130th Ohio General Assembly
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Sub. H. B. No. 485  As Reported by the House Health and Aging Committee
As Reported by the House Health and Aging Committee

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
Sub. H. B. No. 485


Representatives Smith, Johnson 



A BILL
To amend sections 355.01, 355.03, 355.04, 2151.011, 2151.421, 3712.04, 3712.99, 4715.14, 4715.30, 4715.302, 4723.28, 4723.481, 4723.486, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4725.16, 4725.19, 4729.12, 4729.75, 4729.80, 4729.86, 4730.25, 4730.41, 4730.48, 4730.53, 4731.055, 4731.22, 4731.281, and 5103.02; to amend for the purpose of adopting a new section number as indicated in parentheses, section 4729.87 (4729.91); and to enact new section 4729.87 and sections 121.25, 121.26, 121.27, 121.28, 3712.062, 3719.061, 4121.443, 4723.283, 4725.191, 4729.861, 4730.252, 4731.229, 5101.061, 5103.50, 5103.51, 5103.52, 5103.53, 5103.54, and 5103.55 of the Revised Code to require hospice care programs to establish policies to prevent diversion of controlled substances that contain opioids; to require a prescriber to obtain written informed consent from a minor's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the minor before issuing a prescription for a controlled substance that contains an opioid to the minor and to establish sanctions for a prescriber's violation of this requirement; to establish requirements to be followed by prescribers in reviewing patient information in the State Board of Pharmacy's Ohio Automated Rx Reporting System; to license private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camps; to authorize the collection of additional health information through OARRS; to establish the Office of Human Services Innovation in the Department of Job and Family Services; to establish the Ohio Healthier Buckeye Council and the Ohio Healthier Buckeye Grant Program; and to authorize the State Medical Board to conduct a pilot program regarding the use of teleconferencing at its committee meetings.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:
Section 1. That sections 355.01, 355.03, 355.04, 2151.011, 2151.421, 3712.04, 3712.99, 4715.14, 4715.30, 4715.302, 4723.28, 4723.481, 4723.486, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4725.16, 4725.19, 4729.12, 4729.75, 4729.80, 4729.86, 4730.25, 4730.41, 4730.48, 4730.53, 4731.055, 4731.22, 4731.281, and 5103.02 be amended; section 4729.87 (4729.91) be amended for the purpose of adopting a new section number as indicated in parentheses; and new section 4729.87 and sections 121.25, 121.26, 121.27, 121.28, 3712.062, 3719.061, 4121.443, 4723.283, 4725.191, 4729.861, 4730.252, 4731.229, 5101.061, 5103.50, 5103.51, 5103.52, 5103.53, 5103.54, and 5103.55 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:
Sec. 121.25. (A) As used in sections 121.25 to 121.28 of the Revised Code:
(1) "Independent life plan coordination" means a plan that will assist an individual to access available private or public physical health, behavioral health, social, employment, education, and housing services the individual needs.
(2) "Independent life plan coordinator" means a person who facilitates independent life plan coordination.
(3) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) "Publicly funded assistance program" means any physical health, behavioral health, social, employment, education, housing, or similar program funded or provided by the state or a political subdivision of the state.
(B) There is hereby created the Ohio healthier buckeye council. The council shall consist of the following members:
(1) The auditor of state, or the auditor's designee;
(2) Three members representing administrative departments enumerated in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, appointed by the governor;
(3) Five members representing affected local private and public entities or individuals, appointed by the governor;
(4) Two members of the senate, one appointed by the president of the senate and the other appointed by the minority leader of the senate;
(5) Two members of the house of representatives, one appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and the other appointed by the minority leader of the house of representatives;
(6) One member representing the judicial branch of government, appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court.
(C) Initial appointments to the council shall be made not later than September 30, 2014.
The members appointed under division (B)(3) of this section shall serve an initial term of one year. The member appointed under division (B)(6) of this section shall serve an initial term of three years. Thereafter, each member appointed under those divisions shall serve a four-year term. Each member appointed under division (B)(2) of this section shall serve a four-year term. A member appointed under divisions (B)(4) and (5) of this section shall serve a four-year term or during the member's tenure in the general assembly, whichever period is shorter.
Members may be reappointed to the council. Vacancies on the council shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments.
(D) At its first meeting, the council shall select a chairperson from among its members. After the first meeting, the council shall meet at the call of the chairperson or upon the request of a majority of the council's members. A majority of the council constitutes a quorum.
(E) Council members shall receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of council duties.
Sec. 121.26. The Ohio healthier buckeye council shall do all of the following:
(A) Promote the establishment of county healthier buckeye councils, as described in section 355.02 of the Revised Code, throughout this state through whatever means the council considers to be most efficient;
(B) Develop and promote means by which the county councils, as provided in section 355.03 of the Revised Code, may reduce the reliance of individuals on publicly funded assistance programs with an emphasis on the following:
(1) Programs that have been demonstrated to be effective;
(2) Identification and elimination of eligibility requirements for publicly funded assistance programs that are barriers to achieving greater financial independence for participants in those programs.
(C) Establish eligibility criteria, application processes, and maximum grant amounts for the Ohio healthier buckeye grant program established in section 121.27 of the Revised Code and award grants under the program;
(D) Collect and analyze the information submitted under section 121.27 of the Revised Code;
(E) Develop the best practices for the administration of publicly funded assistance programs in the state, taking into consideration any recommendations received from county healthier buckeye councils under section 355.04 of the Revised Code;
(F) Issue the annual reports required by sections 121.26 and 121.28 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 121.27. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio healthier buckeye grant program to be administered by the Ohio healthier buckeye council. The program shall provide grants to county healthier buckeye councils, as described in section 355.02 of the Revised Code, for the following:
(1) To assist county councils with costs associated with gathering information regarding enrollment in and outcomes related to publicly funded assistance programs;
(2) To provide funding to county councils to enable independent life plan coordinators to seek certification;
(3) To award grants to county councils for projects that focus on the following:
(a) Developing, maintaining, and strengthening families;
(b) Improving self-sufficiency to increase levels of income;
(c) Using volunteer workers;
(d) Using incentives to encourage designated behaviors;
(e) Using peer leaders and mentors.
(B) To be eligible for a grant, a county healthier buckeye council must demonstrate an active partnership with most, if not all, of the following public and private sector entities:
(1) Local health departments;
(2) County departments of job and family services;
(3) Medicaid managed care organizations;
(4) Primary and secondary schools;
(5) Vocational education programs;
(6) Chambers of commerce and other economic development organizations;
(7) Employers;
(8) Nonprofit organizations serving low-income individuals;
(9) Hospitals and health systems;
(10) Community health centers;
(11) Free clinics;
(12) Community behavioral health boards and providers;
(13) Regional planning commissions;
(14) Local elected officials.
(C) Grants may be awarded on an individual county council basis, multi-county council basis, or both. In awarding grants, the Ohio healthier buckeye council shall give priority to county councils with existing projects or initiatives that do the following:
(1) Improve the health and well-being of low-income individuals;
(2) Align and coordinate public and private resources to assist low-income individuals in achieving self-sufficiency;
(3) Use local matching funds from private sector sources;
(4) Implement or adapt evidence-based practices;
(5) Use volunteers and peer supports;
(6) Were created as a result of local assessment and planning processes;
(7) Demonstrate collaboration between entities that participate in assessment and planning processes.
(D) The Ohio healthier buckeye council, in consultation with county councils, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following:
(1) Establish standards and procedures for reporting program descriptions, costs, and participant numbers, including numbers of participants who have successfully completed programs;
(2) Establish program process and outcome metrics;
(3) Establish standards and procedures for submitting annual reports as required by this section.
(E) Each county council shall use the metrics established by rule to track outcomes and to prepare and submit an annual report to the Ohio healthier buckeye council, the governor, and, in accordance with section 101.68 of Revised Code, the general assembly.
(F) Not later than December 31, 2014, the council shall establish all of the following:
(1) The application processes, eligibility criteria, and grant amounts to be awarded under the program;
(2) The form and manner to be used by county councils when submitting enrollment and outcome information to the council;
(3) The certification programs that the council considers acceptable for independent life plan coordinators.
Sec. 121.28.  (A) Not later than April 30, 2016, and every year thereafter, the Ohio healthier buckeye council shall submit a report to the joint medicaid oversight committee established in section 103.41 of the Revised Code. A copy of the report shall be submitted electronically to each county healthier buckeye council. The report shall include the following:
(1) Enrollment and outcome information submitted by county healthier buckeye councils under sections 121.27 and 355.04 of the Revised Code, including comparisons with past information, if available;
(2) Recommendations developed by the council regarding the best practices for the administration of publicly funded assistance programs.
(B) The council shall collaborate with the committee on policy issues that pertain to physical and behaviorial health.
Sec. 355.01.  As used in this chapter: "independent life plan
"Care coordination" means assisting an individual to access available physical health, behavioral health, social, employment, education, and housing services the individual needs.
"Political subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.
"Publicly and "publicly funded assistance programs program" include physical health, behavioral health, social, employment, education, and housing programs funded or provided by the state or a political subdivision of the state have the same meanings as in section 121.25 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 355.03.  A county healthier buckeye council may do all of the following:
(A) Promote means by which council members or the entities the members represent may reduce the reliance of individuals and families on publicly funded assistance programs using both of the following:
(1) Programs that have been demonstrated to be effective and have one or more of the following features:
(a) Focus on developing, maintaining, and strengthening families;
(b) Low costs;
(b)(c) Use volunteer workers;
(c)(d) Use incentives to encourage designated behaviors;
(d)(e) Are led and mentored by peers.
(2) Practices that identify and seek to eliminate barriers to achieving greater financial independence for individuals and families who receive services from or participate in programs operated by council members or the entities the members represent.
(B) Promote care independent life plan coordination among physical health, behavioral health, social, employment, education, and housing service providers within the county;
(C) Collect and analyze data regarding individuals or families who receive services from or participate in programs operated by council members or the entities the members represent.
Sec. 355.04.  A county healthier buckeye council may report the following information to the joint medicaid oversight committee created in section 103.41 of the Revised Code and the Ohio healthier buckeye council created in section 121.25 of the Revised Code:
(A) Notification that the county council has been established and information regarding the council's activities;
(B) Information regarding enrollment or outcome data collected under division (C) of section 355.03 of the Revised Code;
(C) Recommendations regarding the best practices for the administration and delivery of publicly funded assistance programs or other services or programs provided by council members or the entities the members represent;
(D) Recommendations regarding the best practices in care independent life plan coordination.
Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:
(1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code:
(a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division combined with one or more other divisions;
(b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;
(c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.
(2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having jurisdiction under this chapter.
(3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for either foster care or adoption.
(4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, organization, association, or society certified by the department of job and family services that does not accept temporary or permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in this state, and that does one or more of the following:
(a) Receives and cares for children for two or more consecutive weeks;
(b) Participates in the placement of children in certified foster homes;
(c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public children services agency or private child placing agency.
(B) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental needs.
(2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age or older.
(3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children services agency or a private child placing agency.
(4) "Alternative response" means the public children services agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or neglect occurred.
(5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.
(6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of age.
(7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," "part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," "licensed type B family day-care home," "type B family day-care home," "administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator of a type A family day-care home," and "in-home aide" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or otherwise is certified by the department of job and family services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early childhood programs of the department of education.
(9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.
(10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.
(11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:
(a) General counseling services performed by a public children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.
(b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional counseling.
(12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a child or a public children services agency or private child placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of a child.
(13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.
(14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict the movement and activities of children.
(15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.
(16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative response or a traditional response.
(17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code.
(18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the residual parental rights of the child's parents.
(19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.
(20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.
(21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the court.
(22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, any of the following:
(a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another state;
(b) The fact that the child in question is excused from attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 3321.04 of the Revised Code;
(c) The fact that the child in question has received an age and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of the Revised Code.
(23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.
(24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the child's care.
(25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.
(26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or from the facility.
(27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.
(28) "Organization" means any institution, public, semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of protective services or care for children, or the placement of children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.
(29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family day-care homes, type B family day-care homes, child care provided by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, institutions, state institutions, residential facilities, residential care facilities, residential camps, day camps, private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camps, public schools, chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, physical custody, or control of children.
(30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a child in out-of-home care:
(a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's care;
(b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care necessary for a child's health;
(c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury or pain;
(d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing supervision of a licensed physician;
(e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is at variance with the history given of the injury or death.
(31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a child in out-of-home care:
(a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical condition, or other special needs of the child;
(b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;
(c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:
(i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic drugs for the child;
(ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;
(iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the drug.
(d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary for the health or well-being of the child;
(e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without monitoring by staff;
(f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription and nonprescription medication;
(g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.
(32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a public children services agency or a private child placing agency, all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.
(33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public children services agency or a private child placing agency.
(34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, departments, or agencies.
(35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home care" means any of the following:
(a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;
(b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the following: a public or private detention facility; shelter facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; certified organization; child day-care center; type A family day-care home; licensed type B family day-care home; group home; institution; state institution; residential facility; residential care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service center; hospital; or medical clinic;
(c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public school, or chartered nonpublic school;
(d) Any other person who performs a similar function with respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.
(36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:
(a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;
(b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;
(c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or amputation or another similar cause.
(37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a public children services agency or a private child placing agency with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child of whom the agency has permanent custody.
(38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a public children services agency or a private child placing agency for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has temporary custody or permanent custody.
(39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:
(a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public children services agency or a private child placing agency without the termination of parental rights.
(b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom the child is placed.
(40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the Revised Code.
(41) "Private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp" has the same meaning as in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code.
(42) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, service, or condition created by court order following an adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.
(42)(43) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the court for the protection of the child.
(43)(44) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.
(44)(45) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 4732.01 of the Revised Code.
(45)(46) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for recreational or recreational and educational purposes.
(46)(47) "Residential care facility" means an institution, residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of mental health and addiction services under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a child.
(47)(48) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a developmental disability resides.
(48)(49) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.
(49)(50) "School day" means the school day established by the board of education of the applicable school district pursuant to section 3313.481 of the Revised Code.
(50)(51) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.
(51)(52) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under the direction of the department of youth services that is designed to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and used for the placement of children after adjudication and disposition.
(52)(53) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code.
(53)(54) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or disposition.
(54)(55) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.
(55)(56) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the person who executed the agreement.
(56)(57) "Traditional response" means a public children services agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.
(C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the child after that period of ninety days.
Sec. 2151.421.  (A)(1)(a) No person described in division (A)(1)(b) of this section who is acting in an official or professional capacity and knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.
(b) Division (A)(1)(a) of this section applies to any person who is an attorney; physician, including a hospital intern or resident; dentist; podiatrist; practitioner of a limited branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised Code; registered nurse; licensed practical nurse; visiting nurse; other health care professional; licensed psychologist; licensed school psychologist; independent marriage and family therapist or marriage and family therapist; speech pathologist or audiologist; coroner; administrator or employee of a child day-care center; administrator or employee of a residential camp or, child day camp, or private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp; administrator or employee of a certified child care agency or other public or private children services agency; school teacher; school employee; school authority; person engaged in social work or the practice of professional counseling; agent of a county humane society; person, other than a cleric, rendering spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets of a well-recognized religion; employee of a county department of job and family services who is a professional and who works with children and families; superintendent, board member, or employee of a county board of developmental disabilities; investigative agent contracted with by a county board of developmental disabilities; employee of the department of developmental disabilities; employee of a facility or home that provides respite care in accordance with section 5123.171 of the Revised Code; employee of a home health agency; employee of an entity that provides homemaker services; a person performing the duties of an assessor pursuant to Chapter 3107. or 5103. of the Revised Code; or third party employed by a public children services agency to assist in providing child or family related services.
(2) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, an attorney or a physician is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section concerning any communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.
(3) The client or patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship described in division (A)(2) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the attorney or physician receives from the client or patient in that attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, and the attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:
(a) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.
(b) The attorney or physician knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar position to suspect, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the client or patient.
(c) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the client's or patient's attempt to have an abortion without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.
(4)(a) No cleric and no person, other than a volunteer, designated by any church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith who is acting in an official or professional capacity, who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child, and who knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, that another cleric or another person, other than a volunteer, designated by a church, religious society, or faith acting as a leader, official, or delegate on behalf of the church, religious society, or faith caused, or poses the threat of causing, the wound, injury, disability, or condition that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect shall fail to immediately report that knowledge or reasonable cause to believe to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the public children services agency or a municipal or county peace officer in the county in which the child resides or in which the abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, the person making the report shall make it to the entity specified in that section.
(b) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(c) of this section, a cleric is not required to make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section concerning any communication the cleric receives from a penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship, if, in accordance with division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, the cleric could not testify with respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding.
(c) The penitent in a cleric-penitent relationship described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section is deemed to have waived any testimonial privilege under division (C) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code with respect to any communication the cleric receives from the penitent in that cleric-penitent relationship, and the cleric shall make a report pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section with respect to that communication, if all of the following apply:
(i) The penitent, at the time of the communication, is either a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age.
(ii) The cleric knows, or has reasonable cause to believe based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in a similar position to believe, as a result of the communication or any observations made during that communication, the penitent has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the penitent.
(iii) The abuse or neglect does not arise out of the penitent's attempt to have an abortion performed upon a child under eighteen years of age or upon a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age without the notification of her parents, guardian, or custodian in accordance with section 2151.85 of the Revised Code.
(d) Divisions (A)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not apply in a cleric-penitent relationship when the disclosure of any communication the cleric receives from the penitent is in violation of the sacred trust.
(e) As used in divisions (A)(1) and (4) of this section, "cleric" and "sacred trust" have the same meanings as in section 2317.02 of the Revised Code.
(B) Anyone who knows, or has reasonable cause to suspect based on facts that would cause a reasonable person in similar circumstances to suspect, that a child under eighteen years of age or a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or physically impaired person under twenty-one years of age has suffered or faces a threat of suffering any physical or mental wound, injury, disability, or other condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of the child may report or cause reports to be made of that knowledge or reasonable cause to suspect to the entity or persons specified in this division. Except as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the public children services agency or to a municipal or county peace officer. In the circumstances described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, a person making a report or causing a report to be made under this division shall make it or cause it to be made to the entity specified in that section.
(C) Any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section shall be made forthwith either by telephone or in person and shall be followed by a written report, if requested by the receiving agency or officer. The written report shall contain:
(1) The names and addresses of the child and the child's parents or the person or persons having custody of the child, if known;
(2) The child's age and the nature and extent of the child's injuries, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist, including any evidence of previous injuries, abuse, or neglect;
(3) Any other information that might be helpful in establishing the cause of the injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to have occurred or of the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed, as applicable, to exist.
Any person, who is required by division (A) of this section to report child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred, may take or cause to be taken color photographs of areas of trauma visible on a child and, if medically indicated, cause to be performed radiological examinations of the child.
(D) As used in this division, "children's advocacy center" and "sexual abuse of a child" have the same meanings as in section 2151.425 of the Revised Code.
(1) When a municipal or county peace officer receives a report concerning the possible abuse or neglect of a child or the possible threat of abuse or neglect of a child, upon receipt of the report, the municipal or county peace officer who receives the report shall refer the report to the appropriate public children services agency.
(2) When a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to this division or division (A) or (B) of this section, upon receipt of the report, the public children services agency shall do both of the following:
(a) Comply with section 2151.422 of the Revised Code;
(b) If the county served by the agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report alleges sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child that is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, comply regarding the report with the protocol and procedures for referrals and investigations, with the coordinating activities, and with the authority or responsibility for performing or providing functions, activities, and services stipulated in the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that center.
(E) No township, municipal, or county peace officer shall remove a child about whom a report is made pursuant to this section from the child's parents, stepparents, or guardian or any other persons having custody of the child without consultation with the public children services agency, unless, in the judgment of the officer, and, if the report was made by physician, the physician, immediate removal is considered essential to protect the child from further abuse or neglect. The agency that must be consulted shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.
(F)(1) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised Code or in an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code that applies to the particular report, the public children services agency shall investigate, within twenty-four hours, each report of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to have occurred and of a threat of child abuse or child neglect that is known or reasonably suspected or believed to exist that is referred to it under this section to determine the circumstances surrounding the injuries, abuse, or neglect or the threat of injury, abuse, or neglect, the cause of the injuries, abuse, neglect, or threat, and the person or persons responsible. The investigation shall be made in cooperation with the law enforcement agency and in accordance with the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J) of this section. A representative of the public children services agency shall, at the time of initial contact with the person subject to the investigation, inform the person of the specific complaints or allegations made against the person. The information shall be given in a manner that is consistent with division (H)(1) of this section and protects the rights of the person making the report under this section.
A failure to make the investigation in accordance with the memorandum is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from the report or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of the report and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person. The public children services agency shall report each case to the uniform statewide automated child welfare information system that the department of job and family services shall maintain in accordance with section 5101.13 of the Revised Code. The public children services agency shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, to the law enforcement agency.
(2) The public children services agency shall make any recommendations to the county prosecuting attorney or city director of law that it considers necessary to protect any children that are brought to its attention.
(G)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (H)(3) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in the making of reports under division (A) of this section, anyone or any hospital, institution, school, health department, or agency participating in good faith in the making of reports under division (B) of this section, and anyone participating in good faith in a judicial proceeding resulting from the reports, shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for injury, death, or loss to person or property that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as a result of the making of the reports or the participation in the judicial proceeding.
(b) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding evidence regarding a child's injuries, abuse, or neglect, or the cause of the injuries, abuse, or neglect in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report submitted pursuant to this section.
(2) In any civil or criminal action or proceeding in which it is alleged and proved that participation in the making of a report under this section was not in good faith or participation in a judicial proceeding resulting from a report made under this section was not in good faith, the court shall award the prevailing party reasonable attorney's fees and costs and, if a civil action or proceeding is voluntarily dismissed, may award reasonable attorney's fees and costs to the party against whom the civil action or proceeding is brought.
(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (H)(4) and (N) of this section, a report made under this section is confidential. The information provided in a report made pursuant to this section and the name of the person who made the report shall not be released for use, and shall not be used, as evidence in any civil action or proceeding brought against the person who made the report. Nothing in this division shall preclude the use of reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect in a civil action or proceeding brought pursuant to division (M) of this section against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker of the report is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted. In a criminal proceeding, the report is admissible in evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence and is subject to discovery in accordance with the Rules of Criminal Procedure.
(2) No person shall permit or encourage the unauthorized dissemination of the contents of any report made under this section.
(3) A person who knowingly makes or causes another person to make a false report under division (B) of this section that alleges that any person has committed an act or omission that resulted in a child being an abused child or a neglected child is guilty of a violation of section 2921.14 of the Revised Code.
(4) If a report is made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and the child who is the subject of the report dies for any reason at any time after the report is made, but before the child attains eighteen years of age, the public children services agency or municipal or county peace officer to which the report was made or referred, on the request of the child fatality review board, shall submit a summary sheet of information providing a summary of the report to the review board of the county in which the deceased child resided at the time of death. On the request of the review board, the agency or peace officer may, at its discretion, make the report available to the review board. If the county served by the public children services agency is also served by a children's advocacy center and the report of alleged sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child is specified in the memorandum of understanding that creates the center as being within the center's jurisdiction, the agency or center shall perform the duties and functions specified in this division in accordance with the interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code relative to that advocacy center.
(5) A public children services agency shall advise a person alleged to have inflicted abuse or neglect on a child who is the subject of a report made pursuant to this section, including a report alleging sexual abuse of a child or another type of abuse of a child referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, in writing of the disposition of the investigation. The agency shall not provide to the person any information that identifies the person who made the report, statements of witnesses, or police or other investigative reports.
(I) Any report that is required by this section, other than a report that is made to the state highway patrol as described in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code, shall result in protective services and emergency supportive services being made available by the public children services agency on behalf of the children about whom the report is made, in an effort to prevent further neglect or abuse, to enhance their welfare, and, whenever possible, to preserve the family unit intact. The agency required to provide the services shall be the agency conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code.
(J)(1) Each public children services agency shall prepare a memorandum of understanding that is signed by all of the following:
(a) If there is only one juvenile judge in the county, the juvenile judge of the county or the juvenile judge's representative;
(b) If there is more than one juvenile judge in the county, a juvenile judge or the juvenile judges' representative selected by the juvenile judges or, if they are unable to do so for any reason, the juvenile judge who is senior in point of service or the senior juvenile judge's representative;
(c) The county peace officer;
(d) All chief municipal peace officers within the county;
(e) Other law enforcement officers handling child abuse and neglect cases in the county;
(f) The prosecuting attorney of the county;
(g) If the public children services agency is not the county department of job and family services, the county department of job and family services;
(h) The county humane society;
(i) If the public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, each participating member of the children's advocacy center established by the memorandum.
(2) A memorandum of understanding shall set forth the normal operating procedure to be employed by all concerned officials in the execution of their respective responsibilities under this section and division (C) of section 2919.21, division (B)(1) of section 2919.22, division (B) of section 2919.23, and section 2919.24 of the Revised Code and shall have as two of its primary goals the elimination of all unnecessary interviews of children who are the subject of reports made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section and, when feasible, providing for only one interview of a child who is the subject of any report made pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section. A failure to follow the procedure set forth in the memorandum by the concerned officials is not grounds for, and shall not result in, the dismissal of any charges or complaint arising from any reported case of abuse or neglect or the suppression of any evidence obtained as a result of any reported child abuse or child neglect and does not give, and shall not be construed as giving, any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to any person.
(3) A memorandum of understanding shall include all of the following:
(a) The roles and responsibilities for handling emergency and nonemergency cases of abuse and neglect;
(b) Standards and procedures to be used in handling and coordinating investigations of reported cases of child abuse and reported cases of child neglect, methods to be used in interviewing the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected, and standards and procedures addressing the categories of persons who may interview the child who is the subject of the report and who allegedly was abused or neglected.
(4) If a public children services agency participated in the execution of a memorandum of understanding under section 2151.426 of the Revised Code establishing a children's advocacy center, the agency shall incorporate the contents of that memorandum in the memorandum prepared pursuant to this section.
(5) The clerk of the court of common pleas in the county may sign the memorandum of understanding prepared under division (J)(1) of this section. If the clerk signs the memorandum of understanding, the clerk shall execute all relevant responsibilities as required of officials specified in the memorandum.
(K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(4) of this section, a person who is required to make a report pursuant to division (A) of this section may make a reasonable number of requests of the public children services agency that receives or is referred the report, or of the children's advocacy center that is referred the report if the report is referred to a children's advocacy center pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under section 2151.428 of the Revised Code, to be provided with the following information:
(a) Whether the agency or center has initiated an investigation of the report;
(b) Whether the agency or center is continuing to investigate the report;
(c) Whether the agency or center is otherwise involved with the child who is the subject of the report;
(d) The general status of the health and safety of the child who is the subject of the report;
(e) Whether the report has resulted in the filing of a complaint in juvenile court or of criminal charges in another court.
(2) A person may request the information specified in division (K)(1) of this section only if, at the time the report is made, the person's name, address, and telephone number are provided to the person who receives the report.
When a municipal or county peace officer or employee of a public children services agency receives a report pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section the recipient of the report shall inform the person of the right to request the information described in division (K)(1) of this section. The recipient of the report shall include in the initial child abuse or child neglect report that the person making the report was so informed and, if provided at the time of the making of the report, shall include the person's name, address, and telephone number in the report.
Each request is subject to verification of the identity of the person making the report. If that person's identity is verified, the agency shall provide the person with the information described in division (K)(1) of this section a reasonable number of times, except that the agency shall not disclose any confidential information regarding the child who is the subject of the report other than the information described in those divisions.
(3) A request made pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section is not a substitute for any report required to be made pursuant to division (A) of this section.
(4) If an agency other than the agency that received or was referred the report is conducting the investigation of the report pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code, the agency conducting the investigation shall comply with the requirements of division (K) of this section.
(L) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The department of job and family services may enter into a plan of cooperation with any other governmental entity to aid in ensuring that children are protected from abuse and neglect. The department shall make recommendations to the attorney general that the department determines are necessary to protect children from child abuse and child neglect.
(M) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is liable for compensatory and exemplary damages to the child who would have been the subject of the report that was not made. A person who brings a civil action or proceeding pursuant to this division against a person who is alleged to have violated division (A)(1) of this section may use in the action or proceeding reports of other incidents of known or suspected abuse or neglect, provided that any information in a report that would identify the child who is the subject of the report or the maker of the report, if the maker is not the defendant or an agent or employee of the defendant, has been redacted.
(N)(1) As used in this division:
(a) "Out-of-home care" includes a nonchartered nonpublic school if the alleged child abuse or child neglect, or alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, described in a report received by a public children services agency allegedly occurred in or involved the nonchartered nonpublic school and the alleged perpetrator named in the report holds a certificate, permit, or license issued by the state board of education under section 3301.071 or Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code.
(b) "Administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer" means the superintendent of the school district if the out-of-home care entity subject to a report made pursuant to this section is a school operated by the district.
(2) No later than the end of the day following the day on which a public children services agency receives a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide written notice of the allegations contained in and the person named as the alleged perpetrator in the report to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report unless the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer is named as an alleged perpetrator in the report. If the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer of an out-of-home care entity is named as an alleged perpetrator in a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved the out-of-home care entity, the agency shall provide the written notice to the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity that is the subject of the report. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.
(3) No later than three days after the day on which a public children services agency that conducted the investigation as determined pursuant to section 2151.422 of the Revised Code makes a disposition of an investigation involving a report of alleged child abuse or child neglect, or a report of an alleged threat of child abuse or child neglect, that allegedly occurred in or involved an out-of-home care entity, the agency shall send written notice of the disposition of the investigation to the administrator, director, or other chief administrative officer and the owner or governing board of the out-of-home care entity. The agency shall not provide witness statements or police or other investigative reports.
(O) As used in this section, "investigation" means the public children services agency's response to an accepted report of child abuse or neglect through either an alternative response or a traditional response.
Sec. 3712.04.  (A) Every person or public agency that proposes to provide a hospice care program shall apply to the department of health for a license. Application shall be made on forms prescribed and provided by the department, shall include such information as the department requires, and shall be accompanied by the license fee established by rules of the director of health adopted under division (A) of section 3712.03 of the Revised Code.
The department shall grant a license to the applicant if the applicant is in compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.
(B) A license granted under this section shall be valid for three years. Application for renewal of a license shall be made at least ninety days before the expiration of the license in the same manner as for an initial license, except that, if the program provides hospice care and services in a hospice patient's home, the application for renewal shall include written evidence demonstrating that the applicant is in compliance with section 3712.062 of the Revised Code. The department shall renew the license if the applicant meets the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted under it.
(C) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the department may suspend or revoke a license if the licensee made any material misrepresentation in the application for the license or no longer meets the requirements of this chapter or rules adopted under it.
(D) A hospital, nursing home, home for the aged, county medical care facility, or other health facility or agency that provides a hospice care program shall be licensed to provide a hospice care program under this section.
(E) A nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code that does not hold itself out to be a hospice, does not hold itself out as providing a hospice care program, does not use the term hospice to describe or refer to its activities or facilities, and that does not provide all of the services enumerated in division (A) of section 3712.01 of the Revised Code is not subject to the licensing provisions of this chapter.
Sec. 3712.062. (A) Each hospice care program licensed under this chapter that provides hospice care and services in a hospice patient's home shall establish a written policy establishing procedures to be followed in preventing the diversion of controlled substances containing opioids that are prescribed to its hospice patients. The policy shall include procedures for the disposal of any such drugs prescribed to a hospice patient as part of the patient's interdisciplinary plan of care that are relinquished to the program after the patient's death or that otherwise are no longer needed by the patient. The policy shall require that the disposal be documented by a program employee and conducted in any of the following ways:
(1) Performed by a program employee and witnessed by the patient or patient's family member;
(2) Performed by the patient or patient's family member and witnessed by a program employee;
(3) Performed by a program employee and witnessed by another program employee.
(B) As part of a hospice patient's interdisciplinary plan of care required by section 3712.06 of the Revised Code, each hospice care program that provides hospice care and services in the patient's home shall do all of the following:
(1) Before providing hospice care and services, distribute a copy of the written policy established under division (A) of this section to the patient and patient's family and discuss the procedures included in the policy with the patient and patient's family;
(2) Assess the patient, the patient's family, and the care environment for any risk factors associated with diversion;
(3) Maintain records of controlled substances containing opioids prescribed to the patient and included in the patient's interdisciplinary plan of care, including accurate counts of the numbers dispensed and used;
(4) Monitor the use and consumption of controlled substances containing opioids prescribed to the patient and included in the patient's interdisciplinary plan of care, including prescription refills, for signs of diversion;
(5) Report any sign of suspected diversion to a local law enforcement agency;
(6) Before providing hospice care and services, inform the patient and the patient's family that the hospice care program will dispose of any controlled substances containing opioids that are no longer needed by the patient and were included in the patient's interdisciplinary plan of care;
(7) After the patient's death or when no longer needed by the patient, request, in writing, that the patient or patient's family relinquish to the program for disposal any remaining controlled substances containing opioids that were included in the patient's interdisciplinary plan of care to the program;
(8) Report to a local law enforcement agency the quantity and type of any remaining controlled substances containing opioids that were included in the patient's interdisciplinary plan of care and were not relinquished to the program by the patient or patient's family.
(C) If a hospice care program complies with divisions (B)(7) and (8) of this section, neither the program nor its employees, officers, or directors shall be liable in damages to any person or government entity in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or omission of the program or an employee relative to this section unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.
(D) No person who receives a written request under division (B)(7) of this section shall fail to relinquish controlled substances containing opioids that were included in a patient's interdisciplinary plan of care.
(E) Immediately following a report from a hospice program under division (B)(8) of this section, the local law enforcement agency shall investigate and dispose of the remaining controlled substances containing opioids that were reported to the agency pursuant to division (B)(8) of this section.
(F) After a review of the written evidence submitted under division (B) of section 3701.04 of the Revised Code with an application for license renewal, if the department determines that the program is not in compliance with this section, the department may suspend the program's license for not more than six months and impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars.
(G) Not later than one year after the effective date of this section, the director of health shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and procedures for the submission and review of the written evidence required by division (B) of section 3701.04 of the Revised Code for renewal of a hospice care program license.
Sec. 3712.99. (A) Any person who violates division (A) of section 3712.05 or division (A) of section 3712.051 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree on a first offense; on each subsequent offense the person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.
(B) Any person who violates division (D) of section 3712.062 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.
Sec. 3719.061.  (A)(1) As used in this section:
(a) "Medical emergency" means a situation that in a prescriber's good faith medical judgment creates an immediate threat of serious risk to the life or physical health of a minor.
(b) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age who is not emancipated.
(2) For the purposes of this section, a person under eighteen years of age is emancipated only if the person has married, entered the armed services of the United States, became employed and self-sustaining, or has otherwise become independent from the care and control of the person's parent, guardian, or custodian.
(B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, before issuing for a minor the first prescription in a single course of treatment for a particular compound that is a controlled substance that contains an opioid, regardless of whether the dosage is modified during that course of treatment, a prescriber shall do all of the following:
(1) As part of the prescriber's examination of the minor, assess whether the minor has ever suffered, or is currently suffering, from mental health or substance abuse disorders and whether the minor has taken or is currently taking prescription drugs for treatment of those disorders;
(2) Discuss with the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the minor all of the following:
(a) The risks of addiction and overdose associated with the compound;
(b) The increased risk of addiction to controlled substances of individuals suffering from both mental and substance abuse disorders;
(c) The dangers of taking controlled substances containing opioids with benzodiazepines, alcohol, or other central nervous system depressants;
(d) Any other information in the patient counseling information section of labeling for the compound required under 21 C.F.R. 201.57(c)(18).
(3) Obtain written consent for the prescription from the minor's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the minor.
The prescriber shall record the consent on a form, separate from any other document the prescriber uses to obtain informed consent for other treatment provided to the minor, that contains all of the following:
(a) The name and quantity of the compound being prescribed and the amount of the initial dose;
(b) A statement indicating that a controlled substance is a drug or other substance that the United States drug enforcement agency has identified as having a potential for abuse;
(c) A statement certifying that the prescriber discussed with the minor and the minor's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the minor the matters described in division (B)(2) of this section;
(d) The number of refills authorized by the prescription;
(e) The signature of the minor's parent, guardian, or other person responsible for the minor and the date of signing.
(C)(1) The requirements in division (B) of this section do not apply if the minor's treatment with a controlled substance that contains an opioid meets any of the following criteria:
(a) The treatment is associated with or incident to a medical emergency.
(b) The treatment is associated with or incident to surgery, regardless of whether the surgery is performed on an inpatient or outpatient basis.
(c) In the prescriber's professional judgment, fulfilling the requirements of division (B) of this section with respect to the minor's treatment would be a detriment to the minor's health or safety.
(d) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the treatment is rendered in a hospital, ambulatory surgical facility, nursing home, pediatric respite care program, residential care facility, freestanding rehabilitation facility, or similar institutional facility.
(2) The exemption in division (C)(1)(d) of this section does not apply to treatment rendered in a prescriber's office that is located on the premises of or adjacent to a facility or other location described in that division.
(D) If the exemption in division (C)(1)(c) of this section applies, the prescriber shall notify the appropriate public children services agency of the circumstances precipitating the prescriber's professional judgment to invoke this exemption.
(E) The signed consent form shall be maintained in the minor's medical record.
Sec. 4121.443.  Each contract the administrator of workers' compensation enters into with a managed care organization under division (B)(4) of section 4121.44 of the Revised Code shall require the managed care organization to enter into a data security agreement with the state board of pharmacy governing the managed care organization's use of the board's drug database established and maintained under section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
This section does not apply if the board no longer maintains the drug database.
Sec. 4715.14.  (A)(1) Each person who is licensed to practice dentistry in Ohio shall, on or before the first day of January of each even-numbered year, register with the state dental board. The registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and furnished by the secretary, shall include the licensee's name, address, license number, and such other reasonable information as the board may consider necessary, and shall include payment of a biennial registration fee of two hundred forty-five dollars. Except as provided in division (E) of this section, this fee shall be paid to the treasurer of state. Subject to division (C) of this section, a registration shall be in effect for the two-year period beginning on the first day of January of the even-numbered year and ending on the last day of December of the following odd-numbered year, and shall be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedure of sections 4745.01 to 4745.03 of the Revised Code.
(2)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, with respect to a licensee who prescribes or personally furnishes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines as part of the licensee's regular practice of dentistry, the registration shall also include evidence that the licensee has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(b) The requirement in division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not apply if either of the following is the case:
(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state dental board pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the licensee has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.
(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
(B) A licensed dentist who desires to temporarily retire from practice and who has given the board notice in writing to that effect shall be granted such a retirement, provided only that at that time all previous registration fees and additional costs of reinstatement have been paid.
(C) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of an even-numbered year, the board shall send a notice by certified mail to a dentist who fails to renew a license in accordance with division (A) of this section. The notice shall state all of the following:
(1) That the board has not received the registration form and fee described in that division;
(2) That the license shall remain valid and in good standing until the first day of April following the last day of December of the odd-numbered year in which the dentist was scheduled to renew if the dentist remains in compliance with all other applicable provisions of this chapter and any rule adopted under it;
(3) That the license may be renewed until the first day of April following the last day of December of the odd-numbered year in which the dentist was scheduled to renew by the payment of the biennial registration fee and an additional fee of one hundred dollars to cover the cost of late renewal;
(4) That unless the board receives the registration form and fee before the first day of April following the last day of December of the odd-numbered year in which the dentist was scheduled to renew, the board may, on or after the relevant first day of April, initiate disciplinary action against the dentist pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;
(5) That a dentist whose license has been suspended as a result of disciplinary action initiated pursuant to division (C)(4) of this section may be reinstated by the payment of the biennial registration fee and an additional fee of three hundred dollars to cover the cost of reinstatement.
(D) Each dentist licensed to practice, whether a resident or not, shall notify the secretary in writing or electronically of any change in the dentist's office address or employment within ten days after such change has taken place. On the first day of July of every even-numbered year, the secretary shall issue a printed roster of the names and addresses so registered.
(E) Twenty dollars of each biennial registration fee shall be paid to the dentist loan repayment fund created under section 3702.95 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4715.30.  (A) An applicant for or holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter is subject to disciplinary action by the state dental board for any of the following reasons:
(1) Employing or cooperating in fraud or material deception in applying for or obtaining a license or certificate;
(2) Obtaining or attempting to obtain money or anything of value by intentional misrepresentation or material deception in the course of practice;
(3) Advertising services in a false or misleading manner or violating the board's rules governing time, place, and manner of advertising;
(4) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(5) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;
(7) Engaging in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the provision of dental services;
(8) Selling, prescribing, giving away, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes, or conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a violation of any federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;
(9) Providing or allowing dental hygienists, expanded function dental auxiliaries, or other practitioners of auxiliary dental occupations working under the certificate or license holder's supervision, or a dentist holding a temporary limited continuing education license under division (C) of section 4715.16 of the Revised Code working under the certificate or license holder's direct supervision, to provide dental care that departs from or fails to conform to accepted standards for the profession, whether or not injury to a patient results;
(10) Inability to practice under accepted standards of the profession because of physical or mental disability, dependence on alcohol or other drugs, or excessive use of alcohol or other drugs;
(11) Violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted thereunder;
(12) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4715.03 of the Revised Code;
(13) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, either of the following:
(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that certificate or license holder;
(b) Advertising that the certificate or license holder will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would otherwise be required to pay.
(14) Failure to comply with section 4715.302 or 4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;
(15) Any of the following actions taken by an agency responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;
(16) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;
(17) Violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code.
(B) A manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a dental facility shall be subject to disciplinary action if any dentist, dental hygienist, expanded function dental auxiliary, or qualified personnel providing services in the facility is found to have committed a violation listed in division (A) of this section and the manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor knew of the violation and permitted it to occur on a recurring basis.
(C)(1) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may take one or more of the following disciplinary actions if one or more of the grounds for discipline listed in divisions (A)(1) to (16) and (B) of this section exist:
(1)(a) Censure the license or certificate holder;
(2)(b) Place the license or certificate on probationary status for such period of time the board determines necessary and require the holder to:
(a)(i) Report regularly to the board upon the matters which are the basis of probation;
(b)(ii) Limit practice to those areas specified by the board;
(c)(iii) Continue or renew professional education until a satisfactory degree of knowledge or clinical competency has been attained in specified areas.
(3)(c) Suspend the certificate or license;
(4)(d) Revoke the certificate or license.
(2) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code by a dentist, the board may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of that section, the board may impose an additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars, suspend for not less than six months the license of the dentist, or both.
Disciplinary action under this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Where the board places a holder of a license or certificate on probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this section, the board may subsequently suspend or revoke the license or certificate if it determines that the holder has not met the requirements of the probation or continues to engage in activities that constitute grounds for discipline pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section.
Any order suspending a license or certificate for grounds for discipline listed in divisions (A)(1) to (16) of this section shall state the conditions under which the license or certificate will be restored, which may include a conditional restoration during which time the holder is in a probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this section. The board shall restore the license or certificate unconditionally when such conditions are met.
(D) If the physical or mental condition of an applicant or a license or certificate holder is at issue in a disciplinary proceeding, the board may order the license or certificate holder to submit to reasonable examinations by an individual designated or approved by the board and at the board's expense. The physical examination may be conducted by any individual authorized by the Revised Code to do so, including a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife. Any written documentation of the physical examination shall be completed by the individual who conducted the examination.
Failure to comply with an order for an examination shall be grounds for refusal of a license or certificate or summary suspension of a license or certificate under division (E) of this section.
(E) If a license or certificate holder has failed to comply with an order under division (D) of this section, the board may apply to the court of common pleas of the county in which the holder resides for an order temporarily suspending the holder's license or certificate, without a prior hearing being afforded by the board, until the board conducts an adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the court temporarily suspends a holder's license or certificate, the board shall give written notice of the suspension personally or by certified mail to the license or certificate holder. Such notice shall inform the license or certificate holder of the right to a hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(F) Any holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction entered against the holder in this state for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction entered against the holder in another jurisdiction for any substantially equivalent criminal offense, is automatically suspended from practice under this chapter in this state and any certificate or license issued to the holder under this chapter is automatically suspended, as of the date of the guilty plea, conviction, or judicial finding, whether the proceedings are brought in this state or another jurisdiction. Continued practice by an individual after the suspension of the individual's certificate or license under this division shall be considered practicing without a certificate or license. The board shall notify the suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's certificate or license under this division by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate or license is suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board shall enter a final order revoking the individual's certificate or license.
(G) If the supervisory investigative panel determines both of the following, the panel may recommend that the board suspend an individual's certificate or license without a prior hearing:
(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division divisions (A)(1) to (16) of this section;
(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.
Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than four dentist members of the board and seven of its members in total, excluding any member on the supervisory investigative panel, may suspend a certificate or license without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.
The board shall issue a written order of suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency or any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.
Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.
(H) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of this section against any certificate or license holder who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:
(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.
(2) For professional services rendered to any other person who holds a certificate or license issued pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.
(I) In no event shall the board consider or raise during a hearing required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code the circumstances of, or the fact that the board has received, one or more complaints about a person unless the one or more complaints are the subject of the hearing or resulted in the board taking an action authorized by this section against the person on a prior occasion.
(J) The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state dental board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state dental board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.
Sec. 4715.302. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(B) The Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, a dentist shall comply with all of the following as conditions of prescribing a drug that is either an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine, or personally furnishing a complete or partial supply of such a drug, as part of a patient's course of treatment for a particular condition:
(1) Before initially prescribing or furnishing the drug, the dentist or the dentist's delegate shall request from the drug database a report of information related to the patient that covers at least the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the request. If the dentist practices primarily in a county of this state that adjoins another state, the dentist or delegate also shall request a report of any information available in the drug database that pertains to prescriptions issued or drugs furnished to the patient in the state adjoining that county.
(2) If the patient's course of treatment for the condition continues for more than ninety days after the initial report is requested, the dentist or delegate shall make periodic requests for reports of information from the drug database until the course of treatment has ended. The requests shall be made at intervals not exceeding ninety days, determined according to the date the initial request was made. The request shall be made in the same manner provided in division (B)(1) of this section for requesting the initial report of information from the drug database.
(3) On receipt of a report under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, the dentist shall assess the information in the report. The dentist shall document in the patient's record that the report was received and the information was assessed.
(C)(1) Division (B) of this section does not apply if a drug database report regarding the patient is not available. In this event, the dentist shall document in the patient's record the reason that the report is not available.
(2) Division (B) of this section does not apply if the drug is prescribed or personally furnished in an amount indicated for a period not to exceed seven days.
(D) With respect to prescribing or personally furnishing any drug that is not an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine but is included in the drug database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the state dental board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a dentist regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(C)(E) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
Sec. 4723.28.  (A) The board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may impose one or more of the following sanctions if it finds that a person committed fraud in passing an examination required to obtain a license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board: deny, revoke, suspend, or place restrictions on any nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board; reprimand or otherwise discipline a holder of a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate; or impose a fine of not more than five hundred dollars per violation.
(B) The board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may impose one or more of the following sanctions: deny, revoke, suspend, or place restrictions on any nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board; reprimand or otherwise discipline a holder of a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate; or impose a fine of not more than five hundred dollars per violation. The sanctions may be imposed for any of the following:
(1) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of authority to engage in a licensed profession or practice a health care occupation, including nursing or practice as a dialysis technician, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or another state or jurisdiction;
(2) Engaging in the practice of nursing or engaging in practice as a dialysis technician, having failed to renew a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate issued under this chapter, or while a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate is under suspension;
(3) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for a pretrial diversion or similar program or for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;
(4) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for a pretrial diversion or similar program or for intervention in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of any crime involving gross immorality or moral turpitude;
(5) Selling, giving away, or administering drugs or therapeutic devices for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes; or conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for a pretrial diversion or similar program or for intervention in lieu of conviction for, violating any municipal, state, county, or federal drug law;
(6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for a pretrial diversion or similar program or for intervention in lieu of conviction for, an act in another jurisdiction that would constitute a felony or a crime of moral turpitude in Ohio;
(7) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for a pretrial diversion or similar program or for intervention in lieu of conviction for, an act in the course of practice in another jurisdiction that would constitute a misdemeanor in Ohio;
(8) Self-administering or otherwise taking into the body any dangerous drug, as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, in any way that is not in accordance with a legal, valid prescription issued for that individual, or self-administering or otherwise taking into the body any drug that is a schedule I controlled substance;
(9) Habitual or excessive use of controlled substances, other habit-forming drugs, or alcohol or other chemical substances to an extent that impairs the individual's ability to provide safe nursing care or safe dialysis care;
(10) Impairment of the ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe nursing care or safe dialysis care because of the use of drugs, alcohol, or other chemical substances;
(11) Impairment of the ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe nursing care or safe dialysis care because of a physical or mental disability;
(12) Assaulting or causing harm to a patient or depriving a patient of the means to summon assistance;
(13) Misappropriation or attempted misappropriation of money or anything of value in the course of practice;
(14) Adjudication by a probate court of being mentally ill or mentally incompetent. The board may reinstate the person's nursing license or dialysis technician certificate upon adjudication by a probate court of the person's restoration to competency or upon submission to the board of other proof of competency.
(15) The suspension or termination of employment by the department of defense or the veterans administration of the United States for any act that violates or would violate this chapter;
(16) Violation of this chapter or any rules adopted under it;
(17) Violation of any restrictions placed by the board on a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate;
(18) Failure to use universal and standard precautions established by rules adopted under section 4723.07 of the Revised Code;
(19) Failure to practice in accordance with acceptable and prevailing standards of safe nursing care or safe dialysis care;
(20) In the case of a registered nurse, engaging in activities that exceed the practice of nursing as a registered nurse;
(21) In the case of a licensed practical nurse, engaging in activities that exceed the practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse;
(22) In the case of a dialysis technician, engaging in activities that exceed those permitted under section 4723.72 of the Revised Code;
(23) Aiding and abetting a person in that person's practice of nursing without a license or practice as a dialysis technician without a certificate issued under this chapter;
(24) In the case of a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, except as provided in division (M) of this section, either of the following:
(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers such nursing services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that provider;
(b) Advertising that the nurse will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers such nursing services, would otherwise be required to pay.
(25) Failure to comply with the terms and conditions of participation in the chemical dependency monitoring program established under section 4723.35 of the Revised Code;
(26) Failure to comply with the terms and conditions required under the practice intervention and improvement program established under section 4723.282 of the Revised Code;
(27) In the case of a certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner:
(a) Engaging in activities that exceed those permitted for the nurse's nursing specialty under section 4723.43 of the Revised Code;
(b) Failure to meet the quality assurance standards established under section 4723.07 of the Revised Code.
(28) In the case of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, failure to maintain a standard care arrangement in accordance with section 4723.431 of the Revised Code or to practice in accordance with the standard care arrangement;
(29) In the case of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code, failure to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices in accordance with section 4723.481 of the Revised Code;
(30) Prescribing any drug or device to perform or induce an abortion, or otherwise performing or inducing an abortion;
(31) Failure to establish and maintain professional boundaries with a patient, as specified in rules adopted under section 4723.07 of the Revised Code;
(32) Regardless of whether the contact or verbal behavior is consensual, engaging with a patient other than the spouse of the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician in any of the following:
(a) Sexual contact, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code;
(b) Verbal behavior that is sexually demeaning to the patient or may be reasonably interpreted by the patient as sexually demeaning.
(33) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code;
(34) Failure to comply with section 4723.487 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of a hearing, the board may enter into a consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by a vote of a quorum, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the agreement shall be of no effect.
(D) The hearings of the board shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may appoint a hearing examiner, as provided in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, to conduct any hearing the board is authorized to hold under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
In any instance in which the board is required under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder does not make a timely request for a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by a vote of a quorum, a final order that contains the board's findings. In the final order, the board may order any of the sanctions listed in division (A) or (B) of this section.
(E) If a criminal action is brought against a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician for an act or crime described in divisions (B)(3) to (7) of this section and the action is dismissed by the trial court other than on the merits, the board shall conduct an adjudication to determine whether the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed the act on which the action was based. If the board determines on the basis of the adjudication that the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed the act, or if the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician fails to participate in the adjudication, the board may take action as though the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician had been convicted of the act.
If the board takes action on the basis of a conviction, plea, or a judicial finding as described in divisions (B)(3) to (7) of this section that is overturned on appeal, the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician may, on exhaustion of the appeal process, petition the board for reconsideration of its action. On receipt of the petition and supporting court documents, the board shall temporarily rescind its action. If the board determines that the decision on appeal was a decision on the merits, it shall permanently rescind its action. If the board determines that the decision on appeal was not a decision on the merits, it shall conduct an adjudication to determine whether the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed the act on which the original conviction, plea, or judicial finding was based. If the board determines on the basis of the adjudication that the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician committed such act, or if the registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician does not request an adjudication, the board shall reinstate its action; otherwise, the board shall permanently rescind its action.
Notwithstanding the provision of division (C)(2) of section 2953.32 of the Revised Code specifying that if records pertaining to a criminal case are sealed under that section the proceedings in the case shall be deemed not to have occurred, sealing of the following records on which the board has based an action under this section shall have no effect on the board's action or any sanction imposed by the board under this section: records of any conviction, guilty plea, judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest, or a judicial finding of eligibility for a pretrial diversion program or intervention in lieu of conviction.
The board shall not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.
(F) The board may investigate an individual's criminal background in performing its duties under this section. As part of such investigation, the board may order the individual to submit, at the individual's expense, a request to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for a criminal records check and check of federal bureau of investigation records in accordance with the procedure described in section 4723.091 of the Revised Code.
(G) During the course of an investigation conducted under this section, the board may compel any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician or applicant under this chapter to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both, as required by the board and at the expense of the individual, if the board finds reason to believe that the individual under investigation may have a physical or mental impairment that may affect the individual's ability to provide safe nursing care. Failure of any individual to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed constitutes an admission of the allegations, unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence.
If the board finds that an individual is impaired, the board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment approved or designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. The individual shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board that the individual can begin or resume the individual's occupation in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care under the provisions of the individual's authority to practice.
For purposes of this division, any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician or applicant under this chapter shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.
(H) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that any person has violated any provision of this chapter or any rule of the board. Any person may report to the board any information the person may have that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or rule of the board. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports such information or who testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of the report or testimony.
(I) All of the following apply under this chapter with respect to the confidentiality of information:
(1) Information received by the board pursuant to a complaint or an investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action, except that the board may disclose information to law enforcement officers and government entities for purposes of an investigation of either a licensed health care professional, including a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, or dialysis technician, or a person who may have engaged in the unauthorized practice of nursing or dialysis care. No law enforcement officer or government entity with knowledge of any information disclosed by the board pursuant to this division shall divulge the information to any other person or government entity except for the purpose of a government investigation, a prosecution, or an adjudication by a court or government entity.
(2) If an investigation requires a review of patient records, the investigation and proceeding shall be conducted in such a manner as to protect patient confidentiality.
(3) All adjudications and investigations of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.
(4) Any board activity that involves continued monitoring of an individual as part of or following any disciplinary action taken under this section shall be conducted in a manner that maintains the individual's confidentiality. Information received or maintained by the board with respect to the board's monitoring activities is not subject to discovery in any civil action and is confidential, except that the board may disclose information to law enforcement officers and government entities for purposes of an investigation of a licensee or certificate holder.
(J) Any action taken by the board under this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the person may be reinstated to practice.
(K) When the board refuses to grant a license or certificate to an applicant, revokes a license or certificate, or refuses to reinstate a license or certificate, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to permanent action taken by the board is forever ineligible to hold a license or certificate of the type that was refused or revoked and the board shall not accept from the individual an application for reinstatement of the license or certificate or for a new license or certificate.
(L) No unilateral surrender of a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued under this chapter shall be effective unless accepted by majority vote of the board. No application for a nursing license, certificate of authority, or dialysis technician certificate issued under this chapter may be withdrawn without a majority vote of the board. The board's jurisdiction to take disciplinary action under this section is not removed or limited when an individual has a license or certificate classified as inactive or fails to renew a license or certificate.
(M) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(24) of this section against any licensee who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:
(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.
(2) For professional services rendered to any other person licensed pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.
Sec. 4723.283. (A) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code by a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner, the board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of that section, the board, by a vote of a quorum, may impose an additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars; suspend for not less than six months the nurse's license to practice as a registered nurse, certificate of authority, and certificate to prescribe; or both.
(B) Disciplinary action under this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
When investigating or conducting a hearing on an alleged violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code, the board may take any action it is authorized to take under division (D), (F), or (G) of section 4723.28 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code.
(A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.
(B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled substances and products containing tramadol as described in section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case:
(a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.
(b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.
(c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, twenty-four-hour period.
(2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division (C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of the following locations:
(a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code;
(b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in part, one or more hospitals;
(c) A health care facility operated by the department of mental health and addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities;
(d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;
(e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or medicaid program;
(f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code;
(g) A community mental health services provider, as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;
(h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 3702.30 of the Revised Code;
(i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 3702.141 of the Revised Code;
(j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;
(k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;
(l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code;
(m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at that site.
(3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.
(D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division (C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code.
(E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:
(1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount may be furnished.
(2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing it.
(3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally furnished.
(F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:
(1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.
(2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and devices in locations other than a health department operated by the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.
(3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.
(G) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with section 3719.061 of the Revised Code if the nurse prescribes a controlled substance that contains an opioid to a minor, as defined in that section.
Sec.  4723.486.  (A) A certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code that is not issued as an externship certificate is valid for two years, unless otherwise provided in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code or earlier suspended or revoked by the board. The board of nursing shall renew certificates to prescribe according to procedures and a renewal schedule established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.
(B) The Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the board may renew a certificate to prescribe if the holder submits to the board all of the following:
(1) Evidence of having completed during the previous two years at least twelve hours of continuing education in advanced pharmacology, or, if the certificate has been held for less than a full renewal period, the number of hours required by the board in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code;
(2) The fee required under section 4723.08 of the Revised Code for renewal of a certificate to prescribe;
(3) Any additional information the board requires pursuant to rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, with respect to a certificate holder who prescribes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines as part of the holder's regular practice of nursing, the holder shall also submit to the board evidence of having been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(2) The requirement in division (C)(1) of this section does not apply if either of the following is the case:
(a) The state board of pharmacy notifies the board of nursing pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the certificate holder has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.
(b) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
(D) The continuing education in pharmacology required under division (B)(1) of this section must be received from an accredited institution recognized by the board. The hours of continuing education required are in addition to any other continuing education requirement that must be completed pursuant to this chapter.
Sec. 4723.487. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(B) The Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, an advanced practice registered nurse holding a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter shall comply with all of the following as conditions of prescribing a drug that is either an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine as part of a patient's course of treatment for a particular condition:
(1) Before initially prescribing the drug, the nurse or the nurse's delegate shall request from the drug database a report of information related to the patient that covers at least the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the request. If the nurse practices primarily in a county of this state that adjoins another state, the nurse or delegate also shall request a report of any information available in the drug database that pertains to prescriptions issued or drugs furnished to the patient in the state adjoining that county.
(2) If the patient's course of treatment for the condition continues for more than ninety days after the initial report is requested, the nurse or delegate shall make periodic requests for reports of information from the drug database until the course of treatment has ended. The requests shall be made at intervals not exceeding ninety days, determined according to the date the initial request was made. The request shall be made in the same manner provided in division (B)(1) of this section for requesting the initial report of information from the drug database.
(3) On receipt of a report under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, the nurse shall assess the information in the report. The nurse shall document in the patient's record that the report was received and the information was assessed.
(C) Division (B) of this section does not apply if in any of the following circumstances:
(1) A drug database report regarding the patient is not available, in which case the nurse shall document in the patient's record the reason that the report is not available.
(2) The drug is prescribed in an amount indicated for a period not to exceed seven days.
(3) The drug is prescribed for the treatment of cancer or another condition associated with cancer.
(4) The drug is prescribed to a hospice patient in a hospice care program, as those terms are defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any other patient diagnosed as terminally ill.
(5) The drug is prescribed for administration in a hospital, nursing home, or residential care facility.
(D) With respect to prescribing any drug that is not an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine but is included in the drug database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board of nursing shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by an advanced practice registered nurse with a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(C)(E) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
Sec. 4725.092. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(B) The Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, an optometrist holding a therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate shall comply with all of the following as conditions of prescribing a drug that is either an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine, or personally furnishing a complete or partial supply of such a drug, as part of a patient's course of treatment for a particular condition:
(1) Before initially prescribing or furnishing the drug, the optometrist or the optometrist's delegate shall request from the drug database a report of information related to the patient that covers at least the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the request. If the optometrist practices primarily in a county of this state that adjoins another state, the optometrist or delegate also shall request a report of any information available in the drug database that pertains to prescriptions issued or drugs furnished to the patient in the state adjoining that county.
(2) If the patient's course of treatment for the condition continues for more than ninety days after the initial report is requested, the optometrist or delegate shall make periodic requests for reports of information from the drug database until the course of treatment has ended. The requests shall be made at intervals not exceeding ninety days, determined according to the date the initial request was made. The request shall be made in the same manner provided in division (B)(1) of this section for requesting the initial report of information from the drug database.
(3) On receipt of a report under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, the optometrist shall assess the information in the report. The optometrist shall document in the patient's record that the report was received and the information was assessed.
(C)(1) Division (B) of this section does not apply if a drug database report regarding the patient is not available. In this event, the optometrist shall document in the patient's record the reason that the report is not available.
(2) Division (B) of this section does not apply if the drug is prescribed or personally furnished in an amount indicated for a period not to exceed seven days.
(D) With respect to prescribing or personally furnishing any drug that is not an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine but is included in the drug database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the state board of optometry shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by an optometrist who holds a therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(C)(E) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
Sec. 4725.16.  (A)(1) Each certificate of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate issued by the state board of optometry shall expire annually on the last day of December, and may be renewed in accordance with this section and the standard renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.
(2) An optometrist seeking to continue to practice optometry shall file with the board an application for license renewal. The application shall be in such form and require such pertinent professional biographical data as the board may require.
(3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, in the case of an optometrist who holds a topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate and who prescribes or personally furnishes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines as part of the holder's regular practice of optometry, the application shall also include evidence that the optometrist has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(b) The requirement in division (A)(3)(a) of this section does not apply if either of the following is the case:
(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state board of optometry pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the certificate holder has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.
(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
(B) All licensed optometrists shall annually complete continuing education in subjects relating to the practice of optometry, to the end that the utilization and application of new techniques, scientific and clinical advances, and the achievements of research will assure comprehensive care to the public. The board shall prescribe by rule the continuing optometric education that licensed optometrists must complete. The length of study shall be twenty-five clock hours each year, including ten clock hours of instruction in pharmacology to be completed by all licensed optometrists.
Unless the continuing education required under this division is waived or deferred under division (D) of this section, the continuing education must be completed during the twelve-month period beginning on the first day of October and ending on the last day of September. If the board receives notice from a continuing education program indicating that an optometrist completed the program after the last day of September, and the optometrist wants to use the continuing education completed after that day to renew the license that expires on the last day of December of that year, the optometrist shall pay the penalty specified under section 4725.34 of the Revised Code for late completion of continuing education.
At least once annually, the board shall post on its web site and shall mail, or send by electronic mail, to each licensed optometrist a list of courses approved in accordance with standards prescribed by board rule. Upon the request of a licensed optometrist, the executive director of the board shall supply a list of additional courses that the board has approved subsequent to the most recent web site posting, electronic mail transmission, or mailing of the list of approved courses.
(C)(1) Annually, not later than the first day of November, the board shall mail or send by electronic mail a notice regarding license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible for renewal. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's most recent electronic mail or mailing address shown in the board's records. If the board knows that the optometrist has completed the required continuing optometric education for the year, the board may include with the notice an application for license renewal.
(2) Filing a license renewal application with the board shall serve as notice by the optometrist that the continuing optometric education requirement has been successfully completed. If the board finds that an optometrist has not completed the required continuing optometric education, the board shall disapprove the optometrist's application. The board's disapproval of renewal is effective without a hearing, unless a hearing is requested pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(3) The board shall refuse to accept an application for renewal from any applicant whose license is not in good standing or who is under disciplinary review pursuant to section 4725.19 of the Revised Code.
(4) Notice of an applicant's failure to qualify for renewal shall be served upon the applicant by mail. The notice shall be sent not later than the fifteenth day of November to the applicant's last address shown in the board's records.
(D) In cases of certified illness or undue hardship, the board may waive or defer for up to twelve months the requirement of continuing optometric education, except that in such cases the board may not waive or defer the continuing education in pharmacology required to be completed by optometrists who hold topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificates or therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificates. The board shall waive the requirement of continuing optometric education for any optometrist who is serving on active duty in the armed forces of the United States or a reserve component of the armed forces of the United States, including the Ohio national guard or the national guard of any other state or who has received an initial certificate of licensure during the nine-month period which ended on the last day of September.
(E) An optometrist whose renewal application has been approved may renew each certificate held by paying to the treasurer of state the fees for renewal specified under section 4725.34 of the Revised Code. On payment of all applicable fees, the board shall issue a renewal of the optometrist's certificate of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, as appropriate.
(F) Not later than the fifteenth day of December, the board shall mail or send by electronic mail a second notice regarding license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible for renewal but did not respond to the notice sent under division (C)(1) of this section. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's most recent electronic mail or mailing address shown in the board's records. If an optometrist fails to file a renewal application after the second notice is sent, the board shall send a third notice regarding license renewal prior to any action under division (I) of this section to classify the optometrist's certificates as delinquent.
(G) The failure of an optometrist to apply for license renewal or the failure to pay the applicable annual renewal fees on or before the date of expiration, shall automatically work a forfeiture of the optometrist's authority to practice optometry in this state.
(H) The board shall accept renewal applications and renewal fees that are submitted from the first day of January to the last day of April of the year next succeeding the date of expiration. An individual who submits such a late renewal application or fee shall pay the late renewal fee specified in section 4725.34 of the Revised Code.
(I)(1) If the certificates issued by the board to an individual have expired and the individual has not filed a complete application during the late renewal period, the individual's certificates shall be classified in the board's records as delinquent.
(2) Any optometrist subject to delinquent classification may submit a written application to the board for reinstatement. For reinstatement to occur, the applicant must meet all of the following conditions:
(a) Submit to the board evidence of compliance with board rules requiring continuing optometric education in a sufficient number of hours to make up for any delinquent compliance;
(b) Pay the renewal fees for the year in which application for reinstatement is made and the reinstatement fee specified under division (A)(8) of section 4725.34 of the Revised Code;
(c) Pass all or part of the licensing examination accepted by the board under section 4725.11 of the Revised Code as the board considers appropriate to determine whether the application for reinstatement should be approved;
(d) If the applicant has been practicing optometry in another state or country, submit evidence that the applicant's license to practice optometry in the other state or country is in good standing.
(3) The board shall approve an application for reinstatement if the conditions specified in division (I)(2) of this section are met. An optometrist who receives reinstatement is subject to the continuing education requirements specified under division (B) of this section for the year in which reinstatement occurs.
Sec. 4725.19.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, the state board of optometry, for any of the reasons specified in division (B) of this section, shall refuse to grant a certificate of licensure to an applicant and may, with respect to a licensed optometrist, do one or more of the following:
(1) Suspend the operation of any certificate of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, or therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, or all certificates granted by it to the optometrist;
(2) Permanently revoke any or all of the certificates;
(3) Limit or otherwise place restrictions on any or all of the certificates;
(4) Reprimand the optometrist;
(5) Impose a monetary penalty. If the reason for which the board is imposing the penalty involves a criminal offense that carries a fine under the Revised Code, the penalty shall not exceed the maximum fine that may be imposed for the criminal offense. In any other case, the penalty imposed by the board shall not exceed five hundred dollars.
(6) Require the optometrist to take corrective action courses.
The amount and content of corrective action courses shall be established by the board in rules adopted under section 4725.09 of the Revised Code.
(B) The sanctions specified in division (A) of this section may be taken by the board for any of the following reasons:
(1) Committing fraud in passing the licensing examination or making false or purposely misleading statements in an application for a certificate of licensure;
(2) Being at any time guilty of immorality, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(3) Being guilty of dishonesty or unprofessional conduct in the practice of optometry;
(4) Being at any time guilty of a felony, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(5) Being at any time guilty of a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(6) Violating the conditions of any limitation or other restriction placed by the board on any certificate issued by the board;
(7) Engaging in the practice of optometry as provided in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4725.01 of the Revised Code when the certificate authorizing that practice is under suspension, in which case the board shall permanently revoke the certificate;
(8) Being denied a license to practice optometry in another state or country or being subject to any other sanction by the optometric licensing authority of another state or country, other than sanctions imposed for the nonpayment of fees;
(9) Departing from or failing to conform to acceptable and prevailing standards of care in the practice of optometry as followed by similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances, regardless of whether actual injury to a patient is established;
(10) Failing to maintain comprehensive patient records;
(11) Advertising a price of optical accessories, eye examinations, or other products or services by any means that would deceive or mislead the public;
(12) Being addicted to the use of alcohol, stimulants, narcotics, or any other substance which impairs the intellect and judgment to such an extent as to hinder or diminish the performance of the duties included in the person's practice of optometry;
(13) Engaging in the practice of optometry as provided in division (A)(2) or (3) of section 4725.01 of the Revised Code without authority to do so or, if authorized, in a manner inconsistent with the authority granted;
(14) Failing to make a report to the board as required by division (A) of section 4725.21 or section 4725.31 of the Revised Code;
(15) Soliciting patients from door to door or establishing temporary offices, in which case the board shall suspend all certificates held by the optometrist;
(16) Failing to comply with section 4725.092 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;
(17) Except as provided in division (D) of this section:
(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers optometric services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that optometrist.
(b) Advertising that the optometrist will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers optometric services, would otherwise be required to pay.
(C) Any person who is the holder of a certificate of licensure, or who is an applicant for a certificate of licensure against whom is preferred any charges, shall be furnished by the board with a copy of the complaint and shall have a hearing before the board in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(D) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(16)(17) of this section against any optometrist who waives deductibles and copayments:
(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.
(2) For professional services rendered to any other optometrist licensed by the board, to the extent allowed by sections 4725.01 to 4725.34 of the Revised Code and the rules of the board.
Sec. 4725.191. (A) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code by an optometrist, the state board of optometry, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of that section, the board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose an additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars, suspend for not less than six months the operation of the optometrist's certificate of licensure and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, or both.
(B) Disciplinary action under this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4729.12.  An identification card issued by the state board of pharmacy under section 4729.08 of the Revised Code entitles the individual to whom it is issued to practice as a pharmacist or as a pharmacy intern in this state until the next annual renewal date.
Identification cards shall be renewed annually on the fifteenth day of September, according to the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.
Each pharmacist and pharmacy intern shall carry the identification card or renewal identification card while engaged in the practice of pharmacy. The license shall be conspicuously exposed at the principal place where the pharmacist or pharmacy intern practices pharmacy.
A pharmacist or pharmacy intern who desires to continue in the practice of pharmacy shall file with the board an application in such form and containing such data as the board may require for renewal of an identification card. An application filed under this section may not be withdrawn without the approval of the board. If the board finds that the applicant's card has not been revoked or placed under suspension and that the applicant has paid the renewal fee, has continued pharmacy education in accordance with the rules of the board, has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the board pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code (unless the board has restricted the applicant from obtaining any further information from the database or the board no longer maintains the database), and is entitled to continue in the practice of pharmacy, the board shall issue a renewal identification card to the applicant.
When an identification card has lapsed for more than sixty days but application is made within three years after the expiration of the card, the applicant shall be issued a renewal identification card without further examination if the applicant meets the requirements of this section and pays the fee designated under division (E) of section 4729.15 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4729.75. (A) The state board of pharmacy may establish and maintain a drug database. The board shall use the drug database to monitor the misuse and diversion of controlled substances, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, and other dangerous drugs the board includes in the database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code. In establishing and maintaining the database, the board shall electronically collect information pursuant to sections 4729.77 and 4729.79 of the Revised Code and shall disseminate information as authorized or required by sections 4729.80 and 4729.81 of the Revised Code. The board's collection and dissemination of information shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code.
(B) In addition to using the drug database as provided in division (A) of this section, the board may use the database for the collection of other health information to be transmitted to the department of health in accordance with section 4729.87 of the Revised Code.
(C) Sections 4729.76 to 4729.86 and 4729.861 of the Revised Code apply only to the use of the drug database as provided in division (A) of this section. Section 4729.87 of the Revised Code applies only to the use of the drug database as provided in division (B) of this section.
Sec. 4729.80. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, the board is authorized or required to provide information from the database in accordance with the following:
(1) On receipt of a request from a designated representative of a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs, the board may provide to the representative information from the database relating to the professional who is the subject of an active investigation being conducted by the government entity.
(2) On receipt of a request from a federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to drugs, the board shall provide to the officer information from the database relating to the person who is the subject of an active investigation of a drug abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, being conducted by the officer's employing government entity.
(3) Pursuant to a subpoena issued by a grand jury, the board shall provide to the grand jury information from the database relating to the person who is the subject of an investigation being conducted by the grand jury.
(4) Pursuant to a subpoena, search warrant, or court order in connection with the investigation or prosecution of a possible or alleged criminal offense, the board shall provide information from the database as necessary to comply with the subpoena, search warrant, or court order.
(5) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the prescriber's delegate approved by the board, the board may shall provide to the prescriber a report of information from the database relating to a patient who is either of the following a current patient of the prescriber or a potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral of the patient to the prescriber, if the prescriber certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the subject of the request all of the following conditions are met:
(a) A current patient of the prescriber The prescriber certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the subject of the request;
(b) A potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral of the patient to the prescriber The prescriber has not been denied access to the database by the board.
(6) On receipt of a request from a pharmacist or the pharmacist's delegate approved by the board, the board may shall provide to the pharmacist information from the database relating to a current patient of the pharmacist, if the pharmacist certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of the pharmacist's practice of pharmacy involving the patient who is the subject of the request and the pharmacist has not been denied access to the database by the board.
(7) On receipt of a request from an individual seeking the individual's own database information in accordance with the procedure established in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may provide to the individual the individual's own database information.
(8) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a managed care organization that has entered into a contract with the department of medicaid under section 5167.10 of the Revised Code and a data security agreement with the board required by section 5167.14 of the Revised Code, the board shall provide to the medical director information from the database relating to a medicaid recipient enrolled in the managed care organization, including information in the database related to prescriptions for the recipient that were not covered or reimbursed under a program administered by the department of medicaid, if the medicaid director confirms, upon request from the board, that the medicaid recipient is enrolled in the managed care organization.
(9) On receipt of a request from the medicaid director, the board shall provide to the director information from the database relating to a recipient of a program administered by the department of medicaid, including information in the database related to prescriptions for the recipient that were not covered or paid by a program administered by the department.
(10) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a managed care organization that has entered into a contract with the administrator of workers' compensation under division (B)(4) of section 4121.44 of the Revised Code and a data security agreement with the board required by section 4121.443 of the Revised Code, the board shall provide to the medical director information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code assigned to the managed care organization, including information in the database related to prescriptions for the claimant that were not covered or reimbursed under Chapter 4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code, if the administrator of workers' compensation confirms, upon request from the board, that the claimant is assigned to the managed care organization.
(11) On receipt of a request from the administrator of workers' compensation, the board may shall provide to the administrator information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code, including information in the database related to prescriptions for the claimant that were not covered or reimbursed under Chapter 4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.
(11)(12) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the prescriber's delegate approved by the board, the board shall provide to the prescriber information from the database relating to a patient's mother, if the prescriber certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of providing medical treatment to a newborn or infant patient diagnosed as opioid dependent and the prescriber has not been denied access to the database by the board.
(13) On receipt of a request from a requestor described in division (A)(1), (2), (5), or (6) of this section who is from or participating with another state's prescription monitoring program, the board may provide to the requestor information from the database, but only if there is a written agreement under which the information is to be used and disseminated according to the laws of this state.
(B) The state board of pharmacy shall maintain a record of each individual or entity that requests information from the database pursuant to this section. In accordance with rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may use the records to document and report statistics and law enforcement outcomes.
The board may provide records of an individual's requests for database information to the following:
(1) A designated representative of a government entity that is responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs who is involved in an active investigation being conducted by the government entity of the individual who submitted the requests for database information;
(2) A federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to drugs and who is involved in an active investigation being conducted by the officer's employing government entity of the individual who submitted the requests for database information.
(C) Information contained in the database and any information obtained from it is not a public record. Information contained in the records of requests for information from the database is not a public record. Information that does not identify a person may be released in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.
(D) A pharmacist or prescriber shall not be held liable in damages to any person in any civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property on the basis that the pharmacist or prescriber did or did not seek or obtain information from the database.
Sec. 4729.86. If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:
(A)(1) No person identified in divisions (A)(1) to (10)(12) or (B) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code shall disseminate any written or electronic information the person receives from the drug database or otherwise provide another person access to the information that the person receives from the database, except as follows:
(a) When necessary in the investigation or prosecution of a possible or alleged criminal offense;
(b) When a person provides the information to the prescriber or pharmacist for whom the person is approved by the board to serve as a delegate of the prescriber or pharmacist for purposes of requesting and receiving information from the drug database under division (A)(5) or (6) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code;
(c) When a prescriber or pharmacist provides the information to a person who is approved by the board to serve as such a delegate of the prescriber or pharmacist.
(2) No person shall provide false information to the state board of pharmacy with the intent to obtain or alter information contained in the drug database.
(3) No person shall obtain drug database information by any means except as provided under section 4729.80 or 4729.81 of the Revised Code.
(B) A person shall not use information obtained pursuant to division (A) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code as evidence in any civil or administrative proceeding.
(C)(1) The Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, after providing notice and affording an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may restrict a person from obtaining further information from the drug database if any of the following is the case:
(a) The person violates division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;
(b) The person is a requestor identified in division (A)(11)(13) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code and the board determines that the person's actions in another state would have constituted a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section;
(c) The person fails to comply with division (B) of this section, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the failure to comply occurred;
(d) The person creates, by clear and convincing evidence, a threat to the security of information contained in the database.
(2) If the board determines that allegations regarding a person's actions warrant restricting the person from obtaining further information from the drug database without a prior hearing, the board may summarily impose the restriction. A telephone conference call may be used for reviewing the allegations and taking a vote on the summary restriction. The summary restriction shall remain in effect, unless removed by the board, until the board's final adjudication order becomes effective.
(3) The board shall determine the extent to which the person is restricted from obtaining further information from the database.
Sec. 4729.861.  If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code and if the board restricts a prescriber from obtaining further information from the database pursuant to division (C) of section 4729.86 of the Revised Code, the board shall notify the government entity responsible for licensing the prescriber.
Sec. 4729.87. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, the board may use the database as a means for the collection of any health information submitted by any of the entities required to submit drug-related information under sections 4729.76 to 4729.86 of the Revised Code. Any health information received under this section is not a public record and shall not be released by the board other than for purposes of transmitting the information to the department of health as provided in this section and the rules adopted under it.
(B) The board and department shall collaborate in determining the health information that may be collected by the board through the database and transmitted to the department. The information may include records of immunizations administered by pharmacists and pharmacy interns pursuant to section 4729.41 of the Revised Code for inclusion in any immunization registry established and maintained by the department.
(C) The board shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this section. In adopting the rules, the board shall consult with the department. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4729.87 4729.91 The state board of pharmacy shall comply with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4730.25.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may revoke or may refuse to grant a certificate to practice as a physician assistant or a certificate to prescribe to a person found by the board to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing the certificate.
(B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or suspend an individual's certificate to practice as a physician assistant or certificate to prescribe, refuse to issue a certificate to an applicant, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for any of the following reasons:
(1) Failure to practice in accordance with the conditions under which the supervising physician's supervision agreement with the physician assistant was approved, including the requirement that when practicing under a particular supervising physician, the physician assistant must practice only according to the physician supervisory plan the board approved for that physician or the policies of the health care facility in which the supervising physician and physician assistant are practicing;
(2) Failure to comply with the requirements of this chapter, Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code, or any rules adopted by the board;
(3) Violating or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate, any provision of this chapter, Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code, or the rules adopted by the board;
(4) Inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or physical illness, including physical deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or perceptive skills;
(5) Impairment of ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that impair ability to practice;
(6) Administering drugs for purposes other than those authorized under this chapter;
(7) Willfully betraying a professional confidence;
(8) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in soliciting or advertising for employment as a physician assistant; in connection with any solicitation or advertisement for patients; in relation to the practice of medicine as it pertains to physician assistants; or in securing or attempting to secure a certificate to practice as a physician assistant, a certificate to prescribe, or approval of a supervision agreement.
As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, or includes representations or implications that in reasonable probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to misunderstand or be deceived.
(9) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation or other advantage personally or for any other person, that an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can be permanently cured;
(10) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;
(11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony;
(12) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;
(14) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
(15) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(16) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(17) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for violating any state or federal law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug, including trafficking in drugs;
(18) Any of the following actions taken by the state agency responsible for regulating the practice of physician assistants in another state, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;
(19) A departure from, or failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar physician assistants under the same or similar circumstances, regardless of whether actual injury to a patient is established;
(20) Violation of the conditions placed by the board on a certificate to practice as a physician assistant, a certificate to prescribe, a physician supervisory plan, or supervision agreement;
(21) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of the Revised Code;
(22) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under section 4730.26 of the Revised Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;
(23) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code;
(24) Prescribing any drug or device to perform or induce an abortion, or otherwise performing or inducing an abortion;
(25) Failure to comply with section 4730.53 of the Revised Code, unless the board no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent agreement with a physician assistant or applicant to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall be of no force or effect.
(D) For purposes of divisions (B)(12), (15), and (16) of this section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the applicant or certificate holder committed the act in question. The board shall have no jurisdiction under these divisions in cases where the trial court renders a final judgment in the certificate holder's favor and that judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board shall have jurisdiction under these divisions in cases where the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.
(E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have no effect upon a prior board order entered under the provisions of this section or upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under the provisions of this section if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.
(F) For purposes of this division, any individual who holds a certificate issued under this chapter, or applies for a certificate issued under this chapter, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.
(1) In enforcing division (B)(4) of this section, the board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who holds a certificate issued under this chapter or who has applied for a certificate pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and physical examination. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board finds a physician assistant unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in division (B)(4) of this section, the board shall require the physician assistant to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as a condition for an initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed certificate. An individual affected under this division shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practicing in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care.
(2) For purposes of division (B)(5) of this section, if the board has reason to believe that any individual who holds a certificate issued under this chapter or any applicant for a certificate suffers such impairment, the board may compel the individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a treatment provider or physician qualified to conduct such examination and chosen by the board.
Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed certification to practice or prescribe, to submit to treatment.
Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a certificate suspended under this division, the physician assistant shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice or prescribing in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care. The demonstration shall include the following:
(a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;
(b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare contract or consent agreement;
(c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by individuals or providers approved by the board for making such assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.
The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this division after such demonstration and after the individual has entered into a written consent agreement.
When the impaired physician assistant resumes practice or prescribing, the board shall require continued monitoring of the physician assistant. The monitoring shall include compliance with the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for at least two years of annual written progress reports made under penalty of falsification stating whether the physician assistant has maintained sobriety.
(G) If the secretary and supervising member determine that there is clear and convincing evidence that a physician assistant has violated division (B) of this section and that the individual's continued practice or prescribing presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public, they may recommend that the board suspend the individual's certificate to practice or prescribe without a prior hearing. Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board.
The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.
The board shall issue a written order of suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the physician assistant requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the physician assistant requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the certificate holder.
A summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within sixty days after completion of its hearing. Failure to issue the order within sixty days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order, but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.
(H) If the board takes action under division (B)(11), (13), or (14) of this section, and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. Upon receipt of a petition and supporting court documents, the board shall reinstate the certificate to practice or prescribe. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual committed the act in question. Notice of opportunity for hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held under this division, that the individual committed the act, or if no hearing is requested, it may order any of the sanctions identified under division (B) of this section.
(I) The certificate to practice issued to a physician assistant and the physician assistant's practice in this state are automatically suspended as of the date the physician assistant pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction in another state for any of the following criminal offenses in this state or a substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary. Continued practice after the suspension shall be considered practicing without a certificate.
The board shall notify the individual subject to the suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate is suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board shall enter a final order permanently revoking the individual's certificate to practice.
(J) In any instance in which the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of opportunity for hearing and the individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) or (B) of this section.
(K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this section resulting in a suspension shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the physician assistant's certificate may be reinstated. The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing conditions to be imposed for reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.
(L) When the board refuses to grant to an applicant a certificate to practice as a physician assistant or a certificate to prescribe, revokes an individual's certificate, refuses to issue a certificate, or refuses to reinstate an individual's certificate, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold the certificate and the board shall not accept an application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance of a new certificate.
(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:
(1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter is not effective unless or until accepted by the board. Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.
(2) An application made under this chapter for a certificate, approval of a physician supervisory plan, or approval of a supervision agreement may not be withdrawn without approval of the board.
(3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate in accordance with section 4730.14 or section 4730.48 of the Revised Code shall not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take disciplinary action under this section against the individual.
Sec. 4730.252. (A) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code by a physician assistant, the state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of that section, the board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose an additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars, suspend for not less than six months the physician assistant's certificate to practice and certificate to prescribe, or both.
(B) Except as specified in division (J) of section 4730.25 of the Revised Code, disciplinary action under this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4730.41.  (A) A certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter authorizes a physician assistant to prescribe and personally furnish drugs and therapeutic devices in the exercise of physician-delegated prescriptive authority.
(B) In exercising physician-delegated prescriptive authority, a physician assistant is subject to all of the following:
(1) The physician assistant shall exercise physician-delegated prescriptive authority only to the extent that the physician supervising the physician assistant has granted that authority.
(2) The physician assistant shall comply with all conditions placed on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority, as specified by the supervising physician who is supervising the physician assistant in the exercise of physician-delegated prescriptive authority.
(3) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated prescriptive authority for controlled substances, the physician assistant shall register with the federal drug enforcement administration.
(4) If the physician assistant possesses physician-delegated prescriptive authority for schedule II controlled substances, the physician assistant shall comply with section 4730.411 of the Revised Code.
(5) If the physician assistant prescribes a controlled substance that contains an opioid to a minor, the physician assistant shall comply with section 3719.061 of the Revised Code. As used in this division, "minor" has the same meaning as in section 3719.061 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4730.48. (A)(1) Except in the case of a provisional certificate to prescribe, a physician assistant's certificate to prescribe expires on the same date as the physician assistant's certificate to practice as a physician assistant, as provided in section 4730.14 of the Revised Code. The certificate to prescribe may be renewed in accordance with this section.
(2) A person seeking to renew a certificate to prescribe shall, on or before the thirty-first day of January of each even-numbered year, apply for renewal of the certificate. The state medical board shall send renewal notices at least one month prior to the expiration date. The notice may be sent as part of the notice sent for renewal of the certificate to practice.
(3) Applications for renewal shall be submitted to the board on forms the board shall prescribe and furnish. An application for renewal of a certificate to prescribe may be submitted in conjunction with an application for renewal of a certificate to practice.
(4)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(4)(b) of this section, with respect to an applicant who holds a certificate to prescribe and prescribes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines as part of the applicant's regular practice as a physician assistant, the application for renewal of a certificate to prescribe shall include evidence that the applicant has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(b) The requirement in division (A)(4)(a) of this section does not apply if either of the following is the case:
(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state medical board pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the applicant has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.
(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
(5) Each application for renewal of a certificate to prescribe shall be accompanied by a biennial renewal fee of fifty dollars. The board shall deposit the fees in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code.
(6) The applicant shall report any criminal offense that constitutes grounds under section 4730.25 of the Revised Code for refusing to issue a certificate to prescribe to which the applicant has pleaded guilty, of which the applicant has been found guilty, or for which the applicant has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction, since last signing an application for a certificate to prescribe.
(B) The board shall review all renewal applications received. If an applicant submits a complete renewal application and meets the requirements for renewal specified in section 4730.49 of the Revised Code, the board shall issue to the applicant a renewed certificate to prescribe.
Sec. 4730.53. (A) As used in this section, "drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(B) The Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, a physician assistant holding a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter shall comply with all of the following as conditions of prescribing a drug that is either an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine as part of a patient's course of treatment for a particular condition:
(1) Before initially prescribing the drug, the physician assistant or the physician assistant's delegate shall request from the drug database a report of information related to the patient that covers at least the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the request. If the physician assistant practices primarily in a county of this state that adjoins another state, the physician assistant or delegate also shall request a report of any information available in the drug database that pertains to prescriptions issued or drugs furnished to the patient in the state adjoining that county.
(2) If the patient's course of treatment for the condition continues for more than ninety days after the initial report is requested, the physician assistant or delegate shall make periodic requests for reports of information from the drug database until the course of treatment has ended. The requests shall be made at intervals not exceeding ninety days, determined according to the date the initial request was made. The request shall be made in the same manner provided in division (B)(1) of this section for requesting the initial report of information from the drug database.
(3) On receipt of a report under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, the physician assistant shall assess the information in the report. The physician assistant shall document in the patient's record that the report was received and the information was assessed.
(C) Division (B) of this section does not apply in any of the following circumstances:
(1) A drug database report regarding the patient is not available, in which case the physician assistant shall document in the patient's record the reason that the report is not available.
(2) The drug is prescribed in an amount indicated for a period not to exceed seven days.
(3) The drug is prescribed for the treatment of cancer or another condition associated with cancer.
(4) The drug is prescribed to a hospice patient in a hospice care program, as those terms are defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any other patient diagnosed as terminally ill.
(5) The drug is prescribed for administration in a hospital, nursing home, or residential care facility.
(D) With respect to prescribing any drug that is not an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine but is included in the drug database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a physician assistant who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(C)(E) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
Sec. 4731.055. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Drug database" means the database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(2) "Physician" means an individual authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.
(B) The Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, a physician shall comply with all of the following as conditions of prescribing a drug that is either an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine, or personally furnishing a complete or partial supply of such a drug, as part of a patient's course of treatment for a particular condition:
(1) Before initially prescribing or furnishing the drug, the physician or the physician's delegate shall request from the drug database a report of information related to the patient that covers at least the twelve months immediately preceding the date of the request. If the physician practices primarily in a county of this state that adjoins another state, the physician or delegate also shall request a report of any information available in the drug database that pertains to prescriptions issued or drugs furnished to the patient in the state adjoining that county.
(2) If the patient's course of treatment for the condition continues for more than ninety days after the initial report is requested, the physician or delegate shall make periodic requests for reports of information from the drug database until the course of treatment has ended. The requests shall be made at intervals not exceeding ninety days, determined according to the date the initial request was made. The request shall be made in the same manner provided in division (B)(1) of this section for requesting the initial report of information from the drug database.
(3) On receipt of a report under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, the physician shall assess the information in the report. The physician shall document in the patient's record that the report was received and the information was assessed.
(C) Division (B) of this section does not apply in any of the following circumstances:
(1) A drug database report regarding the patient is not available, in which case the physician shall document in the patient's record the reason that the report is not available.
(2) The drug is prescribed or personally furnished in an amount indicated for a period not to exceed seven days.
(3) The drug is prescribed or personally furnished for the treatment of cancer or another condition associated with cancer.
(4) The drug is prescribed or personally furnished to a hospice patient in a hospice care program, as those terms are defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any other patient diagnosed as terminally ill.
(5) The drug is prescribed or personally furnished for administration in a hospital, nursing home, or residential care facility.
(6) The drug is prescribed or personally furnished to treat acute pain resulting from a surgical or other invasive procedure or a delivery.
(D) With respect to prescribing or personally furnishing any drug that is not an opioid analgesic or a benzodiazepine but is included in the drug database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a physician regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(C)(E) This section and the rules adopted under it do not apply if the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
Sec. 4731.22.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, may limit, revoke, or suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to grant a certificate to an individual, refuse to register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate if the individual or certificate holder is found by the board to have committed fraud during the administration of the examination for a certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by the board.
(B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for one or more of the following reasons:
(1) Permitting one's name or one's certificate to practice or certificate of registration to be used by a person, group, or corporation when the individual concerned is not actually directing the treatment given;
(2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other modalities for treatment of disease;
(3) Selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;
(4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.
For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a professional confidence" does not include providing any information, documents, or reports to a child fatality review board under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code and does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.
(5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by the board.
As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, or includes representations or implications that in reasonable probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to misunderstand or be deceived.
(6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;
(7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can be permanently cured;
(8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;
(9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony;
(10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;
(12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;
(14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;
(15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the board upon a certificate to practice;
(16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this chapter;
(17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;
(18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American medical association, the American osteopathic association, the American podiatric medical association, or any other national professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies of the codes of ethics of the various national professional organizations. The individual whose certificate is being suspended or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the individual's profession.
For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of ethics of a national professional organization" does not include any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.
(19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or perceptive skills.
In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed authority to practice. An individual affected under this division shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who applies for or receives a certificate to practice under this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing by the board, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute a privileged communication.
(20) Except when civil penalties are imposed under section 4731.225 or 4731.281 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or any rule promulgated by the board.
This division does not apply to a violation or attempted violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.
(21) The violation of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code or of any abortion rule adopted by the public health council pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;
(22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;
(23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;
(24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or termination of clinical privileges by the United States department of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by the drug enforcement administration of the United States department of justice;
(25) Termination or suspension from participation in the medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and human services or other responsible agency for any act or acts that also would constitute a violation of division (B)(2), (3), (6), (8), or (19) of this section;
(26) Impairment of ability to practice according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that impair ability to practice.
For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an application for or holding a certificate to practice under this chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute privileged communications.
If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to practice by this chapter or any applicant for certification to practice suffers such impairment, the board may compel the individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the examination and who is chosen by the board.
Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed certification to practice, to submit to treatment.
Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a certificate suspended under this division, the impaired practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of care under the provisions of the practitioner's certificate. The demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the following:
(a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;
(b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare contract or consent agreement;
(c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by individuals or providers approved by the board for making the assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.
The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this division after that demonstration and after the individual has entered into a written consent agreement.
When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for at least two years of annual written progress reports made under penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained sobriety.
(27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised Code;
(28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:
(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that individual;
(b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be required to pay.
(29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of the Revised Code;
(30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's file;
(31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that chapter;
(32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard care arrangement;
(33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the Revised Code;
(34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board in an investigative interview, an investigative office conference, at a deposition, or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;
(35) Failure to supervise an oriental medicine practitioner or acupuncturist in accordance with Chapter 4762. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for providing that supervision;
(36) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;
(37) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the Revised Code;
(38) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 2317.561 of the Revised Code;
(39) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;
(40) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to post the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised Code;
(41) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code for the operation of or the provision of care at a pain management clinic;
(42) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code for providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals at a pain management clinic;
(43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 4729.79 or 4731.055 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;
(44) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 2919.171 of the Revised Code or failure to submit to the department of health in accordance with a court order a complete report as described in section 2919.171 of the Revised Code;
(45) Practicing at a facility that is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the person operating the facility has obtained and maintains the license with the classification;
(46) Owning a facility that is subject to licensure as a category III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain management clinic classification unless the facility is licensed with the classification;
(47) Failure to comply with the requirement regarding maintaining notes described in division (B) of section 2919.191 of the Revised Code or failure to satisfy the requirements of section 2919.191 of the Revised Code prior to performing or inducing an abortion upon a pregnant woman.
(C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall be of no force or effect.
A telephone conference call may be utilized for ratification of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an individual's certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code.
If the board takes disciplinary action against an individual under division (B) of this section for a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the disciplinary action shall consist of a suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's certificate to practice. Any consent agreement entered into under this division with an individual that pertains to a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of that section shall provide for a suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's certificate to practice.
(D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.
(E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.
(F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a signed writing any information that the person may have that appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number and shall be recorded by the board.
(2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication of the case.
(3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under this chapter, or in conducting an inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code, the board may question witnesses, conduct interviews, administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and copy any books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board.
(a) Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.
(b) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.
(c) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual place of residence, usual place of business, or address on file with the board. When serving a subpoena to an applicant for or the holder of a certificate issued under this chapter, service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept delivery. If the person being served refuses to accept the subpoena or is not located, service may be made to an attorney who notifies the board that the attorney is representing the person.
(d) A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.
(4) All hearings, investigations, and inspections of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code.
(5) A report required to be submitted to the board under this chapter, a complaint, or information received by the board pursuant to an investigation or pursuant to an inspection under division (E) of section 4731.054 of the Revised Code is confidential and not subject to discovery in any civil action.
The board shall conduct all investigations or inspections and proceedings in a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make public the names or any other identifying information about patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide physician-patient relationship exists.
The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation or inspection, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state medical board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.
(6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding three months. The report shall contain the following information for each case with which the board has completed its activities:
(a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged violation;
(b) The type of certificate to practice, if any, held by the individual against whom the complaint is directed;
(c) A description of the allegations contained in the complaint;
(d) The disposition of the case.
The report shall state how many cases are still pending and shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both of the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an individual's certificate to practice without a prior hearing:
(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division (B) of this section;
(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.
Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.
The board shall issue a written order of suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.
Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.
(H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or (13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's certificate to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held under this division, that the individual committed the act or if no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (B) of this section.
(I) The certificate to practice issued to an individual under this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are automatically suspended as of the date of the individual's second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, or the date the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any of the following criminal offenses in this state or a substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered practicing without a certificate.
The board shall notify the individual subject to the suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate is automatically suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is applicable:
(1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the board shall enter an order suspending the individual's certificate to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the board, imposing a more serious sanction involving the individual's certificate to practice.
(2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking the individual's certificate to practice.
(J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) or (B) of this section.
(K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which the individual's certificate to practice may be reinstated. The board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.
(L) When the board refuses to grant a certificate to an applicant, revokes an individual's certificate to practice, refuses to register an applicant, or refuses to reinstate an individual's certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold a certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance of a new certificate.
(M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:
(1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. A telephone conference call may be utilized for acceptance of the surrender of an individual's certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.
(2) An application for a certificate made under the provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval of the board.
(3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate of registration in accordance with this chapter shall not remove or limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action under this section against the individual.
(4) At the request of the board, a certificate holder shall immediately surrender to the board a certificate that the board has suspended, revoked, or permanently revoked.
(N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of this section against any person who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:
(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.
(2) For professional services rendered to any other person authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.
(O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board shall develop and implement a quality intervention program designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do all of the following:
(1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation the board conducts under this section;
(2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;
(3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service providers and approve individual educational programs recommended by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each individual undertaking a recommended individual educational program.
(4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an individual educational program and require further monitoring of the individual who completed the program or other action that the board determines to be appropriate;
(5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention program.
An individual who participates in an individual educational program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial obligations arising from that educational program.
Sec. 4731.229. (A) As used in this section, "physician" means an individual authorized under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.
(B) For the initial violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code by a physician, the state medical board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars. For each subsequent violation of that section, the board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members, may impose an additional fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars; suspend for not less than six months the physician's certificate to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery; or both.
(C) When investigating or conducting a hearing on an alleged violation of section 3719.061 of the Revised Code, the board may take any action it is authorized to take under division (F) of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.
(D) Except as specified in division (J) of section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, disciplinary action under this section shall be taken pursuant to an adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 4731.281.  (A) On or before the deadline established under division (B) of this section for applying for renewal of a certificate of registration, each person holding a certificate under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery shall certify to the state medical board that in the preceding two years the person has completed one hundred hours of continuing medical education. The certification shall be made upon the application for biennial registration submitted pursuant to division (B) of this section. The board shall adopt rules providing for pro rata reductions by month of the number of hours of continuing education required for persons who are in their first registration period, who have been disabled due to illness or accident, or who have been absent from the country.
In determining whether a course, program, or activity qualifies for credit as continuing medical education, the board shall approve all continuing medical education taken by persons holding a certificate to practice medicine and surgery that is certified by the Ohio state medical association, all continuing medical education taken by persons holding a certificate to practice osteopathic medicine and surgery that is certified by the Ohio osteopathic association, and all continuing medical education taken by persons holding a certificate to practice podiatric medicine and surgery that is certified by the Ohio podiatric medical association. Each person holding a certificate to practice under this chapter shall be given sufficient choice of continuing education programs to ensure that the person has had a reasonable opportunity to participate in continuing education programs that are relevant to the person's medical practice in terms of subject matter and level.
The board may require a random sample of persons holding a certificate to practice under this chapter to submit materials documenting completion of the continuing medical education requirement during the preceding registration period, but this provision shall not limit the board's authority to investigate pursuant to section 4731.22 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) Every person holding a certificate under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery wishing to renew that certificate shall apply to the board for a certificate of registration upon an application furnished by the board, and pay to the board at the time of application a fee of three hundred five dollars, according to the following schedule:
(a) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "A" through "B," on or before April 1, 2001, and the first day of April of every odd-numbered year thereafter;
(b) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "C" through "D," on or before January 1, 2001, and the first day of January of every odd-numbered year thereafter;
(c) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "E" through "G," on or before October 1, 2000, and the first day of October of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(d) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "H" through "K," on or before July 1, 2000, and the first day of July of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(e) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "L" through "M," on or before April 1, 2000, and the first day of April of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(f) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "N" through "R," on or before January 1, 2000, and the first day of January of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(g) Persons whose last name begins with the letter "S," on or before October 1, 1999, and the first day of October of every odd-numbered year thereafter;
(h) Persons whose last name begins with the letters "T" through "Z," on or before July 1, 1999, and the first day of July of every odd-numbered year thereafter.
The board shall deposit the fee in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code, except that the board shall deposit twenty dollars of the fee into the state treasury to the credit of the physician loan repayment fund created by section 3702.78 of the Revised Code.
(2) The board shall mail or cause to be mailed to every person registered to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery, a notice of registration renewal addressed to the person's last known address or may cause the notice to be sent to the person through the secretary of any recognized medical, osteopathic, or podiatric society, according to the following schedule:
(a) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "A" through "B," on or before January 1, 2001, and the first day of January of every odd-numbered year thereafter;
(b) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "C" through "D," on or before October 1, 2000, and the first day of October of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(c) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "E" through "G," on or before July 1, 2000, and the first day of July of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(d) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "H" through "K," on or before April 1, 2000, and the first day of April of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(e) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "L" through "M," on or before January 1, 2000, and the first day of January of every even-numbered year thereafter;
(f) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "N" through "R," on or before October 1, 1999, and the first day of October of every odd-numbered year thereafter;
(g) To persons whose last name begins with the letter "S," on or before July 1, 1999, and the first day of July of every odd-numbered year thereafter;
(h) To persons whose last name begins with the letters "T" through "Z," on or before April 1, 1999, and the first day of April of every odd-numbered year thereafter.
(3) Failure of any person to receive a notice of renewal from the board shall not excuse the person from the requirements contained in this section.
(4) The board's notice shall inform the applicant of the renewal procedure. The board shall provide the application for registration renewal in a form determined by the board. The
(5) The applicant shall provide in the application the applicant's full name, principal practice address and residence address, the number of the applicant's certificate to practice, and any other information required by the board. The
(6)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(6)(b) of this section, in the case of an applicant who prescribes or personally furnishes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines as part of the applicant's regular practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery, the application shall also include evidence that the applicant has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.
(b) The requirement in division (B)(6)(a) of this section does not apply if either of the following is the case:
(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state medical board pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the applicant has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.
(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.
(7) The applicant shall include with the application a list of the names and addresses of any clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse-midwives, or certified nurse practitioners with whom the applicant is currently collaborating, as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. The applicant shall execute and deliver the application to the board in a manner prescribed by the board. Every person registered under this section shall give written notice to the state medical board of any change of principal practice address or residence address or in the list within thirty days of the change.
(8) The applicant shall report any criminal offense to which the applicant has pleaded guilty, of which the applicant has been found guilty, or for which the applicant has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction, since last filing an application for a certificate of registration.
(9) The applicant shall execute and deliver the application to the board in a manner prescribed by the board.
(C) The board shall issue to any person holding a certificate under this chapter to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery, upon application and qualification therefor in accordance with this section, a certificate of registration under the seal of the board. A certificate of registration shall be valid for a two-year period.
(D) Failure of any certificate holder to register and comply with this section shall operate automatically to suspend the holder's certificate to practice. Continued practice after the suspension of the certificate to practice shall be considered as practicing in violation of section 4731.41, 4731.43, or 4731.60 of the Revised Code. If the certificate has been suspended pursuant to this division for two years or less, it may be reinstated. The board shall reinstate a certificate to practice suspended for failure to register upon an applicant's submission of a renewal application, the biennial registration fee, and the applicable monetary penalty. The penalty for reinstatement shall be fifty dollars. If the certificate has been suspended pursuant to this division for more than two years, it may be restored. Subject to section 4731.222 of the Revised Code, the board may restore a certificate to practice suspended for failure to register upon an applicant's submission of a restoration application, the biennial registration fee, and the applicable monetary penalty and compliance with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The board shall not restore to an applicant a certificate to practice unless the board, in its discretion, decides that the results of the criminal records check do not make the applicant ineligible for a certificate issued pursuant to section 4731.14, 4731.56, or 4731.57 of the Revised Code. The penalty for restoration shall be one hundred dollars. The board shall deposit the penalties in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code.
(E) If an individual certifies completion of the number of hours and type of continuing medical education required to receive a certificate of registration or reinstatement of a certificate to practice, and the board finds through the random samples it conducts under this section or through any other means that the individual did not complete the requisite continuing medical education, the board may impose a civil penalty of not more than five thousand dollars. The board's finding shall be made pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members.
A civil penalty imposed under this division may be in addition to or in lieu of any other action the board may take under section 4731.22 of the Revised Code. The board shall deposit civil penalties in accordance with section 4731.24 of the Revised Code.
(F) The state medical board may obtain information not protected by statutory or common law privilege from courts and other sources concerning malpractice claims against any person holding a certificate to practice under this chapter or practicing as provided in section 4731.36 of the Revised Code.
(G) Each mailing sent by the board under division (B)(2) of this section to a person registered to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery shall inform the applicant of the reporting requirement established by division (H) of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code. At the discretion of the board, the information may be included on the application for registration or on an accompanying page.
Sec. 5101.061. (A) There is hereby established in the department of job and family services the office of human services innovation. The director of job and family services shall establish the office's organizational structure, may reassign the department's staff and resources as necessary to support the office's activities, and is responsible for the office's operations. The superintendent of public instruction, chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, director of the governor's office of workforce transformation, and director of the governor's office of health transformation shall assist the director of job and family services with leadership and organizational support for the office.
(B) Not later than January 1, 2015, the office shall submit to the governor recommendations for all of the following:
(1) Coordinating services across all public assistance programs to help individuals find employment, succeed at work, and stay out of poverty;
(2) Revising incentives for public assistance programs to foster person-centered case management;
(3) Standardizing and automating eligibility determination policies and processes for public assistance programs;
(4) Other matters the office considers appropriate.
(C) In its development of the recommendations under division (B) of this section, the office shall do both of the following:
(1) Have as its goal the coordination and reform of state programs to assist residents of this state in preparing for life and the dignity of work, to promote individual responsibility and work opportunity, and to improve self-sufficiency to increase income levels;
(2) Not later than three months after the effective date of this section, in consultation with the Ohio healthier buckeye council, establish clear principles to guide the development of the recommendations, clearly identify problems to be addressed in the recommendations, and make an inventory of all existing state and other resources that the office considers relevant to the development of the recommendations.
(D) The office shall convene the Ohio healthier buckeye council and the directors and staff of the departments, agencies, boards, commissions, and institutions of the executive branch of this state as necessary to develop the recommendations to be submitted to the governor under division (B) of this section. The council, departments, agencies, boards, commissions, and institutions shall comply with all requests and directives that the office makes, subject to the supervision of the chairperson of the council and the directors of the departments, agencies, offices, boards, and commissions. The office also shall convene other individuals interested in the issues that the office addresses in the development of the recommendations to obtain such individuals' input on, and support for, the recommendations.
Sec. 5103.02.  As used in sections 5103.03 to 5103.17 of the Revised Code:
(A)(1) "Association" or "institution" includes all of the following:
(a) Any incorporated or unincorporated organization, society, association, or agency, public or private, that receives or cares for children for two or more consecutive weeks;
(b) Any individual, including the operator of a foster home, who, for hire, gain, or reward, receives or cares for children for two or more consecutive weeks, unless the individual is related to them by blood or marriage;
(c) Any individual not in the regular employ of a court, or of an institution or association certified in accordance with section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, who in any manner becomes a party to the placing of children in foster homes, unless the individual is related to such children by blood or marriage or is the appointed guardian of such children.
(2) "Association" or "institution" does not include any of the following:
(a) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of education, a local board of education, the department of youth services, the department of mental health and addiction services, or the department of developmental disabilities;
(b) Any individual who provides care for only a single-family group, placed there by their parents or other relative having custody;
(c) A private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp.
(B) "Family foster home" means a foster home that is not a specialized foster home.
(C) "Foster caregiver" means a person holding a valid foster home certificate issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Foster home" means a private residence in which children are received apart from their parents, guardian, or legal custodian, by an individual reimbursed for providing the children nonsecure care, supervision, or training twenty-four hours a day. "Foster home" does not include care provided for a child in the home of a person other than the child's parent, guardian, or legal custodian while the parent, guardian, or legal custodian is temporarily away. Family foster homes and specialized foster homes are types of foster homes.
(E) "Medically fragile foster home" means a foster home that provides specialized medical services designed to meet the needs of children with intensive health care needs who meet all of the following criteria:
(1) Under rules adopted by the medicaid director governing medicaid payments for long-term care services, the children require a skilled level of care.
(2) The children require the services of a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the instability of their medical conditions.
(3) The children require the services of a registered nurse on a daily basis.
(4) The children are at risk of institutionalization in a hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities.
(F) "Private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp" means a structured, alternative residential setting for children who are experiencing emotional, behavioral, moral, social, or learning difficulties at home or school in which all of the following are the case:
(1) The children spend the majority of their time, including overnight, either outdoors or in a primitive structure.
(2) The children have been placed there by their parents or another relative having custody.
(3) The camp accepts no public funds for use in its operations.
(G) "Recommending agency" means a public children services agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial agency that recommends that the department of job and family services take any of the following actions under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code regarding a foster home:
(1) Issue a certificate;
(2) Deny a certificate;
(3) Renew a certificate;
(4) Deny renewal of a certificate;
(5) Revoke a certificate.
(G)(H) "Specialized foster home" means a medically fragile foster home or a treatment foster home.
(H)(I) "Treatment foster home" means a foster home that incorporates special rehabilitative services designed to treat the specific needs of the children received in the foster home and that receives and cares for children who are emotionally or behaviorally disturbed, chemically dependent, mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, or who otherwise have exceptional needs.
Sec. 5103.50.  (A) As used in this section and sections 5103.51 to 5103.55 of the Revised Code, "private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp" has the same meaning as in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code.
(B) The director of job and family services shall issue a license to a private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp that meets the minimum standards for such camps specified in division (C) of this section and applies to the director for a license on a form prescribed by the director.
(C) Both of the following apply as the minimum standards to be met by a private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp:
(1) The camp shall develop and implement a written policy that establishes all of the following:
(a) Standards for hiring, training, and supervising staff;
(b) Standards for behavioral intervention, including standards prohibiting the use of prone restraint and governing the use of other restraints or isolation;
(c) Standards for recordkeeping, including specifying information that must be included in each child's record, who may access records, confidentiality, maintenance, security, and disposal of records;
(d) A procedure for handling complaints about the camp from the children attending the camp, their families, staff, and the public;
(e) Standards for emergency and disaster preparedness, including procedures for emergency evacuation and standards requiring that a method of emergency communication be accessible at all times;
(f) Standards that ensure the protection of children's civil rights;
(g) Standards for the admission and discharge of children attending the camp, including standards for emergency discharge.
(2) The camp shall cooperate with any request from the director for an inspection or for access to records or written policies of the camp.
Sec. 5103.51.  A license issued under section 5103.50 of the Revised Code is valid for five years, unless earlier revoked by the director of job and family services. The license may be renewed.
Each private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp seeking license renewal shall submit to the director an application for license renewal on such form as the director prescribes. If the camp meets the minimum standards specified in section 5103.50 of the Revised Code, the director shall renew the license.
Sec. 5103.52.  (A) The director of job and family services may inspect a private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp at any time. The director may delegate this authority to a county department of job and family services.
(B) The director may request access to the camp's records or to the written policies adopted by the camp pursuant to section 5103.50 of the Revised Code. The director may delegate this authority to a county department of job and family services.
Sec. 5103.53.  A private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp shall not operate without a license issued under section 5103.50 of the Revised Code. If the director of job and family services determines that a camp is operating without a license, the director may petition the court of common pleas in the county in which the camp is located for an order enjoining its operation. The court shall grant injunctive relief upon a showing that the camp is operating without a license.
Sec. 5103.54.  If a licensed private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp fails to meet the minimum standards set forth in section 5103.50 of the Revised Code, the director of job and family services shall notify the camp that the director intends to revoke the license. Unless the violation poses an imminent risk to the life, health, or safety of one or more children attending the camp, the director shall give the camp ninety days to meet the minimum standards. If the violation poses an imminent risk to the life, health, or safety of one or more children attending the camp or the camp fails to meet the minimum standards within ninety days of receipt of the notice of revocation, the director shall revoke the license. An order of revocation under this section may be appealed in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
Sec. 5103.55.  A parent of a child attending a private, nonprofit therapeutic wilderness camp is not relieved of the parent's obligations regarding compulsory school attendance pursuant to section 3321.04 of the Revised Code.
Section 2.  That existing sections 355.01, 355.03, 355.04, 2151.011, 2151.421, 3712.04, 3712.99, 4715.14, 4715.30, 4715.302, 4723.28, 4723.481, 4723.486, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4725.16, 4725.19, 4729.12, 4729.75, 4729.80, 4729.86, 4729.87, 4730.25, 4730.41, 4730.48, 4730.53, 4731.055, 4731.22, 4731.281, and 5103.02 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.
Section 3. Sections 4715.14, 4723.486, 4725.16, 4729.12, 4730.48, and 4731.281 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act, and section 4729.861, as enacted by this act, shall take effect January 1, 2015.
Section 4. Sections 4715.30, 4715.302, 4723.28, 4723.487, 4725.092, 4725.19, 4730.25, 4730.53, 4731.055, and 4731.22 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act, shall take effect April 1, 2015.
Section 5. As used in this section, "licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" means an individual who is authorized by law to prescribe drugs, dangerous drugs, or drug therapy-related devices in the course of the individual's professional practice, including only the following: a dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code, an advanced practice registered nurse who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, an optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised Code to practice optometry under a therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, a physician assistant who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code, and a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and surgery.
Not later than January 1, 2015, each licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs who prescribes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines as part of the professional's regular practice and each pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code shall obtain access to the drug database established and maintained by the State Board of Pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code, unless the Board has restricted the professional or pharmacist from obtaining information from the database or the Board no longer maintains the database. Failure to comply with this section constitutes grounds for certificate or license suspension.
Section 6. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in this act:
Section 4715.14 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. H.B. 190 and Sub. H.B. 215 of the 128th General Assembly.
Section 4723.487 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. H.B. 303 and Sub. S.B. 301 of the 129th General Assembly.
Section 4725.16 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 59 and Am. Sub. H.B. 98 of the 130th General Assembly.
Section 7. Not later than one year after the effective date of this act, each hospice care program that holds a license under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code on the act's effective date and that provides hospice care and services in a hospice patient's home shall submit to the Department of Health written evidence demonstrating that the program is in compliance with section 3712.062 of the Revised Code, as enacted by this act. After a review of the evidence submitted, if the Department determines that the program is not in compliance with that section, the Department may suspend the program's license for not more than six months and impose a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars.
Section 8.  The amendments to divisions (B)(49) and (50) of section 2151.011 of the Revised Code by Am. Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly, which appear in this act and are to take effect on July 1, 2014, are not accelerated by their inclusion in this act.
Section 9.  (A) The State Medical Board may conduct a pilot program under which any method of teleconferencing, including interactive video teleconferencing, may be used for purposes of any of the Board's committee meetings, including committee meetings at which licenses or certificates are issued. If a pilot program is conducted, the Board may permit any of its members to attend a committee meeting by teleconference in lieu of being physically present at the meeting. A member who attends a meeting by teleconference shall be counted in determining whether a quorum is present at the meeting and shall be permitted to participate in any vote taken at the meeting.
A pilot program conducted under this section may be commenced at any time on or after the effective date of this section. The pilot program shall conclude two years after the date it is commenced.
After a pilot program conducted under this section concludes, the Board shall prepare a report of its findings and recommendations. The report shall include a description of the effects that the use of teleconferencing had on the Board's committee and licensing operations, Board member participation in committee meetings, and public attendance at committee meetings. The Board shall submit the report to the Governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the General Assembly.
(B) Notwithstanding division (C) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code, the requirement for a member's presence in person at a meeting to be considered part of a quorum or to vote does not apply to any meeting at which the Board permits the use of teleconferencing under a pilot program conducted under this section.
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