To amend sections 2305.113, 2305.234, 2711.22, 3701.071, 3719.81, 4713.02, 4715.42, 4723.01, 4723.03, 4723.28, 4723.44, 4723.48, 4723.482, 4729.01, 4731.22, and 4731.295 of the Revised Code to extend immunity from liability for services provided by volunteer health care professionals and workers to additional health care facilities and locations and to nonprofit health care referral organizations, to provide additional requirements for the immunity of a health care professional, to increase the maximum allowable income of individuals who may be served by volunteers having immunity from liability, and to specify the nurses who may refer to themselves as advanced practice nurses.

Section 1. That sections 2305.113, 2305.234, 2711.22, 3701.071, 3719.81, 4713.02, 4715.42, 4723.01, 4723.03, 4723.28, 4723.44, 4723.48, 4723.482, 4729.01, 4731.22, and 4731.295 of the Revised Code be amended to read as follows:

Sec. 2305.113. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an action upon a medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim shall be commenced within one year after the cause of action accrued.

(B)(1) If prior to the expiration of the one-year period specified in division (A) of this section, a claimant who allegedly possesses a medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim gives to the person who is the subject of that claim written notice that the claimant is considering bringing an action upon that claim, that action may be commenced against the person notified at any time within one hundred eighty days after the notice is so given.

(2) An insurance company shall not consider the existence or nonexistence of a written notice described in division (B)(1) of this section in setting the liability insurance premium rates that the company may charge the company's insured person who is notified by that written notice.

(C) Except as to persons within the age of minority or of unsound mind as provided by section 2305.16 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division (D) of this section, both of the following apply:

(1) No action upon a medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim shall be commenced more than four years after the occurrence of the act or omission constituting the alleged basis of the medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim.

(2) If an action upon a medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim is not commenced within four years after the occurrence of the act or omission constituting the alleged basis of the medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic claim, then, any action upon that claim is barred.

(D)(1) If a person making a medical claim, dental claim, optometric claim, or chiropractic claim, in the exercise of reasonable care and diligence, could not have discovered the injury resulting from the act or omission constituting the alleged basis of the claim within three years after the occurrence of the act or omission, but, in the exercise of reasonable care and diligence, discovers the injury resulting from that act or omission before the expiration of the four-year period specified in division (C)(1) of this section, the person may commence an action upon the claim not later than one year after the person discovers the injury resulting from that act or omission.

(2) If the alleged basis of a medical claim, dental claim, optometric claim, or chiropractic claim is the occurrence of an act or omission that involves a foreign object that is left in the body of the person making the claim, the person may commence an action upon the claim not later than one year after the person discovered the foreign object or not later than one year after the person, with reasonable care and diligence, should have discovered the foreign object.

(3) A person who commences an action upon a medical claim, dental claim, optometric claim, or chiropractic claim under the circumstances described in division (D)(1) or (2) of this section has the affirmative burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the person, with reasonable care and diligence, could not have discovered the injury resulting from the act or omission constituting the alleged basis of the claim within the three-year period described in division (D)(1) of this section or within the one-year period described in division (D)(2) of this section, whichever is applicable.

(E) As used in this section:

(1) "Hospital" includes any person, corporation, association, board, or authority that is responsible for the operation of any hospital licensed or registered in the state, including, but not limited to, those that are owned or operated by the state, political subdivisions, any person, any corporation, or any combination of the state, political subdivisions, persons, and corporations. "Hospital" also includes any person, corporation, association, board, entity, or authority that is responsible for the operation of any clinic that employs a full-time staff of physicians practicing in more than one recognized medical specialty and rendering advice, diagnosis, care, and treatment to individuals. "Hospital" does not include any hospital operated by the government of the United States or any of its branches.

(2) "Physician" means a person who is licensed to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery by the state medical board or a person who otherwise is authorized to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery in this state.

(3) "Medical claim" means any claim that is asserted in any civil action against a physician, podiatrist, hospital, home, or residential facility, against any employee or agent of a physician, podiatrist, hospital, home, or residential facility, or against a licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, advanced practice nurse, physical therapist, physician assistant, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic, and that arises out of the medical diagnosis, care, or treatment of any person. "Medical claim" includes the following:

(a) Derivative claims for relief that arise from the medical diagnosis, care, or treatment of a person;

(b) Claims that arise out of the medical diagnosis, care, or treatment of any person and to which either of the following applies:

(i) The claim results from acts or omissions in providing medical care.

(ii) The claim results from the hiring, training, supervision, retention, or termination of caregivers providing medical diagnosis, care, or treatment.

(c) Claims that arise out of the medical diagnosis, care, or treatment of any person and that are brought under section 3721.17 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Podiatrist" means any person who is licensed to practice podiatric medicine and surgery by the state medical board.

(5) "Dentist" means any person who is licensed to practice dentistry by the state dental board.

(6) "Dental claim" means any claim that is asserted in any civil action against a dentist, or against any employee or agent of a dentist, and that arises out of a dental operation or the dental diagnosis, care, or treatment of any person. "Dental claim" includes derivative claims for relief that arise from a dental operation or the dental diagnosis, care, or treatment of a person.

(7) "Derivative claims for relief" include, but are not limited to, claims of a parent, guardian, custodian, or spouse of an individual who was the subject of any medical diagnosis, care, or treatment, dental diagnosis, care, or treatment, dental operation, optometric diagnosis, care, or treatment, or chiropractic diagnosis, care, or treatment, that arise from that diagnosis, care, treatment, or operation, and that seek the recovery of damages for any of the following:

(a) Loss of society, consortium, companionship, care, assistance, attention, protection, advice, guidance, counsel, instruction, training, or education, or any other intangible loss that was sustained by the parent, guardian, custodian, or spouse;

(b) Expenditures of the parent, guardian, custodian, or spouse for medical, dental, optometric, or chiropractic care or treatment, for rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, products, or accommodations provided to the individual who was the subject of the medical diagnosis, care, or treatment, the dental diagnosis, care, or treatment, the dental operation, the optometric diagnosis, care, or treatment, or the chiropractic diagnosis, care, or treatment.

(8) "Registered nurse" means any person who is licensed to practice nursing as a registered nurse by the state board of nursing.

(9) "Chiropractic claim" means any claim that is asserted in any civil action against a chiropractor, or against any employee or agent of a chiropractor, and that arises out of the chiropractic diagnosis, care, or treatment of any person. "Chiropractic claim" includes derivative claims for relief that arise from the chiropractic diagnosis, care, or treatment of a person.

(10) "Chiropractor" means any person who is licensed to practice chiropractic by the state chiropractic examining board.

(11) "Optometric claim" means any claim that is asserted in any civil action against an optometrist, or against any employee or agent of an optometrist, and that arises out of the optometric diagnosis, care, or treatment of any person. "Optometric claim" includes derivative claims for relief that arise from the optometric diagnosis, care, or treatment of a person.

(12) "Optometrist" means any person licensed to practice optometry by the state board of optometry.

(13) "Physical therapist" means any person who is licensed to practice physical therapy under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code.

(14) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.

(15) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.

(16) "Advanced practice nurse" means any certified nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, or certified registered nurse anesthetist, or a certified nurse-midwife certified by the board of nursing under has the same meaning as in section 4723.41 4723.01 of the Revised Code.

(17) "Licensed practical nurse" means any person who is licensed to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse by the state board of nursing pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.

(18) "Physician assistant" means any person who holds a valid certificate of registration or temporary certificate of registration issued pursuant to Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code.

(19) "Emergency medical technician-basic," "emergency medical technician-intermediate," and "emergency medical technician-paramedic" means any person who is certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code as an emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic, whichever is applicable.

Sec. 2305.234.  (A) As used in this section:

(1) "Chiropractic claim," "medical claim," and "optometric claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include any claim arising out of a dental operation or any derivative claim for relief that arises out of a dental operation.

(3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Health care facility or location" means a hospital, clinic, ambulatory surgical facility, office of a health care professional or associated group of health care professionals, training institution for health care professionals, or any other place where medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment is provided to a person.

(5) "Health care professional" means any of the following who provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment:

(a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;

(b) Registered nurses, advanced Advanced practice nurses, as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code, and registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;

(c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code;

(d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;

(e) Physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, occupational therapists, and occupational therapy assistants licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;

(f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code;

(g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code;

(h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice podiatry;

(i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised Code;

(j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code;

(k) Emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical technicians-paramedic, certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;

(l) Respiratory care professionals licensed under Chapter 4761. of the Revised Code;

(m) Speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code.

(5)(6) "Health care worker" means a person other than a health care professional who provides medical, dental, or other health-related care or treatment under the direction of a health care professional with the authority to direct that individual's activities, including medical technicians, medical assistants, dental assistants, orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in similar capacities.

(6)(7) "Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets all of the following requirements:

(a) The person's income is not greater than one two hundred fifty per cent of the current poverty line as defined by the United States office of management and budget and revised in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended.

(b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance under Chapter 5111., disability medical assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or assistance under any other governmental health care program.

(c) Either of the following applies:

(i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate holder, insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan.

(ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder, insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer, policy, contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of insolvency or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.

(7)(8) "Nonprofit health care referral organization" means an entity that is not operated for profit and refers patients to, or arranges for the provision of, health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment by a health care professional or health care worker.

(9) "Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or otherwise infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including surgery, laser surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic ultrasound, or the removal of intraocular foreign bodies. "Operation" does not include the administration of medication by injection, unless the injection is administered in conjunction with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means other than the administration of medicine by injection. "Operation" does not include routine dental restorative procedures, the scaling of teeth, or extractions of teeth that are not impacted.

(8) "Nonprofit shelter or health care facility" means a charitable nonprofit corporation organized and operated pursuant to Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code, or any charitable organization not organized and not operated for profit, that provides shelter, health care services, or shelter and health care services to indigent and uninsured persons, except that "shelter or health care facility" does not include a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or a medical facility that is operated for profit.

(9)(10) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to person or property other than a civil action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement between persons or government entities.

(10)(11) "Volunteer" means an individual who provides any medical, dental, or other health-care related diagnosis, care, or treatment without the expectation of receiving and without receipt of any compensation or other form of remuneration from an indigent and uninsured person, another person on behalf of an indigent and uninsured person, any shelter or health care facility or location, any nonprofit health care referral organization, or any other person or government entity.

(11)(12) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) Subject to divisions (E)(F) and (F)(G)(3) of this section, a health care professional who is a volunteer and complies with division (B)(2) of this section is not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the volunteer in the provision at a nonprofit shelter or health care facility to an indigent and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment, including the provision of samples of medicine and other medical products, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(2) To qualify for the immunity described in division (B)(1) of this section, a health care professional shall do all of the following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:

(a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and uninsured person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is not subject to duress or under undue influence;

(b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section, including notifying the person that, by giving informed consent to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person cannot hold the health care professional liable for damages in a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, unless the action or omission of the health care professional constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;

(c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written waiver, signed by the person or by another individual on behalf of and in the presence of the person, that states that the person is mentally competent to give informed consent and, without being subject to duress or under undue influence, gives informed consent to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment subject to the provisions of this section. A written waiver under division (B)(2)(c) of this section shall state clearly and in conspicuous type that the person or other individual who signs the waiver is signing it with full knowledge that, by giving informed consent to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person cannot bring a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, against the health care professional unless the action or omission of the health care professional constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered by medical malpractice insurance, but complies with division (B)(2) of this section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section 4731.143 of the Revised Code.

(C) Subject to divisions (E)(F) and (F)(G)(3) of this section, health care workers who are volunteers are not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the health care worker in the provision at a nonprofit shelter or health care facility to an indigent and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(D) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a nonprofit health care referral organization is not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the nonprofit health care referral organization in referring indigent and uninsured persons to, or arranging for the provision of, medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment by a health care professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or a health care worker described in division (C) of this section, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(E) Subject to divisions (E)(F) and (F)(G)(3) of this section and to the extent that the registration requirements of section 3701.071 of the Revised Code apply, a nonprofit shelter or health care facility or location associated with a health care professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or, a health care worker described in division (C) of this section, or a nonprofit health care referral organization described in division (D) of this section is not liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the health care professional or worker in providing for or nonprofit health care referral organization relative to the shelter or facility medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment provided to an indigent and uninsured person on behalf of or at the health care facility or location, unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

(E)(F)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(F)(2) of this section, the immunities provided by divisions (B), (C), and (D), and (E) of this section are not available to an individual or to a nonprofit shelter a health care professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health care facility or location if, at the time of an alleged injury, death, or loss to person or property, the individuals health care professionals or health care workers involved are providing one of the following:

(a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment pursuant to a community service work order entered by a court under division (B) of section 2951.02 of the Revised Code or imposed by a court as a community control sanction;

(b) Performance of an operation;

(c) Delivery of a baby.

(2) Division (E)(F)(1) of this section does not apply to an individual who provides, or a nonprofit shelter or health care facility at which the individual when a health care professional or health care worker provides, medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment that is necessary to preserve the life of a person in a medical emergency.

(F)(G)(1) This section does not create a new cause of action or substantive legal right against a health care professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or nonprofit shelter or health care facility or location.

(2) This section does not affect any immunities from civil liability or defenses established by another section of the Revised Code or available at common law to which an individual or a nonprofit shelter health care professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health care facility or location may be entitled in connection with the provision of emergency or other medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment.

(3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort or other civil liability to an individual or a nonprofit shelter health care professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health care facility or location for actions that are outside the scope of authority of health care professionals or health care workers.

(4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of a health care professional or, health care worker, or nonprofit health care referral organization to comply with any applicable law of this state or rule of an agency of this state.

(5) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of a nonprofit shelter or health care facility or location to comply with any applicable law of this state, rule of an agency of this state, or local code, ordinance, or regulation that pertains to or regulates building, housing, air pollution, water pollution, sanitation, health, fire, zoning, or safety.

Sec. 2711.22.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a written contract between a patient and a hospital or healthcare provider to settle by binding arbitration any dispute or controversy arising out of the diagnosis, treatment, or care of the patient rendered by a hospital or healthcare provider, that is entered into prior to the diagnosis, treatment, or care of the patient is valid, irrevocable, and enforceable once the contract is signed by all parties. The contract remains valid, irrevocable, and enforceable until or unless the patient or the patient's legal representative rescinds the contract by written notice within thirty days of the signing of the contract. A guardian or other legal representative of the patient may give written notice of the rescission of the contract if the patient is incapacitated or a minor.

(B) As used in this section and in sections 2711.23 and 2711.24 of the Revised Code:

(1) "Healthcare provider" means a physician, podiatrist, dentist, licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, advanced practice nurse, chiropractor, optometrist, physician assistant, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, or physical therapist.

(2) "Hospital," "physician," "podiatrist," "dentist," "licensed practical nurse," "registered nurse," "advanced practice nurse," "chiropractor," "optometrist," "physician assistant," "emergency medical technician-basic," "emergency medical technician-intermediate," "emergency medical technician-paramedic," "physical therapist," "medical claim," "dental claim," "optometric claim," and "chiropractic claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Advanced practice nurse" has the same meaning as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 3701.071.  (A) As used in this section, "nonprofit:

(1) "Indigent and uninsured person" has the same meaning as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Nonprofit shelter or health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code means a charitable nonprofit corporation organized and operated pursuant to Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code, or any charitable organization not organized and not operated for profit, that provides shelter, health care services, or shelter and health care services to indigent and uninsured persons. "Nonprofit shelter or health care facility" does not include a hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or a medical facility that is operated for profit.

(B) A nonprofit shelter or health care facility operating in this state shall register on the first day of January each year with the department of health. The immunity provided by division (D)(E) of section 2305.234 of the Revised Code is not available to a nonprofit shelter or health care facility until the shelter or facility registers with the department in accordance with this section.

(C) A nonprofit shelter or health care facility operating in this state shall keep records of all patients who receive medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment at the shelter or facility. The department of health shall monitor the quality of care provided to patients at nonprofit shelters or health care facilities. The monitoring program may be conducted by contracting with another entity or through any other method authorized by law. The department may solicit and accept funds from private sources to fund the monitoring program.

Sec. 3719.81.  (A) A person may furnish another a sample of any drug of abuse, or of any drug or pharmaceutical preparation that would be hazardous to health or safety if used without the supervision of a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, if all of the following apply:

(1) The sample is furnished by a manufacturer, manufacturer's representative, or wholesale dealer in pharmaceuticals to a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs, or is furnished by such a professional to a patient for use as medication;

(2) The drug is in the original container in which it was placed by the manufacturer, and the container is plainly marked as a sample;

(3) Prior to its being furnished, the drug sample has been stored under the proper conditions to prevent its deterioration or contamination;

(4) If the drug is of a type which deteriorates with time, the sample container is plainly marked with the date beyond which the drug sample is unsafe to use, and the date has not expired on the sample furnished. Compliance with the labeling requirements of the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, shall be deemed compliance with this section.

(5) The drug is distributed, stored, or discarded in such a way that the drug sample may not be acquired or used by any unauthorized person, or by any person, including a child, for whom it may present a health or safety hazard.

(B) Division (A) of this section does not do any of the following:

(1) Apply to or restrict the furnishing of any sample of a nonnarcotic substance if the substance may, under the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act" and under the laws of this state, otherwise be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription;

(2) Authorize a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs who is a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, or advanced practice nurse to furnish a sample of a drug that is not a drug the nurse is authorized to prescribe;

(3) Authorize an optometrist to furnish a sample of a drug that is not a drug the optometrist is authorized to prescribe.

(C) The state board of pharmacy shall, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt rules as necessary to give effect to this section.

Sec. 4713.02.  (A) There is hereby created the state board of cosmetology, consisting of all of the following members appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate:

(1) One person holding a current, valid cosmetologist, managing cosmetologist, or cosmetology instructor license at the time of appointment;

(2) Two persons holding current, valid managing cosmetologist licenses and actively engaged in managing beauty salons at the time of appointment;

(3) One person who holds a current, valid independent contractor license at the time of appointment or the owner or manager of a licensed salon in which at least one person holding a current, valid independent contractor license practices a branch of cosmetology;

(4) One person who represents individuals who teach the theory and practice of a branch of cosmetology at a vocational school;

(5) One owner of a licensed school of cosmetology;

(6) One owner of at least five licensed salons;

(7) One person who is either an advanced practice nurse approved under section 4723.55 of the Revised Code, a certified nurse practitioner or clinical nurse specialist holding a certificate of authority under section 4723.41 of the Revised Code, or a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;

(8) One person representing the general public.

(B) The superintendent of public instruction shall nominate three persons for the governor to choose from when making an appointment under division (A)(4) of this section.

(C) All members shall be at least twenty-five years of age, residents of the state, and citizens of the United States. No more than two members, at any time, shall be graduates of the same school of cosmetology.

Except for the initial members appointed under divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section, terms of office are for five years. The term of the initial member appointed under division (A)(3) of this section shall be three years. The term of the initial member appointed under division (A)(4) of this section shall be four years. Terms shall commence on the first day of November and end on the thirty-first day of October. Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for which appointed. In case of a vacancy occurring on the board, the governor shall, in the same manner prescribed for the regular appointment to the board, fill the vacancy by appointing a member. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of the office of member, each member shall take, and file with the secretary of state, the oath of office required by Section 7 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.

The members of the board shall receive an amount fixed pursuant to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code per diem for every meeting of the board which they attend, together with their necessary expenses, and mileage for each mile necessarily traveled.

The members of the board shall annually elect, from among their number, a chairperson.

The board shall prescribe the duties of its officers and establish an office at Columbus, Ohio. The board shall keep all records and files at the office and have the records and files at all reasonable hours open to public inspection. The board also shall adopt a seal.

Sec. 4715.42.  (A)(1) As used in this section, "indigent and uninsured person," "nonprofit shelter or health care facility," and "operation" have the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

(2) For the purposes of this section, a person shall be considered retired from practice if the person's license has been surrendered or allowed to expire with the intention of ceasing to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist for remuneration.

(B) The state dental board may issue, without examination, a volunteer's certificate to a person who is retired from practice so that the person may provide dental services to indigent and uninsured persons at nonprofit shelters or health care facilities.

(C) An application for a volunteer's certificate shall include all of the following:

(1) A copy of the applicant's degree from dental college or dental hygiene school.

(2) One of the following, as applicable:

(a) A copy of the applicant's most recent license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene issued by a jurisdiction in the United States that licenses persons to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.

(b) A copy of the applicant's most recent license equivalent to a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in one or more branches of the United States armed services that the United States government issued.

(3) Evidence of one of the following, as applicable:

(a) The applicant has maintained for at least ten years prior to retirement full licensure in good standing in any jurisdiction in the United States that licenses persons to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.

(b) The applicant has practiced as a dentist or dental hygienist in good standing for at least ten years prior to retirement in one or more branches of the United States armed services.

(4) A notarized statement from the applicant, on a form prescribed by the board, that the applicant will not accept any form of remuneration for any dental services rendered while in possession of a volunteer's certificate.

(D) The holder of a volunteer's certificate may provide dental services only on the premises of a nonprofit shelter or health care facility and only to indigent and uninsured persons. The holder shall not accept any form of remuneration for providing dental services while in possession of the certificate. Except in a dental emergency, the holder shall not perform any operation. The board may revoke a volunteer's certificate on receiving proof satisfactory to the board that the holder has engaged in practice in this state outside the scope of the holder's certificate or that there are grounds for action against the person under section 4715.30 of the Revised Code.

(E)(1) A volunteer's certificate shall be valid for a period of three years, and may be renewed upon the application of the holder, unless the certificate was previously revoked under division (D) of this section. The board shall maintain a register of all persons who hold volunteer's certificates. The board shall not charge a fee for issuing or renewing a certificate pursuant to this section.

(2) To be eligible for renewal of a volunteer's certificate, the holder of the certificate shall certify to the board completion of sixty hours of continuing dental education that meets the requirements of section 4715.141 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that section, or completion of eighteen hours of continuing dental hygiene education that meets the requirements of section 4715.25 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that section, as the case may be. The board may not renew a certificate if the holder has not complied with the appropriate continuing education requirements. The nonprofit shelter or health care facility in Any entity for which the holder provides dental services may pay for or reimburse the holder for any costs incurred in obtaining the required continuing education credits.

(3) The board shall issue to each person who qualifies under this section for a volunteer's certificate a wallet certificate and a wall certificate that state that the certificate holder is authorized to provide dental services pursuant to the laws of this state. The holder shall keep the wallet certificate on the holder's person while providing dental services and shall display the wall certificate prominently in the nonprofit shelter or health care facility at the location where the holder primarily practices.

(4) The holder of a volunteer's certificate issued pursuant to this section is subject to the immunity provisions in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

(F) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer and enforce this section.

Sec.  4723.01.  As used in this chapter:

(A) "Registered nurse" means an individual who holds a current, valid license issued under this chapter that authorizes the practice of nursing as a registered nurse.

(B) "Practice of nursing as a registered nurse" means providing to individuals and groups nursing care requiring specialized knowledge, judgment, and skill derived from the principles of biological, physical, behavioral, social, and nursing sciences. Such nursing care includes:

(1) Identifying patterns of human responses to actual or potential health problems amenable to a nursing regimen;

(2) Executing a nursing regimen through the selection, performance, management, and evaluation of nursing actions;

(3) Assessing health status for the purpose of providing nursing care;

(4) Providing health counseling and health teaching;

(5) Administering medications, treatments, and executing regimens authorized by an individual who is authorized to practice in this state and is acting within the course of the individual's professional practice;

(6) Teaching, administering, supervising, delegating, and evaluating nursing practice.

(C) "Nursing regimen" may include preventative, restorative, and health-promotion activities.

(D) "Assessing health status" means the collection of data through nursing assessment techniques, which may include interviews, observation, and physical evaluations for the purpose of providing nursing care.

(E) "Licensed practical nurse" means an individual who holds a current, valid license issued under this chapter that authorizes the practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse.

(F) "The practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse" means providing to individuals and groups nursing care requiring the application of basic knowledge of the biological, physical, behavioral, social, and nursing sciences at the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, podiatrist, optometrist, chiropractor, or registered nurse. Such nursing care includes:

(1) Observation, patient teaching, and care in a diversity of health care settings;

(2) Contributions to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of nursing;

(3) Administration of medications and treatments authorized by an individual who is authorized to practice in this state and is acting within the course of the individual's professional practice, except that administration of intravenous therapy shall be performed only in accordance with section 4723.17 or 4723.171 of the Revised Code. Medications may be administered by a licensed practical nurse upon proof of completion of a course in medication administration approved by the board of nursing.

(4) Administration to an adult of intravenous therapy authorized by an individual who is authorized to practice in this state and is acting within the course of the individual's professional practice, on the condition that the licensed practical nurse is authorized under section 4723.17 or 4723.171 of the Revised Code to perform intravenous therapy and performs intravenous therapy only in accordance with those sections.

(G) "Certified registered nurse anesthetist" means a registered nurse who holds a valid certificate of authority issued under this chapter that authorizes the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist in accordance with section 4723.43 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the board of nursing.

(H) "Clinical nurse specialist" means a registered nurse who holds a valid certificate of authority issued under this chapter that authorizes the practice of nursing as a clinical nurse specialist in accordance with section 4723.43 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the board of nursing.

(I) "Certified nurse-midwife" means a registered nurse who holds a valid certificate of authority issued under this chapter that authorizes the practice of nursing as a certified nurse-midwife in accordance with section 4723.43 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the board of nursing.

(J) "Certified nurse practitioner" means a registered nurse who holds a valid certificate of authority issued under this chapter that authorizes the practice of nursing as a certified nurse practitioner in accordance with section 4723.43 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the board of nursing.

(K) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.

(L) "Collaboration" or "collaborating" means the following:

(1) In the case of a clinical nurse specialist, except as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, or a certified nurse practitioner, that one or more podiatrists acting within the scope of practice of podiatry in accordance with section 4731.51 of the Revised Code and with whom the nurse has entered into a standard care arrangement or one or more physicians with whom the nurse has entered into a standard care arrangement are continuously available to communicate with the clinical nurse specialist or certified nurse practitioner either in person or by radio, telephone, or other form of telecommunication;

(2) In the case of a certified nurse-midwife, that one or more physicians with whom the certified nurse-midwife has entered into a standard care arrangement are continuously available to communicate with the certified nurse-midwife either in person or by radio, telephone, or other form of telecommunication;

(3) In the case of a clinical nurse specialist who practices the nursing specialty of mental health or psychiatric mental health without being authorized to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices, that one or more physicians are continuously available to communicate with the nurse either in person or by radio, telephone, or other form of telecommunication.

(M) "Supervision," as it pertains to a certified registered nurse anesthetist, means that the certified registered nurse anesthetist is under the direction of a podiatrist acting within the podiatrist's scope of practice in accordance with section 4731.51 of the Revised Code, a dentist acting within the dentist's scope of practice in accordance with Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code, or a physician, and, when administering anesthesia, the certified registered nurse anesthetist is in the immediate presence of the podiatrist, dentist, or physician.

(N) "Standard care arrangement," except as it pertains to an advanced practice nurse, means a written, formal guide for planning and evaluating a patient's health care that is developed by one or more collaborating physicians or podiatrists and a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner and meets the requirements of section 4723.431 of the Revised Code.

(O) "Advanced practice nurse," until three years and eight months after May 17, 2000, means a registered nurse who is approved by the board of nursing under section 4723.55 of the Revised Code to practice as an advanced practice nurse certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner.

(P) "Dialysis care" means the care and procedures that a dialysis technician is authorized to provide and perform, as specified in section 4723.72 of the Revised Code.

(Q) "Dialysis technician" means an individual who holds a current, valid certificate or temporary certificate issued under this chapter that authorizes the individual to practice as a dialysis technician in accordance with section 4723.72 of the Revised Code.

(R) "Certified community health worker" means an individual who holds a current, valid certificate as a community health worker issued by the board of nursing under section 4723.85 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4723.03.  (A) No person shall engage in the practice of nursing as a registered nurse, represent the person as being a registered nurse, or use the title "registered nurse," the initials "R.N.," or any other title implying that the person is a registered nurse, for a fee, salary, or other consideration, or as a volunteer, without holding a current, valid license as a registered nurse under this chapter.

(B) No person shall engage in the practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse, represent the person as being a licensed practical nurse, or use the title "licensed practical nurse," the initials "L.P.N.," or any other title implying that the person is a licensed practical nurse, for a fee, salary, or other consideration, or as a volunteer, without holding a current, valid license as a practical nurse under this chapter.

(C) No person shall use the titles or initials "graduate nurse," "G.N.," "professional nurse," "P.N.," "graduate practical nurse," "G.P.N.," "practical nurse," "P.N.," "trained nurse," "T.N.," or any other statement, title, or initials that would imply or represent to the public that the person is authorized to practice nursing in this state, except as follows:

(1) A person licensed under this chapter to practice nursing as a registered nurse may use that title and the initials "R.N.";

(2) A person licensed under this chapter to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse may use that title and the initials "L.P.N.";

(3) A person authorized under this chapter to practice nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist may use that title, the initials "C.R.N.A." or "N.A.," and any other title or initials approved by the board of nursing;

(4) A person authorized under this chapter to practice nursing as a clinical nurse specialist may use that title, the initials "C.N.S.," and any other title or initials approved by the board;

(5) A person authorized under this chapter to practice nursing as a certified nurse-midwife may use that title, the initials "C.N.M.," and any other title or initials approved by the board;

(6) A person authorized under this chapter to practice nursing as a certified nurse practitioner may use that title, the initials "C.N.P.," and any other title or initials approved by the board;

(7) A person authorized under this chapter to practice as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner may use the title "advanced practice nurse," the initials "A.P.N.," and any other title or initials approved by the board.

(D) No person shall employ a person not licensed as a registered nurse under this chapter to engage in the practice of nursing as a registered nurse. No person shall employ a person not licensed as a practical nurse under this chapter to engage in the practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse.

(E) No person shall sell or fraudulently obtain or furnish any nursing diploma, license, certificate, renewal, or record, or aid or abet such acts.

Sec. 4723.28.  (A) The board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may revoke or may refuse to grant a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate to a person found by the board to have committed fraud in passing an examination required to obtain the license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board.

(B) Subject to division (N) of this section, the board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may impose one or more of the following sanctions: deny, revoke, suspend, or place restrictions on any nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board; reprimand or otherwise discipline a holder of a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate; or impose a fine of not more than five hundred dollars per violation. The sanctions may be imposed for any of the following:

(1) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of authority to practice a health care occupation, including nursing or practice as a dialysis technician, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or another state or jurisdiction;

(2) Engaging in the practice of nursing or engaging in practice as a dialysis technician, having failed to renew a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate issued under this chapter, or while a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate is under suspension;

(3) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;

(4) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of any crime involving gross immorality or moral turpitude;

(5) Selling, giving away, or administering drugs or therapeutic devices for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes; or conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, violating any municipal, state, county, or federal drug law;

(6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, an act in another jurisdiction that would constitute a felony or a crime of moral turpitude in Ohio;

(7) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, an act in the course of practice in another jurisdiction that would constitute a misdemeanor in Ohio;

(8) Self-administering or otherwise taking into the body any dangerous drug, as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, in any way not in accordance with a legal, valid prescription issued for that individual;

(9) Habitual indulgence in the use of controlled substances, other habit-forming drugs, or alcohol or other chemical substances to an extent that impairs ability to practice;

(10) Impairment of the ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe nursing care because of habitual or excessive use of drugs, alcohol, or other chemical substances that impair the ability to practice;

(11) Impairment of the ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe nursing care because of a physical or mental disability;

(12) Assaulting or causing harm to a patient or depriving a patient of the means to summon assistance;

(13) Obtaining or attempting to obtain money or anything of value by intentional misrepresentation or material deception in the course of practice;

(14) Adjudication by a probate court of being mentally ill or mentally incompetent. The board may restore the person's nursing license or dialysis technician certificate upon adjudication by a probate court of the person's restoration to competency or upon submission to the board of other proof of competency.

(15) The suspension or termination of employment by the department of defense or the veterans administration of the United States for any act that violates or would violate this chapter;

(16) Violation of this chapter or any rules adopted under it;

(17) Violation of any restrictions placed on a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate by the board;

(18) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4723.07 of the Revised Code;

(19) Failure to practice in accordance with acceptable and prevailing standards of safe nursing care or safe dialysis care;

(20) In the case of a registered nurse, engaging in activities that exceed the practice of nursing as a registered nurse;

(21) In the case of a licensed practical nurse, engaging in activities that exceed the practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse;

(22) In the case of a dialysis technician, engaging in activities that exceed those permitted under section 4723.72 of the Revised Code;

(23) Aiding and abetting a person in that person's practice of nursing without a license or practice as a dialysis technician without a certificate issued under this chapter;

(24) In the case of a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, or advanced practice nurse, except as provided in division (M) of this section, either of the following:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers such nursing services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that provider;

(b) Advertising that the nurse will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers such nursing services, would otherwise be required to pay.

(25) Failure to comply with the terms and conditions of participation in the chemical dependency monitoring program established under section 4723.35 of the Revised Code;

(26) Failure to comply with the terms and conditions required under the practice intervention and improvement program established under section 4723.282 of the Revised Code;

(27) In the case of a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner:

(a) Engaging in activities that exceed those permitted for the nurse's nursing specialty under section 4723.43 of the Revised Code;

(b) Failure to meet the quality assurance standards established under section 4723.07 of the Revised Code.

(28) In the case of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, failure to maintain a standard care arrangement in accordance with section 4723.431 of the Revised Code or to practice in accordance with the standard care arrangement;

(29) In the case of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code, failure to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices in accordance with section 4723.481 of the Revised Code;

(30) Prescribing any drug or device to perform or induce an abortion, or otherwise performing or inducing an abortion;

(31) Failure to establish and maintain professional boundaries with a patient, as specified in rules adopted under section 4723.07 of the Revised Code;

(32) Regardless of whether the contact or verbal behavior is consensual, engaging with a patient other than the spouse of the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician in any of the following:

(a) Sexual contact, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code;

(b) Verbal behavior that is sexually demeaning to the patient or may be reasonably interpreted by the patient as sexually demeaning.

(33) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code.

(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of a hearing, the board may enter into a consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by a vote of a quorum, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the agreement shall be of no effect.

(D) The hearings of the board shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may appoint a hearing examiner, as provided in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, to conduct any hearing the board is authorized to hold under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

In any instance in which the board is required under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and the applicant or license holder does not make a timely request for a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by a vote of a quorum, a final order that contains the board's findings. In the final order, the board may order any of the sanctions listed in division (A) or (B) of this section.

(E) If a criminal action is brought against a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician for an act or crime described in divisions (B)(3) to (7) of this section and the action is dismissed by the trial court other than on the merits, the board shall conduct an adjudication to determine whether the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed the act on which the action was based. If the board determines on the basis of the adjudication that the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed the act, or if the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician fails to participate in the adjudication, the board may take action as though the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician had been convicted of the act.

If the board takes action on the basis of a conviction, plea, or a judicial finding as described in divisions (B)(3) to (7) of this section that is overturned on appeal, the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician may, on exhaustion of the appeal process, petition the board for reconsideration of its action. On receipt of the petition and supporting court documents, the board shall temporarily rescind its action. If the board determines that the decision on appeal was a decision on the merits, it shall permanently rescind its action. If the board determines that the decision on appeal was not a decision on the merits, it shall conduct an adjudication to determine whether the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed the act on which the original conviction, plea, or judicial finding was based. If the board determines on the basis of the adjudication that the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed such act, or if the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician does not request an adjudication, the board shall reinstate its action; otherwise, the board shall permanently rescind its action.

Notwithstanding the provision of division (C)(2) of section 2953.32 of the Revised Code specifying that if records pertaining to a criminal case are sealed under that section the proceedings in the case shall be deemed not to have occurred, sealing of the records of a conviction on which the board has based an action under this section shall have no effect on the board's action or any sanction imposed by the board under this section.

The board shall not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.

(F) The board may investigate an individual's criminal background in performing its duties under this section.

(G) During the course of an investigation conducted under this section, the board may compel any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician or applicant under this chapter to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by the board and at the expense of the individual, if the board finds reason to believe that the individual under investigation may have a physical or mental impairment that may affect the individual's ability to provide safe nursing care. Failure of any individual to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed constitutes an admission of the allegations, unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence.

If the board finds that an individual is impaired, the board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment approved or designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. The individual shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board that the individual can begin or resume the individual's occupation in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care under the provisions of the individual's authority to practice.

For purposes of this division, any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician or applicant under this chapter shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.

(H) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that any person has violated any provision of this chapter or any rule of the board. Any person may report to the board any information the person may have that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or rule of the board. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports such information or who testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of the report or testimony.

(I) All of the following apply under this chapter with respect to the confidentiality of information:

(1) Information received by the board pursuant to an investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action, except that the board may disclose information to law enforcement officers and government entities investigating a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician or a person who may have engaged in the unauthorized practice of nursing. No law enforcement officer or government entity with knowledge of any information disclosed by the board pursuant to this division shall divulge the information to any other person or government entity except for the purpose of an adjudication by a court or licensing or registration board or officer to which the person to whom the information relates is a party.

(2) If an investigation requires a review of patient records, the investigation and proceeding shall be conducted in such a manner as to protect patient confidentiality.

(3) All adjudications and investigations of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.

(4) Any board activity that involves continued monitoring of an individual as part of or following any disciplinary action taken under this section shall be conducted in a manner that maintains the individual's confidentiality. Information received or maintained by the board with respect to the board's monitoring activities is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action.

(J) Any action taken by the board under this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the person may be reinstated to practice.

(K) When the board refuses to grant a license or certificate to an applicant, revokes a license or certificate, or refuses to reinstate a license or certificate, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to permanent action taken by the board is forever ineligible to hold a license or certificate of the type that was refused or revoked and the board shall not accept from the individual an application for reinstatement of the license or certificate or for a new license or certificate.

(L) No unilateral surrender of a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued under this chapter shall be effective unless accepted by majority vote of the board. No application for a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued under this chapter may be withdrawn without a majority vote of the board. The board's jurisdiction to take disciplinary action under this section is not removed or limited when an individual has a license or certificate classified as inactive or fails to renew a license or certificate.

(M) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(24) of this section against any licensee who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person licensed pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.

(N)(1) Any person who enters a prelicensure nursing education program on or after June 1, 2003, and who subsequently applies under division (A) of section 4723.09 of the Revised Code for licensure to practice as a registered nurse or as a licensed practical nurse and any person who applies under division (B) of that section for license by endorsement to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a licensed practical nurse shall submit a request to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for the bureau to conduct a criminal records check of the applicant and to send the results to the board, in accordance with section 4723.09 of the Revised Code.

The board shall refuse to grant a license to practice nursing as a registered nurse or as a licensed practical nurse under section 4723.09 of the Revised Code to a person who entered a prelicensure nursing education program on or after June 1, 2003, and applied under division (A) of section 4723.09 of the Revised Code for the license or a person who applied under division (B) of that section for the license, if the criminal records check performed in accordance with division (C) of that section indicates that the person has pleaded guilty to, been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of guilt for violating section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.11, 2905.01, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2909.02, 2911.01, or 2911.11 of the Revised Code or a substantially similar law of another state, the United States, or another country.

(2) Any person who enters a dialysis training program on or after June 1, 2003, and who subsequently applies for a certificate to practice as a dialysis technician shall submit a request to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for the bureau to conduct a criminal records check of the applicant and to send the results to the board, in accordance with section 4723.75 of the Revised Code.

The board shall refuse to issue a certificate to practice as a dialysis technician under section 4723.75 of the Revised Code to a person who entered a dialysis training program on or after June 1, 2003, and whose criminal records check performed in accordance with division (C) of that section indicates that the person has pleaded guilty to, been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of guilt for violating section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.11, 2905.01, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2909.02, 2911.01, or 2911.11 of the Revised Code or a substantially similar law of another state, the United States, or another country.

Sec. 4723.44.  (A) No person shall do any of the following unless the person holds a current, valid certificate of authority to practice nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner issued by the board of nursing under this chapter:

(1) Engage in the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner for a fee, salary, or other consideration, or as a volunteer;

(2) Represent the person as being a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner;

(3) Use any title or initials implying that the person is a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner;

(4) Represent the person as being an advanced practice nurse;

(5) Use any title or initials implying that the person is an advanced practice nurse.

(B) No person who is not certified by the national council on certification of nurse anesthetists of the American association of nurse anesthetists, the national council on recertification of nurse anesthetists of the American association of nurse anesthetists, or another national certifying organization approved by the board under section 4723.46 of the Revised Code shall use the title "certified registered nurse anesthetist" or the initials "C.R.N.A.," or any other title or initial implying that the person has been certified by the council or organization.

(C) No certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall do any of the following:

(1) Engage, for a fee, salary, or other consideration, or as a volunteer, in the practice of a nursing specialty other than the specialty designated on the nurse's current, valid certificate of authority issued by the board under this chapter;

(2) Represent the person as being authorized to practice any nursing specialty other than the specialty designated on the current, valid certificate;

(3) Use the title "certified registered nurse anesthetist" or the initials "N.A." or "C.R.N.A.," the title "clinical nurse specialist" or the initials "C.N.S.," the title "certified nurse-midwife" or the initials "C.N.M.," the title "certified nurse practitioner" or the initials "C.N.P.," or any other title or initials implying that the nurse is authorized to practice any nursing specialty other than the specialty designated on the nurse's current, valid certificate;

(4) Enter into a standard care arrangement with a physician or podiatrist whose practice is not the same as or similar to the nurse's nursing specialty;

(5) Prescribe drugs or therapeutic devices unless the nurse holds a current, valid certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code;

(6) Prescribe drugs or therapeutic devices under a certificate to prescribe in a manner that does not comply with section 4723.481 of the Revised Code;

(7) Prescribe any drug or device to perform or induce an abortion, or otherwise Perform or induce an abortion.

(D) No person shall knowingly employ a person to engage in the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner unless the person so employed holds a current, valid certificate of authority to engage in that nursing specialty issued by the board under this chapter.

(E) A certificate certified by the executive director of the board, under the official seal of the board, to the effect that it appears from the records that no certificate of authority to practice nursing as a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner has been issued to any person specified therein, or that a certificate, if issued, has been revoked or suspended, shall be received as prima-facie evidence of the record in any court or before any officer of the state.

Sec. 4723.48.  (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner seeking authority to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices shall file with the board of nursing a written application for a certificate to prescribe. The board of nursing shall issue a certificate to prescribe to each applicant who meets the requirements specified in section 4723.482 or 4723.484 of the Revised Code.

Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the initial certificate to prescribe that the board issues to an applicant shall be issued as an externship certificate. Under an externship certificate, the nurse may obtain experience in prescribing drugs and therapeutic devices by participating in an externship that evaluates the nurse's competence, knowledge, and skill in pharmacokinetic principles and their clinical application to the specialty being practiced. During the externship, the nurse may prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices only when one or more physicians are providing supervision in accordance with rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.

After completing the externship, the holder of an externship certificate may apply for a new certificate to prescribe. On receipt of the new certificate, the nurse may prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices in collaboration with one or more physicians or podiatrists.

(B) In the case of an advanced practice nurse an applicant who on May 17, 2000, is was approved under section 4723.56 of the Revised Code to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices, the initial certificate to prescribe that the board issues to the nurse applicant under this section shall not be an externship certificate. The nurse applicant shall be issued a certificate to prescribe that permits the nurse recipient to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices in collaboration with one or more physicians or podiatrists.

Sec. 4723.482.  (A) An applicant shall include with the application submitted under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code all of the following:

(1) Subject to section 4723.483 of the Revised Code, evidence of holding a current, valid certificate of authority issued under section 4723.41 of the Revised Code to practice as a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner;

(2) Except for an advanced practice nurse a person who on the effective date of this section is May 17, 2000, was approved under section 4723.56 of the Revised Code to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices, evidence of successfully completing the instruction in advanced pharmacology and related topics specified in division (B) of this section;

(3) The fee required by section 4723.08 of the Revised Code for a certificate to prescribe;

(4) Any additional information the board requires pursuant to rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.

(B) All of the following apply to the instruction required under division (A)(2) of this section:

(1) The instruction must be obtained not longer than three years before the application for the certificate to prescribe is filed.

(2) The instruction must be obtained through a course of study consisting of planned classroom and clinical study that is approved by the board of nursing in accordance with standards established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.

(3) The content of the instruction must be specific to the applicant's nursing specialty and include all of the following:

(a) A minimum of thirty contact hours of training in advanced pharmacology that includes pharmacokinetic principles and clinical application and the use of drugs and therapeutic devices in the prevention of illness and maintenance of health;

(b) Training in the fiscal and ethical implications of prescribing drugs and therapeutic devices;

(c) Training in the state and federal laws that apply to the authority to prescribe;

(d) Any additional training required pursuant to rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4729.01. As used in this chapter:

(A) "Pharmacy," except when used in a context that refers to the practice of pharmacy, means any area, room, rooms, place of business, department, or portion of any of the foregoing where the practice of pharmacy is conducted.

(B) "Practice of pharmacy" means providing pharmacist care requiring specialized knowledge, judgment, and skill derived from the principles of biological, chemical, behavioral, social, pharmaceutical, and clinical sciences. As used in this division, "pharmacist care" includes the following:

(1) Interpreting prescriptions;

(2) Compounding or dispensing drugs and dispensing drug therapy related devices;

(3) Counseling individuals with regard to their drug therapy, recommending drug therapy related devices, and assisting in the selection of drugs and appliances for treatment of common diseases and injuries and providing instruction in the proper use of the drugs and appliances;

(4) Performing drug regimen reviews with individuals by discussing all of the drugs that the individual is taking and explaining the interactions of the drugs;

(5) Performing drug utilization reviews with licensed health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs when the pharmacist determines that an individual with a prescription has a drug regimen that warrants additional discussion with the prescriber;

(6) Advising an individual and the health care professionals treating an individual with regard to the individual's drug therapy;

(7) Acting pursuant to a consult agreement with a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, if an agreement has been established with the physician;

(8) Administering the adult immunizations specified in section 4729.41 of the Revised Code, if the pharmacist has met the requirements of that section.

(C) "Compounding" means the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, and labeling of one or more drugs in any of the following circumstances:

(1) Pursuant to a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;

(2) Pursuant to the modification of a prescription made in accordance with a consult agreement;

(3) As an incident to research, teaching activities, or chemical analysis;

(4) In anticipation of prescription drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing patterns.

(D) "Consult agreement" means an agreement to manage an individual's drug therapy that has been entered into by a pharmacist and a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.

(E) "Drug" means:

(1) Any article recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia and national formulary, or any supplement to them, intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or animals;

(2) Any other article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or animals;

(3) Any article, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals;

(4) Any article intended for use as a component of any article specified in division (C)(E)(1), (2), or (3) of this section; but does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

(F) "Dangerous drug" means any of the following:

(1) Any drug to which either of the following applies:

(a) Under the "Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, the drug is required to bear a label containing the legend "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription" or "Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian" or any similar restrictive statement, or the drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription;

(b) Under Chapter 3715. or 3719. of the Revised Code, the drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription.

(2) Any drug that contains a schedule V controlled substance and that is exempt from Chapter 3719. of the Revised Code or to which that chapter does not apply;

(3) Any drug intended for administration by injection into the human body other than through a natural orifice of the human body.

(G) "Federal drug abuse control laws" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.

(H) "Prescription" means a written, electronic, or oral order for drugs or combinations or mixtures of drugs to be used by a particular individual or for treating a particular animal, issued by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.

(I) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" or "prescriber" means an individual who is authorized by law to prescribe drugs or dangerous drugs or drug therapy related devices in the course of the individual's professional practice, including only the following:

(1) A dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;

(2) Until January 17, 2000, an advanced practice nurse approved under section 4723.56 of the Revised Code to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices;

(3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code;

(4)(3) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code to practice optometry under a therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate;

(5)(4) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatry;

(6)(5) A veterinarian licensed under Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code.

(J) "Sale" and "sell" include delivery, transfer, barter, exchange, or gift, or offer therefor, and each such transaction made by any person, whether as principal proprietor, agent, or employee.

(K) "Wholesale sale" and "sale at wholesale" mean any sale in which the purpose of the purchaser is to resell the article purchased or received by the purchaser.

(L) "Retail sale" and "sale at retail" mean any sale other than a wholesale sale or sale at wholesale.

(M) "Retail seller" means any person that sells any dangerous drug to consumers without assuming control over and responsibility for its administration. Mere advice or instructions regarding administration do not constitute control or establish responsibility.

(N) "Price information" means the price charged for a prescription for a particular drug product and, in an easily understandable manner, all of the following:

(1) The proprietary name of the drug product;

(2) The established (generic) name of the drug product;

(3) The strength of the drug product if the product contains a single active ingredient or if the drug product contains more than one active ingredient and a relevant strength can be associated with the product without indicating each active ingredient. The established name and quantity of each active ingredient are required if such a relevant strength cannot be so associated with a drug product containing more than one ingredient.

(4) The dosage form;

(5) The price charged for a specific quantity of the drug product. The stated price shall include all charges to the consumer, including, but not limited to, the cost of the drug product, professional fees, handling fees, if any, and a statement identifying professional services routinely furnished by the pharmacy. Any mailing fees and delivery fees may be stated separately without repetition. The information shall not be false or misleading.

(O) "Wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs" means a person engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs at wholesale and includes any agent or employee of such a person authorized by the person to engage in the sale of dangerous drugs at wholesale.

(P) "Manufacturer of dangerous drugs" means a person, other than a pharmacist, who manufactures dangerous drugs and who is engaged in the sale of those dangerous drugs within this state.

(Q) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" means a person who is engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs at retail, or any person, other than a wholesale distributor or a pharmacist, who has possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose other than for that person's own use and consumption, and includes pharmacies, hospitals, nursing homes, and laboratories and all other persons who procure dangerous drugs for sale or other distribution by or under the supervision of a pharmacist or licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.

(R) "Promote to the public" means disseminating a representation to the public in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the purpose of inducing, or that is likely to induce, directly or indirectly, the purchase of a dangerous drug at retail.

(S) "Person" includes any individual, partnership, association, limited liability company, or corporation, the state, any political subdivision of the state, and any district, department, or agency of the state or its political subdivisions.

(T) "Finished dosage form" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.

(U) "Generically equivalent drug" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.

(V) "Animal shelter" means a facility operated by a humane society or any society organized under Chapter 1717. of the Revised Code or a dog pound operated pursuant to Chapter 955. of the Revised Code.

(W) "Food" has the same meaning as in section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.

Sec. 4731.22.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, may revoke or may refuse to grant a certificate to a person found by the board to have committed fraud during the administration of the examination for a certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by the board.

(B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for one or more of the following reasons:

(1) Permitting one's name or one's certificate to practice or certificate of registration to be used by a person, group, or corporation when the individual concerned is not actually directing the treatment given;

(2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other modalities for treatment of disease;

(3) Selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;

(4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.

For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a professional confidence" does not include providing any information, documents, or reports to a child fatality review board under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code and does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by the board.

As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, or includes representations or implications that in reasonable probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to misunderstand or be deceived.

(6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;

(7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can be permanently cured;

(8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;

(9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony;

(10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;

(12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;

(14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the board upon a certificate to practice;

(16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this chapter;

(17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;

(18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American medical association, the American osteopathic association, the American podiatric medical association, or any other national professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies of the codes of ethics of the various national professional organizations. The individual whose certificate is being suspended or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the individual's profession.

For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of ethics of a national professional organization" does not include any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or perceptive skills.

In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. An individual affected under this division shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who applies for or receives a certificate to practice under this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.

(20) Except when civil penalties are imposed under section 4731.225 or 4731.281 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or any rule promulgated by the board.

This division does not apply to a violation or attempted violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.

(21) The violation of any abortion rule adopted by the public health council pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;

(22) Any of the following actions taken by the agency responsible for regulating the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or the limited branches of medicine in another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;

(23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;

(24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or termination of clinical privileges by the United States department of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by the drug enforcement administration of the United States department of justice;

(25) Termination or suspension from participation in the medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and human services or other responsible agency for any act or acts that also would constitute a violation of division (B)(2), (3), (6), (8), or (19) of this section;

(26) Impairment of ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that impair ability to practice.

For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an application for or holding a certificate to practice under this chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute privileged communications.

If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or any applicant for certification to practice suffers such impairment, the board may compel the individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the examination and who is chosen by the board.

Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed certification to practice, to submit to treatment.

Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a certificate suspended under this division, the impaired practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care under the provisions of the practitioner's certificate. The demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:

(a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;

(b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare contract or consent agreement;

(c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by individuals or providers approved by the board for making the assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.

The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this division after that demonstration and after the individual has entered into a written consent agreement.

When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for at least two years of annual written progress reports made under penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained sobriety.

(27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised Code;

(28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that individual;

(b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay.

(29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of the Revised Code;

(30) Failure of a collaborating physician to fulfill the responsibilities agreed to by the physician and an advanced practice nurse participating in a pilot program under section 4723.52 of the Revised Code;

(31) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's file;

(32)(31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that chapter;

(33)(32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard care arrangement;

(34)(33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the Revised Code;

(35)(34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;

(36)(35) Failure to supervise an acupuncturist in accordance with Chapter 4762. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of an acupuncturist;

(37)(36) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;

(38)(37) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code.

(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall be of no force or effect.

(D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.

(E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.

(F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a signed writing any information that the person may have that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number and shall be recorded by the board.

(2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication of the case.

(3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under this chapter, the board may administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board. Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.

On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual place of residence. When the person being served is a person whose practice is authorized by this chapter, service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept delivery.

A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage provided for witnesses in civil cases in the courts of common pleas.

(4) All hearings and investigations of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.

(5) Information received by the board pursuant to an investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action.

The board shall conduct all investigations and proceedings in a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make public the names or any other identifying information about patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide physician-patient relationship exists.

The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state medical board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

(6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding three months. The report shall contain the following information for each case with which the board has completed its activities:

(a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged violation;

(b) The type of certificate to practice, if any, held by the individual against whom the complaint is directed;

(c) A description of the allegations contained in the complaint;

(d) The disposition of the case.

The report shall state how many cases are still pending and shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

(G) If the secretary and supervising member determine that there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division (B) of this section and that the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public, they may recommend that the board suspend the individual's certificate to practice without a prior hearing. Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board.

The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.

The board shall issue a written order of suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.

Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within sixty days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within sixty days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.

(H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or (13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's certificate to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held under this division, that the individual committed the act or if no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (B) of this section.

(I) The certificate to practice issued to an individual under this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are automatically suspended as of the date the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any of the following criminal offenses in this state or a substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered practicing without a certificate.

The board shall notify the individual subject to the suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate is suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board shall enter a final order permanently revoking the individual's certificate to practice.

(J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) or (B) of this section.

(K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the individual's certificate to practice may be reinstated. The board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.

(L) When the board refuses to grant a certificate to an applicant, revokes an individual's certificate to practice, refuses to register an applicant, or refuses to reinstate an individual's certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold a certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance of a new certificate.

(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.

(2) An application for a certificate made under the provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval of the board.

(3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate of registration in accordance with this chapter shall not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action under this section against the individual.

(N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of this section against any person who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.

(O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board shall develop and implement a quality intervention program designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do all of the following:

(1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation the board conducts under this section;

(2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;

(3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service providers and approve individual educational programs recommended by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each individual undertaking a recommended individual educational program.

(4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an individual educational program and require further monitoring of the individual who completed the program or other action that the board determines to be appropriate;

(5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention program.

An individual who participates in an individual educational program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial obligations arising from that educational program.

Sec. 4731.295.  (A)(1) As used in this section, "indigent and uninsured person," "nonprofit shelter or health care facility," and "operation" have the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

(2) For the purposes of this section, a person shall be considered retired from practice if the person's license or certificate has expired with the person's intention of ceasing to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery for remuneration.

(B) The state medical board may issue, without examination, a volunteer's certificate to a person who is retired from practice so that the person may provide medical services to indigent and uninsured persons at nonprofit shelters or health care facilities. The board shall deny issuance of a volunteer's certificate to a person who is not qualified under this section to hold a volunteer's certificate.

(C) An application for a volunteer's certificate shall include all of the following:

(1) A copy of the applicant's degree of medicine or osteopathic medicine.

(2) One of the following, as applicable:

(a) A copy of the applicant's most recent license or certificate authorizing the practice of medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued by a jurisdiction in the United States that licenses persons to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.

(b) A copy of the applicant's most recent license equivalent to a license to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery in one or more branches of the United States armed services that the United States government issued.

(3) Evidence of one of the following, as applicable:

(a) That the applicant has maintained for at least ten years prior to retirement full licensure in good standing in any jurisdiction in the United States that licenses persons to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery.

(b) That the applicant has practiced for at least ten years prior to retirement in good standing as a doctor of medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery in one or more of the branches of the United States armed services.

(4) A notarized statement from the applicant, on a form prescribed by the board, that the applicant will not accept any form of remuneration for any medical services rendered while in possession of a volunteer's certificate.

(D) The holder of a volunteer's certificate may provide medical services only on the premises of a nonprofit shelter or health care facility and only to indigent and uninsured persons. The holder shall not accept any form of remuneration for providing medical services while in possession of the certificate. Except in a medical emergency, the holder shall not perform any operation or deliver babies. The board may revoke a volunteer's certificate on receiving proof satisfactory to the board that the holder has engaged in practice in this state outside the scope of the certificate.

(E)(1) A volunteer's certificate shall be valid for a period of three years, unless earlier revoked under division (D) of this section or pursuant to section 4731.22 of the Revised Code. A volunteer's certificate may be renewed upon the application of the holder. The board shall maintain a register of all persons who hold volunteer's certificates. The board shall not charge a fee for issuing or renewing a certificate pursuant to this section.

(2) To be eligible for renewal of a volunteer's certificate the holder of the certificate shall certify to the board completion of one hundred fifty hours of continuing medical education that meets the requirements of section 4731.281 of the Revised Code regarding certification by private associations and approval by the board. The board may not renew a certificate if the holder has not complied with the continuing medical education requirements. The nonprofit shelter or health care facility in Any entity for which the holder provides medical services may pay for or reimburse the holder for any costs incurred in obtaining the required continuing medical education credits.

(3) The board shall issue to each person who qualifies under this section for a volunteer's certificate a wallet certificate and a wall certificate that state that the certificate holder is authorized to provide medical services pursuant to the laws of this state. The holder shall keep the wallet certificate on the holder's person while providing medical services and shall display the wall certificate prominently in the nonprofit shelter or health care facility at the location where the holder primarily practices.

(4) The holder of a volunteer's certificate issued pursuant to this section is subject to the immunity provisions in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

(F) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer and enforce this section.

Section 2. That existing sections 2305.113, 2305.234, 2711.22, 3701.071, 3719.81, 4713.02, 4715.42, 4723.01, 4723.03, 4723.28, 4723.44, 4723.48, 4723.482, 4729.01, 4731.22, and 4731.295 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.

Section 3.  (A) As used in this section, "health care professional," "health care worker," "indigent and uninsured person," "nonprofit health care referral organization," and "volunteer" have the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.

(B) The Ohio Medical Malpractice Commission created by Section 4 of Am. Sub. S.B. 281 of the 124th General Assembly shall have the following duties, in addition to the other duties provided by law for the Commission:

(1) To study the affordability and availability of medical malpractice insurance for health care professionals and health care workers who are volunteers and for nonprofit health care referral organizations;

(2) To study the feasibility of whether the state of Ohio should provide catastrophic claims coverage, or an insurance pool of any kind, for health care professionals and health care workers to utilize as volunteers in providing medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment to indigent and uninsured persons;

(3) To study the feasibility of whether the state of Ohio should create a fund to provide compensation to indigent and uninsured persons who receive medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment from health care professionals or health care workers who are volunteers, for any injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of the negligence or other misconduct by those health care professionals or workers;

(4) To study whether the Good Samaritan laws of other states offer approaches that are materially different from the Ohio Good Samaritan Law as amended by this act, as contained in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

(C) The Commission shall submit a report of its findings regarding all of the matters provided in division (B) of this section to the members of the General Assembly not later than two years after the effective date of this act.

(D) The Department of Insurance shall provide any technical, professional, and clerical employees that are necessary for the Commission to perform its duties under this section.

Section 4.  This act's amendment of division (A)(7) of section 4713.02 of the Revised Code does not affect the term of office of any person serving as a member of the State Board of Cosmetology on the effective date of this act.

Section 5. This act's amendment of division (B)(24) of section 4723.28 of the Revised Code does not remove the authority of the Board of Nursing to conduct investigations and take disciplinary actions regarding a person who engaged in the activities specified in that division while participating in one of the advanced practice nurse pilot programs operated pursuant to sections 4723.52 to 4723.60 of the Revised Code prior to the January 17, 2004, effective date of the repeal of those sections, as provided in Section 3 of Am. Sub. H.B. 241 of the 123rd General Assembly.

Section 6. This act's amendment of division (B)(30) of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code does not remove the State Medical Board's authority to conduct investigations and take disciplinary actions regarding the failure of a collaborating physician to fulfill the responsibilities agreed to by the physician and an advanced practice nurse participating in one of the pilot programs operated pursuant to sections 4723.52 to 4723.60 of the Revised Code prior to the January 17, 2004, effective date of the repeal of those sections, as provided in Section 3 of Am. Sub. H.B. 241 of the 123rd General Assembly.

Section 7.  Section 2305.234 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 95 and Am. Sub. S.B. 51 of the 125th General Assembly. Section 4723.28 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 474 and Sub. S.B. 179 of the 124th General Assembly. Section 4731.22 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 474 and Sub. S.B. 179 of the 124th General Assembly. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the composites are the resulting versions of the sections in effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in this act.