130th Ohio General Assembly
The online versions of legislation provided on this website are not official. Enrolled bills are the final version passed by the Ohio General Assembly and presented to the Governor for signature. The official version of acts signed by the Governor are available from the Secretary of State's Office in the Continental Plaza, 180 East Broad St., Columbus.

H. B. No. 386  As Introduced
As Introduced

129th General Assembly
Regular Session
2011-2012
H. B. No. 386


Representative Blessing 



A BILL
To amend sections 111.15, 122.014, 2923.31, 3301.0714, 3769.089, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.05, 3770.21, 3772.01, 3772.04, 3772.07, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.13, 3772.16, 3772.17, 3772.28, 3772.99, 5503.02, 5751.01, 5753.01, and 5753.03, to enact section 3770.22 of the Revised Code, to amend Section 261.20.90 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, to amend Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly, and to repeal Section 4 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly to make changes to the law regarding video lottery terminals, casino gaming, and horse racing, to make an appropriation, and to declare an emergency.

BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:
Section 1.  That sections 111.15, 122.014, 2923.31, 3301.0714, 3769.089, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.05, 3770.21, 3772.01, 3772.04, 3772.07, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.13, 3772.16, 3772.17, 3772.28, 3772.99, 5503.02, 5751.01, 5753.01, and 5753.03 be amended and section 3770.22 of the Revised Code be enacted to read as follows:
Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes any amendment or rescission of a rule.
(2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college or university, community college district, technical college district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant general's department, or any court.
(3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations within an agency.
(4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as follows:
(a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission;
(b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this section does not apply.
An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state college or university, community college district, technical college district, or state community college.
If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule designates an effective date that is later than the effective date provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective on the later date designated by the agency.
Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8) of this section.
If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the Revised Code.
(2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by the agency.
An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division (B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for another ninety-day period.
(3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section in compliance with the following standards and procedures:
(a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio administrative code.
(b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance with the rules of the legislative service commission.
(c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.
(d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.
If the director of the legislative service commission or the director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not in compliance with the rules of the legislative service commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as directed in the notice.
(C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.
(D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same proposed rule. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, department, division, or bureau also shall file the business impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this division.
As used in this division, "commission" includes the public utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state statute.
This division does not apply to any of the following:
(1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;
(2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised Code;
(3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state;
(4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of the state;
(5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the proposed rule contains both of the following:
(a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of complying with a federal law or rule;
(b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires verbatim compliance.
(6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;
(7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to instant game rules as provided in division (A) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.
If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division (D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to legislative review under division (D) of this section.
(E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of the legislative service commission. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, a state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the director of the legislative service commission.
(F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the auditor of state or the auditor of state's designee is not required to file a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with a proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that the auditor of state proposes under section 117.12, 117.19, 117.38, or 117.43 of the Revised Code and files under division (D) or (E) of this section.
Sec. 122.014.  (A) As used in this section, "gaming activities" means activities conducted in connection with or that include any of the following:
(1) Casino gaming, as authorized and defined in Section 6(C) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution;
(2) Casino gaming, as defined in division (D)(E) of section 3772.01 of the Revised Code; or
(3) The pari-mutuel system of wagering as authorized and described in Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code.
(B) The department of development or any other entity that administers any program or development project established under Chapter 122., 166., or 184. of the Revised Code or in sections 149.311, 5709.87, or 5709.88 of the Revised Code shall not provide any financial assistance, including loans, tax credits, and grants, staffing assistance, technical support, or other assistance to businesses conducting gaming activities or for project sites on which gaming activities are or will be conducted.
Sec. 2923.31.  As used in sections 2923.31 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code:
(A) "Beneficial interest" means any of the following:
(1) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under a trust in which the trustee holds title to personal or real property;
(2) The interest of a person as a beneficiary under any other trust arrangement under which any other person holds title to personal or real property for the benefit of such person;
(3) The interest of a person under any other form of express fiduciary arrangement under which any other person holds title to personal or real property for the benefit of such person.
"Beneficial interest" does not include the interest of a stockholder in a corporation or the interest of a partner in either a general or limited partnership.
(B) "Costs of investigation and prosecution" and "costs of investigation and litigation" mean all of the costs incurred by the state or a county or municipal corporation under sections 2923.31 to 2923.36 of the Revised Code in the prosecution and investigation of any criminal action or in the litigation and investigation of any civil action, and includes, but is not limited to, the costs of resources and personnel.
(C) "Enterprise" includes any individual, sole proprietorship, partnership, limited partnership, corporation, trust, union, government agency, or other legal entity, or any organization, association, or group of persons associated in fact although not a legal entity. "Enterprise" includes illicit as well as licit enterprises.
(D) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of property that is allegedly involved in a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, including any person who establishes a valid claim to or interest in the property in accordance with division (E) of section 2981.04 of the Revised Code, and any victim of an alleged violation of that section or of any underlying offense involved in an alleged violation of that section.
(E) "Pattern of corrupt activity" means two or more incidents of corrupt activity, whether or not there has been a prior conviction, that are related to the affairs of the same enterprise, are not isolated, and are not so closely related to each other and connected in time and place that they constitute a single event.
At least one of the incidents forming the pattern shall occur on or after January 1, 1986. Unless any incident was an aggravated murder or murder, the last of the incidents forming the pattern shall occur within six years after the commission of any prior incident forming the pattern, excluding any period of imprisonment served by any person engaging in the corrupt activity.
For the purposes of the criminal penalties that may be imposed pursuant to section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, at least one of the incidents forming the pattern shall constitute a felony under the laws of this state in existence at the time it was committed or, if committed in violation of the laws of the United States or of any other state, shall constitute a felony under the law of the United States or the other state and would be a criminal offense under the law of this state if committed in this state.
(F) "Pecuniary value" means money, a negotiable instrument, a commercial interest, or anything of value, as defined in section 1.03 of the Revised Code, or any other property or service that has a value in excess of one hundred dollars.
(G) "Person" means any person, as defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and any governmental officer, employee, or entity.
(H) "Personal property" means any personal property, any interest in personal property, or any right, including, but not limited to, bank accounts, debts, corporate stocks, patents, or copyrights. Personal property and any beneficial interest in personal property are deemed to be located where the trustee of the property, the personal property, or the instrument evidencing the right is located.
(I) "Corrupt activity" means engaging in, attempting to engage in, conspiring to engage in, or soliciting, coercing, or intimidating another person to engage in any of the following:
(1) Conduct defined as "racketeering activity" under the "Organized Crime Control Act of 1970," 84 Stat. 941, 18 U.S.C. 1961(1)(B), (1)(C), (1)(D), and (1)(E), as amended;
(2) Conduct constituting any of the following:
(a) A violation of section 1315.55, 1322.02, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.22, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2921.02, 2921.03, 2921.04, 2921.11, 2921.12, 2921.32, 2921.41, 2921.42, 2921.43, 2923.12, or 2923.17; division (F)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of section 1315.53; division (A)(1) or (2) of section 1707.042; division (B), (C)(4), (D), (E), or (F) of section 1707.44; division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2923.20; division (E) of section 3772.99; division (J)(1) of section 4712.02; section 4719.02, 4719.05, or 4719.06; division (C), (D), or (E) of section 4719.07; section 4719.08; or division (A) of section 4719.09 of the Revised Code.
(b) Any violation of section 3769.11, 3769.15, 3769.16, or 3769.19 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would have been a violation of section 3769.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, or any violation of section 2915.05 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would have been a violation of section 3769.15, 3769.16, or 3769.19 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date.
(c) Any violation of section 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.31, 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.34, 2913.42, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2915.03, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.37 of the Revised Code, any violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is a felony of the first, second, third, or fourth degree and that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurred prior to July 1, 1996, any violation of section 2915.02 of the Revised Code that occurs on or after July 1, 1996, and that, had it occurred prior to that date, would not have been a violation of section 3769.11 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to that date, any violation of section 2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, or any violation of division (B) of section 2915.05 of the Revised Code as it exists on and after July 1, 1996, when the proceeds of the violation, the payments made in the violation, the amount of a claim for payment or for any other benefit that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the violation, or the value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the violation exceeds one thousand dollars, or any combination of violations described in division (I)(2)(c) of this section when the total proceeds of the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination of violations, or value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of violations exceeds one thousand dollars;
(d) Any violation of section 5743.112 of the Revised Code when the amount of unpaid tax exceeds one hundred dollars;
(e) Any violation or combination of violations of section 2907.32 of the Revised Code involving any material or performance containing a display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit and depicted with clearly visible penetration of the genitals or clearly visible penetration by the penis of any orifice when the total proceeds of the violation or combination of violations, the payments made in the violation or combination of violations, or the value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the violation or combination of violations exceeds one thousand dollars;
(f) Any combination of violations described in division (I)(2)(c) of this section and violations of section 2907.32 of the Revised Code involving any material or performance containing a display of bestiality or of sexual conduct, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code, that is explicit and depicted with clearly visible penetration of the genitals or clearly visible penetration by the penis of any orifice when the total proceeds of the combination of violations, payments made in the combination of violations, amount of the claims for payment or for other benefits that is false or deceptive and that is involved in the combination of violations, or value of the contraband or other property illegally possessed, sold, or purchased in the combination of violations exceeds one thousand dollars;
(g) Any violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code to the extent the violation is not based solely on the same conduct that constitutes corrupt activity pursuant to division (I)(2)(c) of this section due to the conduct being in violation of section 2907.21 of the Revised Code.
(3) Conduct constituting a violation of any law of any state other than this state that is substantially similar to the conduct described in division (I)(2) of this section, provided the defendant was convicted of the conduct in a criminal proceeding in the other state;
(4) Animal or ecological terrorism;
(5)(a) Conduct constituting any of the following:
(i) Organized retail theft;
(ii) Conduct that constitutes one or more violations of any law of any state other than this state, that is substantially similar to organized retail theft, and that if committed in this state would be organized retail theft, if the defendant was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the conduct in a criminal proceeding in the other state.
(b) By enacting division (I)(5)(a) of this section, it is the intent of the general assembly to add organized retail theft and the conduct described in division (I)(5)(a)(ii) of this section as conduct constituting corrupt activity. The enactment of division (I)(5)(a) of this section and the addition by division (I)(5)(a) of this section of organized retail theft and the conduct described in division (I)(5)(a)(ii) of this section as conduct constituting corrupt activity does not limit or preclude, and shall not be construed as limiting or precluding, any prosecution for a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code that is based on one or more violations of section 2913.02 or 2913.51 of the Revised Code, one or more similar offenses under the laws of this state or any other state, or any combination of any of those violations or similar offenses, even though the conduct constituting the basis for those violations or offenses could be construed as also constituting organized retail theft or conduct of the type described in division (I)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.
(J) "Real property" means any real property or any interest in real property, including, but not limited to, any lease of, or mortgage upon, real property. Real property and any beneficial interest in it is deemed to be located where the real property is located.
(K) "Trustee" means any of the following:
(1) Any person acting as trustee under a trust in which the trustee holds title to personal or real property;
(2) Any person who holds title to personal or real property for which any other person has a beneficial interest;
(3) Any successor trustee.
"Trustee" does not include an assignee or trustee for an insolvent debtor or an executor, administrator, administrator with the will annexed, testamentary trustee, guardian, or committee, appointed by, under the control of, or accountable to a court.
(L) "Unlawful debt" means any money or other thing of value constituting principal or interest of a debt that is legally unenforceable in this state in whole or in part because the debt was incurred or contracted in violation of any federal or state law relating to the business of gambling activity or relating to the business of lending money at an usurious rate unless the creditor proves, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the usurious rate was not intentionally set and that it resulted from a good faith error by the creditor, notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures that were adopted by the creditor to avoid an error of that nature.
(M) "Animal activity" means any activity that involves the use of animals or animal parts, including, but not limited to, hunting, fishing, trapping, traveling, camping, the production, preparation, or processing of food or food products, clothing or garment manufacturing, medical research, other research, entertainment, recreation, agriculture, biotechnology, or service activity that involves the use of animals or animal parts.
(N) "Animal facility" means a vehicle, building, structure, nature preserve, or other premises in which an animal is lawfully kept, handled, housed, exhibited, bred, or offered for sale, including, but not limited to, a zoo, rodeo, circus, amusement park, hunting preserve, or premises in which a horse or dog event is held.
(O) "Animal or ecological terrorism" means the commission of any felony that involves causing or creating a substantial risk of physical harm to any property of another, the use of a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, or purposely, knowingly, or recklessly causing serious physical harm to property and that involves an intent to obstruct, impede, or deter any person from participating in a lawful animal activity, from mining, foresting, harvesting, gathering, or processing natural resources, or from being lawfully present in or on an animal facility or research facility.
(P) "Research facility" means a place, laboratory, institution, medical care facility, government facility, or public or private educational institution in which a scientific test, experiment, or investigation involving the use of animals or other living organisms is lawfully carried out, conducted, or attempted.
(Q) "Organized retail theft" means the theft of retail property with a retail value of one thousand dollars or more from one or more retail establishments with the intent to sell, deliver, or transfer that property to a retail property fence.
(R) "Retail property" means any tangible personal property displayed, held, stored, or offered for sale in or by a retail establishment.
(S) "Retail property fence" means a person who possesses, procures, receives, or conceals retail property that was represented to the person as being stolen or that the person knows or believes to be stolen.
(T) "Retail value" means the full retail value of the retail property. In determining whether the retail value of retail property equals or exceeds one thousand dollars, the value of all retail property stolen from the retail establishment or retail establishments by the same person or persons within any one-hundred-eighty-day period shall be aggregated.
Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt rules for a statewide education management information system. The rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with this section and the rules adopted under this section. The guidelines shall include:
(1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this section;
(2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this section;
(3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance with division (G) of this section;
(4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public in accordance with division (H) of this section.
(B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require the data maintained in the education management information system to include at least the following:
(1) Student participation and performance data, for each grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in each school building in each school district, that includes:
(a) The numbers of students receiving each category of instructional service offered by the school district, such as regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, instructional services specifically for students gifted in mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of instructional services required by the guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories of instructional services used in determining cost units pursuant to division (C)(3) of this section.
(b) The numbers of students receiving support or extracurricular services for each of the support services or extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section.
(c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine through twelve;
(d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;
(e) The number of students designated as having a disabling condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code;
(f) The numbers of students reported to the state board pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code;
(g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as present for any field trip that is approved by the school administration.
(h) Expulsion rates;
(i) Suspension rates;
(j) Dropout rates;
(k) Rates of retention in grade;
(l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state board of education rules;
(m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified by the department of education that reflects the rate at which students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the current year complete school and that is consistent with nationally accepted reporting requirements;
(n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment administered to a kindergarten student if the parent of that student requests the district not to report those results.
(2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school district, including:
(a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of instructional service, instructional support service, and administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall require these categories of data to be maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school building.
(b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time equivalent employees providing each category of service used pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall require these categories of data to be maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school building.
(c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching classes of regular education and the average number of pupils enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten through five in the district as a whole and in each school building in the school district.
(d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school district and each school building.
(3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, including information regarding the gender ratio of the school district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to standard practices of agencies of the federal government.
(b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, whether the student previously participated in a public preschool program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and the number of years the student participated in each of these programs.
(4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal law.
(C) The education management information system shall include cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted under this section shall require the cost data for each school district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost units and shall require all of the costs of each school district to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least the following:
(1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division (C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.
(2) Administrative costs for each school building in the school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support services in each building.
(3) Instructional services costs for each category of instructional service provided directly to students and required by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a cost for each of the following components:
(a) The cost of each instructional services category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;
(b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students in conjunction with each instructional services category;
(c) The cost of the administrative support services related to each instructional services category, such as the cost of personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional services category and the cost of personnel supervising or coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.
(4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each category of service directly provided to students and required by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) of this section to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a cost for each of the following components:
(a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) of this section that is provided directly to students by a licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a supplemental contract;
(b) The cost of each such services category provided directly to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;
(c) The cost of the administrative services related to each services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.
(D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require school districts to collect information about individual students, staff members, or both in connection with any data required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may also require school districts to report information about individual staff members in connection with any data required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall not authorize school districts to request social security numbers of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and social security number to the state board of education or the department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the reporting under this section of any personally identifiable information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the school district or the information technology center operated under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by the district or technology center to have access to such information or is employed by an entity with which the department contracts for the scoring of assessments administered under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code. The guidelines may require school districts to provide the social security numbers of individual staff members and the county of residence for a student. Nothing in this section prohibits the state board of education or department of education from providing a student's county of residence to the department of taxation to facilitate the distribution of tax revenue.
(2) The guidelines shall provide for each school district or community school to assign a data verification code that is unique on a statewide basis over time to each student whose initial Ohio enrollment is in that district or school and to report all required individual student data for that student utilizing such code. The guidelines shall also provide for assigning data verification codes to all students enrolled in districts or community schools on the effective date of the guidelines established under this section.
Individual student data shall be reported to the department through the information technology centers utilizing the code but, except as provided in sections 3310.11, 3310.42, 3310.63, 3313.978, 3310.63, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time shall the state board or the department have access to information that would enable any data verification code to be matched to personally identifiable student data.
Each school district shall ensure that the data verification code is included in the student's records reported to any subsequent school district, community school, or state institution of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, in which the student enrolls. Any such subsequent district or school shall utilize the same identifier in its reporting of data under this section.
The director of health shall request and receive, pursuant to sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised Code, a data verification code for a child who is receiving services under division (A)(2) of section 3701.61 of the Revised Code.
(E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require school districts to collect and report data, information, or reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, information, or reports may be maintained in the education management information system but are not required to be compiled as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) of this section.
(F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, the board of education of each school district shall annually collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to this section. A school district may collect and report these data notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.
(G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole and each school building within each district and shall compile the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats shall:
(1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and among school buildings within each school district;
(2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.
(H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all school districts and the general public that includes the profile of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school district.
(2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school district and the general public that includes the profiles of each of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of the district board of education.
(3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available to the general public at each school district's offices. Each district board of education shall make copies of each report available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the week in which the reports will first be available, a notice containing the address where the reports are available and the date on which the reports will be available.
(I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(J) As used in this section:
(1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also includes any educational service center or other educational entity required to submit data using the system established under this section.
(2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of the Revised Code.
(K) Any person who removes data from the information system established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to any person not entitled under law to have access to such information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code prohibiting tampering with data.
(L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the department of education may sanction any school district that reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by this section.
(2) If the department decides to sanction a school district under this division, the department shall take the following sequential actions:
(a) Notify the district in writing that the department has determined that data has not been reported as required under this section and require the district to review its data submission and submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. The department also may require the district to develop a corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting procedures.
(b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, require the district to develop a corrective action plan in accordance with that division;
(c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the current fiscal year;
(d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to investigate the district's data reporting practices and make recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may include one or more of the following actions:
(i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting practices by department staff or an outside entity;
(ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;
(iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the current fiscal year;
(iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;
(v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data management system;
(vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with division (N) of this section;
(vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as required by this section;
(viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, issue a revised report card for the district;
(ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data reporting problems.
(3) Any time the department takes an action against a school district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. The department shall send a copy of the report to the district superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the report in its files.
(4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any further actions described by that division. If the department withheld funds from the district under that division, the department may release those funds to the district, except that if the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or (c) of this section.
(5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices any time the department has reason to believe the district has not made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a district has not made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section, the district shall reimburse the department for the full cost of the audit. The department may withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.
(6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend whether the department should issue a revised report card for the district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.
(7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data reported under this section caused a school district to receive excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. The department may withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.
(8) Any school district that has funds withheld under division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.
(9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to report data as required by this section.
(10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this section.
(M) No information technology center or school district shall acquire, change, or update its student administration software package to manage and report data required to be reported to the department unless it converts to a student software package that is certified by the department.
(N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or incomplete data to the education management information system.
(O) No person shall release or maintain any information about any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.
(P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected under that division shall be included on the report cards required by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.
(Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information required by division (C)(5) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code based upon the data collected under this section, the department shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection of any data necessary to comply with that division.
Sec. 3769.089.  (A) As used in this chapter:
(1) "Racing day" means any day authorized under a permit holder's permit on which, at a simulcast host, either a live racing program is conducted as authorized under section 3769.07 of the Revised Code or a simulcast racing program is conducted as authorized under this section.
(2) "Live racing day" means a racing day on which a live racing program is conducted by the permit holder along with simulcasts of all other available racing programs from within this state and simulcast racing programs from outside this state as authorized under this section.
(3) "Live racing program" means a racing program consisting of no fewer than seven live horse races at thoroughbred tracks and nine live races at standardbred tracks and additional horse races simulcast from other facilities located either inside or outside this state, in which not more than two horse races on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted are simulcast from facilities located outside this state. If only one racing meeting of a particular breed of horse is being held, no fewer than nine live horse races shall be held on a live racing day. If, during the course of a racing meeting at a standardbred track, the racing secretary of the permit holder determines that there is an insufficient number of entries to have a full field of eight horses for each of nine races on a live racing program, then the racing secretary of the permit holder, after consultation with the Ohio harness horsemens association, may reduce the number of live races on that live racing program from nine to either eight or seven, as the racing secretary may determine. The racing secretary shall not reduce the live racing program to less than seven live races. If during the course of a meeting at a thoroughbred track, the racing secretary of a permit holder determines that there is an insufficient number of entries to have a full field of eight horses for each of nine races on a live racing program, then the racing secretary of the permit holder, with the consent of the thoroughbred horsemens association, may reduce the number of live races on that live racing program from nine to either eight or seven, as the racing secretary may determine. The racing secretary shall not reduce the live racing program to less than seven live races. No more than seventeen races on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted, including both live races and races simulcast from other facilities located either inside or outside this state, shall be part of a live racing program.
(4) "Simulcast host" means a track or enclosure in this state where, on a racing day, a permit holder is doing one or both of the following:
(a) Conducting a live racing program and offering this program for simulcasting to one or more simulcast guests and satellite facilities in this state;
(b) Receiving a simulcast racing program for simulcasting to one or more simulcast guests and satellite facilities in this state.
(5) "Simulcast guest" means any track or enclosure that is receiving from a simulcast host, on a day other than a racing day, a live racing program or a simulcast racing program.
(6) "Simulcast racing program" means all simulcasts of horse races to a simulcast host or simulcast guest on a racing day or on any other day on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted, but does not include any simulcast horse races from inside or outside this state that are included in a simulcast host's live racing program.
(7) "Satellite facility" has the same meaning as in section 3769.25 of the Revised Code.
(8) "Collection and settlement agent" has the same meaning as in section 3769.0810 of the Revised Code.
(9) "Special racing event" means individual races in live racing programs or simulcast racing programs, and simulcast racing programs on special event days under division (C) of this section, conducted at facilities located outside this state for which the track, racing association, or state regulatory agency conducting such races charges a simulcast host a fee for the privilege of receiving a simulcast of such races into this state that is higher than the customary and regular fee charged for simulcast races because of the status or popularity of such races.
(B) The state racing commission shall, upon request by any permit holder, permit electronically televised simulcasts of horse races at the permit holder's track or enclosure on racing days authorized by the permit holder's permit. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the commission shall not permit the simulcast of any simulcast racing program conducted at tracks or facilities located outside this state unless the out-of-state simulcast racing program is available to all permit holders, whether serving as simulcast hosts or simulcast guests, and all satellite facilities, in this state open and operating on that day. A permit holder or satellite facility may inform the commission that it waives the right to receive the simulcast of a simulcast racing program or a race in a simulcast racing program on that day and in this event the simulcast racing program or simulcast race shall be available to all other simulcast hosts, simulcast guests, and satellite facilities open and operating in this state on that day.
In order for a permit holder to offer simulcasts of horse races conducted at facilities located outside this state, the permit holder shall have conducted live racing programs during the immediately preceding calendar year on a number of days that is not less than the number of regular live racing days it conducted in calendar year 1991, not including additional racing days conducted in calendar year 1991 by the permit holder at a winterized facility under a permit issued under section 3769.07 of the Revised Code, as certified by the commission. In satisfying the foregoing requirement for live racing days during the immediately preceding calendar year, a permit holder may include the number of days on which live racing programs were conducted under a permit issued under section 3769.07 of the Revised Code for additional racing days at a winterized facility. In addition, in order for a permit holder to offer simulcasts of horse races conducted at facilities located outside this state, the permit holder shall offer all simulcasts of horse races conducted in this state made available to it.
In order for a permit holder to offer simulcasts of races conducted at race tracks located outside this state at the same time and during the hours in which the live races of a live racing program are being conducted at its track, a permit holder conducting a thoroughbred live racing program shall obtain the consent of the thoroughbred horsemens association and a permit holder conducting a harness live racing program shall obtain the consent of the Ohio harness horsemens association. The consent of the horsemen's organization shall not be unreasonably withheld, and shall be consistent with the interest of preserving live racing in this state. If a horsemen's organization withholds its consent, the permit holder may file an objection with the commission, which shall promptly consider the objection and determine whether the horsemen's organization's action in withholding consent is without substantial merit and, if the commission so determines, shall authorize the permit holder to simulcast the simulcast racing programs. The determination of the commission is final. A permit holder, as a simulcast host, may offer simulcast racing programs at its track or enclosure of races conducted at tracks and facilities located outside this state prior to the commencement of, and following the conclusion of, its live races without obtaining the consent of a horsemen's organization under this division.
(1) A permit holder shall conduct a minimum of seventy-five live racing days in calendar year 2013. The live racing days shall be selected by the permit holder, but are subject to approval of the commission.
(2) A permit holder shall conduct a minimum of one hundred live racing days in calendar year 2014. The live racing days shall be selected by the permit holder, but are subject to approval of the commission.
(3) A permit holder shall conduct a minimum of one hundred twenty-five live racing days in calendar year 2015 and each subsequent calendar year. The live racing days shall be selected by the permit holder but are subject to approval of the commission.
(4) In addition to the required live racing days, a permit holder shall simulcast a simulcast racing program on a minimum of three hundred sixty days each calendar year. The permit holder shall simulcast all simulcast racing programs conducted in this state and made available to the permit holder and simulcast racing programs conducted outside this state.
(5) The commission may make exception to the required minimum number of live racing days or simulcast racing program days in instances of natural disaster or other emergency circumstances as defined by the commission, in its sole discretion. The horsemen's associations may negotiate an agreement with a permit holder to reduce the number of live racing days as provided in division (K) of this section. These negotiations shall not reduce the number of live racing days to less than fifty days per calendar year.
(6) To satisfy the requirement of live racing days, a permit holder may include the number of days on which live racing programs were conducted under a permit issued under section 3769.07 of the Revised Code for racing days authorized at a winterized facility.
(7) Notwithstanding any other provision related to simulcast racing programs, in order for a permit holder to offer simulcast racing programs of races conducted at tracks located outside this state at the same time and during the hours in which the live races of a live racing program are being conducted at its track, a permit holder conducting a thoroughbred live racing program shall obtain the consent of the thoroughbred horsemen's association and a permit holder conducting a harness live racing program shall obtain the consent of the Ohio harness horsemen's association. The consent of the applicable horsemen's association shall be consistent with the interest of preserving live racing in this state. A permit holder, as a simulcast host, may offer simulcast racing programs at its track or enclosure of races conducted at tracks and facilities located outside this state before the commencement of, and following the conclusion of, its live races without obtaining the consent of a horsemen's association under this division.
(C) The commission shall allocate to each track one racing day for each permit holder during each calendar year for the conduct of a live racing program on which a permit holder may conduct as few as one live horse race, with the remainder of the horse races on that racing day on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted as part of the live racing program being simulcast from other tracks and facilities located either inside or outside this state. In addition, the commission may allocate to each permit holder racing days on which it may as part of a live racing program simulcast more than two horse races from facilities located outside this state if the horse races involve a national wagering pool and pari-mutuel wagering is conducted on the national wagering pool, but on such a racing day there shall in no event be more than two horse races simulcast from facilities located outside this state included in a live racing program on which separate pari-mutuel wagering is conducted. As used in this division, "national wagering pool" means an interstate or intrastate common pari-mutuel wagering pool involving two or more selections covering two or more horse races conducted at tracks located inside or outside this state.
In emergency situations, the commission may authorize a live racing day at a track in which all horse races on that racing day on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted are simulcast from tracks and facilities located either inside or outside this state with the consent of the thoroughbred horsemens association for a track conducting a thoroughbred live racing program and with the consent of the Ohio harness horsemens association for a track conducting a harness live racing program. If a horsemen's organization withholds its consent, the permit holder may file an objection with the commission, which shall promptly consider the objection and determine whether the horsemen's organization's action in withholding consent is without substantial merit and, if the commission so determines, shall authorize the permit holder to simulcast the simulcast racing programs. The determination of the commission is final.
(D) On any day that a racing day has been applied for at any track in this state, each track in this state may operate as either a simulcast host or a simulcast guest and may conduct, with the approval of the state racing commission, pari-mutuel wagering on all simulcasts of races conducted inside this state made available to it plus all simulcasts of races conducted at facilities located outside this state as determined by the simulcast hosts. Except as otherwise provided in this section, any simulcast host or simulcast guest may receive and conduct simulcast racing programs that feature any breed of horse at any time of day, as authorized by the commission. Those persons holding state fair, county fair, or other fair permits shall not receive a simulcast racing program on which pari-mutuel wagering is conducted, except that a holder of a permit issued under section 3769.07 of the Revised Code that has been authorized by the commission to conduct races of the state fair, a county fair, or other fair at a commercial track may receive and conduct simulcast racing programs as a simulcast host or simulcast guest at the same time in conjunction with the live racing program of the state fair, county fair, or other fair permit holder conducted at its track.
The simulcast hosts, with the approval of the state racing commission, shall determine which simulcast racing programs offered by race tracks located outside this state will be simulcast at their tracks and at all simulcast hosts, simulcast guests, and satellite facilities in this state that are open and operating during the hours that the simulcast hosts are operating. Simulcast guests and satellite facilities shall receive all approved simulcast racing programs offered by simulcast hosts. In addition, a simulcast host and simulcast guest, with the approval of the commission, may also receive simulcast horse races and simulcast racing programs not agreed to by simulcast hosts.
A simulcast host that normally operates during the day only may serve as a simulcast host for only day-simulcast racing programs, which include all simulcast racing programs that commence at a track located outside this state on or before four p.m. A simulcast host that normally operates during the evening only may serve as a simulcast host for only evening-simulcast racing programs, which include all simulcast racing programs that commence at a track located outside this state on or after three p.m. A simulcast host that normally operates during the evening, but that under its permit conducts live racing programs during the day, may serve as a simulcast host for day-simulcast racing programs. A permit holder that is offering at its track simulcast racing programs that commence at a track located outside this state on or before four p.m. and simulcast racing programs that commence at a track located outside this state on or after three p.m. may serve as a simulcast host for both the day-simulcast racing program and the evening-simulcast racing program only if no other permit holder is serving as a simulcast host for the other simulcast racing programs. The times listed in this and the immediately following paragraphs are standard time as described in section 1.04 of the Revised Code and in the "Uniform Time Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 107, 15 U.S.C. 260 to 265.
If a simulcast host is conducting a racing program that features thoroughbred or quarter horses on the same day that another simulcast host is conducting a live racing program that features harness horses at a track located in the same county as, or within twenty miles of, the track of the first simulcast host, the first simulcast host shall not conduct pari-mutuel wagering on simulcast racing programs that commence after four p.m. on that day and the second simulcast host shall not conduct wagering on simulcast racing programs that commence before three p.m. on that day.
A simulcast host that is conducting a live racing program and is simulcasting that program to other simulcast hosts and simulcast guests in this state shall receive from each simulcast host and each simulcast guest receiving the simulcast an intrastate simulcast fee of one and three-eighths per cent of the amounts wagered on such simulcast racing program at its facilities. The simulcast hosts and simulcast guests receiving such simulcast racing program shall pay the intrastate simulcast fee to the collection and settlement agent, and the fee shall be disbursed by the agent, at the time and in the manner provided in section 3769.0810 of the Revised Code.
(E)(1) The moneys wagered on simulcast racing programs on a racing day shall be separated from the moneys wagered on the live racing program on that racing day. From the moneys wagered on the simulcast races, each permit holder may retain as a commission the percentage of the amount wagered as specified in sections 3769.08 and 3769.087 of the Revised Code, as applicable, and shall pay, by check, draft, or money order to the state tax commissioner, as a tax, the tax specified in sections 3769.08 and 3769.087 of the Revised Code, as applicable. From the tax collected, the tax commissioner shall make the distributions to the respective funds, and in the proper amounts, as required by sections 3769.08 and 3769.087 of the Revised Code, as applicable. Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section, from the amount remaining after the payment of state taxes on the moneys wagered on live racing programs and on the moneys wagered on simulcast racing programs, a permit holder shall retain an amount equal to two and three-eights three-eighths per cent of the amount wagered on live racing programs and on intrastate and interstate simulcast racing programs simulcast at its track and on the amount wagered on the live racing programs and simulcast racing programs at a satellite facility allocated to it under section 3769.26 of the Revised Code, as a fee to pay for those costs associated with the reception and transmission of simulcasts and the administrative cost of the conduct of live racing programs and simulcast racing programs. From the remaining balance, one-half shall be retained by the permit holder for purses. On a day when a permit holder conducts a live racing program, all purse money generated from wagering on live racing programs and on simulcast racing programs at its track shall be used for that permit holder's purse account. On a day when a permit holder operates as a simulcast host with no live racing program, or operates as a simulcast guest, all purse money generated from wagering on intrastate and interstate simulcast racing programs shall be paid to the state racing commission for deposit into the Ohio combined simulcast horse racing purse fund created under this section. In addition, on a day when a permit holder serves as a simulcast host for a satellite facility, all purse money generated from amounts wagered at the satellite facility allocated to the permit holder under section 3769.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid to the commission for deposit into the Ohio simulcast horse racing purse fund.
(2) If there are not four satellite facilities in operation in this state within one year after the effective date of this section September 19, 1996, or if there are not seven satellite facilities in operation in this state within two years after the effective date of this section September 19, 1996, or if there are not ten satellite facilities in operation in this state within three years after the effective date of this section September 19, 1996, then in any such event the amount to be retained as a fee by the permit holder under division (E)(1) of this section shall be one and seven-eighths per cent until such time as the number of satellite facilities specified in division (E)(2) of this section are in operation. For good cause shown, the thoroughbred horsemens association and Ohio harness horsemens association may waive the requirements of division (E)(2) of this section or extend the date for compliance as to any year by filing a written notification with the state racing commission.
(3) If a simulcast racing program simulcast by a simulcast host at its track or enclosure and to other simulcast hosts, simulcast guests, and satellite facilities in this state is a special racing event, the permit holder offering the special racing event and other simulcast hosts, simulcast guests, and satellite facilities receiving the special racing event shall not retain the fee provided under division (E)(1) or (2) of this section but shall retain from the moneys wagered on the special racing event an amount equal to the fee charged by the track, racing association, or state regulatory agency simulcasting the special racing event to the simulcast host. From the remaining balance, one-half shall be retained by the permit holder for purses in the manner provided in division (E)(1) of this section.
A permit holder proposing to simulcast a special racing event as a simulcast host shall advise its horsemen's organization of the proposed schedule of the special racing event and obtain its consent to this schedule. The consent of the horsemen's organization shall not be unreasonably withheld and shall be consistent with the interest of preserving live racing in this state. If the horsemen's organization withholds its consent, the permit holder may file an objection with the state racing commission, which shall promptly consider the objection and determine whether the organization's action in withholding consent is without substantial merit and, if the commission so determines, shall authorize the permit holder to simulcast the special racing event. The determination of the commission is final.
(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Ohio combined simulcast horse racing purse fund, to consist of moneys paid into it by permit holders pursuant to division (E) of this section and by satellite facilities pursuant to division (F) of section 3769.26 of the Revised Code. Moneys to the credit of the fund, including interest earned thereon, may be used by the commission for the costs of administering this division and the balance shall be distributed among permit holders no less frequently than monthly to each permit holder's purse account on order of the commission.
For each calendar year, permit holders at each track shall receive a share of each distribution of the Ohio combined simulcast horse racing purse fund in the same percentage, rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of the amount of each distribution, as the average total amount wagered at the track on racing days at which live racing programs were conducted, including the amount allocated to the track under section 3769.26 of the Revised Code for live races, during the five calendar years immediately preceding the year for which the distribution is made bears to the average annual total amount wagered at all tracks in the state operating under permits issued by the state racing commission under section 3769.07, 3769.071, or 3769.072 of the Revised Code on all racing days at which live racing programs were conducted, including the amount allocated to the tracks under section 3769.26 of the Revised Code for live races, during the five calendar years immediately preceding the year for which the distribution is made. By the thirty-first day of January of each year the commission shall calculate the share of the permit holders at each track for that year, shall enter the share percentages in its official records, and shall notify all permit holders of the share percentages of all tracks for that calendar year.
The permit holders at each track, with the approval of the commission, shall allocate their share of the fund as distributed to the purse account of each permit holder for each race meeting.
The commission shall cause to be kept accurate records of its administration of the fund, including all administrative expenses incurred by it and charged to the fund, and of distributions to permit holders. These records are public records available for inspection at any time during the regular business hours of the commission by any permit holder or horsemen's organization, by an authorized agent of the permit holder or horsemen's organization, or by any other person.
(G) Upon the approval of the commission, a permit holder conducting live racing programs may transmit electronically televised simulcasts of horse races conducted at the permit holder's track to racing associations, tracks, and facilities located outside this state for the conduct of pari-mutuel wagering thereon, at the times, on the terms, and for the fee agreed upon by the permit holder and the receiving racing association, track, or facility. From the fees paid to the permit holder for such simulcasts, a permit holder shall retain for the costs of administration a fee in an amount equal to one per cent of the amount wagered on the races simulcast by the permit holder. From the remaining balance of the fee, one-half shall be retained by the permit holder for purses, except that notwithstanding the fee arrangement between the permit holder and the receiving racing association, track, or facility, the permit holder shall deposit into its purse account not less than an amount equal to three-fourths of one per cent of the amount wagered at racing associations, tracks, and facilities located outside the state on the races simulcast by the permit holder.
All televised simulcasts of horse races conducted in this state to racing associations, tracks, and facilities located outside this state shall comply with the "Interstate Horse Racing Act of 1978," 92 Stat. 1811, 15 U.S.C.A. 3001 to 3007. The consent of the horsemen's organization at the track of the permit holder applying to the commission to simulcast horse races conducted at the permit holder's track to racing associations, tracks, and facilities located outside this state shall not be unreasonably withheld and shall be consistent with the interest of preserving live racing. If a horsemen's organization withholds its consent, the permit holder may file an objection with the commission, which shall promptly consider the objection and determine whether the horsemen's organization's action in withholding consent is without substantial merit and, if the commission so determines, shall authorize the permit holder to simulcast the races. The determination of the commission is final.
(H)(1) The state racing commission may authorize any permit holder that is authorized to conduct live horse racing on racing days and that conducts pari-mutuel wagering on simulcasts of horse races under this section that are conducted at race tracks either inside or outside this state to conduct, supervise, and participate in interstate and intrastate common pari-mutuel wagering pools on those races in the manner provided in division (H) of this section. Except as otherwise expressly provided in division (H) of this section or in the rules of the state racing commission, the provisions of this chapter that govern pari-mutuel wagering apply to interstate or intrastate common pari-mutuel wagering pools.
(2) Subject to the approval of the state racing commission, the types of wagering, calculation of the commission retained by the permit holder, tax rates, distribution of winnings, and rules of racing in effect for pari-mutuel wagering pools at the host track may govern wagers placed at a receiving track in this state and merged into an interstate or intrastate common pari-mutuel wagering pool. Breakage from interstate or intrastate common pari-mutuel wagering pools shall be calculated in accordance with the rules that govern the host track and shall be distributed among the tracks participating in the interstate or intrastate common wagering pool in a manner agreed to by the participating tracks and the host track. An interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool formed under division (H)(3) of this section is subject to that division rather than to division (H)(2) of this section.
(3) Subject to the approval of the state racing commission, an interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool may be formed between a permit holder and one or more receiving tracks located in states other than the state in which the host track is located. The commission may approve types of wagering, calculation of the commission retained by the permit holder, tax rates, distribution of winnings, rules of racing, and calculation of breakage for such an interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool that differ from those that would otherwise be applied in this state under this chapter but that are consistent for all tracks participating in the interstate common pari-mutuel wagering pool formed under division (H)(3) of this section.
(4) As used in division (H) of this section:
(a) "Host track" means a track where live horse races are conducted and offered for simulcasting to receiving tracks.
(b) "Receiving track" means a track where simulcasts of races from a host track are displayed and wagered on.
(I) Each permit holder is responsible for paying all costs associated with the up-link for, and reception of, simulcasts, and the conduct and operation of simulcast racing programs, for all fees and costs associated with serving as a simulcast host or simulcast guest, and for any required fees payable to the tracks, racing associations, or state regulatory agencies where simulcast racing is conducted at tracks located outside this state.
(J) No license, fee, or excise tax, other than as specified in division (E) of this section, shall be assessed upon or collected from a permit holder or the owners of a permit holder in connection with, or pertaining to, the operation and conduct of simulcast racing programs in this state, by any county, township, municipal corporation, district, or other body having the authority to assess or collect a tax or fee.
(K)(1) Permit holders operating tracks within the same county or adjacent counties that are conducting simulcast racing programs under this section may enter into agreements regarding the conduct of simulcast racing programs at their respective tracks and the sharing of the retained commissions therefrom, for such periods of time, upon such terms and conditions, and subject to such rights and obligations, as the contracting permit holders consider appropriate under the circumstances. Permit holders so contracting shall notify the state racing commission of their entry into an agreement pursuant to this division, the names of the permit holders that are parties to the agreement, and the length of the term of time the agreement shall be in effect.
(2) Permit holders and the thoroughbred horsemens association and Ohio harness horsemens association may agree to do any of the following:
(a) Increase or reduce the fees and amounts to be retained by the permit holders under this section;
(b) Increase or reduce the fees and amounts to be allocated to the purse accounts or of permit holders under this section;
(c) Increase or reduce the fees to be paid between and among simulcast hosts and simulcast guests under this section and under division (C) of section 3769.0810 of the Revised Code;
(d) Modify, suspend, or waive the requirements set forth in division (B) of this section as to any permit holder or as to all permit holders.
All permit holders and both horsemen's organizations shall approve such agreement. Any agreement entered into under division (K)(2) of this section shall set forth the effective date of any such increase or reduction, and the terms and provisions of the agreement, and a copy of the agreement shall be filed with the state racing commission.
Sec. 3770.02.  (A) Subject to the advice and consent of the senate, the governor shall appoint a director of the state lottery commission who shall serve at the pleasure of the governor. The director shall devote full time to the duties of the office and shall hold no other office or employment. The director shall meet all requirements for appointment as a member of the commission and shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that equip the director to administer an enterprise of the nature of a state lottery. The director shall receive an annual salary in accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.
(B)(1) The director shall attend all meetings of the commission and shall act as its secretary. The director shall keep a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's principal office. All records of the commission's meetings shall be available for inspection by any member of the public, upon a showing of good cause and prior notification to the director.
(2) The director shall be the commission's executive officer and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and supervising and administering the state lottery in accordance with this chapter, and carrying out all commission rules adopted under section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.
(C)(1) The director shall appoint an assistant director, deputy directors of marketing, operations, sales, finance, public relations, security, and administration, and as many regional managers as are required. The director may also appoint necessary professional, technical, and clerical assistants. All such officers and employees shall be appointed and compensated pursuant to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code. Regional and assistant regional managers, sales representatives, and any lottery executive account representatives shall remain in the unclassified service.
(2) The director, in consultation with the director of administrative services, may establish standards of proficiency and productivity for commission field representatives.
(D) The director shall request the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, the department of public safety, or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the director with the criminal records of any job applicant and may periodically request the criminal records of commission employees. At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director shall require a job applicant or commission employee to obtain fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law enforcement agency, and the director shall cause these fingerprint cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint cards and shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for each investigation under this division a reasonable fee, as determined by the agency.
(E) The director shall license lottery sales agents pursuant to section 3770.05 of the Revised Code and, when it is considered necessary, may revoke or suspend the license of any lottery sales agent. The director may license video lottery technology providers, independent testing laboratories, and gaming employees, and promulgate rules relating thereto. When the director considers it necessary, the director may suspend or revoke the license of a video lottery technology provider, independent testing laboratory, or gaming employee, including suspension or revocation without affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 of the Revised Code when the public safety, convenience, or trust requires immediate action.
(F) The director shall confer at least once each month with the commission, at which time the director shall advise it regarding the operation and administration of the lottery. The director shall make available at the request of the commission all documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation and administration of the lottery. The director shall prepare and make available to the commission each month a complete and accurate accounting of lottery revenues, prize money disbursements and the cost of goods and services awarded as prizes, operating expenses, and all other relevant financial information, including an accounting of all transfers made from any lottery funds in the custody of the treasurer of state to benefit education.
(G) The director may enter into contracts for the operation or promotion of the lottery pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code.
(H)(1) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under section 3770.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall require any lottery sales agents to either mail directly to the commission or deposit to the credit of the state lottery fund, in banking institutions designated by the treasurer of state, net proceeds due the commission as determined by the director, and to file with the director or the director's designee reports of their receipts and transactions in the sale of lottery tickets in the form required by the director.
(2) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may impose penalties for the failure of a sales agent to transfer funds to the commission in a timely manner. Penalties may include monetary penalties, immediate suspension or revocation of a license, or any other penalty the commission adopts by rule.
(I) The director may arrange for any person, or any banking institution, to perform functions and services in connection with the operation of the lottery as the director may consider necessary to carry out this chapter.
(J)(1) As used in this chapter, "statewide joint lottery game" means a lottery game that the commission sells solely within this state under an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to sell the same lottery game solely within their statewide or other jurisdictional boundaries.
(2) If the governor directs the director to do so, the director shall enter into an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to conduct statewide joint lottery games. If the governor signs the agreement personally or by means of an authenticating officer pursuant to section 107.15 of the Revised Code, the director then may conduct statewide joint lottery games under the agreement.
(3) The entire net proceeds from any statewide joint lottery games shall be used to fund elementary, secondary, vocational, and special education programs in this state.
(4) The commission shall conduct any statewide joint lottery games in accordance with rules it adopts under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.
(K)(1) The director shall enter into an agreement with the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under which the department shall provide a program of gambling addiction services on behalf of the commission. The commission shall pay the costs of the program provided pursuant to the agreement.
(2) As used in this section, "gambling addiction services" has the same meaning as in section 3793.01 of the Revised Code.
Sec. 3770.03.  (A) The state lottery commission shall promulgate rules under which a statewide lottery may be conducted, which includes, and since the original enactment of this section has included, the authority for the commission to operate video lottery terminal games. Any reference in this chapter to tickets shall not be construed to in any way limit the authority of the commission to operate video lottery terminal games. Nothing in this chapter shall restrict the authority of the commission to promulgate rules related to the operation of games utilizing video lottery terminals as described in section 3770.21 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be promulgated pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that instant game rules other than those for video lottery terminal games shall be promulgated pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code but are not subject to division (D) of that section, and except that those rules for video lottery terminal games shall be approved by resolution of the commission. Subjects covered in these rules shall include, but need not be limited to, the following:
(1) The type of lottery to be conducted;
(2) The prices of tickets in the lottery;
(3) The number, nature, and value of prize awards, the manner and frequency of prize drawings, and the manner in which prizes shall be awarded to holders of winning tickets.
(B) The commission shall promulgate rules, in addition to those described in division (A) of this section, pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a statewide lottery and statewide joint lottery games may be conducted. Subjects covered in these rules shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
(1) The locations at which lottery tickets may be sold and the manner in which they are to be sold. These rules may authorize the sale of lottery tickets by commission personnel or other licensed individuals from traveling show wagons at the state fair, and at any other expositions the director of the commission considers acceptable. These rules shall prohibit commission personnel or other licensed individuals from soliciting from an exposition the right to sell lottery tickets at that exposition, but shall allow commission personnel or other licensed individuals to sell lottery tickets at an exposition if the exposition requests commission personnel or licensed individuals to do so. These rules may also address the accessibility of sales agent locations to commission products in accordance with the "Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101 et seq.
(2) The manner in which lottery sales revenues are to be collected, including authorization for the director to impose penalties for failure by lottery sales agents to transfer revenues to the commission in a timely manner;
(3) The amount of compensation to be paid licensed lottery sales agents;
(4) The substantive criteria for the licensing of lottery sales agents consistent with section 3770.05 of the Revised Code, and procedures for revoking or suspending their licenses consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If circumstances, such as the nonpayment of funds owed by a lottery sales agent, or other circumstances related to the public safety, convenience, or trust, require immediate action, the director may suspend a license without affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 of the Revised Code.
(5) Special game rules to implement any agreements signed by the governor that the director enters into with other lottery jurisdictions under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code to conduct statewide joint lottery games. The rules shall require that the entire net proceeds of those games that remain, after associated operating expenses, prize disbursements, lottery sales agent bonuses, commissions, and reimbursements, and any other expenses necessary to comply with the agreements or the rules are deducted from the gross proceeds of those games, be transferred to the lottery profits education fund under division (B) of section 3770.06 of the Revised Code.
(6) Any other subjects the commission determines are necessary for the operation of video lottery terminal games, including the establishment of any fees, fines, or payment schedules.
(C) Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code does not apply to, affect, or prohibit lotteries conducted pursuant to this chapter.
(D) The commission may promulgate rules, in addition to those described in divisions (A) and (B) of this section, that establish standards governing the display of advertising and celebrity images on lottery tickets and on other items that are used in the conduct of, or to promote, the statewide lottery and statewide joint lottery games. Any revenue derived from the sale of advertising displayed on lottery tickets and on those other items shall be considered, for purposes of section 3770.06 of the Revised Code, to be related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery or gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, as applicable.
(E)(1) The commission shall meet with the director at least once each month and shall convene other meetings at the request of the chairperson or any five of the members. No action taken by the commission shall be binding unless at least five of the members present vote in favor of the action. A written record shall be made of the proceedings of each meeting and shall be transmitted forthwith to the governor, the president of the senate, the senate minority leader, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the house minority leader.
(2) The director shall present to the commission a report each month, showing the total revenues, prize disbursements, and operating expenses of the state lottery for the preceding month. As soon as practicable after the end of each fiscal year, the commission shall prepare and transmit to the governor and the general assembly a report of lottery revenues, prize disbursements, and operating expenses for the preceding fiscal year and any recommendations for legislation considered necessary by the commission.
Sec. 3770.05.  (A) As used in this section, "person" means any person, association, corporation, partnership, club, trust, estate, society, receiver, trustee, person acting in a fiduciary or representative capacity, instrumentality of the state or any of its political subdivisions, or any other combination of individuals meeting the requirements set forth in this section or established by rule or order of the state lottery commission.
(B) The director of the state lottery commission may license any person as a lottery sales agent. No license shall be issued to any person or group of persons to engage in the sale of lottery tickets as the person's or group's sole occupation or business.
Before issuing any license to a lottery sales agent, the director shall consider all of the following:
(1) The financial responsibility and security of the applicant and the applicant's business or activity;
(2) The accessibility of the applicant's place of business or activity to the public;
(3) The sufficiency of existing licensed agents to serve the public interest;
(4) The volume of expected sales by the applicant;
(5) Any other factors pertaining to the public interest, convenience, or trust.
(C) Except as otherwise provided in division (F) of this section, the director of the state lottery commission shall refuse to grant, or shall suspend or revoke, a license if the applicant or licensee:
(1) Has been convicted of a felony or has been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude;
(2) Has been convicted of an offense that involves illegal gambling;
(3) Has been found guilty of fraud or misrepresentation in any connection;
(4) Has been found to have violated any rule or order of the commission; or
(5) Has been convicted of illegal trafficking in supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits.
(D) Except as otherwise provided in division (F) of this section, the director of the state lottery commission shall refuse to grant, or shall suspend or revoke, a license if the applicant or licensee is a corporation and any of the following applies:
(1) Any of the corporation's directors, officers, or controlling shareholders has been found guilty of any of the activities specified in divisions (C)(1) to (5) of this section;
(2) It appears to the director of the state lottery commission that, due to the experience, character, or general fitness of any director, officer, or controlling shareholder of the corporation, the granting of a license as a lottery sales agent would be inconsistent with the public interest, convenience, or trust;
(3) The corporation is not the owner or lessee of the business at which it would conduct a lottery sales agency pursuant to the license applied for;
(4) Any person, firm, association, or corporation other than the applicant or licensee shares or will share in the profits of the applicant or licensee, other than receiving dividends or distributions as a shareholder, or participates or will participate in the management of the affairs of the applicant or licensee.
(E)(1) The director of the state lottery commission shall refuse to grant a license to an applicant for a lottery sales agent license and shall revoke a lottery sales agent license if the applicant or licensee is or has been convicted of a violation of division (A) or (C)(1) of section 2913.46 of the Revised Code.
(2) The director shall refuse to grant a license to an applicant for a lottery sales agent license that is a corporation and shall revoke the lottery sales agent license of a corporation if the corporation is or has been convicted of a violation of division (A) or (C)(1) of section 2913.46 of the Revised Code.
(F) The director of the state lottery commission shall request the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, the department of public safety, or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the director with the criminal records of any applicant for a lottery sales agent license, and may periodically request the criminal records of any person to whom a lottery sales agent license has been issued. At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director shall require an applicant or licensee to obtain fingerprint impressions on fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law enforcement agency, and the director shall cause those fingerprint cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, to the federal bureau of investigation, or to both bureaus. The commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint cards.
The director shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for each investigation a reasonable fee, as determined by the agency.
The commission may adopt uniform rules specifying time periods after which the persons described in divisions (C)(1) to (5) and (D)(1) to (4) of this section may be issued a license and establishing requirements for those persons to seek a court order to have records sealed in accordance with law.
(G)(1) Each applicant for a lottery sales agent license shall do both of the following:
(a) Pay fees to the state lottery commission, if required by rule adopted by the director under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and the controlling board approves the fees;
(b) Prior to approval of the application, obtain a surety bond in an amount the director determines by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or, alternatively, with the director's approval, deposit the same amount into a dedicated account for the benefit of the state lottery. The director also may approve the obtaining of a surety bond to cover part of the amount required, together with a dedicated account deposit to cover the remainder of the amount required. The director also may establish an alternative program or policy, with the approval of the commission by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that otherwise ensures the lottery's financial interests are adequately protected. If such an alternative program or policy is established, an applicant or lottery sales agent, subject to the director's approval, may be permitted to participate in the program or proceed under that policy in lieu of providing a surety bond or dedicated amount.
A surety bond may be with any company that complies with the bonding and surety laws of this state and the requirements established by rules of the commission pursuant to this chapter. A dedicated account deposit shall be conducted in accordance with policies and procedures the director establishes.
A surety bond, dedicated account, other established program or policy, or both any combination of these resources, as applicable, may be used to pay for the lottery sales agent's failure to make prompt and accurate payments for lottery ticket sales, for missing or stolen lottery tickets, for damage to equipment or materials issued to the lottery sales agent, or to pay for expenses the commission incurs in connection with the lottery sales agent's license.
(2) A lottery sales agent license is effective for at least one year, but not more than three years.
A licensed lottery sales agent, on or before the date established by the director, shall renew the agent's license and provide at that time evidence to the director that the surety bond, dedicated account deposit, or both, required under division (G)(1)(b) of this section has been renewed or is active, whichever applies.
Before the commission renews a lottery sales agent license, the lottery sales agent shall submit a renewal fee to the commission, if one is required by rule adopted by the director under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and the controlling board approves the renewal fee. The renewal fee shall not exceed the actual cost of administering the license renewal and processing changes reflected in the renewal application. The renewal of the license is effective for up to at least one year, but not more than three years.
(3) A lottery sales agent license shall be complete, accurate, and current at all times during the term of the license. Any changes to an original license application or a renewal application may subject the applicant or lottery sales agent, as applicable, to paying an administrative fee that shall be in an amount that the director determines by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the controlling board approves, and that shall not exceed the actual cost of administering and processing the changes to an application.
(4) The relationship between the commission and a lottery sales agent is one of trust. A lottery sales agent collects funds on behalf of the commission through the sale of lottery tickets for which the agent receives a compensation.
(H) Pending a final resolution of any question arising under this section, the director of the state lottery commission may issue a temporary lottery sales agent license, subject to the terms and conditions the director considers appropriate.
(I) If a lottery sales agent's rental payments for the lottery sales agent's premises are determined, in whole or in part, by the amount of retail sales the lottery sales agent makes, and if the rental agreement does not expressly provide that the amount of those retail sales includes the amounts the lottery sales agent receives from lottery ticket sales, only the amounts the lottery sales agent receives as compensation from the state lottery commission for selling lottery tickets shall be considered to be amounts the lottery sales agent receives from the retail sales the lottery sales agent makes, for the purpose of computing the lottery sales agent's rental payments.
Sec. 3770.21. (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Video lottery terminal" means any electronic device approved by the state lottery commission that provides immediate prize determinations for participants on an electronic display.
(2) "Video lottery terminal promotional gaming credit" means a video lottery terminal game credit, discount, or other similar item issued to a patron to enable the placement of, or increase in, a wager at a video lottery terminal.
(B) The state lottery commission shall include, in conjunction with the state racing commission, in any rules adopted concerning video lottery terminals, the level of minimum investments that must be made by video lottery terminal licensees in the buildings, fixtures, and grounds at the facilities, including temporary facilities, in which the terminals will be located, along with any standards and timetables for such investments.
(C) Racetrack operators and management companies that are a licensed lottery sales agent may provide video lottery terminal promotional gaming credits to patrons for video lottery terminal gaming. Video lottery terminal promotional gaming credits shall be subject to oversight by the commission. The commission shall adopt rules for video lottery terminal promotional gaming credits.
(D) No license or excise tax or fee not in effect on the effective date of this section shall be assessed upon or collected from a video lottery terminal licensee by any county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other political subdivision of the state that has authority to assess or collect a tax or fee by reason of the video lottery terminal related conduct authorized by section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. This division does not prohibit the imposition of taxes under Chapter 718. or 3769. of the Revised Code.
(D)(E) The supreme court shall have exclusive, original jurisdiction over any claim asserting that this section or section 3770.03 of the Revised Code or any portion of those sections or any rule adopted under those sections violates any provision of the Ohio Constitution, any claim asserting that any action taken by the governor or the lottery commission pursuant to those sections violates any provision of the Ohio Constitution or any provision of the Revised Code, or any claim asserting that any portion of this section violates any provision of the Ohio Constitution. If any claim over which the supreme court is granted exclusive, original jurisdiction by this division is filed in any lower court, the claim shall be dismissed by the court on the ground that the court lacks jurisdiction to review it.
(E)(F) Should any portion of this section or of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code be found to be unenforceable or invalid, it shall be severed and the remaining portions remain in full force and effect.
Sec. 3770.22.  (A) Any information concerning the following that is submitted, collected, or gathered as part of an application to the state lottery commission for a video lottery related license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to disclosure by a state agency or political subdivision as a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code:
(1) A dependent of an applicant;
(2) The social security number, passport number, or federal tax identification number of an applicant or the spouse of an applicant;
(3) The home address and telephone number of an applicant or the spouse or dependent of an applicant;
(4) An applicant's birth certificate;
(5) The driver's license number of an applicant or the applicant's spouse;
(6) The name or address of a previous spouse of the applicant;
(7) The date of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an applicant;
(8) The place of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an applicant;
(9) The personal financial information and records of an applicant or of an employee or the spouse or dependent of an applicant, including tax returns and information, and records of criminal proceedings;
(10) Any information concerning a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking;
(11) The electronic mail address of the spouse or family member of the applicant;
(12) Any trade secret, medical records, and patents or exclusive licenses;
(13) Security information, including risk prevention plans, detection and countermeasures, location of count rooms or other money storage areas, emergency management plans, security and surveillance plans, equipment and usage protocols, and theft and fraud prevention plans and countermeasures.
(B) The individual's name, the individual's place of employment, the individual's job title, and the individual's gaming experience that is provided for an individual who holds, held, or has applied for a video lottery related license under this chapter is not confidential. The reason for denial or revocation of a video lottery related license or for disciplinary action against the individual is not confidential.
(C) An individual who holds, held, or has applied for a video lottery related license under this chapter may waive the confidentiality requirements of division (A) of this section.
(D) Confidential information received by the commission from another jurisdiction relating to a person who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to disclosure as a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. The commission may share the information referenced in this division with, or disclose the information to, the inspector general, any appropriate prosecuting authority, any law enforcement agency, or any other appropriate governmental or licensing agency, if the agency that receives the information complies with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the commission must comply.
Sec. 3772.01. As used in this chapter:
(A) "Applicant" means any person who applies to the commission for a license under this chapter.
(B) "Casino control commission fund" means the casino control commission fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(d) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used to fund the commission and its related affairs.
(C) "Casino facility" means a casino facility as defined in Section 6(C)(9) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.
(D) "Casino game" means any slot machine or table game as defined in this chapter.
(E) "Casino gaming" means any type of slot machine or table game wagering, using money, casino credit, or any representative of value, authorized in any of the states of Indiana, Michigan, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia as of January 1, 2009, and includes slot machine and table game wagering subsequently authorized by, but shall not be limited by, subsequent restrictions placed on such wagering in such states. "Casino gaming" does not include bingo, as authorized in Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution and conducted as of January 1, 2009, or horse racing where the pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted, as authorized under the laws of this state as of January 1, 2009.
(E)(F) "Casino gaming employee" means any employee of a casino operator or management company, but not a key employee, and as further defined in section 3772.131 of the Revised Code.
(F)(G) "Casino operator" means any person, trust, corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability company, or other business enterprise that directly or indirectly holds an ownership or leasehold interest in a casino facility. "Casino operator" does not include an agency of the state, any political subdivision of the state, any person, trust, corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability company, or other business enterprise that may have an interest in a casino facility, but who is legally or contractually restricted from conducting casino gaming.
(G)(H) "Central system" means a computer system that provides the following functions related to casino gaming equipment used in connection with casino gaming authorized under this chapter: security, auditing, data and information retrieval, and other purposes deemed necessary and authorized by the commission.
(H)(I) "Cheat" means to alter the result of a casino game, the element of chance, the operation of a machine used in a casino game, or the method of selection of criteria that determines (a) the result of the casino game, (b) the amount or frequency of payment in a casino game, (c) the value of a wagering instrument, or (d) the value of a wagering credit.
(J) "Commission" means the Ohio casino control commission.
(I)(K) "Gaming agent" means a peace officer employed by the commission that is vested with duties to enforce this chapter and conduct other investigations into the conduct of the casino gaming and the maintenance of the equipment that the commission considers necessary and proper and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.
(J)(L) "Gaming-related vendor" means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, trust, or any other group of individuals, however organized, who supplies gaming-related equipment, goods, or services to a casino operator or management company, that are directly related to or affect casino gaming authorized under this chapter, including, but not limited to, the manufacture, sale, distribution, or repair of slot machines and table game equipment.
(K)(M) "Holding company" means any corporation, firm, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, trust, or other form of business organization not a natural person which directly or indirectly owns, has does any of the following:
(1) Has the power or right to control, or holds with power to vote, any part of an applicant, a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license applicant or licensee;
(2) Holds an ownership interest of five per cent or more, as determined by the commission, in a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license applicant or licensee;
(3) Holds voting rights with the power to vote five per cent or more of the outstanding voting rights of a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor applicant or licensee.
(L)(N) "Initial investment" includes costs related to demolition, engineering, architecture, design, site preparation, construction, infrastructure improvements, land acquisition, fixtures and equipment, insurance related to construction, and leasehold improvements.
(M)(O) "Institutional investor" means any of the following entities owning one more than five per cent or less, or a percentage between one and ten per cent as approved by the commission through a waiver on a case-by-case basis, but less than fifteen per cent, of an ownership interest in a casino facility, casino operator, management company, or holding company: a corporation, bank, insurance company, pension fund or pension fund trust, retirement fund, including funds administered by a public agency, employees' profit-sharing fund or employees' profit-sharing trust, any association engaged, as a substantial part of its business or operations, in purchasing or holding securities, including a hedge fund, mutual fund, or private equity fund, or any trust in respect of which a bank is trustee or cotrustee, investment company registered under the "Investment Company Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 et seq., collective investment trust organized by banks under Part Nine of the Rules of the Comptroller of the Currency, closed-end investment trust, chartered or licensed life insurance company or property and casualty insurance company, investment advisor registered under the "Investment Advisors Act of 1940," 15 U.S.C. 80 b-1 et seq., and such other persons as the commission may reasonably determine to qualify as an institutional investor for reasons consistent with this chapter, and that does not exercise control over the affairs of a licensee and its ownership interest in a licensee is for investment purposes only, as set forth in division (E) of section 3772.10 of the Revised Code.
(N)(P) "Key employee" means any executive, employee, or agent of a casino operator or management company licensee having the power to exercise significant influence over decisions concerning any part of the operation of such licensee, including:
(1) An officer, director, trustee, or partner of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license or of a holding company that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license;
(2) A person that holds a direct or indirect ownership interest of more than one per cent in a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license or holding company that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor license;
(3) A managerial employee of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator or gaming-related vendor license in Ohio, or a managerial employee of a holding company that has control of a person that has applied for or holds a casino operator or gaming-related vendor license in Ohio, who performs the function of principal executive officer, principal operating officer, principal accounting officer, or an equivalent officer or other person the commission determines to have the power to exercise significant influence over decisions concerning any part of the operation of such licensee.
The commission shall determine whether an individual whose duties or status varies from those described in this division also is considered a key employee.
(O)(Q) "Licensed casino operator" means a casino operator that has been issued a license by the commission and that has been certified annually by the commission to have paid all applicable fees, taxes, and debts to the state.
(P)(R) "Majority ownership interest" in a license or in a casino facility, as the case may be, means ownership of more than fifty per cent of such license or casino facility, as the case may be. For purposes of the foregoing, whether a majority ownership interest is held in a license or in a casino facility, as the case may be, shall be determined under the rules for constructive ownership of stock provided in Treas. Reg. 1.409A-3(i)(5)(iii) as in effect on January 1, 2009.
(Q)(S) "Management company" means an organization retained by a casino operator to manage a casino facility and provide services such as accounting, general administration, maintenance, recruitment, and other operational services.
(R)(T) "Ohio law enforcement training fund" means the state law enforcement training fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(f) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used to enhance public safety by providing additional training opportunities to the law enforcement community.
(S)(U) "Person" includes, but is not limited to, an individual or a combination of individuals; a sole proprietorship, a firm, a company, a joint venture, a partnership of any type, a joint-stock company, a corporation of any type, a corporate subsidiary of any type, a limited liability company, a business trust, or any other business entity or organization; an assignee; a receiver; a trustee in bankruptcy; an unincorporated association, club, society, or other unincorporated entity or organization; entities that are disregarded for federal income tax purposes; and any other nongovernmental, artificial, legal entity that is capable of engaging in business.
(T)(V) "Problem casino gambling and addictions fund" means the state problem gambling and addictions fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, the money in which shall be used for treatment of problem gambling and substance abuse, and for related research.
(U)(W) "Promotional gaming credit" means a slot machine or table game credit, discount, or other similar item issued to a patron to enable the placement of, or increase in, a wager at a slot machine or table game.
(V)(X) "Slot machine" means any mechanical, electrical, or other device or machine which, upon insertion of a coin, token, ticket, or similar object, or upon payment of any consideration, is available to play or operate, the play or operation of which, whether by reason of the skill of the operator or application of the element of chance, or both, makes individual prize determinations for individual participants in cash, premiums, merchandise, tokens, or any thing of value, whether the payoff is made automatically from the machine or in any other manner.
(W)(Y) "Table game" means any game played with cards, dice, or any mechanical, electromechanical, or electronic device or machine for money, casino credit, or any representative of value. "Table game" does not include slot machines.
(X)(Z) "Upfront license" means the first plenary license issued to a casino operator.
(Y)(AA) "Voluntary exclusion program" means a program provided by the commission that allows persons to voluntarily exclude themselves from the gaming areas of facilities under the jurisdiction of the commission by placing their name on a voluntary exclusion list and following the procedures set forth by the commission.
Sec. 3772.04. (A)(1) If, as the result of an investigation, the commission concludes that a license or finding required by this chapter should be limited, conditioned, or restricted, or suspended or revoked, the commission shall conduct After notice and opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the commission may limit, condition, restrict, suspend, revoke, deny, or not renew a license under rules adopted by the commission. The commission may reopen a licensing adjudication at any time.
(2) The commission shall appoint a hearing examiner to conduct the hearing in the adjudication. A party to the adjudication may file written objections to the hearing examiner's report and recommendations not later than the thirtieth day after they are served upon the party or the party's attorney or other representative of record. The commission shall not take up the hearing examiner's report and recommendations earlier than the thirtieth day after the hearing examiner's report and recommendations were submitted to the commission.
(3) If the commission finds that a person fails or has failed to meet any requirement under this chapter or a rule adopted thereunder, or violates or has violated this chapter or a rule adopted thereunder, the commission may issue an order:
(a) Limiting, conditioning, or restricting, or suspending or, revoking, denying, or not renewing, a license issued under this chapter;
(b) Limiting, conditioning, or restricting, or suspending or revoking, a finding made under this chapter;
(c) Requiring a casino facility to exclude a licensee from the casino facility or requiring a casino facility not to pay to the licensee any remuneration for services or any share of profits, income, or accruals on the licensee's investment in the casino facility; or
(d)(c) Fining a licensee or other person according to the penalties adopted by the commission.
(4) An order may be judicially reviewed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code.
(B) Without in any manner limiting the authority of the commission to impose the level and type of discipline the commission considers appropriate, the commission may take into consideration the following:
(1) If the licensee knew or reasonably should have known that the action complained of was a violation of any law, rule, or condition on the licensee's license;
(2) If the licensee has previously been disciplined by the commission;
(3) If the licensee has previously been subject to discipline by the commission concerning the violation of any law, rule, or condition of the licensee's license;
(4) If the licensee reasonably relied upon professional advice from a lawyer, doctor, accountant, or other recognized professional that was relevant to the action resulting in the violation;
(5) If the licensee or the licensee's employer had a reasonably constituted and functioning compliance program;
(6) If the imposition of a condition requiring the licensee to establish and implement a written self-enforcement and compliance program would assist in ensuring the licensee's future compliance with all statutes, rules, and conditions of the license;
(7) If the licensee realized a pecuniary gain from the violation;
(8) If the amount of any fine or other penalty imposed would result in disgorgement of any gains unlawfully realized by the licensee;
(9) If the violation was caused by an officer or employee of the licensee, the level of authority of the individual who caused the violation;
(10) If the individual who caused the violation acted within the scope of the individual's authority as granted by the licensee;
(11) The adequacy of any training programs offered by the licensee or the licensee's employer that were relevant to the activity that resulted in the violation;
(12) If the licensee's action substantially deviated from industry standards and customs;
(13) The extent to which the licensee cooperated with the commission during the investigation of the violation;
(14) If the licensee has initiated remedial measures to prevent similar violations;
(15) The magnitude of penalties imposed on other licensees for similar violations;
(16) The proportionality of the penalty in relation to the misconduct;
(17) The extent to which the amount of any fine imposed would punish the licensee for the conduct and deter future violations;
(18) Any mitigating factors offered by the licensee; and
(19) Any other factors the commission considers relevant.
(C) For the purpose of conducting any study or investigation, the commission may direct that public hearings be held at a time and place, prescribed by the commission, in accordance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code. The commission shall give notice of all public hearings in such manner as will give actual notice to all interested parties.
(C)(D) In the discharge of any duties imposed by this chapter, the commission may require that testimony be given under oath and administer such oath, issue subpoenas compelling the attendance of witnesses and the production of any papers, books, and accounts, and cause the deposition of any witness. In the event of the refusal of any person without good cause to comply with the terms of a subpoena issued by the commission or refusal to testify on matters about which the person may lawfully be questioned, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which such person resides, upon the petition of the commission, may bring a proceeding for contempt against such person in the court of common pleas of that county.
(D)(E) When conducting a public hearing, the commission shall not limit the number of speakers who may testify. However, the commission may set reasonable time limits on the length of an individual's testimony or the total amount of time allotted to proponents and opponents of an issue before the commission.
(E) An administrative law judge appointed by the commission may conduct a hearing under this chapter and recommend findings of fact and decisions to the commission.
(F) The commission may rely, in whole or in part, upon investigations, conclusions, or findings of other casino gaming commissions or other government regulatory bodies in connection with licensing, investigations, or other matters relating to an applicant or licensee under this chapter.
Sec. 3772.07.  The following appointing or licensing authorities shall obtain a criminal records check of the person who is to be appointed or licensed:
(A) The governor, before appointing an individual as a member of the commission;
(B) The commission, before appointing an individual as executive director or a gaming agent;
(C) The commission, before issuing a license for a key employee or casino gaming employee, and before issuing a license for each investor, except an institutional investor, for a casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor;
(D) The executive director, before appointing an individual as a professional, technical, or clerical employee of the commission.
Thereafter, such an appointing or licensing authority shall obtain a criminal records check of the same individual at three-year intervals.
The appointing or licensing authority shall provide to each person of whom a criminal records check is required a copy of the form and the standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall complete the form and impression sheet and return them to the appointing or licensing authority. If a person fails to complete and return the form and impression sheet within a reasonable time, the person is ineligible to be appointed or licensed or to continue in the appointment or licensure.
The appointing or licensing authority shall forward the completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation. The appointing or licensing authority shall request the superintendent also to obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation, including fingerprint-based checks of the national crime information databases, and from other states and the federal government under the national crime prevention and privacy compact as part of the criminal records check.
The commission shall pay the fee the bureau of criminal identification and investigation charges for all criminal records checks conducted under this section. An applicant for a casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor license shall reimburse the commission for the amount of the fee paid on the applicant's behalf. An applicant for a key employee or casino gaming employee license shall reimburse the commission for the amount of the fee paid on the applicant's behalf, unless the applicant is applying at the request of a casino operator or management company, in which case the casino operator or management company shall reimburse the commission.
The appointing or licensing authority shall review the results of a criminal records check. An appointee for a commission member shall forward the results of the criminal records check to the president of the senate before the senate advises and consents to the appointment of the commission member. The appointing or licensing authority shall not appoint or license or retain the appointment or licensure of a person a criminal records check discloses has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty or no contest to a disqualifying offense. A "disqualifying offense" means any gambling offense, any theft offense, any offense having an element of fraud or misrepresentation, any offense having an element of moral turpitude, and any felony not otherwise included in the foregoing list, except as otherwise provided in section 3772.10 of the Revised Code.
The report of a criminal records check is not a public record that is open to public inspection and copying. The commission shall not make the report available to any person other than the person who was the subject of the criminal records check; an appointing or licensing authority; a member, the executive director, or an employee of the commission; or any court or agency, including a hearing examiner, in a judicial or administrative proceeding relating to the person's employment with the entity requesting the criminal records check in which the criminal records check is relevant.
Sec. 3772.091. (A) No A casino operator license issued under this chapter is transferable subject to approval by the commission. New majority ownership interest or Any change or transfer of control of a casino operator shall require a new license commission approval. The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at any time. A significant Any change in or transfer of control of a casino operator, as determined by the commission, shall require the filing of an application for a new transferring the casino operator license and submission of a license an application fee with the commission before any such change or transfer of control is may be approved. A change in or transfer of control to an immediate family member is not considered a significant change under this section Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant a reasonable fee in the amount necessary to review the application for the transfer of a casino operator license to the applicant. In determining whether to approve the transfer of a casino operator license to the applicant, the commission shall consider all the factors established in Chapter 3772. of the Revised Code that pertain to the granting of a casino operator license. The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at any time.
(B) As used in this section, "control" means either of the following:
(1) Either:
(a) Holding fifty thirty per cent or more of the outstanding voting securities of a licensee; or
(b) For an unincorporated licensee, having the right to fifty thirty per cent or more of the profits of the licensee, or having the right in the event of dissolution to fifty thirty per cent or more of the assets of the licensee.
(2) Having the contractual power presently to designate fifty thirty per cent or more of the directors of a for-profit or not-for-profit corporation, or in the case of trusts described in paragraphs (c)(3) to (5) of 16 C.F.R. 801.1, the trustees of such a trust.
Sec. 3772.10. (A) In determining whether to grant or maintain the privilege of a casino operator, management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related vendor license, the Ohio casino control commission shall consider all of the following, as applicable:
(1) The reputation, experience, and financial integrity of the applicant, its holding company, if applicable, and any other person that directly or indirectly controls the applicant;
(2) The financial ability of the applicant to purchase and maintain adequate liability and casualty insurance and to provide an adequate surety bond;
(3) The past and present compliance of the applicant and its affiliates or affiliated companies with casino-related licensing requirements in this state or any other jurisdiction, including whether the applicant has a history of noncompliance with the casino licensing requirements of any jurisdiction;
(4) If the applicant has been indicted, convicted, pleaded guilty or no contest, or forfeited bail concerning any criminal offense under the laws of any jurisdiction, either felony or misdemeanor, not including traffic violations;
(5) If the applicant has filed, or had filed against it a proceeding for bankruptcy or has ever been involved in any formal process to adjust, defer, suspend, or otherwise work out the payment of any debt;
(6) If the applicant has been served with a complaint or other notice filed with any public body regarding a payment of any tax required under federal, state, or local law that has been delinquent for one or more years;
(7) If the applicant is or has been a defendant in litigation involving its business practices;
(8) If awarding a license would undermine the public's confidence in the casino gaming industry in this state;
(9) If the applicant meets other standards for the issuance of a license that the commission adopts by rule, which shall not be arbitrary, capricious, or contradictory to the expressed provisions of this chapter.
(B) All applicants for a license under this chapter shall establish their suitability for a license by clear and convincing evidence. If the commission determines that a person is eligible under this chapter to be issued a license as a casino operator, management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related vendor, the commission shall issue such license for not more than three years, as determined by commission rule, if all other requirements of this chapter have been satisfied.
(C) The commission shall not issue a casino operator, management company, holding company, key employee, casino gaming employee, or gaming-related vendor license under this chapter to an applicant if:
(1) The applicant has been convicted of a disqualifying offense, as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.
(2) The applicant has submitted an application for license under this chapter that contains false information.
(3) The applicant is a commission member.
(4) The applicant owns an ownership interest that is unlawful under this chapter, unless waived by the commission.
(5) The applicant violates specific rules adopted by the commission related to denial of licensure.
(6) The applicant is a member of or employed by a gaming regulatory body of a governmental unit in this state, another state, or the federal government, or is employed by a governmental unit of this state. This division does not prohibit a casino operator from hiring special duty law enforcement officers if the officers are not specifically involved in gaming-related regulatory functions.
(7) The commission otherwise determines the applicant is ineligible for the license.
(D)(1) The commission shall investigate the qualifications of each applicant under this chapter before any license is issued and before any finding with regard to acts or transactions for which commission approval is required is made. The commission shall continue to observe the conduct of all licensees and all other persons having a material involvement directly or indirectly with a casino operator, management company, or holding company to ensure that licenses are not issued to or held by, or that there is not any material involvement with a casino operator, management company, or holding company by, an unqualified, disqualified, or unsuitable person or a person whose operations are conducted in an unsuitable manner or in unsuitable or prohibited places or locations.
(2) The executive director may recommend to the commission that it deny any application, or limit, condition, or restrict, or suspend or revoke, any license or finding, or impose any fine upon any licensee or other person according to this chapter and the rules adopted thereunder.
(3) A license issued under this chapter is a revocable privilege. No licensee has a vested right in or under any license issued under this chapter. The initial determination of the commission to deny, or to limit, condition, or restrict, a license may be appealed under section 2505.03 of the Revised Code.
(E)(1) An institutional investor otherwise required to shall be found to be suitable or qualified by the commission under this chapter and the rules adopted under this chapter. An institutional investor shall be presumed suitable or qualified upon submitting documentation sufficient to establish qualifications as an institutional investor and upon certifying all of the following:
(a) The institutional investor owns, holds, or controls publicly traded securities issued by a licensee or holding, intermediate, or parent company of a licensee or in the ordinary course of business for investment purposes only.
(b) The institutional investor does not exercise influence over the affairs of the issuer of such securities nor over any licensed subsidiary of the issuer of such securities.
(c) The institutional investor does not intend to exercise influence over the affairs of the issuer of such securities, nor over any licensed subsidiary of the issuer of such securities, in the future, and that it agrees to notify the commission in writing within thirty days if such intent changes.
(2) The exercise of voting privileges with regard to publicly traded securities shall not be deemed to constitute the exercise of influence over the affairs of a licensee.
(3) The commission shall rescind the presumption of suitability for an institutional investor at any time if the institutional investor exercises or intends to exercise influence or control over the affairs of the licensee.
(4) This division shall not be construed to preclude the commission from requesting information from or investigating the suitability or qualifications of an institutional investor if the:
(a) The commission becomes aware of facts or information that may result in the institutional investor being found unsuitable or disqualified; or
(b) The commission has any other reason to seek information from the investor to determine whether it qualifies as an institutional investor.
(5) If the commission finds an institutional investor to be unsuitable or unqualified, the commission shall so notify the investor and the casino operator, holding company, management company, or gaming-related vendor licensee in which the investor invested. The commission shall allow the investor and the licensee a reasonable amount of time, as specified by the commission on a case-by-case basis, to cure the conditions that caused the commission to find the investor unsuitable or unqualified. If during the specified period of time the investor or the licensee does not or cannot cure the conditions that caused the commission to find the investor unsuitable or unqualified, the commission may allow the investor or licensee more time to cure the conditions or the commission may begin proceedings to deny, suspend, or revoke the license of the casino operator, holding company, management company, or gaming-related vendor in which the investor invested or to deny any of the same the renewal of any such license.
(6) A private licensee or holding company shall provide the same information to the commission as a public company would provide in a form 13d or form 13g filing to the securities and exchange commission.
(F) Information provided on the application shall be used as a basis for a thorough background investigation of each applicant. A false or incomplete application is cause for denial of a license by the commission. All applicants and licensees shall consent to inspections, searches, and seizures and to the disclosure to the commission and its agents of confidential records, including tax records, held by any federal, state, or local agency, credit bureau, or financial institution and to provide handwriting exemplars, photographs, fingerprints, and information as authorized in this chapter and in rules adopted by the commission.
Sec. 3772.13. (A) No person may be employed as a key employee unless the person is the holder of a valid key employee license issued by the commission. A gaming-related vendor and a key employee of that gaming-related vendor are exempt from this requirement during the first sixty days of the key employee's employment with the gaming-related vendor.
(B) Each applicant shall, before the issuance of any key employee license, produce information, documentation, and assurances as are required by this chapter and rules adopted thereunder. In addition, each applicant shall, in writing, authorize the examination of all bank accounts and records as may be deemed necessary by the commission.
(C) To be eligible for a key employee license, the applicant shall be at least twenty-one years of age and shall meet the criteria set forth by rule by the commission.
(D) Each application for a key employee license shall be on a form prescribed by the commission and shall contain all information required by the commission. The applicant shall set forth in the application if the applicant has been issued prior gambling-related licenses; if the applicant has been licensed in any other state under any other name, and, if so, the name under which the license was issued and the applicant's age at the time the license was issued; any criminal conviction the applicant has had; and if a permit or license issued to the applicant in any other state has been suspended, restricted, or revoked, and, if so, the cause and the duration of each action.
(E) Each applicant shall submit with each application, on a form provided by the commission, two sets of fingerprints and a photograph. The commission shall charge each applicant an application fee set by the commission to cover all actual costs generated by each licensee and all background checks under this section and section 3772.07 of the Revised Code.
(F)(1) The casino operator, management company, or holding company by whom a person is employed as a key employee shall terminate the person's employment in any capacity requiring a license under this chapter and shall not in any manner permit the person to exercise a significant influence over the operation of a casino facility if:
(a) The person does not apply for and receive a key employee license within three months of being issued a provisional license, as established under commission rule.
(b) The person's application for a key employee license is denied by the commission.
(c) The person's key employee license is revoked by the commission.
The commission shall notify the casino operator, management company, or holding company who employs such a person by certified mail of any such finding, denial, or revocation.
(2) A casino operator, management company, or holding company shall not pay to a person whose employment is terminated under division (F)(1) of this section, any remuneration for any services performed in any capacity in which the person is required to be licensed, except for amounts due for services rendered before notice was received under that division. A contract or other agreement for personal services or for the conduct of any casino gaming at a casino facility between a casino operator, management company, or holding company and a person whose employment is terminated under division (F)(1) of this section may be terminated by the casino operator, management company, or holding company without further liability on the part of the casino operator, management company, or holding company. Any such contract or other agreement is deemed to include a term authorizing its termination without further liability on the part of the casino operator, management company, or holding company upon receiving notice under division (F)(1) of this section. That a contract or other agreement does not expressly include such a term is not a defense in any action brought to terminate the contract or other agreement, and is not grounds for relief in any action brought questioning termination of the contract or other agreement.
(3) A casino operator, management company, or holding company, without having obtained the prior approval of the commission, shall not enter into any contract or other agreement with a person who has been found unsuitable, who has been denied a license, or whose license has been revoked under division (F)(1) of this section, or with any business enterprise under the control of such a person, after the date on which the casino operator, management company, or holding company receives notice under that division.
Sec. 3772.16. (A) Any information concerning the following submitted, collected, or gathered as part of an application to the commission for a license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to disclosure by any state agency or political subdivision as a record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code:
(1) A minor child of an applicant;
(2) The social security number, passport number, or federal tax identification number of an applicant or the spouse of an applicant;
(3) The home address and telephone number of an applicant or the spouse or children dependent of an applicant;
(4) An applicant's birth certificate;
(5) The driver's license number of an applicant or the applicant's spouse;
(6) The name or address of a previous spouse of the applicant;
(7) The date of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an applicant;
(8) The place of birth of the applicant and the spouse of an applicant;
(9) The personal financial information and records of an applicant or of an employee or the spouse or minor child dependent of an applicant, including tax returns and information, and records of criminal proceedings;
(10) Any information concerning a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking;
(11) The electronic mail address of the spouse or family member of the applicant;
(12) An applicant's home addresses; and
(13) Any trade secret, medical records, and patents or exclusive licenses;
(13) Security information, including risk prevention plans, detection and countermeasures, location of count rooms or other money storage areas, emergency management plans, security and surveillance plans, equipment and usage protocols, and theft and fraud prevention plans and countermeasures.
(B) Notwithstanding any other law, upon written request from a person, the commission shall provide the following information to the person except as provided in this chapter:
(1) The information provided under this chapter concerning a licensee or an applicant;
(2) The amount of the wagering tax and admission tax paid daily to the state by a licensed applicant or an operating agent; and
(3) A copy of a letter providing the reasons for the denial of an applicant's license or an operating agent's contract and a copy of a letter providing the reasons for the commission's refusal to allow an applicant to withdraw the applicant's application, but with confidential information redacted if that information is the reason for the denial or refusal to withdraw.
(C) In addition to information that is confidential under division (A) of this section, medical records, trade secrets, patents or exclusive licenses, and marketing materials maintained by the commission concerning a person who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.
(D) The individual's name, the individual's place of employment, the individual's job title, and the individual's gaming experience that is provided for an individual who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is not confidential. The reason for denial or revocation of a license or for disciplinary action against the individual and information submitted by the individual for a felony waiver request is not confidential.
(E)(D) An individual who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter may waive the confidentiality requirements of division (A) of this section.
(E) Confidential information received by the commission from another jurisdiction relating to a person who holds, held, or has applied for a license under this chapter is confidential and not subject to disclosure as a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. The commission may share the information referenced in this division with, or disclose the information to, the inspector general, any appropriate prosecuting authority, any law enforcement agency, or any other appropriate governmental or licensing agency, if the agency that receives the information complies with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the commission must comply.
Sec. 3772.17. (A) The upfront license fee to obtain a license as a casino operator shall be fifty million dollars per casino facility, which and shall be paid upon each initial casino operator's filing of its casino operator license application with the commission. The upfront license fee, once paid to the commission, shall be deposited into the economic development programs fund, which is created in the state treasury. New casino operator, management company, and holding company license and renewal license fees shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. The fee charged by this division shall not be assessed on the transfer of a casino operator license to a new casino operator if approved by the commission as set forth in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code.
(B) The fee to obtain an application for a casino operator, management company, or holding company license shall be one million five hundred thousand dollars per application. The fee charged by this division shall apply to the application to transfer a casino operator license to a new casino operator as set forth in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code. The application fee shall be deposited into the casino control commission fund. The application fee is nonrefundable.
(C) The license fees for a gaming-related vendor shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant a reasonable fee in the amount necessary to process a gaming-related vendor license application.
(D) The license fees for a key employee shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. Additionally, the commission may assess an applicant a reasonable fee in the amount necessary to process a key employee license application. If the license is being sought at the request of a casino operator, such fees shall be paid by the casino operator.
(E) The license fees for a casino gaming employee shall be set by rule, subject to the review of the joint committee on gaming and wagering. If the license is being sought at the request of a casino operator, the fee shall be paid by the casino operator.
Sec. 3772.28. (A) A licensed casino operator shall not enter into a debt transaction without the approval of the commission. The licensed casino operator shall submit, in writing, a request for approval of a debt transaction that contains at least the following information:
(1) The names and addresses of all parties to the debt transaction;
(2) The amount of the funds involved;
(3) The type of debt transaction;
(4) The source of the funds to be obtained;
(5) All sources of collateral;
(6) The purpose of the debt transaction;
(7) The terms of the debt transaction;
(8) Any other information deemed necessary by the commission.
(B) As used in this section, "debt transaction" means a transaction by a licensed casino operator concerning a casino facility totaling five hundred thousand dollars or more in which a licensed casino operator acquires debt, including bank financing, private debt offerings, and any other transaction that results in the encumbrance of assets.
(C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, a licensed casino operator may enter into one or more debt transactions with affiliated companies provided the aggregate amount of all such debt transactions at any one time does not exceed ten million dollars. When a licensed casino operator intends to enter into such a debt transaction with an affiliated company, the licensed casino operator shall provide immediate notification, in writing, to the commission. The commission is entitled to require prior approval of the debt transaction if the commission provides notice to the licensed casino operator within seven days after receiving the notification. In determining whether to approve such a debt transaction, the commission may require the licensed casino operator to submit the information specified in division (A) of this section. The commission may adopt rules governing its review and approval of such debt transactions. For the purposes of this division, "affiliated companies" means any holding company or institutional investor or any individual, partnership, corporation, association, trust, or any other group of individuals, however organized, which directly or indirectly owns, has the power or right to control, or holds with the power to vote, an ownership interest in a licensed casino operator.
Sec. 3772.99.  (A) The commission shall levy and collect penalties for noncriminal violations of this chapter. Moneys collected from such penalty levies shall be credited to the general revenue fund.
(B) If a licensed casino operator, management company, holding company, gaming-related vendor, or key employee violates this chapter or engages in a fraudulent act, the commission may suspend or revoke the license and may do either or both of the following:
(1) Suspend, revoke, or restrict the casino gaming operations of a casino operator;
(2) Require the removal of a management company, key employee, or discontinuance of services from a gaming-related vendor.
(C) The commission shall impose civil penalties against a person who violates this chapter under the penalties adopted by commission rule and reviewed by the joint committee on gaming and wagering.
(D) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the following commits a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony of the fifth degree for a subsequent offense:
(1) Makes a false statement on an application submitted under this chapter;
(2) Permits a person less than twenty-one years of age to make a wager;
(3) Aids, induces, or causes a person less than twenty-one years of age who is not an employee of the casino gaming operation to enter or attempt to enter a casino facility;
(4) Enters or attempts to enter a casino facility while under twenty-one years of age, unless the person enters a designated area as described in section 3772.24 of the Revised Code;
(5) Wagers or accepts a wager at a location other than a casino facility;
(6) Is a casino operator or employee and participates in casino gaming other than as part of operation or employment.
(E) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the following commits a felony of the fifth degree on a first offense and a felony of the fourth degree for a subsequent offense. If the person is a licensee under this chapter, the commission shall revoke the person's license after the first offense.
(1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit to a person who is connected with the casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor, including their officers and employees, under an agreement to influence or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to whom the offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a commission member;
(2) Solicits, accepts, or receives a promise of anything of value or benefit while the person is connected with a casino, including an officer or employee of a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor, under an agreement to influence or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a commission member;
(3) Uses or possesses with the intent to use a device to assist in projecting the outcome of the casino game, keeping track of the cards played, analyzing the probability of the occurrence of an event relating to the casino game, or analyzing the strategy for playing or betting to be used in the casino game, except as permitted by the commission;
(4)(2) Cheats at a casino game;
(5)(3) Manufactures, sells, or distributes any cards, chips, dice, game, or device that is intended to be used to violate this chapter;
(6)(4) Alters or misrepresents the outcome of a casino game on which wagers have been made after the outcome is made sure but before the outcome is revealed to the players;
(7)(5) Places, increases, or decreases a wager on the outcome of a casino game after acquiring knowledge that is not available to all players and concerns the outcome of the casino game that is the subject of the wager;
(8)(6) Aids a person in acquiring the knowledge described in division (E)(7)(5) of this section for the purpose of placing, increasing, or decreasing a wager contingent on the outcome of a casino game;
(9)(7) Claims, collects, takes, or attempts to claim, collect, or take money or anything of value in or from a casino game with the intent to defraud or without having made a wager contingent on winning a casino game;
(10)(8) Claims, collects, or takes an amount of money or thing of value of greater value than the amount won in a casino game;
(11)(9) Uses or possesses counterfeit chips or, tokens, or cashless wagering instruments in or for use in a casino game;
(12)(10) Possesses a key or device designed for opening, entering, or affecting the operation of a casino game, drop box, or an electronic or a mechanical device connected with the casino game or removing coins, tokens, chips, or other contents of a casino game. This division does not apply to a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor or their agents and employees in the course of agency or employment.
(13)(11) Possesses materials used to manufacture a slug or device intended to be used in a manner that violates this chapter;
(14)(12) Operates a casino gaming operation in which wagering is conducted or is to be conducted in a manner other than the manner required under this chapter.
(F) The possession of more than one of the devices described in division (E)(11)(9), (12)(10), or (13)(11) of this section creates a rebuttable presumption that the possessor intended to use the devices for cheating.
(G) A person who knowingly or intentionally does any of the following commits a felony of the third degree. If the person is a licensee under this chapter, the commission shall revoke the person's license after the first offense. A public servant or party official who is convicted under this division is forever disqualified from holding any public office, employment, or position of trust in this state.
(1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit to a person who is connected with the casino operator, management company, holding company, or gaming-related vendor, including their officers and employees, under an agreement to influence or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to whom the offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a commission member, agent, or employee;
(2) Solicits, accepts, or receives a promise of anything of value or benefit while the person is connected with a casino, including an officer or employee of a casino operator, management company, or gaming-related vendor, under an agreement to influence or with the intent to influence the actions of the person to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a casino game or an official action of a commission member, agent, or employee;
(H) A person who is convicted of a felony described in this chapter may be barred for life from entering a casino facility by the commission.
Sec. 5503.02.  (A) The state highway patrol shall enforce the laws of the state relating to the titling, registration, and licensing of motor vehicles; enforce on all roads and highways, notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code, the laws relating to the operation and use of vehicles on the highways; enforce and prevent the violation of the laws relating to the size, weight, and speed of commercial motor vehicles and all laws designed for the protection of the highway pavements and structures on the highways; investigate and enforce rules and laws of the public utilities commission governing the transportation of persons and property by motor carriers and report violations of such rules and laws to the commission; enforce against any motor transportation company as defined in section 4921.02 of the Revised Code, any contract carrier by motor vehicle as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code, any private motor carrier as defined in section 4923.20 of the Revised Code, and any motor carrier as defined in section 4919.75 of the Revised Code those rules and laws that, if violated, may result in a forfeiture as provided in section 4905.83, 4919.99, 4921.99, or 4923.99 of the Revised Code; investigate and report violations of all laws relating to the collection of excise taxes on motor vehicle fuels; and regulate the movement of traffic on the roads and highways of the state, notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code.
The state highway patrol shall have jurisdiction to enforce the laws of this state at any casino facility, as defined in Section 6(C) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution.
The patrol, whenever possible, shall determine the identity of the persons who are causing or who are responsible for the breaking, damaging, or destruction of any improved surfaced roadway, structure, sign, marker, guardrail, or other appurtenance constructed or maintained by the department of transportation and shall arrest the persons who are responsible for the breaking, damaging, or destruction and bring them before the proper officials for prosecution.
State highway patrol troopers shall investigate and report all motor vehicle accidents on all roads and highways outside of municipal corporations. The superintendent of the patrol or any state highway patrol trooper may arrest, without a warrant, any person, who is the driver of or a passenger in any vehicle operated or standing on a state highway, whom the superintendent or trooper has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of a felony, under the same circumstances and with the same power that any peace officer may make such an arrest.
The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may enforce the criminal laws on all state properties and state institutions, owned or leased by the state, and, when so ordered by the governor in the event of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, may, pursuant to sections 2935.03 to 2935.05 of the Revised Code, arrest offenders against the criminal laws wherever they may be found within the state if the violations occurred upon, or resulted in injury to person or property on, state properties or state institutions, or under the conditions described in division (B) of this section.
(B) In the event of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, or the reasonable threat of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, and upon request, as provided in this section, of the sheriff of a county or the mayor or other chief executive of a municipal corporation, the governor may order the state highway patrol to enforce the criminal laws within the area threatened by riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, as designated by the governor, upon finding that law enforcement agencies within the counties involved will not be reasonably capable of controlling the riot, civil disorder, or insurrection and that additional assistance is necessary. In cities in which the sheriff is under contract to provide exclusive police services pursuant to section 311.29 of the Revised Code, in villages, and in the unincorporated areas of the county, the sheriff has exclusive authority to request the use of the patrol. In cities in which the sheriff does not exclusively provide police services, the mayor, or other chief executive performing the duties of mayor, has exclusive authority to request the use of the patrol.
The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may enforce the criminal laws within the area designated by the governor during the emergency arising out of the riot, civil disorder, or insurrection until released by the governor upon consultation with the requesting authority. State highway patrol troopers shall never be used as peace officers in connection with any strike or labor dispute.
When a request for the use of the patrol is made pursuant to this division, the requesting authority shall notify the law enforcement authorities in contiguous communities and the sheriff of each county within which the threatened area, or any part of the threatened area, lies of the request, but the failure to notify the authorities or a sheriff shall not affect the validity of the request.
(C) Any person who is arrested by the superintendent or a state highway patrol trooper shall be taken before any court or magistrate having jurisdiction of the offense with which the person is charged. Any person who is arrested or apprehended within the limits of a municipal corporation shall be brought before the municipal court or other tribunal of the municipal corporation.
(D)(1) State highway patrol troopers have the same right and power of search and seizure as other peace officers.
No state official shall command, order, or direct any state highway patrol trooper to perform any duty or service that is not authorized by law. The powers and duties conferred on the patrol are supplementary to, and in no way a limitation on, the powers and duties of sheriffs or other peace officers of the state.
(2)(a) A state highway patrol trooper, pursuant to the policy established by the superintendent of the state highway patrol under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, may render emergency assistance to any other peace officer who has arrest authority under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code, if both of the following apply:
(i) There is a threat of imminent physical danger to the peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any other serious emergency situation;
(ii) Either the peace officer requests emergency assistance, or it appears that the peace officer is unable to request emergency assistance and the circumstances observed by the state highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency assistance is appropriate, or the peace officer requests emergency assistance and in the request the peace officer specifies a particular location and the state highway patrol trooper arrives at that location prior to the time that the peace officer arrives at that location and the circumstances observed by the state highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency assistance is appropriate.
(b) The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall establish, within sixty days of August 8, 1991, a policy that sets forth the manner and procedures by which a state highway patrol trooper may render emergency assistance to any other peace officer under division (D)(2)(a) of this section. The policy shall include a provision that a state highway patrol trooper never be used as a peace officer in connection with any strike or labor dispute.
(3)(a) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section shall be considered to be performing regular employment for the purposes of compensation, pension, indemnity fund rights, workers' compensation, and other rights or benefits to which the trooper may be entitled as incident to regular employment.
(b) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section retains personal immunity from liability as specified in section 9.86 of the Revised Code.
(c) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency assistance under the policy established by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section has the same authority as the peace officer for or with whom the state highway patrol trooper is providing emergency assistance.
(E)(1) Subject to the availability of funds specifically appropriated by the general assembly for security detail purposes, the state highway patrol shall provide security as follows:
(a) For the governor;
(b) At the direction of the governor, for other officials of the state government of this state; officials of the state governments of other states who are visiting this state; officials of the United States government who are visiting this state; officials of the governments of foreign countries or their political subdivisions who are visiting this state; or other officials or dignitaries who are visiting this state, including, but not limited to, members of trade missions;
(c) For the capitol square, as defined in section 105.41 of the Revised Code;
(d) For other state property.
(2) To carry out the security responsibilities of the patrol listed in division (E)(1) of this section, the superintendent may assign state highway patrol troopers to a separate unit that is responsible for security details. The number of troopers assigned to particular security details shall be determined by the superintendent.
(3) The superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper, when providing security pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, have the same arrest powers as other peace officers to apprehend offenders against the criminal laws who endanger or threaten the security of any person being protected, no matter where the offense occurs.
The superintendent, any state highway patrol trooper, and any special police officer designated under section 5503.09 of the Revised Code, when providing security pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of this section, shall enforce any rules governing capitol square adopted by the capitol square review and advisory board.
(F) The governor may order the state highway patrol to undertake major criminal investigations that involve state property interests. If an investigation undertaken pursuant to this division results in either the issuance of a no bill or the filing of an indictment, the superintendent shall file a complete and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of representatives within fifteen days after the issuance of the no bill or the filing of an indictment. If the investigation does not have as its result any prosecutorial action, the superintendent shall, upon reporting this fact to the governor, file a complete and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of representatives.
(G) The superintendent may purchase or lease real property and buildings needed by the patrol, negotiate the sale of real property owned by the patrol, rent or lease real property owned or leased by the patrol, and make or cause to be made repairs to all property owned or under the control of the patrol. Any instrument by which real property is acquired pursuant to this division shall identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.
Sections 123.01 and 125.02 of the Revised Code do not limit the powers granted to the superintendent by this division.
Sec. 5751.01.  As used in this chapter:
(A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for federal income tax purposes, and any other entities.
(B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.
(E) "Excluded person" means any of the following:
(1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;
(2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:
(a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code;
(b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts that can be directly attributed to any activity;
(c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 5727.03 of the Revised Code.
As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 5727.01 of the Revised Code.
(3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that paid the corporation franchise tax charged by division (D) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the entire tax period under this chapter;
(4) A dealer in intangibles, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that paid the dealer in intangibles tax levied by division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;
(5) A financial holding company as defined in the "Bank Holding Company Act," 12 U.S.C. 1841(p);
(6) A bank holding company as defined in the "Bank Holding Company Act," 12 U.S.C. 1841(a);
(7) A savings and loan holding company as defined in the "Home Owners Loan Act," 12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(D) that is engaging only in activities or investments permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k);
(8) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more financial institutions, financial holding companies, bank holding companies, or savings and loan holding companies described in division (E)(3), (5), (6), or (7) of this section that is engaged in activities permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), except that any such person held pursuant to merchant banking authority under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) or 12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I) is not an excluded person, or a person directly or indirectly owned by one or more insurance companies described in division (E)(9) of this section that is authorized to do the business of insurance in this state.
For the purposes of division (E)(8) of this section, a person owns another person under the following circumstances:
(a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting rights;
(b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such interests in the company;
(c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other unincorporated business organization other than a limited liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all persons having such an interest in the organization;
(d) In the case of multiple ownership, the ownership interests of more than one person may be aggregated to meet the fifty per cent ownership tests in this division only when each such owner is described in division (E)(3), (5), (6), or (7) of this section and is engaged in activities permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k) or is a person directly or indirectly owned by one or more insurance companies described in division (E)(9) of this section that is authorized to do the business of insurance in this state.
(9) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;
(10) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more securitizations or similar transactions for any person described in division (E)(3), (5), (6), (7), (8), or (9) of this section. For purposes of this division, "securitization" means transferring one or more assets to one or more persons and then issuing securities backed by the right to receive payment from the asset or assets so transferred.
(11) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.
(12) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.
(F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total amount realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the production of gross income of the person, including the fair market value of any property and any services received, and any debt transferred or forgiven as consideration.
(1) The following are examples of gross receipts:
(a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;
(b) Amounts realized from the taxpayer's performance of services for another;
(c) Amounts realized from another's use or possession of the taxpayer's property or capital;
(d) Any combination of the foregoing amounts.
(2) "Gross receipts" excludes the following amounts:
(a) Interest income except interest on credit sales;
(b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the Revised Code;
(c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another entity is not a hedging transaction.
(d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;
(e) The principal amount received under a repurchase agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized as a loan to the person;
(f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;
(g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee reimbursement;
(h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the taxpayer's treasury stock;
(i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of business revenue;
(j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium associations; and payments received for educational courses, meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by any person when any excess receipts are donated or used exclusively for charitable purposes;
(k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross receipts;
(l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's commission, fee, or other remuneration;
(m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;
(n) Pension reversions;
(o) Contributions to capital;
(p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal tax authority;
(q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;
(r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel by a licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;
(s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;
(t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;
(u) Receipts from a financial institution described in division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, by common owners;
(v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients with cancer;
(w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage loans.
(x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the professional employer organization to the client employer;
(y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;
(z) Qualifying distribution center receipts.
(i) For purposes of division (F)(2)(z) of this section:
(I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage.
(II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by the qualified distribution center to another location in this state or elsewhere. "Further shipping" includes storing and repackaging such property into smaller or larger bundles, so long as such property is not subject to further manufacturing or processing.
(III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse or other similar facility in this state that, for the qualifying year, is operated by a person that is not part of a combined taxpayer group and that has a qualifying certificate. However, all warehouses or other similar facilities that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are located within one mile of each other shall be treated as one qualified distribution center.
(IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the qualifying certificate applies.
(V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.
(VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center files an annual application with the commissioner. The application and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified distribution center on or before the first day of September before the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the distribution center opens, whichever is later.
The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant to have an independent certified public accountant certify that the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted a qualifying certificate, provided that the operator is liable for any tax, interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the qualifying certificate was valid.
(VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the qualified distribution center during the qualifying period compared with total deliveries from such distribution center everywhere during the qualifying period.
(ii) If the distribution center is new and was not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later determined that the person that operates the distribution center had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty million dollars during that year, then the operator of the distribution center shall be liable for any tax, interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, that would have not otherwise been owed by its suppliers during the qualifying year if the qualifying certificate was valid. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified distribution center.)
(iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section.
Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the operator of the qualified distribution center shall notify the affected suppliers of qualified property that such suppliers are required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed. The supplier of tangible personal property delivered to the qualified distribution center shall include in its report of taxable gross receipts the receipts from the total sales of property delivered to the qualified distribution center for the calendar quarter or calendar year, whichever the case may be, multiplied by the Ohio delivery percentage for the qualifying year. Nothing in division (F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be construed as imposing liability on the operator of a qualified distribution center for the tax imposed by this chapter arising from any change to the Ohio delivery percentage.
(iv) In the case where the distribution center is new and not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make a good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division (F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed.
(v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A person receiving a qualifying certificate is responsible for paying the tax, interest, and penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying distribution center receipts that would not otherwise have been owed by the supplier if the qualifying certificate were available when it is later determined that the qualifying certificate should not have been issued because the statutory requirements were in fact not met.
(vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall be credited to the commercial activity tax administrative fund. The remainder of the annual application fees collected shall be distributed in the same manner required under section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.
(vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) and (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this section.
(aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;
(bb) Cash discounts allowed and taken;
(cc) Returns and allowances;
(dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. "Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt recovered;
(ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in the gross receipts of the taxpayer;
(ff) Any receipts directly attributed to providing public services pursuant to sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, or any receipts directly attributed to a transfer agreement or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.
(gg) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter is prohibited by the Constitution or laws of the United States or the Constitution of Ohio.
(hh)(i) As used in this division:
(I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(hh)(ii) of this section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment zone certified by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(hh)(ii) of this section.
(II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or controlled by the United States department of energy or its successor.
(ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or tangible personal property constituting or located within a uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(hh) of this section. The application shall include such information that the tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(hh) of this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the application or request additional information from the applicant. If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation of records under that section.
(ii) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(ii) of this section does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, "motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.
(hh)(jj) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed casino operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the casino operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.
(kk) Receipts from wagering by racetrack video lottery terminal patrons of promotional gaming credits as defined in section 3770.21 of the Revised Code.
(3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, "real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.
(4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall be changed accordingly.
(G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.
(H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any of the following applies. The person:
(1) Owns or uses a part or all of its capital in this state;
(2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this state authorizing the person to do business in this state;
(3) Has bright-line presence in this state;
(4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter under the Constitution of the United States.
(I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar year if any of the following applies. The person:
(1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight times the net annual rental charge.
(2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all of the following:
(a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;
(b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an individual under the supervision or control of the person for work done in this state; and
(c) Any amount the person pays for services performed in this state on its behalf by another.
(3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at least five hundred thousand dollars.
(4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.
(5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.
(J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.
(K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to federal income taxes.
(L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.
(M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax imposed under this chapter.
(N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the tax period is a calendar year.
(O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the tax period is a calendar quarter.
(P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, including any of the following:
(1) A person receiving a fee to sell financial instruments;
(2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to another person;
(3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 1533.13 of the Revised Code;
(4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;
(5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.
(Q) "Received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual method of accounting.
(R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a member of such a group.
Sec. 5753.01.  As used in Chapter 5753. of the Revised Code and for no other purpose under Title LVII of the Revised Code:
(A) "Casino facility" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.
(B) "Casino gaming" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.
(C) "Casino operator" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.
(D) "Gross casino revenue" means the total amount of money exchanged for the purchase of chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar objects by casino patrons, less winnings paid to wagerers. "Gross casino revenue" does not include the:
(1) The issuance to casino patrons or wagering by casino patrons of any promotional gaming credit as defined in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code. When issuance of the promotional gaming credit requires money exchanged as a match from the patron, the excludible portion of the promotional gaming credit does not include the portion of the wager purchased by the patron.
(2) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior tax period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the preceding and current tax periods, have been uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. "Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible amounts on property that remains in the possession of the casino operator until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt recovered.
(E) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.
(F) "Slot machine" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.
(G) "Table game" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of the Revised Code.
(H) "Tax period" means one twenty-four-hour period with regard to which a casino operator is required to pay the tax levied by this chapter.
Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds are created in the state treasury:
(1) The casino tax revenue fund;
(2) The gross casino revenue county fund;
(3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;
(4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;
(5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;
(6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;
(7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;
(8) The casino control commission fund;
(9) The casino tax administration fund.
(B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.
(C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.
(D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:
(1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution;
(2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution;
(3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are located;
(4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund to support horse racing in this state at which the pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted;
(5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to support law enforcement functions in the state;
(6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and addictions fund to support efforts to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse and related research in the state;
(7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code.
Payments under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be made by the end of the month following the end of the quarterly period. The tax commissioner shall make the data available to the director of budget and management for this purpose.
Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute eighty-five per cent of the money to the Ohio peace officer training academy and fifteen per cent of the money to the division of criminal justice services.
(E)(1) The tax commissioner shall serve as an agent of the counties of this state only for the purposes of this division and solely to make payments directly to municipal corporations and school districts, as applicable, on the counties' behalf.
(2) On or before the thirtieth day of the month following the end of each calendar quarter, the tax commissioner shall provide for payment from the funds referenced in divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section to each county, municipal corporation, and school district as prescribed in those divisions.
(F) The director of budget and management shall transfer one per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.
Section 2.  That existing sections 111.15, 122.014, 2923.31, 3301.0714, 3769.089, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.05, 3770.21, 3772.01, 3772.04, 3772.07, 3772.091, 3772.10, 3772.13, 3772.16, 3772.17, 3772.28, 3772.99, 5503.02, 5751.01, 5753.01, and 5753.03 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.
Section 3. That Section 261.20.90 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:
Sec. 261.20.90. OHIO INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS
(A) On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $20,000,000 from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development.
On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $30,000,000 from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development.
(B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Ohio Workforce Job Training, up to $20,000,000 in fiscal year 2012 and up to $30,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program. Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the appropriation item remaining at the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby appropriated for the same purpose in fiscal year 2013. The Director of Development and the Chief Investment Officer of JobsOhio may enter into an agreement to operate the program pursuant to the contract between the Department of Development and JobsOhio under section 187.04 of the Revised Code. The agreement may include a provision for granting, loaning, or transferring funds from appropriation item 195526, Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training, to JobsOhio to provide training for incumbent workers.
(C) Regardless of any agreement between the Director and the Chief Investment Officer under division (B) of this section, the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program shall conform to guidelines for the operation of the program, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;
(2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;
(3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's employer; and
(4) A requirement that an employee participating in the program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.
DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE
On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 in cash from the Economic Development Projects Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development. The transferred funds are hereby appropriated in appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance.
The foregoing appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance, shall be used for economic development programs and the creation of new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at Department of Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future base realignment and closure activities and ongoing Department of Defense efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure Department of Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, assessing and supporting regional job training and workforce development needs generated by the Department of Defense and the Ohio aerospace industry, and for expanding job training and economic development programs in human performance related initiatives. These funds shall be matched by private industry partners or the Department of Defense in an aggregate amount of $6,000,000 over the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium.
Section 4. That existing Section 261.20.90 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.
Section 5.  That Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:
Sec. 3. (A) Notwithstanding sections 3769.04 and 3769.13 of the Revised Code, for a period of two years after the effective date of this section, a permit holder who is eligible to become a video lottery sales agent may apply to the State Racing Commission to move its track to another location using the following approval procedure:
(1) The permit holder shall submit, for the consideration of the State Racing Commission in its determination on whether to approve the transfer, its proposal to the State Racing Commission and shall specify the location of the new track and the incremental economic benefits the permit holder is willing to provide to the state.
(2) The State Racing Commission shall approve or deny the transfer.
(3) The permit holder may apply to the State Lottery Commission for a video lottery sales agent license at the new track location.
(B) The State Racing Commission, subject to division (D) of this section, shall give preference to transfer proposals involving moves to locations in which neither horse-racing meetings nor casino gaming have been authorized before July 1, 2011. A permit holder that is authorized to transfer its track under this section and that is a video lottery sales agent may operate at a temporary facility at its new location while constructing or otherwise preparing its new track at that location. A permit holder that is not transferring its track and is remaining at its permitted location and that is a video lottery sales agent may operate a temporary facility at its permitted location while constructing or otherwise preparing its permanent video lottery terminal facility at its track. A temporary facility, either at a new track location or an existing track location of a track that does not transfer its track, shall meet any minimal capital investment and structure requirements established by rule by the State Racing Commission in conjunction with the State Lottery Commission.
(C) The state may discuss and negotiate with parties regarding the transferring of racing permits to new track locations and may, in its discretion, enter into agreements regarding the transfer of permits to new locations in advance of the process set forth in this section.
(D) A permit holder who is located on property owned by a political subdivision may move its track to a new location within twenty miles of its current location. Such a permit holder shall not be charged any fee by the state in exchange for applying for a move, for having its move approved, or for moving its existing track as specified under this division. The State Racing Commission shall give a preference greater than the preference given under division (B) of this section to such a permit holder as part of the approval procedure.
(E) Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code does not apply to, affect, or prohibit lotteries or video lotteries conducted under this section and Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code. The State Racing Commission may not adopt rules regarding the operation of lotteries or video lotteries conducted under Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code.
(F) The State Racing Commission may adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to effectuate this section and to establish fees to relocate tracks for applicants under this section.
(G) As used in this section:
(1) "Permit holder" means a person that has been authorized by the State Racing Commission to conduct one or more horse-racing meetings under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code.
(2) "Track" means any place, track, or enclosure where a permit holder conducts live horse racing for profit at a racing meeting. "Track" includes facilities or premises contiguous or adjacent to those places, tracks, or enclosures.
(3) "Video lottery sales agent" means a person who is a permit holder and holds a current license issued by the State Lottery Commission to assist the Commission in conducting video lotteries through the use of video lottery terminals at a track.
Section 6.  That existing Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.
Section 7.  That Section 4 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.
Section 8.  (A) The Governor is authorized to execute a deed in the name of the state conveying to Lebanon Trotting Club, Inc., and Miami Valley Trotting, Inc., the holders of pari-mutuel racing permits issued by the State Racing Commission, or to their respective successors and assigns (hereinafter collectively referred to as the "grantee"), all of the state's right, title, and interest in the following described real estate:
Situated in Turtlecreek Township, City of Lebanon, County of Warren, State of Ohio and being part of Warren County Parcel Nos. 11064000140 and 12363000030, which land is situated at the northeast corner of the intersection of State Route 63 and Union Road, and is bounded to the west by Union Road, to the south by Route 63, and to the east by a private roadway used by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction for ingress and egress from Route 63 to the Lebanon Correctional Institution's dairy barn. The northerly boundary shall be established by a survey designed to ensure that the land to be conveyed does not exceed one hundred twenty acres.
In preparing the deed, the Auditor of State, with the assistance of the Attorney General, may modify the foregoing description insofar as necessary to bring it into conformity with the actual bounds of the real estate being described.
(B) Consideration for conveyance of the real estate is four million five hundred thousand dollars.
(C) The net proceeds of the sale of the real estate shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, Fund 2000, appropriation item 501607, Ohio Penal Industries, which contains funds for expenditures on farm and agricultural uses, for which these proceeds shall be used.
(D) The grantee, following the conveyance of the real estate, and in accordance with the terms of the purchase contract, shall do all of the following:
(1) Permit the state and its successors and assigns perpetual ingress and egress rights to the culvert and roadway located along the easterly line of the real estate, which culvert and roadway are presently used by the state to access the Lebanon Correctional Institution's dairy barn. The grantee shall be responsible for all costs related to the continued maintenance of the culvert and roadway in their current condition.
(2) Create and maintain, at the grantee's sole cost, a landscape buffer zone along the perimeter of the real estate. The design, location, and materials used in the landscape buffer zone shall be approved by the state.
(3) Coordinate with the appropriate state and local authorities to improve State Route 63 with new signage and adequate turning lanes.
(E) The grantee shall not use, develop, or sell the premises such that it will interfere with the quiet enjoyment of the neighboring state-owned land.
(F)The real estate shall be sold as an entire tract and not in parcels.
(G) The grantee shall pay all costs associated with the purchase and conveyance of the real estate, which costs shall include, but are not limited to, the following: surveying costs; title costs; preparation of metes and bounds property descriptions; appraisals; environmental studies, assessments, and remediation; and deed recordation costs.
(H) The Auditor of State, with the assistance of the Attorney General, shall prepare a deed to the real estate. The deed shall state the consideration and the conditions. The deed shall be executed by the Governor in the name of the state, countersigned by the Secretary of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the State, presented in the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and delivered to the grantee. The grantee shall present the deed for recording in the Office of the Warren County Recorder.
(I) This section expires two years after its effective date.
Section 9.  (A) As used in this section:
(1) "Permit holder" means a person that has been authorized by the State Racing Commission to conduct one or more horse-racing meetings under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code.
(2) "Track" means any place, track, or enclosure where a permit holder conducts live horse racing for profit at a racing meeting. "Track" includes facilities or premises contiguous or adjacent to those places, tracks, or enclosures.
(B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Racetrack Relocation Fund. The fund shall receive any money paid to the state by horse-racing permit holders for the privilege to relocate to a new facility in accordance with Section 3 of Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by this act. Upon the allocation of all the money in the fund in accordance with this section, the fund shall cease to exist.
(C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund into which shall be deposited moneys as specified by this section and rules promulgated by the State Racing Commission. The fund shall be used for repurposing or demolishing of an abandoned horse-racing facility or reinvestment in the area, neighborhood, and community near an abandoned facility. Any remaining funds shall be transferred to the General Revenue Fund. Upon the allocation of all the money in the fund in accordance with this section, the fund shall cease to exist.
(D) The Director of Development or any successor department or agency shall oversee and administer the Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund for the purpose of the repurposing or demolishing of an abandoned horse-racing facility or reinvestment in the area, neighborhood, and community near an abandoned facility through loans and grants. The Director shall provide guidelines for racetrack facility community economic development projects in the state. Projects may include, but are not limited to, site planning, site certification, structure demolition, physical site redevelopment, relocation of utilities, or construction. Projects shall not incorporate acquisition and related expense. Moneys in the fund may be used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the Director in administering this section.
(E) The moneys in the Racetrack Relocation Fund shall be allocated to the following funds in the following amounts:
(1) Five hundred thousand dollars to the Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, to be used for research and data collection on gambling addiction issues;
(2) Not more than three million dollars to the previous community of each moved track, which shall be deposited in the Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund;
(3) The remainder to the General Revenue Fund.
(F) Communities whose permit holders did not pay to move its track to a new location are not eligible for funds in the Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund.
Section 10.  Notwithstanding any provision in law to the contrary, the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall complete a study to identify the current status of gaming addiction problems within the state. In fiscal year 2013, the Director may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the cost, not exceeding two hundred fifty thousand dollars, incurred by the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services in conducting the gaming addiction study. In response to receiving this certification, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer the cost of the study in cash to the Problem Casino and Gambling Addictions Fund (Fund 5JL0) to reimburse the fund for costs incurred in conducting the study.
Section 11.  The items of law contained in this act, and their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other items of law contained in this act and their applications that can be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.
Section 12.  Section 5751.01 of the Revised Code is presented in this act as a composite of the section as amended by both Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 277 of the 129th General Assembly. The General Assembly, applying the principle stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of simultaneous operation, finds that the composite is the resulting version of the section in effect prior to the effective date of the section as presented in this act.
Section 13.  The amendment by this act of sections 3770.02 and 5753.03 of the Revised Code are an emergency measure necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety. The reason for such necessity is the importance of not delaying casino licensing procedures and money distribution. Therefore, the amendment by this act of sections 3770.02 and 5753.03 of the Revised Code goes into immediate effect.
Please send questions and comments to the Webmaster.
© 2018 Legislative Information Systems | Disclaimer