To amend sections 121.22, 2317.02, 3719.121, 4729.01, 4729.07, 4729.11, 4729.12, 4729.16, 4729.39, and 4729.55 and to enact section 4729.41 of the Revised Code to establish a pharmacist-client testimonial privilege, to permit a pharmacist who has completed a course in drug administration approved by the State Board of Pharmacy to administer drugs, to revise the law governing consult agreements between physicians and pharmacists, to prohibit withdrawing an application for licensure without the Board's approval, and to make other changes to the law governing the practice of pharmacy.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

Sec. 121.22. (A) This section shall be liberally construed to require public officials to take official action and to conduct all deliberations upon official business only in open meetings unless the subject matter is specifically excepted by law.

(B) As used in this section:

(1) "Public body" means any of the following:

(a) Any board, commission, committee, council, or similar decision-making body of a state agency, institution, or authority, and any legislative authority or board, commission, committee, council, agency, authority, or similar decision-making body of any county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision or local public institution;

(b) Any committee or subcommittee of a body described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section;

(c) A court of jurisdiction of a sanitary district organized wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use when meeting for the purpose of the appointment, removal, or reappointment of a member of the board of directors of such a district pursuant to section 6115.10 of the Revised Code, if applicable, or for any other matter related to such a district other than litigation involving the district. As used in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, "court of jurisdiction" has the same meaning as "court" in section 6115.01 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Meeting" means any prearranged discussion of the public business of the public body by a majority of its members.

(3) "Regulated individual" means either of the following:

(a) A student in a state or local public educational institution;

(b) A person who is, voluntarily or involuntarily, an inmate, patient, or resident of a state or local institution because of criminal behavior, mental illness or retardation, disease, disability, age, or other condition requiring custodial care.

(C) All meetings of any public body are declared to be public meetings open to the public at all times. A member of a public body shall be present in person at a meeting open to the public to be considered present or to vote at the meeting and for purposes of determining whether a quorum is present at the meeting.

The minutes of a regular or special meeting of any public body shall be promptly prepared, filed, and maintained and shall be open to public inspection. The minutes need only reflect the general subject matter of discussions in executive sessions authorized under division (G) or (J) of this section.

(D) This section does not apply to a grand jury, to an audit conference conducted by the auditor of state or independent certified public accountants with officials of the public office that is the subject of the audit, to the adult parole authority when its hearings are conducted at a correctional institution for the sole purpose of interviewing inmates to determine parole or pardon, to the organized crime investigations commission established under section 177.01 of the Revised Code, to the state medical board when determining whether to suspend a certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to division (G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code, to the board of nursing when determining whether to suspend a license without a prior hearing pursuant to division (B) of section 4723.181 of the Revised Code, TO THE STATE BOARD OF PHARMACY WHEN DETERMINING WHETHER TO SUSPEND A LICENSE WITHOUT A PRIOR HEARING PURSUANT TO DIVISION (D) OF SECTION 4729.16 OF THE REVISED CODE, or to the executive committee of the emergency response commission when determining whether to issue an enforcement order or request that a civil action, civil penalty action, or criminal action be brought to enforce Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.

(E) The controlling board, the development financing advisory council, the industrial technology and enterprise advisory council, the tax credit authority, or the minority development financing advisory board, when meeting to consider granting assistance pursuant to Chapter 122. or 166. of the Revised Code, in order to protect the interest of the applicant or the possible investment of public funds, by unanimous vote of all board, council, or authority members present, may close the meeting during consideration of the following information confidentially received by the authority, council, or board from the applicant:

(1) Marketing plans;

(2) Specific business strategy;

(3) Production techniques and trade secrets;

(4) Financial projections;

(5) Personal financial statements of the applicant or members of the applicant's immediate family, including, but not limited to, tax records or other similar information not open to public inspection.

The vote by the authority, council, or board to accept or reject the application, as well as all proceedings of the authority, council, or board not subject to this division, shall be open to the public and governed by this section.

(F) Every public body, by rule, shall establish a reasonable method whereby any person may determine the time and place of all regularly scheduled meetings and the time, place, and purpose of all special meetings. A public body shall not hold a special meeting unless it gives at least twenty-four hours' advance notice to the news media that have requested notification, except in the event of an emergency requiring immediate official action. In the event of an emergency, the member or members calling the meeting shall notify the news media that have requested notification immediately of the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.

The rule shall provide that any person, upon request and payment of a reasonable fee, may obtain reasonable advance notification of all meetings at which any specific type of public business is to be discussed. Provisions for advance notification may include, but are not limited to, mailing the agenda of meetings to all subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.

(G) Except as provided in division (J) of this section, the members of a public body may hold an executive session only after a majority of a quorum of the public body determines, by a roll call vote, to hold an executive session and only at a regular or special meeting for the sole purpose of the consideration of any of the following matters:

(1) To consider the appointment, employment, dismissal, discipline, promotion, demotion, or compensation of a public employee or official, or the investigation of charges or complaints against a public employee, official, licensee, or regulated individual, unless the public employee, official, licensee, or regulated individual requests a public hearing. Except as otherwise provided by law, no public body shall hold an executive session for the discipline of an elected official for conduct related to the performance of the elected official's official duties or for the elected official's removal from office. If a public body holds an executive session pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall state which one or more of the approved purposes listed in division (G)(1) of this section are the purposes for which the executive session is to be held, but need not include the name of any person to be considered at the meeting.

(2) To consider the purchase of property for public purposes, or for the sale of property at competitive bidding, if premature disclosure of information would give an unfair competitive or bargaining advantage to a person whose personal, private interest is adverse to the general public interest. No member of a public body shall use division (G)(2) of this section as a subterfuge for providing covert information to prospective buyers or sellers. A purchase or sale of public property is void if the seller or buyer of the public property has received covert information from a member of a public body that has not been disclosed to the general public in sufficient time for other prospective buyers and sellers to prepare and submit offers.

If the minutes of the public body show that all meetings and deliberations of the public body have been conducted in compliance with this section, any instrument executed by the public body purporting to convey, lease, or otherwise dispose of any right, title, or interest in any public property shall be conclusively presumed to have been executed in compliance with this section insofar as title or other interest of any bona fide purchasers, lessees, or transferees of the property is concerned.

(3) Conferences with an attorney for the public body concerning disputes involving the public body that are the subject of pending or imminent court action;

(4) Preparing for, conducting, or reviewing negotiations or bargaining sessions with public employees concerning their compensation or other terms and conditions of their employment;

(5) Matters required to be kept confidential by federal law or regulations or state statutes;

(6) Specialized details of security arrangements if disclosure of the matters discussed might reveal information that could be used for the purpose of committing, or avoiding prosecution for, a violation of the law.

If a public body holds an executive session to consider any of the matters listed in divisions (G)(2) to (6) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall state which one or more of the approved matters listed in those divisions are to be considered at the executive session.

A public body specified in division (B)(1)(c) of this section shall not hold an executive session when meeting for the purposes specified in that division.

(H) A resolution, rule, or formal action of any kind is invalid unless adopted in an open meeting of the public body. A resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting that results from deliberations in a meeting not open to the public is invalid unless the deliberations were for a purpose specifically authorized in division (G) or (J) of this section and conducted at an executive session held in compliance with this section. A resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting is invalid if the public body that adopted the resolution, rule, or formal action violated division (F) of this section.

(I)(1) Any person may bring an action to enforce this section. An action under division (I)(1) of this section shall be brought within two years after the date of the alleged violation or threatened violation. Upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section in an action brought by any person, the court of common pleas shall issue an injunction to compel the members of the public body to comply with its provisions.

(2)(a) If the court of common pleas issues an injunction pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, the court shall order the public body that it enjoins to pay a civil forfeiture of five hundred dollars to the party that sought the injunction and shall award to that party all court costs and, subject to reduction as described in division (I)(2) of this section, reasonable attorney's fees. The court, in its discretion, may reduce an award of attorney's fees to the party that sought the injunction or not award attorney's fees to that party if the court determines both of the following:

(i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law and case law as it existed at the time of THE violation or threatened violation that was the basis of the injunction, a well-informed public body reasonably would believe that the public body was not violating or threatening to violate this section;

(ii) That a well-informed public body reasonably would believe that the conduct or threatened conduct that was the basis of the injunction would serve the public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.

(b) If the court of common pleas does not issue an injunction pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and the court determines at that time that the bringing of the action was frivolous conduct, as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51 of the Revised Code, the court shall award to the public body all court costs and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the court.

(3) Irreparable harm and prejudice to the party that sought the injunction shall be conclusively and irrebuttably presumed upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section.

(4) A member of a public body who knowingly violates an injunction issued pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section may be removed from office by an action brought in the court of common pleas for that purpose by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney general.

(J)(1) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code, a veterans service commission shall hold an executive session for one or more of the following purposes unless an applicant requests a public hearing:

(a) Interviewing an applicant for financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code;

(b) Discussing applications, statements, and other documents described in division (B) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code;

(c) Reviewing matters relating to an applicant's request for financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code.

(2) A veterans service commission shall not exclude an applicant for, recipient of, or former recipient of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code, and shall not exclude representatives selected by the applicant, recipient, or former recipient, from a meeting that the commission conducts as an executive session that pertains to the applicant's, recipient's, or former recipient's application for financial assistance.

(3) A veterans service commission shall vote on the grant or denial of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code only in an open meeting of the commission. The minutes of the meeting shall indicate the name, address, and occupation of the applicant, whether the assistance was granted or denied, the amount of the assistance if assistance is granted, and the votes for and against the granting of assistance.

Sec. 2317.02. The following persons shall not testify in certain respects:

(A) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the attorney by a client in that relation or the attorney's advice to a client, except that the attorney may testify by express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased, by the express consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client and except that, if the client voluntarily testifies or is deemed by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, the attorney may be compelled to testify on the same subject;

(B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division (B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be compelled to testify on the same subject.

The testimonial privilege established under this division does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:

(a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:

(i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal representative of the patient gives express consent;

(ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives express consent;

(iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.11 of the Revised Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal representative.

(b) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results of any test that determines the presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug of abuse in the patient's blood, breath, urine, or other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal offense in question.

(c) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or dental records or other communications between a patient and the physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient records or other communications in such an action shall require that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

(2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written statement to a health care provider that states that an official criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain to any test or the results of any test administered to the specified person to determine the presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug of abuse in the person's blood, breath, or urine at any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the health care provider does not possess any of the requested records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the requested records.

(b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who administered the test to which the records pertain, the person under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian of the records, the person who made the records, or the person under whose supervision the records were made.

(3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division (B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.

(b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, the physician or dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who administered the test in question, the person under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision the results were compiled.

(4)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, "communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.

(b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care provider" has the same meaning as in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code.

(5) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, doctors of podiatry, and dentists.

(6) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in division (B)(6) of this section, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(C) A member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, or regularly ordained, accredited, or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable church, denomination, or sect, when the member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, or minister remains accountable to the authority of that church, denomination, or sect, concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially communicated, to the member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, or minister for a religious counseling purpose in the member of the clergy's, rabbi's, priest's, or minister's professional character; however, the member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, or minister may testify by express consent of the person making the communication, except when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred trust.;

(D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation has ceased to exist.;

(E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be permitted to testify;

(F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or thing.

(G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator license from the state board of education as provided for in section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical counselor, professional counselor, social worker, or independent social worker, or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a confidential communication received from a client in that relation or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following applies:

(a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this division, cases in which there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and present danger.

(b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.

(c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client gives express consent.

(d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on the same subject.

(e) The court in camera determines that the information communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client or social worker-client relationship.

(f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance counselor is relevant to that action.

(2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 2151.421 of the Revised Code.

(H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation process, to any information discussed or presented in the mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the awarding of visitation rights in relation to their children.;

(I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of the communication assistant's authority, when providing telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.35 of the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication made through a telecommunications relay service.;

(J) A PHARMACIST, CONCERNING A COMMUNICATION MADE TO THE PHARMACIST BY A CLIENT IN THAT RELATION OR THE PHARMACIST'S ADVICE TO A CLIENT, OR A COMMUNICATION MADE TO A PHARMACIST BY A LICENSED HEALTH PROFESSIONAL AUTHORIZED TO PRESCRIBE DRUGS, AS DEFINED IN SECTION 4729.01 OF THE REVISED CODE, IN REGARD TO A CLIENT'S PRESCRIPTION, EXCEPT THAT A PHARMACIST MAY BE COMPELLED TO TESTIFY IN BOTH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES:

(1) THE CLIENT OR THE GUARDIAN OR OTHER LEGAL REPRESENTATIVE OF THE CLIENT GIVES EXPRESS CONSENT.

(2) IF THE CLIENT IS DECEASED, THE SURVIVING SPOUSE OF THE CLIENT OR THE EXECUTOR OR ADMINISTRATOR OF THE CLIENT'S ESTATE GIVES EXPRESS CONSENT.

Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege granted under federal law or regulation. Nothing in this section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.

Sec. 3719.121. (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 4723.28, 4723.35, 4730.25, or 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the license, certificate, or registration of any dentist, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, podiatrist, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, pharmacist, pharmacy intern, optometrist, or veterinarian who is or becomes addicted to the use of controlled substances shall be suspended by the board that authorized the person's license, certificate, or registration until the person offers satisfactory proof to the board that the person no longer is addicted to the use of controlled substances.

(B) If the board under which a person has been issued a license, certificate, or evidence of registration determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that continuation of the person's professional practice or method of prescribing or personally furnishing controlled substances presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to others, the board may suspend the person's license, certificate, or registration without a hearing. Except as otherwise provided in sections 4715.30, 4723.281, 4729.16, 4730.25, and 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the board shall follow the procedure for suspension without a prior hearing in section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The suspension shall remain in effect, unless removed by the board, until the board's final adjudication order becomes effective, except that if the board does not issue its final adjudication order within ninety days after the hearing, the suspension shall be void on the ninety-first day after the hearing.

(C) On receiving notification pursuant to section 2929.24 or 3719.12 of the Revised Code, the board under which a person has been issued a license, certificate, or evidence of registration immediately shall suspend the license, certificate, or registration of that person on a plea of guilty to, a finding by a jury or court of the person's guilt of, or conviction of a felony drug abuse offense; a finding by a court of the person's eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction; a plea of guilty to, or a finding by a jury or court of the person's guilt of, or the person's conviction of an offense in another jurisdiction that is essentially the same as a felony drug abuse offense; or a finding by a court of the person's eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction. The board shall notify the holder of the license, certificate, or registration of the suspension, which shall remain in effect until the board holds an adjudicatory hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4729.01. As used in this chapter:

(A) "Pharmacy," except when used in a context that refers to the practice of pharmacy, means any area, room, rooms, place of business, department, or portion of any of the foregoing where the practice of pharmacy is conducted.

(B) "Practice of pharmacy" means providing pharmacist care requiring specialized knowledge, judgment, and skill derived from the principles of biological, chemical, behavioral, social, pharmaceutical, and clinical sciences. As used in this division, "pharmacist care" includes the following:

(1) Interpreting prescriptions;

(2) Compounding or dispensing drugs and dispensing drug therapy related devices;

(3) Counseling individuals with regard to their drug therapy, recommending drug therapy related devices, and assisting in the selection of drugs and appliances for treatment of common diseases and injuries and providing instruction in the proper use of the drugs and appliances;

(4) Performing drug regimen reviews with individuals by discussing all of the drugs that the individual is taking and explaining the interactions of the drugs;

(5) Performing drug utilization reviews with licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs when the pharmacist determines that an individual with a prescription has a drug regimen that warrants additional discussion with the prescriber;

(6) Advising an individual and the health care professionals treating an individual with regard to the individual's drug therapy;

(7) Acting pursuant to a consult agreement with a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, if an agreement has been established with the physician;

(8) IF A PHARMACIST LICENSED UNDER THIS CHAPTER HAS MET THE REQUIREMENTS OF SECTION 4729.41 OF THE REVISED CODE, ADMINISTERING DRUGS PRESCRIBED BY A LICENSED HEALTH PROFESSIONAL AUTHORIZED TO PRESCRIBE DRUGS.

(C) "Compounding" means the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, and labeling of one or more drugs in any of the following circumstances:

(1) Pursuant to a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;

(2) Pursuant to the modification of a prescription made in accordance with a consult agreement;

(3) As an incident to research, teaching activities, or chemical analysis;

(4) In anticipation of prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns.

(D) "Consult agreement" means an agreement to manage an individual's drug therapy that has been entered into by a pharmacist and a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.

(E) "Drug" means:

(1) Any article recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia and national formulary, or any supplement to them, intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or animals;

(2) Any other article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or animals;

(3) Any article, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals;

(4) Any article intended for use as a component of any article specified in division (C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section; but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(F) "Dangerous drug" means any of the following:

(1) Any drug to which either of the following applies:

(a) Under the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, the drug is required to bear a label containing the legend "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription" or "Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian" or any similar restrictive statement, or the drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription;

(b) Under Chapter 3715. or 3719. of the Revised Code, the drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription.

(2) Any drug that contains a schedule V controlled substance and that is exempt from Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code or to which that chapter does not apply;

(3) Any drug intended for administration by injection into the human body other than through a natural orifice of the human body.

(G) "Federal drug abuse control laws" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.

(H) "Prescription" means a written, electronic, or oral order for drugs or combinations or mixtures of drugs to be used by a particular individual or for treating a particular animal, issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.

(I) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" or "prescriber" means an individual who is authorized by law to prescribe drugs or dangerous drugs or drug therapy related devices in the course of the individual's professional practice, including only the following:

(1) A dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;

(2) An advanced practice nurse approved under section 4723.56 of the Revised Code to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices;

(3) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code to practice optometry under a therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate;

(4) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatry;

(5) A veterinarian licensed under Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code.

(J) "Sale" and "sell" include delivery, transfer, barter, exchange, or gift, or offer therefor, and each such transaction made by any person, whether as principal proprietor, agent, or employee.

(K) "Wholesale sale" and "sale at wholesale" mean any sale in which the purpose of the purchaser is to resell the article purchased or received by the purchaser.

(L) "Retail sale" and "sale at retail" mean any sale other than a wholesale sale or sale at wholesale.

(M) "Retail seller" means any person that sells any dangerous drug to consumers without assuming control over and responsibility for its administration. Mere advice or instructions regarding administration do not constitute control or establish responsibility.

(N) "Price information" means the price charged for a prescription for a particular drug product and, in an easily understandable manner, all of the following:

(1) The proprietary name of the drug product;

(2) The established (generic) name of the drug product;

(3) The strength of the drug product if the product contains a single active ingredient or if the drug product contains more than one active ingredient and a relevant strength can be associated with the product without indicating each active ingredient. The established name and quantity of each active ingredient are required if such a relevant strength cannot be so associated with a drug product containing more than one ingredient.

(4) The dosage form;

(5) The price charged for a specific quantity of the drug product. The stated price shall include all charges to the consumer, including, but not limited to, the cost of the drug product, professional fees, handling fees, if any, and a statement identifying professional services routinely furnished by the pharmacy. Any mailing fees and delivery fees may be stated separately without repetition. The information shall not be false or misleading.

(O) "Wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs" means a person engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs at wholesale and includes any agent or employee of such a person authorized by the person to engage in the sale of dangerous drugs at wholesale.

(P) "Manufacturer of dangerous drugs" means a person, other than a pharmacist, who manufactures dangerous drugs and who is engaged in the sale of those dangerous drugs within this state.

(Q) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" means a person who is engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs at retail, or any person, other than a wholesale distributor or a pharmacist, who has possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose other than for that person's own use and consumption, and includes pharmacies, hospitals, nursing homes, and laboratories and all other persons who procure dangerous drugs for sale or other distribution by or under the supervision of a pharmacist or licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.

(R) "Promote to the public" means disseminating a representation to the public in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the purpose of inducing, or that is likely to induce, directly or indirectly, the purchase of a dangerous drug at retail.

(S) "Person" includes any individual, partnership, association, limited liability company, or corporation, the state, any political subdivision of the state, and any district, department, or agency of the state or its political subdivisions.

(T) "Finished dosage form" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.

(U) "Generically equivalent drug" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Animal shelter" means a facility operated by a humane society or any society organized under Chapter 1717. of the Revised Code or a dog pound operated pursuant to Chapter 955. of the Revised Code.

(W) "Food" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.

(X) "ADMINISTER" HAS THE SAME MEANING AS IN SECTION 3719.01 OF THE REVISED CODE.

Sec. 4729.07. An individual desiring to be licensed as a pharmacist shall file with the executive director of the state board of pharmacy a verified application giving such information as the board requires, and appear before the board to. AN APPLICATION FILED UNDER THIS SECTION MAY NOT BE WITHDRAWN WITHOUT THE APPROVAL OF THE BOARD.

EACH APPLICANT SHALL take an examination to determine fitness to practice pharmacy. Examinations of those applying for licensure as pharmacists shall be held at such times, during each year, and at such places as the board determines. The board may make use of all or any part of the licensure examination of the national association of boards of pharmacy or any other national standardized pharmacy examination that it considers appropriate to perform its duties under this section. The board may require applicants for licensure by examination to purchase the examination and any related materials from the organization providing it.

Sec. 4729.11. The state board of pharmacy shall establish a pharmacy internship program for the purpose of providing the practical experience necessary to practice as a pharmacist. Any individual who desires to become a pharmacy intern shall apply for licensure to the board, and. AN APPLICATION FILED UNDER THIS SECTION MAY NOT BE WITHDRAWN WITHOUT THE APPROVAL OF THE BOARD.

EACH APPLICANT shall be issued an identification card and license as a pharmacy intern if in the opinion of the board the applicant is actively pursuing an educational program in preparation for licensure as a pharmacist and meets the other requirements as determined by the board. An identification card and license shall be valid until the next annual renewal date and shall be renewed only if the intern is meeting the requirements and rules of the board.

The state board of pharmacy may appoint a director of pharmacy internship who is a licensed pharmacist and who is not directly or indirectly connected with a school or college of pharmacy or department of pharmacy of a university. The director of pharmacy internship shall be responsible to the board for the operation and direction of the pharmacy internship program established by the board under this section, and for such other duties as the board may assign.

Sec. 4729.12. An identification card issued by the state board of pharmacy under section 4729.08 of the Revised Code entitles the individual to whom it is issued to practice as a pharmacist or as a pharmacy intern in this state until the next annual renewal date.

Identification cards shall be renewed annually on the fifteenth day of September, according to the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.

Each pharmacist and pharmacy intern shall carry the identification card or renewal identification card while engaged in the practice of pharmacy. The license shall be conspicuously exposed at the principal place where the pharmacist or pharmacy intern practices pharmacy.

A pharmacist or pharmacy intern who desires to continue in the practice of pharmacy shall file with the board an application in such form and containing such data as the board may require for renewal of an identification card. AN APPLICATION FILED UNDER THIS SECTION MAY NOT BE WITHDRAWN WITHOUT THE APPROVAL OF THE BOARD. If the board finds that the applicant's card has not been revoked or placed under suspension and that the applicant has paid the renewal fee, has continued pharmacy education in accordance with the rules of the board, and is entitled to continue in the practice of pharmacy, the board shall issue a renewal identification card to the applicant.

When an identification card has lapsed for more than sixty days but application is made within three years after the expiration of the card, the applicant shall be issued a renewal identification card without further examination if the applicant meets the requirements of this section and pays the fee designated under division (E) of section 4729.15 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4729.16. (A) The state board of pharmacy, after notice and hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may revoke, suspend, LIMIT, place on probation, or refuse to grant or renew an identification card, or may impose a monetary penalty or forfeiture not to exceed in severity any fine designated under the Revised Code for a similar offense, or in the case of a violation of a section of the Revised Code that does not bear a penalty, a monetary penalty or forfeiture of not more than five hundred dollars, if the board finds a pharmacist or pharmacy intern:

(1) Guilty of a felony or gross immorality;

(2) Guilty of dishonesty or unprofessional conduct in the practice of pharmacy;

(3) Addicted to or abusing liquor or drugs or impaired physically or mentally to such a degree as to render the pharmacist or pharmacy intern unfit to practice pharmacy;

(4) Has been convicted of a misdemeanor related to, or committed in, the practice of pharmacy;

(5) Guilty of willfully violating, conspiring to violate, attempting to violate, or aiding and abetting the violation of any of the provisions of this chapter, sections 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the Revised Code, or Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, OR ANY RULE ADOPTED BY THE BOARD UNDER THOSE PROVISIONS;

(6) Guilty of permitting anyone other than a pharmacist or pharmacy intern to practice pharmacy;

(7) Guilty of knowingly lending the pharmacist's or pharmacy intern's name to an illegal practitioner of pharmacy or having professional connection with an illegal practitioner of pharmacy;

(8) Guilty of dividing or agreeing to divide remuneration made in the practice of pharmacy with any other individual, including, but not limited to, any licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs or any owner, manager, or employee of a health care facility, residential care facility, or nursing home;

(9) Has violated the terms of a consult agreement entered into pursuant to section 4729.39 of the Revised Code;

(10) HAS COMMITTED FRAUD, MISREPRESENTATION, OR DECEPTION IN APPLYING FOR OR SECURING A LICENSE OR IDENTIFICATION CARD ISSUED BY THE BOARD UNDER THIS CHAPTER OR UNDER CHAPTER 3715. OR 3719. OF THE REVISED CODE.

(B) Any individual whose identification card is revoked, suspended, or refused, shall return the identification card and license to the offices of the state board of pharmacy within ten days after receipt of notice of such action.

(C) As used in this section:

"Unprofessional conduct in the practice of pharmacy" includes any of the following:

(1) Advertising or displaying signs that promote dangerous drugs to the public in a manner that is false or misleading;

(2) Except as provided in section 4729.281 of the Revised Code, the sale of any drug for which a prescription is required, without having received a prescription for the drug;

(3) Willfully and knowingly filling prescriptions or selling drugs for KNOWINGLY DISPENSING MEDICATION PURSUANT TO false or forged prescriptions;

(4) Willfully and knowingly KNOWINGLY failing to maintain complete and accurate records of all controlled substances DANGEROUS DRUGS received or dispensed in compliance with federal laws and regulations and state laws and rules;

(5) Obtaining any remuneration by fraud, misrepresentation, or deception;

(6) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license issued under this chapter or Chapter 3715. of the Revised Code from the state board of pharmacy by fraud, misrepresentation, or deception.

(D) THE BOARD MAY SUSPEND A LICENSE OR IDENTIFICATION CARD UNDER DIVISION (B) OF SECTION 3719.121 OF THE REVISED CODE BY UTILIZING A TELEPHONE CONFERENCE CALL TO REVIEW THE ALLEGATIONS AND TAKE A VOTE.

(E) IF, PURSUANT TO AN ADJUDICATION UNDER CHAPTER 119. OF THE REVISED CODE, THE BOARD HAS REASONABLE CAUSE TO BELIEVE THAT A PHARMACIST OR PHARMACY INTERN IS PHYSICALLY OR MENTALLY IMPAIRED, THE BOARD MAY REQUIRE THE PHARMACIST OR PHARMACY INTERN TO SUBMIT TO A PHYSICAL OR MENTAL EXAMINATION, OR BOTH.

Sec. 4729.39. (A) A pharmacist may enter into a consult agreement with a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery. Under a consult agreement, a pharmacist is authorized to manage an individual's drug therapy, but only to the extent specified in the agreement by the individual's physician and to the extent specified in, this section, and the rules adopted under this section.

(B) ALL OF THE FOLLOWING APPLY TO A CONSULT AGREEMENT THAT AUTHORIZES A PHARMACIST TO MANAGE THE DRUG THERAPY OF AN INDIVIDUAL WHO IS NOT A PATIENT IN A HOSPITAL, AS DEFINED IN SECTION 3727.01 OF THE REVISED CODE, OR A RESIDENT IN A LONG-TERM CARE FACILITY, AS DEFINED IN SECTION 3729.01 OF THE REVISED CODE:

(1) A separate consult agreement must be entered into for each individual whose drug therapy is to be managed by a pharmacist. A consult agreement applies only to the particular diagnosis for which a physician prescribed an individual's drug therapy. If a different diagnosis is made for the individual, the pharmacist and physician must enter into a new or additional consult agreement.

(2) Management of an individual's drug therapy by a pharmacist under a consult agreement may include monitoring and modifying a prescription that has been issued for the individual. Except as provided in section 4729.38 of the Revised Code for the selection of generically equivalent drugs, management of an individual's drug therapy by a pharmacist under a consult agreement shall not include dispensing a drug that has not been prescribed by the physician.

(3) Each consult agreement shall be in writing, except that a consult agreement may be entered into verbally if it is immediately reduced to writing. A

(4) A PHYSICIAN ENTERING INTO A CONSULT AGREEMENT SHALL SPECIFY IN THE AGREEMENT THE EXTENT TO WHICH THE PHARMACIST IS AUTHORIZED TO MANAGE THE DRUG THERAPY OF THE INDIVIDUAL SPECIFIED IN THE AGREEMENT.

(5) A PHYSICIAN ENTERING INTO A CONSULT AGREEMENT MAY SPECIFY ONE OTHER PHYSICIAN WHO HAS AGREED TO SERVE AS AN ALTERNATE PHYSICIAN IN THE EVENT THAT THE PRIMARY PHYSICIAN IS UNAVAILABLE TO CONSULT DIRECTLY WITH THE PHARMACIST. THE PHARMACIST MAY SPECIFY ONE OTHER PHARMACIST WHO HAS AGREED TO SERVE AS AN ALTERNATE PHARMACIST IN THE EVENT THAT THE PRIMARY PHARMACIST IS UNAVAILABLE TO CONSULT DIRECTLY WITH THE PHYSICIAN.

(6) A consult agreement may not be implemented until it has been signed by the PRIMARY pharmacist, the PRIMARY physician, and the individual whose drug therapy will be managed or another person who has the authority to provide consent to treatment on behalf of the individual. The physician shall specify in the agreement the extent to which the pharmacist is authorized to manage the drug therapy of the individual specified in the agreement. The ONCE THE AGREEMENT IS SIGNED BY ALL REQUIRED PARTIES, THE physician shall include in the individual's medical record the fact that a consult agreement has been entered into with a pharmacist.

(7) Prior to commencing any action to manage an individual's drug therapy under a consult agreement, the pharmacist shall make reasonable attempts to contact and confer with the physician who entered into the consult agreement with the pharmacist. A pharmacist may commence an action to manage an individual's drug therapy prior to conferring with the physician OR THE PHYSICIAN'S ALTERNATE, but shall immediately cease the action that was commenced if the pharmacist has not conferred with the EITHER physician within forty-eight hours.

A pharmacist acting under a consult agreement shall maintain a record of each action taken to manage an individual's drug therapy. The pharmacist shall send to the individual's physician a written report of all actions taken to manage the individual's drug therapy at intervals the physician shall specify when entering into the agreement. The physician shall include the pharmacist's report in the medical records the physician maintains for the individual.

(8) A consult agreement may be terminated by either the pharmacist or physician who entered into the agreement. By withdrawing consent, the individual whose drug therapy is being managed or the individual who consented to the treatment on behalf of the individual may terminate a consult agreement. The pharmacist or physician who receives the individual's withdrawal of consent shall provide written notice to the opposite party. A pharmacist or physician who terminates a consult agreement shall provide written notice to the opposite party and to the individual who consented to treatment under the agreement. The termination of a consult agreement shall be recorded by the pharmacist and physician in the records they maintain on the individual being treated.

The (9) EXCEPT AS DESCRIBED IN DIVISION (B)(5) OF THIS SECTION, THE authority of a pharmacist to manage an individual's drug therapy under a consult agreement does not permit the pharmacist to manage drug therapy prescribed by any other physician or to manage an individual's drug therapy.

(C) ALL OF THE FOLLOWING APPLY TO A CONSULT AGREEMENT THAT AUTHORIZES A PHARMACIST TO MANAGE THE DRUG THERAPY OF AN INDIVIDUAL WHO IS A PATIENT IN A HOSPITAL, AS DEFINED IN SECTION 3727.01 OF THE REVISED CODE, OR A RESIDENT IN A LONG-TERM CARE FACILITY, AS DEFINED IN SECTION 3729.01 OF THE REVISED CODE:

(1) BEFORE A CONSULT AGREEMENT MAY BE ENTERED INTO AND IMPLEMENTED, A HOSPITAL OR LONG-TERM CARE FACILITY SHALL ADOPT A POLICY FOR CONSULT AGREEMENTS. FOR ANY PERIOD OF TIME DURING WHICH A PHARMACIST OR PHYSICIAN ACTING UNDER A CONSULT AGREEMENT IS NOT PHYSICALLY PRESENT AND AVAILABLE AT THE HOSPITAL OR FACILITY, THE POLICY SHALL REQUIRE THAT ANOTHER PHARMACIST AND PHYSICIAN BE PHYSICALLY PRESENT AND AVAILABLE AT THE HOSPITAL OR FACILITY.

(2) THE CONSULT AGREEMENT SHALL BE MADE IN WRITING AND SHALL COMPLY WITH THE HOSPITAL'S OR FACILITY'S POLICY ON CONSULT AGREEMENTS.

(3) THE CONSULT AGREEMENT SHALL BE SIGNED BY THE PHARMACIST AND THE PHYSICIAN ENTERING INTO THE AGREEMENT AND BY THE INDIVIDUAL WHOSE DRUG THERAPY WILL BE MANAGED OR ANOTHER PERSON AUTHORIZED TO PROVIDE CONSENT TO TREATMENT ON BEHALF OF THE INDIVIDUAL, EXCEPT IF A GROUP OF PHARMACISTS OR PHYSICIANS PROVIDE CARE FOR THE INDIVIDUAL, THE AGREEMENT NEED ONLY BE SIGNED BY THE INDIVIDUAL'S PRIMARY PHARMACIST, PRIMARY PHYSICIAN, AND THE INDIVIDUAL OR OTHER PERSON.

(4) THE CONTENT OF THE CONSULT AGREEMENT SHALL BE COMMUNICATED TO THE INDIVIDUAL WHOSE DRUG THERAPY WILL BE MANAGED IN A MANNER CONSISTENT WITH THE HOSPITAL'S OR FACILITY'S POLICY ON CONSULT AGREEMENTS.

(5) A PHARMACIST ACTING UNDER A CONSULT AGREEMENT SHALL MAINTAIN IN THE INDIVIDUAL'S MEDICAL RECORD A RECORD OF EACH ACTION TAKEN UNDER THE AGREEMENT.

(6) COMMUNICATION BETWEEN A PHARMACIST AND PHYSICIAN ACTING UNDER THE CONSULT AGREEMENT SHALL TAKE PLACE AT REGULAR INTERVALS SPECIFIED BY THE PRIMARY PHYSICIAN ACTING UNDER THE AGREEMENT.

(7) A CONSULT AGREEMENT MAY BE TERMINATED BY THE INDIVIDUAL, A PERSON AUTHORIZED TO ACT ON BEHALF OF THE INDIVIDUAL, THE PRIMARY PHYSICIAN ACTING UNDER THE AGREEMENT, OR THE PRIMARY PHARMACIST ACTING UNDER THE AGREEMENT. WHEN A CONSULT AGREEMENT IS TERMINATED, ALL PARTIES TO THE AGREEMENT SHALL BE NOTIFIED AND THE TERMINATION SHALL BE RECORDED IN THE INDIVIDUAL'S MEDICAL RECORD.

(8) THE AUTHORITY OF A PHARMACIST ACTING UNDER A CONSULT AGREEMENT DOES NOT PERMIT THE PHARMACIST TO ACT UNDER THE AGREEMENT in a hospital or health LONG-TERM care facility at which the pharmacist is not authorized to practice.

(B)(D) The state board of pharmacy, in consultation with the state medical board, shall adopt rules to be followed by pharmacists, and the state medical board, in consultation with the state board of pharmacy, shall adopt rules to be followed by physicians, that establish standards and procedures for entering into a consult agreement and managing an individual's drug therapy under a consult agreement. The boards shall specify in the rules any categories of drugs or types of diseases for which a consult agreement may not be established. Either board may adopt any other rules it considers necessary for the implementation and administration of this section. All rules adopted under this division shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4729.41. A PHARMACIST LICENSED UNDER THIS CHAPTER WHO HAS SUCCESSFULLY COMPLETED A COURSE APPROVED BY THE STATE BOARD OF PHARMACY IN ADMINISTRATION OF DRUGS MAY ADMINISTER DRUGS PRESCRIBED BY A LICENSED HEALTH PROFESSIONAL AUTHORIZED TO PRESCRIBE DRUGS. PROOF OF SUCCESSFULLY COMPLETING THE COURSE SHALL BE MAINTAINED BY THE PHARMACIST AT THE PHARMACIST'S PLACE OF EMPLOYMENT, SUBJECT TO INSPECTION BY THE BOARD OR THE BOARD'S DESIGNEE.

THE BOARD SHALL APPROVE COURSES FOR THE PURPOSES OF THIS SECTION.

Sec. 4729.55. No license shall be issued to an applicant for licensure as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs unless the applicant has furnished satisfactory proof to the board of pharmacy that:

(A) The applicant is equipped as to land, buildings, and equipment to properly carry on the business of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs within the category of licensure approved by the board.

(B) A pharmacist, licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, animal shelter licensed with the state board of pharmacy under section 4729.531 of the Revised Code, or a laboratory as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code will maintain supervision and control over the possession and custody of dangerous drugs that may be acquired by or on behalf of the applicant.

(C) Adequate safeguards are assured to prevent the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs by any person other than a pharmacist or licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.

(D) ADEQUATE SAFEGUARDS ARE ASSURED THAT THE APPLICANT WILL CARRY ON THE BUSINESS OF A TERMINAL DISTRIBUTOR OF DANGEROUS DRUGS IN A MANNER THAT ALLOWS PHARMACISTS AND PHARMACY INTERNS EMPLOYED BY THE TERMINAL DISTRIBUTOR TO PRACTICE PHARMACY IN A SAFE AND EFFECTIVE MANNER.

(E) If the applicant, or any agent or employee of the applicant, has been found guilty of violating section 4729.51 of the Revised Code, the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, the federal drug abuse control laws, Chapter 2925., 3715., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code, or any rule of the board, adequate safeguards are assured to prevent the recurrence of the violation.

(E)(F) In the case of an applicant who is a food processor or retail seller of food, the applicant will maintain supervision and control over the possession and custody of nitrous oxide.

(F)(G) In the case of an applicant who is a retail seller of oxygen in original packages labeled as required by the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," the applicant will maintain supervision and control over the possession, custody, and retail sale of the oxygen.

(G)(H) If the application is made on behalf of an animal shelter, at least one of the agents or employees of the animal shelter is certified in compliance with section 4729.532 of the Revised Code.

(H)(I) In the case of an applicant who is a retail seller of peritoneal dialysis solutions in original packages labeled as required by the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, the applicant will maintain supervision and control over the possession, custody, and retail sale of the peritoneal dialysis solutions.