Subject to Section 6 of this act, Sections 3 and 4 of this act shall take effect on the effective date of Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly or the earliest date permitted by law, whichever is later.

SECTION 6 .  The amendments by this act to divisions (B)(2)(i) and (C) of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code and Sections 3, 4, and 5 of this act are contingent on Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly becoming law, as concurred in on June 24, 1999, pages 929 and 930 of the House Journal. If the contingency occurs, the version of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code in Sections 3 and 4 of this act that was contingent on the enactment of Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly supersedes the version of section 2903.211 of the Revised Code in effect prior to the effective date of Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly.

SECTION 7 .  This act is hereby declared to be an emergency measure necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety. The reason for such necessity is that immediate action is crucial to adjust the language of certain of the menacing by stalking provisions enacted in Am. Sub. H.B. 137 of the 123rd General Assembly to increase the provisions' effectiveness. Therefore, this act shall go into immediate effect.